Category: Important Questions

Students get through the TN Board 11th Bio Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Plant Kingdom which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 11th Bio Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Plant Kingdom

Answer the following short answers.

Question 1.
Define photosynthesis.
Answer:
Plants are unique living entities as they are endowed with the power to harvest the light energy from the sun and to convert it to chemical energy in the form of food through the astounding reaction, photosynthesis.

Question 2.
What is an alternation of generation?
Answer:
Alternation of generation is common in all plants. Alternation of the haploid gametophytic phase (n) with the diploid sporophytic phase (2n) during the life cycle is called alternation of generation.

Question 3.
What do you know about Halophyte algae?
Answer:
Dunaliella salina grows in salt pans (Halophytic algae), which can tolerate high concentration of salt content.

Question 4.
Mention any two vegetative reproduction in algae.
Answer:
Vegetative reproduction includes fission in unicellular forms the cell divides mitotically to produce two daughter cells, eg. Chlamydomonas.
Fragmentation: fragments of parent thallus grow into new individual, eg. Uloihrix.

Question 5.
Describe the thallus of red algae.
Answer:
The thallus is multicellular, macroscopic and diverse in form.

Question 6.
What is Garpogohium?
Answer:
The female sex organ of red algae is called carpogonium.

Question 7.
Mention any two characteristic features of bryophytes.
Answer:

1. The plant body of bryophyte is gametophyte and is not differentiated into root, stem and leaf-like structure.
2. Most of them are primitive land dwellers. Some of them are aquatic (Riella, Ricciocarpus).

Question 8.
Mention any three uses of Pteridophyte.
Answer:
Cut flower arrangements, Food, Biofertilizer.

Question 9.
Define the term Solenostele.
Answer:
The stele is perforated at a place or places corresponding to the origin of the leaf trace.

Question 10.
What is meant by Amber?
Answer:
Amber is a plant secretion that is an efficient preservative that doesn’t get degraded and hence can preserve remains of extinct life forms. The amber is produced by Pinites succinifera, a Gymnosperm.

Question 11.
Why do you call some plant fossil plants?
Answer:
The term ’form genera’ is used to name the fossil plants because the whole plant is not recovered as fossils instead organs or parts of the extinct plants are obtained in fragments.

Question 12.
What are the three classes of Gymnosperms?
Answer:

1. Cycadopsida,
2. Coniferopsida,
3. Gnetopsida

Question 13.
Define the term Gymnosperm.
Answer:
Gymnosperms (Gr. Gymnos = naked; Sperma = seed) are naked seed-producing plants. They were dominant in the Jurassic and cretaceous periods of the Mesozoic era.

Question 14.
What are the non-vascular cryptogams?
Answer:
Vascular tissue like xylem and phloem are completely absent, hence called ‘Non-vascular cryptogams’.

Question 15.
Mention any two fossil gymnosperms.
Answer:
Medullosa and Lepido-carpon.

Question 16.
List out morphological features of the dicot plant.
Answer:

1. Reticulate venation is present in the leaves.
2. Presence of two cotyledons in the seed.
3. Primary root radicle persists as the taproot.
4. Flowers tetramerous or Pentamerous.
5. Tricolpate (3 furrow) pollen is present.

Question 17.
What do you know about pyrenoids?
Answer:
Storage bodies called pyrenoids are present in the chloroplast and store starch.

Question 18.
What are Epiphytic algae?
Answer:
A few algae grow on the surface of aquatic plants and are called epiphytic algae (Coleochaete, and Rhodymenia).

Question 19.
What are Bryophytes?
Answer:
Bryophytes are the simplest land inhabiting cryptogams and are restricted to moist, shady habitats.
They lack vascular tissue and hence called ‘Non- vascular cryptogams’.

Question 20.
Mention the five subdivisions of Pteridophytes.
Answer:

1. Psilophytopsida,
2. Psilotopsida,
3. Lycopsida,
4. Sphenopsida,
5. Pteropsida.

Answer In brief.

Question 1.
List the life cycle patterns in plants.
Answer:

Question 2.
Name the 11 classes of Algae by which F.E. Fritsch classified.
Answer:
F.E. Fritsch proposed a classification for algae-based on pigmentation, types of flagella, reserve food materials, thallus structure and reproduction. He published his classification in the book “The structure and reproduction of Algae” (1935). He classified algae into 11 classes namely Chlorophyceae, Xanthophyceae, Chrysophyceae, Bacillariophyceae, Cryptophyceae, Dinophyceae, Chloromonodineae, Euglenophyceae, Phaeophyceae, Rhodophyceae, Cyanophyceae.

Question 3.
Describe the gametophyte phase of non-vascular cryptogams.
Answer:

1. The gametophyte is a conspicuous, long-lived phase of the life cycle.
2. Thalloid forms are present in liverworts and Hornworts.
3. In Mosses leaf-like, stem-like structures are present.
4. In Liverworts thallus grows prostrate on the ground and is attached to the substratum by means of rhizoids.
5. Two types of rhizoids are present namely smooth-walled and pegged. Multicellular scales are also present.
6. In Moss, the plant body is erect with a central axis bearing leaf-like expansions. Multicellular rhizoids are present.

Question 4.
Describe the sporophyte of non-vascular cryptogam.
Answer:

1. The embryo divides and gives rise to the sporophyte.
2. The sporophyte is dependent on the gametophyte.
3. It is differentiated into three recognizable parts namely foot, seta and capsule.
4. The foot is the basal portion and is embedded in the gametophyte through which water and nutrients are supplied for the sporophyte.
5. The diploid spore mother cells found in the capsule region undergo meiotic division and give rise to haploid spores. Bryophytes are homosporous.
6. In some sporophytes, elaters are present and help in the dispersal of spores, eg. Marchantia.
7. The spores germinate to produce gametophyte.

Question 5.
Write briefly about the economic importance of non-vascular cryptogams.
Answer:

1. A large amount of dead thallus of Sphagnum gets accumulated mid compressed, hardened to form peat. In northern Europe, peat is used as fuel in a commercial scale (Netherlands).
2. Apart from this Nitrates, brown dye and tanning materials are derived from peat.
3. Sphagnum and peat are also used in horticulture as packing material because of their water holding capacity.
4. Marchantia polymorpha is used to cure pulmonary tuberculosis.
5. Sphagnum, Bryum and Polytrichum are used as food.
6. Bryophytes play a major role in soil formation through succession and help in soil conservation.

Question 6.
List out any four, characteristic features of pteridophytes.
Answer:

1. The plant body is a sporophyte (2n) and it is the dominant phase.
2. It is differentiated into root, stem and leaves. Roots are adventitious.
3. The stem shows monopodial or dichotomous branching.
4. Leaves may be microphyllous or megaphyllous.

Question 7.
Distinguish between Gymnosperms and Angiosperms.
Answer:

Gymnosperms	Angiosperms
Vessels are absent [except Gnetales]	Vessels are present
Phloem lacks companion cells	Companion cells are present
Ovules are naked	Ovules are enclosed within the ovary
Wind pollination only	Insects, wind, water, animals etc., act as pollinating agents
Double fertilization is absent	Double fertilization is present
Endosperm is haploid	Endosperm is triploid
Fruit formation is absent	Fruit formation is present
Flowers absent	Flowers present

Question 8.
List out any three Economic importance of algae.
Answer:

1. Agar Agar – cell wall material used for media preparation in the microbiology lab.
2. Packing canned food, cosmetic, textile paper industry.
3. Carrageenan – Preparation of toothpaste, paint, blood coagulant
4. Alginate – Ice cream, paints, flameproof fabrics.

Question 9.
Describe the Vegetable reproduction of non-vascular cryptogams.
Answer:

1. Vegetative reproduction takes place by die formation of adventitious buds (Riccia fluitans) tubers develop in Anthoceros.
2. In some forms small detachable branches or brood bodies are formed, they help in vegetative reproduction as in Bryopteris fruticulosa.
3. In Marchantia propagative organs called gemmae are formed and help in reproduction.

Question 10.
List the salient features of Angiosperms.
Answer:

1. Vascular tissue (Xylem and Phloem) is well developed.
2. Flowers are produced instead of a cone.
3. The embryosac (Ovule) remains enclosed in the ovary.
4. Pollen tube helps in fertilization, so water is not essential for fertilization.
5. Double fertilization is present. The endosperm is triploid.
6. Angiosperms are broadly classified into two classes namely Dicotyledons and Monocotyledons.

Answer In detail.

Question 1.
Explain the asexual and sexual reproduction in algae with a suitable example.
Answer:
Asexual reproduction takes place by the production of zoospores (Ulothrix, Oedogonium),

1. Aplanospore – Thin walled non motile spores, eg. Vaucheria.
2. Autospores – Spores that look similar to the parent cell. eg. Chlorella.
3. Hypnospore – Thick walled aplanospore. eg. Chlamydomonas nivalis. .
4. Tetraspores – Diploid thallus of Polysiphonia produce haploid spores after meiosis).

Sexual reproduction in algae are of three types:

1. Isogamy (Fusion of morphologically and Physiologically similar gametes eg. Ulothrix.
2. Anisogamy (Fusion of either morphologically or physiologically dissimilar gametes eg. Pandorina.
3. Oogamy (Fusion of both morphologically and physiologically dissimilar gametes, eg. Sargassum. The life cycle shows a distinct alternation of generation.

Question 2.
Give an account of Phaeophyceae.
Answer:
The members of this class are called ‘Brown algae’.

