Category: Class 11

Students can download 11th Business Maths Chapter 2 Algebra Ex 2.1 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Algebra Ex 2.1

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Algebra Ex 2.1 Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Resolve into partial fractions for the following:

Question 1.
\(\frac{3 x+7}{x^{2}-3 x+2}\)
Solution:
Here the denominator x² – 3x + 2 is not a linear factor.
So if possible we have to factorise it then only we can split up into partial fraction.
x² – 3x + 2 = (x – 1) (x – 2)
\(\frac{3 x+7}{(x-1)(x-2)}=\frac{A}{x-1}+\frac{B}{x-2}\) …….. (1)
Multiply both side by (x – 1) (x – 2)
3x + 7 = A(x – 2) + B(x – 1) …….. (2)
Put x = 2 in (2) we get
3(2) + 7 = A(2 – 2) + B(2 – 1)
6 + 7 = 0 + B(1)
∴ B = 13
Put x = 1 in (2) we get
3(1) + 7 = A(1 – 2) + B(1 – 1)
3 + 7 = A (-1) + 0
10 = A(-1)
∴ A = -10
Using A = -10 and B = 13 in (1) we get

Note: When the denominator is only two linear factors we can adopt the following method.

Question 2.
\(\frac{4 x+1}{(x-2)(x+1)}\)
Solution:
Let \(\frac{4 x+1}{(x-2)(x+1)}=\frac{A}{x-2}+\frac{B}{x+1}\) ……… (1)
Multiply both sides by (x – 2) (x + 1) we get
4x + 1 = A(x + 1) + B(x – 2) ……. (2)
Put x = -1 in (2) we get
4(-1) + 1 = A(-1 + 1) + B(-1 – 2)
-4 + 1 = A(0) + B(-3)
-3 = B(-3)
B = \(\frac{-3}{-3}\) = 1
Put x = 2 in (2) we get
4(2) + 1 = A(2 + 1) + B(2 – 2)
8 + 1 = A(3) + B(0)
9 = 3A
A = 3
Using A = 3, B = 1 in (1) we get
\(\frac{4 x+1}{(x-2)(x+1)}=\frac{3}{x-2}+\frac{1}{x+1}\)

Question 3.
\(\frac{1}{(x-1)(x+2)^{2}}\)
Solution:
Here the denominator has repeated factors. So we write
\(\frac{1}{(x-1)(x+2)^{2}}=\frac{A}{x-1}+\frac{B}{(x+2)}+\frac{C}{(x+2)^{2}}\) …… (1)
Multiply both sides by (x – 1) (x + 2)² we get
1 = A(x + 2)² + B(x – 1) (x + 2) + C(x – 1) …… (2)
Put x = 1 in (2) we get
1 = A(1 + 2)² + B(1 – 1) (1 + 2) + C(1 – 1)
1 = A(3²) + 0 + 0
1 = 9A
A = \(\frac{1}{9}\)
Put x = -2 in (2) we get
1 = A(-2 + 2)² + B(-2 – 1) (-2 + 2) + C(-2 – 1)
1 = 0 + 0 + C(-3)
C = \(\frac{-1}{3}\)
From (2) we have
1 = A(x + 2)² + B(x – 1) (x + 2) + C(x – 1)
0x² + 1 = A(x² + 4x + 4) + B(x² + x – 2) + C(x – 1)
Equating coefficient of x² on both sides we get
0 = A + B
0 = \(\frac{1}{9}\) (∴ A = \(\frac{1}{9}\))
B = \(-\frac{1}{9}\)
Using A = \(\frac{1}{9}\), B = \(-\frac{1}{9}\), C = \(-\frac{1}{3}\) in (1) we get,

Question 4.
\(\frac{1}{x^{2}-1}\)
Solution:

1 = A(x – 1) + B(x + 1) ……. (2)
Put x = 1 in (2) we get
1 = 0 + B(1 + 1)
1 = B(2)
B = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Put x = -1 in (2) we get
1 = A(-1 – 1) + B(-1 + 1)
1 = -2A + 0
A = \(\frac{-1}{2}\)
Using A = \(\frac{-1}{2}\), B = \(\frac{1}{2}\) in (1) we get

Question 5.
\(\frac{x-2}{(x+2)(x-1)^{2}}\)
Solution:

x – 2 = A(x – 1)² + B(x + 2) (x – 1) + C(x + 2) ……(2)
Put x = 1 in (2) we get
1 – 2 = A(1 – 1)² + B(1 + 2) (1 – 1) + C(1 + 2)
-1 = 0 + 0 + 3C
C = \(-\frac{1}{3}\)
Put x = -2 in (2) we get
-2 – 2 = A(-2 – 1)² + B(-2 + 2) (-2 – 1) + C(-2 + 2)
-4 = A(-3)² + 0 + 0
-4 = 9A
A = \(\frac{-4}{9}\)
From (2) we have,
0x² + x – 2 = A(x – 1)² + B(x + 2) (x – 1) + C(x + 2)
Equating coefficients of x² on both sides we get
0 = A + B
0 = \(\frac{-4}{9}\) + B (∵ A = \(\frac{-4}{9}\))
B = \(\frac{4}{9}\)
Using A = \(\frac{-4}{9}\), B = \(\frac{4}{9}\), C = \(-\frac{1}{3}\) in (1) we get

Question 6.
\(\frac{2 x^{2}-5 x-7}{(x-2)^{3}}\)
Solution:

2x² – 5x – 7 = A(x – 2)² + B(x – 2) + C
2x² – 5x – 7 = A(x² – 4x + 4) + B(x – 2) + C …….. (2)
Put x = 2 in (2) we get
2(2²) – 5(2) – 7 = A(0) + B(0) + C
8 – 10 – 7 = 0 + 0 + C
-9 = C
C = -9
Equating coefficient of x2 on both sides of (2) we get
2 = A
A = 2
Equating coefficient of x on both sides of (2) we get
-5 = A(-4) + B(1)
-5 = 2(-4) + B(∵ A = 2)
-5 = -8 + B
B = 8 – 5 = 3
Using A = 2, B = 3, C = -9 in (1) we get

Question 7.
\(\frac{x^{2}-6 x+2}{x^{2}(x+2)}\)
Solution:
Here the denominator has three factors. So given fraction can be expressed as a sum of three simple fractions.
Let \(\frac{x^{2}-6 x+2}{x^{2}(x+2)}=\frac{A}{x}+\frac{B}{x^{2}}+\frac{C}{x+2}\) …… (1)
Multiply both sides by x² (x + 2) we get

x² – 6x + 2 = Ax(x + 2) + B(x + 2) + C(x²) ……… (2)
Put x = 0 in (2) we get
0 – 0 + 2 = 0 + B(0 + 2) + 0
2 = B(2)
B = 1
Put x = -2 in (2) we get
(-2)² – 6(-2) + 2 = 0 + 0 + C(-2)²
4 + 12 + 2 = C(4)
18 = 4C
C = \(\frac{9}{2}\)
Comparing coefficient of x² on both sides of (2) we get,
1 = A + C
1 = A + \(\frac{9}{2}\)
A = 1 – \(\frac{9}{2}\) = \(\frac{2-9}{2}=\frac{-7}{2}\)
Using A = \(\frac{-7}{2}\), B = 1, C = \(\frac{9}{2}\) in (1) we get,
\(\frac{\left(x^{2}-6 x+2\right)}{x^{2}(x+2)}=\frac{-7}{2 x}+\frac{1}{x^{2}}+\frac{9}{2(x+2)}\)

Question 8.
\(\frac{x^{2}-3}{(x+2)\left(x^{2}+1\right)}\)
Solution:
Here the quadratic factor x² + 1 is not factorisable.
Let \(\frac{x^{2}-3}{(x+2)\left(x^{2}+1\right)}=\frac{A}{x+2}+\frac{(B x+C)}{x^{2}+1}\) ….. (1)
Multiply both sides by (x + 2) (x² + 1) we get,
x² – 3 = A(x² + 1) + (Bx + C) (x + 2)
Put x = -2 we get
(-2)² – 3 = [A(-2)² + 1] + 0
4 – 3 = A(4 + 1)
1 = 5A
A = \(\frac{1}{5}\)
Equating coefficient of x² on both sides of (2) we get
1 = A + B
1 = \(\frac{1}{5}\) + B
B = 1 – \(\frac{1}{5}\) = \(\frac{4}{5}\)
Equating coefficients of x on both sides of (2) we get
0 = 2B + C
0 = 2(\(\frac{4}{5}\)) + C
C = \(\frac{-8}{5}\)
Using A, B, C’s values in (1) we get

Question 9.
\(\frac{x+2}{(x-1)(x+3)^{2}}\)
Solution:
Here the denominator has three factors. So given fraction can be expressed as a sum of three simple fractions.
Let \(\frac{x+2}{(x-1)(x+3)^{2}}=\frac{A}{x-1}+\frac{B}{x+3}+\frac{C}{(x+3)^{2}}\) ……. (1)
Multiply both sides by (x – 1) (x + 3)² we get
\(\frac{x+2}{(x-1)(x+3)^{2}}\) (x – 1) (x + 3)² = \(\frac{A}{x-1}\) (x – 1) (x + 3)² +
\(\frac{B}{x+3}\) (x – 1) (x + 3)² + \(\frac{C}{(x+3)^{2}}\) (x – 1) (x + 3)²
x + 2 = A(x + 3)² + B(x – 1) (x + 3) + C(x – 1) ……. (2)
Put x = 1 in (2) we get
1 + 2 = A(1 + 3)² + 0 + 0
3 = A(4)²
A = \(\frac{3}{16}\)
Put x = -3 in (2) we get
-3 + 2 = 0 + 0 + C(-3 – 1)
-1 = C(-4)
C = \(\frac{1}{4}\)
Comparing coefficient of x² on both sides of (2) we get,
0 = A + B
0 = \(\frac{3}{16}\) + B
B = \(-\frac{3}{16}\)
Using A = \(\frac{3}{16}\), B = \(-\frac{3}{16}\), C = \(\frac{1}{4}\) in (1) we get,
\(\frac{x+2}{(x-1)(x+3)^{2}}=\frac{3}{16(x-1)}-\frac{3}{16(x+3)}+\frac{1}{4(x+3)^{2}}\)

Question 10.
\(\frac{1}{\left(x^{2}+4\right)(x+1)}\)
Solution:
Here the quadratic factor x² + 4 is not factorisable.
Let \(\frac{1}{(x+1)\left(x^{2}+4\right)}=\frac{A}{x+1}+\frac{B x+C}{x^{2}+4}\) ……. (1)
Multiply both sides by (x + 1) (x² + 4) we get
1 = A(x² + 4) + (Bx + C) (x + 1) ……. (2)
Put x = -1 in (2) we get
1 = A((-1)² + 4) + 0
1 = A(1 + 4)
A = \(\frac{1}{5}\)
Equating coefficient of x² on both sides of (2) we get,
0 = A + B
0 = \(\frac{1}{5}\) + B
B = \(\frac{-1}{5}\)
Equating coefficient of x on both sides of (2) we get,
{∵ (Bx + C) (x + 1) = Bx² + Cx = Bx + C}
0 = B + C
0 = \(\frac{-1}{5}\) + C
C = \(\frac{1}{5}\)
Using A = \(\frac{1}{5}\), B = \(\frac{-1}{5}\), C = \(\frac{1}{5}\) we get,

Students can download 11th Business Maths Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.5 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.5

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.5 Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Choose the Correct Answer.

Question 1.
The value of x if \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
0 & 1 & 0 \\
x & 2 & x \\
1 & 3 & x
\end{array}\right|=0\) is
(a) 0, -1
(b) 0, 1
(c) -1, 1
(d) -1, -1
Answer:
(b) 0, 1
Hint:
0 – 1[x² – x] + 0 = 0
⇒ x² – x = 0
⇒ x(x – 1) = 0
⇒ x = 0 (or) x = 1

Question 2.
The value of \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
2 x+y & x & y \\
2 y+z & y & z \\
2 z+x & z & x
\end{array}\right|\) is
(a) xyz
(b) x + y + z
(c) 2x + 2y + 2z
(d) 0
Answer:
(d) 0
Hint:
= \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
2 x & x & y \\
2 y & y & z \\
2 z & z & x
\end{array}\right|\) C₁ → C₁ – C₃
= 0 (C₁ and C₂ are proportional)

Question 3.
The cofactor of -7 in the determinant \(\left|\begin{array}{rrr}
2 & -3 & 5 \\
6 & 0 & 4 \\
1 & 5 & -7
\end{array}\right|\) is
(a) -18
(b) 18
(c) -7
(d) 7
Answer:
(b) 18
Hint:
A cofactor of -7 = \(\left|\begin{array}{rr}
2 & -3 \\
6 & 0
\end{array}\right|\)
= 0 + 18
= 18

Question 4.
If Δ = \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 2 & 3 \\
3 & 1 & 2 \\
2 & 3 & 1
\end{array}\right|\) then \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
3 & 1 & 2 \\
1 & 2 & 3 \\
2 & 3 & 1
\end{array}\right|\) is
(a) Δ
(b) -Δ
(c) 3Δ
(d) -3Δ
Answer:
(b) -Δ
Hint:
\(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
3 & 1 & 2 \\
1 & 2 & 3 \\
2 & 3 & 1
\end{array}\right|=-\left|\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 2 & 3 \\
3 & 1 & 2 \\
2 & 3 & 1
\end{array}\right|\) R₁ ↔ R₂
= -Δ

Question 5.
The value of the determinant \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
a & 0 & 0 \\
0 & b & 0 \\
0 & 0 & c
\end{array}\right|^{2}\) is
(a) abc
(b) 0
(c) a²b²c²
(d) -abc
Answer:
(c) a²b²c²
Hint:
\(a^{2} b^{2} c^{2}\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & 0 & 0 \\
0 & 1 & 0 \\
0 & 0 & 1
\end{array}\right|\)
= a²b²c² × 1²
= a²b²c²

Question 6.
If A is square matrix of order 3 then |kA| is:
(a) k|A|
(b) -k|A|
(c) k³|A|
(d) -k³|A|
Answer:
(c) k³|A|

Question 7.
adj (AB) is equal to:
(a) adj A adj B
(b) adj A^T adj B^T
(c) adj B adj A
(d) adj B^T adj A^T
Answer:
(c) adj B adj A

