Category: Class 11

Students can download 11th Economics Chapter 1 Introduction to Micro Economics Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Micro Economics

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Introduction to Micro Economics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
‘Economics is a study of mankind in the ordinary business of life’ – It is the statement of ………………………..
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Lionel Robbins
(c) Alfred Marshall
(d) Samuelson
Answer:
(c) Alfred Marshall

Question 2.
The basic problem studied in Economics is ……………………….
(a) Unlimited wants
(b) Unlimited means
(c) Scarcity
(d) Strategy to meet all our wants
Answer:
(c) Scarcity

Question 3.
Microeconomics is concerned with ……………………….
(a) The economy as a whole
(b) Different sectors of an economy
(c) The study of individual economic units behaviour
(d) The interactions within the entire economy
Answer:
(c) The study of individual economic units behaviour

Question 4.
Which of the following is a microeconomics statement?
(a) The real domestic output increased by 2.5 percent last year
(b) Unemployment was 9.8 percent of the labour force last year
(c) The price of wheat determines its demand
(d) The general price level increased by 4 percent last year
Answer:
(c) The price of wheat determines its demand

Question 5.
Find the odd one out.
(a) “An inquiry into the nature and the causes of the Wealth of Nations”
(b) “Principles of Economics”
(c) “Nature and Significance of Economic Science”
(d) “Ceteris paribus”
Answer:
(d) “Ceteris paribus”

Question 6.
The equilibrium price is the price at which ……………………….
(a) Everything is sold
(b) Buyers spend their money
(c) Quantity demanded equals quantity supplied
(d) Excess demand is zero
Answer:
(c) Quantity demanded equals quantity supplied

Question 7.
Author of “An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of Wealth of Nations”.
(a) Alfred Marshall
(b) Adam Smith
(c) Lionel Robbins
(d) Paul A Samuelson
Answer:
(b) Adam Smith

Question 8.
“Economics studies human behaviour as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses” is the definition of economics of …………………………
(a) Lionel Robbins
(b) Adam Smith
(c) Alfred Marshall
(d) Paul A Samuelson
Answer:
(a) Lionel Robbins

Question 9.
Who is the Father of Economics?
(a) Max Muller
(b) Adam smith
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Paul A Samuelson
Answer:
(b) Adam smith

Question 10.
“Economics is a science” The basis of this statement is …………………………
(a) Relation between cause and effect
(b) Use of deductive method and inductive method for the formations of laws
(c) Experiments
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 11.
Utility means ……………………..
(a) Equilibrium point at which demand and supply are equal
(b) Want – satisfying capacity of goods and services
(c) Total value of commodity
(d) Desire for goods and services
Answer:
(b) Want – satisfying capacity of goods and services

Question 12.
A market is ………………………
(a) Only a place to buy things
(b) Only a place to sell things
(c) Only a place where prices adjust
(d) A system where persons buy and sell goods directly or indirectly
Answer:
(d) A system where persons buy and sell goods directly or indirectly

Question 13.
Which one of the following is not a point in the Welfare Definition of Economics?
(a) Study of and ordinary man
(b) Economics does not focus on wealth alone
(c) Economics is the study of material welfare
(d) Economics deals with unlimited wants and limited means
Answer:
(d) Economics deals with unlimited wants and limited means

Question 14.
Growth definition takes into account ……………………….
(a) The problem of choice in the dynamic framework of Economics
(b) The problem of unlimited means in relation to wants
(c) The production and distribution of wealth
(d) The material welfare of human beings
Answer:
(a) The problem of choice in the dynamic framework of Economics

Question 15.
Which theory is generally included under micro economics?
(a) Price Theory
(b) Income Theory
(c) Employment Theory
(d) Trade Theory
Answer:
(a) Price Theory

Question 16.
……………………….. have exchange value and their ownership rights can be established and exchanged.
(a) Goods
(b) Services
(c) Markets
(d) Revenue
Answer:
(a) Goods

Question 17.
Identify the correct characteristics of utility ……………………..
(a) It is equivalent to ‘usefulness’
(b) It has moral significance
(c) It is the same as pleasure
(d) It depends upon the consumer’s mental attitude
Answer:
(d) It depends upon the consumer’s mental attitude

Question 18.
Who has given scarcity definition of economics?
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Marshall
(c) Robbins
(d) Robertson
Answer:
(c) Robbins

Question 19.
The process of reasoning from particular to the general is ………………………..
(a) Deductive method
(b) Inductive method
(c) Positive economics
(d) Normative economics
Answer:
(b) Inductive method

Question 20.
Total revenue is equal to total output sold multiplied by ………………………….
(a) Price
(b) Total cost
(c) Marginal revenue
(d) Marginal cost
Answer:
(a) Price

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 21.
What is meant by Economics?
Answer:
The term ‘Economics’ comes from oikonomikos which means ‘Management of households’. ‘Political Economy’ is renamed as ‘Economics’ by Alfred Marshall.

Question 22.
Define microeconomics?
Answer:

1. Microeconomics is the study of the economic actions of individual units say households, firms or industries.
2. It studies how business firms operate under different market conditions.
3. The combined actions of buyers and sellers determine prices.
4. Microeconomics covers:
   • Value theory [product pricing and factor pricing]
   • Theory of economic welfare.

Question 23.
What are goods?
Answer:
The materialistic things and services which satisfy human wants are called goods in economics.

Question 24.
Distinguish goods from services?
Answer:

Question 25.
Name any two types of utility?
Answer:

1. Time Utility: A sick man derives time utility from blood, not at the time of its donation. but only at the operation – time, i.e., when it is used.
2. Place Utility: A student derives place utility from a book not at the place of its publication (production centre) but only at the place of his education (consumption centre).

Question 26.
Define positive economics?
Answer:

1. An increase in money supply implies a price rise in an economy.
2. As the irrigation facilities and application of chemical fertilizers expand, the production of food- grains increases.
3. Increases in the birth rate and a decrease in the death rate reflect the rate of growth of the population.

Question 27.
Give the meaning of the deductive method?
Answer:

1. The deductive method is also named an analytical or abstract method.
2. It consists of deriving conclusions from general truths.
3. It takes a few general principles and applies them to draw conclusions.
4. The classical and neoclassical schools of economists notably, Ricardo, JS Mill, Malthus Marshall, Pigou applied the deductive method in their economic investigations.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 28.
Explain the scarcity definition of Economics and assess it?
Answer:

1. Lionel Robbins published a book “An Essay on the Nature and Significance of Economic Science” in 1932.
2. According to him, “Economics is a science which studies human behaviour as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses.”

The major features of Robbins’ definition are

1. Ends refer to human wants.
2. Human beings have an unlimited number of wants.
3. Resources or means that go to satisfy the unlimited human wants are limited or scarce in supply.
4. The scarcity of a commodity is to be considered only in relation to its demand.
5. Further, the scarce means are capable of having alternative uses.
6. An individual grades his wants and satisfies first his most urgent want.
7. Economics, according to Robbins, is a science of choice.

Criticism:

1. Robbins does not make any distinction between goods conducive to human welfare and goods that are not.
2. Economics deals not only with the microeconomic aspects of resource allocation and the determination of the price of a commodity.
3. Robbins’ definition does not cover the theory of economic growth and development.

Question 29.
What are the crucial decisions involved in ‘what to produce’?
Answer:
Every society much decides on what goods it will produce and how much of these it will produce.
In this process, the crucial decisions include:

1. Whether to produce more food, clothing, and housing or to have more luxury goods.
2. Whether to have more agricultural goods or to have industrial goods and services.
3. Whether to use more resources in education and health or to use more resources in military services.
4. Whether to have more consumption goods or to have investment goods.
5. Whether to spend more on basic education or higher education.

Question 30.
Explain different types of economic activities?
Answer:
The seven types of economic activities are:

1. Micro – Economics:
Micro Economics is the study of the economic actions of individuals say households, firms, or industries.

Microeconomics covers:

• Value theory [product pricing and factor pricing]
• Theory of economic welfare.

2. Macro – Economics:

• Macroeconomics is the obverse of microeconomics.
• The general theory of employment, Interest, and money published by Keynes is the basis of modem macroeconomics.

3. International Economics:

• In the modem world, no country can grow in isolation.
• Every country is having links with other countries through foreign capital, investment [foreign direct investment], and international trade.

4. Public Economics:

• Public finance is concerned with the income or revenue-raising and expenditure incurring activities of the public authorities.
• The scope of public finance covers public expenditure, public revenue, public debt, and financial administration.

5. Developmental Economics:

• Development economics deals with features of developed nations, obstacles for development, economic and non-economic factors influencing development, various growth models, and strategies.

6. Health Economics:

• Health economics is an area of applied economics.
• It covers health indicators, preventive and curative measures, medical research and education, rural health mission, drug price control, neonatal care, maternity and child health, budgetary allocation for health.

7. Environmental Economics:

• Depletion of natural resources stock and pollution result from rapid economic development.
• Environmental economics is a study of interdisciplinary tools for the problems of ecology, economy, and environment.

Question 31.
Elucidate different features of services?
Answer:
Along with goods, services are produced and consumed. They are generally, possess the following:

1. Intangible:

• Intangible things are not physical objects but exist in connection to other things, for example, brand image, goodwill, etc.
• The intangible things are converted and stored into tangible items such as recording a music piece into a pen – drive.

2. Heterogeneous:

• Services vary across regions or cultural backgrounds.
• A single type of service yields multiple experiences, e.g., music, consulting physicians, etc.

3. Inseparable from their makers:

• Services are inextricably connected to their makes. For example, labour and labourers are inseparable.

4. Perishable:

• Services cannot be stored as inventories like assets.
• For example, it is useless to possess a ticket for a cricket-match once the match is over.
• It cannot be stored and it has no value-in-exchange.

Question 32.
What are the important features of utility?
Answer:
The important features of utility:

1. The utility is psychological. It depends on the consumer’s mental attitude. For example, a vegetarian derives no utility from mutton.
2. The utility is not equivalent to usefulness. For example, a smoker derives utility from a cigarette; but, his health gets affected.
3. The utility is not the same a pleasure. A sick person derives utility from taking medicine, but definitely, it is not providing pleasure.
4. The utility is personal and relative. An individual obtains varied utility from one and the same good in different situations and places.
5. The utility is the function of the intensity of human want. An individual consumer faces a tendency of diminishing utility.
6. The utility cannot be measured objectively. It is a subjective concept and it cannot be measured numerically.
7. The utility has no ethical or moral significance. For example, a cook derives utility from a knife using which he cuts some vegetables, and a killer wants to stab his enemy with that knife. In Economics, a commodity has utility if it satisfies a human want.

Question 33.
Distinguish between microeconomics and macroeconomics?
Answer:

Question 34.
Compare positive economics and normative economics?
Answer:

PART – D

Answer the following questions in about a page.

Question 35.
Compare and contrast various definitions of Economics.
Answer:
1. Adam Smith – Wealth definition:

1. Adam Smith [1723 – 1790], in his book “An Inquiry into Nature and Cause of Wealth of Nations” [1776] defines “Economics as the science of wealth”
2. He explains how a nation’s wealth is created and increased.
3. He considers that the individual in the society wants to promote his own gain and in this process, he is guided and led by an “invisible hand”
4. Adam Smith favours the introduction of the “division of labor” to increase the quantum of output.
5. Severe competition in factories and society helps in bettering the product.
6. The supply force is very active and a commodity is made available to the consumers at the lowest price.

2. Alfred Marshall – Welfare definition:

1. Alfred Marshall [1842 – 1924] in his book “Principles of Economics” [1890] defines Economics thus “Political Economy” or Economics is a study of mankind in the ordinary business of life.
2. It examines that part of individual and social action which is most closely connected with the attainment and with the use of the material requisites of well-being.
3. Thus, it is on one side a study of wealth and on the other and more important side, a part of the study of man”.

The important features of Marshall’s definition are:

1. Economics does not treat wealth as the be-all and end-all of economic activities.
2. The man promotes primarily welfare and not wealth. ‘
3. The science of economics contains the concerns of ordinary people who are moved by love and not merely guided or directed by the desire to get the maximum monetary benefit.
4. Economics is a social science. It studies people in the society who influence one another.

3. Lionel Robbins – Scarcity definition:

1. Lionel Robbins published a book “An Essay on the Nature and Significance of Economic Science” in 1932.
2. According to him, “Economics is a science which studies human behaviour as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses”.

The major features of Robbins’ definition:

1. Ends refer to human wants. Human beings have an unlimited number of wants.
2. On the other hand, resources or means that go to satisfy the unlimited human wants are limited or scarce in supply.
3. The scarce means are capable of having alternative uses.
4. An individual grades his wants and satisfies first his most urgent want.
5. Economics, according to Robbins, is a science of choice.

4. Samuelson’s – growth definition:
Paul Samuelson defines Economics as “the study of how men and society choose, with or without the use of money, to employ scarce productive resources which could have alternative uses to produce various commodities over time, and distribute them for consumption, now and in the future among various people and groups of society”.

The major implications of this definition are as follows:

• Samuelson makes his definition dynamic by including the element of time in it.
• Samuelson’s definition is applicable also in a barter economy.
• His definition covers various aspects like production, distribution, and consumption.
• Samuelson treats Economics as a social science.
• Samuelson appears to be the most satisfactory.

Question 36.
Explain various Steps of Deductive and Inductive methods?
Answer:
Steps of the Deductive Method:

• Step 1: The analyst must have a clear and precise idea of the problem to be inquired into.
• Step 2: The analyst clearly defines the technical terms used in the analysis. Further, the assumptions of the theory are to be precise.
• Step 3: Deduce hypothesis from the assumptions taken.
• Step 4: Hypotheses should be verified through direct observation of events in the real world and through statistical methods, (eg) There exists an inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded of a good.

Steps of Inductive Method:

• Step 1: Data are collected about a certain economic phenomenon. These are systematically arranged and general conclusions are drawn from them.
• Step 2: By observing the data, conclusions are easily drawn.
• Step 3: Generalization of the data and then Hypothesis Formulation Step 4. Verification of the hypothesis (eg. Engel’s law)

Question 37.
Elaborate on the nature and scope of Economics?
Answer:
Nature of Economics:
The nature of a subject refers to its contents and how and why they find a place in the subject. This nature is understood by studying the various definitions given by Economists.
The nature of Economics can be clearly understood from the following definitions :

1. Adam Smith (classical Era) who considered Economics as a science of wealth gave wealth definition.
2. Alfred Marshall (Neo-classical era) considered Economics as a social science which studies wealth on one side and the material welfare of human beings on the other side.
3. Robbin’s Scarcity Definition (new age) He defined Economics as a science of choice.
4. Samuelson gave a growth definition which represents the modern age.
5. The scope of economics refers to the subject matter of economics. It throws light on whether it is an art or a science and science, whether positive or normative science.

Economics: It’s the subject matter:

Related to society:

1. Economics focuses on the behaviour and interactions among economic agents, individuals and groups belonging to an economic system.
2. It deals with the consumption and production of goods and services and the distribution of income among the factors of production.

Related to scarce resources:

1. Economics studies the ways in which people use the available resources to satisfy their multiplicity of wants.

Human science or Social science:

1. Economics is concerned with the activities of human beings.
2. The action of one member affects those of the others in the society. Hence, economics is called human science or social science.

Related to wealth:

1. Economics constitutes all human activities related to wealth.
2. Human activities not related to wealth are not included in Economics.

Economics as an art:

1. Art is the practical application of knowledge for achieving particular goals.
2. Economics provides guidance to the solutions to all the economic problems.

Economics as a science:

1. Science is a systematic study of knowledge. Science develops the co-relation between cause and effect based on facts.
2. Economics examines the relationship between the cause and effect of the problems. Hence, it is rightly considered as both an art and a science.

Economics: Positive and Normative science:

1. Positive- Economics is concerned with how? and why? and normative Economics with ‘What ought to be’.
2. Economics is both a positive and normative science.

Question 38.
Explain basic problems of the economy with the help of the production possibility curve?
Answer:
1. The problem of choice between relatively scarce commodities due to limited productive resources with the society can be illustrated with the help of a geometric device, which is known as the production possibility curve.

The production possibility curve shows the menu of choice along which a society can choose to substitute one good for another, assuming a given state of technology and given total resources.

2. The explanation and analysis of the production possibility curve are based upon certain assumptions, some of them are the following:

• The time period does not change. It remains the same throughout the curve.
• Techniques of production are fixed.
• There is full employment in the economy.
• Only two goods can be produced from the given resources.
• Resources of production are fully mobile.
• The factors of production are given in quantity and quality.
• The low of diminishing returns operates in production.

3. Every production possibility curve is based upon these assumptions. If some of these assumptions change or neglected, then it affects the nature of the production possibility curve.

4. To draw this curve we take the help of the production possibilities schedule, as shown below.

5. The schedule suggests that if all resources are thrown into the production of food, a maximum of 500 tons of food can be produced, given the existing technology.

If on the other hand, all resources are instead used for producing cars, 25 cars can be produced. In between these two extreme possibilities exist. If we are willing to give up some food, we can have some cars.

6. We can obtain a production possibility curve by drawing the production possibilities schedule graphically. The quantity of food is shown on the x-axis and the number of cars is shown on the y-axis, the different six production possibilities are being shown as point P₁ P₂ P₃ P₄ P₅ & P₆

Problems of the economy

1. The problem of choice:
The problem of choice arises because of the given limited resources and unlimited wants, which may relate to the allocation of resources between the goods for the higher income group and the lower-income group and the goods for the defense and the civilians. Since PPC is the locus of the combination of the goods the problem of choice will not arise when we choose any point on PPC.

2. Solution of central problems:
The central problems of an economy can be explained with the help of PPC. The solution to the problem of what to produce involves the decision regarding the choice of location on the production possibility carves.

A production combination represented by any point inside the PPC indicates that the economy is using inefficient methods of production and an inefficient combination of resources.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Introduction to Micro Economics Additional Important Questions and Answers

Part – A

Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
Alfred Marshall renamed “Political Economy” as “Economics” in
(a) 18th century
(b) 19th century
(c) 20th century
(d) 21st century
Answer:
(b) 19th century

Question 2.
Marshall definition of Economics is known as ………………………
(a) Wealth
(b) Welfare
(c) Scarcity
(d) Modem
Answer:
(b) Welfare

Question 3.
Alfred Marshall wrote “Principles of Economics” in
(a) 1776
(b) 1890
(c) 1776
(d) 1932
Answer:
(b) 1890

Question 4.
The term “micro” means ………………………..
(a) Small
(b) Big
(c) Normal
(d) Abnormal
Answer:
(a) Small

Question 5.
Examples of perishable goods
(a) Television, Furnishers
(b) Fish, Fruits, Flowers
(c) Table, Chair
(d) Vehicles, Capital goods
Answer:
(b) Fish, Fruits, Flowers

Question 6.
……………………… means a place where commodities are bought and sold.
(a) Market
(b) Price
(c) Cost
(d) Revenue
Answer:
(a) Market

Question 7.
The value of goods expressed in money terms is
(a) Price
(b) Revenue
(c) Market
(d) Cost
Answer:
(a) Price

Question 8.
…………………. goods directly satisfy human wants.
(a) Consumer
(b) Capital
(c) Economic
(d) Producer
Answer:
(a) Consumer

Question 9.
__________ is the assumption in economics that makes the economic laws hypothetical
(a) Other things remaining the same
(b) Time remaining the same
(c) Money remaining the same
(d) Wants to remain the same
Answer:
(a) Other things remaining the same

Question 10.
Who defined “Economics as the science of wealth”?
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Paul A. Samuelson
(c) Max Muller
(d) Adam Smith
Answer:
(d) Adam Smith

Part – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
What is the scope of Economics?
Answer:
The scope of the subject of Economics refers to the subject matter of Economics. It throws light on whether it is an art or a science and if science, whether it is a positive science or normative science.

Question 2.
Write a note on Distribution.
Answer:
Distribution studies about the pricing of factors of production.

Question 3.
Define macroeconomics?
Answer:

1. Macroeconomics is the obverse of microeconomics. It is concerned with the economy as a whole.
2. It is the study of aggregates such as national output, inflation, unemployment, and taxes.
3. The General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money published by Keynes is the basis of modem macroeconomics.