1. The majority of the forms are found in marine habitats.
2. Pleurocladia is a freshwater form.
3. The thallus is filamentous (Ectocarpus) frond-like (Dictyota) or maybe giant kelps (Laminaria and Macrocystis).
4. The thallus is differentiated into leaf-like photosynthetic part Called fronds, a stalk-like structure called stipe and a holdfast which attach thallus to the substratum.
5. The Pigments include Chlorophyll a, c, Carotenoids and Xanthophylls.
6. A golden-brown pigment called fucOxanthin is present and it gives shades of colour from olive green to brown to the algal members of this group.
7. Mannitol and Laminarin are the reserve food materials. Motile reproductive structures are present.
8. Two laterally inserted unequal flagella are present. Among these one is whiplash and another is tinsel.
9. Although sexual reproduction ranges from isogamy to Oogamy, Most of the forms show the Oogamous type.
10. Alternation of generation is present (isomorphic, heteromorphic or diplontic). eg. Sargassum, Laminaria, Fucus and Dictyota.

Question 3.
Explain the method of sexual reproduction in non-vascular cryptogams.
Answer:

1. Sexual reproduction is oogamous. Antheridia and Archegonia are produced in a protective covering and are multicellular.
2. The antheridia produce biflagellate antherozoids which swim in a thin film of water and reach the archegonium and fuse with the egg to form a diploid zygote.
3. Water is essential for fertilization.
4. The zygote is the first cell of the sporophyte generation. It undergoes mitotic division to form the multicellular undifferentiated embryo. The embryogeny is exoscopic (the first division of the zygote is transverse and the apex of the embryo develops from the outer cell). The embryo divides and gives rise to the sporophyte.
5. The sporophyte is dependent on the gametophyte.
6. It is differentiated into three recognizable parts namely foot, seta and capsule. Foot is the basal portion and is embedded in the gametophyte through which water and nutrients are supplied for the sporophyte.
7. The diploid spore mother cells found in the capsule region undergo meiotic division and give rise to haploid spores. Bryophytes are homosporous.
8. In some sporophytes elaters are present and help in the dispersal of spores eg. Marchantia.
9. The spores germinate to produce gametophyte.

Question 4.
Give an account of types of steles.
Answer:
The term stele refers to the central cylinder of vascular tissues consisting of xylem, phloem; pericycle and sometimes medullary rays with pith. There are two types of steles (i) Protostele, (ii) Siphonostele.
Protostele In protostele xylem surrounds phloem. The type includes Haplostele, Actinostele, Plectostele, and mixed protostele.

1. Haplostele Xylem surrounded by phloem is known as haplostele. eg. Selaginella.
2. Actinostele Star-shaped xylem core is surrounded by phloem is known as actinostele.
   eg. Lycopodium serratum.
3. Plectostele Xylem plates alternate with phloem plates, eg. Lycopodium clavatum.
4. Mixed protostele Xylem groups uniformly scattered in the phloem, eg. Lycopodium cernuum.

Siphonostele: In siphonostele, xylem is surrounded by phloem with pith at the centre. It includes Ectophloic siphonostele, Amphiphloic siphonostele, Solenostele, Eustele, Atactostele and Polycyclic stele.

1. Ectophloic siphonostele: The phloem is restricted only on the external side of the xylem. Pith is in centre, eg. Osmunda.
2. Amphiphloic siphonostele: The phloem is present on both the sides of xylem. The pith is in the centre, eg. Marsilea.
3. Solenostele: The stele is perforated at a place or places corresponding the origin of the leaf trace.
   (a) Ectophloic solenostele: Pith is in the centre and the xylem is surrounded by phloem, eg. Osmunda.
   (b) Amphiphloic solenostele: Pith is in the centre and the phloem is present on both sides of the xylem. eg. Adiantum pedatum
   (c) Dictyostele: The stele is separated into several vascular strands and each one is called meristele. eg. Adiantum capillus-veneris.
4. Eustele: The stele is split into distinct collateral vascular bundles around the pith, eg. Dicot stem.
5. Atactostele: The stele is split into distinct collateral vascular bundles and are scattered in the ground tissue, eg. the Monocot stem.
6. Polycyclicstele: The vascular tissues are present in the form of two or more concentric cylinders, eg. Pteridium.

Question 5.
Describe the general characteristics features of gymnosperms.
Answer:

1. Most of the gymnosperms are evergreen woody trees or shrubs. Some are lianas (Gnetum)
2. The plant body is sporophyte and is differentiated into root, stem and leaves.
3. A well-developed tap root system is present. Coralloid roots of Cycas have a symbiotic association with blue-green algae. In Pinus the roots have mycorrhizae.
4. The stem is aerial, erect and branched or unbranched (Cycas) with leaf scars.
5. In conifers two types of branches namely branches of limited growth (Dwarf shoot) and Branches of unlimited growth (Long shoot) are present.
6. Leaves are dimorphic, foliage and scale leaves are present. Foliage leaves are green, photosynthetic and borne on branches of limited growth. They show xerophytic features.
7. The xylem consists of tracheids but in Gnetum and Ephedra Vessels are present.
8. Secondary growth is present. The wood may be Manoxylic (Porous, soft, more parenchyma with wide medullary ray – Cycas) or Pycnoxylic (compact with narrow medullary ray-Pinus).
9. They are Heterosporous. The plant may be monoecious (Pinus) or dioecious (Cycas).
10. Microsporangia and Megasporangia are produced on Microsporophyll and Megasporophyll respectively.
11. Male and female cones are produced.
12. Anemophilous pollination is present.
13. Fertilization is siphon gamous and pollen tube helps in the transfer of male nuclei.

Question 6.
List out the economic importance of gymnosperms.
Answer:
Economic importance of gymnosperms

Plants	Products	Uses
Cycas circinalis, Cycas revoluta	Sago	Starch used as food.
Pinus gerardiana.	Roasted seed	Used as a food.
Abies balsamea.	Resin (Canada balsam)	Used as mounting medium in permanent slide preparation.
Pinus insularis, Pinus roxburghii	Rosin and Turpentine	Paper sizing and varnishes.
Araucaria (monkey’s puzzle), Picea and Phyllocladus.	Tannins	Bark yield tannins and is used in Leather industries.
Taxus brevifolia.	Taxol	Drug used for cancer treatment.
Ephedra gerardiana.	Ephedrine	For the treatment of asthma, bronchititis.
Pinus roxburghii.	Oleoresin	Used to make soap, varnishes and printing ink.
Pinus roxburghii, Picea smithiana	Wood pulp	Used to make papers.
Cedrus deodara.	Wood	Used to make doors, boats and railway sleepers.
Cedrus atlantica.	Oil	Used in perfumery.
Thuja, Cupressus, Araucaria, and Crypiomeria.	Decorative	Ornamental plants.

Choose the correct answer.

1. Who proposed plant kingdom?
(a) Eichler
(b) G.M.Smith
(c) Chamberlain
(d) Aristotle
Answer:
(a) Eichler

2. Volvox, §pirogyra are the examples for:
(a) Diplontic
(b) Haplontic
(c) Epiphytic
(d) Haplodiplotic
Answer:
(b) Haplontic

3. Father of Indian phycology is:
(a) Went
(b) F.E. Fritsch
(c) Ainsworth
(d) M.O.P. Iyengar
Answer:
(d) M.O.P. Iyengar

4. Identify the incorrect habitat:
(a) Marine – Sargassum
(b) Freshwater – Oedogonium
(c) Soil – Ulothrix
(d) Salt pass – Dunaliella
Answer:
(c) Soil – Ulothrix

5. The study of Algae is called:
(a) Phycology
(b) Mycology
(c) Bryology
(d) Virology
Answer:
(a) Phycology

6. Which is the proteinaceous body found is
(a) Pyrenoids
(b) Siliceous walls
(c) Carrageenan
(d) Alginate
Answer:
(a) Pyrenoids

7. Oedogonium belongs to the class:
(a) Cryptophyceae
(b) Rhodophyceae
(c) Phaeophyceae
(d) Chlorophyceae
Answer:
(d) Chlorophyceae

8. Identify the incorrect pair.
(a) Green algae – Chlorophyceae
(b) Red algae – Rhodophyceae
(c) Brown algae -Phaeophyceae
(d) Blue algae – Dinophyceae
Answer:
(d) Blue algae – Dinophyceae

9. Match the following:

(i) Carrageenin	(a) Gracilaria
(ii) Alginate	(b) Chlorella
(Hi) Chlorellin	(c) Laminaria
(iv) Agar agar	(d) Chondrus

(a) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
(b) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
(c) (i)-(b), (ti)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(d) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
Answer:
(b) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)

10. Amylum stars, root bulbils and amorphous bulbils are the vegetative reproductive organs of:
(a) Chora
(b) Oedogonium
(c) Selaginella
(d) Pinus
Answer:
(a) Chora

11. In which sporophyte elaters are present and help in dispersal:
(a) Riccia
(b) Anthoceros
(c) Bryopteris
(d) Marchantia
Answer:
(d) Marchantia

12. Who classified bryophytes in to 3 classes.
(a) Proskauer
(b) Kashyap
(c) G.M.Smith
(d) Chamberlain
Answer:
(a) Proskauer

13. Sphagnum is used in:
(a) Agriculture
(b) Horticulture
(c) Sericulture
(d) Monoculture
Answer:
(b) Horticulture

14. Pulmonary tuberculosis is caused by:
(a) Funaria hygrometrica
(b) Sphagnum
(c) Marchantia polynmorpha
(d) Riccia
Answer:
(c) Marchantia polynmorpha

15. Selaginalla is the example for:
(a) Plectostele
(b) Haplostele
(c) Mixed protostele
(d) Actinostele
Answer:
(b) Haplostele

16. ‘Walking fem’ is the common name for:
(a) Pinus
(b) Cycas
(c) Adiantum
(d) Selaginella
Answer:
(c) Adiantum

