Category: Class 11

Students can download 11th Economics Chapter 6 Distribution Analysis Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 6 Distribution Analysis

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Distribution Analysis Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
In Economics, distribution of income is among the ……………………….
(a) Factors of production
(b) Individual
(c) Firms
(d) Traders
Answer:
(a) Factors of production

Question 2.
Theory of distribution is popularly known as
(a) Theory of product-pricing
(b) Theory of factor-pricing
(c) Theory of wages
(d) Theory of Interest
Answer:
(b) Theory of factor-pricing

Question 3.
Rent is the reward for the use of ………………………..
(a) Capital
(b) Labour
(c) Land
(d) Organization
Answer:
(c) Land

Question 4.
The concept of ‘Quasi-Rent’ is associated with
(a) Ricardo
(b) Keynes
(c) Walker
(d) Marshall
Answer:
(d) Marshall

Question 5.
The Classical Theory or Rent was propounded by ………………………..
(a) Ricardo
(b) Keynes
(c) Marshall
(d) Walker
Answer:
(a) Ricardo

Question 6.
‘Original and indestructible powers of the soil’ is the term used by
(a) J.S.Mill
(b) Walker
(c) Clark
(d) Ricardo
Answer:
(d) Ricardo

Question 7.
The reward for labour is ………………………
(a) Rent
(b) Wage
(c) Profit
(d) Interest
Answer:
(b) Wage

Question 8.
Money wages are also known as
(a) real wages
(b) nominal wages
(c) original wages
(d) transfer wages
Answer:
(b) nominal wages

Question 9.
Residual Claimant Theory is propounded by ………………………..
(a) Keynes
(b) Walker
(c) Hawley
(d) Knight
Answer:
(b) Walker

Question 10.
The reward given for the use of capital
(a) rent
(b) wage
(c) interest
(d) profit
Answer:
(c) interest

Question 11.
Keynesian Theory of interest is popularly known as ………………………
(a) Abstinence Theory
(b) Liquidity Preference Theory
(c) Loanable Funds Theory
(d) Agio Theory
Answer:
(b) Liquidity Preference Theory

Question 12.
According to the Loanable Funds Theory, supply of loanable funds is equal to
(a) S + BC + DH + DI
(b) I + DS + DH + BM
(c) S + DS + BM + DI
(d) S + BM + DH + DS
Answer:
(a) S + BC + DH + DI

Question 13.
The concept of meeting unexpected expenditure according to Keynes is …………………………
(a) Transaction motive
(b) Precautionary motive
(c) Speculative motive
(d) Personal motive
Answer:
(b) Precautionary motive

Question 14.
The distribution of income or wealth of a country among the individuals are
(a) functional distribution
(b) personal distribution
(c) goods distribution
(d) services distribution
Answer:
(b) personal distribution

Question 15.
Profit is the reward for ………………………..
(a) Land
(b) Organization
(c) Capital
(d) Labour
Answer:
(b) Organization

Question 16.
Innovation Theory of profit was given by
(a) Hawley
(b) Schumpeter
(c) Keynes
(d) Knight
Answer:
(b) Schumpeter

Question 17.
Quasi – rent arises in ………………………..
(a) Man-made appliances
(b) Homemade items
(c) Imported items
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Man-made appliances

Question 18.
“Wages as a sum of money are paid under contract by an employer to a worker for services rendered” -Who said this?
(a) Benham
(b) Marshall
(c) Walker
(d) J.S.Mill
Answer:
(a) Benham

Question 19.
Abstinence Theory of Interest was propounded by …………………………
(a) Alfred Marshall
(b) N.W Senior
(c) Bohm – Bawerk
(d) Knut Wicksell
Answer:
(b) N.W Senior

Question 20.
Loanable Funds Theory of Interest is called as
(a) Classical Theory
(b) Modem Theory
(c) Traditional Theory
(d) Neo-Classical Theory
Answer:
(d) Neo-Classical Theory

Part – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 21.
What is meant by distribution?
Answer:
Distribution means division of income among the four factors of production as rent, wage, interest and profit.

Question 22.
Mention the types of distribution.
Answer:

1. Personal Distribution
2. Functional Distribution

Question 23.
Define ‘Rent’?
Answer:
Rent is that part of payment made by a tenant to his landlords for the use of land only.

Question 24.
Distinguish between real and money wages?
Answer:

Money Wages	Real Wages
1. Money wages are referred to the wages paid in terms of money.	Real wages are the wages paid in terms of goods and services.
2. Depend upon the standard of living workers in a country.	Depend upon the purchasing power of money.

Question 25.
What do you mean by interest?
Answer:

1. Interest is the reward paid by the borrower to the lender for the use of capital.
2. Interest is the price paid for the use of capital in any market.
3. Generally speaking, interest is a payment made by a borrower to the lender for the money borrowed.

Question 26.
What is profit?
Answer:

1. The entrepreneur coordinates all the other three factors (land, labour and capital) of production.
2. Entrepreneur is rewarded for his services in the form of profit.
3. Profit is a return to the entrepreneur for the use of his entrepreneurial ability.
4. It is the net income of the organizer.
5. Profit is the amount left with the entrepreneur after he has payments made for all the other factors (land, labour and capital) used by him in the production process.

Question 27.
State the meaning of liquidity preference.
Answer:
Liquidity preference is the preference to have an amount of cash rather than of claims against others.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in a paragraph.

Question 28.
What are the motives of demand for money?
Answer:
Motives of Demand for Money:
According to Keynes, there are three motives for liquidity preference. They are:

1. The Transaction Motive:

• The transaction motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash for the current transactions.
• The amount saved under this motive depends on the level of income.
• M_t = f(y)

2. The Precautionary Motive:

• The precautionary motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash to meet unexpected or unforeseen expenditures such as sickness, accidents, fire and theft. The amount saved for this motive also depends on the level of income.
  M_p = f(y)

3. The Speculative Motive:
The speculative motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash in order to take advantage of market movements regarding the future changes in the price of bonds and securities in the capital market. The amount saved for this motive depends on the rate of interest.
M_S = f(i). There is inverse relation between liquidity preference and rate of interest.

Question 29.
List the kinds of wages.
Answer:
1. Nominal wages or money wages :
Nominal wages are referred to as the wages paid in terms of money.

2. Real wages :
Real wages are the wages paid in terms of goods and services. Hence, real wages are the purchasing power of money wages.

3. Piece wages :
Wages that are paid on the basis of quantum of work done.

4. Time wages :
Wages are paid on the basis of the amount of time that the worker works.

Question 30.
Distinguish between rent and quasi – rent?
Answer:

Rent	Quasi-Rent
1. Rent accrues to land.	Quasi-Rent accrues to the man-made appliance.
2. The supply of land is fixed forever.	The supply of man-made appliances is fixed for a short period only.
3. It enters into the price.	It does not enter into price.

Question 31.
Briefly explain the Subsistence Theory of Wages.
Answer:

• Subsistence theory was first explained by physiocrats and restated by Ricardo.
• According to this theory, wage must be equal to the subsistence level of the labourer and his family.
• If workers are paid higher wages they would be better off and will have large families. Hence, the population would increase, which results in increased supply of labourer and so wages will come down.
• If wages are lower, there would be a reduction in population and thereby the supply of labour falls and wages increase to the subsistence level.
• This theory holds that the wages of workers would not be above or below the subsistence level of the labourer and his family.

Question 32.
State the Dynamic Theory of Profit?
Answer:
Dynamic Theory of Profit:

• J.B. Clark propounded this theory in 1900. To him, profit is the difference between price and cost of production of the commodity.
• Profit is the reward for dynamic changes in society. He points out that, profit cannot arise in a static society. In static society, everything remains stationary.
• The following changes take place in a dynamic society.
  1. The population is increasing.
  2. The volume of capital is increasing.
  3. Methods of production are improving.
  4. Forms of the industrial organization are changing.
  5. The wants of consumers are multiplying.

Question 33.
Describe briefly the Innovation Theory of Profit.
Answer:

• Innovation theory was propounded by Joseph. A. Schumpeter.
• Profit is the reward for “Innovation”. Innovation means invention put into commercial practice.
• An innovation may consist of:
  1. Introduction of a new product.
  2. Introduction of a new method of production.
  3. Opening up of a new market.
  4. Discovery of new raw materials.
  5. Reorganization of an industry/firm.
  6. Anyone of these innovations leads to a reduction in the cost of production and thereby brings profit to an entrepreneur.

Question 34.
Write a note on the Risk-bearing Theory of Profit?
Answer:

• Risk – the bearing theory was propounded by F.B.Hawley in 1907.
• Profit is the reward for “risk-taking” in business.
• Every business involves some risks. So risk-taking is an essential function of the entrepreneur and is the basis of profit.
• Higher the risks, the greater are the profit.
• Profit induces entrepreneurs to undertake risks.

PART – D

Answer the following questions on one page.

Question 35.
Explain the Marginal Productivity Theory of Distribution?
Answer:
Introduction:

1. This theory was developed by Clark, Wicksteed and Walras. The Marginal productivity theory of distribution explains how the prices of various factors of production are determined.
2. This theory explains how rent, wages, interest and profit are determined.
3. This theory is also known as the “General Theory of Distribution ” or “ National Dividend Theory of Distribution”.

Assumptions:

1. All the factors of production are homogenous.
2. Factors of production can be substituted for each other.
3. There is perfect competition both in the factor market and product market.
4. There is perfect mobility of factors of production.
5. There is full employment of factors.
6. This theory is applicable only in the long-run.
7. The entrepreneurs aim at profit maximization.
8. There is no government intervention in fixing the price of a factor.
9. There is no technological change.

Explanation of the Theory:
According to the Marginal Productivity Theory of Distribution, the.price or the reward for any factor of production is equal to the marginal productivity of that factor. Each factor is rewarded according to its marginal productivity.

Marginal Product:
The Marginal Product is also known as “ Marginal Physical Product “ [MPP]. The Marginal Product of a factor of production means the addition made to the total product by the employment of an additional unit of that factor. The Marginal Product may be expressed as MPP, VMP, and MRP.

1. Marginal Physical product [MPP]: The Marginal Physical Product of a factor is the increment in the total product obtained by the employment of an additional unit of that factor.

2. Value of a marginal product [VMP]: The Value of Marginal Product is obtained by multiplying the marginal physical product of the factor by the price of the product. Symbolically VMP = MPP × Price

3. Marginal Revenue product [MRP]: The Marginal Revenue Product of a factor is the increment in the total revenue which is obtained by the employment of an additional unit of that factor.
MRP = MPP × MR

The Marginal Productivity Theory of Distribution states that

1. The price of a factor of production depends upon its productivity.
2. The price of a factor is determined by and will be equal to the marginal revenue product of that factor.
3. Under certain conditions, the price of a factor will be equal to both the average and marginal products of that factor.

Question 36.
Illustrate the Ricardian Theory of Rent?
Answer:

1. The Classical Theory of Rent is called the “Ricardian Theory of Rent.”
2. “ Rent is that portion of the produce of the earth which is paid to the landlord for the use of the original and indestructible powers of the soil” – David Ricardo

Assumptions:
Ricardian theory of rent assumes the following:

1. Land differs in fertility.
2. The law of diminishing returns operates in agriculture.
3. Rent depends upon fertility and location of the land.
4. The theory assumes perfect competition.
5. It is based on the assumption of a long period.
6. There is the existence of marginal land or no-rent land.
7. The land has certain “Original and indestructible powers”.
8. The land is used for cultivation only.
9. Most fertile lands are cultivated first.

Statement of the Theory with Illustration:
There are three grades of land, namely A, B, and C on that island. ‘A’ being most fertile ‘B’ less fertile and ‘C’ the least fertile. They will first cultivate all the most fertile land. The yield per acre on ‘A’ grade land is 40 bags of paddy.

The same amount labour and capital employed in ‘A’ grade land. The yield per acre on ‘B’ grade land is 30 bags of paddy.
The Surplus of 10 bags [40-30] per acre appears on ‘A’ grade land. This is “ Economic Rent” land of ‘A’ grade land.

The yield per acre on ‘C’ grade land is 20 bags of paddy. This surplus of ‘A’ grade land is now raised to 20 bags [40-20] and it is the “ Economic Rent” of ‘A’ grade land.

The ‘C’ grade land, cost of production is just equal to the price of its products and therefore does not yield any rent [20-20], Hence, ‘C’ grade land is called ‘no-rent land or marginal land ’. The land which yields rent is called “intra-marginal land”.

Diagrammatic Explanation:

1. In the diagram, X-axis represents various grades of land, and Y-axis represents yield per acre [in bags],
2. OA, AB, and BC are the ‘A’ grade ‘B’ grade and ‘C’ grade lands respectively.
3. The ‘C’ grade land is the no rent land.”
4. ‘A’ land ‘B’ grade lands are “intra – marginal lands”.
5. The economic rent yielded by ‘A’ and ‘B’ grade lands is equal to the shaded area of their respective rectangles.

Question 37.
Elucidate the Loanable Funds Theory of Interest?
Answer:

1. The loanable fund’s theory, also known as the “Neoclassical theory”. This theory was developed by Swedish economists like Wicksell, Bertilohlin, Viner, Gunnar Myrdal, and others.
2. Interest is the price paid for the use of loanable funds.
3. The rate of interest is determined by the equilibrium between the demand for and supply of loanable funds in the credit market.

Demand for loanable funds :

1. Demand for Investment (I)
2. Demand for Consumption (C)
3. Demand for Hoarding (H)

Supply of loanable funds :
1. Savings (S) :
Savings may be of two types, namely.

1. Savings planned by individuals are “ex-ante savings”. (Eg.) LIC premium
2. Unplanned savings are called “ex-post savings”

2. Bank credit:
Commercial banks create credit and supply loanable funds to the investors.

3. Dishoarding (DH) :
Dishoarding means bringing out the hoarded money into use and thus it constitutes a source of supply of loanable funds.

4. Disinvestment (DI):
Disinvestment is the opposite of investment. It means not providing sufficient funds for the depreciation of equipment.

Explanation:
The X-axis represents the demand for and supply of loanable funds, Y-axis represents the rate of interest. The LS curve represents the total supply curve of loanable funds. The LD curve represents the total demand for loanable funds. The LD and LS curves, intersect each other at the point “E” the equilibrium point. At this point OR rate of interest and OM is the number of loanable funds.

Criticisms :

1. Many factors have been included in this theory’. Still, there are many more factors like
   • Asymmetric information
   • Moral Hazard.
2. It is very difficult to combine real factors with monetary factors.

Question 38.
Explain the Keynesian Theory of Interest?
Answer:
Keynes’ Liquidity Preference Theory of Interest or The monetary Theory of Interest

1. Keynes propounded the Liquidity Preference Theory of Interest in his famous book,
   “ The General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money “ in 1936.
2. According to Keynes, interest is purely a monetary phenomenon because the rate of interest is calculated in terms of money.
3. “Interest is the reward for parting with liquidity for a specified period of time”.

Meaning of Liquidity Preference:

1. Liquidity preference means the preference of the people to hold wealth in the form of liquid cash rather than in other non-liquid assets like bonds, securities, bills of exchange, land, building, gold etc.
2. “Liquidity Preference is the preference to have an amount of cash rather than of claims against others”. – Meyer.

Motives of Demand for Money:
According to Keynes, there are three motives for liquidity preferences. They are:

1. The Transaction Motive:
The transaction motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash for the current transactions [or-day-to-day expenses] M = f(y)

2. The Precautionary Motive:

• The precautionary motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash to meet unexpected or unforeseen expenditures such as sickness, accidents, fire, and theft.
• The amount saved for this motive also depends on the level of Income Mp = f(y).

3. The Speculative Motive:

• The speculative motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash in order to take advantage of market movements regarding the future changes in the price of bonds and securities in the capital market. M = f(i)
• There is an inverse relation between liquidity preference and rate of interest.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Distribution Analysis Additional Important Questions and Answers

Part – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The theory of factor prices is popularly known as the theory of _______
(a) Distribution
(b) Exchange
(c) Wages
(d) Profit
Answer:
(a) Distribution

Question 2.
Net profit is otherwise called ………………………
(a) Profit
(b) Risk profit
(c) Dynamic profit
(d) Pure profit
Answer:
(d) Pure profit

Question 3.
F.A. Walker wrote a book _______ in 1875.
(a) Political economy
(b) Social economy
(c) Principles of economics
(d) Wealth of nations
Answer:
(a) Political economy

Question 4.
Which is the gift of nature?
(a) Land
(b) Interest
(c) Profit
(d) Capital
Answer:
(a) Land

Question 5.
Keynes liquidity preference theory is also called as_______
(a) Classical theory of interest
(b) Psychological theory of interest
(c) The monetary theory of interest
(d) Abstinence theory of interest
Answer:
(c) The monetary theory of interest

Question 6.
Which one is considered a homogeneous factor?
(a) Labour
(b) Land
(c) Capital
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 7.
Risk bearing theory of profit was propounded by _______
(a) J.B. Clark
(b) J.M. Keynes
(c) F.B. Hawley
(d) H.Knight
Answer:
(c) F.B. Hawley

Question 8.
What is the payment for the service of labour?
(a) Wages
(b) Income
(c) Salary
(d) Profit
Answer:
(a) Wages

Question 9.
_______ is the produced means of production.
(a) Land
(b) Labour
(c) Capital
(d) Organisation
Answer:
(c) Capital

Question 10.
Organization is done by the ………………………
(a) Private sector
(b) Public sector
(c) Service sector
(d) Entrepreneur
Answer:
(d) Entrepreneur

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Define Marginal product?
Answer:

1. The marginal product of a factor of production means the addition made to the total product by the employment of an additional unit of that factor.
2. The Marginal Product may be expressed as MPP, VMP, and MRP.

Question 2.
What are the other names of the marginal productivity theory of distribution?
Answer:

1. The general theory of distribution
2. National dividend theory of distribution

Question 3.
What do you mean by the Marginal Productivity theory of distribution?
Answer:

1. Marginal Productivity Theory of Distribution was developed by Clark, Wicksteed, and Walras.
2. This theory explains how the prices of various factors of production are determined.
3. This theory explains how rent, wages, interest, and profit are determined.
4. This theory is also known as the “General Theory of Distribution” or “National Dividend Theory of Distribution”.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in a paragraph.

Question 1.
List out the Concepts of Profit?
Answer:
Concepts of Profit:

1. Gross Profit:
Gross Profit is the surplus that accrues to a firm when it subtracts its Total expenditure from its Total Revenue.
Gross Profit = Total Revenue – Total cost

2. Net profit or Pure Profit or Economic Profit or True Profit:
Net or pure or economic or true profit is the residual left with the entrepreneur after deducting from Gross profit The remuneration for the self-owned factors of production which are called implicit cost.
Net Profit = Gross Profit – implicit costs.

3. Normal Profit:
It refers to the minimum expected to return to stay in business

4. SuperNormal Profit:
Supernormal profits are over and above the normal profit.
SuperNormal Profit = Actual profit – Normal profit

Question 2.
Describe briefly the equilibrium between Demand and Supply of Money?
Answer:
1. The equilibrium between liquidity preference and demand for money determines the rate of interest.
2. In the short – run, the supply of money is assumed to be constant.

3. LP is the liquidity preference curve [demand curve.]

4. M₂M₂ shows the supply curve of money to satisfy speculative motives. Both curves intersect at point E, which is the equilibrium point. Hence, the rate of interest is 2.5. If liquidity preference increases from LP to L₁P₁ the supply of money remains constant, the rate of interest would increase from OI to OI_1.

5. Suppose LP remains constant. If the supply of money is OM₂, the interest is OI₂ and if the supply of money is reduced from OM₂ to OM₄, the interest would increase from OI₂ to OI₃. If the supply of money is increased from OM₂ to OM₄, the interest could decrease from OI₂ to OI₄.

Question 3.
Define the kinds of interest.
Answer:
Gross interest:
Gross interest is the total interest amount received by creditors from debtors.
Gross interest = Net interest + reward for inconvenience + insurance against the risk of non-repayment + payment for service of debt management.

Net interest:
Net interest is only a part of the gross interest. It is the payment for use of capital only. (Eg.) Interest payable for government securities.

PART – D

Answer the following questions on one page.

Question 1.
Explain the classical theory of Interest?
Answer:
The classical theory of Interest:

1. The equilibrium interest rate, according to classical theory, is determined by the intersection of demand and supply curves, Demand for money refers to investment.
2. The supply of money is referred to as savings. S = I.

Equilibrium:

1. The rate of interest is determined by the equilibrium between the total demand for and the total supply of loanable funds.
2. Supply of and Demand for Loanable funds:
3. Supply of loanable funds = Savings + Bank Credit + Dishoarding + Disinvestment = S + BC + DH + DI
4. Demand for loanable funds = Investment + consumption + Hoarding = I + C + H

• In Diagram X-axis represents the demand for and supply of loanable funds and the Y-axis represents the rate of interest.
• The LS curve represents the total supply curve of loanable funds.
• The summation of the Saving Curve [S], Bank credit curve [BC], Dishoarding curve [DH], and Disinvestment curve [DI],
• The LD curve represents the total demand for loanable funds.
• This is obtained by the summation of the demand for investment curve I, the demand curve for consumption demand or dissaving curve, and the curve for the demand for hoarding curve H.
• The LD and LS curves, intersect each other at the point “E” the equilibrium point.
• At this point, the OR rate of interest and OM is the number of loanable funds.

Question 2.
Illustrate the uncertainty Bearing Theory of profit?
Answer:
Uncertainty theory was propounded by the American economist Frank H.Knight. Profit is the reward for “ uncertainty bearing”. He distinguishes between “insurable” and “non-insurable” risks.

Insurable Risks:

1. Certain risks are measurable or calculable.
2. Some of the examples of these risks are the risk of fire, theft, and natural disasters.
3. Such risks are compensated by the Insurance companies.

Non-Insurable Risks:

1. There are some risks which are immeasurable or incalculable.
2. Examples of these risks are competition,, market condition, technology change, and public policy.
3. No Insurance Company can undertake these risks.
4. The term “risks” covers the first type of events (measurables-insurable)
5. The term “uncertainty” covers the second type of events (unforeseeable or incalculable or not measurable or non-insurable).
6. According to Knight, profit does not arise on account of risk-taking, because the entrepreneur can guard himself against risk by taking a suitable insurance policy.
7. Uncertain events cannot be guarded against in that way.
8. An entrepreneur takes himself the burden of facing an uncertain event, he secures remuneration.
9. That remuneration is “profit”.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 3 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 3

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions, [20 × 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
I pulled myself together and handed over the card nonchalantly.
(a) indifferently
(b) carefully
(c) cautiously
(d) sentimentally
Answer:
(a) indifferently

Question 2.
The incident is clearly etched in my memory.
(a) erased
(b) melted
(c) imprinted
(d) refrained
Answer:
(c) imprinted

Question 3.
The libraries are a repository of knowledge.
{a) refractory
(b) refrigerator
(c) storeroom
(d) management
Answer:
(c) storeroom

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
It is important that even the mediocre are given due recognition.
(a) middling
(b) ordinary
(c) exceptional
(d) middleman
Answer:
(c) exceptional

Question 5.
I managed to solve the complex problem.
(a) intricate
(b) compound
(c) simple
(d) complicated
Answer:
(c) simple

Question 6.
It is compulsory to donate one day salary for the flood victims.
(a) obligation
(b) optional
(c) obeisance
(d) obstruction
Answer:
(b) optional

Question 7.
Choose the blended form of “hazardous and material”.
(a) hazardmat
(b) hazat
(c) hazmat
(d) mathaz
Answer:
(c) hazmat

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “etymology”.
(a) A person perceived to be either uncivilized or primitive
(b) A study about the history and origin of a word
(c) The hutnanistic study of language and literature
(d) The belief that all events in life are predetermined and inevitable
Answer:
(b) A study about the history and origin of a word

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom ‘A penny for your thoughts’.
(a) Current issues spoken by many people
(b) To worsen an unfavourable situation
(c) Everything about the case
(d) Asking what someone is thinking
Answer:
(d) Asking what someone is thinking

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
Our daughter is going to turn 5 next year, so we’ve been trying to find a good kindergarten for her.
(a) preschool
(b) children’s garden
(c) school material
(d) play school
Answer:
(b) children’s garden

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “while”.
(a) mean
(b) teach
(c) scene
(d) weather
Answer:
(a) mean

Question 12.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “qualified”.
(a) sur
(b) dis
(c) in
(d) mis
Answer:
(b) dis

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “FTCL”.
(a) Fellow Tribal Colleges of Linguistics
(b) Federal Trinity College of Libya
(c) Fellowship Trinity College of London
(d) Feminine Travellers Chambers of Ladies
Answer:
(c) Fellowship Trinity College of London

Question 14.
Use for dramatic works involving the downfall or destruction of the protagonist due to character flaws, catastrophe, or reversal of fortune.
(a) Comedy
(b) Monologue
(c) Tragedy
(d) Historical Plays
Answer:
(c) Tragedy

Question 15.
A passion for writing is known as ………..
(a) Animator
(b) Graphomania
(c) Sonettomania
(d) Eulogomania
Answer:
(b) Graphomania

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
Latha laughed till the tears ran ……… her cheeks.
(a) down
(b) with
(c) on
(d) in
Answer:
(a) down

Question 17.
Choose the correct sentence pattern.
Reading made him a complete man.
(a) SVOA
(b) SVOC
(c) SVIODO
(d) SVCA
Answer:
(b) SVOC

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
Excuse me, driver. My mother needs use the toilet urgently.
(a) comfort stop
(b) nature calls
(c) rest room
(d) powder room
Answer:
(a) comfort stop

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
I don’t know where my book is. I have to look for it.
(a) retrieve
(b) look
(c) search
(d) find
Answer:
(c) search

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun
They finally found the murderer, ………. was hiding in a small town.
(a) where
(b) which
(c) who
(d) that
Answer:
(c) who

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“And I have learned too
To laugh with only my teeth
And shake hands without my heart”
(a) Explain ‘To laugh with only my teeth’.
(b) Why is he shaking hands without heart?
Answer:
(a) Laughing with only teeth means laughing without genuine emotions of love, warmth and friendliness. It is fake.
(b) The heart is a symbol of genuine emotions. The poet recalls the time when people used to smile and shake hands with their hearts. Now, things have become different.

Question 22.
“For he’s a fiend in feline shape, a monster of depravity
(a) Identify the poem and the poet.
(b) Explain the phrase ‘monster of depravity’.
Answer:
(a) The poem is ‘Macavity – The Mystery Cat’ written by T.S. Eliot.
(b) Satan is called the master of depravity. T.S. Eliot calls Macavity, the master of depravity. He means that the cat is an embodiment of evil. He is wicked and all the time involved in doing something evil.

Question 23.
“We deem it our duty and mission in life,
To bless and praise the deserving ones;
Never shall we fail in what we commit,
Shall nourish the ones that nourish the world.”
(a) What is the poet’s mission in life?
(b) Explain the last line.
Answer:
(a) The poet’s mission is to identify deserving people with natural talents and appreciate them.
(b) The poet claims that simple people like farmers, teachers and other noble professionals nourish those who nourish the world.

Question 24.
“As if this flesh which walls about our life
Were brass impregnable and, humour’d thus”
(а) What does the king realize?
(b) Explain the phrase ‘brass impregnable’.
Answer:
(a) The king realises that his mortal body also will come to an end like others.
(b) ‘Brass impregnable’ means someone that is unconquerable.

Question 25.
“I heard a thousand blended notes While in a grove I sate reclined,”
(a) What do you mean by‘blended notes’?
(b) What was the poet doing there?
Answer:
(a) The blended notes mean the combined music of birds which cohabit in the grove.
(b) The poet was relaxed and was listening to the music of the birds.

Question 26.
“My limp and bashful spirit feeds On other people’s heroic deeds”
(a) What does the poet say about his own temperament?
(b) How does the poet feed his love for games?
Answer:
(a) The poet agrees that he is weak, shy and reluctant.
(b) He derives vicarious pleasure watching others play heroically on the sports field.

(ii) Do as Directed: (Answer any three) [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Shilo : How are you Cathy? Please check mail regarding your travel arrangements to Muscat.
Cathy : Could you please send it again since I haven’t received any mail from you.
Answer:
Shilo asked Cathy how she was and to check mail regarding her travel arrangements to Muscat. Cathy requested Shilo to send it again as she hasn’t received any mail from him.

Question 28.
Change into active voice of the following sentence.
The work can be done by Shanthini.
Answer:
Shanthini can do the work.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
If we’d bought that property, we would have been rich by now.
Answer:
Had we bought that property, we would have been rich by now.

Question 30.
The firefighters made several attempts. They could not save the drowning cub. (Change into a simple sentence)
Answer:
In spite of making several attempts, the firefighters could not save the drowning cub.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
They do not ever in their dealings
Consider one another’s feelings…
Answer:
Reference: The poet Ogden Nash says these words in the poem “Confession of a Bom Spectator’.

Context: The poet says these words, while highlighting the callous indifference of players to the pain and injuries of fellow players.

Explanation: Every player considers the player in the opposite team as a deadly rival. He looks for an opportunity. We do find hockey players hitting good players on the ankle with the stick to prevent them from playing great shots. Bowlers try to hit the body of batsman with the ball. They don’t seem to notice cracking wrists and snapping knees as their focus is only on victory and glory. In short, the players do not have feelings for the fellow players.

Question 32.
The birds around me hopp’d and play ’d,
Their thoughts I cannot measure.
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Lines’Written in Early Spring” written by William Wordsworth.

Context: The poet was quite impressed with the beauty and peace that prevailed in the woodland. The birds were oblivious to the presence of the poet. They hopped and chirped around him in absolute bliss. The poet said these words while trying to fathom their thoughts.

Explanation: The poet was overwhelmed with delight in the company of birds, plant kingdom and the brook. He tried hard to understand the thoughts of the birds through the bird’s language. But he couldn’t succeed. He simply inferred that they were thrilled and enjoying the jocund company.

Question 33.
He’s the bafflement of Scotland Yard, the Flying Squad’s despair:
Answer:
Reference: These words are from the poem, “ Macavity – the mystery cat, written by T.S., Eliot.

Context: The poet says these words while describing the criminal activities and how he eludes the detection by Scotland Yard Police.

Explanation: Scotland Yard Police is known world over for quick disposal of criminal cases. But Macavity is such a criminal that the Scotland Yard policemen are unable to produce evidence to arrest him. So, they are baffled. The flying squad is unable to pursue him soon after the crime is committed. So, they are desperate to nab him.

(ii) Answer any two of the following briefly: {2 × 3 = 6]

Question 34.
What does the author mean when he says the letter in his pocket leads an unadventurous life?
Answer:
The poet forgets the letters kept in his pocket. Whenever the friend enquires about the unposted letters, it embarrasses him. then he is forced to produce the evidence of his guilt (i.e.,) the unposted letters. This awkward humiliation is said to be unadventurous.

Question 35.
What is a tight corner? What happens when one finds oneself in a tight corner?
Answer:
Tight comer is a difficult situation. When one finds oneself in a tight comer, one worries and thinks seriously about the ways of getting out of it.