Part – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 1.
Explain different types of utility?
Answer:
The different types of utility are:

1. Form utility: An individual consumer obtains utility from a good or service only when it is available in a particular form. Raw materials in their original form may not possess utility for a consumer.
2. Time utility: A sick man derives time utility from blood not at the time of its donation, but only at the operation-time (i.e.,) when it is used.
3. Place utility: A student derives place utility from a book not at the place of its publication but only at the place of his education.
4. Service utility: An individual consumer derives service utility a service made available at the time when he most needs it.
5. Possession utility: When a student buys a book or dictionary from a bookseller, then only it gives utility.
6. Knowledge utility: It is the utility derived by having knowledge of a particular thing. Advertisement serves as a source of information on an object.
7. Measurability of utility: Wants of a person are satisfied by the act of consumption. The consumer derives utility, measured in terms of ‘Utils’. A “Util” is a unit of measurement of utility.

Question 2.
What are the major implications of Samuelson’s growth definition?
Answer:

1. Like Robbins, Samuelson states that the means which have alternative uses are scarce in relation to unlimited ends.
2. His definition is dynamic by including the element of time and it covers the theory of economic growth.
3. This definition is applicable also in a non-monetary, barter economy.
4. His definition covers various aspects like production, distribution, and consumption.
5. Samuelson treats economics as a social science.

Question 3.
What is the importance of microeconomics?
Answer:

1. To understand the operation of an economy.
2. To provide tools for economic policies.
3. To examine the condition of economic welfare.
4. Efficient utilization of resources.
5. Useful in international trade.
6. Useful in decision making.
7. Optimal resources allocation.
8. The basis for prediction.
9. Price determination.

Part – D

Answer the following questions in about a page.

Question 1.
What is the nature of economic laws?
Answer:

1. A Law expresses a causal relation between two or more than two phenomena.
2. Marshall states that the Economics laws are statements of tendencies and those social laws, which relate to those branches of conduct in which the strength of the motives chiefly concerned can be measured by money price.
3. In natural sciences, a definite result is expected to follow from a particular cause.
4. In Economics science, the laws function with cause and effect.
5. The consequences predicted by the data, necessarily and invariably follow.
6. Economics laws are not as precise and certain as the laws in the physical sciences.
7. A physical scientist carrying out controlled experiments in his laboratory can test the scientific laws very easily by changing the conditions obtaining there.
8. Change in Economics science cannot be brought about easily.
9. Unpredictability is invariably associated with Economic laws.
10. Economics laws are not assertive but they are indicative.
11. The use of the assumption “other things remaining the same” in economics makes the economics laws hypothetical.
12. The hypothetical elements in-laws are a little less pronounced than in the laws of physical sciences.
13. As the value of the measuring-rod money is not constant, there are always hypothetical elements surrounding the laws of Economics.
14. Some economics laws are simply truisms.
15. For example, saving is a function of income.
16. Another example of truism is human wants are unlimited.

Question 2.
Explain the types of economics.
Answer:
1. Micro-Economics:
Microeconomics is the study of the economic actions of individual units say households, firms, or industries.

2. Macro-Economics:
Macroeconomics is concerned with the economy as a whole. It is the study of aggregates such as national output, inflation, unemployment, and taxes.

3. International economics:
No country can grow in isolation, every country is having links with other countries through foreign capital, investment, and international trade.

4. Public economics:
Public finance is concerned with the income or revenue-raising and expenditure incurring activities of the public authorities. It covers public expenditure, public revenue, public debt, and financial administration.

5. Developmental economics:
Development economics deals with features of developed nations, obstacles for development. Economic and non-economic factors influencing development, various growth models, and strategies.

6. Health economics:
Health economics is an area of applied economics. It covers health indicators, preventive and curative measures, medical research, and education. Rural health and budgetary allocation for health etc.

7. Environmental economics:
Environmental economics analyses the interrelationship between economy and environment. It is a study of interdisciplinary tools for the problems of ecology, economy, and environment.

ACTIVITY

Meet ten of your classmates and prepare a report on the advantages of studying Economics?
Advantages of Studying Economics:

Student: 1

1. Economic policy is financial supporters.
2. Many treatments of economics are inexact and can contradict each other.
3. These is analytic or mathematical theories.
4. The Economic subject in a logical and Pseudo-Scientific manner.
5. The future of our daily lives in regards to the economic status and happenings of the world.
6. Economics is basically called the “Queen Subject” of all subjects of social sciences.
7. Economics is one of the most useful of all sciences.
8. To learn how to distribute scarce resources efficiently.
9. To understand how the market will react to certain actions.
10. Economics is described as the study of production, distribution, and consumption of goods and services, along with the transfer of wealth.

Student: 2

1. People like it.
2. It studies people’s behaviors in different markets.
3. They make economics a social study.
4. Economics is a study of how money is distributed.
5. Economic policies are good.
6. Its connection to human behavior is clear.
7. They save, spend, or invest funds.
8. It studies how market decisions are made.
9. In Economics you will study how to work in the financial and learn how to manage money.
10. Economics is the study of Economic Activities.
11. The resources that are needed to satisfy everyone’s wants.
12. Economics studies how scarcity causes people to make different choices.
13. They like the analysis.
14. It is an empirical study.

Student: 3

1. Economics is the study of the effects of social, emotional, and cognitive factors on the economic decisions of people and companies.
2. Economics enables us to understand money.
3. Economics makes a nation prosper.
4. It makes a person educated in a real sense.
5. Economics is defined as the science of money.
6. The most important factor in modem man’s life.
7. It is most important to study.
8. Economics addresses many interesting problems in modem society.
9. We encourage growth in developing countries.
10. An opportunity to get an education.
11. To prove to a prospective employer.
12. The primacy of Economic life.
13. Economics studies the way the world works as a human society.
14. The priorities of its wants and needs.
15. It is a huge subject covering natural resources.
16. The contributions of humans.
17. The contributions of investors.

Student: 4

1. I am interested in economics.
2. Economics addresses many interesting problems in modem society.
3. The valuation of nonmarket goods.
4. We encourage growth in developing countries.
5. A business relevant analytical skillset.
6. An opportunity to get an education to prove to a prospective employer.
7. Economics teaches you how to know what is needed and wanted.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2:30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The document which authorises to deliver the goods either in part or full is called …………………..
(a) Warehouse warrant
(b) Dock receipt
(c) Dock warrant
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Dock warrant

Question 2.
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Franchisee – An agent who buys the accounts receivables
(b) Factor – Trade mark of the seller
(c) Logistics – Knowledge process outsourcing
(d) BPO – Extension of transportation
Answer:
(d) BPO – Extension of transportation

Question 3.
WTO was established on ……………………..
(a) 1-1-1996
(b) 1-1-1997
(c) 1-1-1995
(d) 1-1-1994
Answer:
(c) 1-1-1995

Question 4.
Charter Party is a document related to which of the following transport?
(a) Air Transport
(b) Ocean Transport
(c) Railway Transport
(d) Motor transport
Answer:
(b) Ocean Transport

Question 5.
Charter party may also be known as ………………………
(a) Bill of lading
(b) Voyage charter
(c) Airway note
(d) Way bill
Answer:
(b) Voyage charter

Question 6.
Occupation of a bank official is …………………………
(a) Employment
(b) Business
(c) Profession
(d) Sole trader
Answer:
(a) Employment

Question 7.
Who is not an intermediary in the export trade from the following?
(a) Indent house
(b) Forwarding agent
(c) Commission agent
(d) Export trading house
Answer:
(a) Indent house

Question 8.
What is IGST?
(a) Integrated Goods and Services Tax
(b) Indian Goods and Services Tax
(c) Initial Goods and Services Tax
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Integrated Goods and Services Tax

Question 9.
Dock Receipt is a document issued by ………………………….
(a) Dock authorities
(b) Warehouse keeper
(c) Owner of the goods
(d) Manufacturer
Answer:
(a) Dock authorities

Question 10.
………………………… is not a type of general insurance.
(a) Marine insurance
(b) Life insurance
(c) Fidelity insurance
(d) Fire insurance
Answer:
(b) Life insurance

Question 11.
Trade middleman who acts as a link between wholesaler and customers refers to a ………………………..
(a) Producer
(b) Broker
(c) Retailer
(d) Customer
Answer:
(c) Retailer

Question 12.
……………………… are mobile traders who deal in low priced articles with no fixed place of business.
(a) Shopping malls
(b) Super markets
(c) Street stalls
(d) Itinerant traders
Answer:
(d) Itinerant traders

Question 13.
Public deposits are the deposits which are raised directly from ………………………
(a) The public
(b) The director
(c) The auditors
(d) The owners
Answer:
(a) The public

Question 14.
Income Tax is ………………………..
(a) A business tax
(b) A direct tax
(c) An indirect tax
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) A business tax

Question 15.
Which bank has the power to issue bank notes?
(a) Central bank
(b) Commercial bank
(c) Co – operative banks
(d) Foreign banks
Answer:
(a) Central bank

Question 16.
The compensation given for a breach of contract is …………………………..
(a) Damage
(b) Remuneration
(c) Money
(d) Cheque
Answer:
(a) Damage

Question 17.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Sony Corporation – MNC
(b) Post and Telegraph – Departmental undertaking
(c) IDBI – Agricultural bank
(d) Steel Authority of India Ltd – Government company
Answer:
(c) IDBI – Agricultural bank

Question 18.
Find out which is not the classification of manufacturing Industries?
(a) Micro industries
(b) Synthetic industry
(c) Processing industry
(d) Assembling industry
Answer:
(a) Micro industries

Question 19.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer:
Codes:

Question 20.
Socially responsible business provides goods at ……………………..
(a) High price
(b) Low price
(c) Reasonable price
(d) Moderate price
Answer:
(c) Reasonable price

PART – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Give the meaning of crop insurance?
Answer:
This policy is to provide financial support to fanners in case of a crop failure due to drought or flood. It generally covers all risks of loss or damages relating to production of rice, wheat, millets, oil seeds and pulses etc.

Question 22.
Mention any four examples of public corporation?
Answer:
Examples of public corporation:

1. Life Insurance Corporation of India
2. The Indian Airlines
3. The Air India International
4. Food Corporation of India

Question 23.
What is meant by foreign bank?
Answer:
Banks which have registered office in a foreign country and branches in India are called foreign banks.

Question 24.
What is GATT?
Answer:
The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade. (GATT) was signed at Geneva on 30th October 1947 by 23 countries. It came into effect on 1^st January 1948.

Question 25.
Describe any two advantages of water transport?
Answer:
Advantages of water transport:

1. It is the cheapest mode of transport.
2. It is most suitable for heavy loads.

Question 26.
A transport which is useful in hilly and remote areas. It is a means of transport in naval lifting device. What does it mean?
Answer:
It is the type of transport called pack animals. Animals like horse, mule, donkey, camel and elephant are known as pack animals. They are used for carrying small loads in backward areas, hilly tracks, forest regimes and deserts. They serve areas which are inaccessible to modem means of transport.

Question 27.
What is unlimited liability?
Answer:
The liability of the proprietor for the debts of the business is unlimited. The creditors have the right to recover their dues even from the personal property of the proprietor in case the business assets are not sufficient to pay their debts.

Question 28.
What are the services included in service business?
Answer:
Educational, medical, hospitality and banking are the services included in service businesses. Bank service is the nerve center of industry and commerce in a country.

Question 29.
What is meant by Marine Insurance?
Answer:
Marine insurance is a contract of insurance under which the insurer undertakes to indemnify the insured against marine losses. The insured pays the premium for the insurer’s guarantee to make good the looses arising from marine perils. Marine perils may be damage of ship, fire, etc.

Question 30.
What is credit co – operatives?
Answer:
Co – operative credit societies are societies formed for providing short-term financial help to their members. Agriculturists, artisans, industrial workers, salaried employees, etc., form these credit societies.

PART – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
The functions of commercial banks are:
(a) Primary functions
(b) Secondary functions. Secondary functions may be of agency and general utility functions? Describe any three utility services?
Answer:
General utility functions:

1. Accepting bills on behalf of customers: Banks accept bills on behalf of customers and make payments to the foreign exporter.
2. Issue of demand drafts and Banker’s cheques: Demand drafts and banker’s cheques are issued to the public and customers.
3. Safety lockers: Valuable documents, jewels can be kept in a vault provided by the bank for rent.

Question 32.
Goods are manufactured in one place and it may be demanded throughout the world. Goods may reach the consumers by a number of middlemen. Who is the first middleman in the trade? Explain any three features of that middleman?
Answer:
The first middleman in the trade or distribution is called wholesaler. A wholesaler buys goods directly from manufacturers and sells them to the retailers.

Features:

1. Wholesalers buy goods directly from producers.
2. Wholesalers buy goods in large quantities and sell in small quantities.
3. Wholesalers sell different varieties of a particular kind of product.

Question 33.
The importer places the order either directly or through an indent house. It is known as indent. Indent may be of three types. What are the three types of indents? Explain?
Answer:
There are three types of indent:

1. Open Indent: It gives complete freedom to exporter to choose type of goods, price, quality, method of packing, etc.
2. Closed Indent: It does not give any freedom to exporter. Importer specifies the type of goods, price, quality, etc.
3. Confirmatory Indent: An indent is to be confirmed by importer/his agent and the final indent is sent by importer thereafter.

Question 34.
Explain the differences between Direct tax and Indirect tax?
Answer:

Question 35.
Mention the importance of banking service?
Answer:
Banking service is the nerve center of industry and commerce in a country. It plays a vital role by providing the money required for their regular functioning and development. There are many types of banks rendering different types of services.

Question 36.
This organisation is useful to the farmers in a village. It helps in the purpose of cultivation. Identify the form of organisation and briefly explain about it?
Answer:
This form of organisation is ‘co-operative farming societies’. The societies in a village collect their land together for the purpose of cultivation, purchase the inputs for cultivation and market the crops for the sales.

Question 37.
State the meaning of retail trade?
Answer:
Retail trade deals with the distribution of goods in small quantities to the end consumers. It represents the final stage in the distribution where goods are transferred from the hands of manufacturers or wholesalers to the users. If the sales are made directly to the end consumers it will be considered as retailing.

Question 38.
What is the classification of foreign trade?
Answer:
Types of Foreign Trade:

1. Import Trade: Import trade means buying goods from a foreign country for domestic use.
2. Export Trade: Export trade means the sale of domestic goods to foreign countries.
3. Entrepot Trade: Entrepot trade means importing of goods from one country and exporting the same to foreign countries.

Question 39.
What are the various rules regarding damages?
Answer:
Generally in the following cases, the court grants specific performance:

1. When the act agreed to be done is such that compensation in money for its non-performance is not sufficient.
2. When it is probable that compensation in money cannot be received for the non-performance of the act agreed to be done.
3. When there is no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused by the non-performance of the act agreed to be done.

Question 40.
The scheme was introduced by the RBI in August 1996. These are small private sector banks established in rural and semi urban areas. What is the name of the bank? Explain?
Answer:
Local Area Bank (LAB) scheme was introduced by the RBI in August 1996. LABs are small private sector banks established in rural and semi-urban areas. Each bank serves two or three adjoining districts only. Their main objective is to mobilise rural savings (accept deposits) and invest them in the same areas.

Examples:

1. Coastal Local Area Bank, Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh.
2. Subhadra Local Area Bank Limited, Kolhapur, Maharashtra

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Discuss the advantages of transport?
Answer:
Advantages of railway transport:

1. Railways are well suited for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances.
2. It can provide long distance travel throughout the day and night with unbroken services.

Advantages of inland waterways:

1. It is considered as the cheapest mode of transport among the other modes of transport.
2. It is most suitable for heavy loads.

Advantages of air transport:

1. It provides a regular, convenient, efficient and quick service.
2. Perishable goods like fruits, vegetables, egg, meat, etc., can be transported quickly.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the causes of risk?
Answer:
Business risk arises due to a variety of causes which are classified as follows:
1. Natural Causes:
Human beings have little control over natural calamities like flood, earthquake, lightning, heavy rains, famine, etc. These result in heavy loss of life, property, and income in business.

2. Human Causes:
Human causes include such unexpected events like dishonesty, carelessness or negligence of employees, stoppage of work due to power failure, strikes, riots, management inefficiency, etc.

3. Economic Causes:
These include uncertainties relating to demand for goods, competition, price, collection of dues from customers, change of technology or method of production, etc. Financial problems like rise in interest rate for borrowing, levy of higher taxes,, etc., also come under this type of causes as they result in higher unexpected cost of operation of business.

4. Other Causes:
These are unforeseen events like political disturbances, mechanical failures such as the bursting of boiler, fluctuations in exchange rates, etc. which lead to the possibility of business risks.

Question 42 (a).
Sole proprietorship is a form of business organisation in which an individual introduces his own capital, uses his own skill and intelligence in the management of the business? Explain the characteristics of a sole trader?
Answer:
Business owned and controlled by a single person is known as sole trading business.

The following are the characteristics of a sole trader:

1. Ownership by one man: This is owned by single person. The sole trader contributes the required capital.
2. Freedom of work and Quick decisions: The sole trader is the owner, so he need not consult with others. Hence he can take quick decision.
3. Unlimited liability: When his business assets are not sufficient to pay off the business debts he has to pay from his personal property.
4. Enjoying Entire Profit: All the benefits earned by the sole trader is enjoyed by him alone.
5. Absence of Government Regulation: A sole trading concern is free from Government regulations. No legal formalities are to be observed in its formation and management.
6. Maintenance of Secrecy: Since the trader manages all the affairs of the business, the secrecy can be maintained easily.

[OR]

(b) Partnership is the relation between persons who have agreed to share the profits of a business carried on by all. It is the result of an agreement. Closing of business is also by an agreement. It is called Dissolution of Partnership. Explain the dissolution of partnership firm without the order of the court?
Answer:
Dissolution of a partnership firm takes place in two ways:

1. Without the order of the court and
2. By the order of the court

1. Without the order of the court:

1. By agreement or mutual consent: A firm may be dissolved when all the partners agree to close the affairs of the firm.
2. By insolvency of all the partners but one: If any one of the partners is adjudged as insolvent, it is necessary to dissolve the firm.
3. When the objective becomes illegal: When the business carried on by the partnership becomes illegal, the partnership firm is automatically dissolved.
4. By notice of dissolution: In the case of partnership at will, if any partner gives in writing to close the firm, the firm will be dissolved.
5. On certain contingencies:
   • On the expiry of the period of the firm.
   • On the completion of a business.
   • On the death of a partner.
   • On the retirement of a partner.
   • On the insolvency of a partner.

Question 43 (a).
What are the features of public corporation?
Answer:
1. Special Statute:
A public corporation is created by a special Act of the Parliament or the State Legislature. The Act defines its powers, objectives, functions and relations with the ministry and the Parliament (or State Legislature).

2. Separate Legal Entity:
A public corporation is a separate legal entity with perpetual succession and common seal It has an existence, independent of the Government. It can own property; can make contracts and file suits, in its own name.

3. Capital Provided by the Government:
The capital of a public corporation is provided by the Government or by agencies controlled by the government. However, many public corporations have also begun to raise money from the capital market.

4. Financial Autonomy:
A public corporation enjoys financial autonomy. It prepares its own budget; and has authority to retain and utilize its earnings for its business.

5. Management by Board of Directors:
Its management is vested in a Board of Directors, appointed or nominated by the Government. But there is no Governmental interference in the day-to-day working of the corporation.

[OR]

(b) Partnership is formed according to Partnership Act. There are various kinds of partners based on capital and administration. Explain any five kinds of partners?
Answer:
Partnership is formed by agreement. In this partnership, the member in a firm is called as partner. There are various kinds of partners. They are as follows:

1. Active partner:
A partner who takes an active part in the conduct of the partnership business is known as an active partner.

2. Sleeping or Dormant partner:
A partner contributes capital and shares in the profits or losses of the firm, but does not take part in the management of the business is known as sleeping partner.

3. Nominal partner:
Such a partner neither contributes any capital nor is he entitled to manage the affairs of the business. He lends only his name to strengthen the firm.

4. Partner in profits only:
When a person joins a firm as a partner on the condition that he is entitled to share profits in the firm, he is called as a partner in profits only.