17. Identify the incorrect statement.
(a) presence of cambium in gymnosperm as in monocotyledons
(b) presence integument around the ovule
(c) both plant group produce seeds.
(d) pollentube helps in the transfer of male nucleus in both.
Answer:
(a) presence of cambium in gymnosperm as in monocotyledons

18. Match the following:

(i) Cycas revoluta	(a) Drug used for cancer treatment
(ii) Pinus gerardiana	(b) used in perfumery
(iii) Taxus brevifolia	(c) used as a food
(iv) Cedrus atlantica	(d) starch used as food

(a) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
(b) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(c) (i)-(a), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)
(d) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
Answer:
(b) (i)-(d), (ti)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)

19. Coralloid roots are found in:
(a) Araucaria
(b) Ephedra
(c) Cycas
(d) Pinus
Answer:
(c) Cycas

20. Foliage leaves are otherwise called:
(a) Axillary leaves
(b) Scale leaves
(c) Sessile leaves
(d) Assimilatory leaves
Answer:
(d) Assimilatory leaves

21. Algae having oil as reserve food belongs to:
(a) Xanthophyceae
(b) Rhodophyceae
(c) Chlorophyceae
(d) Phaeophyceae
Answer:
(a) Xanthophyceae

22. Antheridia and Archegonia are sex organs of:
(a) Moss
(b) Mucor
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Puccinia
Answer:
(a) Moss

23. Archegonicphore is found in:
(a) Funaria
(b) Marchantia
(c) Chara
(d) Adiantum
Answer:
(b) Marchantia

24. Which one of the following in Spyrogyra is different based on its nucleus?
(a) Zygospore
(b) Azygospore
(c) Aplanspore
(d) Akinete
Answer:
(a) Zygospore

25. Nostoc fixes dinitrogen in symbiotic association with the following:
(a) Alnus
(b) Gunnera
(c) Anthocerus
(d) Casurina
The correct combination is:
(a) I & II (b) II & III (c) I & III (d) I & IV
Answer:
(b) II & III

26. Select the wrong statement:
(a) Isogametes are similar in structure, function and behaviour
(b) Anisogametes differ either in structure, function and behaviour
(c) In oomycetes , female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and nonmotile.
(d) Cjilamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and focus shows oogamy.
Answer:
(c) In oomycetes , female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and nonmotile.

27. The ladder like structure found in spirogyra is due to:
(a) Asexual reproduction
(b) Lateral conjugation
(c) Direct conjugation
(d) Sealiriform conjugation
Answer:
(d) Sealiriform conjugation

28. Transgenic plants are the ones:
(a) grown in artificial medium, after hybridization in the field.
(b) produced by a somatic embryo in artificial medium.
(c) generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell.
(d) produced after protoplast fusion in artificial medium.
Answer:
(c) generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell.

29. Which of the following is a living fossil?
(a) Spirogyra
(b) Moss
(c) Cycas
(d) Saccharomyces
Answer:
(c) Cycas

30. Which of the following species propagates through leaf-tip?
(a) Funaria
(b) Walking fern
(c) Moss
(d) Marchantia
Answer:
(b) Walking fern

Students get through the TN Board 11th Bio Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 11th Bio Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World

Answer the following short answers.

Question 1.
Define Biosphere.
Answer:
Earth has formed some 4.6 billion years ago. It is a life-supporting planet with landforms like mountains, plateaus, glaciers, etc., Life on earth exists within a complex structure called the biosphere.

Question 2.
What is the role of the DNA molecule?
Answer:
DNA is essential for the regulation of life and is made up of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and phosphorus, and thus nonliving and living things exist together to make our planet unique.

Question 3.
What is consciousness?
Answer:
AH organisms are capable of sensing their environment and respond to various physical, chemical, and biological stimuli. Animals sense their surroundings by sense organs. This is called consciousness.

Question 4.
Explain Prions.
Answer:
Prions were discovered by Stanley B.Prusiner in the year 1982 and are proteinaceous infectious particles. They are the causative agents for about a dozen fatal degenerative disorders of the central nervous system of humans and other animals. For example Creutzfeldt – Jakob Disease (CJD), Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) – commonly known as mad cow disease and scrapie disease of sheep.

Question 5.
What is Plasmid?
Answer:
Plasmids are extrachromosomal double-stranded, circular, self-replicating, autonomous elements. They contain genes for fertility, antibiotic-resistant and heavy metals. It also helps in the production of bacteriocins and toxins which are not found in the bacterial chromosome.

Question 6.
Mention the need for classification?
Answer:
Classification is essential to achieve the following needs:

1. To relate things based on common characteristic features.
2. To define organisms based on the salient features.
3. Helps in knowing the relationship amongst different groups of organisms.
4. It helps in understanding the evolutionary relationship between organisms.

Question 7.
What is Pili?
Answer:
Pili or fimbriae are hair-like appendages found on the surface of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria (eg. Enterobacterium). The pili are 0.2 to 20 pm long with a diameter of about 0.025pm. In addition to normal pili, special types of pili that help in conjugation called sex pili are also found.

Question 8.
Define “Pruteen”.
Answer:
“Pruteen” is a single cell protein derived from Methylophilus and Methylotropus.

Question 9.
What are Mycobiont and Phycobiont?
Answer:
The symbiotic association between algae and fungi is called lichens. The algal partner |is called Phycobiont or Photobiont and the fungal partner is called Mycobiont. Algae provide nutrition for fungal partners in turn fungi provide protection and also help to fix the thallus to the substratum through rhizines. Asexual reproduction takes place through fragmentation, Soredia, and Isidia. Phycobionst reproduces by akinetes, hormogonia, aplanospore, etc., Mycobionts undergo sexual reproduction and produce ascocarps.

Question 10.
Define Homeostasis.
Answer:
Property of self-regulation and tendency to maintain a steady-state within an external environment which is liable to change is called Homeostasis. It is essential for the living organism to maintain internal conditions to survive in the environment.

Question 11.
Mention any four living characteristics of viruses.
Answer:

1. Presence of nucleic acid and protein.
2. Capable of mutation
3. Ability to multiply within living cells.
4. Able to infect and cause diseases in living beings.

Question 12.
Explain the term Viroid.
Answer:
Viroid is a circular molecule of ssRNA without a capsid and was discovered by T.O.Diener in the year 1971. The RNA of viroid has a low molecular weight. Viroids cause citrus exocytic and potato spindle tuber disease in plants.

Question 13.
What is meant by red tide?
Answer:
Red tide is caused by the toxic bloom of Dinoflagellates like Gymnodinium breve and Gonyaulax tamarensis. A major red tide incident in the west coast of Florida in the year 1982 killed hundreds and thousands of fishes.

Question 14.
What are Polysomes?
Answer:
The ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis. The number of ribosomes per cell varies from 10,000 to 15,000. The ribosomes are 70S type and consist of two subunits (50S and 30S). The ribosomes are held together by mRNA and form polyribosomes or polysomes.

Question 15.
Write briefly on purple sulfur bacteria.
Answer:
For bacteria belonging to this group, the hydrogen donor is Thiosulphate and Bacteriochlorophyll. Chlorophyll containing chlorosomes are present, eg. Chromatium.

Question 16.
Match the following:

(i) Xanthomanas oryzae	(a) Apple
(ii) Erwiria caratovora	(b) Citrus
(iii) Erwiria amylovera	(c) Rice
(iv) Xanthomnas citri	(d) Carrot

Answer:
(i)-(c);
(ii)-(a);
(iii)-(d);
(iv)-(b)

Question 17.
What is meant by aflatoxin?
Answer:
Aspergillus, Rhizopus, Mucor, and Penicillium ate involved in the spoilage of food materials. Aspergillus flavus infest dried foods and produce a carcinogenic toxins called aflatoxin.

Question 18.
Explain the term mycorrhizae.
Answer:
The Symbiotic association between fungal mycelium and roots of plants is called mycorrhizae. In this relationship, fungi absorb nutrition from the root, and in turn, the hyphal network of mycorrhizae forming fungi helps the plant to absorb water and mineral nutrients from the soil.

Question 19.
Name any two fungal diseases of plants and their causative organism.
Answer:

1. A blast of Paddy: Magnaporthe grisea.
2. Red rot of sugarcane: Colletotrichum falcatum.

Question 20.
Explain Oomycetes with an example.
Answer:
Coenocytic mycelium is present. The cell wall is made up of Glucan and Cellulose. Zoospore with one whiplash and one tinsel flagellum is present. Sexual reproduction is Oogamous. eg. Albugo.

Answer In brief.

Question 1.
Differentiate extrinsic and intrinsic.
Answer:

Extrinsic	Intrinsic
Growth in non-living objects is extrinsic.	Growth in living things is intrinsic.
Mountains, boulders, and sand mounds grow by simple aggregation of material on the surface.	Living cells grow by the addition of new protoplasm within the cells.

Question 2.
List out the classification of viruses.
Answer:

Different Classes of viruses
Class	Example
Class 1 – Viruses with dsDNA	Adenoviruses
Class 2 – Viruses with (+) sense ssDNA	Parvo viruses
Class 3 – Viruses with dsRNA	Reo viruses
Class 4 – Viruses with (+) sense ssRNA	Toga viruses
Class 5 – Viruses with (-) antisense ssRNA	Rhabdo viruses
Class 6 – Viruses with (+) sense ss RNA- RT that replicate with DNA intermediate in the life cycle.	Retroviruses
Class 7 – Viruses with ds DNA – RT that replicate with RNA intermediate in the life cycle.	Hepadna viruses

Question 3.
Name any three plant, animal, and human diseases caused by viruses.
Answer:
Plant diseases: (i) Tobacco mosaic, (ii) Cauliflower mosaic, (iii) Sugarcane mosaic.
Animal diseases: (i) Foot and mouth disease of cattle, (ii) Rabies of dog, (iii) Encephalomyelitis of horse
Human diseases: (i) Common cold, (ii) Hepatitis B, (iii) Cancer.