Question 36.
Why did the author’s concern over tobacco shift to his finger?
Answer:
When the author saw the racing tobacco box disgorging its content, he worried about the need to buy expensive tobacco in England. But when he saw his own bleeding finger that he had gashed while forcefully opening the jammed zip, he shifted his cry to his finger.

(iii) Answer any three of the following: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie-chart and answer the questions that follow:
The factors which affect health are given percentage-wise in the pie-chart.

Questions

1. What percent of diseases are caused due to pollution?
2. Fifty one percent of illnesses are caused by what factors?
3. What is the least percent of health affected by?

Answer:

1. Nineteen percent of diseases are caused due to pollution.
2. Fifty one percent of the causes of illness is jointly shared by lifestyle, smoking, obesity, stress and diet.
3. Lack of medical facilities.

Question 38.
Build a dialogue of minimum three exchanges between bank manager and a student who wants to open a bank account.
Answer:
Vanin : Sir, I want to open a savings account.
Bank Manager : Have you brought your aadhar card and two copies of photograph?
Varun : Yes, sir.
Bank Manager : Fill in this application and the challan and pay the initial amount in the 3rd counter.
Varun : Sir, the pass book.
Bank Manager : You can collect it tomorrow evening.
Varun : Thank you sir.

Question 39.
Describe the process of pitching a tent.
Answer:
Select a location free of debris and an area that is as level as possible for your campsite.
Lay down your footprint or ground cloth.
Position the tent over the footprint with the doors facing away from the wind for the best ventilation.
Lay out the poles and assemble them.
Insert the tent poles and secure it to take up the tension in the poles.
Pull the tent upright.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs choosing the suitable words given in brackets.

1. Don’t blow your own ……….. (horn, trumpet, whistle)
2. Early ………. catches the worm, (man, hen, bird)
3. Empty bags cannot ………. upright, (stand, sit, lie)

Answer:

1. trumpet
2. bird
3. stand

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
Why was Mary Kom named the “Queen of Boxing”?
Answer:
After Mary Korn’s first silver medal in Pennsylvania in 2001, there was no looking back. Her medal haul continued even after her marriage putting an end to the speculation of family and friends that her marriage may slow down her career progression. She retained the world title in the third World Women’s Boxing Championship at Podolsk in Russia in 2005. She won her fourth gold also in 2006. She had won several golds for India from 2001 to 2004. She had won all the Senior Women’s Boxing Championships, Second Women’s Championship (2002), Second Asian Women’s Boxing Championship at Hisar (2003) and the Witch Cup Boxing Championship at Paes, Hungary.

There were a number of other International World Championships in Taiwan, Vietnam, Denmark and so on. But it was retaining her World title in 2006 by defeating Steluta Duta of Romania which was considered as Mary Korn’s greatest achievement in life. With this hat-trick of World Championship wins, the media has rightly christened her, “Queen of Boxing”.

[OR]

Bill Bryson “ached to be suave”. Was he, successful in his mission? If not what are the reasons.
Answer:
Bill Bryson expresses his genuine desire to be “suave”. He would love just once in his life time to rise from the dinner table as if he had not experienced an “extremely localized seismic event, get into a car without leaving 14 inch coat outride, wear light-coloured trousers without ever discovering at the end of the day that he had at various times and places sat on chewing gum, ice-cream cough syrup and motor oil. No, Bill Bryson was not successful in his mission.

Twice he spilled his drinks on a sweet nun who happened to sit next to him. He tried to show off his wisdom to another attractive lady. As usual, he was sucking his pep. His shirt, teeth and gum carried the unscrubbable navy blue stain for many days. He always did “liquid mischief’. His clumsy behaviour in the aeroplane made the saintly nun use abusive language. To avoid unsuave ways, he gave up air-travel with his family members. His wife and children supported him yet failed to refine his manners.

Question 42.
How is it true that Macavity is indeed a mystery cat?
Answer:
Macavity is an elusive master criminal who leaves no evidence after he commits a crime. He baffles Scotland Yard police and the flying squad as he disappears before their arrival to the scene of crime. He is called a “Hidden paw“ because even Scotland Yard is unable to arrest him after he commits any crime. He does not leave his foot prints in the spot of crime. He defies law of gravity and his powers of levitation make the fakir stare with wonder.

Other cats are lazy and just stay in the kitchen and take the food offered by their master. But Macavity is agile and defies law of the land and laws of gravity. Despite doing all wicked things, he pretends to be innocent. So, the poet claims one can never come across such a cat of “Deceitfulness and suavity”. When he appears to be half-asleep with his half-closed eyes, he would be wide-awake. He is an enigma to everyone. Macavity is indeed a mystery.

[OR]

Trace the confessions of a born Spectator as listed out by Ogden Nash.
Answer:
This poem is about a bom spectator who confesses about his views on Sports and sportsmen. He says that they injure each other as they prance and feel happy on others heroic deeds. His limp and bashful spirit feeds on the heroism of other players. He has seen zealous athletes playing so rough that they never consider the feelings of fellow players. He watches with a palpitating heart when ‘A’ runs ninety yards to bag a medal. He watches with obvious alarm when ‘B’ knocks another boxer down cracking his vertebrae and spines.

They.are insensitive to the cracking wrist and snapping knees of fellow players. When his ego and prudence clashed, ego told him to seek glory in sports, but his prudence always ignored it. Thus common sense prevailed, he remained a cheerful life-time fan of successful athletes. He was contented as a spectator of all kinds of games and sports and world famous athletes. The crazy desire for championship titles and the light of fame on them leads them to ignore swollen eyes, snapping of knee joints or cracking of wrists.

Question 43.
Write a paragraph (150 words) by developing the following hints
“After Twenty Years,” – time -10 o’clock at night – depeopled the streets – only two men – on street – that night – policeman approaches – lurking man – light from his match – shows a pale face – keen eyes, a scar in eyebrow – a scarf pin – diamond – expensive watch – all hints as to the man’s past.
Answer:
The short story “After Twenty Years” takes place around 10 p.m. along a dark, windy New York City business avenue, mostly within the darkened doorway of a closed hardware store. This particular location had been a restaurant until five years ago. The plot begins with a policeman “on the beat” who discovers a man standing in the dark doorway. The man then proceeds to explain why he is there. He and his best friend, Jimmy Wells had parted exactly twenty years ago to make their fortunes and had promised to meet at that spot “After Twenty Years”. He had gone west and gotten rich and was sure his friend, Jimmy would meet him if he were alive. They talked a while and the policeman carried on. The man from the west wonders if his friend will come.

The drama increases in anticipation of the rendezvous. Twenty minutes later, another man, whom we assume is his long lost friend, greets him warmly and they walk arm in arm discussing careers until they come to a well-lit comer near a drug store. The man from the west gets a good look at his companion and discovers that he is not his friend, Jimmy. We are treated to several surprises for the man from the west is under arrest and secondly he is actually ‘Silky Bob’, a gangster from Chicago and finally the stranger is a plainclothes policeman. However, it seems that these three surprises are not enough. We get the “real” surprise when Jimmy Wells, the original policeman didn’t have the heart to arrest Bob, because he was his friend.

[OR]

Philip – travels – train – Brill Manor – meets Bertie – second son – left purse – four quids – needs money – requests Philip to lend him – two pounds -did not help – true . son – mistaken for a fraud.
Answer:
The young man who entered the coach gave out a smothered curse, he was engaged in searching something elusive angrily and uselessly. From time to time, he dug a six penny bit out of a waist coat pocket and stared at it sadly, then resumed his search. He voluntarily broke the silence. He exclaimed that Mr. Sletherby was going to Bill Manor. He introduced himself as Bertie, the younger son of Mrs. Saltpen-Jago. He admitted that he was away for about six months and had not seen his own mother.

Making use of the lucky coincidence that he was going to Brill Manor, he asked for a loan of three pounds as he had lost his sovereign purse and was desperately in need of help. He promised to meet him on the subsequent Monday. There is a dramatic irony when the son himself gives a different version of his mom’s appearance. This influences the decision of Mr. Sletherby in refusing to lend Bertie a loan of three pounds and mistaking the true son Bertie to be a fraud.

Question 44.
Write a summary or make notes of the following passage.
The word procrastination comes from two Latin terms meaning to ‘put forward until tomorrow’. Standard dictionary definitions include the idea of postponement or delay. Steel, a psychologist who has reviewed hundreds of studies on the subject, states that to procrastinate is “to voluntarily delay an intended course of action despite expecting to be worse-off for the delay”.

Another expert, Dr. Joseph R. Ferrari, distinguishes between people who tend to put things off and “chronic” or “real” procrastinators for whom this is their life and who might even need therapy. Ferrari categorizes procrastinators into three types: (a) stimulation types that get a thrill from beating a deadline, (b) avoiders put off doing things that might make others think badly of them, and (c) decisional procrastinators who postpone making a decision until they have enough information to avoid making a wrong choice.

Chronic procrastinators tend to have low self-esteem and focus on the past more than the future. The Discounted Expectancy Theory illustrates with a student like Sam who puts off writing a paper. When the deadline is far off, the rewards for socializing now are greater than those for finishing a task not due until later. As the deadline looms, the rewards or consequences for finishing the paper becomes more important.

Tice and Baumeister found that procrastinators on the average got lower grades and had higher levels of stress and illness. Chu and Choi however, say that not all procrastinators are lazy and undisciplined. “Passive procrastinators” are more stressed and so less efficient. “Active procrastinators prefer to work under pressure” and “if something unexpectedly comes up, they will knowingly switch gears and engage in new tasks they perceive as more urgent.”
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 280
No. of words to be written in the summary: 280/3 = 93 ± 5

Rough Draft
procrastination is a Latin word. Hundreds of studies reviewed by Steel, a psychologist states that to procrasinate is “to voluntarily delay an intended course of action despite expecting to be worse-off for the delay”. Another expert Dr. Joseph R. Ferrari, distinguishes between “chronic” or “real” procrastinators into three types: stimulation types avoiders and decisional procrastinators. Chronic procrastinators self-esteem.

Tice and Baumeister found that procrastinators get lower grades and have higher levels of stress. Chu and Choi, say that “Passive procrastinators” are more stressed and so less efficient. “Active procrastinators prefer to work under pressure” and “if something unexpectedly comes up, they will knowingly switch gears and engage in new tasks they perceive as more urgent.

Fair Draft
Procrastination
Procrastination is a Latin word. Hundreds of studies reviewed by Steel, a psychologist states that to procrastinate is “to voluntarily delay an intended course of action despite expecting to be worse-off for the delay”. Another expert, Dr. Joseph R. Ferrari, distinguishes between “chronic” or “real” procrastinators. Ferrari categorizes procrastinators into three types: stimulation types avoiders and decisional procrastinators. Chronic procrastinators have low self-esteem.

Tice and Baumeister found that procrastinators get lower grades and are stressed. Chu and Choi, say that “Passive procrastinators” are more stressed and less efficient. “Active procrastinators” work under pressure and if something more urgent comes up they change their focus.

No. of words in the summary: 104

[OR]

Note-making
Title: Procrastination
Answer:
1. Intro A proctn
Origin – Latin
Meaning – Put fwd till tomorrow – Idea A postponement or delay Steel (psychologist) – voluntary delay – despite expecting to be worse-off

2. Categorⁿ
a. Dr. Joseph R. Ferrari
Stimln types – thrill 4m beating a deadline
Avoiders – avoid things // make others think badly A them
Decisional – postpone making a decsn (until enough information)
Real procs – way A life (might need therapy)
Chronic procs:
Low self esteem
Focus on past

b. Tice and Baumeister
Procs got lower grades
Higher levels A stress and illness

c. Chu and Choi
Passive procs – stressed, less efficient
Active procs – prefer to work under pressure, knowingly engage in new tasks

Conclusion: The word procrastination comes from two Latin terms meaning to ‘put forward until tomorrow’.
Abbreviations: Intro – Introduction; A – of; Proctn – procrastination; Fwd – forward; Stimln – stimulation; Categorⁿ – categorization; 4m – from; // – that; decsn – decision; procs – procrastinators

Question 45.
Write a letter to the Editor of a famous daily, Dindigul about the incidents of violence taking place with the aged living alone at home, drawing the attention of authorities towards the problem.
Answer:

22nd July 2020

From
Vinitha
Railway Colony
Dindigul

To
The Editor
Daily Thanthi
Dindigul
Respected Sir,
Sub: Violence against the aged living alone at home.
I wish to draw your attention towards the security of the aged people living alone at home in Dindigul. Almost every day we find the newspapers full of such incidents. The miscreants rob the people and then murder them. Many times the servants of the house are found involved in these incidents. The aged are the gullible people and are easily made target.

I hope after publishing this letter in your esteemed newspaper, the police will take some necessaiy actions for their safety.
Thanking you

Yours faithfully,
Vinitha
Address on the Envelope
To
The Editor
Indian Express
Chennai

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘Where there is a will, there is a way.’
Answer:
Where there is a will, there is a way
Where there is a will, there is a way is an old saying in English which teaches us about the most significant subject of getting success in life. Reaching a nice target becomes our maxim. However achieving a target needs strong determination and commitment. People without having will power never achieve the victory and they curse their destiny. This common saying simply means that if the person is strong-minded enough to get something done, he/ she always will find a way to do that. Fortitude is necessary to get completion in the task as it helps a person to fight with all difficulties and get success.

Without grit and will power, we generally tend to give up very easily in the initial stages as we become desperate facing small teething issues. To learn or achieve something in life, will power acts as a channel and enhances the speed of action. It needs a firm and incessant exercise to deeply learn things. We can pass the exam by reading the lessons just a night before the exam. However, we cannot be ranked first in the class, district or state without hard work for the entire year. One needs to be systematic, meticulous and focused to with a strong will power to pave way for success. So, it is good to have determination even to the smallest tasks in life and never yield to petty things easily.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) He was tall and thin and has giant features.
(b) The stories he read are all about adventure.
(c) In general mass media means various ways communication.
(d) This is due the various advancements and achievements in the field of communication.
(e) Mohan Das Karamchand Gandhi go to England for higher studies at the age of 19.
Answer:
(a) He was tall and thin and had giant features.
(b) The stories he read were all about adventure.
(c) In general mass media means various ways of communication.
(d) This is due to the various advancements and achievements in the field of communication.
(e) Mohan Das Karamchand Gandhi went to England for higher studies at the age of 19.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(a) I can ………. the bell from ……… (hear/here)
(b) I ………. swim quite well when I was younger. (Fill in with a modal verb)
(c) She ……….. spend more time for practice, (use semi-modal)
(d) England lost their test match against India ………… over confidence and less preparation. (Use a suitable link word)
Answer:
(a) hear, here
(b) could
(c) ought to
(d) due to

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below.
(a) As in January 2005, the rate of inflation came down to 3%.
(b) At the international level, global warming Has increased the anxiety of many nations.
(c) A new rocket launching station is commissioned in Andhra Pradesh.
(d) Your monitor is not working. Get it repaired.
(e) Mr. Venkatraghavan is one of the best umpires in the world.
(Science, Computer, Sports, Commerce, Environment)
Answer:
(a) Commerce
(b) Environriient
(c) Science
(d) Computer
(e) Sports

[OR]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Today we don’t think of a cartoon as being associated with great art, but at one time it was. During the period of Italian Renaissance, the term ‘cartoon’ meant the first sketch in actual size of a large work of art, such as a mural (wall painting). When newspapers and magazines began to use drawings to illustrate news and editorial opinion and to provide amusement, these drawings came to be known as cartoons. In the days before the newspaper, artists like Hogarth, Daumier and Rawlandson made a series of drawings on a single theme. Sometimes such a series of drawings pictured and adventures of a single character. They were the ancestors of present-day cartoons and comic strips.

In the nineteen and early twentieth centuries, there were a number of magazines which specialised in cartoons. In Paris there was one called ‘Charivari’ and in London there was the famous ‘Punch’. Nowadays movies based on cartoons characters are also made. Movies featuring Tom and Jerry, Dennis the Menace, Tarzen, Mickey Mouse and Donald Duck are very popular with children.
Questions.

1. Identify the purposes for which cartoons were used in newspapers.
2. In what sense did the Italians use the term ‘cartoon’ during the Renaissance period?
3. Who were the ancestors of present-day cartoons and comic strips?
4. Name the two magazines mentioned in the passage which specialised in cartoons.
5. Name the famous cartoon character you are familiar with.

Answer:

1. Cartoons were associated with great art. It is a large work of art.
2. During the Renaissance period the term ‘cartoon’ was used to mean first sketch of a large work of art.
3. Artists like Hogarth, Daumier and Rawlandson were the ancestors of the present-day cartoon and comic strips.
4. Charivari and punch were the two magazines which specialised in cartoons.
5. Mickey mouse and Donald Duck are the famous cartoon characters I am familiar with.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 5 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 5

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
The place was a bedlam for birds.
(a) pandemonium
(b) peace
(c) serenity
(d) transition
Answer:
(a) pandemonium

Question 2.
He enlightened them with bon-mots.
(a) repartee
(b) wit
(c) challenges
(d) goodies
Answer:
(b) wit

Question 3.
Words of praise and adulation were showered on the debut artist.
(a) blasphemy
(b) condemnation
(c) aversion
(d) exaltation
Answer:
(d) exaltation

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
The princely sum was a stumbling block for her career.
(a) generous
(b) substantial
(c) prime
(d) meagre
Answer:
(d) meagre

Question 5.
Retaining my world cup was one of my greatest achievements.
(a) holding
(b) rescuing
(c) losing
(d) reviving
Answer:
(c) losing

Question 6.
I was so relieved to get my transfer order.
(a) delighted
(b) worried
(c) pleased
(d) comforted
Answer:
(b) worried

Question 7.
Choose the blended form of, “telecast”.
(a) television + broad cast
(b) television + cast
(c) tele + broad cast
(d) tele + cast
Answer:
(a) television + broad cast

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “choreography”.
(a) The art of designing steps in ballet or another staged dance, or the written steps for such movements
(b) The process of giving some of your work, duties, or responsibilities to a less senior person or a less powerful person
(c) A student of bees
(d) One who accumulates; one who collects
Answer:
(a) The art of designing steps in ballet or another staged dance, or the written steps for such movements

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom ‘At the drop of a hat’.
(a) To hear rumours about someone
(b) Do or say something exactly right
(c) To go to bed
(d) Without any hesitation; instantly
Answer:
(d) Without any hesitation; instantly

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
Leo was disappointed, but his losing the election for class president was a fait accompli.
(a) faithful friend
(b) established fact
(c) accomplished scholar
(d) standard issue
Answer:
(b) established fact

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “child”.
(a) person
(b) hood
(c) bed
(d) call
Answer:
(b) hood

Question 12.
Form a new word by adding a suitable prefix to the root word “taken”.
(a) un
(b) mis
(c) dis
(d) en
Answer:
(b) mis

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “IIM”.
(a) Indian Institute of Minorities
(b) Indian Institute of Managers
(c) Indian Institute of Marine
(d) Indian Institute of Management
Answer:
(d) Indian Institute of Management

Question 14.
Choose the correct sentence pattern.
He loves his profession.
(a) SVO
(b) SVOC
(c) SVOA
(d) SVC
Answer:
(a) SVO

Question 15.
A collection of selected literary passages is known as ………….
(a) Phenomenology
(b) Anthology
(c) Phrenology
(d) Homology
Answer:
(b) Anthology

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
Many people travel to Kerala to work ………… small companies.
(a) in
(b) under
(c) on
(d) with
Answer:
(a) in

Question 17.
Add a suitable question tag to the following statement.
Priyanka dances well,………?
(a) isn’t she
(b) doesn’t she
(c) won’t she
(d) will she
Answer:
(b) doesn’t she

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
The shoes looked like they had been stolen.
(a) theft
(b) lost
(c) damaged
(d) had fallen off the back of a truck
Answer:
(d) had fallen off the back of a truck

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
Your statement will not stand up as proof in the court of law.
(a) oppose
(b) accept
(c) deny
(d) support
Answer:
(d) support

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun
Tell me the name of the student ………….. you want to meet.
(a) whom
(b) which
(c) that
(d) whose
Answer:
(a) whom

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“I have learned to wear many faces Like dresses – home face”
(а) What has the poet learned?
(b) Mention the figure of speech employed in this line.
Answer:
(a) The poet has learned to put on appearances to conform to the changed attitude of people in modem times.
(b) Simile

Question 22.
“For he’s a fiend in feline shape, a monster of depravity.”
(a) Identify the poem and the poet.
(b) Explain the phrase ‘monster of depravity’.
Answer:
(a) The poem is ‘Macavity – The Mystery Cat’ written by T.S. Eliot.
(b) Satan is called the master of depravity. T.S. Eliot calls Macavity, the master of depravity. He means that the cat is an embodiment of evil. He is wicked and all the time involved in doing something evil.

Question 23.
“A life that knows no kneeling and bending.
We are proud and feel so tall”
(a) Who does we refer to?’
(b) What has life never experienced?
Answer:
(a) ‘We’ refers to ordinary people who live noble lives.
(b) The life of ordinary people who have not experienced kneeling or bending before the mighty. They are able to stand firm on defending the truth.

Question 24.
“Infusing him with self and vain conceit,
As if this flesh which walls about our life”
(a) Who has vain conceit?
(b) Explain the above lines.
Answer:
(a) The king has vain conceit.
(b) Death knows that all great kings must come to him. For a brief time death is generous and allows kings to rule and to be feared by their subjects. Death allows them to feel conceited and proud with an inflated image of ‘self’.

Question 25.
“And I must think, do all I can,
That there was pleasure there…”
(a) What did the poet notice about the twigs?
(b) What was the poet’s thought about then?
Answer:
(a) The budding twigs spread out their fan to catch the breezy air.
(b) The poet thought the twigs were experiencing the joy of their contact with the breezy air.

Question 26.
“This one the prize ring hates to enter
That one becomes a tackle or center,”’
(a) What game/sports is associated with “prize ring”?
(b) Which game is discussed in the second line?
Answer:
(a) Prize ring is associated with boxing.
(b) Football is discussed in the second line.

(ii) Do as Directed: (Answer any three) [3 × 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Tara: I went to Hyderabad to attend a seminar on environmental pollution.
Harsha: I am going to the library. Are you coming with me?
Answer:
Tara asked Harsha where he was going then. Harsha replied that he was going to the library and asked if I were coming with him.

Question 28.
Change into active voice of the following sentence.
Answer:
Alas! Her voice shall not be heard by his friends anymore.
Alas! His friends will not hear her voice anymore.

Question 29.
I did not know that you are going to visit us. I would have come to the airport. (Combine using ‘if’)
Answer:
If I had known that you were going to visit us, I would have come to the airport.

Question 30.
He was ill, but he came for practice. (Change into a compound sentence)
Besides being a good writer he is an outstanding lecturer.
Answer:
He is not only a good writer but also an outstanding lecturer.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
Once upon a time, son
They used to laugh with their eyes:
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem, “Once upon a time” written by Gabriel Okara.

Context: The poet says these words to his son while discussing his own happy childhood days.

Explanation: The poet compares the behaviour of people in the past and those in modern . times. He tells his son that people in the past used to laugh with their eyes. There was an expression of genuine warmth among people when they laughed.

Question 32.
We deem it our duty and mission in life,
To bless and praise the deserving ones;
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Everest is not the Only Peak” written by Kulothungan.

Context: The poet says these words highlighting the virtues of unsung heroes, who adhere to their ethical principles in life.

Explanation: They consider it their duty and mission to identify deserving people with natural talents and bless and appreciate them.

Question 33.
Let’s talk of graves, of worms, and epitaphs.
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “The Hollow Crown” by William Shakespeare. The poem is an excerpt from the play “Richard II”.

Context: King Richard II says these words while waiting for death. He is totally dejected.

Explanation: King Richard II thinks of words which could figure in the epitaph (i.e.) on his tomb stone. Being sure of death in the hands of Bolingbroke he requests his loyal courtiers to talk about death and about burial.

(ii) Answer any two of the following briefly: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 34.
Why did Mary Kom think that she should not return empty-handed?
Answer:
Mary Korn’s dad had given all he had for her trip to USA. Besides, her friends had raised funds through MPs. They had pinned their hopes on her. So, she thought she should not return empty handed.

Question 35.
What made people wonder about the absentmindedness of their fellow-beings?
Answer:
The publication of articles lost by train travellers astonished many readers. Old people did not forget much. In fact, young men have forgotten bats and balls on their return from matches.

Question 36.
Enumerate the values instilled in the students by the Universities.
Answer:
Universities instill the values of robust optimism, respect for democracy and appreciation of others’ point of view. It also develops adjustment of differences through discussion; develop patience, perseverance, confidence, faith in themselves and others. They also instill confidence in their ability to shoulder responsibilities.

(iii) Answer any three of the following briefly: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Re-arrange the shuffled words and frame into meaningful sentences, (change to pie chart/graph or table)

1. you/where/have/this/all/while/been?
2. this/we/visiting/Shimla/are/summer.
3. the/all/of/art/the/of/science/questions/is/and/knowledge/asking/source/

Answer:

1. Where have you been all this while?
2. We are visiting Shimla this summer.
3. The art and science of asking questions is the source of all knowledge!

Question 38.
Describe the process of Book-binding.
Answer:

1. Firstly, the pages are carefully arranged page wise. Any folding found is removed.
2. They are then arranged into sections and stitched.
3. The sides of the book are cut neatly and covered with a suitable brown paper.
4. Two card board sheets slightly bigger than the book must be pasted on both sides.
5. A calico cloth should be pasted on the closed side of the book to hold the cardboards and be allowed to dry.

Question 39.
Expand the news headlines in a sentence each.
(a) Suman Rao selected the new Miss India.
(b) 12 Injured as Buses Collide.
(c) Indian Team on the high in T20s in England.
Answer:
(a) 20-year old Miss Rajasthan 2019, Suman Rao, was awarded the most covetous crown Miss India at the finals held at Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Indoor Stadium, Mumbai.

(b) Due to poor visibility of street lights and negligence of the State Transport Drivers two buses collided on the narrow stretch of Nammakal district near Ambedkar statue. 12 passengers including a six month old baby boy were rushed to the nearby Government hospital for treatment.

(c) Indian Team bagged the winner’s trophy and is expected to return next Monday at the Mumbai airport.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the words given below.
(а) The harder you ………… the luckier you get. (throw, work, try)
(b) There is no time like the ……….. (present, future, past)
(c) ……….. and tide wait for no man. (Wind, Sea, Time)
Answer:
(a) work
(b) present
(c) Time

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
How does the speaker highlight the importance of giving back to the society?
Answer:
The graduates have drawn largely from the social chest. The largest taken from the society needs to be replenished. If graduates fail to pay back, ordinary people’s coffer will be empty. The supervisor’s education enjoins greater responsibility to society. Apart from their own individual advancement, society has got a right to expect an adequate return from the graduates.

The society does not expect them to payback in cash. But they must pay back in terms of service. They should tone up the society by bringing a light into the dark alleys. They should herald sunshine into dingy places. They must give solace to the affiliated people. They should also give hope unto the despondent and thus ensure a new life unto every one.

[OR]

As a narrator, make a diary entry about the tight corner you faced at Christie’s and how you were saved from the dire situation.
Answer:
Thursday, 17th Nov. 20xx
I was lunching at a club in King James’s street. While passing along Kingstreet later, my friend suggested that we peeped in at Christie’s where an auction of Barbizon pictures was going on. The pieces of the paintings were pertaining to forest scenes, pools at evening, shepherdesses, and the regular subjects were tremendous for each ranging from two to three thousand guineas each. The remarkable thing was that nothing was sold at three figures.

After watching the auction for fun for a while I found myself bidding. I had exactly sixty three pounds in my account in the bank. I knew that any bidder must have a minimum of five hundred pounds in the bank to stand as security to bid for the artistic works. I enthusiastically participated in many bids as the starting price for each painting was a modest fifty to hundred guineas. Things went on well for me for quite sometime. But a cruel fate awaited me. A short red-faced man electrified the room by fixing the starting price at 4000 guineas. There was a rustle of excitement followed by terrible silence. But I found myself saying “and fifty”.

The dealer looked at the opener and at the company. To my surprise and horror, the dealer shot his bolt. My heart stopped and my blood congealed. I was in possession of the picture I did not want to buy. I was the top purchaser in the auction with just 63 pounds in the bank account. I turned to my friend for some moral support but he had deserted me to have a hearty laugh at a distance. With great alarm, I saw many other Barbizon pictures being put up and sold.

The auction came to an end. The bidders stood in a queue to pay the price and collect the pictures. I stayed behind at the end of the queue as I could not recall the name of any uncle, aunt or even a relative who could offer me 4050 guineas to buy the painting. I wished that a firing squad could give me a welcome relief by shooting me down. I preferred death to public disgrace.

But something divine turned my tragedy into a comedy. Just then one gentleman enquired if I was the gentlemen who bought “big Daubigny”. I admitted. The mediator asked if I could take 50 guineas for my interest and give up my claim. I would have hugged him and wept for joy of relief from the tight comer. But I had the guile/presence of mind to ask, “Is that the most he would offer?”

The mediator said that there was no harm in trying for a bit more. I said, “Tell him I will take hundred” myself and my friend started laughing. But when I saw the cheque for hundred guineas, I became grave. My friend said to me that it was he who brought me to Christie. I admitted, “I shall never forget it. It is indelibly branded in letters of fire on my heart”.

Question 42.
Describe the various reasons for King Richard’s grief and distress.
Answer:
King Richard II is a popular king. He has many nobles at the service. His rebellious cousin Bolingbroke attacks him with 10,000 men on his side. He sends message to the Welsh King for sending his army to defeat Bolingbroke. But to his shock, Welsh army is not sent. He realizes with alarm the terrible fate he would suffer in the hands of his foe and his most impending death in captivity. King Richard is reminded of the power of death that overshadows everything else. Death scoffs at the power of rulers.

Losing the battle, non¬receipt of Welsh army and the prospect of being jailed and killed worries Richard II. He realizes that in the hollow crown death had reigned him. In fact, death, a jester had misled him to believe that he was monarchising England. He can now only own a small patch of barren land. He is not an impregnable castle of brass anymore. He is an ordinary mortal. He too needs friends and needs to taste grief and face death.

[OR]

The poem ’Everest is not the only peak’ does not focus on the destination but the journey towards it. Discuss.
Answer:
The poet discusses the merits of efforts, duty and devotion and values of honesty, uprightness and service-mindedness. He does not have any special appreciation to those who reach great peaks like Himalayas. He appreciates the process, the journey and not the destination. When the whole world has a perspective of seeking glory using any foul method or underhand dealing, the poet differs from it.

For him the means is more important than the end. However modest may be one’s position is, it is adorable if attained by competence and merit. Pride is not in heights one reaches but in a life that knows no bending or kneeling. The poet respects one who does not stoop as a king. Thus the poet pays importance to the journey of life not the destination.

