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Students get through the TN Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 5 Hindu Undivided Family and Partnership which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 5 Hindu Undivided Family and Partnership

Very short answer questions

Question 1.
For which of the following types of business do you think a Partnership firm of organization would be more suitable and why?

1. Grocery store,
2. Medical store,
3. Legal consultancy,
4. Craft center,
5. Internet cafe,
6. chartered accountancy firm.

Answer:
For legal consultancy and chartered accountancy firm, partnership firm, will be more suitable because it has:

1. Easy of formation and closure.
2. Balanced decision-making.
3. More funds.
4. Sharing of risks.
5. Maintain secrecy.
6. Division of work.

Question 2.
Compare the status of a minor in a Joint Hindu family Business with that in a partnership firm.
Answer:
A minor becomes a member of Joint Hindu family business by virtue of his birth on the other hand in partnership minor can be a partner only in profits.

Question 3.
Who is a sub-partner?
Answer:
When a person makes an arrangement with a partner to share his profit he is known as a sub-partner. Such a sub partner has no rights against the firm as he is not liable for the debts of the firm.

Question 4.
Who is a dormant partner?
Answer:
The partners who merely contribute capital and do not take active interest in the conduct of the firm are called sleeping or dormant or financing partners.

Question 5.
When is a firm compulsorily dissolved?
Answer:
A firm is compulsorily dissolved either by the agreement of all the partners or on the insolvency of all the partners except one. It may also be dissolved on the happening of an event which makes the object of the firm unlawful. Example the passing of prohibition Act. Declaration of war with another country.

Question 6.
How is a partnership dissolved under?
Answer:
A Partnership may be dissolved under section 42 on the happening of the following contingencies.
(i) Death of a Partner.
(ii) Expiry of the time if partnership us for a fixed period.
(iii) Completion of the venture for which the firm was formed.
(iv) Adjudication of a partner as an insolvent.

Question 7.
Write a short note on partners express authority?
Answer:
The authority to a partner is expressly conferred by an agreement it is called express authority the firm is liable for all the acts of such partners done within such authority.

Question 8.
Define partnership.
Answer:
The partnership is defined as “the relation between persons who have agreed to share the profit of a business carried on by all or any of them acting for all”.

Question 9.
Who is a minor? Can a minor become a partner?
Answer:
A minor is a person who has not completed 18 years of age, where a guardian is appointed by a court, his age of majority extends to 21 years. Legally, a minor cannot become a partner. He may, however, be admitted to the benefits of partnership with the consent of all partners.

Question 10.
Give Kimball and Kimball’s definition of partnership.
Answer:
In the words of Kimball and Kimball, “A partnership or firm as it is often called, is thus a group of men who have joined capital or services for the prosecuting of some business”.

Question 11.
Under what circumstances does Court can order the dissolution of partnership?
Answer:

1. Partner’s Insanity.
2. Permanent incapacity.
3. Persistent breach of the agreement.
4. Misconduct of a partner.
5. Transfer of share.
6. Continuous loss.
7. Just and equitable grounds.

Question 12.
Write a note on dissolution by notice under Sec. 43.
Answer:
Dissolution by notice of partnership-at-will (Sec 43): Where the partnership is at will, the firm may be dissolved by any partner by giving a notice in writing to all the other partners of his intention to dissolve the firm.

Short answer questions

Question 1.
SA/hat is the relationship that exists among partners?
Answer:
The relation that exists between the partners in a partnership is said to be contractual. It is not natural relation arising out of mutual love and affection. According to Indian Partnership Act, “the relation of partnership arises from contract and not from status”. Only persons legally capable of making an agreement can become partners. Lunatics and insolvents cannot become partners.

Question 2.
What is limited partnership?
Answer:
If the liability of the partner is limited then it is called limited partnership. The Law does not permit the formation of a limited partnership in India. But in Europe and U.S.A. limited partnership is allowed. A limited partnership firm must have at least one partner whose liability is unlimited. The liability of remaining partners is limited. Thus limited partnership consists of two types of partners, general partner and limited partner.

Question 3.
What is a partnership deed?
Answer:
A partnership firm can be formed through an agreement among two or more persons.
In India, this agreement may be oral or in writing. But it is desirable to have it in writing to avoid any misunderstanding among the partners in future. All the terms and conditions of partnership are included in the agreement. The partnership agreement is also known as Partnership Deed or Articles of Partnership.

Question 4.
Define implied authority of a partner.
Answer:
An implied authority is a right vested with a partner to be used in emergency situations to protect the interest of the firm. Where there is no partnership agreement or where the agreement is silent, “the act of a partner which is done to carry on, in the usual way, business of the kind carried on by the firm, binds the firm”. [Sec. 19(1)]. The authority of a partner to bind the firm is called “implied authority”.

Question 5.
What is joint and several liability?
Answer:
The liability of partners is joint and several. The creditors of partnership firm can claim their dues from the private assets of all the partners taken together or they can take action against the private properties of any one of the partners to get back their dues.

Long answer questions

Question 1.
Explain the position of minor in the partnership firm.
Answer:
The position of a minor partner may be studied under two heads.
Position before attaining majority:

1. He has a right to share the property and profits of the firm as may have been agreed upon.
2. He has a right to have access to and inspect and take a copy of the accounts of the firm.
3. His liability is confined only to the extent . of his share in the profits and property of the firm. Over and above his capital, he is neither personally liable nor his private property is liable.

Position on attaining majority:

1. On attaining the majority the minor partner has to decide within six months by giving notice whether he shall continue in the firm or not.
2. If he decides to continue as partner, he becomes liable to the firm from the date, on which he was admitted as minor partner.
3. If he decides not to continue as partner, he is not liable for the debts of the firm after the date of notice.

Question 2.
What are the drawbacks of non-registration of partnership firm?
Answer:
Drawbacks of non-registration ofpartnership: Registration of partnership is only optional in India. But if a firm is not registered, it has to face the following drawbacks.

1. A partner of an unregistered firm cannot file any case against the firm or against any other partner, including an ex-partner for enforcing his contractual rights under the partnership agreement or under the Act.
2. An un-registered firm cannot file any suit, against third parties in any civil court for recovering the money due.
3. Any third party can take legal action against the business or the partners.
4. The firm cannot take legal action against its partners.
5. An unregistered firm cannot enforce its claims against third parties for recovering a sum exceeding rupees one hundred.

Question 3.
Describe the various kinds of partners.
Answer:

1. Active partner: A partner who takes active part in the management of the partnership firm is known as active or working or managing or general partner. His liability is unlimited.
2. Sleeping partner or Dormant partner: The partners who merely contribute capital and do not take active interest in the conduct of the business of the firm are called sleeping or dormant or financing partners.
3. Nominal or Ostensible partner: jje is a partner who neither contributes capital nor takes any part in the management of the firm. He lends his name to be used as partner in the business to increase the reputation of the firm. They are not eligible for a share in the profit. They are also not liable to the creditors for the debts of the firm.
4. Partners in profit only:Aperson who shares the profit of a firm but does not share the loss, is called “partner in profit only”. Usually he has no voice in the management of the firm. But his liability to third parties is unlimited.
5. Partner by estoppel: A person may not be really a partner in the business. But by his behaviour he makes outsiders believe that he is a partner in the business. Then, he is liable to such outsiders who advance money to the firm or enter into a contract under such false belief. Such a person is known as “partner by estoppel”. He cannot later on deny that he is not a partner.

Question 4.
Explain the basic features of partnership.
Answer:
The main features of partnership firm are –

1. Agreement: A partnership is created by an oral or written agreement. It is better to put it in writing to avoid misunderstanding in future.
2. The multiplicity of person: Partnership is the relationship between two or more persons.
   So, there must be more than one person. The maximum number of partners has been limited to 10 in the case of banking business and 20 in the case of other business.
3. Contractual relation: The relation that exists between the partners in a partnership is said to be contractual. It is not natural relation arising out of mutual love and affection. According to Indian Partnership Act, “the relation of partnership arises from contract and not from status”. Only persons legally capable of making an agreement can become partners. Lunatics and insolvents cannot become a partner.
4. Lawful business: Partnership is formed to do a business. Business means any trade or occupation or profession. Eg: Partnership of chartered accountants, partnership of lawyers, general stores etc. The bv iiness must be legal. A partnership to smuggle goods from one country to another is illegal.
5. Sharing of profits: The profit or loss of partnership is shared by the partners in the ratio as given in the agreement. Normally profit or loss is shared according to the capital contribution of partners. But sometimes the partners may agree that a particular partner need not share any loss. If there is no agreement regarding sharing of profit or loss, all the partners share equally.

Question 5.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of partnership firm?
Answer:
The advantages of partnership form of organisation are-

1. Easy formation: A partnership firm is very easy to form. No formal document is required to be prepared as necessary in the case of joint stock company. A simple agreement among the partners is sufficient to start a partnership firm.
2. Registration not compulsory: A partnership firm is exempt from registration because registration is not compulsory. It is left to the discretion of the partners.
3. Larger financial resources: As a number of partners contribute to the capital of the firm, it is possible to collect larger financial resources than the sole proprietorship. Creditworthiness of the firm is also higher because every partner is personally and jointly liable for the debt of the business. Larger resource gives greater scope for the expansion of business.
4. Greater managerial talent: The partners may be assigned duties according to their tajent. Different functional departments may be managed and controlled by different partners. The talent and experience of partners will help to increase the efficiency Of the business resulting in more profit.
5. More credit standing: The partners may have sufficient contacts in the market, They can offer more guarantees to the financial institutions to obtain loans. The liability of partners being unlimited, they will be able to raise more finance. Partnership concern has more credit worthiness than sole trading business.

The disadvantages of Partnership form of organisation are-

1. Unlimited liability; Every partner is jointly and severally liable for the entire debts of the firm. A partner has to suffer not only for his mistakes but also for the lapses and dishonesty of other partners. Unlimited liability discourages many people from becoming a partner in the firm.
2. Limited resources: The resources of the partnership firm is limited. The borrowing capacity of the partners is also limited. Therefore, a partnership form of business is not suitable for undertaking business involving a huge investment of capital.
3. The danger of implied agency: The acts of partners legally bind the business and every other partner in the normal course of business. A dishonest or inefficient partner may bring loss to others by his actions. An innocent partner may be required to lose his personal assets for the mistake of other partners.
4. Distrust: The distrust among partners is the main cause for the dissolution of partnership firms. It is difficult to maintain harmony among partners because they may have different opinions and may not agree unanimously on certain matters. Lack of confidence may lead to misunderstanding and quarrels and it will result in the dissolution of the firm.
5. Limitation on transfer of share: No partner can transfer his share to a third party without the consent of the other partners. If a partner wants to withdraw his share, it is not possible without the consent of other partners. This makes investment in a partnership firm non-liquid, fixed, and less attractive.

Question 6.
Explain the rights and duties of partners.
Answer:
Partnership Act 1932 lays down the following rights and duties of a partner.
Rights of Partners:

1. Every partner has a right to take part in the conduct and management of the business.
2. Every partner has a right to express opinion on any matter related to the firm.
3. Every partner has a right to be consulted before taking important decisions.
4. Every partner has a right to inspect and take copy of books of account and records of the firm.
5. Every partner has the right to an equal share in the profits of the firm unless otherwise agreed by the partners.

Duties of Partners: The duties of partners can be classified into – (i) Absolute duties and
(ii) Qualified duties.

1. Absolute duties: Absolute duties are fixed by law which cannot be violated by partners agreement. These duties are applicable to all partnership.
   (a) Every partner must act diligently and honestly in the discharge of his duties to the maximum advantage of all partners.
   (b) Every partner must act in a loyal and faithful manner towards each other.
   (c) Every partner must act within the scope of the authority entrusted to him.
   (d) Every partner is bound to share the losses of the firm equally unless otherwise agreed.
   (e) Every partner must indemnify the firm against loss sustained due to his willful negligence in the ordinary course of business.
2. Qualified duties: Qualified duties given in the Act can be modified by an agreement of partners entered into.

