Bhagya

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 5 Plants in Daily Life Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 5 Plants in Daily Life

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
One of the following birds is an example of plant-pollinator
a. Duck
b. Parrot
c. Hummingbird
d. Dove
Answer:
c. Hummingbird

Question 2.
Natural Mosquito repellant is
(a) Nutmeg
(b) Bamboo
(c) Ginger
(d) Neem
Answer:
(d) Neem

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a root?
a. Potato
b. Carrot
c. Radish
d. Turnip
Answer:
a. Potato

Question 4.
Which of the following medicinal plants has anti-cancer properties?
(a) Amla
(b) Tulasi
(c) Turmeric
(d) Aloe
Answer:
(c) Turmeric

Question 5.
Which is the national tree of India?
a. Neem tree
b. Jack tree
c. Banyan tree
d. Mango tree
Answer:
c. Banyan tree

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. In every year October ……….is celebrated as world food day.
2. ………… is an example of textile fibre.
3. I am the state tree of Tamilnadu. Who am I ………… ?
4. The juice of the leaves of ……… plant relieves cough and bronchitis.
5. The edible seeds of leguminous plants are called …………

Answer:

1. 16
2. Cotton
3. Palm tree
4. Tulsi
5. pulses

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

1. Plants grown for decorative purposes are called as softwood.
2. Silkworm eats mulberry leaves.
3. Cauliflower is used for ornamental purpose.
4. Cotton cloth is not suitable for summer season.
5. Sugarcane is used as biofuel.

Answer:

1. False – Plants grown for decorative purposes are called as ornamental plants.
2. True.
3. False – Cauliflower is used for edible purpose.
4. False – Cotton cloth is only suitable for summer season
5. False – Sugarcane is used to produce sugar.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1 – c
2 – e
3 – a
4 – b
5 – d

V. Analogy:

1. mango : fruit:: maize : ………….
2. coconut: fibre :: rose : …………
3. bees : pollinate insect:: earthworms : …………

Answer:

1. cereal
2. essence
3. vermicompost producer

VI. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is food?
Answer:
Any nutritious substance that people or animals eat or drink or that plants absorb in order to maintain life and growth is called Food.

Question 2.
What are the medicinal plants?
Answer:
Some of the plants around us are good in healing our diseases. We call these plants as medicinal plants.

Question 3.
How hardwood differ from softwood?
Answer:

Question 4.
What is Spice?
Answer:
Spices are the aromatic parts of tropical plants traditionally used to flavour food. Bark, roots, leaves, flowers, or stems of certain plants primarily used for flavouring colouring or preserving food.
(Eg.) roots – vetiver,
leaves – curry leaves
seeds – fenugreek
flower bud – clove

Question 5.
Name any three medicinal plants, which are available in your area?
Answer:

Question 6.
What are the uses of timber?
Answer:

1. A timer is used in the construction of buildings, making of furniture
2. It is used in making fibreboard, paper making.

VII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is a symbiotic relationship?
Answer:

1. The relationship between animals and plants, benefiting both of them is known as a symbiotic relationship.
2. (Eg.) Silkworms – feeding on Mulberry leaves – produce silk fibres.
3. Honey bee – feed on pollen and honey of plants – Agents of cross-pollination and form vegetables and fruits along with honey.

Question 2.
Write the uses of Neem?
Answer:

Question 3.
Name any five plants and their parts that we eat.
Answer:

1. Carrot, Beetroot, and radish – Taproots
2. Potato, Ginger, Turmeric – Underground stem
3. Curry leaves, Coriander leaves – Leaves
4. Drum stick – Leaves, Unripe fruit, and bark.
5. Paddy, Wheat, Maize, and Ragi – Seeds

VIII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write short notes on-Timber yielding plants.
Answer:
Wood is used commercially due to its features like durability, stylish finishing, and resistance to temperature changes.
Timbers can be classified into hardwoods and softwoods.

Question 2.
Comment on the importance of plant-animal interaction.
Answer:
The relationship between plants and animals, to get food and shelter etc.
This relationship which is economically significant benefits not only animals but also plants.

IX. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills:

Question 1.
Desert does not have water. Why? Give the reason.
Answer:

1. Most deserts get less than 10 inches of rainfall each year.
2. The evaporation rate is higher than the rainfall.
3. In the desert, there is little water available for plants (cactus-like) and other organisms.
4. Cactus like plants and animals living in such areas are adapted to save water and to endure drought.
   (Eg.) Cactus Camel etc.

Question 2.
Kavitha said, “Palm tree is a tall tree, so it gives hardwood”! Do you agree with her statement or not? Explain. Why?
Answer:
False. Because:

1. Even though they are tall, they produce only softwoods.
2. It is resilient and malleable can’t be used in heavy construction and other purposes.
3. So the wood is known as softwood.
4. Wood fibres are used for making hats and other things.

Question 3.
Look at the diagram given below and answer the following questions.
a. Soil fertility is increased by bacteria How?

Answer:
1. The droppings and shedding of leaves, fruits, and other dead parts of plants degrade in the soil by bacterial and fungal action to form humus-increase soil fertility.

2. Blue-green Algae and Bacteria are extensively used to fix Nitrogen in the soil and increase biofertilizer in the soil for agriculture.

b. Honey bees are essential for the reproduction of the plants Why?

Answer:

1. Honey bees suck nectar from flowers and convert it into honey.
2. During this process, they carry pollen on their bodies and help plants to do cross-pollination and inturn form vegetables and fruits.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
Which are the source of food and energy for all living organisms in the world.
(a) Plants only
(b) Plants and animals
(c) Animals only
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Plants only

Question 2.
Aloe ______ is used as a laxative
(a) Roots
(b) Stem
(c) Leaves
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Leaves

Question 3.
Leaf fibres are got from
(a) Aloe vera
(b) Agave
(c) Coconut
(d) Cotton
Answer:
(b) Agave

Question 4.
We are planting shrubs such as ________ to decorate houses
(a) Mandara
(b) Mullai
(c) Hibiscus
(d) Allamanda
Answer:
(c) Hibiscus

Question 5.
Plants grown or maintained for its aesthetic features are known as
(a) Fibre plants
(b) Medicinal plants
(c) Plants as food
(d) Ornamental plants
Answer:
(d) Ornamental plants

Question 6.
Bio fuels are less _______ in nature.
(a) Toxic
(b) Economic
(c) Nutrients
(d) Metals
Answer:
(a) Toxic

II. Very Short Answer

Question 1.
Give evidence for the fact that Rice, Wheat, and Millets were cultivated and utilised in the ancient days.
Answer:

1. The presence of charred grains in most of the excavation sites is proof of the above fact.
2. Also, ancient literature talks about the existence and usage of several crops of economic importance.

Question 2.
Classify plants on the basis of economic values and uses.
Answer:
They are classified into six varieties. They are:

1. Plants as food.
2. Spice yielding plants,
3. Medicinal plants.
4. Fibre yielding plants,
5. Timber yielding plants.
6. Ornamental plants.

Question 3.
Name the states in India with Jute cultivation?
Answer:
West Bengal, Assam, Orissa, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Tripura, and Meghalaya are the seven states producing jute.
Out of the above seven, West Bengal alone produces 50% jute of India.

Question 4.
Name some of the Indian spices.
Answer:
Cardamom, black pepper, curry leaves, fenugreek, fennel, ajwain, bay leaves, cumin, coriander seeds, turmeric, cloves, ginger, nutmeg, and cinnamon.

Question 5.
What are the medicinal plants?
Answer:
The plants that have chemical compounds to destroy disease-causing germs are known as medicinal plants.

Question 6.
Identify the plant part and write about its use?

Answer:
The given diagram is that of cloves the flower buds used as a spice – to flavour food.

Question 7.
Classify the Fibre yielding plants based on use.
Answer:

1. Textile Fibres – Cotton.
2. Cordage Fibres – Coconut Fibre.
3. Filling Fibres – Silk cotton

Question 8.
Write the importance of rubber?
Answer:

1. Rubber is got from the stem latex of the rubber plant.
2. Vehicle tyres, wire insulating covers, and many toys and others are produced out of natural rubber.
3. It satisfies 80% rubber demand of the world.

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 4 Our Environment Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 Our Environment

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Identify the freshwater ecosystem.
a. Pond
b. Lake
c. River
d. All of them
Answer:
d. All of them

Question 2.
Producers are ________
(a) Animals
(b) Birds
(c) Plants
(d) Snakes
Answer:
(c) Plants

Question 3.
It is a biodegradable waste
a. Plastic
b. Coconut Shell
c. Glass
d. Aluminium
Answer:
b. Coconut Shell

Question 4.
It is an undesirable change that occurs in air and water.
(a) Recycling
(b) Reuse
(c) Pollution
(d) Reduce
Answer:
(c) Pollution

Question 5.
Usage of chemical pesticides and fertilisers causes ……… pollution.
a. Air pollution
b. Water pollution
c. Noise pollution
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Water pollution

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Primary consumers that eat plants are called ……….
2. Temperature, light and wind are ………… factors.
3. ………. is the process of converting waste materials into new materials.
4. Water pollution can spread …………. and chemicals.
5. The 3R’s are Reduce, ………….. and Recycle.

Answer:

1. herbivores
2. physical
3. Recycle
4. diseases
5. reuse

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

1. The pacific ocean is an example of an aquatic ecosystem.
2. Bacteria and fungi are called decomposers.
3. Human and animal wastes are examples of non-biodegradable waste.
4. Excessive use of pesticides leads to air pollution.
5. In schools, waste management rules say that we should separate waste in two categories.

Answer:

1. True.
2. True.
3. False – Human and animal wastes are examples of bio-degradable waste.
4. False – Excess use of pesticides leads to land pollution.
5. False – In schools waste management rules say that we should separate waste in three categories.

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – e
2. – d
3. – b
4. – a
5. – c

V. Arrange the following in a correct sequence and form a food chain

1. Rabbit → Carrot → Eagle → Snake.
2. Human → Insect → Algae → Fish

Answer:

1. carrot → rabbit → snake → eagle.
2. Algae → Insect → Fish → Human

VI. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Define ecosystem.
Answer:
An ecosystem is a community of living or biotic and non-living or a biotic things that work together.

Question 2.
What are the two types of ecosystems?
Answer:
They are terrestrial (on land) and aquatic (in water).

Question 3.
Write any two things that can be recycled.
Answer:
Examples:

1. Old clothes
2. Plastics

Question 4.
What are the types of pollution?
Answer:
There are four major kinds of pollution.

1. Air pollution
2. Water pollution
3. Land (soil) pollution
4. Noise pollution

Question 5.
Give one example of a food chain in an aquatic ecosystem?
Answer:
Food chain in aquatic ecosystem.
Aquatic plant → Aquatic insect → Larva → Fish.

Question 6.
Name some pollutants.
Answer:
Pollutants:

1. Burning fossil fuel (petrol, coal, oil, etc).
2. Toxic gases, (Carbon monoxide).
3. Dust particles (ash, soot).

Question 7.
What are the pollutions caused by the objects given below?

1. Loud Speaker
2. Plastic

Answer:

1. Loud Speaker – Noise Pollution.
2. Plastic – Land Pollution.

VII. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
What is biodegradable waste?
Answer:
The term ‘Biodegradable’ is used for those things that can be easily decomposed by natural agents like water, oxygen, ultraviolet rays of the sun, microorganisms, etc. (Eg.) Vegetable and fruit peel leftover food, grass, leaves, and twigs.

Question 2.
How can we reduce water pollution?
Answer:

1. Do not pour leftover oil, old medicines or waste down the drain or into the toilet.
2. Reduce the use of chemical pesticides and fertilizers to grow crops.
3. Reduce the use of detergents and bleach to wash clothes.
4. Do not litter or dump waste always use a waste bin.

Question 3.
Write the importance of the food chain.
Answer:

1. Learning about the food chain help us to understand the feeding relationship and interaction between organisms in any ecosystem.
2. It also help us to appreciate the energy flow and nutrient circulation in an ecosystem. This enable us to understand the movement of toxic substances and their impacts.

VIII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Give two examples of how you can avoid or reduce waste?
Answer:
Examples of how we can Avoid waste:-
Avoid buying packaged foods. Refuse to buy ‘use-and-throw’ plastic products.

Examples of how we can reduce waste:-

1. Write on both sides of paper
2. Share newspaper and magazines with others.

Question 2.
Write a short note on noise pollution.
Answer:

1. Noise pollution affects the environment. We all like a quiet and peaceful place since unpleasant or loud sounds disturb us.
2. Loud music, the sounds of motor vehicles, fireworks and machines cause noise pollution. Continuous noise disturbs our sleep and does not let us study.
3. Noise pollution has been directly linked to stress and health impacts such as high blood pressure and hearing loss.
4. Loud noise or even loud music can damage our ears. Noise pollution also disturbs animals.
5. Birds have to communicate (talk) louder so that, they can hear each other in noisy areas.
6. Even underwater noise pollution from ships can make whales lose their way as they use sounds to navigate.

Reduce noise pollution :

1. Turn off your electronics when you do not use them.
2. Avoid fireworks.
3. Speak, do not shout.
4. Remind drivers not to use the horn too much.
5. Lower the volume when you watch TV (or) listen to music.

IX. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
What would happen if an organism is removed from the food chain?
Answer:
If an organism is removed from the food chain,

1. The food chain will fall apart.
2. The ecosystem will become imbalanced and collapse.
3. For example, Consider a food chain: Plants → grasshoppers → frogs → snakes → hawks.

If frogs were to die off in this chain, (due to disease/pollutants), then, there will be an increase in the number of grasshoppers. This will cause a major problem.

Question 2.
Explain the link between waste and dangerous diseases like dengue and malaria?
Answer:

1. The substances consist of plastic materials, metal scraps, aluminium cans, and bottles which cannot be broken down or decomposed into the soil by natural agents are labelled as non-biodegradable.
2. When it rains, some of the water never reaches the ground as it collects in the plastic garbage at the dump.
3. Little pools of water let mosquitoes breed and they can spread unwanted diseases like dengue and malaria.
4.  Aedes aegypti is the vector responsible for dengue transmission.
5. It breeds in solid waste mud pots and other junk materials.
6. We must know mosquitoes tend to breed in places which are dirty.

X. See the diagram and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Explain what is happening in the picture?

Answer:

1. We can see the mixed waste dumped in the open ground.
2. There is a fire in the open dump and the garbage is burning.
3. By the burning of plastic materials, pipes, leather, and garbage smoke and toxins are coming out and pollute the air.
4. The leftover ash from burning waste pollutes the soil.
5. When it rains some of the dangerous chemicals leaching into the soil and groundwater.
6. Thus the unhealthy chemicals from the garbage pollute the ecosystem.