5. Secret partner:
A secret partner is one whose association is not known to the general public.

Question 44 (a).
Explain various types of insurance?
Answer:
Insurance covers various types of risks. All contract of insurance can be broadly classified as follows:

1. Life Insurance (or) Life Assurance
2. Non – life Insurance (or) General Insurance

It can be further classified into:

1. Fire Insurance
2. Marine Insurance
3. Health Insurance and
4. Miscellaneous Insurance

1. Life Insurance:
Life Insurance may be defined as a contract in which the insurance company called insurer undertakes to insure the life of a person called assured in exchange of a sum of money called premium which may be paid in one lump sum or monthly, quarterly, half yearly or yearly and promises to pay a certain sum of money either on the death of the assured or on expiry of certain period.

2. Non – Life Insurance or General insurance:
It refers as the insurance not related to human but related to properties.

3. Fire Insurance:
Fire insurance is a contract whereby the insurer, in consideration of the premium paid, undertakes to make good any loss or damage caused by a fire during a specified period upto the amount specified in the policy.

4. Marine Insurance:
Marine insurance is a contract of insurance under which the insurer undertakes to indemnify the insured in the manner and to the extent thereby agreed against marine losses. The insured pays the premium in consideration of the insurer’s (underwriter’s) guarantee to make good the losses arising from marine perils or perils of the sea.

5. Health Insurance:
In mid 80’s, most of the hospitals in India were government owned and treatment was free of cost. With the advent of Private Medical Care, the need for Health Insurance was felt and various Insurance Companies introduced Health Insurance as a Product. Presently the health insurance exists primarily in the form of ‘Mediclaim policy’.

[OR]

(b) Explain the functions of retailers?
Answer:

1. Buying: A retailer buys a wide variety of goods from different wholesalers after estimating customer’s demand.
2. Storage: A retailer maintains a ready stock of goods and displays them in the shop.
3. Selling: The retailer sells the goods in small quantities according to the demand taste and preference of consumers.
4. Grading and Packing: The retailer grades the goods which are not graded by manufacturers and wholesalers.
5. Risk – bearing: A retailer always keeps stock of goods in anticipation of demand and bears the risk of loss due to fire, theft, spoilage, price fluctuations, etc.
6. Transportation: Retailers often carry goods from manufacturers to their retail outlets.
7. Financing: Some retailers grant credit facilities to his customers and provide the facility of return or exchange of goods.

Question 45 (a).
Explain any four personal investment avenues?
Answer:
1. Public Provident Fund (PPF):
It is the safest long – term investment option for the investors in India. It is totally tax – free. PPF account can be opened in bank or post office. The money deposited cannot be withdrawn before 15 years and an investor can earn compound interest from this account.

However the investor can extend the time frame for the next five years if the investor does not opt to withdraw the amount matured for payment at maturity date. PPF investor can take loan against PPF account when he/she experiences financial difficulties.

2. Mutual Funds:
An individual investor who wants to invest in equities and bond with a balance of risk and return generally can invest in mutual funds. Nowadays people invest in stock markets through a mutual fund. Systematic investment plan is one of the best investment options in India.

3. Direct Equity or Share Purchase:
An individual can opt for investment in shares. But he has to analyse the market price of various shares traded in stock exchange, reputation of the company, consistency in the payment of dividend, the nature of the project undertaken by the company, growth prospects of industry in which a company is operating, before investing in shares. If the investment is made for a long time, it may yield good return.

4. Real Estate Investment:
Real estate is one of the fastest growing sectors in India. Buying a flat or plot is supposed to be the best decision amongst the investment options. The value of the real asset may increase substantially depending upon the area of location and other support facilities available therein.

[OR]

(b) Explain any four warehousing documents?
Answer:
Warehouses means a place where goods are stored for future use. For keeping the goods, the various documents are needed; they are as follows:

1. Warehousing Warrants: It is a document issued in favour of goods by the warehouse keeper. It is also used as a document of title to goods.
2. Warehouse Keeper’s receipt: It is a document issued by the warehouse keeper, which acknowledges there receipt of goods from the owner of the goods.
3. Dock Warrant: Dock warrant is a document of title of goods issued by the dock authorities. This document certifies that the dock authorities hold the goods.
4. Dock Receipt: Dock receipt is an acknowledgement of receipt of goods issued by the dock authorities to the owner of the goods. It is not a document of title to goods.
5. Delivery Order: This is a document through which the depositor directs the warehouse keepers to deliver the goods to the party mentioned in the document.

Question 46 (a).
Industry means, which is connected with conversion of raw materials into finished goods. It may be of various types. Explain: (a) Analytical industry (b) Genetic industry and (c) Construction industry?
Answer:

1. Analytical Industry: It analyses and separates different elements from the same materials, as in the case of oil refinery.
2. Genetic Industries: These industries remain engaged in breeding plants and animals for their use in further reproduction. The seeds, nursery companies, poultry, diary, piggery, hatcheries, nursery, fisheries, apiary etc are classic examples of genetic industries.
3. Construction Industries: These industries are involved in the ,construction of building, dams, bridges, roads, as well as tunnels and canals.

[OR]

(b) Explain the procedure for the registration of partnership firm?
Answer:

1. Name of the firm.
2. The principal place of business.
3. Name of other places where the firm carried on business.
4. Names and addresses of all the partners.
5. The date on which each partner joined the firm.
6. The duration of the firm.

This statement signed by all the partners should be produced to the Registrar of Firms along with the necessary registration fee of Rs.3. Any change in the above particulars must be communicated to the Registrar within 14 days of such alteration.

Question 47 (a).
Partnership is formed by agreement. It is desirable to have a written agreement. What is the name of the agreement? Explain the contents of it?
Answer:

1. Name: Name of the Firm.
2. Nature of Business: Nature of the proposed business to be carried on by the partners.
3. Duration of Partnership: Duration of the partnership business whether it is to be run for a fixed period of time or whether it is to be dissolved after completing a particular venture,
4. Capital Contribution: The capital is to be contributed by the partners. It must be remembered that capital contribution is not necessary to become a partner for, one contribute his organizing power, business acumen, managerial skill etc., instead of capital.
5. Withdrawal from the Firm: The amount that can be withdrawn from the firm by each partner.
6. Profit/Loss Sharing: The ratio in which the profits or losses are to be shared. If the profit sharing ratio is not specified in the deed, all the partners must share the profits and bear the losses equally.
7. Interest on Capital: Whether any interest is to be allowed on capital and if so, the rate of interest.
8. Rate of Interest on Drawing: Rate of interest on drawings, if any.
9. Loan from Partners: Whether loans can be accepted from the partners and if so the rate of interest payable thereon.
10. Account Keeping: Maintenance of accounts and audit.
11. Salary and Commission to Partners: Amount of salary or commission payable to partners for their services. (Unless this is specifically provided, no partner is entitled to any salary).
12. Retirement: Matters relating to retirement of a partner. The arrangement to be made for paying out the amount due to a retired or deceased partner must also be stated.
13. Goodwill Valuation: Method of valuing goodwill on the admission, death or retirement of a partner.
14. Distribution of Responsibility: Distribution of managerial responsibilities. The work that is entrusted to each partner is better stated in the deed itself.
15. Dissolution Procedure: Procedure for dissolution of the firm and the mode of settlement of accounts thereafter.
16. Arbitration of Dispute: Arbitration in case of disputes among partners. The deed should provide the method for settling disputes or difference of opinion. This clause will avoid costly litigations.

[OR]

(b) Explain any five principles of co – operatives?
Answer:
1. Voluntary and Open Membership:
Co – operatives are voluntary organisations, open to all people able to use its services and willing to accept the responsibilities of membership, without gender, social, racial, political or religious discrimination.

2. Democratic Member Control:
Co – operatives are democratic organisations controlled by their members those who buy the goods or use the services of the co – operative who actively participate in setting policies and making decisions.

3. Member’s Economic Participation:
Members contribute equally to, and democratically control, the capital of the co – operative. This benefits members in proportion to the business they conduct with the co-operative rather than on the capital invested.

4. Autonomy and Independence:
Co – operatives are autonomous, self – help organisations controlled by their members. If the co – operative enters into agreements with other organisations or raises capital from external sources, it is done so based on terms that ensure democratic control by the members and maintains the co – operative’s autonomy.

5. Education, Training, and Information:
Co – operatives provide education and training for members, elected representatives, managers and employees so they can contribute effectively to the development of their cooperative. Members also inform the general public about the nature and benefits of cooperatives.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
One of the major role of an accountant is ……………………..
(a) Record keeper
(b) Owner
(c) Employee
(d) Investors
Answer:
(a) Record keeper

Question 2.
…………………….. is the amount invested by the owner or proprietor in an organisation.
(a) Capital
(b) Drawings
(c) Goods
(d) Asset
Answer:
(a) Capital

Question 3.
………………………… is analytical in nature.
(a) Book – keeping
(b) Accounting
(c) Journal
(d) Ledger
Answer:
(b) Accounting

Question 4.
………………………. Accounts are closed at the end of accounting period.
(a) Periodicity
(b) Dual aspect
(c) Matching
(d) Cost
Answer:
(a) Periodicity

Question 5.
……………………. is a negotiable instrument.
(a) Pay – in – slip
(b) Cheque
(c) Voucher
(d) Invoice
Answer:
(b) Cheque

Question 6.
Rectifying entries are passed to make correction of errors in ……………………… accounting.
(a) Single entry
(b) Opening entry
(c) Rectifying entry
(d) Closing entry
Answer:
(c) Rectifying entry

Question 7.
A journal entry has more than one debit or more than one credit or both is called as ………………………
(a) Single entry
(b) Opening entry
(c) Compound entry
(d) Closing entry
Answer:
(c) Compound entry

Question 8.
…………………….. is normally prepared at the end of the accounting period.
(a) Trial balance
(b) Journal
(c) Ledger
(d) Proper journal
Answer:
(a) Trial balance

Question 9.
The page number of the ledger in which the supplier’s account appears is recorded in …………………….. column.
(a) Date
(b) Particulars
(c) Invoice number
(d) Ledger folio
Answer:
(d) Ledger folio

Question 10.
……………………… motivates the debtor to make the payment at an earlier date to avail discount facility.
(a) Trade discount
(b) Cash discount
(c) Sales
(d) Purchases
Answer:
(b) Cash discount

Question 11.
The two accounts involved in a transaction are cash account and bank account is called as ………………………
(a) Contra entry
(b) Single entry
(c) Compound entry
(d) Opening entry
Answer:
(a) Contra entry

Question 12.
…………………….. are recorded on the debit side of cash book.
(a) Cash receipts
(b) Cash payments
(c) Expenses paid
(d) Salary paid
Answer:
(a) Cash receipts

Question 13.
Favourable balance as per bank statement will appear as a …………………………
(a) Credit balance
(b) Debit balance
(c) Unfavourable
(d) Cash book
Answer:
(a) Credit balance

Question 14.
Sales book is overcast by ? 200 is an example of …………………………
(a) Errors of casting
(b) Principle error
(c) Compensating error
(d) Suspense account
Answer:
(a) Errors of casting

Question 15.
Fixed installment method is otherwise called ………………………….
(a) Straight line
(b) Written down value
(c) Diminishing balance
(d) Annuity
Answer:
(a) Straight line

Question 16.
……………………. gives benefit for more than one accounting period.
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Revenue expenditure
(c) Revenue receipt
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Capital expenditure

Question 17.
……………………… are assets of a relatively permanent nature used in the operations of business and not intended for sale.
(a) Fixed assets
(b) Current assets
(c) Liquid assets
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Fixed assets

Question 18.
Goodwill is an example of ………………………
(a) Intangible fixed asset
(b) Fixed asset
(c) Current asset
(d) Furniture
Answer:
(b) Fixed asset

Question 19.
The decrease in book value of fixed assets due to usage or passage of time is called ………………………….
(a) Depreciation
(b) Prepaid
(c) Accrued
(d) Bad debts
Answer:
(a) Depreciation

Question 20.
Which one is matched correctly?
(a) Finacle – banking software
(b) DOS – programming software
(c) COBOL – operating software
(d) MS – Office – specific purpose software
Answer:
(a) Finacle – banking software

PART – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 21 is compulsory: [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Who are the parties interested in accounting information?
Answer:

1. Internal users and
2. External users

Question 22.
What is meant by accounting concepts?
Answer:
Accounting concepts are the basic assumptions or conditions upon which accounting has been laid. Accounting concepts are the results of broad consensus. The word concept means a notion or abstraction which is generally accepted.

Question 23.
What is real account?
Answer:
All accounts relating to tangible and intangible properties and possessions are called real accounts. In case of real accounts, the rule is debit what comes in and credit what goes out.

Question 24.
What is a ledger?
Answer:
Ledger is known as principal book of accounts. It is a book which contains all sets of accounts, namely, personal, real and nominal accounts.

Question 25.
What is trial balance?
Answer:
Trial balance is a statement containing the debit and credit balances of all ledger accounts on a particular date. It is arranged in the form of debit and credit columns placed side by side and prepared with the object of checking the arithmetical accuracy of entries made in the books of accounts and to facilitate preparation of financial statements.

Question 26.
Give the format of Purchase Book?
Answer:

Question 27.
What is Cash discount?
Answer:
Cash discount is allowed to the parties making prompt payment within the stipulated period of time or early payment. It is discount allowed (loss) for the creditor and discount received (gain) for the debtor who makes payment.

Question 28.
Rectify the following errors?

1. Sales book was undercast by ₹100.
2. Purchases returns book was overcast by ₹200.

Answer:

1. Sales account should be credited with ₹100.
2. Purchases returns account should be debited with ₹200

Question 29.
A company purchased a building for ₹50,000. The useful life of the building is 10 years and the residual value is ₹2000. Find out the amount and rate of depreciation under straight line method?
Answer:

Question 30.
From the following information, prepare Trading account for the year ended 31.12.2016. Opening stock ₹10,000; Purchases ₹26,100; Sales ₹40,600; Closing Stock ₹13,500?
Answer:

PART – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 31 is compulsory: [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What are the components of computerised accounting system?
Answer:

1. Hardware
2. Software
3. People
4. Procedure
5. Data and
6. Connectivity

Question 32.
The following are the extracts from the trial balance. Sundry debtors ₹30,000; bad debts ₹5,000;
Additional information:

1. Write off bad debts ₹3,000.
2. Create 10% provision for bad and doubtful debts. You are required to pass necessary adjusting entries and show how these items will appear in profit and loss account and balance sheet.

Answer:

Question 33.
Classify the following items into capital and revenue:

1. ₹50,000 spent for railway siding.
2. Loss on sale of old furniture.
3. Carriage paid on goods sold.

Answer:

1. Capital
2. Revenue
3. Revenue

Question 34.
A firm purchased a plant on 01.01.2018 for ₹9,000 and spent ₹1,000 as erection charges. Calculate the amount of depreciation for the year 2018 @ 15% per annum under the written down value method. Accounts are closed on 31^st March every year?
Answer:
Original cost = 9,000 + 1,000 = 10,000
Rate of depreciation = 15%
Date of purchase = 01.01.2018
Number of months used = 01.01.2018 to 3 1.03.2018 = 3 months
Amount of depreciation = 15% on 10,000 for 3 months
= 10,000 × 15/100×3/12
= ₹375.

Question 35.
Rectify the following errors discounted after the preparation of the trial balance:

1. Rent paid was carried forward to the next page ₹500 short.
2. Wages paid was carried forward ₹250 excess.
3. The sales book was overcast by ₹1,500.

Answer:

1. Rent account should be debited with ₹500.
2. Wages account should be credited with ₹250.
3. Sales account should be debited with ₹1,500.

Question 36.
Expand the following terms:

1. ATM
2. CDM
3. POS
4. NEFT
5. RTGS
6. L.F

Answer:

1. Automated Teller Machine (ATM)
2. Cash Deposit Machine (CDM)
3. Point of Sale (POS)
4. National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT)
5. Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS)
6. Ledger folio (L.F.)

Question 37.
Complete the followings:

1. Total of debit > Total of credit = ?
2. Total of credit > Total of debit = ?
3. Total of debit = Total of credit = ?

Answer:

1. Debit balance
2. Credit balance
3. Nil balance

Question 38.
Define bill of exchange?
Answer:
According to the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, “Bill of exchange” is an instrument in writing containing an unconditional order, signed by the maker, directing a certain person to pay a certain sum of money only to, or to the order of a certain person or to the bearer of the instrument.

Question 39.
Write any three advantages of Petty cash book?
Answer:

1. There can be better control over petty payments.
2. There is saving of time of the main cashier.
3. Cash book is not loaded with many cash payments.

Question 40.
From the followings prepare a bank reconciliation statement of Jayakumar as on 31^st December, 2016?

1. Balance as per cash book ₹7,130.
2. Cheque deposited but not cleared ₹1,000.
3. A customer has deposited ₹800 into the bank directly.

Answer:

PART – IV

Answer all the questions: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Complete the missing informations:

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare Ledger accounts directly from the following informations:

Answer:

Question 42 (a).
Show the effect of following business transactions on the accounting equation:

1. Anbu started business with cash ₹20,000; goods ₹12,000; and machine ₹8,000;
2. Goods purchased from Ramani on credit ₹7,000;
3. Payment made to Ramani’s in full settlement ₹6,900;
4. Sold goods to Rajan on credit costing ₹5,400 for ₹6,000;

Answer:

(b) From the following balances extracted from the books of Raj an a trader on automobiles, prepare Trial Balance as on 31^stMarch, 2017?

Answer:

Question 43 (a).
Prepare Purchases Book and Sales Book in the books of Santhosh Textiles Ltd., from the following transactions given for April, 2017?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Enter the following transactions in a single column Cash Book of Pradeep for April, 2017?

Answer:

Question 44 (a).
From the following data, ascertain the cash book balance as on 31^st December, 2017?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Pass journal entries to rectify the following errors located after the preparation of the trial balance. Assume that there exists a suspense account?

1. The total of sales book was undercast by ₹2,000.
2. The purchase of machinery for ₹3,000 was entered in the purchases book.
3. A credit sale of goods for ₹45 to Mathi was posted in his account as ₹54.
4. The purchases returns book was overcast by ₹200.
5. The total of sales book ₹1,122 were wrongly posted in the ledger as ₹1,222.

Answer:

Question 45 (a).
M/s Ramco Textile Mills purchased machinery on 1^st April, 2014 for 2,00,000 on credit from M/s. Nila and Co., and spent ₹10,000 on its installation. Depreciation is provided at 10% per annum on the written down value method. Prepare machinery account and depreciation account for the first three years. Books are closed on 31^st March every year?
Answer:

[OR]

(b) State whether the following are capital or revenue items:

1. ₹5,000 spent towards addition to buildings.
2. Second-hand motor car purchased for ₹30,000 and paid ₹2,000 as repairs immediately.
3. ₹10,000 was spent on painting the new factory.
4. Freight and cartage on the new machine ₹150, erection charges ₹200.
5. ₹150 spent on repairs before using a second-hand car purchased recently.

Answer:

1. Capital expenditure
2. Capital expenditure
3. Capital expenditure
4. Capital expenditure
5. Capital expenditure

Question 46 (a).
From the following particulars, prepare Profit and Loss account for the year ended 31^st December, 2017?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) What are the features of Capital Expenditure?
Answer:
The following are the features of Capital expenditure:

1. It gives benefits for more than one accounting period.
2. It includes acquisition of fixed assets and all expenditure incurred upto the point an asset is ready for use.
3. It contributes to the revenue earning capacity of the business.
4. It is non-recurring in nature.
5. It is shown on the assets side of the balance sheet.

Question 47 (a).
The following balances were extracted from the books of Thomas as on 31^st March, 2018. Dr?