Question 4.
Distinguish catabolism and anabolism.
Answer:

Anabolism	Catabolism
Building up process.	Breaking down process.
Smaller molecules combine together to form larger molecules.	Larger molecules break into smaller units.
Chemical energy is formed and stored, eg. Synthesis of proteins from amino acids.	The stored chemical energy is released and used. eg. Breaking down of glucose to C02 and water.

Question 5.
List out any three methods of sexual reproduction, in fungi.
Answer:

1. Sexual reproduction is present but sex organs are absent. Somatogamy or spermatisation results in plasmogamy.
2. Karyogamy is delayed and the dikaryotic phase is prolonged.
3. Karyogamy takes place in basidium and it is immediately followed by meiotic division.

Question 6.
Describe briefly the Viral genome.
Answer:

1. Each virus possesses only one type of nucleic acid either DNA or RNA. The nucleic acid may be in a linear or circular form.
2. Generally nucleic acid is present as a single unit but in wound tumor virus and in influenza virus it is found in segments.
3. The viruses possessing DNA are called ‘Deoxyviruses’ whereas those possessing RNA are called ‘Riboviruses’. The majority of animal and bacterial viruses are DNA viruses (HIV is the animal virus that possesses RNA).
4. Plant viruses generally contain RNA (Cauliflower Mosaic virus possesses DNA). The nucleic acids may be single-stranded or double-stranded. On the basis of the nature of nucleic acid, viruses are classified into four categories. They are Viruses with ssDNA (Parvoviruses), dsDNA (Bacteriophages), ssRNA (TMV), and dsRNA(wound tumour virus).

Question 7.
Explain the structure of T₄ bacteriophage.
Answer:

1. The T₄ phage is tadpole-shaped and consists of head, collar, tail, base plate, and fibers.
2. The head is hexagonal which consists of about 2000 identical protein subunits.
3. The long helical tail consists of an inner tubular core that is connected to the head by a collar.
4. There is a base plate attached to the end of the tail. The base plate contains six spikes and tail fibers. These fibers are used to attach the phage to the cell wall of the bacterial host during replication.
5. A dsDNA molecule of about 50 pm is tightly packed inside the head. The DNA is about 1000 times longer than the phage itself.

Question 8.
Draw and label the ultrastructure of a bacterial cell.
Answer:

Question 9.
What is meant by Ammonification? Explain the bacteria involved in the process.
Answer:

Bacterial aspects	Bacteria	Role
Ammonification	(i)  Bacillus ramosus (ii)  Bacillus mycoides	Convert complex proteins in the dead bodies of plants and animals into ammonia which is later converted into ammonium salt

Question 10.
Explain Actinomycetes with an example.
Answer:
Actinomycetes are also called ‘Ray fungi’ due to their mycelia-like growth. They are anaerobic or facultative anaerobic microorganisms and are gram-positive. They do not produce an aerial mycelium. Their DNA contains high guanine and cytosine content (eg. Streptomyces).

Answer In detail.

Question 1.
Draw the structure of different types of viruses and explain.
Answer:
Viruses are ultramicroscopic particles. They are smaller than bacteria and their diameter range from 20 to 300 nm (1 nm = 10^-9 meters). Bacteriophage measures about 10 – 100 nm in size. The size of TMV is 300 x 20 nm.
Generally, viruses are of three types based on shape and symmetry.

1. Cuboid symmetry – eg. Adenovirus, Herpes virus.
2. Helical symmetry – eg. Influenza virus, TMV.
3. Complex or Atypical – eg. Bacteriophage, Vaccinia virus.

Question 2.
Explain the types of Respiration in Bacteria.
Answer:
Two types of respiration are found in Bacteria. They are (i) Aerobic respiration, (ii) Anaerobic respiration.

1. Aerobic respiration These bacteria require oxygen as a terminal acceptor and will not grow under anaerobic conditions (i.e. in the absence of O2) eg. Streptococcus.
   Obligate aerobes: Some Micrococcus species are obligate aerobes (i.e. they must have oxygen to survive),
2. Anaerobic respiration: These bacteria do not use oxygen for growth and metabolism but obtain their energy from fermentation reactions, eg. Clostridium.

Facultative anaerobes: There are bacteria that can grow either using oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor or anaerobically using fermentation reaction to obtain energy. When a facultative anaerobe such as E. coli is present at a site of infection like an abdominal abscess, it can rapidly consume all available 02 and change to anaerobic metabolism producing an anaerobic environment and thus allow the anaerobic bacteria that are present to grow and cause disease, eg. Escherichia coli and Salmonella.
Capnophilic Bacteria: Bacteria that require CO₂ for their growth are called as capnophilic bacteria, eg. Campylobacter.

Question 3.
Describe the various steps in Gram’s staining procedure.
Answer:

Question 4.
Give a concise account of asexual reproduction in bacteria.
Answer:
Bacteria reproduce asexually by Binary fission, conidia, and endospore formation. Among these Binary fission is the most common one.
Binary fission: Under favorable conditions, the cell divides into two daughter cells. The nuclear material divides first and it is followed by the formation of a simple median constriction which! finally results in the separation of two cells.
Endospores: During unfavorable conditions bacteria produce endospores. Endospores are produced in Bacillus megaterium, Bacillus sphaericus, and Clostridium tetani. Endospores are thick-walled resting spores. During the favorable conditions, they germinate and form bacteria.

Question 5.
Enumerate the general characteristic features of fungi.
Answer:

1. The majority of fungi are made up of thin, filamentous branched structures called hyphae. A number of hyphae get interwoven to form mycelium. The cell wall of fungi is made up of a polysaccharide called chitin (polymer of N-acetyl glucosamine).
2. The fungal mycelium is categorized into two types based on the presence or absence of septa (figure). In lower fungi, the hypha is aseptate, multinucleate and is known as coenocytic mycelium (eg. Albugo). In higher fungi, a septum is present between the cells of the hyphae. eg. Fusarium:
   
3. The mycelium is organized into loosely or compactly interwoven fungal tissues called plectenchyma. It is further divided into two types prosenchyma and pseudoparenchyma. In the former type, the hyphae are arranged loosely but parallel to one another In the latter hyphae are compactly arranged and lose their identity.
4. In holocarpic forms, the entire thallus is converted into reproductive structure whereas in Eucarpic some regions of the thallus are involved in the reproduction other regions remain vegetative. Fungi .reproduce both by asexual and sexual methods. The asexual phase is called Anamorph and the sexual phase is called Teleomorph. Fungi having both phases are called Holomorph.
5. In general sexual reproduction in fungi includes three steps (a) Fusion of two protoplasts (plasmogamy), (b) Fusion of nuclei (karyogamy), and (c) Production of haploid spores through meiosis.

Question 6.
Write an essay on the Beneficial activities of fungi.
Answer:
Fungi provide delicious and nutritious food called mushrooms. They recycle the minerals by decomposing the litter thus adding fertility to the soil. The dairy industry is based on a single-celled fungus called yeast. They deteriorate the timber. Fungi cause food poisoning due to the production of toxins. The Beneficial and harmful activities of fungi are discussed below:
Beneficial activities:

1. Food: Mushrooms likeLentinus edodes, Agaricusbisporus, Volvariella volvaceae are consumed ‘ for their high nutritive value. Yeasts provide vitamin B and Eremothecium ashbyii is a rich source of Vitamin B₁₂.
2. Medicine: Fungi produce antibiotics that arrest the growth or destroy the bacteria. Some of the antibiotics produced by fungi include Penicillin (Penicillium notatum), Cephalosporins,
   (Acremonium chrysogenum), Griseofulvin (Penicillium griseofulvum). Ergot alkaloids (Ergotamine) produced by Claviceps purpurea are used as vasoconstrictors.
3. Industries: Production of organic acid: For the commercial production of organic acids fungi are employed in the Industries. Some of the organic acids and fungi which help in the production of organic acids are Citric acid and Gluconic-acid – Aspergillus niger, Itaconic acid – Aspergillus terreus, Kojic acid – Aspergilhis oryzae.
4. Bakery and Brewery: Yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) is used for the fermentation of sugars to yield alcohol. Bakeries utilize yeast for the production of Bakery products like Bread, buns, rolls. etc. Penicillium roquefortii and Penicillium camemberti are employed in cheese production.
5. Production of enzymes: Aspergillus oryzae, Aspergillus niger is employed in the production of enzymes like Amylase, Protease, Lactase etc., ’Rennet’ which helps in the coagulation of milk in cheese manufacturing is derived from Mucor spp.
6. Agriculture: Mycorrhiza forming fungi like Rhizoctonia, Phallus, Scleroderma helps in the absorption of water and minerals. Fungi like Beauveria bassiana, Metarhizium anisopliae are used as Biopesticides to eradicate the pests of crops. Gibberellin, produced by a fungus Gibberella fujikuroi induce plant growth and is used as growth promoter.

Activity

Text Book Page No. 25

Collect some root nodules of leguminous crops. Draw diagram. Wash, it in tap water and prepare d smear by squeezing the content into a clean slide. Follow the Gram staining method and identify the bacteria.
Answer:
Azotobacter, Clostridium, rhizobium are observed.

Text Book Page No. 37

Get a button mushroom. Draw a diagram of the fruit body. Take a thin longitudinal section passing through the gill and observe the section under a microscope. Record your observations.
Answer:


Keep a slice of bread in a clean plastic tray or plate. Wet the surface with little water. Leave the setup for 3 or 4 days. Observe the moldy growth on the surface of the bread. Using .a needle removes some mycelium and place it on a slide and stain the mycelium using lactophenol blue. Observe the mycelium and sporangium under the microscope and Record your observation and identify the fungi and its group based on characteristic features:
The bread mold fungi such as Mucor, Rhizopus can be observed.

