## Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Chapter 1 Basic Concepts of Chemistry and Chemical Calculations

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Pdf Chapter 1 Basic Concepts of Chemistry and Chemical Calculations Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 Basic Concepts of Chemistry and Chemical Calculations

### 11th Chemistry Guide Basic Concepts of Chemistry and Chemical Calculations Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Textual Questions:

Question 1.
40 ml of methane is completely burnt using 80 ml of oxygen at room temperature. The volume of gas left after cooling to room temperature
(a) 40 ml CO2
(b) 40 ml CO2 gas and 80 ml H2o gas
(c) 60 ml CO2 gas and 60 ml H2o gas
(d) 120 ml CO2 gas
(a) 40 ml CO2
Solution:
CH4(g) + 2O2 → CO2(g) + 2H2O (1)

 Content CH4 O2 CO2 Stoichiometric coefficient 1 2 1 Volume of reactants allowed to react 40 mL 80 mL – Volume of reactant reacted and product formed 40 mL 80 mL 40 mL Volume of gas after cooling to the room temperature – – –

Since the product was cooled to room temperature, water exists mostly as liquid. Hence, option (a) is correct.

Question 2.
An element X has the following isotopic composition 200X = 90%, 199X = 8% and 202X = 2%. The weighted average atomic mass of the element X is closest to
(a) 201 u
(b) 202 u
(c) 199 u
(d) 200 u
(d) 200 u
Solution:
X = $$\frac{(200 \times 90)+(199 \times 8)+(202 \times 2)}{100}$$ = 199.96 = 200 u

Question 3.
Assertion:
Two mole of glucose contains 12.044 × 1023 molecules of glucose
Reason:
Total number of entities present in one mole of any substance is equal to 6.02 × 1022
(a) both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d) both assertion and reason are false
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
Solution:
Correct reason:
Total number of entities present in one mole of any substance is equal to 6.022 × 1023.

Question 4.
Carbon forms two oxides, namely carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide. The equivalent mass of which element remains constant?
(a) Carbon
(b) Oxygen
(c) both carbon and oxygen
(d) neither carbon nor oxygen
(b) Oxygen
Solution:
Reaction 1:
2C + O2 → 2CO
2 × 12g carbon combines with 32g of oxygen. Hence, Equivalent mass of carbon
$$\frac{2 \times 12}{32}$$ × 8 = 6
Reaction 2:
C + O2 → CO2
12 g carbon combines with 32 g of oxygen. Hence, Equivalent mass of carbon
= $$\frac{12}{32}$$ × 8 = 6

Question 5.
The equivalent mass of a trivalent metal element is 9 g eq-1 the molar mass of its anhydrous oxide is
(a) 102 g
(b) 27 g
(c) 270 g
(d) 78 g
(a) 102 g
Solution:
Let the trivalent metal be M3
Equivalent mass = mass of the metal / 3 eq
9 g eq-1 = mass of the metal / 3 eq
Mass of the metal = 27 g
Oxide formed M2O3 ;
Mass of the oxide = (2 × 27) + (3 × 16) = 102 g

Question 6.
The number of water molecules in a drop of water weighing 0.018 g is
(a) 6.022 × 1026
(b) 6.022 × 1023
(c) 6.022 × 1020
(d) 9.9 × 1022
(c) 6.022 × 1020
Solution:
Weight of the water drop 0.018 g
No. of moles of water in the drop = Mass of water / molar mass = 0.018/18 = 10-3 mole
No of water molecules present in 1 mole of water = 6.022 × 1023
No. water molecules in one drop of water(10-3 mole)
= 6.022 × 1023 × 10-3
= 6.022 × 1020

Question 7.
1 g of an impure sample of magnesium carbonate (containing no thermally decomposable impurities) on complete thermal decomposition gave 0.44 g of carbon dioxide gas. The percentage of impurity in the sample is
(a) 0 %
(b) 4.4 %
(c) 16 %
(d) 8.4 %
(c) 16 %
Solution:
MgCO3 → MgO + CO2
MgCO3:
(1 × 24) + (1 × 12) + (3 × 16) = 84 g
CO2: (1 × 12) + (2 × 16) = 44g
100 % pure 84 g MgCO3 on heating gives 44 g CO2
Given that 1 g of MgCO3 on heating gives 44 g of CO2
Therefore, 84 g MgCO3 sample on heating gives 36.96 g CO2
Percentage of purity of the sample = $$\frac{100 \%}{44 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{CO}_{2}}$$ × 36.96 g of CO2 = 84 %
Percentage of impurity = 16 %

Question Question 8.
When 6.3 g of sodium bicarbonate is added to 30 g of acetic acid solution, the residual solution is found to weigh 33 g. The number of moles of carbon dioxide released in the reaction is
(a) 3
(b) 0.75
(c) 0.075
(d) 0.3
(c) 0.075
solution:
NaHCO3 + CH3COOH → CH3OONa + H2O + CO2
6.3 g + 30 g → 33 g + x
The amount of CO2 released, x = 3.3 g
No. of moles of CO2 released = 3.3/44 = 0.075 mol.

Question 9.
When 22.4 litres of H2 (g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl2 (g), each at 273 K at 1 atm the moles of HCl (g), formed is equal to
(a) 2 moles of HCl (g)
(b) 0.5 moles of HCl (g)
(c) 1.5 moles of HCl (g)
(d) 1 moles of HCl (g)
(d) 1 moles of HCl (g)
Solution:
H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)

 Content CH4 02 CO2 Stoichiometric coefficient 1 1 2 No. of moles of reactants allowed to react at 273 K and 1 atm pressure 22.4 L (1 mol) 11.2 L (0.5 mol) _ No. of moles of a reactant reacted and product formed 0.5 0.5 _

Amount of HCl formed = 1 mol

Question 10.
Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately strong oxidising agent. Which of the following reactions does not show oxidising behaviour?
(a) Cu + 2H2 → CuSO4 + SO2 +2 H2O
(b) C + 2 H2SO4 → CO2 + 2 SO2 +2 H2O
(c) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl
(d) none of the above
(c) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl
Solution:

Question 11.
Choose the disproportionation reaction among the following redox reactions.
(a) 3Mg(s) + N2(g) → Mg3N2(s)
(b) P4(s) + 3NaOH + 3H2O → PH3(g) + 3NaH2PO2(aq)
(c) Cl2(g) + 2KI(aq) → 2KCl(aq) + I2(s)
(d) Cr2O3(s) + 2Al(s) → Al2O3(s) + 2Cr(s)
b) P4(s) + 3NaOH + 3H2O → PH3(g) + 3NaH2PO2(aq)
Solution:

Question 12.
The equivalent mass of potassium permanganate in an alkaline medium is
MnO4 + 2H2O + 3e → MnO2 + 4OH
(a) 31.6
(b) 52.7
(c) 79
(d) None of these
(b) 52.7
Solution:
The reduction reaction of the oxidising agent (Mn04) involves the gain of 3 electrons.
Hence the equivalent mass = (Molar mass of KMnO4)/3 = 158.1/3 = 52.7

Question 13.
Which one of the following represents 180g of water?
(a) 5 Moles of water
(b) 90 moles of water
(c) $$\frac{6.022 \times 10^{23}}{180}$$

(d) $$\frac{6.022 \times 10^{23}}{1.7}$$
(d) $$\frac{6.022 \times 10^{23}}{1.7}$$
Solution:
No. of moles of water present in 180 g = Mass of water / Molar mass of water = 180 g/18 gmol-1 = 10 moles
One mole of water contains = 6.022 × 1023 water molecules
10 mole of water contains = 6.022 × 1023 × 10 × 6.022 × 1024 water molecules

Question 14.
7.5 g of a gas occupies a volume of 5.6 litres at 0° C and 1 atm pressure. The gas is
(a) NO
(b ) N2O
(c) CO
(d) CO2
(a) NO
Solution:
7.5 g of gas occupies a volume of 5.6 liters at 273 K and 1 atm pressure Therefore, the mass of gas that occupies a volume of 22.4 liters
= $$\frac{7.5 g}{5.61}$$ × 22.41 = 30 g
Molar mass of NO (14 + 16) = 30 g

Question 15.
Total number of electrons present in 1.7 g of ammonia is
(a) 6.022 × 1023
(b) $$\frac{6.022 \times 10^{22}}{1.7}$$
(c) $$\frac{6.022 \times 10^{24}}{1.7}$$
(d) $$\frac{6.022 \times 10^{23}}{1.7}$$
(a) 6.022 × 1023
Solution:
No. of electrons present in one ammonia (NH3) molecule (7 + 3) = 10
No. of moles of ammonia = $$\frac{\text { Mass }}{\text { Molar mass }}$$
= $$\frac{1.7 \mathrm{~g}}{17 \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}}$$ = 0.1 mol
= 0.1 × 6.022 × 1023 = 6.022 × 1022
= No. of electrons present in 0.1 mol of ammonia

Question 16.
The correct increasing order of the oxidation state of sulphur in the anions
SO42-, SO32-, S2O42-, S2O62- is

(a) SO32- < SO42- < S2O42- < S2O62-

(b) SO42- < S2O42- < S2O62- < SO32-

(c) S2O42- < SO32- < S2O62- < SO42-

(d) S2O62- < S2O42- < SO42- < SO32-
(c) S2O42- < SO32- < S2O62- < SO42-
Solution:

Question 17.
The equivalent mass of ferrous oxalate is
(a) $$\frac{\text { molar mass of ferrous oxalate }}{1}$$

(b) $$\frac{\text { molar mass of ferrous oxalate }}{2}$$

(c) $$\frac{\text { molar mass of ferrous oxalate }}{3}$$
(d) none of these
(c) $$\frac{\text { molar mass of ferrous oxalate }}{3}$$
Solution:

Question 18.
If Avogadro number were changed from 6.022 × 1023 to 6.022 × 1020, this would change
(a) the ratio of chemical species to each other in a balanced equation
(b) the ratio of elements to each other in a compound
(c) the definition of mass in units of grams
(d) the mass of one mole of carbon
(d) the mass of one mole of carbon

Question 19.
Two 22.4 liter containers A and B contains 8 g of O2 and 8 g of SO2 respectively at 273 K and 1 atm pressure, then
(a) Number of molecules in A and B are the same
(b) Number of molecules in B is more than that in A.
(c) The ratio between the number of molecules in A to number of molecules in B is 2 : 1
(d) Number of molecules in B is three times greater than the number of molecules in A.
(c) The ratio between the number of molecules in A to number of molecules in B is 2 : 1
Solution:
No. of moles of oxygen = 8 g/32 g = 0.25 moles of oxygen
No. of moles of sulphur dioxide = 8 g/64 g
= 0.125 moles of sulphur dioxide
Ratio between the no. of molecules = 0.25 : 0.125 = 2 : 1

Question 20.
What is the mass of precipitate formed when 50 ml of 8.5 % solution of AgNO3 is mixed with 100 ml of 1.865 % potassium chloride solution?
(a) 3.59 g
(b) 7 g
(c) 14 g
(d) 28 g
(a) 3.59 g
Solution:
AgNO3 + KCl → KNO3 + AgCl
50 mL of 8.5 % solution contains 4.25 g of AgNO3
No. of moles of AgNO3 present in 50 mL of 8.5 % AgNO3 solution
= Mass / Molar mass = 4.25 / 170 = 0.025 moles
Similarly, No of moles of KCl present in 100 mL of 1.865 % KCl solution = 1.865 / 74.5 = 0.025 moles
So total amount of AgCl formed is 0.025 moles (based on the stoichiometry)
Amount of AgCl present in 0.025 moles of AgCl
= No. of moles × molar mass = 0.025 × 143.5 = 3.59 g

Question 21.
The mass of a gas that occupies a volume of 612.5 ml at room temperature and pressure (25°C and 1 atm pressure) is 1.1 g. The molar mass of the gas is
(a) 66.25 g mol-1
(b) 44 g mol-1
(c) 24.5 g mol-1
(d) 662.5 g mol-1
(b) 44 g mol-1
Solution:
No. of moles of a gas that occupies a volume of 612.5 mL at room temperature and pressure (25° C and 1 atm pressure)
= 612.5 × 10-3 L/24.5 L mol-1
= 0.025 moles
We know that,
Molar mass = Mass / no. of moles
= 1.1 g / 0.025 mol
= 44 g mol-1

Question 22.
Which of the following contain the same number of carbon atoms as in 6 g of carbon -12.
(a) 7.5 g ethane
(b) 8 g methane
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
(c) both (a) and (b)
Solution:
No. of moles of carbon present in 6 g of C – 12 = Mass/Molar mass
= 6/12 = 0.5 moles
= 0.5 × 6.022 × 1023 carbon atoms.
No. of moles in 8 g of methane
= 8/16 = 0.5 moles
= 0.5 × 6.022 × 1023 carbon atoms.
No. of moles in 7.5 g of ethane = 7.5 / 16 = 0.25 moles
= 2 × 0.25 × 6.022 × 1023 carbon atoms.

Question 23.
Which of the following compound(s) has/have a percentage of carbon same as that in ethylene (C2H4)
(a) Propene
(b) ethyne
(c) benzene
(d) ethane
(a) Propene
Solution:
Percentage of carbon in ethylene (C2H4) = $$\frac{\text { mass of carbon }}{\times 100 \text { Molar mass }}$$
= $$\frac{24}{28}$$ × 100 = 85.71 %
Percentage of carbon in propene (C3H6) = $$\frac{24}{28}$$ × 100 = 85.71 %

Question 24.
Which of the following is/are true with respect to carbon -12.
(a) relative atomic mass is 12 u
(b) oxidation number of carbon is +4 in all its compounds.
(c) 1 mole of carbon-12 contains 6.022 × 1022 carbon atoms.
(d) all of these
(a) relative atomic mass is 12 u

Question 25.
Which one of the following is used as a standard for atomic mass.
(a) 6C12
(b) 7C12
(c) 6C13
(d) 6C14
(a) 6C12

II. Write brief answer to the following questions:

Question 26.
Define relative atomic mass.
Relative atomic mass is defined as the ratio of the average atomic mass factor to the unified atomic mass unit.
Relative atomic mass (Ar) = $$\frac{\text { Average mass of the atom }}{\text { Unified atomic mass }}$$

Question 27.
What do you understand by the term mole?
The mole is defined as the amount of a substance which contains 6.023 x 1023 particles such as atoms, molecules, or ions. It is represented by the symbol.

Question 28.
Define equivalent mass.
Gram equivalent mass of an element, compound or ion is the mass that combines or displaces 1.008 g hydrogen or 8 g oxygen or 35.5 g chlorine. Equivalent mass has no unit but gram equivalent mass has the unit g eq-1.
Gram equivalent mass = $$\frac{\text { Molar mass }\left(\mathrm{g} \mathrm{mol}^{-1}\right)}{\text {Equivalence factor }\left(\mathrm{eq} \mathrm{mol}^{-1}\right)}$$

Question 29.
Distinguish between oxidation and reduction.

 Oxidation Reduction 1. Reactions involving the addition of oxygen Reactions involving removal of hydrogen 2. Reactions involving loss of an electron Reactions involving gain of electron 3. Reaction in which oxidation number of the element increases. Reaction in which oxidation number of the element decreases.

Question 30.
What do you understand by the term oxidation number.
Oxidation:
According to the classical concept, oxidation is a process of addition of oxygen or removal of hydrogen.
Removal of hydrogen
2H2S + O2 → H2O + 2S
C + O2 → CO2
According to the electronic concept, loss of electrons is called oxidation reaction.
Ca → Ca2+ + 2e
During oxidation, oxidation number increases.
Dining oxidation, reducing agent gets oxidised.

Reduction:
Reduction is a process of removal of oxygen or addition of hydrogen.
Ca + H2 → CaH2
Removal of oxygen
Zn O + C → Zn + CO
According to the electronic concept, gain of electrons is called a reduction reaction.
Zn2+ + 2e → Zn
During reduction, oxidation number decreases.
During reduction, oxidising agent gets reduced.

Question 31.
Calculate the molar mass of the following compounds.
(i) urea [CO(NH2)2]:
Molar mass of urea = (4 × Atomic mass of hydrogen) + ( 1 × Atomic mass of carbon) + ( 2 × Atomic mass of nitrogen) + ( 1 × Atomic mass of oxygen)
= (4 × 1.008) +(1 × 12) + (2 × 14)+ ( 1 × 16)
= 4.032 + 12 + 28 + 16 = 60.032 g mol-1

(ii) acetone[CH3COCH3]
Molar mass of Acetone = (6 × Atomic mass of hydrogen) + ( 3 × Atomic mass of carbon) + (1 × Atomic mass of oxygen) = (6 × 1.008) + (3 × 12) + ( 1 × 16)
= 6.048 + 36 + 16 = 52.024 g mol-1.

(iii) boric acid [H3BO3]:
Molar mass of Boric acid = (3 × Atomic mass of hydrogen) + ( 1 × Atomic mass of boron) + ( 3 × Atomic mass of oxygen)
= (3 × 1.008) + (3 × 11) + ( 1 × 16)
= 3.024 + 33 + 16 = 52.024 g mol-1.

(iv) sulphuric acid [H2SO4] = (2 × Atomic mass of hydrogen) + ( 1 × Atomic mass of sulphur) + ( 4 × Atomic mass of oxygen)
= (2 × 1.008) +(1 × 32) + (4 × 16)
= 2.016 + 32 +64 = 98.016 g mol-1.

Question 32.
The density of carbon dioxide is equal to 1.965 kgm-3 at 273 K and 1 atm pressure. Calculate the molar mass of CO2.
Given:
The density of C02 at 273 K and 1 atm pressure = 1.965 kgm-3
Molar mass of CO2 =?
At 273 K and 1 atm pressure, 1 mole of CO2 occupies a volume of 22.4 L
Mass of 1 mole of CO2 = $$\frac{1.965 \mathrm{Kg}}{1 \mathrm{~m}^{3}}$$ × 22.4 L
= $$\frac{1.965 \times 10^{3} \mathrm{~g} \times 22.4 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~m}^{3}}{1 \mathrm{~m}^{3}}$$
= 44.01 g
Molar mass of CO2 = 44 gmol-1

Question 33.
Which contains the greatest number of moles of oxygen atoms.
1 mol of ethanol
1 mol of formic acid
1 mol of H2O

 Compound Given no. of moles No. of oxygen atoms Ethanol – C2H5OH 1 1 × 6.022 × 1023 Formic acid -HCOOH 1 2 × 6.022 × 1023 Water – H2O 1 1 × 6.022 × 1023

Question 34.
Calculate the average atomic mass of naturally occurring magnesium using the following data:

 Isotope Isotopic atomic mass Abundance (%) Mg24 23.99 78.99 Mg26 24.99 10.00 Mg25 25.98 11.01

Average atomic mass
= $$\frac{(78.9923 .99)(1024.99)(11.0125 .98)}{100}$$
= $$\frac{2430.9}{100}$$
= 24.31 u

Question 35.
In a reaction x + y + xyz. identify the Limiting reagent if any, in the following reaction mixtures.
(a) 200 atoms of x + 200 atoms of y + 50 molecules of z2.
(b) 1 mol of x + 1 mol ofy + 3 mol of z2.
(c) 50 atoms of x + 25 atoms of y + 50 molecules of z2.
(d) 2.5 mol ofx + 5 mol ofy + 5 mol of z2.
Reaction:
x + y + z2 → xyz2

(a) 200 atoms of x + 200 atoms of y + 50 molecules of z2 According to the reaction, 1 atom of x reacts with one atom of y and one molecule of z to give product. In the case (a) 200 atoms of x, 200 atoms of y react with 50 molecules of z2 (4 part) i.e. 50 molecules of z2 react with 50 atoms of x and 50 atoms of y. Hence z is the limiting reagent.

(b) 1 mol of x + 1 mol of y + 3 mol of z2
According to the equation 1 mole of z2 only react with one mole of x and one mole of y. If 3 moles of z2 are there, z is limiting reagent.

(c) 50 atoms of x + 25 atoms of y + 50 molecules of z2
25 atoms of y react with 25 atoms of x and 25 molecules of z2. So y is the limiting reagent.

(d) 2.5 mol of x + 5 mol of y + 5 mol of z2
2.5 mol of x react with 2.5 mole of y and 2.5 mole of z2. So x is the limiting reagent.

Question 36.
Mass of one atom of an element is 6.645 × 1023 g How many moles of element are there in 0.320 kg.

there in 0.320 kg
Given:
mass of 1 atom = 6.645 × 10-23 g
∴ mass of 1 mole of atom = 6.645 × 10-2323 g × 6.022 × 1023 = 40 g
∴ Number of moles of element in 0.320 kg = $$\frac{1 \mathrm{~mol}}{40 \mathrm{~g}}$$ × 0.320 kg
= $$\frac{1 \mathrm{~mol} \times 320 \mathrm{~g}}{40 \mathrm{~g}}$$ = 8 mol

Question 37.
What is the difference between molecular mass and molar mass? Calculate the molecular mass and molar mass for carbon monoxide.
Molecular mass:

• Relative molecular mass is defined as the ratio of the mass of the molecule to the unified atomic mass unit.
•  It can be calculated by adding the relative atomic masses of its constituent atoms.
• For carbon monoxide (CO) Molecular mass = Atomic mass of carbon + Atomic mass of oxygen 12 + 16 = 28 u.

Molar mass:

• It is defined as the mass of one mole of a substance.
• The molar mass of a compound is equal to the sum of the relative atomic masses of its constituent expressed in g mol-1.
• For carbon monoxide (CO) 12 + 16 = 28 g mol-1 Both molecular mass and molar mass are numerically the same but the units are different.

Question 38.
What is the empirical formula of the following?
(i) Fructose (C6H12O6) found in honey
(ii) Caffeine (C8H10N4O2 )a substance found in tea and coffee.

 Compound Molecular formula Empirical formula Fructose C6H12O6 CH2O Caffeine C8H10N4O2 C4H5N2O

Question 39.
The reaction between aluminium and ferric oxide can generate temperatures up to 3273 K and is used in welding metals. (Atomic mass of AC = 27 u Atomic mass of O = 16 u)
2Al + Fe2O3 → Al2O3 + 2Fe; If, in this process, 324 g of aluminium is allowed to react with 1.12 kg of ferric oxide
(i) Calculate the mass of Al2O3 formed.
(ii) How much of the excess reagent is left at the end of the reaction?
Given:
2Al + Fe2O3 → Al2O3 + 2Fe

Molar mass of Al2O3 formed = 6mol × 102 g mol-1 = 612 g
[Al2O3 = (2 × 27) + (3 × 16) = 54 + 48 = 102]
Excess reagent = Fe2O3.
Amount of excess reagent left at the end of the reaction = 1 mol × 160 g mol-1 = 160 g
[Fe2O3 = (2 × 56) + (3 × 16) = 112 + 48 = 160 g] = 160 g

Question 40.
How many moles of ethane is requircd to produce 44 g of CO2 (g) after combustion. Balanced equation for the combustion of ethane.
C2H6 + $$\frac{7}{2}$$O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O
⇒ 2C2H6 + 7O2 → 4CO2 + 6H2O
∴ To produce 4 moles of CO2, 2 moles of ethane is required
To produce 1 mole (44g) of CO2 required number of moles of ethane
= $$\frac{1}{2}$$ mole of ethane
= 0.5 mole of ethane

Question 41.
Hydrogen peroxide is an oxidising agent. It oxidises ferrous ion to ferric ion and reduced itself to water. Write a balanced equation.

Question 42.
Calculate the empirical and molecular formula of a compound containing 76.6% carbon, 6.38 % hydrogen and rest oxygen its vapour density is 47.

Empirical formula = C6H6O
η = Molar mass / Calculated empirical formula mass = $$\frac{2 \times \text { vapour density }}{94}$$
= $$\frac{2 \times 47}{94}$$ = 1
∴ Molecular formula(C6H6O) × 1 = C6H6O

Question 43.
A Compound on analysis gave Na = 14.31% S = 9.97% H= 6.22% and 0= 69.5% calculate the molecular formula of the compound if all the hydrogen in the compound is present in combination with oxygen as water of crystallization, (molecular mass of the compound is 322).

∴ Empirical formula = Na2SH20O14
η = Molar mass / Calculated empirical formula mass
= $$\frac{322}{322}$$ = 1
[Na2SH20O14 = (2 × 23) + (1 × 32) + (20 × 1) + (14 × 16)
= 46 + 32 + 20 + 224 = 322]
Molecular formula = Na2SH20O14
Since all the hydrogen in the compound present as water
∴ Molecular formula is Na2SH20O14

Question 44.
Balance the following equations by oxidation number method
(i) K2Cr2O7 + KI + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4)3 + I2 + H2O

K2Cr2O7 + 6KI + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4)3 + I2 + H2O
K2Cr2O7 + 6KI + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4)3 + 3I2 + H2O
K2Cr2O7 + 6KI + 7H2SO4 → 4K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4) + I2 + 7H2O

(ii) KMnO4 + Na2SO3 → MnO2 + Na2SO4 + KOH

⇒ 2KMnO4 + 3Na2SO3 → MnO2 + Na2SO4 + KOH
⇒ 2KMnO4 + 3Na2SO3 → 2MnO2 + 3Na2SO4 + KOH
⇒ 2KMnO4 + 3Na2SO3 → MnO2 + Na2SO4 + 2KOH

(iii) Cu + HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + NO2 + H2O

Cu + 2HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + NO2 + H2O
Cu + 2HNO3 + 2HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO2 + 2H2O
Cu + 4HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO2 + 2H2O

(iv) KMnO4 + H2C2O4 + H2SO4 → K2SO + MnSO4 + CO2 + H2O

KMnO4 + 5H2C2O4 + H2SO4 → K2SO + MnSO4 + CO2 + H2O
2KMnO4 + 5H2C2O4 + H2SO4 → 2MnSO4 + 10CO2 + H2O
2KMnO4 + 5H2C2O4 + 3H2SO4 → K2SO + 2MnSO4 + 10CO2 + 8H2O

Question 45.
Balance the following equations by ion electron method.
(i) KMnO4 + SnCl2 + HCl → MnCl2 SnCl4 + H2O + KCl

(ii) C2O42- + Cr2O72-
Cr3+ + CO2 (in acid medium)

(iii) Na2S2O3 + I2 → Na2S4O6 + NaI 2 (in acid medium)
S2O32- → S4O62- ………….(1)
Half reaction ⇒ I2 → I …………….(2)

(iv) Zn + NO3 → Zn+2 + NO
Half reactions are

### 11th Chemistry Guide Basic Concepts of Chemistry and Chemical Calculations Additional Questions and Answers

Question 1.
_____ consists of more than one chemical entity present without any chemical interactions.
(a) Mixtures
(b) Pure substances
(c) Compounds
(d) Elements
(a) Mixtures

Question 2.
_______ are made up of molecules which contain two or more atoms of different elements.
(a) Mixtures
(b) Compounds
(c) Pure substances
(d) Elements
(b) Compounds

Question 3.
Match the correct pair:

 A. Compound (i) S8 B. Mixture (ii) Glucose C. Element (iii) Air

(a) A – ii, B – i, C – iii
(b) A – i, B – ii, C – iii
(c) A – ii, B – iii, C – i
(d) A – iii, B – ii, C – i
(c) A – ii, B – iii, C – i

Question 4.
_______ atom is considered as standard by the IUPAC for calculating atomic masses.
(a) C – 13
(b) C – 15
(c) C – 14
(d) C – 12
(d) C – 12

Question 5.
The value of unified mass is equal to
(a) 1.6605 × 10-27 kg
(b) 1.6736 × 10-27 kg
(c) 1.6605 × 1027 kg
(d) 1.6736 × 10-29 kg
(a) 1.6605 × 10-27 kg

Question 6.
Chlorine consists of two naturally occurring isotopes 17Cl35 and 17Cl37 in the ratio 77 : 23. The average relative atomic mass of chlorine is
(a) 36.45 u
(b) 35.56 u
(c) 35.46 u
(d) 35.65 u
(c) 35.46 u

Question 7.
The relative atomic masses of hydrogen, oxygen, and carbon are 1.008 u, 16 u, and 12 u respectively. The relative molecular mass of glucose (C6 H12 O6 ) is
(a) 170.096 u
(b) 189.096 u
(c) 180.096 u
(d) 190.086 u
(c) 180.096 u

Question 8.
The specific amount of a substance is represented in SI unit is
(a) amu
(b) mole
(c) atomic mass
(d) equivalent mass
(b) mole

Question 9.
Commonly used medicines for treating heart bum and acidity are called
(a) antipyretics
(b) analgesics
(c) antiseptics
(d) antacids
(d) antacids

Question 10.
The typical concentration of hydrochloric acid in gastric acid is
(a) 0.1 M
(b) 0.01 M
(c) 0.082 M
(d) 0.82 M
(c) 0.082 M

Question 11.
Antacids used to treat acidity contain mostly
(a) Al(OH)3
(b) Mg(OH)2
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) Ca(OH)2
(c) (a) or (b)

Question 12.
The value of Avogadro number is
(a) 6.022 × 1023
(b) 6.022 × 1022
(e) 6.022 × 10-25
(d) 6.022 × 10-23
(a) 6.022 × 1023

Question 13.
The volume occupied by one mole of any substance in the gaseous state st 273 K and 1 atm pressure is _______ (in litres)
(a) 24.5
(b) 22.4
(e) 22.71
(d) 21.18
(b) 22.4

Question 14.
The equivalent mass of KMnO4(Molar mass 158 g mol -1 based on the equation
MnO4 + 8H+ + 5e → Mn2+ + 4H2O
(a) 158
(b) 52.66
(c) 31.6
(d) 40
(c) 31.6

Question 15.
The molecular formula of acetic acid is C2H4O2 Its empirical formula is
(a) C2H4O2
(b) C2H2O
(c) CH2O2
(d) CH2O
(d) CH2O

Question 16.
The number of moles of hydrogen required to produce 20 moles of ammonia is
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 30
(d) 20
(c) 30

Question 17.
Which of the following is/are redox reactions?
(i) 4Fe + 3O2 → 2Fe2O3
(ii) H2S + Cl2 → 2HCl + S
(iii) CuO + C → Cu + CO
(iv) S +H2 → H2S
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Question 18.
The oxidation number of sulphur on H2SO4 is
(a) -2
(b) -6
(c) +2
(d) +6
(d) +6

Question 19.
Choose the correct pair:

 Compound Oxidation number A. Cr in Cr2O7 (i) +4 B. C in CO2 (ii) +2 C. C in CH2F2 (iii) +6 D. Mn in MnSO4 (iv) 0

(a) A – i, B – iv, C- iii, D – ii
(b) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii
(c) A – i, B – ii, C – iv, D – iii
(d) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii
(b) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii

Question 20.
The change in the oxidation number of Manganese in the following reaction 2 KMnO4 + 10 FeSO4 + 8 H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 5 Fe2(SO4)3 + 8 H2O
(a) +2 to +7
(b) +2 to +5
(c) +7 to +2
(d) +5 to +2
(c) +7 to +2

Question 21.
Which of the following statements are correct about oxidation?
(i) Removal of oxygen
(iii) Loss of electron
(iv) Gain of electron
(vi) Removal of hydrogen
(a) i, ii, iv
(b) iii, v, vi
(c) i, iii, v
(d) iii, iv, v
(b) iii, v, vi

Question 22.
Choose the correct oxidation number of oxygen in the following compounds.