Adjustments:

1. Closing Stock ₹9,000.
2. Provide depreciation @ 10% on machinery.
3. Interest accrued on investments ₹2,000

Prepare Trading A/c, Profit and Loss A/c and Balance Sheet as on 31^st March, 2018. In the Books of Thomas
Dr. Trading A/c and Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 31^st March, 2018 Cr.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Write any five advantages of computerised accounting system?
Answer:

• Faster Processing: Computers require far less time than human beings in performing a particular task. Therefore, accounting data are processed faster using a computerised accounting system.
• Accurate Information: There is less space for error because only one account entry is needed for each transaction unlike repeated posting of the same accounting data in manual system.
• Reliability: Computer systems are immune to boredom, tiredness or fatigue. Therefore, these can perform repetitive functions effectively and are highly reliable.
• Easy Availability of Information: The data are easily available and can be communicated to different users at the same time.
• Up-to-date Information: Account balances will always be up-to-date since the records are automatically updated as and when accounting data are entered or stored.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not a branch of accounting?
(a) Financial accounting
(b) Management accounting
(c) Human resources accounting
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 2.
Financial position of a business is ascertained on the basis of ……………………….
(a) Journal
(b) Trial balance
(c) Balance sheet
(d) Ledger
Answer:
(c) Balance sheet

Question 3.
The profounder of double entry system of book – keeping?
(a) J.R. Batli boi
(b) Luca Pacioli
(c) Old Kesal
(d) Menhar
Answer:
(b) Luca Pacioli

Question 4.
The concept which assumes that a business will last indefinitely is ………………………..
(a) Business entity
(b) Going concern
(c) Periodicity
(d) Conservation
Answer:
(b) Going concern

Question 5.
A firm has assets of ₹1,00,000 and the external liabilities of ₹60,000. Its capital would be ………………………….
(a) ₹1,60,000
(b) ₹60,000
(c) ₹1,00,000
(d) ₹40,000
Answer:
(d) ₹40,000

Question 6.
The incorrect accounting equation is ………………………
(a) Assets = Liabilities + Capital
(b) Assets = Capital + Liabilities
(c) Liabilities = Assets + Capital
(d) Capital = Assets – Liabilities
Answer:
(c) Liabilities = Assets + Capital

Question 7.
J.F means ………………………….
(a) Ledger page number
(b) Journal page number
(c) Voucher number
(d) Order number
Answer:
(b) Journal page number

Question 8.
The process of finding the net amount from the totals of debit and credit columns in a ledger is known as ……………………….
(a) Casting
(b) Posting
(c) Journalising
(d) Balancing
Answer:
(d) Balancing

Question 9.
The trial balance contains the balances of ………………………..
(a) Only personal accounts
(b) Only real account
(c) Only nominal accounts
(d) All accounts
Answer:
(d) All accounts

Question 10.
Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of preparing trial balance?
(a) Serving as the summary of all the ledger accounts.
(b) Helping in the preparation of final accounts.
(c) Examining arithmetical accuracy of accounts.
(d) (a), (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) (a), (b) and (c)

Question 11.
Sales book is used to record ……………………..
(a) All sales of goods
(b) All credit sales of assets
(c) All credit sales of goods
(d) All sales of assets and goods
Answer:
(c) All credit sales of goods

Question 12.
The total of the sales book is posted periodically to the credit of ………………………
(a) Sales account
(b) Cash account
(c) Purchases account
(d) Journal proper
Answer:
(a) Sales account

Question 13.
When a firm maintains a simple cash book, it need not maintain ………………………..
(a) Sales a/c in the ledger
(b) Purchases a/c in the ledger
(c) Capital a/c in the ledger
(d) Cash a/c in the ledger
Answer:
(d) Cash a/c in the ledger

Question 14.
Debit balance in the bank column of the cash book means …………………………
(a) Credit balance as per bank statement
(b) Debit balance as per bank statement
(c) Overdraft as per cash book
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Credit balance as per bank statement

Question 15.
The difference in trial balance is taken to ……………………….
(a) The capital a/c
(b) The trading a/c
(c) The suspense a/c
(d) The Profit and loss a/c
Answer:
(c) The suspense a/c

Question 16.
Under the written down value method of depreciation, the amount of depreciation is …………………………
(a) Uniform in all the years
(b) Decreasing every year
(c) Increasing every year
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Decreasing every year

Question 17.
Interest on bank deposits is ………………………..
(a) Capital receipt
(b) Revenue receipt
(c) Capital expenditure
(d) Revenue expenditure
Answer:
(b) Revenue receipt

Question 18.
Net profit of the business increases the …………………………
(a) Drawings
(b) Receivables
(c) Debts
(d) Capital
Answer:
(d) Capital

Question 19.
Closing stock is valued at ………………………
(a) Cost price
(b) Market price
(c) Cost price or market price whichever is higher
(d) Cost price or net realisable value whichever is lower
Answer:
(d) Cost price or net realisable value whichever is lower

Question 20.
Which one is not a component of computer system?
(a) Input unit
(b) Output unit
(c) Data
(d) CPU
Answer:
(c) Data

PART – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 21 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Mention two objectives of Accounting?
Answer:

1. To keep a systematic record of financial transactions and events.
2. To ascertain the profit or loss of the business enterprise.

Question 22.
What is Compound entry?
Answer:
Compound entry is an entry in which more than two accounts are involved. Either more than one account is debited or more than one account is credited or both.

Question 23.
What is Balance method?
Answer:
In this method, the balance of every ledger account either debit or credit, as the case may be, is recorded in the trial balance against the respective accounts. The balance method is widely used, as it helps in the preparation of financial statements.

Question 24.
Who is drawee?
Answer:
The person who has to make the payment or who accepts to make the payment is called the drawee, i.e., a debtor.

Question 25.
What are the types of petty cash book?
Answer:

1. Simple petty cash book
2. Analytical petty cash book.

Question 26.
Write two examples for error of principle?
Answer:

1. Sale of old furniture on credit for ₹500 was entered in the sales book.
2. Wages of ₹600 paid for installation of a new machine is debited to wages account,

Question 27.
Write any two objectives of providing depreciation?
Answer:

1. To find out the true profit or loss.
2. To present the true and fair view of financial position.

Question 28.
Write any two examples of revenue receipt?
Answer:

1. Rent received
2. Proceeds from sale of goods.

Question 29.
What is outstanding expenses?
Answer:
Expenses which have been incurred in the accounting period but not paid till the end of the accounting period are called outstanding expenses.

Question 30.
Write any four features of computerised accounting system (CAS)?
Answer:

1. Simple and integrated
2. Speed
3. Accuracy
4. Reliability

PART – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 31 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Explain the meaning of accounting?
Answer:
Accounting is the systematic process of identifying, measuring, recording, classifying, summarising, interpreting and communicating financial information. Accounting gives information on;

1. The resources available
2. How the available resources have been employed, and
3. The results achieved by their use.

Question 32.
Show accounting equation from the following information:

1. Started business with cash ₹80,000.
2. Goods bought on credit from Raj ₹10,000.
3. Purchased furniture for cash ₹6,000.

Answer:

Question 33.
Enter the following transactions in a single column cash book of Pandeeswari for the month of June, 2017?

Answer:

Question 34.
Prepare a Sales Account from the following transactions?

Answer:

Question 35.
From the following balances of Arjun, prepare the Trial Balance as on 31^st March, 2018?
Answer:

Question 36.
From the following particulars of Siva and Company, prepare a bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st December, 2017?

1. Credit balance as per cash book ₹12,000.
2. A cheque of ₹1,200 issued and presented for payment to the bank, wrongly credited in the cash book as ₹2,100.
3. Debit side of bank statement was undercast by ₹100.

Answer:

Question 37.
The following errors was detected before preparation of trial balance. Rectify them?

1. The total of rent received account is carried forward ₹900 short.
2. The total of salary account is carried forward ₹1,100 short.
3. Sales returns book is over cast ₹800.

Answer:

1. Rent received account is to be credited with ₹900.
2. Salary account is to be debited with ₹1,100.
3. Sales returns account should be credited with ₹800.

Question 38.
Find out the rate of depreciation under straight line method from the following details: Original cost of the asset ₹10,000; Estimated life of the asset 10 years; Estimated scrap value at the end ₹2,000?
Answer:

Question 39.
State whether they are capital and revenue:

1. Construction of buildings ₹10,00,000.
2. Repairs to furniture ₹50,000.
3. White – washing the building ₹80,000.

Answer:

1. Capital expenditure
2. Revenue expenditure
3. Revenue expenditure

Question 40.
Pass adjusting entries for the following?

1. The Closing stock was valued at ₹5,000;
2. Outstanding salaries ₹150;
3. Insurance prepaid ₹450;

Answer:

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Bragathish is a trader dealing in electronic goods who commenced his business in 2015, for the following transactions took place in the month of March, 2018. Pass Journal entries?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) The following errors were located after the preparation of the trial balance. Assume that there exists a suspense account. Pass journal entries to rectify them?

1. The total of purchases book was undercast by ₹100.
2. The total of the discount column on the debit side of cash book ₹575 were not posted.
3. The total of one page of the sales book for ₹5,975 were carried forward to the next page as ₹5,795.
4. Salaries ₹1,800 were posted as ₹18,000.
5. Purchase of goods on credit from Mukilan for ₹150 have been posted to his account as ₹1,500.

Answer:

Question 42 (a).
Show the effect of following business transactions on the accounting equation:

1. Anbu started business with cash ₹20,000; goods ₹12,000 and machine ₹8,000.
2. Purchased goods from Ramani on credit ₹7,000.
3. Payment made to Ramani in full settlement ₹6,900.
4. Sold goods to Raj an on credit costing ₹5,400 for ₹6,000.
5. Received from Raj an ₹5,800 in full settlement of his account.

Answer:

(b) A furniture costing ₹5,000 was purchased on 01.01.2016, the installation charges being ₹1,000. The furniture is to be depreciated @ 10% p.a. on the diminishing balance method. Pass Journal entries for the first two years?
Answer:

Question 43 (a).
Journalise the following transactions and past them to the ledger?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Classify the following receipts into capital or revenue?

1. Sale proceeds of goods ₹75,000
2. Loan borrowed from hank ₹2,50,000
3. Sale of investment ₹1,20,000
4. Commission received ₹30,000
5. ₹1,400 wages paid in connection with the erection of new machinery

Answer:

1. Revenue
2. Capital
3. Capital
4. Revenue
5. Capital

Question 44 (a).
Prepare trail balance as on 31^st January, 2017?

Answer:

(b) From the following information, prepare Trading and Profit & Loss A/c of Abdul Rahuman for the year ending 31^st December, 2016 and Balance Sheet as on that date. The closing stock on 31^st December, 2016 was valued ₹2,000?

Answer:

Question 45 (a).
Prepare purchase book and Purchase returns book from the following of Robert Funiture Mart?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) The following trial balance was extracted from the books of Arun Traders as on 31^st March, 2018?

Adjustments:

1. Depreciate plant & machinery @ 20%.
2. Wages outstanding amounts to ₹750.
3. Half of repairs and maintenance paid is for the next year.
4. Closing stock was valued at ₹15,000.
   Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss A/c for the year ending 31^st March, 2018 and Balance sheet as on that date.

Answer:

Question 46 (a).
Prepare Three Column Cash book in the books of Thiru Durairaj?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Enter the following transactions in Ahamed’s Cash book discount and Cash columns?

Answer:

Question 47 (a).
From the following particulars of Raheem traders, prepare a bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st March, 2018?

1. Overdraft as per cash book ₹2,500.
2. Debit side of cash book was undercast by ₹700.
3. Amount received by bank through RTGS amounting ₹2,00,000 omitted in the cash book.
4. Two cheques issued for ₹1,800 and ₹2,000 on 29^th March 2018. Only the second cheque is presented for payment,
5. Insurance premium on car for ₹1,000 paid by the bank as per standing instructions not recorded in the cash book.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare an analytical petty cash book under imprest system?

Answer:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Two or more business units forming a single entity is known as ……………………….
(a) Joint
(b) Merger
(c) Link
(d) Compound
Answer:
(b) Merger

Question 2.
……………………… is irrecoverable debts.
(a) Debtors
(b) Creditors
(c) Bad debts
(d) Loan
Answer:
(c) Bad debts

Question 3.
The word convention refers ………………………
(a) Traditions
(b) Trade
(c) Business
(d) Accounting
Answer:
(a) Traditions

Question 4.
Outsider’s equity is otherwise called as ………………………
(a) Capital
(b) Liabilities
(c) Debtors
(d) Assets
Answer:
(b) Liabilities

Question 5.
Owner’s equity is otherwise called as ………………………..
(a) Capital
(b) Creditors
(c) Debtors
(d) Assets
Answer:
(a) Capital

Question 6.
Net position of an account can be ascertained from ……………………….
(a) Journal
(b) Ledger
(c) Trial balance
(d) Balance sheet
Answer:
(b) Ledger

Question 7.
Total of credit > total of debit = ……………………….
(a) Debit balance
(b) Credit balance
(c) Nil balance
(d) Trial balance
Answer:
(b) Credit balance

Question 8.
Which one of the following account would usually have a debit balance?
(a) Account payable
(b) Cash
(c) Owner equity
(d) Bank loan
Answer:
(b) Cash

Question 9.
Which of the following will be placed in the credit column of the trial balance?
(a) Purchases
(b) Accounts payable
(c) Salaries payable
(d) None
Answer:
(d) None

Question 10.
Suspense account in the trial balance is entered in the …………………….
(a) Trading A/c
(b) Profit & loss A/c
(c) Balance sheet
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Balance sheet

Question 11.
Goods are returned by customers are recorded in ……………………….
(a) Sales book
(b) Sales returns book
(c) Journal proper
(d) Purchase book
Answer:
(b) Sales returns book

Question 12.
If a cheque sent for collection is dishonoured, the debit is given to ……………………….
(a) Suppliers A/c
(b) Bank A/c
(c) Customers A/c
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Customers A/c

Question 13.
A bank pass book is a copy of ……………………….
(a) The cash column of a customer’s cash book
(b) The bank column of a customer’s cash book
(c) The customer’s account in the bank’s ledger
(d) None
Answer:
(c) The customer’s account in the bank’s ledger

Question 14.
Generally, one – sided errors are revealed by ………………………
(a) Credit balance
(b) Debit balance
(c) Trial balance
(d) Balance sheet
Answer:
(c) Trial balance

Question 15.
When a transaction is incorrectly recorded, it is known as ……………………….
(a) Error of principle
(b) Error of commission
(c) Error of omission
(d) Compensating error
Answer:
(b) Error of commission

Question 16.
Straight line method otherwise called ………………………..
(a) Original cost method
(b) Written down value method
(c) Annuity method
(d) Depletion method
Answer:
(a) Original cost method

Question 17.
Which one is matched correctly?
(a) Land purchased – capital expenditure
(b) Goods purchased – capital expenditure
(c) Issue of debentures – revenue receipts
(d) Rent received – Capital receipts
Answer:
(a) Land purchased – capital expenditure

Question 18.
Which one is not matched correctly?
(a) Trading account – wages
(b) Profit and loss account salaries
(c) Capital – asset
(d) Creditors liabilities
Answer:
(c) Capital – asset

Question 19.
Interest on capital is to be debited in ………………………
(a) Profit and loss A/c
(b) Capital A/c
(c) Balance sheet
(d) Trading A/c
Answer:
(a) Profit and loss A/c

Question 20.
There are three components namely input unit, CPU and ……………………….
(a) Data
(b) Secondary storage
(c) Output unit
(d) Primary storage
Answer:
(c) Output unit

PART – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory: [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
List any two functions of accounting?
Answer:

1. Measurement and
2. Forecasting

Question 22.
Define book – keeping?
Answer:
“Book-keeping is an art of recording business dealings in a set of books”. – J.R. Batli boi.

Question 23.
What is meant by journalising?
Answer:
Record of business transactions in the journal is known as Journal entry. The process of recording the transactions in journal is called as journalising.

Question 24.
Complete the accounting equation?

1. Assets = Capital + liabilities; ₹1,00,000 = ₹80,000 + ?
2. Assets = Capital + liabilities; ₹2,00,000 = ? + ₹40,000

Answer:
Assets = Capital + liabilities

1. ₹1,00,000 = ₹80,000 + ₹20,000
2. ₹2,00,000 = ₹1,60,000 + ₹40,000.

Question 25.
Prepare furniture account from the following transactions?

Answer:

Question 26.
What is trade discount?
Answer:
Trade discount is a deduction given by the supplier to the buyer on the list price or catalogue price of the goods.

Question 27.
What is meant by rectification of errors?
Answer:
Depending on the stage at which errors are located, they are subsequently rectified at the respective stage itself.

Question 28.
A firm purchased a plant for ₹40,000. Erection charges amounted to ₹2,000. Effective life of the plant is 5 years. Calculate the amount of depreciation per year under straight line method?
Answer:
Amount of depreciation =
= Cost of plant + erection charges
= ₹40,000 + 2,000
= ₹42,000
= \(\frac{42,000-0}{5 years}\)
= ₹8,400

Question 29.
What is Capital receipt?
Answer:
Receipt which is not revenue in nature is called capital receipt. It is non-recurring in nature.

Question 30.
What are wasting assets?
Answer:
These are the assets which get exhausted gradually in the process of excavation.
Example: mines and quarries.

PART – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What are the methods of codification?
Answer:

1. Sequential codes
2. Block codes
3. Mnemonic codes

Question 32.
The trial balance on March 31, 2016 shows the following:
Sundry debtors ₹30,000; Bad debts ₹1,200. It is found that 3% of sundry debtors is doubtful of recovery andis to be provided for Pass adjusting entry and show it how will be appeared in final accounts?
Answer:

Question 33.
Find out the amount of sales from the following information:
Opening stock ₹30,000; Purchases less returns ₹2,00,000; Closing stock ₹20,000; Gross profit margin (oh sales) 30%?
Answer:
Cost of goods sold = opening stock + net purchases – closing stock
= 30,000 + 2,00,000 – 20,000 = 2,10,000

Therefore, percentage of gross profit on cost of goods sold is 30/70 × 100 = 42.85%.
Gross profit = ₹2,10,000 × 30/70
= ₹90,000.
Sales = Cost of goods sold + Gross profit = 2,10,000 + 90,000 = 3,00,000.

Question 34.
A company has purchased a machinery for ₹1,80,000 and spent ₹10,000 for its installation. The estimated life of the machinery is 5 years with a residual value of ₹15,000. Find out the amount of depreciation to be provided every year?
Answer:
Amount of depreciation =  = \(\frac{1,90,00-15,000}{5}\)
= \(\frac{1,75,00}{5}\)
= ₹35,000 per year.

Question 35.
State the account/s affected in each of the following errors:

1. Goods sold to Vasu on credit for ₹1,000 was not recorded in the sales book.
2. The total of sales book ₹2,500 was posted twice.

Answer:

1. Sales account should be credited with ₹1,000.
2. Sales account should be debited with ₹2,500.

Question 36.
Classify the following into personal, real and nominal accounts,

1. Capital
2. Buildings
3. Carriage inwards
4. Cash
5. Commission received
6. Bank

Answer:

1. Capital – Personal account
2. Buildings – Real account
3. Carriage inwards – Nominal account
4. Cash – Real account
5. Commission received – Nominal account
6. Bank – Personal account

Question 37.
Prepare Machinery A/c from the following transactions:

Answer:

Question 38.
State which account should be debited and which account should be credited?

1. Carriage outwards
2. Carriage inwards
3. Sales
4. Purchases
5. Bad debts
6. Interest paid

Answer:

1. Carriage outwards – debited
2. Carriage inwards – debited
3. Sales – credited
4. Purchases – debited
5. Bad debts – debited
6. Interest paid – debited

Question 39.
Mention the subsidiary books in which the following transactions are recorded?

1. Sale of goods for cash
2. Sale of goods on credit
3. Asset purchased on credit

Answer:

1. Sale of goods for cash – cash book
2. Sale of goods on credit – sales book
3. Asset purchased on credit – j oumal proper

Question 40.
From the following particulars of Veera traders, prepare a bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st December, 2017?

1. Credit balance as per bank statement ₹6,000.
2. Amount received by,bank through NEFT for ₹3,500 entered twice in the cash book.
3. Cheque dishonoured amounting to ₹2,500, not entered in cash book.

Answer:

PART – IV

Answer all the questions: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Write any five objectives of Accounting?
Answer:

1. To keep a systematic record of financial transactions and events.
2. To ascertain the profit or loss of the business enterprise.
3. To ascertain the financial position or status of the enterprise.
4. To provide information to various stakeholders for their requirements.
5. To protect the properties of an enterprise.