Question 8.
The inverse matrix of \(\left(\begin{array}{cc}
\frac{4}{5} & \frac{5}{12} \\
\frac{2}{5} & \frac{1}{2}
\end{array}\right)\) is
(a) \(\frac{7}{30}\left(\begin{array}{cc}
\frac{1}{2} & \frac{5}{12} \\
\frac{2}{5} & \frac{4}{5}
\end{array}\right)\)
(b) \(\frac{7}{30}\left(\begin{array}{cc}
\frac{1}{2} & \frac{-5}{12} \\
\frac{-2}{5} & \frac{1}{5}
\end{array}\right)\)
(c) \(\frac{30}{7}\left(\begin{array}{rr}
\frac{1}{2} & \frac{5}{12} \\
\frac{2}{5} & \frac{4}{5}
\end{array}\right)\)
(d) \(\frac{30}{7}\left(\begin{array}{rr}
\frac{1}{2} & \frac{-5}{12} \\
\frac{-2}{5} & \frac{4}{5}
\end{array}\right)\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{30}{7}\left(\begin{array}{rr}
\frac{1}{2} & \frac{5}{12} \\
\frac{2}{5} & \frac{4}{5}
\end{array}\right)\)

Question 9.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
a & b \\
c & d
\end{array}\right]\) such that ad – bc ≠ 0 then A^-1 is:
(a) \(\frac{1}{a d-b c}\left[\begin{array}{cc}
d & b \\
-c & a
\end{array}\right]\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{a d-b c}\left[\begin{array}{ll}
d & b \\
c & a
\end{array}\right]\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{a d-b c}\left[\begin{array}{cc}
d & -b \\
-c & a
\end{array}\right]\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{a d-b c}\left[\begin{array}{ll}
d & -b \\
c & a
\end{array}\right]\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{1}{a d-b c}\left[\begin{array}{cc}
d & -b \\
-c & a
\end{array}\right]\)
Hint:

Question 10.
The number of Hawkins-Simon conditions for the viability of input-output analysis is:
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 2
Answer:
(d) 2

Question 11.
The inventor of input-output analysis is:
(a) Sir Francis Galton
(b) Fisher
(c) Prof. Wassily W. Leontief
(d) Arthur Cayley
Answer:
(c) Prof. Wassily W. Leontief

Question 12.
Which of the following matrix has no inverse?
(a) \(\left(\begin{array}{rr}
-1 & 1 \\
1 & -4
\end{array}\right)\)
(b) \(\left(\begin{array}{rr}
2 & -1 \\
-4 & 2
\end{array}\right)\)
(c) \(\left(\begin{array}{cc}
\cos a & \sin a \\
-\sin a & \cos a
\end{array}\right)\)
(d) \(\left(\begin{array}{rr}
\sin a & \sin a \\
-\cos a & \cos a
\end{array}\right)\)
Answer:
(b) \(\left(\begin{array}{rr}
2 & -1 \\
-4 & 2
\end{array}\right)\)
Hint:
So \(\left(\begin{array}{rr}
2 & -1 \\
-4 & 2
\end{array}\right)\) has no inverse.

Question 13.
Inverse of \(\left(\begin{array}{ll}
3 & 1 \\
5 & 2
\end{array}\right)\) is:
(a) \(\left(\begin{array}{rr}
2 & -1 \\
-5 & 3
\end{array}\right)\)
(b) \(\left(\begin{array}{rr}
-2 & 5 \\
1 & -3
\end{array}\right)\)
(c) \(\left(\begin{array}{rr}
3 & -1 \\
-5 & -3
\end{array}\right)\)
(d) \(\left(\begin{array}{rr}
-3 & 5 \\
1 & -2
\end{array}\right)\)
Answer:
(a) \(\left(\begin{array}{rr}
2 & -1 \\
-5 & 3
\end{array}\right)\)
Hint:
Let A = \(\left(\begin{array}{ll}
3 & 1 \\
5 & 2
\end{array}\right)\)
|A| = [6 – 5] = 1
adj A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
2 & -1 \\
-5 & 3
\end{array}\right]\)
∴ A^-1 = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
2 & -1 \\
-5 & 3
\end{array}\right]\)

Question 14.
If A = \(\left(\begin{array}{rr}
-1 & 2 \\
1 & -4
\end{array}\right)\) then A (adj A) is:
(a) \(\left(\begin{array}{ll}
-4 & -2 \\
-1 & -1
\end{array}\right)\)
(b) \(\left(\begin{array}{rr}
4 & -2 \\
-1 & 1
\end{array}\right)\)
(c) \(\left(\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 0 \\
0 & 2
\end{array}\right)\)
(d) \(\left(\begin{array}{ll}
0 & 2 \\
2 & 0
\end{array}\right)\)
Answer:
(c) \(\left(\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 0 \\
0 & 2
\end{array}\right)\)
Hint:
A = \(\left(\begin{array}{rr}
-1 & 2 \\
1 & -4
\end{array}\right)\)
|A| = 4 – 2 = 2
We know that A (adj A) = |A| I
⇒ 2 \(\left(\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right)=\left(\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 0 \\
0 & 2
\end{array}\right)\)

Question 15.
If A and B non-singular matrix then, which of the following is incorrect?
(a) A² = I implies A^-1 = A
(b) I^-1 = I
(c) If AX = B then X = B^-1A
(d) If A is square matrix of order 3 then |adj A| = |A|²
Answer:
(c) If AX = B then X = B^-1A
Hint:
If AX = B then X = A^-1B so, X = B^-1A is incorrect.

Question 16.
The value of \(\left|\begin{array}{rrr}
5 & 5 & 5 \\
4 x & 4 y & 4 z \\
-3 x & -3 y & -3 z
\end{array}\right|\) is:
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 0
(d) -3
Answer:
(c) 0
Hint:
= 4 × (-3) \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
5 & 5 & 5 \\
x & y & z \\
x & y & z
\end{array}\right|\)
[Take out 4 from R₂ and -3 from R₃]
= 0 (∵ R₂ ≡ R₃)

Question 17.
If A is an invertible matrix of order 2 then det (A^-1) be equal
(a) det (A)
(b) \(\frac{1}{{det}(A)}\)
(c) 1
(d) 0
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{1}{{det}(A)}\)
Hint:
AA^-1 = I
|AA^-1| = |I|
|A| |A^-1| = 1
|A^-1| = \(\frac{1}{|\mathrm{A}|}\)
det A^-1 = \(\frac{1}{\det (A)}\)

Question 18.
If A is 3 × 3 matrix and |A| = 4 then |A^-1| is equal to:
(a) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{16}\)
(c) 2
(d) 4
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
Hint:
|A^-1| = \(\frac{1}{|A|}=\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 19.
If A is a square matrix of order 3 and |A| = 3 then |adj A| is equal to:
(a) 81
(b) 27
(c) 3
(d) 9
Answer:
(d) 9
Hint:
|adj A| = |A|² = 3² = 9

Question 20.
The value of \(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
x & x^{2}-y z & 1 \\
y & y^{2}-z x & 1 \\
z & z^{2}-x y & 1
\end{array}\right|\) is:
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) -1
(d) -xyz
Answer:
(b) 0
Hint:

Question 21.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
\cos \theta & \sin \theta \\
-\sin \theta & \cos \theta
\end{array}\right]\), then |2A| is equal to:
(a) 4 cos 2θ
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1
Answer:
(b) 4
Hint:
|2A| = 2² |A|
= 4 \(\left|\begin{array}{rr}
\cos \theta & \sin \theta \\
-\sin \theta & \cos \theta
\end{array}\right|\)
= 4 [cos²θ + sin²θ]
= 4 × 1
= 4

Question 22.
If Δ = \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
a_{11} & a_{12} & a_{13} \\
a_{21} & a_{22} & a_{23} \\
a_{31} & a_{32} & a_{33}
\end{array}\right|\) and A_ij is cofactor of a_ij, then value of Δ is given by:
(a) a₁₁A₃₁ + a₁₂A₃₂ + a₁₃A₃₃
(b) a₁₁A₁₁ + a₁₂A₂₁ + a₁₃A₃₁
(c) a₂₁A₁₁ + a₂₂A₁₂ + a₂₃A₁₃
(d) a₁₁A₁₁ + a₂₁A₂₁ + a₃₁A₃₁
Answer:
(d) a₁₁A₁₁ + a₂₁A₂₁ + a₃₁A₃₁

Question 23.
If \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
x & 2 \\
8 & 5
\end{array}\right|=0\) then the value of x is:
(a) \(\frac{-5}{6}\)
(b) \(\frac{5}{6}\)
(c) \(\frac{-16}{5}\)
(d) \(\frac{16}{5}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{16}{5}\)
Hint:
\(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
x & 2 \\
8 & 5
\end{array}\right|=0\)
5x – 16 = 0
⇒ x = \(\frac{16}{5}\)

Question 24.
If \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
4 & 3 \\
3 & 1
\end{array}\right|\) = -5 then the value of \(\left|\begin{array}{rr}
20 & 15 \\
15 & 5
\end{array}\right|\) is:
(a) -5
(b) -125
(c) -25
(4) 0
Answer:
(b) -125
Hint:
\(\left|\begin{array}{rr}
20 & 15 \\
15 & 5
\end{array}\right|\)
= 5 × 5 \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
4 & 3 \\
3 & 1
\end{array}\right|\)
= 5 × 5 × (-5)
= -125

Question 25.
If any three rows or columns of a determinant are identical then the value of the determinant is:
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 3
Answer:
(a) 0

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Guide Book Back Answers

Tamilnadu State Board Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Book Back Answers Solutions Guide Volume 1 and Volume 2.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Book Back Answers

Tamilnadu State Board Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Book Volume 1 Solutions

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Guide Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants

• Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.1
• Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.2
• Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.3
• Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.4
• Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.5

11th Business Maths Book Back Answers Chapter 2 Algebra

• Chapter 2 Algebra Ex 2.1
• Chapter 2 Algebra Ex 2.2
• Chapter 2 Algebra Ex 2.3
• Chapter 2 Algebra Ex 2.4
• Chapter 2 Algebra Ex 2.5
• Chapter 2 Algebra Ex 2.6
• Chapter 2 Algebra Ex 2.7

11th Business Maths Solution Book Chapter 3 Analytical Geometry

• Chapter 3 Analytical Geometry Ex 3.1
• Chapter 3 Analytical Geometry Ex 3.2
• Chapter 3 Analytical Geometry Ex 3.3
• Chapter 3 Analytical Geometry Ex 3.4
• Chapter 3 Analytical Geometry Ex 3.5
• Chapter 3 Analytical Geometry Ex 3.6
• Chapter 3 Analytical Geometry Ex 3.7

11th Samacheer Business Maths Book Chapter 4 Trigonometry

• Chapter 4 Trigonometry Ex 4.1
• Chapter 4 Trigonometry Ex 4.2
• Chapter 4 Trigonometry Ex 4.3
• Chapter 4 Trigonometry Ex 4.4
• Chapter 4 Trigonometry Ex 4.5

11th Business Maths Guide Volume 1 Chapter 5 Differential Calculus

• Chapter 5 Differential Calculus Ex 5.1
• Chapter 5 Differential Calculus Ex 5.2
• Chapter 5 Differential Calculus Ex 5.3
• Chapter 5 Differential Calculus Ex 5.4
• Chapter 5 Differential Calculus Ex 5.5
• Chapter 5 Differential Calculus Ex 5.6
• Chapter 5 Differential Calculus Ex 5.7
• Chapter 5 Differential Calculus Ex 5.8
• Chapter 5 Differential Calculus Ex 5.9
• Chapter 5 Differential Calculus Ex 5.10

Tamilnadu State Board Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Book Volume 2 Solutions

11th Business Maths Guide Volume 2 Chapter 6 Applications of Differentiation

• Chapter 6 Applications of Differentiation Ex 6.1
• Chapter 6 Applications of Differentiation Ex 6.2
• Chapter 6 Applications of Differentiation Ex 6.3
• Chapter 6 Applications of Differentiation Ex 6.4
• Chapter 6 Applications of Differentiation Ex 6.5
• Chapter 6 Applications of Differentiation Ex 6.6

TN 11th Business Maths Solution Book Chapter 7 Financial Mathematics

• Chapter 7 Financial Mathematics Ex 7.1
• Chapter 7 Financial Mathematics Ex 7.2
• Chapter 7 Financial Mathematics Ex 7.3

11th Std Business Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 8 Descriptive Statistics and Probability

• Chapter 8 Descriptive Statistics and Probability Ex 8.1
• Chapter 8 Descriptive Statistics and Probability Ex 8.2
• Chapter 8 Descriptive Statistics and Probability Ex 8.3

11th Business Maths Book Answer Key Chapter 9 Correlation and Regression Analysis

• Chapter 9 Correlation and Regression Analysis Ex 9.1
• Chapter 9 Correlation and Regression Analysis Ex 9.2
• Chapter 9 Correlation and Regression Analysis Ex 9.3

11th Business Maths Book Pdf Chapter 10 Operations Research

• Chapter 10 Operations Research Ex 10.1
• Chapter 10 Operations Research Ex 10.2
• Chapter 10 Operations Research Ex 10.3

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Students can download 11th Business Maths Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.3 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.3

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.3 Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Solve by matrix inversion method: 2x + 3y – 5 = 0; x – 2y + 1 = 0.
Solution:
2x + 3y = 5
x – 2y = -1
The given system can be written as
\(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
2 & 3 \\
1 & -2
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{r}
5 \\
-1
\end{array}\right]\)
AX = B
where A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
2 & 3 \\
1 & -2
\end{array}\right]\), X = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{r}
5 \\
-1
\end{array}\right]\)
|A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{rr}
2 & 3 \\
1 & -2
\end{array}\right|\) = -4 – 3 = -7 ≠ 0
∴ A^-1 Exists.

∴ x = 1, y = 1

Question 2.
Solve by matrix inversion method:
(i) 3x – y + 2z = 13; 2x + y – z = 3; x + 3y – 5z = -8
(ii) x – y + 2z = 3; 2x + z = 1; 3x + 2y + z = 4
(iii) 2x – z = 0; 5x + y = 4; y + 3z = 5
Solution:
(i) The given system can be written as
\(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
3 & -1 & 2 \\
2 & 1 & -1 \\
1 & 3 & -5
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{r}
13 \\
3 \\
-8
\end{array}\right]\)
AX = B
Where A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
3 & -1 & 2 \\
2 & 1 & -1 \\
1 & 3 & -5
\end{array}\right]\), X = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{r}
13 \\
3 \\
-8
\end{array}\right]\)
|A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{rrr}
3 & -1 & 2 \\
2 & 1 & -1 \\
1 & 3 & -5
\end{array}\right|\)
= 3(-5 + 3) – (-1) (-10 + 1) + 2 (6 – 1)
= 3(-2) + 1(-9) + 2(5)
= -6 – 9 + 10
= -5




\(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{r}
3 \\
-2 \\
1
\end{array}\right]\)
∴ x = 3, y = -2, z = 1.