Question 2.
What types of pollution are caused by open dumps?
Answer:
The following types of pollution are caused by open dumps:

1. Water pollution
2. Land pollution
3. Air pollution

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best Answer:

Question 1.
The ecosystem that originated without human intervention is called
(a) natural ecosystem
(b) artificial ecosystem
(c) aquarium
(d) terrarium
Answer:
(a) natural ecosystem

Question 2.
An example for artificial aquatic ecosystem is _______
(a) Forest
(b) Pond
(c) Garden
(d) Aquarium
Answer:
(d) Aquarium

Question 3.
Ecosystems created and maintained by humans are called?
(a) lake
(b) river
(c) artificial ecosystem
(d) natural ecosystem
Answer:
(c) artificial ecosystem

Question 4.
Plants are producers because they make their own food by _______
(a) Respiration
(b) Consumer
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Decomposing
Answer:
(c) Photosynthesis

Question 5.
The micro-organisms that obtain energy from the chemical breakdown of dead organisms is called
(a) consumers
(b) decomposers
(c) omnivores
(d) producers
Answer:
(b) decomposers

II. True or False. If False, Give the correct statement.

1. The abiotic factors are the non-living parts such as sunlight, air, water, and minerals in the soil.
2. A Zoo is a natural ecosystem.
3. A food web is very useful to show the many different feeding relationships between different species within an ecosystem.
4. India produces 532 million kilos of solid waste every day.
5. Certain toxic gases from industries mix with raindrops and make rain unusually acidic.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – A Zoo is an artificial ecosystem.
3. True
4. True.
5. True.

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – d
2. – a
3. – e
4. – c
5. – b

IV. Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence and form a food chain:

Question 1.
Grasshopper → Frog → Grass → Crow.
Answer:
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Crow

Question 2.
Peacock → Rat → Grains → Snake
Answer:
Grains → Rat → Snake → Peacock

V. Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Give two examples of artificial terrestrial ecosystems?
Answer:

1. Paddy fields
2. Garden

Question 2.
What are called producers?
Answer:
Producers are organisms that are able to produce their own organic food.
(Eg) Plants.

Question 3.
What do plants need in order to photosynthesis?
Answer:
Plants need chlorophyll, water, carbon-di-oxide, and sunlight.

Question 4.
What are the two major types of solid wastes?
Answer:

1. Biodegradable
2. Non-biodegradable.

Question 5.
What happens to the dead organisms of animals and plants?
Answer:

1. They are broken down into simple organic substances by decomposers.
2. These substances go into the soil and are used by plants.

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
How do we reduce noise pollution?
Answer:

1. Turn off your electronics when we do not use them.
2. Lower the volume when we watch TV or listen to music.
3. Remind drivers not to use the horn too much.
4. Avoid fireworks.
5. Speak do not shout.

Question 2.
Differentiate the artificial ecosystem and natural ecosystem.
Answer:
Natural Ecosystem:

1. Ecosystem Originated without human intervention
2. Ex: Sea, River, Lake, Forest

Artificial Ecosystem:

1. Ecosystem Originated by human
2. Ex: Paddy field, garden, aquarium

VII. Questions based on higher-order thinking levels:

Question 1.
Are animal bones biodegradable?
Answer:

1. The microorganisms that break down tissues will also cause bones to decompose in a suitable aerated peaty soil.
2. In warm damp environments, bacteria and fungi attack the protein in the skeleton and it will break down in a matter of a decade or so.
3. But in a dry climate, it could take thousands of years
4. So bones do decay at a slower rate than other types of organic material and tissue.

Question 2.
Are all types of clothes biodegradable?
Answer:

1. Not all fabrics are safely biodegradable as they are made with artificial and chemical components.
2. It depends on what fibres or fabric is made from.
3. And also the more chemicals used the longer it takes to biodegrade.
4. Polyester has been introduced since 1951 created not by the textile industry but by American Chemical Company Dupont went on sale.
5. Polyester is a polymer or a long chain of repeating molecular units.
6. That basically means that our clothes are increasingly made of plastic.
7. In theory cotton, silk hemp is biodegradable and polyester is not.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.6 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.6

Question 1.
If 2 = x + iy is a complex number such that \(\left|\frac{z-4 i}{z+4 i}\right|\) = 1 show that the locus of z is real axis.
Solution:
Let z = x + iy

Squaring on both sides
x² + (y – 4)² =  x² + (y + 4)²
simplifying
We get y = 0
Which is real axis

Question 2.
If z = x + iy is a complex number such that Im \(\left(\frac{2 z+1}{i z+1}\right)\) = 0, show that the locus of z is 2x² + 2y² + x – 2y = 0.
Solution:
Let z = x + iy

2y(1 – y) – x(2x + 1) = 0
⇒ 2y – 2y² – 2x² – x = 0
∴ The locus is 2x² + 2y² – 2y + x = 0
Hence proved

Question 3.
Obtain the Cartesian form of the locus of z = x + iy in each of the following cases:
(i) [Re (iz)]² = 3
Solution:
z = x + iy
[Re(iz)]² = 3
⇒ [Re[i(x + iy]]² = 3
⇒ [Re(ix – y)]² = 3
⇒ (-y)² = 3
⇒ y² = 3

(ii) Im[(1 – i)z + 1] = 0
⇒ Im [(1 – i)(z + iy) + 1] = 0
⇒ Im[x + iy – ix + y + 1] = 0
⇒ Im[(x + y + 1) + i(y – x)] = 0
Considering only the imaginary part
y – x = 0 ⇒ x = y

(iii) |z + i| = |z – 1|
⇒ |x + iy + i| = | x + iy – 1|
⇒ |x + i(y + 1)| = |(x – 1) + iy|
Squaring on both sides
|x + i(y + 1)|² = |(x – 1) + iy|²
⇒ x² + (y + 1)² = (x – 1)² + y²
⇒ x² + y² + 2y + 1 = x² – 2x + 1 + y²
⇒ 2y + 2x = 0
⇒ x + y = 0

(iv) \(\bar {z}\) = z^-1
Solution:

x² + y² = 1, x² + y² = -1 which cannot be true.
∴ x² + y² = 1

Question 4.
Show that the following equations represent a circle, and, find its centre and radius.
(i) |z – 2 – i| = 3
Solution:
Let z = x + iy
|z – 2 – i| = 3
⇒ |x + iy – 2 – i| = 3
⇒ |(x – 2) + i(y – 1)| = 3
⇒ \(\sqrt{(x-2)^{2}+(y-1)^{2}}=3\)
Squaring on both sides
(x – 2)² + (y – 1)² = 9
⇒ x² – 4x + 4 + y² – 2y + 1 – 9 = 0
⇒ x² + y² – 4x – 2y – 4 = 0 represents a circle
2g = -4 ⇒ g = -2
2f = -2 ⇒ f = -1
c = -4
(a) Centre (-g, -f) = (2, 1) = 2 + i
(b) Radius = \(\sqrt{g^{2}+f^{2}-c}=\sqrt{4+1+4}=3\)
Aliter: |z – (2 + i)| = 3
Centre = 2 + i
radius = 3

(ii) |2(x + iy) + 2 – 4i| = 2
⇒ |2x + i2y + 2 – 4i| =2
⇒ |(2x + 2) + i(2y – 4)| = 2
⇒ |2(x + 1) + 2i(y – 2)| = 2
⇒ |(x + 1) + i(y – 2)| = 1
⇒ \(\sqrt{(x+1)^{2}(y-2)^{2}}=1\)
Squaring on both sides,
x² + 2x + 1 + y² + 4 – 4y – 1 = 0
⇒ x² + y² + 2x – 4y + 4 = 0 represents a circle
2g = 2 ⇒ g = 1
2f = -4 ⇒ f = -2
c = 4
(a) Centre (-g, -f) = (-1, 2) = -1 + 2i
(b) Radius = \(\sqrt{g^{2}+f^{2}-c}=\sqrt{1+4-4}=1\)
Aliter: 2|(z + 1 – 2i)| = 2
|z – (-1 + 2i)| = 1
Centre = -1 + 2i
radius = 1

(iii) |3(x + iy) – 6 + 12i| = 8
⇒ |3x + i3y – 6 + 12i| = 8
⇒ |3(x – 2) + i3 (y + 4)| = 8
⇒ 3|(x – 2) + i (y + 4)| = 8
⇒ \(3 \sqrt{(x-2)^{2}+(y+4)^{2}}=8\)
Squaring on both sides,
9[(x – 2)² + (y + 4)²] = 64
⇒ x² – 4x + 4 + y² + 8y + 16 = \(\frac{64}{9}\)
⇒ x² + y² – 4x + 8y + 20 – \(\frac{64}{9}\) = 0
x² + y² – 4x + 8y + \(\frac{116}{9}\) = 0 represents a circle.
2g = -4 ⇒ g = -2
2f = 8 ⇒ f = 4
c = \(\frac{116}{9}\)
(a) Centre (-g, -f) = (2, -4) = 2 – 4i
(b) Radius = \(=\sqrt{g^{2}+f^{2}-c}=\sqrt{4+16-\frac{116}{9}}=\sqrt{\frac{180-116}{9}}=\frac{8}{3}\)
Aliter:
|z – 2 + 4i| = \(\frac{8}{3}\)
⇒ |z – (2 – 4i)| = \(\frac{8}{3}\)
Centre = 2 – 4i, Radius = \(\frac{8}{3}\)

Question 5.
Obtain the Cartesian equation for the locus of z = x + iy in each of the following cases:
(i) |z – 4| = 16
Solution:
Let z = x + iy
|x + iy – 4| – 16
|(x – 4) + iy| = 16
\(\sqrt{(x – 4)² + y²}\) = 16
∴ Squaring on both sides
(x – 4)² + y² = 256
x² – 8x + 16 + y² – 256 = 0
x² + y² – 8x – 240 = 0
The locus of the point is a circle.

(ii) |z – 4|² – |z – 1|² = 16.
Solution:
|x + iy – 4|² – |x + iy – 1|² = 16
⇒ |(x – 4) + iy|² – |(x – 1) + iy|² = 16
⇒ [(x – 4)² + y²] – [(x – 1)² + y²] = 16
⇒ (x² – 8x + 16 + y²) – (x² – 2x + 1 + y²) = 16
⇒ x² + y² – 8x + 16 – x² + 2x – 1 – y² = 16
⇒ -6x + 15 = 16
⇒ 6x + 1 = 0
The locus of the point is a straight line.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 5 Living World of Animals Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 5 Living World of Animals

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Living World of Animals Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The study of living things or organisms is called
a. Psychology
b. Biology
c. Zoology
d. Botany
Answer:
b. Biology

Question 2.
Which of the following are characteristics of living beings?
(i) Respiration
(ii) Reproduction
(iii) Adaptation
(iv) Excretion
Choose the correct sequence
(a) (i), (ii), and (iv) only
(b) (i), (ii) only
(c) (ii) and (iv)only
(d) (i), (iv), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(d) (I), (iv), (il) and (iii)

Question 3.
Lizards breathe through their
a. Skin
b. Gills
c. Lungs
d. Trachea
Answer:
c. Lungs

Question 4.
All animals need _______
(a) Food and water only
(b) Water only
(c) Air, food and water
(d) Food only
Answer:
(c) Air, food and water

Question 5.
Which animal has the special organs of breathing called gills
a. Earthworm
b. fox
c. Fish
d. frog
Answer:
c. Fish

Question 6.
Choose the set that represents only biotic components of a habitat.
(a) Tiger, Deer, Grass, Soil
(b) Rocks, Soil, Plants, Air
(c) Sand, Turtle, Crab, Rocks
(d) Aquatic plant, Fish, Frog, Insects
Answer:
(d) Aquatic plant, Fish, Frog, Insects

Question 7.
Which of the following cannot be called as a habitat?
a. A desert with camels
b. A pond with fish and snails
c. Cultivated land with grazing cattle
d. A jungle with wild animals
Answer:
c. Cultivated land with grazing cattle

Question 8.
Birds fly in the air with the help of _______
(a) heavy and strong Bones
(b) Soft and thick Bones
(c) Hollow and light Bones
(d) Flat and thick Bones
Answer:
(c) Hollow and light Bones

Question 9.
Paramecium moves from one place to other with the help of
a. Pseudopodia
b. flagella
c. Foot
d. cilia
Answer:
d. Cilia

Question 10.
Kangaroo rat lives In _______
(a) Aquatic habitat
(b) Desert habitat
(c) Grass land habitat
(d) Mountain habitat
Answer:
(b) Desert habitat

II. Multiple Choice Questions Complete the following with appropriate word(s).

1. Aquatic, deserts, mountains are called ……….
2. Based on the number of cells present animals are classified into ………. and ………..
3. Tail of a bird acts as a rudder which helps to ………..
4. Amoeba moves with the help of …………

Answer:

1. Habitat
2. Unicellular, multicellular
3. control the direction of the movement
4. Pseudopodium.

III. True or False, If False gives the correct answer.

1. A habitat is a living or dwelling place of an organism.
2. The geographical features and environmental conditions on earth remain the same from one place to another.
3. Amoeba is a unicellular organism and moves with pseudopodia.
4. Birds can see only one object at a time.
5. Paramecium is a multicellular organism.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – The geographical features and environmental conditions on earth do not remain the same from one place to another.
3. True
4. True
5. False – Paramecium is a unicellular organism.

IV. Complete the following

1. Tropical rain forests, grasslands, and deserts are known as ………..
2. Some living things are made of a single cell, they are called a……….. organism
3. The breathing organ of a fish is known as ………..
4. The lizard ……….. on the ground with its claw on its feet.
5. Camel stores ………… in its hump.

Answer:

1. habitat
2. unicellular
3. gills
4. walk and run
5. fat

V. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
How do the birds catch their prey?
Answer:

• The prey-catching process depends on their types.
• The aquatic birds with the help of their beaks get their prey sliding upside down into the water.
• The birds of paddy fields get small insects with the help of sharp claws of their limbs.

Question 2.
Where can we see camels in India?
Answer:
We can see camels in the state of Rajasthan:

1. The dwelling places of camels
2. Jodhpur
3. Pushkar
4. Pikanur
5. Jaisalmer.

Question 3.
Name the locomotory organs of an Amoeba.
Answer:
Amoeba with the help of a finger-like projection called pseudopodia moves from place to place.

Question 4.
What are the body parts of the snake?
Answer:
Snake’s body is divided into-

1. Head
2. body
3. tail
4. Organs on the head-Two eyes, Two nostrils mouth.

Question 5.
Which structure helps the bird to change its direction while flying in the air?
Answer:
The tail helps the bird to change its direction while flying in air.

VI. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Differentiate between unicellular and multicellular organisms.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write the adaptive features of polar bears and penguins.
Answer:
Polar bear:

1. They have short limbs.
2. They have limited body surface to reduce the body temperature
3. They have thick skin.
4. A polar bear has thick skin for protection against the cold climate.
5. They have thick fat deposition under the skin.
6. They eat food rich in fat.

Penguin:

1. They have a boat-shaped body
2. Their feathers absorb sunlight
3. They have thick skin.
4. They have thick fat deposition under the skin.
5. They have short wings to fly above the water and paddle for swimming.

Question 3.
Mention the feature that helps a bird to fly in the air?
Answer:

1. The streamlined body shape.
2. Their forelimbs are modified into wings.
3. They have hollow and light bones for easy flying.
4. The body of the birds is covered with feathers.