Question 7.
Differences between Partnership and Sole Trader.
Answer:

Multiple choice questions

1.Name the form of business organization found only in India:
(a) sole-proprietorship
(b) partnership
(c) joint hindu family
(d) co-operatives
Answer:
(c) joint hindu family

2. Name the person who governs Joint Hindu Family Business:
(a) manager
(b) minor
(c) members
(d) karta
Answer:
(d) karta

3. Name the law which governs Joint Hindu family Business:
(a) partnership act
(b) hindu law
(c) companies act 1956
(d) contract act
Answer:
(b) hindu law

4. Which of the following has unlimited liability in business?
(a) Sole proprietor
(b) Karta
(c) Partners
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

5. Which of the following has a separate legal entity?
(a) Joint stock company
(b) Co-operative society
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both of the above

6. Minor can be Full-fledged member of:
(a) co-operative society
(b) joint stock company
(c) joint hindu family
(d) partnership
Answer:
(c) joint hindu family

7. The Karta in Joint Hindu Family business has:
(a) limited liability
(b) unlimited liability
(c) no liability for debts
(d) joint liability
Answer:
(b) unlimited liability

8. The maximum number of partners allowed in the banking business are:
(a) twenty
(b) ten
(c) no limit
(d) two
Answer:
(b) ten

9. The head of the Hindu family business is called:
(a) proprietor
(b) director
(c) karta
(d) manager
Answer:
(c) karta

10. Provision of residential accommodation to the members at reasonable rates is the objective of:
(a) producer’s co-operative
(b) consumer’s objective
(c) housing co-operative
(d) credit co-operative
Answer:
(c) housing co-operative

11. A partner whose association with the firm is unknown to the general public is called:
(a) active partner
(b) sleeping partner
(c) nominal partner
(d) secret partner
Answer:
(d) secret partner

12. Partnership may come into existence:
(a) by the operation of law
(b) by an express agreement
(c) by an express or implied agreement
(d) by inheritance of property
Answer:
(b) by an express agreement

13. The agreement of partnership:
(a) must be oral
(b) must be in writing
(c) must be in writing in the stamp paper
(d) can be either oral or in writing
Answer:
(c) must be in writing in the stamp paper

14. In a partnership the partners share:
(a) only profit
(b) only losses
(c) profit, losses and liabilities
(d) only liabilities
Answer:
(c) profit, losses and liabilities

15. Effective organisation promotes:
(a) specialisation
(b) economic development
(c) efficiency in production
(d) harmony of employers and employees
Answer:
(a) specialisation

16. A partnership firm may be registered under:
(a) 1949 Act
(b) 1956 Act
(c) 1932 Act
(d) 1942 Act
Answer:
(c) 1932 Act

17. The relationship between the partners is:
(a) debtors and creditors
(b) principal and agent
(c) seller and buyer
(d) employer and employee
Answer:
(b) principal and agent

18. Every partner has the right to receive interest on loans and advances at the rate of per annum:
(a) 6%
(b) 10%
(c) 12%
(d) No interest
Answer:
(a) 6%

19. The basis of partnership is:
(a) utmost good faith
(b) money available for investment
(c) desire to work together
(d) risk sharing
Answer:
(a) utmost good faith

20. The maximum number of partners in the case by banking business is:
(a) 2
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) 30
Answer:
(b) 10

21. Sleeping partner may also be called as:
(a) active partner
(b) dormant partner
(c) nominal partner
(d) partner by estoppal
Answer:
(b) dormant partner

22. A minor is a person who has not completed years of age:
(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 17
(d) 18
Answer:
(d) 18

23. A partner who does not take part in the working of the firm is called:
(a) active partner
(b) sleeping partner
(c) nominal partner
(d) partner in profits only
Answer:
(b) sleeping partner

24. The partnership organisation was started with the enactment of English partnership act in 1907 in:
(a) India
(b) Germany
(c) England
(d) Italy
Answer:
(c) England

25. A temporary partnership which is formed to complete a specific venture or job during a specified period is called:
(a) joint venture
(b) partnership at will
(c) general partnership
(d) sub partner
Answer:
(a) joint venture

26. A partnership is formed by:
(a) agreement
(b) relationship among persons
(c) the direction of government
Answer:
(a) agreement

27. Registration of partnership is:
(a) compulsory
(b) optional
(c) not necessary
Answer:
(b) optional

28. In the partnership there exists a relationship of:
(a) principal and agent
(b) owner and servant
(c) employer and employee
Answer:
(a) principal and agent

29. A partnership is created by:
(a) mutual love and affection
(b) family relationship
(c) agreement
Answer:
(c) agreement

30. A partnership cannot engage in:
(a) large scale production
(b) foreign trade
(c) smuggling goods
Answer:
(c) smuggling goods

31. A collective name of partners is known as:
(a) company
(b) family
(c) firm
(d) co-operative
Answer:
(c) firm

32. The liability of partners is:
(a) joint and several
(b) limited
Answer:
(a) joint and several

33. ……… is described as an extension of the principle of agency.
(a) Partnership
(b) Sole trading concern
(c) Joint stock company
(d) Co-operative society
Answer:
(a) Partnership

34. A partner who contributes capital and takes active part in the management of the partnership firm is:
(a) sleeping partner
(b) nominal partner
(c) managing partner
(d) partner in profits only
Answer:
(c) managing partner

35. Persons who enter into partnership are individually called:
(a) partners
(b) shareholders
(c) sole trader
Answer:
(a) partners

36. Where the authority to.a partner is expressly conferred by an agreement, it is called:
(a) Implied Authority
(b) Express Authority
(c) None of these
Answer:
(b) Express Authority

37. In India registration of partnership is:
(a) compulsory
(b) not compulsory
(c) discretional
Answer:
(b) not compulsory

38. The main cause for dissolution of partnership firm is:
(a) lack of capital
(b) loss in business
(c) distrust among partners
Answer:
(c) distrust among partners

39. In India the agreement among the partners may be in:
(a) oral
(b) writing
(c) oral or writing
Answer:
(b) writing

40. The profit or loss of a partnership firm is shared in the among the partners.
(a) equal ratio
(b) agreed ratio.
(c) capital ratio
Answer:
(b) agreed ratio.

41. An ostensible partner is one who:
(a) contributes a larger part of the capital
(b) takes active part in the management
(c) lends his name to be used to increase the reputation of the firm
Answer:
(c) lends his name to be used to increase the reputation of the firm

Students get through the TN Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 4 Sole Proprietorship which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 4 Sole Proprietorship

Very short answer questions

Question 1.
Which form of business is suitable for the following types of business and why?
Answer:
(i) Beauty saloon, (ii) Garments shop.

1. Beauty saloon: Sole proprietor is the right form of business because:
   (a) It needs limited capital,
   (b) It is easy to form,
   (c) Entire profit will belong to the owner, (d) It requires personal attention.
2. Garments shop: Sole proprietor is the right form of business because:
   (a) It needs limited capital,
   (b) It is easy to form,
   (c) Entire profit will belong to the owner.

Question 2.
State the various kinds of non-corporate enterprises.
Answer:
A sole proprietorship or as a partnership or as joint Hindu family business may be classified as a types of non-corporate enterprise.

Question 3.
How does the wheeler define a sole tradership?
Answer:
According to Wheeler, “a business undertaking is a concern, company or enterprise which buys and sells, is owned by one person or a group of persons and is managed under a specific set of operating policies”.

Question 4.
How does a sole trader business enterprise help provide self-employment?
Answer:
Sole proprietorship provides self-employment opportunities to many persons with small resources. It offers a way of life for securing the means of livelihood to those who do not want to serve under others.
It makes people self-dependent by providing self-employment.

Question 5.
Why do sole traders lose the economics of large-scale production?
Answer:
Because of limited capital and skill, the sole traders have to work on a small-scale basis. Thus he is deprived of economic of large j scale operation.

Question 6.
Write a note on the corporate form.
Answer:
The ownership is separated from the management and the owners cannot take direct control over the business. Corporate business is:

1. Joint-stock company,
2. Co-operatives,
3. Government institutions.

Question 7.
Is registration is essential for sole trading business?
Answer:
No, registration is not necessary for a sole trading business. The person who has money can start the business. He obtains a license from the local authority like the municipality or panchayat.

Short answer questions

Question 1.
What is the flexibility of a sole trader?
Answer:
It is a highly flexible type of organization.
A sole proprietorship concern is generally run on a small-scale basis. A change in operation is possible without involving much expenditure. The proprietor can adapt adjust to the changing trends and market conditions; because the sole trader is the sole owner of his business.

Question 2.
Give the definition of the encyclopedia of business and commerce for sole trading.
Answer:
Encyclopedia of Business and Commerce defines sole trading concern as, “A form of organization, in which an individual alone invests his capital, uses his own skill and intelligence in the management of its affairs and is entitled to enjoy all the profits as also is solely responsible for all the risks of ownership”.

Question 3.
Write short notes on the uncertainty of a sole tradership.
Answer:
The life of the sole trader business is uncertain and unstable. The life of business depends upon the changes in taste and preferences of customers and changes in fashion, and technology. If the sole trader fails to cope with the latest development he will land in trouble.

Question 4.
Can a sole trader business enterprise obtain the benefits of specialization?
Answer:
The sole trader has to undertake all the work relating to business himself such as buying, selling, accounting, financing, advertising, etc. It would be difficult to avail the services of experts in his business because of small resources. So, the benefits of division of labour and specialization cannot be obtained in this type of business.

Long answer questions

Question 1.
Mention the various types of business suitable for a sole proprietorship.
Answer:
A sole proprietorship is suitable for the following business:

1. Where a small amount of capital is required, eg: Sweetshop, bakery shops, petty shop, etc.
2. Where quick decisions are very important, eg: Share-brokers, doctors etc.
3. Where limited risk is involved, eg: Automobile repair shop, small retail shop.
4. Where personal attention to individual tastes and fashions of customers is required, eg: Beauty parlors, tailoring shop, etc.
5. Where the demand is local seasonal or temporary, eg: Retail trade, laundry, fruit sellers, etc.

Question 2.
One man control is the best in the world provided that one man is big enough to take cure of everything.
Answer:
The points in favour of one-man control are:

1. The easy and quick formation,
2. Direct control,
3. Efforts and reward are linked,
4. Retaining business secrets,
5. Close contact with the consumers,
6. Enjoying all profits,
7. Inexpensive management,
8. No legal restrictions,
9. Direct contact with the employees,
10. Social desirability.

The points limitations of one-man control:

1. Limited capital,
2. Limited managerial ability,
3. Unlimited liability,
4. Risk decision,
5. Uncertainty.

Question 3.
Demerits of a sole trading concern. Explain.
Answer:

1. Limited capital: The resources of a sole proprietor are limited. He depends only on his personal resources and his borrowing capacity. The borrowing capacity depends on his assets and creditworthiness. The financial resources of a single person will be insufficient for business expansion. Therefore, the size of the firm remains small.
2. Limited managerial ability: The managerial ability of a sole trader is limited because a person may not be an expert in every field of business such as purchasing, selling, accounting etc. The sole proprietor may not be able to use the service of experts for want of resources. The limited managerial capacity may hinder the growth of the business.
3. Unlimited liability: The unlimited liability of a sole proprietor may affect his enthusiasm and restrict introducing novel ideas in business.
4. Short life: Anything which affects the personal life of a sole trader affects his business also. Prolonged illness or death of the sole trader brings the affairs of his business to a standstill. If his children are interested and efficient to run the business, the sole trader business can be continued. Otherwise, it will be closed. The closure of a business will cause inconvenience to the consumers and may also result in social loss.
5. Hasty decisions: Decisions arrived at, – after deep deliberations and discussions are sure to be better than that of a decision taken by one man. The chances of wrong decision-making are quite high in a sole trader business. This is because of the fact that the sole trader takes all decisions of the business himself without any assistance. This may lead to wrong decisions which may result in loss and affect the sole trader.
6. Lack of specialization: The sole trader has to undertake all the work relating to business himself such as buying, selling, accounting, financing, advertising, etc. It would be difficult to avail the services of experts in his business because of small resources. So, the benefits of division of labour and specialization cannot be obtained in this type of business.
7. Uneconomic size: Because of limited capital and skill, the sole traders have to work on a small-scale basis. Thus he is deprived of economies of large-scale operation.
8. Lack of consultation: He has no one else to consult before taking any important decisions except his family members. This may result in a heavy loss if his decisions go wrong.

Question 4.
Explain the role of sole trading concerns in society.
Answer:
Role of sole proprietorship in society: Consumers are the kings. They decide the success of a business. Their needs, desires, expectations are to be satisfied by the businessmen. Sole proprietorship occupies a pivotal role in satisfying the multifarious needs of consumers regarding goods and services. The day-to-day requirements of the consumers such as food items, cloth, stationaries, laundry, provisions, books and newspapers, medicines, etc., are supplied by the sole trader form of organization. Thus the sole traders promote the welfare of society. Its social necessity arises due to the following ways.

1. The solution to the unemployment problem: Sole trader business organization gives large employment opportunities to the less educated and uneducated persons and helps to reduce the unemployment problem in the society.
2. Provides investment avenues: Sole trader organization provides a chance for small investors who have a small amount of capital to utilize their savings in the product line.
3. Provision of goods at a low price: Goods are sold by sole traders at a price lesser than the maximum retail price ( MRP ) mentioned on the packages of the goods. This is possible due to inexpensive management.
4. Helps small producers: Most of the goods sold by sole traders are procured locally from local producers. Thus small local producers are benefited from the sole traders.
5. Supply of quality goods: Sole-traders sell goods of high quality nowadays to maintain their reputation. They even accept the return of defective goods. This ensures enhancing the welfare of the public.
6. Philanthropic activities: Sole-traders form small trading organizations among themselves and undertake many social welfare activities such as conducting eye camps, blood donation camps, maintaining parks, provision of barricades on the roads, supplying furniture to schools and constituting charitable trust, etc.
7. Equal distribution of income and wealth: Equal distribution of income and wealth is ensured as there is more entry of sole proprietors in trading activities.
8. Helpful to consumers: The Sole-traders supply the goods to the consumers at their doorsteps. So the time and energy of the consumers are saved.