[OR]
(b) What are the differences between Book-keeping and Accounting?
Answer:

Question 42 (a).
Journalise the following transactions in the books of Ramesh who is dealing in computers:

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Show the accounting equation on the basis of the following transactions for Rani, who is dealing in automobiles.

1. Started business with cash ₹80,000.
2. Goods bought on credit from Ramesh ₹10,000.
3. Purchased furniture for cash ₹6,000.
4. Paid creditors by cash ₹8,000.
5. Paid rent by cash ₹500.

Answer:

Question 43 (a).
Prepare direct ledgers from the following transactions?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare Trial Balance of Murali as on 31.03.2017 from the following information?

Answer:

Question 44 (a).
From the following transactions write up the Sales Day Book of Kamala Stores, a furniture shop?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Enter the following transactions in a simple cash book of Kunal:

Answer:

Question 45 (a).
From the following information, prepare Bank Reconciliation Statement to find out balance as per bank statement as on 31^st March, 2017?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Rectify the following errors:

1. Sales book is undercast by ₹100.
2. Sales book is overcast by ₹200.
3. Purchase book is undercast by ₹300.
4. Purchase book is overcast by ₹400.
5. Purchase return boojt is undercast by ₹100.

Answer:

1. Sales account should be credited with ₹100,
2. Sales account should be debited with ₹200.
3. Purchase account should be debited with ₹300.
4. Purchase account should be credited with ₹400.
5. Purchase return account should be credited with ₹100.

Question 46 (a).
A firm purchased a machine for ₹1,00,000 on 01.07.2015. Depreciation is written off at 20% on reducing balance method. The firm closes its books on 31st December each year. Show the Machinery account upto 31.12.2017?
Workings:

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss account for the year ended 31^st March, 2016 and the Balance Sheet as on that date from the following informations?

Adjustments:

1. Closing Stock on 31st March, 2016 ₹2,100.
2. Commission received in advance ₹400.
3. Advertisement paid in advance ₹150.
4. Wages outstanding ₹2,000.

Answer:

Question 47 (a).
Enter the following transactions in the three column cash book of Chozhan?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare Analytical Petty Cash Book from the following particulars under Imprest system?

Answer:

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• Chapter 3 Production Analysis
• Chapter 4 Cost and Revenue Analysis
• Chapter 5 Market Structure and Pricing
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• Chapter 7 Indian Economy
• Chapter 8 Indian Economy Before and After Independence
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• Chapter 10 Rural Economy
• Chapter 11 Tamil Nadu Economy
• Chapter 12 Mathematical Methods for Economics

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TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. 1. The question paper comprises of four parts. Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
   2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
   3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
   4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
   5. Question numbers 9 to 14 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
   6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
   7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio – Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
The term bacterium was coined by ………………………
(a) Stanley
(b) Ehrenberg
(c) Gram
(d) Koch
Answer:
(b) Ehrenberg

Question 2.
Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell?
(a) Cell wall
(b) Nuclear membrane
(c) Plasma membrane
(d) Glycocalyx
Answer:
(d) Glycocalyx

Question 3.
Number of floral parts per whorl is called ……………………
(a) Curosity
(b) Atrocity
(c) Merosity
(d) Porosity
Answer:
(c) Merosity

Question 4.
“The evolution and classification of flowering plants” – book was written by ………………..
(a) Engler & Prantl
(b) Bentham & Hooker
(c) Cronquist
(d) Theophrasthus
Answer:
(c) Cronquist

Question 5.
Lainpbrush chromosomes occur at ………………….. stage of meiotic Prophase I.
(a) Leptotene
(b) Diplotene
(c) Zygotene
(d) Pachytene
Answer:
(b) Diplotene

Question 6.
Who is called as father of plant physiology?
(a) J.C. Bose
(b) Stephen Hales
(c) Dixon
(d) Unger
Answer:
(b) Stephen Hales

Question 7.
Pitcher plant is the common name for ……………………..
(a) Drosera
(b) Nepenthes
(c) Utricularia
(d) Dionaea
Answer:
(b) Nepenthes

Question 8.
Chemiosmotic theory was proposed by ………………………
(a) Mitchell
(b) Hatch & Slack
(c) Calvin
(d) Priestley
Answer:
(a) Mitchell

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What is mycorrhiza?
Answer:
The symbiotic association between fungal mycelium and roots of plants is called as mycorrhiza.

Question 10.
Why do roots modify their structure? Name the types of root modification?
Answer:
Roots modify their structure to perform secondary functions. The two types of root modification are tap root modification and fibrous root modification.

Question 11.
Name any 4 sub classes of Liliopsida?
Answer:

1. Alismatidae
2. Arecidae
3. Commelinidae
4. Zingiberidae

Question 12.
How vacuoles helps to maintain the structure of a plant cell?
Answer:
The major function of plant vacuole is to maintain water pressure known as turgor pressure, which maintains the plant structure.

Question 13.
Compare Active transport with Passive transport?
Answer:

Question 14.
How will you define Quantasomes?
Answer:
Quantasomes are the morphological expression of physiological photosynthetic units, located on the inner membrane of thylakoid lamellae.

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Classify lichens based on morphology?
Answer:

1. Leprose – Absence of distinct fungal layer
2. Crustose – Crust – like
3. Foliose – Leaf – like
4. Fruticose – Branched pendulous shrub – like

Question 16.
“Roots perform photosynthesis”-Justify with example?
Answer:
Roots of some climbing or epiphytic plants develop chlorophyll and turn green which help in photosynthesis. These roots are called as photosynthetic roots, e.g,,Tinospora.

Question 17.
Differentiate Apocarpous and Syncarpous ovary?
Answer:

1. Apocarpous: A pistil contains two or more distinct carpels. Example: Annona
2. Syncarpous: A pistil contains two or more carpels which are connate. Example: Citrus and Tomato

Question 18.
Draw & label the ground plan of T.S. of Dicot root?
Answer:

Question 19.
What do you mean by Respiratory substrate? Give example?
Answer:
Respiration is a biological process in which oxidation of various food substances like carbohydrates, proteins and fats take place and as a result of this, energy is produced where O₂ is taken in and CO₂ is liberated. The organic substances which are oxidised during respiration are called respiratory substrates.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Define phyllotaxy. Explain its type?
Answer:
The mode of arrangement of leaves on the stem is known as phyllotaxy (Greek. Phyllon = leaf; taxis = arrangement). Phyllotaxy is to avoid over crowding of leaves and expose the leaves maximum to the sunlight for photosynthesis. The four main types of phyllotaxy are:

1. Alternate
2. Opposite
3. Temate and
4. Whorled.

1. Alternate phyllotaxy:
In this type there is only one leaf per node and the leaves on the successive nodes are arranged alternate to each other. Spiral arrangement of leaves show vertical rows are called orthostichies. They are two types:

• Alternate spiral: In which the leaves are arranged alternatively in a spiral manner. e.g., Hibiscus and Ficus.
• Alternate distichous or Bifarious: In which the leaves are organized alternatively in two rows on either side of the stem, e.g., Monoon longifolium (.Polyalthia longifolia).

2. Opposite phyllotaxy:
In this type each node possess two leaves opposite to each other. They are organized in two different types:

(I) Opposite superposed:
The pair of leaves arranged in succession are in the same direction, that is two opposite leaves at a node lie exactly above those at the lower node, e.g., Psidium (Guava), Eugenia jambolana (Jamun) and Quisqualis (Rangoon creeper).

(II) Opposite decussate:
In this type of phyllotaxy one pair of leaves is placed at right angles to the next upper or lower pair of leaves, e.g., Calotropis, Zinnia and Ocimum

3. Ternate phyllotaxy:
In this type there are three leaves attached at each node, e.g., Nerium.

4. Whorled (verticillate) type of phyllotaxy:
In this type more than three leaves are present in a whorl at each node forming a circle or whorl, e.g., Allamanda and Alstonia scholaris.

[OR]

Distinguish between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
Answer:

Question 21.
Explain the insectivorous mode of nutrition in angiosperms?
Answer:
Insectivorous mode of nutrition:
Plants which are growing in nitrogen deficient areas develop insectivorous habit to resolve nitrogen deficiency.

1. Nepenthes (Pitcher plant):
Pitcher is a modified leaf and contains digestive enzymes. Rim of the pitcher is provided with nectar glands and acts as an attractive lid. When insect is trapped, proteolytic enzymes will digest the insect.

2. Drosera (Sundew):
It consists of long club shaped tentacles which secrete sticky digestive fluid which looks like a sundew.

3. Utricularia (Bladder wort):
Submerged plant in which leaf is modified into a bladder to collect insect in water.

4. Dionaea (Venus fly trap):
Leaf of this plant modified into a colourful trap. Two folds of lamina consist of sensitive trigger hairs and when insects touch the hairs it will close.

[OR]

List out the physiological effects of Abscissic acid?
Answer:

1. It helps in reducing transpiration rate by closing stomata. It inhibits K⁺ uptake by guard cells and promotes the leakage of malic acid. It results in closure of stomata.
2. It spoils chlorophylls, proteins and nucleic acids of leaves making them yellow.
3. Inhibition of cell division and cell elongation.
4. ABA is a powerful growth inhibitor. It causes 50% inhibition of growth in Oat coleoptile.
5. It induces bud and seed dormancy.
6. It promotes the abscission of leaves, flowers and fruits by forming abscission layers.
7. ABA plays an important role in plants during water stress and during drought conditions. It results in loss of turgor and closure of stomata.
8. It has anti – auxin and anti – gibberellin property.
9. Abscisic acid promotes senescence in leaves by causing loss of chlorophyll pigment decreasing the rate of photosynthesis and changing the rate of proteins and nucleic acid synthesis.

Bio – Zoology [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Cladogram consists the following characters …………………….
(a) Physiological and Biochemical
(b) Evolutionary and Phylogenetic
(c) Taxonomic and systematic
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Evolutionary and Phylogenetic

Question 2.
The limbless amphibian is ………………………
(a) Hyla
(b) Rana
(c) Icthyophis
(d) Salamander
Answer:
(c) Icthyophis

Question 3.
ECG stands for …………………….
(a) Electro Cardiogram
(b) Electro Caplaris gram
(c) Electro Carrying gram
(d) Electro ensephalo gram
Answer:
(a) Electro Cardiogram

Question 4.
Match the List – I and List – II

(a) 1 – (i), 2 – (ii), 3 – (iii), 4 – (iv)
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)
(c) 1 – (ii), 2 – (iv), 3 – (i), 4 – (iii)
(d) 1 – (iv), 2 – (iii), 3 – (i), 4 – (ii)
Answer:
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)

Question 5.
Which of the following is correct statement?
(a) All the reptiles have a three chambered heart.
(b) All mammals are viviparous.
(c) All cyclostomes do not posses jaws and paired fin.
(d) All pisces have gills covered by a operculum.
Answer:
(c) All cyclostomes do not posses jaws and paired fin.

Question 6.
Which of the following is incorrect statement with regard to peripheral neural system ?
(a) Its pathways innervate skeletal muscles.
(b) Its pathways are usually voluntary.
(c) Its pathways always involve four neurons.
(d) Some of its pathways are referred to as reflex arcs.
Answer:
(c) Its pathways always involve four neurons.

Question 7.
Centers for sense of smell are located …………………..
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Midbrain
(c) Olfactory lobes
(d) Cerebrum
Answer:
(c) Olfactory lobes

Question 8.
Excess secretion of cortisol leads to ………………………
(a) Addison’s disease
(b) Grave’s disease
(c) Cushing’s syndrome
(d) Gull’s disease
Answer:
(c) Cushing’s syndrome

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Write about the classification of Lampito maurittii?
Answer:
Classification:

1. Phylum: Annelida
2. Class: Oligochaeta
3. Order: Haplotaxida
4. Genus: Lampito
5. Species: mauritii

Question 10.
Define indigestion?
Answer:
Indigestion is the digestive disorder in which the food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness of stomach.

Question 11.
Write about muscle fatigue?
Answer:
Muscle fatigue is the inability of a muscle to contract after repeated muscle contractions. This is due to lack of ATP ancl accumulation of lactic acid by anaerobic breakdown of glucose.

Question 12.
Difference between neutrophils and esinophils?
Answer:

Question 13.
Draw and label the parts of LS of kidney?
Answer:

Question 14.
What are the functions of glucagon?
Answer:
Glucagon is a polypeptide hormone. It is a potent hyperglycaemic hormone that acts on the liver and promotes the breakdown of glycogen to glucose (Glycogenolysis), synthesis of glucose from lactic acid and from non-carbohydrate molecules (gluconeogenesis).

Releases glucose from the liver cells, increasing the blood glucose levels. Since glucagon reduces the cellular uptake and utilisation of glucose it is called a hyperglycemic hormone. Prolonged hyperglycemia leads to the disorder called diabetes mellitus.

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Bioluminence is advantageous to ctenophores?
Answer:
Ctenophores are exclusively marine. They emit light. It helps the animals in finding food, mate and excape from the predators.

Question 16.
How do earthworms breathe?
Answer:
In earthworms, respiration takes place through the body wall by the moist skin diffusion, oxygen diffuses through the skin into the blood while carbon dioxide from the blood diffuse out.

Question 17.
What is Vermicompost?
Answer:
Vermicompost is the compost produced by the action of earthworms in association with all other organisms in the compost unit.

Question 18.
Differentiate between elastic fibres and elastic connective tissue?
Answer:

Question 19.
Draw the graph of a normal ECG?
Answer:

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Distinguish between chordates and non – chordates?
Answer:

[OR]

Write an essay on digestion of food and role of digestive enzymes?
Answer:
The process of digestion converts the solid food into absorbable and assimilable forms. This is accomplished by mechanical and chemical processes.

Digestion in the buccal cavity:
The smell, sight and taste as well as the mechanical stimulation of food in the mouth, triggers a reflex action which results in the secretion of saliva. The mecnanical digestion starts in the mouth by grinding and chewing of food.

It is called mastication. The saliva contain water, electrolytes (Na⁺, K⁺, Cl^– , HCO₂), salivary amylase (ptyalin), antibacterial agent lysozyme and a lubricating agent mucus (a glycoprotein).

The mucus in saliva prepares the food for swallowing by moistening, softening, lubricating and adhering the masticated food into a bolus. About 30 percent of polysaccharide, starch is hydrolyzed by the salivary amylase enzyme into disaccharides (maltose).

The bolus is then passed into the pharynx and then into the oesophagus by swallowing or deglutition. The bolus further passes down through the oesophagus to the stomach by successive Waves of muscular contraction called peristalsis. The gastro oesphageal sphincter controls the passage of food into the stomach.

Digestion in the stomach:
Food remains in the stomach for 4 to 5 hours, the rhythmic peristaltic movement churns and mixes the food with gastric juice and make it into a creamy liquid called chyme. The gastric secretion is partly controlled by autonomic reflexes. The secretion of gastric juice begins when the food is in the mouth.

The gastric juice contains HCl and proefizymes. The proenzyme pepsinogen, on exposure to HCl gets converted into the active enzyme pepsin which converts proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides). The HCl provides an acidic medium (pH 1.8) which is optimum for pepsin, kills bacteria and other harmful organisms and avoids putrifaction.

The mucus and bicarbonates present in the gastric juice play an important role in lubrication and protection of the mucosal epithelium from the eroding nature of the highly acidic HCl. Another proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of infants is rennin helps in the digestion of milk protein, caseinogen to casein in the presence of calcium ions.

This enzyme secretion gradually reduces with aging. Digestion in the small intestine: The bile, pancreatic juice and intestinal juice are the secretions released into the small intestine. Movements generated by the muscularis layer of the small intestine helps in the thorough mixing of the food with various secretions in the intestine and thereby facilitate digestion.

The pancreatic juice contains enzymes such as trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, carboxypeptidases, pancreatic amalyses, pancreatic lipases and nucleases. Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin, which in turn activates the enzyme chymotrypsinogen in the pancreatic juice.

The hile contains bile pigments (bilirubin and biliverdin) as the break down products of hemoglobin of dead RBCs, bile salts, cholesterol and phospholipids but has no enzymes. Bile helps in emulsification of fats. Bile salts reduce the surface tension of fat droplets and break them into small globules. Bile also activates lipases to digest lipids.

Proteins and partially digested proteins in the chyme on reaching the intestine are acted upon by the proteolytic enzymes of pancreatic juice. Trypsin hydrolyses proteins into polypeptides and peptones, while chymotrypsin hydrolyses peptide bonds associated with specific amino acids.

The pancreatic amylase converts glycogen and starch into maltose. Lipase acts on emulsified fat (triglycerides) and hydrolyses them into free fatty acid and monoglycerides. Monoglycerides are further hydrolysed to fatty acid and glycerol. Nucleases in the pancreatic juice break the nucleic acid into nucleotides and nucleosides.

The secretions of the Brunner’s gland along with the secretions of the intestinal glands constitute the intestinal juice or succus entericus. The enzymes in the intestinal juice such as maltase, lactase, sucrase (invertase), dipeptidases, lipases, nucleosidases act on the breakdown products of bile and pancreatic digestion.

The mucus along with the bicarbonate ions from the pancreas provides an alkaline medium (pH 7.8) for the enzymatic action. As a result of digestion, all macromolecules of food are converted into their corresponding monomeric units.

• Carbohydrates → monosaccharides
  (glucose, fructose, galactose)
• Proteins → amino acids
• Lipids → fatty acids and glycerol

The simple substances thus formed are absorbed in the jejunum and ileum region of the small intestine. The undigested and unabsorbed substances are propelled into the large intestine.

The activities of the gastro – intestinal tract are carried out by the neural and hormonal control for proper coordination of different parts. Gastric and intestinal secretions are stimulated by neural signals. Hormonal control of the secretion of digestive juices is carried out by local hormones produced by the gastric and intestinal mucosa.

Question 21.
Explain the types of movement?
Answer:
The different types of movements that occur in the cells of our body are amoeboid, ciliary, flagellar and muscular movement.

Amoeboid movement:
Cells such as macrophages exhibit amoeboid movement for engulfing pathogens by pseudopodia formed by the streaming movement of the cytoplasm. Ciliary movement – This type of movement occurs in the respiratory passages and genital tracts which are lined by ciliated epithelial cells.

Flagellar movement:
This type of movement occurs in the cells which are having flagella or whip – like motile organelle. The sperm cells show flagellar movement.

Muscular movement:
The movement of hands, legs, jaws, tongue are caused by the contraction and relaxation of the muscle which is termed as the muscular movement.