Question 4.
What are the different types of invertebrates?
Answer:

1. Protozoa ( unicellular)
2. Porifera
3. Coelenterata
4. Platyhelminthes
5. Aschelminthes
6. Annelida
7. Arthropoda
8. Mollusca
9. Echinodermata

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Describe the various features which help Camel dwell well in the desert.
Answer:

1. The long leg of the camel helps to keep its body away from the desert.
2. Camel will drink a large amount of water and store it in the body.
3. Camel produces only a small quantity of urine.
4. The stored fat in the hump can break down for nourishment
5. A camel has large and flat padded feet which help in walking easily on soft sand.
6. The long eyelashes and hairs protect its eyes and ears from flowing dust.
7. It can keep its nostrils closed to avoid dust.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Living World of Animals Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best option:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is a unicellular organism
(a) Fish
(b) frog
(c) Euglena
(d) Lizard
Answer:
(c) Euglena

Question 2.
Polar bear and Penguins dwell in _______
(a) Cold region
(b) Hot region
(c) Cold and Hot region
(d) Forest region
Answer:
(a) Cold region

Question 3.
The animal lives in water and on land.
(a) Frog
(b) fish
(c) pigeon
(d) camel
Answer:
(a) Frog

Question 4.
Euglena moves with the help of
(a) Flagellum
(b) Cilia
(c) Pseudopods
(d) Legs
Answer:
(a) flagellum

Question 5.
Among the following, which Bird Sanctuary located in Tamilnadu?
(a) Kadalundi
(b) Bharatpur
(c) Vedanthangal
(d) Sultanpur
Answer:
(c) edanthangal

II. True or false. If it is wrong correct it and write.

1. Unicellular organisms grow by mitotic division.
2. The streamlined body of fish helps in swimming.
3. The tail of the bird helps it to control the direction of the movement and balance.
4. The hind limbs of birds are modified into wings
5. The tail of birds help in controlling the direction of the movement

Answer:

1. False – In unicellular organisms, the size of the cell increases as it grows
2. True
3. True
4. False – The forelimbs of birds are modified as wings.
5. True

III. Name the parts in a diagram.

Question 1.
In the given diagram name the A and B parts.

Answer:
A. Pseudopodia
B. Nucleus

Question 2.
In the given diagram Name the A and B parts.

Answer:
A. cilia
B. Contractile Vacuoles.

Question 3.
In the given diagram Name the A and B parts

Answer:
A. Flagella
B. Nucleus.

IV. Give Short Answers:

Question 1.
Give some examples of a unicellular and multicellular organisms.
Answer:
Unicellular: Amoeba, Paramecium, Euglena
Multicellular: Fish, Frog, Lizard, Birds, Man

Question 2.
What is meant by migration?
Answer:
When an animal moves from its location as the season changes it is called migration.

Question 3.
Define Adaptation.
Answer:
The presence of specific body features, for certain habits, which enable a plant or an animal to live in a particular habitat is called adaptation.

Question 4.
What is hibernation?
Answer:
Spending winters in a dormant condition is called hibernation, (eg) Turtle.

Question 5.
Which part protects the body of fish?
Answer:
Most of the fishes have slippery scales all over the body. It protects the body of fish.

Question 6.
Name any three bird sanctuaries in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Vedanthangal, Kodiyakkarai, and Koondhankulam are the bird sanctuaries in Tamil Nadu.

V. Detailed answer:

Question 1.
Give an account of adaptations of birds.
Answer:

1. Birds body is covered with feathers that are helpful in flying with reduced weight.
2. The mouth is converted into beaks.
3. They respire through the lungs.
4. Their forelimbs are modified as wings.
5. They have hollow bones.
6. With the help of a pair of clawed feet, birds can hop move, and run.

Question 2.
Describe various adaptive features of fishes.
Answer:

1. The head, trunk, and tail of a fish merge to form a streamlined shape.
2. It helps the fish to move through the water easily.
3. Gill is a special respiratory organ. It is adapted to breathe in water.
4. Most of the fishes have slippery scales. It protects the body.
5. It has fins for swimming.
6. It has a strong tail. It acts as a rudder to change direction and keeps its body balance in the water.

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 4 India’s Foreign Policy Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 4 India’s Foreign Policy

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s Foreign Policy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which Minister plays a vital role in molding foreign policy of our country?
(a) Defense Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) External Affairs Minister
(d) Home Minister
Answer:
(c) External Affairs Minister

Question 2.
The Panchsheel Treaty has been signed between ……………..
(a) India and Nepal
(b) India and Pakistan
(c) India and China
(d) India and Sri Lanka
Answer:
(c) India and China

Question 3.
Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?
(a) Article 50
(b) Article 51
(c) Article 52
(d) Article 53
Answer:
(b) Article 51

Question 4.
Apartheid is ………………
(a) An international association
(b) Energy diplomacy
(c) A policy of racial discrimination
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) A policy of racial discrimination

Question 5.
The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related to:
(a) Trade and Commerce
(b) Restoration of normal relations
(c) Cultural exchange programmes
(d) The Five Principles of Co existence
Answer:
(d) The Five Principles of Co existence

Question 6.
Which is not related to our foreign policy?
(a) World co-operation
(b) World peace
(c) Racial equality
(d) Colonialism
Answer:
(d) Colonialism

Question 7.
Which of the following country is not the founder member of NAM?
(a) Yugoslavia
(b) Indonesia
(c) Egypt
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(d) Pakistan

Question 8.
Find the odd one ………….
(a) Social welfare
(b) Health care
(c) Diplomacy
(d) Domestic affairs
Answer:
(c) Diplomacy

Question 9.
Non-Alliance means:
(a) being neutral
(b) freedom to decide on issues independently
(c) demilitarisation
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(d) none of the above

Question 10.
Non-military issues are
(a) Energy security
(b) Water security
(c) Pandemics
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

II. Fill in the blanks

1. India conducted its first nuclear test at ……………..
2. At present our foreign policy acts as a means to generate …………….. for domestic growth and development.
3. …………….. is the instrument for implementing foreign policy of a state.
4. …………….. was India’s policy in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war.
5. Our tradition and national ethos is to practice ……………..

Answer:

1. Pokhran
2. Inward Investment Business Technology
3. Diplomacy
4. Non – Alignment
5. disarmament

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Arrange the following in the correct chronological order and choose the correct answer from the code given below.
(i) Panchsheel
(ii) Nuclear test at Pokhran
(iii) Twenty-year Treaty
(iv) First Nuclear test
(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(d) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
Answer:
(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

Question 2.
Which of the following is not about NAM?
(i) The term Non-Alignment was coined by V. Krishna Menon.
(ii) It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by joining any military alliance.
(iii) At present it has 120 member countries.
(iv) It has transformed to an economical movement.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (iv) only
Answer:
(c) (ii) only

Question 3.
Write true or false against each of the statement.
(a) During Cold War India tried to form a third bloc of nations in the international affairs.
(b) The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for the conduct of the country’s foreign relations.
(c) The nuclear test at Pokhran was done under Subterranean Nuclear Explosions Project.
Answer:
(a) – True
(b) – False
(c) – True

Question 4.
Assertion(A): India aligned with Soviet Union by the Indo-Soviet treaty on 1971.
Reason(R): This began with a disastrous Indo -China war of 1962.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct and R is Wrong.
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is Wrong.

Question 5.
Assertion(A): India has formal diplomatic relations with most of the nations. Reason(R): India is the World’s second most populous country.
(a) A is correct and R explains A
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A

Question 6.
Avoidance of military blocs was necessity for India after political freedom. Because India had to redeemed from:
(a) acute poverty
(b) illiteracy
(c) chaotic socio-economic conditions
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
What is foreign policy?
Answer:
Foreign policy can be defined as a country’s policy that is conceived, designed and formulated to safeguard and promote her national interests in her external affairs, in the conduct of relationships with other countries, both bilaterally and multilaterally.

Question 2.
Explain India’s nuclear policy.
Answer:

1. India’s nuclear policy is based on two themes:
   • (a) No first use
   • (b) Credible minimum deterrence.
2. India has decided not to use nuclear power for offensive purposes.

Question 3.
Highlight the contribution by Nehru to India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, as opposed to the rivalry of the two superpowers (America and Russia). The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was ‘world co-operation, world peace, end of colonial imperialism, racial equality and non-alignment’.

Question 4.
Differentiate: Domestic policy and Foreign policy.
Answer:
Domestic Policy:

1. Domestic policy is the nation’s plan for dealing issues within its own nation.
2. It includes laws focusing on domestic affairs, social welfare, health care, education, civil rights, economic issues and social issues.

Foreign Policy:

1. Foreign policy is the nation’s plan for dealing with other nations.
2. Trade, diplomacy, sanctions, defence, intelligence and global environments are the types of foreign policy.

Question 5.
List any four guiding principles of Panchsheel?
Answer:
Guiding principles of Panchsheel are:

• Mutual Respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
• Mutual non-interference
• Equality and co-operation for mutual benefit
• Peaceful co-existence.

Question 6.
What was the reason for India to choose the path of Non-Alignment?
Answer:

1. Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister was opposed to the rivalry of the two super powers (America and Russia) who were trying to extend their influence over the newly emerged nations of Asia and Africa.
2. So he choose the path of Non – Alignment in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war and tried to form a third bloc of nations in international affairs.

Question 7.
In what ways are India’s global security concerns reflected?
Answer:
India’s global security concerns are reflected in its military modernisation, maritime security and nuclear policies.

Question 8.
List out the member countries of SAARC.
Answer:
The member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

Question 9.
Name the architects of the Non-Aligned Movement.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Tito of Yugoslavia, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia, and Kwame Nkumarah of Ghana were the founding fathers of NAM.

Question 10.
Mention the main tools of foreign policy.
Answer:
The main tools of foreign policy are treaties and executive agreements, appointing ambassadors, foreign aid international trade and armed forces.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write a detailed note on Non-alignment.
Answer:

1. The team “Non – Alignment” was coined by V. Krishna Menon in his speech at the United Nationsin 1953.
2. Non – Alignment has been regarded as the most important feature of India’s foreign policy.
3. It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by not joining any military alliance.
4. It was the largest political grouping of countries in a multilateral fora.
5. The Non – Aligned Movement (NAM) was formed with a membership of 120 countries and 17 states as observers and 10 international organisations.
6. It has transformed from a political movement to an economical movement.

The founding fathers of Non – Aligned Movement: Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Tito of Yugoslavia, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia, and Kwame Nkumarah of Ghana were the founding fathers of NAM.

The Non – Alignment roots did not prevent India from entering into an alignment with the Soviet Union by the Indo – Soviet treaty of 1971 (20 – year pact of ‘peace, friendship and co operation’)

Then India embarked on a substantial programme of military modernisation. In 1974, India also conducted its first nuclear test at Pokhran under Subterranean Nuclear Explosion Project, in response to China’s nuclear test in 1964 at Lop Nor.

Question 2.
Discuss the core determinants of India’s foreign policy?
Answer:
Basic Determinants of a Foreign Policy:

• Geographical position and size of the territory
• Nation’s history, traditions and philosophical basis
• Natural resources
• The compulsion of economic development
• Political stability and structure of government
• The necessity of peace, disarmament and non-proliferation of nuclear weapons
• Military strength
• International milieu

Question 3.
Make a list on basic concepts followed by India to maintain friendly relations with its neighbours.
Answer:
Prioritising an integrated Neighbourhood first policy:

1. India’s foreign policy has always regarded the concept of neighbourhood as one of widening concentric circles, around the central axis of historical and cultural commonalities.
2. India gives political and diplomatic priority to her immediate neighbours and the Indian Ocean Island states such as Maldives.
3. Greater connectivity and integration is provided so as to improve the free flow of goods, people, energy, capital and information.

Bridging diplomacy and development:

1. One of the major objectives India’s foreign policy has been to leverage international partnership for India’s domestic development.
2. This includes improving technological access, sourcing capital, gaining market access and securing natural resources.

A gradual transition from “Look East” to “Act East” Policy:

1. South East Asia begins with North East India.
2. Myanmar is our land bridge to the countries of the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN).
3. The purpose is to ensure a stable and multipolar balance of power in the Indo – Pacific and to become an integral part of Asia.
4. This policy emphasises a more priductive role for ASEAN ans EAST Asian countries.

Economic development:

1. Currently India’s political moves are being influenced by economic imperatives.
2. Many nations are moving to forge better relationship with India.
3. Accelerated, balanced and inclusive economic development to achieves this by ensuring peace and security, and by leveraging the nation’s international partnership.

India as a leading power:

1. India is a member of the G20, the East Asia Summit and the BRICS coalition atestament to its status as a large country with a fast growing economy.
2. India aspires for permanent membership of this UN Security Council.
3. India now has an increasing range of interests, which are anchored in different parts of the world and which stem from a wide range of factors (energy, natural resources, investment, trade etc.,)

New challenges forced India to adjust to new realities. Even then, basic framework of its foreign policy remained more (or) less the same.

VII. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Identify any two aspects of India’s foreign policy that you would like to retain and to change if you were the decision maker.
Answer:
India’s Foreign Policy focus on the following:

1. Preservation of national interest
2. Achievement of world peace
3. Disarmament
4. Maintaining cordial relationship with other countries
5. Anti – colonialism, Anti – Imperialism and Anti – Racism.

If I imagine myself as a decision maker of India’s foreign policy, I would like to retain the following two aspects of foreign policy.

1. Maintaining world peace, Disarmament.
2. Anti – colonialism, Anti – Imperialism and Anti – Racism.

The two aspects of foreign policy that I would like to change are:

1. Fostering cordial relationship with other countries. We can maintain cordial relationship with all countries, but if they tries to attract us, we should be ready to defend ourselves.
2. Equality in conducting International relations. We can maintain an equality in International relations along with the improvement in scientific economic aspects.

So, it can be enhancement in scientific and economic aspects in relation with other countries.