 (A) KO2 (i) -2 (B) H2O (ii) +2 (C) H2O2 (iii) -1/2 (D) OF2 (iv) -1

(a) A -iii, B- iv, C – i, D – ii.
(b) A – iv, B – i, C – iii, D – ii
(c) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii
(d) A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D – ii
(c) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii

Question 23.
The correct order of electron releasing tendency of the following elements is
(a) Zn > Cu > Ag
(b) Cu > Zn > Ag
(c) Ag > Zn > Cu
(d) Ag > Cu > Zn
(a) Zn > Cu > Ag

Question 24.
H2O2 → 2 H2O + O2 is a
(a) Displacement reaction
(b) Combinationreaction
(c) Decomposition reaction
(d) Disproportionate reaction
(d) Disproportionate reaction

Question 25.
The molar mass and empirical formula mass of a compound are 78 and 13 respectively. The molecular formula of the compound is (Empirical formula is CH)
(a) C2H2O2
(b) C2H4
(c) C6H6
(d) C3H8
(c) C6H6

II. Very Short Question and Answers (2 Marks):

Question 1.
It states that ‘Equal volume of all gases under the same conditions of temperature and pressure contain the same number of molecules’.

Question 2.
How is matter classified physically?
Matter can be classified as solids, liquids, and gases based on their physical state. The physical state of matter can be converted into one another by modifying the temperature and pressure suitably.

Question 3.
How is matter classified chemically?
Matter can be classified into mixtures and pure substances based on chemical compositions.

Question 4.
Calculate a number of moles of carbon atoms ¡n three moles of ethane.
Ethane – Molecular formula = C2H6
1 mole of ethane contains 2 atoms of carbon (6.023 x 1023 C)
∴ 3 moles of ethane contains 6 atoms of Carbon.
∴ No. of moles of Carbon atoms = 3 x 6.023 x 1023 Carbon atoms.
= 18.069 x 1023 Carbon atoms.

Question 5.
What are pure substances? How are they classified?
Pure substances are composed of simple atoms or molecules. They are further classified as elements and compounds.

Question 6.
Mass of one atom of an element ¡s 6.66 x 1023 g. How many moles of the element are there in 0.320 kg?
Mass of one atom of an element = 6.66 x 1023g
No. of moles = $$\frac {Mass}{Molecular mass}$$ 3
Molecular mass = Mass of 1 atom x Avogadro number
6.66 x 1023 x 6.023 x 1023
= 6.66 x 6.023 = 40.11318
Number of moles = $$\frac {Mass}{Molecular mass}$$ = $$\frac{0.320 \mathrm{kg} \times 10^{3}}{40}$$ = 8 moles.

Question 7.
What are compounds? Give examples.
Compounds are made up of molecules which contain two or more atoms of different elements.
Example: Carbon dioxide (CO2), Sodium Chloride (NaCl).

Question 8.
Calculate the weight of 0.2 moles of sodium carbonate.
Sodium carbonate = Na2CO3
Molecular mass of Na2CO3 = (23 x 2)+(12 x 1)+(16 x 3)
= 46 + 12 + 48 = 106 g
Mass of 1 mole of Na2CO3 = $$\frac{106 \times 0.2}{1}$$ = 21.2 g

Question 9.
Define relative atomic mass.
The relative atomic mass is defined as the ratio of the average atomic mass factor to the unified atomic mass unit.
Relative atomic mass
(Ar) = Average mass of the atom / Unified atomic mass

Question 10.
What is the average atomic mass?
Average atomic mass is defined as the average of the atomic masses of all atoms in their naturally occurring isotopes.

Question 11.
Calculate the equivalent mass of barium hydroxide.
Barium hydroxide = Ba(OH)2
Molecular mass of Ba(OH)2 = 137 + (16 x 2) + (1 x 2) = 171.0 g / mol.
Acidity = 2
Equivalent mass of Ba(OH)2 = $$\frac {17 1.0}{2}$$ = 85.5

Question 12.
What is a mole?
One mole is the amount of substance of a system, which contains as many elementary particles as there are atoms in 12 g of carbon – 12 isotope. The elementary particles can be molecules, atoms, ions, electrons or any other specified particles.

Question 13.
What do you understand by the terms empirical formula and molecular formula?
Empirical Formula:

• It is the simplest formula.
• It shows the ratio of the number of atoms of different elements in one molecule of the compound.

Molecular Formula:

• It is the actual formula.
• It shows the actual number of different types of atoms present in one molecule of the compound.

Question 14.
The total number of entities present in one mole of any substance is equal to 6.022 × 1023. This number is called the Avogadro number.

Question 15.
Equal volume of all gases under the same conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of molecules.

Question 16.
Calculate the mass of sodium (in kg) present in 95 kg of a crude sample of sodium nitrate whose percentage purity is 70%.
Sodium Nitrate = NaNO3
Molecular mass of Sodium Nitrate = 23 + 14 + 48 = 85
100% pure 85 g of NaNO3 contains 23 g of Sodium.
100% pure 95 x 103 g of NaNO3 will contains $$\frac {23}{85}$$ x 95 x 103
= 25.70 x 103 g of Sodium.
100% pure NaNO3  contains 25.70 x 103 g of Sodium.
∴ 70% pure NaNO3  will contains = 17990 g (or) 17.99 Kg of Na.

Question 17.
Define molar volume.
The volume occupied by one mole of any substance in the gaseous state at a given temperature and pressure is called molar volume.

Question 18.
What is gram equivalent mass?
Gram equivalent mass of an element, compound or ion is the mass that combines or displaces 1.008 g hydrogen or 8 g oxygen or 35.5 g chlorine.
Gram equivalent mass = (Molar mass(g mol-1)) / Equivalence factor (eq mol-1)

Question 19.
What is meant by Plasma state? Give an example.
The gaseous state of matter at a very high temperature containing gaseous ions and free-electron is referred to as the Plasma state. e.g. Lightning.

Question 20.
What is the acidity of a base? Give an example.
The acidity of a base is the number of moles of ionizable OH- ions present in 1 mole of the base. The acidity of potassium hydroxide (KOH) is 1.

Question 21.
What is empirical formula ola compound?
The empirical formula of a compound is the formula written with the simplest ratio of the number of different atoms present in one molecule of the compound as a subscript to the atomic symbol.

Question 22.
Chlorine has a fractional average atomic mass. Justify this statement.
Chlorine molecule has two isotopes as in 17Cl35, 17 Cl37 in the ratio of 77 : 23, so when we are calculating the average atomic mass, it becomes fractional.
The average relative atomic mass of Chlorine = $$\frac {(35 x 77) + (37 x 23)}{100}$$ = 35.46 amu

Question 23.
What is meant by Stoichiometry?
Stoichiometry is the quantitative relationship between reactants and products in a balanced chemical equation in moles. The quantity of reactants and products can be expressed in moles or in terms of mass unit or as volume.

Question 24.
What are limiting and excess reagents?
When a reaction is carried out using non-stoichiometric quantifies of the reactants, the product yield will be determined by the reactant that is completely consumed and is called the limiting reagent. It limits the further reaction to take place. The other reagent which is in excess is called the excess reagent.

Question 25.
Avogadro number is the number of atoms present in one mole of an element or number of molecules present in one mole of a compound. The value of Avogadro number (N) = 6.023 x 1023

Question 26.
Define oxidation number.
The oxidation number is defined as the imaginary charge left on the atom when all other atoms of the compound have been removed in their usual oxidation states that are assigned according to a set of rules.

Question 27.
Calculate the equivalent mass of Copper. (Atomic mass of copper = 63.5)
Equivalent mass = $$\frac {Atomic mass}{Valency}$$
Equivalent mass of Copper = $$\frac {63.5}{2}$$ = 31.75 g eq-1.

Question 28.
Mention the types of redox reactions?
The types of redox reactions are combination reaction, decomposition reaction, displacement reaction, disproportionate reaction and competitive electron transfer reactions.

III. Short Question and Answers (3 Marks):

Question 1.
Describe the chemical classification of matter.
Matter can be classified into mixtures and pure substances based on chemical compositions. Mixtures consists of more than one chemical entity present without any chemical interactions. They can be further classified as homogeneous or heterogeneous mixtures based on their physical appearance. Pure substances are composed of simple atoms or molecules. They are further classified as elements and compounds.

Question 2.
Distinguish between element and compound.
An element consists of only one type of atom. Element can exists as monoatomic or polyatomic units. The polyatomic elements are called molecules.
Example: Monoatomic unit – Gold (Au), Copper (Cu);
Polyatomic unit: Hydrogen (H2), Phosphorous (P4).

Compounds are made up of molecules which contain two or more atoms of different elements.
Example: Carbon dioxide (CO2), Glucose (C6 H12 O6)

Properties of compounds are different from those of their constituent elements. For example, sodium is a shiny metal, and chlorine is an irritating gas. But the compound formed from these two elements, sodium chloride shows different characteristics as it is crystalline solid, vital for biological functions.

Question 3.
What is average atomic mass? How is average atomic mass of chlorine calculated?
Average atomic mass is defined as the average of the atomic masses of all atoms in their naturally occurring isotopes. Chlorine consists of two naturally occurring isotopes 17Cl37 and 17Cl35 in the ratio 77 : 23, the average relative atomic mass of chlorine is
= ((35 × 77) + (37 × 23)) / 100
= 35.46 u

Question 4.
What will be the mass of one 12C atom in g?
Molar mass of 12C = 12.00 g mol-1.
∴ Mass of 6.023 x 1023 carbon atom = 12.0 g
∴ Mass of 1 carbon atom = $$\frac{12}{6.023 \times 10^{23}}$$ = 1.992 x 10 g.

Question 5.
Discuss the role of antacids.
Gastric acid is a digestive fluid formed in the stomach and it contains hydrochloric acid. The typical concentration of the acid in gastric acid is 0.082 M. When the concentration exceeds 0.1M it causes heartburn and acidity. Antacids used to treat acidity contain mostly magnesium hydroxide or aluminium hydroxide that neutralizes the excess acid. The chemical reactions are as follows.

3 HCl + Al(OH)3 → AlCl3 + 3H2O
2HCl + Mg(OH)2 → MgCl2 + 2H2O.

From the above reactions, we know that 1 mole of aluminium hydroxide neutralizes 3 moles of HCl while 1 mole of magnesium hydroxide neutralizes 2 moles of HCl.

Question 6.
Explain gram equivalent mass.
Gram equivalent mass of an element, compound, or ion is the mass that combines or displaces 1.008 g hydrogen or 8 g oxygen or 35.5 g chlorine.
Consider the following reaction:
Zn + H2 SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2
In this reaction, 1 mole of zinc (65.38 g) displaces one mole of hydrogen molecule (2.016 g). Mass of zinc required to displace 1.008 g hydrogen is
= $$\frac{65.38}{2.016}$$ × 1.008
= $$\frac{65.38}{2}$$
= 32.69
The equivalent mass of zinc = 32.69
The gram equivalent mass of zinc = 32.69 g eq-1.
The expression used to calculate gram equivalent mass is
Gram equivalent mass = Molar mass(g mol-1) / Equivalence factor (eq mol-1)

Question 7.
Calculate the gram equivalent mass of sulphuric acid.
Basicity of sulphuric acid (H2SO4) = 2eq mol-1
Molar mass of H2SO4 = (2 × 1) +(1 × 32) +(4 × 16) = 56 g mol-1
Gram equivalent mass of H2SO4 = $$\frac{98}{2}$$
= 49 g eq-1

Question 8.
Calculate the gram equivalent mass of potassium hydroxide.
Acidity of potassium hydroxide (KOH) = 1 eq mol-1
Molar mass of KOH = (1 × 39) + (1 × 16) + (1 × 1) = 56 g mol-1
Gram equivalent mass of KOH = $$\frac{56}{1}$$ = 56 g eq-1.

Question 9.
Calculate the gram equivalent mass of Potassium permanganate.
Potassium permanganate is an oxidizing agent. Molar mass of
KMnO4 = (1 × 39)+ (1 × 55)+ (4 × 16)
= 158 g mol-1

In an acidic medium, permanganate is reduced during oxidation and is given by the following equation,
MnO4 + 8H+ + 5e → Mn2 + 4H2O
Therefore, n = 5.
Gram equivalent mass of KMnO4 = $$\frac{158}{5}$$ = 31.6 g mol-1

Question 10.
An acid found in tamarind on analysis shows the following percentage composition: 32 % Carbon; 4 % Hydrogen; 64 % Oxygen. Find the empirical formula of the compound.

The ratio of C : H : O is 2 : 3 : 3 and hence, the empirical formula of the compound is CH2O

Question 11.
An organic compound present in vinegar has 40 % Carbon, 6.6 % Hydrogen: and 53.4 % Oxygen. Find the empirical formula of the compound.

The ratio of C: H : O is 1 : 2 : 1 and hence, the empirical formula of the compound is CH2O.

Question 12.
How much copper can be obtained from 100 g of anhydrous copper sulphate?
Anhydrous copper sulphate = CuSO4
Molecular mass of CuSO4 = 63.5 + 32 + (16 x 4)
= 63.5 + 32 + 64
= 159.5 g
159.5 g of CuSO4 contains 63.5 g of copper.
∴ 100 g of CuSO4 contains $$\frac{6.35}{159.5}$$ x 100 = 0.39811 x 100 = 39.81 g of Copper.

Question 13.
Explain the classical concept of oxidation and reduction.
According to classical concept, the addition of oxygen or removal of hydrogen is called oxidation.
Consider the following reactions,
4Fe + 3O2 → 2Fe2O3
H2S +Cl2 → 2 HCl + S

In the first reaction, which is responsible for the rusting of iron, the oxygen adds on to the metal, iron. In the second reaction, hydrogen is removed from Hydrogen sulphide.
According to classical concept, addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen is called reduction.
Consider the following reactions,
CuO + C → Cu + CO
S + H2 → H2S
In the first reaction, oxygen is removed from cupric oxide and in the second reaction, hydrogen is added to sulphur.

Question 14.
Describe the electron concept of oxidation and reduction.
The reaction involving loss of electron is termed as oxidation and gain of electron is termed as reduction.
Fe2+ → Fe3+ + e (loss of electron – oxidation)
Cu2+ + 2e → Cu ( gain of electron – reduction)

Question 15.
Describe the oxidation number concept of oxidation and reduction.
During redox reactions, the oxidation number of elements changes. A reaction in which oxidation number of the element increases is called oxidation whereas the oxidation number of the element 3 decreases is called reduction.

In this reaction, manganese in potassium permanganate favours the oxidation of ferrous sulphate into ferric sulphate by gets reduced.

Question 16.
Write notes on displacement reaction.
Redox reactions in which an ion or an atom in a compound is replaced by an ion or an atom of another element are called displacement reactions. They are further classified into
(i) metal displacement reactions
(ii) non-metal displacement reactions.

(i) Metal displacement reactions:
Place a zinc metal strip in an aqueous copper sulfate solution taken in a beaker. The intensity of blue colour of the solution slowly reduced and finally disappeared. The zinc metal strip became coated with brownish metallic copper. This is due to the following metal displacement reaction.
CuSO4(aq)+ Zn(s) → Cu + ZnSO4.

(ii) Non-metal displacement reaction:
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2

Question 1.
What is a matter? Explain its classification.
Matter is defined as anything that has mass and occupies space. All matter is composed of atoms.

Physical Classification:
Matter can be classified as solids, liquids and gases based on their physical state. The physical state of matter can be converted into one another by modifying the temperature and pressure suitably.

Chemical Classification:

Classification of Matter

Matter can be classified into mixtures and pure substances based on chemical compositions. Mixtures consists of more than one chemical entity present without any chemical interactions. They can be further classified as homogeneous or heterogeneous mixtures based on their physical appearance. Pure substances are composed of simple atoms or molecules. They are further classified as elements and compounds.

An element consists of only one type of atom. Element can exists as monoatomic or polyatomic units. The polyatomic elements are called molecules.
Example: Monoatomic unit – Gold (Au), Copper (Cu);
Polyatomic unit: Hydrogen (H2), Phosphorous (P4).

Compounds are made up of molecules which contain two or more atoms of different elements.
Example: Carbon dioxide (CO2), Glucose (C6H12O6)
Properties of compounds are different from those of their constituent elements. For example, sodium is a shiny metal, and chlorine is an irritating gas. But the compound formed from these two elements, sodium chloride shows different characteristics as it is a crystalline solid, vital for biological function.

Question 2.
How is empirical formula of a compound determined from the elemental analysis?
The empirical formula of a compound determined from the elemental analysis by the following steps.
(i) Since the composition is expressed in percentage, we can consider the total mass of the compound as 100 g and the percentage values of individual elements as a mass in grams.
(ii) Divide the mass of each element by its atomic mass. This gives the relative number of moles of various elements in the compound.
(iii) Divide the value of a relative number of moles obtained in the step – (ii) by the smallest number of them to get the simplest ratio.
(iv) In case the simplest ratios obtained in step – (iii) are not whole numbers then they may be converted into the whole numbers by multiplying a suitable smallest number.

Question 3.
An organic compound present in vinegar has 40% carbon, 6.6 % hydrogen, and 53.4 % oxygen, Find the empirical formula and molecular formula of the compound. (Given, Molar mass: 60 g mol-1).

The ratio of C: H : O is 1 : 2 : 1 and hence, the empirical formula of the compound is CH2O.
Empirical Formula mass = (1 × 12 + 1 × 2 + 1 × 16) = 12 + 2 + 16 = 30.
Whole number η =  Molar mass / Empirical formula mas = $$\frac{60}{30}$$ = 2
Therefore, Molecular formula = (CH2O)2 = C2H4O2

Question 4.
An organic compound present in vinegar has 40% carbon, 6.6 % hydrogen, and 53.4 % oxygen, Find the empirical formula and molecular formula of the compound. (Given, Molar mass: 90 g mol-1).

The ratio of C : H : O is 1 : 2 : 1 and hence, the empirical formula of the compound is CH2O.
Empirical Formula mass = (1 × 12 + 1 × 2 × 16) = 12 + 2 + 16 = 30.
Whole number, n = $$\frac{\text { Molar mass }}{\text { Empirical formula mass }}$$
= $$\frac{90}{30}$$ = 3
Therefore, Molecular formula = (CH2O)3 = C3H6O3

Question 5.
What is a redox reaction? Explain the different concepts of redox reaction.
The reaction involving loss of electron is oxidation and gain of electron is reduction. Both these reactions take place simultaneously and are called as redox reactions.

Classical concept of oxidation and reduction:
According to classical concept, addition of oxygen or removal of hydrogen is called oxidation.
Consider the following reactions,

4Fe + 3O2 → 2Fe2O3
H2S + Cl2 → 2HCl + S

In the first reaction, which is responsible for the rusting of iron, the oxygen adds on to the metal, iron. In the second reaction, hydrogen is removed from Hydrogen sulphide.
According to classical concept, addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen is called reduction.
Consider the following reactions,
CuO + C → Cu + CO
S + H2 → H2S

In the first reaction, oxygen is removed from cupric oxide, and in the second reaction, hydrogen is added to sulphur.

Electron concept of oxidation and reduction.
The reaction involving loss of electron is termed as oxidation and gain of an electron is termed as reduction.
Fe2+ → Fe3+ + e (loss of electron – oxidation)
Cu2+ + 2e → Cu (gain of electron – reduction)

Oxidation number concept of oxidation and reduction:
During redox reactions, the oxidation number of elements changes. A reaction in which oxidation number of the element increases is called oxidation whereas the oxidation number of the element decreases is called reduction.

In this reaction, manganese in potassium permanganate favours the oxidation of ferrous sulphate into ferric sulphate by gets reduced.

Question 6.
What is an oxidation number? State the rules to find the oxidation number.
Oxidation number is defined as the imaginary charge left on the atom when all other atoms of the compound have been removed in their usual oxidation states that are assigned according to set of rules. A term that is often used interchangeably with oxidation number is oxidation state.

1. The oxidation state of a free element (i.e., uncombined state) is zero.
Example: H2 Cl2, Na, and S8 have the oxidation number of zero.
2. For a monoatomic ion, the oxidation state is equal to the net charge on the ion.
Example: The oxidation number of sodium in Na+ is +1.
The oxidation number of chlorine in Cl is -1.
3. The algebraic sum of oxidation states of all atoms in a molecule is equal to zero, while in ions, it is equal to the net charge on the ion.
Example: In H2SO4, 2 × (oxidation number of hydrogen) + 1 × (oxidation number of sulphur) + 4 × (oxidation number of oxygen) = 0.
4. Hydrogen has an oxidation number of +1 in all its compounds except in metal hydrides where it has -1 value.
Example: Oxidation number of hydrogen in hydrogen chloride (HCl) is + 1.
Oxidation number of hydrogen in sodium hydride (NaH) is -1.
5. Fluorine has an oxidation state of -1 in all its compounds.
6. The oxidation state of oxygen in most compounds is -2. Exceptions are peroxides, superoxides, and compounds with fluorine.
Example: Oxidation number of oxygen
(i) in water is -2,
(ii) in hydrogen peroxide is -1,
(iii) in superoxides such as KO2 is 4, and
(iv) in oxygen difluoride (OF2) is +2.
7. Alkali metals have an oxidation state of +1 and alkaline earth metals have an oxidation state of +2 in all their compounds.

Question 7.
Balance the following chemical equation by oxidation number method.
KMnO4 + FeSO4 + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + Fe(SO4)3 + 8H2O
Using oxidation number concept, the reactants which undergoes oxidation and reduction are as follows:

The oxidation number of Mn in KMnO4 changes from +7 to +2 by gaining five electrons and the oxidation number of Fe FeSO4 changes from +2 to +3 by loosing one electron.
Since the total number of electrons lost is equal to the total number of electrons gained, the number of electrons, by cross multiplication of the respective formula with suitable integers on reactant side.

Based on the reactant side, the products are balanced.

2KMnO4 + 10 FeSO4 + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + MnSO4 + Fe( SO4)3 + H2O

Balance the other elements except H and O atoms. K and S are balanced as follows

2KMnO4 + 10 FeSO4 + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + MnSO4 + Fe( SO4)3 + H2O
The difference of 8 – S atoms in reactant side, has to be balanced by multiplying H2SO4 by ‘8’. The equation now becomes,

2KMnO4 + 10 FeSO4 + 8 H2SO4 → K2SO4 + MnSO4 + Fe( SO4)3 + H2O

‘H’ and ‘O’ atoms are balanced by multiplying H2O molecules in the product side by ‘8’.

2KMnO4 + 10 FeSO4 + 8 H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2 MnSO4 + 5 Fe( SO4)3 + 8 H2O
The above equation is a balanced equation.

Question 8.
How is the following equation ¡s balanced by Ion electron method?
MnO4 + Fe2+ + H+ → Mn2+ + Fe3+ + H2O.
Using the oxidation number concept, the reactants which undergoes oxidation and reduction are as follows;

The two half reactions are,
Fe2+ → Fe3+ + 1e ……….(1)
MnO4 + 5e + 8H+ → Mn2+ + 4H2O ……….(2)
Balancing the atoms and charges on both sides of the half reactions.
There is no change in the equation (1) whereas in equation (2), there are four ‘O’ atoms on the reractant side .
Therefore, four H2 is added on the product side, to balance ‘H’ – add, 8 H+ in the reactant side.
MnO4 + 5e + 8H+ → Mn2+ + 4H2O ………..(3)
The two half reactions are equated in such a way that the number of electrons lost is equal to number of electrons gained.
Adding the two half reactions as follows:
(1) × 5 5 Fe2+ → 5 Fe3+ + 5e ……………(4)
(3) × 1 MnO4 + 5e + 8H+ → Mn2+ + 4H2O ………(5)

(4) + (5)
MnO4 + 5Fe2+ + 8H+ → Mn2+ + 5 Fe3+ + 4H2O ………..(6)
The equation (6) is a balanced equation.

Question 9.
Calculate the percentage composition of the elements present in lead nitrate. How many Kg of 02 can be obtained from 50 kg of 70% pure lead nitrate?
Molecular mass of lead nitrate = 207 + (14 x 2) + (16 x 6)
= 207 + 28 + 96 = 331 g / mol.
331 g of lead nitrate contains 96 g of oxygen.
∴ 50 x 103 g of lead nitrate will contain $$\frac {96}{331}$$ x 50 x 103
= 14501.5 g
= 14.501 Kg of oxygen.
100 % pure lead nitrate contains 14.501 Kg of oxygen.
70 % pure lead nitrate will contain = $$\frac {14.501}{100}$$ x 70 = 10.15 Kg of oxygen.
.’. 70 % pure lead nitrate will contain 10.15 Kg of oxygen.

Ioc Calculator

## Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Chapter 5 Market Structure and Pricing

Students can download 11th Economics Chapter 5 Market Structure and Pricing Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 5 Market Structure and Pricing

### Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Market Structure and Pricing Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
In which of the following is not a type of market structure Price will be very high?
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Duopoly
(d) Oligopoly
(b) Monopoly

Question 2.
Equilibrium condition of a firm is ______
(a) MC = MR
(b) MC > MR
(c) MC < MR
(d) MR = Price
(a) MC = MR

Question 3.
Which of the following is a feature of monopolistic competition?
(a) One seller
(b) Few sellers
(c) Product differentiation
(d) No entry
(c) Product differentiation

Question 4.
A firm under monopoly can earn ______ in the short run.
(a) Normal profit
(b) Loss
(c) Supernormal profit
(d) More loss
(c) Supernormal profit

Question 5.
There is no excess capacity under ……………………..
(a) Monopoly
(b) Monopolistic competition
(c) Oligopoly
(d) Perfect competition
(d) Perfect competition

Question 6.
Profit of a firm is obtained when ______
(a) TR < TC
(b) TR – MC
(c) TR >TC
(d) TR = TC
(c) TR > TC

Question 7.
Another name of the price is …………………..
(a) Average Revenue
(b) Marginal Revenue
(c) Total Revenue
(d) Average Cost
(a) Average Revenue

Question 8.
In which type of market, AR and MR are equal ______
(a) Duopoly
(b) Perfect competition
(c) Monopolistic competition
(d) Oligopoly
(b) Perfect competition

Question 9.
In a monopoly, the MR curve lies below …………………….
(a) TR
(b) MC
(c) AR
(d) AC
(c) AR

Question 10.
Perfect competition assumes ______
(a) Luxury goods
(b) Producer goods
(c) Differentiated goods
(d) Homogeneous goods
(d) Homogeneous goods

Question 11.
Group equilibrium is analysed in ……………………
(a) Monopolistic competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Duopoly
(d) Pure competition
(a) Monopolistic competition

Question 12.
In monopolistic competition, the essential feature is ______
(a) Same product
(b) selling cost
(c) Single seller
(b) selling cost

Question 13.
Monopolistic competition is a form of ……………………
(a) Oligopoly
(b) Duopoly
(c) Imperfect competition
(d) Monopoly
(c) Imperfect competition

Question 14.
Price leadership is the attribute of ______
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Oligopoly
(d) Monopolistic competition
(c) Oligopoly

Question 15.
Price discrimination will always lead to ……………………
(a) Increase in output
(b) Increase in profit
(c) Different prices
(d) (b) and (c)
(d) (b) and (c)

Question 16.
curve under monopolistic competition will be ______
(a) Perfectly inelastic
(b) Perfectly elastic
(c) Relaively elastic
(d) Unitary elastic
(c) Relaively elastic

Question 17.
Under perfect competition, the shape of demand curve of firm is …………………
(a) Vertical
(b) Horizontal
(c) Negatively sloped
(d) Positively sloped
(b) Horizontal

Question 18.
In which market form, does absence of competition prevail?
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Duopoly
(d) Oligopoly
(b) Monopoly

Question 19.
Which of the following involves maximum exploitation of consumers?
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Monopolistic competition
(d) Oligopoly
(b) Monopoly

Question 20.
An example of selling cost is ______
(a) Raw material cost
(b) Transport cost

Part – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 21.
Define market?
In economics, the term ‘Market’ refers to a system of exchange between the buyers and the sellers of a commodity. The exchange may be direct or indirect.

Question 22.
Who is the price-taker?
A firm under perfect competition is a price-taker. Both buyer and seller accept the price fixed in the industry.

Question 23.
Point out the essential features of pure competition?

1. The absence of any monopoly element.
2. There are large buyers and sellers.
3. Homogenous product and uniform price.
4. Free entry and exit.

Question 24.
What is the selling cost?
Under monopolistic competition, as the products are differentiated, the producer has to incur expenses to make his brand popular. The expenditure involved in selling the product is called “selling cost’ Eg. Cost for advertisements.

Question 25.
Draw demand curve of a firm for the following:
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly

(a) Perfect competition:
The average revenue of the firm is greater than its average cost.
The firm is earning supernormal profit.

Explanation:
In the figure, output is measured along the x-axis and price, revenue, and cost along the y-axis. OP is the prevailing price in the market. PL is the demand curve or average and the marginal
revenue curve. The firm is in equilibrium at point ‘E’ where MR = MC and MC cuts the MR curve from below at the point of equilibrium.

(b) Monopoly:
A monopoly is a market structure characterized by a single seller, selling the unique product with the restriction for a new firm to enter the market. A monopoly is a form of market where there is a single seller selling a particular commodity for which there are no close substitutes.

Question 26.
Mention any two types of price discrimination.

1. Personal: Different prices are charged for different individuals. For example, the railways give tickets at a concessional rate to the ‘Senior citizens’ for the same journey.
2. Geographical: Different prices are charged at different places for the same product. For example, a book sold within India at a price is sold in a foreign country at a lower price.