For Own Thinking

Question 1.
How to start a snack manufacturing unit at home?
Answer:
First, we select snacks- eg: Vada, Popcorn.
One man is enough for preparing Vada and Popcorn.

1. We want to buy black gram Dhall onion and green chili. A small amount is enough.
2. We want to buy maize for preparing popcorn using the machine.

Question 2.
Dried Fish-Trading Explain.
Answer:
Small scale trading.

1. First, we have to buy fresh fishes.
2. Next, we have to try it in the open air.
3. The try-in ready and we can sell them in the fish market.

Question 3.
Individual – Independent software companies run by New graduates.
Answer:
B.E. Software graduates start this type of company with a small amount of capital and two employees as helpers.

Case Study

Rajendran has done his B.Com., this year. He wants to do some good business now. Kesavan, his father, is a Sole-proprietor of a small Banian – manufacturing plant in Salem and asks Rajendran to join the business with him as a partner. However, Rajendran likes to go in for an independent venture. A discussion follows between them on this issue. Meanwhile, Mr. Arul, an advocate, and friend of Rajendran’s father, comes there and gives comments on both of them. Assume the role of Rajendran, Kesavan, and Arul and state and defend your positions.
Answer:
Mr. Kesavan: He is a sole proprietor.
Mr. Rajendran: Rajendran likes to go in for an independent venture. He gives large employment opportunities to uneducated and less educated persons and reduces the unemployment problem in society.
Mr. Arul: He is an advocate. He gives suggestions to both the father and son. Because reduce unemployment problem in the society.

For Future learning

Question 1.
Mahesh is a young graduate who has. inherited a sum of Rs. 1,00,000 by way of family savings. He also has a family house to which he has the sole title as the only son of his father. He is thinking of starting a small factory for the manufacture of plastic toys. What form of ownership organization will you advise him to choose?
Answer:
Sole proprietorship.

Question 2.
Amar started a business on his own. He has his father helping him with the accounts and his brother helps him with looking after customers in the evening. Amar pays a monthly salary to his father and brother. Identify the form of business organization.
Answer:
Sole trading form of business. Because he engaged father and brother as an employee.

Multiple choice questions

1. Sole trading business can be started by:
(a) at least two persons
(b) at least 7 persons
(c) anyone person
(d) at least 10 persons
Answer:
(c) anyone person

2. Choose the type of business in which sole proprietorship is very suitable:
(a) CA firm
(b) beauty pan our
(c) a shopping mall
(d) all of these
Answer:
(b) beauty pan our

3. The liability of a sole trader is:
(a) limited only to his investment in the business
(b) limited to the total property of the business
(c) unlimited
(d) unlimited to the business assets
Answer:
(c) unlimited

4. Which of the following has unlimited liability in business?
(a) Sole proprietor
(b) Karta
(c) Partners
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

5. What is the advantage of a sole proprietorship?
(a) Small capital.
(b) Hasty decision.
(c) Limited capital.
(d) Limited managerial ability.
Answer:
(c) Limited capital.

6. A sole trader uses in business:
(a) his own savings only
(b) loans obtained from government
(c) funds from non-resident Indians
(d) his own savings or funds borrowed from friends and relatives.
Answer:
(d) his own savings or funds borrowed from friends and relatives.

7. A sole proprietorship is a:
(a) cannot keep his own business secrets
(b) can keep his business secrets
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) can keep his business secrets

8. For a sole proprietorship the capital is provided by the:
(a) owner himself
(b) government
(c) financial institution
(d) none
Answer:
(a) owner himself

9. No legal formality is required to start a ………. business.
(a) sole trader
(b) partnership
(c) joint-stock companies
(d) co-operatives
Answer:
(a) sole trader

10. ……. are the kings.
(a) Debtors
(b) Creditors
(c) Banker
(d) Customer
Answer:
(d) Customer

11. Sole proprietorship is suitable for …… business.
(a) large scale
(b) small scale
(c) medium-scale
(d) all
Answer:
(b) small scale

12. Decision-making process in sole trading business is:
(a) quick
(b) slow
(c) neither quick nor slow
(d) all the above
Answer:
(a) quick

13. The legal entity of the enterprise is distinct from that of its owners in:
(a) non-corporate form
(b) corporate form
(c) sole-tradership
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) corporate form

14. The enterprise and its owners are considered as having the same entity in:
(a) noncorporate form
(b) corporate form
(c) joint-stock company
(d) all the above
Answer:
(a) noncorporate form

15. The resources of a sole proprietor are:
(a) unlimited
(b) limited
(c) restricted
(d) expanded
Answer:
(b) limited

16. “He owns all and risks all” The principle is followed in:
(a) sole tradership
(b) partnership
(c) MNC
(d) company
Answer:
(a) sole tradership

17. ……… is found in each and every country in the world.
(a) Sole tradership
(b) Partnership
(c) Company
(d) Co-operatives
Answer:
(a) Sole tradership

18. A sole trading concern is owned by:
(a) an individual
(b) two persons
(c) three persons
(d) the government
Answer:
(a) an individual

19. The absence of …….. with the employees paves the way for the smooth running of the business.
(a) salaries
(b) conservative
(c) friction
(d) flexible
Answer:
(c) friction

20. The chances of ………. decision making are quite high in a sole trader business.
(a) right
(b) wrong
(c) wasteful
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) wrong

Students get through the TN Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Business Activities which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Business Activities

Very short answer questions

Question 1.
What are the causes of business risk?
Answer:

1. Natural causes
2. Human causes
3. Economic causes
4. Physical causes and other causes.

Question 2.
What is the primary industry?
Answer:
Primary industry includes all those activities which are connected with the extraction and production of natural resources and reproduction and development of living organisms. Plants etc.

Question 3.
What is Human Resource Management?
Answer:
It aims at ensuring the availability of working people who have the necessary skills to perform various tasks in enterprises.

Question 4.
Define micro-units as per MSME?
Answer:
MSME development Act 2006 the above types of industries are defined as follows:
Micro unit: A unit wherein investment plant and machinery is up to Rs. 25 lakhs in care of manufacturing and up to Rs. 10 lakhs in care of service enterprises.
MSME: (i) Micro unit, (ii) Small unit,
(iii) Medium unit, (iv) Large unit.

Question 5.
What are the functions of commerce?
Answer:

1. Removing of the hindrance of person and that means lack of information of producer about consumer and to consumer about the producer. It is removed by advertising.
2. Transportation removes hindrance of place.

Question 6.
What is continuous industry?
Answer:
In the continuous industry, raw materials are fed from one end of the factory. They emerge as finished products from the other end after passing through several processes.

Question 7.
Who is a middle man?
Answer:
The term middle man “refers to all those who intervene from the primary producer to the ultimate consumer in the exchange of goods,

Question 8.
‘Mention any five of the large-scale retail units?
Answer:
Departmental stores, multiple shops, consumer’s co-operative stores, mail order business house and hire purchase and installment system. These are some of the large-scale retail units.

Question 9.
Name the utilities of commerce.
Answer:
Form utility, place utility, time utility.

Question 10.
Name the branches of commerce.
Answer:
Trade, transport, insurance, warehousing, banking, communications, advertisement and salesmanship.

Short answer questions

Question 1.
Differences between insurable risk and non-insurable risk is summarised below?
Answer:

Question 2.
What is E-commerce?
Answer:
The term e-commerce is known as ‘ Electronic Commerce’ used by the media to do business with consumers through the internet. Electronic commerce promises new ways of working for companies allowing them to react to real-time changes in the market by:

1. Gaining more knowledge about their customers and
2. Increasing the visibility of demand across their supply chains.

Question 3.
Explain the importance of commerce.
Answer:
Every person wants to lead a happy and comfortable life. Every nation wants to attain a high standard of living. This is possible when goods are produced in plenty at a cheaper cost. Goods flow from production centers to consumption centers. The continuous flow of goods from one country to another country has lead to the equalization of prices of many commodities in the international market. By frequent trade, contacts, people of different countries know of the culture and civilization of other countries. As a result, cultural integration takes place at the international level.

Question 4.
How communication is helpful in Trade Activities?
Answer:
The buyers and sellers need the services of various agencies for communicating their messages. The producers inform their customers about the production of goods. The intending buyers send orders to producers for the supply of goods. The services of post offices, private courier services, fax, telephones, cell phones, etc., are utilized for communication purposes.

Question 5.
What are the hindrances in commerce? Which agencies are used to remove these hindrances?
Answer:

1. Lack of personal contact: This hindrance is removed by traders and middlemen.
2. Distance or place: This hindrance is removed by transportation.
3. Finance: This hindrance is removed by banking.
4. Time or storage: This hindrance is removed by warehousing.

Question 6.
What is the role of profit in business?
Answer:
Profits play a vital role in any business earning of profits is essential for any business because of the following reasons given below:
Means of livelihood: Profit act as a means of livelihood for the entrepreneurs without profit entrepreneurs cannot continue with the business.
Rewards for taking risks: It provides a return for taking risks.
Funds for growth: It would provide funds for the growth of the business.

Multiple choice questions

1. Industry can be divided into ………….. types.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

2. On the basis of activities industry can be divided into ……… types.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

3. On the basis of size industry can be divided into ……… types.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

4. Primary industries can be divided into ………. types.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

5 . Examples of Genetic industries,
(a) bricks
(b) stones
(c) piggery
(d) none
Answer:
(c) piggery

6. Conversion of raw materials into finished products are called ………. industries.
(a) manufacturing
(b) construction
(c) assembling
(d) none
Answer:
(a) manufacturing

7. Warehouse facilities create ………. utility.
(a) time
(b) place
(c) storage
(d) all
Answer:
(a) time

8. Business involves various types of:
(a) risk
(b) profit
(c) loss
(d) all
Answer:
(a) risk

9. Trade may be classified into:
(a) internal trade
(b) external trade
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) all
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

10. Internal trade may be classified into:
(a) wholesale
(b) retail
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

11. Trade is an essential part of:
(a) trade
(b) industry
(c) commerce
(d) all
Answer:
(c) commerce

12. Trade removes the hindrance of:
(a) person
(b) place
(c) time
(d) money
Answer:
(a) person

13. Trade means:
(a) buying
(b) selling
(c) buying and selling
(d) none
Answer:
(c) buying and selling

14. The term Industry means:
(a) group of firms
(b) company
(c) sole trader
(d) partnership
Answer:
(a) group of firms

15. The term E-commerce means:
(a) electronic commerce
(b) electric commerce
(c) economic activities
(d) non-economic activities
Answer:
(a) electronic commerce

16. Commerce creates form, place, and utility.
(a) time
(b) possession
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(a) time

17. Trade involves two persons:
(a) buyer and seller
(b) wholesaler and retailer
(c) creditor and debtor
(d) All
Answer:
(a) buyer and seller

18. Example for extractive industries:
(a) Hunting
(b) Textile
(c) Paper
(d) Computer
Answer:
(a) Hunting

19. Business activities may be classified info:
(a) industry and commerce
(b) buyer and seller
(c) money and profit
(d) loss and profit
Answer:
(a) industry and commerce

Students get through the TN Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 2 Objectives of Business which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 2 Objectives of Business

Very short answer questions

Question 1.
Explain the concept of Business.
Answer:
An economic activity involving the production and sale of goods and services undertaken with a motive of earning profit by satisfying human needs in society is called business.

Question 2.
How would you classify business activities?
Answer:
Business activities can be classified in the following ways:

Question 3.
Write a note on Industry.
Answer:
The activities deal with the conversion of raw materials into finished goods. Which are connected with raisii%, producing or processing of consumer goods.
eg: bread, butter, cheese, shoes, or capital goods like machinery.

Question 4.
What is the barter system?
Answer:
Before the invention of money, goods were exchanged for other goods. This exchange of goods for goods is called the barter system.

Question 5.
List the auxiliaries of trade.
Answer:
The auxiliaries of trade consist of services such a transport, banking, insurance warehousing, advertising, and communication.

Question 6.
What is business risk? What is its nature?
Answer:
The term business risk refers to the possibility of inadequate profit or, even losses due to uncertainties, eg: Changes in taste and preferences of consumers. Strike, increased competition, change in government policy, etc. There are two types- speculative and pure.

Question 7.
What is meant by Entrepot trade?
Answer:
Entrepot trade means importing goods from one country and exporting the same to other countries.

Question 8.
Define wholesaler.
Answer:
According to Evelyn Thomas ‘A true wholesaler is himself neither manufacture nor a retailer but acts as a link between the two.

Question 9.
Define Retailer.
Answer:
According to Cundiff E.W and still, A retailer is a merchant or occasionally an agent whose main business is selling directly to the ultimate consumers.