(ii) The given system can be written as
\(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & -1 & 2 \\
2 & 0 & 1 \\
3 & 2 & 1
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{l}
3 \\
1 \\
4
\end{array}\right]\)
AX = B
where A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & -1 & 2 \\
2 & 0 & 1 \\
3 & 2 & 1
\end{array}\right]\), X = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
3 \\
1 \\
4
\end{array}\right]\)
|A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & -1 & 2 \\
2 & 0 & 1 \\
3 & 2 & 1
\end{array}\right|\)
= 1(0 – 2) – (-1)(2 – 3) + 2(4 – 0)
= -2 – (-1)(-1) + 2(4)
= -2 – 1 + 8
= 5



\(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{r}
-1 \\
2 \\
3
\end{array}\right]\)
x = -1, y = 2, z = 3.

(iii) The given system can be written as
\(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
2 & 0 & -1 \\
5 & 1 & 0 \\
0 & 1 & 3
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{l}
0 \\
4 \\
5
\end{array}\right]\)
AX = B
Where A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
2 & 0 & -1 \\
5 & 1 & 0 \\
0 & 1 & 3
\end{array}\right]\), X = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
0 \\
4 \\
5
\end{array}\right]\)
|A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{rrr}
2 & 0 & -1 \\
5 & 1 & 0 \\
0 & 1 & 3
\end{array}\right|\)
= 2(3 – 0) – 0(15 – 0) – 1(5 – 0)
= 2(3) – 0(15) – 1(5)
= 6 – 0 – 5
= 1


∴ x = 1, y = -1, z = 2.

Question 3.
A salesperson Ravi has the following record of sales for the month of January, February, and March 2009 for three products A, B, and C. He has been paid a commission at a fixed rate per unit but at varying rates for products A, B and C.

Find the rate of commission payable on A, B and C per unit sold using matrix inversion method.
Solution:
Let x, y and z be the rate of commission for the three products A, B and C respectively.
9x + 10y + 2z = 800
15x + 5y + 4z = 900
6x + 10y + 3z = 850
The given system can be written as
\(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
9 & 10 & 2 \\
15 & 5 & 4 \\
6 & 10 & 3
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{l}
800 \\
900 \\
850
\end{array}\right]\)
AX = B
Where A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
9 & 10 & 2 \\
15 & 5 & 4 \\
6 & 10 & 3
\end{array}\right]\), X = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
800 \\
900 \\
850
\end{array}\right]\)
Now, |A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{rrr}
9 & 10 & 2 \\
15 & 5 & 4 \\
6 & 10 & 3
\end{array}\right|\)
= \(9\left|\begin{array}{rr}
5 & 4 \\
10 & 3
\end{array}\right|-10\left|\begin{array}{rr}
15 & 4 \\
6 & 3
\end{array}\right|+2\left|\begin{array}{rr}
15 & 5 \\
6 & 10
\end{array}\right|\)
= 9[15 – 40] – 10(45 – 24) + 2(150 – 30)
= 9[-25] – 10[21] + 2[120]
= -225 – 210 + 240
= -195


\(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{r}
17.948 \\
43.0769 \\
103.846
\end{array}\right]\)
\(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{r}
17.95 \\
43.08 \\
103.85
\end{array}\right]\)
∴ x = 17.95, y = 43.08, z = 103.85
The rate of commission of A, B and C are 17.95, 43.08 and 103.85 respectively.

Question 4.
The prices of three commodities A, B, and C are ₹ x, y, and z per unit respectively. P purchases 4 units of C and sells 3 units of A and 5 units of B. Q purchases 3 units of B and sells 2 units of A and 1 unit of C. R purchases 1 unit of A and sells 4 units of B and 6 units of C. In the process P, Q and R earn ₹ 6,000, ₹ 5,000 and ₹ 13,000 respectively. By using the matrix inversion method, find the prices per unit of A, B, and C.
Solution:
Take selling the units js positive earning and buying the units is negative earning.
Given that
3x + 5y – 4z = 6000
2x – 3y + z = 5000
-1x + 4y + 6z = 13000

The given statement can be written as
\(\left(\begin{array}{rrr}
3 & 5 & -4 \\
2 & -3 & 1 \\
-1 & 4 & 6
\end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right)=\left(\begin{array}{r}
6000 \\
5000 \\
13000
\end{array}\right)\)
AX = B
Where A = \(\left(\begin{array}{rrr}
3 & 5 & -4 \\
2 & -3 & 1 \\
-1 & 4 & 6
\end{array}\right)\), X = \(\left(\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right)\) and B = \(\left(\begin{array}{r}
6000 \\
5000 \\
13000
\end{array}\right)\)
X = A^-1B
|A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{rrr}
3 & 5 & -4 \\
2 & -3 & 1 \\
-1 & 4 & 6
\end{array}\right|\)
= 3(-18 – 4) – 5(12 + 1) – 4(8 – 3)
= 3(-22) – 5(13) – 4(5)
= -66 – 65 – 20
= -151


\(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{l}
3000 \\
1000 \\
2000
\end{array}\right]\)
The prices per unit of A, B and C are ₹ 3000, ₹ 1000 and ₹ 2000.

Question 5.
The sum of three numbers is 20. If we multiply the first by 2 and add the second number and subtract the third we get 23. If we multiply the first by 3 and add second and third to it, we get 46. By using the matrix inversion method find the numbers.
Solution:
Let the three numbers be x, y, and z.
x + y + z = 20
2x + y – z = 23
3x + y + z = 46
The given system can be written as




The numbers are 13, 2, and 5.

Question 6.
Weekly expenditure in an office for three weeks is given as follows. Assuming that the salary in all three weeks of different categories of staff did not vary, calculate the salary for each type of staff, using the matrix inversion method.

Solution:
Let ₹ x, ₹ y, ₹ z be the salary for each type of staff A, B and C.
4x + 2y + 3z = 4900
3x + 3y + 2z = 4500
4x + 3y + 4z = 5800
The given system can be written as
\(\left[\begin{array}{lll}
4 & 2 & 3 \\
3 & 3 & 2 \\
4 & 3 & 4
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{l}
4900 \\
4500 \\
5800
\end{array}\right]\)
AX = B
where A = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}
4 & 2 & 3 \\
3 & 3 & 2 \\
4 & 3 & 4
\end{array}\right]\), X = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{c}
4900 \\
4500 \\
5800
\end{array}\right]\)
|A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
4 & 2 & 3 \\
3 & 3 & 2 \\
4 & 3 & 4
\end{array}\right|\)
= 4(12 – 6) – 2(12 – 8) + 3(9 – 12)
= 4(6) – 2(4) + 3(-3)
= 24 – 8 – 9
= 7




\(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{l}
700 \\
600 \\
300
\end{array}\right]\)
∴ Salary for each type of staff A, B and C are ₹ 700, ₹ 600 and ₹ 300.

Students can download 11th Business Maths Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.2 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.2

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.2 Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the adjoint of the matrix A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 3 \\
1 & 4
\end{array}\right]\)
Solution:
A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 3 \\
1 & 4
\end{array}\right]\)
Adj A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
4 & -3 \\
-1 & 2
\end{array}\right]\)

Question 2.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 3 & 3 \\
1 & 4 & 3 \\
1 & 3 & 4
\end{array}\right]\) then verify that A(adj A) = |A| I and also find A^-1.
Solution:
Given A = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 3 & 3 \\
1 & 4 & 3 \\
1 & 3 & 4
\end{array}\right]\)
|A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 3 & 3 \\
1 & 4 & 3 \\
1 & 3 & 4
\end{array}\right|\)
= \(1\left|\begin{array}{ll}
4 & 3 \\
3 & 4
\end{array}\right|-3\left|\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 3 \\
1 & 4
\end{array}\right|+3\left|\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 4 \\
1 & 3
\end{array}\right|\)
= 1[16 – 9] – 3[4 – 3] + 3[3 – 4]
= 1(7) – 3(1) + 3(-1)
= 7 – 3 – 3
= 1



From (1) and (2), A(Adj A) = |A| I

Question 3.
Find the inverse of each of the following matrices:
(i) \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
1 & -1 \\
2 & 3
\end{array}\right]\)
(ii) \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
3 & 1 \\
-1 & 3
\end{array}\right]\)
(iii) \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 2 & 3 \\
0 & 2 & 4 \\
0 & 0 & 5
\end{array}\right]\)
(iv) \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
-3 & -5 & 4 \\
-2 & 3 & -1 \\
1 & -4 & -6
\end{array}\right]\)
Solution:
(i) \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
1 & -1 \\
2 & 3
\end{array}\right]\)

(ii) \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
3 & 1 \\
-1 & 3
\end{array}\right]\)

(iii) \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 2 & 3 \\
0 & 2 & 4 \\
0 & 0 & 5
\end{array}\right]\)

(iv) \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
-3 & -5 & 4 \\
-2 & 3 & -1 \\
1 & -4 & -6
\end{array}\right]\)

Question 4.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
2 & 3 \\
1 & -6
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
-1 & 4 \\
1 & -2
\end{array}\right]\), then verify adj(AB) = (adj B) (adj A).
Solution:


From (1) and (2), adj (AB) = (adj B) (adj A)

Question 5.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
2 & -2 & 2 \\
2 & 3 & 0 \\
9 & 1 & 5
\end{array}\right]\) then, show that (adj A) A = O.
Solution:

Question 6.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
-1 & 2 & -2 \\
4 & -3 & 4 \\
4 & -4 & 5
\end{array}\right]\) then, show that the inverse of A is A itself.
Solution:


∴ A^-1 = A
Hence proved.

Question 7.
If A^-1 = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & 0 & 3 \\
2 & 1 & -1 \\
1 & -1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\) then, find A.
Solution:
Given A^-1 = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & 0 & 3 \\
2 & 1 & -1 \\
1 & -1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
We know that (A^-1)^-1 = A
So we have to find inverse of A^-1

Question 8.
Show that the matrices A = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}
2 & 2 & 1 \\
1 & 3 & 1 \\
1 & 2 & 2
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
\frac{4}{5} & \frac{-2}{5} & \frac{-1}{5} \\
\frac{-1}{5} & \frac{3}{5} & \frac{-1}{5} \\
\frac{-1}{5} & \frac{-2}{5} & \frac{4}{5}
\end{array}\right]\) are inverses of each other.
Solution:
To prove that A and B are inverses of each other.
We have to prove that AB = BA = I.


Thus AB = BA = I
Hence A and B are inverses of each other.

Question 9.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
3 & 7 \\
2 & 5
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
6 & 8 \\
7 & 9
\end{array}\right]\), then verify that (AB)^-1 = B^-1A^-1
Solution:

Now we will find B^-1A^-1


From (1) and (2), (AB)^-1 = B^-1A^-1

Question 10.
Find λ if the matrix \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & 1 & 3 \\
2 & \lambda & 4 \\
9 & 7 & 11
\end{array}\right]\) has no inverse.
Solution:

1[11λ – 28] – 1[22 – 36] + 3[14 – 9λ] = 0
11λ – 28 + 14 + 42 – 27λ = 0
-16λ + 28 = 0
-16λ = -28
λ = \(\frac{-28}{-16}=\frac{7}{4}\)

Question 11.
If X = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
8 & -1 & -3 \\
-5 & 1 & 2 \\
10 & -1 & -4
\end{array}\right]\) and Y = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
2 & 1 & -1 \\
0 & 2 & 1 \\
5 & p & q
\end{array}\right]\) then, find p, q if Y = X^-1
Solution:
Given that Y is the inverse of X.
∴ XY = I

6 – 3p = 0 and -9 – 3q = 0
6 = 3p and -9 = 3q
∴ p = 2; q = -3

Students can download 11th Business Maths Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.1 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.1

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Business Maths Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.1 Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the minors and cofactors of all the elements of the following determinants.
(i) \(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
5 & 20 \\
0 & -1
\end{array}\right|\)
(ii) \(\left|\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & -3 & 2 \\
4 & -1 & 2 \\
3 & 5 & 2
\end{array}\right|\)
Solution:
(i) \(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
5 & 20 \\
0 & -1
\end{array}\right|\)
Minor of 5 = M₁₁ = -1
Minor of 20 = M₁₂ = 0
Minor of 0 = M₂₁ = 20
Minor of -1 = M₂₂ = 5
Cofactor of 5 = A₁₁ = (-1)¹⁺¹ M₁₁ = 1 × -1 = -1
Cofactor of 20 = A₁₂ = (-1)¹⁺² M₁₂ = -1 × 0 = 0
Cofactor of 0 = A₂₁ = (-1)²⁺¹ M₂₁ = -1 × 20 = -20
Cofactor of -1 = A₂₂ = (-1)²⁺² M₂₂ = 1 × 5 = 5

(ii) \(\left|\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & -3 & 2 \\
4 & -1 & 2 \\
3 & 5 & 2
\end{array}\right|\)
Minor of 1 is M₁₁ = \(\left|\begin{array}{rr}
-1 & 2 \\
5 & 2
\end{array}\right|\) = -2 – 10 = -12
Minor of -3 is M₁₂ = \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
4 & 2 \\
3 & 2
\end{array}\right|\) = 8 – 6 = 2
Minor of 2 is M₁₃ = \(\left|\begin{array}{rr}
4 & -1 \\
3 & 5
\end{array}\right|\) = 20 + 3 = 23
Minor of 4 is M₂₁ = \(\left|\begin{array}{rr}
-3 & 2 \\
5 & 2
\end{array}\right|\) = -6 – 10 = -16
Minor of -1 is M₂₂ = \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 2 \\
3 & 2
\end{array}\right|\) = 2 – 6 = -4
Minor of 2 is M₂₃ = \(\left|\begin{array}{rr}
1 & -3 \\
3 & 5
\end{array}\right|\) = 5 + 9 = 14
Minor of 3 is M₃₁ = \(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
-3 & 2 \\
-1 & 2
\end{array}\right|\) = -6 + 2 = -4
Minor of 5 is M₃₂ = \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 2 \\
4 & 2
\end{array}\right|\) = 2 – 8 = -6
Minor of 2 is M₃₃ = \(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
1 & -3 \\
4 & -1
\end{array}\right|\) = -1 + 12 = 11
Cofactor of 1 is A₁₁ = (-1)¹⁺¹ M₁₁ = -12
Cofactor of -3 is A₁₂ = (-1)¹⁺² M₁₂ = -2
Cofactor of 2 is A₁₃ = (-1)¹⁺³ M₁₃ = 23
Cofactor of 4 is A₂₁ = (-1)²⁺¹ M₂₁ = -1 × -16 = 16
Cofactor of -1 is A₂₂ = (-1)²⁺² M₂₂ = -4
Cofactor of 2 is A₂₃ = (-1)²⁺³ M₂₃ = -14
Cofactor of 3 is A₃₁ = (-1)³⁺¹ M₃₁ = -4
Cofactor of 5 is A₃₂ = (-1)³⁺² M₃₂ = -1 × -6 = 6
Cofactor of 2 is A₃₃ = (-1)³⁺³ M₃₃ = 11