Question 43.
Write an essay of about 150 words by developing the following hints.
“After Twenty Years,” – time – 10 o’clock at night, – depeopled the streets – Only two men – on street – that night – policeman approaches – lurking man – light from his match – shows a pale face – keen eyes, a scar in eyebrow – a scarf pin – diamond – expensive watch – all hints as to the man’s past.
Answer:
The short story “After Twenty Years” Jakes place around 10 p.m. along a dark, windy New York City business avenue, mostly within the darkened doorway of a closed hardware-store.- This particular location had been a restaurant until five years ago. The plot begins with a policeman “on the beat” who discovers a.man standing in the dark doorway. The man then proceeds to explain why he is there. He and his best friend, Jimmy Wells had parted exactly twenty years ago to make their fortunes and had promised to meet at that spot “After Twenty Years”. He had gone west and gotten rich and was sure his friend, Jimmy would meet him if he were alive.

They talked a while and the policeman carried on. The man from the west wonders if his friend will come. The drama increases in anticipation of the rendezvous. Twenty minutes later, another man, whom we assume is his long lost friend, greets him warmly and they walk arm in arm discussing careers until they come to a well-lit comer near a drug store.

The man from the west gets a good look at his companion and discovers that he is not his friend, Jimmy. We are treated to several surprises for the man from the west is under arrest and secondly he is actually ‘Silky Bob’, a gangster from Chicago and finally the stranger is a plainclothes policeman. However, it seems that these three surprises are not enough. We get the “real” surprise when Jimmy Wells, the original policeman didn’t have the heart to arrest Bob, because he was his friend.

[OR]

Narrator – wants – photograph – photographer wait for an hour – comments – angry – called on Saturday – proof – Narrator shocked – photograph – not like him – worthless bauble.
Answer:
‘With the Photographer’ by Stephen Leacock is narrated in the first person. The narrator while sitting in the photographer’s studio begins to read some magazines and sees how other people look and the narrator begins to feel insecure about his appearance. It is also noticeable that the photographer takes a dislike to his face judging it to be wrong. What should have been a simple process of taking a photograph becomes something of a nightmare for the narrator. How confident the narrator becomes is noticeable when he returns to the photographer’s studio the following Saturday.

He realises that the photograph that has been taken of him looks nothing like him. This angers the narrator as he was simply looking for a photograph that would show his likeness. He accepts that he may not be to everybody’s liking when it comes to his physical appearance but is angered by the changes made. The photographer has retouched the photograph so much that the narrator does not recognise himself. The end of the story is also interesting as the reader realises that it is just a worthless bauble when he begins to cry. He has been judged solely by his appearance by the photographer whose job was to simply take a life like photograph.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Answer:
The greatness of a country depends upon its people. India is fortunate to have vast human resources. Our countrymen are second to none in intelligence and in doing hard work. From the ancient period Indians excelled in art, architecture, knowledge of metals, medicines, literature etc., After our independence in 1947, the Government took steps to improve our country in all sphere. By the first Five-Year Plan was specially designed to improve our irrigational methods.

By the five year plans, provisions are made for the development of the country. The first Five-Year Plan was specially designed to improve our irrigational methods. By the green revolution we attained self sufficiency in the field of agricultural production. The present age is the atomic age. India too established an Atomic Energy Commission under the guidance of Dr. BhabhaI India made the first successful nuclear explosion on 18th Mary, 1974 which made India the sixth member of the world nuclear club. No other country’s scientists helped; it was purely Indian efforts. We have sent our Indian cosmonaut to space also. On April 3, 1984 Shri Rakesh Sharma, the best pilot of Indian Air Forse, travelled into space with two Soviet spacemen in Spyuz II spaceship.
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 199
No. of words to be written in the summary: 199/3 = 66 ± 5

Rough Draft
India is fortunate to have vast human resources. Our countrymen are second to none in inteIligence and in doing hard work. Ancient Indians excelled in art, architecture, metallurgy, medicine, literature etc., After Independence, by the five year plans, provisions are made for the development of the country. By the green revolution self sufficiency in agricultural production was attained. Present age is the atomic age. An Atomic Energy Commission under the guidance of Dr. Babha. Due to the successful nuclear explosion in 1974, India the sixth member of the world nuclear club. It was purely Indian efforts. We have to sent Rakesh Sharma to space in Soyuz II.

Fair Draft
Greatness of India
India is fortunate to have vast human resources. Ancient Indians excelled in art, architecture, metallurgy, medicine, literature etc. After Independence by the green revolution self sufficiency in agricultural production was attained. Present age is the atomic age. Atomic Energy Commission was established under the guidance of Dr. Bhabha. Due to the successful nuclear explosion in 1974, India is the sixth member of the world nuclear club.

No. of words in the summary: 64

[OR]

Note-making
Title: Greatness of India
Answer:
1. Greatness of the country
people
our country men are second to none
from the ancient times Indians excelled in arts, architecture, metallurgy, medicine, literature etc.

2. Post Independence
government took steps to improve in all spheres
the first five-year plan was designed
Green Revolution attained self sufficiency

3. Present age
atomic age
India made the first nuclear explosion in 1974
sixth member of the world nuclear club
India sent cosmonaut, Shri Rakesh Sharma to space with two Soviet spacemen in Soyuz II spaceship.

Question 45.
You are Anita. You recently visited a hill station along with your parents. It was an exhilarating, adventurous and joyful experience. Write a letter to your friend sharing your experience in 150-200 words.
Answer:

25th June, 2020

From
Anitha
6, West street,
Chennai
To
Mercy
6, Abraham Street
PeriyarNagar
Chennai – 600 014

Dear Mercy,
Hope my letter finds you in the best of your health. Have you been to your grandparents house for vacation? I had recently gone to Matheran with my parents and really missed you. Matheran is the smallest hill station in the Indian state of Maharashtra and is located on the Western Ghats range at an elevation of around 800 m above sea level. It is about 90 km from Mumbai. Matheran’s proximity to many metropolitan cities makes it a popular weekend getaway for urban residents. Matheran, which means “forest on the forehead” is an eco-sensitive region declared by the Government of India.

It is Asia’s only automobile-free hill station. Doesn’t that spark an exhilarating, adventurous and joyful experience? Yes, from the foothills of the mountain, you either need to walk up the mountain to lodges and cottages there for your accommodation or need to hire Cycle rickshaws or ponies to travel. We all took a horse each and my little brother got on to a pony. Our baggage was loaded on to a wheel barrow to be brought up to our destination.

There are around 38 designated viewpoints in Matheran, including the Panorama Point that provides a 360-degree view of the surrounding area and also the Neral town. From this point, the view of sunset and sunrise is dramatic. The Louisa Point offers crystal clear view of the Prabal Fort. The other points are the One Tree Hill Point, Heart Point, Monkey Point, Porcupine Point, Rambagh Point, and more. We stayed in a Parsi bungalow. Beautiful old British-style architecture is preserved in Matheran. The roads are not metalled and are made of red laterite earth. As anticipated, there are many monkeys around and even the summer season was very pleasant.

I hope to visit the place again and I hope we will get an opportunity to visit it together. Why don’t you ask your parents if both our families could go to Matheran during our next vacation? My parents too were talking about going there again since it’s such a pollution free spot to relax and enjoy. Looking forward to meeting you in person to share the photographs we have taken here.

Yours loving friend,
Anita
Address on the Envelope
To
Mercy
6, Abraham Street
PeriyarNagar
Chennai – 600 014

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘Punctuality’
Answer:
Punctuality is essential to succeed in one’s career. In business schools, Time management is also taught. Those who are punctual prove that they respect the time of those whom they visit. Those who have missed interviews, flights, Olympic golds and even the opportunity to win goes by milliseconds know the value of time. We should cultivate the quality of being punctual right from our student days. Maintaining a calendar of action and keeping track of time all the time would help one to be punctual. God gives twenty four hours to each one of us, if we are punctual and make most of the given time we would definitely succeed in life.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) There is an University at Madurai.
(b) He is confident on his success.
(c) Though he is old but he walks steadily.
(d) Sam is junior than me.
(e) His father is a honest man.
Answer:
(a) There is a University at Madurai.
(b) He is confident of his success.
(c) Though he is old he walks steadily.
(d) Sam is junior to me.
(e) His father is an honest man.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(a) The story told by the ……….. fat man is not ………… (credible/credulous)
(6) My keys ……….. be in the car. (Fill in with a modal verb)
(c) This watch …………. belong to my father, (use semi-modal)
(d) The strike was announced ………… the disagreement between the management and the employees on the bonus issue. (Use a suitable link word)
Answer:
(a) credulous, credible
(b) must
(c) used to
(d) on account of

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below.
(a) Robots are steadily moving from fiction to fact.
(b) Examination should evaluate all aspects of learning.
(c) Indian players have performed well in the Commonwealth Games.
(d) Napoleon Bonaparte was considered an enlightened monarch of France.
(e) “Health is Wealth” but pollution takes it all away.
(Sports, Environment, History, Science, Education)
Answer:
(a) Science
(b) Education
(c) Sports
(d) History
(e) Environment

[OR]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

I have always been attracted by people of unusual habits. By this, I do not imply hippies and drop-outs or anyone of that band of unhappy people for whom modem society is too sick and uncivilized to bear. No, I mean those quiet, orderly people, living apparently blameless lives, who enrich their har humdrum existences by adopting odd quirks and passions, unlikely, routines or harmless manias for useless objects. Like the secretary I had, who collected earwigs, though what she did with them I never knew, I believe that she loved them because they were small and thin like herself and had a way of scuttling about in very much the same way she did. Life, I am sure, would be very much poorer without such people in it. Sometimes, I feel I am lacking in personality, since I have none of these strange habits.. Unless you count the fact that I never eat eggs unless they are boiled in milk.
Questions.

1. What attracted the author?
2. According to the author, who are the people who have unusual habits?
3. What did the author’s secretary collect?
4. Why did she love them, according to the author?
5. Do you think that the author has any strange habit? If so, what is it?

Answer:

1. Unusual habits of others attracted the author.
2. Quite orderly people living blameless lives have unusual habits.
3. The author’s secretary collected ‘earwigs’.
4. They were small and thin like herself scuttling about.
5. Yes, he has a habit of eating eggs which are only boiled in milk.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Marginal revenue is the addition made to the …………………….
(a) Total sales
(b) Total revenue
(c) Total production
(d) Total cost
Answer:
(b) Total revenue

Question 2.
Function with single independent variable is known as ………………………
(a) Multivariate Function
(b) Bivariate Function
(c) Univariate Function
(d) Polynomial Function
Answer:
(c) Univariate Function

Question 3.
There is no opportunity cost in ……………………..
(a) Floating cost
(b) Prime cost
(c) Sunk cost
(d) social cost
Answer:
(c) Sunk cost

Question 4.
Density of population is rural areas are ……………………..
(a) Very high
(b) Very low
(c) Moderate
(d) Constant
Answer:
(b) Very low

Question 5.
Amartya Kumara Sen received the Nobel prize in Economics in the year ……………………..
(a) 1998
(b) 2000
(c) 2008
(d) 2010
Answer:
(a) 1998

Question 6.
The transfer of ownership from public sector to private sector is known as ……………………..
(a) Globalization
(b) Liberalization
(c) Privatization
(d) Nationalization
Answer:
(c) Privatization

Question 7.
The gateway of privatization ………………………..
(a) Denationalization
(b) Disinvestment
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 8.
Equilibrium condition of a firm is …………………….
(a) MC = MR
(b) MC > MR
(c) MC < MR
(d) MR = price
Answer:
(a) MC = MR

Question 9.
The reward given for the use of capital ………………………..
(a) Rent
(b) Wage
(c) Interest
(d) Profit
Answer:
(c) Interest

Question 10.
SPIC is located in ……………………
(a) Chennai
(b) Madurai
(c) Tuticorin
(d) Pudukkottai
Answer:
(c) Tuticorin

Question 11.
The advocate of democratic socialism was ……………………..
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) P.C. Mahalanobis
(c) Dr. Rajendra prasad
(d) Indira Gandhi
Answer:
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 12.
Which is considered as the basic unit for rural areas?
(a) Panchayat
(b) Village
(c) Town
(d) Municipality
Answer:
(b) Village

Question 13.
The objective of the Industrial policy 1956 was ……………………
(a) Develop heavy Industries
(b) Develop agricultural sector only
(c) Develop private sector only
(d) Develop cottage Industries only
Answer:
(a) Develop heavy Industries

Question 14.
The long – run production function is explained by ………………………
(a) Law of demand
(b) Law of supply
(c) Return to scale
(d) Law of variable proportions
Answer:
(c) Return to scale

Question 15.
How many commercial banks were nationalised in 1969?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 16
Answer:
(c) 14

Question 16.
Expansion of FDI ……………………
(a) Foreign Private Investment
(b) Foreign Portfolio
(c) Foreign Direct Investment
(d) Forex Private Investment
Answer:
(c) Foreign Direct Investment

Question 17.
Thiruvalluvar Economic ideas mainly dealt with ………………………..
(a) Wealth
(b) Poverty is the curse in the society
(c) Agriculture
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 18.
State of rest is a point termed as ………………………….
(a) Equilibrium
(b) Non – Equilibrium
(c) Minimum Point
(d) Maximum Point
Answer:
(a) Equilibrium

Question 19.
An incremental change independent variable with respect to change independent variable is known as ………………………….
(a) Slope
(b) Intercept
(c) Variant
(d) Constant
Answer:
(a) Slope

Question 20.
In sex ratio, Tamil Nadu ranks ……………………..
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer:
(c) Third

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Define Micro industry?
Answer:

1. Micro, small and medium Enterprises are MSMEs produce a wide variety of products in almost all sectors.
2. The prominent among them are the engineering, electrical, chemicals, plastics, steel, paper, matches, textiles, hosiery and garments sector.

Question 22.
Find the average cost function where TC = 60 + 10x + 15x²
Answer:

1. Formula = \(\frac{TC}{x}\)
2. Average cost function = \(\frac{60}{x}\) + \(\frac{10x}{x}\) + \(\frac { 15x^{ 2 } }{ x } \)
3. Average cost = \(\frac{60}{x}\) + 10 + 15x

Question 23.
What is the formula for elasticity of supply if you know the supply function?
Answer:
Elasticity of supply = \(\frac{dq}{dp}\)

Question 24.
Define Marginal product of a factor?
Answer:
It is the addition or the increment made to the total product when one more unit of the variable input is employed . In other words, it is the ratio of the change in the total product to the change in the units of the input. It is expressed as
Where, MP = ∆TP/∆N
Where, MP = Marginal Product
∆TP = Change in total product
∆N = Change in units of input
It is also expressed as
MP = TP[n] – TP [n – 1]
MP = Marginal product
TP [n] = Total product of employing nth unit of a factor.
TP [n – 1] = Total product of employing the previous unit of a factor, that is, [n – 1]^th unit of a factor.

Question 25.
Define Rural economy?
Answer:

1. Rural Economics deals with the application of economic principles in understanding and developing rural areas.
2. Rural areas are geographical areas located outside towns and cities.
3. Rural Economy refers to villages and rural community refers to people living in villages.

Question 26.
What are goods?
Answer:
Goods are also called:

1. Products
2. Commodities
3. Things
4. In Economics, the term ‘goods’ implies the term ‘services’.

Question 27.
Mention the types of distribution?
Answer:
Personal Distribution:
Personal Distribution is the distribution of national income among the individuals.

Functional Distribution:
Functional Distribution means the distribution of income among the four factors of production namely land, labour, capital and organization for their services in production process.

Question 28.
State the features that distinguish a land tenure system from other system?
Answer:
(I) Land Tenure refers to the system of land ownership and management.

(II) The features that distinguish a land tenure system from the others relate to the following:

• Who owns the land;
• Who cultivate the land;
• Who is responsible for paying the land revenue to the government.

(III) Based on these questions, three different types of land tenure existed in India before Independence.

Question 29.
What is meant by Sunk cost?
Answer:
A cost incurred in the past and cannot be recovered in future is called as Sunk Cost. This is historical but irrelevant for future business decisions. It is called as sunk because; they are unalterable, unrecoverable and if once invested it should be treated as drowned or disappeared.

Question 30.
Point out the essential features of pure competition?
Answer:

1. Large number of Buyers and sellers.
2. Homogeneous Product and Uniform price.
3. Free Entry and exit.
4. Absence of Transport cost.
5. Perfect mobility of factors of production.
6. Perfect knowledge of the market.
7. No Government Intervention.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Compare productivity of any two food crops between Tamil Nadu and India?
Answer:
Productivity position of Tamil Nadu and India:

1. The Government of Tamil Nadu lays emphasis on agricultural production and productivity.
2. Tamil Nadu tops in productivity, in food crops as well as non – food crops among the states in India.

Productivity position of Tamil Nadu in India

1. Tamil Nadu ranks first in maize, cumbu, groundnut, oil seeds and cotton.
2. Tamil Nadu ranks second in rice and coconut.
3. Tamil Nadu ranks third in sugarcane, sunflower and Jowar.

Question 32.
How do you justify the merits of privatization?
Answer:

1. Privatisation is transfer of ownership and management of enterprises from public sector to private sector.
2. Denationalization, disinvestment and opening exclusive public sector enterprises to private sector are the gateways to privatization.

Question 33.
State and explain the elasticity of supply?
Answer:

1. Elasticity of supply may be defined as the degree of responsiveness of change in supply to change in price on the part of sellers.
2. It is Mathematically expressed as,

Elasticity of supply = Proportionate change in supply/Proportionate change in price
e_s = \(\frac { \Delta Q_{ S } }{ Q_{ S } } \)/\(\frac { \Delta P }{ P } \)
e_s = \(\frac { \Delta Q_{ S } }{ \Delta P } \) × \(\frac{P}{Qs}\)
Where Q_s represents the supply, P presents price, ∆ denotes a change.

Question 34.
What are the functions of Entrepreneur?
Answer:
Functions of an Entrepreneur:
1. Initiation:
An organizer is the initiator of the business, by considering the situation and availability of resources and planning the entire process of business of production.

2. Innovation:
A successful entrepreneur is always an innovator. He introduces new methods in the production process.

3. Co – ordination:
An organizer applies a particular combination of the factor of production, to start and run the business or production.

4. Control, Direction and Supervision:
An organiser controls so that nothing prevents the organisation from achieving its goal. He directs the factors to get better results and supeiVises for the efficient functioning of all the factors involved in the process of production.

5. Risk – taking and uncertainty – bearing:
There are risk – taking and uncertainty-bearing obstacles. Risks may be insured but uncertainties cannot be insured. They reduce the profit.

Question 35.
List out the kinds of wages?
Answer:
Wages are divided into four types.

1. Nominal Wages or Money Wages:
Nominal wages are referred to the wages paid in terms of money.

2. Real Wages:
Real wages are the wages paid in terms of goods and services. Hence, real wages are the purchasing power of money wages.

3. Piece Wages:
Wages that are paid on the basis of quantum of work done.

4. Time Wages:
Wages that are paid on the basis of the amount of time that the worker works.

Question 36.
Give short note on Cold Storage?

1. India is the largest producer of fruits and second largest producer of vegetables in the world.
2. Inspite of that per capita availability of fruits and vegetables is quite low because of post – harvest losses which account for about 25% to 30% of production.
3. Besides, quality of a sizable quantity of produce also deteriorates by the time it reaches the consumer.
4. Most of the problems relating to the marketing of fruits and vegetables can be traced to their perishability.
5. Perishability is responsible for high marketing costs, market gluts, price fluctuations and other similar problems.
6. In order to overcome this constraint, the Government of India and the Ministry of Agriculture promulgated an order known as “cold storage order, 1964” under section 3 of the Essential Commodities Act., 1955.

Question 37.
Compare positive economics and normative economics?
Answer:

Positive Economics	Normative Economics
1. An increase in money supply implies a price – rise is an economy.	1. Inflation is better than deflation.
2. As the irrigation facilities and application of chemical fertilizers expand, the production of food grains increases.	2. More production of luxury goods is not good for a less developed country.
3. An increase in the birth rate and a decrease in the death rate reflect the rate of growth of population.	Inequalities in the distribution of wealth and incomes should be reduced.

Question 38.
Describe the development of textile Industry in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu is the largest textile hub of India.
2. Tamil Nadu is known as the “Yam Bowl” of the country accounting for 41% of India’s cotton yam production.
3. The textile industry plays a significant role in the Indian economy by providing direct employment to an estimated 35 million people, and thereby contributing 4% of GDP and 35% of gross export earnings.
4. The textile sector contributes to 14% of the manufacturing sector.
5. From spinning to garment manufacturing, entire textile production chain facilities are in Tamil Nadu.
6. About half of India’s total spinning mill capacity is in Tamil Nadu.
7. The western part of Tamil Nadu comprising Coimbatore, Tirupur, Erode, Dindigul and Karur has the majority of spinning mills manufacturing cotton, polyester, blended yam and silk yam used by garment units in Tamil Nadu, Maharastra etc.,
8. Yam is also exported to China, Bangladesh, etc.,
9. Tirupur known as “knitting city” is the exporter of garments worth USD (United States Dollar) 3 billion.
10. Karur is the major home for textile manufacturing (curtain cloth, bed linens, kitchen linens, toilet linens, table linens, wall hangings etc.,) and export hub in India.
11. Erode is the main cloth market in South India for both retail and wholesale ready – mades.

Question 39.
What are the important features of utility?
Answer:
The important features of utility are:

1. Utility is psychological. It depends on the consumer’s mental attitude. For example, a vegetarian derives no utility from mutton.
2. Utility is not equivalent to usefulness. For example, a smoker derives utility from a cigarette; but, his health gets affected.
3. Utility is not the same a pleasure. A sick person derives utility from taking a medicine, but definitely it is not providing pleasure.
4. Utility is personal and relative. An individual obtains varied utility from one and the same good in different situations and places.
5. Utility is the function of the intensity of human want. An individual consumer faces a tendency of diminishing utility.
6. Utility cannot be measured objectively. It is a subjective concept and it cannot be measured numerically.
7. Utility has no ethical or moral significance. For example, a cook derives utility from a knife using which he cuts some vegetables, and a killer wants to stab his enemy by that knife. In economics, a commodity has utility if it satisfies a human want.

Question 40.
Mention the features of SHGs?
Answer:
Major features of SHGs [Self Help Groups]

1. SHG is generally an economically homogeneous group formed through a process of self – selection based upon the affinity of its members.
2. Most SHGs are women’s groups with membership ranging between 10 and 20.
3. SHGs have well – defined rules and by – laws, hold regular meetings and maintain records and savings and credit discipline.
4. SHGs are self managed institutions characterized by participatory and collective decision making.

PART- IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
A firm has the revenue function R = 600q – 0.03q² and the cost function is
C = 150q + 60,000, where q is the number of units produced. Find AR, AC, MR and MC?
Answer:
(I) Average Revenue = \(\frac{R}{q}\)
\(\frac { 600q-0.03q^{ 2 } }{ q } \) = \(\frac{600q}{q}\) – \(\frac { 0.03q^{ 2 } }{ q } \)
AR = 600 – 0.03q

(II) Average Cost = \(\frac{C}{q}\)
= \(\frac{150q+60000}{q}\)
= \(\frac{150q}{q}\) + \(\frac{60000}{q}\)
AC = 150 + \(\frac{60000}{q}\)

(III) Marginal Revenue = \(\frac{dR}{dq}\)
R = 600q – 0.03q²
\(\frac{dR}{dq}\) = 600 – (0.03)q²
\(\frac{dR}{dq}\) = 600 – (0.03)(2q)
MR = 600 – 0.06q

(IV) Marginal Cost = \(\frac{dC}{dq}\)
C = 150q + 60000
MC = 50

[OR]

(b) What are the steps involved in executing a MS Excel sheet?
Answer:

1. MS – excel is used in data analysis bý using formula.
2. A spread sheet is a large sheet of paper which contains rows and columns.
3. The intersection of rows and columns is termed as cell.
4. MS – Excel 2007 version supports upto I million rows and 16 thousand columns per work sheet.

MS Excel Start From Various Options:

1. Click Start → Program → Micro Soft Excel
2. Double click the MS Excel Icon from thè Desktop

Worksheet:
MS – Excel work sheet is a table like document containing rows and columns with data and formula.

There are four kinds of calculation operators. They are:

1. Arithmetic
2. Comparison
3. Text Concatenation [link together]
4. Reference

MS – Excel helps to do data analysis and data presentation in the form of graphs, diagrams, area chart, line chart etc.

Question 42 (a).
Illustrate the concept of producer’s equilibrium?
Answer:
Producer equilibrium implies the situation where producer maximizes his output. It is also known as optimum combination of the factors of production. In short, the producer manufactures a given amount of output with ‘least cost combination of factors’, with his given budget.

Optimum Combination of Factors implies either:
There is output maximisation for given inputs or there is cost minimisation for the given output.

Conditions for Producer Equilibrium:
The two conditions that are to be fulfilled for the attainment of producer equilibrium are:
The iso – cost line must be tangent to iso – quant curve. At point of tangency, the iso-quant curve must be convex to the origin or MRTSLk must be declining.

[OR]

(b) State the relationship between AC and MC?
Answer:
There is a unique relationship between the AC and MC curves as shown in diagram.

1. When AC is falling, MC lies below AC.
2. When AC becomes constant, MC also becomes equal to it.
3. When AC starts increasing, MC lies above the AC.
4. MC curve always cuts AC at its minimum point from below.

Question 43 (a).
Explain various divisions of Economics?
Answer:
Economics sub divisions are:

(I) Consumption:

• Human wants coming under consumption is the starting point of economic activity.
• In this section the characteristics of human wants based on the behaviour of the consumer, the diminishing marginal utility and consumer’s surplus are dealt with.

(II) Production:

• Production is the process of transformation of inputs into output.
• This division covers the characteristics and role of the factors of production namely land, labour, capital and organization.

(III) Exchange:

• Exchange is concerned with price determination in different market forms.
• This division covers trade and commerce.
• Consumption is possible only if the produced commodity is placed in the hands of the consumer.

(IV) Distribution:

• Production is the result of the coordination of factors of production.
• Since a commodity is produced with the efforts of land, labour, capital and organization, the produced wealth has to be distributed among the cooperating factors.
• The reward for factors of production is studied in this division under rent, wages, interest and profit.
• Distribution studies about the pricing of factors of production.

[OR]

(b) Explain the law of demand and its exceptions?
Answer:
Definitions:
The Law of Demand says as “the quantity demanded increases with a fall in price and diminishes with a rise in price”. – Marshall
“The Law of Demand states that people will buy more at lower price and buy less at ‘ higher prices, other things remaining the same”. – Samuelson

Assumptions of Law of Demand:

1. The income of the consumer remains constant.
2. The taste, habit and preference of the consumer remain the same.
3. The prices of other related goods should not change.
4. There should be no substitutes for the commodity in study.
5. The demand for the commodity must be continuous.
6. There should not be any change in the quality of the commodity.

Given these assumptions, the law of demand operates. If there is change even in one of these assumptions, the law will not operate.

Explanation:
The law of demand explains the relationship between the price of a commodity and the quantity demanded of it. This law states that quantity demanded of a commodity expands with a fall in price and contracts with a rise in price.

In other words, a rise in price of a commodity is followed by a contraction demand and a fall in price is followed by extension in demand. Therefore, the law of demand states that there is an inverse relationship between the price and the quantity demanded of a commodity.

Exceptions to the law of demand:
Normally, the demand curve slopes downwards from left to right. But there are some unusual demand curves which do not obey the law and the reverse occurs. A fall in price brings about a contraction of demand and a rise in price results in an extension of demand. Therefore the demand curve slopes upwards from left to right.

It is known as exceptional demand curve. In the above diagram, DD is the demand curve which slopes upwards from left to right. It shows that when price is OP₁, OQ₁, is the demand and when the price rises to OP₂, demand also extends to OQ₂.

Question 44 (a).
How price and output are determined under the perfect competition?
Answer:
Perfect Competition: Firm’s Equilibrium in the Short Run

In the short run, at least a few factors of production are fixed. The firms under Perfect Competition take the price (10) from the industry and start adjusting their quantities produced. For example Q_d = 100 – 5P and Q_s = 5P.

At equilibrium Q_d = Q_s
Therefore 100 – 5P = 5P
100 = 10P; 100/10 = P; Qd = demand
P = 10; P = Price
Qd = 100 – 5(10); Q_s = Supply
100 – 50 = 50
Q_s = 5 (10) = 50
Therefore 50 = 50

This diagram consists of three panels. The equilibrium of an industry is explained in the first panel. The demand and supply forces of all the firms interact and the price is fixed as 10. The equilibrium of an industry is obtained at 50 units of output.

In the second part of the diagram, AC curve is lower than the price line. The equilibrium condition is achieved where MC = MR. Its equilibrium quantity sold is 50. With the prevailing price, ₹ 10 it experiences super normal profit. AC = ₹ 8, AR = ₹ 10.

Its total revenue is 50 × 10 = 500. Its total cost is 50 × 8 = 400. Therefore, its total profit is 500 – 400 = 100.

In the third part of the diagram, firm’s cost curve is above the price line. The equilibrium condition is achieved at point where MR = MC. Its quantity sold is 50. With the prevailing price, it experiences loss. (AC > AR). Its total revenue is 50 × 10 = 500. Its total cost is 50 × 12 = 600. Therefore, its total loss is 600 – 500 = 100.

As profit prevails in the market, new firms will enter the industry, thus increasing the supply of the product. This means a decline in the price of the product and increase the cost of production. Thus, the abnormal profit will be wiped out; loss will be incurved. When loss prevails in the market, the existing loss making firms will exit the industry, thus decreasing the supply of the product.

This means a rise in the price of the product and reduction in the cost of production. So the loss will vanish; Profit will emerge. Consequent upon the entry and exit of new firms into the industry, firms always earn ‘normal profit’ in the long run as shown in diagram.

[OR]

(b) Elucidate the Loanable funds Theory of Interest?
Answer:

1. The Loanable Funds Theory, also known as the “Neo – Classical Theory,” was developed by Swedish economists like Wicksell, Bertil, Ohlin, Viner, Gunnar Myrdal and others.
2. According to this theory, interest is the price paid for the use of loanable funds.
3. The rate of interest is determined by the equilibrium between demand for and supply of ‘ loanable funds in the credit market.

Demand for loanable funds
The demand for loanable funds depends upon the following:

(I) Demand for Investment [I]

• The most important factor responsible for the loanable funds is the demand for investment.
• Bulk of the demand for loanable funds comes from business firms which borrow money for purchasing capital goods.

(II) Demand for consumption [C]
The demand for loanable funds comes from individuals who borrow money for consumption purposes also.

(III) Demand for Hoarding [H]

• The next demand for loanable funds comes from hoarders. Demand for hoarding money arises because of people’s preference for liquidity, idle cash balances and so on.
• The demand for C, I and H varies inversely with interest rate.

Supply of Loanable funds:
The supply of loanable funds depends upon the following four sources:

1. Savings [S]:
Loanable funds comes from savings. According to this theory, savings may be of two types, namely,

• Savings planned by individuals are called “ex-ante-savings ”.
• The unplanned savings are called ‘ex-post savings”.