Note: The answer given is purely a sample answer, students should understand the answer, analyse, and think to give their personal views on the activity and submit to their teacher.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s Foreign Policy Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which policy seeks to secure the best interest of the people? (territory and economy of the country).
(a) Panchsheel
(b) Imperialism
(c) Foreign Policy
(d) Non-co-operation
Answer:
(c) Foreign Policy

Question 2.
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru’s five principles of peace are named as …………
(a) Swadesh
(b) New Deal
(c) Panchsheel
Answer:
(c) Panchsheel

Question 3.
An objective and goal oriented foreign policy has the potential to achieve:
(a) improved relation with other Nation.
(b) To accelerate growth
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 4.
India is called by the name of ………..
(a) Superpower
(b) Terrorist
(c) A great peacemaker
Answer:
(c) A great peacemaker

Question 5.
Which Institute provides training for officers of Indian Foreign Services (IFS)?
(a) The Foreign Services Training Institute
(b) An international association
(c) Ministry of external affairs of India
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) The Foreign Services Training Institute

Question 6.
China became a Republic in ………..
(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1949
Answer:
(c) 1949

Question 7.
………………… principles were incorporated in the Bandung Declaration.
(a) Non – Aligned Movement
(b) Panchsheel
(c) Trade and commerce
(d) Racial discrimination
Answer:
(b) Panchsheel

Question 8.
Bangladesh got freedom due to the efforts of ………….
(a) Nehru
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Gandhi
Answer:
(b) Indira Gandhi

Question 9.
What is the main aim of India’s foreign policy in the following?
(a) World co – operation
(b) World peace
(c) Racial equality
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 10.
The term ‘Non-Alignment’ was coined by ………….
(a) V. Krishna Menon
(b) Abul Ashar
(c) Jinnah
Answer:
(a) V. Krishna Menon

Question 11.
Whose vote against Iran at the’lnternational Atomic Energy agency?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Myanmar
(d) Egypt
Answer:
(b) India

Question 12.
The foremost task of india’s foreign policy:
(a) Domestic transformation
(b) Inward investment
(c) Business and technology
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 13.
India’s global security concerns:
(a) Military modernisation
(b) Nuclear policies
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 14.
Mention the basic concepts of India’s Foreign Policy.
(a) Disarmament
(b) Colonisation
(c) Imperialism
(d) Racism
Answer:
(a) Disarmament

Question 15.
How many member countries in SAARC organisation?
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 8

Question 16.
Which of the following country is a member of the SAARC?
(a) Myanmar
(b) Pakistan
(c) Egypt
(d) Indonesia
Answer:
(b) Pakistan

Question 17.
………………… policies aim to promote welfare economics and collective self-reliance among the countries (South Asia)
(a) SAARC
(b) Panchsheel
(c) Non – Alignment
(d) none
Answer:
(a) SAARC

Question 18.
………………… is the instrument for implementing the foreign policy of a state.
(a) Diplomacy
(b) Disarmament
(c) Racism
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Diplomacy

Question 19.
Who supported UN disarmament programme?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Srilanka
(c) China
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

Question 20.
………………… is the world’s second most populous country.
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Pakistan
(d) Srilanka
Answer:
(b) India

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The Foreign Service Training Institute was established in ………………….
2. The Afro – Asian conference held in ………………….
3. …………………. has been regarded as the most important feature of India’s foreign policy.
4. The founding father of NAM …………………. of India.
5. The Non – Aligned Movement (NAM) was formed with a membership of …………………. countries and …………………. international organisation.
6. India embarked on a substantial programme of ………………
7. The ……………… is meant for mutual assistance among nations for peace and progress.
8. The ……………… stance of India was supporting the cause of decolonisation.
9. India supported UN ……………… programme.
10. ……………… is an organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in ………………
11. SAARC Disaster management centre was set up at ………………
12. SAARC satellite is a proposed communication cum – meteorology satellite by ………………
13. The SAARC policies aim to accelerate ……………… development in the region.
14. ……………… is the nations plan for dealing with other nations.
15. India aspires for permanent membership on the ………………
16. ……………… forced India to adjust new realities.
17. Indo – US civilian ……………… marks significant progress in India’s foreign policy.
18. India provides ……………… with support as needed in the form of resources and training.
19. Since ……………… global non – proliferation has been a dominant theme of India’s nuclear policy.
20. Indian ……………… in 1974 and 1998 is only done for strategic purposes.

Answers:

1. 1986
2. Indonesia
3. Non – Alignment
4. Jawaharlal Nehru
5. 120, 10
6. Military modernisation
7. Non – Aligned Movement
8. foreign policy
9. disarmament
10. SAARC, South Asia
11. New Delhi
12. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
13. Socio-cultural
14. Foreign Policy
15. UN Security Council
16. New Challenges
17. Nuclear deal
18. neighbours
19. Independence
20. Nuclear Programme

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is not about SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation)?
(i) SAARC is an economic and geopolitical organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in south Asia.
(ii) SAARC policies aim to promote welfare economics and to accelerate socio-cultural development in the region.
(iii) SAARC Disaster management centre was set up at Mumbai.
(iv) SAARC satellite is a proposed communication cum – meteorology satellite by (ISRO).
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (iv) only
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Ministry of External Affairs of India also known as Foreign Ministry comes under Government of India.
Reason (R): It is responsible for the conduct of foreign relations of India.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explains A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): During Cold, War India tried to form a third block of Nations in international affairs.
Reason (R); The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was world cooperation world peace racial equality and non – alignment.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are right.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A.

Question 4.
Which of the following is about NAM?
(i) Non – alignment has been regarded most important feature if India’s Foreign Policy.
(ii) NAM was formed with 180 member countries.
(iii) NAM is establishing economic cooperation among under developed countries.
(iv) It was the largest political groping countries in a multilateral fora.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (iii),(iv)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (ii),(iv)
Answer:
(b) (i), (iii),(iv)

Question 5.
Assertion (A): : Since Independence global Non – proliferation has been dominant theme of India’s nuclear policy.
Reason (R): So India’s supported U.N Disarmament programme.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explains A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are right.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are right.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column ll.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

V. Give short answers

Question 1.
What is Diplomacy?
Answer:
Diplomacy is the instrument for implementing the foreign policy of a state.

Question 2.
What is meant by G – 20 global group of countries?
Answer:
G – 20 refers to the largest established and emerging economies of the world. India is also a member of G – 20 countries.

Question 3.
Write a note on the policy of Apartheid.
Answer:

1. In South Africa the whites, did not give equal rights to the Native Africans.
2. India raised this issue for the first time in the UN General Assembly in 1946.
3. It was due to the constant moral support of India and the continuous struggle of Dr. Nelson Mandela, the policy of Apartheid was abolished in 1990.

Question 4.
List out the basic concept of India’s of foreign policy?
Answer:

1. Preservation of National interest.
2. Achievement of world peace.
3. Disarmament
4. Fostering cordial relationship with other countries.
5. Solving conflicts by peaceful means.
6. Equality in conducting international relations.
7. Anti – colonialism anti – imperialism anti – racism.

Question 5.
Write short notes on Article-51.
Answer:
Lays down the Directive Principles of India’s foreign policy.
The state shall endeavour to

1. Promote international peace and security
2. Maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
3. Foster respect for international law and international organisation.
4. Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

Question 6.
What is the major objectives of India’s foreign policy?
Answer:

1. one of the major objectives of India’s foreign policy has been to leverage international partnership for India’s domestic development.
2. This include improving technological access source of capital, gaining market access and securing natural resources.

Question 7.
What are the elements in our eastern policy?
Answer:
The three big elements in our eastern policy are stronger emphasis on physical connectivity commercial and security related.

Question 8.
Non – Alignement defined by Nehru?
Answer:
“Broudly, non – alignment means not tying yourself off with military blocks. It means trying to view things, as far as possible, not form the military point of view, though that has to come in sometimes, but independently, and trying to maintain friendly relations with all countries”.
– Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 9.
Mention few basic determinants of a foreign policy.
Answer:

1. Geographical position and size of territory.
2. Nation’s history, traditions and philosophical basis.
3. Natural resources
4. Political stability and structure of Government.

Question 10.
What do you mean by NAM?
Answer:
NAM means Non – Aligned Movement.

1. The NAM is meant for mutual assistance among nations for peace and progress.
2. It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by not , jointing any military alliance.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain about the shifts in India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
The shifts in India’s policy manifested in various ways such as:

1. Better relations with China – The look East policy (1992).
2. The second nuclear test at Pokhran (1998) in Rajasthan.
3. Defence procurement relationship with Israel.
4. Energy diplomacy with Arab countries and Iran.
5. Agreeing to US nuclear missile defence programme and
6. India’s vote against Iran at the International Automatic Energy Agency.

Question 2.
Write a short note on SAARC.
Answer:
SAARC:
SAARC means, The South Asian Association for regional co-operation.

(i) India took the initiative to form SAARC to maintain peace in the regional level.
(ii) SAARC’s first meeting was held at Dacca in Bangladesh in Dec 7, 1985.
(iii) Ashan of Bangladesh was the first secretary-general of SAARC.
(iv) The member countries are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Afghanistan and Sri Lanka.

(v) On April 3, 2007 the SAARC’s annual summit was held in New Delhi. Afghan president Hamid Karzai attended this meeting Afghanistan become its 8th member.

(vi) 18th SAARC summit took place on 26th and 27th of November 2014 at Kathmandu the capital of Nepal.

(vii) The SAARC countries identified mutual co-operation in the following areas transportation postal service, tourism, shipping meteorology, health, agriculture rural reconstruction and telecommunication.

Question 3.
How India accelerated balanced and inclusive economic development?
Answer:

1. India achieved economic development by ensuring peace and security.
2. By leveraging the nations international partnership, to obtain all that is needed to fuel economic development.
3. Economic development in the filed of markets, investment, fair global governance and a stable and fair environment conducive for growth.
4. Currently’ India’s political moves are being influenced by economic imperatives.
5. Many nations are moving to forge better relationship with India.

Question 4.
Explain about the principles of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Lays down directive principles of India’s foreign policy.

The state shall endeavour to

1. Promote International Peace and Security.
2. Maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
3. Foster respect for International law and international organisation.
4. Encourage settlement of International disputes by arbitration.

Question 5.
Write a short note on SAARC.
Answer:
SAARC – South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation.

1. SAARC is an economic and geopolitical organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in South Asia.
2. The SAARC policies aim to promote welfare economies, collective self – reliance and to accelerate socio – cultural development in the region.
3. SAARC Disaster Management Center was set up at New Delhi.
4. This centre working on various dimensions of disaster risk reduction and management,
5. SAARC satellite is a proposed communication-cum-meteorology satellite by Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) for the SAARC region.
6. The member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan, and SriLanka.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 4 The Living World of Plants Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 4 The Living World of Plants

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Living World of Plants Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The pond is an example of ………
(a) Marine habitat
(b) Freshwater habitat
(c) Deserts
(d) Mountain
Answer:
(b) Freshwater habitat

Question 2.
The important function of stomata is ______
(a) Conduction
(b) Transpiration
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Absorption
Answer:
(b) Transpiration

Question 3.
Organs of absorption are ………
(a) Root
(b) Stem
(c) Leaf
(d) Flower
Answer:
(a) Root

Question 4.
The habitat of water hyacinth is ______
(a) Aquatic
(b) Terrestrial
(c) Desert
(d) Mountain
Answer:
(a) Aquatic

II. True or False – If false give the correct answer.

1. Plants can live without water.
2. All plants have chlorophyll.
3. Plants have three parts; the root, the stem, and the leaves.
4. Mountain is an example of a freshwater habitat.
5. Root is modified into spines.
6. Green plants need sunlight.

Answer:

1. False – They need water to carry out various functions.
2. False – Only green plants have chlorophyll.
3. True
4. False – Mountain is an example of Terrestrial habitat.
5. False – Spines are usually modifications of leaves.
6. True

III. Fill in the blanks.

1. Earth’s surface is covered by ……….. % of water.
2. The driest places on earth are ……….
3. Fixation and absorption are the main functions of ……….
4. Primary organs of photosynthesis are ………..
5. Taproot system present in ……….. plants.

Answer:

1. 70%
2. Deserts
3. roots
4. leave
5. dicot.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
(i) – d
(ii) – c
(iii) – b
(iv) – e
(v) – a

V. Arrange in the correct sequence.

Question 1.
Leaf – Stem – Root – Flower
Answer:
root – stem – leaf – flower

Question 2.
Transpiration – Conduction – Absorption – Fixation.
Answer:
Fixation, Absorption, Conduction, Transpiration.

VI. Very short answer.

Question 1.
Classify plants on the basis of their habitat.
Answer:
Terrestrial and Aquatic are the 2 habitats

Question 2.
Identify the desert plant from the following – Cactus, Hydrilla, Mango, and Rose.
Answer:
Cactus plants – grow in deserts, and are able to store water in their stem.

Question 3.
Define the term habitat.
Answer:
Each and every organism needs a place to live and reproduce known as habitat.
The dwelling place of any organism is its habitat. Eg. Aquatic habitat

Question 4.
Relate the terms leaves and photosynthesis.
Answer:
Leaves are green in colour, they have chlorophyll and do photosynthesis.

VII. Short answer.

Question 1.
Why do you call Jasmine plants a twiner?
Answer:
Weak plant, cannot stand on its own, must climb on any support to survive.

Question 2.
Compare the taproot and fibrous root systems.
Answer:
Taproot system:

1. Consists of a single root.
2. it grows straight down in the ground
3. Seen in misogynous plants.

Fibrous root system:

1. Consists cluster of roots.
2. It is thin and uniform in size.
3. Seen in monocotyledonous plants.

Question 3.
Distinguish between terrestrial and aquatic habitats.
Answer:

Question 4.
List out the plants present in your school garden.
Answer:
Mango tree, Neem tree, Water lily, Clitoria, Hibiscus

VIII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Make a list of functions of root & stem.
Answer:
Functions of root:
The root,

• Fixes the plant to the soil.
• Absorbs water and minerals from the soil.
• Stores food in some plants like carrots and beetroot.

Functions of stem:
The stem,

• Supports the branches, leaves, flowers, and fruits.
• Transports water and minerals from roots to upper aerial plant parts.
• Transports the prepared food from leaves to other parts.
• Stores food as in the case of sugarcane.

Question 2.
Study the given concept map. Connect them correcting by drawing arrow marks. Complete the map by filling in the blanks.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Living World of Plants Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
Maize has ……….
(a) taproot
(b) fibrous root
(c) Adventitious root
(d) Fasciculate root
Answer:
(b) fibrous root

Question 2.
The underground part of the main axis of a plant is known as ______
(a) shoot
(b) node
(c) root
(d) leaf
Answer:
(c) root

Question 3.
The stalk of the leaf is known
(a) peduncle
(b) rachis
(c) pedicel
d) petiole
Answer:
(d) petiole

Question 4.
On the lower side of the leaf, there are tiny pores or openings known as ______
(a) Leaf base
(b) midrib
(c) petiole
(d) stomata
Answer:
(d) stomata

Question 5.
The diameter of the leaf of Victoria amazonica is
(a) 2 meters
(b) 2.5 cm
(c) 3 meters
(d) 1 meter
Answer:
(c) 3 meters

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Special features in plants which help them to survive in the habitats they live are known as ……….
2. The Great Indian Desert is an arid region of rolling sandhills on the Indian sub continent is known as ……….
3. ………. is the main vein of the lamina of the leaf.
4. A change in an organism caused by environmental factors is known as ………

Answer:

1. Adaptations
2. Thar desert
3. Midrib
4. Modification

III. Arrange in the correct sequence.

Question 1.
Sea – Lake – River – Pond
Answer:
Pond – Lake – River – Pond.

Question 2.
Internode – Node – Axillary Bud – Terminal Bud
Answer:
Terminal Bud – Axillary Bud – Node – Internodes.

IV. Very short answer.

Question 1.
Draw the structure of a leaf and neatly label the parts.
Answer:

Question 2.
List the main part of a flowering plant.
Answer:
The flowering plant consists of two main parts. They are

1. Root system
2. Shoot system

Question 3.
Differentiate between Gymnosperm and Angiosperm.
Answer:
Both groups produces seeds.
Gymnosperms – Non flowering but produce naked seeds Eg. Pinus, Cycas.
Angiosperms – Flowering and produce closed seeds Eg. Mango – Rose

Question 4.
Give some examples of monocotyledonous plants and dicotyledonous plants.
Answer:
Monocotyledonous plant – Grass, Paddy, Maize
Dicotyledonous plant – Bean, Mango, Neem

Question 5.
Notes on Thorns or Spines.
Answer:
Some plants leave – modified into sharp structures known as Thorns or Spines help to reduce water loss.
Eg – Agave – (leaf apex & margin modified into spines).