Question 27.
Define “Excess capacity”?
Excess capacity is the difference between the optimum output that can be produced and the actual output produced by the firm.

Part – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 28.
What are the features of a market?

1. Buyers and sellers of a commodity or a service.
2. A commodity to be bought and sold.
3. Price agreeable to buyer and seller.
4. Direct or indirect exchange.

Question 29.
Specify the nature of entry of competitors in perfect competition and monopoly?
Perfect competition:
Under perfect competition, there is the possibility of free entry and exit of the firm. In the short run, if an efficient producer produces supernormal profits, it attracts new firms to enter the industry. When a large number of firms enter, the supply would increase, resulting in lower prices. An inefficient producer, disturbed by the loss, quit the market. It results in a decrease in supply so the price will go up.

Monopoly:
In a monopoly, there is a strict barrier for entry of any new firm.

Question 30.
Describe the degrees of price discrimination.
Price discrimination has become widespread in almost all monopoly markets. According to A.C. Pigou, there are three degrees of price discrimination.

1. First-degree price discrimination :
A monopolist charges the maximum price that a buyer is willing to pay. This is called perfect price discrimination. Joan Robinson named it as “Perfect discriminating monopoly.”

2. Second-degree price discrimination :
Under this degree, buyers are charged prices in such a way that a part of their consumer’s surplus is taken away by the sellers. This is called imperfect price discrimination. Joan Robinson named it as “Imperfect discriminating monopoly”. Under this degree, buyers are divided into different groups and a different price is charged for each group. (E.g) Ticket prices in cinema theatres.

3. Third-degree price discrimination :
The monopolist splits the entire market into a few sub-market and charges different prices in each submarket. The groups are divided on the basis of age, sex, and location. (E.g) Railways charge lower fares from senior citizens.

Question 31.
State the meaning of selling cost with an example?
Under monopolistic competition as the products are differentiated, the producer has to incur expenses to make his brand popular. The expenditure involved in selling the product is called “selling cost”.

According to Prof.Chamberlin, selling cost is the cost incurred in order to alter the position or shape of the demand curve for a product.
Under perfect competition and monopoly there is soiling COM.

Question 32.
Mention the similarities between perfect competition and monopolistic competition?

 Perfect Competition Monopolistic Competition 1. Large number of buyers and sellers. Large number of buyers and many sellers. 2. Homogeneous product & uniform price. Close substitute commodity. 3. Free Entry and exit. Free Entry and exit. 4. Very small size of market for each firm. Small size of market. 5. It has no monopoly power Limited power 6. Uniform power (or) low price Moderate power 7. Price policy price taker Low control elasticity of demand 8. Price elasticity – infinite Some control over price depending on consumers brand loyalty.

Question 33.
Differentiate between “firm” and Industry?

 Firm Industry 1. A firm refers to a single production unit in the industry, producing a large or a small quantum of a commodity or service, and selling it at a price in the market. The industry refers to a group of firms producing the same product or service in an economy. 2. Its main objective is to earn a profit. There may be other objectives as described by managerial and behavioral theories of the firm. For example, A group of firms producing cement is called a cement industry.

Question 34.
State the features of duopoly?

1. Each seller is fully aware of his rival’s motive and actions.
2. Both sellers may collude (they agree on all matters regarding the sale of a commodity)
3. They may enter into cut-throat competition.
4. There is no product differentiation.
5. They fix the price for their product with a view to maximizing their profit.

Part – D

Question 35.
Bring out the features of perfect competition?
According to Joan Robinson, “Perfect competition prevails when the demand for the output of each producer is perfectly elastic. It is an ideal but imaginary market. 100% of perfect competition cannot be seen.
Features of the perfect competition :

(a) a Large number of buyers and sellers :
Each individual buyer buys a very very small quantum of a product as compared to that found in the market. This means that he has no power to fix the price of the product. He is only a price-taker and not a price-maker. As the number of sellers is large the seller is also a price-taker.

(b) Homogenous product and uniform price :
The. products are homogenous in nature and are perfectly substitutable. All the units of the product are identical. Therefore a uniform price prevails in the market.

(c) Free entry and exit:
In the short run, if the very efficient producer earns supernormal profits, new firms enter the industry. When a large number of firms enter, the supply would increase, resulting in lower prices. If a inefficient producer incurs a loss, the loss incurring firms quit the market. So the existing firms could earn more profit as supply decreases.

(d) Absence of transport cost:
The prevalence of the uniform price is also due to the absence of the transport cost. . e) Perfect mobility of factors of production :
As there is perfect mobility of the factors of production, uniform price exists. As they enjoy perfect freedom of mobility the price gets adjusted.

(f) Perfect knowledge of the market:
All buyers and sellers have a thorough knowledge of the quality of the product, prevailing price, etc.

(g) No government intervention:
There is no government regulation on the supply of raw materials and in the determination of price etc.

Question 36.
How price and output are determined under the perfect competition?
Perfect Competition: Firm’s Equilibrium in the Short Run

1. In the short run, at least a few factors of production are fixed. The firms under Perfect Competition take the price (10) from the industry and start adjusting their quantities produced. For example Qd = 100 – 5P and Qs = 5P.
2.  At equilibrium Qd = Qs
3. Therefore 100 – 5P = 5P

100 = 10P; 100/10 = P; Qd = demand
P = 10 ; P = Price
Qd = 100 – 5(10); Qs = Supply
100 – 50 = 50
Qs = 5 (10) = 50
Therefore 50 = 50

This diagram consists of three panels. The equilibrium of an industry is explained in the first panel. The demand and supply forces of all the firms interact and the price is fixed as 10. The equilibrium of an industry is obtained at 50 units of output.

In the second part of the diagram, AC curve is lower than the price line. The equilibrium condition is achieved where MC = MR. Its equilibrium quantity sold is 50. With the prevailing price, ₹10 it experiences supernormal profit. AC = ₹8, AR = ₹10.

Its total revenue is 50 × 10 = 500. Its total cost is 50 × 8 = 400.
Therefore, its total profit is 500 – 400 = 100.

In the third part of the diagram, the firm’s cost curve is above the price line. The equilibrium condition is achieved at the point where MR = MC. Its quantity sold is 50. With the prevailing price, it experiences loss. (AC > AR)

Its total revenue is 50 × 10 = 500. Its total cost is 50 × 12 = 600.
Therefore, its total loss is 600 – 500 = 100.

As profit prevails in the market, new firms will enter the industry, thus increasing the supply of the product. This means a decline in the price of the product and an increase in the cost of production. Thus, the abnormal profit will be wiped out; the loss will be incurred.

When loss prevails in the market, the existing loss-making firms will exit the industry, thus decreasing the supply of the product. This means a rise in the price of the product and a reduction in the cost of production. So the loss will vanish; Profit will emerge. Consequent to the entry and exit of new firms into the industry, firms always earn ‘normal profit’ in the long run as shown in the diagram.

Question 37.
Describe the features of oligopoly?
Features of oligopoly:
1. Few large firms :
Very few big firms own the major control of the whole market by producing a major portion of the market demand.

2. Interdependence among firms :
The price and quality decisions of a particular firm are dependent on the price and quality decisions of the rival firms.

3. Group behaviour :
The firms under oligopoly realise the importance of mutual co-operation.

The oligopolist could raise sales either by advertising or improving the quality of the product.

5. Nature of the product:
Perfect oligopoly means homogeneous products and imperfect oligopoly deals with heterogeneous products.

6. Price rigidity :
It implies that prices are difficult to be changed. The oligopolist firms do not change their prices due to the fear of rival’s reaction.

Question 38.
Illustrate price and output determination under Monopoly?
Price and Output Determination under Monopoly:
A monopoly is a one firm-industry. Therefore, a firm under a monopoly faces a downward-sloping demand curve (or AR curve). Since, under monopoly AR falls, as more units of output are sold, the MR lies below the AR curve (MR < AR). The monopolist will continue to sell his product as long as his MR > MC.

He attains equilibrium at the level of output when its MC is equal to MR. Beyond this point, the producer will experience loss and hence will stop selling. Let us take the following hypothetical example of Total Revenue Function and Total cost function.

TR = 100Q – 4Q2 and
TC = Q3 – 18Q2 + 91Q + 12.
Therefore AR = 100 – 4Q;
MR = 100 – 8Q;
AC = Q2 – 18Q + 91 + 12/Q;
= 3Q2 – 36Q + 91;
When Q = 3,
AR = 100 – 4(3) = 88,
= (3)2 – 18(3) + 91 + 12/3 = 9 – 54 + 91 + 4 = 50;
MR = 100 – 8(3) = 76;
= 3(3)2 – 36(3) + 91 = 27 – 108 + 91 = 10
From this diagram, till he sells 3 units output, MR is greater than MC, and when he exceeds this output level, MR is less than MC. The monopoly firm will be in equilibrium at the level of output where MR is equal to MC. The price is 88.

To checkup how much profit the monopolist is making at the equilibrium output, the average revenue curves and the average cost curves are used. At the equilibrium level of output is 3; the average revenue is 88 and the average cost is 50. Therefore (88 – 50 =38) is the profit per unit.
Total profit = (Average. Revenue – Average Cost) × Total output = (88 – 50) × 3 = 38 × 3 = 114.

Question 39.
Explain price and output determined under monopolistic competition with help of the diagram?
Price and Output Determination under Monopolistic competition:
The firm under monopolistic competition achieves its equilibrium when it’s MC = MR, and when its MC curve cuts its MR curve from below. If MC is less than MR, the sellers will find it profitable to expand their output.

Under Monopolistic Competition:

1. The demand curve is downwards sloping.
2. There are close substitutes.
3. The demand curve is fairly elastic.

Under monopolistic competition, different firms produce different varieties of the product and sell them at different prices. Each firm under monopolistic competition seeks to achieve equilibrium as regards.

1. Price and output

Short-run equilibrium:
The profit maximisation is achieved when MC = MR.

‘OM’ is the equilibrium output. ‘OP’ is the equilibrium price. The total revenue is ‘OMQP’. And the total cost is ‘OMRS’. Therefore, total profit is ‘PQRS’. This is super normal profit under short-run.

But under differing revenue and cost conditions, the monopolistically competitive firms may incur a loss.

As shown in the diagram, the AR and MR curves are fairly elastic. The equilibrium situation occurs at point ‘E’, where MC = MR and MC cuts MR from below.

The equilibrium output is OM and the equilibrium price is OP. The total revenue of the firm is ‘OMQP’ and the total cost of the firm is ‘OMLK’ and thus the total loss is ‘PQLK’. This firm incurs a loss in the short run.

Long-Run Equilibrium of the Firm and the Group Equilibrium:
In the short run, a firm under monopolistic competition may earn a supernormal profit or incur loss. But in the long run, the entry of the new firms in the industry will wipe out the supernormal profit earned by the existing firms. The entry of new firms and the exit of loss-making firms will result in normal profit for the firms in the industry.

In the long run, AR curve is more elastic or flatter because plenty of substitutes are available. Hence, the firms will earn an only normal profit.

### Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Market Structure and Pricing Additional Important Questions and Answers

Part – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The supply curve in the very short period is _______
(a) Horizontal
(b) Vertical
(c) Slopes downward
(d) Slopes upward
(b) Vertical

Question 2.
Who was propounded by the concept of imperfect competition?
(a) Philip Kotler
(b) Joan Robinson
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
(b) Joan Robinson

Question 3.
Second condition for equilibrium of the firm _______
(a) MC curve should cut MR curve from below
(b) MC curve should cut MR curve from above
(c) MC curve coincides with MR curve
(d) None of the above
(a) MC curve should cut MR curve from below

Question 4.
Price discrimination is called ………………………. monopoly.
(a) Increasing
(b) Decreasing
(c) Equalization
(d) Discriminating
(d) Discriminating

Question 5.
In which type of market the seller is a price taker?
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Monopolistic competition
(d) Duopoly
(a) Perfect competition

Question 6.
The perfect competitive firms are ……………………..
(a) Price maker
(b) Price in charge
(c) Price given
(d) Price taker
(d) Price taker

Question 7.
There is a barrier for entry of new firm in _______
(a) Monopoly
(b) Monopolistic competition
(c) Perfect competition
(d) Duopoly
(a) Monopoly

Question 8.
The most important form of selling cost is ………………………..
(b) Sales
(c) Homogeneous product
(d) None

Question 9.
Supply curve in long run _______
(a) Perfectly elastic
(b) Perfectly inelastic
(c) Less elastic
(d) None
(a) Perfectly elastic

Question 10.
_______ classified market based on time.
(a) Marshall
(c) Chamberlin
(d) Hicks
(a) Marshall

Part – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Define Dumping?

1. Dumping refers to the practice of the monopolist charging a higher prices for his product in the local market and lower price in the foreign market.
2. Through dumping, a country expands its command over other countries for its product. This is also called as “ International Price Discrimination”. For example, India’s electronic market is flooded with China’s products.

Question 2.
Classify market-based on the area?

1. Local market
2. Provincial market
3. National market
4. International market

Question 3.
What is the classification of markets?
Markets are classified
1. On the Basis of Area

• Local market
• Provincial market
• National market
• International market

2. On the Basis of Time:

• Very short period market (or) Market period
• Short period market
• Long-period market
• Very long period market (or) A secular period market

3. On the Basis of Quality of the Commodity:

• Wholesale market
• Retail market

4. On the Basis of Competition:

• Perfect competition market
• Imperfect competition market

Part – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 1.
State the sources of monopoly power?
1. Natural Monopoly:
Ownership of the natural raw materials [E.g. Gold mines – Africa, Coal mines, Nickel – Canada, etc]

2. State Monopoly:
Single supplier of some special services [E.g – Railways in India], (ill) Legal Monopoly: A Monopoly firm can get its monopoly power by getting patent rights, a trademark from the government.

Question 2.
Explain Long-Run Equilibrium of the Firm and the Group Equilibrium?
In the short run, a firm under monopolistic competition may earn a supernormal profit or incur a loss. But in the long run, the entry of the new firms in the industry will wipe out the supernormal profit earned by the existing firms. The entry of new firms and the exit of loss-making firms will result in normal profit for the firms in the industry. In the long run, the AR curve is more elastic or flatter because plenty of substitutes are available. Hence, the firms will earn an only normal profit.

Question 3.
Classify markets based on time.
Alfred Marshall classified the market on the basis of time.
1. Very short period or Market period :
If occurs when with the available time the quantum supplied of a product cannot be changed. The supply curve is vertical; it is inelastic. Demand plays a major role in price determination. (Eg.) During floods the price of food products raises.

2. Short period market:
Here the quantum supplied of a product can be changed to some extent. Supply curve is little more elastic to meet an increased demand.

3. Long-period market:
Here the quantum supplied of a product can be changed to a larger extent. The supply curve is very much elastic. All the factors are variable and the price of the product is moderate.

4. Very long period market (or a secular period market) :
It occurs when the entire economy undergoes a drastic change. Newer technologies are introduced and most modem products are produced.
(Eg.) The entry of pen-drive has driven out compact disc (CD)

Part – D

Question 1.
Explain the wastes of monopolistic competition.
1. Idle capacity :
Unutilized capacity is the difference between the optimum output and the actual output. In the long run, a monopolistic firm produces the output corresponding to the minimum average cost, which is less than the optimum output. It creates artificial scarcity. This leads to excess capacity which is actually a waste in monopolistic competition.

2. Unemployment:
As the firm produce less than optimum output, the productive capacity is not used to the fullest extent. This will lead to unemployment of human resources also.

4. Too many varieties of goods :
Introducing too many varieties of a good is another waste here. The goods differ in size, shape, style and colour. A reasonable number of varieties would be sufficient. Cost per unit can also be reduced if only a few varieties are produced in larger quantity instead of larger varieties with small quantities.

5. Inefficient firms :
Inefficient firms charge prices higher than their marginal cost. These firms can be kept out of the industry. But the buyer’s preference for such products are large they continue to exist. Efficient firms cannot drive out the inefficient firms because the efficient firms cannot spend for an advertisement to attract buyers. In reality, consumers are mostly emotional rather than rational.

ACTIVITY

Question 1.
Divide the class into five groups. Assign each group a market structure; for first group perfect competition, second group monopoly, third group oligopoly, fourth group Duopoly and for fifth group monopolistic competition. Now each student is to identify a business or organization or seller that orperate in that market structure. Ask each student to prepare a brief description of the following?

1. Name of the market structure
3. Industry
4. Identify the conditions of market structure
5. What are prices of a particular product, whether same price or different price?.
6. Is there non-price competition?

Activity to be done by the students in the classroom under the guidance of the teacher. (Group Activity)

Question 2.
Find out the number of firms in Tamil Nadu or India which are producing/selling TV and Mobile phones?
Producing / selling of Television firms:

1. Samsung
2. L.G
3. Croma
4. Panasonic
5. Philips
6. Sharp
7. Mitsubishi
8. Sony
9. Red mi
10. Apple TV
11. Akai

Producing / Selling / of Mobile Phones Firms:

1. Samsung
2. Apple
3. Red mi
4. Oppo
5. Gionee
6. Infocus
7. Nokia
8. L.G
9. Mi
10. Lave
11. Micro max
12. Black bei
13. Moto
14. Letv

## Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Chapter 4 Cost and Revenue Analysis

Students can download 11th Economics Chapter 4 Cost and Revenue Analysis Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 4 Cost and Revenue Analysis

### Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Cost and Revenue Analysis Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Cost refers to ……………………..
(a) Price
(b) Value
(c) Fixed cost
(d) Cost of production
(d) Cost of production

Question 2.
Cost functions are also known _______ function.
(a) production
(b) investment
(c) demand
(d) consumption
(a) production

Question 3.
Money cost is also known as …………………….. cost.
(a) Explicit
(b) Implicit
(c) Social
(d) Real
(a) Explicit

Question 4.
Explicit cost plus implicit cost denote _______ cost.
(a) social
(b) economic
(c) money
(d) fixed
(b) economic

Question 5.
Explicit costs are termed as ………………………
(a) Out of pocket expenses
(b) Real cost
(c) Social cost
(d) Sunk cost
(a) Out of pocket expenses

Question 6.
The costs of self-owned resources are termed as _______ cost.
(a) real
(b) explicit
(c) money
(d) implicit
(d) implicit

Question 7.
The cost that remains constant at all levels of output is ………………….. cost.
(a) Fixed
(b) Variable
(c) Real
(d) Social
(a) Fixed

Question 8.
Identify the formula of estimating average variable _______ cost.
(a) TC/Q
(b) TVC/Q
(c) TFC/Q
(d) TAC/Q
(b) TVC/Q

Question 9.
The cost incurred by producing one more unit of output is ……………… cost.
(a) Variable
(b) Fixed
(c) Marginal
(d) Total
(c) Marginal

Question 10.
The cost that varies with the level of output is termed as _______ cost.
(a) money
(b) variable cost
(c) total cost
(d) fixed cost
(b) variable cost

Question 11.
Wage is an example of………………….. cost of the production.
(a) Fixed
(b) Variable
(c) Marginal
(d) Opportunity
(b) Variable

Question 12.
The cost per unit of output is denoted by _______ cost.
(a) average
(b) marginal
(c) variable
(d) total
(a) average

Question 13.
Identify the formula for estimating average cost.
(a) AVC/Q
(b) TC/Q
(c) TVC/Q
(d) AFC/Q
(b) TC/Q

Question 14.
Find total cost where TFC = 100 and TVC = 125.
(a) 125
(b) 175
(c) 225
(d) 325
(c) 225

Question 15.
Long-run average cost curve is also called a………………….. curve.
(a) Demand
(b) Planning
(c) Production
(d) Sales
(b) Planning

Question 16.
Revenue received from the sale of products is known as _______ revenue.
(a) profit
(b) total revenue
(c) average
(d) marginal
(b) total revenue

Question 17.
Revenue received from the sale of an additional unit is termed as ……………………. revenue.
(a) Profit
(b) Average
(c) Marginal
(d) Total
(c) Marginal

Question 18.
(a) total sales
(b) total revenue
(c) total production
(d) total cost
(b) total revenue

Question 19.
When price remains constant, AR will be …………………… MR.
(a) Equal to
(b) Greater than
(c) Less than
(d) Not related to
(a) Equal to

Question 20.
A bookseller sold 40 books with a price of Rs.10 each. The total revenue of the seller is Rs. _______
(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 300
(d) 400
(d) 400

Part – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 21.
Define cost?
Cost refers to the total expenses incurred in the production of a commodity.

Question 22.
Define cost function.
The functional relationship between cost and output is expressed as ‘Cost function’.
C= f (Q).

Question 23.
What do you mean by fixed cost?
Fixed cost does not change with the change in the quantity of output. The expenses on fixed factors remain unchanged irrespective of the level of output and these expenses are called fixed costs.

Question 24.
Define Revenue.
The amount of money that a producer receives in exchange for the sale of goods is known as revenue. Revenue means sales revenue.

Question 25.
Explicit Cost – Define?
Explicit cost refers to the actual expenditures of the firm to purchase or hire the inputs.

Question 26.
Give the definition for ‘Real Cost’.
Adam Smith regarded pains and sacrifices of labour as real costs of production.

Question 27.
What is meant by Sunk Cost?
A cost incurred in the past and cannot be recovered in the future is called a sunk cost.

Part – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 28.
Distinguish between Fixed Cost and Variable Cost?

 Fixed Cost Variable Cost 1. Fixed cost does not change with the change in the quantity of output. The variable cost varies with the level of output. 2. Fixed cost is also called “Supplementary Cost” or “overhead cost”. Variable cost is also called “ Prime cost”, “Special cost” or Direct cost. 3. For example Watchman’s wages, Permanent worker’s Salary, machines Insurance Premium deposit for a power Licence fee, etc. For example Temporary workers, cost of raw materials, fuel cost, electricity charges, etc.

Question 29.
State the difference between money cost and real cost?

 Money cost Real cost 1. Production cost expressed in money terms is called as money cost. Real cost refers to the payment made to compensate the efforts and sacrifices of all factor owners for their services in production. 2. Money cost includes the expenditures such as cost of raw materials, payment of wages and- salaries, payment of rent, interest on capital, expenses on fuel and power, expenses on transportation, and other types of production-related costs. Real cost includes the efforts and sacrifices of landlords in the use of land, capitalists to save and invest, and workers, in foregoing leisure. 3. Money costs are considered as out of pocket expenses. Real costs are considered pains and sacrifices of labour as the real costs of production.

Question 30.
Distinguish between Explicit Cost and Implicit Cost?

 Explicit Cost Implicit Cost 1. Payment made to others for the purchase of factors of production is known as Explicit Costs. Payment made to the use of resources that the firm already owns is known as Implicit Cost. 2. It refers to the actual expenditures of the firm to purchase or hire the inputs the firm needs. Implicit Cost refers to the imputed cost of a firm’s self-owned and self-employed resources. 3. Explicit cost includes wages, payment for raw material, rent for the building, interest for capital invested, expenditure on transport and advertisement, other expenses like license fee, depreciation, and insurance charges. A firm or producer may use his own land, building, machinery, car, and other factors in the process of production.

Question 31.
Define opportunity cost and provide an example.

1. Opportunity cost refers to the cost of the next best alternative use. In other words, it is the value of the next best alternative foregone.
2. For example, a farmer can cultivate both paddy and sugarcane in farmland.
3. If he cultivates paddy, the opportunity cost of paddy output is the amount of sugarcane output given up.
4. Opportunity Cost is also called “Alternative Cost” or Transfer cost.

Question 32.
State the relationship between AC and MC?
There is a unique relationship between the AC and MC curves as shown in the diagram.

1. When AC is falling, MC lies below AC.
2. When AC becomes constant, MC also becomes equal to it.
3. When AC starts increasing, MC lies above the AC.
4. MC curve always cuts AC at its minimum point from below.

Question 33.
Write a short note on Marginal Revenue.

1. Marginal Revenue [MR] is the addition to the total revenue by the sale of an additional unit of a commodity.
2. MR can be found out by dividing change in total revenue by the change in quantity sold out.
3. MR = ∆TR/∆Q where MR denotes Marginal Revenue, ∆TR denotes a change in Total Revenue and ∆Q denotes a change in total quantity.
4. The other method of estimating MR is:

MR = TRn – TRn-1, (or) TRn+1 – TRn
Where MR denotes Marginal Revenue,
TRn denotes total revenue of nth item,
TRn-1 denotes Total Revenue of n – 1th item and
TRn+1 denotes Total Revenue of n + 1th item.
If TR = PQ,
MR = dTR/dQ = P, which is equal to AR.

Question 34.
Discuss the Long run cost curves with a suitable diagram?

1. In the long run, all factors of production become variable. The existing size of the firm can be increased in the case of the long run. There are neither fixed inputs nor fixed costs in the long run.
2. LAC is given in the diagram.
3. Long-run average cost (LAC) is equal to long-run total costs divided by the level of output.

LAC = LTC/Q where LAC denotes Long-Run Average Cost, LTC denotes Long-run Total Cost and Q denotes the quantity of output.

The LAC curve is derived from short-run average cost curves. It is the locus of points denoting the least cost curve of producing the corresponding output. The LAC curve is called a ‘Plant Curve’ or ‘Boat shape Curve’ or ‘Planning Curve’ or ‘Envelop Curve’.

Part – D

Question 35.
If total cost = 10 + Q3, find out AC, AVC, TFC, AFC when Q = 5?
TC = 10 + Q3
AC = $$\frac { TC }{ Q }$$
AC = $$\frac{10+Q^{3}}{Q}$$
If Q=5, Q = 5 × 5 × 5 = 125
AC = $$\frac { 10 + 125 }{ 5 }$$ = $$\frac { 135 }{ 5 }$$ = 27

AVC:
TC = 10 + Q3
TC = TFC + TVC
TVC = Q3
AVC = $$\frac { TVC }{ Q }$$
= $$\frac{Q^{3}}{Q} = Q$$2
If Q = 5, then AVC = 52
AVC = 25

TFC:
TC = 10 + Q3
TC = TFC + TVC
TFC = 10

AFC:
AFC = $$\frac { TFC }{ Q }$$
= $$\frac { 10 }{ 5 }$$
AFC = 2

Question 36.
Discuss the short-run cost curves with a suitable diagram?
Short-run Cost Curves:
Total Fixed Cost (TFC):
All payments for the fixed factors of production are known as Total Fixed Cost. A hypothetical TFC is shown in the below table and the diagram.

For instance if TC = Q3 – 18Q2 + 91Q + 12. the fixed cost here is 12. That means, if Q is zero, the total cost will be 12, hence fixed cost.
It could be observed that TFC does not change with output. Even when the output is zero, the fixed cost is ₹1000. TFC is a horizontal straight line, parallel to X-axis.

Total Variable Cost (TVC):
All payments to the variable factors of production are called Total Variable Cost. Hypothetical TVC is shown in the below table and diagram.

In the diagram, the TVC is zero when nothing is produced. As output increases, TVC also increases. TVC curve slopes upward from left to right.

For instance in TC = Q3 – 18 Q2 + 91Q + 12, variable cost, TVC = Q3 – 18Q2 + 91Q

Total Cost Curves:
Total Cost means the sum total of all payments made in the production. It is also called as Total Cost of Production. Total cost is the summation of Total Fixed Cost (TFC) and Total Variable Cost (TVC). It is written symbolically as TC = TFC + TVC.

For example, when the total fixed cost is ₹1000 and the total variable cost is ₹200 then the Total cost is = ₹1200 (₹1000 + ₹200).
If TFC = 12 and
TVC = Q3 – 18Q2 + 91Q
TC = 12 + Q3 – 18Q2 + 91Q

Average Fixed Cost (AFC):
Average Fixed Cost refers to the fixed cost per unit of output. It is obtained by dividing the total fixed cost by the quantity of output. AFC = TFC / Q where AFC denotes average fixed cost, TFC denotes total fixed cost and Q denotes the quantity of output. For example, if TFC is 1000 and the quantity of output is 10, the AFC is ₹100, obtained by dividing ₹1000 by 10. TVC is shown in the below table and diagram?

It is to be noted that-

1. AFC declines as output increases, as fixed cost remains constant.
2. AFC curve is downward sloping throughout its length, never touching the X and Y-axis. It is asymptotic to both axes.
3. The shape of the AFC curve is a rectangular hyperbola.

Average Variable Cost (AVC):
Average Variable Cost refers to the total variable cost per unit of output. It is obtained by dividing total variable cost (TVC) by the quantity of output (Q). AVC = TVC / Q where, AVC denotes Average Variable cost, TVC denotes total variable cost and Q denotes the quantity of output. For example, When the TVC is ₹300 and the quantity produced is 2, the AVC is ₹150,
(AVC = 300/2 = 150) AVC is shown in the below table and diagram.

Average Total Cost (ATC) or Average Cost (AC):
Average Total Cost refers to the total cost per unit of output.

It can be obtained in two ways.

1. By dividing the firm’s total cost (TC) by the quantity of output (Q). ATC = TC / Q.
For example, if TC is ₹1600 and the quantity of output is Q = 4, the Average Total Cost is ₹400. (ATC = 1600/4 = 400)
If ATC is Q3 – 18Q2 + 91Q + 12, then AC = Q2 – 18Q + 91 + 12/Q

2. By ATC is derived by adding together Average Fixed Cost (AFC) and Average Variable Cost (AVC) at each level of output. ATC = AFC + AVC.
For example, when Q = 2, TFC = 1000, TVC = 300; AFC = 500; AVC = 150; ATC = 650. ATC or AC is shown in the below table and diagram.

Marginal Cost (MC):
Marginal Cost is the cost of the last single unit produced. It is defined as the change in total costs resulting from producing one extra unit of output. In other words, it is the addition made to the total cost by producing one extra unit of output.

Marginal cost is important for deciding whether any additional output can be produced or not. MC = ∆TC/∆Q where MC denotes Marginal Cost, ∆TC denotes a change in total cost and ∆Q denotes a change in total quantity.

For example, a firm produces 4 units of output and the Total cost is ₹1600. When the firm produces one more unit (4 + 1 = 5 units) of output at the total cost of ₹1900, the marginal cost is ₹300.
MC = 1900 – 1600 = ₹300

Question 37.
Bring out the relationship between AR and MR curves under various price conditions?
Relationship between AR and MR Curves:
If a firm is able to sell additional units at the same price then AR and MR will be constant and equal. If the firm is able to sell additional units only by reducing the price, then both AR and MR will fall and be different.