Question 2.
Evaluate \(\left|\begin{array}{rrr}
3 & -2 & 4 \\
2 & 0 & 1 \\
1 & 2 & 3
\end{array}\right|\)
Solution:

= 3(0 – 2) + 2(6 – 1) + 4(4 – 0)
= -6 + 10 + 16
= 20

Question 3.
Solve: \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
2 & x & 3 \\
4 & 1 & 6 \\
1 & 2 & 7
\end{array}\right|=0\)
Solution:

2(7 – 12) – x(28 – 6) + 3(8 – 1) = 0
2(-5) – x(22) + 3(7) = 0
-10 – 22x + 21 = 0
-22x + 11 = 0
-22x = -11
x = \(\frac{-11}{-22}=\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 4.
Find |AB| if A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
3 & -1 \\
2 & 1
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
3 & 0 \\
1 & -2
\end{array}\right]\)
Solution:

∴ |AB| = \(\left|\begin{array}{rr}
8 & 2 \\
7 & -2
\end{array}\right|\) = -16 – 14 = -30

Question 5.
Solve: \(\left|\begin{array}{rrr}
7 & 4 & 11 \\
-3 & 5 & x \\
-x & 3 & 1
\end{array}\right|=0\)
Solution:

7(5 – 3x) – 4(-3 + x²) + 11(-9 + 5x) = 0
35 – 21x + 12 – 4x² – 99 + 55x = 0
-4x² – 21x + 55x + 35 + 12 – 99 = 0
-4x² + 34x – 52 = 0

Divide throughout by -2 we get
2x² – 17x + 26 = 0
(2x – 13) (x – 2) = 0
2x – 13 = 0 (or) x – 2 = 0
x = \(\frac{13}{2}\) (or) x = 2
∴ x = \(\frac{13}{2}\), x = 2

Question 6.
Evaluate: \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
1 & a & a^{2}-b c \\
1 & b & b^{2}-c a \\
1 & c & c^{2}-a b
\end{array}\right|\)
Solution:
\(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
1 & a & a^{2}-b c \\
1 & b & b^{2}-c a \\
1 & c & c^{2}-a b
\end{array}\right|\)

Question 7.
Prove that \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
\frac{1}{a} & b c & b+c \\
\frac{1}{b} & c a & c+a \\
\frac{1}{c} & a b & a+b
\end{array}\right|=0\)
Solution:
\(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
\frac{1}{a} & b c & b+c \\
\frac{1}{b} & c a & c+a \\
\frac{1}{c} & a b & a+b
\end{array}\right|\)

Hence proved.

Question 8.
Prove that \(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
-a^{2} & a b & a c \\
a b & -b^{2} & b c \\
a c & b c & -c^{2}
\end{array}\right|=4 a^{2} b^{2} c^{2}\)
Solution:
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
-a^{2} & a b & a c \\
a b & -b^{2} & b c \\
a c & b c & -c^{2}
\end{array}\right|\)

= a²b²c² [-(0 – 4) + 0 + 0]
= 4a²b²c²

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Knitted garment production is concentrated in …………………..
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Tiruppur
(c) Erode
(d) Karur
Answer:
(b) Tiruppur

Question 2.
The recommendation of Narashimham Committee Report was admitted in the year ………………….
(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1995
(d) 2000
Answer:
(b) 1991

Question 3.
In literacy rate, TN ranks …………………
(a) Second
(b) Fourth
(c) Sixth
(d) Eighth
Answer:
(d) Eighth

Question 4.
The average revenue curve under monopolistic competition will be ………………….
(a) Perfectly inelastic
(b) Perfectly elastic
(c) Relatively
(d) Unitary elastic
Answer:
(c) Relatively

Question 5.
The main theme of the Twelfth Five Year Plan …………………..
(a) Faster and more inclusive growth
(b) Growth with social Justice
(c) Socialistic pattern of society
(d) Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth
Answer:
(d) Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth

Question 6.
The Oldest large scale industry in India …………………
(a) Cotton
(b) Jute
(c) Steel
(d) Cement
Answer:
(a) Cotton

Question 7.
The main gold mine region in kamataka is ………………..
(a) Kolar
(b) Ramgiri
(c) Anantpur
(d) Cochin
Answer:
(a) Kolar

Question 8.
The command Ctrl + M is applied for …………………..
(a) Saving
(b) Copying
(c) Getting new slide
(d) Deleting a slide
Answer:
(c) Getting new slide

Question 9.
Theory of distribution is popularly known as ………………………
(a) Theory of product pricing
(b) Theory of factor pricing
(c) Theory of wages
(d) Theory of Interest
Answer:
(b) Theory of factor pricing

Question 10.
Identify the formuld of estimating average cost ………………………
(a) AVC/Q
(b) TC/Q
(c) TVC/Q
(d) AFC/Q
Answer:
(b) TC/Q

Question 11.
The cost per unit of output is denoted by …………………. cost.
(a) Average
(b) Marginal
(c) Variable
(d) Total
Answer:
(a) Average

Question 12.
Revenue received from the sale of additional unit is turned as …………………. revenue.
(a) Profit
(b) Average
(c) Marginal
(d) Total
Answer:
(c) Marginal

Question 13.
The Headquarters of Southern Railway is at ……………………
(a) Tiruchirappalli
(b) Chennai
(c) Madurai
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(b) Chennai

Question 14.
Financial sector reforms mainly related to …………………….
(a) Insurance sector
(b) Banking sector
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Transport sector
Answer:
(c) Both (a) & (b)

Question 15.
Identify the cause for rural indebtedness in India.
(a) Poverty
(b) High population
(c) High productivity
(d) Full employment
Answer:
(a) Poverty

Question 16.
Differentiation of constant term gives …………………..
(a) One
(b) Zero
(c) Infinity
(d) Non – infinity
Answer:
(b) Zero

Question 17.
The recommended nutritional intake per person in rural areas …………………
(a) 2100 calories
(b) 2200 calories
(c) 2300 calories
(d) 2400 calories
Answer:
(d) 2400 calories

Question 18.
Perfect competition assumes …………………….
(a) Luxury goods
(b) Producer goods
(c) Differentiated goods
(d) Homogeneous goods
Answer:
(d) Homogeneous goods

Question 19.
The concept of ‘Quasi – Rent’ is associated with ……………………
(a) Ricardo
(b) J.M. Keynes
(c) Walker
(d) Marshall
Answer:
(d) Marshall

Question 20.
In Economics, distribution of income is among the ………………….
(a) Factors of production
(b) Individual
(c) Firms
(d) Traders
Answer:
(a) Factors of production

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
State the meaning of liquidity preference?
Answer:

1. Liquidity preference means the preference of the people to hold wealth in the form of liquid cash rather than in other non – liquid assets like bonds, securities, bills of exchange, land, building, gold etc.
2. “Liquidity Preference is the preference to have an equal amount of cash rather than of claims against other”.

Question 22.
State the various components of central sector schemes under post – harvest measures?
Answer:

1. Mega food parks, Integrated cold chain, Value Addition Preservation, Infrastructure and modernization of slaughter house.
2. Scheme for quality Assurance, Codex Standards, Research and Development and other promotional activities.

Question 23.
What are the nuclear power plants in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
The Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant and the Koodankulam Nuclear Power plant are the major nuclear energy plants for the energy grid.

Question 24.
Give the meaning of deductive method?
Answer:

1. Deductive method is also named as analytical or abstract method.
2. It consists in deriving conclusions from general truths,
3. It takes few general principles and applies them to draw conclusions.
4. The classical and neo – classical school of economists notably, Ricardo, JS Mill, Malthus Marshall, Pigou applied the deductive method in their economic investigations.

Question 25.
Give a short note on Sen’s ‘Choice of Technique’?
Answer:
Sen’s ‘Choice of Technique’ was a research work where he argued that in a labour surplus economy, generation of employment cannot be increased at the initial stage by the adaptation of capital – intensive technique.

Question 26.
Give the meaning of non – renewable energy?
Answer:
Non – renewable energy sources:

1. The sources of energy which cannot be renewed or re – used are called non – renewable energy sources.
2. Basically these are the energy sources which will get exhausted over a period of time.
3. Some of the examples of this kind of resources are coal, oil, gas etc.

Question 27.
Distinguish goods from services?
Answer:

Question 28.
Write the meaning of Economic Growth?
Answer:

1. Economic growth is usually measured by National Income, indicated by cross domestic product. [GDP].
2. The GDP is the total monetary value of the goods and services produced by that country over a specific period of time, usually one year.
3. On the basis of the level of economic development, nations are classified as developed and developing economies.

Question 29.
Name the basic approaches to consumer behaviour?
Answer:
There are two basic approaches, namely:

1. Utility approach

1. The utility approach involves the use of measurable (cardinal) utility to study consumer behaviour.
2. Marshall is the chief exponent of the utility approach to the theory of demand. It is known cardinal utility analysis or marginal utility analysis or marshallian utility analysis.

2. Indifference curve approach
The indifference curve approach was the idea of comparable utility [ordinal utility] J.R. Hicks and R.G.D. Allen introduced the indifference curve approach.

Question 30.
What do you mean by fixed cost?
Answer:

1. Fixed Cost does not change with the change in the quality of output.
2. Fixed Cost is also called as “Supplementary Cost “or Overhead Cost”.
3. All payments for the fixed factors of production are known as Total Fixed Cost.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Write the formula of consumers surplus?
Answer:
Consumer’s Surplus = Total utility [Actual price × Units of commodity]
= TU – [P × Q]
20 – [2 × 5] = 20 – 10 =10
Total utility = 20
Actual price = 2
Quantity = 5

Question 32.
Mention any two type of price discrimination?
Answer:

1. Personal: Different prices are charged for different individuals. For example, the railways give tickets at concessional rate to the ‘Senior citizens’ for the same journey.
2. Geographical: Different prices are charged at different places for the same product. For example, a book sold within India at a price is sold in a foreign countiy at lower price.

Question 33.
Explain different types of economic activities?
Answer:
The seven types of economic activities are:

1. Micro Economics: Micro Economics is the study of the economic actions of individuals say households, firms or industries.
Micro economics covers:-

1. Value theory [product pricing and factor pricing]
2. Theory of economic welfare.

2. Macro – Economics:

1. Macro economics is the obverse of micro economics.
2. The general theory of employment, Interest and money published by Keynes is the basis of modem macro economics.

3. International Economics:

1. In the modem world, no country can grow in isolation.
2. Every country is having links with the other countries through foreign capital, investment [foreign direct investment] and international trade.

4. Public Economics:

1. Public finance is concerned with the income or revenue raising and expenditure incurring activities.
2. The scope of public finance covers public expenditure, public revenue, public debt and financial administration.

5. Developmental Economics:
The development economics, deals with features of developed nations, obstacles for development, .economic and non- economic factors influencing development, various growth models and strategies.

6. Health Economics:

1. Health economics is an area of applied economics.
2. It covers health indicators , preventive and curative measures medical research and education, rural health mission, drug price control, neo – natal care, maternity and child health, budgetary allocation for health.

7. Environmental Economics:

1. Depletion of natural resources stock and pollution result from rapid economic development.
2. Environmental economics is a study of inter disciplinary tools for the problems of ecology, economy and environment.

Question 34.
Write a note on Risk – bearing theory of profit?
Answer:

1. Risk bearing theory of profit was propounded by the American economist F.B. Hawley in 1907.
2. According to him, profit is the reward of risk taking in business.
3. Risk taking is an essential function of the entrepreneur and is the basis of profits.
4. It is a well know fact that every business involves some risks.
5. Since the entrepreneur undertakes the risks, he receives profit.
6. If the entrepreneur does not receive the reward, he will not be prepared to undertake the risks.
7. Every entrepreneur products goods in anticipation of demand.
8. It is the profit that induces the entrepreneurs to undertake such risks.

Question 35.
Distinguish between Fixed cost and Variable cost?
Answer:

Question 36.
What are the characteristics of land?
Answer:

1. Land is a primary factor of production
2. Land is a passive factor of production
3. Land is the free gift of nature
4. Land has no cost of production
5. Land is fixed in supply. It is inelastic in supply
6. Land is permanent
7. Land is immovable
8. Land is heterogeneous as it differs in fertility
9. Land has alternative uses
10. Land is subject to Law of Diminishing Returns.

Question 37.
What are the factors governing elasticity of supply?
Answer:
1. Nature of the commodity:
Durable goods can be stored for a long time. So, the producers can wait until they get a high price. Once they get higher price, larger supply is possible. The elasticity of supply of durable goods is high. But perishables are to be sold immediately. So perishables have low elasticity of supply.

2. Cost of production:
When production is subject to either constant or increasing returns, additional production and therefore increased supply is possible. So elasticity of supply is greater. Under diminishing returns, increase in output leads to high cost. So elasticity of supply is less.

3. Technical condition:
In large scale production with huge capital investment, supply cannot be adjusted easily. So elasticity of supply is lesser. Where capital equipment is less and technology simple, the supply is more elastic.

4. Time factor:
During very short period when supply cannot be adjusted, elasticity of demand is very low. In short period, variable factors can be added and so supply can be adjusted to some extent. So elasticity of supply is more. In long period, even the fixed factors can be added and hence supply is highly elastic.

Question 38.
Mention the similarities between perfect competition and monopolistic competition?
Answer:

Question 39.
Write any three objectives of Industrial Policy 1991?
Answer:

1. Economic development of a country particularly depends on the process of Industrialisation.
2. At the time of Independence, India inherited a weak and shallow Industrial base.
3. Therefore dining the post-Independence period, the Government of India took special emphasis on the development of a solid Industrial base.

Question 40.
Enumerate the remedial measures to rural poverty?
Answer:
Remedial measures:

1. Since rural unemployment and rural poverty are interrelated, creation of employment opportunities would support elimination of poverty.
2. Poverty alleviation schemes and programmes have been implemented, modified, consolidated, expanded and improved over time.
3. However, unemployment, begging, rag-picking and slumming continues.
4. Unless employment is given to all the people poverty cannot be eliminated.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Explain the objectives of nationalization of commercial banks?
Answer:
The Government of India nationalized the commercial banks to achieve the following objectives:

1. The main objective of nationalization was to attain Social Welfare. Sectors such as agriculture, small and village industries were in need of funds for their expansion and further economic development.
2. Nationalisation of banks helped to curb private monopolies in order to ensure a smooth supply of credit to socially desirable sections.
3. In India, nearly 70% of population lived in rural areas. Therefore it was needed to encourage the banking habit among the rural population.
4. Nationalisation of banks was required to reduce the regional imbalances where the banking facilities were not available.
5. Before Independence, the numbers of banks were certainly inadequate. After nationalization, new bank branches were opened in both rural and urban areas.
6. Banks created credit facilities mainly to the agriculture sector and its allied activities after nationalization.
   After New Economic Policy 1991, the Indian banking Industry has been facing the new horizons of competitions, efficiency and productivity.