Question 10.
What is wholesale trade?
Answer:
Wholesale trade is known as the purchase of goods in hulk from the manufacturers and sells them in lesser quantities to others.

Short answer questions

Question 1.
What is meant by Private Enterprises?
Answer:
An enterprise is said to be a private enterprise where it is owned, managed and controlled by persons other than Government.

1. Sole proprietorship, eg: Sundar Stationeries
2. Partnership firms, eg: Ramesh Bros.

Question 2.
What is meant by Public Enterprises?
Answer:
An enterprise is said to be a public enterprise where it is owned, managed, and controlled by the Government or any of its agencies or both. Public enterprises may be organized in several forms such as,

1. Departmental undertaking – Public Works Department (PWD)
2. Public Corporation – Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)
3. Govemmeiit Company – State Trading Corporation (STC)

Question 3.
What is meant by Joint Enterprises?
Answer:
An enterprise is said to be a joint enterprise where it is owned, managed, and controlled by Government and private entrepreneurs, eg: Maruti Suzuki.

Question 4.
What is meant by commerce?
Answer:
It establishes a link between the producers and consumers of goods and maintains a smooth and uninterrupted flow of goods from producers to consumers.

Long answer questions

Question 1.
What are the types of Economic Activities?
Answer:
Types of Economic Activities: Economic activities are undertaken to earn money. Generally, people engage themselves in such activities on a regular basis and are said to be engaged in their occupation. Occupations may be classified into three categories based on the following: (i) Employment, (ii) Profession and (Hi) Business.

1. Employment: It refers to the occupation in which people work for others and get remuneration in the form of wages or salaries: The one who is employed by others are called employees and the one who employs others is called employer, eg: Managers, Clerks, Bank officials, Factory workers etc.
2. Profession: Professions are those
   occupations that involve rendering personal services of a special and expert nature. A profession is something which is more than a job. It is a career for someone who is competent in their respective areas. It includes professional activities which are subject to guidelines or codes of conduct laid down by professional bodies.’ Those engaged in a profession are called professionals and they earn income by charging professional fees.
3. Business: According to H.Haney, “Business may be defined as a human activity directed towards producing or acquiring wealth through buying and selling of goods”. Business activities are connected with raising, producing, or processing goods. The industry creates forth. utility to goods by bringing materials into the form which is useful for intermediate consumption (i.e., further use of the material in order industry) or final consumption by consumers.

Question 2.
Explain the activities on the basis of ownership?
Answer:
Activities on the Basis of Ownership: On the basis of ownership business activities may be broadly grouped into three categories.

1. Private Enterprises: An enterprise is said to be a private enterprise where it is owned, managed and controlled by persons other than Government, (i) Sole proprietorship, eg: Sundar Stationeries, (ii) Partnership firms, eg: – Ramesh Bros.
2. Public Enterprises: An enterprise is said to be a public enterprise where it is owned, managed, and controlled by the Government or any of its agencies or both. Public enterprises may be organized in several forms such as, eg: (i) Departmental undertaking – Public Works Department (PWD), (ii) Public Corporation – Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC), (iii) Government Company – State Trading Corporation (STC).
3. Joint Enterprises: An enterprise is said to be a joint enterprise where it is owned, managed, and controlled by Government and private entrepreneurs, eg: Maruti Suzuki.
4. 

For Own Thinking

Question 1.
Do you know that there are white-collar, blue-collar, pink-collar jobs?
Answer:

• Blue-collar: A blue-collar worker is a working-class person who performs manual labour, blue collar work may involve skilled or unskilled manufacturing, mining, oil field construction, eg: Managerial position.
• White-collar: The white-collar worker typically performs work in an office environment and may involve sitting at a computer or desk, eg: Mechanics.
• Pink collar: The third type of worker is a service worker is called a pink collar job whose labour is related to customer interaction. Entertainment sales or other service-oriented work, eg: Teachers, Doctors, Nurses.

Multiple choice questions

1. Activities undertaken with the object of earning:
(a) money
(b) wealth
(c) profit
(d) none
Answer:
(a) money

2. Example for Economic activity:
(a) selling by retail
(b) cooking food for the family
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(a) selling by retail

3. Occupations may be classified into ………. categories.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

4. The one who is employed by others is called:
(a) employees
(b) employers
(c) day-wages
(d) salaries
Answer:
(a) employees

5. On the basis of size business activities may be classified into ……….. categories.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

6. Examples of consumer goods:
(a) plant
(b) pen, brush
(c) machinery
(d) all
Answer:
(b) pen, brush

7. An important feature of the business is:
(a) profit motive
(b) service motive
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(a) profit motive

8. Activities undertaken to satisfy social and psychological needs are called ……… activities.
(a) non-economic
(b) economic
(c) business
(d) human
Answer:
(a) non-economic

9. All economic activities can be valued in ……… terms.
(a) physical
(b) monetary
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) all
Answer:
(b) monetary

10. Economic activities are related to the creation of:
(a) wealth
(b) profit
(c) loss
(d) profit and loss
Answer:
(a) wealth

11. Economic activities are:
(a) irregular
(b) repetitive
(c) profit nature
(d) all
Answer:
(a) irregular

12. Economic activities are initiated to satisfy human:
(a) activities
(b) needs and wants
(c) only wants
(d) only needs
Answer:
(b) needs and wants

13. Industry creates ……… utility.
(a) place
(b) time
(c) form
(d) possession
Answer:
(c) form

14. On the basis of ownership business activities may be grouped into ……… categories.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Answer:
(b) 3

15. The profit that is expected in a business is always:
(a) certain
(b) compulsory
(c) uncertain
(d) optional
Answer:
(c) uncertain

16. Social objectives are those objectives of the business. Which are desired to be achieved for the benefit of the:
(a) society
(b) people
(c) government
(d) poor people
Answer:
(a) society

17. Economic objectives of business refer to the objective of earning:
(a) profit
(b) loss
(c) wealth
(d) all
Answer:
(a) profit

18. An enterprise that is owned, managed and controlled by persons other than the government it is called ………. enterprise.
(a) government
(b) private
(c) mixed
(d) public
Answer:
(b) private

19. (ONGC) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation is an example of:
(a) departmental undertaking
(b) public corporation
(c) government company
(d) private company
Answer:
(b) public corporation

20. (PWD) Public Works Department is an example of:
(a) government company
(b) private sector
(c) departmental undertaking
(d) public corporation
Answer:
(c) departmental undertaking

Students get through the TN Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 1 Historical Background of Commerce in the Sub-Continent which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 1 Historical Background of Commerce in the Sub-Continent

Very short answer questions

Question 1.
Hindrance of finance – Explain.
Answer:
Producers and traders may not have the required funds at the time of their need. Banks and other financial institutions provide funds and help in the transfer of funds to enable the functioning of business smoothly.

Question 2.
Name the important Trade Centres in India?
Answer:
The important trade centers were Delhi, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Sonar, Sonargoon, Lahore, etc.

Question 3.
Name the important Ancient Trade Centres in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Ramanathapuram, Mylapore, Puducherry, Kaveripumpattinam, Marakanam, Korkai, Nagapattinam, Kanyakumari.

Question 4.
Name the Ancient Trade centers in the coastal regions of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Alambari, Alagankulam, Marakkanam, Pumphar, Vasavasamudram, Mylapore.

Short answer questions

Question 1.
What are the three conditions worked for worked on Barter System?
Answer:

1. Each party to barter must have surplus stocks for the trade to take place.
2. Both the buyers and sellers should require the goods to each other desperately i.e., double coincidence of wants.
3. Buyer and seller should meet personally to affect the exchange.

Question 2.
Explain the Hindrance of the person.
Answer:
Manufacturers do not know the place and ‘face of the consumers. It is the retailer who knows the taste, preference, and location of the consumers. The chain of middlemen consisting of wholesalers, agents, and retailers establishes the link between the producers and consumers.

Question 3.
When the demand for Indian goods decline during the British rule?
Answer:
Textiles and shipbuilding earned name and fame in the 17th and 18th centuries. Britishers gradually abolished Princely order in the Indian territories. Thus the demand for Indian goods declined during the British rule.

Question 4.
Define commerce.
Answer:
J. Stephenson defines Commerce as “the sum total of those processes which are engaged in the removal of hindrances of person, place and time in the exchange of commodities”.

Question 5.
List out what are the hindrances of commerce?
Answer:

1. Hindrance of person.
2. Hindrance of place.
3. Hindrance of time.
4. Hindrance of risk.
5. Hindrance of knowledge.
6. Hindrance of finance.

Question 6.
List out what are the difficulties of the barter system?
Answer:

1. Lack of double coincidence of wants.
2. Non-existence of common measures of value.
3. Lack of direct contact between producer and consumer.
4. Lack of surplus stock.

Long answer questions

Question 1.
When did the overseas trade expand in India?
Answer:
During the 16th and 18th centuries, India’s overseas trade expanded due to trading with European companies. The discovery of new all-sea routes from Europe to India via Cape of Good Hope by Vasco da Gama had a far-reaching impact on the civilized world. The arrival of the Portuguese in India was followed by the advent of other European communities. India’s maritime trade was a monopolized one over Europeans and at one stage the global trade share of India was 55 percent which is just 2 percent in the 21st century. The European merchants who came to India were not only individual merchants but also represented their respective governments. They gained a strong foothold in India’s maritime trade by virtue of their strong naval power. In course of time, their commercial motives turned into territorial ambition like the East India Company which became the British Empire here.

Question 2.
When money was used as a Medium of exchange of goods and services?
Answer:
Commerce has been in practice since time immemorial. It is part and parcel of human life, whether it is a king or a common man. It emerged as an economic activity, mainly as a barter system which means the exchange of goods for goods. It was so comfortable for neighboring villages, states, even countries to practice barter in the absence of a medium of exchange in the form of money today. However, the concept of money occupied its predominance when scarce resources were to be either exchanged between parties in need or countries in demand and over a period of time barter economy took the dimension of the monetary economy where money was used as a medium of exchange of goods and services.

Multiple choice questions

1. The barter envisages mutual exchange of goods without as a medium of exchange.
(a) capital goods
(b) luxury goods
(c) consumer goods
(d) money
Answer:
(d) money

2. Hindrance of place is to overcome with the help of:
(a) time
(b) risk
(c) person
(d) transport
Answer:
(d) transport

3. Business activities can be classified into and commerce.
(a) industry
(b) insurance
(c) profit
(d) trade
Answer:
(a) industry

4. Warehouse facilities create …… utility.
(a) risk
(b) person
(c) time
(d) finance
Answer:
(c) time

5. Hindrance of knowledge is to overcome the help of:
(a) trade
(b) transport
(c) advertisement
(d) insurance
Answer:
(c) advertisement

6. A carpenter who makes furniture creates:
(a) time utility
(b) form utility
(c) place utility
(d) profit utility
Answer:
(b) form utility

7. Fishery and poultry are classified under:
(a) genetic industries
(b) extractive industries
(c) construction industries
(d) manufacturing industries
Answer:
(a) genetic industries

8. Trade removes the hindrance of:
(a) time
(b) person
(c) risk
(d) finance
Answer:
(b) person

9. The primary object of business is:
(a) to earn profit
(b) to help list employees
(c) to help society
(d) to help traders
Answer:
(a) to earn profit

10. Commerce is related to:
(a) production of goods
(b) exchange of goods
(c) providing occupation
(d) providing services
Answer:
(b) exchange of goods

11. Which of the following does not characterize business activity?
(a) Production of goods and services
(b) Presence of risk
(c) Sale or exchange of goods and services
(d) Salary or wages
Answer:
(d) Salary or wages

12. Which of the broad categories of industries covers, oil refinery, and sugar mills?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) None of them
Answer:
(a) Primary

13. Which of the following cannot be classified as an auxiliary to trade?
(a) Mining
(b) Insurance
(c) Warehousing
(d) Transport
Answer:
(a) Mining

14. The occupation in which people work for others and get remunerations in return is known as:
(a) business
(b) employment
(c) profession
(d) none of them
Answer:
(b) employment

15. The industries which provide support services to other industries are known as:
(a) primary industries
(b) secondary industries
(c) commercial industries
(d) tertiary industries
Answer:
(d) tertiary industries

16. Business risk is not likely to arise due to:
(a) changes in government
(b) good management
(c) employee dishonesty
(d) power failure
Answer:
(b) good management

17. Which of the following cannot be classified as an objective of a business?
(a) Investment
(b) Productivity
(c) Innovation
(d) Profit earning
Answer:
(a) Investment

18. Choose the odd one out;
(a) Insurance
(b) warehousing
(c) mining
(d) banking
Answer:
(c) mining

19. Profits are necessary for:
(a) expansion
(b) survival
(c) innovation
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

20. Small scale fixed retailer includes:
(a) General stores
(b) Pedlers
(c) Cheap Jacks
(d) Hawkers
Answer:
(d) Hawkers

21. Trade acts as a connecting link between the producer and:
(a) wholesaler
(b) retailer
(c) broker
(d) consumer
Answer:
(d) consumer