2. Bank Credit [BC]:
The bank credit is another source of loanable funds. Commercial banks create credit and supply loanable funds to the investors.

3. Dishoarding [DH]:
Dishoarding means bringing out the hoarded money into use and thus it constitutes a source of supply of loanable funds.

4. Disinvestment: [DI]:
Disinvestment is the opposite of investment. Disinvestment means not providing sufficient funds for depreciation of equipment.

It gives rise to the supply of loanable funds. All the four sources of supply of loanable funds vary directly with the interest rate.

Question 45 (a).
The features of Rural Economy are peculiar’Argue?
Answer:
Features of Rural Economy:

(I) Village is an Institution:
The village is a Primary Institution and it satisfies almost all the needs of the rural community. The rural people have a feeling of belongingness and a sense of unity towards each other.

Dependence on Agriculture:
The rural economy depends much on nature and agricultural activities. Agriculture and allied activities are the main occupation in rural areas.

Life of Rural people:
Lifestyles in villages are very simple. Public services like education, housing, health and sanitation, transport and communication, banking, roads and markets are limited and unavailable.

The standards of living of majority of rural people are poor and pitiable. In terms of methods of production, social organization and political mobilization, rural sector is extremely backward and weak.

Population Density:
Population density, measured by number of persons living per sq.km is very low and houses are scattered in the entire villages.

Employment:
There exists unemployment, seasonal unemployment and under employment in rural areas.

Poverty:
Poverty is a condition where the basic needs of the people like food, clothing and shelter are not being met.

Indebtedness:
People in rural areas are highly indebted owing to poverty and underemployment, lack of farm and non – farm employment opportunities, low wage employment, seasonality in production, poor marketing network etc.

Rural Income:
The Income of the rural people is constrained as the rural economy is not sufficiently vibrant to provide them.

Dependency:
Rural households are largely dependent on social grants and remittances from family members working in urban areas and cities.

Dualism:
Dualism means the co-existence of two extremely different features like developed and under developed. These characteristics are very common in rural areas. Inequality: The distributions of income, wealth and assets are highly skewed among rural people. Land, livestock and other assets are owned by a few people.

Migration:
Rural people are forced to migrate from villages to urban areas in order to seek gainful employment for their livelihood.

[OR]

(b) Explain the various sources of energy in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu tops in power generation among the Southern States as seen in the table. Tamil Nadu 26,865 MW in 1st Rank in the energy level. Tamil Nadu is in the forefront of all other Indian States in installed capacity.

Muppandal wind farm is a renewable energy source, supplying the villagers with electricity for work. Wind farms were built in Nagercoil and Tuticorin apart from already existing ones around Coimbatore, Pollachi, Dharapuram and Udumalaipettai. These areas generate about half of India’s 2,000 megawatts of wind energy or two percent of the total power output of India.

Nuclear Energy:
The Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant and the Koodankulam Nuclear Power Plant are the major nuclear energy plants for the energy grid.

Thermal power:

1. In Tamil Nadu the share of thermal power in total energy sources is very high and the thermal power plants are at Athippattu (North Chennai) Ennore, Mettur, Neyveli and Thoothukudi.
2. The generation of power under various sources is given here.

Hydel Energy:

1. There are about 20 hydro-electric units in Tamil Nadu.
2. The prominent units are Hundah, Mettur, Periyar, Maravakandy, Parson Valley etc.,

Solar Energy:

1. Tamil Nadu tops in solar power generation in India as seen in the table here:
2. Southern Tamil Nadu is considered as pne of the most suitable regions in the country for developing solar power projects.

Wind Energy:

1. Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India.
2. The State has very high quality of offshore wind energy potential off the Tirunelveli coast and southern Thoothukudi and Rameswaram coast.

Question 46 (a).
What are the methods of measuring Elasticity of demand?
Answer:
There are three methods of measuring price elasticity of demand.

1. The Percentage method:
e_p = \(\frac { \Delta Q }{ \Delta P } \), \(\frac{P}{Q}\)
It is also known as ratio method, when we measure the ratio as:
e_p = \(\frac { %\Delta Q }{ %\Delta P } \) where,
% ∆Q = Percentage change in demand
% ∆P = Percentage change in price

2. Total Outlay Method:
Marshall suggested that the simplest way to decide whether demand is elastic or inelastic is to examine the change in total outlay of the consumer or total revenue of the firm Total Revenue = (Price × Quantity Sold)
TR = ( P × Q)

Where there is inverse relation between Price and Total Outlay, demand is elastic. Direct relation means inelastic. Elasticity is unity when Total Outlay is constant.

3. Point or Geometrical Elasticity:
When the demand curve is a straight line, it is said to be linear. Graphically, the point elasticity of a linear demand curve is shown by the ratio of the segments of the line to the right and to the left of the particular point.
Lower segment of the demand curve
Point Elasticity =

e_p = \(\frac{L}{U}\)
Where ‘e_p’ stands for point elasticity, ‘L’ stands for the lower segment and ‘U’ for the upper segment.

[OR]

(b) Explain the VKRV Rao’s National Income Methodology and Industrialization?
Answer:
(a) Rao’s National Income Methodology:

1. Rao’s name is remembered for his pioneering work on the enumeration of national income of India.
2. He attempted
   • To develop the national income concepts suited to India and developing countries.
   • To analyze the concepts of investment, saving and the multipliers is an underdeveloped economy.
   • To study the compatibility of the national incomes of Industrialized and underdeveloped countries.
3. Rao’s paper on “Full Employment and Economic Development” was one of the earliest contributions in the field of development towards employment.

(b) Rao’s views on Industrialization:
Rao gave the following reasons for low per capita income and low levels of per capita nutrition in India.

1. Uneconomic holdings with sub-divisions and fragmentation.
2. Low levels of water availability for crops.
3. Excess population pressure on agriculture due to the absence of a large industrial sector.
4. Absence of capital.
5. Absence of autonomy in currency policy, and in general in monetary matters encouraging holding of gold.

Question 47 (a).
Compare and contrast various definitions of economics?
Answer:
1. Adam Smith’s wealth definition:

• Adam Smith [1723 – 1790] in his book “An Inquiry into Nature and Cause of Wealth of Nations” [1776] defines “Economics as the science of wealth”
• He explains how a nation’s wealth is created and increased.
• He considers that the individual in the society wants to promote his own gain and in this process, he is guided and led by an “invisible hand”
• Adam Smith favours the introduction of “division of labour” to increase the quantum of output.
• Severe competition in factories and society helps in bettering the product.
• Supply force is very active and a commodity is made available to the consumers at the lowest price.

2. Alfred Marshall welfare definition: .

• Alfred Marshall [1842-1924] in his book “Principles of Economics” [1890] defines economics thus “Political Economy” or Economics is a study of mankind in the ordinary business of life.
• It examines that part of individual and social action which is most closely connected with the attainment and with the use of the material requisites of well being.
• Thus , it is on one side a study of wealth and on the other and more important side, a part of the study of man”.

The important features of Marshall’s definition are:

• Economics does not treat wealth as’the be-all and end-all of economic activities.
• Man promotes primarily welfare and not wealth.
• The science of economics contains the concerns of ordinary people who are moved by love and not merely guided or directed by the desire to get maximum monetary benefit.
• Economics is a social science. It studies people in the society who influence one another.

3. Lionel Robbins – Scarcity definition:

• Lionel Robbins published a book “An Essay on the Nature and Significance of Economic Science” in 1932.
• According to him, “Economics is a science which studies human behaviour as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses”.

The major features of Robbins’ definition:

• Ends refer to human wants, human beings have unlimited number of wants.
• On the other hand, resources or means that go to satisfy the unlimited human wants are limited or scarce in supply.
• The scarce means are capable of having alternative uses.
• An individual grades his wants and satisfies first his most urgent want.
• Economics, according to Robbins, is a science of choice. •

4. Samuelson’s – growth definition:

• Paul Samuelson defines economics as “the study of how men and society choose, with or without the use of money, to employ scarce productive resources which could have alternative uses to produce various. commodities over time, and distribute them for consumption, now and in the future among various people and groups of society”.
  The major implications of this definition are as follows:
• Samuelson’s makes his definition dynamic by including the element of time in it.
• Samuelson’s definition is applicable also in a barter economy.
• His definition covers various aspects like production, distribution and consumption.
• Samuelson treats economics as a social science.
• Samuelson appears to be the most satisfactory.

[OR]

(b) Explain the law of Equi – marginal utility?
Answer:
The law of the Equi-marginal utility:

1. The law of diminishing marginal utility is applicable only to the want of a single commodity.
2. The law of equi – marginal utility explains the behavior of a consumer when he consumer more than one commodity.
3. Wants are unlimited but the income which is available are limited.
4. This law explains how the consumer spends his limited income on various commodities to get maximum satisfaction.
5. Law of Equi-Marginal Utility is also known as the law of substitution.
6. “The law of consumer’s equilibrium ”
7. “Gossen’s second law ” and “ The law of maximum satisfaction”.

Definition:
Marshall states the law as, “If a person has a thing which he can put to several uses, he will distribute it among these uses in such a way that it has the same marginal utility in all. For, if it had a greater marginal utility in one use than another he would gain by taking away some of it from the second use and applying it to first”.

Assumption:

1. The consumer is rational in the sense that he wants to get maximum satisfaction.
2. The utility of each commodity is measurable in cardinal numbers.
3. The marginal utility of money remains constant.
4. The income of the consumer is given. ‘
5. There is perfect competition in the market.
6. The prices of the commodities are given.
7. The law of diminishing marginal utility operates.

Illustration:
This law can be illustrated with the help of table. Let us assume that the consumer has a given income of ₹ 11. He wants to spend this entire income [i.e. ₹ 11] on Apple and Orange. The price of an Apple and the price of an orange is ₹ 1 each.

If the consumer wants to attain maximum utility, he should buy 6 units of apples and 5 units of oranges, so that she can get [92 + 58] = 150 units. No other combination of Apple and Orange can give higher than 150 utilities.

Diagrammatic Illustration:
In the diagram, X – axis represents the amount of money spent and Y axis represents the marginal utilities of Apple and Orange respectively.

If the consumer spends ₹ 6 on Apple and ₹ 5 on Orange, the marginal utilities of both are equal, i.e. AA₁ = BB₁ [4 = 4], Hence, he gets maximum utility.

Criticisms:

1. In practice, utility cannot be measured, only be felt.
2. This law cannot be applied to durable goods.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2:30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Which bank has the power to issue bank notes?
(a) Central bank
(b) Commercial bank
(c) Co – operative banks
(d) Foreign banks
Answer:
(a) Central bank

Question 2.
Which one is not land transport?
(a) Pack animals
(b) Bullock cart
(c) Tramways
(d) Liner
Answer:
(d) Liner

Question 3.
Occupation of a Doctor is called …………………..
(a) Employment
(b) Business
(c) Profession
(d) Sole proprietor
Answer:
(c) Profession

Question 4.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List – I	List – II
(i) Wholesaler	1. Mercantile agent
(ii) Retailer	2. Particular line of products
(iii) Single line stores	3. Small qunatities
(iv) Broker	4. First middlemen

Answer:
Codes:

Question 5.
Primary industries may be divided as follows:
(I) Extractive industries
(II) Manufacturing industries
(III) Genetic industries
(IV) Construction industries
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (I) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) (I) and (III)

Question 6.
Centralised control in MNCs implies control exercised by ………………………
(a) Branches
(b) Subsidiaries
(c) Headquarters
(d) Parliament
Answer:
(c) Headquarters

Question 7.
Large scale fixed retailers include ………………………..
(a) Super markets
(b) Speciality stores
(c) General stores
(d) Second shops
Answer:
(a) Super markets

Question 8.
Exim Bank was set up in the year ……………………..
(a) 1949
(b) 1972
(c) 1935
(d) 1982
Answer:
(d) 1982

Question 9.
Social responsibility towards employees represents the following except ………………………
(a) Reasonable remuneration
(b) Proper facilities
(c) Social security
(d) Exploitation
Answer:
(d) Exploitation

Question 10.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Imperial bank – Mumbai
(b) RBI – 2013
(c) RTGS – Commercial bank
(d) Development banks – SBI
Answer:
(d) Development banks – SBI

Question 11.
Enterprises operating in several countries but managed from one country is termed as ………………………
(a) Government company
(b) Multinational company
(c) Private company
(d) Joint venture
Answer:
(b) Multinational company

Question 12.
The money can be withdrawn from the PPF, after …………………….. years.
(a) 14
(b) 13
(c) 15
(d) 12
Answer:
(c) 15

Question 13.
The exporters appoint a ……………………. to fulfill the customs formalities.
(a) Clearing agent
(b) Forwarding agent
(c) Commission agent
(d) Factor
Answer:
(b) Forwarding agent

Question 14.
The compensation given for breach of contract is ………………………..
(a) Damage
(b) Remuneration
(c) Money
(d) Cheque
Answer:
(a) Damage

Question 15.
Ethics is important for ………………………
(a) Top management
(b) Middle level managers
(c) Non – managerial employees
(d) All of them
Answer:
(d) All of them

Question 16.
World Bank is located at ……………………..
(a) Washington DC
(b) Newyork
(c) Tokyo
(d) Hongkong
Answer:
(a) Washington DC

Question 17.
Which of the following is not a function of a central bank?
(a) Guiding and regulating the banking system of country
(b) Deal with the general public
(c) Acts as government banker
(d) Maintains deposit accounts of all other bank
Answer:
(b) Deal with the general public

Question 18.
Dispersal of decision making power to branches/affiliates/subsidiaries is by the head officer represents ………………………..
(a) Centralisation
(b) Decentralisation
(c) Power
(d) Integration
Answer:
(b) Decentralisation

Question 19.
The document which authorises to deliver the goods either in part or full is called ………………………….
(a) Warehouse warrant
(b) Dock receipt
(c) Dock warrant
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Dock warrant

Question 20.
Which of the following holder is given voting rights?
(a) Debentures
(b) Preference shares
(c) Equity shares
(d) Bonds
Answer:
(c) Equity shares

PART – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Warehouses mean the places to store the goods for future purpose. It renders invaluable services to the society by performing the various functions. Give any three functions of warehouses?
Answer:

1. Storage
2. Price stabilization
3. Equalization of demand and supply

Question 22.
Murugan is the famous auditor in Madurai. Identify the type of economic activity highlighted in the case. Write the meaning of it?
Answer:
The economic activity highlighted in this case is profession. Profession means something which is more than a job. For the profession a special qualification is necessary. The income from the profession is professional fee. It may be different from one profession to another profession.

Question 23.
Define commerce?
Answer:
According to Evelyn Thomas, “Commercial operations deal with the buying and selling of goods, the exchange of commodities and the contribution of finished products”.

Question 24.
Insurance covers different types of risks. It can be broadly classified into

1. Life insurance
2. Non – life insurance. What is the other name for Non – life insurance? How it is classified?

Answer:
The other name for Non – life insurance is called as General insurance. It can be further classified into:

1. Fire insurance
2. Marine insurance
3. Health insurance
4. Miscellaneous insurance

Question 25.
Write any two differences between warehouse warrant and warehouse receipt?
Answer:

Warehouse Warrant	Warehouse Receipt
1. It is a document of title of goods.	1. It is not a document of title of goods.
2. It is not only an acknowledgement for the receipt of goods but also gives an authority to get delivery of goods by the owner or by third party.	2. It is only an acknowledgement for the receipt of goods.

Question 26.
Briefly explain the need for Debit card?
Answer:
ATM card is also called debit card. This card is more useful in purchase of goods and services anywhere in India if the shop maintains a swiping machine facility.

Question 27.
What is a Statutory Company?
Answer:
Companies are established by a Special Act passed in Parliament or State Assembly. Rules relating to day – to – day management of statutory companies are specified in the Articles of Association (AOA). Examples: LIC, RBI, Railways, etc.

Question 28.
Write any two advantages of MNC?
Answer:
1. Low Cost Labour:
MNC set up their facilities in low cost countries and produce goods/services at lower cost.

2. Quality Products:
The resource, experience and expertise of MNCs in the sphere of research and development enables the host country to establish its research and development system which helps it in producing quality goods and services at least possible cost.

Question 29.
How the RBI is acting as banker to the government?
Answer:
RBI is acting as a banker to the government. It is one of the traditional functions of RBI. It accepts money into central and state government’s accounts and make payments on their behalf. It manages the governments debts. It advises the government and the terms of new loans.

Question 30.
Write short note on debentures?
Answer:
Debentures are an important instrument for raising long term debt capital. A company can raise funds through issue of debentures which bear a fixed rate of interest.

PART – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
At first the co – operative movement was started by Robert Owen in the year 1844. Who are Rochdale pioneers?
Answer:
At first, the cooperative movement was started by Robert Owen, in the year 1844. He formed a consumer’s cooperative society in England with 28 workers as members, called “Rochdale Society of Equitable Pioneers”.

Question 32.
List the steps in factoring process?
Answer:
Factoring is derived from a Latin term “facere” which means ‘to make or do’. Factoring is an arrangement wherein the trade debts of a company are sold to a financial institution at a discount.

Factoring Process:

1. The firm enters into a factoring arrangement with a factor, which is generally a financial institution.
2. Whenever goods are sold on credit basis, an invoice is prepared and a copy of the same is sent to the factor.
3. The debt amount due to the firm is transferred to the factor through assignment.
4. On the due date, the amount is collected by the factor from the customer.
5. After retaining the service fees, the remaining amount is sent to the firm by the factor.

Question 33.
List out the products produced by MSME in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu, MSMEs sector produces a wide variety of products in almost all fields. The prominent among them are the textile, electronic products, engineering products, auto ancillaries, leather products, chemicals, plastics, garments, jewellery etc.

Question 34.
What do you understand by Burglary Insurance?
Answer:
Burglary Insurance: This policy comes under the category of insurance of property. Any loss of damage due to theft, larceny, burglary, house breaking and acts of nature are covered by this policy. Compensation of actual loss is done.

Question 35.
It is the oldest form of organisation. It is administrated by a separate department. What is the form of organisation? Describe any three features of this organisation?
Answer:
1. Formation:
A departmental undertaking is established either as a separate full-fledged ministry or as a sub-division of a ministry (i.e. department) of the Government.

2. No Separate Entity:
A departmental undertaking does not have an independent entity distinct from the Government.

3. Accounting and Audit:
The departmental undertaking is subject to the normal budgeting, accounting and audit procedures, which are applicable to all Government departments.

Question 36.
Mention any three rights of partners?
Answer:
Rights of Partners;

1. Right to take part in business: Every partner has a right to take part in the management of the business.
2. Right to consult: Every partner has the right to consult in all the matters concerning the firm.
3. Right to share profit: Every partner is entitled to share the profits in the agreed ratio. If no ratio is specified in the deed, the profit must be shared equally.

Question 37.
Explain the features of general stores?
Answer:
General Stores sell a wide variety of products under one roof, most commonly found in a local market and residential areas to satisfy the day – to – day needs of the customers residing in nearby localities. They remain open for long hours at convenient timings and often provide credit facilities to their regular customers.

Question 38.
It is a policy taken as a safeguard against the medical costs. It is a contract between an insurer and an individual or a group. What is the name of the policy? Mention a few points about this?
Answer:
In mid 80’s, most of the hospitals in India were government owned and treatment was free of cost. With the advent of Private Medical Care, the need for Health Insurance was felt and various Insurance Companies introduced Health Insurance as a Product. Presently the health insurance exists primarily in the form of ‘Mediclaim policy’.

Question 39.
Without money customers can purchase costly articles with this method. It is useful to Middle – class people. There are two methods- hire purchase and installment system. Mention any three differences between hire purchase and installment system?
Answer:

Question 40.
What is meant by government company?
Answer:
A “Government company” is defined under Section 2(45) of the Companies Act, 2013 as “any company in which not less than 51% of the paid – up share capital, is held by the Central Government, or by any State Government or Governments, or partly by the Central Government and partly by one or more State Governments, and includes a company which is a subsidiary company of such a Government company”.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Compare business with profession and employment?
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Explain the different types of warehouses on the basis of ownership?
Answer:

• Private Warehouses: Private warehouses are built and owned by private business enterprises in order to store the products produced by them.
• Government Warehouses: They are created and operated by the Government to implement the programmes of the Government.
• Public Warehouse: It is open for public at large. Most of the business organisations, especially small and medium scale units cannot afford to have their own warehouses.
• Co-operative Warehouses: There are warehouses owned and managed by the marketing co-operative societies or agricultural co-operative societies. They are setup to provide warehousing facilities to their members.
• Bonded Warehouses: Bonded warehouses are those warehouses, which are licensed
  by the government to accept storage of imported goods which are not cleared due to non-payment of customs duty by the importer.

Question 42 (a).
Discuss the advantages of transport?
Answer:
(A) Advantages of railway transport:

1. Railways are well suited for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances.
2. It can provide long distance travel throughout the day and night with unbroken services.

(B) Advantages of inland waterways:

1. It is considered as the cheapest mode of transport among the other modes of transport.
2. It is most suitable for heavy loads.

(C) Advantages of air transport:

1. It provides a regular, convenient, efficient and quick service.
2. Perishable goods like fruits, vegetables, egg, meat, etc., can be transported quickly.

[OR]

(b) Explain the principles of insurance?
Answer:
1. Utmost Good Faith:
According to this principle, both insurer and insured should enter into contract in good faith. Insured should provide all the information that impacts the subject matter. Insurer should provide all the details’regarding insurance contract.

2. Insurable Interest:
The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance. Insurable interest means some pecuniary interest in the subject matter of the insurance contract.

3. Indemnity:
Indemnity means security or compensation against loss or damages. In insurance, the insured would be compensated with the amount equivalent to the actual loss and not the amount exceeding the loss. This principle ensures that the insured does not make any profit out of the insurance. This principle of indemnity is applicable to property insurance alone.

4. Causa Proxima:
The word ‘Causa proxima’ means ‘nearest qause’. According to this principle, when the loss is the result of two or more cause, the proximate cause, i.e. the direct. The direct, the most dominant and most effective cause of loss should be taken into consideration. The insurance company is not liable for the remote cause.

5. Contribution:
The same subject matter may be insured with more than one insurer then it is known as ‘Double Insurance’. In such a case, the insurance claim to be paid to the insured must be shared on contributed by all insurers in proportion to the sum assured by each one of them.

6. Subrogation:
Subrogation means ‘stepping the shoes on others’. According to this principle, once the claim of the insured has been settled, the ownership right of the subject matter of insurance passes on to the insurer.

7. Mitigation:
In case of a mishap, the insured must take off all possible steps to reduce or mitigate the loss or damage to the subject matter of insurance.

Question 43 (a).
Business owned by a single person is known as sole trading business. He contributes the required capital. Explain the characteristics of sole trading business?
Answer:

1. Ownership by one man: This is owned by single person. The sole trader contributes the required capital. He is not only the owner of the business but also manages the entire affairs.
2. Freedom of work and Quick Decisions: Since an individual is himself as a owner, he need not consult anybody else. Hence he can take quick decisions.
3. Unlimited Liability: When his business assets are not sufficient to pay off the business debts he has to pay from his personal property.
4. Enjoying Entire Profit: He strives tirelessly for the improvement and expansion of his business and enjoys all the benefits of his hard work.
5. Absence of Government Regulation: A sole proprietor concern is free from Government regulations. No legal formalities are to be observed in its formation, management or in its closure.
6. No Separate Entity: The sole trading concern comes to an end with death, disability, insanity and insolvency of the individual.
7. Maintenance of Secrecy: Since he/she manages all the affairs of the business, the secrecy can be maintained easily.

[OR]

(b) What are the rights of a partner?
Answer:

1. Right to take part in business: Every partner has a right to take part in the management of the business.
2. Right to be consultant: Every partner has the right to be consulted in all the matters concerning the firm. The decision of the majority will prevail in all the routine matters.
3. Right of access to books, record and document: Every partner has the right of access to all records and books of accounts, and to examine and copy them.
4. Right to share profit: Every partner is entitled to share the profits in the agreed ratio. If no profit – sharing ratio is specified in the deed, they must be shared equally.
5. Right to receive interest: A partner has the right to receive interest on loans advanced by him to the firm at the agreed rate, and where no rate is stipulated, interest @ 6% p.a. allowed.

Question 44 (a).
Briefly explain the auxiliaries to trade?
Answer:
1. Commerce includes not only trade but also services such as transport, warehousing, packaging, insurance, banking and sales promotion which are incidental or auxiliaries to trade.

2. Trade: The term trade is used to denote buying and selling. Therefore who buys and sells is a trader. A trader is a middleman between the producer and the consumer.

3. Transportation: Goods produced are to be sent to different places where they are demanded. It is done by transporting.

4. Banking: To start the business or to run it smoothly, we need money. Banks supply money in the form of loan. Business activities cannot be undertaken unless funds are available. The funds can be obtained from the bank.

5. Insurance: Business involves many types of risks. Factory building, machinery, furniture must be protected against fire, theft and other risks. Employees are also protected against the risk of accident. Insurance provides protection in all such cases.

6. Warehousing: Usually goods are not sold or consumed immediately after the production. They are to be kept in stock to make them available as and when required. Warehousing helps the firms to overcome the problem of storage and stores the goods for future usage.

[OR]

(b) A Joint stock company is a distinct form of business organisation. It is useful to overcome the limitations of sole trader and partnership. There are so many features of company. What are the characteristics of Joint stock company?
Answer:
Characteristics of a Joint stock Company:
1. Separate legal entity:
Under Incorporation a company becomes a separate legal entity as compared to its members. The company is distinct and different from its members.

2. Limited Liability:
The liability of the members of the company is limited to contribution to the assets of the company upto the face value of shares held by him. A member is liable, to pay only the uncalled money due on shares held by him.

3. Transferability of shares:
Shares in a company can be freely transferable. When a member transfers his shares to another person, the transferee becomes the shareholder of the company.

4. Common Seal:
A company is an artificial person and does not have a physical presence. So the common seal is necessary because the company cannot sign the documents. It is the official signature of the company.

5. One Share – One Vote:
The principle of voting in a company is one share – one vote. If a person has 10 shares, he has 10 votes in the company. So in a company, money is given more importance than a man.

Question 45 (a).
List out the advantages of international trade?
Answer:

1. Geographical Specialization: Countries across the world differ significantly in terms of natural resources, capital equipment, manpower, technology and land and so on.
2. Optimum use of Natural Resources: International business operates on a simple principle that a country which can produce more efficiently and trade the surplus production with other countries has to procure what it cannot produce more efficiently.
3. Economic Development: International business helps the developing countries greatly in achieving rapid economic development by importing machinery, equipment, technology, talent, and so on.
4. Generation of Employment: International business generates employment opportunities by assisting the expansion and growth of agricultural and industrial activities.
5. Higher Standard of Living: On account of international business, the citizens of the country can buy more varieties of goods and services which cannot be produced cost effectively within the home country.
6. Price Equilisation: International business helps to stabilize the prices of various commodities which are fluctuating on a daily basis in the world market.
7. Prospects for Higher Profit: International business helps the firms which produce goods in excess to sell them at relatively higher price to various countries in the international market.
8. Capacity Utilisation: International business enables the firms across the country to sell their goods and services on a large scale in the international market.
9. International Peace: International business makes countries across the world become inter-dependent while these countries are independent in their functioning.

[OR]

(b) Write down the structure of capital account?
Answer:
Capital account consists of three components:

1. Private Capital
2. Banking Capital
3. Official Capital

1. Private Capital:
Private capital consists of foreign investments, long term loan and foreign currency deposits.

2. Banking Capital:
Banking capital includes movement into external financial asset and liabilities commercial and co-operative banks authorized to dealing in foreign exchange.

3. Official Capital:
It includes RBI’s holdings of foreign currency and special drawing rights (SDR) held by the Government.

Question 46 (a).
What are the advantages of sole trading business?
Answer:
1. Easy Formation:
No legal formalities are required to initiate a sole trading concern. Any person capable of entering into a contract can start it, provided he has the necessary resources for it.

2. Incentive to Work hard:
There is a direct relationship between effort and reward. The fact that the entire profit can be taken by himself without sharing with anybody else induces him to work ceaselessly.

3. Small Capital:
Small capital is an important as well as specific advantage of sole proprietorship. Sole proprietor can start business with small capital.

4. Credit Standing:
Since his private properties are held liable for satisfying business debts, he can get more financial assistance from others.

5. Personal Contact with the Customers:
Since sole proprietor knows each and every customer individually he can supply goods according to their taste and preferences. Thus he can cultivate personal relationship with the customers.

6. Flexibility:
The sole trader can easily adjust himself to the changing requirements of his business.

[OR]

(b) What are the factors influencing a channel of distribution? Explain any five?
Answer:
The factors affecting a channel of distribution are as follows:

1. Product Characteristics:
Seasonal products are distributed through less layer of middlemen. Non standardized products that are made according to customer specifications may be delivered directly.

2. Market Characteristics:
The size of the market for the goods is a major factor while selecting the route for distribution of products.

3. Number of Consumers:
Large purchases made by few consumers require centralised distribution.

4. Middlemen factor:
Middlemen who are experienced and have produced more sales are wanted by all producers. Long channel naturally increases the cost and price of the product.

5. Capacity of the Manufacturer:
A financially strong producer may select a high technology oriented channel which will reduce cost in the long run.

Question 47 (a).
Explain the features of a government company?
Answer:
The features of a government company:

1. Registration Under the Companies Act:
A Government company is formed through registration under the Companies Act, 1956; and is subject to the provisions of this Act, like any other company.

However, the Central Government may direct that any of the provisions of the Companies Act shall not apply to a Government company or shall apply with certain modifications. .

2. Executive Decision of Government:
A Government company is created by an executive decision of the Government, without seeking the approval of the Parliament or the State Legislature.

3. Separate Legal Entity:
A Government company is a legal entity separate from the Government. It can acquire property; can make contracts and can file suits, in its own name.

4. Whole or Majority Capital Provided by Government:
The whole or majority (at least 51%) of the capital of a Government company is provided by the Government; but the revenues of the company are not deposited into the treasury.

5. Majority of Government Directors:
Being in possession of a majority of share capital, the Government has authority to appoint majority of directors, on the Board of Directors of a government company.

[OR]

(b) What are the advantages of co-operatives? Explain any five?
Answer:
Advantages of co – operatives:

1. Voluntary organisation:
The membership of a cooperative society is open to all. Any person with common interest can become a member. The membership fee is kept low so that everyone would be able to join and benefit from cooperative societies.

2. Easy formation:
Cooperatives can be formed much easily when compared to a company. Any 10 members who have attained majority can join together for forming a cooperative society by observing simple legal formalities.

3. Democracy:
A co – operative society is run on the principle of ‘one man one vote’. It implies that all members have equal rights in managing the affairs of the enterprises.

4. Equal distribution of surplus:
The surplus generated by the cooperative societies is distributed in an equitable manner among members. Therefore all the members of the cooperative society are benefited.