V. Answer in Details.

Question 1.
Explain Tendril climber.
Answer:
Tendril a twining climbing organ of some weak stemmed plants.
It coils around support and helps the plant to climb.

1. Sweet peas – Here leaflets are modified into tendrils.
2. Bitter gourd – Axillary buds of plant-modified into tendril, help climb up.

Question 2.
Write about Desert Habitat.
Answer:

1. Dry places on earth
2. Less rainfall – less than 25 cm annually.
3. Deserts cover 20% of the earth’s surface.
4. Plants – Adapted to withstand severe heat.

Thick leaves help them to store water and minerals. Eg. Aloe

1. Stems modified to store water. Eg. Cactus
2. Leaves – modified into spines – Opuntia.

Question 3.
Study was given concept map. Connect them by drawing marks- for example, the map by filling the blanks.
Answer:

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 3 Matter Around Us Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Matter Around Us

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Matter Around Us Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
………. is not made of matter
(a) Gold ring
(b) iron nail
(c) light ray
(d) oil drop
Answer:
(a) light ray

Question 2.
200 ml of water is poured into a bowl of 400ml capacity. The volume of water now will be _____
(a) 400 ml
(b) 600 ml
(c) 200 ml
(d) 800 ml
Answer:
(c) 200 ml

Question 3.
Seeds from water-melon can be removed by method.
(a) Hand-picking
(b) filtration
(c) magnetic separation
(d) decantation
Answer:
(c) Hand picking

Question 4.
Lighter impurities like dust, when mixed with rice or pulses, can be removed by _____
(a) filtration
(b) sedimentation
(c) decantation
(d) winnowing
Answer:
(d) winnowing

Question 5.
………… of is essential to perform winnowing activity
(a) Rain
(b) Soil
(c) Water
(d) Air
Answer:
(d) Air

Question 6.
Filtration method is effective in separating _____ mixture.
(a) solid – solid
(b) solid – liquid
(c) liquid – liquid
(d) liquid – gas
Answer:
(b) solid – liquid

Question 7.
From the following ………. is not a mixture
(a) Coffee with milk
(b) lemon juice
(c) Water
(d) ice cream embedded with nuts.
Answer:
(c) Water

II. State whether the following statements are True or False. If false give the correct statement

1. Air is not compressible.
2. Liquids have no fixed volume but have fixed shape.
3. Particles in solids are free to move.
4. Then pulses are washed with water before cooking, the water is separated from them by the process of filtration.
5. Strainer is a kind of sieve which is used to separate a liquid from solid
6. Grain and husk can be separated by winnowing
7. Air is a pure substance
8. Butter from curds is separated by sedimentation.

Answer:

1. False. Air is Compressible.
2. False. Liquids have no fixed shape but have fixed volume.
3. False Particles in solids are not free to move.
4. False. When pulses are washed with water before cooking, the water is separated from them by the process of Decantation.
5. False. Strainer is a kind of sieve which is used to separate a solid from liquid.
6. True.
7. False. Air is a mixture. (Or) Air is not a pure substance.
8. False. Butter from curds is separated by churning.

III. Match the following

Question 1.

Answer:
1. – d
2. – e
3. – b
4. – c
5. – a

Question 2.

Answer:

IV. Fill in the blanks

1. Matter is made up of ………
2. In solids, the space between the particles is less than in ……….
3. Grains can be separated from their stalks by ……….
4. Chillies are removed from ‘upma’ by ……… method.
5. The method employed to separate clay particles from water is ……….
6. Among the following items: Safety pins, pencil and rubber band, ………. will get attracted to a magnet.
7. Water obtained from tube wells is usually ………. water

Answer:

1. Atoms
2. An Liquids
3. Threshlng
4. Hand picking
5. Filtration
6. Safety pins
7. Impure

V. Complete the given analogy

1. Solid: rigidity :: gas: …………
2. Large Inter-particle space: gas:: ………. : solid
3. Solid : definite shape :: ……… : shape of the vessel.
4. Husk-grains: winnowing:: Sawdust-chalk piece: ………..
5. Murukku from hot oil: ………. :: coffee powder residue from decoction
6. Iron-sulphur mixture: ……….. :: Mustard seeds from Urad-dhal: Rolling

Answer:

1. Compressibility
2. Little inter-particle space
3. Liquids
4. Sedimentation and Decantaium
5. Hand picking; Filtralion.
6. Magnetic Separation.

VI. Very short answer

Question 1.
Define the term matter.
Answer:
The matter is defined as anything that has mass and takes up space. The matter is found in solid, liquid, and gas.

Question 2.
How can husk or fine dust particles be separated from rice before cooking?
Answer:
Before cooking, the husk or fine dust particles in rice are being separated by ‘Sedimentation’. The lighter impurities float while heavier rice grains sink to the bottom.

Question 3.
Why do we separate mixtures?
Answer:
A mixture is an impure substance and contains more than one kind of particles. So, we have to separate mixtures.

Question 4.
Give an example for mixture and justify your answer with reason.
Answer:
An example of a mixture is 22 Carat Gold. This is composed of Gold and Copper (or) Gold and Cadmium.

Question 5.
Define Sedimentation.
Answer:
Sedimentation is the deposition process of setting down of heavy solids in a mixture of liquid and an insoluble solid.

Question 6.
Give the main difference between a pure substance and an impure substance.
Answer:
Pure Substance :
Made up of only one kind of particles.
Cannot be separated by physical means.

Impure Substance :
Has particles of other Substance mixed in it.
Can be separated by physical means.

VII. Short Answer.

Question 1.
A rubber ball changes its shape on pressing. Can it be called a solid?
Answer:
Yes. A solid has a certain shape and size. The shape of a rubber ball changes only if we squeeze it.

Question 2.
Why do gases not have fixed shape?
Answer:
Gases do not have a fixed shape due to the weak forces of attraction between the gaseous particles. Hence, they can flow and take shape of the container.

Question 3.
What method will you employ to separate cheese (paneer) from milk? Explain.
Answer:
“Churning followed by Coagulation” is employed to separate cheese (Paneer) from milk. There are six important steps in making cheese (Paneer) from milk:

1. Acidification
2. coagulation
3. separating curds and whey
4. Salting
5. shaping
6. ripening

Question 4.
Look at the picture given below and explain the method of separation illustrated.

Answer:
The given picture shows the ‘Sieving’ method of separation. It is used to separate the solid particles of different sizes. Example: Bran from flour; Sand from gravel.

Question 5.
How can you separate a mixture of a large number of tiny bits of paper mixed with pulses/dal?
Answer:
We can separate the mixture of a large number of tiny bits of paper and pulses/dal by “Winnowing”. The lighter papers will be carried by wind and heavier pulses/dais will fall closer and form a separate heap.

Question 6.
What is meant by food adulteration?
Answer:
The process of mixing harmful and unwanted substances with the foodstuffs that we buy in the market is called food adulteration

Question 7.
Mr. Raghu returns home on a hot summer day and wants to have buttermilk. Mrs. Raghu has only curds. What can she do to get buttermilk? Explain.
Answer:
Mrs. Raghu has to take half a cup of curd, add half a cup of water to it, and mix well. Now, she can serve buttermilk.

VIII. Answer In Detail.

Question 1.
Distinguish between properties of solid, liquid, gas. Draw a suitable diagram.
Answer:

Question 2.
Using a suitable apparatus from your laboratory, separate the mixture of chalk powder, mustard oil, water, and coins. Draw a flow chart to show the separation process.
Answer:

HOTS

Question 1.
Malar’s mother was preparing to cook dinner. She accidentally mixed ground nuts with urad-dhal. Suggest a suitable method to separate the two substances so that Malar can have ground nuts to eat.
Answer:
The groundnuts shall be separated by hand-picking method because they are in a different size When compared with urad-dhal.

Question 2.
In a glass containing some water, tamarind juice and sugar is added and stirred well. Is this a mixture-can you tell why? Will this solution be sweet? Or sour? Or both sweet and sour?
Answer:

1. A glass containing some water, Tamarind juice, and sugar is a mixture.
2. Because it is made up of two or more ingredients that are physically separable.
3. This mixture is both sweet and sour.

Question 3.
Justify your answer.
An arrangement of particles in three different phases of matter is shown above.

(a) Which state is represented by fig. I?
Answer:
Figure 1 represents a gas.

(b) In which will be the interparticle attraction maximum?
Answer:
Inter Particle attraction is maximum in solids (fig. 3)

(c) Which one of them cannot be contained in an open vessel?
Answer:
A gas (fig. 1) cannot be contained in an open vessel.

(d) Which one can take the shape of its container?
Answer:
Liquid (fig.2) can take the shape of its container.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Matter Around Us Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following are homogeneous in nature?
(i) ice
(ii) wood
(iii) soil
(iv) Air
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iv)

Question 2.
A standard sheet of paper is about atoms thick.
(a) Thousands
(b) Crores
(c) Lakhs
(d) Million
Answer:
(d) Million

Question 3.
Which among the following is not a matter?
(a) Electron
(b) Blood
(c) Moonrock
(d) Humidity
Answer:
(a) Electron

Question 4.
One dot that you make with your pen has more than ______ lakh molecules.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) Three
Answer:
(b) Two

Question 5.
Pure rava, when adultered with wheat flour, is separated by
(a) Sieving
(b) Filtration
(c) Winnowing
(d) Threshing
Answer:
(a) Sieving

II. Match the following

Answer:
1. – b
2. – d
3. – a
4. – c

III. Fill in the blanks

1. ……… particles are tightly packed into a definite shape.
2. The tendency of particles to spread out in order to occupy the available space is ………..
3. The purest form of gold is denoted by ………..
4. Milk is a ………..
5. The principle of ………. is used in washing machines.

Answer:

1. Solid
2. diffusion
3. 24 carat
4. mixture
5. centrifugation

IV. Very short answer.

Question 1.
Name the two microscopes which are used to identify the structure of the atom.
Answer:

1. SEM – Scanning Electron Microscope
2. TEM – Tunnelling Electron Microscope

Question 2.
What type of matter glass is?
Answer:
Glass is looking like a solid, but not. It is actually a very slow-moving liquid.

Question 3.
Give two examples of diffusion.
Answer:

1. Spread of a drop of ink in a glass of water.
2. Spread of the smell of an incense stick.

Question 4.
Mention the method of separation of Bran from flour. Explain.
Answer:
Bran from flour is separated by ‘sieving’.
Solid particles of different sizes can be separated by sieving.

Question 5.
Define the term ‘Liquefaction of gases’.
Answer:
The process by which substances in their gaseous state are converted to the liquid state is called Liquefaction of gases.

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
What are the similarities between a gas and a liquid?
Answer:

1. Neither gas nor a liquid has a definite shape.
2. The particles of gases and liquids can move. We call this movement diffusion.
3. Liquids can evaporate into gases and the gases can condense into liquids.
4. They can have the property of compressibility to some extent.

Question 2.
How do decantation and filtration differ and which is faster?
Answer:

Note: Normally filtration will give a better separation than decantation.

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 3 State Government Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 3 State Government

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science State Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Governor of the State is appointed by the:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Minister
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(c) President

Question 2.
The Speaker of a State is a ……………
(a) Head of State
(b) Head of government
(c) President’s agent
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 3.
Which among the following is not one of the powers of the Governor?
(a) Legislative
(b) Executive
(c) Judicial
(d) Diplomatic
Answer:
(d) Diplomatic

Question 4.
Who can nominate one representative of the Anglo-Indian Community to the State Legislative Assembly?
(a) The President
(b) The Governor
(c) The Chief Minister
(d) The Speaker of State legislature
Answer:
(b) The Governor

Question 5.
The Governor does not appoint:
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(c) Advocate General of the State
(d) Judges of the High Court
Answer:
(d) Judges of the High Court

Question 6.
The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by …………….
(a) The State Legislature
(b) The Governor
(c) The President
(d) The Speaker of State Legislative Assembly
Answer:
(b) The Governor

Question 7.
The State Council of Ministers is headed by:
(a) The Chief Minister
(b) The Governor
(c) The Speaker
(d) The Prime Minister
Answer:
(a) The Chief Minister

Question 8.
The Legislative Council ………….
(a) has a term of five years
(b) has a term of six years
(c) is a permanent house
(d) has a term of four years
Answer:
(c) is a permanent house

Question 9.
The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is:
(a) 25 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years
Answer:
(c) 30 years

Question 10.
The members of the Legislative Council are ……………
(a) Elected by the Legislative Assembly
(b) Mostly nominated
(c) Elected by local bodies, graduates, teachers, Legislative Assembly etc.
(d) Directly elected by the people
Answer:
(c) Elected by local bodies, graduates, teachers, Legislative Assembly etc.

Question 11.
Which one of the following States does not possess a bicameral legislature?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Telangana
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 12.
The High Courts in India were first started at ………………….
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras
(b) Delhi and Calcutta
(c) Delhi, Calcutta, Madras
(d) Calcutta, Madras, Delhi
Answer:
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras

Question 13.
Which of the following States have a common High Court?
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala and Telangana
(c) Punjab and Haryana
(d) Maharashtra and Gujarat
Answer:
(c) Punjab and Haryana

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Governor of the state government surrenders his resignation to ………………..
2. Members of the Legislative assembly (MLAs) elected by the ………………..
3. ……………….. is the first women Governor of Tamil Nadu.
4. ……………….. acts as the chancellor of universities in the state.
5. The Seventh Amendment Act of ……………….. authorised the Parliament to establish a common high court for two or more states.
6. The Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission can be removed only by the ………………..

Answers:

1. The President
2. people
3. Mrs.Fathima Beevi
4. The Governor
5. 1956
6. President

III. Match the following

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (iii)

IV. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Only some states in India have Legislative Councils.
(ii) Some members of Legislative Councils are nominated.
(iii) Some members of Legislative Councils are directly elected by the people.
(iv) Some members are elected by Local bodies.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and iv are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(e) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(e) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): There are limitations on the Legislative authority of the State Legislature.
Reason (R): Certain bills on the State List can be introduced in the State
Legislature only with the President’s approval.
(a) (A) is false but (R) is true
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

V. Answer in brief questions

Question 1.
How the state of Jammu and Kashmir differ from the other states of India?
Answer:
(i) The Constitution of India grants special status to Jammu and Kashmir among Indian States, and it is the only state in India to have a separate Constitution.

(ii) The Directive Principles of the State Policy and Fundamental Duties of the Constitution are not applicable to the State of Jammu and Kashmir.

(iii) Rights to property, which is denied as a Fundamental Right to rest of India is still guaranteed in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 2.
What is the importance of the Governor of a state?
Answer:

1. The Governor is the constitutional head of the state executive.
2. The administration of a state is carried on in the name of the governor.
3. The Governor is an integral part of the state legislature. But he is not a member in the legislature.
4. He has the right to summon, prorogue the state legislature and dissolve the Assembly.
5. Under Article 213 he can promulgate ordinances when the state legislature is not in session.