22. Domestic trade is otherwise called as:
(a) home trade
(b) foreign trade
(c) entrepot trade
(d) internal trade
Answer:
(d) internal trade

23. A Retailer deals in ……… varieties of goods.
(a) single-line
(b) different
(c) general stores
(d) hawkers
Answer:
(b) different

24. Sale of domestic goods to Foreign countries:
(a) Import trade
(b) Export trade
(c) Entrepot trade
(d) Retail trade
Answer:
(b) Export trade

25. Wholesaler’s deals in the quantity of goods.
(a) small
(b) large
(c) medium
(d) limited
Answer:
(b) large

26. A warehouse keeper accepts goods for the purpose of:
(a) storage
(b) export
(c) selling
(d) packaging
Answer:
(a) storage

27. Genetic industries are an example for ……. industries.
(a) fisheries
(b) mining
(c) computer
(d) oil refinery
Answer:
(a) fisheries

28. Remuneration given to a broker is called:
(a) commission
(b) salary
(c) dividend
(d) brokerage
Answer:
(d) brokerage

29. International trade leads to:
(a) specialization
(b) equalisation of prices
(c) patent right
(d) surplus balance of trade
Answer:
(a) specialization

TN 11th Commerce Important Questions State Board English Medium 2021-2022.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Important Questions and Answers

Unit 1 Fundamentals of Business

• Chapter 1 Historical Background of Commerce in the Sub-Continent Important Questions
• Chapter 2 Objectives of Business Important Questions
• Chapter 3 Classification of Business Activities Important Questions

Unit 2 Forms of Business Organisation

• Chapter 4 Sole Proprietorship Important Questions
• Chapter 5 Hindu Undivided Family and Partnership Important Questions
• Chapter 6 Joint Stock Company Important Questions
• Chapter 7 Cooperative Organisation Important Questions
• Chapter 8 Multi-National Corporations (MNCs) Important Questions
• Chapter 9 Government Organisation Important Questions

Unit 3 Service Business – I

• Chapter 10 Reserve Bank of India Important Questions
• Chapter 11 Types of Banks Important Questions
• Chapter 12 Functions of Commercial Banks Important Questions
• Chapter 13 Warehousing Important Questions
• Chapter 14 Transportation Important Questions
• Chapter 15 Insurance Important Questions

Unit 4 Service Business – II

• Chapter 16 Emerging Service Business in India Important Questions

Unit 5 Service Business – II

• Chapter 17 Social Responsibility of Business and Business Ethics Important Questions
• Chapter 18 Business Ethics and Corporate Governance Important Questions

Unit 6 Business Finance

• Chapter 19 Sources of Business Finance Important Questions
• Chapter 20 International Finance Important Questions
• Chapter 21 Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) and Self Help Groups (SHGs) Important Questions

Unit 7 Trade

• Chapter 22 Types of Trade Important Questions
• Chapter 23 Channels of Distribution Important Questions
• Chapter 24 Retailing Important Questions

Unit 8 International Business

• Chapter 25 International Business Important Questions
• Chapter 26 Export and Import Procedures Important Questions
• Chapter 27 Facilitators of International Business Important Questions
• Chapter 28 Balance of Trade and Balance of Payments Important Questions

Unit 9 The Indian Contract Act

• Chapter 29 Elements of Contract Important Questions
• Chapter 30 Performance of Contract Important Questions
• Chapter 31 Discharge and Breach of a Contract Important Questions

Unit 10 Direct and Indirect Taxes

• Chapter 32 Direct Taxes Important Questions
• Chapter 33 Indirect Taxation Important Questions

Students get through the TN Board 12th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 Metallurgy which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 12th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 Metallurgy

Question 1.
Name a few metals that occur natively.
Answer:
Silver, gold, platinum, copper occur in nature in significant amounts.

Question 2.
Distinguish between ore and minerals.
Answer:
Both minerals and ores are naturally occurring compounds of the metal. It is possible to extract metal in large quantities and in an easy manner from ore but it is not so in a mineral. All ores are minerals but all minerals are not ores.

Question 3.
What do you understand by the term “concentration of the ore”?
Answer:
The ore particles are associated with earthy impurities like sand, clay etc. These impurities have to be removed before it is subjected to extraction. The removal of impurities from the ore by specific methods is known as the concentration of the ore.

Question 4.
Write the name and formula of the common ores of aluminium, iron and copper.
Answer:

Question 5.
The names of a few ores are given. Write the composition of the ore. (i) Calamine, (ii) Zincite, (Hi) Galena, (iv) Cerrusite, (v) Cassiterite, (vi) Silver glance, (vii) Chloroargyrite.
Answer:
(i) Calamine: ore of Zn: ZnCO₃
(ii) Zincite : ore of Zn: ZnO
(Hi) Galena: ore of Pb: PbS
(iv) Cerrusite: ore of Pb: PbCO₃
(v) Cassiterite: ore of Sn: SnO₂
(vi) Silver glance: ore of Ag: Ag₂S
(vii) Chlorargyrite: ore of Ag: AgCl

Question 6.
Briefly give the principle involved in gravity separation of concentrating the ore.
Answer:
This method uses the difference in specific gravity between the ore particles and impurities (gangue). The crushed ore is treated with a rapidly flowing current of water. Lighter gangue particles are washed away, leaving behind heavier ore particles.

Question 7.
Why is the froth floatation process selected for the concentration of sulphide ores?
Answer:
The sulphide ore particles are preferentially wetted by oil, becomes lighter and thus rise to the surface along with the froth while the gangue particles are preferentially wetted by water, becomes heavier and settle down at the bottom of the tank. In this way, sulphide ore particles are separated and hence concentrated.

Question 8.
Name the chemicals used as frothing agents in the froth floatation process.
Answer:
Pine oil and eucalyptus oil are used as a frothing agent in the froth floatation process.

Question 9.
What is the role of depressant in the froth floatation process?
Answer:
The depressants help in the separation of two sulphide ores. For example, in the case of an ore containing PbS (galena) and ZnS (Zinc blende), the depressant is sodium cyanide (NaCN). It prevents ZnS from coming to the froth but allows PbS to come with froth in the froth floatation process ZnS forms a soluble complex with NaCN.

Question 10.
Explain the term leaching.
Answer:
It is a chemical separation of the ore and impurities. It involves the treatment of the ore with a suitable reagent to make it soluble while impurities remain insoluble. The insoluble impurities are separated by filtration.

Question 11.
Explain how, gold ore is concentrated by leaching, (or) How is leaching used to concentrate native ores of gold?
Answer:
The crushed ore of Au is leached with an aerated dilute solution of NaCN. Gold is converted into a soluble cyanide complex. The gangue, aluminosilicate remains insoluble.

Question 12.
What is cementation? Explain with an equation.
Answer:
Gold can be recovered by reacting the deoxygenated leached solution with zinc. In this process, the gold is reduced to its elemental state (zero oxidation state) and the process is called cementation.

Question 13.
What is the role of ammonia in leaching ores containing nickel or copper or cobalt?
Answer:
When a crushed ore containing nickel, copper and cobalt is treated with aqueous ammonia under suitable pressure, ammonia selectively leaches these metals by forming their soluble complexes viz. [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺, [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺, and [CO(NH₃)₅H₂O]³⁺ respectively from the ore leaving behind the gangue, iron (III) oxides/hydroxides and aluminosilicate.

Question 14.
Explain how bauxite ore is leached in the extraction of aluminium.
Answer:
The bauxite ore is treated with aqueous sodium hydroxide and heated to a temperature of around 470 – 520 K, at 35 atm. The aluminium dissolves forming a soluble complex, sodium meta aluminate leaving behind impurities.
Al₂O₃ (S) + 2NaOH (aq) + 3H₂O (l) → 2Na [Al(OH)₄] aq.
The hot solution is separated from its impurities and CO₂ gas is passed. Pure alumina gas precipitated
2Na [Al(OH)₄] (aq) + CO₂ (g) → Al₂O₃. H₂0 + 2 NaHCO₃ (aq)
The precipitate is washed and dried.

Question 15.
How is sulphide ores leached?
Answer:
The sulphide ores (ZnS, PbS) are treated with hot, aqueous sulphuric acid. The insoluble sulphide is converted to soluble sulphate and elemental sulphur which gets precipitated.
2ZnS (s) + 2H₂SO₄ (aq) + O₂ (g) → 2ZnSO₄ (aq) + 2S (s) + H₂O

Question 16.
Explain the principle involved in the magnetic separation of the ore with an example.
Answer:

This method is based on the difference in magnetic properties of the ore and the impurities. For example, tinstone, an ore of tin can be separated from its magnetic impurities (wolframite). The crushed ore is poured onto an electromagnetic separator consisting of a belt moving over two rollers of which one is magnetic. The magnetic part of the ore is attracted towards the magnet and falls as a heap close to the magnetic region while the non-magnetic part falls away.

Question 17.
Give chemical equations involved in the process of roasting.
Answer:
Roasting converts sulphide ores to their oxides.

It also removes volatile impurities like moisture and non-metals as their oxides.

Question 18.
Explain the term ‘Roasting’ in metallurgy.
Answer:
Roasting is a process in which sulphide ores are converted to oxide ores by heating the ore in excess of oxygen in a reverberatory furnace below the melting point of the metal.
eg: Galena when roasted gets converted to lead monoxide.
2PbS + 3O₂ → 2PbO + SO₂
During roasting volatile and non-metallic impurities are removed. The ore is rendered porous so that further steps in the extraction process becomes easy.

Question 19.
What is calcination? Explain with an example.
Answer:
Calcination is the process in which the concentrated ore is heated strongly in the absence of air. During this process, the water of crystallisation present in hydrated oxides escapes as moisture; This method is carried out in a limited supply of air. For example, calcination of the carbonate ore, carbon dioxide example is expelled.

Question 20.
Distinguish between calcination and roasting.
Answer:

1. Both processes are used to convert ores into metallic oxides. During roasting sulphide ores are converted to oxides and during calcination carbonate ores are converted to oxides.
2. Roasting is carried out by heating the ore with excess oxygen below the melting point of the ore whereas calcination is done by heating the ore in a limited supply of oxygen.
3. During roasting volatile impurities are removed and non-metallic impurities escape as their oxides. During calcination, the water of crystallisation escapes.
4. Both processes render the ore porous which makes further steps of the extraction process easiest.

Question 21.
Write chemical equations involved in the calcination process?
Answer:
Calcination is the process that involves the conversion of carbonate ores to oxides.

The water of crystallisation of hydrated salts escapes as water vapour.

Question 22.
Give a brief account of the reduction of metal oxides to metals.
Answer:

1. Metal oxides can be reduced to metals by using a suitable reducing agent. The choice of the reducing agent depends on the nature of the metal. The reducing agents used commonly are carbon, carbon monoxide, hydrogen and reactive metals like sodium.
2. Carbon is used as a reducing agent in the reduction of oxide ores such as ZnO, Mn₃O₄ and Cr₂O₃. The ore and coke are heated strongly in a blast furnace.
   
3. Carbon monoxide is used to reduce ferric oxide in the extraction of iron.
   Fe₂O₃ (s) + 3CO (g) → 2Fe (s) + 3CO₂ (g) ↑
4. Gaseous hydrogen is used to reduce oxides of less electropositive metals (Fe, Pb, Cu) than hydrogen.
   Ag₂O + H₂ → 2Ag + H₂O
   Fe₃O₄ + 4H₂ → 3Fe + 4H₂O
5. Aluminium is used to reduce metal oxides like Cr₂O₃.
   
   Active metals such as sodium, potassium and calcium are also used as reducing agents.
   B₂O₃ + 6Na → 2B + 3Na₂O
   Rb₂O₃ + 3Mg → 2Rb + 3MgO

Question 23.
What do you understand by the terms (i) Flux, (ii) Slag? Explain with examples.
Answer:

1. Flux is a chemical substance that is added to the concentrated ore, to remove impurities present. The impurities combine with the flux and form a fusible mass slag.
2. Acidic impurities are removed by using a basic flux and basic impurities are removed by adding acidic fluxes.
3. Silicon dioxide is an acidic flux and limestone (CaO) is a basic flux.
4. CaO(s), the basic flux removes the gange silicon dioxide (SiO₂), as calcium silicate (slag) in the extraction of iron.
   

Slag: Slag is a compound formed when flux and gangue can combine with each other. The slag is a feasible mass, which removes, the impurities in the ore. In the extraction of iron, FeO is added as a flux to remove the gangue (SiO₂) as ferrous silicate (slag).