Constant AR and MR (at Fixed Price):
When price remains constant or fixed, the MR will be also constant and will coincide with AR. Under perfect competition as the price is uniform and fixed, AR is equal to MR and their shape will be a straight line horizontal to X-axis. The AR and MR Schedule under constant price is given in the below table and in the diagram.

Declining AR and MR (at Declining Price):
When a firm sells large quantities at lower prices both AR and MR will fall but the fall in MR will be steeper than the fall in the AR.

It is to be noted that MR will be lower than AR. Both AR and MR will be sloping downwards straight from left to right. The MR curve divides the distance between AR Curve and Y-axis into two equal parts. The decline in AR need not be a straight line or linear. If the prices are declining with the increase in quantity sold, the AR can be non-linear, taking a shape of concave or convex to the origin.

### Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Cost and Revenue Analysis Additional Important Questions and Answers

Part – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Real cost is _______
(a) Pain and sacrifice
(b) Subjective
(c) Efforts and sacrifice
(d) All the above
(d) All the above

Question 2.
Social Cost is those costs ………………………
(a) Not borne by the firms
(b) Incurred by the society
(c) Health hazards
(d) All the above
(d) All the above

Question 3.
Economic profit is ______
(a) TR-TC
(b) TC-TR
(c) AC-MC
(d) None
(a) TR-TC

Question 4.
Profit is the difference between Total Revenue and ………………………
(a) Total Cost
(b) Total Variable
(c) Total Fixed Cost
(d) Total Marginal Cost
(a) Total Cost

Question 5.
How can you calculate the average cost?
(a) TVC + TFC
(b) TC – AC
(c) TC / Q
(d) AC / Q
(c) TC / Q

Question 6.
What is an envelope curve?
(a) Planning curve
(b) Long-run cost curve
(c) U – shape curve
(d) V – shape curve
(a) Planning curve

Question 7.
Social cost is _______
(a) Not borne by the firm
(b) Borne by the society
(c) Air pollution by the firm
(d) All the above
(d) All the above

Question 8.
Implicit cost is also known as ……………………….
(a) Explicit Cost
(b) Economic Cost
(c) Social Cost
(d) Imputed Cost
(d) Imputed Cost

Question 9.
Long-run average cost curve can also be called as _______
(a) Planning curve
(b) Envelope curve
(c) Boat-shaped curve
(d) All the above
(d) All the above

Question 10.
How will you calculate AR?
(a) AR = $$\frac{TR}{Q}$$
(b) AR = $$\frac{TVR}{Q}$$
(c) AR = $$\frac{TFR}{Q}$$
(d) AR = $$\frac{TAR}{Q}$$
(a) AR = $$\frac{TR}{Q}$$

Part – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
What does money cost?
Production cost expressed in money terms is called money cost.
(OR)
The total money expenses incurred by a firm in producing a commodity.

Question 2.
Define Floating Cost?
Floating cost refers to all expenses that are directly associated with business activities but not with asset creation. It does not include the purchase of raw material as it is part of current assets. It includes payments like wages to workers, transportation charges, fees for power, and administration. Floating cost is necessary to run the day-to-day business of a firm.

Question 3.
What is the social cost?
Social cost refers to the total cost borne by society due to the production of a commodity. (OR) Alfred Marshall defined the term social cost to represent the efforts and sacrifices undergone by the various members of the society in producing a commodity.

Part – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 1.
Bring out the distinction between short-run and long Run?

 Short Run Long Run 1. Period of one year. Period of more than one year. 2. Atleast one of the inputs is fixed. All the inputs are variable. 3. Demand is the main determinant in fixing the price. Supply is the main determinant in fixing the price.

Question 2.
How is the average variable cost be calculated?
It refers to the total variable cost per unit of output. It is obtained by dividing the total variable cost by the quantity of output.
AVC = $$\frac { TVC }{ Q }$$
(Eg.) If TFC is 300;
Q = 2 Find AVC
= $$\frac { 300 }{ 2 }$$
AVC = 150.

Question 3.
What is meant by Social Cost for example?

1. Social cost refers to the total cost borne by the society due to the production of a commodity.
2. Alfred Marshall defined the term social cost to represent the efforts and sacrifices undergone by the various members of the society in producing a commodity.
3. Social Cost is the cost that is not borne by the firm but incurred by others in the society.
4. For example, large business firms cause air pollution, water pollution, and other damages ‘ in a particular area that involve a cost to society.
5. These costs are treated as social costs. It is also called External Cost.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Average Revenue?
Average revenue is the revenue per unit of the commodity sold. It is calculated by dividing the Total Revenue (TR) by the number of units sold (Q)
AR = TR /Q ; if TR = PQ, AR = PQ/Q = P
AR denotes Average Revenue, TR denotes Total Revenue and Q denotes Quantity of unit sold.
For example, if the Total Revenue from the sale of 5 units is ₹30, the Average Revenue is ₹6. (AR = 30/5 = 6) It is to be noted that AR is equal to Price.
AR = TR/Q
= PQ/Q
= P

Part – D

Question 1.
Write a short note on Total Revenue?
Total revenue is the amount of income received by the firm from the sale of its products. It is obtained by multiplying the price of the commodity by the number of units sold.

TR = P × Q
where TR denotes Total Revenue, P denotes Price, and Q denotes Quantity sold.
For example, a cell – phone company sold 100 cell – phones at the price of ₹500 each.
TR is ₹50,000. (TR = 500 × 100 = 50,000).
When the price is constant, the behaviour of TR is shown in the above table and diagram, assuming P = 5.
When P = 5; TR = PQ
When the price is declining with an increase in quantity sold. (Eg. Imperfect Competition on the goods market) the behaviour of TR is shown in the table and diagram. TR can be obtained from the Demand function: If Q = 11 – P,

When P = 1, Q = 10

TR = PQ = 1 × 10 = 10
When P = 3, Q = 8, TR = 24 When P = 0, Q = 1, TR = 10

Question 2.
Bring out the relationship between TR, AR, MR, and Elasticity of demand?
The relationship among TR, AR, and MR Curves:
When marginal revenue is positive, total revenue rises, when MR is zero the total revenue becomes maximum. When marginal revenue becomes negative total revenue starts falling. When AR and MR both are falling, then MR falls at a faster rate than AR.

TR, AR, MR, and Elasticity of demand:
The relationship among AR, MR, and elasticity of demand (e) is stated as follows.
MR = AR (e – 1/e)

The relationship between the AR curve and MR curve depends upon the elasticity of the AR curve [AR = DD = Price]

1. When the price elasticity of demand is greater than one, MR is positive and TR is increasing.
2. When the price elasticity of demand is less than one, MR is negative and TR is decreasing.
3. When price elasticity of demand is equal to one, MR is equal to zero and TR is maximum and constant.

It is to be noted that, the output range of 1 to 5 units, the price elasticity of demand is greater than one according to the total outlay method. Hence, TR is increasing and MR is positive.

1. At the output range of 5 to 6 units, the price elasticity of demand is equal to one. Hence, TR is maximum and MR is equaled to zero.
2. At the output range of 6 units to 10 units, the price elasticity of demand is less than unity. Hence, TR is decreasing and MR is negative.

## Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Chapter 11 Tamil Nadu Economy

Students can download 11th Economics Chapter 11 Tamil Nadu Economy Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Tamil Nadu Economy

### Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Tamil Nadu Economy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
(a) Kerala
(b) Punjab
(c) Gujarat
(d) All the above
(c) Gujarat

Question 2.
In sex ratio, Tamil Nadu ranks …………………….
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
(c) Third

Question 3.
Tamil Nadu is rich in ………………………
(a) Forest resource
(b) Human resource
(c) Mineral resource
(d) All the above
(b) Human resource

Question 4.
The main source of irrigation in Tamil Nadu is ………………………..
(a) River
(b) Tank
(c) Well
(d) Canals
(c) Well

Question 5.
Knitted gannent production is concentrated in ………………………..
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Tiruppur
(c) Erode
(d) Karur
(b) Tiruppur

Question 6.
Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Gateway of Tamil Nadu – Thoothukudi
(b) Home textile city – Erode
(c) Steel city – Salem
(d) Pump city – Coimbatore
(b) Home textile city – Erode

Question 7.
Which of the following cities does not have international airport?
(b) Tiruchirappalli
(c) Paramakudi
(d) Coimbatore
(c) Paramakudi

Question 8.
TN tops in the production of the following crops except ……………………..
(a) Banana
(b) Coconut
(c) Plantation crops
(d) Cardamom
(d) Cardamom

Question 9.
Largest area of land is used in the cultivation of …………………….
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Groundnut
(d) Coconut

Question 10.
In literacy rate, TN ranks …………………………..
(a) Second
(b) Fourth
(c) Sixth
(d) Eighth
(d) Eighth

Question 11.
In investment proposals filed by MSMEs, TN ranks …………………………
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
(a) I

Question 12.
Which district in TN has the highest sex ratio?
(a) Nagapattinam
(b) Nilgiris
(c) Tiruchirappalli
(d) Thanjavur
(b) Nilgiris

Question 13.
Which district has the lowest child sex ratio?
(b) Theni
(c) Ariyalur
(d) Cuddalore
(c) Ariyalur

Question 14.
Which Union Territory has the highest sex ratio?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Pondicherry
(d) Andaman Nicobar
(b) Pondicherry

Question 15.
The largest contribution to GSDP in Tamil Nadu comes from …………………………
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) Mining
(d) Services
(d) Services

Question 16.
In human development index, TN is ranked …………………………
(a) Second
(b) Fourth
(c) Sixth
(d) Seventh
(d) Seventh

Question 17.
SPIC is located in ……………………
(a) Chennai
(c) Tuticorin
(d) Pudukkottai
(c) Tuticorin

Question 18.
The TICEL park is ……………………..
(a) Rubber Park
(b) Textile park
(c) Food park
(d) Bio park
(d) Bio park

Question 19.
In India’s total cement production, Tamil Nadu ranks ………………………..
(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) First
(d) Second
(a) Third

Question 20.
The Headquarters of Southern Railway is a ………………………
(a) Tiruchirappalli
(b) Chennai
(d) Coimbatore
(b) Chennai

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 21.
State any two districts with favourable sex ratio. Indicate the ratios?
Population Growth in Tamil Nadu: At a glance (2011 census)

1. Sex Ratio (per 1000 males) District with highest:
The Nilgiris (1041 females) Thanjavur (1031 females) Nagapattinam (1025 females)

2. Sex Ratio (per 1000 males) District with Lowest:
Theni (900 females) Dharmapuri (946 females)

Question 22.
Define GSDP?

1. The Gross State Domestic Product refers to the total money value of all the goods and services produced annually in the state.
2. Tamil Nadu is the second-largest economy in India with a GSDP of $207.8 billion in 2016 – 2017 according to the Directorate of Economics and Statistics, Tamil Nadu. Question 23. Mention any four food crops which are favourable to Tamil Nadu? Answer: 1. Rice: Tamil Nadu is India’s second-biggest producer of rice. 2. Banana and Coconut: Tamil Nadu ranks first in the production of Banana and coconut. 3. Cashewnut: Tamil Nadu ranks second in the production of cashew nut. 4. Pepper: Tamil Nadu ranks third in the production of pepper. 5. Sugarcane: Tamil Nadu ranks fourth in the production of Sugarcane. Question 24. What are the major ports in Tamil Nadu? Answer: 1. Tamil Nadu has three major ports; one each at Chennai, Ennore, and Tuticorin as well as one intermediate port in Nagapattinam, and 23 minor ports. 2. All the minor ports are managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai Port. 3. Ennore port was recently converted from an intermediate port to a major port and handles all the coal and ore traffic in Tamil Nadu. Question 25. What is heritage tourism? Answer: Heritage tourism is travelling to experience the places and activities that authentically represent the stories and people of the past. Question 26. What are the nuclear power plants in Tamil Nadu? Answer: The Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant and the Koodankulam Nuclear Power Plant are the major nuclear energy plants for the energy grid. Question 27. Define Micro industry? Answer: The enterprises with a capital investment not exceeding 25 lakhs. PART – C Answer the following questions in one paragraph. Question 28. Write a note on mineral resources in Tamil Nadu? Answer: Mineral Resources in Tamil Nadu: 1. Tamil Nadu has a few mining projects based on Titanium, Lignite, Magnesite, Graphite, Limestone, Granite, and Bauxite. 2. The first one is the Neyveli Lignite Corporation that has led the development of large industrial complex around Neyveli in the Cuddalore district with Thermal Power Plants, fertilizers, and Carbonisation plants. 3. Magnesite mining is at Salem from which mining of Bauxite ores are carried out at Yercaud, and this region is also rich in Iron Ore at Kanjamalai. 4. Molybdenum is found in Dharmapuri and is the only source in the country. Question 29. Explain GSDP in Tamil Nadu? Answer: GSDP in Tamil Nadu: 1. GSDP refers to the total money value of all the goods and services produced annually in the state. 2. According to Tamil Nadu’s Directorate of Economics and Statistics, Tamil Nadu is the second-largest economy in India with a GSDP of$207.8 billion in 2016 -17
3. The GSDP of Tamil Nadu is equal to the GDP of Kuwait on nominal terms and the GDP of UAE on PPP terms.
4. Sectoral contribution of GSDP of Tamil Nadu
• Tertiary sector – 63. 70%
• Secondary sector – 28.5%
• Primary sector – 7.76%

Question 30.
Describe the development of the textile industry in Tamil Nadu?

1. Tamil Nadu is the largest textile hub of India.
2. Tamil Nadu is known as the “Yam Bowl” of the country accounting for 41% of India’s cotton yam production.
3. The textile industry plays a significant role in the Indian economy by providing direct employment to an estimated 35 million people and thereby contributing 4% of GDP and. 35% of gross export earnings.
4. The textile sector contributes to 14% of the manufacturing sector.
5. From spinning to garment manufacturing, entire textile production chain facilities are in Tamil Nadu.
6. About half of India’s total spinning mill capacity is in Tamil Nadu.
7. The western part of Tamil Nadu comprising Coimbatore, Tirupur, Erode, Dindigul, and Karur has the majority of spinning mills manufacturing cotton, polyester, blended yam, and silk yam used by garment units in Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, etc.,
8. Yam is also exported to China, Bangladesh, etc.
9. Tirupur is known as “knitting city” is the exporter of garments worth USD (United States Dollar) 3 billion.
10. Karur is the major home for textile manufacturing (curtain cloth, bed linens, kitchen linens, toilet linens, table linens, wall hangings, etc.,) and export hub in India.
11. Erode is the main cloth market in South India for both retail and wholesale ready-mades.

Question 31.
Compare productivity of any two food crops between Tamil Nadu and India?
Productivity position of Tamil Nadu and India:

1. The Government of Tamil Nadu lays emphasis on agricultural production and productivity.
2. Tamil Nadu tops in productivity, in food crops as well as non-food crops among the States in India.

1. Tamil Nadu ranks first in maize, cumbu, groundnut, oilseeds, and cotton.
2. Tamil Nadu ranks second in rice and coconut.
3. Tamil Nadu ranks third in sugarcane, sunflower, and jowar.

Question 32.
Explain the prospect for the development of Tourism?
Prospect for development of tourism:

1. Tamil Nadu has emerged as one of the leading tourist destinations for both domestic and foreign tourists.
2. Tourism in Tamil Nadu is promoted by Tamil Nadu Tourism Development Corporation (TTDC), a Government of Tamil Nadu undertaking.
3. The state currently ranks the highest among Indian states with about 25 crore arrivals.
4. The annual growth rate of this industry stood at 16 percent.
5. Approximately 28 lakh foreign and 11 crore domestic tourists visit the state.

Question 33.
What are the renewable sources of power in Tamil Nadu?
Energy:

1. Tamil Nadu tops in power generation among the southern States as seen in the following table.
2.  Installed capacity of power utilities in States in the southern region.
3. Tamil Nadu is at the forefront of all other Indian States in installed capacity.
4. Muppandal wind farm is a renewable energy source, supplying the villagers with electricity for work.
5. Wind farms were built in Nagercoil and Tuticorin apart from already existing ones around Coimbatore, Pollachi, Dharapuram, and Udumalaipettai.
6. These areas generate about half of India’s 2,000 megawatts of wind energy or two percent of the total power output of India.

Thermal Power:

• In Tamil Nadu, the share of thermal power in total energy sources is very high and the thermal power plants are at Athippattu [North Chennai] Ennore, Mettur, Neyveli, and Thoothukudi.
• The generation of power under various sources is given below.

Hydel Energy:

• The prominent units are Hundah, Mettur, Periyar, Maravakandy, Parson Valley, etc.

Solar Energy:

• Tamil Nadu tops in solar power generation in India as seen in the following table:
• Southern Tamil Nadu is considered as one of the most suitable regions in the country for developing solar power projects.

Wind Energy:

• Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India.
• The State has a very high quality offshore wind energy potential of the Tirunelveli coast and southern Thoothukudi and Rameswaram coast.

Question 34.
Describe the performance of Tamil Nadu Economy in health?
Health:

1. Tamil Nadu has a three-tier health infrastructure comprising hospitals, primary health centres, health units, community health centres, and sub-centers.
2. As of March 2015, the State had 34 district hospitals, 229 sub-divisional hospitals, 1,254 primary health centres, 7,555 sub-centers, and 313 community health centres.

PART – D

Question 35.
Describe the qualitative aspects of the population?

1. Population: Tamil Nadu stands sixth in population with 7.21 crore.
2. Density: Tamil Nadu ranks 12th in density with 555 people per sq. km.
3. Urban population: Tamil Nadu is one of the most urbanized states with 48.4% of the urban population.
4. Sex ratio: Balanced sex ratio implies improvement in the quality of life of the female population. The sex ratio of Tamil Nadu is nearing balance with 995 which stands third next to Kerala and Puducherry.
5. Infant mortality rate: According to NITI AAYOG, the IMR is 17 for Tamil Nadu which is just half of the national average of 34 as of 2016.
6. Maternal mortality rate: Tamil Nadu has a good record of controlling MMR, ranking third with 79 against the national average of 159.
7. Literacy:
• The literacy rate of Tamil Nadu is higher than in many states.
• Tamil Nadu has the highest Gross Enrollment Ratio in higher education.

Question 36.
Explain the various sources of energy in Tamil Nadu?
Tamil Nadu tops in power generation among the Southern States as seen in the table.
Tamil Nadu 26,865 MW is the 1st Rank in the energy level. Tamil Nadu is at the forefront of all other Indian States in installed capacity. Muppandal wind farm is a renewable energy source, supplying the villagers with electricity for work.

Wind farms were built in Nagercoil and Tuticorin apart from already existing ones around Coimbatore, Pollachi, Dharapuram, and Udumalaipettai. These areas generate about half of India’s 2,000 megawatts of wind energy or two percent of the total power output of India.

Nuclear Energy:
The Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant and the Koodankulam Nuclear Power Plant are the major nuclear energy plants for the energy grid.

Thermal power:

• In Tamil Nadu, the share of thermal power in total energy sources is very high and the thermal power plants are at Athippattu (North Chennai) Ennore, Mettur, Neyveli, and Thoothukudi.
• The generation of power under various sources is given below.

Hydel Energy:

• The prominent units are Hundah, Mettur, Periyar, Maravakandy, Parson Valley, etc.,

Solar Energy:

• Tamil Nadu tops in solar power generation in India as seen in the following table
• Southern Tamil Nadu is considered one of the most suitable regions in the country for developing solar power projects.

Wind Energy:

• Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India.
• The State has a very high-quality offshore wind energy potential off the Tirunelveli coast and southern Thoothukudi and Rameswaram coast.

Question 37.
Explain the public transport system in Tamil Nadu?
Tamil Nadu has a well-established transportation system that connects all parts of the state. This is partly responsible for the investment in the state.

• There are 28 national highways in the state, covering a total distance of 5,036 km.
• The state has a total road length of 1,67,000 km.
• It ranks second in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects.

Rail transport:

• Tamil Nadu has a well-developed rail network as part of Southern Railway, headquartered in Chennai.
• Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length of 6,693 KM and there are 690 railway stations in the state.
• The system connects it with most major cities in India.
• Chennai developed a metro system, which came into operation in May 2017.

Air transport:

• Tamil Nadu has four major international airports.
• Chennai, Coimbatore, Tiruchirapalli, and Madurai International airports.
• It also has domestic airports at Tuticorin, Salem, and Madurai.

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
Tamil Nadu is the geographically largest state of India.
(a) 5th
(b) 7th
(c) 9th
(d) 11th
(d) 11th

Question 2.
Tamil Nadu lies in the part of India.
(a) North East
(b) South West
(c) South East
(d) northwest
(c) South East

Question 3.
TNPL is the ……………………. largest eco-friendly paper mill.
(a) Asia’s
(b) America’s
(c) Europe’s
(d) Australia’s
(a) Asia’s

Question 4.
………………………. known as “knitting city” is the exporter of garments.
(a) Tiruppur
(b) Thirunelveli
(c) Erode
(d) Karur
(a) Tiruppur

Question 5.
……………………….. nicknamed as “The Detroit of Asia” is home to a large number of auto component industries.
(a) Thiruvallur
(b) Kancheepuram
(c) Thoothukudi
(d) Chennai
(d) Chennai

Question 6.
SAIL has a steel plant in ……………………
(a) Salem
(b) Karur
(c) Ariyalur
(d) Coimbatore
(a) Salem

Question 7.
The Kalpakkam nuclear power plant and the Kudankulam nuclear power plant are the major …………………. plants for the energy grid.
(a) Nuclear energy
(b) Hydel energy
(c) Solar energy
(d) Wind energy
(a) Nuclear energy

Question 8.
The district which has the lowest density of population is ……………………….
(a) Sivagangai
(b) Nilgiris
(c) Kanyakumari
(d) Thiruvallur
(a) Sivagangai

Question 9.
Tamil Nadu Newsprint Paper Limited (TNPL) is a ……………………….. Industry in Tamil Nadu
(a) Joint sector
(b) Private sector
(c) Public sector
(d) Co-operative sector
(c) Public sector

Question 10.
SPIC is the largest producer of …………………….. in India.
(a) Chemical
(b) Fertilizers
(c) Petrol
(d) Fisheries
(b) Fertilizers

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Write a note on “water resources”?

1. There are 17 river basins in Tamil Nadu.
2. The main rivers are Palar, Cheyyar, Ponnaiyar, Cauvery, Bhavani, Vaigai, Chittar, Tamiraparani, Vellar, Noyyal, Siruvani, Gundar, Vaipar, Valparai, etc.
3. North-East monsoon is the major source of rainfall followed by the southwest monsoon.
4. Wells are the largest source of irrigation in Tamil Nadu (56%).

Question 2.
Write a note on “Urbanisation in Tamil Nadu”?
Tamil Nadu is the most urbanized state with 48.4% of the urban population against 31.5% for India as a whole. The State accounts for 9.61% of total urbanites in India against a 6% share of the total population.

Question 3.
Explain Per capita income in Tamil Nadu?