5. Limited liability:
The liability of the members in a cooperative society is limited to the extent of their capital contribution. They cannot be personally held liable for the debts of the society.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 4 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 4

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
She yanked at the zip of the bag.
(a) jerked
(b) yearned
(c) yelled
(d) jumped
Answer:
(a) jerked

Question 2.
The felicitation programme was highly commendable.
(a) falcon
(b) congratulatory
(c) felling
(d) calliper
Answer:
(b) congratulatory

Question 3.
I dare not answer my mother when she is hysterical.
(a) avoid
(b) dauntless
(c) desire
(d) aggravate
Answer:
(b) dauntless

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
I had to ponder on the situation.
(a) consider
(b) contemplate
(c) ignore
(d) reflect
Answer:
(c) ignore

Question 5.
I relished the fruit and its taste.
(a) savoured
(b) enjoyed
(c) disliked
(d) candies
Answer:
(c) disliked

Question 6.
The students protested against child abuse.
(a) dissent
(b) proclaimed
(c) accepted
(d) averted
Answer:
(c) accepted

Question 7.
Choose the blended form of “picture and element”.
(a) pixel
(b) picel
(c) piclem
(d) picment
Answer:
(a) pixel

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “cartography”.
(a) One who is tenacious of a strict adherence to official formalities
(b) The ethical theory that pleasure is the highest good and proper aim of human life
(c) Prejudice, stereotyping, or discrimination on the basis of a person’s sex or gender
(d) The science of drawing maps
Answer:
(d) The science of drawing maps

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom ‘Back to the drawing board’.
{a) The person you are talking about arrives
(b) Do something to save money
(c) Do or say something exactly right
(d) Failure leads to a time to start all over
Answer:
(d) Failure leads to a time to start all over

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
Mithwin really likes singing karaoke, even though he doesn’t have an amazing voice,
(a) songs with karate steps
(b) baila
(c) country songs
(d) sing along
Answer:
(d) sing along

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “land”.
(a) owner
(b) lord
(c) rent
(d) estate
Answer:
(b) lord

Question 12.
Form a new word by adding a suitable prefix to the root word “charge”.
(a) sur
(b) pre
(c) un
(d) out
Answer:
(a) sur

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “DARE”.
(a) Documentation Automatic Retrieval Equipment
(b) Documents Arrangements Retrieval Equipment
(c) Documentation Automatic Retrieval Experience
(d) Drug Abuse Resistance Education
Answer:
(d) Drug Abuse Resistance Education

Question 14.
Choose the correct sentence pattern.
He shows kindness to his patients.
(a) SVOA
(b) SVOIO
(c) SVIODO
(d) SVCA
Answer:
(b) SVOIO

Question 15.
One who is concerned with usefulness is called as …………
(a) Psychiatrist
(b) Technologist
(c) Pragmatist
(d) Editorialist
Answer:
(c) Pragmatist

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
Ram was a thin, tall and handsome bachelor ………. a Roman nose.
(a) far
(b) with
(c) of
(d) on
Answer:
(b) with

Question 17.
Add a suitable question tag to the following statement.
Nobody could do it, ……….. ?
(a) could they
(b) should they
(c) have they
(d) ain’t they
Answer:
(a) could they

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
The press release said the band split up because of problems among artists.
(a) problems
(b) creative indifference
(c) creative differences
(d) fights
Answer:
(c) creative differences

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
Dravid was so far away, we really couldn’t make out what he was trying to say.
(a) understand
(b) deliver
(c) hear
(d) record
Answer:
(a) understand

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun.
What is the name of the prison ……… Nelson Mandela stayed?
(a) which
(b) when
(c) where
(d) whose
Answer:
(c) where

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“To unlearn all these muting things
Most of all, I want to relearn”
(a) What does the poet want to relearn?
(b) Explain ‘muting things’.
Answer:
(a) The poet has forgotten to laugh naturally. He wants to relearn to laugh because his laugh in front of the mirror shows his teeth like a snake’s bare fangs.
(b) Muting things are; superficial and unnatural behaviours like portrait smiles and heartless handshake.

Question 22.
“The birds around me hopp’d and play’d
Their thoughts I cannot measure,
But the least motion which they made
It seem’d a thrill of pleasure”
(а) What is the rhyme scheme?
(b) Name the poem and poet.
Answer:
(a) The rhyme scheme is ‘abab’.
(b) The poem is ‘Lines Written in Early Spring’ written by William Wordsworth.

Question 23.
“A life that knows no kneeling and bending
We are proud and feel so tall”
(a) What kind of a life, does the poet talk about?
(b) Pick out the alliterated words.
Answer:
(a) The poet speaks about a life where there is no necessity to stoop before others for any ‘gain’. This makes people live with self-dignity which makes them feel proud.
(b) A life that knows no kneeling and bending.

Question 24.
“I live with bread like you, feel want,
Taste grief, need friends – subjected thus,
How can you say to me, I am a king?”
(а) Mention the figure of speech employed in the last line.
(b) What is surprising about the king’s words to his loyal friends?
Answer:
(а) Interrogation
(b) The king feels he is also an ordinary mortal deceived by the jester ‘death’. He also needs to taste grief and needs the support of friends during distress. This surprises his loyal friends.

Question 25.
“His coat is dusty from neglect, his whiskers are uncombed.”
(а) How does Macavity differ from domestic/tamed cat?
(b) Identify the figure of speech.
Answer:
(a) Macavity’s coat is dusty. His whiskers are uncombed.
(b) Personification.

Question 26.
“With all my heart I do admire Athletes who sweat for fun or hire,”
(a) Pick out the rhyming words.
(b) What does the second line mean?
Answer:
(a) Admire and hire are the rhyming words.
(b) The second line means there are two categories of athletes. The first play just for pleasure. The second category is players who are hired by corporate to play the big leagues or tournaments.

(ii) Do as Directed: (Answer any three) [3 × 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Rewrite into Direct speech:
Anitha : I want to order a big pineapple cake for my brother’s birthday.
Confectioner : When is it?
Answer:
Anne told a confectioner that she wanted to order a big birthday cake for her brother. The confectioner asked when his birthday was.

Question 28.
Change into passive/active voice of the following sentence.
The Baboon tasted the sour grapes.
Answer:
The sour grapes was tasted by the Baboon.

Question 29.
Put the milk in the fridge. It will go sour. (Combine using ‘if’)
Answer:
If you don’t put the milk in the fridge, it will go sour.

Question 30.
He was ill, but he came for practice. (Change into a simple sentence)
Answer:
In spite of his illness he came for practice.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
………. and feel
At home, once, twice
Answer:
Reference: This line is from the poem, “Once upon a time” written by Gabriel Okara.

Context: The poet says these words while describing people’s attitude if someone visits their house.

Explanation: The semblance of cordiality will disappear if one visits for the third time. When they say “feel at home”, it applies only once or twice. In fact, they would shut the door on his face. One should not believe those words and visit their houses frequently. Familiarity breeds contempt.

Question 32.
The birds around me hopp’d and play’d,
Their thoughts I cannot measure,
Answer:
Reference : These lines are from the poem “Lines Written in Early Spring” written by William Wordsworth.

Context: The poet says these words while enjoying the beauty and peace that prevailed in the woodland. The poet said these words while trying to fathom their thoughts.

Explanation : The poet was overwhelmed with delight in the company of birds, plant kingdom and the brook. The birds were oblivious to the presence of the poet. They hopped and chirped around him in absolute bliss. He tried hard to understand the thoughts of the birds through the bird’s language. But he couldn’t succeed. He simply inferred that they were thrilled and enjoying the jocund company.

Question 33.
(I might mention Mungojerrie, I might mention Griddlebone)
Are nothing more than agents for the Cat who all the time.
Just controls their operations: the Napoleon of Crime.
Answer:
Reference: These words are from the poem “Macavity – the mystery cat” written by T.S. Eliot.

Context: The poet compares the leadership skills of Macavity to his own fictional characters.

Explanation: Those functional characters Mungojerrie and Griddlebone portrayed in T.S. Eliot’s “Old Possom’s book of Practical Cats” are not to be compared with Macavity. He is a commander in chief of criminals or Napolean of criminals. He directs all thefts and crimes in London very cleverly.

(ii) Answer any two of the following briefly: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 34.
Why did the grandma chant the morning prayer in a sing song voice?
Answer:
Grandma started the mornings with a sing-song prayer because she wanted the author to learn the prayers by heart.

Question 35.
What should the youngsters aim in life after their graduation?
Answer:
The youngsters should aim in life after graduation for an aristocracy of achievements arising out of a democracy of opportunities. As youngsters they should aim at toning up the society, bringing light into dark alleys, sunshine into dingy places, solace into the afflicted, hope into the despondent and a new life into every one.

Question 36.
When does human memory work with less than its usual capacity?
Answer:
Human memory works with less than its usual capacity in matters like taking medicine. The author explains that human memory represents the willingness to remember certain things. It forgets what it does not wish to remember. Humans are blessed with “selective amnesia”.

(iii) Answer any three of the following briefly: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Re-arrange the shuffled words and frame into meaningful sentences, (change to pie chart/graph or table)

1. the/Indian/English/exploited/the farmers.
2. on/camel/has/hump/its/a/big/back.
3. elephant/land animal/present/largest/is/day/the/of/the.

Answer:

1. The English exploited the Indian farmers.
2. Camel has a big hump on its back.
3. Elephant is the largest land animal of the present day.

Question 38.
Build a dialogue of minimum three exchanges between a waiter and a customer.
Answer:
Kavya : Could I get something to eat immediately?
Waiter : Yes Ma’am. We have hot idlies.
Kavya : Do you have Podi Dosa?
Waiter : Yes ma’am, we do have Podi Dosa.
Kavya : Can you give two sets of Podi Dosa with a vada please?
Waiter : Yes ma’am, it will be served in ten minutes.

Question 39.
Describe the process of polishing your shoes.
Answer:

1. Shoes are cleaned of dust with a brush.
2. A layer of polish is coated over the shoes.
3. One should wait a little till the polish soaks the leather.
4. Then shoes are brushed to shine.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the words given below.
(a) Every cloud has a ……… lining, (golden, silver, white)
(b) Fortune favors the ……….. (brave, courageous, poor)
(c) Get out while the going is ………… (good, high, best)
Answer:
(a) silver
(b) brave
(c) good

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
How does the speaker highlight the importance of giving back to the society?
Answer:
The graduates have drawn largely from the social chest. The largest taken from the society needs to be replenished. If graduates fail to pay back, ordinary people’s coffer will be empty. The supervisor’s education enjoins greater responsibility to society. Apart from their own individual advancement, society has got a right to expect an adequate return from the graduates. The society does not expect them to payback in cash. But they must pay back in terms of service. They should tone up the society by bringing a light into the dark alleys. They should herald sunshine into dingy places. They must give solace to the affiliated people. They should also give hope unto the despondent and thus ensure a new life unto every one.

[OR]

What are the observations of Lynd on the capacity of humans to remember and forget things?
Answer:
Robert Lynd is amazed at the efficiency of human memory. Modem man remembers telephone numbers, names of film stars, cricketers, football champions and even notorious murderers. He remarks wittily that man does not forget a single item of his clothing. No one forgets to shut the door when leaving the house. The institution of family survives in modem cities because ordinary people have extraordinary memory power. In some matters, the memory is less than perfect, causes could be psychological. We tend to forget things we don’t wish to remember.

For example, many people forget to take medicines. Medicine needs to be taken before / after meals. Robert Lynd remarks that chemists make a lot of money because people tend to forget to take medicines. It aggravates the disease and people are forced to buy more and more medicines. Most people forget to post.letters. The author himself would not trust his letters to be posted by others. The author himself never remembered to post letters entrusted to him. He had to apologise for the unposted letters kept with him for long. Likewise, the author forgets his walking sticks often.

Question 42.
“Face is the index of the mind.” Does this adage concur with the views of the poet?
Answer:
Unlike the people of the past, people in modem times “laugh only with their teeth” while their ice-block cold eyes search for something. Now, people shake hands without hearts. There is no human warmth in social relations. While they shake hands, they look for evidences to judge the financial status of a person. People say ‘feel at home’ and ‘come again’. But if a person visits a third time he is not welcomed. They all have cocktail faces ready for all occasions. Their conforming smiles are like fixed portrait smiles. They wear standard, deceitful, artificial smile for all occasions. They have faces like masks.

The poet has learnt from them how to use faces like dresses, home face, office face, street face, host face etc. Their faces, like the teeth of the elephant, show only what is accepted. The ugly side of their personality is cleverly hidden behind their deceitful smiles and polite words. So, the poet’s views do not concur with the adage “Face is the index of the mind”.

[OR]

Write a short summary of the poem “The Hollow Crown”.
Answer:
Shakespeare portrays the fleeting nature of human glory. King Richard II, on the verge of surrender to his rebellious cousin Bolingbroke, talks about the nature of temporal power and death. He talks about graves, epitaphs and worms. He explains how even monarchs leave nothing behind as their own except a small patch of land in which they are buried. The dejected king talks on various ways kings get killed. Some are slain in the battle field, some poisoned to death by their own spouses.

The kings who believed their bodies to be impregnable brass are shattered by just a pinprick. In fact, death is in supreme command which waits for the king, and only allows the king to act as if he were ruling and in control of everything. He chides his loyal friends who still believe that he is a monarch and tells them that he is an ordinary mortal just like them. He is humbled as he is powerless before the impending death.

Question 43.
Write an essay of about 150 words by developing the following hints.
C.V. Burgess-master craftsman-reveals-few names-first patient Joe-wife Emily- surgical room-Emily apprehensive-two children-Dorothea-Dentist hospital becomes play area-snobbish woman-whole play resolves-dramatic irony of patients’ guess- the dentists’ room -opening the tool cabinet-The groaning noise-vexation of Emily-Joe add to the dramatic irony-nurse moves about-feigned seriousness-the fact of the misplacement of key-which adds comic.
Answer:
C.V. Burgess is a master craftsman who reveals only a few names. The first patient Joe and his wife Emily are the most dominant characters. Joe is inside the surgical room. Emily is anxious about the husband. Among the two children the dramatist uses only the girl’s name Dorothea and the Dentist hospital becomes a play area for Dorothea and the little boy who claim the same magazine for reading. The snobbish woman who goes on showing her photo album gives us an impression if she came to see the doctor or to show her photos.

The whole play revolves around the dramatic irony of patients’ guess as to what happened inside the dentists’ room and what really happened. The pliers, hack saw and the huge hammer were taken inside the dentist’s room only for opening the tool cabinet. But the patients wondered how these would be used in dental surgery. The groaning noise from inside the dentist’s rooms and the vexation of Emily Joe add to the fear of the patients waiting. A few women patients leave the waiting room scared of subjecting themselves to the torture of having their bad teeth extracted with carpentry tools. The nurse moves about with all feigned seriousness without disclosing the fact of the misplacement of key.

[OR]

Miss Meadows, a music teacher – gets a letter – feels upset – Fiance not interested – reflects her gloom on students – changes the happy song to a sad one – Headmistress calls – delivers a telegram – Fiance agrees to wedding – Meadows happy – changes the song again to a cheerful one.
Answer:
Miss Meadow was heart-broken. The letter written by Basil had pierced her heart and she was bleeding. Her hatred and anger became a knife and she carried it with her. Her icy cold response to Science Mistress demonstrates it. She is least bothered about the tender feelings of young children who look at her face all time for a friendly nod or smile of approval.

Her favourite pupil Mary Beazley is baffled at her treatment of the chrysanthemum she had brought with so much love. The choice of the song “A lament” perfectly jells well with her worst mood. She is in fact in her heart lamenting over the loss of love, trust and future hopes. She is unnecessarily severe with young children forcing them to redo the singing which drives them to despair, pain and tears they manage to stifle.

After she receives the telegram from Basil apologizing for his insane letter, her mood changes to joy. She takes the chrysanthemum and keeps it close to her lips to conceal her blush. She goads the children to sing a song of joy congratulating someone for success. She persuades them to show warmth in their voices. Her warm and lively voice dominates the tremulous voices of the young ones. The young ones now realize that Miss Meadow who was in a wax earlier is now in her elements.

Question 44.
Write a summary or make notes of the following passage.
Moral courage is of the mind, while physical courage is of the body; but mind and body are so closely connected that I think it is impossible to separate the one sort of courage from the other. In many instances of human daring, moral courage combined with physical to a resolute endurance of physical suffering becomes added to a consciousness of duty. But while physical courage in a human being implies at the least, the moral courage implies much more.

This moral courage is the courage which braces us always to do our duty. This is the noblest form of courage and yet it is the courage most commonly required. It is the courage which everyday, almost every hour demands of us all.
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 123
No. of words to be written in the summary: 123/3 = 41 ± 5

Rough Draft
Moral courage is of the mind and physical courage of the body. Human daring involves both and duty consciousness. It is impossible to separate the one sort of courage from the other. Of the two, moral courage is the noblest form of courage which is demanded of us all the time.

Fair Draft
Moral Courage Vs Physical Courage
Moral courage is of the mind and physical courage of the body. Human daring involves both and duty consciousness. Of the two, moral courage is the noblest form of courage which is demanded of us all the time.

No. of words in the summary: 38

[OR]

Note-making
Title: Moral Courage Vs Physical Courage Courage
Answer:
Courage
Mind – Moral courage
Body – Physical coinage
Human daring involves
both moral and physical courage and consciousness of duty Moral courage
inspires us to do our duty – needed all the time.

Question 45.
You are Neena. The wedding of your elder sister Meena is going to be held on the 15th May, 2020 at Hotel Lake View, Ooty. Write an informal invitation to your friend Sherrin requesting her to attend the function.
Answer:

20th April, 2020

From
Neena
2, Gandhi street
Ooty

To
Sherrin
12, Hill view Road,
Raj Nagar,
Ooty.
Dear Sherrin,

You will be pleased to know that the wedding of my elder sister Meena is going to be held on the 15th May, 2020 at Hotel Lake View, Ooty. The whole family will move there in the morning. I invite you to join us at lunch in the hotel on the 15th. The wedding ceremony will take place at 8 in the evening.
I do hope you will join us on the auspicious occasion.

Yours sincerely,
Neena
Address on the Envelope
To
Sherrin
12, Hill view Road
Raj Nagar
Ooty

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘Self medication is an unhealthy practice’.
Answer:
Self-medication is defined as the selection and use of medicines by individuals to treat self- diagnosed symptoms. Self-medication is thought to reduce the load on the medical services, decrease the time spent in waiting to see the physician, and save cost especially among economically deprived people. Since it is instant, there is no expense of the doctor but when they ultimately suffer from severe health issues, their medical expense increases two-fold.

Self-medication as a habit can damage one’s health irrevocably, causing disabilities and even premature death. Self-medication is okay to many of us. It’s just a crocin or some ‘safe’ antibiotic we believe we are taking as going to the doctor can be time consuming and expensive. But there are side-effects to this and very harmful ones at that. The idea of self¬medication even for small health issues can lead to complications. People tend to pop pills as they are popping candies. Medicines such as pain relief drugs, cough syrups, laxatives, antibiotics, anti-allergy medicines, vitamins and even antacids. Since these are drugs that can be bought over the counter meds, these are easier to acquire.

Popping pills may get us instant relief but what we don’t realize is that it is. not free of side-effects. This is because one drug may react differently when consumed with another drug. This can even lead to death. Hence, consulting a doctor is a must and self-medication is an unhealthy practice.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(а) Children are fond to coconuts.
(b) After all a sculptor’s labours had came to an end.
(c) As he looking on, he was overwhelmed by the image.
(d) All the furnitures in her house is sold.
(e) Each of the student has participated in the competition.
Answer:
(a) Children are fond of coconuts.
(b) After all a sculptor’s labours had come to an end.
(c) As he looked on, he was overwhelmed by the image.
(d) All the furniture in her house is sold.
(e) Each of the students has participated in the competition.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(a) When teaching my daughter how to drive, I told her if she didn’t hit the ………. in time she would ……….. the car’s side mirror, (break/ brake)
(b) ………. you like a cup of tea? (Fill in with a modal verb)
(c) We ……….. go grocery shopping, (use semi-modal)
(d) Take my umbrella ………… rain. (Use a suitable link word)
Answer:
(a) brake, break
(b) Would
(c) need to
(d) in case of

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below.
(a) General Elections take place after every five years in India.
(b) The Reserve Bank revised the interest rate.
(c) One thousand interest connections were given in Pollachi.
(d) The new serial will begin on Monday.
(e) Athletics rarely gets coverage in the Media.
(Commerce, Politics, Sports, Maths, Computer)
Answer:
(a) Politics
(b) Commerce
(c) Computer
(d) Media
(e) Sports

[OR]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
It is not the pride or incivility on either side that keeps us remote from each other. It is simply our London way. People are so plentiful that they lose their identity…. In London men are as lonely as Oysters, each living in his own shell. We go out in the country to find neighbours. If the man next door took a cottage a mile away from me in the country. I should probably know all about him, his affairs, his family, his calling and his habits inside a week. This is not always so idyllic as it seems. Village life can be poisoned by neighbours until the victim pines for the solitude of a London street, where neighbours are so plentiful that you are no more conscious of their individual existence than if they were black berries on a hedge row.
Questions.

1. What keeps people in London remote from each other?
2. How are men described? Why?
3. Why do we seek country life?
4. What is the disadvantage of village life?
5. What can you say in this context about our interaction with our neighbours the life style in our country?

Answer:

1. People are so plentiful that they lose their identity.
2. Men are described as oyster shells. The being inside the oyster shell never wishes to know who lives outside.
3. We seek country life to find neighbours.
4. Village life is not idyllic. Neighbours tend to poison village life.
5. India has not deteriorated to the level of London city. We still care for the neighbours as neighbours care for us.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2:30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – 1

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Wholesalers buy in ………………………… quantity of goods.
(a) Small
(b) Large
(c) Medium
(d) Limited
Answer:
(b) Large

Question 2.
Small scale fixed retailers include ……………………..
(a) General stores
(b) Pedlars
(c) Cheap jacks
(d) Hawkers
Answer:
(a) General stores

Question 3.
In India, GST became effective from ………………………
(a) 1^st April 2017
(b) 1^st January 2017
(c) 1^st July 2017
(d) 1^st March 2017
Answer:
(a) 1^st April 2017

Question 4.
‘One share – one vote’ principle is followed in kind of organization.
(a) Co – operatives
(b) Partnership
(c) Company
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Company

Question 5.
……………………. is not a type of general insurance.
(a) Marine insurance
(b) Life insurance
(c) Fidelity insurance
(d) Fire insurance
Answer:
(b) Life insurance

Question 6.
Self – help groups convert the sayings into a common find known as ……………………..
(a) Common fund
(b) Group corpus fund
(c) Group fund
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Group corpus fund

Question 7.
A major disadvantage of sole proprietorship is ……………………….
(a) Limited liability
(b) Unlimited liability
(c) Easy formation
(d) Quick decision
Answer:
(b) Unlimited liability

Question 8.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Mercantile agents – Functional middleman
(b) Merchant middleman – Wholesalers
(c) Retailer – Small quantities
(d) Wholesaler – Last middleman in the distribution
Answer:
(d) Wholesaler – Last middleman in the distribution

Question 9.
From which of the following deposit holders can get overdraft facilities?
(a) Savings deposits
(b) Current deposits
(c) Recurring deposits
(d) Fixed deposits
Answer:
(b) Current deposits

Question 10.
The role of government in logistics management is through ……………………….
(a) Legislations
(b) Governance
(c) Transport
(d) Distribution
Answer:
(d) Distribution

Question 11.
The local area banks are promoting ………………………
(a) Rural savings
(b) Business savings
(c) Industrial development
(d) Agricultural development
Answer:
(a) Rural savings

Question 12.
Way bill is a document issued by ………………………
(a) Railway transport
(b) Air transport
(c) Road transport
(d) Water transport
Answer:
(c) Road transport

Question 13.
The types of development banks are ……………………….
(I) IFCI
(II) State Bank of India
(III) MUDRA Bank
(IV) Karur Vysya Bank
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (IV)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) (I) and (III)

Question 14.
Auxiliaries to trade is also called as ……………………..
(a) Trade
(b) Advertisement
(c) Warehousing
(d) Aids to trade
Answer:
(d) Aids to trade

Question 15.
Consumers co-operation was first successful in …………………………
(a) England
(b) USA
(c) Swiss
(d) India
Answer:
(a) England

Question 16.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List – 1	List – 2
(i) Overdraft	1. Debit card
(ii) ATM card	2. Short term credit instrument
(iii) Time deposit	3. Current deposits
(iv) Discounting of bills	4. Fixed deposits

Answer:
Codes:

Question 17.
Who is the first middleman in the channel of distribution?
(a) Wholesaler
(b) Producer
(c) Retailer
(d) Customer
Answer:
(a) Wholesaler

Question 18.
Find out which is not advantage of partnership from the following:
(a) Easy formation
(b) Division of work
(c) Limited liability
(d) Easy dissolution
Answer:
(c) Limited liability

Question 19.
Presently IRDAI headquarters is in ……………………….
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Chennai
(c) Mumbai
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(a) Hyderabad

Question 20.
The aggregate income under fine heads is termed as ……………………….
(a) Gross total income
(b) Total income
(c) Salary income
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Total income

PART – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory: [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Who are middlemen?
Answer:
The term ‘middlemen’ refers to all those who are in the link between the primary producer and the ultimate consumer in the exchange of goods or service.

Question 22.
Mention any four examples of MNC?
Answer:
A multinational company is one which is incorporated in one country, but it may be operated in many countries. Examples: Coca – Cola, International Business Machine (IBM), Sony Corporation and Microsoft Corporation.

Question 23.
There are various hindrances in business. The manufacturers and consumers do not know each other. But the goods are purchased and sold by these two persons. What kind of hindrance is this? How is it removed?
Answer:
This is ‘hindrance of a person’. Manufacturers do not know the consumer, who is using the products, produced by him. This difficulty or hindrance is removed by the traders.

Question 24.
Give any three functions of warehouses?
Answer:

1. Storage
2. Price stabilization
3. Equalization of demand and supply

Question 25.
What is meant by private company?
Answer:
Private limited company is a type of company which is formed with minimum two shareholders and two directors, the minimum requirement with respect to authorised or paid up capital of Rs. 1,00,000 has been omitted by the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2015 w.e.f. 29^th of May, 2015.

Another crucial condition of a private limited company is that it by its articles of association restricts the right to transfer its shares and also prohibits any invitation to the public to subscribe for any securities of the company.

Question 26.
Is low taxes possible in co – operative society?
Answer:
Yes, Low taxes are possible in co – operative society because it is a non-profit enterprise, and government provides various exemptions and tax concessions.

Question 27.
Write any two advantages of water transport?
Answer:

1. It is considered as the cheapest mode of transport among the other modes of transport.
2. It is most suitable for heavy loads.

Question 28.
What are the non-corporate enterprises?
Answer:

1. Sole trading concern
2. Partnership firm
3. Joint Hindu family business

Question 29.
Mention any three differences between warehouse warrant and warehouse receipt?
Answer:

Warehouse Warrant	Warehouse Receipt
1. It is a document of title of goods.	1. It is not a document of title of goods.
2. It is not only an acknowledgement for the receipt of goods but also gives an authority to get delivery of goods.	2. It is only an acknowledgement  the receipt of goods.
3. It can be given as a collateral security for getting loan.	3. Ita cannot be given as collateral security

Question 30.
Mention any four kinds of partners?
Answer:

1. Active partner
2. Sleeping partner
3. Nominal partner
4. Partner in profits only

PART – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory: [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
List the five heads of income?
Answer:
The five heads of income are:

1. Income from‘Salaries’ [Sections 15 – 17];
2. Income from ‘House Property’ [Sections 22 – 27];
3. Income from ‘Profits and Gains of Business or Profession’ [Sections 28 – 44];
4. Income from ‘Capital Gains’ [Sections 45 – 55]; and
5. Income from ‘Other Sources’ [Sections 56 – 59].

Question 32.
Explain the concept of business?
Answer:
Business refers to any human activity undertaken on a regular basis with the object to earn profit through production, distribution, sale or purchase of goods and services.

Business activities are connected with raising, producing or processing of goods. Industry creates form utility to goods by bringing materials into the form which is useful for intermediate consumption or final consumption by consumers.

Question 33.
Explain any three features of Self – Help Group?
Answer:

1. The motto of every group members should be “saving first – credit latter”.
2. Self Help Group is homogeneous in terms of economic status.
3. The ideal size of a Self Help Group ranges between 10 and 20 members.

Question 34.
Explain the features of general stores?
Answer:
General Stores sell a wide variety of products under one roof, most commonly found in a local market and residential areas to satisfy the day – to – day needs of the customers residing in nearby localities. They remain open for long hours at convenient timings and often provide credit facilities to their regular customers.

Question 35.
How is it possible to maintain secrecy in sole proprietorship?
Answer:
In sole proprietorship, the trader is the sole owner of the business. Since he/she manages all the affairs of the business, the secrecy can be maintained easily.

Question 36.
What is the importance of bonded warehouses?
Answer:
Bonded warehouses are those warehouses which are licensed by government. It is used to accept the storage of imported goods which are cleared for non – payment of customs duty by the importer. Strict supervision and control is imposed by customs authorities on their functioning.

Question 37.
Describe any three advantages of international trade?
Answer:
Advantages of international trade:

1. Optimum use of natural resources: International trade operates on a simple principle that a country can produce more efficiently and trade the surplus production.
2. Economic development: International trade helps the developing countries in achieving rapid economic development by importing machinery, technology and talent.
3. Generation of employment: International business generates employment opportunities by assisting the expansion and growth of agricultural and industrial activities.

Question 38.
What are the advantages of MNC?
Answer:
1. Low Cost Labour:
MNC set up their facilities in low cost countries and produce goods/services at lower cost.

2. Quality Products:
The resource, experience and expertise of MNCs in the sphere of research and development enables the host country to establish its research and development system which helps it in producing quality goods and services at least possible cost.

Question 39.
India is an agricultural country. It has so many villages. Agriculture is inevitable to our country. What kind of insurance is needed to safeguard agriculture?
Answer:
Crop insurance is taken for safeguarding the agriculture. This policy is to provide financial support to farmers in case of a crop failure due to drought or flood. It generally covers all risks of loss or damages relating to production of rice, wheat, millets, oil seeds and pulses.

Question 40.
Why is balance of payment prepared?
Answer:
Balance of payments help in framing monetary, fiscal and trade policies of country. Government keenly observes balance of payment position of its important trade partners in making policy decisions. It reveals whether a country produces enough economic output to pay for its growth.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Memorandum of Association is a legal document prepared to form and register a joint stock company. It reveals the powers and activities, the company is permitted to undertake. What are the contents of memorandum of Association? Explain?
Answer:
1. Name Clause:
The name clause requires you to state the legal and recognized name of the company. You are allowed to register a company name only if it does not bear any similarities with the name of an existing company.

2. Situation Clause:
The registered office clause requires you to show the physical location of the registered office of the company. You are required to keep all the company registers in this office in addition to using the office in handling all the outgoing and incoming communication correspondence.

3. Objective Clause:
The objective clause requires you to summarize the main objectives for establishing the company with reference to the requirements for shareholding and use of financial resources.