[OR]

(b) Describe the Salient features of EXIM policy [2015 – 2020]?
Answer:
The new EXIM policy has been formulated focusing on increasing in exports Scenario, boosting production and supporting the concepts like Make in India and Digital India.
Salient Features:

1. Reduce export obligations by 25% and give boost to domestic manufacturing supporting the “Make in India” concept.
2. As a step to Digital India concept, online procedure to upload digitally signed document by CA /CS / Cost Accountant are developed and further mobile app for filing tax, stamp duty has been developed.
3. Repeated submission of physical copies of documents available on Exporter Importer Profile is not required.
4. Export obligation period for export items related to defence, military store, aerospace and nuclear energy to be 24 months.
5. EXIM policy 2015 – 2020 is expected to double the share of India in World Trade from present level of 3% by the year 2020. This appears to be too ambitions.

Question 42 (a).
Describe the wastes of monopolistic competition?
Answer:
Wastes of Monopolistic Competition:
Generally there are five kinds of wastages under monopolistic competition.

(I) Idle capacity:

1. Un – utilized capacity is the difference between the optimum output that can be produced and the actual output produced by the firm.
2. In the long run, a monopolistic firm produces delibourately output which is less than the optimum output that is the output corresponding to the minimum average cost.
3. This leads to excess capacity which is actually as waste in monopolistic competition.

(II) Unemployment:

1. Under monopolistic competition, the firms produce less than optimum output.
2. As a result, the productive capacity is not used to the fullest extent.
3. This will lead to unemployment of human resources also.

(III) Advertisement:

1. There is a lot of waste in competitive advertisements under monopolistic competition.
2. The wasteful and competitive advertisements lead to high cost to consumers.

(IV) Too many varieties of Goods:

• The goods differ in size, shape, style and colour. A reasonable number of varieties would be sufficient.

(v) Inefficient firms:
Under monopolistic competition, inefficient firms charge prices higher than their marginal cost. Efficient firms cannot drive out the inefficient firms.

[OR]

(b) Illustrate the Ricardian Theory of Rent?
Answer:

1. The Classical theory of Rent is called “ Ricardian Theory of Rent.”
2. “ Rent is that portion of the produce of the earth which is paid to the landlord for the use of the original and indestructible powers of the soil” – David Ricardo

Ricardian theory of rent assumes the following:

1. Land differs in fertility.
2. The law of diminishing returns operates in agriculture.
3. Rent depends upon fertility and location of land.
4. Theory assumes perfect competition.
5. It is based on the assumption of long period.
6. There is existence of marginal land or no – rent land.
7. Land has certain “Original and indestructible powers”.
8. Land is used for cultivation only.
9. Most fertile lands are cultivated first.

Question 43 (a).
State the differences between money cost and real cost?
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Explain the Keynesian Theory of Interest?
Answer:

1. Keynes Liquidity Preference Theory of Interest or The monetary Theory of Interest
2. Keynes propounded the Liquidity Preference Theory of Interest in his famous book,
   “ The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money “ in 1936.
3. According to Keynes, interest is purely a monetary phenomenon because the rate of interest is calculated in terms of money.
4. “Interest is the reward for parting with liquidity for a specified period of time”.

Meaning of Liquidity Preference:

1. Liquidity preference means the preference of the people to hold wealth in the form of liquid cash rather than in other non – liquid assets like bonds, securities, bills of exchange, land, building, gold etc.
2. “ Liquidity Preference is the preference to have an amount of cash rather than of claims against others” – Meyer.

Motives of Demand for Money:
According to Keynes, there are three motives for liquidity preferences. They are:

1. The Transaction Motive:
The transaction motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash for the current transactions [ or-day-to-day expenses ] M( = f(y)

2. The Precautionary Motive:

1. The precautionary motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash to meet unexpected or unforeseen expenditures such as sickness, accidents, fire and theft.
2. The amount saved for this motive also depends on the level of Income Mp = f(y)..

3. The Speculative Motive:

1. The speculative motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash in order to take
   advantage of market movements regarding the future changes in the price of bonds and securities in the capital market. M – f(i)
2. There is inverse relation between liquidity preference and rate of interest.

Question 44 (a).
Illustrate price and output determination under monopoly?
Answer:
Price & output Determination under Monopoly:
A monopoly is a one firm – industry. Therefore, a firm under monopoly faces a downward sloping demand curve (or AR curve). Since, under monopoly AR falls, as more units of output are sold, the MR lies below the AR curve (MR < AR). The monopolist will continue to sell his product as long as his MR > MC. He attains equilibrium at the level of output when its MC is equal to MR. Beyond this point, the producer will experience loss and hence will stop selling. Let us take the following hypothetical example of Total Revenue Function and Total cost function.

TR = 100Q – 4Q² and
TC = Q³ – 18Q² + 91Q + 12
Therefore AR = 100 – 4Q;
MR = 100 – XQ;
AC = Q² – 18Q + 91 + 12/Q;
MC = 3Q² – 36Q + 91;
When Q = 3,
AR = 100 – 4(3) = 88,
AC = 3² – 8(3) + 91 + 12/3
9 – 54 + 91 + 4 = 50;
MR = 100 – 8(3) = 76;
MC = 3(3)² – 36(3) + 91
= 27 – 108 + 91 = 10

From this diagram, till he sells 3 units output, MR is greater than MC, and when he exceeds this output level, MR is less than MC. The monopoly firm will be in equilibrium at the level of output where MR is equal to MC. The price is 88.

To checkup how much profit the monopolist is making at the equilibrium output, the average revenue curves and the average cost curves are used. At equilibrium level of output is 3; the average revenue is 88 and the average cost is 50. Therefore (88 – 50 = 38) is the profit per unit.
Total profit = (Average Revenue – Average Cost) Total output = (88 – 50) × 3
= 38 × 3 = 114

[OR]

(b) Write a note on Risk – bearing theory of profit?
Answer:

1. Risk bearing theory of profit was propounded by the American economist F.B. Hawley in 1907.
2. According to him, profit is the reward of risk taking in business.
3. Risk taking is an essential function of the entrepreneur and is the basis of profits.
4. It is a well know fact that every business involves some risks.
5. Since the entrepreneur undertakes the risks, he receives profit.
6. If the entrepreneur does not receive the reward, he will not be prepared to undertake the risks.
7. Every entrepreneur products goods in anticipation of demand.
8. It is the profit that induces the entrepreneurs to undertake such risks.

Question 45 (a).
What are the ideas of information and communication technology used in economics? Introduction: Information and communication Technology [ICT] is the infrastructure that enables computing faster and accurate?
Answer:
The following table gives an idea of range of technologies that fall under the category of ICT

The evaluation of ICT has five phases:
They are evaluation in:

1. Computer
2. PC – Personal Computer
3. Micro Processor
4. Internet
5. Wireless links

In Economics, the uses of mathematical and statistical tools need the support of ICT for:

1. Data Compiling
2. Editing
3. Manipulating
4. Presenting the results

[OR]

(b) Raja purchased 6 pens and 5 pencils spending ?49, Rani purchased 3 pens and 4 pencils spending ₹42. What is the price of a pen and pencil?
Answer:
\(\begin{bmatrix} 6 & 5 \\ 3 & 4 \end{bmatrix}\) \([\begin{matrix} x_{ 1 } \\ x_{ 2 } \end{matrix}]\) = \([\begin{matrix} 49 \\ 32 \end{matrix}]\) = \(\begin{vmatrix} 6 & 5 \\ 3 & 4 \end{vmatrix}\)
= 24 – 15 = 9
x = \(\begin{vmatrix} 49 & 5 \\ 32 & 4 \end{vmatrix}\) = 196 – 160 = 36
y = \(\begin{vmatrix} 6 & 49 \\ 3 & 32 \end{vmatrix}\) = 192 – 47 = 45
x = \(\frac{36}{9}\) = 4
y = \(\frac{45}{9}\) = 5
The cost of pen = ₹4
The cost of pencil = ₹5

Question 46 (a).
Explain the weakness of Indian Economy?
Answer:
(I) Large Population:

1. India stands second in terms of size of population next to China and our country is likely to overtake China in near future.
2. Population growth rate of India is very high and this is always a hurdle to growth rate.

(II) Inequality and poverty:

1. There exists a huge economic disparity in the Indian economy.
2. The proportion of income and assets owned by top 10% of Indians goes on increasing.
3. Increase in the poverty level in the society and still Below Poverty Line [BPL] a higher percentage of individuals are living.
4. As a result of unequal distribution of the rich becomes richer and poor becomes poorer.

(III) Increasing Prices of Essential Goods:

1. Even though there has been a constant growth in the GDP and growth opportunities in the Indian economy, there have been steady increase in the prices of essential goods.
2. The continuous rise in prices erodes the purchasing power and adversely affects the poor people, whose income is not protected.

(IV) Weak Infrastructure:

1. A gradual improvement in the infrastructural development.
2. There is still a scarcity of the basic infrastructure like power, transport, storage etc.

(V) Inadequate Employment generation:

1. Growing youth population, there is a huge need of the employment opportunities.
2. The growth in production is not accompanied by creation of job.
3. The Indian economy is characterized by “ Jobless growth”.

(VI) Outdated technology:
The level of technology in agriculture and small scale Industries is still outdated and obsolete.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the problems of Rural Economy?
Answer:
Rural areas are facing number of problems relating to,

1. People
2. Agriculture
3. Infrastructure
4. Economy
5. Society and Culture
6. Leadership and
7. Administration.

(I) People Related Problems:
The problems related to individuals and their standard of living consist of illiteracy, lack of technical know how, low level of confidence, dependence on sentiments and beliefs etc.

(II) Agriculture Related Problems:
The problems related to agriculture include as follows,

1. Lack of expected awareness, knowledge, skill and attitude.
2. Unavailability of inputs.
3. Poor marketing facility.

(III) Infrastructural Related problems:
Poor infrastructure facilities like, water, electricity, transport, educational institutions, communication, health, employment, storage facility, banking and insurance are found in rural areas.

(IV) Economics related problems:
The economic problems related to rural areas are,

1. Inability to adopt high cost technology.
2. High cost of inputs.
3. Under privileged rural industries.
4. Low income
5. Indebtedness
6. Existence of inequality in land holdings and assets.

(V) Leadership Related Problems:
The Specific leadership related problems found in rural areas are,

1. Leadership among the hands of inactive and incompetent people
2. Self – interest of leaders
3. Biased political will
4. Less bargaining power
5. Negation skills and dominance of political leaders

(VI) Administrative Problems:
The rural administrative problems are,

1. Political interference
2. Lack of motivation and interest
3. Low wages in villages
4. Improper utilization of budget
5. Absence of monitoring
6. Implementation of rural development programme.

Question 47 (a).
Explain the role of SSIs in Economic development?
Answer:
1. Provide Employment

1. SSIs use labour intensive techniques. Hence, they provide employment opportunities to a large number of people. Thus, they reduce the unemployment problem to a great extent.
2. SSIs provide employment to artisans, technically qualified persons and professionals, people engaged in traditional arts, people in villages and unorganized sectors.
3. The employment-capital ratio is high for the SSIs.

2. Bring Balanced Regional Development

1. SSIs promote decentralized development of industries as most of the SSIs are set up in backward and rural areas.
2. They remove regional disparities by industrializing rural and backward areas and bring balanced regional development.
3. They help to reduce the problems of congestion, slums, sanitation and pollution in cities. They are mostly found in outside city limits.
4. They help in improving the standard of living of people residing in suburban and rural areas in India.
5. The entrepreneurial talent is tapped in different regions and the income is also distributed instead of being concentrated in the hands of a few individuals or business families.

[OR]

(b) Explain the objectives and characteristics of SEZs?
Answer:

1. The Special Economic Zones [SEZs] Policy was announced in April 2000.
2. The Special Economic Zones Act of 2005, the government has so far notified about 400 such zones in the country.

Major objectives of SEZs:

1. To enhance foreign investment, especially to attract foreign direct investment [FDI] and thereby increasing GDP.
2. To increase shares in Global Export. (International Business)
3. To generate additional economic activity.
4. To create employment opportunities.
5. To develop infrastructure facilities.
6. To exchange technology in the global market.

Main Characteristics of SEZ:

1. Geographically demarked area with physical security.
2. Administrated by single body authority.
3. Streamlined procedures.
4. Having separate custom area.
5. Governed by more liberal economic laws.
6. Greater freedom to the firms located in SEZs.