1. The Per capita GSDP (Gross State Domestic Product) of Tamil Nadu also ($2,200) which is higher than that of many other States in India. 2. Per capita, the GSDP of Tamil Nadu is nearly 1.75 times higher than the national average, as per 2018 data. 3. In terms of rupees, the per capita income in Tamil Nadu was ₹1,03,600 in 2010 – 2011 and it has increased to ₹1,88, 492 in 2017 – 2018 as per the Budget. PART – C Answer the following questions in one paragraph. Question 1. Write a note on “Educational Loans”? Answer: 1. Educational loans disbursed by Public Sector Banks under priority sector are concerned, 20.8% of the total amount was disbursed in Tamil Nadu between 2013-14 and 2015-16. 2. Andhra Pradesh was second with 11.2% of the total loan amount followed by Maharashtra [10.2%] 3. The total amount of educational loans disbursed by Private Banks during the same period, Kerala accounted for 37.8% followed by Tamil Nadu with 24.8%. Question 2. Describe the “Unemployment and Poverty”? Answer: 1. The national average unemployment rate stands at 50 and Tamil Nadu ranks 22nd with an unemployment rate of 42 per 1000. 2. There are different kinds of unemployment with different economic implications. 3. All those aspects need to be studied to fully understand the employment situation. 4. Tamil Nadu is one of India’s richest states since 1994, the state has seen a steady decline in poverty. 5. Tamil Nadu has lower levels of poverty than most other states in the country. 6. After 2005, Tamil Nadu was among India’s fastest-growing states, with growth being driven mainly by services. PART – D Answer the following questions in about a page. Question 1. Explain the highlights of the Tamil Nadu Economy? Answer: Highlights of Tamil Nadu Economy: 1. The growth of SGDP in Tamil Nadu has been among the fastest in India since 2005. 2. Poverty reduction in Tamil Nadu has been faster than that in many other States. 3. Tamil Nadu ranks 3rd in terms of invested capital (₹ 2.92 lakh crore) and the value of total industrial output (₹ 6.19 lakh crore). 4. Tamil Nadu ranks first among the states in terms of the number of factories with 17% share and industrial workers (16% share) of the country. 5. Tamil Nadu is placed third in the health index as per the NITIAAYOG report. 6. Tamil Nadu has the highest Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education. 7. Tamil Nadu has the largest number of engineering colleges. 8. Tamil Nadu has emerged as a major hub for renewable energy. 9. Tamil Nadu has the highest credit Deposit Ratio in commercial and cooperative banks. 10. Tamil Nadu has the highest ranks first on investment proposals filed by MSMEs. Question 2. Describe the “MSMEs”? Answer: 1. The Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises are defined under the MSMED Act 2006. 2. The enterprises are classified as Manufacturing and Service enterprises based on the investment in plant and machinery and equipment (excluding land and building). 3. Tamil Nadu accounts for 15.07% of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in the country (the highest among all States) with 6.89 lakhs registered MSMEs. 4. Producing over 8000 varieties of products for a total investment of more than ₹32,008 crores. 5. MSMEs produce a wide variety of products in almost all sectors. 6. The prominent among them are the engineering, electrical, chemicals, plastics, steel paper, matches, textiles, hosiery, and garments sector. 7. Around 15.61 lakh entrepreneurs have registered, providing employment opportunities to about 99.7 lakhs persons with a total investment of Rs. 1,68,331 crore. ACTIVITY Question 1. Visit your nearby village and make an on-the-spot study about crops production, source of irrigation, and living conditions of farmers? Answer: Crop Production: 1. Crop Production includes all the feed sources that are required to maintain the dairy herd and the resource inputs used to produce the crops. 2. The type of feed depends on animal management. System – conventional or organic. 3. Feeds may include mainly corn-silage, corn – grain, alfalfa – hay and alfalfa-silage, soybeans, soybean meal, wheat, oats, distiller’s grains solids, with grasses, forage, and hay and dietary supplements such as minerals. 4. The inventory would include the production of all feed crops raised on the farm, purchased from a vendor or other farm, or sold to another farm. 5. In the United States, larger farms purchase feed while smaller farms grow their own feed. [USDA ECONOMIC RESEARCH SERVICE, 2007] USDA – United States Development Association. 6. A separate analysis would be conducted for the feed milling operations to account for its resource inputs such as fuel used in transportation and electricity. 7. Inputs in crop production include fuel for tractors and other equipment, water, machinery, fertilizer, pesticides. 8. Manure nutrients are a resource input if used in crop production. Important sources of irrigation available in Indian villages are as follows: There are three major sources of irrigation in India. They are:- 1. Canals 2. Wells and Tube – wells 3. Tanks • Wells and Tube wells are the major sources of irrigation. • Canals rank second. • Tanks rank third. Canal irrigation: Canal irrigation has its maximum development in the Great Plains and in the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna deltas in the eastern coastal plains. Wells and Tube – wells: Wells and Tube – wells are popular in the alluvial plains. The living condition of farmers: 1. Smallholder farmers already face numerous risks to agricultural production. 2. Climate change is expected to disproportionately affect smallholder farmers and make their livelihoods even more precarious. 3. Farmers crop with risks and explore what strategies are needed to help them adapt to climate change. 4. Agricultural system owing to their high dependence on agriculture for their livelihood, chronic food insecurity, physical, isolation and lack of access to formal safety nets. 5. Farmers are frequently exposed to pest and disease outbreaks and extreme weather events particularly cyclones. 6. Farmers use a variety of risk cropping strategies. 7. To prevent them from remaining food insecure. 8. Few farmers have adjusted their farming strategies in response to climate change, owing to limited resources and capacity. 9. Technical, Financial, and Institutional support is needed to improve agricultural production and food security. 10. Farmers and make their livelihoods resilient to climate change. ## Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Chapter 3 Production Analysis Students can download 11th Economics Chapter 3 Production Analysis Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams. ## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 3 Production Analysis ### Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Production Analysis Text Book Back Questions and Answers Part – A Multiple Choice Questions: Question 1. The primary factors of production are ……………………….. (a) Labour and Organisation (b) Labour and Capital (c) Land and Capital (d) Land and Labour Answer: (d) Land and Labour Question 2. The man-made physical goods used to produce other goods and services are referred to as. (a) Land (b) Labour (c) Capital (d) Organization. Answer: (c) Capital Question 3. The formula for calculating AP is ……………………… (a) ∆TP/N (b) ∆TP/∆N (c) TP/MP (d) TP/N Answer: (d) TP/N Question 4. Which factor is called the changing agent of the Society (a) Labourer (b) Land (c) Organizer (d) Capital Answer: (c) Organizer Question 5. Who said, that one of the keys of an entrepreneur is “uncertainty – bearing”? (a) JB Clark (b) Schumpeter (c) Knight (d) Adam Smith Answer: (c) Knight Question 6. The functional relationship between “inputs” and “outputs” is called as (a) Consumption Function (b) Production Function (c) Savings Function (d) Investment Function Answer: (b) Production Function Question 7. In a firm 5 units of factors produce 24 units of the product. When the number of factor increases by one, the production increases to 30 units. Calculate the Average Product. (a) 30 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 24 Answer: (c) 5 Question 8. The short-run production is studied through (a) The Laws of Returns to Scale (b) The Law of Variable Proportions (c) Iso-quants (d) Law of Demand Answer: (b) The Law of Variable Proportions Question 9. The long-run production function is explained by ……………………… (a) Law of Demand (b) Law of Supply (c) Returns to Scale (d) Law of Variable Proportions Answer: (c) Returns to Scale Question 10. An Iso-quant curve is also known as (a) Inelastic Supply Curve (b) Inelastic Demand Curve (c) Equi-marginal Utility (d) Equal Product Curve Answer: (d) Equal Product Curve Question 11. Mention the economies reaped from inside the firm. (a) Financial (b) Technical (c) Managerial (d) All of the above Answer: (d) All of the above Question 12. Cobb-Douglas production function assumes (a) Increasing returns to scale (b) Diminishing returns to scale (c) Constant returns to scale (d) All of the above Answer: (c) Constant returns to scale Question 13. Name the returns to scale when the output increases by more than 5%, for a 5% increase in the inputs. (a) Increasing returns to scale (b) Decreasing returns to scale (c) Constant returns to scale (d) All of the above Answer: (a) Increasing returns to scale Question 14. Which of the following is not a characteristic of land? (a) It’s a limited supply (b) It is mobile (c) Heterogeneous (d) Gift of Nature Answer: (b) It is mobile Question 15. The product obtained from additional factors of production is termed as ………………………. (a) Marginal product (b) Total product (c) Average product (d) Annual product Answer: (a) Marginal product Question 16. Modern economists have propounded the law of (a) Increasing returns (b) Decreasing returns (c) Constant returns (d) Variable proportions. Answer: (a) Increasing returns Question 17. Producer’s equilibrium is achieved at the point where ………………………. (a) Marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS) is greater the price ratio (b) MRTS is lesser than the price ratio (c) MRTS and price ratio are equal to each other (d) The slopes of isoquant and isocost lines are different. Answer: (c) MRTS and price ratio are equal to each other Question 18. The relationship between the price of a commodity and the supply of a commodity is (a) Negative (b) Positive (c) Zero (d) Increase Answer: (b) Positive Question 19. If the average product is decreasing, then marginal product ………………………. (a) Must be greater the average product (b) Must be less than the average product (c) Must be increasing (d) Both a and c Answer: (b) Must be less than average product Question 20. A production function measures the relation between (a) Input prices and output prices (b) Input prices and the quantity of output (c) The number of inputs and the quantity of output. (d) The number of inputs and input prices. Answer: (c) The number of inputs and the quantity of output. Part – B Answer the following questions in one or two sentences. Question 21. Classify the factors of production? Answer: Factors of production are classified as land, labor, capital, and organization. 1. Land and Labour – Primary factors 2. Capital and organization – Secondary factors. Question 22. Define Labour. Answer: According to Marshall, labour represents services provided by the factor labour, which helps in yielding an income to the owner of the labor-power. Question 23. State the production function? Answer: The production function is the relationship between inputs of productive services and outputs of product per unit of time. Question 24. Define the Marginal Product of a factor. Answer: Marginal product is the addition made to the total product when one more unit of the variable input is employed. MP = TP (n)-TP (n- 1) (OR) Marginal product is the ratio of the change in the total product to the change in the units of input. MP = ∆TP / ∆N Question 25. What is the Iso – cost line? Answer: An Iso-cost line represents different combinations of inputs which show the same amount of cost. Question 26. What are the conditions for the producer’s equilibrium? Answer: The Conditions For Producer’S Equilibrium: 1. The Iso-cost line must be tangent to the Iso-quant curve. 2. At the point of tangency, the Iso-quant curve must be convex to the origin or MRTSLK must be declining. Question 27. What are the reasons for the upward-sloping supply curve? Answer: As the price of the commodity increases the quantum supplied also increases. So the supply curve has a positive slope. The quantum supplied of commodity x is represented on X-axis. And the price of the commodity is represented on the Y-axis. The points such as a, b, c, d, and e on the supply curve SS’, represent various quantities at different prices. PART – C Answer the following questions in one paragraph. Question 28. What are the characteristics of land? Answer: The Characteristics of Land: 1. Land is a primary factor of production. 2. Land is a passive factor of production. 3. Land is the free gift of nature. 4. Land has no cost of production. 5. Land is inelastic in supply. 6. Land is permanent and immovable. 7. Land is heterogeneous and has alternative uses. 8. Land is subject to law of diminishing returns. Question 29. What are the factors governing the elasticity of supply? Answer: 1. Nature of the commodity: The elasticity of supply of durable goods is high but perishables have a low elasticity of supply. 2. Cost of production: Under constant or increasing returns the elasticity of supply is greater, under diminishing returns elasticity is less. 3. Technical condition: In large-scale production, supply cannot be adjusted easily. So elasticity of supply is lesser and vice versa. 4. Time factor: During a very short period, supply cannot be adjusted. In a short period, variable factors can be changed so elasticity is more and in a long period, supply is highly elastic. Question 30. What are the functions of entrepreneurs? Answer: 1. An organizer is the initiator of the business. 2. A successful entrepreneur is always an innovator. 3. An organizer co-ordinates the factors of production to start and run the business or production. 4. An organizer controls and directs the factors to get better results and he supervises for the efficient functioning of all. 5. There are risk-taking and uncertainty bearing obstacles. Question 31. State and explain the elasticity of supply? Answer: The elasticity of supply may be defined as the degree of responsiveness of change in supply to change in price on the part of sellers. It is Mathematically expressed as, Elasticity of supply = Proportionate change in supply / Proportionate change in price es = $$\frac { \Delta Q_{ S } }{ Q_{ S } }$$ / $$\frac { \Delta P }{ P }$$ es = $$\frac { \Delta Q_{ S } }{ \Delta P }$$ × $$\frac{P}{Qs}$$ Where Qs represents the supply, P represents price, ∆denotes a change. Question 32. Bring out the Relationship among Total, Average and Marginal Products? Answer: Question 33. Illustrate the concept of producer’s Equilibrium? Answer: Producer equilibrium implies the situation where the producer maximizes his output. It is also known as the optimum combination of the factors of production. In short, the producer manufactures a given amount of output with the ‘least-cost combination of factors’, with his given budget. Optimum Combination of Factors implies either there is output maximization for given inputs or there is cost minimization for the given output. Conditions for Producer Equilibrium The two conditions that are to be fulfilled for the attainment of producer equilibrium are: 1. The isocost line must be tangent to the iso-quant curve. 2. At the point of tangency, the iso-quant curve must be convex to the origin or MRTSLk must be declining. Question 34. State the Cobb-Douglas Production Function. Answer: The Cobb-Douglas production function was developed by Charles W.Cobb and Paul H. Douglas. Cobb-Douglas production function describes how much output can be made with capital and labour inputs. Q = ALα Kβα Q – output, A – positive constant, K – capital, L – Labour α and β – Elasticity coefficients of outputs for the inputs, α + β = 1 denotes constant returns to scale. PART – D Answer the following questions in about a page. Question 35. Examine the Law of Variable Proportions with the help of a diagram? Answer: The law states that if all other factors are fixed and one input is varied in the short run, the total output will increase at an increasing rate at first instance, be constant at a point and then eventually decrease. The marginal product will become negative at last. According to G.Stigler, “As equal increments of one input are added, the inputs of other productive services being held constant, beyond a certain point, the resulting increments of the product will decrease, i.e., the marginal product will diminish”. Assumptions: The Law of Variable Proportions is based on the following assumptions. 1. Only one factor is variable while others are held constant. 2. All units of the variable factor are homogeneous. 3. The product is measured in physical units. 4. There is no change in the state of technology. 5. There is no change in the price of the product. Total Product (TP): Total product refers to the total amount of commodity produced by the combination of all inputs in a given period of time. Summation of marginal products, i.e. TP = LMP where, TP = Total Product, MP = Marginal Product Average Product (TP): Average Product is the result of the total product divided by the total units of the input employed. In other words, it refers to the output per unit of the input. Mathematically, AP = TP/N Where, AP = Average Product TP = Total Product N = Total units of inputs employed Marginal Product (MP) Marginal Product is the addition or the increment made to the total product when one more unit of the variable input is employed. In other words, it is the ratio of the change in the total product to the change in the units of the input. It is expressed as MP = ∆TP/∆N where MP = Marginal Product TP(n) = Change in total product ∆N = Change in units of input It is also expressed as MP = TP (n) – TP (n – 1) Where MP = Marginal Product TP(n – 1) = Total product of employing nA unit of a factor TP(n – 1) = Total product of employing the previous unit of a factor, that is, (n – 1)th unit of a factor. The Law of Variable Proportions is explained with the help of the following schedule and diagram: In the above table, units of variable factor (labour) are employed along with other fixed factors of production. The table illustrates that there are three stages of production. Though total product increases steadily at the first instant, constant at the maximum point, and then diminishes, it is always positive forever. While total product increases, the marginal product increases up to a point and then decreases. The total product increases up to the point where the marginal product is zero. When total product tends to diminish marginal product becomes negative. In the diagram, the number of workers is measured on X-axis while TPL, APL, and MPL are denoted on Y-axis. The diagram explains the three stages of production as given in the above table. Stage – I In the first stage, MPL increases up to the third labourer and it is higher than the average product so the total product is increasing at an increasing rate. The tendency of total production to increase at an increasing rate stops at point A and it begins to increase at a decreasing rate. This point is known as ‘Point of Inflexion’. Stage – II In the second stage, MPL decreases up to the sixth unit of labor where the MPL curve intersects the X-axis. At the fourth unit of labor MPL = APL. After this, the MPL curve is lower than the APL. TPL increases at a decreasing rate. Stage – III The third stage of production shows that the sixth unit of labour is marked by negative MPL, the APL continues to fall but remains positive. After the sixth unit, TPL declines with the employment of more units of the variable factor, labour. Question 36. List out the properties of isoquants with the help of diagrams? Answer: Properties of Iso – quant Curve: 1. The isoquant curve has negative slope: It slopes downwards from left to right indicating that the factors are substitutable. If more of one factor is used, less of the other factor is needed for producing the same level of output. In the diagram combination, A refers to more capital K5 and less labour L2 As the producer moves to B, C, and D, more labour and less capital are used. 2. Convex to the origin. This explains the concept of Diminishing Marginal Rate of Technical Substitution (MRTSLK). For example, the capital substituted by 1 unit of labour goes on decreasing when moved from top to bottom. If so, it is called diminishing MRTS. Constant MRTS (straight line) and increasing MRTS (concave) are also possible. It depends on the nature of the isoquant curve. This means that factors of production are substitutable to each other. The capital substituted per unit of labour goes on decreasing when the isoquant is convex to the origin. 3. Nonintersection of Iso – quant curves: For instance, point A lies on the isoquants IQ1 and IQ2. But the point C shows a higher output and the point B shows a lower level of output IQ1 If C = A, B = A, then C = B. But C > B which is illogical. 4. An upper isoquant curve represents a higher level of output: Higher IQS show higher outputs and lower IQS show lower outputs, for the upper isoquant curve implies the use of more factors than the lower isoquant curve. The arrow in the figure shows an increase in the output with a right and upward shift of an isoquant curve. 5. Isoquant curve does not touch either X-axis or Y-axis: No isoquant curve touches the X-axis or Y-axis because in IQ1 only capital is used, and in IQ2 only labour is used. Question 37. Elucidate the Laws of Returns to scale. Illustrate? Answer: In the long-run all factors are variable. The laws of returns to scale explain the relationship between output and the scale of inputs in the long-run when all the inputs are increased in the same proportion. Assumptions : 1. All the factors are variable except the organization. 2. There is no change in technology. 3. There is perfect competition in the market. 4. Outputs or returns are increased in physical quantities. Three phases of returns to scale: 1. Increasing returns to scale: If all inputs are increased by one percent, output increase by more than one percent. 2. Constant returns to scale: In this case, if all inputs are increased by one percent, output increases by one percent. Diagrammatic Illustration: The three laws of returns to scale can be explained with the help of the diagram below. In the figure, the movement from point a to point b represents increasing returns to scale. Because, between these two points output has doubled, but output has tripled. The law of constant returns to scale is implied by the movement from point b to point c. Because between these two points inputs have doubled and output also has doubled. Decreasing returns to scale are denoted by the movement from the point c to point d since doubling the factors from 4 units to 8 units product less than the increase in inputs, that is by 33.33%. Question 38. Explain the internal and external economies of scale? Answer: Internal Economies of Scale: 1. Internal Economies of scale refer to the advantages enjoyed by the production unit which causes a reduction in the cost of production of the commodity. 2. For example, a firm enjoying the advantage of an application of most modem machinery, generation of internal capital, and improvement in managerial skill, etc. are sure to reduce the cost of production. They are of various types: 1. Technical Economies: • When the size of the firm is large, a large amount of capital can be used. • There is a possibility to introduce up-to-date technologies; this improves the productivity of the firm. • Research and development strategies can be applied easily. 2. Financial Economies: • Big firms can float shares in the market for capital expansion, while small firms cannot easily float shares in the market. 3. Managerial Economies: • Large scale production facilitates specialization and delegation. 4. Labour Economies: • Large scale production implies greater and minute division of labour. • This leads to specialization which enhances the quality. • This increases the productivity of the firm. 5. Marketing Economies: • In the context of large-scale production, the producers can both buy raw-materials in bulk at a cheaper cost and can take the products to distant markets. • They enjoy a huge bargaining power. 6. Economies of survival: • Product diversification is possible when there is large scale production. • This reduces the risk in production. • Even if the market for one product collapses, the market for other commodities offsets it. External Economies of Scale: 1. External Economies of Scale refer to changes in any factor outside the firm causing an improvement in the production process. 2. This can take place in the case of the industry also. 3. These are the advantages enjoyed by all the firms in the industry due to the structural growth. 4. Important external economies of scale are listed below: • Increased transport facilities • Banking facilities • Development of townships • Development of information and communication. ### Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Production Analysis Additional Important Questions and Answers Part – A Multiple Choice Questions: Question 1. The labour exercised without expecting income is _______ (a) Service (b) Physical labour (c) Mental labour (d) None of the above Answer: (a) Service Question 2. Land and Labour are called ……………………. factors. (a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Territory (d) Service Answer: (a) Primary Question 3. Investment in an advertisement, expenses on capital. training programme are examples of _______ capital (a) Tangible (b) Intangible (c) Visible (d) Financial Answer: (c) Visible Question 4. Reward Paid to capital is ………………………. (a) Interest (b) Profit (c) Wages (d) Rent Answer: (a) Interest Question 5. Marginal product is (a) MP = ∆TP / ∆N (b) MP = ∆AP / ∆N (c) MP = TP / N (d) MP = ∆P / N Answer: (a) MP = ∆TP / ∆N Question 6. What does a successful entrepreneur will always be made? (a) Organization (b) Investment (c) Capital (d) Innovation Answer: (d) Innovation Question 7. _______ is the exertion of body or mind in the production process. (a) Labour (b) Capital (c) Land (d) Financial capital Answer: (a) Labour Question 8. Gifts of Nature is called ……………………… (a) Land (b) Labour (c) Capital (d) Production Answer: (a) Land Question 9. _______ is the gift of nature. (a) Labour (b) Capital (c) Land (d) Organization Answer: (c) Land Question 10. Labour cannot be separated from ………………………. (a) Capital (b) Labourer (c) Profit (d) Organisation Answer: (b) Labourer Part – B Answer the following questions in one or two sentences. Question 1. What is production? Answer: Production is the process of using various factors of production (inputs)to make output for consumption. Question 2. Classify the factors determining supply? Answer: 1. Price of the commodity 2. Price of other commodities 3. Price of factors 4. Price expectations 5. Technology 6. Natural factors 7. Discovery of new raw materials 8. Taxes and subsidies 9. The objective of the firm Question 3. What is capital? Answer: Capital is a produced means of production. – Bohm – Bawerk Part – C Answer the following questions in one paragraph. Question 1. Explain the difference between internal and external economies? Answer:  Internal Economies of Scale External Economies of Scale 1. Expansion of the firm itself. Expansion of the industry. 2. Lower long-run average cost. Benefits most all firms. 3. Efficiencies from larger-scale production. Agglomeration economies are important. 4. Range of economies (e.g) Technical and Financial. Helps to explain the rapid growth of many cities. Question 2. What is financial capital? Answer: Financial capital means the assets needed by a firm to provide goods and services measured in terms of monetary value. It is normally raised through debt and equity issues. The prime aim of it is to mass wealth in terms of profit. Question 3. What are the Supply Function and its assumptions? Answer: The supply of a commodity depends on factors such as the price of the commodity, price of labour, price of capital, the state of technology, number of firms, prices of related goods, and future price expectations, and so on. Mathematically the supply function is QS = f(Px, Pr, Pf, T, O, E) Where QS = Quantity supplied of x commodity Px = Price of x Commodity Pr = Price of related goods Pf = Price of factors of production T = Technology O = Objective of the producer E = Expected Price of the commodity. Assumptions: Law of Supply is based on the following assumptions. 1. There is no change in the prices of factors of production 2. There is no change in the price of capital goods 3. Natural resources and their availability remain the same 4. Prices of substitutes are constant 5. There is no change in technology 6. Climate remains unchanged 7. Political situations remain unchanged 8. There is no change in tax policy Part – D Answer the following questions in about a page? Question 1. What are the diseconomies of scale? Mention its types. Answer: The diseconomies of the scale are a disadvantage to a firm or an industry or an organization. It increases the cost of production. These diseconomies are of two types. 1. Internal diseconomies: When the scale of production increases beyond the optimum limit, its efficiency may come down. 2. External diseconomies: It refers to the threat or disturbance to a firm or an industry from factor lying outside it. For example, a bus strike prevents the easy and correct entry of the workers into the firm. Similarly, the rent of a firm increases very much if new economic units are established in the locality. Question 2. What are the types of elasticity of supply? Answer: There are five types of elasticity of supply 1. Relatively Elastic Supply: The coefficient of elastic supply is greater than 1 [ES >1]. One percent change in the price of a commodity causes more than one percent change in the quantity supplied of the commodity. 2. Unitary Elastic Supply. The coefficient of elastic supply is equal to 1 [ES = 1]. One percent change in the price of a commodity causes an equal [one percent ] change in the quantity supplied of the commodity. 3. Relatively Inelastic Supply: The coefficient of elasticity is less than one [ES < 1], One percent change in the price of a commodity causes a less than one percent change in the quantity supplied of the commodity. 4. Perfectly Inelastic Supply: The coefficient of elasticity is equal to zero [ES = 0], One percent change in the price of a commodity causes no change in the quantity supplied of the commodity. 5. Perfectly Elastic Supply: The coefficient of elasticity of supply is infinity [ES – α]. One percent change in the price of a commodity causes an infinite change in the quantity supplied of the commodity. ACTIVITY Question 1. Visit a market and write a report on the factors that influence the quantity of supply of a commodity of your locality? Answer: Things that cause changes in supply are also called influences of supply. The influences on supply are: 1. Inputs 2. Productivity 3. Technology 4. Taxes 5. Subsidises 6. Government regulation 7. Number of sellers 8. Political conflict Supply and Demand Balance: 1. It supply is more price goes down. Demand is more price goes up. 2. Commodity movement get these number [PIS] P = Production I = Import S = Stock These three represent supply of any commodity = [E × C] E = Export; C = Consumption 1. These two represent demand. 2. PIS is more than E × C., then that commodity price goes down. 3. E × C is more than PIS that commodity price goes up. 4. Prediction of any commodity price, you will predict it before that supply-demand imbalance. 5. That means today’s wheat or rice prices are reflections of what will happen to its supply-demand in the next few months rather than its current balance. 6. India’s largest commodity exchange currently working as a trader in Agricultural commodities. 7. The supply is interfered with by legal or illegal cartels. 8. The price is also inflated by opportunistic government charges. 9. A price ceiling prevents a price from rising above the ceiling. 10. Wheat has a price ceiling of 2400 per metric tonne,$400 is the highest amount supplier can charge.

Question 2.
Visit a factory and show how the four factors of production are effectively employed to produce the product in your locality?

1. A Factory is considered capital in the factor of production.
2. Capital is any good that was used to create other goods.
3. A natural resource can’t be land, since it’s not the actual workers within the factory it can’t labor, so it has to be capital.

Factors affecting the location of Industries are as follows:

1. Raw Materials
2. Capital
3. Transport
4. Market
5. Water
6. Power
7. Land
8. Labour
9. Communication

The main factors affecting the location of Industries are as follows:

1. Land
2. Labour
3. Capital
4. Entrepreneurship
• Factors of production refer to the inputs of the production process.
• Factors of production are resources that produce goods and services.

These are four categories of factors of production:

Land:
Natural resources that we use to produce goods and services.

Example:
Oil, gas and goal, water, etc.

Labour:
The work time and work effort that people devote to producing goods and services. This includes human capital which is the quality of the labour forming from knowledge and skills of the person obtained from education, on-the-job training, and work experience.

Capital:

1. The tools, instruments, machine, buildings, and other items that are used to produce goods and services.
2. This includes machinery, hammers, etc.

Entrepreneurship:
The human resource that organizes labour, land, and capital. This includes the idea, plan, etc. about how and what to produce.

## Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Chapter 10 Rural Economy

Students can download 11th Economics Chapter 10 Rural Economy Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Rural Economy

### Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Rural Economy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which is considered as the basic unit for rural areas?
(a) Panchayat
(b) Village
(c) Town
(d) Municipality
(b) Village

Question 2.
Which feature is identified with rural areas?
(a) Low population density
(b) High population density
(c) Low natural resources
(d) Low human resources
(a) Low population density

Question 3.
Identity the feature of rural economy?
(a) Dependence on agriculture
(b) High population density
(c) Low level of population
(d) Low level of inequality
(a) Dependence on agriculture

Question 4.
What percentage of the total population live in rural area, as per 2011 censes?
(a) 40
(b) 50
(c) 60
(d) 70
(c) 60

Question 5.
How do you term people employed in excess over and above the requirements?
(a) Unemployment
(b) Underemployment or Disguised Unemployment
(c) Full employment
(d) Self – employment
(b) Underemployment or Disguised Unemployment

Question 6.
What is the term used to denote the coexistence of two different features in an economy?
(a) Technology
(b) Dependency
(c) Dualism
(d) Inequality
(c) Dualism

Question 7.
The process of improving the rural areas, rural people and rural living is defined as ………………………….
(a) Rural economy
(b) Rural economics
(c) Rural employment
(d) Rural development
(d) Rural development

Question 8.
Identify the agriculture related problem of rural economy.
(a) Poor communication
(b) Small size of landholding
(c) Rural poverty
(d) Poor banking network
(b) Small size of landholding

Question 9.
The recommended nutritional intake per person in rural areas.
(a) 2100 calories
(b) 2200 calories
(c) 2300 calories
(d) 2400 calories
(d) 2400 calories

Question 10.
Indicate the cause for rural poverty.
(a) Lack of non-farm employment
(b) High employment
(c) Low inflation rate
(d) High investment
(a) Lack of non-farm employment

Question 11.
What is the other name for concealed unemployment?
(a) Open
(b) Disguised
(c) Seasonal
(d) Rural
(b) Disguised

Question 12.
How do you term the employment occurring only on a particular season?
(a) Open
(b) Disguised
(c) Seasonal
(d) Rural
(c) Seasonal

Question 13.
Identify an example for rural industries?
(a) Sugar factory
(b) Mat making industry
(c) Cement industry
(d) Paper industry
(b) Mat making industry

Question 14.
How much share of rural families in India is in debt?
(a) Half
(b) One fourth
(c) Two third
(d) Three fourth
(d) Three fourth

Question 15.
Identify the cause for rural indebtedness in India.
(a) Poverty
(b) High population
(c) High productivity
(d) Full employment
(a) Poverty

Question 16.
In which year, Regional Rural Banks came into existence?
(a) 1965
(b) 1970
(c) 1975
(d) 1980
(c) 1975

Question 17.
Identify the year of launch of MUDRA Bank?
(a) 1995
(b) 2000
(c) 2010
(d) 2015
(d) 2015

Question 18.
Identify the year in which National Rural Health Mission was launched.
(a) 2000
(b) 2005
(c) 2010
(d) 2015
(b) 2005

Question 19.
(a) Rural marketing
(b) Rural employment
(c) Rural development
(d) All the above
(d) All the above

Question 20.
“An Indian farmer is bom in debt, lives in debt, dies in debt and bequeaths debt”-who said this?
(b) Gandhi
(c) Amartya Sen
(d) Sir Malcolm Darling
(d) Sir Malcolm Darling

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 21.
Define Rural Economy?
Rural economy refers to villages. Rural economics deals with the application of economic principles in understanding and developing rural areas.

Question 22.
What do you mean by Rural Development?

1. Rural Development is defined as an overall improvement in the economies and social well being of villagers and the institutional and physical environments in which they live.
2. According to the World Bank “Rural Development is a strategy designed to improve the economic and social life of a specific group of people – rural poor.
3. Rural Development is a process of improving the rural areas, rural people, and rural living.

Question 23.
Rural Poverty – Define?
Rural poverty refers to the existence of poverty in rural areas. Poverty in India is the situation in which an individual fails to earn sufficient income to buy the basic minimum of subsistence.

Question 24.
Define Open Unemployment?

1. Open Unemployment: Unemployed persons are identified as they remain without work.
2. This type of unemployment is found among agricultural labourers, rural artisans, and literate persons.

Question 25.
What is meant by Disguised Unemployment?

1. Many are employed below their productive capacity and even if they are withdrawn from work the output will not diminish. It is also called Disguised Unemployment or Underemployment. This type of unemployment is found among small and marginal farmers, livestock rearers, and rural artisans.
2. Disguised unemployment in rural India is 25 percent to 30 percent.

Question 26.
Define Cottage Industry?

1. Cottage Industries are generally associated with agriculture and provide both part-time and full-time jobs are in rural areas.
2. Cottage Industries are mat, coir and basket making industries.
3. The principal cottage industries of India are hand-loom weaving [Cotton, Silk, Jute, etc.] pottery, washing soap making, conch shell, handmade paper, horn button, mother of pearl button, Cutlery, lock, and key making industries. These are almost similar to the cottage industries.

Question 27.
What do you mean by Micro Finance?
Microfinance is a financial service that offers loans, savings, and insurance to entrepreneurs and small business owners.

Question 28.
State any two causes of the housing problem in rural areas?

1. House is one of the basic needs of every family. The provision of better housing facilities increases the productivity of labour. The housing problem is getting aggravated due to the rapid adaptation of nuclear families.
2. Housing does not mean the provision of a house alone but also proper water supply, good sanitation, proper disposal of sewage, etc.

Question 29.
Define Rural Electrification?

1. Rural Electrification refers to providing electrical power to rural areas.
2. The main aims of rural electrification are to provide electricity to agricultural operations and to enhance agricultural productivity.
3. To increase cropped area, to promote rural industries, and to lighting the villages.
4. In order to improve this facility, the supply of electricity is almost free for agricultural purposes in many states, and the electricity tariff is charged in rural areas is kept very low.

Question 30.
State any two factors hindering Rural Electrification in India?
The factors hindering the progress of rural electrification in India are:

1. Lack of Funds: The generation and transmission of power involve huge expenditure and the fund allocation is low.
2. Inter-State Disputes: As there are inter-state disputes in managing power projects, power distribution is affected.
3. Uneven Terrain: As rural topography is uneven without proper connection, developing new lines are costlier and difficult.
4. High Transmission Loss: Transmission loss in power distribution is almost 25 percent in rural areas.
5. Power Theft: Unauthorized use and diversion of power are evil practices adopted by affluent people that hinder the rural electrification process.

PART – C

Question 31.
State the importance of Rural Development?

1. India cannot be developed by retaining rural as backward
2. As the rural economy supports the urban sector, the backwardness of the rural sector would be a major impediment to the overall progress of the economy.
3. Improvements in education, health, and sanitation in villages can help avoid many urban problems.
4. To provide gainful employment and improve food production.
5. The evils of brain drain and rural-urban migration can be reduced.
6. For the better utilization of resources.
7. To minimize the gap between rural and urban areas.

Question 32.
Explain the causes for Rural Backwardness?

1. The evils of brain-drain and rural-urban migration can be reduced if rural areas are developed.
2. In order to better utilize the unused and under-utilized resources, there is a need to develop the rural economy.
3. Rural Development should minimize the gap between rural and urban areas in terms of the provision of infrastructural facilities. It was called PURA by former President Abdul Kalam.
4. In order to improve the nation’s status in the global arena in terms of economic indicators like,
• Human Development Index [HDI]
• Woman Empowerment Index [WEI]
• Gender Disparity Index [GDI]
• Physical Quality of Life Index [PQLI] and
• Gross National Happiness Index [GNHI] should be given due attention.

Question 33.
Enumerate the remedial measures of Rural poverty?
The creation of employment opportunities would support the elimination of poverty. The poverty eradication schemes implemented in India are

1. 20 point programme.
2. Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP)
3. Training Rural Youths for Self Employment (TRYSEM)
4. Food for Work Programme (FWP)
5. National Rural Employment Programme (NREP)
6. RLEGP, JRY and MGN REGS

Question 34.
What are the remedial measures for Rural unemployment?
Remedial measures for Rural unemployment:
In order to reduce rural unemployment in the country, there is a need to take integrated and coordinated efforts from various levels. A few remedial measures are listed below: Subsidiary

Occupation:
To reduce seasonal unemployment rural people should be encouraged to adopt subsidiary occupations. Loans should be granted and proper arrangements should be made for marketing their products.

Rural Works Programme:
Rural Works Programme such as construction and maintenance of roads, digging of drains, canals, etc., should be planned during the off-season to provide gainful employment to the unemployed.

Irrigation Facilities:
Since rainfall is uncertain irrigation facilities should be expanded to enable the farmers to adopt multiple cropping.

Rural Industrialization:
To provide employment new industries should be set up in rural areas. Technical Education: Employment oriented courses should be introduced in schools and colleges to enable the literate youth to start their own units.

Question 35.
Write a note on Regional Rural Banks?
Regional rural banks came into existence in 1975. RRBs are recommended with a view to developing the rural economy by providing credit and other facilities to the small and marginal farmers, agricultural labourers, artisans, and small entrepreneurs.

RRBs are set up by the joint efforts of the center and state governments and commercial banks. At present, there are 64 RRBs in India. RRBs confine their lending only to the weaker sections and their lending rates are at par with the prevailing rate of cooperative societies.

Question 36.
Mention the features of SHGs?
Major features of SHGs [Self Help Groups]

1. SHG is generally an economically homogeneous group formed through a process of self-selection based upon the affinity of its members.
2. Most SHGs are women’s groups with membership ranging between 10 and 20.
3. SHGs have well-defined rules and by-laws, hold regular meetings and maintain records and savings and credit discipline.
4. SHGs are self-managed institutions characterized by participatory and collective decision making.