Question 3.
What are the qualifications for the appointment of Governor?
Answer:
Qualifications of the Governor is given below

1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He must have completed 35 years of age.
3. He should not be a member of Parliament or any State legislature.
4. He should not hold any other profitable occupation.

Question 4.
What is the original Jurisdiction of the High Court?
Answer:

1. Only in matters of admiralty, probate, matrimonial and contempt of Court the High Courts have original Jurisdiction.
2. The presidency High Courts ( Bombay, Calcutta and Madras) have original Jurisdiction in which the amount involved is more than 2000 and the criminal cases which are committed to them by the presidency magistrates.

Question 5.
What do you understand by the “Appellate Jurisdiction” of the High Court?
Answer:
As courts of appeal, all High Courts hear appeals in both civil and criminal cases against the divisions of the subordinate courts and can review their judgements.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
What are the powers and functions of the Chief Minister?
Answer:

1. The leader of the majority’ party or majority group in the state Legislative Assembly is appointed as the Chief Minister by the Governor.
2. The Chief Minister is the real executive head of the state administration.

The Powers and Functions of the Chief Minister:

1. Relating to the council of Ministers
2. Relating to the Governor
3. Relating to the State Legislature
4. Other functions and powers

Relating to the Council of Ministers:

1. The Chief Minister recommends a person who can be appointed as Minister by the Governor.
2. He allocates the port folios to the Ministers
3. He shuffles and reshuffles his ministry
4. He presides over the cabinet meetings and influences its decisions,
5. In case of difference of opinion he can ask a minister to resign or advices the Governor to dismiss him,
6. If the Chief Minister resigns the council of Ministers are also should resign.
7. He guides, directs, controls and coordinates the activities of all the Ministers.

Relating to the Governor:

1. The Chief Minister is the link between the Governor and the Council of Ministers.
2. He advices the Governor in relation to the appointment of Advocate general of the state, State Election Commissioner, Chairman and members of the State Planning Commission, State Public Service Commission and the State Finance Commission.

Relating to State Legislature:

1. On the advice of the Chief Minister Governor officially summons & prorogues the sessions of the state legislature.
2. He announces the government policies on the floor of the house.
3. He can introduce the bills in the Legislative Assembly.
4. Recommend for the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly to the Governor any time.

Other function and powers:

1. As the leader of the party he has to control the party and develop the disciplines.
2. To consider the demands of the different sections of the people.
3. As the political head supervise control and co-ordinate the secretaries of various departments in the state level.
4. For the smooth functioning of the state he has to develop a good rapport with the Central (Union) Government for good Centre-State relation.

Question 2.
Describe the various powers and functions of the Governor.
Answer:
The powers and functions of the Governor are:
(i) The Governor is the Constitutional head of the State. All the administration is carried on in his name.

(ii) He appoints the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly as the Chief Minister of the State. He appoints other members of the council of Ministers on the recommendation of the Chief Minister.

(iii) He appoints the Advocate General of the State, the chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission, the State Election Commissioner, the Attorney General of the State etc.

(iv) He has the right to summon, prorogue the State Legislature and dissolve the State Legislative Assembly.

(v) The Money Bills can be introduced in the State Legislature only with the prior recommendation of the Governor.

(vi) He constitutes a Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats and the municipalities.

Question 3.
Briefly discuss the Functions of the State Legislature.
Answer:
Legislative powers:

1. As per the constitution can pass laws on all subjects mentioned in the State List.
2. The passing of Bill into law follows the same procedure as in the union Parliament.
3. The state can make laws on concurrent subject also. The state made law will become inoperative when the Centre also passes law on the same subject.
4. The Bill passed in the State legislature will become law after Governor’s assent.

Financial powers:

1. Money bills can be introduced only in the Lower House or Assembly
2. No new tax can be levied without the sanction and permission of the Assembly.
3. The Legislature controls the finances of the State.

Control over the Executive:

1. The Legislature controls over the Executive.
2. The Council of Ministers is responsible to the Assembly.
3. They can be removed from the power if the Assembly passes “No confidence motion” against the Ministry.

Question 4.
Critically examine the functions and powers of the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
The functions and powers of the Council of Ministers –

1. It formulates and decides the policies of the State and implements them effectively.
2. It decides the legislative programmes of the Legislative Assembly and sponsors all important bills.
3. It controls the financial policy and decides the tax structure for the public welfare of the State.
4. It chalks out programmes and schemes for the socio-economic changes so that the State makes headway in various inter-related fields,
5. It makes the important appointments of the heads of departments.
6. The Annual Financial Statement called as the Budget is finalised by the Council of Ministers.
7. It advises the Governor on the appointment of judges of the subordinate courts.

Question 5.
Describe the powers and functions of the High Court
Answer:
High Court is the highest court in the state. Every High Court consists of a Chief Justice and other judges appointed by the President. The High Court enjoys the following Jurisdiction.

(i) Original Jurisdiction: The High Court can hear the cases like such as matters of admiralty, probate and matrimonial, contempt of court and in criminal cases.

(ii) Appellate Jurisdiction: As courts of appeal all High Courts appeals in civil and criminal cases and also cases of their own.

(iii) Writ Jurisdiction: Writs are issued by the High Court not only for the enforcement of fundamental rights but also where an ordinary legal rights has been infringed.

Kinds of Writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition ,Quo Warranto, Certiorari.

(iv) Supervisory Jurisdiction:

(a) High Court has the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals, (except military courts)
(b) High Court has an administrative powers.
(c) Its law is binding on all subordinate courts functioning within its territorial jurisdiction.
(d) It is consulted by the governor in the matters of appointment , posting and promotion, grant of leave, transfers and discipline court of Record.
(e) All the decisions and decrees issued by the High Court are printed and kept as a record for future needs.

Judicial Review: To examine the constitutionality of Legislative enactments and executive orders of both the central and the State Governments.

VII. Project & Activity

Question 1.
Prepare a flow chart showing the State Government’s Administrative setup.
Answer:

Question 2.
Students to list out the names of the Tamil Nadu Governor, Chief Minister, Ministers and the Governors and Chief Ministers of the neighbouring States.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science State Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The State of ……………… has a separate constitution.
(a) Punjab & Haryana
(b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Kerala & Karnataka
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Jammu & Kashmir

Question 2.
Who is not appointed by the Governor?
(a) The Advocate General of the State
(b) The State Election Commissioner
(c) The Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(d) The Chief Justice of the High Court
Answer:
(d) The Chief Justice of the High Court

Question 3.
The administration of the State is carried on in the name of the:
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Speaker
(d) Governor
Answer:
(d) Governor

Question 4.
How many High Courts are there for all 29 States?
(a) 29
(b) 27
(c) 25
(d) 22
Answer:
(c) 25

Question 5.
The ……………… has the power to summon, prorogue the State Legislative Assembly.
(a) President
(b) Governor
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Chairman of the Legislative Council
Answer:
(b) Governor

Question 6.
The State Government consists of …………… branches.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) five
Answer:
(b) three

Question 7.
Under Article ……………… the Governor can pass ordinance when the State Assembly is not in session.
(a) 311
(b) 312
(c) 213
(d) 32
Answer:
(c) 213

Question 8.
The ……………. provides a legislature for every state.
(a) Constitution
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rashtrapathi Bhavan
Answer:
(a) Constitution

Question 9.
The total strength of Legislative Assembly of Tamil Nadu is:
(aj 231
(b) 240
(c) 245
(d) 235
Answer:
(d) 235

Question 10.
……………… can introduce the Bills in the Legislative Assembly.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Advocate general
(c) Chief Minister
Answer:
(c) Chief Minister

Question 11.
The institution of High Court originated in India in:
(a) 1826
(b) 1816
(c) 1862
(d) 1870
Answer:
(c) 1862

Question 12.
The Statue of ……………… has been kept in front of the High Court building.
(a) Rajaraja Cholan
(b) Sama Needhi Kanda Cholan (Manu needhi Cholan)
(c) Karikal Cholan
(d) Rajendra Cholan
Answer:
(b) Sama Needhi Kanda Cholan (Manu needhi Cholan)

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Article 226 and 227 confer the power of ……………….. on a high court.
2. The ……………….. is the real centre of power in the State.
3. The Legislature of s State or a High Court has no power in the removal of ………………..
4. The present Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu is ………………..
5. The present Governor of Tamil Nadu is ………………..
6. The maximum strength of the Legislative Assembly must not below ………………..
7. The Standing committee of the Cabinet is ………………..
8. The ……………….. is removed from the office by a resolution of the Assembly after giving a 14 days notice.
9. The Legislative Council is the ……………….. of the State legislature.
10. Article ……………….. deals with the creation or abolition of Legislative Council.

Answers:

1. Judicial review
2. Legislative Assembly
3. Governor
4. Thiru Edappadi K. Palaniswami
5. Thiru Banvarilal Purohit
6. Sixty
7. Permanent
8. Speaker
9. Upper House
10. 169

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.


Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

IV. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The term of the Chief Minister is not fixed.
Reason (R): He may remain as the Chief Minister as long as he enjoys the support of the majority of the members of the State Legislative Assembly.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
(b) (A) is false (R) is true
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason
(d) (A) is true but (R) is false
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The number of judges varies from State to State.
Reason (R): The number of judges of each High Court is determined by the President. .
(a) (A) is false (R) is true
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct reason for A
(c) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for A
(d) (A) is true (R) is false
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct reason for A

Question 3.
(i) High Courts are given power to issue writs under Article 226 of the constitution.
(ii) The jurisdiction is limited only to the fundamental rights.
(iii) Writs are issued by the High Court when an ordinary legal right has been fringed.
(iv) Article 32 empowered to issue such writs.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 4.
(i) Council of Ministers work as a team under the Chief Minister.
(ii) Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the State Assembly.
(iii) The State ministry will be in power after the resignation of the Chief Minister.
(iv) Councils of Ministers do not aid and advice the Governor.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Write a short note on cabinet and cabinet committees.
Answer:
The Cabinet is the nucleus of the Council of Ministers. It consists of only the Cabinet Ministers. It is the real centre of authority in the State Government.
The cabinet works through various committees called Cabinet Committees. They are of two types – standing and ad hoc – the former are of a permanent nature while the latter are of a temporary nature.

Question 2.
How the Governor is appointed to a state?
Answer:

1. The Governor of a state is appointed by the President.
2. Generally, the Governor does not belongs to the state where he is appointed.
3. He also be transferred from one State to another.
4. If situation warrants so, the same person may be appointed as the Governor of two or more States.
5. Usually the term of office is five years but he may be appointed as a Governor any number of terms during the pleasure of the President.

Question 3.
Throw light on the emergency powers of the Governor.
Answer:
If the Governor is convinced that the Government of the State is not carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution, he may recommend to the President to impose Present Rule in that State. As soon as the President Rule is imposed, the administration of the State is carried on by the Governor as the representative of the President.

Question 4.
What is the strength of Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu according to the strength of legislative Assembly (234 +1) . 234 members are directly elected by the people from the constituencies on the basis of adult franchise and one member is nominated by the Governor from Anglo-Indian community.

Question 5.
How are the members of the Legislative Council elected?
Answer:
The members of the Legislative Council or the Upper House are elected in the following ways.

• 1/3 of the members are elected by local bodies. .
• 1/12 of the members are elected by graduates of the universities in the State.
• 1/12 of the members are elected by the graduate teachers.
• 1/3 of the members are elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly.
• 1/6 is nominated by the Governor who is eminent in the field of literary excellence, art, social or cooperates.

Question 6.
Write a brief note on the High Court of Madras?
Answer:

1. The High Court of Madras is the one of the three High Courts in India, established in the three presidency Towns of Bombay, Calcutta and Madras by letters patent granted by Queen Victoria dated 26th June 1862.
2. The High Court building is the second largest Judicial complex in the world after London.

Question 7.
Where were High Courts first established and when?
Answer:
High Courts were first established in the three Presidency cities of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in 1862.

Question 8.
How many High Courts are there in our country and who decides the number of judges to each High court?
Answer:

1. At present there are 25 High courts for 29 states (including New Andhra Pradesh High court established in 1st January 2019 at Amaravati) and seven union territories.
2. The number of judges of each High Court is determined by the President.

Question 9.
What do you mean by appellate system?
Answer:
It means that a person can appeal to a higher Court if they are not satisfied with the judgement of the lower Court.

Question 10.
Which Amendment abolished the power of Judicial Review by the state High Court? And by which amendment it was restored?
Answer:

1. The 42nd amendment of 1976 curtailed the power of Judicial Review by the High Court.
2. It debarred the constitutional validity of any central law.
3. The 43rd Amendment Act of 1977 restored the original position.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
What are all the privileges enjoyed by the Governor?
Answer:

1. Article 361 (1) provides the following privileges to the Governor.
2. The Governor of the state, is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office.
3. No criminal proceedings what so ever shall be instituted or continued against the Governor of a state, in any court during his term of office.
4. No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the Governor of a state shall issue from any court during his term of office.
5. No civil proceedings in which relief is claimed against the Governor of the state.

Question 2.
How does a High Court keep control over the subordinate courts?
Answer:
A High, fourt has an administrative control over the subordinate Courts.
(i) It is consulted by the Governor in the matters of appointment, posting and promotions of District Judges and in appointments of persons to the judicial service of the State.

(ii) It deals with the matters of posting, promoting, grant of leave, transfers and discipline of . the members of the judicial services of the State.

(iii) It can withdraw a case pending in a subordinate court if it involves a substantial question of law that requires the interpretation of the Constitution. It can then either dispose of the case itself or determines the questions of law and return the case to the subordinate court with its judgement.

(iv) Its law is binding on all subordinate Courts functioning with its territorial jurisdiction in the same sense as the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all Courts in India.

Question 3.
Write about the Writs issued by the High Court?
Answer:
Under Article 226 of the constitution the High Courts are given powers of issuing writs. They are:

Habeas Corpus: It is issued to a detaining authority ordering the detainer to produce the detained person in the issuing court, along with the cause of his or her detention.

If the detention is found to be illegal, the court issues an order to set the person free.

Mandamus: It is issued to a Subordinate Court, an office or Government, or a Corporation or other Institution commanding the performance of certain acts or duties.

Prohibition: The writ of prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court prohibiting it from taking up a case because it is not under the jurisdiction of the lower court. Thus the higher court transfers the case to it. Quo Warranto: It is issued against a person the legality of holding a public office. Through this writ the court inquires “by what authority”? The person supports his / her claim.

Certiorari: This writ is issued to lower court directing that the record of a case be sent up for review, together with all supporting files, evidence and documents. It is one of the mechanism by which the fundamental rights of the citizens are upheld.

Question 4.
What are the works done by the High Court under supervisory Jurisdiction?
Answer:
The High Court has the power of superintendence over all Courts and Tribunals functioning in its Territorial Jurisdiction ( except the Military Courts or Tribunals).