Question 24.
Give chemical equations involved in the extraction of copper from copper pyrites.
Answer:

1. Smelting of the concentrated ore:
   Cu₂S and FeS formed in equation (1) is called mattle.
2. The remaining Cu₂S is further oxidised to cuprous oxide, which is subsequently converted to metallic copper.
   Cu₂S + 3O₂ → 2Cu₂S + 2SO₂
   2Cu₂O + Cu₂S → 6Cu + SO₂

Question 25.
Complete and balance the following equations.
Answer:

Question 26.
Briefly outline the thermodynamic principle involved in metallurgy.
Answer:
For any process, Gibb’s free energy change ΔG should be negative, i.e.,
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS should be negative where ΔH and ΔS are enthalpy and entropy changes respectively. The extraction of the metals from their oxides is carried out by using different reducing agents. A suitable reducing agent is chosen based on thermodynamics.
Let us consider the reduction of metallic oxide by carbon.

Thermodynamically, the reduction of metal oxide (equation -1), with a given reducing agent (equation -2) can occur if the free energy change for the coupled reaction is negative. Hence the reducing agent in chosen in such a way to produce a large negative value for the coupled reactions.

Question 27.
What is the Ellingham diagram? Explain.
Answer:
Ellingham’s diagram is used to obtain the ΔG° values at various temperatures for the reduction of metal oxides by treating reduction as an equilibrium process.
The diagram is made by plotting temperature in the x-axis and the standard free energy of formation (ΔG°) of the metal oxide in the ‘y ’ axis. The resultant plot is a straight line with ΔS as slope and ΔH as ‘y’ intercept. The graphical representation of the variation of standard free energy of formation of various metal oxides with temperature is known as the Ellingham diagram.

Question 28.
Briefly explain the salient features of the Ellingham diagram.
Answer:
(i) Ellingham diagram consists of plots that represent the variation of standard free energy of formation of metal oxides versus temperature.
(ii) These plots help is in predicting the feasibility of thermal reduction of ore. Consider the formation of metal oxide.
2xM (s) + O₂ (g) → 2MxO (s)
In this reaction, there is a decrease in the value of ΔS° as M.rO is a solid and 02 is a gas. i.e., ΔS° is negative. Thus, if the temperature is increased, TΔS° becomes more negative. As in the equation ΔG° = ΔH° – TΔS°
TΔS° is substracted, therefore ΔG° becomes less negative i.e., ΔG° is likely to increase with temperature and this trend is confirmed from the curves of metal oxides.
The following observations are made from the curves.
(a) The slope of the curves of formation of metal oxides is positive because ΔG° becomes less negative and increases with temperature.
(b) Each curve is a straight line except when some change takes place in phase. The temperature at which such a change occur is indicated by an increase in slope on the positive side.
(c) In the case of CO, ΔG° decreases as ΔS° increases. This is indicated by the downward trend.
(d) Any metal oxide with lower ΔG° is more stable than a metal oxide with higher ΔG°. This implies that the metal oxide placed higher in the diagram can be reduced by the metal lower in the diagram.

Question 29.
Mention the limitations of the Ellingham diagram.
Answer:

1. Ellingham diagram is constructed based only on thermodynamic considerations. It gives information about the thermodynamic feasibility of a reaction. It does not tell anything about the rate of the reaction. Moreover, it does not give any idea about the possibility of other reactions that might be taking place.
2. The interpretation of ΔG is based on the assumption that the reactants are in equilibrium with the product which is not always true.

Question 30.
Based on the Ellingham diagram explain.
Answer:

1. Aluminium can be used as a reducing agent for the reduction of chromic oxide.
   In the Ellignhem diagram, the formation of chromium oxide lies above that of the aluminium, meaning that Al₂O₃ is more stable than Cr₂O₃. Hence aluminium can be used as a reducing agent for the reduction of chromic oxide.
2. Aluminium cannot be use4 to reduce MgO or CaO.
   The formation of MgO or CaO lies below that, that of aluminium. Hence, it cannot be used to reduce oxides of Mg or Ca.

Question 31.
Why is the reduction of a metal oxide easier if the metal is in the liquid state at the temperature of reduction?
[OR]
Account for the fact that the reduction of a metal oxide is easier if the metal is formed in the liquid state at the temperature of reduction.
Answer:
Entropy is higher when the metal is in the liquid state than when it is in the solid-state. Therefore, the value of entropy change (ΔS°) of the reduction process is more positive, when the metal is formed in the liquid state. The value of TΔS° increases and that of ΔH° remains constant, the value of ΔG° becomes more negative and hence reduction becomes easier.

Question 32.
The choice of a reducing agent in a particular reduction depends on the thermodynamic factor. How far do you agree with this statement?
Answer:
Support your opinion with two examples.
From the Ellingham diagram, it is evident that any metal oxide with a lower AG° value is more stable than the metal oxide with a higher AG° value. This implies that the metal oxide placed lower in the diagram cannot be reduced by a metal involved in the formation of oxide placed higher in the diagram. However, the reverse can readily take place.
Thus, Al₂O₃ cannot be reduced by Cr however Cr₂O₃ can be reduced by Al.
At temperature 1733K, AG° formation of Al₂O₃ and Cr₂O₃ is given below.

The reduction of Al₂O₃ by Cr may be obtained by subtracting equation (i) and (ii).

ΔG° = 400 kJ mol-1 This reaction is thermodynamically not feasible since ΔG° has a positive value. But the reverse reaction is possible as it has a negative ΔG° value. Similarly, both aluminium and zinc can reduce FeO to Fe, but Fe cannot reduce Al₃O₂ Or ZnO.

Question 33.
Based on the Ellingham diagram given below predict a suitable reducing agent for the reduction of Cu₂O.
Answer:

It is seen in the diagram that the Cu₂0 curve lies almost at the top while the lines sharing the formation of CO₂ from C, and the formation of CO from carbon lie much below it. So it is easy to reduce Cu₂O to the metal by heating it with coke at temperatures after 500 – 600 K.
Cu₂O + C → 2Cu + CO

Question 34.
Show by using the Ellingham diagram given below to predict the possible temperature at which ZnO is reduced to Zn by carbon.
Answer:

Ellingham diagram reveals that the lines involving the formation of ZnO and carbon monoxide cross each other at about 1270 K. There is a sudden increase in the value of ΔG° for the formation of ZnO above 1180°C. This is due to the fact that zinc begins to boil at this temperature. Above, 1270 K, ΔG° for the reaction.

is considered negative and thus ZnO is reduced by coke.

Question 35.
Out of carbon and carbon monoxide which is a better reducing agent for ZnO?
Answer:
From Ellingham’s diagram, it is clear that the free energy of formation of CO from C is lower at a temperature above 1120 K while that of CO₂ from carbon is lower above 1323K than that of free energy of formation of ZnO. However, the free energy of the formation of CO₂ from CO is always higher than that of ZnO. Hence, C is a better reducing agent of ZnO.

Question 36.
Explain why is the extraction of copper from pyrites difficult than that from its oxide ore through reduction.
Answer:
The standard free energy formation (ΔG°) for Cu₂S is more negative than those of CS₂ and H₂S. Therefore neither carbon nor hydrogen can reduce Cu₂S to copper. But the standard free energy of formation of Cu₂0 (ΔG°) is less negative than that of CO and hence carbon can readily reduce Cu₂O to Cu.
Alternatively,
ΔG° / T line for CO has a negative slope and there is no compound CS analogous to CO with a steep negative ΔG°/T line. Thus, carbon is a good reducing agent for oxides and not for sulphides. Therefore sulphide ores are normally roasted in air to form oxides before reducing than with carbon.

Question 37.
Given the following ores indicate which of them Can be concentrated by magnetic separation method, (i) Bauxite, (ii) Kaolinite, (iii) Haematite, (iv) siderite, (v) iron pyrites, (vi) copper pyrites, (vii) galena, (viii) cassiterite, (ix) horn silver, (x) zincite, (xi) magnetite.
Answer:
Ores that are magnetic in nature can be separated from non-magnetic gangue particles by magnetic separation ores of iron such as Haematite (Fe₂O₃), Magnetite (Fe₃O₂), Siderite (FeCO₃) and Iron pyrites (FeS₂) being magnetic can be separated by magnetic separation.

Question 38.
Explain the principles involved in each of the following processes of refining metals. (i) Distillation, (ii) Liquation, (iii) Electrolyte refining, (iv) zone refining, (v) vapour phase method.
Answer:

1. Distillation: This method is used for the purification of volatile metals like zinc, mercury, cadmium etc. The impure metal is heated in a retort and the vapours are condensed in separate receivers. The pure metal distils leaving behind the non-volatile having higher boiling point) impurities in the retort.
2. Liquation: This method is used for the purification of metals in which the melting points of metals are lower than these of the impurities. The crude metal is heated in an inert atmosphere on a sloping hearth of a reverberatory furnace when the metal flows down into the receiver leaving behind infusible impurities on the hearth. Metals like tin and lead one purified by this method.
3. Electrolyte refining:
   Electrolytic refining is a process of purification of an impure metal by electrolysis. The impure metal is used as an anode and a pure metal is used as a cathode. The electrolyte is a suitable aqueous solution of the salt of the metal. During electrolysis, the metal dissolves at the anode, migrates to the cathode and gets deposited as a pure metal, eg: Electrolytic refining of silver:
   Cathode: Pure silver Anode: Impure silver rods Electrolyte: Acidified aqueous solution of silver nitrate.
   When a current is passed through the electrodes the following reactions will take place.
   Reaction at anode 2Ag (s) → Ag⁺ (aq) + e^–
   Reaction at cathode Ag⁺ (aq) + e^– → Ag(s)
   During electrolysis, at the anode, the silver atoms lose electrons and enter the solution. The positively charged silver cations migrate towards the cathode and get discharged by gaining electrons and deposited on the cathode. Other metals such as copper, zinc etc., can also be refined by this process in a similar manner.
4. Zone refining: This method is based on the principles of fractional crystallisation. When an impure metal is melted and allowed to solidify, the impurities will prefer to be in the molten region, i.e., impurities are more soluble in the melt than in the solid-state metal. In this process, the impure metal is taken in the form of a rod. One end of the rod is heated using a mobile induction heater which results in the melting of the metal on that portion of the rod. When the heater is slowly moved to the other end the pure metal crystallises while the impurities will move on to the adjacent molten zone formed due to the movement of the heater. As the heater moves further away, the molten zone containing impurities also moves along with it. The process is repeated several times by moving the heater in the same direction again and again to achieve the desired purity level. This process is carried out in an inert gas atmosphere to prevent the oxidation of metals. Elements such as germanium (Ge), silicon (Si) and gallium (Ga) that are used as semiconductor are refined using this process.
   (v) Vapour phase method:
   The basic requirement is that the metal, when treated with a suitable reagent form a volatile compound which as decomposition gives the pure metal. eg: Nickel forms a volatile nickel carbonyl on heating with carbon monoxide, which on decomposition gives pure nickel.

Question 39.
Explain how zinc is purified by electrolytic refining.
Answer:
The impure zinc is made the anode while the cathode consists of pure sheets of zinc. The electrolyte is an acidified (H₂SO₄) solution of zinc sulphate (ZnSO₄). On passing electric current pure zinc deposits on the cathode.

Question 40.
State the role of silver in the metallurgy of copper.
Answer:
During roasting, copper pyrites are converted to a mixture of FeO and Cu₂O.

To remove FeO (basic impurity) an acidic flux, SiO₂ is added during smelting. FeO combines with SiO₂ to form ferrous silicate (FeSiO₃) as slag and floats over the molten matter and hence can be easily removed.

Question 41.
What is the role of graphite in the electrometallurgy of aluminium?
Answer:
In the electrometallurgy of aluminium, a fused mixture of alumina, cryolite and fluorspar (CaF₂) is electrolysed using graphite as anode and graphite lined iron as a cathode. During electrolysis, Al is liberated at the cathode while CO and CO₂ one liberated at the anode.
At Cathode: Al⁺³ (melt) → Al (l)
At anode: C + O^-2 (melt) → CO + 2e^–
C + 2O^-2 (melt) → CO₂ + 4e^–
Instead of graphite, some metal is used as an anode, then O₂ liberated will not only oxidise the metal of the electrode but would also convert the same Al liberated at the cathode back to Al₂O₃.
Since graphite is much cheaper than any metal, it is used as a cathode. Thus the role of graphite in the electrometallurgy of Al is to prevent the liberation of 02 at the anode. Which may otherwise convert Al to Al₂O₃.

Question 42.
Mention the application of the following metals, (i) Al, (ii) Cu, (iii) Fe, (iv) Au.
Answer:
Al: Aluminium is the most abundant metal and is a good conductor of electricity and heat. It also resists corrosion. The following are some of its applications.

1. Many heat exchangers/sinks and our day to day cooking vessels are made of aluminium.
2. It is used as wraps (aluminium foils) and is used in packing materials for food items.
3. Aluminium is not very strong, However, its alloys with copper, manganese, magnesium and silicon are lightweight and strong and they are used in the design of aeroplanes and other forms of transport.
4. As aluminium shows high resistance to corrosion, it is used in the design of chemical reactors, medical equipment, refrigeration units and gas pipelines.
5. Aluminium is a good electrical conductor and cheap, hence used in electrical overhead electric cables with a steel core for strength.