Question 37.
List out the objectives of MUDRA Bank?

1. Regulate the lender and the borrower of microfinance and bring stability to the microfinance system.
2. Extend finance and credit support to microfinance institutions.
3. Register all MFIs and introduce a system of performance rating and accreditation for the last time.
4. Offer a credit guarantee scheme for providing guarantees to loans being offered to micro-businesses.
5. Introduce appropriate technologies to assist in the process of efficient lending, borrowing, and monitoring of distributed capital.

PART – D

Question 38.
‘The features of Rural Economy are peculiar’- Argue?
Features of Rural Economy:
1. Village is an Institution:
The villagers a primary institution and it satisfies almost all the needs of the rural community. The rural people have a feeling of belongingness and a sense of unity towards each other.

2. Dependence on Agriculture:
The rural economy depends much on nature and agricultural activities. Agriculture and allied activities are the main occupations in rural areas.

3. Life of Rural people:
Lifestyles in villages are very simple. Public services like education, housing, health and sanitation, transport and communication, banking, roads, and markets are limited and unavailable.

The standards of living of the majority of rural people are poor and pitiable. In terms of methods of production, social organization, and political mobilization, the rural sector is extremely backward and weak.

4. Population Density:
Population density, measured by the number of persons living per sq. km is very low and houses are scattered in the entire villages.

5. Employment:
There exists unemployment, seasonal unemployment, and underemployment in rural areas.

6. Poverty:
Poverty is a condition where the basic needs of the people like food, clothing, and shelter are not being met.

7. Indebtedness:
People in rural areas are highly indebted owing to poverty and underemployment, lack of farm and non-farm employment opportunities, low wage employment, seasonality in production, poor marketing network, etc.

8. Rural Income:
The income of the rural people is constrained as the rural economy is not sufficiently vibrant to provide for them.

9. Dependency:
Rural households are largely dependent on social grants and remittances from family members working in urban areas and cities.

10. Dualism:
Dualism means the co-existence of two extremely different features like developed and underdeveloped. These characteristics are very common in rural areas.

11. Inequality:
The distributions of income, wealth, and assets are highly skewed among rural people. Land, livestock and other assets are owned by a few people.

12. Migration:
Rural people are forced to migrate from villages to urban areas in order to seek gainful employment for their livelihood.

Question 39.
Discuss the problems of the Rural Economy?
The problems of the rural economy are.
1. People related problems: The problem consists of illiteracy, lack of technical know-how, low level of confidence, dependence on sentiments and beliefs, etc.

2. Agriculture related problems: This include lack of awareness, knowledge, skill, and attitude, unavailability of inputs, poor marketing facility, an insufficient extension of staff and services, small size of landholding, absence of infrastructure, primitive technology, reduced public investment, and absence of a role for farmers in fixing the prices for their own products.

3. Infrastructural-related problems: Poor infrastructure facilities like water, electricity, transport, educational institutions communication, health, employment are found in rural areas.

4. Economics related problems: Inability to adopt high-cost technology, high cost of inputs, underprivileged rural industries, low income, indebtedness, and existence of inequality in landholdings and assets.

5. Leadership related problems: Leadership among the hands of inactive and incompetent people, the self-interest of leaders, biased political will, less bargaining power, and negotiation skills, and dominance of political leaders.

6. Administrative problems: Political interference, lack of motivation and interest, low wages in villages, improper utilization of budget, and absence of monitoring and implementation of the rural development programme.

Question 40.
Analyze the causes for Rural Indebtedness?
The Causes for Rural Indebtedness:
1. Poverty of Farmers:

• The vicious circle of poverty forces the farmers to borrow for consumption and cultivation.
• Thus poverty, debt, and high rates of interest hold the farmer in the grip of money lenders.

2. Failure of Monsoon:

• Frequent failure of monsoon is a curse to the farmers and they have to suffer due to the failure of nature.
• Farmers find it difficult to identify good years to repay their debts.

3. Litigation:

• Due to land disputes litigation in the court compels them to borrow heavily.
• Being uneducated and ignorant they are caught in the litigation process and dry away their savings and resources.

4. Money Lenders and High Rate of Interest:

• The rate of interest charged by the local money lenders is very high and the compounding of interest leads to perpetuating indebtedness of the farmer.

### Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Rural Economy in India Additional Important Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Educated and skilled persons who may not accept casual work. This is called unemployment ………………………
(a) Closed
(b) Open
(c) Both
(d) None of the above
(b) Open

Question 2.
The existence of a joint family system in India promotes ……………………….. unemployment.
(a) Open
(b) Weekly status
(c) Daily status
(d) Disguised
(b) Weekly status

Question 3.
………………………… based poverty lines are used in many countries.
(a) Food
(b) Income
(c) Nutrition
(d) None of the above.
(c) Nutrition

Question 4.
IRDP means
(a) Internal Rural Development Programme
(b) Indian Rural Development Programme
(c) International Rural Development Programme
(d) Integrated Rural Development Programme
(d) Integrated Rural Development Programme

Question 5.
The problem of rural unemployment can be solved only by …………………….. agriculture.
(a) Cost production
(b) Green Revolution
(c) Innovative
(d) Modernising
(d) Modernising

Question 6.
In which year the Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme was set up?
(a) 1982
(b) 1983
(c) 1984
(d) 1985
(b) 1983

Question 7.
…………………….. legislation has been passed by the State governments, which aim at improving the economic conditions of agricultural landless labourers.
(a) Green Revolution
(b) Ceiling of landholding
(c) Land Reforms
(d) Zamindari System
(c) Land Reforms

Question 8.
Agriculture in India offers ………………………. employment.
(a) Seasonal
(b) Under
(c) Sub
(d) Partly
(a) Seasonal

Question 9.
The farmers are poor for long then we call it ………………………. poverty.
(a) Urban
(b) Rural
(c) Primary
(d) Chronic (or) Structural
(d) Chronic (or) Structural

Question 10.
……………………….. poverty means people work for few months and get low wages.
(a) Urban
(b) Rural
(c) Primary
(d) None of the above
(b) Rural

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Define “Migration”?

1. Rural people are forced to migrate from villages to urban areas in order to seek gainful employment for their livelihood.
2. This character of the development gives rise to the formation of cities.
3. Enmity and lack of basic amenities in rural areas also push the people to migrate to urban areas.

Question 2.
What do you mean by features of Rural Indebtedness?

1. Nearly three fourth of rural families in the country is in debt.
2. The amount of debt is heavier in the case of small farmers.
3. Cultivators are more indebted than the non-cultivators.
4. Most of the debts taken are short term and of unproductive nature.
5. The proportion of debts having higher rates of interest is relatively high.
6. Most of the villagers are indebted to private agencies particularly money lenders.

Question 3.
Mention the major advantages of Micro Finance?
Microfinance offers loans, savings, and insurance to entrepreneurs and small business owners. Who does not have access to traditional sources of capital, like banks or investors?

PART – C

Question 1.
Mention the causes for Rural Poverty?
Causes for Rural Poverty:

• Unequal distribution of Land: The distribution of land is highly skewed in rural areas. Therefore, the majority of rural people work as hired labour to support their families.
• Lack of Non-farm employment: Non-farm employment opportunities do not match the increasing labour force. The excess supply of labour in rural areas reduces the wages and increases the incidence of poverty.
• Lack of public sector Investment: The root cause of rural poverty in our country is the lack of public sector investment in human resource development.
• Inflation: Steady increase in prices affects the purchasing power of the rural poor leading to rural poverty.
• Low productivity: Low productivity of rural labour and farm activities is a cause as well as the effect of poverty.
• Unequal Benefit of Growth: Major gains of economic development are enjoyed by the urban rich people leading to a concentration of wealth. Due to defective economic structure and policies, gains of growth are not reaching the poor and the contributions of poor people are not accounted for properly.
• Low Rate of Economic Growth: The fate of the growth of India is always below the target and it has benefited the rich. The poor are always denied the benefits of the achieved growth and development of the country.
• More Emphasis on Large Industries: Huge investment in large industries catering to the needs of middle and upper classes in urban areas are made in India. Such industries are capital-intensive and do not generate more employment opportunities. Therefore, the poor are not in a position to get employed and to come out of poverty in villages.
• Social evils: Social evils prevalent in the society like custom, believes, etc. increase unproductive expenditure.

Question 2.
Explain the causes for Rural Unemployment?
Causes for Rural Unemployment:

• Absence of skill development and employment generation: Lack of Government initiatives to give required training and then to generate employment opportunities.
• Seasonal Nature of Agriculture: Agricultural operations are seasonal in nature and depend much on nature and rainfall. Therefore, the demand for labour becomes negligible during the offseason. So, non-farm employment opportunities must be created.
• Lack of subsidiary occupation: Rural people are not able to start subsidiary occupations such as poultry, rope making, piggery, etc. Due to shortages of funds for investment and lack of proper marketing arrangements.
• Mechanization of Agriculture: The landlords are the principal source of employment to the farm labour. Mechanization of agricultural operations like ploughing, irrigation, harvesting, threshing, etc. reduces employment opportunities for farm labour.
• Capital-Intensive Technology: The expanding private industrial sector is largely found in urban areas and not creating additional employment opportunities due to the application of capital intensive technologies. The government must establish firms to absorb surplus labor-power.
• Defective System of Education: The present system of education has also aggravated the rural unemployment problem. A large number of degree-producing institutions have come in recent years. Students also want to get degrees only, not any skill. Degrees should be awarded only on the basis of skills acquired. The unemployed youth should get sufficient facilities to update their skills.

Question 3.
Mention the Important characteristics of cottage Industries?
Characteristics of Cottage Industries:

1. These Industries are carried out by artisans in their own homes at their own risk and for their own benefits.
2. Artisans may combine this work with another regular job.
3. Little outside labour is employed. Normally, the members of the household provide the necessary labour.
4. These industries are generally hereditary and traditional in character.
5. Little power is used.
6. These industries usually serve the local market and generally work on the orders placed by other Industries.
7. The principal cottage industries of India are hand-loom weaving (cotton, silk, jute, etc.) pottery, washing soap making, conch shell, handmade paper, horn button, mother-of-pearl button, cutlery, lock and key making industries.

PART – D

Question 1.
Discuss the requirements for Rural Industries?
Requirements for Rural Development:
Rural industries embrace all industries which are run by rural people in rural areas. These industries are based primarily on the utilization of locally available raw materials, skills, and a small amount of capital. The rural industries can be broadly classified into a) cottage industries, b) village industries, c) small industries, d) tiny industries and e) agro-based industries.

Cottage Industries:

1. Cottage industries are generally associated with agriculture and provide both part-time and full-time jobs in rural areas.
2. Little outside labour is employed. Normally, the members of the household provide the necessary labour.
3. These industries are generally hereditary and traditional in character.
4. Little power is used.
5. These industries usually serve the local market and generally work on the orders placed by other industries.
6. Examples of cottage industries are mat, coir and basket making industries. The principal cottage industries of India are hand-loom weaving (cotton, silk, jute, etc.) pottery, washing soap making, conch shell, handmade paper, horn button, mother-of-pearl button, cutlery, lock and key making industries.

Village Industries:
1. Village industries are traditional in nature and depend on local raw-material. They cater to the needs of the local population. Examples of village industries are gur and khandsari, cane and bamboo baskets, shoemaking, pottery, and leather tanning. These are almost similar to the cottage industries.

2. Small Scale Industries (SSIs):
Most small scale industries are located near urban centers. They produce goods for local as well as foreign markets. Examples of such small-scale industries are the manufacture of sports goods, soaps, electric fans, footwear, sewing machines and handloom weaving.

SSIs are also known as Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs). They are defined and categorized by the Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises Development Act, 2006. The Act categorizes different scale of industries on the basis of investment in plant and machinery in case of manufacturing industries and on the basis of investment in equipment in case of service sector industries.

3. Agro-based Industries:
These industries are based on the processing of agricultural produce. Agro-based industries may be organized on a cottage-scale, small-scale, and large-scale. These industries tend to develop household settlements around them as they employ more labour on a regular basis. Examples are textile, sugar, paper, vegetable oil, tea, and coffee industries.

Question 2.
Mention the Rural Roads and Rural Market?

1. Road Market refers to the infrastructure created to buy and sell the products produced in rural areas and also to purchase the needed products and farm inputs produced in urban and other regions.
2. Rural marketing is still defective as farmers lack bargaining power, a long chain of middlemen, lack of organization, insufficient storage facilities, poor transport facilities, absence of grading, inadequate information, and poor marketing arrangements.
3. Road transport is an important constituent of the transport system.
4. Rural Roads constitute the very lifeline of the rural economy.
5. A well-constructed road network in rural areas would bring several benefits including the linking of remote villages with urban centers, reduction in the cost of transportation of agricultural inputs, and promotion of marketing for rural produces.
6. It helps the farmers to bring their produce to the urban markets and to have access to distant markets and other services.

## Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Chapter 9 Development Experiences in India

Students can download 11th Economics Chapter 9 Development Experiences in India Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 9 Development Experiences in India

### Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Development Experiences in India Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which of the following is the way of Privatisation?
(a) Disinvestment
(b) Denationalization
(c) Franchising
(d) All the above
(d) All the above

Question 2.
Countries today are to be …………………… for their growth.
(a) Dependent
(b) Interdependent
(d) Capitalist
(b) Interdependent

Question 3.
The Arguments against LPG is ……………………….
(a) Economic growth
(b) More investment
(c) Disparities among people and regions
(d) Modernization
(c) Disparities among people and regions

Question 4.
Expansion of FDI ……………………….
(a) Foreign Private Investment
(b) Foreign Portfolio
(c) Foreign Direct Investment
(d) Forex Private Investment
(c) Foreign Direct Investment

Question 5.
India is the largest producer of ……………………. in the world.
(a) Fruits
(b) Gold
(c) Petrol
(d) Diesel
(a) Fruits

Question 6.
Foreign investment includes …………………………
(a) FDI only
(b) FPI and FFI
(c) FDI and FPI
(d) FDI and FFI
(c) FDI and FPI

Question 7.
The Special Economic Zones policy was announced in ………………………..
(a) April 2000
(b) July 1990
(c) April 1980
(d) July 1970
(a) April 2000

Question 8.
Agricultural Produce Market Committee is a ………………………….
(b) Statutory body
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these above
(b) Statutory body

Question 9.
Goods and Services Tax is ………………………..
(a) A multi point tax
(d) A single point tax with no cascading effects.
(d) A single point tax with no cascading effects.

Question 10.
The New Foreign Trade Policy was announced in the year ……………………….
(a) 2000
(b) 2002
(c) 2010
(d) 2015
(d) 2015

Question 11.
Financial Sector reforms is mainly related to ………………………..
(a) Insurance Sector
(b) Banking Sector
(c) Both a and b
(d) Transport Sector
(c) Both a and b

Question 12.
The Goods and Services Tax Act came into effect on ……………………..
(a) 1st July 2017
(b) 1st July 2016
(c) 1st January 2017
(d) 1st January 2016
(a) 1st July 2017

Question 13.
The new economic policy is concerned with the following
(a) Foreign investment
(b) Foreign technology
(d) All the above
(d) All the above

Question 14.
The recommendation of Narashimham Committee Report was submitted in the year ………………………
(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1995
(d) 2000
(b) 1991

Question 15.
The farmers have access to credit under Kisan credit card scheme through the following except ……………………….
(a) Co – operative banks
(b) RRBs
(c) Public sector banks
(d) All the above
(a) Co – operative banks

Question 16.
The Raja Chelliah Committee on Trade Policy Reforms suggested the peak rate on import duties at ……………………….
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 100%
(b) 50%

Question 17.
The first ever SEZ in India was set up at ………………………….
(a) Mumbai
(b) Chennai
(c) Kandla
(d) Cochin
(c) Kandla

Question 18.
‘The Hindu Rate of Growth’ coined by Raj Krishna refers to ………………………
(a) Low rate of economic growth
(b) High proportion of Hindu population
(c) Stable GDP
(d) None
(a) Low rate of economic growth

Question 19.
The highest rate of tax under GST is ………………………. (as on July1, 2017).
(a) 18%
(b) 24%
(c) 28%
(d) 32%
(c) 28%

Question 20.
The transfer of ownership from public sector to private sector is known as ……………………..
(a) Globalization
(b) Liberalization
(c) Privatization
(d) Nationalization
(c) Privatization

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 21.
Why was structural reform implemented in the Indian Economy?
Indian economy introduced structural reforms to face the economic crisis in the form of the balance of payments problem in 1991.

Question 22.
State the reasons for implementing LPG?
Liberalization:

• Liberalization refers to the removal of the relaxation of governmental restrictions in all stages of the industry.
• De-licensing, decontrol, deregulation, subsidies (incentives), and a greater role for financial institutions are the various facets of liberalization.

Privatization:

• Privatization means the transfer of ownership and management of enterprises from the public sector to the private sector.
• Denationalization, disinvestment, and opening exclusive public sector enterprises to the private sector are the gateways to privatization.

Globalization:

• Globalization refers to the integration of the domestic (Indian) economy with the rest of the world. Import liberalization through reduction of tariff and non-tariff barriers, opening the doors to Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) are some of the measures towards globalization.

Question 23.
State the meaning of Privatization?
Privatization means the transfer of ownership and management of enterprises from the public sector to the private sector.

Question 24.
Define disinvestment?
Disinvestment means selling of government securities of Public Sector Undertakings [PSUs] to other PSUs or private sectors or banks. This process has not been fully implemented.

Question 25.
Write three policy initiatives introduced in 1991 – 92 to correct the fiscal imbalance?

1. Reduction in fertilizer subsidy.
2. Abolition of subsidy on sugar.
3. Disinvestment of a part of the government’s equity holdings in select public sector undertakings.
4. Expenditures on welfare measures were reduced.

Question 26.
State the meaning of Special Economic Zones?

1. The Special Economic Zones [SEZs] policy was announced in April 2000.
2. As per the Special Economic Zones Act of 2005, the government has so far notified about 400 such zones in the country.
3. The SEZ deprives the farmers of their land and livelihood, it is harmful to agriculture.
4. To promote export and Industrial growth in line with globalization the SEZ was introduced in many countries.

Question 27.
State the various components of Central government schemes under post-harvest measures?

1. Mega food parks, Integrated cold chain, value addition preservation infrastructure, modernization of slaughterhouse.
2. Scheme for quality-assurance, codex standards, research and development, and other promotional activities.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 28.
How do you justify the merits of Privatization?

1. Privatization means the transfer of ownership and management of enterprises from the public sector to the private sector.
2. Denationalization, disinvestment, and opening exclusive public sector enterprises to the private sector are the gateways to privatization.

Question 29.
What are the measures taken towards Globalization?
Globalization refers to the integration of the domestic economy with the rest of the world. Import liberalization through reduction of tariff and non-tariff barriers, opening the doors to foreign direct investment and foreign portfolio investment are some of the measures towards globalization.

Question 30.
Write a note on Foreign investment policy?

1. Foreign Investment Policy measure has enhanced the Industrial competition and improved the business environment in the country.
2. Foreign investments including FDI and FPI were allowed.
3. The government announced a specified list of high-technology and high-investment priority industries.
4. Automatic permission was granted for Foreign Direct Investment [FDI] upto 51 % foreign equity.
5. The limit was raised to 74% and subsequently to 100% for many of these industries.
6. Foreign Investment Promotion Board [FIPB] has been set up to negotiate with international firms and approve foreign direct investment.

Question 31.
Give a short note on Cold Storage?
Problems relating to the marketing of fruits and vegetables is related to their perishability. Perishability is responsible for high marketing costs, market gluts, price fluctuations, and other similar problems.

In order to overcome this constraint, the Government of India and the ministry of agriculture promulgated “Cold Storage Order 1964” under section 3 of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. However, the cold storage facility is still very poor and highly inadequate.

Question 32.
Mention the Functions of APMC?
The Agriculture Produce Market Committee [APMC] is a statutory body constituted by State Government in order to trade in agricultural or horticultural or livestock products.

Functions of APMC:

1. To promote public private partnership in the ambit of agricultural markets.
2. To provide market led extension services to farmer.
3. To bring transparency in pricing system and transactions taking place in market in a transparent manner.
4. To ensure payments to the farmers for the sale of agricultural produce on the same day.
5. To promote agricultural activities.
6. To display data on arrivals and rates of agricultural produce from time to time into the market.

Question 33.
List out the features of the new trade policy?
The trade policy of 1 April 1992 freed imports of almost all intermediate and capital goods. Only 71 items remained restricted. This would affect the domestic industries. Rationalization of tariff structure and removal of quantitative restrictions.

Question 34.
What is GST? Write its advantages?

1. GST (Goods and Services Tax) is defined as the tax levied when a consumer buys a good or service.
3. Single point tax
4. Higher threshold for registration
5. Composition scheme for small business
6. The online simpler procedure under GST
7. Defined treatment for e-commerce
8. Increased efficiency in logistics
9. Regulating the unorganized sector

PART – D

Question 35.
Discuss the important initiatives taken by the Government of India towards Industrial Policy?
The Special Economic Zones (SEZs) policy was announced in April 2000.
The major objectives of SEZs are:

1. To enhance foreign investment especially to attract foreign direct investment (FDI) and thereby increasing GDP.
2. To increase shares in global export.
3. To generate additional economic activity.
4. To create employment opportunities.
5. To develop infrastructure facilities.
6. To exchange technology in the global market.

Main characteristics of SEZs:
The geographically demarked area with physical security.

1. Administrated by a single body/authority.
2. Streamlined procedures.
3. Having a separate custom area
4. Governed by more liberal economic laws.
5. Greater freedom to the firms located in SEZs.

Question 36.
Explain the objectives and characteristics of SEZs?

1. The Special Economic Zones [SEZs] Policy was announced in April 2000.
2. The Special Economic Zones Act of 2005, the government has so far notified about 400 such zones in the country.

1. Major objectives of SEZs:

• To enhance foreign investment, especially to attract foreign direct investment [FDI] and thereby increasing GDP.
• To increase shares in Global Export (International Business).
• To generate additional economic activity.
• To create employment opportunities.
• To develop infrastructure facilities.
• To exchange technology in the global market.

2. Main Characteristics of SEZ:

• The geographically demarked area with physical security.
• Administrated by single body authority.
• Streamlined procedures.
• Having separate custom area.
• Governed by more liberal economic laws.
• Greater freedom to the firms located in SEZs.

Question 37.
Describe the Salient features of EXIM policy [2015 – 2020]?
The new EXIM policy has been formulated focusing on increasing in exports scenario, boosting production, and supporting the concepts like Make in India and Digital India.

1. Reduce export obligations by 25% and give a boost to domestic manufacturing supporting the “Make in India” concept.
2. As a step to the Digital India concept, the online procedure to upload digitally signed documents, and a mobile app for filing tax, stamp duty has been developed.
3. Repeated submission of physical copies of documents is not required.
4. Export obligation period for export items related to defense, military store, aerospace, and nuclear energy to be 24 months.
5. EXIM policy 2015 – 2020 is expected to double the share of India in World Trade from the present level of 3% by the year 2020. This appears to the too ambitious.

### Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Development Experiences in India Additional Important Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which organization established EXIM bank?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Central Bank
(c) State Bank
(d) ICICI bank.
(a) Reserve Bank of India

Question 2.
……………………… records all the visible and invisible items.
(a) Balance of payments
(b) Exports
(c) Imports
(d) None
(a) Balance of payments

Question 3.
The new export and import policy was announced in the year ………………………..
(a) 1970
(b) 1980
(c) 1991
(d) 2002
(c) 1991

Question 4.
The foreign investment policy can be broadly classified into …………………….. categories.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
(c) Four

Question 5.
Globalization means …………………………
(a) Integration of the economy with the world economy
(b) Increasing degrees of openness in respect of international trade.
(c) process of transformation of the world into a single economic unit.
(d) All the above
(d) All the above

Question 6.
The term …………………… means the integration of the economy of each country with the world economy.
(a) Globalization
(b) Privatization
(c) Liberalization
(d) None of the above
(a) Globalization

Question 7.
Major policy measures have been launched as a part of the programmes ………………………….
(a) LPG
(b) Liberalization
(c) Privatization
(d) Globalization
(a) LPG

Question 8.
……………………. is the major function of WTO.
(d) All the above
(d) All the above

Question 9.
Foreign trade creates that facilities of …………………………
(a) Imports of capital goods
(b) Flow of technology
(c) Better allocation of resources
(d) All the above
(d) All the above

Question 10.
………………………. trade refers to the trade or exchange of goods and services between two or more countries.
(a) Internal
(b) International
(c) Domestic
(d) None
(b) International

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Define “Raja – J. Chelliah Committee”?

1. The Chelliah Committee’s Report had suggested a drastic reduction in import duties.
2. It had suggested a peak rate of 50 percent.
3. As a first step towards a gradual reduction in the tariffs, the 1991-92 budget had reduced the peak rate of import duty from more than 300 percent to 150 percent.
4. The process of lowering the customs tariffs was carried further in successive budgets.

Question 2.
Mention the “Basic Economic Problems”?
The Basic Economic Problems such as

1. Poverty
2. Unemployment
3. Discrimination
4. Social exclusion
5. Deprivation
6. Poor health care
7. Rising inflation
8. Agricultural stagnation
9. Food insecurity and
10. Labour migration

Question 3.
Give a short note on “Abolition of MRTP Act”?

1. The New Industrial policy of 1991 has abolished the Monopoly and Restrictive Trade Practices Act 1969.
2. In 2010, the Competition Commission has emerged as the watchdog in monitoring competitive practices in the economy.
3. The policy caused big changes including the emergence of a strong and competitive private sector and a sizable number of foreign companies in India.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 1.
Define “Kisan Credit Card Scheme”?

1. A Kisan Credit Card [KCC] is a credit delivery mechanism that is aimed at enabling farmers to have quick and timely access to affordable credit.
2. It was launched in 1998 by the Reserve Bank of India and NABARD.
3. The Scheme aims to reduce farmer dependence on the informal banking sector for credit – which can be very expensive and suck them into a debt spiral.
4. The card is offered by co-operative banks, regional rural banks, and public sector banks.
5. The working of the KCC, the government has advised banks to convert the KCC into a smart card cum debit card.

Question 2.
Mention how the Indian economy liberalization policy helped in the recovery?
The liberalization policy helped in the recovery of the Indian Economy:
There was enormous and regular flow of foreign direct investment [FDI]

1. Foreign exchange reserves started rising.
2. There was rapid Industrialization.
3. The pattern of consumption started improving.
4. Infrastructure facilities such as express highways, metro rails, flyovers, and airports started expanding.
5. The benefits of this growth in some sectors have not reached the marginalized sections of the community.
6. The process of development has generated serious social, economic, political, demographic, and ecological issues and challenges.

Question 3.
Explain the impact of LPG on the Indian economy?

1. According to International Monetary Fund, World Economic Outlook, the GDP (nominal) of India in 2016 at current prices is \$2,251 billion.
2. India contributed 2.99% of the total world’s GDP on an exchange rate basis.
3. India shared 17.5 percent of the total world population and 2.4 percent of the world Surface area.
4. India was now the 7th largest economy in the world.
5. India was in 3rd position after China and Japan among Asian countries. India shared 8.50% of total Asia’s GDP (nominal) in 2016.

PART – D

Question 1.
Explain the Monetary and Financial Sector Reforms?
Monetary reforms aimed at doing away with interest rate distortions and rationalizing the structure of lending rates. The new policy tried in many ways to make the banking system more efficient.

Some of the measures undertaken were:
1. Reserve Requirements:

• Reduction in Statutory liquidity ratio [SLR] and the cash reserve ratio [CRR] was recommended by the Narasimham Committee Report, 1991.
• It was proposed to cut down the SLR from 38.5 percent to 25 percent within a time span of three years.

2. Interest Rate Liberalisation:
RBI controlled:

• The interest rates are payable on deposits.
• The interest rate could be charged for bank loans.
• Greater competition among public sector, private sector, and foreign banks and elimination of administrative constraints.
• Liberalization of bank branch licensing policy in order to rationalize the existing branch network.
• Banks were given the freedom to relocate branches and open specialized branches.
• Guidelines for opening new private sector banks.
• New accounting norms regarding the classification of assets and provisions of bad debt were introduced in tune with the Narasimham Committee Report.

Question 2.
Explain the Agrarian crisis after reforms?
1. High input Costs:

• The biggest input for farmers is seeds.
• The institutions produced their own seeds and were responsible for their quality and price.
• India’s seed market was opened up to global agribusinesses.
• The deregulation of many state government institutions were closed down in 2003.
• Seed prices shot up and fake seeds made an appearance in a big way.

2. Cutback in agricultural subsidies:

• Farmers were encouraged to shift from growing a mixture of traditional crops to export-oriented “cash crops” like chili, cotton, and tobacco.
• Liberalization policies reduced the subsides on pesticide and fertilizer and elasticity.
• As a result, prices have increased by 300%.

3. Reduction of import duties:

• With a view to open India’s markets, the liberalization reforms also withdrew tariffs and duties on imports.
• By 2001, India completely removed restrictions on imports of almost 1,500 items including food.

4. Paucity of credit facilities:

• The lending pattern of commercial banks, including nationalized banks, drastically changed.
• As a result, the loan was not easily adequate.
• This has forced the farmers to rely on moneylenders who charge exorbitant rates of interest.

## Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Chapter 12 Mathematical Methods for Economics

Students can download 11th Economics Chapter 12 Mathematical Methods for Economics Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Mathematical Methods for Economics

### Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Mathematical Methods for Economics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Mathematical Economics is the integration of ………………………
(a) Mathematics and Economics
(b) Economics and Statistics
(c) Economics and Equations
(d) Graphs and Economics
(a) Mathematics and Economics

Question 2.
The construction of demand line or supply line is the result of using ……………………..
(a) Matrices
(b) Calculus
(c) Algebra
(d) Analytical Geometry
(d) Analytical Geometry

Question 3.
The first person used the mathematics in Economics is ……………………..
(a) Sir William Petty
(b) Giovanni Ceva
(d) Irving Fisher
(b) Giovanni Ceva

Question 4.
Function with single independent variable is known as ……………………..
(a) Multivariate Function
(b) Bivariate Function
(c) Univariate Function
(d) Polynomial Function
(c) Univariate Function

Question 5.
A statement of equality between two quantities is called ………………………
(a) Inequality
(b) Equality
(c) Equations
(d) Functions
(c) Equations

Question 6.
An incremental change in dependent variable with respect to change in independent variable is known as ………………………
(a) Slope
(b) Intercept
(c) Variant
(d) Constant
(a) Slope

Question 7.
(y – y1) = m(x-x1) gives the ……………………….
(a) Slope
(b) Straight line
(c) Constant
(d) Curve
(b) Straight line

Question 8.
Suppose D = 50 – 5P. When D is zero then ………………………….
(a) P is 10
(b) P is 20
(c) P is 5
(d) P is -10
(a) P is 10

Question 9.
Suppose D = 150 – 5P. Then, the slope is ………………………
(a) -5
(b) 50
(c) 5
(d) -50
(d) -50

Question 10.
Suppose determinant of a matrix ∆ = 0, then the solution ……………………..
(a) Exists
(b) Does not exist
(c) Is infinity
(d) Is zero
(b) Does not exist

Question 11.
State of rest is a point termed as ………………………
(a) Equilibrium
(b) Non – Equilibrium
(c) Minimum Point
(d) Maximum Point
(a) Equilibrium

Question 12.
Differentiation of constant term gives ……………………..
(a) One
(b) Zero
(c) Infinity
(d) Non-infinity
(b) Zero

Question 13.
Differentiation of xn is ………………………
(a) nx(n-1)
(b) nx(n+1)
(c) Zero
(d) One
(a) nx(n-1)

Question 14.
Fixed Cost is the ……………………. term in cost function represented in mathematical form.
(a) Middle
(b) Price
(c) Quantity
(d) Constant
(d) Constant

Question 15.
The first differentiation of Total Revenue function gives ………………………..
(a) Average Revenue
(b) Profit
(c) Marginal Revenue
(d) Zero
(c) Marginal Revenue

Question 16.
The elasticity of demand is the ratio of ……………………….
(a) Marginal demand function and Revenue function
(b) Marginal demand function to Average demand function
(c) Fixed and variable revenues
(d) Marginal Demand function and Total demand function
(b) Marginal demand function to Average demand function

Question 17.
If x + y = 5 and x – y = 3 then, Value of x ………………………
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 16
(d) 8
(a) 4

Question 18.
Integration is the reverse process of ……………………….
(a) Difference
(b) Mixing
(c) Amalgamation
(d) Differentiation
(d) Differentiation

Question 19.
Data processing is done by ……………………….
(a) PC alone
(b) Calculator alone
(c) Both PC and Calculator
(d) Pen drive
(c) Both PC and Calculator

Question 20.
The command Ctrl + M is applied for ………………………
(a) Saving
(b) Copying
(c) Getting new slide
(d) Deleting a slide
(c) Getting new slide

PART – B

Answer the following Questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
1f 62 = 34 + 4x what is x?
62 – 34 = 4x
⇒ 28 = 4x
28 ÷ 4 = x
∴ x = 7

Question 2.
Given the demand function q = 150 – 3p, derive a function for MR?
Demand function q = 150 – 3p
$$\frac{dq}{dp}$$ = -3

Question 3.
Find the average cost function where TC = 60+ 10x + 15x2
TC = 60 + 10x +15x2
Average Cost = $$\frac { TC }{ x }$$
= $$\frac{60+10 x+15 x^{2}}{x}$$
= $$\frac { 60 }{ x }$$ + $$\frac { 10x }{ x }$$ + $$\frac{15 x^{2}}{x}$$
AC = $$\frac { 60 }{ x }$$ + 10 + 15x

Question 4.
The demand function is given by x = 20 – 2p – p2 where p and x are the prices and the quantity respectively. Find the elasticity of demand for p = 2.5?
ed = $$\frac{p}{x}$$ $$\frac{dx}{dp}$$
$$\frac{dx}{dp}$$ = -2-2p

Question 5.
Suppose the price p and quantity q of a commodity are related by the equation q = 30 – 4p – p2 find
(I) ed at p = 2
(II) MR
(I)

(II) MR – [Marginal Revenue]
MR = $$\frac{dq}{dp}$$
Given q = 30 – 4p – p2
$$\frac{dq}{dp}$$ = 0 – 4(1) – 2p2-1
$$\frac{dq}{dp}$$ = -4 – 2p

Question 6.
What is the formula for the elasticity of supply if you know the supply function?
Elasticity of supply = $$\frac{dq}{dp}$$

Question 7.
What are the main menus of MS word?

Ms Word is a word processor, which helps to create, edit, print, and save documents for future retrieval and reference.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph:

Question 1.
Illustrate the uses of Mathematical Methods in Economics?
Uses of Mathematical Methods in Economics:

1. Mathematical methods help to present the economic problems in a more precise form.
2. Mathematical methods help to explain economic concepts.
3. Mathematical methods help to use a large number of variables in economic analyses.
4. Mathematical methods help to quantify the impact or effect of any economic activity implemented by the government or anybody.

Question 2.
Solve for x quantity demanded if 16x – 4 = 68 + 7x?
16x – 4 = 68 + 7x
16x – 7x = 68 + 4
9x = 72
x = $$\frac{72}{9}$$ = 8
∴ x = 8

Question 3.
A firm has the revenue function R = 600q – 0.03q2 and the cost function is C = 150q + 60,000, where q is the number of units produced. Find AR, AC, MR and MC?
R = 600q – 0.03q2
C = 150q + 60000

(i) AR = $$\frac { R }{ q }$$
= $$\frac{600 q-0.03 q^{2}}{q}$$
= $$\frac { 600q }{ q }$$ – $$\frac{0.03 \mathrm{q}^{2}}{\mathrm{q}}$$
= AR = 600 – 0.0.q

(ii) AC = $$\frac { c }{ q }$$
= $$\frac { 150q + 60000 }{ q }$$
= $$\frac { 150q }{ q }$$ + $$\frac { 60000 }{ q }$$
AC = 150 + ($$\frac { 60000 }{ q }$$)

(iii) MR = $$\frac { dr }{ dq }$$
R = 600q – 0.03q
$$\frac { dR }{ dq }$$ = 600 (1) – 0.03 (2q)
MR = 600 – 0.06q

(iv) MC = $$\frac { dc }{ dq }$$
C = 150q + 60000
$$\frac { dc }{ dq }$$ = 150 (1) + 0
MC = 150

Question 4.
Solve the following linear equations by using Cramer’s rule?
x1 – x2 + x3 = 2;
x1 + x2 – x3 = 0;
– x1 – x2 – x3 = -6
x1 – x2 + x3 = 2
x1 + x2 – x3 = 0
– x1 – x2 – x3 = -6
AX = B

Question 5.
If a firm faces the total cost function TC = 5 + x2 where x is output, what is TC when x is 10?
TC = 5 + x2
TC = 5 + 102
TC = 5 + 100
∴TC = 105

Question 6.
If TC = 2.5q3 – 13q2 + 50q + 12 derive the MC function and AC function?
$$\frac{dc}{dq}$$ = MC
AC = $$\frac{TC}{q}$$
$$\frac{dc}{dq}$$ = 2.5(3)q2 – [13 × 2]q + 50
MC = 7.5q2 – 26q + 50
AC = $$\frac { 2.5q^{ 3 }-13q^{ 2 }+50q+12 }{ q }$$
∴ AC = 2.5q2 – 13q + 50 + $$\frac{12}{q}$$

Question 7.
What are the steps involved in executing a MS Excel sheet?

1. MS – Excel is used in data analysis by using formulas.
2. A spreadsheet is a large sheet of paper that contains rows and columns.
3. The intersection of rows and columns is termed a cell.
4. MS – Excel 2007 version supports up to 1 million rows and 16 thousand columns per worksheet.

MS Excel Start From Various Options:

(I) Click Start → Program → Micro Soft Excel
(II) Double click the MS Excel Icon from the Desktop

Worksheet:
MS – Excel worksheet is a table like a document containing rows and columns with data and formula

There are four kinds of calculation operators. They are:

1. Arithmetic
2. Comparison
4. Reference

MS – Excel helps to do data analysis and data presentation in the form of graphs, diagrams, area charts, line chart etc.

PART – D

Question 1.
A Research scholar researching the market for fresh cow milk assumes that Qt = f (Pt, Y, A, N, Pc) where Qt is the quantity of milk demanded, Pt is the price of fresh cow milk, Y is average household income, A is advertising expenditure on processed pocket milk, N is population and Pc is the price of processed pocket milk.

1. What does Qt = f (Pt, Y, A,N, Pc) mean in words?
2. Identify the independent variables.
3. Make up a specific form for this function.

(Use your knowledge of Economics to deduce whether the coefficients of the different independent variables should be positive or negative.)

1. Qt is the function of Pt, Y, A, N, Pc
Pt – Price of fresh cow milk
Y = Average household income
A = Advertising expenditure on processed pocket milk
N = Population
Pc = Price of processed pocket milk

2. Identify the Independent variables.
“Y” = Average household income
“N” = Population [“N” are Independent Variables]
Pc = Price of processed pocket milk
“Pc” = depending “Pt”
= Pc depending “A”
“A” = depending “N”
∴ Pc depending “Pt”, “A”, and “N”.

3. Make up specific form for this function [use your knowledge of Economics to deduce whether the co-efficient of the different independent variables should be positive or negative]

• “Pc ” = Price of processed pocket milk
When the price of processed milk increases and the quantity demanded of fresh milk decreases.
• “N” = Population
When the population increases and the quantity of milk demanded Increases.
• “A” = Advertising expenditure on processed pocket milk
When advertising expenditure on processed pocket milk increases the quantity of milk demanded. Increases.

“Y” – Average household Income
When average household income Increases and the quantity of milk demanded Increases.
“Pt” – Price of fresh cow milk
When the price of fresh cow milk Increases the quantity of milk demanded decreases.
∴ Qt = (-Pt) (+Y) (+A) (+N) (- Pc)
(-) means decreases; (+) means Increases
∴ Qt = [- Pt + Y + A +N – Pc]

Question 2.
Calculate the elasticity of demand for the demand schedule by using differential calculus method P = 60 – 0.2Q where price is –

1. Zero
2. ₹20
3. ₹40

Question 3.
The demand and supply functions are Pd = 1600 – x4 and Ps = 2x2 + 400 respectively. Find the consumer’s surplus and producer’s surplus at the equilibrium point?
Pd = 1600 – x2
Ps = 2x2 + 400
Pd = Ps
1600 – xc = 2x2 + 400
⇒ 1600 – x2 – 2x2 – 400 = 0
⇒ -3x2 + 1200 = 0
x2 = $$\frac{1200}{3}$$ = $$\frac{400}{1}$$
x = ±$$\sqrt{400}$$
x = 20

When x = 20
Pd = 1600 – x2
= 1600 – (20)2
= 1600 – 400 = 1200
Pd = 1200
Ps = 2x2 + 400
= 2(20)2 + 400 = 2(400) + 400
Ps = 1200
Consumer’s Surplus (CS):

Producers Surplus(PS):

Question 4.
What are the ideas of Information and communication technology used in economics?
Introduction: Information and Communication Technology [ICT] is the infrastructure that enables computing faster and accurate. The following table gives an idea of the range of technologies that fall under the category of ICT.

The evaluation of ICT has five phases:
They are evaluation in:

1. Computer
2. PC – Personal Computer
3. Microprocessor
4. Internet

In Economics, the uses of mathematical and statistical tools need the support of ICT for:

1. Data Compiling
2. Editing
3. Manipulating
4. Presenting the results

### Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Mathematical Methods for Economics Additional Important Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The point of intersection of demand line and supply line is known as ……………………
(a) Equilibrium
(b) Intersect
(c) Midpoint
(d) Equal
(a) Equilibrium

Question 2.
…………………… is a rectangular array of numbers systematically arranged in rows and columns within brackets.
(a) Maths
(b) Geometry
(c) Graph
(d) Matrix
(d) Matrix

Question 3.
……………………. means a change in the dependent variable with respect to a small change in the independent variable.
(a) Differential
(b) Differentiation
(c) Differentiating
(d) Derivative
(a) Differential

Question 4.
……………………….. is an addition to the total cost caused by producing one more unit of output.
(a) Marginal Cost
(b) Marginal Product
(c) Marginal Concepts
(d) Marginal Revenue
(a) Marginal Cost

Question 5.
Consumer’s surplus theory was developed by the ………………………….
(a) Alfred Marshall
(c) Lionel Robbinson
(d) Malthus
(a) Alfred Marshall

Question 6.
……………………… is a word processor.
(a) MS Word
(b) Microprocessor
(c) Scanner
(d) Personal computer
(a) MS Word

Question 7.
……………………. is the infrastructure that enables computing faster and accurate.
(a) Information and Communication Technology
(b) Information and Computer Technology
(c) Information and Connection Technology
(d) Information and Communication Technology
(d) Information and Communication Technology

Question 8.
…………………… is used in data analysis by using formula.
(a) MS Word
(b) Microsoft
(c) Word processer
(d) Microprocessor
(b) Microsoft

Question 9.
……………………. is a table like a document containing rows and columns with data and formula.
(a) Work Excel
(b) Work Microsoft
(c) Work Processor
(d) Work Sheet
(d) Work Sheet

Question 10.
……………………… helps to do data analysis and data presentation in the form of graphs.
(a) MS Excel
(b) Microsoft
(c) Start Excel
(d) Microprocessor
(a) MS Excel

ACTIVITY

Question 1.
The petrol consumption of your car is 16 Kilometers per litre. Let x be the distance you travel in Kilometers and p the price per litre of petrol in Rupees. Write expressions for the demand for Petrol?
x – Total distance in Km.
p – Price per litre in rupees.
Equation of demand function joining two data points (16, 1) and (8, 2) respectively.

– 8y + 8 = x – 16
x – 16 – 8 + 8y = 0
x + 8y – 24 = 0
x = 24 – 8y
y = p
∴ The demand function x = 24 – 8p
Demand ∝ $$\frac{1}{Price}$$

Question 2.
Make up your own demand function and then derive the corresponding MR function and find the output level which corresponds to zero marginal revenue?

Question 3.
Use an Excel spreadsheet to calculate values for Quantity of demand at various prices for the function Q = 100 – 10P then plot these values on a graph?

Question 4.
Open MS – Word and put the title as PRESENT AND ABSENT OF STUDENTS and insert the table and collect the data for all classes of your school and find the class of highest absentees in a month. Justify with the reason for the absentees in a paragraph by using MS Word?

Activity 2, 3, and 4 can be done by the students individually.

## Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Chapter 8 Indian Economy Before and After Independence

Students can download 11th Economics Chapter 8 Indian Economy Before and After Independence Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 8 Indian Economy Before and After Independence

### Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Indian Economy Before and After Independence Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The arrival of Vasco da Gama in Calicut, India ………………………
(a) 1498
(b) 1948
(c) 1689
(d) 1849
(a) 1498

Question 2.
In 1614 Sir Thomas Roe was successful in getting permission from ……………………
(a) Akbar
(b) Shajahan
(c) Jahangir
(d) Noorjahan
(c) Jahangir

Question 3.
The power for governance of India was transferred from the East India Company (EIC) to the British crown in ………………………..
(a) 1758
(b) 1858
(c) 1958
(d) 1658
(b) 1858

Question 4.
Ryotwari system was initially introduced in …………………….
(a) Kerala
(b) Bengal
(d) Maharashtra

Question 5.
First World War started in the year ……………………..
(a) 1914
(b) 1814
(c) 1941
(d) 1841
(a) 1914

Question 6.
When did the Government of India declared its first Industrial Policy?
(a) 1956
(b) 1991
(c) 1948
(d) 2000
(c) 1948

Question 7.
The objective of the Industrial Policy 1956 was ………………………..
(a) Develop heavy industries
(b) Develop agricultural sector only
(c) Develop private sector only
(d) Develop cottage industries only
(a) Develop heavy industries

Question 8.
The industry which was de-reserved in 1993.
(a) Railways
(b) Mining of copper and zinc
(c) Atomic energy
(d) Atomic minerals
(b) Mining of copper and zinc

Question 9.
The father of Green Revolution in India was
(a) M.S. Swaminathan
(b) Gandhi
(c) Visweswaraiah
(d) N.R. Viswanathan
(a) M.S. Swaminathan

Question 10.
How many commercial banks were nationalised in 1969?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 16
(c) 14

Question 11.
The main objective of nationalisation of banks was …………………………
(a) Private social welfare
(b) Social welfare
(c) To earn
(d) Industries monopoly
(b) Social welfare

Question 12.
The Planning Commission was setup in the year ………………………….
(a) 1950
(b) 1955
(c) 1960
(d) 1952
(a) 1950

Question 13.
In the first five year plan, The top priority was given to ……………………… Sector.
(a) Service
(b) Industrial
(c) Agriculture
(d) Bank
(c) Agriculture

Question 14.
Tenth Five year plan period was ……………………….
(a) 1992 – 1997
(b) 2002 – 2007
(c) 2007 – 2012
(d) 1997 – 2002
(b) 2002 – 2007

Question 15.
According to HDR (2016), India ranked …………………….. out of 188 coutries.
(a) 130
(b) 131
(c) 135
(d) 145
(b) 131

Question 16.
Annual Plans formed in the year ………………………
(a) 1989 – 1991
(b) 1990 – 1992
(c) 2000 – 2001
(d) 1981 – 1983
(b) 1990 – 1992

Question 17.
The Oldest large scale industry in India ………………………
(a) Cotton
(b) Jute
(c) Steel
(d) Cement
(a) Cotton

Question 18.
Human Development Index (HDI) was developed by …………………………
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) M.K. Gandhi
(c) Amartiya Sen
(d) Tagore
(c) Amartiya Sen

Question 19.
The main theme of the Twelth Five Year Plan ………………………..
(a) Faster and more inclusive growth
(b) Growth with social Justice
(c) Socialistic pattern of society
(d) Taster, more inclusive and sustainable growth
(d) Taster, more inclusive and sustainable growth

Question 20.
The PQLI was developed by ……………………….
(a) Planning Commission
(b) Nehru
(c) Morris
(d) Morrisd.Biswajeet
(c) Morris

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 21.
What are the Phases of colonial exploitation of India?
The period of merchant capital, the period of industrial capital, the period of finance capital.

Question 22.
Name out the different types of land tenure that existed in India before independence?
The three different types of land tenure existed in India before independence. They were:

1. Zamindari System (or) Landlord-Tenant System
2. Mahalwari System (or) Communal System of farming
3. Ryotwari System (or) the Owner-Cultivator System

Question 23.
State the features that distinguish a land tenure system from another system?
The land tenure system differs as

1. Who owns the land?
2. Who cultivates the land?
3. Who is responsible for paying the land revenue to the government?

Question 24.
List out the weaknesses of the Green Revolution?
Weaknesses of the Green Revolution:

1. Indian Agriculture was still a gamble of the monsoons.
2. This strategy needed heavy investment in seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, and water.
3. The income gap between large, marginal, and small farmers had increased.
4. The gap between irrigated and rain-fed areas had widened.
5. Except in Punjab, and to some extent in Haryana, Farm mechanization had created widespread unemployment among agricultural labourers in the rural areas.
6. Larger chemical use and inorganic materials reduced the soil fertility and spoiled human health. Now organic farming is encouraged.

Question 25.
What are the objectives of the Tenth Five Year plan?

1. Double the per capita income in the next 10 years.
2. Aimed to reduce the poverty ratio to 15% by 2012.
3. The growth target was 8.0% but it achieved only 7.2%

Question 26.
What is the difference between HDI and PQLI?

 HDI PQLI 1. The Inclusion of Income. The exclusion of Income 2. Both Physical and financial attributes of development Only the physical aspects of life.

Question 27.
Mention the indicators which are used to calculate HDI?

1. Life expectancy index.
2. Educational index.
3. GDP per capita.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph:

Question 28.
Explain the Period of Merchant Capital?

1. The period of merchant capital was from 1757 to 1813.
2. The only aim of the East India Company was to earn profit by establishing monopoly trade in the goods with India and East India.
3. During this period, India had been considered as the best hunting ground for capital by the East Indian company to develop industrial capitalism is Britain.
4. When Bengal and South India came under the political shake of the East India company in 1750s and 1760s, the objective of monopoly trade was fulfilled.
5. The company administration succeeded in generating huge surpluses which were repatriated to England, and the Indian leaders linked this problem of land revenue with that of the drain.
6. Above all, the officers of the company were unscrupulous and corrupt.

Question 29.
The Handicrafts declined in India in British Period. Why?

1. Through discriminatory tariff policy, the British Government purposefully destroyed the handicrafts.
2. With the disappearance of Nawabs and Kings, there was no one to protect Indian handicrafts.
3. Indian products could not compete with machine-made products.
4. The introduction of railways in India increased the domestic market for British goods.

Question 30.
Elucidate the different types of land tenure systems in colonial India?
Land Tenure refers to the system of land ownership and management. The features that distinguish a land tenure system from the others relate to the following:

• Who owns the land
• Who cultivates the land.
• Who is responsible for paying the land revenue to the government.

Based on these questions, three different types of land tenure existed in India before Independence. They were:

• Zamindari System or the Landlord-Tenant System.
• Mahalwari System or Communal System of Farming.
• Ryotwari System or the Owner-Cultivator System.

Zamindari System or the Landlord-Tenant System:

• This system was created by the British East India Company when in 1793, Lord Cornwallis introduced the ‘Permanent Settlement Act’.
• Under this system, the landlord or the Zamindars were declared as the owners of the land and they were responsible to pay the land revenue to the government.
• The share of the government in total rent collected was fixed as 10/11th, the balance going to the Zamindars as remuneration.

Mahalwari System or Communal System of Farming:

• After the introduction of this system, it was later extended to Madhya Pradesh and Punjab.
• The ownership of the land was maintained by the collective body usually the villagers which served as a unit of management.
• They distributed land among the peasants and collected revenue from them and pay it to the state.

Ryotwari System (or) the Owner-Cultivator System:

• This system was initially introduced in Tamil Nadu and later extended to Maharashtra, Gujarat, Assam, Coorg, East Punjab, and Madhya Pradesh.
• Under this system, the ownership rights of use and control of land were held by the tiller himself.
• There was a direct relationship between owners and tillers. This system was the least oppressive system before Independence.

Question 31.
State the reasons for the nationalization of commercial banks?

1. The main objective of economic planning aimed at social welfare.
2. Before independence commercial banks were in the private sector.
3. These commercial banks failed in helping the government to achieve social objectives of planning.
4. Therefore, the government decided to nationalize 14 major commercial banks in 1969.

Question 32.
Write any three objectives of Industrial Policy 1991?

1. The economic development of a country particularly depends on the process of Industrialisation.
2. At the time of Independence, India inherited a weak and shallow Industrial base.
3. Therefore during the post-Independence period, the Government of India took the special emphasis on the development of a solid Industrial base.

Question 33.
Give a note on Twelfth Five Year Plan?
Twelfth Five Year Plan [2012 – 2017]

1. Twelfth five-year plan (2012 – 17).
2. Its main theme is “Faster more inclusive and sustainable growth”
3. Its growth rate target is 8%

Question 34.
What is PQLI?

1. “PQLI” – means Physical Quality of Life Index [PQLI].
Morris D Morris developed the Physical Quality of life Index ( PQLI).
2. The PQLI is a measure to calculate the quality of life (well being of a country) Three indicators are:
• Life expectancy
• Infant mortality rate
• Literacy rate
3. A scale of each indicator ranges from the number 1 to 100.
4. Number 1 represents the worst performance by any country.
5. 100 is the best performance.

PART – D

Question 35.
Discuss the Indian economy during the British Period?
Britain had exploited India over a period of two centuries of its colonial rule. On the basis of the form of colonial exploitation, economic historians have divided the whole period into three phases namely the period of merchant capital, the period of industrial capital, and the period of finance capital.

1. Period of merchant capital (1757 to 1813):
The only aim of the East India company was to earn profit by establishing monopoly trade. India was considered as the best hunting ground for capital. By attaining political power the objective of monopoly trade was fulfilled. The company administration succeeded in generating huge surpluses which were repatriated to England.

2. Period of industrial capital (1813 to 1858):
India had become a market for British textiles. Indians were exploited by fixing low prices for exports and high price for imports. India’s traditional handicrafts were thrown out of gear.

3. Period of financial capital (Late 19th century – 1947) : Finance imperialism began to entrench. Britain decided to make massive investments in various fields by plundering Indian capital.

4. The land tenure system in India: Land tenure refers to the system of land ownership and management.
The Zamindari system, the Mahalwari system and the Ryotwari system were the systems of land tenure introduced by British.

5. Problems of British rule : Their profit motives led to drain of resources from India. The handicraft industries were collapsed.
The British rule stunted the growth of Indian enterprise. Capital formation in India was retarded.

Question 36.
Explain the role of SSIs in economic development?
1. Provide Employment:

• SSIs use labor-intensive techniques. Hence, they provide employment opportunities to a large number of people. Thus, they reduce the unemployment problem to a great extent.
• SSIs provide employment to artisans, technically qualified persons and professionals, people engaged in traditional arts, people in villages and unorganized sectors.
• The employment-capital ratio is high for the SSIs.

2. Bring Balanced Regional Development:

• SSIs promote decentralized development of industries as most of the SSIs are set up in backward and rural areas.
• They remove regional disparities by industrializing rural and backward areas and bring balanced regional development.
• They help to reduce the problems of congestion, slums, sanitation and pollution in cities. They are mostly found in outside city limits.
• They help in improving the standard of living of people residing in suburban and rural areas in India.
• The entrepreneurial talent is tapped in different regions and the income is also distributed instead of being concentrated in the hands of a few individuals or business families.

3. Help in Mobilization of Local Resources:

• SSIs help to mobilize and utilize local resources like small savings, entrepreneurial talent etc., of the entrepreneurs, which might otherwise remain idle and unutilized.
• They pave way for promoting traditional family skills and handicrafts. There is a great demand for handicraft goods in developed countries.
• They help to improve the growth of local entrepreneurs and self-employed professionals in small towns and villages in India

4. Pave for Optimisation of Capital:

• SSIs require less capital per unit of output. They provide quick return on investment due to shorter gestation period. The payback period is quite short in SSIs.
• SSIs function as a stabilizing force by providing high output-capital ratio as well as high employment – capital ratio.
• They encourage the people living in rural areas and small towns to mobilize savings and channelize them into industrial activities.

5. Promote Exports:

• SSIs do not require sophisticated machinery. Hence, import the machines from abroad is not necessary. On the other hand, there is a great demand for goods produced by SSIs.
• Thus they reduce the pressure on the country’s balance of payments. However, in the recent past large scale industries are able to borrow large funds with a low-interest rates and spend large sums on advertisements. Hence SSSs are gradually vanishing.
• SSIs earn valuable foreign exchange through exports from India.

6. Complement Large Scale Industries:

• SSIs play a complementary role to large scale sector and support large scale industries.
• SSIs provide parts, components, accessories to large scale industries and meet the requirements of large scale industries through setting up units near the large scale units.
• SSIs serve as ancillaries to large scale units.

7. Meet Consumer Demands:

• SSIs produce a wide range of products required by consumers in India.
• Hence, they serve as an anti-inflationary force by providing goods of daily use.

8. Develop Entrepreneurship:

• SSIs, help to develop a class of entrepreneurs in society. They help the job seekers to become job givers.
• They promote self-employment and a spirit of self-reliance in society.
• SSIs, help to increase the per capita income of India in various ways.
• They facilitate the development of backward areas and weaker sections of the society.
• SSIs are adept in distributing national income in a more efficient and equitable manner among the various participants of the society.

Question 37.
Explain the objectives of the nationalization of a commercial bank?

1. The main objective of nationalization was to attain social welfare. Sectors such as agriculture, small and village industries were in need of funds for their expansion and further economic development.
2. It helped to curb private monopolies in order to ensure a smooth supply of credit to socially desirable sections.
3. To encourage the banking habit among the rural population.
4. To reduce the regional imbalances where the banking facilities were not available.
5. After nationalization, new bank branches were opened in both rural and urban areas, and they created credit facilities mainly for the agriculture sector and its allied activities.

Question 38.
Describe the performance of the 12th Five Year Plans in India?
First Five Year Plan – [1951 – 1956]

• It was based on the Harrod-Domar Model.
• Its main focus was on the agricultural development of the country.
• This plan was successful and achieved a GDP growth rate of 3.6%. [more than its target]

Second Five Year Plan – [1956 -1961]

• It was based on the P.C. Mahalanobis Model.
• Its main focus was on the industrial development of the country.
• This plan was successful and achieved a growth rate of 4.1%

Third Five Year Plan – [1961- 1966]

• This plan was called ‘Gadgil Yojana’.
• The main target of this plan was to make the economy independent and to reach self-prepared position or take off.
• Due to the Indo-China war, this plan could not achieve its growth target of 5.6%. Indian Economy Before and After Independence 137

Fourth Five Year Plan – [1969 – 1974]

• There are two main objectives of this plan (i.e) growth with stability and progressive achievement of self-reliance.
• This plan failed and could achieve a growth rate of 3.3% only against the target of 5.7%.

Fifth Five Year Plan – [1974 – 1979]

• In this plan top priority was given to agriculture, next came industry and mines.
• This plan achieved a growth rate of 4.8% against the target of 4.4%.

Sixth Five Year Plan – [1980 -1985]

• The basic objective of this plan was poverty eradication and technological self-reliance. GARIBI-HATAO was the motto. It was based on investment yojana.
• Its growth target was 5.2% but it achieved 5.7%

Seventh Five Year Plan – [1985 – 1990]

• This plan included the establishment of a self-sufficient economy, opportunities for productive employment.
• For the first time, due to the pressure from the private sector, the private sector got priority over the public sector.
• Its growth target was 5.0% but it achieved 6.0%

Eighth Five Year Plan – [1992- 1997]

• In this plan, the top priority was given to the development of human resources (i.e) employment, education, and public health.
• During this plan, the New Economic Policy of India was introduced.
• This plan was successful and got an annual growth rate of 6.8% against the target of 5.6%.

Ninth Five Year Plan – [1997 – 2002]

• The main focus of this plan was “growth with justice and equity”.
• This plan failed to achieve the growth target of 7% and the Indian economy grew only at the rate of 5.6%.