Thus it may

1. Call for returns from them.
2. Make an issue, general rules and prescribe forms for regulating the practice and proceedings of them.
3. Prescribe forms in which books, entries and accounts are to be kept by them and
4. Settle the fee payable to the sheriff, clerks, officers and legal practitioners of them.

Students can download 6th Science Term 2 Chapter 3 Changes Around Us Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Changes Around Us

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Changes Around Us Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
When ice melts to form water, change occurs in its
(a) position
(b) colour
(c) state
(d) composition
Answer:
(c) State

Question 2.
Drying of wet clothes in air is an example of
(a) Chemical change
(b) Undesirable change
(c) irreversible change
(d) physical change
Answer:
(d) Physical change

Question 3.
Drying of wet clothes in air Is an example of
(a) Chemical change
(b) Undesirable change
(c) irreversible change
(d) physical change
Answer:
(d) physical change

Question 4.
Out of the following an example of a desirable change ¡s
(a) rusting
(b) change of seasons
(c) earthquake
(d) flooding
Answer:
(b) change of seasons

Question 5.
Air pollution leading to Acid rain is a
(a) reversible change
(b) fast change
(c) natural change
(d) human made change
Answer:
(d) human made change

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Magnet attracts iron needle. This is ……… change, (a reversible / an irreversible)
2. Boiling of egg results in ………… change, (a reversible / an irreversible)
3. Changes that are harmful to us are ………… (desirable / undesirable)
4. Plants convert Carbon-di-oxide and water into starch. This is an example of ………. change, (natural / human made)
5. Bursting of fire crackers is a ……….. change whereas germination of seeds is a ………. change, (slow / fast)

Answer:

1. a reversible
2. an irreversible
3. undesirable
4. Natural
5. fast; slow

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement

1. Growing of teeth in an infant is slow change.
2. Burning of match stick is a reversible change.
3. Change of New moon to Full moon is human made.
4. Digestion of food is a physical change.
5. In a solution of salt in water, water is the solute.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – It is an irreversible change
3. False – It is a Natural change
4. False – It is a Chemical change
5. False – Water is the solvent

IV. Analogy

Question 1.
Curdling of milk : irreversible change ::
Formation of clouds : ……….. change
Answer:
reversible

Question 2.
Photosynthesis : ……….. change ::
burning of coal : Human – made change
Answer:
Natural

Question 3.
Dissolving of glucose: reversible change ::
Digestion of food : ………… change
Answer:
Irreversible

Question 4.
Cooking of food : desirable change ::
decaying of food : ………… change
Answer: undesirable

Question 5.
Burning of matchstick: ………… change ::
Rotation of the Earth : Slow change
Answer:
Fast

V. Circle the odd one out. Give reason for your choice

Question 1.
Growth of a child, Blinking of eye, Rusting, Germination of a seed.
Answer:
Blinking of eye (a fast change)

Question 2.
Glowing of a bulb, lighting of a Candle, breaking of a coffee mug, curdling of milk.
Answer:
Curdling of milk (a chemical change)

Question 3.
Rotting of an egg, condensation of water vapour, trimming of hair, Ripening of fruit.
Answer:
Trimming of hair (Man-made change)

Question 4.
Inflating a balloon, popping a balloon, fading of wall paint, burning of kerosene
Answer:
Burning of Kerosene (Chemical change)

VI. Give a very short answer

Question 1.
What kind of change is associated with the decaying of plants?
Answer:
Decaying of plants is associated with slow change and chemical change.

Question 2.
You are given some candle wax. Can you make a candle doll from it? What kind of change is this?
Answer:
Yes, I can make a doll from the candle. The kind of change is a physical change.

Question 3.
Define a slow change.
Answer:
Changes which take place over a long period of time (hours/days/months/years) are known as slow changes.

Question 4.
What happens when cane sugar is strongly heated? Mention any two changes in it.
Answer:
When Cane sugar is strongly heated, it will initially melt and after that start to decompose. It will turn brown and then black and give off fumes.
The changes involved are:

1. Physical change
2. irreversible change

Question 5.
What is the solution?
Answer:
When a solute is dissolved in a solvent, it forms a solution.
Solute + solvent → solution.

VII. Give a short answer

Question 1.
What happens when the paper is burnt? Explain.
Answer:
When the paper is burnt, oxygen from the air combines with carbon in the paper turning into carbon dioxide and water vapor which float away, leaving solid ash. The action of burning paper can’t be reversed. So, it is an irreversible change. Also, it is a Chemical change and a Fast change.

Question 2.
Can deforestation be considered a desirable change? Explain.
Answer:

1. Deforestation cannot be considered a desirable change.
2. Because it is harmful to our environment and not desired by us are known as Undesirable changes.

Question 3.
What type of changes is associated with the germination of a seed? Explain.
Answer:

1. Germination of seed is a slow change.
2. Changes which take place over a long period of time (days) are known as Slow changes.

VIII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Give one example in each case that happens around you.
(a) Slow and fast change
(b) Reversible and irreversible change
(c) Physical and chemical change
(d) Natural and man-made change
(e) Desirable and undesirable change
Answer:

IX. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 1.
When a candle is lit the following changes are observed.
Answer:

1. Wax melts.
2. Candle keeps burning.
3. The size of the candle decreases.
4. The molten wax solidifies

Question 2.
Which of the changes can be reversed? Justify your answer.
Answer:
When the candle is burning, the heat of the flame melts the solid wax to liquid wax. This signifies reversible (or) Physical changes. Also, as the wax melts, the size of candle decreases. If then molten wax solidifies and takes a different shape.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Changes Around Us Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Water changes into ice on cooling are called as
(a) Melting
(b) Vaporisation
(c) Condensation
(d) Freezing
Answer:
(d) freezing

Question 2.
_______ is the process in which something becomes different from what it was earlier.
(a) Classification
(b) Composition
(c) Position
(d) Change
Answer:
(d) Change

Question 3.
Evaporation of water from lakes and river
(a) Slow change
(b) Fast change
(c) Natural change
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 4.
_______ change is a temporary change
(a) Physical
(b) Chemical
(c) Undesirable
(d) slow
Answer:
(a) Physical

Question 5.
The blackening of the Silver anklet is a (an)
(a) Irreversible change
(b) Temporary change
(c) Short term change
(d) Periodical change
Answer:
(a) Irreversible change

II. Fill in the blanks

1. A change in which a new substance is formed is called ………….
2. Formation of coal is a …………
3. An example of natural as well as an undesirable change is ………..
4. ……… is the Universal Solvent.
5. Eco-friendly changes are ………

Answer:

1. Chemical Change
2. Slow Change
3. Earthquake
4. Water
5. Desirable changes

III. Match the following

Answer
i. – d
ii. – a
iii. – b
iv. – c

IV. Analogy

Question 1.
Rusting of Iron : undesirable change : : Dead plants turn into manure : …………..
Answer:
Desirable change

Question 2.
Touch me not plant: ………… : : digestion of food : Irreversible change
Answer:
Reversible change

Question 3.
Change of seasons : slow change : : Breaking of glass : …………..
Answer:
fast change

Question 4.
Earth quake : undesirable change : : Heartbeat: ………….
Answer:
desirable change

Question 5.
Silver articles turning black : ………… : : Boiling of H₂O : physical change
Answer:
Chemical change

V. Very short answer

Question 1.
What is the change?
Answer:
Change is the observable difference between the initial state and the final state of any substance.

Question 2.
What is a reversible change?
Answer:
Changes which can be reversed (to get back to the original state) are known as reversible changes.

Question 3.
What is melting? Give example.
Answer:
The conversion of a solid into a liquid by heating is called melting. Ex.: Ice into water.

Question 4.
Water is the universal solvent. Why?
Answer:
Water is known as the universal solvent. It dissolves a wide range of substances.

VI. Long answer

Question 1.
Distinguish between the physical and chemical changes.
Answer:

Question 2.
Tabulate some changes taking place in our body system with its type.
Answer:

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 5 India’s International Relations Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 5 India’s International Relations

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s International Relations Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
McMahon Line is a border between
(a) Burma and India
(b) India and nepal
(c) India and China
(d) India and Bhutan
Answer:
(c) India and China

Question 2.
India is not a member of which of the following …………..
1. G20
2. ASEAN
3. SAARC
4. BRICS
Select the correct option
(a) 4 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2, 4 and 1
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer:
2 only

Question 3.
OPEC is:
(a) An international insurance Co.
(b) An international sports club
(c) An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries
(d) An international company
Answer:
(c) An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries

Question 4.
With which country does India share its longest land border?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Myanmar
(c) Afghanistan
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Bangladesh

Question 5.
Match the following and choose the correct answer form the codes given below.

(a) 3 14 2
(b) 3 12 4
(c) 3 4 12
(d) 4 3 2 1
Answer:
(a) 3 14 2

Question 6.
How many countries share its border with India?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 7

Question 7.
Which two island countries are India’s neighbours?
(a) Sri Lanka and Andaman island
(b) Maldieves and Lakshadweep island
(c) Maldieves and Nicobar island
(d) Sri Lanka and Maldieves
Answer:
(d) Sri Lanka and Maldieves

Question 8.
Which Indian state is surrounded by three countries?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Mizoram
(d) Sikkim
Answer:
(a) Arunachal Pradesh and (d) Sikkim

Question 9.
How many Indian states have their boundary with Nepal?
(a) Five
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Two
Answer:
(a) Five

Question 10.
Who drew up the borders for newly independent Pakistan?
(a) Lord Mountbatten
(b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe
(c) Clement Atlee
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………. is a small Himalayan kingdom.
2. India’s gateway to South East Asia is ……………….
3. ………………. is a buffer country between India and China.
4. A strip of land ………………. belongs to India on West Bengal and Bangladesh border.
5. ………………. is known as the Land of thunderbolt.
6. India and Sri Lanka are separated by ……………….

Answer:

1. Bhutan
2. Myanmar
3. Nepal
4. Teen Bigha Corridor
5. Bhutan
6. Palk strait

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
The Kaladan transport project by India and Myanmar consists of which of the following modes of transport?
1. Roads
2. Railways
3. Shipping
4. Inland water transport
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1,3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer:
(b) 1,3 and 4 only

Question 2.
Assertion (A): India and France launched International Solar Alliance.
Reason (R): It was done to bring together countries between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn for co-operation of solar energy.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Which of the following statements are true?
Statement 1: ICCR has initiated a Tagore Chair in University of Dhaka.
Statement 2: Myanmar is India’s gateway to western countries.
Statement 3: Nepal and Bhutan are land locked nations.
Statement 4: Sri Lanka is one of the partner in Nalanda University Project of India.
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1,2 and 4
Answer:
(c) 1, 3 and 4

Question 4.
Assertion (A): OPEC has vested interest in India’s economic growth.
Reason (R): Devoid of necessary oil resources India strongly focuses on agriculture and industrial production.
(a) A is correct and R explains A
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both are correct

IV. Match the following

A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
Name the neighbouring countries of India.
Answer:

• India is a vast country with Pakistan and Afghanistan to the north-west
• China, Nepal, Bhutan to the north
• Bangladesh to the east
• Myanmar to the far east
• Sri Lanka (from south-east) and Maldives (from south-west) are two countries that lie close to India separated by the Indian Ocean.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Strategic partnership Agreement (SPA).
Answer:

1. Indo – Afghan relation was strengthened by the strategic partnership , agreement.
2. SPA provide assistance to rebuild Afghan’s infrastructure, institutions, agriculture, water, education, health and providing duty – free access to the Indian market.

Question 3.
Mention the member countries of BRICS.
Answer:

• Brazil
• Russia
• India
• China
• South Africa

Question 4.
What do you know about Kaladan Multi-Model Transit Transport?
Answer:

1. India is building the kaladan multi – model transit transport, a road-river- port cargo transport project to link kolkata to Sittwe in Myanmar.
2. A project aiming to connect Kolkata with Ho chi minh city on the south sea for the formation of an economic zone will have a road pass through Myanmar, Cambodia and Vietnam and work on the first phase connecting Guwahati with Mandalay is currently underway.

Question 5.
How do you assess the importance of Chabahar agreement?
Answer:
A trilateral agreement called the Chabahar Agreement was signed between India, Afghanistan . and Iran, which has led to the establishment of transit and transport corridor among three countries using Chabahar port. This port is seen as golden gateway for India to access landlocked markets of Afghanistan and Central Asia by passing Pakistan.

Question 6.
List out any five global groupings in which India is a member.
Answer:
IBSA, BCIM, MGC, BBIN, and SCO.

Question 7.
What is the role of Japan India Institute of Manufacturing (JIM)?
Answer:
In the manufacturing sector Japan announced its co-operation of training 30,000 Indian people in the Japan India Institute of Manufacturing (JIM) providing Japanese style manufacturing skills to enhance India’s manufacturing industry base and contribute to ‘Make in India’ and ‘Skill India’ initiatives. In 2017, the first four JIMs were started in the states of Gujarat, Karnataka, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Highlight India and International organisation with special reference to any three India’s global groupings.
Answer:

1. India is a potential superpower and has a growing international influence all around the world.
2. India has is a member of formal groupings like UNO, NAM, SAARC, G20 and the commonwealth.
3. India is an activity engaged in general economic diplomacy, which is evident in the country being part of several economic coalitions, as listed in the table below.

Question 2.
Trace the reason for the formation of BRICS and write its objectives.
Answer:
Reason for the formation of BRICS To be an alternative to World Bank and IMF to challenge U.S. supremacy.
To provide self-owned and self-managed organisations to carry out developmental and economical plans in its member nations.
Objectives of BRICS

• To achieve regional development
• It acts as a bridge between developed and developing countries
• To contribute extensively to development of humanity
• To establish a more equitable and fair world
• Boost intra BRICS trade in their local currencies to increase trade cooperation and cope with the current international financial crisis.
• To promote the technological information exchange among the member states
• To enhance inclusive economic growth that will lead to an increase in the creation of jobs, fight against poverty and accelerate the economic transformation of members.

Question 3.
Mention OPEC missions and how does it help other countries?
Answer:
OPEC’S Mission:

1. To coordinate oil policies in its member countries.
2. Help stabilise oil markets.
3. To secure fair and stable income to petroleum producers.
4. An efficient, economic and regular supply of oil to consuming nations.
5. A fair return on capital to those investing in the petroleum industry.

How does OPEC help other countries?

1. The OPEC, fund for International Development (OPID) is an institution that help finance projects with low interest loans.
2. It also provides grants to social and humanitarian projects..
3. OPEC has an information centre with over 20,000 volumes including books reports, maps and conference, proceedings related to petroleum energy and the oil markets.
4. The information centre is open to the public and is often used by researchers and students.

VII. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Students can be asked to collect information from newspapers about India’s relation with world countries.
Answer:
Students should find any article from Tamil (or) English newspaper about India’s relation with world countries.

Eg: Foreign Minister’s visit to India.

[OR]

Indian Prime Minister or President’s visit to foreign countries. After finding the information, cut down the article with its date and year of publication and the name of the newspaper. A minimum of five such news articles can be collected and can be pasted in a notebook to prepare an album to submit as project to the subject teacher.

A sample news taken from the English newspaper.