Students can download 11th Economics Chapter 2 Consumption Analysis Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 2 Consumption Analysis

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Consumption Analysis Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Pick the odd one out …………………….
(a) Luxuries
(b) Comforts
(c) Necessaries
(d) Agricultural goods
Answer:
(d) Agricultural goods

Question 2.
The choice is always constrained or limited by the ________ of our resources.
(a) Scarcity
(b) Supply
(c) Demand
(d) Abundance
Answer:
(a) Scarcity

Question 3.
The chief exponent of the Cardinal utility approach was ……………………..
(a) JR Hicks
(b) R G D Allen
(c) Marshall
(d) Stigler
Answer:
(c) Marshall

Question 4.
Marginal Utility is measured by using the formula of
(a) TU_n -TU_n-1
(b) TU_n-TU_n+1
(c) TU_n+TU_n+1
(d) TU_n-TU_n+1
Answer:
(a) TU_n -TU_n-1

Question 5.
When marginal utility reaches zero, the total utility will be …………………..
(a) Minimum
(b) Maximum
(c) Zero
(d) Negative
Answer:
(b) Maximum

Question 6.
Gossen’s first law is known as.
(a) Law of Equi-marginal utility.
(b) Law of diminishing marginal utility
(c) Law of demand.
(d) Law of Diminishing returns.
Answer:
(b) Law of diminishing marginal utility

Question 7.
The basis for the law of demand is related to ……………………..
(a) Law of diminishing marginal utility
(b) Law of supply
(c) Law of equi-marginal utility
(d) Gossen’s Law
Answer:
(a) Law of diminishing marginal utility

Question 8.
The concept of consumer’s surplus is associated with
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Marshall
(c) Robbins
(d) Ricardo
Answer:
(b) Marshall

Question 9.
Given potential price is Rs.250 and the actual price is Rs.200. Find the consumer surplus ……………………….
(a) 375
(b) 175
(c) 200
(d) 50
Answer:
(d) 50

Question 10.
Indifference curve approach is based on
(a) Ordinal approach
(b) Cardinal approach
(c) Subjective approach
(d) Psychological approach
Answer:
(a) Ordinal approach

Question 11.
The concept of elasticity of demand was introduced by …………………….
(a) Ferguson
(b) Keynes
(c) Adam Smith
(d) Marshall
Answer:
(d) Marshall

Question 12.
Increase in demand is caused by
(a) Increase in tax
(b) Higher subsidy
(c) Increase in interest rate
(d) decline in population
Answer:
(b) Higher subsidy

Question 13.
The movement on or along the given demand curve is known as ………………………..
(a) Extension and contraction of demand
(b) Shifts in the demand
(c) Increase and decrease in demand
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Extension and contraction of demand

Question 14.
In case of relatively more elastic demand, the shape of the curve is
(a) Horizontal
(b) Vertical
(c) Steeper
(d) Flatter
Answer:
(d) Flatter

Question 15.
A consumer is in equilibrium when marginal utilities from two goods are …………………….
(a) Minimum
(b) Inverse
(c) Equal
(d) Increasing
Answer:
(c) Equal

Question 16.
Indifference curve was first introduced by
(a) Hicks
(b) Allen
(c) Keynes
(d) Edgeworth
Answer:
(d) Edgeworth

Question 17.
Elasticity of demand is equal to one indicates ………………………
(a) Unitary Elastic Demand
(b) Perfectly Elastic Demand
(c) Perfectly Inelastic Demand
(d) Relatively Elastic Demand
Answer:
(a) Unitary Elastic Demand

Question 18.
The locus of the points which gives the same level of satisfaction is associated with
(a) Indifference Curves
(b) Cardinal Analysis
(c) Law of Demand
(d) Law of Supply
Answer:
(a) Indifference Curves

Question 19.
Ordinal utility can be measured by …………………………
(a) Ranking
(b) Numbering
(c) Wording
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Ranking

Question 20.
The indifference curve is
(a) Vertical
(b) Horizontal
(c) Positive sloped
(d) Negatively sloped
Answer:
(d) Negatively sloped

PART – B

Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Question 21.
Define Utility?
Answer:
The utility is the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human wants.

Question 22.
Mention the classification of wants?
Answer:
Wants are broadly classified into three categories

1. Necessaries: Goods which are indispensable for human beings to exist in the world are called “Necessaries”. For example, food, clothing, and shelter.
2. Comforts: Goods which are not indispensable for life but to make our life easy, convenient and comfortable are called “Comforts”. Ex: TV, Fan, Refrigerator and Air conditioner.
3. Luxuries: Goods which are not very essential but are very costly are known as “Luxuries”. Ex: Jewellery, Diamonds, and ars. However, for people with higher income, they may look necessaries or comforts.

Question 23.
Name the basic approaches to consumer behavior.
Answer:
There are two basic approaches, namely:
1. Utility approach

• The utility approach involves the use of measurable (cardinal) utility to study consumer behaviour.
• Marshall is the chief exponent of the utility approach to the theory of demand. It is known as cardinal utility analysis or Marginal utility analysis or Marshallian utility analysis.

2. Indifference curve approach

• The indifference curve approach was the idea of comparable utility [ordinal utility] J.R. Hicks and R.G.D. Allen introduced the indifference curve approach.

Question 24.
What are the degrees of price elasticity of demand?
Answer:
1. The price elasticity of demand, commonly known as the elasticity of demand refers to the responsiveness and sensitiveness of demand for a product to the changes in its price. In other words, the price elasticity of demand is equal to
E_P =
Numerically, E_P = \(\frac { \Delta Q }{ \Delta P } \) × \(\frac{P}{Q}\)
where, ∆Q = Q₁ – Q₀, ∆P = P₁ – P₀
Q₁ = New quantity, P₁ = New price
Q₀ = Original quantity, P₀ = Original price

Question 25.
State the meaning of indifference curves.
Answer:

1. The Consumer is rational and his aim is to derive maximum satisfaction.
2. The utility cannot be cardinally measured but can be ranked or compared or ordered by an ordinal number such as I, II, III, and so on.
3. The indifference curve approach is based on the concept “Diminishing Marginal Rate of Substitution”.
4. The consumer is consistent. This assumption is called the assumption of transitivity.

Question 26.
Write the formula of consumer surplus?
Answer:
Consumer’s Surplus = Total utility
[Actual price × Units of commodity]
– TU – [P × Q]
= 20 – [2 × 5] = 20 – 10 = 10
Total utility = 20
Actual price = 2
Quantity = 5

Question 27.
What are Giffen goods? Why it is called that?
Answer:
Giffen Paradox: The Giffen good or inferior good is an exception to the law of demand. When the price of inferior goods, falls, the poor will buy less and vice versa.

Part – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 28.
Describe the feature of human wants?
Answer:
In ordinary language desire and want mean the same thing. But in economics, they have different meanings. Wants are the basis for human behaviour to buy and consume goods.

Characteristics of Human Wants:

• Wants are unlimited: Human wants are countless in number and various in kinds. When one wants is satisfied another wants to crop up. Human wants to multiply with the growth of civilization and development.
• Wants become habits: Wants become habits; for example, when a man starts reading the newspaper in the morning, it becomes a habit. The same is the case with drinking tea or chewing pans.
• Wants are Satiable: Though we cannot satisfy all our wants, at the same time we can satisfy particular wants at a given time. When one feels hungry, he takes food and that want is satisfied.
• Wants are Alternative: There are alternative ways to satisfy a particular want eg. Idly, dosa or chappati.
• Wants are Competitive: All our wants are not equally important. So, there is competition among wants. Hence, we have to choose more urgent wants than less urgent wants.
• Wants are Complementary: Sometimes, the satisfaction of a particular want requires the use of more than one commodity. Example: Car and Petrol, Ink and Pen.
• Wants are Recurring: Some wants occur again and again. For example, if we feel hungry, we take food and satisfy our wants. But after some time, we again feel hungry and want food.

Question 29.
Mention the relationship between marginal utility and total utility?
Answer:

Question 30.
Explain the concept of consumer’s equilibrium with a diagram?
Answer:
Consumer Equilibrium: The consumer reaches equilibrium at the point where the budget line is tangent on the indifference curve.

‘T’ is the point of equilibrium as budget line AB is tangent on indifference curve IC₃ the uppermost IC which implies the maximum possible level of satisfaction.
At equilibrium point, the slope of IC refers to MRS_xy and the slope of BL (Budget Line) refers to the ratio of the price of x to the price of y.
i.e., \(\frac { P_{ x } }{ P_{ y } } \), Therefore MRS_xy = \(\frac { P_{ x } }{ P_{ y } } \)

Question 31.
Explain the theory of “consumer’s surplus”
Answer:
Alfred Marshall defines consumer’s surplus as “the excess of price which a person would be willing to pay a thing rather than go without the thing, over that which he actually does pay is the economic measure of this surplus satisfaction. This may be called consumer’s surplus”.

Question 32.
Distinguish between extension and contraction of demand?
Answer:

1. The changes in the quantity demanded a commodity due to the change in its price alone are called “ Extension and Contraction of demand”.
2. Buying more at a lower price and less at a higher price is known as “ Extension and Contraction of Demand”.

Question 33.
What are the properties of indifference curves?
Answer:
Indifference curves are subjective and unique to each person. Nevertheless, they have in common the following properties:

1. Indifference curve must have negative slope:
An indifference curve has a negative slope, which denotes that if the quantity of a commodity (y) decreases, the quantity of the other (x) must increase if the consumer is to stay on the same level of satisfaction.

2. Indifference curves are convex to the origin:
Indifference curves are not only negatively sloped but are also convex to the origin. The convexity of the indifference curves implies that not only two commodities are substitutes for each other but also the fact that the marginal rate of substitution (MRS) between the goods decreases as a consumer moves along an indifference curve.

3. Indifference curve cannot intersect:
IC₁ is a lower indifference curve denoting lesser satisfaction. Combination C and B Fallon IC₁.
IC₂ is the upper indifference curve denoting higher satisfaction. C and A combinations are on IC₂

At the point of intersection, C = B on IC₁ and C = A on IC₂. So A = B whereas, A is in upper IC and B is on lower IC.
This is not possible.

4. Indifference curves do not touch the horizontal or vertical axis.
If they touch the axis, it violates the basic assumption that the consumer purchases two commodities in a combination.

Question 34.
Briefly explain the concept of consumer’s equilibrium?
Answer:
Consumer’s equilibrium refers to a situation under which a consumer spends his entire income on the purchase of goods, in such a manner that it gives him maximum satisfaction.
The consumer reaches equilibrium at the point where the budget line is tangent on the indifference curve.
T is the point of Equilibrium as budget line AB is tangent on indifference curve IC₃, the upper IC implies a maximum level of satisfaction.

Part – D

Answer the following questions in about a page.

Question 35.
Explain the law of demand and its exceptions?
Answer:
Definitions:
The Law of Demand says as “the quantity demanded increases with a fall in price and diminishes with a rise in price”. – Marshall
“The Law of Demand states that people will buy more at lower price and buy less at higher prices, other things remaining the same”. – Samuelson Assumptions of Law of Demand:

1. The income of the consumer remains constant.
2. The taste, habit and preference of the consumer remain the same.
3. The prices of other related goods should not change.
4. There should be no substitutes for the commodity in the study.
5. The demand for the commodity must be continuous.
6. There should not be any change in the quality of the commodity’.

Given these assumptions, the law of demand operates. If there is change even in one of these assumptions, the law will not operate.

Explanation:
The law of demand explains the relationship between the price of a commodity and the quantity demanded of it. This law states that the quantity demanded of a commodity expands with a fall in price and contracts with a rise in price. In other words, a rise in the price of a commodity is followed by a contraction demand, and a fall in price is followed by an extension in demand. Therefore, the law of demand states that there is an inverse relationship between the price and the quantity demanded of a commodity.

Exceptions to the law of demand:
Normally, the demand curve slopes downwards from left to right. But there are some unusual demand curves which do not obey the law and the reverse occurs. A fall in price brings about a contraction of demand and a rise in price results in an extension of demand. Therefore the demand curve slopes upwards from left to right. It is known as the exceptional demand curve.

In the above diagram, DD is the demand curve which slopes upwards from left to right. It shows that when the price is OP₁ OQ₁, is the demand and when the price rises to OP₂, demand also extends to OQ₂.

Question 36.
Elucidate the law of diminishing marginal utility with a diagram?
Answer:
Introduction:
H.H.Gossen, an Austrian Economist was the first to formulate this law in Economics in 1854. Therefore Jevons called this law “ Gossen’s First Law of Consumption”. But credit goes to
Marshall, because he perfected this law on the basis of Cardinal Analysis. This law is based on the characteristics of human wants, i.e. wants are satiable.

Definition:
Marshall states the law as “ the additional benefit which a person derives from a given increase of his stock of a thing, diminishes with every increase in the stock that he already has”.

Assumptions:

1. The utility can be measured by cardinal numbers such as 1, 2, 3, and so on.
2. The marginal utility of money of the consumer remains constant.
3. The consumer should be a rational consumer and his aim is to attain maximum satisfaction .with minimum expenditure.
4. The units of the commodity consumed must be reasonable in size.
5. The commodity consumed should be homogeneous or uniform in character like weight, quality, taste, colour etc.
6. The consumption of goods must take place continuously at a given period of time.
7. There should be no change in the taste, habits preferences, fashions, income, and character of the consumer during the process of consumption.

Explanation:
The Law of Diminishing Marginal utility states that if a consumer continues to consume more and more units of the same commodity, its marginal utility diminishes. This means that the more we have of a thing, the less is the satisfaction or utility that we derive from the additional unit of it.

The Law of Diminishing Marginal utility:

1. In this table, we find that the total utility goes on increasing but at a diminishing rate.
2. The law can be explained with a simple illustration.
3. The consumer wants to consume 7 apples one after another.
4. The utility from the first apple is 20.
5. But the utility from the second apple will be less than that of the first [say 15].
6. The third less than that of the second [say 10] and so on.
7. Finally, the utility from the fifth apple becomes zero, and the utilities from the sixth and seventh apples are negative for disutility or disliking.
8. This tendency is called the “ The Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility”.
9. In this table we find on the other hand, marginal utility goes on diminishing.
10. When marginal utility becomes zero, the total utility is maximum and when marginal utility becomes negative, the total utility diminishes.

The X-axis represents the number of apples consumed
Y-axis represents total utility and marginal utility
TU – represents total utility
MU – represents marginal utility

Criticisms:

1. The utility cannot be measured numerically, because the utility is subjective.
2. This law is based on unrealistic assumptions.
3. This law is not applicable to indivisible commodities.

Question 37.
Explain the law of Equi – marginal utility?
Answer:
The law of the Equi-marginal utility:

1. The law of diminishing marginal utility is applicable only to the want of a single commodity.
2. The law of equity – marginal utility explains the behavior of a consumer when he consumes more than one commodity.
3. Wants are unlimited but the income which is available is limited.
4. This law explains how the consumer spends his limited income on various commodities to get maximum satisfaction.
5. Law of Equi-Marginal Utility is also known as “The Law of Substitution” (or) “The Law of Consumer’s Equilibrium ” (or) “Gossen’s Second Law” and “ The Law of Maximum Satisfaction”.

Definition:
Marshall states the law as,“ If a person has a thing which he can put to several uses, he will distribute it among these uses in such a way that it has the same marginal utility in all. For, if it had a greater marginal utility in one use than another he would gain by taking away some of it from the second use and applying it to first”.

Assumptions:

1. The consumer is rational in the sense that he wants to get maximum satisfaction.
2. The utility of each commodity is measurable in cardinal numbers.
3. The marginal utility of money remains constant.
4. The income of the consumer is given.
5. There is perfect competition in the market.
6. The prices of the commodities are given.
7. The law of diminishing marginal utility operates.

Illustration:
This Law can be illustrated with the help of a table. Let us assume that the consumer has a given income of ₹11. He wants to spend this entire income [i.e. ₹11 ] on Apple and Orange. The price of an Apple and the price of an Orange is each.

The law of the Equi – Marginal Utility

If the consumer wants to attain maximum utility, he should buy 6 units of apples and 5 units of oranges, so that she can get [92 + 58] = 150 units. No other combination of Apple and Orange can give higher than 150 utilities. \(\frac{MUA}{PA}\) = \(\frac{MUD}{PO}\) i.e; \(\frac{4}{1}\) = \(\frac{4}{1}\)

Here,

Diagrammatic Illustration:

1. In the diagram, X-axis represents the amount of money spent and Y-axis represents the marginal utilities of Apple and Orange respectively.
2. If the consumer spends ₹6 on Apple and ₹5 on Orange, the marginal utilities of both are equal, i.e. AA₁ = BB₁ [4 = 4], Hence, he gets maximum utility.