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. A sexual reproduction in living organism occurs by the production of:
(a) conidia formation
(b) budding
(c) binnary fission
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

2. Animal sense their surroundings by sense organ is called:
(a) Metabolism
(b) Irritability
(c) Consciounsness
(d) Anabolism
Answer:
(c) Consciounsness

3. Who obtained the crystalline protein sediment from infected tobacco juice?
(a) Edward Jennev
(b) W.M. Stanley
(c) Ivanowsky
(d) F.W. Twort
Answer:
(b) W.M. Stanley

4. Which of the following is the diameter of bacteriophage?
(a) 10 – 100 nm
(b) 20 – 100 nm
(c) 10 – 200 nm
(d) 20 – 30 nm
Answer:
(a) 10 – 100 nm

5. How many classes are there in viruses?
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 6
Answer:
(c) 1

6. The shape of TMV is:
(a) round shape
(b) cuboid shape
(c) cylindrical shape
(d) rod shape
Answer:
(d) rod shape

7. Identify the incorrect statement of living characters of viruses.
(a) Absence of metabolism
(b) Presence of nucleic acid
(c) Multiply within the cells
(d) Capable of mutation
Answer:
(a) Absence of metabolism

8. Cyanophages means:
(a) Viruses infecting red algae
(b) Viruses infecting brown algae
(c) Viruses infecting blue-green algae
(d) Viruses infecting green algae
Answer:
(c) Viruses infecting blue-green algae

9. Which one of the following is a bacterial disease?
(a) Common cold
(b) Cancer
(c) Rabies
(d) Tetanus
Answer:
(d) Tetanus

10. Who proposed the five kingdom classification?
(a) R.H. Whittaker
(b) Linnaeus
(c) Haeckel
(d) Aristotle
Answer:
(a) R.H. Whittaker

11. Actinomycetes, cyanobacteria are examples of:
(a) Protostar
(b) Fungi
(c) Monera
(d) Animalia
Answer:
(c) Monera

12. What are the three domains of life according to Carl Woese and co-workers?
(a) Prokaiyota, Eukaryota, Archaea
(b) Archaea, Bacteria, Protozoa
(c) Archaea, Fungi, Bacteria
(d) Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya
Answer:
(d) Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya

13. Who coined the word Bacterium?
(a) Christian Gram
(b) C.G.Ehrenberg
(c) Griffith
(d) Lederberg
Answer:
(b) C.G.Ehrenberg

14. Eschrichia coli and Salmonella are examples of:
(a) Aerobes
(b) Obligate aerobes
(c) Facultative anaerobes
(d) Anaerobes
Answer:
(c) Facultative anaerobes

15. Which among the bacteria breakdown hydrocarbons?
(a) Pseudomonas putida
(b) Lacto bacillus
(c) Bifido bacterium
(d) Nitrosomonas
Answer:
(a) Pseudomonas putida

16. Match the following disease with their pathogen:

Name of the disease	Name of the pathogen
(i) Bacterial blight	(a) Clavibactor michiganensis
(ii) Fire blight	(b) Xanthomonas citri
(Hi) Citrus canker	(c) Xanthomonas oryzae
(iv) Ring rot	(d) Erwinia amylvora

(a) (i)-(d); (ii)-(c); (iii)-(b); (iv)-(a)
(b) (i)-(c); (ii)-(a); (iii)-(b); (iv)-(d)
(c) (i)-(a)-, (ii)-(d); (iii)-(b); (iv)-(c)
(d) (i)-(c); (ii)-(d); (iii)-(b); (iv)-(a)
Answer:
(d) (i)-(c); (ii)-(d); (iii)-(b); (iv)-(a)

17. PHB means:
(a) Poly Hexo Butyrate
(b) Poly Hydrolxl Butyle
(c) Poly -13 Hydroxl Butyrate
(d) Poly Hedfal Butyrate
Answer:
(c) Poly -13 Hydroxl Butyrate

18. Which of the statement is incorrect in blue-green algae?
(a) The thallus is unicellular
(b) The reserve food material is cyanophycean starch
(c) Absence of mucilage around the thallus
(d) Sexual reproduction is absent
Answer:
(c) Absence of mucilage around the thallus

19. Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of:
(a) Biofertilizer
(b) Biological fuel
(c) Biotic factor
(d) Pro-Biotic
Answer:
(a) Biofertilizer

20. Father of the Indian mycology is:
(a) P.A.Michali
(b) C.H.Blackley
(c) Sir Edwin John Butler
(d) A.F. Blakeshec
Answer:
(c) Sir Edwin John Butler

21. In Fungi reproduction sexual phase is called:
(a) Anamorph
(b) Holomorph
(c) Allelomorph
(d) Teleomorph
Answer:
(d) Teleomorph

22. Odd one out (Type of ascocarp):
(a) Deistothecium
(b) Perithecium
(c) Apothecium
(d) Basidium
Answer:
(d) Basidium

23. Which one of the following is a rich source of vitamin B12?
(a) Agaricus bisporus
(b) Aspergillus oryzae
(c) Eremothecium ashbyii
(d) Clavicepspurpurea
Answer:
(c) Eremothecium ashbyii

24. Pick out the incorrect pair:
(a) Blast of paddy – Magnaporthe grisea
(b) Red rot of sugarcane – Albugo Candida
(c) Rust of wheat – Pucciniagraminis
(d) peach of leaf curl – Taphrina deformans
Answer:
(b) Red rot of sugarcane – Albugo Candida

25. The symbiotic association between fungal mycelium and roots of higher plants is called:
(a) Lichen
(b) Symbiotic
(c) Monotropa
(d) Mycorrhizac
Answer:
(d) Mycorrhizac

26. Each virus posses only one type of nucleic acid:
(a) Either DNA or RNA
(b) DNA only
(c) Neither DNA nor RNA
(d) RNA only
Answer:
(a) Either DNA or RNA

27. Tobacco mosaic virus is a:
(a) rhomboid-shaped helical virus
(b) rod-shaped helical virus
(c) rectangular-shaped virus
(d) triangular shaped helical virus
Answer:
(b) rod-shaped helical virus

28. Indicate the correct statement:
(a) Virion is a circular molecule of ss RNA without a capsid
(b) Virion is a phage that injects linear DNA into the host cell
(c) Virion is an intact infective virus particle, which is non – replicating outside a host cell
(d) Virion is discovered by J.W Randles
Answer:
(c) Virion is an intact infective virus particle, which is non – replicating outside a host cell

29. Transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another is called:
(a) Conjugation
(b) Transformation
(c) Transduction
(d) Binary fission
Answer:
(b) Transformation

30. Fusion of two somative cells of the hypae is called:
(a) Anisogamy
(b) Somatogamy
(c) Oogamy
(d) Isogamy
Answer:
(b) Somatogamy

TN 11th Biology Important Questions State Board English Medium 2022-2023.

Biology NEET MCQ

TN State Board 11th Biology Important Questions and Answers

TN State Board 11th Bio Botany Important Questions and Answers

• Chapter 1 Living World Important Questions
• Chapter 2 Plant Kingdom Important Questions
• Chapter 3 Vegetative Morphology Important Questions
• Chapter 4 Reproductive Morphology Important Questions
• Chapter 5 Taxonomy and Systematic Botany Important Questions
• Chapter 6 Cell: The Unit of Life Important Questions
• Chapter 7 Cell Cycle Important Questions
• Chapter 8 Biomolecules Important Questions
• Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System Important Questions
• Chapter 10 Secondary Growth Important Questions
• Chapter 11 Transport in Plants Important Questions
• Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition Important Questions
• Chapter 13 Photosynthesis Important Questions
• Chapter 14 Respiration Important Questions
• Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development Important Questions

TN State Board 11th Bio Zoology Important Questions and Answers

• Chapter 1 The Living World Important Questions
• Chapter 2 Kingdom Animalia Important Questions
• Chapter 3 Tissue Level of Organisation Important Questions
• Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals Important Questions
• Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption Important Questions
• Chapter 6 Respiration Important Questions
• Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation Important Questions
• Chapter 8 Excretion Important Questions
• Chapter 9 Locomotion and Movement Important Questions
• Chapter 10 Neural Control and Coordination Important Questions
• Chapter 11 Chemical Coordination and Integration Important Questions
• Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology Important Questions

TN 11th Bio Zoology Important Questions State Board English Medium 2022-2023.

Biology NEET MCQ

TN State Board 11th Bio Zoology Important Questions and Answers

• Chapter 1 The Living World Important Questions
• Chapter 2 Kingdom Animalia Important Questions
• Chapter 3 Tissue Level of Organisation Important Questions
• Chapter 4 Organ and Organ Systems in Animals Important Questions
• Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption Important Questions
• Chapter 6 Respiration Important Questions
• Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation Important Questions
• Chapter 8 Excretion Important Questions
• Chapter 9 Locomotion and Movement Important Questions
• Chapter 10 Neural Control and Coordination Important Questions
• Chapter 11 Chemical Coordination and Integration Important Questions
• Chapter 12 Trends in Economic Zoology Important Questions

TN 11th Bio Botany Important Questions State Board English Medium 2022-2023.