You also need to state ancillary objectives; that is, those objectives that are required to facilitate the achievement of the main objectives.

4. Liability Clause:
The liability clause requires you to state the extent to which shareholders of the company are liable to the debt obligations of the company in the event of the company dissolving.

You should show that shareholders are liable only their shareholding and/or to their commitment to contribute to the dissolution costs upon liquidation of a company limited by guarantee.

5. Capital Clause:
The capital clause requires you to state the company’s authorized share capital, the ’ different categories of shares and the nominal value (the minimum value per share) of the shares. You are also required to list the company’s assets under this clause.

6. Association Clause:
The association clause confirms that shareholders bound by the MOA are willingly associating and forming a company. You require seven members to sign an MOA for a public company and not less than two people for a MOA of a private company. You must conduct the signing in the presence of witness who must also append his signature.

[OR]

(b) Explain any five rights of partners?
Answer:

1. Right to take part in business: Every partner has a right to take part in the management of the business.
2. Right to be consultant: Every partner has the right to be consulted in all the matters concerning the firm. The decision of the majority will prevail in all the routine matters.
3. Right of access to books, record and document: Every partner has the right of access to all records and books of accounts, and to examine and copy them.
4. Right to share profit: Every partner is entitled to share the profits in the agreed ratio. If no profit-sharing ratio is specified in the deed, they must be shared equally.
5. Right to receive interest: A partner’ has the right to receive interest on loans advanced by him to the firm at the agreed rate, and where no rate is stipulated, interest @ 6% p.a. allowed.

Question 42 (a).
Explain the contents of prospectus?
Answer:
Prospectus means a document inviting the public to buy its shares or debentures. It also applies to advertisements inviting deposits from the public.

Contents:

1. The prospectus contains the main objectives of the company.
2. The name and address of the signatories of the Memorandum of Association.
3. The name, address and occupation of directors and managing directors.
4. The number and classes of shares and debentures.
5. The qualification share of directors.
6. The name and address of the vendors of any property acquired by the company.
7. Particulars about the directors, secretaries and the treasures and their remuneration.
8. The amount for the minimum subscription.
9. The estimated amount of preliminary expenses.
10. Name and address of the auditors, bankers and solicitors of the company,
11. Time and place where copies of balance sheets, profits and loss account and the auditor’s report may be inspected.

[OR]

(b) Write a note on Consumer Co – operative Society?
Answer:
A Consumer Co – operative Society is organized by consumers. It sells quality goods at better prices to the consumers.

Features:

1. It can sell the goods at a lesser price rather than the traditional retail stores.
2. They also supply essential goods through Public Distribution System (PDS).
3. Nationally, the most widely used co – operative form is the credit union.
4. Credit unions are essentially co – operatives of people that use banking services.
5. It purchases goods directly from the manufacturers, which helps to fix the lower price. – Example – Students Co – operative Stores, Supermarkets, etc.

Question 43 (a).
Goods were exchanged for goods prior to invention of money. Each party must have surplus goods for exchange. What does it mean? What are the constraints of that system?
Answer:
The system in which the goods were exchanged for goods was called ‘barter system’. The barter system has many constraints. They are:

1. Lack of double coincidence of Wants: Unless two persons who have surplus have the demand for the goods possessed by each other, barter could not materialize. If this “coincidence of wants” does not exist, Barter cannot take place.
2. Non – existence of common measure of value: Barter system could not determine the value of commodities to be exchanged as they lacked commonly acceptable measures to evaluate each and every commodity.
3. Lack of direct contact between producer and consumers: It was not possible for buyers and sellers to meet face to face in many contexts for exchanging the commodities for commodities.
4. Lack of surplus stock: Absence of surplus stock was one of the impediments in barter system. If the buyers and sellers do not have surplus then no barter was possible.

[OR]

(b) Describe any five objectives of business?
Answer:
1. Economic Objectives:
Economic objectives of business refer to the objective of earning profit and also other objectives that are necessary to be pursued to achieve the profit objective, which includes creation of customers, regular innovations and best possible use of available resources.

2. Social Objectives:
Social objective are those objectives of business, which are desired to be achieved for the benefit of the society. Since business operates in a society by utilizing its scarce resources, the society expects something in return for its welfare.

3. Organizational Objectives:
The organizational objectives denote those objectives an organization intends to accomplish during the course of its existence in the economy like expansion and modernization, supply of quality goods to consumers, customers’ satisfaction, etc.

4. Human Objectives:
Human objectives refer to the objectives aimed at the well – being as well as fulfillment of expectations of employees as also of people who are disabled, handicapped and deprived of proper education and training.

The human objectives of business may thus include economic well – being of the employees, social and psychological satisfaction of employees and development of human resources.

5. National Objectives:
Being an important part of the country, every business must have the objective of fulfilling national goals and aspirations.

Question 44 (a).
Banks can be classified as follows:

1. Based on the functions of banks
2. Based on the status given by RBI
3. Based on the ownership pattern

What are the banks based on functions or organization? Explain any five kinds of banks.
Answer:
1. Commercial banks:
Banks which accept deposits from the public and grant loans to traders, individuals, agriculture, industries, transport, etc. in order to earn profit. Their lending is in comparatively small amounts and mostly for short and medium period. e.g., State Bank of India.

2. Development Banks:
Huge finance required for investment, expansion and modernisation of big industries and others are granted by a separate type of banks called development Banks. They are also called industrial banks, e.g., IFCI, SIDBI.

3. Co – operative Banks:
All Co – operative banks in India are owned by its customers or members who are farmers, small traders and others. Co – operative banks in India are either urban based or rural based. e.g.,NAFED, Tamil Nadu State Apex Co-operative Bank – Head Office, Chennai.

4. Foreign Banks:
Banks which have registered office in a foreign country and branches in Ipdia are called foreign banks, e.g., Bank of America – USA.

5. Regional Rural Banks (RRBs):
The RRBs were formed under the Regional Rural Bank Act 1976, jointly by the Central Government, State Government, and a sponsor bank. e.g., Pandian Grama Bank.

[OR]

(b) In India Joint Hindu Family Business is a distinct form of organisation. A person can become member by his birth. What are the features of Joint Hindu Family Business? Explain any five features?
Answer:
Features of Joint Hindu Family Business are:

1. Governed by Hindu Law
2. Management
3. Membership by birth
4. Liability
5. Permanent existence
6. Implied authority of Karta
7. Minor as a co – parcener
8. Dissolution

Explanation:

1. Governed by Hindu law: The business of the Joint Hindu Family is controlled and managed by the hindu law.
2. Membership by birth: The membership of the family can be acquired only by birth. As soon as a male child is bom in the family, the child becomes a member.
3. Liability: Except the Kartha, the liability of all other members is limited to their shares in the business.
4. Minor also as a co-parcener: In a Joint Hindu Family firm even a new bom baby can be a co-parcener.
5. Dissolution: It can be dissolved only at the will of the members of the family.

Question 45 (a).
Explain any five types of Cooperative societies?
Answer:
Types of Co – operative societies:

1. Consumers Co – operative:
Consumer Co – operatives are organized by consumers that want to achieve better prices or quality in the goods or services they purchase. In contrast to traditional retail stores or service providers, a consumer co – operative exists to deliver goods or services rather than to maximize profit from selling those goods or services.

2. Producers Co – operative:
Producer co – operatives are created by producers and owned and operated by producers. Producers can decide to work together or as separate entities to help increase marketing possibilities and production efficiency.

3. Marketing Co – operative:
Co – operative marketing societies are associations of small producers formed for the purpose of marketing their produce. The marketing co-operatives perform certain marketing functions such as grading, warehousing, advertising etc.

4. Credit Co – operative:
Cooperative credit societies are societies formed for providing short-term financial help to their members. Agriculturists, artisans, industrial workers, salaried employees, etc., form these credit societies.

5. Housing Co – operative:
These co – operative housing societies are meant to provide residential accommodation to their members on ownership basis or on rent.

People who intend to build houses of their own join together and form housing societies. These societies advance loans to members, repayable over a period of 15 to 20 years.

[OR]

(b) Partnership is formed by an agreement. It may be oral or written. The agreement is called partnership deed. Explain the contents of partnership deed.
Answer:
The contents of partnership deed include:

1. Name: Name of the Firm.
2. Nature of Business: Nature of the proposed business to be carried on by the partners.
3. Duration of Partnership: Duration of the partnership business whether it is to be run for a fixed period of time or whether it is to be dissolved after completing a particular venture.
4. Capital Contribution: The capital is to be contributed by the partners. It must be remembered that capital contribution is not necessary to become a partner for, one can contribute his organising power, business acumen, managerial skill, etc., instead of capital.
5. Withdrawal from the Firm: The amount that can be withdrawn from the firm by each partner.
6. Profit/Loss Sharing: The ratio in which the profits or losses are to be shared. If the profit sharing ratio is not specified in the deed, all the partners must share the profits and bear the losses equally.
7. Interest on Capital: Whether any interest is to be allowed on capital and if so, the rate of interest.
8. Rate of Interest on Drawing: Rate of interest on drawings, if any.
9. Loan from Partners: Whether loans can be accepted from the partners and if so the rate of interest payable thereon.
10. Account Keeping: Maintenance of accounts and audit.
11. Salary and Commission to Partners: Amount of salary or commission payable to partners for their services. (Unless this is specifically provided, no partner is entitled to any salary).
12. Retirement: Matters relating to retirement of a partner. The arrangement to be made for paying out the amount due to a retired or deceased partner must also be stated.
13. Goodwill Valuation: Method of valuing goodwill on the admission, death or retirement of a partner.
14. Distribution of Responsibility: Distribution of managerial responsibilities. The work that is entrusted to each partner is better stated in the deed itself.
15. Dissolution Procedure: Procedure for dissolution of the firm and the mode of settlement of accounts thereafter.
16. Arbitration of Dispute: Arbitration in case of disputes among partners. The deed should provide the method for settling disputes or difference of opinion. This clause will avoid costly litigations.

Question 46 (a).
Explain the various primary functions of commercial banks?
Answer:
The primary functions of a commercial bank are of three types. They are:

(I) Accepting Deposits – The basic deposit accounts offered by commercial banks are listed below:

1. Demand Deposits: These deposits are repayable on demand on any day. These consist of –

• Savings Deposits: General public deposit their savings into this account. This account can be opened in one individual’s name or more than one name.
• Current Deposits: This account is suitable for business institutions. Individuals too . can open this account. A higher minimum balance should be kept in this account.

2. Time Deposits: These are repayable after a period. These include –

• Fixed Deposits (FD): Certain amount is deposited for a fixed period for a fixed rate of interest.
• Recurring Deposits (RD): Certain sum is deposited into the account every month for one year or five years or the agreed period. Interest rate is more than savings deposits and almost equal to fixed deposits.

(II) Granting Loans and Advances: Commercial banks lend money in order to earn interest.

1. Advances

• Overdraft: It is a credit facility extended mostly to current account holding business community customers.
• Cash Credit: It is a secured credit facility given mostly to business institutions. Stock in hand, raw materials, other tangible assets, etc., are provided as collateral.
• Discounting of Bills: Business customers approach banks to discount the commercial bills of exchanges and provide money.

2. Loans – Short term and medium term loans are provided by commercial banks against eligible collaterals to business concerns. Examples – housing loan, consumer loan, vehicle loan, educational loan, jewel loan, etc.

3. Creation of Credit – Apart from the currency money issued by the RBI, the credit money in circulation created by commercial banks influence economic activities of a country to a large extent. Credit money of commercial banks is far greater in volume than the currency money.

[OR]

(b) What are the advantages of warehousing?
Answer:

1. It safeguards the stock for the merchants who do not have storage place.
2. Warehouses reduce the distribution cost of the traders by storing the goods in bulk and allow the trader to take the goods in small lots to his shop.
3. It helps in selection of channel of distribution. The producer will prefer whether to appoint a wholesaler or retailer.
4. It assists in maintaining the continuous sale and avoid the possibilities of “Out of Stock”.
5. It creates employment opportunities for both skilled and unskilled workers to improve their standard of living.

Question 47 (a).
Explain the features of a government company?
Answer:
The features of a government company are:
1. Registration Under the Companies Act:
A Government company is formed through registration under the Companies Act, 1956; and is subject to the provisions of this Act, like any other company.

However, the Central Government may direct that any of the provisions of the Companies Act shall not apply to a Government company or shall apply with certain modifications.

2. Executive Decision of Government:
A Government, company is created by an executive decision of the Government, without seeking the approval of the Parliament or the State Legislature.

3. Separate Legal Entity:
A Government company is a legal entity separate from the Government. It can acquire property; can make contracts and can file suits, in its own name.

4. Whole or Majority Capital Provided by Government:
The whole or majority (at least 51%) of the capital of a Government company is provided by the Government; but the revenues of the company are not deposited into the treasury.

5. Majority of Government Directors:
Being in possession of a majority of share capital, the Government has authority to appoint majority of directors, on the Board of Directors of a government company.

[OR]

(b) What are the advantages of co – operatives? Explain any five?
Answer:
Advantages of co – operatives:
1. Voluntary organisation:
The membership of a co – operative society is open to all. Any person with common interest can become a member. The membership fee is kept low so that everyone would be able to join and benefit from co – operative societies.

2. Easy formation:
Co – operatives can be formed much easily when compared to a company. Any 10 members who have attained majority can join together for forming a co – operative spciety by observing simple legal formalities.

3. Democracy:
A co – operative society is run on the principle of ‘one man one vote’. It implies that all members have equal rights in managing the affairs of the enterprises.

4. Equal distribution of surplus:
The surplus generated by the co – operative societies is distributed in an equitable manner among members. Therefore all the members of the co – operative society are benefitted.

5. Limited liability:
The liability of the members in a co – operative spciety is limited to the extent of their capital contribution. They cannot be personally held liable for the debts of the society.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2:30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
………………….. is considered as an artificial person.
(a) Sole trader
(b) Joint Hindu family business
(c) Joint Stock company
(d) Co – operative societies
Answer:
(c) Joint Stock company

Question 2.
A contract with or by a minor is a ……………………
(a) Valid contract
(b) Void contract
(c) Voidable contract
(d) Voidable at the option of either party
Answer:
(b) Void contract

Question 3.
The largest commercial bank of India is ……………………….
(a) ICICI
(b) SBI
(c) PNB
(d) RBI
Answer:
(b) SBI

Question 4.
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Overdraft – More than one person
(b) RBI – Lender of last resort
(c) Partnership – Motor transport
(d) Life Insurance – Current Account
Answer:
(b) RBI – Lender of last resort

Question 5.
Hindrance of risk is removed by ……………………..
(a) Transport
(b) Warehouse
(c) Insurance
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Insurance

Question 6.
A mador disadvantage of a sole proprietorship is ……………………..
(a) Limited liability
(b) Unlimited liability
(c) Easy formation
(d) Quick decision
Answer:
(b) Unlimited liability

Question 7.
Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List – I	List – II
(i) PWD	1. Public corporation
(ii) ONGC	2. Joint enterprise
(iii) Ramesh Brothers	3. Departmental undertaking
(iv) Maruthi Suzuki	4. Partnership firm

Answer:
Codes:

Question 8.
Trade and Commerce was common to ……………………. dynasty.
(a) Pallava
(b) Chola
(c) Pandiya
(d) Chera
Answer:
(c) Pandiya

Question 9.
The external source of funds are ……………………
(I) Shares and debentures
(II) Retained earnings
(III) Collection from receivables
(IV) Borrowings from banks
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (IV)
(d) (I) and (III)
Answer:
(c) (I) and (IV)

Question 10.
What kind of tax is the GST?
(a) Direct tax
(b) Indirect tax
(c) On the type of goods and services
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Indirect tax

Question 11.
In 1969, there were …………………….. private banks which were nationalised.
(a) 19
(b) 14
(c) 20
(d) 15
Answer:
(b) 14

Question 12.
Wholesalers deal in quantity of goods.
(a) Small
(b) Large
(c) Medium
(d) Limited
Answer:
(b) Large

Question 13.
The persons who enter into partnership are collectively called as …………………..
(a) Partners
(b) Shareholders
(c) Owners
(d) Firm
Answer:
(d) Firm

Question 14.
Producers co – operatives are established and operated by …………………….
(a) Producers
(b) Consumers
(c) Traders
(d) Wholesalers
Answer:
(a) Producers

Question 15.
ONGC is a public enterprise. Identify the form of organisation.
(a) Public corporations
(b) Departmental undertaking
(c) Multinational corporations
(d) Government company
Answer:
(a) Public corporations

Question 16.
…………………….. is a document acknowledging the receipt of goods by a carrier.
(a) Waybill
(b) Consignment note
(c) Charter party
(d) Bill of lading
Answer:
(a) Waybill

Question 17.
Which company has minimum paid up capital of Rs 5,00,000?
(a) Government company
(b) Public company
(c) Private company
(d) Foreign company
Answer:
(c) Private company

Question 18.
From the following which is not a direct tax?
(a) Income tax
(b) Wealth tax
(c) GST
(d) Capital gains tax
Answer:
(c) GST

Question 19.
Business units can reduce expenditure by outsourcing front office work like ………………………
(a) Paperwork
(b) File work
(c) Billing
(d) Manufacturing
Answer:
(b) File work

Question 20.
The year in which income earned is known as …………………………
(a) Assessment year
(b) Previous year
(c) Light year
(d) Calendar year
Answer:
(b) Previous year

PART – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory: [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Define commerce?
Answer:
According to Evelyn Thomas, “Commercial operations deal with the buying and selling of goods, the exchange of commodities and the contribution of finished products”.

Question 22.
What is unlimited liability?
Answer:
Unlimited liability is a feature of sole trading business. When the sole trader’s business assets are not sufficient to pay off the business debts, he has to pay from his personal property.

Question 23.
Franchising is the practice of the right to use a firm’s business model and brand for a prescribed period of time. Who are the parties involved in franchising?
Answer:
There are two parties to a franchising agreement. They are:

1. Franchisor – The owner of a business who provides the franchise.
2. Franchisee – The individual who gets the right to operate the business or use the trademark.

Question 24.
Give any three functions of warehouses?
Answer:

1. Storage
2. Price stabilization
3. Equalization of demand and supply

Question 25.
A company is a large scale organization. Compared to sole trader and partnership organization, more profit can be received from the company. Mention any two advantages of a company?
Answer:
1. Large Capital:
A company can secure large capital compared to a sole trader or partnership. Large amount of capital is necessary for conducting business on a large scale.

2. Limited Liability:
The liability of a shareholder is limited. The risk of loss is limited to the unpaid amount on the face value of shares held. In the case of a company limited by shares, the liability of a shareholder is restricted to the unpaid amount on the shares held by him.

Question 26.
Give any two advantages of MNC?
Answer:
1. Low Cost Labour:
MNC set up their facilities in low cost countries and produce goods/services at lower cost.

2. Quality Products:
The resource, experience and expertise of MNCs in the sphere of research and development enables the host country to establish its research and development . system which helps it in producing quality goods and services at least possible cost.

Question 27.
List out any four types of indirect taxes levied in India?
Answer:

1. CGST
2. SGST
3. UGST
4. IGST

Question 28.
It was launched by the RBI in 2013. The transactions are settled on real time basis. What does it mean? Write a short note about this?
Answer:
Real Time Gross Settlement Systems (RTGS) was launched by the RBI in 2013. The transactions are settled on real time basis. Gross settlement means the transaction is settled between one bank and another bank without adding any other transactions.

Question 29.
State the different types of Public Sector Enterprises?
Answer:

1. Coal India Ltd
2. Gas Authority of India Ltd
3. Tamil Nadu State Transport Corporation
4. Steel Authority of India Ltd

Question 30.
Who is a sleeping partner?
Answer:
A sleeping partner is the one who contributes capital and shares in the profits or losses of the firm but does not take part in the management of the business.

PART – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory: [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Explain the features of general stores?
Answer:
General Stores sell a wide variety of products under one roof, most commonly found in a local market and residential areas to satisfy the day – to – day needs of the customers residing in nearby localities.

They remain open for long hours at convenient timings and often provide credit facilities to their regular customers.

Question 32.
Explain the characteristics of business?
Answer:
The essential characteristics of business are as follows:

1. Production or Procurement of Goods: Goods must be produced or procured in order to satisfy human wants.
2. Sale, Transfer or Exchange: There must be sale or exchange of goods or services.
3. Profit Motive: An important feature of business is profit motive. Business is an economic activity by which human beings make their living.
4. Dealing in Goods and Services: Goods produced or procured may be consumer goods like cloth, pen, brush, bag, etc., or producer-goods like plant and machinery.

Question 33.
All the affairs of a Joint Hindu Family are controlled by the manager. The other members are co-parceners. What is the other name of the manager in Joint Hindu Family? How does he control the business?
Answer:
The other name of the manager in the Joint Hindu family is ‘Karta’. The Karta is the senior most male member of the family. He controls and manages the business of the Joint Hindu family.

Question 34.
Income tax provides the method to compare the total income of an assessee. It is divided into five heads. What are the five heads of incomp under total income?
Answer:
The five heads of income are:

1. Income from ‘Salaries’ [Sections 15 – 17];
2. Income from ‘House Property’ [Sections 22 – 27];
3. Income from ‘Profits and Gains of Business or Profession’ [Sections 28 – 44];
4. Income from ‘Capital Gains’ [Sections 45 – 55]; and
5. Income from ‘Other Sources’ [Sections 56 – 59]

Question 35.
Generally, the liability of the partners in a firm is unlimited. But in service sector, the liability is limited. What is the name of the partnership? Write a short note about this?
Answer:
The name of the partnership is Limited Liability Partnership. It is popular in service sector and in the small scale enterprises. Limited liability partnership means for paying the debts of the firm, only the assets of the business will be utilised. Example – cost accountants firm, lawyers, engineers, etc.

Question 36.
Mention any three features of government company?
Answer:
Features of government company: .

1. Registrations under the companies Act: A government company is formed under the Companies Act 1956.
2. Own staff: A government company has its own staff except government officials who are sent to it on deputation.
3. Majority of the capital provided by the government: The whole or majority (at least 51%) of the capital of a government company is provided by the government.

Question 37.
What is bill of lading?
Answer:
Bill of Lading is a document containing the terms and conditions of the contract of carriage. It is issued by the shipping company and signed by the captain of the ship.

It acknowledges the receipt of the goods described in it on board the ship. It also serves as an official receipt of goods. It is a document of title of goods.

Question 38.
What do you mean by the concept of business ethics?
Answer:
Business exists to supply goods and services to the people from social point of view but from individual point of view, the primary objective of any business unit is to make profit.

The individual objective should not be in conflict with societal objective. These two objectives normally contradict each other, as one business enterprise may be good in individual objective and bad at social objective and vice versa.

Question 39.
Define Retailer?
Answer:
According to S. Evelyn Thomas “the retailer is the last of the many links in the economic chain whereby the consumer’s wants are satisfied smoothly and efficiently by retailers”.

Question 40.
Write any three differences between Direct taxes and Indirect taxes?
Answer:

PART – IV

Answer all the questions: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
What are the features of public corporation? Explain any five?
Answer:
1. Special Statute:
A public corporation is created by a special Act of the Parliament or the State Legislature. The Act defines its powers, objectives, functions and relations with the ministry and the Parliament (or State Legislature).

2. Separate Legal Entity:
A public corporation is a separate legal entity with perpetual succession and common seal. It has an existence, independent of the Government. It can own property; can make contracts and file suits, in its own name.

3. Capital Provided by the Government:
The capital of a public corporation is provided by – the Government or by agencies controlled by the government. However, many public corporations have also begun to raise money from the capital market.

4. Financial Autonomy:
A public corporation enjoys financial autonomy. It prepares its own budget; and has authority to retain and utilize its earnings for its business.

5. Management by Board of Directors:
Its management is vested in a Board of Directors, appointed or nominated by the Government. But there is no Governmental interference in the day – to – day working of the corporation.

[OR]

(b) Explain the organizational structure of RBI?
Answer:
The head office of the RBI is situated in Mumbai. This central office has 33 departments in 2017. It has four zonal offices in Mumbai, Delhi, Calcutta and Chennai functioning under local boards with deputy governors as their heads. It also has 19 regional offices and 11 sub – offices (2017).

The RBI is governed by a central board of directors. The 21 member board is appointed by the Qovemment of India. It consists of:

1. One Governor and four deputy governors appointed for a period of four years.
2. Ten Directors from various fields.
3. Two Government officials.
4. Four Directors – one each from local boards.

Question 42 (a).
Sole proprietorship is a form of business organization in which an individual introduces his own capital, uses his own skill and intelligence in the management of the business. Explain the characteristics of a sole trader?
Answer:
Business owned and controlled by a single person is known as sole trading business.
The following are the characteristics of a sole trader:

1. Ownership by one man: This is owned by single person. The sole trader contributes the required capital.
2. Freedom of work and Quick decisions: The sole trader is the owner, so he need not consult with others. Hence he can take quick decision.
3. Unlimited liability: When his business assets are not sufficient to pay off the business debts he has to pay from his personal property.
4. Enjoying Entire Profit: All the benefits earned by the sole trader is enjoyed by him alone.
5. Absence of Government Regulation: A sole trading concern is free from Government regulations. No legal formalities are to be observed in its formation and management,
6. Maintenance of Secrecy: Since the trader manages all the affairs of the business, the secrecy can be maintained easily.

[OR]

(b) Partnership is the relation between persons who have agreed to share the profits of a business carried on by all. It is the result of an agreement. Closing of business is also by an agreement. It is called Dissolution of Partnership. Explain the dissolution of partnership firm without the order of the court?
Answer:
Dissolution of a partnership firm takes place in two ways:

1. Without the order of the court and
2. By the order of the court A.

Without the order of the court:

1. By agreement or mutual consent:
A firm may be dissolved when all the partners agree to close the affairs of the firm.

2. By insolvency of all the partners but one:
If any one of the partners is adjudged as insolvent, it is necessary to dissolve the firm.

3. When the objective becomes illegal:
When the business carried on by the partnership becomes illegal, the partnership firm is automatically dissolved.

4. By notice of dissolution:
In the case of partnership at will, if any partner gives in writing to close the firm, the firm will be dissolved.

5. On certain contingencies:

• On the expiry of the period of the firm.
• On the completion of a business.
• On the death of a partner.
• On the retirement of a partner.
• On the insolvency of a partner.

Question 43 (a).
Explain the various types of warehouses?
Answer:
1. Private Warehouses:
Private warehouses are built and owned by private business enterprises in order to store the products produced by them.

2. Government Warehouses:
They are created and operated by the Government to implement the programmes of the Government.

3. Public Warehouse:
It is open for public at large. Most of the business organisations, especially small and medium scale units cannot afford to have their own warehouses.

4. Co – operative Warehouses:
There are warehouses owned and managed by the marketing co – operative societies or agricultural co-operative societies. They are setup to provide warehousing facilities to their members.

5. Bonded Warehouses:
Bonded warehouses are those warehouses, which are licensed by the government to accept storage of imported goods which are not cleared due to non¬payment of customs duty by the importer.

[OR]

(b) Insurance is a contract between the insurer and the insured under which the insurer undertakes to compensate-the insured for the loss arising from the risk insured. Explain the principles of insurance?
Answer:
1. Utmost Good Faith:
According to this principle, both insurer and insured should enter into contract in good faith. Insured should provide all the information that impacts the subject matter. Insurer should provide all the details regarding insurance contract.

2. Insurable Interest:
The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance. Insurable interest means some pecuniary interest in the subject matter of the insurance contract.

3. Indemnity:
Indemnity means security or compensation against loss or damages. In insurance, the insured would be compensated with the amount equivalent to the actual loss and not the amount exceeding the loss. This principle ensures that the insured does not make any profit out of the insurance. This principle of indemnity is applicable to property insurance alone.

4. Causa Proxima:
The word ‘Causa proxima’ means ‘nearest cause’. According to this principle, when the loss is the result of two or more cause, the proximate cause, i.e. the direct. The direct, the most dominant and most effective cause of loss should be taken into consideration. The insurance company is not liable for the remote cause.

5. Contribution:
The same subject matter may be insured with more than one insurer then it is known as ‘Double Insurance’. In such a case, the insurance claim to be paid to the insured must be shared on contributed by all insurers in proportion to the sum assured by each one of them.

6. Subrogation:
Subrogation means ‘stepping the shoes on others’. According to this principle, once the claim of the insured has been settled, the ownership right of the subject matter of insurance passes on to the insurer.

7. Mitigation:
In case of a mishap, the insured must take off all possible steps to reduce or mitigate the loss or damage to the subject matter of insurance.

Question 44 (a).
Write short notes on:

1. Owner’s funds
2. Borrowed funds

Answer:
1. Owner’s Funds:
Owner’s funds mean funds which are provided by the owner of the enteiprises who may be an individual, or partners or shareholders of a company.

The profits reinvested in the business (ploughing back of profit or retained earnings) come under owner’s funds. These funds are not required to be refunded during the life time of business enterprise. It provides the owner the right to control the management of the enterprise.

2. Borrowed Funds:
The term ‘borrowed funds’ denotes the funds raised through loans or borrowings. For example, debentures, loans from banks and financial institutions, public deposits, trade credit, lease financing, commercial papers, factoring, etc., represent borrowed funds.

• These borrowed sources of funds provide specific period before which the fund is to be returned.
• Borrower is under legal obligation to pay interest at given rate at regular intervals to the lender.
• Generally borrowed funds are obtained on the security of certain assets like bonds, land, building, stock, vehicles, machinery, documents of title to the goods, and the like.

[OR]

(b) What is meant by consumers co-operative store? Explain its merits in brief?
Answer:
A consumers co-operative store is a retail organisation owned, managed and controlled by the
consumers themselves to obtain products of daily use at reasonable low prices. Its objective is to eliminate profits to middlemen by establishing a direct contact with the manufacturers.

People belonging to middle and low income groups, at least 25 persons have to come together to form a voluntary association and get it registered under the Cooperative Societies Act.

The capital of a co-operative store is raised by issuing shares to members. The management of the store is democratic and entrusted to an elected managing committee, where “one man one vote” is the rule.

The co – operative stores are very famous in Tamil Nadu. For example, Kamadhenu and Chinthamani co-operative supermarkets in Chennai, Karpagam in Vellore, etc. .

Question 45 (a).
Describe the agency functions of commercial banks?
Answer:
Banks act as agents of customers and provide certain services:

1. Transfer of Funds:
Banks issue demand drafts, bankers’ cheques, travelers’ cheques, etc. and help in transfer of funds from one place to another.

2. Periodic Payment of Premiums, Rent, etc:
After instruction from the customers, banks undertake the monthly payment of insurance premium, rent, telephone bills, etc., from the accounts of customers.

3. Collection and Payment of Cheques:
On behalf of customers, bank collect the cheques deposited into the accounts of customers from other banks and deposit cash in the customers’ accounts.

4. Acting as Executors, Trustees and Attorneys:
Banks act as executors of will of the customers and implement their will after their death.

5. Conduct Share Market transactions:
A Demat account should be opened with Depository Participant and that demat account should be linked with savings bank account by the customer.