Tenth Five Year Plan – [2002 – 2007]

• This plan aimed to double the per capita income of India in the next 10 years.
• It aimed to reduce the poverty ratio by 15% by 2012.
• Its growth target was 8.0% but it achieved only 7.2%

Eleventh Five Year Plan – [2007 – 2012]

• Its main theme was “faster and more inclusive growth”.
• Its growth rate target was 8.1% but it achieved only 7.9%

Twelfth Five Year Plan – [2012 – 2017]

• Its main theme is “faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth”.
• Its growth rate target is 8%
• Since the Indian Independence, the five-year plans of India played a very prominent role in the economic development of the country.

These plans had guided the Government as to how it should utilize scarce resources so that maximum benefits can be gained. It is worthy to mention here that Indian Government adopted the concept of five-year plans from Russia.

### Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Indian Economy Before and After Independence Additional Important Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
……………………… is the backbone of our economic system.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) Service
(d) Banking
(a) Agriculture

Question 2.
Disguised unemployment is related to the sector.
(a) Industry
(b) Service
(c) Agriculture
(d) Insurance
(c) Agriculture

Question 3.
India’s major ……………………. crops are sugarcane, jute, cotton, tea, coffee, etc.
(a) Food
(b) Cash
(c) Marketing
(d) Commercial
(b) Cash

Question 4.
Most modem and rich countries have well developed through their early ………………………… revolution.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industrial
(c) French
(d) Green
(b) Industrial

Question 5.
The income elasticity of Industrial goods is very higher than that of ………………………… goods.
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Industrial
(d) Manufacturing.
(a) Primary

Question 6.
Which of the following is called as an important agro-based industry?
(a) Steel
(b) Cement
(c) Sugar
(d) Jute
(c) Sugar

Question 7.
……………………… Industries normally do not use power.
(a) Small scale
(b) Large scale
(c) Cottage
(d) Manufacturing
(c) Cottage

Question 8.
Planning is India is ……………………..
(a) Centralized planning
(b) Democratic planning
(c) Partial planning
(d) Indicative planning
(b) Democratic planning

Question 9.
The rate of ………………………. formation indicates its rate of improvement.
(a) Human capital
(b) Money capital
(c) Physical capital
(d) Monetary capital
(a) Human capital

Question 10.
Nowadays investment in ……………………… capital is very important.
(a) Money
(b) Physical
(c) Monetary
(d) Human
(d) Human

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Define “Green Revolution”?

1. The term Green Revolution refers to the technological breakthrough in agricultural practices.
2. During the 1960s the traditional agricultural practices were gradually replaced by modem technology and agricultural practices in India.
3. Initially, the new technology was tried in 1960 – 1961 as a pilot project in Seven districts.
4. It was called the High Yielding Varieties Programme [HYVP].

Question 2.
Define “Silk Industry”?

1. India is the second-largest [first being China] country in the world in producing natural silk.
2. At present, India produces about 16% of the silk of the world.
3. India enjoys the distinction of being the only country producing all the five known commercial varieties of silk viz Mulberry, Tropical Tussar, Oak Tussar, Eri, and Muga.

Question 3.
When did the petroleum and the natural gas commission was established?

1. The first successful oil well was dug in India in 1889 at Digboi, Assam.
2. At present, a number of regions with oil reserves have been identified and oil is being extracted in these regions.
3. For exploration purposes, the Oil and Natural Gas Commission [ONGC] was established in 1956 at Dehradun, Uttarkhand.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph:

Question 1.
Explain the Micro, Small, and Medium manufacturing Enterprises?

1. Micro Manufacturing Enterprises: The investment in plant and machinery does not exceed ₹25 lakhs.
2. Small Manufacturing Enterprises: The investment in plant and machinery is more than twenty-five lakh rupees but does not exceed ₹5 crores.
3. Medium Manufacturing Enterprises: The investment in plant and machinery is more than ₹5 crores but not exceeding ₹10 crores.

Question 2.
Describe the Micro, Small, and medium service enterprises?

1. Micro Service Enterprises: The investment in equipment does not exceed ₹10 lakhs.
2. Small Service Industries: The investment in equipment is more than ₹10 lakhs but does not exceed ₹2 crores.
3. Medium Service Enterprise: The investment in equipment is more than ₹2 crores but does not exceed ₹5 crores.

Question 3.
Explain the Iron and Steel Industry?
Iron and Steel Industry:

1. First Steel Industry at Kulti, near Jharia, West Bengal – Bengal ironworks company in 1870.
2. First large-scale steel plant TISCO at Jamshedpur in 1907 followed by IISCO at Bumper in 1919. Both belonged to the private sector.
3. The first public sector unit was “Vishveshvaraya Iron and Steel Works” at Bhadrawati. All these are managed by SAIL (at present all-important steel plants except TISCO, are under the public sector).
4. Steel Authority of India Ltd. [SAIL] was established in 1974 and was made responsible for the development of the steel industry.
5. Presently India is the eighth largest steel producing country in the world.

PART – D

Question 1.
Describe the Achievement of the Green Revolution?
Achievement of the Green Revolution:

1. The major achievement of the new strategy was to boost the production of major cereals viz., wheat and rice.
2. The Green Revolution was confined only to High Yielding Varieties [HYV-] cereals, mainly rice, wheat, maize, and jowar.
3. This strategy was mainly directed to increase the production of commercial crops or cash crops such as sugarcane, cotton, jute oilseeds, and potatoes.
4. Per hectare productivity of all crops had increased due to better seeds.
5. Green Revolution had a positive effect on the development of Industries, which manufactured agricultural tools like tractors, engines, thrashers, and pumping sets.
6. Green Revolution had bought prosperity to rural people.
7. Increased production had generated employment opportunities for rural masses.
8. Due to this, their standard of living had increased.
9. Due to multiple cropping and more use of chemical fertilizers, the demand for labour increased.
10. Financial resources were provided by banks and co-operative societies.
11. These banks provided loans to farmers on easy terms.

Question 2.
Explain the problems of British Rule?
Problems of British Rule

1. The British rule stunted the growth of Indian enterprise.
2. The economic policies of the British checked and retarded capital formation in India.
3. The drain of wealth financed capital development in Britain.
4. Indian agricultural sector became stagnant and deteriorated even when a large section of the Indian population was dependent on agriculture for subsistence.
5. The British rule in India led to the collapse of handicraft industries without making any significant contribution to the development of any modem industrial base.
6. Some efforts by the colonial British regime in developing the plantations, mines, jute mills, banking, and shipping, mainly promoted a system of capitalist firms that were managed by foreigners. These profit motives led to a further drain of resources from India.

ACTIVITY

Question 1.
To know the value of freedom, students can collect pictures of Places like Jallianwala Bagh, Meerut, Thandi, and photos of freedom fighters?
The Jallianwalabagh Massacre in Amritsar

1. Jallianwala Bagh is one of the main tourist attractions around Amritsar.
2. The tourists, as well as the neighboring people, visited here.
3. Jallianwala bagh is situated at a throwaway distance from the Golden temple, a famous tourist spot in the Amritsar.
4. Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar is a good looking garden and contains a Sikh spiritual shrine.
5. Jallianwala Bagh history was a well-liked ground for holding meetings and protests during the freedom movement in India.
6. The massacre memorial one of the monuments in India was inaugurated on 13th April in 1961.
7. Dr. Rajendra Prasad, the president of India, inaugurated the memorial in the Jallianwala Bagh, Amritsar at that time.
8. The Bagh has a well that is also fine cosseted by the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre memorial.
9. Jallianwala Bagh is connected with the most tragic day in the history of Indian Freedom.
10. Jallianwala Bagh is a large garden like space extended over to an area of 6.5 acres and the most noticeable structure in this place is the memorial of the 1919 massacre victims.
11. One can also witness the wall with gunshot marks.
12. Jallianwala Bagh National Memorial Trust administrates the activities of this place.

The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre:

1. Jallianwala Bagh reminds us about the great tragedy and it evokes a nationalistic feeling in every Indian.
2. It is the place where the crudest massacre in the history of Indian freedom fight took place in the year 1919.
3. To offer tribute to the innocent people who died in the massacre, this place was built at the spot of the horrible event.
4. On 13th April 1919, a large crowd gathered to protect the take into custody of two Indian Freedom leaders.
5. The crowd was defenseless and included women as well as children.
6. The British General, Edward Dyer ordered his soldiers to fire on the unarmed and helpless crowd.
7. The continuous firing went on targeting the crowd while the people were trapped inside the Jallianwala Bagh, which had only one narrow gate.

Question 2.
Display the demonstration effect of present Indians in culture, dressing, and lifestyle to emphasize the Swadhesi?
Swadeshi Movement was a popular strategy for eradicating British rule and for improving the economic conditions of the country.

Mahatma Gandhi:

1. The concept of swadeshi, as per Mahatma Gandhi was to attain self-sufficiency which included the employment of unemployed people by encouraging village Industries and towards building a non-violent society.
2. The main policies of the swadeshi movement included boycotting all types of British products and the restoration of all domestic products.

Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat Rai, Bipin chandra pal. [Bal, Lai, Pal].

1. The chief forerunners of the swadeshi movement were Bal, Lai. Pal.
2. The writings and speeches of Bal Gangadhar Tilak and his associates paved the initial way.
3. Tilak reaches out to the masses through popular festivals.
4. He transformed the traditional Ganapathi Utsav into a public celebration where patriotic ideas could be spread.
5. Later he inaugurated a Shivaji festival for the same purpose.
6. In 1906, Bengal honoured the great Maratha as a national hero.

## Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Chapter 7 Indian Economy

Students can download 11th Economics Chapter 7 Indian Economy Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

## Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 7 Indian Economy

### Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Indian Economy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The main gold mine region in Karnataka is ………………………….
(a) Kolar
(b) Ramgiri
(c) Anantpur
(d) Cochin
(a) Kolar

Question 2.
Economic growth of a country is measured by national income indicated by …………………………..
(a) GNP
(b) GDP
(c) NNP
(d) Per capita income
(b) GDP

Question 3.
Which one of the following is a developed nations?
(a) Mexico
(b) Ghana
(c) France
(d) Sri Lanka
(c) France

Question 4.
The position of Indian Economy among the other strongest economies in the world is ……………………….
(a) Fourth
(b) Seventh
(c) Fifth
(d) Tenth
(b) Seventh

Question 5.
Mixed economy means ………………………..
(a) Private sectors and banks
(b) Co-existence of Public and Private sectors
(c) Public sectors and banks
(d) Public sectors only
(b) Co-existence of Public and Private sectors

Question 6.
The weakness of Indian Economy is ………………………..
(a) Economic disparities
(b) Mixed economy
(c) Urbanisation
(a) Economic disparities

Question 7.
A scientific study of the characteristics of population is …………………………..
(a) Topography
(b) Demography
(c) Geography
(d) Philosophy
(b) Demography

Question 8.
The year 1961 is known as ……………………………
(a) Year of small divide
(b) Year of Population Explosion
(c) Year of Urbanisation
(d) Year of Great Divide
(b) Year of Population Explosion

Question 9.
In which year the population of India crossed one billion mark?
(a) 2000
(b) 2001
(c) 2005
(d) 1991
(b) 2001

Question 10.
The number of deaths per thousand population is called as ………………………
(a) Crude Death Rate
(b) Crude Birth Rate
(c) Crude Infant Rate
(d) Maternal Mortality Rate
(a) Crude Death Rate

Question 11.
The number of births per thousand population is called as ………………………
(a) Crude death rate
(b) Mortality rate
(c) Morbidity rate
(d) Crude Birth Rate
(d) Crude Birth Rate

Question 12.
Density of population = ………………………
(a) Land area / Total Population
(b) Land area / Employment
(c) Total Population / Land area of the region
(d) Total Population / Employment
(c) Total Population / Land area of the region

Question 13.
Who introduced the National Development Council in India?
(a) Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) VKRV Rao
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 14.
Who among the following propagated Gandhian Economic thinkings?
(a) Jawaharlar Nehru
(b) VKRV Rao
(c) JC Kumarappa
(d) A.K.Sen
(c) JC Kumarappa

Question 15.
The advocate of democratic socialism was ………………………..
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) P C Mahalanobis
(d) Indira Gandhi
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 16.
Ambedkar the problem studied by in the context of Indian Economy is ………………………..
(a) Small land holdings and their remedies
(b) Problem of Indian Currency
(c) Economics of socialism
(d) All of them
(b) Problem of Indian Currency

Question 17.
Gandhian Economics is based on the Principle ………………………..
(a) Socialistic idea
(b) Ethical foundation
(c) Gopala Krishna Gokhale
(b) Ethical foundation

Question 18.
VKRV Rao was a student of ………………………….
(a) JM Keynes
(b) Colin Clark
(d) Alfred Marshal
(a) JM Keynes

Question 19.
Amartya Kumara Sen received the Nobel prize in Economics in the year …………………………
(a) 1998
(b) 2000
(c) 2008
(d) 2010
(a) 1998

Question 20.
Thiruvalluvar economic ideas mainly dealt with ………………………….
(a) Wealth
(b) Poverty is the curse in the society
(c) Agriculture
(d) All of them
(d) All of them

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 21.
Write the meaning of Economic Growth?
A country’s economic growth is usually indicated by Gross Domestic Product (GDP). The GDP is the total monetary value of the goods and services produced by that country over a specific period of time, usually one year.

Question 22.
State any two features of a developed economy?

1. High National Income
2. High Per Capita Income

Question 23.
Write a short note on natural resources?
Natural resources are stock or reserve that can be drawn from nature. The major natural resources are land, forest, water, mineral, and energy.

Question 24.
Point out any one feature of the Indian economy?
India has a mixed economy.

1. Indian economy is a typical example of a mixed economy.
2. This means both the private and public sectors co-exist and function smoothly.
3. The fundamental and heavy industrial units are being operated under the public sector, while, due to the liberalization of the economy, the private sector has gained importance.
4. This makes it a perfect model for public-private partnerships.

Question 25.
Give the meaning of non-renewable energy?
The sources of energy which cannot be renewed or re-used are called non-renewable energy.
(Eg.) Coal, Oil, Gas, etc.

Question 26.
Give a short note on Sen’s ‘Choice of Technique’?
Sen’s ‘Choice of Technique’ was a research work where he argued that in a labour surplus economy, generation of employment cannot be increased at the initial stage by the adaptation of capital – intensive technique.

Question 27.
List out the reasons for low per capita income as given by VKRV Rao?
Rao gave the following reasons for low per capita income and low levels of per capita nutrition in India:

1. Uneconomic holdings.
2. Low levels of water availability for crops.
3. Excess population pressure on agriculture due to the absence of a large industrial sector.
4. Absence of capital.
5. Absence of autonomy in currency policy.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 28.
Define Economic Development?

1. The level of economic development is indicated not just by GDP, but by an increase in citizen’s quality of life or well-being.
2. The quality of life is being assessed by several indices such as Human Development Index [HDI]
3. On the basis of the level of economic development, nations are classified as developed and developing economies.
4. Developed economies are those countries which are industrialized.
5. Developed economics are also termed as Advanced Countries.
6. On the other hand, countries that have not fully utilized their resources like land, mines, workers, etc., and have low per capita income are termed as underdeveloped economics.

Question 29.
State Ambedkar’s Economic ideas on agricultural economics?
Dr. B.R.Ambedkar was a versatile personality. In 1918, he published a paper “Smallholding in India and their remedies” citing Adam Smith’s “Wealth of Nations”, he made a fine distinction between “Consolidation of holdings” and “Enlargement of holdings”.

Question 30.
Write a short note on Village Sarvodhaya?

1. According to Gandhi, “Real India was to be found in the village and not in towns or cities”.
2. So he suggested the development of self-sufficient self-dependent villages.

Question 31.
Write the strategy of Jawaharlal Nehru in India’s planning?

1. Jawahar lal Nehru was responsible for the introduction of planning in our country.
2. To Nehru, the plan was essentially an integrated approach for development.
3. He said the essence of planning is to find the best way to utilize all resources of manpower, money and so on.
4. Planning for Nehru was essentially linked up with industrialization and eventual self-reliance for the country’s economic growth on a self-accelerating growth.
5. Nehru carried through this basic strategy of planned development.

Question 32.
Write the VKRV Rao’s contribution on the multiplier concept?

1. VKRV Rao’s examination of the “Interrelation between investment, income and multiplier is an underdeveloped economy” [1952] was his major contribution to macroeconomic theory.
2. Asa thinker, teacher, economic adviser, and direct policymaker, VKRV Rao followed the footstep of his great teacher, John Maynard Keynes.

Question 33.
Write a short note on Welfare Economics given by Amartya Sen?

1. Amartya Sen was awarded the Nobel prize for his contributions to welfare economics.
2. Sen’s major point has been that the distribution of income/consumption among the persons below the poverty line is to be taken into account.
3. Sen has focused on the poor, viewing them not as objects of pity requiring charitable hand-outs, but as disempowered folk needing empowerment in all aspects.

Question 34.
Explain social infrastructure?

1. Social infrastructure refers to those structures which are improving the quality of manpower and contribute indirectly towards the growth of an economy.
2. These structures are outside the system of production and distribution.
3. The development of these social structures help in increasing the efficiency and productivity of manpower.
4. For example, schools, colleges, hospitals and other civic amenities.
5. It is a fact that one of the reasons for the low productivity of Indian workers is the lack of development of social infrastructure.

Education in India:

1. The Indian education system has flourished and developed with the growing needs of the economy.

Health in India:

1. Health in India is a state government responsibility.
2. The Central Council of Health and Welfare formulates the various health care projects and health department reform policies.

PART – D

Question 35.
Explain the strong features of the Indian economy?

1. India has a mixed economy: In India, both private and public sectors coexist.
2. Agriculture plays the key role: Around 60% of the people in India depend upon agriculture for their livelihood.
3. An emerging market: India has a high potential for prospective growth which attracts FDI and FII.
4. Emerging economy: As a result of rapid economic growth Indian economy has a place among the G20 countries.
5. Fast-growing economy: India has emerged as the world’s fastest-growing economy in 2016-17 with 7.1% GDP next to China.
6. Fast-growing service sector: The service sector, contributes a lion’s share of the GDP in India.
7. Large domestic consumption: Due to large domestic consumption the standard of living has considerably improved and lifestyle has changed.
8. paid growth of urban areas: Improved connectivity in transport and communication, education, and health have speeded up the pace of urbanization.
9. Stable macroeconomy: The current year’s economic survey represents the Indian economy to be a heaven of macroeconomic stability, resilence and optimism.
10. Demographic dividend: India is a proud owner of the maximum percentage of youth. This has invited foreign investments to the country and outsourcing opportunities.

Question 36.
Write the importance of mineral resources in India?
Important Mineral Resources:
1. Iron -ore:

• India possesses high-quality iron-ore in abundance.
• The total reserves of iron ore in the country are about 14.630 million tonnes of hematite and 10,619 million tonnes of magnetite.
• Hematite iron is mainly found is Chattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha, Goa, and Karnataka.
• Some deposits of iron ore are also found in Kerala, Tamilnadu, and Andra Pradesh.

2. Coal and Lignite:

• Coal is the largest available mineral resource.
• India ranks third in the world after China and the USA in coal production.
• The main centers of coal in India are West Bengal, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, and Andhra Pradesh.
• The bulk of the coal production comes from Bengal-Jharkhand coalfields.

3. Bauxite:

• Bauxite is a main source of metal like aluminium.
• Major reserves are concentrated in the East Coast bauxite deposits of Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.

4. Mica:

• Mica is a heat-resisting mineral which is also a bad conductor of electricity.
• It is used in electrical equipment as an insulator.
• India stands first in sheet mica production and contributes 60% of mica trade in the world.
• The important mica bearing pegmatite is found in Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Bihar and Rajasthan.

5. Crude Oil:

• Oil is being explored in India at many places of Assam and Gujarat.
• Digboi, Badarpur, Naharkatia, Kasimpur, Palliaria, Rudrapur, Shivsagar, Mourn [All in Assam], and Hay of Khambhat, Ankleshwar and Kalor [All in Gujarat] are the important places of oil exploration in India.

6. Gold:

• India possesses only a limited gold reserve.
• There are only three main gold mine regions-Kolar Goldfield, Kolar district and Hutti Goldfield in Raichur district [both in Karnataka] and Ramgiri Goldfield in Anantpur district [Andhra Pradesh].

7. Diamond:

• The total reserves of a diamond is estimated at around 4582, thousand carats which are mostly available in Panna [Madhya Pradesh], Rammallakota of Kumar district of Andhra
Pradesh and also in the Basin of Krishna River.
• The new Kimberlile fields have been discovered in Raipur and Bastar districts of Chhattisgarh, Nuapada and Bargarh districts of Odisha, Narayanpet-Maddur Krishna areas of Andhra Pradesh, and Raichur-Gulbarga districts of Karnataka.

Question 37.
Bring out Jawaharlal Nehru’s contribution to the idea of economic development?
Jawahar Lal Nehru was one of the Chief builders of modem India. He was a great patriot, thinker and statesman. His ideas of economic development are :

1. Democracy : He was a firm believer in democracy. He believed in free speech, civil liberty, adult franchise and the rule of law and parliamentary democracy.

2. Secularism : Secularism is another signal contribution of Nehru to India. There are so many religions in India but there is no domination by religious majority.

3. Planning : Nehru was responsible for the introduction of planning in our country. The plan was essentially an integrated approach for development. Planning for Nehru was essentially linked up with industrialization and eventual self-reliance for the country’s economic growth on a self-accelerating growth.

4. Advancement of Science : Nehru made a great contribution to the advancement of Science, research, technology and industrial development. In his period, many IITs and research institutions were established. He always insisted on scientific temper.

5. Democratic socialism : Nehru put the country on the road towards a socialistic pattern of society. Nehru’s socialism is democratic socialism.

Question 38.
Write a brief note on the Gandhian economic ideas?
Gandhian Economics is based on ethical foundations. Gandhi wrote, “Economics that hurts the moral well-being of an individual or a nation is immoral, and therefore, Sinful”. Again in 1924, Gandhi repeated the same belief “ that economy is untrue which ignores or disregards moral values”.

Salient features of Gandhian Economic Thought:
1. Village Republics:

• India lives in villages.
• He was interested in developing the villages as self-sufficient units.
• He opposed the extensive use of machinery, urbanization, and industrialization.

2. On Machinery:

• Gandhi described machinery as ‘Great sin’. He said that “Books could be written to demonstrate its evils”.
• It is necessary to realize that machinery is bad.
• Instead of welcoming machinery as a boon, we should look upon it as evil.
• It would ultimately cease.

3. Industrialism:

• Gandhi considered industrialism as a curse on mankind.
• He thought industrialism depended entirely on a country’s capacity to exploit.

4. Decentralization :

• Gandhi advocated a decentralized economy i. e., production at a large number of places on a small scale or production in the people’s homes.

5. Village Sarvodaya:

• According to Gandhi, “ Real India was to be found in villages and not in towns or cities”.
• So, he suggested the development of self-sufficient, self-dependent villages.

• Gandhi realized the dignity of human labour.
• He believed that God created man to eat his bread by the sweat of his brow.
• Bread labour or body labour was the expression that Gandhi used to mean manual labour.

7. The Doctrine of Trusteeship:

• Trusteeship provides a means of transforming the present capitalist order of society into an egalitarian one.

8. On the Food Problem:

• Gandhi was against any sort of food controls.
• Once India was begging for food grain, but now India tops the world with very large production of food grains, fruits, vegetables, milk, egg, meat etc.

9. On Population:

• Gandhi opposed the method of population control through contraceptives.
• He was, however, in favour of birth control through Brahmacharya or self-control.
• He considered self-control as a sovereign remedy to the problem of over-population.

10. On Prohibition:

• Gandhi advocated cent percent prohibition.
• Gandhi regarded the use of liquor as a disease rather than a vice.
• He felt that it was better for India to be poor than to have thousands of drunkards.
• Many states depend on revenue from liquor sales.

### Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Indian Economy Additional Important Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The basic factors determining population growth are ………………………..
(a) Birth rate
(b) Death rate
(c) Migration
(d) All the above
(d) All the above

Question 2.
……………………… is a crude indicator for living standard.
(a) Gross National Product [GNP]
(b) Gross Domestic Product [GDP]
(c) Net National Product [NNP]
(d) Per Capita Income [PCI]
(a) Gross National Product [GNP]

Question 3.
India followed the ……………………… plan.
(a) Short term
(b) Long term
(c) Midterm
(d) Perspective
(c) Midterm

Question 4.
…………………….. is the basic causes of poverty.
(a) Low agriculture productivity
(b) Rapid growth of population
(c) Low saving and disguised unemployment
(d) All the above
(d) All the above

Question 5.
In recent time India followed the ……………………… planning.
(a) Five year
(b) Indicative
(c) Modified
(d) Innovative
(b) Indicative

Question 6.
……………………………. was responsible for the introduction of planning in our Country.
(a) Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) VKRV Rao.
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 7.
………………………. is the largest available mineral resource.
(a) Coal
(b) Iron-ore
(c) Bauxite
(d) Mica
(a) Coal

Question 8.
The National Harbour board was set up in ………………………
(a) 1947
(b) 1948
(c) 1949
(d) 1950
(d) 1950

Question 9.
India stands first in sheet mica production and contributes ……………………. % of mica trade in the world.
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%
(b) 60%

Question 10.
……………………… is thereby also called as the backbone of the Indian economy.
(a) Agricultural
(b) Industrial
(c) Small Scale Industries
(d) Cottage industries
(a) Agricultural

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
List out the education system in India?
The education system in India consists of primarily six levels:

1. Nursery class
2. Primary class
3. Secondary level
4. Higher secondary level

Question 2.
Define “Renewable Resources’?
Renewable energy sources
These are the kind of energy source which can be renewed or reused again and again. These kinds of materials do not exhaust or literally speaking these are available in abundant or infinite quantity. Example for this kind include

1. Solar energy
2. Wind energy
3. Tidal energy
4. Geothermal energy
5. Biomass energy

Question 3.
Write a short note on Infrastructure development?
Infrastructural development means the development of many support facilities. These facilities may be divided into (z) economic infrastructure and (ii) social infrastructure. Economic infrastructure includes – transport, communication, energy, irrigation, monetary and financial institutions. Social infrastructure includes – education, training and research, health, housing and civic amenities.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 1.
Explain the education in India?
Education in India:

1. Imparting education on an organized basis dates back to the days of ‘Gurukul’ in India.
2. The Indian education system has flourished and developed with the growing needs of the economy.
3. The Ministry & Human Resource Development (MHRD) in India formulates education policy in India and also undertakes education programs.

The education system in India:

1. Education in India until 1976 was the responsibility of the State governments.
2. It was then brought under concurrent list [both Centre and State]
3. The Centre is represented by the Ministry of Human Resource Development decides India’s education budget.
4. The education system in India consists of primarily six levels:
• Nursery class
• Primary class
• Secondary level
• Higher secondary level

Education Institutions in India:

1. Education in India follows the 10, +2 pattern.
2. The accreditation of the universities is decided under the University Grant Commission Act.
3. The Education Department consists of various schools, colleges, and universities imparting education on fair means for all sections of the society.

Question 2.
List out the density of the population?
The density of population:
The density of population refers to the average number of persons residing per square kilometer. It represents the man-land ratio. As the total land area remains the same, an increase in population causes the density of the population to rise.
The density of population =

• Just before Independence, the density of the population was less than 100.
• After Independence, it has increased rapidly from 117 in 1951 to 325 in 2001.
• According to the 2011 census, the present Density of the population is 382.
• The pressure of population on land has been rising.
• Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar, and Uttar Pradesh have density higher than India’s average density.
• Bihar is the most densely populated state.
• Arunachal Pradesh has a low density of population of only 17 persons. Indian Economy 125

Question 3.
Explain “Transport”?
Transport:

1. For the sustained economic growth of a country, a well-connected and efficient transport system is needed.
2. India has a good network of rail, road coastal shipping, and air transport.
3. The total length of roads in India being over 30 lakh km.
4. India has one of the largest road networks in the world.
5. In terms of railroads, India has a broad network of railroad lines, the largest in Asia and the fourth largest in the world.
6. The total rail route length is about 63,000 km and of this 13,000 km is electrified.
7. The major Indian ports including Calcutta, Mumbai, Chennai, Vishakhapatnam and Goa handle about 90% of sea-borne trade and are visited by cargo carriers and passenger liners from all parts of the world.
8. A comprehensive network of air routes connects the major cities and towns of the country.
9. The domestic air services are being looked after by Indian Airlines and private airlines.
10. The international airport service is looked after by Air India.

PART – D

Question 1.
Explain the weakness of the Indian Economy?
1. Large Population:

• India stands second in terms of size of the population next to China and our country is likely to overtake China in near future.
• The population growth rate of India is very high and this is always a hurdle to the growth rate.

2. Inequality and poverty:

• There exists a huge economic disparity in the Indian economy.
• The proportion of income and assets owned by top 10% of Indians goes on increasing.
• Increase in the poverty level in society and still a higher percentage of individuals are living Below Poverty Line [BPL].
• Asa result of unequal distribution of the rich becomes richer and poor becomes poorer.

3. Increasing Prices of Essential Goods:

• Even though there has been a constant growth in the GDP and growth opportunities in the Indian economy, there have been steady increase in the prices of essential goods.
• The continuous rise in prices erodes the purchasing power and adversely affects the poor people, whose income is not protected.

4. Weak Infrastructure:

• A gradual improvement in the infrastructural development.
• There is still a scarcity of the basic infrastructure like power, transport, storage etc.

• Growing youth population, there is a huge need of employment opportunities.
• The growth in production is not accompanied by creation of job.
• The Indian economy is characterized by “ Jobless growth”.

6. Outdated technology:

• The level of technology in agriculture and small scale Industries is still outdated and obsolete.

Question 2.
Explain the VKRV Rao’s National Income Methodology and Industrialization?
1. Rao’s National Income Methodology:

• Rao’s name is remembered for his pioneering work on the enumeration of national income of India.
• He attempted
• To develop the national income concepts suited to India and developing countries.
• To analyze the concepts of investment, saving and multipliers is an underdeveloped economy.
• To study the compatibility of the national incomes of Industrialized and underdeveloped countries.
• Rao’s paper on “Full Employment and Economic Development” was one of the earliest contributions in the field of development towards employment.

2. Rao’s views on Industrialization:

• Rao gave the following reasons for low per Capita income and low levels of per capita nutrition in India.
• Uneconomic holdings with sub-divisions and fragmentation.
• Low levels of water availability for crops.
• Excess population pressure on agriculture due to the absence of a large industrial sector.
• Absence of capital.
• Absence of autonomy in currency policy, and in general in monetary matters encouraging holding of gold.