Biology NEET MCQ

TN State Board 11th Bio Botany Important Questions and Answers

• Chapter 1 Living World Important Questions
• Chapter 2 Plant Kingdom Important Questions
• Chapter 3 Vegetative Morphology Important Questions
• Chapter 4 Reproductive Morphology Important Questions
• Chapter 5 Taxonomy and Systematic Botany Important Questions
• Chapter 6 Cell: The Unit of Life Important Questions
• Chapter 7 Cell Cycle Important Questions
• Chapter 8 Biomolecules Important Questions
• Chapter 9 Tissue and Tissue System Important Questions
• Chapter 10 Secondary Growth Important Questions
• Chapter 11 Transport in Plants Important Questions
• Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition Important Questions
• Chapter 13 Photosynthesis Important Questions
• Chapter 14 Respiration Important Questions
• Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development Important Questions

Students get through the TN Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 33 Indirect Taxation which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 33 Indirect Taxation

Very short answer questions

1. Mention the kinds of GST.
Answer:

1. CGST – Central Goods and Service Tax.
2. SGST – State Goods and Service Tax.
3. UGST – Union Goods and Service Tax.
4. IGST – Integrated State Goods arid Service Tax.
5. IGST on exports.

2. Main sources of Tax revenue and Non-tax revenue.
Answer:

1. Land revenue.
2. Taxes on sales and purchase of goods.
3. Taxes on agricultural income.
4. Taxes on land and building.
5. Entertainment tax.

3. GST benefits of consumer.
Answer:

1. The input tax credit allowed will lower the prices to the consumers.
2. All small retailers will get exemption and purchases from them will cost less for the consumers.

Short answer questions

1. Explain the meaning of GST.
Answer:

1. Goods and Services Tax (GST) is the tax imposed on the supply (consumption) of goods and services. It is a destination-based consumption tax and collected on those value-added items at each stage of the supply chain.
2. A manufacturer in India, need not pay GST wherever he/she manufactures. GST is applicable to all goods and services except alcohol and specified petroleum products. GST Act has proposed four tax rates, i.e. 5%, 12%, 18% and 28%.

2. Write any three benefits of GST.
Answer:

1. The creation of more employment opportunities will result in poverty eradication.
2. It will bring more tax compliance (more taxpayers) and increase revenue to the Governments.
3. It is transparent and will improve India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Business in the world.

Long answer questions

1. GST benefits of the business community.
Answer:

1. Simpler Tax System with fewer exemptions. 17 taxes were abolished and one tax exists today.
2. The input tax credit will reduce cascading effect of taxes. Reduction in average tax burden will encourage manufacturers and help the “Make in India” campaign and make India a manufacturing hub.
3. Common procedures, common classification of goods and services, and timelines will lend greater certainty to the taxation system.
4. GSTN facility will reduce multiple record-keeping, lesser investment in manpower and resources, and improve efficiency.
5. All interactions will be through a common GSTN portal and will ensure corruption-free administration.
6. Uniform prices throughout the country. Expansion of business to all states is made easy.

2. Explain IGST with an example.
Answer:
Meaning:

1. IGST refers to the integrated goods and services tax and it is a combined form of CGST and IGST and is levied by the central government.
2. Collection of tax: Taxes collected by the central government.
3. Applicability: All exports are treated as inter-state supply under GST since exports also rated. GST is not imposed on all goods and services exported from India. Any input credit paid already exports will be refundable.
4. Registration: Registration is mandatory.
5. Composition: The composition scheme is not applicable in interstate supply.

Multiple-choice questions

1. GST applicable to all goods and services except alcohol and specified petroleum products. GST Act has proposed tax rates.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(c) four

2. GST is of ……… kinds
(a) three
(b) four
(c) one
(d) five
Answer:
(a) three

3. CGST Act on:
(a) 2017
(b) 2016
(c) 2008
(d) 2002
Answer:
(a) 2017

4. The chairman of the council is the union ………. minister.
(a) educational
(b) agricultural
(c) finance
(d) textiles
Answer:
(c) finance

5. CGST collection of tax:
(a) state government
(b) central government
(c) direct tax
(d) indirect tax
Answer:
(a) state government

6. Input tax credit allowed will lower the prices to the:
(a) banker
(b) consumers
(c) debtors
(d) creditors
Answer:
(b) consumers

7. Several …………. says that GST in India would impact negatively on the real estate market.
(a) economics
(b) commerce
(c) mathematics
(d) statistics
Answer:
(a) economics

8. A number of retail products currently have only:
(a) 2%
(b) 3%
(c) 4%
(d) 5%
Answer:
(c) 4%

9. The aviation industry would be affected service taxes on airfares currently range from:
(a) 6% to 9%
(b) 5% to 8%
(c) 4% to 6%
(d) 4% to 8%
Answer:
(a) 6% to 9%

10. GST this rate will surpass fifteen percent and effectively ……… the tax rate.
(a) double rate
(b) Single rate
(c) triple rate
(d) Others rate
Answer:
(a) double rate

Students get through the TN Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 32 Direct Taxes which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 32 Direct Taxes

Very short answer questions

Question 1.
What are 80C Deductions?
Answer:
80C Deductions; Contribution to Provident Fund, Life Insurance Premium, Children’s Tuition Fees, Health Insurance Premium, Investment in National Savings Certificate, interest paid for home loans, etc.

Question 2.
What is Applicability?
Answer:
Income Tax is applicable throughout India including the State of Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 3.
What is Annual tax?
Answer:
Income tax is an annual tax because it is the income of a particular year that is chargeable to tax.

Question 4.
What are the kinds of taxes?
Answer:
Direct taxes and Indirect taxes.

Question 5.
Examples of Indirect taxes.
Answer:
Excise duties, customs duties, sales tax, entertainment tax, service tax.

Question 6.
Mention the features of Income-tax in India.
Answer:

1. Levied as per the constitution,
2. Levied by the central government,
3. Direct tax,
4. Annual tax,
5. Tax on the person,
6. Tax on Income.

Short answer questions

Question 1.
Explain Income Tax is administered by the central government.
Answer:
Income tax is administered by the Central Government (Ministry of Finance) with the help of the ‘Income tax department’ with branches throughout the country. The Central Government has constituted the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) which exercises overall control over the Income-tax department by issuing guidelines for related matters.

Question 2.
Define Direct tax.
Answer:
Income tax is a direct tax. It is because the liability to deposit and ultimate burden are on the same person. The person earning income is liable to pay income tax out of his own pocket and cannot pass on the burden of tax to another person.

Question 3.
What are the names of Direct taxes?
Answer:
The names of direct taxes are:

1. Income-Tax, Wealth Tax,
2. Capital Gains Tax,
3. Securities Transaction Tax,
4. Fringe Benefits Tax (from 2005),
5. Banking Cash Transaction Tax
   (for Rs. 50,000 and above – from 2005), etc.

In India, all direct taxes are levied and administered by the Central Board of Direct Taxes.

Question 4.
As per the assessment year 2018 – 19. Tabulate/ the Income Tax slab rate for individuals.
Answer:

Total Income	Income tax rate
Upto – 2,50,000	Nil
2,50,000 – 5,00,000	5%
5,00,001 – 10,00,000	20%
Above 10,00,000	30%

Long answer questions

Question 1.
Difference between Direct tax and Indirect tax.
Answer:

Direct tax	Indirect tax
Taxes on personal income, wealth, etc.	faxes on commodities and services.
This kind of tax is imposed on the person and collected from the same person.	This kind of tax is imposed on one person (producer) and collected from another person (consumer).
The money burden and real burden fall on the same person.	The money burden, as well as real burden, fall on the different person.
Direct taxes collected from the people directly.	indirect taxes are collected from the people indirectly through the price of goods.
Direct taxes are paid by rich people.	Indirect taxes are paid by the poor.

Multiple-choice questions

1. There are …….. types of taxes:
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(b) two

2. In India all direct taxes are levied and administered by ……… of direct taxes
(a) central board
(b) person
(c) company
(d) creditors
Answer:
(a) central board

3. If a tax levied on the income or wealth of a person and is paid by that person directly to the government it is called
(a) direct tax
(b) indirect tax
(c) income tax
(d) capital tax
Answer:
(a) direct tax

4. Good services tax example:
(a) direct tax
(b) indirect tax
(c) wealth tax
(d) capital gains tax
Answer:
(b) indirect tax

5. Banking cash transaction tax and above ………. from 2005.
(a) Rs. 50000
(b) Rs. 40000
(c) Rs. 100000
(d) Rs. 80000
Answer:
(a) Rs. 50000

6. Income tax is charged by the central government on all incomes others than ……….. income.
(a) banking
(b) industries
(c) agricultural
(d) home loan
Answer:
(c) agricultural

7. Income tax is direct tax it is because the ………. to deposit and ultimate burden are on the same person.
(a) money
(b) asset
(c) capital
(d) liability
Answer:
(d) liability

8. Tax on long term capital gain:
(a) 30%
(b) 25%
(c) 20%
(d) 15%
Answer:
(c) 20%

9. Section IIIA tax on short term capital gain on shares covered under SST:
(a) 20%
(b) 15%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%
Answer:
(b) 15%

10. Tax on lottery income section 115BB
(a) 30%
(b) 20%
(c) 10%
(d) 15%
Answer:
(a) 30%

11. Income tax is applicable throughout India including the state of:
(a) Hariyana
(b) Tamilnadu
(c) Jammu & Kashmir
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(c) Jammu & Kashmir

12. It normally consisting of a period of 12 months commencing on 1st April every year and ending on:
(a) 31st October
(b) 31st December
(c) 31st May
(d) 31st March
Answer:
(d) 31st March

13. Income from salaries sections:
(a) 15-17
(b) 16-17
(c) 17-18
(d) 19-20
Answer:
(a) 15-17

14. Income computed under these heads shall be aggregated after adjusting past and present losses and the total so arrived at is known as ……….. income.
(a) not total income
(b) gross total income
(c) total income
(d) income
Answer:
(b) gross total income

15. Gross total income, income tax Act:
(a) 1972
(b) 1971
(c) 1871
(d) 1961
Answer:
(d) 1961

Students get through the TN Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 31 Discharge and Breach of a Contract which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 31 Discharge and Breach of a Contract

Very short answer questions

Question 1.
What are the types of remedies for injured parties?
Answer:
There are various types of remedies for the injured parties listed as follows:

1. Recission of Contract,
2. Claim for Specific Performance,
3. Claim for Injunction,
4. Claim for Quantum Merit and
5. Claim for Damages.