Cu:

1. Copper is used for making coins and ornaments along with gold and other metals.
2. Copper and its alloys are used for making wires, water pipes and other electrical parts.

Fe:

1. Iron and its alloys are used everywhere including bridges, electricity pylons, bicycle chains, cutting tools and rifle barrels.
2. Cast iron is used to make pipes, valves and pumps stoves etc…
3. Magnets can be made of iron and its alloys and compounds.
4. An important alloy of iron is stainless steel, and it is resistant to corrosion. It is used in architecture, bearings, cutlery, surgical instruments and jewellery. Nickel steel is used for making cables, automobiles and aeroplane parts. Chrome steels are used for manufacturing cutting tools and crushing machines.

Au:

1. Gold is used for coinage and has been used as the standard for monetary systems in some countries.
2. It is used extensively in jewellery in its alloy form with copper. It is also used in electroplating to cover other metals with a thin layer of gold which are used in watches, artificial limb joints, cheap jewellery, dental fillings and electrical connectors.
3. Gold nanoparticles are also used for increasing the efficiency of solar cells and also used as catalysts.

TN 12th Chemistry Important Questions State Board English Medium 2022-2023.

Chemistry NEET MCQ

TN State Board 12th Chemistry Important Questions and Answers

• Chapter 1 Metallurgy Important Questions
• Chapter 2 p-Block Elements – I Important Questions
• Chapter 3 p-Block Elements – II Important Questions
• Chapter 4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements Important Questions
• Chapter 5 Coordination Chemistry Important Questions
• Chapter 6 Solid State Important Questions
• Chapter 7 Chemical Kinetics Important Questions
• Chapter 8 Ionic Equilibrium Important Questions
• Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry Important Questions
• Chapter 10 Surface Chemistry Important Questions
• Chapter 11 Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers Important Questions
• Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids Important Questions
• Chapter 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds Important Questions
• Chapter 14 Biomolecules Important Questions
• Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life Important Questions

Students get through the TN Board 12th Bio Zoology Important Questions Chapter 12 Environmental Issues which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 12th Bio Zoology Important Questions Chapter 12 Environmental Issues

Very short answer questions

Question 1.
Define Pollution.
Answer:
Pollution is defined as any undesirable change in the physical, chemical, and biological characteristics of an environment.

Question 2.
What are pollutants?
Answer:
Pollutants are the agents which cause pollution.

Question 3.
What are the different basic groups of pollutants?
Answer:
The pollutants are classified into two major groups namely Non-degradable and degradable pollutants.

Question 4.
Name the main sources of carbon monoxide pollution.
Answer:
The main sources of carbon monoxide pollution include Automobile exhausts, fumes from factories and the burning of firewood.

Question 5.
Define SMOG.
Answer:
SMOG is defined as a type of air pollution caused by tiny particles in the air.

Question 6.
Mention any two cost-effective treatments of air pollution?
Answer:
The cost-effective treatment of air pollution includes:

1. Growing indoor plants and
2. Using high-performance biofilters.

Question 7.
Explain Air Quality Index (AQI).
Answer:
Air Quality Index is the number used by Government agencies to communicate to the public how polluted the air is at a given time.

Question 8.
Name any two examples of the non-point sources of pollutants.
Answer:

1. Agriculture chemical run-off.
2. Dumping of plastics in water bodies.

Question 9.
Define Noise pollution.
Answer:
Noise pollution is defined as the sound that is unwanted and undesirable or can disrupt one’s quality of life.

Question 10.
Name the chemicals present in mosquito repellents.
Answer:
The chemicals present in mosquito repellents are:

1. DEET (n-n-diethylenetatoluamide)
2. Alletrin

Question 11.
Define Biomagnification.
Answer:
Biomagnification is the process in which a non-degradable substance, that enters die – food chain does not get metabolized and instead gets transferred up the tropic levels of the food chain with the magnified level of that substance.

Question 12.
What is ‘4R’?
Answer:
‘4R’ means Refuse, Reduce, Reuse and Recycle. These are the mantra for remedy II for the plastic waste problem.

Short answer questions

Question 1.
What are plastics? Explain their sources.
Answer:
Plastics are low molecular weight organic polymers, that are not degradable in the natural environment.
The main sources of this plastic include:

1. The packaging material used in supermarkets.
2. Packing material in retail outlets.
3. Manufacturing industries.
4. Households, hotels, hospitals, and restaurants, and transport companies.
5. In municipal solid waste, plastic waste constitutes a major part.

Question 2.
Recycling and disposal of e-waste involve significant risk – Justify.
Answer:
The recycling and disposal of e-waste may involve risks to the health of workers and communities in developed countries.

1. Great care must be taken to avoid unsafe exposure in recycling operations.
2. The leading of materials like heavy metals from landfills and incinerator ashes may cause health problems to humans and animals.

Question 3.
How does water pollution affect on the ecosystem?
Answer:
Water pollution generally affects the aquatic ecosystems in the following ways:

1. It affects existing riches and habitats.
2. It affects the survival of organisms.
3. In certain cases, soil fertility is affected, leading to the state of uninhabitable.
4. It results in Eutrophication.

Question 4.
What are three sources of water pollution?
Answer:
The three sources of water pollution are:

1. Municipal waste
2. Industrial waste
3. Agricultural waste

Question 5.
Water pollution disrupts the nature of food chains as well as food webs – Justify.
Answer:

1. Pollutants such as lead and cadmium are taken up by primary consumers, where they can be lethal or get accumulated.
2. When these animals are consumed by secondary consumers, their pollutants are get enhanced by a process called biomagnification.
3. The food chain may get disrupted at any trophic level due to the magnification and accumulation of these chemicals.

Question 6.
Explain the Government Act and regulations to prevent water pollution.
Answer:

1. Water Act, 1974, section 17- 40 – Prohibits the pollution of a stream or well by disposal of polluting matter.
2. The Central / State pollution control Boards – They have the power to advise the central / state governments on various matters concerned with the prevention and. control of pollution of water.
3. The Ministry of Environment, forest and climate change (MoEFCC) is the nodal agency of the central government for planning, promotion, coordination, and overseeing the implementation of India’s environmental and forestry policies and programs.

Question 7.
How do you control ozone layer depletion?
Answer:

1. Phase down or ban the use of CFCs (CFC-free refrigerants).
2. The usage of chemicals such as halons and halocarbons ought to be minimized.
3. Creating awareness about ozone-depleting agents.

Long answer questions

Question 1.
Give an account of medical waste.
Answer:
Medical waste refers to any waste that contains infectious material generated by hospitals, medical research centers, laboratories, pharmaceutical companies, and veterinary clinics.
Medical’wastes constitute fluid like blood, urine, body parts, and other contaminants. They also include used syringes and needles, culture dishes, glasswares, bandages gloves, scalpels, swabs, and tissues.
Hie social and legal responsibilities of – people working in health care centers are the safe disposal of medical waste.
The disposal methods include incineration, chemical disinfection, autoclaving, encapsulation microwave irradiation. Landfill and burying inside premises as per norms are the final disposal of these wastes.

Question 2.
Describe the prevention methods of water pollution.
Answer:
The followings are the prevention strategies of water pollution:

1. Regulate or control pollutant discharge at the point of generation.
2. Treatment of wastewater by scientific methods before discharge into municipal treatment sources.
3. Setting up of Sewage Treatment Plants (STP) and Effluent Treatment Plants (ETP) where ever needed.
4. Regulate or restrict the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides in agriculture. Create public awareness and involve people in the action plan.

Question 3.
Enumerate the effects of noise pollution.
Answer:
A link between noise and the health of humans and other organisms was established by USEPA (the United States Environmental Protection Agency). The noise pollution effects are:

1. It causes increased stress and tension nervousness, irritability anxiety depression, and panic attacks.
2. It also causes peptic ulcers, severe headaches, memory loss.
3. Noise pollution from offshore activities and poor activities affects marine animals.
4. Noise from firecrackers frightens animals and birds.
5. In humans, heart disease, high blood pressure, stress-related illness, sleep disruption, hearing loss, and productivity loss are some of the problems related to noise pollution.

Question 4.
Explain the causes and effects of ozone layer depletion.
Answer:
Causes:

1. Anthropogenic activities mainly cause ozone layer depletion.
2. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) is the main cause of ozone layer depletion by releasing excess chlorine and bromine. Other ozone-depleting substances are hydrobromic fluorocarbons and methyl bromide.

Effects:

1. It allows UY rays to penetrate into the atmosphere, resulting in premature aging of skin and wrinkling of the skin.
2. It may cause suppression of the immune system.
3. It causes skin cancer (melanoma) and chronic effects leading to eye damage.
4. The free radicals and reactive oxygen and photons can damage DNA itself.

Choose the correct answers:

1. Match the following:

(a) (p)-(iv); (q)-(iii); (r)-(ii); (s)-(i)
(b) (p)-(iv); (q)-(iii); (r)-(i); (s)-(ii)
(c) (p)-(ii); (q)-(i); (r)-(iv); (s)-(iii)
(d) (p)-(iii); (q)-(iv); (r)-(ii); (s)-(i)
Answer:
(b) (p)-(iv); (q)-(iii); (r)-(i); (s)-(ii)

2. Match the following:

(a) (p)-(iv); (q)-(iii); (r)-(ii); (s)-(i)
(b) (p)-(ii); (q)-0); (r)-(iv); (s)-(iii)
(c) (p)-(iii); (q)-(iv); (r)-(ii);(s)-(i)
(d) (p)-(iv); (q)-(iii); (r)-(i); (s)-(ii)
Answer:
(c) (p)-(iii); (q)-(iv); (r)-(ii); (s)-(i)

3. Match the following:

(a) (p)-(ii); (q)-(i); (r)-(iv); (s)-(iii)
(b) (p)-(iv); (q)-(iii); (r)-(ii); (s)-(i)
(c) (p)-(iii); (q)-(iv); (r)-(ii); (s)-(i)
(d) (p)-(iv); (q)-(iii); (r)-(i); (s)-(ii)
Answer:
(a) (p)-(ii); (q)-(i); (r)-(iv); (s)-(iii)

4. Match the following:

(a) (p)-(iv); (q)-(i); (r)-(ii); (s)-(iii)
(b) (p)-(iv); (q)-(iii); (r)-(i); (s)-(ii)
(c) (p)-(iv); (q)-(iii); (r)-(ii); (s)-(i)
(d) (p)-(ii); (q)-(i); (r)-(iv); (s)-(iii)
Answer:
(b) (p)-(iv); (q)-(iii); (r)-(i); (s)-(ii)

5. Medical waste is classified under:
(a) Solid waste
(b) Organic waste
(c) Hazardous waste
(d) Chemical waste
Answer:
(c) Hazardous waste

6. Which of the following is an anaerobic ‘ process?
(a) Vermicomposting
(b) Biogas generation
(c) Segregation
(d) Nitrification
Answer:
(b) Biogas generation

7. How much garbage is collected per day from Chennai city?
(a) 5400 MT
(b) 4800 MT
(c) 2400 MT
(d) 6800 MT
Answer:
(a) 5400 MT

8. The method not used in the physical methods of waste treatment.
(a) Flotation
(b) Chlorination
(c) Sedimentation
(d) Filteration
Answer:
(b) Chlorination

9. Choose the odd man out:
(a) Nammalvar
(b) Sultan Md. Ismail
(c) Thiagarajan
(d) Jadav Payeng
Answer:
(c) Thiagarajan

10. Identify the odd one:
(a) Food waste
(b) Paper waste
(c) Plastic waste
(d) Organic waste
Answer:
(c) Plastic waste

11. Choose the odd one:
(a) Dilute and disperse
(b) Segregation and treatment
(c) Delay and decay
(d) Concentrate and confine
Answer:
(a) Dilute and disperse

12. Find out the odd one:
(a) Bandages
(b) Sealpels
(c) Glasswares
(d) Swabs and tissues
Answer:
(b) Sealpels

13. Which of the following is a correct pair?

Answer:
(c)

14. Choose the incorrect pair:

Answer:
(d)

15. Find out the correct pair:

Answer:
(a)

16. Indicate the incorrect pair:

Answer:
(c)

17. Assertion: Organic farming creates an eco-friendly pollution-free environment.
Reason: In organic farming, only natural and organic agro-inputs are used.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, Reason is not correct.
(d) Assertion is not correct, Reason is correct.
(e) Both Assertion and Reason are not correct.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

18. Assertion: DDT concentration is more in fish-eating birds than the actual concentration of the aquatic system.
Reason: This is due to a phenomenon called Biomagnification.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, Reason is not correct.
(d) Assertion is not correct, Reason is correct.
(e) Both Assertion and Reason are not correct.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

19. Assertion: The permissible limit of noise in commercial areas is 65 decibels during the day and 45 decibels during the night.
Reason: The threshold pain of noise pollution is 120 decibels.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, Reason is not correct.
(d) Assertion is not correct, Reason is correct.
(e) Both Assertion and Reason are not correct.
Answer:
(d) Assertion is not correct, Reason is correct.