[OR]

What are the major hypothalamic hormones and also explain their functions?
Answer:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
In the first five year plan, the top priority was given to ………………. sector?
(a) Service
(b) Industrial
(c) Agriculture
(d) Bank
Answer:
(b) Industrial

Question 2.
Which union Territory has the highest sex ratio?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Pondicherry
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) Andaman & Nicobar
Answer:
(b) Pondicherry

Question 3.
Data processing is done by ………………..
(a) PC alone
(b) Calculator alone
(c) Both PC and Calculator
(d) Pen drive
Answer:
(c) Both PC and Calculator

Question 4.
In India’s total cement production, Tamil Nadu ranks …………………
(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) First
(d) Second
Answer:
(a) Third

Question 5.
Wage is an example for …………. cost of the production.
(a) Fixed
(b) Variable
(c) Marginal
(d) Opportunity
Answer:
(b) Variable

Question 6.
Innovation Theory of profit was given by ………………
(a) Hawley
(b) Schumpeter
(c) Keynes
(d) Knight
Answer:
(b) Schumpeter

Question 7.
Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Gateway of Tamil Nadu – Thoothukudi
(b) Home textile city – Erode
(c) Steel city – Salem
(d) Pump city – Coimbatore
Answer:
(b) Home textile city – Erode

Question 8.
VKRV Rao was a student of ……………
(a) JM Keynes
(b) Colin Clark
(c) Adam Smith
(d) Alfred Marshal
Answer:
(a) JM Keynes

Question 9.
Group equilibrium is analysed in ………………….
(a) Monopolistic competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Duopoly
(d) Pure competition
Answer:
(a) Monopolistic competition

Question 10.
………………… have exchange value and their ownership rights can be established and exchanged.
(a) Goods
(b) Services
(c) Markets
(d) Revenue
Answer:
(a) Goods

Question 11.
Which feature is identified with mral areas?
(a) Low population density
(b) High population density
(c) Low natural resources
(d) Low human resources
Answer:
(a) Low population density

Question 12.
The number of births per thousand population is called as ………….
(a) Crude death rate
(b) Mortality rate
(c) Morbidity rate
(d) Crude Birth Rate
Answer:
(d) Crude Birth Rate

Question 13.
“Wages as a sum of money are paid under contract by an employer to a worker for services rendered.” Who said this?
(a) Benham
(b) Marshall
(c) Walker
(d) J. S. Mill
Answer:
(a) Benham

Question 14.
Identify the formula of estimating average variable cost ……………
(a) TC/Q
(b) TVC/Q
(c) TFC/Q
(d) TAC/Q
Answer:
(b) TVC/Q

Question 15.
Data processing is done by …………..
(a) Pc alone
(b) Calculator alone
(c) Both pc and calculator
(d) Penen drive
Answer:
(c) Both pc and calculator

Question 16.
HDI was constructed based on …………..
(a) Life expectancy index
(b) Education index
(c) GDP per capita
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 17.
The command Ctrl + M is applied for ……………….
(a) Saving
(b) Copying
(c) Getting new slide
(d) Deleting a slide
Answer:
(c) Getting new slide

Question 18.
Ryotwari System was initially introduced in ……………….
(a) Kerala
(b) Bengal
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Maharashtra
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 19.
Loanable funds theory of interest is called ………….
(a) Classical theory
(b) Modern theory
(c) Traditional theory
(d) Neo – classical theory
Answer:
(d) Neo – classical theory

Question 20.
The main theme of the Twelth Five year plan ………………..
(a) Faster and more inclusive, growth
(b) Growth with social justice
(c) Socialistic pattern of society
(d) Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth
Answer:
(d) Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Define disinvestment?
Answer:
Disinvestment means selling of government securities of Public Sector Undertakings [PSUs] to other PSUs or Private Sectors or banks. This process has not been fully implemented.

Question 22.
Give the definition for “Real cost”?
Answer:
Real Cost refers to the payment made to compensate the efforts and sacrifices of all factor owners for their services in production. Real Cost includes the efforts and sacrifices of landlords in the use of land, capitalists to save and invest, and workers in foregoing leisure. Real cost are considered pains and sacrifices of labour as real cost of production.

Question 23.
Define Labour?
Answer:

1. Labour is the active factor of production.
2. In common parlance, labour means manual labour or unskilled work. But in Economics the term ‘labour’ has a wider meaning.
3. It refers to any work undertaken for securing an income or reward. Such work may be manual or intellectual. For example, the work done by an agricultural worker or a cook dr rickshaw puller or a mason is manual.
4. The work of a doctor or teacher or an engineer is intellectual.
5. In short, labour in economics refers to any type of work performed by a labourer for earning an income.

Question 24.
What is the difference between HDI and PQLI?
Answer:

Question 25.
Classify the factors of production?
Answer:

1. Land
2. Labour
3. Capital and
4. Organisation

1. Land:
In Economics, land means all gifts of Nature owned and controlled by human beings which yield an income.

2. Labour:
Labour means manual labour or unskilled work.

3. Capital:
“Capital consists of all kinds of wealth other than free gifts of nature, which yield income”. Bohm – Bawerk defines it as ‘a produced means of production’.

4. Organisation:
The man behind organizing the business is called as ‘Organizer’ or ‘Entrepreneur’.

Question 26.
State the meaning of Indifference curves?
Answer:

1. The Consumer is rational and his aim is to derive maximum satisfaction.
2. Utility cannot be cardinally measured, but can be ranked or compared or ordered by ordinal number. Such as I, II, III and so on.
3. Indifference curve approach is based on the concept “Diminishing Marginal Rate of Substitution”.
4. The consumer is consistent this assumption is called as the assumption of transitivity.

Question 27.
Define micro economics?
Answer:

1. Micro economics is the study of the economic actions of individual units say households, firms or industries.
2. It studies how business firms operate under different market conditions.
3. The combined actions of buyers and sellers determine prices.
4. Micro economics covers:
   • Value theory [product pricing and factor pricing]
   • Theory of economic welfare.

Question 28.
Define Rent?
Answer:
Rent is the price or reward given for the use of land or house or a machine to the owner. But, in Economics, “Rent” or “Economic Rent” refers to that part of payment made by a tenant to his land lords for the use of land only.

Question 29.
What are the characteristics of land?
Answer:

1. Land is a primary factor of production
2. Land is a passive factor of production
3. Land is the free gift of nature
4. Land has no cost of production
5. Land is fixed in supply. It is inelastic in supply
6. Land is permanent
7. Land is immovable
8. Land is heterogeneous as it differs in fertility
9. Land has alternative uses
10. Land is subject to Law of Diminishing Returns.

Question 30.
Give the meaning of deductive method?
Answer:

1. Deductive method is also named as analytical or abstract method.
2. It consists in deriving conclusions from general truths.
3. It takes few general principles and applies them to draw conclusions.
4. The classical and neo – classical school of economists notably, Ricardo, JS Mill, Malthus Marshall, Pigou applied the deductive method in their economic investigations

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What are the features of a market?
Answer:
A market has the following characteristic features:

1. Buyers and sellers of a commodity or a service.
2. A commodity to be bought and sold.
3. Price agreeable to buyer and seller.
4. Direct or indirect exchange.

Question 32.
Write a note on Mineral resources in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Mineral Resources in Tamil Nadu:

1. Tamil Nadu has a few mining projects based on Titanium, Lignite, Magnesite, Graphite, Limestone, Granite and Bauxite.
2. The first one is the Neyveli Lignite Corporation that has led development of large industrial complex around Neyveli in Cuddalore district with Thermal Power Plants, Fertilizer and Carbonisation plants.
3. Magnesite mining is at Salem from which mining of Bauxite ores are carried out at Yercaud, and this region is also rich in iron ore at Kanjamalai.
4. Molybdenum is found in Dharmapuri, and is the only source in the country.

Question 33.
State the features of duopoly?
Answer:

1. Each seller is fully aware of his rival’s motive and actions.
2. Both sellers may collude, (they agree on all matters regarding the sale of the commodity).
3. They may enter into cut – throat competition.
4. There is no perfect differentiation.
5. They fix the price for their product with a view to maximising their profit.

Question 34.
Mention the relationship between marginal utility and total utility?
Answer:

Question 35.
Explain different types of economic activities?
Answer:
The seven types of economic activities are:

1. Micro Economics:
Micro Economics is the study of the economic actions of individuals . say households, firms or industries.

Micro economics covers:

1. Value theory [product pricing and factor pricing]
2. Theory of economic welfare.

2. Macro – Economics:

1. Macro economics is the obverse of micro economics.
2. The general theory of employment, Interest and money published by Keynes is the basis of modem macro economics.

3. International Economics:

1. In the modem world, no country can grow in isolation.
2. Every country is having links with the other countries through foreign capital, investment [foreign direct investment] and international trade.

4. Public Economics:

1. Public finance is concerned with the income or revenue raising and expenditure incurring activities.
2. The scope of public finance covers public expenditure, public revenue, public debt and financial administration.

5. Developmental Economics:
The development economics deals with features of developed nations, obstacles for development, economic and non- economic factors influencing development, various growth models and strategies.

6. Health Economics:

1. Health economics is an area of applied economics.
2. It covers health indicators , preventive and curative measures, medical research and education, rural health mission, drug price control, neo -natal care, maternity and child health, budgetary allocation for health.

7. Environmental Economics:

1. Depletion of natural resources stock and pollution result from rapid economic development.
2. Environmental economics is a study of inter disciplinary tools for the problems of ecology, economy and environment.

Question 36.
Discuss the long run cost curves with suitable diagram?
Answer:
1. In the long run all factors of production become variable. The existing size of the firm can be increased in the case of long run. There are neither fixed inputs nor fixed costs in the long run.

2. LAC is given in diagram.

3. Long run average cost (LAC) is equal to long run total costs divided by the level of output.
LAC = LTC/Q

4. where, LAC denotes Long – Run Average Cost, LTC denotes Long – run Total Cost and Q denotes the quantity of output. The LAC curve is derived from short – run average cost curves. It is the locus of points denoting the least cost curve of producing the corresponding output. The LAC curve is called as ‘Plant Curve’ or ‘Boat shape Curve’ or ‘Planning Curve’ or ‘Envelop Curve’.

Question 37.
Elucidate different features of services?
Answer:
Along with goods, services, are produced and consumed. They are generally, possess the following:

(I) Intangible:

1. Intangible things are not physical obj ects but exist in connection to other things for example, brand image, good will etc.
2. The intangible things are converted and stored into tangible items such as recording a music piece into a pen – drive.

(II) Heterogeneous:

1. Services vary across regions or cultural backgrounds.
2. A single type service yields multiple experiences, e.g., music, consulting physicians etc.

(III) Inseparable from their makers:
Services are inextricably connected to their makes. For example, labour and labourers are inseparable.

(IV) Perishable:

1. Services cannot be stored as inventories like assets.
2. For example it is useless to possess a ticket for a cricket match once the match is over.
3. It cannot be stored and it has no value in exchange.

Question 38.
State the Dynamic Theory of Profit?
Answer:
Dynamic Theory of Profit:

1. This theory was propounded by the American economist J.B.Clark in 1900.
2. Profit is the reward for dynamic changes in society.
3. Static society is one where everything is stationary or stagnant and there is no change at all.
4. There is no role for an entrepreneur in a static society.
5. According to Clark, the following five main changes are taking place in a dynamic society.
   • Population is increasing
   •  Volume of Capital is increasing
   • Methods of production are improving
   • Forms of industrial organization are changing
   • The wants of consumer are multiplying

Question 39.
State the reasons for nationalization of commercial banks?
Answer:

1. After Independence, the Government of India adopted planned economic development.
2. Five year plans came into existence since 1951.
3. The main objective of the economic planning aimed at social welfare.
4. Before Independence commercial banks were in the private sector.
5. These commercial banks failed in helping the Government to achieve social objectives of planning.
6. Therefore, the government decided to nationalize 14 major commercial banks on 19 July 1969.
7. In 1980, again the government took over another 6 commercial banks.

Question 40.
Write a short note on Welfare Economics given by Amartya Sen?
Answer:

1. Amartya Kumar Sen. has included the concept of entitlement items like nutrition, food, medical and health care, employment, security of food supply in times of famine etc.
2. He considered famine as arising out of the failure of establishing a system of entitlements.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Briefly explain the subsistence theory of wages?
Answer:
The subsistence theory of wages:

1. Subsistence theory of wages is one of the oldest theories of wages.
2. According to this theory, wage must be equal to the subsistence level of the labourer and his family.
3. Subsistence means the minimum amount of food, clothing and shelter which workers and their family require for existence.
4. If workers are paid higher wages than the subsistence level, the workers would be better off and they will have large families.
5. Hence, the population would increase.
6. When the population increases, the supply of labourer would increase and therefore, wages will come down.
7. If wages are lower than the subsistence level, there would be a reduction in population and thereby the supply of labour falls and wages increase to the subsistence level.

[OR]

(b) Elucidate the loanable funds theory of Interest?
Answer:

1. The Loanable Funds Theory, also known as the “Neo – Classical Theory,” was developed by Swedish economists like Wicksell, Bertil, Ohlin,.Viner, Gunnar Myrdal and others.
2. According to this theory, interest is the price paid for the use of loanable funds.
3. The rate of interest is determined by the equilibrium between demand for and supply of loanable funds in the credit market.

Demand for loanable funds:
The demand for loanable funds depends upon the following:

(I) Demand for Investment [I]

1. The most important factor responsible for the loanable funds is the demand for investment.
2. Bulk of the demand for loanable funds comes from business firms which borrow money for purchasing capital goods.

(II) Demand for consumption [C]
The demand for loanable funds comes from individuals who borrow money for consumption purposes also.

(III) Demand for Hoarding [H]

1. The next demand for loanable funds comes from hoarders. Demand for hoarding money arises because of people’s preference for liquidity, idle cash balances and so on.
2. The demand for C, I and H varies inversely with interest rate.

Supply of Loanable funds:
The supply of loanable funds depends upon the following four sources:

1. Savings [S]:
Loanable funds comes from savings. According to this theory, savings may be of two types, namely,

1. Savings planned by individuals are called “ex – ante – savings
2. The unplanned savings are called ‘ex-post savings”.

2. Bank Credit [BC]:
The bank credit is another source of loanable funds. Commercial banks create credit and supply loanable funds to the investors.

3. Dishoarding [DH]:
Dishoarding means bringing out the hoarded money into use and thus it constitutes a source of supply of loanable funds.

4. Disinvestment [DI]:
Disinvestment is the opposite of investment. Disinvestment means not providing sufficient funds for depreciation of equipment.

It gives rise to the supply of loanable funds. All the four sources of supply of loanable funds vary directly with the interest rate.

Question 42 (a).
Illustrate the uncertainty Bearing Theory of profit?
Answer:
Uncertainty theory was propounded by the American economist Frank H.Knight. Profit is the reward for “ uncertainty bearing”. He distinguishes between “ Insurable” and “non – insurable” risks.

Insurable Risks:

1. Certain risks are measurable or calculable.
2. Some of the examples of these risks are the risk of fire, theft and natural disasters.
3. Such risks are compensated by the Insurance companies.

Non – Insurable Risks:

1. There are some risks which are immeasurable or incalculable.
2. The examples of these risks are competition, market condition, technology change and public policy.
3. No Insurance Company can undertake these risks.
4. The term “risks” covers the first type of events (measurable – insurable)
5. The term “uncertainty” covers the second type of events (unforeseeable or incalculable or not measurable or non-insurable).
6. According to Knight, profit does not arise.
7. On account of risk-taking, because the entrepreneur can guard himself against a risk by taking a suitable insurance policy.
8. Uncertain events cannot be guarded against in that way.
9. An entrepreneur takes himself the burden of facing an uncertain event, he secures remuneration.
10. That remuneration is “profit”.

[OR]

(b) Write a brief note on the Gandhian economic ideas?
Answer:
Gandhian Economics is based on ethical foundations. Gandhi wrote “ Economics that hurts the moral well-being of an individual or a nation is immoral, and therefore , Sinful”. Gandhi repeated the same belief “ that economy is untrue which ignores or disregards moral values”.

Salient features of Gandhian Economic Thought:

(I) Village Republics:

1. India lives in villages.
2. He was interested in developing the villages as self – sufficient units.
3. He opposed extensive use of machinery, urbanization and industrialization.

(II) On Machinery:

1. Gandhi described machinery as ‘Great sin’. He said that “Books could be written to demonstrate its evils”.
2. It is necessary to realize that machinery is bad.
3. Instead of welcoming machinery as a boon, we should look upon it as an evil.
4. It would ultimately cease.

(III) Industrialism:

1. Gandhi considered industrialism as a curse on mankind.
2. He thought industrialism depended entirely on a country’s capacity to exploit.

(IV) Decentralization:
Gandhi advocated a decentralized economy i.e., production at a large number of places on a small scale or production in the people’s homes.

(V) Village Sarvodaya:

1. According to Gandhi, “Real India was to be found in villages and not in towns or cities”.
2. He suggested, self – dependent villages.

(VI) Bread Labour:

1. Gandhi realized the dignity of human labour.
2. He believed that God created man to eat his bread by the sweat of his brow.
3. Bread labour or body labour was the expression that Gandhi used to mean manual labour.

(VII) The Doctrine of Trusteeship:
Trusteeship provides a means of transforming the present capitalist order of society into an egalitarian one.

(VIII) On the Food Problem:

1. Gandhi was against any sort of food controls.
2. Once India was begging for food grain, but now India tops the world with very large production of food grains, fruits, vegetables, milk, egg, meat etc.

(IX) On Population:

1. Gandhi opposed the method of population control through contraceptives.
2. He was, however, in favour of birth control through Brahmacharya or self – control.
3. He considered self – control as a sovereign remedy to the problem of over population,

(X) On Prohibition:

1. Gandhi regarded the use of liquor as a disease rather than a vice.
2. He felt that it was better for India to be poor than to have thousands of drunkards.
3. Many states depend on revenue from liquor sales.

Question 43 (a).
Explain the various sources of energy in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu tops in power generation among the Southern States as seen in the table.

Tamil Nadu 26,865 MW in 1^st Rank in the energy level. Tamil Nadu is in the forefront of all other Indian States in installed capacity. Muppandal wind farm is a renewable energy source, supplying the villagers with electricity for work.

Wind farms were built in Nagercoil and Tuticorin apart from already existing ones around Coimbatore, Pollachi, Dharapuram and Udumalaipettai. These areas generate about half of India’s 2,000 megawatts of wind energy or two percent of the total power output of India.

Nuclear Energy:
The Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant and the Koodankulam Nuclear Power Plant are the major nuclear energy plants for the energy grid.

Thermal power:

1. In Tamil Nadu the share of thermal power in total energy sources is very high and the thermal power plants are at Athippattu (North Chennai) Ennore, Mettur, Neyveli and Thoothukudi.
2. The generation of power under various sources is given below.

Hydel Energy:

1. There are about 20 hydro – electric units in Tamil Nadu.
2. The prominent units are Hundah, Mettur, Periyar, Maravakaiidy, Parson Valley etc.

Solar Energy:

1. Tamil Nadu tops in solar power generation in India as’seen in following table
2. Southern Tamil Nadu is considered as one of the most suitable regions in the country for developing solar power projects.

Wind Energy:

1. Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India.
2. The State has very high quality of offshore wind energy potential off the Tirunelveli coast and southern Thoothukudi and Rameswaram coast.

[OR]

(b) A firm has the revenue function. R = 600 q – 0.03 q² and the cost function is C = 150 q + 60,000, where q is the number of units produced, find AR, AC, MR and MC?
Answer:
(I) Average Revenue = \(\frac{R}{q}\)
\(\frac { 600q-0.03{ q }^{ 2 } }{ q } \) = \(\frac{600q}{q}\) – \(\frac { 0.03{ q }^{ 2 } }{ q } \)
AR = 600 – 0.03q

(II) Average cost = \(\frac{C}{q}\)
= \(\frac{150q+60000}{q}\)
= \(\frac{150q}{q}\) + \(\frac{60000}{q}\)
AC = 150 + \(\frac{60000}{q}\)

(III) Marginal Revenue = \(\frac{dR}{dq}\)
R = 600q – 0.03q²
\(\frac{dR}{dq}\) = 600 – (0.03)(2q)
MR = 600 – 0.06q

(IV) Marginal Cost = \(\frac{dC}{dq}\)
C = 150q + 60000
MC = 150

Question 44 (a).
Explain the causes for Rural Backwardness?
Answer:

1. The evils of brain – drain and rural – urban migration can be reduced if rural areas are developed.
2. In order to better utilise the unused and under – utilised resources there is a need to develop the rural economy.
3. Rural Development should minimise the gap between rural and. urban areas in terms of the provision of infrastructural facilities. It was called as PURA by former President Abdul Kalam.
4. In order to improve the nation’s status in the global arena in terms of the economic indicators like,
   • Human Development Index [HDI]
   • Woman Empowerment Index [WEI]
   • Gender Disparity Index [GDI]
   • Physical Quality of Life Index [PQLI] and
   • Gross National Happiness Index [GNHI] should be given due attention.

[OR]

(b) The features of Rural Economy are peculiar. Argue?
Answer:
Features of Rural Economy:

(I) Village is an Institution:
The village is a Primary Institution and it satisfies almost all the needs of the rural community. The rural people have a feeling of belongingness and a sense of unity towards each other.

(II) Dependence on Agriculture:
The rural economy depends much on nature and agricultural activities. Agriculture and allied activities are the main occupation in rural areas.

(III) Life of Rural people:
Lifestyles in villages are very simple. Public services like education, housing, health and sanitation, transport and communication, banking, roads and markets are limited and unavailable. The standards of living of majority of rural people are poor and pitiable. In terms of methods of production, social organization and political mobilization, rural sector is extremely backward and weak.

(IV) Population Density:
Population density, measured by number of persons living per sq.km is very low and houses are scattered in the entire villages.