6. Preparation of Income Tax Return:
Banks prepare the annual income tax return on behalf of the customers and provide income tax related advice to them.

7. Dealing in Foreign Exchange:
Banks buy and sell foreign currencies on behalf of customers.

8. Acting as Correspondent:
Banks act as correspondent of customers and receive travel, ticket, passport, etc.

[OR]

(b) Explain the services rendered by retailers to consumers?
Answer:
1. Regular Supply of Goods:
Retailers maintain a ready stock of various products of different manufacturers for sale to consumers.

2. New Products Information:
The retailers provide important information about the new arrival of products through their personal.

3. Credit Facilities:
Sometimes retailers provide credit facilities to their customers and enable them to increase their level of consumption.

4. Wide Selection:
Retailers generally keep stock of a variety of products of different manufacturers.

5. Miscellaneous Services:

• Retailers provide free door delivery services to the customers.
• They provide after sale service to customers.
• They allow cash discounts on their sales.

Question 46 (a).
Write a note on e-commerce models?
Answer:
1. Business to customers (B2C):
This is fastest growing segment in e-commerce space. Under this model, business concern sells directly to consumers.

2. Business to Business (B2B):
Under the model, business concerns transact with one another through internet. For instance, Snapdeal, Flipkart, Alibaba, Indiamart, Trade India.com etc.

3. Consumer to consumer (C2C):
Under this model, customers sell directly to other customers through online classified advertisement or through auction or through mobile or through market places.

Example, Indian ventures in C2C are Kraftly App (buying and selling anythings) which deals in handmade products of a wide range. Onceagainstore. com is a website that buys pre-owned women’s fashion products. Other players are Quikr, OLX, ebay, etc.

4. Customer to Business (C2B):
This model is reverse to auction model. Products like • automobile, electronic items, furniture and similar product are traded by customer through websites. Naukri.com and Monster.com are examples of Indian companies operating in this domain.

5. Business to Government (B2G):
This model envisages selling products and services by business consumer to Government organization. For instance TCS operates the passport application process for the Government of India as part off-line process.

[OR]

(b) Explain any four personal investment avenues?
Answer:
1. Public Provident Fund (PPF):
It is the safest long – term investment option for the investors in India. It is totally tax- free. PPF account can be opened in bank or post office. The money deposited cannot be withdrawn before 15 years and an investor can earn compound interest from this account.

However the investor can extend the time frame for the next five years if the investor does not opt to withdraw the amount matured for payment at maturity date. PPF investor can take loan against PPF account when he/she experiences financial difficulties.

2. Mutual Funds:
An individual investor who wants to invest in equities and bond With a balance of risk and return generally can invest in mutual funds. Nowadays people invest in stock markets through a mutual fund. Systematic investment plan is one of the best investment options in India.

3. Direct Equity or Share Purchase:
An individual can opt for investment in shares. But he has to analyse the market price of various shares traded in stock exchange, reputation of the company, consistency in the payment of dividend, the nature of the project undertaken by the company, growth prospects of industry in which a company is operating, before investing in shares. If the investment is made for a long time, it may yield good return.

4. Real Estate Investment:
Real estate is one of the fastest growing sectors in India. Buying a flat or plot is supposed to be the best decision amongst the investment options. The value of the real asset may increase substantially depending upon the area of location and other support facilities available therein.

Question 47 (a).
What are the functions of wholesalers?
Answer:
Following are the functions of wholesalers:

1. Collection of Goods: Wholesaler collects the goods from manufacturers or producers in bulk.
2. Storage of Goods: Wholesaler collects and stores them safely in warehouses, till they are sold out.
3. Distribution: Wholesaler sells goods to different retailers. Thus he performs the function of distribution.
4. Financing: Wholesalers provide financial support to producers and manufacturers by providing money in advance to them.
5. Risk Taking: Wholesaler buys finished goods from the producer and keeps them in the warehouses till the time they are sold and assumes the risk arising from price, spoilage of goods, and changes in demand.
6. Grading, Packing and Packaging: Wholesaler classifies the goods into different categories.
7. Providing Information: Wholesalers provide valuable information to retailers and producers.
8. Transportation: A wholesaler arranges for the transport of goods from producers to his warehouse and from the warehouse to retailer.

[OR]

(b) Explain the characteristics of a supermarket?
Answer:

1. Supermarkets are generally situated at the main shopping centres.
2. The goods kept on racks with clearly labelled price and quality tags in such stores.
3. The customers move into the store to pickup goods of their requirements, bring them to the cash counter, make payment and take home delivery.
4. The goods are sold on cash basis only. No credit facilities are made available.
5. Supermarkets are organized on departmerftal basis.
6. It requires huge investment.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The cost incurred by producing one more unit of output is ……………………. cost.
(a) Variable
(b) Fixed
(c) Marginal
(d) Total
Answer:
(c) Marginal

Question 2.
Ordinal utility can be measured by ……………………
(a) Ranking
(b) Numbering
(c) Wording
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Ranking

Question 3.
A production function measures the relation between ……………………..
(a) Input prices and output prices
(b) Input prices and the quantity of output
(c) The quantity of inputs and the quantity of output
(d) The quantity of inputs and input prices
Answer:
(c) The quantity of inputs and the quantity of output

Question 4.
If average product is decreasing, then marginal product ……………………
(a) Must be greater than average product
(b) Must be less than average product
(c) Must be increasing
(d) Both (a) & (c)
Answer:
(b) Must be less than average product

Question 5.
Price discrimination will always lead to ………………………
(a) Increase in output
(b) Increase in profit
(c) Different prices
(d) (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) (b) and (c)

Question 6.
Which of the following is a micro – economics statement?
(a) The real domestic output increased by 2.5 percent last year.
(b) Unemployment was 9.8 percent of the labour force last year.
(c) The price of wheat determines its demand
(d) The general price level increased by 4 percent last year.
Answer:
(c) The price of wheat determines its demand

Question 7.
The marginal productivity theory was developed by ……………………
(a) Clark
(b) Wickseed
(c) Walras
(d) All
Answer:
(c) Walras

Question 8.
The chief exponent of the cardinal utility approach was …………………..
(a) J.R. Hicks
(b) R.G. D. Allen
(c) Marshall
(d) Stigler
Answer:
(c) Marshall

Question 9.
Keynesian Theory of interest is popularly known as ……………………
(a) Abstinence theory
(b) Liquidity preference theory
(c) Loanable funds theory
(d) Agio theory
Answer:
(b) Liquidity preference theory

Question 10.
Total revenue is equal to total output sold multiplied by ………………….
(a) Price
(b) Total cost
(c) Marginal revenue
(d) Marginal cost
Answer:
(a) Price

Question 11.
In which of the following is not a type of market structure price will be very high?
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Duopoly
(d) Oligopoly
Answer:
(b) Monopoly

Question 12.
The Father of Green Revolution in India was ……………………..
(a) M.S. Swaminathan
(b) Gandhi
(c) Visweswaraiah
(d) N.R. Viswanathan
Answer:
(a) M.S. Swaminathan

Question 13.
A Statement of equality between two quantities is called ……………………
(a) Inequality
(b) Equality
(c) Equations
(d) Functions
Answer:
(c) Equations

Question 14.
Product obtained from additional factors of production is terms as ………………….
(a) Marginal product
(b) Total product
(c) Average product
(d) Annual product
Answer:
(a) Marginal product

Question 15.
Rent is the reward for the use of ……………………..
(a) Capital
(b) Labour
(c) Land
(d) Organization
Answer:
(c) Land

Question 16.
Revenue received from the sale of additional unit is termed as …………………….. revenue.
(a) Profit
(b) Average
(c) Marginal
(d) Total
Answer:
(c) Marginal

Question 17.
Tamil Nadu is rich in ……………………
(a) Forest resource
(b) Human resource
(c) Mineral resource
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 18.
The New foreign trade policy was announced in the year ……………………….
(a) 2000
(b) 2002
(c) 2010
(d) 2015
Answer:
(a) 2000

Question 19.
The PQLI was developed by ……………………..
(a) Planning Commission
(b) Nehru
(c) Morris
(d) Morrisd.Biswajeet
Answer:
(c) Morris

Question 20.
In India’s total cement production, Tamil Nadu ranks ……………………….
(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) First
(d) Second
Answer:
(a) Third

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
State the meaning of privatization?
Answer:
Privatization means transfer of ownership and management of enterprises from public sector to private sector.

Question 22.
What are the reasons for upward sloping supply curve?
Answer:

1. A supply curve represents the data given in the supply schedule. As the price of the commodity increases, the quantum supplied of the commodity also increases. Thus the supply curve has a positive slope from left to right.
2. The quantum supplied of commodity x is represented on X axis. And the price of the commodity is represented on the Y axis. The points such as e, d, c, b and a on the supply curve SS’, represent various quantities at different prices.

Question 23.
Give a short note on Sen’s “choice of Technique”?
Answer:
Sen’s “Choice of Technique” was a research work where he argued that in a labour surplus economy; generation of employment cannot be increased at the initial stage by the adaptation of capital – intensive technique.

Question 24.
What are major ports in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu has three major ports; one each at Chennai, Ennore, and Thoothukudi as well as one intermediate port in Nagpattinam, and 23 minor ports.
2. All the minor ports are managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai Port.
3. Ennore port was recently converted from an intermediate port to a major port and handles all the coal and ore traffic in Tamil Nadu.

Question 25.
Define cost function?
Answer:
The function relationship between cost and output is expressed as ‘Cost Function’.
A Cost Function may be written as
C = f(Q)
Eg. TC = Q³ – 18Q² + 91Q + 12
Where, C = Cost and Q = Quantity of output. Cost functions are derived functions because they are derived from Production Functions.

Question 26.
What are the main menus of MS word?
Answer:

Where, C = Cost and Q = Quantity of output. Cost functions are derived functions because they are derived from Production Functions.

Question 27.
If 62 = 34 + 4 x what is x?
Answer:
62 – 34 = 4x ⇒ 28 = 4x
28 ÷ 5 – 4 = 1x
∴ x = 7

Question 28.
Define‘Rent’?
Answer:
Rent is the price or reward given for the use of land or house or a machine to the owner. But, in Economics, “Rent” or “Economic Rent” refers to that part of payment made by a tenant to his land lords for the use of land only.

Question 29.
What are conditions for producer’s equilibrium?
Answer:

1. Producer equilibrium implies the situation where producer maximizes his output.
2. It is also known as optimum combination of the factors of production.
3. In short, the producer manufactures a given amount of output with ‘least cost combination of factors’, with his given budget.

Question 30.
Write three policy initiative introduced in 1991 – 92 to correct the fiscal imbalance?
Answer:
The important policy initiatives introduced in the budget for the year 1991 – 92 for correcting the fiscal imbalance were:

1. Reduction in fertilizer subsidy.
2. Abolition of subsidy on sugar.
3. Disinvestment of a part of the government’s equity holdings in select public sector undertakings.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Describe the performance of Tamil Nadu economy in health?
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu has a three – tier health infrastructure comprising hospitals, primary health centres, health units, community health centres and sub – centres.
2. As of March 2015, the State had 34 district hospitals, 229 sub – divisional hospitals, 1,254 primary health centres, 7,555 sub – centres and 313 community health centres.

Question 32.
Explain the difference between internal and external economies?
Answer:

Internal Economies of Scale	External Economies of Scale
1. Expansion of the firm itself.	1. Expansion of the industry.
2. Lower long run average cost.	2. Benefits most all firms.
3. Efficiencies from larger scale production.	3. Agglomeration economies are important.
4. Range of economies (e.g.,) Technical and Financial.	4. Helps to explain the rapid growth of many cities.

Question 33.
State and explain the elasticity of supply?
Answer:

1. Elasticity of supply may be defined as the degree of responsiveness of change in supply to change in price on the part of sellers.
2. It is Mathematically expressed as,

Elasticity of supply = Proportionate change in supply / Proportionate change in price
e_s = \(\frac { \Delta Q_{ S } }{ Qs } \)/\(\frac { \Delta P }{ P } \)
e_s = \(\frac { \Delta Q_{ S } }{ \Delta P } \) × \(\frac { P }{ Q_{ S } } \)
Where Q_s represents the supply, P represents price, ∆ denotes a change.

Question 34.
Write a note on mineral resources in TamilNadu?
Answer:
Mineral Resources in Tamil Nadu:

1. Tamil Nadu has a few mining projects based on Titanium, Lignite, Magnesite, Graphite, Limestone, Granite and Bauxite.
2. The first one is the Neyveli Lignite Corporation that has led development of large industrial complex around Neyveli in Cuddalore district with Thermal Power Plants, Fertilizer and Carbonisation plants.
3. Magnesite mining is at Salem from which mining of Bauxite ores are carried out at Yercaud, and this region is also rich in iron ore at Kanjamalai.
4. Molybdenum is found in Dharmapuri, and is the only source in the country.

Question 35.
What are the motives of demand for money?
Answer:
Motives of Demand for Money:
According to Keynes, there are three motives for liquidity preference. They are:

1. The Transaction Motive :

• The transaction motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash for the current transactions.
• The amount saved under this motive depends on the level of income. M_t = f(y)

2. The Precautionary Motive:

• The precautionary motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash to meet unexpected or unforeseen expenditures such as sickness, accidents, fire and theft.
• The amount saved for this motive also depends on the level of income. M_p – f(r)

3. The Speculative Motive:
The speculative motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash in order to take advantage of market movements regarding the future changes in the price of bonds and securities in the capital market. The amount saved for this motive depends on the rate of interest.

M_S = f(i). There is inverse relation between liquidity preference and rate of interest.

Question 36.
State Ambedkar’s Economic Ideas on agricultural economics?
Answer:
In the 1918, Ambedkar published a paper “Small Holding in India and their Remedies”. Citing Adam Smith’s “Wealth of Nations”, he made a fine distinction between “Consolidation of Holdings” and Enlargement of Holdings”.

Question 37.
What are the functions of Entrepreneur?
Answer:
Functions of an Entrepreneur:

1. Initiation: An organizer is the initiator of the business, by considering the situation and availability of resources and planning the entire process of business of production.
2. Innovation: A successful entrepreneur is always an innovator. He introduces new methods in the production process.
3. Co – ordination: An organizer applies a particular combination of the factor of production to start and run the business or production.
4. Control, Direction and Supervision: An organiser controls so that nothing prevents the organisation from achieving its goal. He directs the factors to get better results and supervises for the efficient functioning of all the factors involved in the process of production.
5. Risk – taking and uncertainty – bearing: There are risk – taking and uncertainty-bearing obstacles. Risks may be insured but uncertainties cannot be insured. They reduce the profit.

Question 38.
Explain GSDP in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. The Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) refers to the total money value of all the goods and services produced annually in the state.
2. Tamil nadu is the second largest economy in India with a GSDP of $ 207.8 billion in 2016 – 2017 according to the Directorate of Economics and Statistics, Tamil Nadu.
3. The GSDP of Tamil Nadu is equal to the GDP of Kuwait on nominal term and GDP of UAE on PPP terms. Per capita GSDP would be better for intercountry or interstate comparisons.
4. Tamil Nadu GSDP = $207.8 billion in 2016 – 17.

Question 39.
Briefly explain the concept of consumer’s equilibrium?
Answer:
The consumer reaches equilibrium at the point where the budget line is tangent on the indifference curve. T is the point of equilibrium as budget line AB is tangent on indifference curve IC3 the upper IC which implies maximum possible level of satisfaction.

At equilibrium point, the slope of IC refers to MRS_XY and the slope of BL (Budget Line) refers to ratio of price of X to price of Y i.e. P_x / P_y . Therefore MRS_x,y = P_x / P_y.

Question 40.
List out the kinds of wages:
Answer:
Wages are divided into four types.

1. Nominal Wages or Money Wages: Nominal wages are referred to the wages paid in terms of money.
2. Real Wages: Real wages are the wages paid in terms of goods and services. Hence, real wages are the purchasing power of money wages.
3. Piece Wages: Wages that are paid on the basis of quantum of work done.
4. Time Wages: Wages that are paid on the basis of the amount of time that the worker works.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Write a brief note on the Gandhian economic ideas?
Answer:
Gandhian Economics is based on ethical foundations. Gandhi wrote “ Economics that hurts the moral well-being of an individual or a nation is immoral, and therefore , Sinful”. Gandhi repeated the same belief “ that economy is untrue which ignores or disregards moral values”.

Salient features of Gandhian Economic Thought:

(I) Village Republics:

• India lives in villages.
• He was interested in developing the villages as self – sufficient units.
• He opposed extensive use of machinery, urbanization and industrialization.

(II) On Machinery:

• Gandhi described machinery as ‘Great sin’. He said that “Books could be written to demonstrate its evils”.
• It is necessary to realize that machinery is bad.
• Instead of welcoming machinery as a boon, we should look upon it as an evil.
• It would ultimately cease.

(III) Industrialism:

• Gandhi considered industrialism as a curse on mankind.
• He thought industrialism depended entirely on a country’s capacity to exploit.

(IV) Decentralization:
Gandhi advocated a decentralized economy i. e., production at a large number of places on a small scale or production in the people’s homes.

(V) Village Sarvodaya:

• According to Gandhi, “ Real India was to be found in villages and not in towns or cities”.
• He suggested, self – dependent villages.

(VI) Bread Labour:

• Gandhi realized the dignity of human labour.
• He believed that God created man to eat his bread by the sweat of his brow.
• Bread labour or body labour was the expression that Gandhi used to mean manual labour.

(VII) The Doctrine of Trusteeship:
Trusteeship provides a means of transforming the present capitalist order of society into an egalitarian one.

(VIII) On the Food Problem:

• Gandhi was against any sort of food controls.
• Once India was begging for food grain, but now India tops the world with very large production of food grains, fruits, vegetables, milk, egg, meat etc.

(IX) On Population:

• Gandhi opposed the method of population control through contraceptives.
• He was, however, in favour of birth control through Brahmacharya or self – control.
• He considered self – control as a sovereign remedy to the problem of Over population.

(X) On Prohibition:

• Gandhi regarded the use of liquor as a disease rather than a vice.
• He felt that it was better for India to be poor than to have thousands of drunkards.
• Many states depend on revenue from liquor sales.

[OR]

(b) Analyse the causes for Rural Indebtedness?
Answer:
The Causes for Rural Indebtedness:

(I) Poverty of Farmers:

• The vicious circle of poverty forces the farmers to borrow for consumption and cultivation.
• Thus poverty, debt and high rates of interest hold the farmer in the grip of money lenders.

(II) Failure of Monsoon:

• Frequent failure of monsoon is a curse to the farmers and they have to suffer due to the failure of nature.
• Farmers find it difficult to identify good years to repay their debts.

(III) Litigation:

• Due to land disputes litigation in the court compels them to borrow heavily.
• Being uneducated and ignorant they are caught in the litigation process and dry away their savings and resources.

(IV) Money Lenders and High Rate of Interest:
The rate of interest charged by the local money lenders is very high and the compounding of interest leads to perpetuate indebtedness of the farmer.

Question 42 (a).
Explain various divisions of Economics?
Answer:
Economics sub divisions are:

(I) Consumption:

• Human wants coming under consumption is the starting point of economic activity.
• In this section the characteristics of human wants based on the behaviour of the consumer, the diminishing marginal utility and consumer’s surplus are dealt with.

(II) Production:

• Production is the process of transformation of inputs into output.
• This division covers the characteristics and role of the factors of production namely land, labour, capital and organization.

(III) Exchange:

• Exchange is concerned with price determination in different market forms.
• This division covers trade and commerce.
• Consumption is possible only if the produced commodity is placed in the hands of the consumer.

(IV) Distribution:

• Production is the result of the coordination of factors of production.
• Since a commodity is produced with the efforts of land, labour, capital and organization, the produced wealth has to be distributed among the cooperating factors.
• The reward for factors of production is studied in this division under rent, wages, interest and profit.
• Distribution studies about the pricing of factors of production.

[OR]

(b) Explain the law of demand and its exceptions?
Answer:
Definitions:
The Law of Demand says as “the quantity demanded increases with a fall in price and diminishes with a rise in price”. – Marshall
“The Law of Demand states that people will buy more at lower price and buy less at higher prices, other things remaining the same”. – Samuelson Assumptions of Law of Demand:

1. The income of the consumer remains constant.
2. The taste, habit and preference of the consumer remain the same.
3. The prices of other related goods should not change.
4. There should be no substitutes for the commodity in study.
5. The demand for the commodity must be continuous.
6. There should not be any change in the quality of the commodity.

Given these assumptions, the law of demand operates. If there is change even in one of these assumptions, the law will not operate.

Explanation:
The law of demand explains the relationship between the price of a commodity and the quantity demanded of it. This law states that quantity demanded of a commodity expands with a fall in price and contracts with a rise in price.

In other words, a rise in price of a commodity is followed by a contraction demand and a fall in price is followed by extension in demand. Therefore, the law of demand states that there is an inverse relationship between the price and the quantity demanded of a commodity.

Exceptions to the law of demand:
Normally, the demand curve slopes downwards from left to right. But there are some unusual demand curves which do not obey the law and the reverse occurs.

A fall in price brings about a contraction of demand and a rise in price results in an extension of demand. Therefore the demand curve slopes upwards from left to right. It is known as exceptional demand curve.

In the above diagram, DD is the demand curve which slopes upwards from left to right. It shows that when price is OP₁,, OQ₁, is the demand and when the price rises to OP₂, demand also extends to OQ₂.

Question 43 (a).
Describe the degree of price discrimination?
Answer:
Degrees of Price Discrimination:
Price discrimination has become widespread in almost all monopoly markets. According to A.C.Pigou, there are three degrees of price discrimination.

(I) First degree price discrimination:
A monopolist charges the maximum price that a buyer is willing to pay. This is called as perfect price discrimination. This price wipes out the entire consumer’s surplus. This is maximum exploitation of consumers. Joan Robinson named it as “Perfect Discriminating Monopoly”.

(II) Second degree price discrimination:
Under this degree, buyers are charged prices in such a way that a part of their consumer’s surplus is taken away by the sellers. This is called as imperfect price discrimination. Joan Robinson named it as “Imperfect Discriminating Monopoly”.

Under this degree, buyers are divided into different groups and a different price is charged for each group. For example, in cinema theatres, prices are charged for same film show from viewers of different classes. In a theatre the difference between the first row of first class and the last row in the second class is smaller as compared to the differences in charges.

(III) Third degree price discrimination:
The monopolist splits the entire market into a few sub – market and charges different price in each sub – market. The groups are divided on the basis of age, sex and location. For example, railways charge lower fares from senior citizens. Students get discounts in museums, and exhibitions.

[OR]

(b) Write a short note on Total Revenue?
Answer:
Total revenue is the amount of income received by the firm from the sale of its products. It is obtained by multiplying the price of the commodity by the number of units sold.

where, TR denotes Total Revenue, P denotes Price and Q denotes Quantity sold.
For example, a cell – phone company sold 100 cell – phones at the price of ₹500 each.
TR is ₹50,000. (TR = 500 × 100 = 50,000).

When price is constant, the behaviour of TR is shown in the above table and diagram, assuming P = 5. When P = 5; TR = PQ

When price is declining with increase in quantity sold. (Eg. Imperfect Competition on the goods market) the behaviour of TR is shown in the following table and diagram. TR can be obtained from Demand fuction: If Q = 11 – P,
When P = 1, Q = 10

TR = PQ = 1 × 10 = 10
When P = 3, Q = 8, TR = 24
When P = 0, Q = 1, TR = 10

Question 44 (a).
Discuss the problems of Rural Economy?
Answer:
Rural areas are facing number of problems relating to,

1. People
2. Agriculture
3. Infrastructure
4. Economy
5. Society and Culture
6. Leadership and
7. Administration.

(I) People Related Problems:
The problems related to individuals and their standard of living consist of illiteracy, lack of technical know how, low level of confidence, dependence on sentiments and beliefs etc.

(II) Agriculture Related Problems:
The problems related to agriculture include as follows,

• Lack of expected awareness, knowledge, skill and attitude.
• Unavailability of inputs.
• Poor marketing facility.

(III) Infrastructural Related problems:
Poor infrastructure facilities like, water, electricity, transport, educational institutions, communication, health, employment, storage facility, banking and insurance are found in rural areas.

(IV) Economics related problems:
The economic problems related to rural areas are,

• Inability to adopt high cost technology
• High cost of inputs
• Under privileged rural industries.
• Low income
• Indebtedness
• Existence of inequality in land holdings and assets

(V) Leadership Related Problems:
The Specific leadership related problems found in rural areas are:

• Leadership among the hands of inactive and incompetent people
• Self – interest of leaders
• Biased political will
• Less bargaining power
• Negation skills and dominance of political leaders

(VI) Administrative Problems:
The rural administrative problems are,

• Political interference
• Lack of motivation and interest
• Low wages in villages
• Improper utilization of budget
• Absence of monitoring
• Implementation of rural development programme.

[OR]

(b) Mention the causes for Rural poverty?
Answer:
Causes for Rural Poverty:
1. Unequal distribution of Land:
The distribution of land is highly skewed in rural areas. Therefore, majority of rural people work as hired labour to support their families.

2. Lack of Non – Farm Employment:
Non – farm employment opportunities do not match the increasing labour force. The excess supply of labour in rural areas reduces the wages and increases the incidence of poverty.

3. Lack of public sector Investment:
The root cause of rural poverty in our country is lack of public sector investment on human resource development.

4. Inflation:
Steady increase in prices affects the purchasing power of the rural poor leading to rural poverty.

5. Low productivity:
Low productivity of rural labour and farm activities is a cause as well as the effect of poverty.

6. Unequal Benefit of Growth:
Major gains of economic development are enjoyed by the urban rich people leading to concentration of wealth. Due to defective economic structure and policies, gains of growth are not reaching the poor and the contributions of poor people are not accounted properly.

7. Low Rate of Economic Growth:
The rate of growth of India is always below the target and it has benefited the rich. The poor are always denied of the benefits of the achieved growth and development of the country.

8. More Emphasis on Large Industries:
Huge investment in large industries catering to the needs of middle and upper classes in urban areas are made in India. Such industries are capital-intensive and do not generate more employment opportunities. Therefore, poor are not in a position to get employed and to come out from the poverty in villages.

9. Social evils:
Social evils prevalent in the society like custom, beliefs, etc., increase unproductive expenditure.

Question 45 (a).
Bring out the relationship between TR, AR, MR and Elasticity of demand?
Answer:
Relationship among TR, AR and MR Curves:
When marginal revenue is positive, total revenue rises, when MR is zero the total revenue becomes maximum. When marginal revenue becomes negative total revenue starts falling. When AR and MR both are falling, then MR falls at a faster rate than AR.

TR, AR, MR and Elasticity of demand:

1. The relationship among AR, MR and elasticity of demand (e) is stated as follows.
   MR = AR (e – 1/e)
2. The relationship between The AR curve and MR curve depends upon the elasticity of AR curve [AR = DD = Price]

• When price elasticity of demand is greater than one, MR is positive and TR is increasing.
• When price elasticity of demand is less than one, MR is negative and TR is decreasing.
• When price elasticity of demand is equal to one, MR is equal to Zero and TR is maximum and constant.

It is to be noted that, the output range of 1 to 5 units, the price elasticity of demand is greater than one according to total outlay method. Hence, TR is increasing and MR is positive.
TR, AR, MR & Elasticity

At the output range of 5 to 6 units, the price elasticity of demand is equal to one. Hence, TR is maximum and MR is equals to zero. At the output range of 6 units to 10 units, the price elasticity of demand is less than unity. Hence, TR is decreasing and MR is negative.

[OR]

(b) Explain the monetary and financial sector reforms?
Answer:
Monetary reforms aimed at doing away with interest rate distortions and rationalizing the structure of lending rates. The new policy tried in many ways to make the banking system more efficient. Some of the measures undertaken were:

(I) Reserve Requirements:

• Reduction in Statutory liquidity ratio [SLR] and the cash reserve ratio [CRR] were the recommendations by the Narasimham Committee Report, 1991.
• It was proposed to cut down the SLR from 38.5 percent to 25 percent within a time span of three years.

(II) Interest Rate Liberalisation:
RBI controlled:

• The interest rates payable on deposits. The interest rate which could be charged for bank loans.
• Greater competition among public sector, private sector and foreign banks and elimination of administrative constraints.
• Liberalisation of bank branch licensing policy in order to rationalize the existing branch network.
• Banks were given freedom to relocate branches and open specialized branches.
• Guidelines for opening new private sector banks.
• New accounting norms regarding classification of. assets and provisions of bad debt were introduced in tune with the Narasimham Committee Report.

Question 46 (a).
Examine the law of variable proportions with the help of a diagram?
Answer:
The law states that if all other factors are fixed and one input is varied in the short run, the total output will increase at an increasing rate at first instance^ be constant at a point and then eventually decrease. Marginal product will become negative at last.

According to G.Stigler, “As equal increments of one input are added, the inputs of other productive services being held constant, beyond a certain point, the resulting increments of product will decrease, i.e., the marginal product will diminish”.

Assumptions:
The Law of Variable Proportions is based on the following assumptions.

• Only one factor is variable while others are held constant.
• All units of the variable factor are homogeneous.
• The product is measured in physical units.
• There is no change in the state of technology.
• There is no change in the price of the product.

Total Product (TP)
Total product refers to the total amount of commodity produced by the combination of all inputs in a given period of time.

Summation of marginal products, i.e.
TP = ΣMP
where, TP = Total Product,
MP = Marginal Product

Average Product (AP)
Average Product is the result of the total product divided by the total units of the input employed. In other words, it refers to the output per unit of the input.
Mathematically, AP = TP/N
Where, AP = Average Product
TP = Total Product
N = Total units of inputs employed

Marginal Product (MP)
Marginal Product is the addition or the increment made to the total product when one more unit of the variable input is employed. In other words, it is the ratio of the change in the total product to the change in the units of the input. It is expressed as
MP = ∆TP/∆N

where,
MP = Marginal Product
∆TP = Change in total product
∆N = Change in units of input It is also expressed as
MP = TP(n) – TP (n – 1)
Where, MP = Marginal Product
TP(n) = Total product of employing n^th unit of a factor.
TP(n – 1) = Total product of employing the previous unit of a factor, that is, (n – 1)^th unit of a factor.
The Law of Variable Proportions is explained with the help of the following schedule and diagram:

In above table, units of variable factor (labour) are employed along with other fixed factors of production. The table illustrates that there are three stages of production. Though total product increases steadily at first instant, constant at the maximum point and then diminishes, it is always positive forever.

While total product increases, marginal product increases up to a point and then decreases. Total product increases up to the point where the marginal product is zero. When total product tends to diminish marginal product becomes negative.

In diagram, the number of workers is measured on X axis while TP_L, AP_L and MP_L are denoted on Y axis. The diagram explains the three stages of production as given in the above table.

Stage I:
In the first stage MP_L increases up to third labourer and it is higher than the average product, so that total product is increasing at an increasing rate. The tendency of total product to increase at an increasing rate stops at the point A and it begins to increase at a decreasing rate. This point is known as ‘Point of Inflexion’.

Stage II:
In the second stage, MP_L decreases up to sixth unit of labour where MP_L curve intersects the X – axis. At fourth unit of labor MP_L = AP_L. After this, MP_L curve is lower than the AP_L. TP_L increases at a decreasing rate.

Stage III:
Third stage of production shows that the sixth unit of labour is marked by negative MP_L, the AP_L continues to fall but remains positive. After the sixth unit, TP_L declines with the employment of more units of variable factor, labour.

[OR]

(b) What are the types of elasticity of supply?
Answer:
There are five types of elasticity of supply

1. Relatively Elastic Supply:
The co – efficient of elastic supply is greater than 1 [E_S > 1], One percent change in the price of a commodity causes more than one percent change in the quantity supplied of the commodity.

2. Unitary Elastic Supply:
The co – efficient of elastic supply is equal to 1 [E_g = 1]. One percent change in the price of a commodity causes an equal [one percent ] change in the quantity supplied of the commodity.

3. Relatively Inelastic Supply:
The co-efficient of elasticity is less than one [ES < 1]. One percent change in the price of a commodity causes and less than one percent change in the quantity supply supplied of the commodity.

4. Perfectly Inelastic Supply:
The co – efficient of elasticity is equal to zero [E_S = 0], One percent change in the price of a commodity causes no change in the quantity supplied of the commodity.

5. Perfectly Elastic Supply:
The co – efficient of elasticity of supply is infinity [E_S = 3]. One percent change in the price of a commodity causes an infinite change in the quantity supplied of the commodity.

Question 47 (a).
Analyse the causes for Rural Indebtedness?
Answer:
The Causes for Rural Indebtedness:
(I) Poverty of Farmers:

• The vicious circle of poverty forces the farmers to borrow for consumption and cultivation.
• Thus poverty, debt and high rates of interest hold the farmer in the grip of money lenders.

(II) Failure of Monsoon:

• Frequent failure of monsoon is a curse to the farmers and they have to suffer due to the failure of nature.
• Farmers find it difficult to identify good years to repay their debts.

(III) Litigation:

• Due to land disputes litigation in the court compels them to borrow heavily.
• Being uneducated and ignorant they are caught in the litigation process and dry away their savings and resources.

(IV) Money Lenders and High Rate of Interest:
The rate of interest charged by the local money lenders is very high and the compounding of interest leads to perpetuate indebtedness of the farmer.

[OR]

(b) Explain the public transport system in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Transport:
Tamil Nadu has a well established transportation system that connects all parts of the State. This is partly responsible for the investment in the State.

Tamil Nadu is served by an extensive road network in terms of its spread and quality, providing links between urban centres, agricultural market-places and rural habitations in the countryside. However, there is scope for improvement.

Road Transport:

1. There are 28 national highways in the State covering a total distance of 5,036 km.
2. The State has a total road length of 167,000 km, of which 60,628 km are maintained by Highways Department.

Rail Transport:

1. Tamil Nadu has a well-developed rail network as part of Southern Railway, Head quartered at Chennai.
2. Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length of 6,693 km and there are 690 railway stations in the State.
3. Main rail junctions in the State include Chennai, Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Salem, Tiruchirapalli and Tirunelveli.
4. Chennai has a well – established suburban Railway network, a Mass Rapid Transport system and is currently developing a Metro System, with its first underground stretch operational since May 2017.

Air Transport:

1. Tamil Nadu has four major international airports.
2. Chennai International Airport is currently the third largest airport in India.
3. Other international Airports in Tamil Nadu include Coimbatore International Airports, Madurai International Airport and Tiruchirapalli International Airport.
4. It also has domestic airports at Tuticorin, Salem, and Madurai.
5. Increased industrial activity has given rise to an increase in passenger traffic as well as freight movement which has been growing at over 18% per year.

Ports:

1. Tamil Nadu has three major ports; one each at Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin, as well as one intermediate port in Nagapattinam, and 23 minor ports.
2. The ports are currently capable of handling over 73 million metric tonnes of cargo annually (24 % share of India).
3. All the minor ports are managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai Port.
4. This is an artificial harbour and the second principal port in the country for handling containers.
5. It is currently being upgraded to have a dedicated terminal for cars capable of handling 4,00,000 vehicles.
6. Ennore port was recently converted from an intermediate port to a major port and handles all the coal and ore traffic in Tamil Nadu.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 2

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
The face shone bright through the delicate shroud.
(a) linen
(b) veil
(c) fabric
(d) saree
Answer:
(b) veil

Question 2.
The basket of apples rolled across the concourse.
(a) carriage
(b) cavalry
(c) courtyard
(d) candour
Answer:
(c) courtyard

Question 3.
The ordinary man seldom forgets things.
(a) often
(b) rarely
(c) frequently
(d) random
Answer:
(b) rarely

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
We were so amused with the quick response from the three year old.
(a) annoyed
(b) pleased
(c) happy
(d) entertained
Answer:
(a) annoyed

Question 5.
I cherished the moist imprint as the last sign of physical presence.
(a) dry
(b) clammy
(c) sultry
(d) soggy
Answer:
(a) dry

Question 6.
Her lips moved in inaudible prayer.
(a) indistinct
(b) muted
(c) audible
(d) altered
Answer:
(c) audible

Question 7.
Choose the unclipped form of “lunch”.
(a) lunchtime
(b) luncher
(c) lunchent
(d) luncheon
Answer:
(d) luncheon

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “fratricide”.
(a) The fear of the future
(b) One who makes major changes in the education system
(c) Killing small babies
(d) The murder of your sibling
Answer:
(d) The murder of your sibling

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom ‘Add insult to injury’.
(a) Hear from the authoritative source
(b) Everything about the case
(c) To worsen an unfavourable situation
(d) To see that two agree on something
Answer:
(c) To worsen an unfavourable situation

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
I saw an old lady wearing a babushka walking down the street.
(a) gown or night dress
(b) scarf or head covering
(c) rain coat
(d) baboons dress
Answer:
(b) scarf or head covering

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “ran”.
(a) down
(b) floor
(c) sack
(d) town
Answer:
(c) sack

Question 12.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word, “nourish”.
(a) ly
(b) ile
(c) ment
(d) ness
Answer:
(c) ment

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “CPWD”.
(a) Centralised Public Works Department
(b) Central Public Works Director
(c) Central Public Works Department
(d) Central Private Works Department
Answer:
(c) Central Public Works Department

Question 14.
The correct syllabification of the word “circumstance” is………..
(a) cir-cum-stan-ces
(b) cir-cum-stance
(c) cir-cu-m-stance
(d) circ-um-stance
Answer:
(b) cir-cum-stance

Question 15.
The fear of being in the dark is known as…………
(a) Nyctophobia
(b) Topophobia
(c) Chronophobia
(d) Acronymania
Answer:
(a) Nyctophobia

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
Aijun saw the train moving ……….. the lady with a cell phone on the track.
(a) for
(b) beneath
(c) towards
(d) from
Answer:
(c) towards

Question 17.
Add a suitable question tag to the following statement.
I haven’t answered your questions, ……….. ?
(d) haven’t I
(b) have I
(c) will I
(d) shan’t I
Answer:
(b) have I

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
John is jobless at the moment so I don’t think he can afford to come on holiday with us.
(a) firing
(b) hiring
(c) after jobs
(d) between jobs
Answer:
(d) between jobs

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
Monisha takes after her dad.
(a) follows
(b) receives
(c) resembles
(d) remembers
Answer:
(c) resembles

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun
This is the stream ……….. was contaminated with plastics.
(a) which
(b) that
(c) what
(d) whose
Answer:
(a) which

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“Cocktail face with all their conforming smiles
Like a fixed portrait smile”
(a) What is meant by ‘conforming smiles’?
(b) Mention the figure of speech employed in the first line.
Answer:
(a) The conforming smile symbolizes the artificial and stiff smile meant only for appearances or occasions.
(b) Metaphor

Question 22.
“I am just glad as glad can be
That I am not them, that they are not me.
With all my heart I do admire
Athletes who sweat for fun or hire”
(a) Who does he admire? Why?
(b) Pick out the rhyming words.
Answer:
(a) The poet admires athletes who play games and sweat for fun and money.
(b) ‘be, me’ and ‘admire, hire’ are the rhyming words.

Question 23.
“He’s outwardly respectable (They say he cheats at cards)
And his footprints are not found in any file of Scotland Yard’s”
(a) Identify the poem and the poet.
(b) Whose footprints are not found in any file of Scotland Yard’s?
Answer:
(a) The poem is ‘Macavity – The Mystery Cat’ written by T.S. Eliot.
(b) Macavity’s footprints are not found in any file of Scotland Yard’s.

Question 24.
“Let’s choose executors and talk of wills.
And yet not so – for what can we bequeath
Save our deposed bodies to the ground?”
(a) What do you mean by ‘deposed bodies’?
(b) Why should they choose executors and talk about the wills?
Answer:
(a) It means dead bodies.
(b) As the king’s death is nearing the king wants to talk about executors and wills.

Question 25.
“Our pride springs from the way we live.”
(a) Under normal circumstances what makes one feel proud?
(b) What is unique about the pride mentioned above?
Answer:
(а) One’s material wealth, high social standing and popularity makes one feel proud.
(b) The sense of pride springs from the way the people live their lives and not from positions or possessions.

Question 26.
“And much it grieved my heart to think
What Man has made of Man.”
(а) What grieves the poet?
(b) What is the significance of the second line?
Answer:
(a) Man’s greed to exploit natural resources and man’s moving away from nature gives ‘grief’ to the poet.
(b) The poet is unhappy with unnatural aspects of industrial revolution, the misery caused by wars, greedy and aggressive behaviour causing suffering in humans.

(ii) Do as directed (any three) [3 × 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Rewrite the following dialogue in reported form.
Paul : Do you know that Mrs. Kalpana was awarded the Best Teacher Trophy this year by the Rotary club?
Shanmugam : Is that so? I am glad. She is a deserving teacher.
Answer:
Paul asked Shanmugam if he knew that Mrs. Kalpana was awarded the Best Teacher Trophy that year by the Rotary club. Shanmugam enquired if that was so and that he was glad about it as she was a deserving teacher.

Question 28.
Rewrite the following sentence in its passive form.
He buys a portrait.
Answer:
A portrait is bought by him.

Question 29.
Priya did not start early. She was late to school. (Combine using ‘If’)
Answer:
If Priya had started early she wouldn’t have been late to school.

Question 30.
Convert the following complex sentence into a simple sentence.
This is the place where the meeting will be held.
Answer:
This is the venue of the meeting.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
There was a time indeed.
They used to shake hands with their hearts
But that’s gone, son
Answer:
Reference: This line is from the poem “Once upon a time” written by Gabriel Okara.

Context: The poet speaks about the falsity concealed behind smiles and the lack of innocence of childhood.

Explanation: The poet, Okara observes a marked change in the altitude of Africans. Those who were once so genuine, warm and sincere, have now suddenly turned cold and hostile towards him. He realizes that the early values like sincerity, good-naturedness, simplicity, whole-heartedness, hospitality, friendliness, originality and uniqueness have now drastically changed. The earlier warmth has gone.

Question 32.
We are proud of the position we
Hold; humble as we are
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Everest is not the Only Peak” written by Kulothungan.

Context: The poet admits that he is proud of people’s humble positions because their pride springs not from positions or possessions but the way they live.

Explanation: The poet just doesn’t bother the height of the peak one reaches. It could even be a hillock. Their life knows no bending. What matters is how one reaches that spot. If merit and competence have paved the way for their success and positions, however humble they are, the poet admires them.

Question 33.
“For God’s sake let us sit upon the ground
And tell sad stories of the death of kings:”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “The Hollow Crown” by William Shakespeare. The poem is an excerpt from the play “Richard II”.

Context: This poem speaks of the vanity of life and how Death is the ultimate conqueror.

Explanation: King Richard started feeling distressed about his impending death. He realises his possessions will be reduced to a patch of land. His will bequeathing his wealth to his son will be treated like dust. He recalls how kings get slain in battlefield and cries on losing his belongings. The king feels he is also an ordinary mortal deceived by the jester ‘death’. He also needs to taste grief and needs the support of friends during distress.

(ii) Answer any two of the following questions briefly: [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 34.
What was Mary Kom’s first impression about America?
Answer:
America was cold and beautiful. What little she saw was very pleasing to her eyes. Americans were enormously nice too. She felt that this would be the place and event that would change her life.

Question 35.
What is the difference between a physical and mental tight corner?
Answer:
Physical tight comers are those situations which threaten the life of An individual. Mental tight comers are worries for which no solution is in sight. It upsets the individuals and confounds them.

Question 36.
How does Arignar Anna highlight the duties and responsibilities of graduates to the society?
Answer:
The graduates must acquire the means of a decent living. But it should be the only objective. As their education is funded by the tax from poor people, they have on obligation to pay back to the society if not in cash in terms of service. They must bring light into the dark alleys, sunshine into dingy places, solace into the affiliated hope unto the despondent and a new life into every one.

(iii) Answer any three of the following: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie-chart and answer the questions that follow:

Questions.

1. What percent of body weight constitutes of skin?
2. Forty percent of the body weight constitutes of ………..
3. Bones take up ……… percent of the body weight.

Answer:

1. Ten percent of the body weight constitutes of skin.
2. Hormones and enzymes
3. Twenty

Question 38.
Build a dialogue of minimum three exchanges between a two friends.
Answer:
Mani : What’s wrong, Tarun? You look terrible!
Tarun : My car slid into a tree, because the roads were slippery.
Mani : Slippery roads and speed don’t mix Tarun. You should be careful.
Tarun : 1 know. But I have one more problem. I didn’t have my driver’s license with me.
Mani : Why were you driving without your license?
Tarun : Well, 1 lost my wallet some days ago, while I was travelling in the bus to work.

Question 39.
Describe the process of Assembling a piece of furniture.
Answer:

1. Arrange the pieces of furniture to be assembled on the floor neatly.
2. Follow the instructions given in the manual.
3. Take inventory of all of the parts and pieces of your new furniture before you start building it.
4. Keep aside the tools you required to fix the furniture.
5. Reread all instructions and double check your handiwork before you proceed to the next step in the instruction manual.
6. Screw in all the parts as seen in the manual tightly. Check for any loose contacts.
7. Many furniture companies have videos and FAQ’s on their sites that are useful.
8. Now the furniture is ready for use.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the words given below.
(a) Appearances can be ……….. (funny, deceptive, tricky)
(b) Better ……….. than never, (late, soon, forget)
(c) Don’t ………. the hand that feeds you. (admire, thank, bite)
Answer:
(a) deceptive
(b) late
(c) bite

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
“….But, when it’s my own – well, I think hysterics are fully justified’ – How?
Answer:
The author had planned to go to England with all his family members. He arrived at the Logan airport at Boston. When they were checking in, he suddenly remembered that he forgot to use his frequent flier card (British Airways). He also remembered how he had left it in a bag. He tried to open the bag. The zip was jammed. He tried to open it by force. After several attempts, it gave away spilling all the contents in a sprawling corridor in the airport. He ignored the flying documents, silver coins and even passport.

He worried about the tobacco box which was rolling away crazily disgorging its content on the way. He cried “My Tobacco” remembering how expensive it would be to buy tobacco for his pipe in England. Just then he realized that he was bleeding profusely. He had made a gash on his finger while trying to open the zip of his bag by force. He cried hysterically on seeing his own blood, “My finger” My finger”. In general, he was not comfortable flowing other’s blood. But when it came to spilling his own blood “hysterics” was really justified.

[OR]

How do Universities mould students apart from imparting academic education to them?
Answer:
Universities mould students by providing various opportunities to develop their soft skills and to develop values which would contribute to the process of nation building. They enable graduates to develop patience and perseverance. They help them develop faith in their own inherent ability to shoulder responsibilities. They are oriented to become citizens of democracy and repay to the society quality services which would reform the lives of the poor people.

They develop true spirit of democracy among young graduates. They enable appreciation of others point of view. The graduates are also provided opportunities to adjust with difference through amicable discussions. The universities, apart from imparting education mould the students’ character and personality too.

Question 42.
Give reasons to prove that the future generations remember easily the Victor more than the Vanquished with relevant references from King Richard’s speech.
Answer:
Unusually future generations remember victors. But there are rare instances of just rulers falling due to the conspiracy and greed of an aggressor. On such occasions, future generations remember the vanquished. A Shiva devotee king was very generous. His enemies entered his kingdom under the guise of Shiva devotees in saffron clothes and slew the king and captured his kingdom. Alexander, King Richard was a just ruler. He was loved by his subjects and loyal nobles.

He was defeated by his rebellious cousin simply because he wanted to be a king. When Richard was thinking about the welfare of his subjects, Bolingbroke was secretly raising an army to dethrone him. People who are mad after power resort to unjust means. So, British subjects respected and loved the vanquished but were helpless. Defeated Porus had fought so valiantly and wanted to be treated with respect befitting a king. Alexander himself respected him and returned his kingdom and sealed a life time friendship with him. From King Richard’s speech one understands that he was good at heart but in the strategy of war, he was not good.

Like a crooked end of a straight walking stick, a ruler has to have some secret deals with neighbouring countries to be protected during crisis. Bolingbroke turned out to be a more assertive and Shrewd king. But people would remember a just and noble person more even if defeated.

[OR]

When humanity fails to live in harmony with Nature, its effects are felt around the world. Justify.
Answer:
Man, the worst predator, kills for no reason. Man has to protect forests and live in harmony with nature. Instead man is callous. He kills elephants for their tusks, Rhinoceros for their horn, and polar bears for their fur. Huge trees, in Rainforests, which have been protecting lives of many species and insects, are being felled for timber and industrialization. Due to the increase in the denudation of forests, global warming has increased. Water levels in the ocean is increasing.

Heat waves are threatening the lives of people. Polar ice is melting. Scientists fear that if this persists, there will be hostility caused by water-sharing. Like Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, there will be political unrest and community conflicts demanding share in drinking water and water for irrigation purposes. In South Africa, zero water day is fast approaching. The scarcity of portable water is going to be a huge humanitarian crisis. As we have failed to protect the national resources, carbon foot print is expanding to alarming levels.

Delhi experiences difficulty as planes struggle to land or take off dufe to thick smog in and around Delhi. As toxic waste is released by Sterlyte and other industries people in Thoothukudi are becoming victims of cancer and other lung related disorders. Atomic power plants also retain potential hazards like radio-activity. Thus humanity’s failure to live in harmony with nature is threatening to wipe out human race.

Question 43.
Write a paragraph (150 words) by developing the following hints.
Miss Meadows – upset – remains gloomy – in class – taxes the students – sing sad – the girls sense her change – Basil – She thinks of the letter – called by headmistress – telegram – happy and returns to the class with vigour and good cheer.
Answer:
The Singing Lesson, written by Katherine Mansfield, is all about a surprising d&y of a music teacher’s life. Miss Meadows, a music teacher, receives a letter from her fiance which states quite plainly that Basil, her fiance, isn’t ready to marry her and feels that the marriage would fill him with disgust. Naturally she’s filled with despair, anger and sadness. Her usual calm and cheery demeanor turns gloomy and angry that day and this change doesn’t go unnoticed by her students.

During the lesson she’s rather harsh with her students. She tells them that today they would be practising a lament. Then she tells them that they must feel the despair, the pain and the sorrow in order to perform the piece perfectly. During the lesson she’s informed by another colleague that Basil, her fiance, has sent a telegram for her. Her first thought is that Basil has committed suicide! Yes, you read that right. It’s because the school has a rule; telegram can be sent to the workers during working hours only in case of death or emergency situation. But in the telegram Basil had asked her to ignore the first letter and that he had bought the hat-stand which they had been thinking of lately. In short, the marriage is happening.

The content of the telegram definitely lights up her mood. She returns and continues her class, now practicing a cheerful song, singing with expressions, more loudly and cheerfully than any of her students.

[OR]

Jack and Jill – call their house – a little nest – like birds make their nests – all collected free of cost – Jack and Jill – made their nest – right from villa – bought in instalment – take years to own.
Answer:
The Never Never Nest is a comic one-act play about a young couple who make full use of the buy-now-pay-later system. Jack and Jill were a young married couple who had a small baby. One day Aunt Jane visited them and was surprised to find that even though Jack’s salary was not high, they lived in a beautiful house with all comforts. She began to wonder whether, as a wedding gift she had given them 2000 pounds instead of 20 pounds. Otherwise how did Jack and Jill buy all these things? Then Jane understood that though they had everything, nothing really belonged to them. They bought everything on instalments.

Only a steering wheel of the car, a wheel and two cylinders had been paid for. The total amount to be paid towards instalments was more than their earnings. Aunt Jane was shocked at the way Jack and Jill ran their family. Before she left, she gave ten pounds to Jill and told them to make at least one article completely theirs, using that money. While Jack went with aunt Jane to the bus stop, Jill sent the money to Dr. Martin. Jack came back and said that he wanted to pay .two months instalments on the car using the aunt’s gift. But Jill said that by paying this money to Dr. Martin, their baby would become completely theirs.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
The interior maintenance of a house reflect the personality of the people who live in it. Attractive home furnishings set the stage for pleasant living. A home should have unity within each room and throughout the house. Each room should, harmonize with each other. The colour and styling of each room, particularly, should fit into the colour and styling of the rooms which run out of it. However, furnishings and surroundings expressive of just the right note of restfulness, or elegant simplicity are not often assembled by accident.

Most of the home decorators plan extensively by trying colour schemes, finding ingenious ways to make the best of what you have. They shop around to search out the right purchases at prices you can afford to pay. There is a keen pleasure in striving for the perfect result, and great satisfaction in achieving it.

A successful house and successful rooms will depend upon the proper relationship of each element used in it to the others and to the whole. Therefore, in selecting each piece it is well to consider the background, the usage, the ‘draperies, the floor covering, the upholstering materials, the woods, shapes, colour scheme, and the “feeling” you prefer for the room.

Work and plan to enjoy your house. Limit the expenditures of time, effort and money to the extent of your abilities. Elegance and delicate things may be a drain you can afford only in a limited way. If you can’t afford outside help, select a house and furnishings that require less care. Plan your activities so that tumult and upset are limited to a few rooms-an activity room or a bedroom, or a comer of the dining room.

You’ll get more pleasure out of a house if you have a hobby connected with it – collecting antiques or glass, gardening or indoor flower growing ceramics, art, cooking, decorating, flower arrangements, etc. And you’ll get more satisfaction and a great deal of help from studying household activities.

You can select a pleasing combination of colours from a wallpaper, a fabric, a flower or scene, or even a picture in a magazine. It is a good idea to make up a colour scheme. Let one colour predominate. Limit a colour scheme to two or three colours, with white or gray tones.
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 369
No. of words to be written in the summary: 369/3 = 123 ±5
Rough Draft
The maintenance of the house reflects the personality of the people who live in that. So the distinctive decoration is as important as one attire in good clothes. A unity in the home can only be seen if the rooms in the house have a degree of harmony, colour and styling. Furniture is a working strategy for the pleasant living. If there is an expression of oneself then one will have a mental satisfaction every time one enter one’s home.

To attain such satisfaction one need to pore over plants, try colour schemes, window shopping to search the best thing for one’s home. Most of the home decorators plan extensively By trying colour schemes, finding ingenious ways to make the best of what you have. They shop around to search out the right purchases at prices you can afford to pay. There is a keen pleasure in striving for the perfect result, and great satisfaction in achieving it.

Fair Draft
Interior design of One’s Home
The interior furnishings of’ a house reflect the personality of the people who live in it. It is as important as one dresses in good clothes. A unity in the home can only be seen if the rooms in the house have a degree of harmony, colour and styling. Furniture also enhances one’s perception on pleasant living. One will have a mental satisfaction every time one enter one’s home.

To attain such satisfaction one need to plan extensively, try colour schemes, window shopping to search the best thing for one’s home within their budget. Home decorators helps one decide on these matters. One can get more pleasure out of a house if they have a hobby connected with it like collecting antiques, gardening, art, cooking, decorating, flower arrangements, etc.

No. of words in the summary: 129

[OR]

Notes
Title: Interior design of One’s Home
Answer:
Home reflects:

• personality of house-owner
• unity & harmony bet. rooms
• colour & styling sh’d be uniform

Elements of decoration:

• selection of colour schemes
• draperies, rugs, upholstery, woods

Plan to enjoy the House:

• limit time, effort & money
• select furnish’gs which require little care
• hobby connected with house-great pleasure.

Choice of Colours:

• one colour sh’d predominate
• calm colours for restfulness; intense for liveliness
• colours sh’d harmonise with furniture, draperies, carpets

Abbreviations used: bet. – between; sh’d – should; fumish’gs – furnishings;

Question 45.
Read the following advertisement and prepare a resume/bio-data/CV considering yourself fulfilling the conditions specified.
[Write XXXX for your name and YYYY for your address]
Wanted
Computer Operator – Diploma holder with computer knowledge, fluency in English and good communication skills, Minimum 3 Years Experience.
Apply with your bio-data to : Post Box No : 545
C/o. The Hindu
Trichy- 620001.
Answer:

25.09.XXXX

From
XXXX
YYYY

To
Post box No. 545
C/o The Hindu
Trichy – 620001

Sir,
Sub: Applying for the post of Computer Operator – Reg.
I hereby apply for the post of Computer Operator vacant in your esteemed concern. I have the necessary qualification. My particulars are furnished below for your kind consideration. Bio-data

Name: XXXX
Father’s Name : Mr. R. Karthick
Address: YYYY
Qualification : B.Sc. Computer Science, 1st class, Madurai Kamaraj University
Technical Qualification : Tally, C++, PGDCA
Experience : Seven years of service in Aircel
Age: 28
Languages known : Tamil, English
Joining date : Can join immediately
Reference : My previous employer
Mr. Raj (9876543210)
I look forward to receiving your call letter. I shall offer my services to the best of my superiors’ satisfaction sir.

Yours sincerely
XXXX
Address on the Envelope
To
Post box No. 545
C/o. The Hindu
Trichy-620001

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘Cyber safety’.
Answer:
Cyber safety
Every child needs to be taught the basics of cyber safety. All of us are aware of the fact that ‘Blue Whale’ game cost lives of many young ones across the globe. Children who are befriended through social websites reveal personal information unwittingly and are exploited by persons who have access to their personal details. Children must be advised to refrain from sharing things with total strangers. Even adults are exploited through social websites and their budding lives are at stake. So, students must not evince keen interest in making friends with strangers online. If children do not do anything that is shameful to admit to parents, cyber crimes will be reduced to minimum.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) There is nothing much selfish you can do than come to work sick.
(b) Elimination for child labour is undoubtedly one of the biggest challenge of our country.
(c) Today democracy is often assume to be a liberal form of governance.
(d) In the traditional sense prayer means communicating on God Almighty.
(e) Some of them have been converted into museums but libraries.
Answer:
(a) There is nothing more selfish you can do than come to work sick.
(b) Elimination of child labour is undoubtedly one of the biggest challenge of our country.
(c) Today democracy is often assumed to be a liberal form of governance.
(d) In the traditional sense prayer means communicating with God Almighty.
(e) Some of them have been converted into museums and libraries.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(a) The Police tried ……….. to information from the boot leggar who used to sell ………. liqour. (illicit/ elicit)
(b) All citizens ………. obey the laws of the land. (Fill in with a modal verb)
(c) We ……….. go grocery shopping, (use semi-modal)
(d) ………. he is rich, he lives in a small house. (Use a suitable link word)
Answer:
(a) elicit, illicit
(b) must
(c) need to
(d) Although

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below.
(a) The board has decided to give the shareholders a dividend of 25 percent.
(b) A salaried employee in the highest slab pays income tax at 33.66 percent.
(c) For programming, people use the binary system.
(d) Every plant organ has a definite form and structure and performs certain specific functions.
(e) “My goal is winning a Grand Slam”, says Sania Mirza.
(Botany, Sports, Taxation, Business, Computer)
Answer:
(a) Business
(b) Taxation
(c) Computer
(d) Botany
(e) Sports

[OR]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Once upon a time a frog croaked in Bingle Bog all the night beginning from dusk to dawn. All the creatures hated his loud and unpleasant voice but still they did not have any other option. The voice came out from the sumac tree where every night the frog sang till morning.

He was so determined and also shameless that neither stones, prayers or sticks nor the insults or complaints could divert him from singing. One night, a nightingale started casting her melody in the moonlight to which both the frog and the other creatures were left dumbstruck. The whole bog remained, rapt and admired her voice and applauded her when she ended. The frog was obviously jealous of his rival and had finally decided to eliminate her.

So, the next night when the nightingale was again preparing to sing, the frog’s croak disturbed her. On being asked about himself by the nightingale he answered that he owned the sumac tree and he had been known for his splendid voice. Also he said that he had written a number of songs for the Bog Trumpet. The nightingale asked him whether he liked her song or not.

The frog said that the song wasn’t bad but too long and it lacked some force. The nightingale was greatly impressed that such a critic had discussed her song. She said that she was happy that the song was her own creation. To this the frog said that she needed a proper training to obtain a strong voice otherwise she would remain a beginner only. He also said that he would train her but would charge some fee.

Now, the nightingale was flushed with confidence and was a huge sensation, attracting animals from miles away and the frog with a great accuracy charged all of them admission fee. The frog began her vocal training despite of the bad and rainy weather where even the nightingale had first refused to sing. But the frog forced her to sing for six hours continuously till she was shivering and her voice had become rough and unclear. But, somehow her neck got clear the next day and she was able to sing again collecting a breathless crowd including rich ladies kings queens etc. To all this, the frog had both sweet and bitter feelings. Sweet because he was earning lots of money and bitter because of jealously as his rival was earning name and fame.

Every day, the frog scolded her to practice even longer finding out her little mistakes like nervousness not laying more trills and frills etc. He reminded her that she still owed him sixty shillings and that’s why the crowd should increase. But the condition of nightingale was getting worse. Her tired and uninspired song could no longer attract the crowd. She could not resist this as she had become used to applause and thus had become miserable too.

The heartless frog scolded her even then calling her a brainless bird. She trembled, puffed up, burst a vein and died. The frog said that he had tried to teach her but she was foolish, nervous and tensed and moreover much prone to influence. Then, once again the frog’s fog horn started blearing unrivalled in the bog.

The moral of the poem is that being inspired and influenced by someone much unknown and strange is indeed a foolish work. The nightingale could have very well, judged that how could the frog with such a harsh voice be music maestro and she had to suffer for her misjudgement. Many people in the human society also try to take advantage of the innocence or ignorance of the people.
Questions.

1. How do you know that the frog was of a determined nature?
2. A bog is a
3. What did the nightingale become?
4. Pick out one word from the passage which means ‘genius’.
5. What is the moral of the story?

Answer:

1. He was so determined and also shameless that neither stones, prayers or sticks nor the insults or complaints could divert him from singing.
2. quagmire.
3. The nightingale became a huge sensation.
4. Maestro’ is the word which means genius.
5. The moral of the story is that being inspired and influenced by someone much unknown and strange is indeed a foolish work.