Question 2.
What is a claim for specific performance?
Answer:
In some specific cases if the damages are not the adequate remedy, then the court can direct the party in breach for the specific performance of the contract. In such a case, the promise is carried out as per the terms and conditions of the contract.

Question 3.
What are the types of damages?
Answer:
There are mainly four types of damages, such as-

1. Ordinary damages,
2. Special damages,
3. Vindictive or exemplary damages and
4. Nominal damages.

Question 4.
What is the types of injunction case?
Answer:

1. If the contract is voidable,
2. If the contract becomes void, or
3. On discovering the contract as void.

Question 5.
Write a short note on recission of the contract?
Answer:
In case of breach of contract by one party, then the other parties may rescind the contract and thereby the party is absolved from all obligations under this contract.

Short answer questions

Question 1.
Explain the agreement on consent?
Answer:
Agreement between the parties comes to an end by mutually agreeing for it. Any contract is created by an agreement, hence in the same way, it can be discharged by an agreement. In this connection, the rule of law is as follows.
“Eodem modo qus and quide constituitor, eodem modo destruitur,” the meaning of which is that a thing may be destroyed in the same manner, in which, it is constituted. The consent may be of the following types
Express: Express consent may be given at the time of formation of the contract or subsequent to its formation.
Implied: The contracts are also discharged by implied consent, different modes of discharge by implied consent are:

1. Novation,
2. Alteration,
3. Recession,
4. Remission,
5. Accord and Satisfaction,
6. Waiver and
7. Merger

Question 2.
What is the lapse of time?
Answer:
According to the Limitation Act, 1963 a contract must be performed within a specified time. If it is not performed within this specified time limit and against which if no action is taken by the promisee in the. Court of Law within a specified time, then the promisee is deprived of his remedy at law. In such cases, the contract is discharged.

Question 3.
Name the contracts that can be contract discharged by law.
Answer:

1. By death,
2. By merger.
3. By Insolvency.
4. Unauthorized alternation of the terms of a contract.
5. Rights and Liabilities vesting in the same person.

Long answer questions

Question 1.
Explain the contract discharged by the operation law.
Answer:

1. By Death: If the contracts depend on the personal skill or ability, then such contract may be discharged on the death of the promisor
2. By Merger: Merger will take place when an inferior right accruing to the same party either under the same or another contract.
3. By Insolvency: An insolvent is discharged from all liabilities incurred prior to his adjudication.
4. Unauthorized Alteration of the Terms of a Contract: If one party makes any material alteration in the contract without the consent of the other party, then the other party can avoid the contract.
5. Rights and liabilities vesting in the same person: Where the right and liability become vested in the same person, the other parties are discharged.

For Own Thinking

1. To draw inference about the nature of the contract and legal ways of discharging it.
Answer:

1. Performance implies carrying out the obligation of the contract.
2. Performance must be completed according to die real intentions of the agreement, performance must be done according to the time and manner prescribed.

2. To understand the modes of discharge of contract.
Answer:
To explain two modes of discharge of contract.
Merger: Two or more contracts combined together to form a contract and discharge of contract.

For Future Learning

1. To interpret the consequence of the breach of performance of a contract.
Answer:
All parties to a contract are expected to perform their promises when one party refuses to perform his promise. Then the breach of contract takes place.

2. Illustrate with example the modes of discharge of contract and if not discharged the consequences.
Answer:
Recission of contract: In case of breach of contract by one party then the other parties may rescind the contract and thereby the party is absolved from all obligations under the contract.

3. To foresee the suitability of remedies for breach of contract violation of which leading to legal consequences.
Answer:
Remedies of breach of contract for that to claim damages.
Ordinary damages: Damages that arise in the ordinary course of events from, the breach of contract are called ordinary damages.
eg: Annie contracted to sell and deliver Bala 100 bags of Dhall at Rs. 3000 per bag and price to be paid at the time of delivery.
The price of Dhall is raised to Rs. 4000 per bag and Annie refused to sell the dhall. Bala can claim damages at the rate of Rs. 1000 per bag.

Multiple-choice questions

1. Performance of contract may be of ………. types.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) threat
(d) four
Answer:
(b) two

2. Impossibility existing at the time of:
(a) agreement
(b) formation of contract
(c) promisor
(d) personal
Answer:
(a) agreement

3. A contract can be discharged by the law.
(a) commercial law
(b) operation law
(c) civil law
(d) criminal law
Answer:
(b) operation law

4. Where the right and liability become vested, in the same person the:
(a) one party
(b) two parties
(c) other parties
(d) third parties
Answer:
(c) other parties

5. Right and ………. vesting in the same person.
(a) assets
(b) liabilities
(c) capital
(d) current asset
Answer:
(b) liabilities

6. They are various types of remedies for the injured parties listed as:
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) five
Answer:
(d) five

7. The contract and thereby the party is absolved from all obligations under the contract:
(a) rescission of contract
(b) claim for injunction
(c) claim for damages
(d) claim for quantum merit
Answer:
(a) rescission of contract

8. When it is probable that compensation in ……… cannot be received for the nonperformance of the act agreed to be done.
(a) asset
(b) money
(c) plant
(d) creditors
Answer:
(b) money

9. The contract made by a company ultra-virus of its ………. of association.
(a) memorandum
(b) articles of association
(c) prospectus
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(a) memorandum

10. A party for breach of contract there are mainly ………. types.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(c) four

11. The court may order injunction in the ………. types.
(a) one
(b) three
(c) two
(d) four
Answer:
(b) three

12. Section 73 of the Indian contract act:
(a) 1872
(b) 1972
(c) 2013
(d) 1982
Answer:
(a) 1872

Students get through the TN Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 30 Performance of Contract which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 30 Performance of Contract

Very short answer questions

Question 1.
What is attempted performance?
Answer:
When the party offers to perform his obligation, it is not accepted by the promisee. So, it is also called the offer to performance or tender. Hence, a valid tender of performance is considered to be the performance of a promise.

Question 2.
Who is a third person?
Answer:
According to Section 41, if a promisee accepts the performance of the promise by a third person he cannot afterward enforce it against the promisor.

Question 3.
What are Representations?
Answer:
A contract that involves the use of personal skill or it is found on personal considerations, comes to an end if the promisor dies. Of course, in the case of other contracts, the legal representatives Of a deceased promisor are bound to perform the contract Section 37.

Question 4.
Explain the time and place of performance of the promise.
Answer:
It is only the promisee for Whom the contract is performed. Only the promisee can demand the performance of the promise under a contract.

Short answer questions

Question 1.
What is the appropriation of payments?
Answer:
Sometimes, a debtor owes several distinct debts to the same creditor and he makes a payment that is insufficient to satisfy all the debts. In such a case, a question arises as to which particular debt the payment is to be appropriated. Section 59 to 61 of the Act lays down the following rules as to the appropriation of payments which provide an answer to this question.

Question 2.
What is mutual and dependent?
Answer:
Where the performance of the promise by one party depends upon the prior performance of promise by the other party, the promises are conditional and dependent. For example, A agrees to construct a building for B. B agrees to supply cement for the construction. Hence A’s promise to perform depends on B’s promise.

Question 3.
Explain the appropriation as per express instructions.
Answer:
Appropriation as per express Instructions:
Every debtor who owes several debts to a creditor has a right to instruct his creditor to which particular debt, the payment is to be appropriated or adjusted. Therefore, where the debtor expressly states that the payment is to be applied to the discharge of a particular debt, the. payment must be applied accordingly.

Question 4.
Write a short note on the Devolution of Joint Rights.
Answer:
“When a person has made a promise to two or more persons jointly, then unless there is a contract to the contrary, the right to claim performance rests as between him and them, with them during their joint lives and after the death of them with representatives of such deceased person jointly with survivors, and after the death of the last survivor, with the representatives of all jointly”.

Question 5.
Explain – Promisee.
Answer:
Only a promisee can demand performance and not a stranger demand performance of the contract.

Question 6.
What do you mean by mutual and concurrent?
Answer:
Where the two promises are said to be performed simultaneously. They are said to be mutual and concurrent.

Long answer questions

Question 1.
What is the essentials of a valid tender of performance?
Answer:
A tender, to be valid, must satisfy the following essential requirements

1. It must be unconditional.
2. It must be for the whole obligation and must not be in installments if the contract requires in full.
3. It must be by a person who is in a position and willing to perform the promise.
4. It must be at the proper time and place.
5. It must be in proper form.
6. It must be made to a proper person i.e. to the promisee or his authorized agent.
7. In the case of the tender of goods, the promisee must be given a reasonable opportunity to inspect the goods.
8. It may be made to one of the several joint promisees.

For Own Thinking

1. To identify the performance and distinguish the performance as actual or attempted.
Answer:

1. When the party has done what he had undertaken to do. It is called actual – performance.
2. When the party offers to perform his obligation. Itisnotacceptedbythepromisee, so it is called an offer to perform.

2. To understand the time and place of performance, so that the contract is established to be discharged or not.
Answer:

1. If the promise is to be performed on a certain day, the promisor may undertake the perform it without application of promise.
2. However, the promise should be performed at the place where it was required to be performed.