(V) Employment:
There exists unemployment, seasonal unemployment and under employment in rural areas.

(VI) Poverty:
Poverty is a condition where the basic needs of the people like food, clothing and shelter are not being met.

(VII) Indebtedness:
People in rural areas are highly indebted owing to poverty and underemployment, lack of farm and non – farm employment opportunities, low wage employment, seasonality in production, poor marketing network etc.

(VIII) Rural Income:
The Income of the rural people is constrained as the rural economy is not sufficiently vibrant to provide them.

(IX) Dependency:
Rural households are largely dependent on social grants and remittances from family members working in urban areas and cities.

(X) Dualism:
Dualism means the co – existence of two extremely different features like developed and under developed. These characteristics are very common in rural areas.

(XI) Inequality:
The distributions of income, wealth and assets are highly skewed among rural people. Land, livestock and other assets are owned by a few people.

(XII) Migration:
Rural people are forced to migrate from villages to urban areas in order to seek gainful employment for their livelihood.

Question 45 (a).
Compare productivity of any two food crops between Tamil Nadu and India?
Answer:
Productivity position of Tamil Nadu and India

1. The Government of Tamil Nadu lays emphasis on agricultural production and productivity.
2. Tamil Nadu tops in productivity, in food crops as well as non-food crops among the states in India.

Productivity position of Tamil Nadu in India

1. Tamil Nadu ranks first in maize, cumbu, groundnut, oil seeds and cotton.
2. Tamil Nadu ranks second in rice and coconut.
3. Tamil Nadu ranks third in sugarcane, sunflower and Jowar.

[OR]

(b) Describe the “MSMES”?
Answer:

• The Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises are defined under the MSMED Act 2006.
• The enterprises are classified as Manufacturing and Service enterprises based on the investment in plant and machinery and equipment (excluding land and building).
• Tamil Nadu accounts of 15.07% Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in the country (the highest among all States) with 6.89 lakhs registered MSMEs.
• Producing over 8000 varieties of product for a total investment of more than ₹32,008 crore.
• MSMEs produce a wide variety of products in almost all sectors.
• The prominent among them are the engineering, electrical, chemicals, plastics, steel paper, matches, textiles, hosiery and garments sector.
• Around 15.61 lakh entrepreneurs have registered, providing employment opportunities to about 99.7 lakhs persons with total investment of Rs. 1,68,331 crore.

Question 46 (a).
Write a short note on Marginal Revenue?
Answer:

1. Marginal Revenue [MR] is the addition to the total revenue by the sale of an additional unit of a commodity.
2. MR can be found out by dividing change in total revenue by the change in quantity sold out.
3. MR = ∆TR/AQ where MR denotes Marginal Revenue, ∆TR denotes change in Total Revenue and ∆Q denotes change in total quantity.
4. The other method of estimating MR is:

MR = TR_n – TR_n – 1 (or) TR_n+1 – TR_n
Where, MR denotes Marginal Revenue,
TR denotes total revenue of n^th item,
TR_n-1 denotes Total Revenue of n – 1^th item and
TR_n+1 denotes Total Revenue of n + 1^th item.
If TR = PQ , MR = dTR/dQ = P, which is equal to AR.

[OR]

(b) Describe the degrees of price discrimination?
Answer:
Degrees of Price Discrimination:
Price discrimination has become widespread in almost all monopoly markets. According to A.C.Pigou, there are three degrees of price discrimination.

(I) First degree price discrimination:
A monopolist charges the maximum price that a buyer is willing to pay. This is called as perfect price discrimination. This price wipes out the entire consumer’s surplus. This is maximum exploitation of consumers. Joan Robinson named it as “Perfect Discriminating Monopoly”.

(II) Second degree price discrimination:
Under this degree, buyers are charged prices in such a way that a part of their consumer’s surplus is taken away by the sellers. This is called as imperfect price discrimination. Joan Robinson named it as “Imperfect Discriminating Monopoly”.

Under this degree, buyers are divided into different groups and a different price is charged for each group. For example, in cinema theatres, prices are charged for same film show from viewers of different classes. In a theatre the difference between the first row of first class and the last row in the second class is smaller as compared to the differences in charges..

(III) Third degree price discrimination:
The monopolist splits the entire market into a few sub – market and charges different price in each sub – market. The groups are divided on the basis of age, sex and location. For example, railways charge lower fares from senior citizens. Students get discounts in museums, and exhibitions.

Question 47 (a).
Elaborate the nature and scope of Economics?
Answer:
Economics nature:

1. The nature of a subject refers to its contents and how and why they find a place in the subject.
2. This nature is understood by studying the various definitions given by the notable economists.
3. The existence of multiplicity of the definitions makes some scholars comment that a search for a clear definition of economics is an exercise in futility.
4. “Political economy is said to have strangled itself with definitions.”
5. Their presence makes studying a subject interesting, exciting, enjoyable or worthwhile.
6. In fact their presence in a social science subject is a clear sign of the growth of the science.
7. It indicates that there exists freedom for people associated with such as science to formulate fresh definitions.

Scope of economics:

1. The scope of the subject of economics refers to on the subject matter of economics.
2. It throws light on whether it is an art or science and if science, whether it is a positive science or a normative science.

Economics subject matter:

1. Economics focuses on the behaviour and interactions among economic agents, individuals and group belonging to an economic system.
2. Economics studies the ways in which people use the available resources to satisfy their multiplicity of wants.
3. The activities of rational or normal human beings are the subject-matter of economics.

[OR]

(b) Explain the Internal and external economics of scale?
Answer:
Internal Economics of Scale:

1. Internal Economies of scale refers to the advantages enjoyed by the production unit which causes a reduction in the cost of production of the commodity.
2. For example, a firm enjoying the advantage of an application of most modem machinery, generation of internal capital, an improvement in managerial skill etc. are sure to reduce the cost of production. They are of various types:

(a) Technical Economies:

1. When the size of the firm is large, large amount of capital can be used.
2. There is a possibility to introduce up – to – date technologies this improves productivity of the firm.
3. Research and development strategies can be applied easily.

(b) Financial Economies:
Big firms can float shares in the market for capital expansion, while small firms cannot easily float shares in the market.

(c) Managerial Economies:
Large scale production facilitates specialization and delegation.

(d) Labour Economies:

1. Large scale production implies greater and minute division of labour.
2. This leads to specialization which enhances the quality.
3. This increases the productivity of the firm.

(e) Marketing Economies:

1. In the context of large scale production, the producers can both buy raw-materials in bulk at cheaper cost and can take the products to distant markets.
2. They enjoy a huge bargaining power.

(f) Economies of survival:

1. Product diversification is possible when there is large scale production.
2. This reduces the risk in production.
3. Even if the market for one product collapses, market for other commodities offsets it.

External Economies of Scale:

1. External Economies of Scale refer to changes in any factor outside the firm causing an improvement in the production process.
2. This can take place in the case of industry also.
3. These are the advantages enjoyed by all the firms in industry due to the structural growth.
4. Important external economies of scale are listed below :
   • Increased transport facilities
   • Banking facilities
   • Development of townships
   • Development of information and communication.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. 1. The question paper comprises of four parts. Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
   2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
   3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
   4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
   5. Question numbers 9 to 14 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
   6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
   7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio – Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – 1

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Syphilis is caused by …………………..
(a) Mycococcus candisans
(b) Treponema pallidum
(c) Yersinia pestis
(d) Mycobacterium leprae
Answer:
(b) Treponema pallidum

Question 2.
Who is called as the Father of Indian Phycology?
(a) M.O. Parthasarathy
(b) Y. Bharadwaja
(c) V.S. Sundaralingam
(d) V. Desikachary
Answer:
(a) M.O. Parthasarathy

Question 3.
Which of the following plant possess sessile leaves?
(a) Hibiscus
(b) Mangifera
(c) Psidium
(d) Gloriosa
Answer:
(d) Gloriosa

Question 4.
Histone proteins are seen in the DNA of …………………..
(a) Pseudokaryotes
(b) Prokaryotes
(c) Mesokaryotes
(d) Eukaryotes
Answer:
(d) Eukaryotes

Question 5.
Number of fatty acids in triglyceride is ……………………
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 6.
Principle behind the desalination of sea water is ……………………
(a) Endosmosis
(b) Diffusion
(c) Reverse osmosis
(d) Deplasmolysis
Answer:
(c) Reverse osmosis

Question 7.
In Emerson’s first effect, the photosynthetic yield was dropped in the region above ……………………
(a) 720 nm
(b) 620 nm
(c) 680 nm
(d) 600 nm
Answer:
(d) 600 nm

Question 8.
Which of the following plant hormone functions against auxin?
(a) Gibberellin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Ethylene
(d) Abscissic acid
Answer:
(d) Abscissic acid

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What is Porin? How it helps the bacteria?
Answer:
Porin is an abundant polypeptide present in bacterial cell walls. It helps in the diffusion of solutes.

Question 10.
Mention various types of stem seen in angiosperms?
Answer:
Majority of angiosperm possess upright, vertically growing erect stem. They are

1. Excurrent
2. Decurrent
3. Caudex and
4. Culm.

Question 11.
How will you define inflorescence?
Answer:
An inflorescence is a group of flowers arising from a branched or unbranched axis with a definite pattern.

Question 12.
List out the disadvantages of Amitosis?
Answer:

1. Causes unequal distribution of chromosomes.
2. Can lead to abnormalities in metabolism and reproduction.

Question 13.
State Relay Pump theory?
Relay pump theory of Godlewski (1884)
Answer:
Periodic changes in osmotic pressure of living cells of the xylem parenchyma and medullary ray act as a pump for the movement of water.

Question 14.
Define anaerobic photosynthesis?
Answer:
In some bacteria, oxygen is not evolved and is called as non-oxygenic and anaerobic photosynthesis. Examples: Green sulphur, Purple sulphur and green filamentous bacteria.

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Who is called as founder of modern bacteriology? Mention his contribution?
Answer:
Robert Heinrich Hermann Koch is considered as the founder of modem bacteriology. He identified the causal organism for Anthrax, Cholera and Tuberculosis. He proved experimental evidence for the concept of infection (Koch’s postulates).

Question 16.
List down the key difference between roots and shoots?
Answer:

Question 17.
Differentiate between Taxonomy & Systematics?
Answer:

Question 18.
What do you mean by Phloem loading?
Answer:
The movement of photosynthates (products of photosynthesis) from mesophyll cells to phloem sieve elements of mature leaves is known as phloem loading.

Question 19.
Define Dark Reaction?
Answer:
Fixation and reduction of CO₂ into carbohydrates with the help of assimilatory power produced during light reaction. This reaction does not require light and is not directly light driven. Hence, it is called as Dark reaction or Calvin-Benson cycle.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
List out the salient features of Basidiomycetes?
Answer:

• Basidiomycetes include puffballs, toad stools, Bird nest’s fungi, Bracket fungi, stink horns, rusts and smuts.
• The members are terrestrial and lead a saprophytic and parasitic mode of life.
• The mycelium is well developed, septate with dolipore septum (bracket like). Three types of mycelium namely primary (Monokaryotic), secondary (Dikaryotic) and tertiary are found.
• Clamp connections are formed to maintain dikaryotic condition.
• Asexual reproduction is by means of conidia, oidia or budding.
• Sexual reproduction is present but sex organs are absent. Somatogamy or spermatisation results in plasmogamy. Karyogamy is delayed and – dikaryotic phase is prolonged. Karyogamy takes place in basidium and it is immediately followed by meiotic division.
• The four nuclei thus formed are transformed into basidiospores which are borne on sterigmata outside the basidium (Exogenous). The basidium is club shaped with four basidiospores, thus this group of fungi is popularly called “Club fungi”. The fruit body formed is called Basidiocarp.

[OR]

List out the general characters of Pteridophytes?
Answer:
General characteristic features of Pteridophytes:

1. Plant body is sporophyte (2n) and it is the dominant phase. It is differentiated into root, stem and leaves.
2. Roots are adventitious.
3. Stem shows monopodial or dichotomous branching.
4. Leaves may be microphyllous or megaphyllous.
5. Stele is protostele but in some forms siphonostele is present (Marsilea)
6. Tracheids are the major water conducting elements but in Selaginella vessels are found.
7. Sporangia, spore bearing bag like structures are borne on special leaves called sporophyll. The sporophylls gets organized to form cone or strobilus. e.g., Selaginella and Equisetum.
8. They may be homosporous (produce one type of spores – Lycopodium) or Heterosporous (produce two types of spores -Selaginella). Heterospory is the origin for seed habit.
9. Development of sporangia may be eusporangiate (development of sporangium from group of initials) or leptosporangiate (development of sporangium from single initial).
10. Spore mother cells undergo meiosis and produce spores (n).
11. Spore germinates to produce haploid, multicellular green, cordate shaped independent gametophytes called prothallus.
12. Fragmentation, resting buds, root tubers and adventitious buds help in vegetative reproduction.
13. Sexual reproduction is Oogamous. Sex organs, namely antheridium and archegonium are produced on the prothallus.
14. Antheridium produces spirally coiled and multiflagellate antherozoids.
15. Archegonium is flask shaped with broad venter and elongated narrow neck. The venter possesses egg or ovum and neck contain neck canal cells.
16. Water is essential for fertilization. After fertilization a diploid zygote is formed and undergoes mitotic division to form embryo.
17. Pteridophytes show apogamy and apospory.

Question 21.
Draw a flow chart of Kreb’s cycle?
Answer:

[OR]

Give a detailed account on geometric growth rate?
Answer:
This growth occurs in many higher plants and plant organs and is measured in size or weight. In plant growth, geometric cell division results if all cells of an organism or tissue are active mitotically. Example: Round three in the given figure 15.5, produces 8 cells as 23 58 and after round 20 there are 220 5 1,048,576 cells.

The large plant or animal parts are produced this way. In fact, it is common in animals but rare in plants except when they are young and small. Exponential growth curve can be expressed as,

W₁ = W₀e^rt
W₁ = Final size at the beginning of the period
W₀ = Initial size at the beginning of the period
r = Growth rate
t = Time of growth
e = Base of the natural logarithms

Here ‘r’ is the relative rate and also a measure of the ability of the plant to produce new plant material, reffered to as efficiency index. Hence, the final size of W₁ depends on the initial size W₀.

Bio – Zoology [Maximum marks: 35]

PART – 1

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Which class of protozoa is totally parasitic …………………….
(a) Sporozoa
(b) Mastigophora
(c) Ciliate
(d) Sarcodina
Answer:
(a) Sporozoa

Question 2.
Medusa is the Reproductive organs of ……………………..
(a) Hydra
(b) Aurelia
(c) Obelia
(d) Sea anemone
Answer:
(b) Aurelia

Question 3.
Match the List I and List II.

(a) 1 – (i), 2 – (ii), 3 – (iii), 4 – (iv)
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)
(c) 1 – (iv), 2 – (iii), 3 – (i), (4) – (ii)
(d) 1 – (iii), 2 – (iv), 3 – (ii), 4 – (i)
Answer:
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)

Question 4.
LH – stands for ………………………
(a) Luteinising hormone
(b) Langerhans hormome
(c) Low secretion hormone
(d) Luteotrophic hormone
Answer:
(a) Luteinising hormone

Question 5.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Calcitonin and thymosin are thyroid hormones.
(b) Pepsin and prolactin are selected in stomach.
(c) Secretin and rhodopsin are polypeptide hormones.
(d) Cortisol and aldosterone are steroid hormones.
Answer:
(d) Cortisol and aldosterone are steroid hormones.

Question 6.
Which of the following statement is incorrect regard to species …………………….
(a) They have similar morphological
(b) They are reproductively isolated
(c) They produce viable young ones
(d) They have similar anatomical features
Answer:
(b) They are reproductively isolated

Question 7.
The kidney of adult mammals is ……………………
(a) Opisthonephron
(b) Pronephros
(c) Mesonephros
(d) Metanephros
Answer:
(d) Metanephros

Question 8.
Deficiency of calciferol causes ………………………
(a) Scurvy
(b) Leucopenia
(c) Leukaemia
(d) Rickets
Answer:
(d) Rickets

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Why mule is sterile in nature?
Answer:
Mule gets one set of chromosomes (32) from male parent, horse and one set of chromosomes (31) from female parent, donkey. These two sets of chromosomes do not match with each other and cannot produce gametes by meiosis. Hence mule is sterile in nature.

Question 10.
Define macrophages?
Answer:
Macrophages are Immune cells derived from monocytes; engaged in phagocytosis of microbes and debris.

Question 11.
Differentiate between peristomium and prostomium in earthworm?
Answer:

Question 12.
Draw the diagram of structure of alveoil?
Answer:

Question 13.
How is urea formed in the human body?
Answer:
More toxic ammonia produced as a result of breakdown of amino acids is converted into less toxic urea in the liver by a cyclic process called Ornithine cycle.

Question 14.
Write the symptoms of cretinism?
Answer:
Cretinism is caused due to hypothyroidism in infants. A cretin child shows the following symptoms

1. Retarded skeletal growth
2. Absence of sexual maturity
3. Retarded mental ability
4. Thick and short limbs
5. Thick wrinkled skin
6. Bloated face
7. Protruded enlarged tongue
8. Low BMR, slow pulse rate, subnormal body temperature and elevated blood cholesterol levels

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
What is Canal system?
Answer:
The water transport system in sponges through which water enters through minute pores and goes out through the large opening called osculum. It helps is nutrition, circulation, respiration and excretion.

Question 16.
Draw the diagram of structure of the heart?
Answer:

Question 17.
What are spinal nerves?
Answer:
The 31 pairs of nerves which emerge out from the spinal cord through spaces called the intevertebral foramina found between the adjacent vertebrae are the spinal nerves.

Question 18.
Classify organisms on the basis of seven kingdom system?
Answer:

Question 19.
Distinguish between exocrine glands and endocrine glands?
Answer:

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Explain the conditions which creates problems in oxygen transport?
Answer:
When a person travels quickly from sea level to elevations above 8000 ft, where the atmospheric pressure and partial pressure of oxygen are lowered, the individual responds with symptoms of acute mountain sickness (AMS)- headache, shortness of breath, nausea and dizziness due to poor binding of O₂ with haemoglobin.

When the person moves on a long – term basis to mountains from sea level is body begins to make respiratory and haematopoietic adjustments. To overcome this situation kidneys accelerate production of the hormone erythropoietin, which stimulates the bone marrow to produce more RBCs.

When a person descends deep into the sea, the pressure in the surrounding water increases which causes the lungs to decrease in volume.

This decrease in volume increases the partial pressure of the gases within the lungs. This effect can be beneficial, because it tends to drive additional oxygen into the circulation, but this benefit also has a risk, the increased pressure can also drive nitrogen gas into the circulation.

This increase in blood nitrogen content can lead to a condition called nitrogen narcosis. When the diver ascends to the surface too quickly a condition called ‘bends’ or decompression sickness occurs and nitrogen comes out of solution while still in the blood forming bubbles.

Small bubbles in the blood are not harmful, but large bubbles can lodge in small capillaries, blocking blood flow or can press on nerve endings. Decompression sickness is associated with pain in joints and muscles and neurological problems including stroke. The risk of nitrogen narcosis and bends is common in scuba divers.

During carbon-dioxide poisoning, the demand for oxygen increases. As the O₂ level in the blood decreases it leads to suffocation and the skin turns bluish black.

[OR]

What is an epithelium? Enumerate the characteristic features of different epithelia?
Answer:
Simple epithelium is a simple layered sheet of cells that covers the body surface or lines the body cavity.
Types:

1. Squamous epithelium: It is made of flattened cells with irregular boundaries. It is found in glomeruli, air sacs of lungs, lining of heart, blood vessels.
2. Cuboidal epithelium: It is made of cube like cells. It is found in kidney tubules, ducts and glands. It is important for secretion and absorption.
3. Columnar epithelium: It is made of column like cells. It lines the digestive tract. It is important for secretion and absorption.
4. Ciliated epithelium: It has cilia at the free end. It is found in bronchi, uterine tubes. It is helpful in propelling materials.
5. Glandular epithelium: Cuboidal or columnar epithelium specialized for secretion is called glandular epithelium. E.g., goblet cells and salivary gland.