Times of India
Date: Sep. 17,2019

AGARTALA: Bangladesh Information Minister Hasan Mahmud said ties between India and Bangladesh is becoming better by the day under the leadership of Narendra Modi and Sheikh Hasina.

Inaugurating a 3 – day film festival here, the Minister said Bangladesh believes in having good relations with its neighbours and films play a great role in that. The film festival will feature 20 films made on the Bangladesh Liberation war.

Question 2.
Group project involving students to prepare an album with pictures on India’s latest projects with its neighboring countries.
Answer:
India’s latest project with its neighbouring countries: The Government of India gives high importance to strengthen the friendly relations and to promote understanding with neighbouring countries. As part of this policy, the Government has undertaken several development projects with our neighbouring countries. Details of projects (a sample) is given below.

Note: Students should find and collect information (or) pictures related to the project of Gol (Government of India) with its neighbouring countries taking the sample few projects given here (or) other projects also. Students should paste the pictures in a note book underlining the project, prepare it as an album, submit to the subject teacher.

Projects

Bhutan: Projects completed in Bhutan with GOI assistance include Paro airport, Bhutan broadcasting station, major highways, and construction of Mini – Hydel projects. Penden cement plant with 300 tonnes capacity was completed in 1982 with GOI assistance.

Bangladesh: India is gifting 10 ambulances to Bangladesh.

Maldives: The 200 – bed Indira Gandhi Memorial Hospital (IGMH) was set up in Maldives in 1995 at a cost of about ₹40 crores.

Nepal: The recently completed projects include 22 bridges on the East – West Highway. Setting up of trauma – center at Bir hospital in Kathmandu.

Sri Lanka: GOI has committed US $ 7.5 million to set up an India cancer centre in Colombo.

The above mentioned are only guidelines that could help a student to find what type of projects are generally undertaken.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s International Relations Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Independent India has been consistently fostering.
(a) World peace
(b) International co-operation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 2.
………… development of nations can be achieved only through world peace.
(a) Economic
(b) Social
(c) Political
Answer:
(a) Economic

Question 3.
How many kilometre that Pipeline between Siliguri in West Bengal and ‘ Parbatipur (Bangladesh).
(a) 130
(b) 150
(c) 170
(d) 190
Answer:
(a) 130

Question 4.
China became republic in ……………
(a) 1947
(b) 1949
(c)1950
Answer:
(b) 1949

Question 5.
How many hydro electric projects the Government of India has constricted in Bhutan.
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 6.
…………….. is located South of Lakshadweep islands in the Indian ocean.
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Myanmar
(c) Maldives
(d) none
Answer:
(c) Maldives

Question 7.
India’s second-largest border is shared with:
(a) Maldives
(b) Myanmar
(c) Nepal
(d) Bhutan
Answer:
(b) Myanmar

Question 8.
In …………… a 25 years treaty of friendship, co-operation and peace was signed by India and Bangladesh at …………..
(a) 1971, New Delhi
(b) 1972, Dacca
(c) 1982, Lahore
Answer:
(b) 1972, Dacca

Question 9.
The 204 – kilometre long Mahendra Raj marg to link …………….. and India
(a) Kathmandu
(b) Kalandan
(c) Sittwe
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Kathmandu

Question 10.
In which agreement India tried to bring positive change in the relationship of Pakistan.
(a) Strategic Partnership Agreement
(b) Shimla Agreement
(c) International Agreement
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Shimla Agreement

Question 11.
Which king had sent his son and daughter to ceylon (Sri Lanka) for the propagation of Buddhism.
(a) Chandra Gupta Mourya
(b) Ashoka
(c) Kanishka
(d) none
Answer:
(b) Ashoka

Question 12.
The cease fire line determined in ……………………….. was called the LOC.
(a) 1947
(b) 1945
(c) 1949
(d) 1943
Answer:
(c) 1949

Question 13.
……………… gives India access to advance communication technology used in U.S defence equipment.
(a) COMCASA
(b) AVSINDEX
(c) JIM
(d) MAHSR
Answer:
(a) COMCASA

Question 14.
India and France launched the international ……………… between Tropic of cancer and Tropic of capricorn.
(a) Solar Alliance
(b) Railway
(c) domestic development
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Solar Alliance

Question 15.
Which country decided to introduce the Japan’s Shikansen system.
(a) Australia
(b) India
(c) West Asia
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) India

Question 16.
Which institute providing manufacturing skills to enhance India’s manufacturing industry (Make in India).
(a) JIM
(b) JEC
(c) MAHSR
(d) COMCASA
Answer:
(a) JIM

Question 17.
Which course was introduced in engineering colleges was established in Andhrapradesh.
(a) JIM
(b) JEC
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(b) JEC

Question 18.
Which port is seen as golden gate way for India?
(a) Chabahar
(b) Kandla
(c) Gwadar
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Chabahar

Question 19.
Mention the C of the BRICS:
(a) China
(b) Vienna
(c) Japan
(d) Europe
Answer:
(a) China

Question 20.
Which economist was coined BRICS?
(a) British
(b) French
(c) German
(d) Russian
Answer:
(a) British

Question 21.
NDB gives priority to projects aimed at developing ……………… sources.
(a) Renewable
(b) Non – Renewable
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Renewable

Question 22.
The contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) for providing protection against ……………… pressures.
(a) liquidity
(b) currency issues
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) Trade
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 23.
Which centre has cover 20,000 volumes including books, maps related to petroleum.
(a) Information centre (OPEC)
(b) Research Centre (OPEC)
(c) Universities (OPEC)
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Information centre (OPEC)

Question 24.
……………… is one of the biggest consumers of crude oil.
(a) Nepal
(b) China
(c) India
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(c) India

Question 25.
India strongly focuses on production.
(a) Agriculture
(b) industrial
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) rural
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 26.
India extend its support to the in all her efforts.
(a) U.N.O
(b) W. T. O
(c) world bank
(d) none
Answer:
(a) U.N.O

Question 27.
Who is an active member of BRICS.
(a) Nepal
(b) Pakistan
(c) India
(d) Bangladesh
Answer:
(c) India

Question 28.
Which bank is lending for infrastructure project?
(a) The New Development Bank
(b) Contingent Reserve Arrangement
(c) global liquidity currency
(d) none
Answer:
(a) The New Development Bank

Question 29.
How many seats per year to Indian national for a master’s degree in university of Japan.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 20

Question 30.
Who is a super power and has a growing international influence all around the world.
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Pakistan
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………….. has always been known as a peace – loving country.
2. India’s position is ……………….. in its neighbourhood.
3. ……………….. is surrounded by many neighbouring countries.
4. Indo – Afghan relation was strengthened by the ………………..
5. ……………….. of Baluchistan active supporter of the Indian National congress.
6. ……………….. has built kandahar international cricket stadium.
7. India and ……………….. share 54 common rivers and a bilateral joint River commission is working to maximise benefits.
8. ……………….. has initiated a Tajore chair in university of Dhaka (Scholarship).
9. ……………….. is India’s gate way to Western countries.
10.  ……………….. one of the partner in Nalanda university project of India.
11.  ……………….. represents one of the main indicators of bilateral co-operation between India and Bhutan.
12. India declared the bilateral trade relation known as ………………..
13. China being the ……………….. of the world.
14. ……………….. is a small land locked country.
15. Nepali and Indian people visit each other’s country for religions ………………..
16. India included ……………….. in the VIII schedule of the constitution.
17. There are a number of ……………….. along Indo- Nepal border.
18. A joint hydropower project is being built on the ……………….. River.
19. The Government of India and Nepal have signed ……………….. agreements.
20. ……………….. remains our core concern in the relationship with Pakistan.
21. The cross-border firing between India and ………………..
22. ……………….. is the bone of contention between India and Pakistan.
23. ……………….. is a major irritant.
24. India and Pakistan under the ……………….. of 1972.
25. Sri Lankan investments in India include ……………….. (garment city)
26. COMCASA is valid for a period of ………………..
27. French space launch pads are used by ………………..
28. ……………….. broadens the relationship raising awareness and promoting exchanges between two countries.
29. ……………….. is one of most successful examples of Japanese co-operation.
30. JIM providing training for Indian-people in ………………..
31. Trade relations were established between civilisation of Mesopotemia and ………………..
32. ……………….. gateway to land locked and energy rich
33. In trading routes ran from ancient Sumeria to the Indus civilisation called ………………..
34. The acronym BRICS was coined by ……………….. a famous British economist.
35. ……………….. is a multilateral development Bank.
36. ……………….. are defining changes to have huge geo – economic and geo – political impact.
37. ……………….. mission to co-ordinate oil policies in its member countries.
38. ……………….. is an institution that help finance projects with low interest loans.
39. ……………….. doesn’t have enough oil reserves.
40. India – Japan join laboratories in the area of ………………..

Answers:

1. India
2. unique
3. India
4. Strategic Partnership Agreement (SPA)
5. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
6. India
7. Bangladesh
8. Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR)
9. Myanmar
10. Sri Lanka
11. Hydel power sector
12. Bharat to Bhutan B2B
13. Manufacturing hub
14. Nepal
15. Pilgrimage
16. Nepalese language
17. Tiger reserves
18. Sharda
19. Three-sister-city
20. Terrorism
21. Pakistan
22. Kashmir
23. Cross border terrorism
24. Shimla Agreement
25. Brandix
26. 10 years
27. ISRO
28. The Australia India council
29. Delhi metro
30. Manufacturing sector
31. The Indus valley
32. West Asia, Central Asia
33. Meluna
34. Jim O’Neill
35. NDB (New Development Bank)
36. The Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA)
37. OPEC 38. OPID
38. India
39. Information and communication Technology

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The Farakka accord on sharing of Ganga waters signed in 1977 is a historic agreement.
Reason (R): India and Bangladesh share 54 common rivers and a bilateral joint river commission is working to maximise benefits.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A.

Question 2.
Which of the following statements are false?
Statement 1: India’s position is unique in its neighbourhood.
Statement 2: Myanmar is a land locked nations.
Statement 3: The cross border firing between India and Nepal.
Statement 4: Kashmir is the bone of contention between India and Pakistan.
(a) 1,2, and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Answer:
(d) 2 and 3

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Maldives is located South of Lakshadweep Islands in the Indian oceans.
Reason (R): The relationship with Maldives is important for India given its strategic location and geo – graphical proximity.
(a) A is correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): McMahon line is the boundary line between India and China.
Reason (R): The secretary of state for India (in British cabinet) Arthur Henry McMahon represented British India at the conference.
(a) A is correct and explains A
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is correct and R is wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

Match the Column I with Column II.
Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)
E. (i)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (v)
E. (i)

Question 5.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

V. Give Short Answer

Question 1.
What is the role of India as a Great Helper?
Answer:
India is basically against colonization and wants to see all the countries of the world free from foreign domination. It played a great role in freeing Indonesia from the domination of Holland. In the same way, it has supported the freedom movements started by Egypt, Sudan, Indo-China, Ghana, Morocco and Bangladesh.

Question 2.
Name the formal groups in which India is a member.
Answer:
India is a member of formal groupings like U.N.O, NAM, SAARC, G-20 and the common wealth.

Question 3.
Explain India’s relationship with Pakistan.
Answer:
Inspite of part conflicts both India and Pakistan are trying to come closer. The Delhi-Lahore bus service was launched on March 10th 1999 to bring the people of the two countries closer. Negotiations for setting up Iran-Pakistan-India gas pipeline are taking place.

Question 4.
Mention the India’s relationship with OPEC.
Answer:

1. India is one of the biggest consumers of crude oil.
2. OPEC obviously has vested interest in India’s economic growth.
3. We import 86% of crude oil, 70% natural gas, 35% of cooking gas from OPEC countries.
4. India has been identified as a greater partner for OPEC mainly because of its high oil demand.

Question 5.
‘The relationship between India and Sri Lanka is smooth’-Justify.
Answer:
Sri Lanka is a Buddist country. The Mauryan emperor Ashoka spread Buddism there by sending his son and daughter. We have good trade relation with Sri Lanka India always support Sri Lanka on just and reasonable grounds. Thus the relationship between India and Sri Lanka is very smooth. It will be continued forever.

Question 6.
Write about Khan Abdual Ghaffar Khan.
Answer:
Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan of Baluchistan (a border province in 10 day’s Pakistan) was a prominent leader of the Indian independence movement and active supporter of the Indian national congress.

Question 7.
Why Buddhist saint went to Bhutan from India?
Answer:
Gur Padmasambhava, a Buddhist saint who want to Bhutan from India, played an influential role in spreading Buddhism and Cementing traditional ties between people of both nations.

Question 8.
List out the Indian states have their boundary with Nepal.
Answer:
Sikkim, west Bengal, Bihar, Uttarpradesh and Uttarakhand.

Question 9.
In what way JIM providing training to Indian people?
Answer:
The Japan India Institute of manufacturing(JIM) providing Japanese style manufacturing skills to enhance India’s manufacturing industry base and contribute to “Make in India” and “skill India” initiatives.

Question 10.
Write a short note on a joint hydro power project.
Answer:

1. A joint hydropower project is being built on the Sharda river.
2. This power plant helps both India and Nepal with respect to electricity production and irrigation facilities.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain the relationship of India with her neighbouring countries.
Answer:
India and Pakistan:
Insipite of port conflicts both India and Pakistan are trying to come closer. The Delhi-Lahore bus service was launched on March 16^th 1999 to bring the people of the two countries closer. Negotiations for setting up Iran-Pakistan-India gas pipeline are taking place.

India and China:
When China became republic in 1949, India was the first country to recognize it. Both the countries have successfully attempted to restore the economic lines. China has formally declared that she will back India’s claim for becoming a permenent member of United Nation’s Security Council.

India and Srilanka:
Srilanka is a Buddhist country. The Mauryan emperor Ashoka spread Buddhism there by sending his son and daughter. We have good trade relation with Srilanka. India always support Srilanka on just and reasonable grounds. Thus the relationship between India and Srilanka is very smooth. It will be continued for ever.

India and Bangladesh:
It is due to the effort and support of Smt. Indira Gandhi, the Prime Minister of India, Bangladesh got freedom from Pakistan in 1971. In 1972, a 25 years treaty of friendship, co operation and peace was signed in Dacca by India and Bangladesh. The farakka Barrage issue regarding the distribution of Ganga water was settled amicably. Thus India is a very good friend of Bangladesh. Our friendship with Bangladesh will go on forever.

Question 2.
Write about India and Pakistan relationship?
Answer:

1. Since the bifurcation of territory which demarcated India and Pakistan in 1947.
2. The two nations have had strained relations due to disagreements over a number of key issues.
3. Terrorism remains our core concern in the relationship with Pakistan.
4. But India has made extreme efforts to improve and stabilise relations with Pakistan.
5. The cross – border firing between India and Pakistan and the terrorist attacks combined have taken its toll on the Kashmiri’s who have suffered poor living standards and an erosion of human rights.
6. Kashmir is the bone of contention between India and Pakistan, which has brought the two countries into open clash many times.
7. Cross-border-terrorism is a major irritant.
8. India tried bring a positive change in the relationship of the two countries through bilateral agreements such as Shimla Agreement and Lahore Declaration.