Criticisms:

1.  In practice, the utility cannot be measured, only be felt.
2. This law cannot be applied to durable goods.

Question 38.
What are the methods of measuring the Elasticity of demand?
Answer:
There are three methods of measuring the price elasticity of demand.

1. The Percentage method: e_p = \(\frac{∆Q}{∆P}\) × \(\frac{P}{Q}\)
It is also known as ratio method, when we measure the ratio as:
e_p = \(\frac { %\Delta Q }{ %\Delta P } \) where,
% ∆Q = Percentage change in demand
% ∆P = Percentage change in price

2. Total Outlay Method:
Marshall suggested that the simplest way to decide whether demand is elastic or inelastic is to examine the change in total outlay of the consumer or total revenue of the firm. Total Revenue = (Price × Quantity Sold)
TR = ( P × Q)

Where there is an inverse relation between Price and Total Outlay, demand is elastic. Direct relation means inelastic. Elasticity is unity when Total Outlay is constant.

3. Point or Geometrical Elasticity:
When the demand curve is a straight line, it is said to be linear. Graphically, the point elasticity of a linear demand curve is shown by the ratio of the segments of the line to the right and to the left of the particular point. Where ‘e’ stands for point elasticity, ‘L’ stands for the lower segment, and ‘U’ for the upper segment.

Point Elasticity =

e_p = L/U

Where ‘e_p’ stands for point elasticity, ‘L’ stands for the lower segment, and ‘U’ for the upper segment.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Consumption Analysis Additional Important Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
_________ is the beginning of Economic Science.
(a) Production
(b) Consumption
(c) Exchange
(d) Distribution
Answer:
(b) Consumption

Question 2.
Single commodity consumption mode is ………………………
(a) Production possibility curve
(b) Law of Equi – marginal utility
(c) Law of supply
(d) Law of diminishing marginal utility
Answer:
(d) Law of diminishing marginal utility

Question 3.
If total utility is maximum, then marginal utility is _________.
(a) Negative
(b) Zero
(c) Positive
(d) Maximum
Answer:
(b) Zero

Question 4.
An indifference curve is ……………………. to the origin.
(a) Convex
(b) Concave
(c) Narrow
(d) Cardinal
Answer:
(a) Convex

Question 5.
‘Diamond – Water paradox’ was given by
(a) Marshall
(b) Robbins
(c) Adam Smith
(d) Samuelson
Answer:
(c) Adam Smith

Question 6.
Human wants to have the capacity to get satisfied only ……………………..
(a) Permanent
(b) Substitute
(c) Satisfaction
(d) Temporarily
Answer:
(d) Temporarily

Question 7.
The exceptional demand curve _________.
(a) Slopes downward
(b) Vertical
(c) Slopes upward
(d) Horizontal
Answer:
(c) Slopes upward

Question 8.
What is called conventional necessities?
(a) Comforts
(b) Luxuries
(c) Necessaries
(d) Necessary
Answer:
(a) Comforts

Question 9.
Mathematically consumer’s surplus is _________
(a) TU-TU
(b) TR- (P x Q)
(c) TU – (P x Q)
(d) TC – (Q x P)
Answer:
(c) TU – (P x Q)

Question 10.
What is the other name for the law of equity-mangìnal utility?
(a) Gossen’s First law
(b) Gossen’s Second law
(c) Gossen’s Third law
(d) Gossen’s Fourth law
Answer:
(b) Gossen’s Second law

Part – B

Answer the following in one-two sentences.

Question 1.
What are the criticisms of the law of equity-marginal utility?
Answer:

1. The utility cannot be measured, only be felt.
2. This law cannot be applied to durable goods.

Question 2.
What is Human wants conditions?
Answer:
Human wants are countless in number and various in kinds. When one want is satisfied another want crops up. Human wants to multiply with the growth of civilization and development.

Question 3.
Mention the types of elasticity of demand.
Answer:

1. Price elasticity of demand.
2. Income elasticity of demand
3. Cross elasticity of demand.
4. Advertising elasticity of demand

Part – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 1.
Write a note on the Price line or Budget line?
Answer:
Demand for a good depends upon (z) preference for that good and (z’z) purchasing power.
The preference pattern is represented by a set of indifference curves. The purchasing power depends on his money income and the price of the goods. The money income and price level are represented by the budget line. The budget line is a downward sloping straight line connecting X-axis and Y-axis as follows.

OA- income, OA/OB price of X good. The budget line is the line joining various combinations of the two goods which the consumer can buy at given prices and income.

Question 2.
Enumerate the characteristics of demand.
Answer:
Price: Demand is always related to price.
Time: Demand always means demand per unit of time, per day, per week, per month or per year
Market: Demand is always related to the market, buyers, and sellers.
Amount: Demand is always a specific quantity that a consumer is willing to purchase.

Part – D

Answer the following questions in about a page.

Question 1.
Explain the Determinants of Elasticity of demand?
Answer:
There are many factors that determine the degree of price elasticity Of demand. Some of them are described below:

1. Availability of Substitutes:
If close substitutes are available for a product, then the demand for that product tends to be very elastic. If the price of that product increases, buyers will buy its substitutes; hence fall in its demand will be very large. Hence, price elasticity will be larger, e.g., Vegetables.

For salt no close substitutes are available. Hence even if the price of salt increases the fall in demand may be zero or less. Hence salt is price inelastic.

2. Proportion of consumer’s income is spent’ if the smaller proportion of consumer’s income is spent on particular commodity say X, price elasticity of demand for X will be smaller. Take for example salt, people spend a very small proportion of their income on salt. Hence, the salt will have small elasticity of demand, or inelastic.

3. Number of uses of commodity:
If a commodity is used for a greater number of uses, its price elasticity will also be larger. For example, milk is used as buttermilk, curd, ghee, and for making ice cream, etc. Hence, even the small fall in the price of milk will tempt the consumers to use more milk for many purposes. Hence milk has a greater price elasticity of demand.

4. Complementarity between goods:
For example, along with petrol, lubricating oil is also used for running automobiles. Here a rise in the price of lubricating oil may not reduce the demand for lubricating oil. Hence, the complementary good, here, lubricating oil, will be price inelastic.

5. Time:
In the long run, the price elasticity of demand for many goods will be larger. This is so because, in the long run many substitutes can be discovered or invented. Therefore, the demand is generally more elastic in the long run, than in the short run. In the short run bringing out new substitutes is difficult.

Question 2.
What is the Importance of Elasticity of demand?
Answer:
The concept of elasticity of demand is of much practical importance.

1. Price fixation: Each seller under monopoly and imperfect competition has to take into account the elasticity of demand while fixing the price for his product. If the demand for the product is inelastic, he can fix a higher price.
2. Production: Producers generally decide their production level on the basis of demand for the product.
3. Distribution: The elasticity of demand also helps in the determination of rewards for factors of production.
4. International trade: The elasticity of demand helps in finding out the terms of trade between two countries. Terms of trade depend upon the elasticity of demand for the goods of the two countries.
5. Public finance: The elasticity of demand helps the government in formulating tax policies. For example, for imposing a tax on a commodity.
6. Nationalization: The concept of elasticity of demand enables the government to decide over the nationalization of industries.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Which one is the function of Accounting?
(a) Decision making
(b) Systematic records
(c) Legal evidence
(d) Preparation of balance sheet
Answer:
(a) Decision making

Question 2.
………………….. is the capability of a person or an enterprise to pay the debts.
(a) Solvency
(b) Creditor
(c) Bad debts
(d) Income
Answer:
(a) Solvency

Question 3.
The first step in the accounting process is …………………….. and recording.
(a) Book – keeping
(b) Identifying
(c) Accountancy
(d) Journal
Answer:
(b) Identifying

Question 4.
………………………. concept implies that only those transactions, which can be expressed in terms of money are recorded in the accounts.
(a) Money measurement concept
(b) Business entity concept
(c) Going concern concept
(d) Cost concept
Answer:
(a) Money measurement concept

Question 5.
CDM expands ……………………..
(a) Cash Deposit Machine
(b) Credit Debts Method
(c) Commerce Document Mode
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Cash Deposit Machine

Question 6.
Which one is the owner’s equity?
(a) Creditors
(b) Bank
(c) Capital
(d) Debtors
Answer:
(c) Capital

Question 7.
The process of recording in the ledger is called ………………………
(a) Journal
(b) Journalising
(c) Ledger
(d) Posting
Answer:
(d) Posting

Question 8.
Total of debit = Total of credit = ?
(a) Debit balance
(b) Credit balance
(c) Nil balance
(d) To balance bld
Answer:
(c) Nil balance

Question 9.
Which one is in correct order (ascending)?
(a) Journal, ledger, trial balance
(b) Trial balance, journal, ledger
(c) Ledger, journal, trial balance
(d) Trial balance, ledger, journal
Answer:
(a) Journal, ledger, trial balance

Question 10.
Subsidiary books (special journal) for entering ……………………..
(a) Cash transactions
(b) Non – cash transactions
(c) Both
(d) Journal proper
Answer:
(b) Non – cash transactions

Question 11.
………………………. serves as both journal and ledger.
(a) Cash book
(b) Sales book
(c) Purchases book
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Cash book

Question 12.
Cash book shows debit balance means ……………………..
(a) Favourable balance
(b) Overdraft
(c) Negative balance
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Favourable balance

Question 13.
The total of sales book ₹9,240 was debited in the sales account as ₹9,420.
(a) Error of commission
(b) Error of omission
(c) Error of partial omission
(d) Error of principle
Answer:
(a) Error of commission

Question 14.
……………………… assets have a long span of life.
(a) Bank
(b) Cash
(c) Debtors
(d) Fixed assets
Answer:
(d) Fixed assets

Question 15.
The amount of depreciation goes on decreasing year after year …………………….
(a) Revaluation method
(b) Written down value method
(c) Straight line method
(d) Depletion method
Answer:
(b) Written down value method

Question 16.
Overhaul expenses is an example for …………………………
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Revenue expenditure
(c) Deferred revenue expenditure
(d) Capital receipts
Answer:
(a) Capital expenditure

Question 17.
……………………….. is the arrangement of various assets and liabilities in a proper order.
(a) Marshalling
(b) Balance sheet
(c) Assets
(d) Liabilities
Answer:
(a) Marshalling

Question 18.
Income tax paid by the business is not a business expenditure and is treated as ………………………..
(a) Capital
(b) Drawings
(c) Revenue
(d) Expense
Answer:
(b) Drawings

Question 19.
……………………….. is the programming software.
(a) DOS
(b) Windows
(c) UBUNTU
(d) PASCAL
Answer:
(d) PASCAL

Question 20.
………………………. is the application software.
(a) PASCAL
(b) COBOL
(c) DOS
(d) MS – Office
Answer:
(d) MS – Office

PART – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 21 is compulsory: [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Define Accounting?
Answer:
American Accounting Association has defined accounting as “the process of identifying, measuring and communicating economic information to permit informed judgements and decisions by users of the information.”

Question 22.
What are source documents?
Answer:
Source documents are the authentic evidences of financial transactions. These documents show the nature of transactions the date, the amount and the parties involved. Source documents include cash receipts, invoice, debit note, credit note, pay-in-slip, salary bills, wage bills, cheque record slips etc.

Question 23.
What are the methods of preparation of trial balance?
Answer:

1. Balance method
2. Total method
3. Total and balance method

Question 24.
Mention four types of subsidiary books?
Answer:

1. Purchases book
2. Sales book
3. Purchases return book
4. Sales return book

Question 25.
What is meant by Bank overdraft?
Answer:
It is not possible to have unfavourable cash balance in the cash book. But, it is possible to have unfavourable balance in the bank account. When the business is not having sufficient money in its bank account, it can borrow money from the bank.

Question 26.
What is meant by rectification of errors?
Answer:
Correction of errors in the books of accounts is not done by erasing, rewriting or striking the figures which are incorrect. Correcting the errors that has occured is called rectification. Appropriate entry is passed or suitable explanatory note is written in the respective account or accounts to neutralise the effect of errors.

Question 27.
What is meant by depreciation?
Answer:
The process of allocation of the relevant cost of fixed asset over its useful life is known as depreciation. It is an allocation of cost against the benefit derived from a fixed asset during an accounting period.

Question 28.
What is meant by revenue expenditure?
Answer:
The expenditure incurred for day to day running of the business or for maintaining the earning capacity of the business is known as revenue expenditure. It is recurring in nature. It is incurred to generate revenue for a particular accounting period.

Question 29.
Prepare Trading account in the books of Siva Shankar from the following figures:
Opening Stock ₹1,500; Šales ₹4,600; Purchases ₹3,500; Closing Stock ₹1,300:
Answer:

Question 30.
What is CAS?
Answer:
Computerised Accounting System (CAS) refers to the system of maintaining accounts using computers. It involves the processing of accounting transactions through the use of hardware and software in order to keep and produce accounting records and reports.

PART – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 31 is compulsory: [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
How can we classify the components of CAS?
Answer:

1. Hardware
2. Software
3. People
4. Procedure
5. Data
6. Connectivity

Question 32.
Classify the following items into capital or revenue?

1. ₹50,000 spent for railway siding.
2. Loss on sale of old furniture ₹200.
3. Carriage paid on goods sold ₹500.

Answer:

1. Capital
2. Revenue
3. Revenue

Question 33.
An asset is purchased for ₹50,000. The rate of depreciation is 15% p.a. Calculate the annual depreciation for the first two years under diminishing balance method?
Answer:
Caluculation of depreciation for first two years. (On diminishing balance method).

Question 34.
On 1^st January, 2016, provision for doubtful debts account had a balance of ₹3,000. On December 31, 2016 sundry debtors amounted to ₹80,000. During the year, bad debts
to be written off were ₹2,000. A provision for 5% was required for next year. Pass adjusting journal entries?
Answer:

Question 35.
The following errors were located after the preparation of the trial balance. Rectify them.

1. Paid ₹50 to Anitha was wrongly debited to Vanitha account.
2. Sale of furniture for ₹500 was credited to sales account.
3. Purchased goods from Natarajan on credit for ₹750 was wrongly passed through sales book.

Answer:

Question 36.
From the following particulars of Siva and company, prepare a bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st December, 2017.

1. Credit balance as per cash book ₹12,000.
2. A cheque of ₹1,200 issued and presented for payment to the bank, wrongly credited in the cash book as ₹2,100.
3. Debit side of bank statement was undercast by ₹100.