Compound epithelium:

1. Compound epithelium is made up of multilayered cells.
2. These protect organs against chemical and mechanical stresses.
3. These cover the dry surface of the skin, moist surface of the buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of ducts of salivary glands and pancreatic ducts.

Classification of Compound epithelium:

Question 21.
Write a detailed account of gastro intestinal tract hormones?
Answer:
Group of specialized endocrine cells present in gastro – intestinal tract secretes hormones such as gastrin, cholecystokinin (CCK), secretin and gastric inhibitory peptides (GIP). Gastrin acts on the gastric glands and stimulates the secretion of HCl and pepsinogen. Cholecystokinin (CCK) is secreted by duodenum in response to the presence of fat and acid in the diet.

It acts on the gall bladder to release bile into duodenum and stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and its discharge. Secretin acts on acini cells of pancreas to secrete bicarbonate ions and water to neutralize the acidity. Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) inhibits gastric secretion and motility.

[OR]

Discuss the various techniques adopted in cattle breeding?
Answer:
Methods of Animal breeding:
There are two methods of animal breeding, namely inbreeding and outbreeding

1. Inbreeding:
Breeding between animals of the same breed for 4-6 generations is called inbreeding. Inbreeding increases homozygosity and exposes the harmful recessive genes. Continuous inbreeding reduces fertility and even productivity, resulting in “inbreeding depression”.

This can be avoided by breeding selected animals of the breeding population and they should be mated with superior animals of the same breed but unrelated to the breeding population. It helps to restore fertility and yield.

2. Outbreeding:
The breeding between unrelated animals is called outbreeding. Individuals produced do not have common ancestors for 4-6 generations.

Outbreeding helps to produce new and favourable traits, to produce hybrids with superior qualities and helps to create new breeds. New and favourable genes can be introduced into a population through outbreeding.

(I) Out crossing:
It is the breeding between unrelated animals of the same breed but having no common ancestry. The offspring of such a cross is called outcross. This method is suitable for breeding animals that are below average in productivity.

(II) Cross breeding:
Breeding between a superior male of one breed with a superior female of another breed. The cross bred progeny has superior traits (hybrid vigour or heterosis.)

(III) Interspecific hybridization:
In this method of breeding mating is between male and female of two different species. The progeny obtained from such crosses are different from their parents, and may possess the desirable traits of the parents. Mule was produced by the process of interspecific hybridization between a male donkey and a female horse.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. 1. The question paper comprises of four parts. Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
   2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
   3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
   4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
   5. Question numbers 9 to 14 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
   6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
   7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio – Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Number of domains of life are there according to Carl Woese
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 2.
Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres?
(a) Polio virus
(b) Tobacco mosaic virus
(c) Measles virus
(d) Retrovirus
Answer:
(b) Tobacco mosaic virus

Question 3.
Talipot palm, Bamboo and Agave are examples of …………………….
(a) Polycarpic geophytes
(b) Therophytes
(c) Monocarpic geophytes
(d) Biennial
Answer:
(c) Monocarpic geophytes

Question 4.
The type of inflorescence seen in Caesalpinia is ………………………
(a) Corymb
(b) Compound corymb
(c) Capitulum
(d) Umbel
Answer:
(a) Corymb

Question 5.
Which one of the following organism is correctly matched with its three characteristics?
(a) Pea: C₃ pathway, Endospermic seed,Vexillary aestivation
(b) Tomato: Twisted aestivation, Axile placentation, Berry
(c) Onion: Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile placentation
(d) Maize: C₃ pathway, Closed vascular bundles, scutellum
Answer:
(c) Onion: Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile placentation

Question 6.
Protoplasm is made of ……………………. water.
(a) 80 – 90%
(b) 85 – 90%
(c) 60 – 80%
(d) 75 – 85%
Answer:
(c) 60 – 80%

Question 7.
The term soilless culture refers to …………………….
(a) Aeroponics
(b) Aqua culture
(c) Hydroponics
(d) Drip irrigation
Answer:
(c) Hydroponics

Question 8.
Which of the following statement is NOT true regarding cyclic photophosphorylation?
(a) The primary electron acceptor is FRS
(b) It produces only ATP molecules
(c) It produces only NADPH + H⁺ molecules
(d) Electrons ejected from PSI again cycled back to PSI
Answer:
(c) It produces only NADPH + H⁺ molecules

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Name few plant disease caused by mycoplasma?
Answer:
Little leaf of brinjal, witches broom of legumes, phyllody of cloves and sandal spike are some plant diseases caused by mycoplasma.

Question 10.
Which leaf part acts a bridge between leaf & stem? Define?
Answer:
Petiole is the bridge between leaf and stem. Petiole or leaf stalk is a cylindrical or subcylindrical or flattened structure of a leaf which joins the lamina with the stem.

Question 11.
Mention any two morphological differences between Dicot & Monocots?
Answer:

Question 12.
What is the cell wall composition of the following organism?

1. Fungi
2. Bacteria
3. Algae

Answer:

1. Fungi – Chitin and fungal cellulose
2. Bacteria – Peptidoglycan
3. Algae – Cellulose, mannan and galactan

Question 13.
How imbibition is important for plants?
Significance of imbibition:
Answer:

1. During germination of seeds, imbibition increases the volume of seed enormously and leads to bursting of the seed coat.
2. It helps in the absorption of water by roots at the initial level.

Question 14.
How does nitrogen fixation occurs non – biologically?
Non – Biological nitrogen fixation:
Answer:

1. Nitrogen fixation by chemical process in industry.
2. Natural electrical discharge during lightening fixes atmospheric nitrogen.

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Name few fungal diseases in Humans?
Answer:

Question 16.
List out any 3 significances of seed?
Answer:

1. The seed encloses and protects the embryo for next generation.
2. Seeds of various plants are used as food, both for animals and human.
3. Seeds are the products of sexual reproduction so they provide genetic variations and recombination in a plant.

Question 17.
Write a note on endosymbiont theory?
Answer:
Two eukaryotic organelles believed to be the descendants of the endosymbiotic prokaryotes. The ancestors of the eukaryotic cell engulfed a bacterium and the bacteria continued to function inside the host cell.

Question 18.
What are sieve tubes? Explain?
Answer:
Sieve Elements:
Sieve elements are the conducting elements of the phloem. They are of two types, namely sieve cells and sieve tubes.

Sieve Cells:
These are primitive type of conducting elements found in Pteridophytes and Gymnosperms. Sieve cdlls have sieve areas on their lateral walls only. They are not associated with companion cells.

Sieve Tubes:
Sieve tubes are long tube like conducting elements in the phloem. These are formed from a series of cells called sieve tube elements. The sieve tube elements are arranged one above the other and form vertical sieve tube.

The end wall contains a number of pores and it looks like a sieve. So it is called as sieve plate. The sieve elements show nacreous thickenings on their lateral walls.

They may possess simple or compound sieve plates. The function of sieve tubes are believed to be controlled by campanion cells. In mature sieve tube, Nucleus is absent. It contains a lining layer of cytoplasm.

A special protein (P. Protein = Phloem Protein) called slime body is seen in it. In mature sieve tubes, the pores in the sieve plate arc blocked by a substance called callosc (callose plug).

The conduction of food material takes place Different types of phloem elements through cytoplasmic strands. Sieve tubes occur only in Angiosperms.

Question 19.
Draw and label the structure of lentical?
Answer:

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
List out the salient features of cyanobacteria?
Answer:

• The members of this group are prokaryotes and lack motile reproductive structures.
• The thallus is unicellular in Chroococcus, colonial in Gloeocapsa and filamentous trichome in Nostoc.
• Gliding movement is noticed in some species (Oscillatorid).
• The protoplasm is differentiated into central region called centroplasm and peripheral region bearing chromatophore called chromoplasm.
• The photosynthetic pigments include c – phydcyanin and c – phycoerythrin along with myxoxanthin and myxoxanthophyll.
• The reserve food material is cyanophycean starch.
• In some forms a large colourless cell is found in the terminal or intercalary position called heterocysts. They are involved in nitrogen fixation.
• They reproduce only through vegetative methods and produce akinetes (thick wall dormant cell formed from vegetative cell), hormogonia (a portion of filament get detached and reproduce by cell division), fission and endospores.
• The presence of mucilage around the thallus is characteristic feature of this group. Therefore, this group is also called Myxophyceae.
• Sexual reproduction is absent.
• Microcystis aeruginosa and Anabaena flos – aquae cause water blooms and release toxins and affect the aquatic organism. Most of them fix atmospheric nitrogen and are used as biofertilizers (Example: Nostoc and Anabaena). Spirulina is rich in protein hence it is used as single cell protein.

[OR]

Differentiate between Mitosis and Meiosis?
Answer:

Question 21.
Write in detail about Passive Absorption of minerals salts?
Answer:
Ion-Exchange:
Ions of external soil solution were exchanged with same charged (anion for anion or cation for cation) ions of the root cells. There are two theories explaining this process of ion exchange namely:

1. Contact exchange and
2. Carbonic acid exchange.

1. Contact Exchange Theory:
According to this theory, the ions adsorbed on the surface of root cells and clay particles (or clay micelles) are not held tightly but oscillate within a small volume of space called oscillation volume. Due to small space, both ions overlap each other’s oscillation volume and exchange takes place.

2. Carbonic Acid Exchange Theory:
According to this theory, soil solution plays an important role by acting as a medium for ion exchange. The CO₂ released during respiration of root cells combines with water to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃).

Carbonic acid dissociates into H⁺ and HCO_32^– in the soil solution. These H⁺ ions exchange with cations adsorbed on clay particles and the catipns from micelles get released into soil solution and gets adsorbed on root cells.

[OR]

Give an detail account on different types of senescence?
Answer:
1. Overall senescence:
This kind of senescence occurs in annual plants when entire plant gets affected and dies.
Example: Wheat and Soybean. It also occurs in few perennials also. Example: Agave and Bamboo.

2. Top senescence:
It occurs in aerial parts of plants. It is common in perennials, underground and root system remains viable.
Example: Banana and Gladiolus.

3. Deciduous senescence:
It is common in deciduous plants and occurs only in leaves of plants, bulk of the stem and root system remains alive.
Example: Elm and Maple.

4. Progressive senescence:
This kind of senescence is gradual. First it occurs in old leaves followed by new leaves then stem and finally root system. It is common in annuals.

Bio – Zoology [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
True species are …………………….
(a) Inter breeding
(b) Sharing the same niche
(c) Reproductively isolated
(d) Feeding on the same food
Answer:
(c) Reproductively isolated

Question 2.
Collar cells are found in ……………………
(a) Aschelminthes
(b) Sponges
(c) Cnidaria
(d) Arthropoda
Answer:
(b) Sponges

Question 3.
Match the List – I and List – II.

Answer:
(a) 1 – (i), 2 – (ii), 3 – (iii), 4 – (iv)
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)
(c) 1 – (iii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (ii)
(d) 1 – (iv), 2 – (iii), 3 – (ii), 4 – (i)

Question 4.
BMR stands for ……………………….
(a) Body matabolic rate
(b) Basal matabolic rate
(c) Body mass rate
(d) Basal mass rate
Answer:
(b) Basal matabolic rate

Question 5.
Which of the following statement is correct ………………………….
(a) Testosterone is produced by leyding cells under the influence Luteinizing hormone.
(b) Progesterorie is secreted by corpus luteum.
(c) Oestrogen is secreted by Sertolic cells.
(d) Progesterone produced by Corpus Luteum is biologically different from the one produced by placenta.
Answer:
(a) Testosterone is produced by leyding cells under the influence Luteinizing hormone.

Question 6.
Which of the following pair statement is incorrect?
(a) Humans – ureotelic
(b) Birds – uricotelic
(c) Lizards – uricotelic
(d) Whale – Ammonotelic
Answer:
(d) Whale – Ammonotelic

Question 7.
Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals is called as ………………………..
(a) Myasthenia gravis
(b) Gout
(c) Osteoporosis
(d) Osteomalacia
Answer:
(b) Gout

Question 8.
The olfactory umpulses are transmitted to the ………………………. lobe of brain.
(a) Parietal
(b) Temporal
(c) Occipital
(d) Frontal
Answer:
(d) Frontal

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What is Regeneration?
Answer:
The ability to regrow the lost parts is called regeneration eg. planaria.

Question 10.
What are the functions of Tapetum lucidum?
Answer:
A reflective layer of tissue called tapetum lucidum, enhances night time vision in most of the animals like cat.

Question 11.
Give an example for longest species of earthworm?
Answer:
Microchaetus rappi is an African giant earthworm, can reach a length of 6.7 meter (22 feet). Drawida nilamburansis is a south Indian (Kerala) species of earthworm and can reach a maximum length up to f meter (3 feet).

Question 12.
Differences between frog and toad?
Answer:

Question 13.
Brief notes on spinal nerves?
Answer:
Spinal nerves:
31 pairs of spinal nerves emerge out from the spinal cord through spaces called the intervertebral foramina found between the adjacent vertebrae. The spinal nerves are named according to the region of vertebral column from which they originate

1. Cervical nerves (8 pairs)
2. Thoracic nerves (12 pairs)
3. Lumbar nerves (5 pairs)
4. Sacral nerves (5 pairs)
5. Coccygeal nerves (1 pair)

Each spinal nerve is a mixed nerve containing both afferent (sensory) and efferent (motor) fibres. It originates as two roots:

1. A posterior dorsal root with a ganglion outside the spinal cord and
2. An anterior ventral root with no external ganglion.

Question 14.
Draw the structure of Nephron?
Answer:

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
What is phylogenetic classification or cladistics?
Answer:
The classification of organisms based on evolutionary and genetic relationship among them is known as phylogenetic classification.

Question 16.
Compare Schizocoelom with Enterocoelom?
Answer:

Question 17.
Head of cockroach is called hypognathous. why?
Answer:
The mouth parts of cockroach are directed downwards. The head is small, triangular lies at right angle to the longitudinal body axis. Hence it is called hypognatus.

Question 18.
Draw the diagram and label the parts of micro villi?
Answer:

Question 19.
What are the advantages of artificial insemination?
Answer:

1. It increases the rate of conception
2. It avoids genital diseases
3. Semen can be collected from injured bulls which have desirable traits
4. Superior animals located apart can be bred successfully

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Write brief notes on Diploblastic and Triploblastic organisation with example?
Answer:
During embryonic development, the tissues and organs of animals originate from two or three embryonic germ layers. On the basis of the origin and development, animals are classified into two categories: Diploblastic and Triploblastic.

Animals in which the cells are arranged in two embryonic layers, the external ectoderm, and internal endoderm are called diploblastic animals. In these animals the ectoderm gives rise to the epidermis (the outer layer of the body wall) and endoderm gives rise to gastrodermis (tissue lining the gut cavity). An undifferentiated layer present between the ectoderm and endoderm is the mesoglea. (Corals, Jellyfish, Sea anemone)

Animals in which the developing embryo has three germinal layers are called triploblastic animals and consists of outer ectoderm (skin, hair, neuron, nail, teeth, etc), inner endoderm (gut, lung, liver) and middle mesoderm (muscle, bone, heart). Most of the triploblastic animals show organ system level of organisation (Flat worms to Chordates).

[OR]

Explain the reproductive system of frog?
Answer:
Reproductive system:
The male frog has a pair of testes which are attached to the kidney and the dorsal body wall by folds of peritonium called mesorchium. Vasa efferentia arise from each testis. They enter the kidneys on both side and open into the bladder canal. Finally, it communicates with the urinogenital duct that comes out of kidneys and opens into the cloaca.

Female reproductive system consists of paired ovaries, attached to the kidneys, and dorsal body wall by folds of peritoneum called mesovarium. There is a pair of coiled oviducts lying on the sides of the kidney. Each oviduct opens into the body-cavity at the anterior end by a funnel like opening called ostia.

Unlike the male frog, the female frog has separate genital ducts distinct from ureters. Posteriorly the oviducts dilated to form ovisacs before they open into cloaca. Ovisacs store the eggs temporarily before they are sent out through the cloaca. Fertilization is external.

Within few days of fertilization, the eggs hatch into tadpoles. A newly hatched tadpole lives off the yolk stored in its body. It gradually grows larger and develops three pairs of gills.

The tadpole grows and metamorphosis into an air – breathing carnivorous adult frog. Legs grow from the body, and the tail and gills disappear. The mouth broadens, developing teeth and jaws, and the lungs become functional.

Question 21.
What are the disorders related to the excretory system?
Answer:
Urinary tract infection:
Female’s urethra is very short and its external opening is close to the anal opening, hence improper toilet habits can easily carry faecal bacteria into the urethra. The urethral mucosa is continuous with the urinary tract and the inflammation of the urethra (urethritis) can ascend the tract to cause bladder inflammation (cystitis) or even renal inflammation (pyelitis or pyelonephritis).

Symptoms include dysuria (painful urination), urinary urgency, fever and sometimes cloudy or blood tinged urine. When the kidneys are inflammed, back pain and severe headache often occur. Most urinary tract infections can be treated by antibiotics.

Renal Failure (Kidney Failure):
Failure of the kidneys to excrete wastes may lead to accumulation of urea with marked reduction in the urine output. Renal failure are of two types, Acute and chronic renal failure.

In acute renal failure the kidney stops its function abruptly, but there are chances for recovery of kidney functions. In chronic renal failure there is a progressive loss of function of the nephrons which gradually decreases the function of kidneys.

Uremia:
Uremia is characterized by increase in urea and other non – protein nitrogenous substances like uric acid and creatinine in blood. Normal urea level in human blood is about 17 – 30mg/100mL of blood. The urea concentration rises as 10 times of normal levels during chronic renal failure.

Renal calculi:
Renal calculi, also called renal stone or kidney stone or nephrolithiasis, is the formation of hard stone like masses in the renal tubules of renal pelvis.

It is mainly due to the accumulation of soluble crystals of salts of sodium oxalates and certain phosphates. This result in severe pain called “renal colic pain” and can cause scars in the kidneys. Renal stones can be removed by techniques like pyleothotomy or lithotripsy.

Glomerulonephritis:
It is also called Bright’s disease and is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli of both kidneys and is usually due to post-streptococcal infection that occurs in children. Symptoms are haematuria, proteinuria, salt and water retention, oligouria, hypertension and pulmonary oedema.

[OR]

Describe the life cycle of Bombyx mori?
Answer:
Life cycle of Bombyx mori:
The adult of Bombyx mori is about 2.5 cm in length and pale creamy white in colour. Due to heavy body and feeble wings, flight is not possible by the female moth.

This moth is unisexual in nature and does not feed during its very short life period of 2 – 3 days. Just after emergence, male moth copulates with female for about 2 – 3 hours and if not separated, they may die after few hours of copulating with female.

Just after copulation, female starts egg laying which is completed in 1-24 hours. A single female moth lays 400 to 500 eggs depending upon the climatic conditions.

Two types of eggs are generally found namely diapause type and non-diapause type. The diapause type is laid by silkworms inhabiting the temperate regions, whereas silkworms belonging to subtropical regions like India lay non – diapause type of eggs.

The eggs after ten days of incubation hatch into larva called as caterpillar. The newly hatched caterpillar is about 3 mm in length and is pale, yellowish-white in colour. The caterpillars are provided with well developed mandibulate type of mouth-parts adapted to feed easily on the mulberry leaves.

After 1^st, 2^2nd, 3^rd and 4^th moultings caterpillars get transformed into 2^nd, 3^rd, 4^th and 5^th instars respectively. It takes about 21 to 25 days after hatching. The fully grown caterpillar is 7.5 cm in length. It develops salivary glands, stops feeding and undergoes pupation.

The caterpillars stop feeding and move towards the comer among the leaves and secretes a sticky fluid through their silk gland. The secreted fluid comes out through spinneret (a narrow pore situated on the hypopharynx) and takes the form of long fine thread of silk which hardens on exposure to air and is wrapped around the body of caterpillar in the forms of a covering called as cocoon.

It is the white coloured bed of the pupa whose outer threads are irregular while the inner threads are regular. The length of continuous thread secreted by a caterpillar for the formation of cocoon is about 1000 – 1200 metres which requires 3 days to complete. The pupal period lasts for 10 to 12 days and the pupae cut through the cocoon and emerge into adult moth.