20. Assertion: Acid rain is caused by Sulphur dioxide and nitric oxide.
Reason: During rain, the precipitation contains acidic components such as sulphuric acid or nitric acid.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, Reason is not correct.
(d) Assertion is not correct, Reason correct.
(e) Both Assertion and Reason are not correct.
Answer:
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

21. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Thinning of the stratospheric ozone layer is caused by all GHGs.
(b) Thinning of the stratospheric ozone layer is caused by CO₂ emission.
(c) Thinning of the stratospheric ozone layer is caused by Cf Cs.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Thinning of the stratospheric ozone layer is caused by all GHGs.

22. Choose the incorrect statement:
(a) Trees are the best remedy for urban particulate matter.
(b) Forests act as sink for CO₂.
(c) Forests act as lungs of planet.
(d) All the above statements are not correct.
Answer:
(d) All the above statements are not correct.

23. Indicate the correct statement:
(a) Noise pollution can cause severe stomach ache.
(b) The threshold pain of noise pollution is about 120 decibels.
(c) Marine animals are not affected by noise pollution.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) The threshold pain of noise pollution is about 120 decibels.

24. Choose the incorrect statement:
(a) Limit generation is the most important consideration in managing radioactive wastes.
(b) Dilution and dispersion are adopted for wastes having high radioactivity.
(c) Much of the radioactivity in nuclear reactors and accelerator is very short-lived.
(d) Concentrate and confine process is another method of radioactive material disposal.
Answer:
(b) Dilution and dispersion are adopted for wastes having high radioactivity.

Students get through the TN Board 12th Bio Zoology Important Questions Chapter 11 Biodiversity and its Conservation which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 12th Bio Zoology Important Questions Chapter 11 Biodiversity and its Conservation

Very short answer questions

Question 1.
Define Biodiversity.
Answer:
Biodiversity is defined as the assemblage of different life forms on Earth.

Question 2.
What is genetic diversity?
Answer:
Genetic diversity refers to the difference in genetic makeup between distinct species, within a single species, and between different populations.

Question 3.
Name any two ecosystem services.
Answer:

1. Providing food to many organisms.
2. Ecotourism.

Question 4.
What is the indicator of the health of an ecosystem?
Answer:
Endemism is the crucial indicator of the health of an ecosystem.

Question 5.
In South-East Asia, the dwindling of fruit bats is followed by a reduction in local fruit production. Why?
Answer:
The local fruit production in south-East Asia has got affected as the bats are found to be the pollinators of fruit trees.

Question 6.
Name any two animals found in the Deccan peninsula.
Answer:

1. Sambhar
2. Elephant

Question 7.
What are alien species?
Answer:
Alien species are organisms often introduced in a habitat unintentionally or deliberately for commercial purposes or a biological control agent and other uses.

Question 8.
What is the main effect of climate change?
Answer:
Climate change increases land and ocean temperature changes precipitation patterns and raises the sea level.

Question 9.
Name any two alien species introduced in India.
Answer:
The alien species introduced in India include Tilapia, Oreochromis mossambicus and Amazon sailfin catfish.

Question 10.
Define Endangered Species.
Answer:
Endangered species are defined as species that are very likely to be extinct in near future.

Question 11.
Expand IUCN.
Answer:
IUCN means International Union for Conservation of Nature.

Question 12.
Name any two national tiger reserves.
Answer:

1. Jim Corbett National park.
2. Kalakkad – Mundamthurai tiger reserve.

Short answer questions

Question 1.
What are sacred groves?
Answer:
Sacred groves of sacred woods are any assemblages of trees that are of special importance to a particular religion or culture. Sacred groves are seen in various cultures throughout the world. It is considered as one of the means of in situ conservation of plants and their associated organisms.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of gene banks? Gene banks are a type of biorepository, which collect and store genetic materials. The advantages of gene banks are as follows.
Answer:

1. The seeds of different genetic strains of commercially important plants can be stored for long periods in the seed bank.
2. Using the cryopreservation technique, the gametes of threatened species can be preserved in viable and fertile conditions.
3. Endangered species can be revived.

Question 3.
Write briefly about the principles of the Stockholm Declaration, 1972.
Answer:
The Stockholm convention in 1972 declared that the natural resources of Earth such as air, water, land, flora, and fauna of the natural ecosystems must be protected for the benefit of present and future generations. This should be done through careful planning, appropriate management, and judicial execution.

Question 4.
Name any three National parks in Tamil Nadu, their year, and place of establishment.
Answer:

Question 5.
List out any three important roles of IUCN.
Answer:

1. It influences, assists and encourages societies in the world to conserve nature and to ensure that any use of natural resources is equitable and ecologically sustainable.
2. It influences Governments and industries through partnerships by providing information and advice.
3. It helps in the implementation of several international conventions on nature conservation and biodiversity.

Question 6.
Explain Coextinction with an example.
Answer:
Coextinction of a species is the loss of a species as a consequence of the extinction of another species.
Eg: Orchid bees and forest trees by cross-pollination. When the bees become extinct, the cross-pollination will not take place in forest trees and tree populations may also slowly become extinct.

Long answer questions

Question 1.
The richness of biodiversity in tropics is more. Justify.
Answer:
The reasons for the richness of biodiversity in the tropics are:

1. The warm tropical region on either side of the equator provides congenial habitat for living organisms.
2. Environmental conditions in the tropics are conducive for speciation as well as for supporting both variety and number of organisms.
3. The temperature in the tropic ranges between 25°C and 35°C, which are ideal for most of the metabolic activities of organisms.
4. The average rainfall is more than 200 mm per year, which is sufficient to support the whole ecosystem.
5. Rich resource and nutrient availability to support the functions of the ecosystem.
6. Climate, seasons, temperature, humidity, photoperiod etc., are more or less stable and encourage both variety and number.

Question 2.
List out the Biogeographical regions of India with their fauna.
Answer:

Question 3.
Pollutants and pollution are a major cause for biodiversity loss – Justify.
Answer:

1. The excessive use of fertilizers, pesticides, and heavy metals has polluted the land, ground, and surface water bodies.
2. There is a decline in the population of fish-eating birds and falcons due to pesticide biomagnification, which results in high concentrations of such pesticides in higher tropic levels like fishes.
3. Eutrophication of water bodies has resulted from the runoff from fertilizer-rich fields.
4. Metal contamination like mercury arsenic, cadmium, and chromium have to lead to the depletion of biotic resources in vulnerable ecosystems.
5. The veterinary medicine, Diclofenac used for the thinning of eggshells is said to be responsible for the death of the vulture population.

Question 4.
Explain the species-area relationship with the help of a diagram?
Answer:
The relationship between species richness and area for a wide variety of taxa (plants, birds, bats, freshwater fishes) will be a rectangular hyperbola in an arithmetic graph.
On a logarithmic scale, the relationship is a straight line described by the equation:
Log S = Log C + Z log A
where
S = Species richness
A = Area
Z = Slope of the line
C = Y-intercept .

Generally the regression coefficients or the slope value of the curve, Z has a value of 0.1- 0.2 regardless of taxonomic group or region. If the area is more like the entire continent, the curve will be steeper, the Z value being 0.6 – 1.2

Choose the correct answers:

1. Match the following:

(a) (p)-(iv); (q)-(iii); (r)-(ii); (s)-(i)
(b) (p)-(iv); (q)-(iii); (r)-(i); (s)-(ii)
(c) (p)-(ii); (q)-(i); (r)-(ivj; (s)-(iii)
(d) (p)-(iii); (q)-(iv); (r)-(i); (s)-(ii)
Answer:
(c) (p)-(ii); (q)-(i); (r)-(ivj; (s)-(iii)

2. Match the following:

(a) (p)-(iv); (q)-(iii); (r)-(ii); (s)~(i)
(b) (p)-(iv); (q)-(iii); (r)-(i); (s)-(ii)
(c) (p)-(ii); (q)-(i); (r)-(iv); (s)-(iii)
(d) (p)-(iii); (q)-(iv); (r)-(ii); (s)-(i)
Answer:
(b) (p)-(iv); (q)-(iii); (r)-(i); (s)-(ii)

3. Match the following:

(a) (p)-(iv); (q)-(iii); (r)-(ii); (s)-(i)
(b) (p)-(iii); (q)-(iv); (r)-(i); (s)-(ii)
(c) (p)-(ii); (q)-(i); (r)-(iv); (s)-(iii)
(d) (p)-(iii); (q)-(iv); (r)-(ii); (s)-(i)
Answer:
(d) (p)-(iii); (q)-(iv); (r)-(ii); (s)-(i)

4. Match the following:


(a) (p)-(iii); (q)-(iv); (r)-(i); (s)-(ii)
(b) (p)-(iv); (q)-(iii); (r)-(ii); (s)-(i)
(c) (p)-(iv); (q)-(iii); (r)-(i); (s)-(ii)
(d) (p)-(ii); (q)-(i); (r)-(iv); (s)-(iii)
Answer:
(a) (p)-(iii); (q)-(iv); (r)-(i); (s)-(ii)

5. Sunda lands include:
(a) Himalaya
(b) Nicobar islands
(c) Andaman
(d) Srilanka
Answer:
(b) Nicobar islands

6. The year of establishment of Mudumalai NP is:
(a) 1976
(b) 1980
(c) 1990
(d) 1989
Answer:
(c) 1990

7. Biosphere reserve in India includes:
(a) Gulf of Mannar
(b) Madras Crocodile Bank
(c) Guindy National park
(d) National tiger project
Answer:
(a) Gulf of Mannar

8. The UN Earth summit, which defined Biodiversity, was held in the year:
(a) 1990
(b) 1992
(c) 1982
(d) 1996
Answer:
(b) 1992

9. Choose the odd man out:
(a) Walter Rosen
(b) Alexander Rom Humboldt
(c) Charles Darwin
(d) Edward Wilson
Answer:
(c) Charles Darwin

10. Find out the odd one:
(a) Oryza sativa
(b) mango
(c) wheat
(d) Rouwolfia vomitaria
Answer:
(d) Rouwolfia vomitaria

11. Indicate the odd one out:
(a) the Western Ghats
(b) Gulf of Mannar
(c) the Himalayas
(d) Gangetic plain
Answer:
(b) Gulf of Mannar

12. Choose the odd one out:
(a) Habitat lose
(b) Pollution
(c) Population control
(d) Overexploitation
Answer:
(c) Population control

13. Which of the following is the correct pair?

Answer:
(d)

14. Choose the incorrect pair:

Answer:
(b)

15. Find out the correct pair:

Answer:
(a)

16. Which of the following is an incorrect pair?

Answer:
(d)

17. Assertion and reason:
Assertion: Biodiversity is very important and worthy to protection.
Reason: Because it provides sustainable benefits for the present as well as future generations.
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct, reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct, reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is not correct.
(d) Assertion is not correct, reason is correct.
(e) Both assertion and reason are not correct.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct, reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

18. Assertion: Gene bank is a type of biorepository of genetic materials.
Reason: The genetic materials can be retrieved to revive endangered/threatened species.
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct, reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct, reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is not correct.
(d) Assertion is not correct, reason is correct.
(e) Both assertion and reason are not correct.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct, reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

19. Assertion: Biodiversity supplies a large number of goods and services that sustain human life.
Reason: It supplies food, fuel, and building materials.
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct, reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct, reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is not correct.
(d) Assertion is not correct, reason is correct.
(e) Both assertion and reason are not correct.
Answer:
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct, reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

20. Assertion: Arignar Anna Zoological Park at Vandalur is the place of in-situ conservation of animals.
Reason: The Zoo has many attractive features like a Butterfly park, Aviary, Lion and deer safari, forest museum, etc.
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct, reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct, reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is not correct.
(d) Assertion is not correct, reason is correct.
(e) Both assertion and reason are not correct.
Answer:
(d) Assertion is not correct, reason is correct.

21. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Ex-situ conservation is the conservation of a species in places of their natural homes.
(b) Ex-situ conservation is the conservation of species in Botanical gardens.
(c) Ex-situ conservation is the conservation of animals/plants in places outside their natural homes.
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Ex-situ conservation is the conservation of animals/plants in places outside their natural homes.

22. Choose the incorrect statement:
(a) Biodiversity is the variety of all life on Earth.
(b) To date, about one million species have been identified on Earth.
(c) Sacred groves feature in various cultures throughout the world.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) To date, about one million species have been identified on Earth.

23. Identify the correct statement:
(a) Pollution is the only major cause of biodiversity loss.
(b) Species have been evolving and dying out ever since the origin of life.
(c) Nowadays, the species are becoming extinct at a slower rate.
(d) All the above statements are correct.
Answer:
(b) Species have been evolving and dying out ever since the origin of life.

24. Find out the incorrect statement:
(a) The term biodiversity was first introduced by Edward Wilson.
(b) The term biodiversity was first coined by Walter Rosen.
(c) The term biodiversity was popularised by Edward Wilson.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) The term biodiversity was first introduced by Edward Wilson.