For Future Learning

1. Suggest ways by which the nature of the performance of a contract can be categorized.
Answer:

1. Apromisor is to perform his promise within a reasonable time.
2. On the other hand, a reasonable time will depend upon the circumstances of the case.

2. To identify those who are involved in the process of performance of a contract and their legal status.
Answer:

1. The contract should be performed by the promisor by himself. He is like a legal representative.
2. A contract that is not of personal nature may be performed by an agent who is likely a promisor.

Multiple-choice questions

1. Indian contract act lays down that “When ………. or more persons have made a joint promise.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) five
Answer:
(b) two

2. Promises which form consideration or part of the consideration for each other are called:
(a) reciprocal promise
(b) promisor alone
(c) agent
(d) all the above
Answer:
(a) reciprocal promise

3. Where the two promises are said to be performed simultaneously they are said to be?
(a) Mutual and dependent
(b) Mutual and independent
(c) Mutual and concurrent
(d) Become’s Void
Answer:
(c) Mutual and concurrent

4. What are Reciprocal promises types?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Five
Answer:
(b) Two

5. Whether they are or are not based on the limitation act:
(a) 1963
(b) 1973
(c) 1983
(d) 1993
Answer:
(a) 1963

6. Application of payment where debt to be discharged is not indicated if section:
(a) 85
(b) 80
(c) 70
(d) 60
Answer:
(d) 60

7. If section 60 is attracted the ………… shall have the discretion to apply for such payment.
(a) debtors
(b) creditors
(c) owners
(d) bankers
Answer:
(b) creditors

8. The payment shall be applied in discharge of each of these ………… proportionately.
(a) debt
(b) credit
(c) bank overdraft
(d) bills payable
Answer:
(a) debt

9. A contract that involves the use of personal skill or it is found on personal considerations comes to an end if the dies.
(a) promisor
(b) agent
(c) promise
(d) legal representative
Answer:
(a) promisor

10. It must be made to a proper person to the promises or his authorized:
(a) agent
(b) promisor
(c) promise
(d) legal representation
Answer:
(a) agent

11. Exception to stronger to a contract:
(a) third party
(b) legal representative
(c) promise
(d) promisor
Answer:
(a) third party

Students get through the TN Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 29 Elements of Contract which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 29 Elements of Contract

Very short answer questions

Question 1.
What is Acceptance?
Answer:
When the person to whom the proposal is made, signifies his assent thereto, the proposal is said to be accepted.

Question 2.
What is an Agreement?
Answer:
Every promise and set of promises forming consideration for each other is an agreement. In short, Agreement = Offer + Acceptance.

Question 3.
What are the classified into agreements categories?
Answer:
The agreements may be classified into two categories:

1. Agreement not enforceable by law – Any essential of a valid contract is not available.
2. An agreement enforceable by law – All essentials of a valid contract are available.

Question 4.
What is an implied contract?
Answer:
The implied contract is one, which is not expressly written but understood by the conduct of parties. Where the proposal or acceptance of any promise is made otherwise than in words, the promise is said to be implied, eg: A gets into a public bus, there is an implied contract that he will pay the bus fare.

Question 5.
Explain the Bilateral contract.
Answer:
A contract in which both the parties commit to performing their respective promises is called a bilateral contract, eg: R offers to sell his fiat car to S for Rs. 10,00,000 on acceptance of R’s offer by S, there is a promise by R to Sell the car and there is a promise by S to purchase – the car, there are two promises.

Question 6.
Define Law.
Answer:
Law means a set of rules which governs our, behaviour and relating in a civilized society. So there is no need for Law in an uncivilized society. One to should know the law to which he is subjected because ignorance of the law is no excuse.

Short answer questions

Question 1.
Define free consent.
Answer:
The consent of the parties must be free and genuine. Consent means agreeing upon the same thing in the same sense at the same time i.e. there should be consensus-ad-idem. Consent is said to be free when it is not caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake.

Question 2.
Write a note on (i) Illegal contract, (ii) Unenforceable contract.
Answer:

1. Illegal Contract: It is a contract that is forbidden by law. All illegal agreements are Void but all void agreements or contracts are not necessarily illegal. A contract that is immoral or opposed to public policy is illegal in nature.
   (a) Unlike illegal agreements there is no punishment to the parties to avoid agreement.
   (b) Illegal agreements are void from the very beginning but sometimes valid contracts may subsequently become void.
2. Unenforceable Contract: Where a contract is unenforceable because of some technical defect i.e. absence in writing barred by imitation etc. If the parties perform the contract it will be valid, but the court will not compel them if they do not.

Question 3.
What is the Indian Contract?
Answer:
The Indian Contract Act occupies the most important place in Commercial Law. Without Contract Act, it would have been difficult to carry on a trade or any other business activity. It is not only the business community that is concerned with the Contract Act, but it also influences the entire society. The main object of the contract action is to Assure that the rights and obligations which arise out of the contract are carried out and in case of failure to do so, the remedies are made available to the affected party.

Question 4.
Write a short note on the executory contract.
Answer:
A contract in which both the parties are yet to fulfil their obligations, it is said to be an executory contract, eg: A agrees to buy B’s cycle by promising to pay cash on 15th June. B agrees to deliver the cycle on 20th June.

Question 5.
Write a short note on a unilateral contract.
Answer:
A unilateral contract is a one-sided contract in which only one party has performed his promise or obligation, the other party has to perform his promise or obligation, eg: X promises to pay Y a sum of? 10,000 for the goods to be delivered by Y. X paid the money and Y is yet to deliver the goods.

Long answer questions

Question 1.
What is the classification of the type of contracts?
Answer:

Question 2.
The capacity of parties – Explain (sec-11).
Answer:

1. The parties to a contract must have the capacity (legal ability) to make a valid contract.
2. The Indian Contract Act specifies that every person is competent to contract provided.
3. He is of the age of majority according to the Law which he is subject to, and
4. Who is of sound mind and is not disqualified from contracting by any law.
5. To which he is subject to, an alien enemy, foreign sovereigns and accredited representative of a foreign state, insolvents and convicts are not competent to contract.

For Own Thinking

1. A agrees to pay B (Rs. 20,000). and in consideration, B agrees to unload 10 bags of sugar from a truck in 5 minutes. Is it a Valid contract?
Answer:

1. It is hot a valid contract.
2. Because unloading time is too short.

2. X writes to Y, As a doctor, you treat my wife without charging, I promise to pay you Rs. 10,000/-. “X” does not pay. Advise Y.
Answer:
As per your promise, I treated your wife. Hence it is left up to you to fulfil your promise to pay me Rs. 10,000/-.

3. P owes Q Rs. 10,000/- for the last 10 years and the payment is time-barred. P signs a pro-note for it. Is it a valid contract? If yes, give a reason.
Answer:
No. It is not a valid contract. The promotion will be renewed every year.

For Future Learning

1. After studying this chapter anyone can enter into a Valid Contract and can also identify the essentials present in the contract.
Answer:
When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing anything with the accent of that other person.

2. After understanding this chapter entering into Offer and” giving Acceptance becomes easier.
Answer:
An agreement of purity social or domestic nature is not at all a contract. An invitation to dinner does not create any legal relationship and hence, is not a contract.
Offer = proposal
Acceptance = proposal is accepted.

3. After going through this chapter the value of consideration and the requirement for return payment can be understood better.
Answer:
A contract is an agreement enforceable by law. Every contract is enforceable. A contract includes an agreement.

4. After reviewing this chapter the parties who are allowed to enter and the parties who are not allowed to enter into a contract can be clearly demarcated.
Answer:
Who is allowed to enter into a contract: An agreement includes not only these agreements which can be enforceable by law but also those which may not be enforceable. A minor cannot enter into a contract.
Who are not allowed to enter into a contract: There may be an agreement to do an illegal act. eg: Smuggling goods. Which cannot be enforceable by law.

5. After analysing this chapter an obligation imposed by law – Quasi Contracts are better understood and distinguished from other contracts.
Answer:
Quasi-contract is an obligation of one party to another imposed by law independent Of an agreement between the parties.
Illegal contract: It is a contract that is forbidden by law. All illegal agreement is void but all void agreements or contracts are not necessarily illegal.

Multiple-choice questions

1. The Indian Contract Act occupies the most important place in the ……….. law.
(a) commercial
(b) civil
(c) criminal
(d) labour
Answer:
(a) commercial

2. The English common law is the basis for the development of the Indian Contract Act:
(a) 1972
(b) 1872
(c) 1982
(d) 1992
Answer:
(b) 1872

3. There are ……… parts of Indian contract Act namely.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(a) two

4. The Act came into force on 1st September 1872 and applies to the whole of India except the state of:
(a) Andhra
(b) Kerala
(c) Jammu & Kashmir
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Jammu & Kashmir

5. Two persons cannot enter into an agreement to do a ………. act.
(a) Criminal act
(b) Commercial law
(c) Civil law
(d) Labour law
Answer:
(a) Criminal act

6. Capacity of parties section:
(a) 12
(b) 19
(c) 10
(d) 11
Answer:
(d) 11

7. Certain agreements have been expressly declared ……… by the law.
(a) Valid contract
(b) Illegal void
(c) Commercial law
(d) criminal law
Answer:
(b) Illegal void

8. Classification of contract types are:
(a) 5
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 6
Answer:
(c) 3

9. There must be two parties to an agreement namely one party making the offer and the other party accepting it:
(a) Offer and Acceptance
(b) Legal Relationship
(c) Lawful object
(d) Free consent
Answer:
(a) Offer and Acceptance

10. An agreement of social or domestic nature is not at all a contract:
(a) Free consent
(b) Capacity of parties
(c) Offer and Acceptance
(d) Legal Relationship
Answer:
(d) Legal Relationship