Answer:
Bank Reconciliation Statement of Siva & company as on 31^st December, 2017

Question 37.
Enter the following transactions in a single column cash book of Seshadri for May, 2017?

Answer:

Question 38.
Prepare the trial balance from the following information:
Bank loan ₹3,00,000; Stock ₹2,70,000; Capital ₹2,50,000; Purchases ₹1,80,000; Debtors ₹4,00,000; ₹Sales 3,00,000.
Answer:

Question 39.
Prepare Anand’s account from the following data:

Answer:

Question 40.
Complete the followings:

Answer:
Completed informations:

PART – IV

Answer all the questions: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Mr. Vivek took a loan of ₹2,00,000 from State Bank of India, Chennai and number of installments is 84 months. Calculate the rate assuming payments ₹3,300 per month using appropriate function?
Answer:
Procedure:
1. Open a new spread sheet in MS – Excel

2. Enter values in the cells as given below

3. Compare RATE in the cell B6 by the formula
= RATE (B1, B2, B3, B4, B5) * 12
Answer 10%

[OR]

(b) From the following information, prepare bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st December, 2017 to find out the balance as per bank statement?

Answer:

Question 42 (a).
From the following information prepare an analytical Petty cash book under imprest system?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Rectify the following errors assuming that the trial balance is yet to be prepared?

1. Sales book was undercast by ₹400.
2. Sales returns book was overcast by ₹500.
3. Purchases book was undercast by ₹600.
4. Purchases returns book was overcast by ₹700.
5. Bills receivable book was undercast by ₹800.

Answer:

1. Sales account should be credited with ₹400.
2. Sales returns account should be credited with ₹500.
3. Purchases account should be debited with ₹600.
4. Purchases returns account should be debited with ₹700.
5. Bills receivable account should be debited with ₹800.

Question 43 (a).
From the following transactions prepare three column cash book of Udhayakumar?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Ramu Brothers purchased a machine on 1^st July 2016 at a cost of ₹14,000 and spent ₹1,000 on its installation. The firm writes off depreciation at 10% of original cost every year. The books are closed on 31^st December every year. Give journal entries and prepare machinery account and depreciation account for 2 years?
Answer:

Question 44 (a).
Prepare necessary subsidiary books in the books of Niranjan from the following transactions for the month of February, 2017?

Answer:

(b) Classify the following receipts into capital and revenue?

1. Sale proceeds of goods ₹75,000.
2. Loan borrowed from bank ₹2,50,000.
3. Sale of investment ₹1,20,000.
4. Commission received ₹30,000.
5. ₹1,400 wages paid in connection with the erection of new machinery.

Answer:

1. Revenue
2. Capital
3. Capital
4. Revenue
5. Capital

Question 45 (a).
Prepare the trial balance from the following balances of Babu as on 31^st March, 2016?

Answer:

(b) From the following information, prepare Profit & Loss account for the year ending 31^st December,2016?

Answer:

Question 46 (a).
Prepare Anand’s account from the following details?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) From the following adjustments, pass adjusting entries?

1. Outstanding wages ₹5,000.
2. Depreciation on machinery ₹1,000.
3. Interest on capital @ 5% on capital ₹20,000.
4. Interest on drawings ₹50.
5. Write off bad debts ₹500.

Answer:

Question 47 (a).
Pass Journal entries for the following transactions for the month of March, 2018?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare accounting equation from the following transactions and show balance sheet also?

1. Raj started business with cash ₹40,000.
2. Opened bank account with a deposit of ₹30,000.
3. Bought goods from Han on credit for ₹12,000
4. Raj withdrew cash for personal use ₹1,000.
5. Bought furniture by using debit card ₹10,000.

Answer:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
On the basis of ledger balances the …………………….. are prepared.
(a) Trading A/c
(b) Financial statement
(c) Profit and loss A/c
(d) Balance sheet
Answer:
(b) Financial statement

Question 2.
Accounting is a basic necessity for all ……………………
(a) Human being
(b) Governments
(c) Enterprises
(d) Customers
Answer:
(c) Enterprises

Question 3.
What is GAAP?
(a) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
(b) Government Accepted Accounting Principles
(c) Generally Accounting and Accountancy Principles
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles

Question 4.
……………………… concept assumes that business enterprise and its owners are two separate independent entities.
(a) Business concern
(b) Business entity concepts
(c) Going Concern concept
(d) Matching concept
Answer:
(b) Business entity concepts

Question 5.
Which of the following is a personal account?
(a) Debtors
(b) Stationary
(c) Cash
(d) Sales
Answer:
(a) Debtors

Question 6.
Which of the following is a real account?
(a) Wages
(b) Salaries
(c) Bank account
(d) Shares and debentures of companies
Answer:
(d) Shares and debentures of companies\

Question 7.
Which of the following accounts is expected to have a debit balance?
(a) Assets
(b) Loss
(c) Expense
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 8.
A collection or group of all accounts of a business enterprises is known as …………………………
(a) Balance sheet
(b) Trial balance
(c) Ledger
(d) Journal
Answer:
(c) Ledger

Question 9.
Which account usually has debit balance?
(a) Discount received
(b) Purchase returns
(c) Purchases
(d) Owner equity
Answer:
(c) Purchases

Question 10.
A trial balance is a …………………… ?
(a) Nominal account
(b) Personal account
(c) Real account
(d) None
Answer:
(d) None

Question 11.
Which of the following is not only a subsidiary books of account?
(a) Purchase book
(b) Sales book
(c) Purchase return book
(d) Cash book
Answer:
(d) Cash book

Question 12.
If a cheque issued by us is dishonoured the credit is given to ……………………..
(a) Customer’s A/c
(b) Bank A/c
(c) Supplier’s A/c
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Supplier’s A/c

Question 13.
Cheques issued but not presented to bank …………………….
(a) Cash book – Add
(b) Cash book (Cr) – Add
(c) Bank statement (Cr) – Add
(d) Bank statement (Dr) subtract
Answer:
(a) Cash book – Add

Question 14.
Generally, one – sided errors are revealed by ……………………..
(a) Credit balance
(b) Debit balance
(c) Balance sheet
(d) Trial balance
Answer:
(d) Trial balance

Question 15.
Two – sided errors are not revealed by ……………………..
(a) Debit balance
(b) Trial balance
(c) Credit balance
(d) Balance sheet
Answer:
(b) Trial balance

Question 16.
The amount which is expected to be realised at the end of the estimated useful life of an asset is known as ………………………….
(a) Life of an asset
(b) Actual cost of asset
(c) Other factors
(d) Scrap value of an asset
Answer:
(d) Scrap value of an asset

Question 17.
There are various methods used for providing depreciation on …………………………
(a) Life of an asset
(b) Actual cost of asset
(c) Fixed asset
(d) Other factors
Answer:
(c) Fixed asset

Question 18.
Revenue receipts are ……………………. in the business.
(a) Non – recurring
(b) Recurring
(c) Neither of the above
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Recurring

Question 19.
Income statement is divided into …………………….. parts.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:
(b) Two

Question 20.
Components of CAS can be classified into ………………………. categories.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Six
(d) Three
Answer:
(c) Six

PART – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 21 is compulsory: [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Discuss briefly the branches of accounting?
Answer:
The various branches of accounting are:

1. Financial Accounting:
It involves recording of financial transactions and events.

2. Cost Accounting:
It involves the collection, recording, classification and appropriate allocation of expenditure for the determination of the costs of products or services and for the presentation of data for the purposes of cost control and managerial decision making.

3. Management Accounting:
It is concerned with the presentation of accounting information in such a way as to assist management in decision making and in the day-to-day operations of an enterprise.

4. Social Responsibility Accounting:
It is concerned with presentation of accounting information by business entities and other organizations from the view point of the society by showing the social costs incurred such as environmental pollution by the enterprise and social benefits such as infrastructure development and employment opportunities created by them.

5. Human Resources Accounting:
It is concerned with identification, qualification and reporting of investments made in human resources of an enterprise.

Question 22.
State the principles of double entry system of book – keeping?
Answer:

1. In every business transaction, there are two aspects.
2. The two aspects involved are the benefit or value receiving aspect and benefit or value giving aspect.
3. These two aspects involve minimum two accounts; atleast one debit and atleast one credit.
4. For every debit, there is a corresponding and equivalent credit. If one account is debited . the other account must be credited.

Question 23.
Journalise the following transactions?

Answer:

Question 24.
What are the objectives of preparing trial balance (any two)?
Answer:

1. Test of arithmetical accuracy: Trial balance is the means by which the arithmetical accuracy of the book-keeping work is checked.
2. Basis for preparing final accounts: Financial statements, namely, trading and profit and loss account and balance sheet are prepared on the basis of summary of ledger balances obtained from the trial balance.

Question 25.
What is Journal proper?
Answer:
Journal proper is a residuary book which contains records of transactions, which do not find a place in the subsidiary »books such as cash book, purchases book, sales book, purchases returns book, sales returns book, bills receivable books and bills payable book.

Question 26.
What is Cash Book?
Answer:
Cash book is the book in which only cash transactions are recorded in the chronological order. The cash book is the book of original entry or prime entry as cash transactions are recorded for the first time in it. Cash transactions here may include bank transactions also.

Question 27.
Give any two expenses which may be paid by the banker as per standing instruction?
Answer:

1. Insurance premium paid by the bank as per the standing instruction.
2. Loan instalment, paid by the bank as per the instruction.

Question 28.
What is meant by error of partial omission?
Answer:
When the accountant has failed to record a part of the transaction, it is known as error of partial omission. This error usually occurs in posting. This error affects only one account.

Question 29.
What is Sinking Fund method?
Answer:
This method is adopted especially when it is desired not merely to write off an asset but also to provide enough funds to replace an asset at the end of its working life.

Question 30.
What is capital expenditure?
Answer:
It is an expenditure incurred during an accounting period, the benefits of which will be available for more than one accounting period.

PART – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 31 is compulsory: [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Write any three differences among the readymade software, customised software and tailor made software?
Answer:

Question 32.
Abstracts from the trial balance as on 31^st March, 2016?
Answer:

Adjustments:

1. Additional bad debts ₹2,000.
2. Create 5% provision for bad and doubtful debts. You are required to pass adjusting entries.

Answer:

Question 33.
A firm purchased a plant for ₹40,000. Erection charges amounted to ₹2,000. Effective life of the plant is 5 years. Calculate the amount of depreciation per year under straight line method?
Answer:
Caluculation of amount of depreciation:

Question 34.
Complete the missing items:

Answer:

Question 35.
Give journal entries for the following transactions and post them to cash A/c and sales A/c?

Answer:

Question 36.
The following balances are extracted from the books of Murali, as on 31^st March, 2017. Prepare Trial balance?

Answer:

Question 37.
Enter the following transactions in the purchase book of M/s. Subhashree Electric Co., which deals in electric goods?

Answer:

Question 38.
Briefly explain about contra entry with examples?
Answer:
When the two accounts involved in a transactions are cash account and bank account, then both the aspects are entered in cash book itself. As both the debit and credit aspect of a transaction are recorded in the cash book, such entries are called contra entries.

Example: When cash is paid into bank, it is recorded in the bank column on the debit side and in the cash column on the credit side of the cash book.

Question 39.
Rectify the following errors:

1. Sales returns book is overcast by ₹1,000.
2. Purchases book is undercast by ₹2,000.
3. Purchase returns book is overcast by ₹500.

Answer:

1. Sales returns account should be credited with ₹1,000.
2. Purchases account should be debited with ₹2,000.
3. Purchase returns account should be debited with ₹500.

Question 40.
Classify the following receipts into capital and revenue:

1. Sale proceeds of goods ₹75,000.
2. Loan borrowed from bank ₹2,50,000.
3. Sale of investment ₹1,20,000.

Answer:

1. Revenue
2. Capital
3. Capital

PART – IV

Answer all the questions: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41(a).
Jayaseeli is a sole proprietor having a provisions store. Following are the transactions?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Show the accounting equation on the basis of the following:

1. Started business with cash ₹60,000
2. Purchased goods fof cash ₹20,000
3. Sold goods for cash (costing ₹10,000) for ₹15,000
4. Paid rent by cash ₹500
5. Cash withdrawn for personal use ₹5,000

Answer:

Question 42 (a).
Pass journal entries and prepare ledger accounts in the books of Thamizhanban?

Answer:

`

[OR]

(b) Prepare Trial balance from the following ledger abstract of Rathna Kumar?

Answer:

Question 43 (a).
Record the following transactions in the purchases book of Shanthi furniture mart:

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Enter the following transactions of Fathima in the cash book with cash, bank and discount columns for the month of May, 2017?

Answer:

Question 44 (a).
From the following information, prepare bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st December, 2017 to find out the balance as per bank statement?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Rectify the following errors:

1. Sales book is undercast by ₹100
2. Sales book is overcast by ₹200
3. Purchases book is undercast by ₹300
4. Purchases book is overcast by ₹400
5. Purchases returns book is undercast by ₹500

Answer:

1. Sales account should be credited with ₹100
2. Sales account should be debited with ₹200
3. Purchases account should be debited with ₹300
4. Purchases account should be credited with ₹400
5. Purchases returns account should be credited with ₹500

Question 45 (a).
On 1^st April 2015, Kumar purchased a machine for ₹80,000 and spent ₹20,000 on its installation. The residual value at the end of its expected useful life of 8 years is estimated at ₹4,000. On 30^th September 2017, the machine is sold for v50,000. Depreciation is to be provided according to straight line method. Prepare machinery account. Accounts are closed on 31^st December every year?
Answer:

= Total  cost = Cost price of machine + installation
= 80,000 + 20,000
= 1,00,000
= \(\frac{12,000}{1,00,000}\) × 100
= 12%

[OR]

(b) State whether the following are capital, revenue or deferred revenue?

1. Legal fees paid to the lawyer after acquiring a land ₹20,000.
2. Heavy advertising cost of ₹12,00,000 spent on introducing a new product.
3. Renewal of factory licence ₹12,000.
4. A sum of ₹4,000 was spent on painting the factory.
5. Carriage paid on goods sold.

Answer:

1. Capital
2. Deferred revenue
3. Revenue
4. Revenue
5. Revenue

Question 46 (a).
The following is the extract of a trial balance as on 31^st December, 2017. Prepare Trading account:

Answer:

(b) From the following information, prepare profit and loss account for the year ended 31^st December, 2017?

Answer:

Question 47 (a).
From the following information, prepare final account of Mr. Jain for the year ended 31^st December, 2016?

Adjustments:

1. Salaries outstanding ₹600
2. Depreciation on furniture ₹1,000
3. Interest on capital₹1,000
4. Closing Stock ₹14,000

Answer:

[OR]

(b) What are the differences among the three types of software? (Any five)
Answer: