Bhagya

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TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 1

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
A peaceful pallor spread on his face.
(a) paleness
(b) rosiness
(c) ruddy
(d) rejuvenation
Answer:
(a) paleness

Question 2.
It was indeed a sensational bid.
(a) astounded
(b) ordinary
(c) sensitive
(d) exciting
Answer:
(a) astounded

Question 3.
I had a sumptuous meal to sate my hunger.
(a) sadden
(b) suppress
(c) satisfy
(d) struggle
Answer:
(c) satisfy

Choose the correct antonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
The vessels dropped and scattered all over.
(a) speckled
(b) sprinkled
(c) gathered
(d) grew
Answer:
(c) gathered

Question 5.
There a curious smothering noise from my friend.
(a) suppressed
(b) expressed
(c) smoothened
(d) suffocated
Answer:
(b) expressed

Question 6.
Her face was wrinkled and weird.
(a) smooth
(b) creased
(c) lined
(d) crippled
Answer:
(a) smooth

Question 7.
Choose the clipped form of “percolate”.
(a) perk
(b) per
(c) perc
(d) colate
Answer:
(a) perk

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “plagiarist”.
(a) A student of bees
(b) One who accumulates; one who collects
(c) One who purloins the words, writings, or ideas of another, and passes them off as his own; a literary thief
(d) One who is tenacious of a strict adherence to official formalities
Answer:
(c) One who purloins the words, writings, or ideas of another, and passes them off as his own; a literary thief

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom ‘Beat around the bush’.
(a) Indirectly talking about an issue
(b) Do or say something exactly right
(c) To go to bed
(d) Without any hesitation; instantly
Answer:
(a) Indirectly talking about an issue

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
I’d like to learn taekwondo though it might not be the best option for me.
(a) Japanese language
(b) Chinese preparation
(c) Floor dancing
(d) Kick fist martial art
Answer:
(d) Kick fist martial art

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “goat”.
(a) male
(b) female
(c) scape
(d) major
Answer:
(c) scape

Question 12.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word, “hero”?
(a) ity
(b) ism
(c) ness
(d) ish
Answer:
(b) ism

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “NSC”.
(a) National Savings Certificate
(b) National Service Certificate
(c) National Savings Career
(d) National Service Certificate
Answer:
(a) National Savings Certificate

Question 14.
The correct syllabification of the word “psychology” is…………..
(a) psych-ol-ogy
(b) psy-chol-ogy
(c) ps-ycho-logy
(d) psy-chol-o-gy
Answer:
(d) psy-chol-o-gy

Question 15.
A craze for establishing banks is known as …………..
(a) Etymology
(b) Stampomania
(c) Eulogomania
(d) bancomania
Answer:
(d) bancomania

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
Ramesh went……….. Tom’s place to settle the bills.
(a) to
(b) on
(c) in
(d) from
Answer:
(a) to

Question 17.
Add a suitable question tag to the following statement.
He never fails in his duty,………..?
(a) isn’t he
(b) won’t-he
(c) will he
(d) does he
Answer:
(d) does he

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
Sagar’s cat had to be killed because it had cancer.
(a) put in
(b) put down
(c) put up
(d) put out
Answer:
(b) put down

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
However hard she tried, she could not figure out the meaning of the proverb.
(a) appreciate
(b) condemn
(c) understand
(d) faint
Answer:
(c) understand

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun
The children ……… shouted in the street are not from our school.
(a) which
(b) whose
(c) who
(d) that
Answer:
(c) who

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“I have learned to wear many faces like dresses”
(а) State the figure of speech in the above line.
(b) Who does the term ‘I’ refer to?
Answer:
(a) Simile
(b) 1 refers to the poet, Gabriel Okara.

Question 22.
“ When swollen eye meets gnarled fist
When snaps the knee, and cracks the wrist”
(a) What is the figure of speech employed in the second line.
(b) Why are the eyes swollen?
Answer:
(a) Onomatopoeia
(b) The eyes are swollen as they were injured by the opponent.

Question 23.
“Or the greenhouse glass is broken, and the trellis past repair
Ay, there’s the wonder of the thing! Macavity’s not there!”
(a) What is a greenhouse and a trellis?
(b) What is a wonder after the greenhouse glass is broken?
Answer:
(a) Greenhouse is a glass building in which plants that need protection from cold weather are grown. Trellis is a framework of light wooden or metal bars used as a support for fruit trees or creeper.
(b) Macavity is to be found nowhere when one finds out that the greenhouse glass is broken.

Question 24.
“Let’s talk of graves, of worms, and epitaphs,
Make dust our paper, and with rainy eyes
Write sorrow on the bosom of the earth.”
(a) What do you understand by rainy eyes?
(b) Identify the figure of speech in the first line.
Answer:
(a) Eyes shedding tears is said to be rainy eyes.
(b) Metaphor

Question 25.
“And I must think, do all I can,
That there was pleasure there…”
(a) What did the poet notice about the twigs?
(b) What was the poet’s thought about then?
Answer:
(a) The budding twigs spread out their fan to catch the breezy air.
(b) The poet thought the twigs were experiencing the j oy of their contact with the breezy air.

Question 26.
“The height you reach is not that we care;”
(a) How different is the poet’s perception of success?
(b) How does the poet use the word ‘height’?
Answer:
(a) Those who reach great heights in terms of scholarship, wealth and positions are not deemed great. Those who have competence and merit alone are respected.
(b) In terms of mountain climbing, climbing Everest is said to be the highest achievement.
But even scaling a small hillock is an achievement. Every human effort to succeed needs to be appreciated.

(ii) Do as directed (any three) [3 × 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Rewrite the following dialogue in reported form.
Kiran : Will you exchange the defective torch I had bought from you yesterday?
Shopkeeper : Do you have the receipt with you?
Answer:
Kiran asked the shopkeeper if he would exchange the defective torch he had bought from him the day before. The shopkeeper enquired if Kiran had the receipt with him.

Question 28.
Rewrite the following sentence in its passive form.
She had already cooked the food.
Answer:
The food had already been cooked by her.

Question 29.
Convert the following complex sentence to a compound sentence.
I called for Arjun who came at once.
Answer:
I called for Aijun and he came at once.

Question 30.
Hurry up. You will miss the flight. (Combine using ‘Unless’)
Answer:
Unless you hurry up, you will miss the flight.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
“Have I not reason to lament What Man has made of Man?”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Lines Written in Early Spring” written by William Wordsworth.

Context: Amidst happy nature, William Wordsworth couldn’t help feeling sad. At that occasion, he said these words.

Explanation: The mixed feelings of happiness and sadness is well brought out in these lines. He was inspired by a small woodland grove, a landscape of beauty. He came upon this spot when walking near Alford village. While sensing the blissful mood and happiness of birds, plants, creepers and the murmuring brook, he juxtaposed what humans did to their kind in Napoleonic wars.

Question 32.
“I am just glad as glad can he
That I am not them, that they are not me. ”
Answer:
Reference: The poet Ogden Nash says these words in the poem “Confession of a Bom Spectator’.

Context: While discussing about the athletes he admires, the poet says these words.

Explanation: The poet was a bom spectator. Right from his boyhood, he had seen boys aspire for sports championships. He had wondered at their ability to specialize in horse riding, to play hockey or basketball. He had seen young ones trying to play center in the football or be a tackle or offender in a game like kabaddi. But he has been absolutely glad that he is not them and they are not him.

Question 33.
We deem it our duty and mission in life,
To bless and praise the deserving ones
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Everest is not the Only Peak” written by Kulothungan.

Context: The poet says these words highlighting the virtues of unsung heroes.

Explanation: The unsung heroes adhere to their ethical principles in life. Even if they have not reached great heights. They consider it their duty and mission to identify deserving people with natural talents and appreciate them.

(ii) Answer any two of the following questions briefly: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 34.
Why was the author left with his grandmother in the village?
Answer:
The author was left with his grandmother in the village because his parents had to go to the city for work.

Question 35.
What difficulty did Mary Kom experience while eating Chinese preparation?
Answer:
Once Mary Kom and her team mates were given chopsticks to eat their food in China. Other friends, asked for spoons and managed. But Mary Kom ended up using both her hands to hold the chopsticks to pick up the food and push it into her mouth. She managed the complex work and satisfied her hunger.

Question 36.
What were the contents of Bryson’s bag?
Answer:
The contents of the bag were frequent flyer card, newspaper cuttings, loose papers, tobacco pipe, magazines, passport, English money and film.

(iii) Answer any three of the following: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Re-arrange the shuffled words and frame into meaningful sentences, (change to pie chart/graph or table)

1. pillars/there/human life/man/of/woman/and/are/two
2. uppermost/soil layer/is/earth/the/of/the
3. it/palnts/which/supports/food/provide/all/living things/to/planet/on/this

Answer:

1. There are two pillars of human life – man and woman.
2. Soil is the uppermost layer of the earth.
3. It supports plants which provide food to all living things on this planet.

Question 38.
Describe the process of pitching a tent.
Answer:

1. Select a location free of debris and an area that is as level as possible for your camp site. Lay down your footprint or ground cloth.
2. Position the tent over the footprint with the doors facing away from the wind for the best ventilation.
3. Lay out the poles and assemble them.
4. Insert the tent poles and secure it to take up the tension in the poles.
5. Pull the tent upright.

Question 39.
Expand the following news headlines:

1. Scientists Develop Synthetic Cornea.
2. World Leaders Meet at Geneva.
3. ATMs Without Security Guards to Close.

Answer:

1. A newly developed implant made of plastic may soon offer patients the chance to see again as Scientists from Germany have developed synthetic corneas.
2. German Chancellor Angela Merkel and US President Donald Trump will converge upon the snowy Swiss town of Davos this week for the World Economic Forum’s Annual Meeting.
3. The Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has requested all ATM’S without proper security to be closed down.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs choosing the suitable words given in brackets.

1. A stitch in ………. saves nine, (tear, time, line)
2. A thing begun is ……….. done, (half, full, not)
3. Beauty is in the ………… of the beholder, (imagination, mind, eye)

Answer:

1. time
2. half
3. eye

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
Describe Mary Kom’s personal experiences during her first International Championship match from the time of selection to winning the medal.
Answer:
Mary Kom flew to Pennsylvania, USA to compete under 48 kg World Women’s Boxing Championship in 2001. On landing, she rushed to the sports arena and weighed. She was lucky as she could rest enough to face her opponent the following day. As soon as she won her opponent in the first match, she gained enormous confidence. Her fear of facing new opponents in the ring vanished completely. While her team-mates went on losing one after another, she went on to reach the finals.

She was even hopeful of winning gold. She had defeated Nadia Hokmi of Poland by RSC. She also defeated Jamie Behai of Canada by 21-9. The greatest disadvantage just before finals was that she lost her appetite. She was not accustomed to American food. However hard she tried, she could not eat. She lost her weight. She was just 46 kg before the finals. This cost her, her long cherished dream of gold medal and she lost to Hula Sahin of Turkey 13-5. She won her silver but was very sad. But the biggest thing she took home from Pennsylvania was not the medal but the conviction that she could take on any boxer in the world.

[OR]

Trace the thoughts that went on in the mind of the narrator when picture after picture was put up and sold at the auction.
Answer:
The author was enthusiastically participating in the bid at Christie with very little money on him. He sailed smooth for a long time raising the stakes on many paintings and carefully staying behind other competitors. It was fun watching till he got trapped in a net, set by his own tongue. When one particular painting was offered for 4000 guineas, the bidders maintained an uncomfortable silence when the author heard himself foolishly saying “and fifty”. The auctioneer banged the hammer finalizing the deal in the narrator’s favour.

It was then the narrator realized with alarm that he had no money on him. Suddenly he lost interest in fun- bidding. He started thinking fast for a way out of the tight comer he had created for himself. Many small and big paintings were offered and sold out fast. The Barbizon pictures were selling fast like hot cakes for 2000 to 3000 guineas. The author was running over the names of friends, relatives and even money lenders who might bail him out of the tight comer. He even speculated on the possibility of confessing his poverty to the staff of Christie and request them to put up the picture again for sale. Such a genuine mistake could have been rectified at the early stages of auction.

As he had enthusiastically participated in the bid for many paintings, the auctioneers wouldn’t buy his justification for the “genuine mistake”. As bidders stood in a queue to hand in their cheques/cash to collect their paintings, the narrator stood deliberately at the end. He never felt such a fool or had colder feet all his life.

Question 42.
According to the poet what contributes most to the injuries sustained by the athletes?
Answer:
According to the poet, zealous athletes play so rough that they do not even consider one another’s feelings in their dealings with other players. The players are mostly goaded by prize money or glory from the media’s light on them. They maim each other as they romp. Cracking vertebrae and spines don’t stop the rough players. Most of the players don’t have sportsmanship.

They don’t treat success and failure equally. In order to get the light of fame on their face, they are ready to permanently disable a rival player too. The crazy desire for championship titles and the light of fame on them leads them to ignore swollen eyes, snapping of knee joints or cracking of wrists. In short, the poet believes the apathy of zealous players and obvious indifference to the pain and debilitating injury contribute most to the injuries sustained by athletes.

[OR]

Explain how ‘Lines Written in Early Spring’ stresses the fact that Nature is meant for Man’s joy and pleasure to be preserved by Man.
Answer:
Nature’s holy plan is to offer joy and peace to all forms of life on earth. He firmly believes that man is meant to spend his days blissfully taking part in the vitality and joy surrounding him. The poet believes that the harmonious, peaceful and happy co-existence of birds, plants, trees and brooks soothes the troubled mind of man. But he remembered the depravity of man which was evident in Napoleonic wars. He was fed up with man’s capacity to destroy innocent lives and property.

The poet is unhappy with unnatural aspects of industrial revolution, the misery caused by wars, greedy and aggressive behaviour causing suffering in humans. Man has lost his sensitivity to listen to the joyful lessons of nature and has gone to the extent of denuding the forest which really sustains life on earth. The poet stands to reason that nature functions on God’s plan but the man changes the holy plan wrecking the natural joy of human life.

Question 43.
Write an essay of about 150 words by developing the following hints.
C.V. Burgess-master craftsman-reveals-few names-first patient Joe-wife Emily- surgical room-Emily apprehensive-two children-Dorothea-Dentist hospital becomes play area-snobbish woman-whole play resolves-dramatic irony of patients’ guess- the dentists’ room -opening the tool cabinet-The groaning noise-vexation of Emily- Joe add to the dramatic irony-nurse moves about-feigned seriousness-the fact of the misplacement of key-which adds comic.
Answer:
C.V. Burgess is a master craftsman who reveals only a’few names. The first patient Joe and his wife Emily are the most dominant characters. Joe is inside the surgical room. Emily is anxious about the husband. Among the two children the dramatist uses only the girl’s name Dorothea and the Dentist hospital becomes a play area for Dorothea and the little boy who claim the same magazine for reading. The snobbish woman who goes on showing her photo album gives us an impression if she came to see the doctor or to show her photos. The whole play revolves around the dramatic irony of patients’ guess as to what happened inside the dentists’ room and what really happened.

The pliers, hack saw and the huge hammer were taken inside the dentist’s room only for opening the tool cabinet. But the patients wondered how these would’be used in dental surgery. The groaning noise from inside the dentist’s rooms and the vexation of Emily Joe add to the fear of the patients waiting. A few women patients leave the waiting room scared of subjecting themselves to the torture of having their bad teeth extracted with carpentry tools. The nurse moves about with all feigned seriousness without disclosing the fact of the misplacement of key.

[OR]

Narrator – wants – photograph – photographer wait for an hour – comments – angry – called on Saturday – proof – Narrator shocked – photograph – not like him – worthless bauble.
Answer:
‘With the Photographer’ by Stephen Leacock is narrated in the first person. The narrator while sitting in the photographer’s studio begins, to read some magazines and sees how other people look and the narrator begins to feel insecure about his appearance. It is also noticeable that the photographer takes a dislike to his face judging it to be wrong.

What should have been a simple process of taking a photograph becomes something of a nightmare for the narrator. How confident the narrator becomes is noticeable when he returns to the photographer’s studio the following Saturday. He realises that the photograph that has been taken of him looks nothing like him. This angers the narrator as he was simply looking for a photograph that would show his likeness. He accepts that he may not be to everybody’s liking when it comes to his physical appearance but is angered by the changes made. The photographer has retouched the photograph so much that the narrator does not recognise himself.

The end of the story is also interesting as the reader realises that it is just a worthless bauble when he begins to cry. He has been judged solely by his appearance by the photographer whose job was to simply take a life like photograph.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Goa is a vibrant, living entity and more than just a geographical sunspot on the western coast of India. Famous for its silver sands and mesmeric sunsets, its recorded history datesback to the 3rd century B.C. It is blessed with marvelous weather, fabulous beaches, picturesque hill-top forts, gracious people and awe inspiring cathedrals. Arombol, 50 km north of Panaji, is a unique beach, which is both rocky and sandy.

It was a sweet water pond right near the seashore that’s very pleasant to bask in. Goa not only has almost 120 km long silver beaches but also offers long, wide and picturesque rivers and scenic lakes. Aqua sports hold great attraction for tourists to Goa. Some of the most popular aqua sports are swift rides on water scooters and speedboats at the Bay of Doha Paula. The best time to visit Goa, the ideal Serene Beach Resort is during the relatively cool winter months between late September and mid-March.
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 160
No. of words to be written in the summary: 160/3 = 51 ± 5
Rough Draft
Goa is in the western coast of India. It is famous for silver sands, sunsets, weather, beaches, forts, gracious people and eathedrals. Arombol is a rocky and sandy beach with a small water pond with sweet water. Aqua sports like swift rides on water scooters and speedboats are available at the Bay of Dona Paula. It is good to visit Goa between late September and mid March.

Fair Draft
Goa
Goa is in the western coast of India. It is famous for silver sands, sunsets, weather, beaches, forts, gracious people and cathedrals. Arombol is a rocky and sandy beach with a small water pond with sweet water. Aqua sports like swift rides on water scooters and speedboats are available at the Bay of Dona Paula. It is good to visit Goa between late September and mid March.

No. of words in the summary: 67

[OR]

Note-making
Title: Goa
Answer:
Location:
western coast of India

Tourist attraction:
silver sands, sunsets, weather, beaches, forts, gracious people and cathedrals Arombol beach – sweet water pond Aqua sports held at at the Bay of Dona Paula

Best time to visit:
between late September and mid-March

Question 45.
Read the following advertisement and respond to it with a resume/bio-data/CV considering yourself fulfilling the conditions specified:
[Write XXXX for your name and YYYY for your address]
Wanted:
Applications are invited for the post of a Typist in a reputed school of Madurai. The . candidate must have at least 5 years of experience. The applicant must have a pleasant personality. He/she should be good in English. Attractive salary. Interested candidates should apply to The Principal, AKS International, Indirapuram, Madurai within 10 days with detailed resume.

14th January, 2020

From
Savitha
2, Gandhi street
Madurai
To
The Correspondent
AKS International School
Indirapuram
Madurai
Respected Sir/Madam,
Sub: Application for the post of a Typist
With reference to your advertisement dated 8th January 2019,1 hereby wish to apply for the post of a typist. I have rich experience and can communicate well with a pleasing personality. If given an opportunity, I will satisfy my superiors to the best of my ability.
Please find enclosed my resume for your kind perusal.

Yours sincerely,
Savitha
Address on the Envelope To
The Correspondent
AKS International School
Indirapuram
Madurai

Resume:
Name : Savitha Rajeev
Date Of Birth : 8th May, 1991
Marital Status : Married
Husband’s Name : Mr. Rajeev
Address For Communication : Yyy
Contact Number – Mobile: 9988776655
Residence : 22445566
Mother Tongue : Tamil
Language Known : English and Tamil
Educational Background:

Professional Experience:

Hobbies : Photograph, Gardening, Reading, Travelling.
Expected Salary : 27,000/ per month
Salary Drawn : 23,000/ per month
Reference : 1. Mr. Ravi (Manager -no. 9998887777
2. Mrs. Rani (Manager-Raj Enterprises) 9900000222

Declaration
I hereby declare that the above given information is true to my knowledge.
Station: YYY
Date. 14.01.2020

Savitha
Signature of the Applicant

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘Convincing the public not to discriminate against those with AIDS’.
Answer:
Abolish discrimination against those with AIDS
People living with HIV infection and AIDS should have the same basic rights and responsibilities as those which apply to all citizens of the country. They have the same rights to liberty and autonomy, security of the person and to freedom of movement as the rest of the population. No restrictions should be placed on the free movement of HIV-infected people, and they may not be segregated, isolated or quarantined in prisons, schools, hospitals or elsewhere merely because of their HIV-positive status.

Only a sexual relationship without proper precautions will be a risk factor. Therefore they should be accepted whole heartedly without any discrimination. People with HIV infection or AIDS are entitled to the right to make their own decisions about any matter that affects marriage and child-bearing – although counselling about the consequences of their decisions should be provided. Due to the fear of isolation, ignorance, denial, and discrimination, people will allow HIV to develop into AIDS, further decreasing life expectancy, since the body’s immune system function will have been significantly lowered.

Along with family bonds and intimate relationships, a spiritual relationship is also strained. Fear and vulnerability included fear of punishment from God, fear of being discovered as HIV/ AIDS-positive and fear of the future and death. They should be given the love, warmth, psycho-social and emotional support.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) People of diverse cultures lives in India.
(b) There is many people who exhibit unity on diversity.
(c) Water is needed to irrigating the fields.
(d) We live in times when incomes is rising.
(e) The opening ceremony for the 2016 Summer Olympic Games took place in Maracan stadium.
Answer:
(a) People of diverse cultures lives in India.
(b) There are many people who exhibit unity on diversity.
(c) Water is needed to irrigate the fields.
(d) We live in times when incomes are rising.
(e) The opening ceremony of the 2016 Summer Olympic Games took place in Maracana stadium.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(a) They could ……….. untie the ………. (knot / not)
(.b) The world ………….. avoid war in the larger interest of human race. (Fill in with a modal verb)
(c) Every student …………. respect the national symbols, (use semi-modal)
(d) ……….. you have the hall ticket you can enter the examination hall. (Use a suitable link word).
Answer:
(a) not, knot
(b) should
(c) must
(d) If

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below.
(a) The flight was cancelled due to fog.
(b) Spicy food can cause acidity in the stomach.
(c) Meena stumbled upon a chance to practice running a race.
(d) The company has recommended a dividend of 75 percent.
(e) The monitor is not working. Get it repaired.
(Sports, Weather, Commerce, Nutrition and Dietetics, Computer)
Answer:
(a) Weather
(b) Nutrition and Dietetics
(c) Sports
(d) Commerce
(e) Computer

[OR]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
For millions of people in India, river Ganga is the most sacred river. It is considered as mother and goddess. It is also a lifeline to millions of Indians who live along its course and depend on it for their daily needs. River Ganga is the third largest river in the world by the amount of water that flows through it. It is the longest river in India. The river water of Ganga is used for irrigation, transportation and fishing. The Gangetic plain formed by river Ganga is one of the most fertile lands on earth.

This is why almost 10% of the world population lives here and earns its livelihood. The Ganga, in India is the most worshipped body of water. The irony here is that in spite of being the most worshipped river, it is also the dirtiest one. It carries some metals thrown out by tanneries, waste produced by industries and urban waste from different cities. All this has made river Ganga the fifth most polluted river in the world. Another major reason that adds to the Ganga river pollution is the coal based power plants on its banks which burn tons of coal every year and produce tons of fly ash. This ash mixed with domestic waste water is released, in the river.

This bad situation calls for an urgent need to make efforts to reduce pollution and revive river Ganga. To achieve these objectives, Government of India has started a programme named “Namami Ganga Programme”. The main pillars of this programme are sewage treatment, river surface cleaning, afforestation, riverfront development and public awareness. The importance of the success of ‘Namami Gange Programme’ can be seen through the following lines; “If Ganga dies, India dies. If Ganga thrives, India thrives. No Ganga, No India.”
Questions.

1. For whom is river Ganga a lifeline?
2. For what purpose is the Ganga river water used?
3. Most people in India consider the Gan^a as
4. What are the pollutants that make the river dirty?
5. Write any two pillars of the “Namami Gange”?

Answer:

1. River Ganga is a lifeline for millions of Indians.
2. The Ganga river water used for irrigation, transportation and fishing.
3. Goddess
4. Metals thrown out by tanneries, waste produced by industries and urban waste from different cities makes the river dirty.
5. The pillars of this programme are sewage treatment, river surface cleaning, afforestation, riverfront development and public awareness.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Max Marks: 90

PART-I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [Answers are in bold] [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
In case of net worth method of single entry system profit is ascertained by
(a) Comparing the capital in the beginning of the accounting period and the capital at the end of the accounting period
(b) Preparing profit and loss account
(c) Preparing a balance sheet
(d) Representative Personal Account
Answer:
(a) Comparing the capital in the beginning of the accounting period and the capital at the end of the accounting period

Question 2.
Profit = capital at the end + ? – capital introduced – capital in the beginning ………
(a) Sales
(b) Drawing
(c) Net purchases
(d) Revenue expenditure
Answer:
(b) Drawing

Question 3.
From the incomplete records, it is possible to prepare…………
(a) Ledger Accounts
(b) Trial Balance
(c) Statement of Affairs
(d) Personal Account
Answer:
(c) Statement of Affairs

Question 4.
Which of the following is to be recorded in an income and expenditure account?
(а) Purchase of a fixed asset
(б) Capital expenditure incurred in a fixed asset
(c) Profit on the sale of fixed asset
(d) Sale of a fixed assets
Answer:
(c) Profit on the sale of fixed asset

Question 5.
Subscription due but not yet earned is considered as an…………
(a) Asset
(b) Liability
(c) Income
(d) Expenditure
Answer:
(a) Asset

Question 6.
In India partnership firms are governed by the Indian Partnership act ………….
(a) 1932
(b) 1930
(c) 1992
(d) 1986
Answer:
(a) 1932

Question 7.
The maximum number of partners in a partnership firm is……….
(a) 25
(b) 10
(c) 30
(d) 50
Answer:
(d) 50

Question 8.
The monetary value of such advantage is termed as………..
(a) Goodwill
(b) Bank overdraft
(c) Capital
(d) Cash
Answer:
(a) Goodwill

Question 9.
Goodwill helps in earning more profit and attracts more…………
(a) Customers
(b) Producers
(c) Competitors
(d) Suppliers
Answer:
(a) Customers

Question 10.
When are unrecorded liabilities is brought into books is results in …………
(a) Profit
(b) loss
(c) income
(d) expense
Answer:
(b) loss

Question 11.
The revaluation profit or loss is transferred to the old partner’s capital accounts in their……..
(a) Old ratio
(b) New ratio
(c) Sacrifice ratio
(d) Gain ratio
Answer:
(a) Old ratio

Question 12.
A partner who retires from the firm is called an……….
(a) outgoing partner
(b) admitted partner
(c) death of a partner
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) outgoing partner

Question 13.
Profits and loses of previous years which are not distributed to the partners are known as ………
(a) Accumulated profit and losses
(b) General reserve
(c) Reserve fund
(d) Workmen compensation fund
Answer:
(a) Accumulated profit and losses

Question 14.
The money raised by issuing shares is called………
(a) Share capital
(b) Dividend
(c) Equity capital
(d) Share application
Answer:
(a) Share capital

Question 15.
Profits are distributed among the shareholders in the form of………..
(a) Share
(b) Dividends
(c) Both
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Dividends

Question 16.
Which statements are involve personal judgements in certain cases?
(a) Financial statements
(b) Income statements
(c) Profit and loss account statements
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Financial statements

Question 17.
Different tools are used for analysing the…………
(a) Balance sheet
(b) Financial statement
(c) Income statement
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Financial statement

Question 18.
If the two items in a ratio are from income statement it is classified as ………….
(a) Balance sheet ratio
(b) Income statement ratio
(c) Inter-statement ratio
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Income statement ratio

Question 19.
If a ratio is computed with one item from income statement and another item from balance sheet it is called ……….
(a) Inter-statement ratio
(b) Balance sheet ratio
(c) Income statement ratio
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Inter-statement ratio

Question 20.
Transactions are to be recorded through………….
(a) Journal entries
(b) Voucher entries
(c) Accounting entries
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Voucher entries

PART – II

Answer any seven questions in which question no. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What are the possible reasons for keeping in complete records?
Answer:
(i) Simple method:
Proprietor, who do not have the proper knowledge of accounting principles. Find it much convenient and easier to maintain their business records under this system.
(ii) Less expensive:
It is an economical mode of maintaining records as there is no need to appoint specialised accountant.

Question 22.
What are the features of not- for-profit organisation?
Answer:

1. They are the organisations which function without any profit motive.
2. Their main aim is to provide services to a specific group or the public at large.
3. They do not undertake business or trading activities.

Question 23.
Mannan and Ramesh share profit and losses 3 : 1. The capital of Rs 80,000 and Rs 60,000 and their current accounts show a credit balance of Rs 10,000 and Rs 5,000 respectively. Calculate interest on capital at 5% p.a. for the year ending 31st march 2018 and show the journal entries.
Answer:
Interest on capital = amount of capital × rate of interest
Interest of Mannan’s capital = 80,000 × \(\frac{5}{100}\) = Rs 4,000
Interest of Ramesh’s capital = 60,000 × \(\frac{5}{100}\) = Rs 3,000
Note:
Balance of current account will not be considered for calculation of interest on capital.

Question 24.
The following are the profit of a firm in the last five years 2014 – Rs 8,000, 2015 – Rs 6,000, 2016 – Rs 10,000, 2017 – Rs 9,000, 2018 – Rs 7,000. Calculate the value of goodwill at 3 years purchase of average profits of five year.
Answer:
Goodwill = Average profit × No. of years of purchase

Goodwill = Average profit × No. of years of purchase
= Rs 8,000 × 3
Goodwill = Rs 24,000

Question 25.
What is the journal entries of transferring of accumulated profit and reserves?
Answer:

Question 26.
Kiran, vinoth and vimal are partners sharing profits in the ratio 5 : 3 : 2. Kiran retires and the new profit sharing ratio between vinoth and vimal is 2 : 1. Calculate the gaining ratio.
Answer:
Share gained = New share – Old Share

Question 27.
What is the journal entry forfeiture of shares?
Answer:
Journal Entry

Question 28.
What is analysis of Financial statement?
Answer:

1. Methodical classification of the data given in the financial statement.
2. Explaining the meaning and significance of the relationship between various financial factor,
3. Comparison of these relationship.

Question 29.
Calculate quick ratio of Ananth construction ltd from the following given below. Total current liabilities Rs 1,00,000, Inventories Rs 50,000,
Total current assets Rs 25,000, prepaid expenses Rs 15,000.
Answer:

= Current assets – Inventories – Prepaid expenses
= 2,50,000 – 50,000 – 15,000
= Rs 1,85,000

Question 30.
What are accounting reports?
Answer:
Accounting report is a compilation of accounting information that are derived from the accounting records of a business concern. Accounting reports may be classified as routine reports and special purpose reports.

PART – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Following are the balances in the books of Thomas as on 31st march 2019.

Answer:

Question 32.
From the following particulars of Tamil Educational society. Prepare Receipts and payments account for year ended 31st march 2019.

Answer:

Question 33.
Mr A and B started a business on 1.4.2014 with capital of Rs 60,000, Rs 50,000 respectively. On 1st July 2014 Mr A withdrawal of Rs 8000 from his capital. Mr. B introduced additional capital Rs 10,000 on 30.9.2014. Calculate interest on capital at 5% p.a. for the year ending 31.03.2015.
Answer:

Question 34.
A firm has decided to value its goodwill at 3 years purchase of the average profits of 4 years using weighted average methods. Profits of past 4 years & respective weights are as follows.

compute the value of good will.
Answer:

Goodwill = Weighted Average profit × Number of years of purchase
= 24,800 × 3 = Rs 74,400

Question 35.
Sri Ram and Raj are partners sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 2 : 1. Nelson joins as a partner on 1.4.17.
The following adjustments are to be made.
(i) Increase the value of stock Rs 5,000
(ii) Bring into record investments of Rs 7,000, which had not been recorded in the books of the firm.
(iii) Reduce the value of office equipment by Rs 10,000.
(iv) A provision would also be made for outstanding wages for Rs 9,500. Give the journal entries.
Answer:
Journal Entries

Question 36.
Rahul, Ravi and Rohit are partners, sharing profits and loss in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. Rohit retires and the share is taken by Rahul and Ravi in the ratio of 3 : 2. Find out the new profit sharing ratio and gaining ratio.
Answer:
Rohit share = \(\frac{2}{10}\)
Share gained = Retiring partner share × Proportion of share gained

New share of continuing partners = old share + share gained

Question 37.
Anu company forfeited 200 equity shares of Rs 10 each issued at par held by thiyagu for non-payment of the final call of Rs 3 per share. The shares were reissued to laxman at Rs 6 per share, show the journal entries.
Answer:
In the books of Anu Company Journal entries

Question 38.
From the following prepare comparative income statement of Tharun & Co. Ltd.

Answer:
Comparative incomp statement of Tharun Co. Ltd. for the year ended 31st March 2017 and 31st March 2018

Tutorial note: Computation of percentage increase for revenue from operations.

Question 39.
Calculate operating profit ratio under the following cases,
Case 1: Revenue from operation Rs 20,00,000 operating profit Rs 3,00,000
Case 2: Revenue from operation Rs 30,00,000 operating cost Rs 24,00,000
Case 3: Revenue from operation Rs 40,00,000 gross profit 30% on revenue from
operations expenses Rs 8,00,000.
Answer:

Operating profit = Revenue from operation – operating cost
= 30,00,000 – 24,00,000 = Rs 6,00,000

Operating profit = Gross profit – Operating expenses
= 12,00,000 – 8,00,000 = Rs 4,00,000

Question 40.
What are the salient features of computerised Accounting system?
Answer:
(i) Simplicity:
They are easy to set up and simple to us.
(ii) Speed:
They are capable to generation instant and accurate report.
(iii) Power:
They are capable of maintaining accounts of multiple companies and with unlimited levels of classification.
(iv) Flexibility:
They provide flexibility to generate instant reports for giving period.

PART – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41(a).
From the following particulars calculate total purchase.

Answer:
Bills payable account

Total Purchases = Cash purchases + credit Purchase
= 7 3,20,000 + 74,80,000 = 7 8,00,000

[OR]

(b) From the following receipts and payments account of yercaud youth Association. Prepare income and expenditure Account for the year ended 31st march 2019 and the balance sheet as on that date.

Additional information:
(i) Opening capital fund Rs 20,000
(ii) Stock of books on 1.4.2018 Rs 9,200
(iii) Subscription due but not received Rs 1,700
(iv) Stock of stationery on 1.4.2018 Rs 1,200; stock of stationery on 31.3.2019 Rs 2,000.
Answer:
Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31.3.2019

Question 42(a).
Miss. Soniya sport equipment does not keep proper records from the following informations. Find out profit or loss and also prepare balance sheet for the year ended 31st December 2017.

Drawing Rs 10,000 per month for personal use, additional capital introduced during the year Rs 2,00,000. A bad debts Rs 2,000 and a provision of 5% to be made in debtors. Outstanding salary Rs 2,600 prepaid insurance Rs 700 depreciation changed as furniture at 10% P.a.
Answer:
Statement of affairs as on 31st December 2016

Balance sheet as on 31.3.2017

[OR]

(b) From the following Receipts and Payment account of Neyveli Science Club for the year ended 31st December 2018.

Additional information:
(i) Opening capital fund Rs 6,400
(ii) Subscription includes Rs 600 for the year 2019
(iii) Science equipment as on 1.1.2018 Rs 5,000
(iv) Surplus on account of exhibition should be kept in reserve for new auditorium.
Prepare income and expenditure account for the year ended 31st December 2018 and the balance sheet as on that date.
Answer:
Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31st Dec. 2018

Question 43(a).
Arulappan and Nallasamy are partners sharing profit and losses in the ratio 4 : 1. On 1st January 2018 their capitals were Rs 20,000 and Rs 10,000 respectively. The partnership deed specifies the following.
(а) Interest on capital is to he allowed at 5%P.a
(b) Interest on drawings charged to Arulappan and Nallasamy are Rs 200 and Rs 300 respectively.
(c) The net profit of the firm before considering interest on capital and interest on drawings amounted to Rs 18,000.
Give the journal entries and prepare profit and loss appropriation account for the year ending 31st December 2018. Assume that the capitals are fluctuating.
Answer:
Journal Entries

[OR]

(b) From the following information compute the value of goodwill by super profit method & capitalising method
(i) Capital employed is Rs 4,00,000
(ii) Normal rate of return is 10%
(iii) Profit for 2016 : Rs 62,000; 2017 : Rs 61,000 and 2018 : Rs 63,000
(iv) Super profit method:
Answer:

Normal profit = capital employed × Normal rate of return
= 400000 × \(\frac{10}{100}\)
= 40000
Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit = Rs 62,000 – 40,000
= Rs 22,000

Goodwill = Total capitalised value of the average profit – Capital employed = Rs 6,20,000 – 4,00,000
= Rs 22,000

Question 44(a).
Calculate the value of goodwill of the partnership firm of 2 partners
(а) At the 3 years purchase of average profits
(b) At the 3 years purchase of super profits
(c) On the basis of capitalisation of super profits
(d) On the basis of capitalisation of average profits
(i) Average capital employed Rs 7,00,000
(ii) Net trading results of the firm 2014 – Rs 1,47,600, 2015 – Loss Rs 1,48,100, Profit for 2016 – Rs 4,48,700
(iii) Interest on capital @ 18%
(iv) Remuneration Rs 500 per month.
Answer:
Calculation of Average profit and super profit
Total profit = Rs 1,47,600 – Rs 1,48,100 + Rs 4,48,700 = Rs 4,48,200

Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit
= 1,37,400 – 1,26,000
Super profit = Rs 11,400
(a) Average profit method:
Average profit × No. of years purchase
= Rs 1,37,400 × 3 = Rs 4,12,200
(b) Super profit method:
Super profit × No. of years purchase
= Rs 11,400 × 3 = Rs 34,200

[OR]

(b) Sri Ram and Raj are partners sharing profits in the ratio 2 : 1. Nelson joins as a partner on 1st April 2017. The following adjustments are to be made.
(i) Increase the value of Rs 10,000
(ii) Bring into record investment of Rs 14,000 which had not been recorded in the books of the firm.
(iii) Reduce the value of office equipment by Rs 20,000
(iv) A provision would also be made for outstanding wages for Rs 19,000. Give journal entries and prepare revaluation account.
Answer:
Journal Entries

Question 45(a).
Raj an and selva are partners sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 3:1. sheet as on 31st march 2017.

On 1.4.2017 they admit Ganesan as a new partner on the following arrangements
(i) Ganesan brings 10,000 as capital for 1/5 share of profit.
(ii) Stock and furniture is to be reduced by 10% a reserve of 5% on debtors for doubtful debts is to be created.
(iii) Appreciate building by 20%
Prepare revaluation account, partners capital account and the balance sheet of the firm after admission.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) The balance sheet of Rekha and mary on 31.12.2018 as

They share the profit and losses in the ratio 3 : 1. They agreed to admit kavitha into the partnership firm for 1/4 share of profits which she gets entirely gets from Rekha. Following are the conditions,
(i) Kavitha has to bring Rs 20,000 as capital. Her share of goodwill is valued at 4,000. She could not bring cash towards goodwill.
(ii) Depreciate buildings by 10%
(iii) Stock to be the revalued at Rs 6,000
(iv) Create provision for doubtful debts @ 5% on debito?
Prepare necessary ledger accounts and the balance sheet after admission.
Answer:

Question 46(a).
Charles, Muthu and sekar are partners sharing profits in the ratio 3 : 4 : 2. Their balance sheet as on 31st december 2018 is as under.

(i) On 1.1. 2019 Charles retired from the partnership firm on the following arrangements. Stock to be appreciated by 10%
(ii) Furniture to be depreciated by 5%
(iii) To provide Rs 1000 for bad debts
(iv) There is an outstanding repair of Rs 11,000 not yet recorded.
(v) The final amount due to Charles was paid.
Prepare revaluation account, capital account and the balance sheet of partner’s frim after the retirement.
Answer:

Balance sheet

[OR]

(b) Thangam Ltd issued 50,000 shares of Rs 10 each at a premium of Rs 2 per share payable as follows.
On application Rs 5, on allotment Rs 5 (including premium) on first and final call Rs 2.
Issue was fully subscribed and the amounts due were received except priya to whom 500 shares were allotted who faded to pay the allotment money and first and final call money. Her shares were forfeited. All the forfeited shares were reissued to devi Rs 8 per share. Pass journal entries.
Answer:
Journal Entries

Question 47(a).
Compute trend percentage for the following particular of Boomi Ltd.

Answer:

[OR]]

(b) Calculate-
(i) inventory turnover ratio
(ii) Trade receivable turnover
(iii) Trade payable turnover ratio
(iv) Fixed assets turnover ratio
(v) Gross profit ratio from the following,

Additional information:
Revenue from operations for the year Rs 10,50,000
Purchases for the year Rs 4,50,000
Cost of revenue from operations RS 6,00,000
Assume that sales and purchase are for credit
Answer:


Gross profit = Revenue from operations – Cost of revenue from operations
= 10,50,000 – 6,00,000
= 7 4,50,000

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Economics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Economics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3.00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Indicate the contribution of J M Keynes to economics……..
(a) Wealth of Nations
(b) General Theory
(c) Capital
(d) Public Finance
Answer:
(b) General Theory

Question 2.
Per capita income is obtained by dividing the National income by………..
(a) Production
(b) Population of a country
(c) Expenditure
(d) GNP
Answer:
(b) Population of a country

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Expenditure method is called outlay method.
Reason (R): This method is used only private sector.
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
Answer:
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

Question 4.
The component of aggregate demand is………..
(a) Personal demand
(b) Government expenditure
(c) Only export
(d) Only import
Answer:
(b) Government expenditure

Question 5.
If the Keynesian consumption function is C= 10 + 0.8 Y then, if disposable income is Rs 1000, what is amount of total consumption?
(a) Rs 0.8
(b) Rs 800
(c) Rs 810
(d) Rs 0.81
Answer:
(c) Rs 810

Question 6.
Which of the following is correctly matched:
(a) J.M. Clark – Ceteris Paribus
(b) J.M. Keynes – Psychological law of consumption
(c) R.F. Khan – Accelerator model
(d) Duesenberry – Laissez-faire
Answer:
(b) J.M. Keynes – Psychological law of consumption

Question 7.
………. inflation is in no way dangerous to the economy.
(a) Walking
(b) Running
(c) Creeping
(d) Galloping
Answer:
(a) Walking

Question 8.
Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below:

Codes

Answer:
(a) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

Question 9.
Expansions of ATM.
(a) Automated Teller Machine
(b) Adjustment Teller Machine
(c) Automatic Teller mechanism
(d) Any Time Money
Answer:
(a) Automated Teller Machine

Question 10.
Commercial Banks create credit in favour of the……..
(a) consumers
(b) business men
(c) customers
(d) agriculturists
Answer:
(c) customers

Question 11.
Net export equals ………
(a) Export x Import
(b) Export + Import
(c) Export – Import
(d) Exports of services only
Answer:
(c) Export – Import

Question 12.
Assertion (A): Price of a commodity is measured by the amount of labour required to produce it.
Reason (R): Trade is one of the Demerit.
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

Question 13.
Which of the following is not the member of SAARC?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Bhutan
(d) China
Answer:
(d) China

Question 14.
IBRD otherwise called the………..
(a) IMF
(b) SDR
(c) SAF
(d) World Bank
Answer:
(d) World Bank

Question 15.
Finance Commission determines …………
(a) The finances of Government of India
(b) The resources transfer to the states
(c) The resources transfer to the various departments
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) The resources transfer to the states

Question 16.
Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below:

codes

Answer:
A-2, B-4. C-1, D-3

Question 17.
………. is the current increase in temperature of the Earth’s surface as well as its atmosphere.
(a) Globe warming
(b) Global warming
(c) Globe spoiled
(d) Temperature warming
Answer:
(b) Global warming

Question 18.
The supply side vicious circle of poverty suggests that poor nations remain poor because
(a) Saving remains low
(b) Investment remains low
(c) There is a lack of effective government
(d) a and b above
Answer:
(d) a and b above

Question 19.
……….planning pertains to the allocation of resources in terms of men, materials and machinery.
(a) Financial
(b) Physical
(c) Functional
(d) Structural
Answer:
(b) Physical

Question 20.
The word ‘statistics’ is used as……….
(a) Singular
(b) Plural
(c) Singular and Plural
(d) None of above
Answer:
(c) Singular and Plural

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What do you mean by Capitalism?
Answer:
Capitalism, is total freedom and private ownership of means of production. Capitalistic economy is also termed as a free economy (Laissez faire, in Latin) or market economy where the role of the government is minimum and market determines the economic activities.

Question 22.
Write the formula for calculating GNP.
Answer:
GNP at market prices means the gross value of final goods and services produced annually in a country plus net factor income from abroad
(C + I + G + (X – M) + (R – P)

Question 23.
Write the headlines of difficulties in Measuring National Income.
Answer:
Difficulties in Measuring National Income:

1. Transfer payments
2. Difficulties in assessing depreciation allowance
3. Unpaid services
4. Income from illegal activities
5. Production for self-consumption and changing price
6. Capital Gains
7. Statistical problems.

Question 24.
What is effective demand?
Answer:
The starting point of Keynes theory of employment and income is the principle of effective demand.  Effective demand denotes money actually spent by the people on products of industry. The money which entrepreneurs receive is paid in the form of rent, wages, interest and profit. Therefore effective demand equals national income.

Question 25.
Define “Unemployment”.
Answer:
Unemployment: When there are people, who are willing to work and able to work but cannot find suitable jobs.

Question 26.
Define average propensity to save (APS).
Answer:
Average Propensity to Save (APS):
The average propensity to save is the ratio of saving to income. APS is the quotient obtained by dividing the total saving by the total income. In other words, it is the ratio of total savings to total income. It can be expressed algebraically in the form of equation as under
APS = \(\frac{S}{Y}\)
Where, S = Saving; Y = Income

Question 27.
Define “Ceteris paribus”.
Answer:
Ceteris paribus (constant extraneous variables): The other variables such as income distribution, tastes, habits, social customs, price movements, population growth, etc. do not change and consumption depends on income alone.

Question 28.
State briefly the functions of SAARC.
Answer:
Functions of SAARC:
The main functions of SAARC are as follows.

1. Maintenance of the co operation in the region
2. Prevention of common problems associated with the member nations.
3. Ensuring strong relationship among the member nations.
4. Removal of the poverty through various packages of programmes.
5. Prevention of terrorism in the region.

Question 29.
What are the components of GST?
Answer:
Components of GST:
The component of GST are of 3 types. They are: CGST, SGST & IGST.

1. CGST: Collected by the Central Government on an intra-state sale (e.g. Within state/ union territory)
2. SGST: Collected by the State Government on an intra-state sale (e.g. Within state/ union territory)
3. IGST: Collected by the Central Government for inter-state sale (e.g. Maharashtra to Tamil Nadu)

Question 30.
What are environmental goods? Give examples.
Answer:
Environmental goods are typically non-market goods, including clear air, clean water, landscape, green transport infrastructure (footpaths, cycle ways, greenways, etc.), public parks, urban parks, rivers, mountains, forests, and beaches.

Concerns with environmental goods focus on the effects that the exploitation of ecological systems have on the economy, the well-being of humans and other species, and on the environment.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Describe the socialistic econonomy.
Answer:
Socialistic Economy (Socialism):

1. The Father of Socialism is Karl Marx. Socialism refers to a system of total planning, public ownership and state control on economic activities.
2. Socialism is defined as a way of organizing a society in which major industries are owned and controlled by the government.
3. A Socialistic economy is also known as ‘Planned Economy’ or ‘Command Economy’.
4. In a socialistic economy, all the resources are owned and operated by the government.
5. Public welfare is the main motive behind all economic activities. It aims at equality in the distribution of income and wealth and equal opportunity for all.
6. Russia, China, Vietnam, Poland and Cuba are the examples of socialist economies. But, now there are no absolutely socialist economies.

Question 32.
Discuss the limitations of Macro Economics.
Answer:
Macro economics suffers from certain limitations. They are:

1. There is a danger of excessive generalisation of the economy as a whole.
2. It assumes homogeneity among the individual units.
3. There is a fallacy of composition. What is good of an individual need not be good for nation and vice versa. And, what is good for a country is not good for another country and at another time.
4. Many non-economic factors determine economic activities; but they do not find place in the usual macroeconomic books.

Question 33.
Give short note on Expenditure method.
Answer:
The Expenditure Method (Outlay method):

1. The total expenditure incurred by the society in a particular year is added together.
2. To calculate the expenditure of a society, it includes personal consumption expenditure, net domestic investment, government expenditure on consumption as well as capital goods and net exports.

Question 34.
Describe the types of unemployment.
Answer:
The following are the types of unemployment.
Types of unemployment:

1. Cyclical Unemployment
2. Frictional Unemployment
3. Technical Unemployment
4. Disguised Unemployment
5. Seasonal Unemployment
6. Educated Unemployment
7. Structural Unemployment

1. Cyclical Unemployment:

• This unemployment exists during the downturn phase of trade cycle in the economy.
• In a business cycle during the period of recession and depression, income and output fall leading to widespread unemployment.
• It is caused by deficiency of effective demand.
• Cyclical unemployment can be cured by public investment or expansionary monetary policy.

2. Seasonal Unemployment:

• This type of unemployment occurs during certain seasons of the year.
• In agriculture and agro based industries like sugar, production activities are carried out only in some seasons.
• These industries offer employment only during that season in a year. Therefore people may remain unemployed during the off season.
• Seasonal unemployment happens from demand side also; for example ice cream industry, holiday resorts etc.

3. Frictional Unemployment (Temporary Unemployment):

• Frictional unemployment arises due to imbalance between supply of labour and demand for labour.
• This is because of immobility of labour, lack of necessary skills, break down of machinery.
• shortage of raw materials etc.
• The persons who lose jobs and in search of jobs are also included under frictional unemployment.

4. Educated Unemployment:

• Sometimes educated people are underemployed or unemployed when qualification does
  not match the job.
• Faulty education system, lack of employable skills, mass student turnout and preference for white collar jobs are highly responsible for educated unemployment in India.

5. Technical Unemployment:

• Modem technology being capital intensive requires less labourers and contributes to technological unemployment.
• Now a days, invention and innovations lead to the adoption of new techniques there by the existing workers are retrenched.
• Labour saving devices are responsible for technological unemployment.

6. Structural Unemployment:

• Structural unemployment is due to drastic change in the structure of the society.
• Lack of demand for the product or shift in demand to other products cause this type of unemployment.
• For example rise in demand for mobile phones has adversely affected the demand for cameras, tape recorders etc.
• So this kind of unemployment results from massive and deep rooted changes in economic structure.

7. Disguised Unemployment:

• Disguised unemployment occurs when more people are than what is actually required.
• Even if some workers are withdrawn, production does not suffer.
• This type of unemployment is found in agriculture.
• A person is said to be disguisedly by unemployed if his contribution to output is less than what he can produce by working for normal hours per day.
• In this situation, marginal productivity of labour is zero or less or negative.

Question 35.
Differentiate autonomous and induced investment.
Answer:

Sl.No	Autonomous Investment	Induced Investment
1	Independent	Planned
2	Income inelastic	Income elastic
3	Welfare motive	Profit Motive

Question 36.
What is money supply?
Answer:

1. Money supply means the total amount of money in an economy.
2. It refers to the amount of money which is in circulation in an economy at any given time.
3. Money supply plays a crucial role in the determination of price level and interest rates.
4. Money supply viewed at a given point of time is a stock and over a period of time it is a flow.

Question 37.
Distinguish between money market and capital market.
Answer:

S.No.	Money Market	Capital Market
1.	Money market is the mechanism through which sthort term funds are loaned and borrowed. It designates financial instittutions which handle the purchase, sale and transfer of short term credit instruments.	Capital Market is a part of financial system which is concerned with raising capital by dealing in shares, bonds and other long term investments.
2.	Commercial banks, acceptance houses, Non Banking Financial Institutions and the Central Bank are the institutions catering to the requirements of short term funds in the money Market.	The market where investment instruments like bonds, equities and mortgages are traded is known as the capital market.

Question 38.
List out the achievements of ASEAN.
Answer:
The ASEAN Declaration states the aims and purposes of the Association as:

1. To accelerate the economic growth, social progress and cultural development in the region;
2. To promote regional peace and stability and adherence to the principles of the United Nations Charter;
3. To promote cooperation among the members of ASEAN through the exchange of knowledge and experience in the field of public sector auditing.
4. To provide a conducive environment and facilities for research, training, and education among the members
5. To serve as a centre of information and as an ASEAN link with other international organizations.

Question 39.
Give two examples for direct tax.
Answer:

1. Equity: Direct taxes are progressive i.e. rate of tax varies according to tax base. For example, income tax satisfies the canon of equity.
2. Certainity: Canon of certainty can be ensured by direct taxes. For example, an income tax payer knows when and at what rate he has to pay income tax.

Question 40.
Define economic planning.
Answer:
Economic Planning is “collective control or suppression of private activities of production and exchange”. – Robbins
“Economic Planning in the widest sense is the deliberate direction by persons in-charge of large resources of economic activity towards chosen ends”. – Dalton

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Compare the feature among Capitalism, Secularism and Mixedism.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) What are the difficulties involved in the measurement of national income?
Answer:
Difficulties in Measuring National Income:
In India, a special conceptual problem is posed by the existence of a large, unorganised and non-monetised subsistence sector where the barter system still prevails for transacting goods and services. Here, a proper valuation of output is very difficult.

Transfer payments:

1. Government makes payments in the form of pensions, unemployment allowance, subsidies, etc. These are government expenditure.
2. But they are not included in the national income.
3. Because they are paid without adding anything to the production processes.
4. During a year, Interest on national debt is also considered transfer payments because it is paid by the government to individuals and firms on their past savings without any productive work.

Difficulties in assessing depreciation allowance:

1. The deduction of depreciation allowances, accidental damages, repair and replacement charges from the national income is not an easy task.
2. It requires high degree of judgment to assess the depreciation allowance and other charges.

Unpaid services:

1. A housewife renders a number of useful services like preparation of meals, serving, tailoring, mending, washing, cleaning, bringing up children, etc.
2. She is not paid for them and her services are not directly included in national income.

Income from illegal activities:

1. Income earned through illegal activities like gambling, smuggling, illicit extraction of . liquor, etc., is not included in national income.
2. Such activities have value and satisfy the wants of the people but they are not considered as productive from the point of view of society.

Production for self-consumption and changing price:

1. Farmers keep a large portion of food and other goods produced on the farm for self consumption.
2. The problem is whether that part of the produce which is not sold in the market can be included in national income or not.

Capital Gains:

1. The problem also arises with regard to capital gains.
2. Capital gains arise when a capital asset such as a house, other property, stocks or shares, etc. is sold at higher price than was paid for it at the time of purchase.
3. Capital gains are excluded from national income.

Statistical problems:

1. There are statistical problems, too. Great care is required to avoid double counting. Statistical data may not be perfectly reliable, when they are compiled from numerous sources.
2. Skill and efficiency of the statistical staff and cooperation of people at large are also equally important in estimating national income.

Question 42 (a).
Write short note on the implications of Say’s law.
Answer:
Implications of Say’s Law:

1. There is no possibility for over production or unemployment.
2. If there exist unutilized resources in the economy, it is profitable to employ them up to the point of full employment. This is true under the condition that factors are willing to accept rewards on a par with their productivity.
3. As automatic price mechanism operates in the economy, there is no need for government intervention. (However, J.M. Keynes emphasized the role of the State)
4. Interest flexibility brings about equality between saving and investment.
5. Money performs only the medium of exchange function in the economy, as people will not hold idle money.

[OR]

(b) State the propositions of Keynes’s Psychological Law of Consumption.
Answer:
Propositions of the Law:
This law has three propositions:
(i) When income increases, consumption expenditure also increases but by a smaller amount. The reason is that as income increases, we wants are satisfied side by side, so that the need to spend more on consumer goods diminishes. So, the consumption expenditure increases with increase in income but less than proportionately.

(ii) The increased income will be divided in some proportion between consumption expenditure and saving. This follows from the first proposition because when the whole of increased income is not spent on consumption, the remaining is saved. In this way, consumption and saving move together.

(iii) Increase in income always leads to an increase in both consumption and saving. This means that increased income is unlikely to lead to fall in either consumption or saving. Thus with increased income both consumption and saving increase.

Question 43 (a).
Bring out the methods of credit control.
Answer:
Methods of Credit Control:
1. Bank Rate Policy:
The bank rate is the rate at which the Central Bank of a country’ is prepared to re-discount the first class securities.

2. Open Market Operations:

• In narrow sense, the Central Bank starts the purchase and sale of Government securities in the money market.
• In Broad Sense, the Central Bank purchases and sells not only Government securities but also other proper eligible securities like bills and securities of private concerns.

3. Variable Reserve Ratio:
(i) Cash Reserves Ratio:

• Under this system the Central Bank controls credit by changing the Cash Reserves Ratio.
• For example, if the Commercial Banks have excessive cash reserves on the basis of which they are creating too much of credit,this will be harmful for the larger interest of the economy.
• So it will raise the cash reserve ratio which the Commercial Banks are required to maintain with the Central Bank.

(ii) Statutory Liquidity Ratio:

• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is the amount which a bank has to maintain securities.
• The quantum is specified as some percentage of the total demand and time liabilities (i.e., the liabilities of the bank which are payable on demand anytime, and those liabilities which are accruing in one month’s time due to maturity) of a bank.

[OR]

(b) Briefly explain the gains from International Trade Categories.
Answer:
Gains from International Trade:

• International trade helps a country to export its surplus goods to other countries and secure a better market for it.
• Similarly, international trade helps a country to import the goods which cannot be produced at all or can be produced at a higher cost.
• The gains from international trade may be categorized under four heads.

I. Efficient Production:
International trade enables each participatory country to specialize in the production of goods in which it has absolute or comparative advantages. International specialization offers the following gains.

1. Better utilization of resources.
2. Concentration in the production of goods in which it has a comparative advantage.
3. Saving in time.
4. Perfection of skills in production.
5. Improvement in the techniques of production.
6. Increased production.
7. Higher standard of living in the trading countries.

II. Equalization of Prices between Countries:
International trade may help to equalize prices in all the trading countries.

1. Prices of goods are equalized between the countries (However, in reality it has not happened).
2. The difference is only with regard to the cost of transportation.
3. Prices of factors of production are also equalized (However, in reality it has not happened).

III. Equitable Distribution of Scarce Materials:
International trade may help the trading countries to have equitable distribution of scarce resources.

IV. General Advantages of International Trade:

1. Availability of variety of goods for consumption.
2. Generation of more employment opportunities.
3. Industrialization of backward nations.
4. Improvement in relationship among countries (However, in reality it has not happened).
5. Division of labour and specialisation.
6. Expansion in transport facilities.

Question 44 (a).
Write a note on SAARC.
Answer:
South Asian Association For Regional Co-Operation (SAARC):

1. The South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation (SAARC) is an organisation of South Asian nations, which was established on 8 December 1985 for the promotion of economic and social progress, cultural development within the South Asia region and also for friendship and co-operation with other developing countries.
2. The SAARC Group (SAARC) comprises of Bangaladesh, Bhutan, India, The Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
3. In April 2007, Afghanistan became its eighth member.
4. The basic aim of the organisation is to accelerate the process of economic and social development of member states through joint action in the agreed areas of cooperation.
5. The SAARC Secretariat was established in Kathmandu (Nepal) on 16th January 1987.
6. The first SAARC summit was held at Dhaka in the year 1985.
7. SAARC meets once in two years. Recently, the 20th SAARC summit was hosted by Sri Lanka in 2018.

[OR]

(b) Briefly explain facilities offered by IMF.
Answer:
Facilities offered by IMF:
The Fund has created several new credit facilities for its members. Chief among them are:
(i) Basic Credit Facility:

• The IMF provides financial assistance to its member nations to overcome their temporary difficulties relating to balance of payments.
• A member nation can purchase from the Fund other currencies or SDRs, in exchange for its own currency, to finance payment deficits.
• The loan is repaid when the member repurchases its own currency with other currencies or SDRs.
• A member can unconditionally borrow from the Fund in a year equal to 25% of its quota.
• This unconditional borrowing right is called the reserve tranche.

(ii) Extended Fund Facility:

• Under this arrangement, the IMF provides additional borrowing facility up to 140% of the member’s quota, over and above the basic credit facility.
• The extended facility is limited for a period up to 3 years and the rate of interest is low.

(iii) Compensatory Financing Facility:

• In 1963, IMF established compensatory financing facility to provide additional financial assistance to the member countries, particularly primary producing countries facing shortfall in export earnings.
• In 1981, the coverage of the compensatory financing facility was extended to payment problem caused by the fluctuations in the cost of cereal inputs.

(iv) Buffer Stock Facility:

• The buffer stock financing facility was started in 1969.
• The purpose of this scheme was to help the primary goods (food grains) producing countries to finance contributions to buffer stock arrangements for the stabilisation of primary product prices.

(v) Supplementary Financing Facility:
Under the supplementary financing facility, the IMF makes temporary arrangements to provide supplementary financial assistance to member countries facing payments problems relating to their present quota sizes.

(vi) Structural Adjustment Facility:

• The IMF established Structural Adjustment Facility (SAF) in March 1986 to provide additional balance of payments assistance on concessional terms to the poorer member countries.
• In December 1987, the Enhanced Structural Adjustment Facility (ESAF) was set up to augment the availability of concessional resources to low income countries.
• The purpose of SAF and ESAF is to force the poor countries to undertake strong macroeconomic and structural programmes to improve their balance of payments positions and promote economic growth.

Question 45 (a).
What are the functions of a modern state?
Answer:
Functions of Modern State:
The modem state is a welfare state and not just police state. The state assumes greater roles by creating economic and social overheads, ensuring stability both internally and externally, conserving resources for sustainable development and so on.

(i) Defence:

1. The primary function of the Government is to protect the people from external aggression and internal disorder.
2. The government has to maintain adequate police and military forces and render protective
   services.

(ii) Judiciary:

1. Rendering justice and settlement of disputes are the concern of the government.
2. It should provide adequate judicial structure to render justice to all classes of citizens,

(iii) Enterprises:

1. The regulation and control of private enterprise fall under the purview of the modem State.
2. Ownership of certain enterprises and operating them successfully are the responsibilities of the government.

(iv) Social Welfare:
It is the duty of the state to make provisions for education, social security, social insurance, health and sanitation for the betterment of the people in the country.

(v) Infrastructure:
Modem States have to build the base for the economic development of the country by creating social and economic infrastructure.

(vi) Macro-economic policy:
The Government has to administer fiscal policy and monetary policy to achieve macro¬economic goals.

(vii) Social Justice:

1. During the process of growth of an economy, certain sections of the society gain at the cost of others.
2. The Government needs to intervene with fiscal measures to redistribute income.

(viii) Control of Monopoly:
Concentration of economic power is another evil to be corrected by the Government. So, the state intervenes through control of monopolies and restrictive trade practices to curb concentration of economic power.

[OR]

(b) What are the causes of water pollution?
Answer:
Water pollution is caused due to several reasons. Here are the few major causes of water pollution:
(i) Discharge of sewage and waste water:

1. Sewage, garbage and liquid waste of households, agricultural runoff and effluents from factories are discharged into lakes and rivers.
2. These wastes contain harmful chemicals and toxins which make the water poisonous for aquatic animals and plants.

(ii) Dumping of solid wastes:
The dumping of solid wastes and litters in water bodies cause huge problems.

(iii) Discharge of industrial wastes:
Industrial waste contains pollutants like asbestos, lead, mercury, grease oil and petrochemicals, which are extremely harmful to both people and environment.

(iv) Oil Spill:
Sea water gets polluted due to oil spilled from ships and tankers while travelling. The spilled oil does not dissolve in water and forms a thick sludge polluting the water.

(v) Acid rain:

1. Acid rain is pollution of water caused by air pollution.
2. When the acidic particles caused by air pollution in the atmosphere mix with water vapor, it results in acid rain.

(vi) Global warming:
Due to global warming, there is an increase in water temperature as a result aquatic plants and animals are affected.

(vii) Eutrophication:

1. Eutrophication is an increased level of nutrients in water bodies.
2. This results in bloom of algae in water.
3. It also depletes the oxygen in water which negatively affects fish and other aquatic animal population.

Question 46 (a).
Explain different sources of e-waste.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) What are the non-economic factors determining development?
Answer:
Non-Economic. Factors:

1. Human Resource
2. Technical Know-how
3. Political Freedom
4. Social Organization
5. Corruption free administration
6. Desire for Development
7. Moral, ethical and social values
8. Casino Capitalism
9. Patrimonial Capitalism

Non-Economic Factors: ‘Economic Development has much to do with human endowments, social attitudes, political conditions and historical accidents. Capital is a necessary but not a sufficient condition of progress.
(i) Human Resources:

• Human resource is named as human capital because of its power to increase productivity and thereby national income.
• There is a circular relationship between human development and economic growth.
• A healthy, educated and skilled labour force is the most important productive asset.
• Human capital formation is the process of increasing knowledge, skills and the productive capacity of people.

(ii) Technical Know-how:
As the scientific and technological knowledge advances, more and more sophisticated techniques steadily raise the productivity levels in all sectors.

(iii) Political Freedom:
The process of development is linked with the political freedom.

(iv) Social Organization:
People show interest in the development activity only when they feel that the fruits of development will be fairly distributed.

(v) Corruption free administration:

• Corruption is a negative factor in the growth process.
• Unless the countries root-out corruption in their administrative system, the crony capitalists and traders will continue to exploit national resources.

(vi) Desire for development:
The pace of economic growth in any country depends to a great extent on people’s desire for development.

(vii) Moral, ethical and social values:

• These determine the efficiency of the market, according to Douglas C. North.
• If people are not honest, market cannot function.

(viii) Casino Capitalism:
If People spend larger proportion of their income and time on entertainment liquor and other illegal activities, productive activities may suffer, according to Thomas Piketty.

(ix) Patrimonial Capitalism:
If the assets are simply passed on to children from their parents, the children would not work hard, because the children do not know the value of the assets.

Question 47 (a).
Describe different types of Planning.
Answer:

(i) Democratic Vs Totalitarian:
A form of rule in which the government attempts to maintain ‘total’ control over society, including all aspects of the public and private lives of its citizens.

(ii) Centralized Vs Decentralized:

• Under centralized planning, the entire planning process in a country is under a central planning authority.
• This authority formulates a central plan, fixes objectives, targets and priorities for every sector of the economy.
• In other words, it is called ‘planning from above’.

(iii) Planning by Direction Vs Inducement:
Under planning by direction, there is a central authority which plans, directs and orders the execution of the plan in accordance with pre-determined targets and priorities.

(iv) Indicative Vs Imperative Planning:

• Indicative planning is peculiar to the mixed economies. It has been in practice in France since the Monnet Plan of 1947-50.
• In a mixed economy, the private sector and the public sector work together.
• Under this plan, the outline of plan is prepared by the Government.
• Then it is discussed with the representatives of private management, trade unions, consumer groups, finance institutions and other experts.

(v) Short, Medium and Long term Planning:

• Short-term plans are also known as ‘controlling plans’.
• They encompass the period of one year, therefore, they are also known as ‘annual plans’.

(vi) Financial Vs Physical Planning:
Financial planning refers to the technique of planning in which resources are allocated in terms of money while physical planning pertains to the allocation of resources in terms of men, materials and machinery.

(vii) Functional Vs Structural Planning:
Functional planning refers to that planning which seeks to remove economic difficulties by directing all the planning activities within the existing economic and social structure.

(viii) Comprehensive Vs Partial Planning:
General planning which concerns itself with the major issues for the whole economy is known as comprehensive planning whereas partial planning is to consider only the few important sectors of the economy.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the Economic planning of Democratic planning and Totalitarian planning.
Answer:
Democratic Vs Totalitarian:

1. Democratic planning implies planning within democracy.
2. People are associated at every step in the formulation and implementation of the plan.
3. A democratic plan is characterized by the widest possible consultations with the various state governments and private enterprises at the stage of preparation.
4. The plan prepared by the Planning Commission is not accepted as such.
5. It can be accepted, rejected or modified by the Parliament of the country.
6. Under totalitarian planning, there is central control and direction of all economic activities in accordance with a single plan.
7. Consumption, production, exchange, and distribution are all controlled by the state. In authoritarian planning, the planning authority is the supreme body.
8. It decides about the targets, schemes, allocations, methods and procedures of implementation of the plan.

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 3 Chemistry in Everyday Life Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Chemistry in Everyday Life Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
Soaps were originally made from ………
a. proteins
b. animal fats and vegetable oils
c. chemicals extracted from the soil
d. foam booster
Answer:
b. animal fats and vegetable oils.

Question 2.
The saponification of a fat or oil is done using _______ solution for hot process.
(a) Potassium hydroxide
(b) Sodium hydroxide
(c) Hydrochloric acid
(d) Sodium chloride
Answer:
(b) Sodium hydroxide

Question 3.
Gypsum is added to the cement for ………..
a. fast setting
b. delayed setting
c. hardening
d. making paste
Answer:
b. delayed setting

Question 4.
Phenol is ……..
a. carbolic acid
b. acetic acid
c. benzoic acid
d. hydrochloric acid
Answer:
a. carbolic acid

Question 5.
Natural adhesives are made from ………..
a. Protein
b. fat
c. starch
d. vitamins
Answer:
c. starch

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ………… gas causes tears in our eyes while cutting onions.
2. Water, coconut oil and ……….. are necessary for soap preparation.
3. ………..is called a farmer’s best friend.
4. …………. fertilizer is ecofriendly.
5. ………… is an example for natural adhesive.

Answer:

1. Propane Thiol Oxide
2. NaOH
3. Earthworm
4. Artificial
5. Starch

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

1. Concentrated phenol is used as a disinfectant.
2. Gypsum is largely used in medical industries.
3. Plaster of Paris is obtained from heating gypsum.
4. Adhesives are the substances used to separate the components.
5. NPK are the primary nutrients for plants.

Answer:

1. False. – Low concentrated Phenol is used as a disinfectant.
2. False – Epsum is largely used in medical industry.
3. True.
4. False – Adhesives are substances that are used to join two (or) more components.
5. True

IV. Match the following:

Answer
1. – c
2. – d
3. – e
4. – b
5. – a

V. Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence:

1. Pour that solution into an empty matchbox, soap can be obtained after drying.
2. Take the necessary quantity of water in a jar.
3. Then add coconut oil drop by drop and stir it well.
4. Add concentrated sodium hydroxide in the jar and allow it to cool.
5. Try this soap to wash your handkerchief.
6. Cover your work area with old newspaper.

Answer:

1. Cover your work area with old newspaper.
2. Take the necessary quantity of water in a jar.
3. Add concentrated sodium hydroxide in the jar and allow it to cool.
4. Then add coconut oil drop by drop and stir it well.
5. Pour that solution into an empty matchbox, soap can be obtained after drying.
6. Try this soap to wash your handkerchief.

VI. Analogy:

1. Urea : Inorganic fertilizer :: Vermi Compost: …………
2. ……….. : Natural Adhesives :: Cello tape : Artificial Adhesives

Answer:

1. Natural Fertilizer
2. Starch

VII. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are the three main constituents of soap?
Answer:
The three main constituents of soap are Lye (Sodium hydroxide), coconut oil, and water.

Question 2.
What are the two different types of molecules found in the soap?
Answer:
The two types of molecules found in the soap are

1. water-loving
2. water-hating.

Question 3.
Give an example of inorganic fertilizer.
Answer:
The Inorganic fertilizers are Urea, Ammonium sulphate, and Superphosphate.

Question 4.
Mention any three physical properties of phenol.
Answer:
Phenol properties:

1. It is a weak acid.
2. It is a volatile, white crystalline powder.
3. It is a colourless solution but changes into the red in the presence of dust.

Question 5.
Explain the uses of plaster of Paris.
Answer:
Uses of plaster of pairs:

1. In making blackboard chalks.
2. In surgery for setting fractured bones.
3. For making casts for statues and toys etc.
4. In the construction industry.

Question 6.
What are the ingredients of the cement?
Answer:
The ingredients of the cement are lime, clay, and gypsum.

Question 7.
Why gypsum is used in cement production?
Answer:
Gypsum is added to control the setting of cement.

VIII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Why earthworm is called a farmer’s friend?
Answer:

1. Earthworms take organic wastes as food and produce compost castings.
2. They provide a multitude of services to improve soil health and consequently plant health.
3. So earthworm is called a farmer’s friend.

Question 2.
Explain the process of manufacturing cement.
Answer:
The cement is manufactured by crushing naturally occurring minerals such as limestone, clay, and gypsum through a milling process.

Question 3.
What are the uses of Gypsum?
Answer:

1. Used as fertilizers
2. Used in the process of making cement and plaster of Paris.

IX. Answer in detail

Question 1.
How are detergents manufactured?
Answer:
Manufacture of Detergents:
Materials used:
Acid slurry, Soda ash (or) Sodium Carbonate, Trisodium phosphate (TSP), sodium tripolyphosphate (STPP), Carboxy Methyl Chloride (or) Cellulose, Glauber’s salt, colour perfume and brightner.

Preparation:

1. Acid slurry is first neutralised.
2. Then neutralised Acid Slurry is mixed with Soda ash and kept for one hour for completion of reaction.
3. Other ingredients such as Trisodium phosphate (TSP), Sodium tripolyphosphate (STPP), Carboxy Methyl Chloride (or) Cellulose, Glauber’s salt, colour, perfume, brightner are then blended to the neutralised Acid Slurry with continuous mixing.
4. Then the mixture is dried.
5. Now we get detergent powder.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
Ravi is a farmer; he rears many cattle in his farm. His field has many biowastes. Advise Ravi on how to change this biowaste to compost by using vermicomposting techniques. Explain the benefits of vermi castings?
Answer:

1. Make a pit of 30 cm or take a wooden box.
2. Place a thin net on the base of the pit or wooden box.
3. Fill it with sand for about 1-2 cm.
4. Spread some plant wastes (like a dry leaf, flower) and biodegradable wastes on it.
5. Sprinkle some water.
6. Add some earthworms to these substances and cover them with an old cloth or dried coconut leaf.
7. We can find that vermicompost is formed after four weeks.
8. Use this vermicompost as manure for plants and conserve soil fertility.

Advantages of using vermicompost:

1. Vermicompost is an excellent organic manure for sustainable agro-practices.
2. Vermicompost is rich in essential plant nutrients.
3. In improves soil structure texture, aeration, and water holding capacity and prevents soil erosion.
4. Vermicompost is rich in nutrients and an eco-friendly amendment to the soil for farming and terrace gardening.
5. It enhances seed germination and ensures good plant growth.
6. Vermicompost can be prepared easily.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Chemistry in Everyday Life Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
………. to remove strong strains on the clothes.
(a) Detergents soap
(b) Bathing soap
(c) Bleaching powder
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Bleaching powder

Question 2.
_______ are the substances which can undergo chemical changes to produce certain materials.
(a) Soaps
(b) Fertilizers
(c) Plastics
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 3.
If 50 kg of Superphosphate is added to the soil, how much phosphorus would the soil get?
(a) 4 – 4.5 kg
(b) 8 – 9 kg
(c) 12 – 13 kg
(d) 16 – 18 kg
Answer:
(a) 4 – 4.5 kg

Question 4.
All the plants get their _______ from the soil.
(a) Nutrients
(b) Water
(c) Nitrogen
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Nutrients

Question 5.
The molecular formula of Epsom is _______
(a) CaSO₄1/2H₂O
(b) C₆H₅OH
(c) MgSO₄.7H₂O
(d) CaSO₄.2H₂O
Answer:
(c) MgSO₄.7H₂O

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ……… is a natural indicator.
2. ……….. molecules goes and joins with dirt and oil in the cloth.
3. Fertilizer facilitates the growth of ………….
4. ………….. is used to fix bone fractures.
5. Epsom salt is ………….

Answer:

1. turmeric powder
2. Water hating molecules
3. plants
4. Plaster of Paris
5. Magnesium Sulphate Hydrate

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – b
2. – a
3. – d
4. – c

IV. Arrange the following statements in correct sequence:

1. One side water-loving and other water-hating molecules.
2. When you agitate the cloth, the dirt is surrounded by many molecules and taken away from the cloth.
3. The dirt surrounded by the detergent molecules floats in the water making it dirty.
4. Finally, the cloth is clean.
5. The detergent molecules have two sides.
6. Water hating goes and joins with dirt and oil in the cloth while the water-loving joins with the water molecules.

Answer:

1. The detergent molecules have two sides.
2. One side water-loving and other water-hating molecules.
3. Water hating goes and joins with dirt and oil in the cloth while the water-loving joins with the water molecules.
4. When you agitate the cloth, the dirt is surrounded by many molecules and taken away from the cloth.
5. The dirt surrounded by the detergent molecules floats in the water making it dirty.
6. Finally, the cloth is clean.

V. Analogy:

1. Black board chalks : ………….. : : Plant growth : Epsum
2. …………. : Calcium Sulphate Dihydrate : : Plaster of Paris : Calcium Sulphate Hemihvdrate
3. ………. : Mortar : : Construction of bridges : Concrete

Answer:

1. Plaster of Paris
2. Gypsum
3. Construction of house walls.

VI. Give Very Short Answer

Question 1.
What are the principal nutrients?
Answer:
Principal nutrients are NPK

1. Nitrogen (N)
2. Phosphorus (P)
3. Potassium (K)

Question 2.
What are fertilizers?
Answer:
Fertilizers are organic (or) inorganic materials that we add to the soil to provide one (or) more nutrients to the soil.

Question 3.
Give two examples of organic fertilizers?
Answer:

1. Compost
2. Vermicompost

Question 4.
Why is called inorganic fertilizers?
Answer:
The fertilizers prepared by using natural elements by making them undergo chemical changes in the laboratories are called inorganic fertilizers.

Question 5.
Why is called Portland cement?
Answer:
It was named “Portland” cement because it resembled the high-quality building stones found in Portland, England.

VII. Answer in details:

Question 1.
What is Epsum? Mention it’s used.
Answer:
Epsum:

1. Epsum salt is magnesium Sulphate Hydrate.
2. Its molecular formula – MgSO₄. 7H₂O

Uses:

1. Eases stress and relaxes the body.
2. Helps muscles and nerves to function properly.
3. Medicine for skin problems.
4. Improving plant growth in agriculture.

Question 2.
Write about the Phenol and its uses.
Answer:
Phenol:

1. Phenol is a Carbolic acid of an organic compound.
2. It’s molecular formula C₆H₅OH
3. It is a weak acid.
4. It is a volatile, white crystalline powder.
5. It is a colourless solution but changes into the red in the presence of dust.
6. It irritates when exposed to human skin.

Uses:

1. It’s used industrial.
2. Low concentration of Phenol is used in mouth wash, disinfectant in household cleaners.
3. It is used as a surgical antiseptic since it kills microorganisms.

Question 3.
Tabulate the nutrients present in inorganic fertilizers.
Answer:

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.5 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.5

Question 1.
Find the modulus of the following complex numbers.
(i) \(\frac{2i}{3+4i}\)
Solution:

(ii) \(\frac{2-i}{1+i}+\frac{1-2 i}{1-i}\)
Solution:

Modulus of z = |z| = \(\sqrt{4+4}\)
= √8
= 2√2

(iii) |(1 – i)¹⁰| = (|1 – i|)¹⁰
= \((\sqrt{1+1})^{10}=(\sqrt{2})^{10}=2^{5}=32\)
(iv) |2i(3 – 4i) (4 – 3i)|
= |2i| |3 – 4i| |4 – 3i|
= \(2 \sqrt{9+16} \sqrt{16+9}\)
= 2 × 5 × 5
= 50

Question 2.
For any two complex numbers z₁ and z₂, such that |z₁| = |z₂| = 1 and z₁ z₂ ≠ -1, then show that \(\frac{z_{1}+z_{2}}{1+z_{1} z_{2}}\) is real number.
Solution:
Given |z₁| = |z₂| = 1 and z₁ z₂ ≠ 1
|z₁|² = 1 |z₂|² = 1
z₁ \(\bar{z}_{1}\) = 1 similarly z₂ \(\bar{z}_{2}\) = 1

Since z = \(\bar{z}\), it is a real number.

Question 3.
Which one of the points 10 – 8i, 11 + 6i is closest to 1 + i.
Solution:
A (1 + i), B (10 – 8i), C (11 + 6i)
|AB| = |(10 – 8i) – (1 + i)|
= |10 – 8i – 1 – i|
= |9 – 9i|
= \(\sqrt{81+81}\)
= \(\sqrt{162}\)
= 9(1.414)
= 12.726
CA = |(11 + 6i) – (1 + i)|
= |11 + 6i – 1 – i|
= |10 + 5i|
= \(\sqrt{100+25}\)
= \(\sqrt{125}\)
C (11 + 6i) is closest to the point A (1 + i)

Question 4.
If |z| = 3, show that 7 ≤ |z + 6 – 8i| ≤ 13.
Solution:
given |z| = 3
|z + 6 – 8i| ≤ |z| + |6 – 8i|
= 3 + \(\sqrt{6^2+8^2}\)
= 3 + \(\sqrt{100}\)
= 3 + 10 = 13
∴ |z + 6 – 8i| ≤ 13 ……….. (1)
|z + 6 – 8i| ≥ ||z| – |-6 + 8i||
= |3 – 10|
= |-7| = 7
∴ |z + 6 – 8i| ≥ 7 ………… (2)
from 1 and 2
we get 7 ≤ |z + 6 – 8i| ≤ 13
hence proved.

Question 5.
If |z| = 1, show that 2 ≤ |z² – 3| ≤ 4.
Solution:
|z| = 1 ⇒ |z|² = 1
||z₁| – |z₂|| ≤ |z₁ + z₂| ≤ |z₁| + |z₂|
||z|² – |-3|| ≤ |z² – 3| ≤ |z|² + |-3|
|1 – 3| ≤ |z² – 3| ≤ 1 + 3
2 ≤ |z² – 3| ≤ 4

Question 6.
If |z| = 2 show that the 8 ≤ |z + 6 + 8i| ≤ 12
Solution:
Given |z| = 2
|z + 6 + 8i| = |z| + |6 + 8i|
= 2 + \(\sqrt{6^2+8^2}\)
= 2 + \(\sqrt{100}\)
= 2 + 10
= 12
∴ |z + 6 + 8i| ≤ 12 ……….. (1)
|z + 6 + 8i| ≥ ||z| – |-6 – 8i||
= |2 – 10|
= |-8|
= 8
|z + 6 + 8i| ≥ 8 ………… (2)
From 1 and 2 we get
8 ≤ |z + 6 + 8i| ≤ 12
Hence proved

Question 7.
If z₁ z₂ and z₃ are three complex numbers such that |z₁| = 1, |z₁| = 2, |z₃| = 3 and |z₁ + z₂ + z₃| = 1 show that |9z₁ z₂ + 4z₁ z₃ + z₂ z₃| = 6.
Solution:
|z₁| = 1, |z₁| = 2, |z₃| = 3
|z₁ + z₂ + z₃| = 1
Now |9z₁ z₂ + 4z₁ z₃ + z₂ z₃|

Hence proved.

Question 8.
If the area of the triangle formed by the vertices z, iz, and z + iz is 50 square units, find the value of |z|.
Solution:
The given vertices are z, iz, z + iz ⇒ z, iz are ⊥r to each other.
Area of triangle = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) bh = 50
⇒ \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) |z| |iz| = 50
⇒ \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) |z| |z| = 50
⇒ |z|² = 100
⇒ |z| = 10
Aliter:
Given the area of triangle = 50 sq. unit

x² + y² = 100
|z|² = 100
|z| = 10

Question 9.
Show that the equation z³ + 2 \(\bar {z}\) = 0 has five solutions.
Solution:
Given z³ + 2 \(\bar {z}\) = 0
z³ = -2 \(\bar {z}\)
|z³| = |-2| |\(\bar {z}\)|
|z|³ = 2|z| [∵ |z| = |\(\bar {z}\)|
|z|³ – 2 |z| = 0
|z| [|z|² – 2] = 0
|z| = 0 |z|² = 2
z\(\bar {z}\) = 2
z = \(\frac{2}{\bar {z}}\) = ± √2 [∵ \(\bar {z}\) = \(\frac{-z^3}{2}\) ]
z = \(\frac{2}{(\frac{z^3}{-2})}\)
z⁴ = 4
It has 4 non zero solutions.
∴ Including z = 0 we have 5 solutions.

Question 10.
Find the square roots of
(i) 4 + 3i
Solution:
|4 + 3i| = \(\sqrt {4^2+3^2}\) = \(\sqrt {16+9}\)
\(\sqrt {25}\) = 5
Let \(\sqrt {4+3i}\) = a + ib
squaring on both sides
4 + 3i = (a + ib)²
4 + 3i = (a² – b²) + 2 jab
Equating real and imaginary parts
a² – b² = 4, 2ab = 3
(a² + b²)² = (a² – b²)² + 4a² b²
= (4)² + (3)²
= 16 + 9 = 25
∴ a² + b² = 5
Solving a² – b² = 4 and a² + b² = 5.
we get a² = \(\frac {9}{2}\) , b² = \(\frac {1}{2}\)
a = ±\(\frac {3}{√2}\) and b = ±\(\frac {1}{√2}\)
∴ \(\sqrt {4 + 3i}\) = a + ib
= ±(\(\frac {3}{√2}\) + ±\(\frac {i}{√2}\))
Aliter:
Square root of 4 + 3i
formula method

(ii) -6 + 8i
Solution:
Let \(\sqrt {-6 + 8i}\) = a + ib
Squaring on both sides
-6 + 8i = (a + ib)²
-6 + 8i = a² – b² + 2iab
Equating real and imaginary parts
a² – b² = -6 and 2ab = 8
Now (a² + b²)² = (a² – b²)² + 4a²b²
= (-6)² + (8)²
= 36 + 64 = 100
∴ a + b² = 10
Solving a² – b² = -6 and a² + b² = 10
we get 2a² = 4, b² = 8
a² = 2, b² = ±2√2
a = ±√2
∴ \(\sqrt {-6 + 8i}\) = ±√2 ± i 2√2
= ±(√2 + i 2√2)
Aliter:
square root of -6 + 8i
let a + ib = -6 + 8i
a = -6, b = 8

(iii) -5 – 12i
Solution:
Let \(\sqrt{-5-12 i}\) = a + ib
Squaring on both sides
-5 – 12i = (a+ib)²
-5 – 12i = a² – b² + 2iab
Equating real and imaginary parts
a² – b² = -5, 2ab = -12
(a² + b²)² = (a² – b²)² + 4a²b²
= (-5)² + (-12)² = 169
∴ a² + b² = 13
Solving a²- b² = -5 and a² + b² = 13
we get a² = 4, b² = 9
a = ±2, b = ±3
Since 2ab = -12 < 0, a, b are of opposite signs.
∴ When a = ±2, b = ±3
Now \(\sqrt{-5-12 i}\) = ± (2 – 3i)
Aliter
Square root of -5 – 12i
Let a + ib = -5 – 12i
a = -5, b = -12

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.7 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.7

Question 1.
Write in polar form of the following complex numbers.
(i) 2 + i2 √3
Solution:
Let z + i2√3 = r (cos θ + i sin θ)
equating real and imaginary parts
r cos θ = 2 (+ve)
r sin θ = 2√3 (+ve)
r² cos² θ + r² sin² θ = (2)² + (2√3)²
r² = 4 + 12 = 16
|z| = r = 4
since cos cos θ and sin θ are positive ‘θ’ lies in 1st quadrant.
cos θ = \(\frac{1}{2}\), sin θ = \(\frac{√3}{2}\)
∴ θ = sin θ = \(\frac{π}{3}\) (or) θ = tan^-1 |\(\frac{y}{x}\)|
= tan^-1 |\(\frac{2√3}{2}\)|
= tan^-1 √3 = \(\frac{π}{3}\)
∴ argument = 2kπ + \(\frac{π}{3}\)
∴ Polar form is z = r (cos θ + i sin θ)
2 + 2i√3 = 4 (cos (2kπ + \(\frac{π}{3}\)) + i sin(2kπ +\(\frac{π}{3}\))) k ∈ z

(ii) 3 – i √3
Solution:
Let z = 3 – i √3 = r (cos θ + i sin θ)
equating real and imaginary parts
r cos θ = 3 (+ve)
r sin θ = -√3 (-ve)
r² cos² θ + r² sin² θ = (3)² + (-√3)²
r² = 9 + 3 = 12
|z| = r = 2√3
since cos cos θ positive and sin θ in -ve so lies in IV quadrant.
cos θ = \(\frac{√3}{2}\), sin θ = \(\frac{-1}{2}\), θ = \(\frac{-π}{6}\)
argument = 2kπ – \(\frac{π}{6}\), k ∈ Z
polar from z = r(cos θ + i sin θ)
3 – i√3 = 2√3 (cos (2kπ – \(\frac{π}{6}\)) + i sin(2kπ – \(\frac{π}{6}\))) k ∈ Z

(iii) -2 – i 2 = r (cos θ + i sin θ)
Solution:
Let z = -2 – i2 = r(cos θ + i sin θ)
equating real and imaginary parts
r cos θ = -2
r sin θ = -2
r² cos² θ + r² sin² θ = (-2)² + (-2)²
r² = 4 + 4 = 8
r² = 8
|z| = r = 2√2
cos θ = \(\frac{-2}{2√2}\) = \(\frac{-1}{√2}\), sin θ = \(\frac{-2}{2√2}\) = \(\frac{-1}{√2}\)
since cos θ and sin θ both are in -ve so lies in III quadrant.
argument = 2kπ – 3\(\frac{π}{4}\)
as θ = \(\frac{π}{4}\) – π = –\(\frac{3π}{4}\)
polar from z = r(cos θ + i sin θ)
-2 – i2 = 2√2 (cos (2kπ – \(\frac{3π}{4}\)) + i sin(2kπ – \(\frac{3}{4}\))) k ∈ Z

(iv) \(\frac{i-1}{cos{\frac{π}{3}}+isin{\frac{π}{3}}}\)
Solution:

Question 2.
Find the rectangular form of the complex numbers

Solution:

Solution:

Question 3.
\(\left(x_{1}+i y_{1}\right)\left(x_{2}+i y_{2}\right)\left(x_{3}+i y_{3}\right) \cdots\left(x_{n}+i y_{n}\right)=a+i b\), show that

Solution:
Let (x₁ + iy₁) (x₂ + iy₂) (x₃ + iy₃) …… (x_n + iy_n) = a + ib
Taking modulus
|(x₁ + iy₁) (x₂ + iy₂) (x₃ + iy₃) …… (x_n + iy_n)| = |a + ib|
|x₁ + iy₁| |x₂ + iy₂| |x₃ + iy₃| …… |x_n + iy_n| = |a + ib|
\(\sqrt{x_{1}^{2}+y_{1}^{2}} \sqrt{x_{2}^{2}+y_{2}^{2}} \sqrt{x_{3}^{2}+y_{3}^{2}} \ldots \sqrt{x_{n}^{2}+y_{n}^{2}}\) = \(\sqrt{a^2+b^2}\)
Squaring on both sides
\(\left(x_{1}^{2}+y_{1}^{2}\right)\left(x_{2}^{2}+y_{2}^{2}\right)\left(x_{3}^{2}+y_{3}^{2}\right) \ldots\left(x_{n}^{2}+y_{n}^{2}\right)\) = a² + b²
Hence proved

(ii) \(\sum_{r=1}^{n}\) tan^-1 (\(\frac{y_r}{x_r}\)) = tan^-1 (\(\frac{b}{a}\)) + 2kπ, k ∈ Z
Solution:
Let (x₁ + iy₁) (x₂ + iy₂) (x₃ + iy₃) …… (x_n + iy_n) = a + ib
Taking arguments
arg [(x₁ + iy₁) (x₂ + iy₂) (x₃ + iy₃) …… (x_n + iy_n)] = arg (a + ib)
arg (x₁ + iy₁) + arg(x₂ + iy₂) + arg (x₃ + iy₃) …… + arg(x_n + iy_n) = arg(a + ib)

Question 4.
Given \(\frac{1+z}{1-z}\) = cos 2θ + i sin 2θ, show that To prove that z = i tan θ.
Solution:

Squaring on both sides
(1 + x)² + y² = (1 – x)² + y²
1 + 2x + x² + y² = 1 – 2x + x² +y²
x = 0
∴ z = 0 + iy = iy

∴ y = tan θ
hence z = iy
z = i tan θ

Question 5.
If cos α + cos β + cos γ = sin α + sin β + sin γ = 0. then show that
(i) cos 3α + cos 3β + cos 3γ = 3 cos (α + β + γ) and
(ii) sin 3α + sin 3β + sin 3γ = 3 sin (α + β + γ).
Solution:
Let a = cos α + i sin α = e^iα
b = cos β + i sin β = e^iβ
c = cos γ + i sin γ = e^iγ
a + b + c = (cos α + cos β + cos γ) + i (sin α + sin β + sin γ)
⇒ a + b + c = 0 + i 0
⇒ a + b + c = 0
If a + b + c = 0 then a³ + b³ + c³ = 3abc

(cos 3α + i sin 3α + cos 3β + i sin 3β + cos 3γ + i sin 3γ) = 3 [cos (α + β + γ) + i sin (α + β + γ)]
(cos 3α + cos 3β + cos 3γ) + i (sin 3α + sin 3β + sin 3γ) = 3 cos (α + β + γ) + i 3sin(α + β + γ)
Equating real and Imaginary parts
(i) cos 3α + cos 3β + cos 3γ = 3 cos (α + β + γ)
(ii) sin 3α + sin 3β + sin 3γ = 3 sin (α + β + γ)

Question 6.
If z = x + iy and arg \(\left(\frac{z-i}{z+2}\right)\) = \(\)\frac{π}{4}, then show that x² + y³ + 3x – 3y + 2 = 0.
Solution:

2y – x – 2 = x² + 2x + y² – y
x² + y² + 2x + x – y – 2y + 2 = 0
⇒ x² + y² + 3x – 3y + 2 = 0
Hence proved

Students can download 10th Social Science Economics Chapter 5 Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 5 Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
‘The Detroit of Asia’ is
(a) Tuticorin
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(c) Chennai

Question 2.
Pumpsets and motors are produced mostly in …………….
(a) Salem
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) Dharampuri
Answer:
(b) Coimbatore

Question 3.
Tuticorin is known as:
(a) Gateway of India
(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu
(c) Pump city
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu

Question 4.
……………… are an essential aspect of a nation’s development.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) Railway
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Question 5.
Tiruppur is known for:
(a) Leather tanning
(b) Lock making
(c) Knitwear
(d) Aigo-processing
Answer:
(c) Knitwear

Question 6.
Along with Ambur and Vaniyambadi ………….. is also a centre for leather goods exports.
(a) Chennai
(b) Sivakasi
(c) Coimbatore
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(a) Chennai

Question 7.
IT means
(a) Indian Technology
(b) Information Technology
(c) Institute of Technology
(d) Initiative Technology
Answer:
(b) Information Technology

Question 8.
A successful industrial cluster entirely created by the Tamil Nadu is ………………
(a) Hosur
(b) Dindigul
(c) Kovilpatti
(d) Thirunelveli
Answer:
(a) Hosur

Question 9.
SIPCOT was formed in the year:
(a) 1972
(b) 1976
(c) 1971
(d) 1978
Answer:
(c) 1971

Question 10.
Which is the Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Agency?
(a) SIPCOT
(b) TANSIDCO
(c) TIDCO
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………….. are very important in the modern economic activates of man.
2. ………….. are groups of firms in a defined geographic area that share common market and technologies.
3. Hundred of leather and tannery facilities are located around ………….. District inTamilNadu.
4. ………….. is fondly calls as ‘Little Japan’.
5. Special Economic Zones policy was introduced on in …………..
6. ………….. is an innovator of new ideas and business processes.

Answers:

1. Industrialisation
2. Industrial Clusters
3. Vellore
4. Sivakasi
5. April 2000
6. Entrepreneur

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Entrepreneurship promotes capital formation by mobilising the idle saving of the public.
(ii) They are not provide large scale employment to artisan, technically qualified persons and professionals.
(iii) Entrepreneurs help the country to increase the GDP and per capitals income.
(iv) Entrepreneurs not promote country’s export trade.
(a) (i) and (iv) is correct
(b) (i) only correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) is correct
(d) (i) and (iii) is correct
Answer:
(d) (i) and (iii) is correct

IV. Pick out odd one

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not having leather factories?
(a) Ranipet
(b) Bharmapuri
(c) Ambur
(d) Vaniyambadi
Answer:
(b) Bharmapuri

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not a industrial developing agency?
(a) TIDCO
(b) SIDCO
(c) MEPG
(d) SIPCOT
Answer:
(c) MEPG

V. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

VI. Write Short Answer

Question 1.
Why should a developing economy diversify out of agriculture?
Answer:
As an economy grows and incomes increase, consumers tend to spend a lesser share of their income on products from the agricultural sector. There are limits to the ability of agriculture to absorb labour due to the declining marginal productivity of land. Due to this, there is a need for an economy’s production and employment base to diversity away from agriculture.

Question 2.
Why are wages low in the agricultural sector?
Answer:
Labour productivity cannot increase in the agricultural sector as the marginal productivity of land goes on decreasing. Therefore wages remain low resulting in poverty.

Question 3.
What is meant by an industrial cluster?
Answer:
Industrial clusters are groups of firms in a defined geographic area that share common markets, technologies and skill requirements. An important aspect of clusters is the nature of inter-firm networks and interactions.

Question 4.
What are the routes for cluster formation?
Answer:

1. When artisans settle in one region and slowly spread their art in other regions.
2. When a large firm is established, to take care of its inputs and service requirements a cluster of firms may emerge.
3. Governments initiative to encourage Industrial sector using raw materials from a region.

Question 5.
Mention the 3 areas of policy-making that helped Tamil Nadu become one of the most industrialised states in the country.
Answer:
(a) Tamilnadu Industrial Policy – 2014
(b) Tamilnadu SEZs Policy
(c) Tamilnadu Biotechnology Policy – 2014

Question 6.
Mention any three-industrial development agencies in Tamil Nadu and their role.
Answer:
SIPCOT – State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu.

To promote Industrial growth by setting up Industrial Estates.

TIIC – Tamil Nadu Industrial Investment Cooperation Limited

To provide low – cost financial support for both setting up new firms and also to expand.

TIDCO – Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation.

To promote Industrial growth by setting up Industrial Estate

Question 7.
What are the problems of industrialization currently in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
To begin with, some clusters, especially chemicals, textiles and leather clusters, tend to generate a lot of polluting effluents that affect health. The effluents also pollute water bodies ‘ into which effluents are let into and also adjoining agricultural lands.

Second, employment generation potential has declined because of use of frontier technologies because of the need to compete globally. Quality of employment also has suffered in recent years as most workers are employed only temporarily. This issue too requires urgent attention among policymakers.

Question 8.
What is Meant by Entrepreneur?
Answer:
Entrepreneur is the person one who possess management skills, strong team building abilities and essential leadership qualities to manage a business.

Question 9.
What is Entrepreneurship?
Answer:
Entrepreneurship is a process of an action of an entrepreneur who undertakes to establish his entreprise. It is the ability to create and build something.

VII. Write brief Answer

Question 1.
What are the contributions of industrialization to development?
Answer:

1. Industries contribute by producing inputs such as fertilizers and tractors to agriculture thereby help them to increase productivity.
2. Services like Banking, transport and trade are dependent on the production of Industrial goods.
3. By using modem methods of production Industries contribute to better productivity and hence lower cost of production:
4. Industries helps to absorb the labour force coming out of agriculture.
5. By using modem technology, labour productivity increases, which help workers to get higher wages.
6. Increased income of the people lead to more demand for goods and services.
7. By producing more Industrial products, exports increases, thereby generate more foreign exchange.

Question 2.
Write a note on history of industrialisation in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Industrialisation in the Colonial Period

• The introduction of cotton cultivation in western and southern Tamil Nadu by the colonial government led to the emergence of a large-scale textile sector in these parts, which involved ginning, pressing, spinning and weaving operations.
• Introduction of railways also expanded the market for cotton yam and helped develop the sector.
• There was increase in trade during this period which led to industrial development. The two active ports in the region were Chennai and Tuticorin.
• In Western Tamil Nadu, the emergence of textiles industries also led to demand and starting
  of textile machinery industry in the region.

Post-Independence to early 1990s:

• After independence, several large enterprises were set up by both the central and state governments.
• The Integral Coach Factory in Chennai made railway coaches and the Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) in Tiruchirapalli manufactured boilers and turbines.
• Ashok Motors and Standard Motors together helped form an automobile cluster in the Chennai region.
• The 1970s and 1980s saw the setting up of emergence of power loom weaving clusters in the Coimbatore region as well as expansion of cotton knitwear cluster in Timppur and home furnishings cluster in Kamr.
• The Hosur industrial cluster is a successful case of how such policy efforts to promote industrial estates helped develop industries in a backward region.

Industrialization in Tamil Nadu – Liberalization Phase:

• The final phase of industrialisation is the post-reforms period since the early 1990s.
• Because of trade liberalisation measures, exports of textiles, home furnishings and leather products began to grow rapidly.
• Efforts to attract investments led to entry of leading multinational firms (MNCs) into the state, especially in the automobile sector.
• Chennai region also emerged as a hub for electronics industry with MNCs such as Nokia, Foxconn, Samsung and Flextronics opening plants on the city’s outskirts.
• A significant share of these investments has come up in special economic zones in the districts bordering Chennai.
• The major industries are automobiles, autocomponents, light and heavy engineering, machinery, cotton, etc.
• This diffused process of industrialisation and corresponding urbanisation has paved the way for better rural-urban linkages in Tamil Nadu than in most other states.

Question 3.
What are the important characteristics of successful industrial clusters? .
Answer:
The following are the chief characteristics of a successful cluster.

1. Geographical proximity of Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs)
2. Sectoral specialisation
3. Close inter firm collaboration
4. Inter – firm competition based on innovation
5. A Socio – Cultural Identity which facilitates trust.
6. Multi – skilled workforce
7. Active self – help organisations and
8. Supportive regional and municipal governments.
9. Through Competition, they are forced to become more efficient.

Question 4.
Write about the Textile industry cluster in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Textile Clusters:
Tamil Nadu is home to the largest textiles sector in the country. Because of the development of cotton textile industry since the colonial period, Coimbatore often referred as the “Manchester of South India”. At present, most of the spinning mills have moved to the smaller towns and villages at a radius over 100 to 150 km around the Coimbatore city. Tamil Nadu is the biggest producer of cotton yam in the country.

Palladam and Somanur, small towns near Coimbatore and the villages near these towns, are home to a dynamic powerloom weaving cluster as well. Powerloom is however more widespread with Erode and Salem region too having a large number of power loom units.

Tiruppur is famous for clustering of a large number of firms producing cotton knitwear. It accounts for nearly 80% of the country’s cotton knitwear exports and generates employment in the range of over three lakh people since the late 1980s. It is also a major producer for the domestic market. Because of its success in the global market, it is seen as one of the most dynamic clusters in the Global South. While initially most firms were run by local entrepreneurs, at present, some of the leading garment exporters in India have set up factories here.

Apart from body building, Karur is a major centre of exports of home furnishings like table cloth, curtains, bed covers and towels. Bhavani and Kumrapalayam are again major centres of production of carpets, both for the domestic and the global markets.

Apart from such modem clusters, there are also traditional artisanal clusters such as Madurai and Kanchipuram that are famous for silk and cotton handloom sarees. Even these clusters have witnessed a degree of modernisation with use of powerlooms in several units.

Question 5.
Write in detail about the types of policies adopted by the Tamil Nadu government to industrialise.
Answer:
The type of policies that are adopted by the Tamil Nadu Government to Industrialise are:- Education, Infrastructure, and Industrial promotion.

(i) Education: Industries require skilled human resources. Therefore, labourers are given technical knowledge apart from basic skills to enrich themselves. Many engineering colleges, polytechnics and Industrial training centres are opened in the country.

(ii) Infrastructure: Excellent infrastructure facilities has contributed to the spread of Industrialisation in smaller towns and villages in the state. Rural electrification, transport and especially minor roads that connect rural parts of the State enabled vast Industrialisation.

(iii) Industrial Promotion: Policies to promote specific sectors like automobile, auto components, bio – technology and information and communication sectors have been formulated to promote Industries of the state.

Question 6.
Explain the role of Entrepreneur?
Answer:
Role of an Entrepreneur:
Entrepreneurs play a most important role in the economic growth and development of a country’s economy.

1. They promote development of industries and help to remove regional disparities by industrialising rural and backward areas.
2. They help the country to increase the GDP and Per Capita Income.
3. They contribute towards the development of society by reducing concentration of income and wealth.
4. They promote capital formation by mobilising the idle savings of the citizens and country’s export trade.
5. Entrepreneurs provide large-scale employment to artisans, technically qualified persons and professionals and work in an environment of changing technology and try to maximise profits by innovations.
6. They enable the people to avail better quality goods at lower prices, which results in the improvement of their standard of living.

VIII. Case studies

Question 1.
Choose a cluster in Tamil Nadu based on online research and write a note on it.
Answer:
An example of a cluster in Tamil Nadu is given below. Students can do online research on their own and write details using this as a sample.

Example case study of a pulp and paper industry in Tamil Nadu.

Tamil Nadu Newprint and papers Limited (http:// www.tnpl.co.in/)

The company: TNPL was formed by the Government of India in 1979 as a public limited company under the provisions of the companies Act of 1956. Objective: The primary objective of the company is to produce newsprint and printing and writing paper using bagasse, a sugarcane residue as the primary raw material.

Assistance: The only paper will in India assisted by the World Bank.

Machinery: The state of art machines were built in flexibility for manufacturing both newsprint and printing and writing papers in the same machine.

Capacity: The latest upgraded capacity enhanced to 2,30,000 tpa in April 2003 through upgradation of the paper machines which is considered as the largest production capacity in India at a single location.

Marketing: The products are being marketed throughout the country and also exported to 20 countries around the world.

Location: The factory is situated at Kagithapuram in Kanir district in Tamil Nadu.

IX. Activity and Project

Question 1.
Write a note on a cluster or a firm near your school/home based on your observations.
Answer:
Here is an sample of a cluster of firm observed in an area is given. This is to help students gain a basic idea about how to undertake this activity. Students can select their location, observe and write findings and do this activity.

Name of the Village: Neikkarapatti, Salem

Industrial cluster: Good quality and high production of Jaggery. The area in around almost all the houses, small or big make it a point to involve themselves in the production of Jaggery.

Type: It is one of the prominent Cottage Industry in the area.

Reason: Most of the farmers in the region cultivate sugarcane and own a jaggery making unit.

Labour: It is a manual jaggery making traditional work, unmindful of the challenges.

Process: The whole process takes about five hours with different names locally as Vellam and Mandai Vellam based on the shape of the mould.

X. Life Skills

Question 1.
Teacher and Students discuss about the entrepreneurs and their activities and Write an a essay in the topic of “If you are like a Entrepreneur”.
Answer:
Note: Students should imagine themselves as entrepreneurs and write an essay on the topic. This is sample essay given as a guideline for the students.

(A stationery shop – business)

Entrepreneurs are business owners. If I am a entrepreneur, first of all, I should start my business in the line of my interest and in part with the demand of the locality and their needs. This would help me to earn profit from it.

I prefer do my entrepreneurial task by staring it at a small level with less financial investment (approx. 10,000) from my uncle who is also an entrepreneur who supports and motivates me.

I purchase my products for sale from the whole saler. The items I purchase are not perishable stationery items. It is easy for me to store it in my house itself. I get bulk orders from nearby shops. Sometimes, latest arrivals of designed erasers, pencil sharpeners will be a attractive one.

As an entrepreneur, I am ready to face risk factors, price hike, less demand, poor quality, seasonal changes and so on. But, I enjoy my work as a businessman and earn profit that gives my career a spark to continue in the same line of business.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The conversion of raw materials into usable materials is called as
(a) Entrepreneur
(b) Industry
(c) Exports
(d) Clusters
Answer:
(b) Industry

Question 2.
Wind energy is a form of …………… energy.
(a) Solar
(b) Petrol
(c) Hydel
Answer:
(a) Solar

Question 3.
SMESare:
(a) Small and Medium Enterprises
(b) Small, Medium, Export Services
(c) Small and Medium Export Services
(d) Salem Metal Export Services.
Answer:
(a) Small and Medium Enterprises

Question 4.
TIDCo is another government agency to establish ………………. estates.
(a) Industrial
(b) tea
(c) Real
Answer:
(a) Industrial

Question 5.
The Namakkal -Tiruchengode belt in Western Tamil Nadu is known for its ………………. building industry.
(a) Textile
(b) Truck body
(c) Coach
(d) Steel
Answer:
(b) Truck body

Question 6.
MEPZ is a special Economic zone in …………….
(a) Chennai
(b) Trichy
(c) Tirunelveli
Answer:
(a) Chennai

Question 7.
TANS! was formed in the year:
(a) 1945
(b) 1955
(c) 1965
(d) 1975
Answer:
(c) 1965

Question 8.
………………. is an innovator of new ideas in business.
(a) Agriculturalist
(b) Entrepreneur
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Entrepreneur

Question 9.
There are limits to the ability of agriculture to absorb labour due to the ………………. marginal productivity of land.
(a) Increasing
(b) Decreasing
(c) Steady
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Decreasing

Question 10.
Health care and educational services are diffused across major cities of:
(a) Chennai
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Tiruppur
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 11.
Nanguneri SEZ is situated at:
(a) Tiruvallur
(b) Vayalur
(c) Thirunelveli
(d) Tambaram
Answer:
(c) Thirunelveli

Question 12.
………………. is intended to provide low – cost financial support for both setting up of new units and for expansion of existing units.
(a) TIDCO
(b) TANSI
(c) TIIC
(d) MEPZ
Answer:
(c) TIIC

Question 13.
When Government decide to encourage manufacturing using raw material from a region. It may lead to emergence of:
(a) Industrial clusters
(b) More taxation
(c) Subsidy
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) Industrial clusters

Question 14.
The notion of an “Industrial district” was developed by Prof:
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Marshall
(c) Samuelson
(d) Pigou
Answer:
(b) Marshall

Question 15.
Heavy vechicles factory was set up to manufacture tanks in:
(a) Peramber
(b) Avadi
(c) Tiruchy
(d) Vellore
Answer:
(b) Avadi

Question 16.
Dindigul, Vellore and Amber area are famous for products.
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Leather
(d) Marine
Answer:
(c) Leather

Question 17.
The Avadi Industrial Estate was set up in the year:
(a) 1950
(b) 1960
(c) 1970
(d) 1980
Answer:
(a) 1950

Question 18.
IT (Information Technology) Specific Special Economic Zones are located in ………………. locations in Tamil Nadu.
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 10
Answer:
(c) 8

Question 19.
The agencies that is formed to promote Industrial growth in the state by setting up Industrial estates are:
(a) SIPCOT
(b) TIDCO
(c) TIIC
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 20.
Over the last ten years a few software firms have moved from Chennai to:
(a) Madurai
(b) Bangalore
(c) Coimbatore
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Coimbatore

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Stand up India scheme was launched in India in the year
2. ………….. is the ability to create and built something.
3. The Industries that produce raw materials for other Industries are called ………….. Industries.
4. If the output is consumed by another producer then, it is called as ………….. goods.
5. Geographical proximity of small and medium enterprise is a chief characteristic of a ………….. cluster.
6. ………….. policies have contributed to the decline of the handloom weaving industry.
7. The Salem steel plant was set up in the year …………..
8. Home Furnishings cluster is located at …………..
9. Integral Coach Factory (ICF) makes …………..
10. MNC means …………..
11. There are ………….. clusters in 13 districts of Tamil Nadu.
12. Transportation and poultry clusters are located in …………..
13. ………….. located in Trichy manufactures Boilers and Turbines.
14. The ………….. district is the top exporter of finished leather goods in the country.
15. SIPGOT was formed in the year …………..
16. MEPZ was established in the year to promote foreign direct investment.
17. A policy was set up in the year ………….. for setting up special Economic zone.
18. TANSI was formed in the year …………..
19. The poison control centre is associated with ………….. SEZ.
20. ………….. is the first Industrial cooperation operating in the domain of small enterprises.
21. There are ………….. export processing zones in the country set up by the Central Government.
22. ………….. schemes provides financial help specifically to SC and ST borrower and woman borrower.
23. Start up India scheme was launched to generate ………….. and creating …………..

Answers:

1. 5^th April 2016
2. Entrepreneur
3. Basic goods
4. capital
5. successful
6. Colonial
7. 1973
8. Karur
9. Railway coaches
10. Multi – National Companies
11. 27
12. Namakkal
13. BHEL
14. Vellore
15. 1971
16. 1984
17. 2000
18. 1965
19. Bio – pharmaceuticals
20. TANSI
21. Seven
22. Standup India
23. employment, wealth

IV. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The development of Industries in India can be studied under colonial phase, post independent phase and liberalisation phase.
(ii) Services sector contributes a major share in employment generation.
(iii) Karur is expertised in bus body building and home furnishing.
(iv) Tamil Nadu is the biggest producer of cotton yarn in the country.
(a) (i), (ii) are correct
(b) (iii), (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
(d) all are correct
Answer:
(d) all are correct

Question 2.
(i) Only after the economic reforms in 1990 the state has been the entry of hardware and electronic manufacture centres.
(ii) Bhavani and Kumarapalayan are major centres of production of carpets locally and globally.
(iii) Sivakasi region has now become a major centre for printing and fireworks in the country.
(iv) Dindigul and Erode are major employment generators in Knitwear industry.
(a) (i), (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) only (ii) and (iv) correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct

V. Pick out odd one

Question 1.
Which is not a export processing zone?
(a) MEPZ
(b) SEZ
(c) TIDCO
(d) ELCOT
Answer:
(c) TIDCO

Question 2.
Tamil Nadu’s Textile clusters does not include
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Padalam
(c) Somanur
(d) Dindigul
Answer:
(d) Dindigul

Question 3.
Which of the following is not under IT cluster?
(a) Nokia
(b) Foxconn
(c) Infosys
(d) MEPZ
Answer:
(d) MEPZ

VI. Write Short Answer

Question 1.
What is the industry?
Answer:
“Any human activity which is engaged in the conversion of raw materials into readily usable materials is called an industry”.

Question 2.
Why is small scale sectors considered important?
Answer:
The small scale sector is seen as important for two reasons.

1. To generate more employment than the large – scale sector.
2. The small scale sectors allows for a larger number of entrepreneurs to emerge from less privileged groups.

Question 3.
What is MEPZ?
Answer:
MEPZ is a special Economic Zone in Chennai and it is one of the seven export processing zones in the country set up by the central government. It was established in 1984. The MPEZ head-quarters is located on GST Road in Tambaram, Chennai.

Question 4.
Write the names of MNCs in Chennai region.
Answer:
MNCs such as Nokia, Foxconn, Samsung and Flextronics.

Question 5.
Write about Bus Body Building Industry clusters.
Answer:
The Namakkal-Tiruchengode belt in western Tamil Nadu is known for its truck body building industry. About 150 of the 250 units in this sector are located in this cluster including 12 large-sized body building houses. Karur is another major hub with more than 50 units. Many entrepreneurs were previous employees in a big firm involved in body building who came out . to set up their own units.

Question 6.
List down the names of the agencies that have played an important role in the Industrialisation of a state.
Answer:

1. SIPCOT – State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu.
2. TANSIDCO – Tamil Nadu Small Industries Development Corporation.
3. TIDCO – Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation
4. TIIC – Tamil Nadu Industrial Investment Corporation Limited.
5. TANSI – Tamil Nadu Small Industries Corporation Limited.

Question 7.
What is meant by SEZ?
Answer:
SEZ means Special Economic Zone in the country with a view to improve free environment for exports.

Question 8.
What do you understand by Stand up India Scheme?
Answer:
It is a scheme launched by the Indian Government with the primary objective of generation employment and wealth creation.

Question 9.
What do you understand by standup India scheme?
Answer:
It is a scheme launched by the Indian Government to facilitate bank loans between ₹ 10 lakh and ₹ 1 crore to atleast one scheduled caste (or) scheduled Tribe borrower and one woman borrower per bank branch for setting up a greenfield enterprise.

Question 10.
How do entrepreneurs promote formation?
Answer:
Entrepreneurs promote capital formation by mobilising the idle savings of the citizens and increasing country’s exports.

VII. Write Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write in detail about the types of industries on the basis of its use, raw ‘ material, ownership, and size.
Answer:
Types of Industries:

On the basis of

Uses:
Consumer goods Industries ⇒ output to the final consumer
Capital goods Industries ⇒ output consumed by another producer.
Basic goods Industries ⇒ output as the raw material for other Industries.

Raw material:
Agricultural sector
Industrial sector
Agro based sector
Leather Industries

Ownership:
Public owned ⇒ Government owned
Private owned ⇒ Private owned Co-operative owned

Size:
Large scale Industries
Small scale Industries
Medium scale Industries
Micro (or) tiny

Question 2.
Name some industrial development agencies and explain them.
Answer:
The following are some agencies that have played a key role in industrialization in the state. SIPCOT: (State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu), 1971 It was formed in the year 1971 to promote industrial growth in the state by setting up industrial estates.

TANSIDCO: (Tamil Nadu Small Industries Development corporation), 1970
TANSIDCO is a state-agency of the state of TN established in the year 1970 to promote small- scale industries in the state. It gives subsidies and provide technical assistance for new firms in the small scale sector.

TIDCO (Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation), 1965:
TIDCO is another government agency to promote industries in the state and to establish industrial estates.

TIIC (Tamil Nadu Industrial Investment Corporation Ltd.), 1949:
TIIC is intended to provide low-cost financial support for both setting up new units and also for expansion of existing units. Though it is meant to meet the requirements of all types of firms, 90% of support goes to micro, small and medium enterprises.

TANSI (Tamil Nadu Small Industries Corporation Ltd.), 1965:
TANSI was formed in 1965 to take over the small scale-units that were set up and run by the Department of Industries and Commerce. It is supposed to be the first industrial corporation operating in the domain for small enterprises.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.4 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.4

Question 1.
Write the following in the rectangular form:
(i) \(\overline { (5+9i)+(2-4i) } \)
Solution:
\(\overline { (5+9i)+(2-4i) } \)
= \(\overline {(5+9i)} \) + \(\overline {(2-4i)} \)
= 5 – 9i + 2 + 4i
= 7 – 5i

(ii) \(\frac {10-5i}{6+2i} \)
Solution:

(iii) \(\overline {3i} + \frac{2}{2-i}\)
Solution:

Question 2.
If z = x + iy, find the following in rectangular form.
(i) Re(\(\frac {1}{z} \))
Answer:

(ii) Re(i\(\bar{z}\)) = Re[i(\(\overline{x+i y}\))]
= Re(ix + y)
= y
(iii) Im(3z + 4\(\bar{z}\) – 4i)
= Im (3(x + iy) + 4(x – iy) – 4i)
= Im (3x + 3iy + 4x – 4iy – 4i)
= Im (3x + 4 + i (3y – 4y – 4)
= Im (3x + 4x + i(-y – 4))
= Im [7x + i(-y – 4)]
= -y – 4
= -(y + 4)

Question 3.
If z₁ = 2 – i and z₂ = -4 + 3i, find the inverse of z₁, z₂ and \(\frac {z_1}{z_2} \)
Solution:
z₁ = 2 – i, z₂ = -4 + 3i
z₁ z₂ = (2 – i) (-4 + 3i)
= -8 + 3 + 4i + 6i
= -5 + 10i

Question 4.
The complex numbers u, v, and w are related by \(\frac {1}{u}\) = \(\frac {1}{v}\) + \(\frac {1}{w}\). If v = 3 – 4i and w = 4 + 3i, find u in rectangular form.
Solution:
v = 3 – 4i, w = 4 + 3i

Question 5.
Prove the following properties:
(i) z is real if and only if z = \(\overline {z}\)
Solution:
z is real iff z = \(\bar{z}\)
Let z = x + iy
z = \(\bar{z}\)
⇒ x + iy = x – iy
⇒ 2iy = 0
⇒ y = 0
⇒ z is real.
z is real iff z = \(\bar{z}\)

(ii) Re(z) = \(\frac{z+\bar{z}}{2}\) and Im(z) = \(\frac{z-\bar{z}}{2i}\)
Solution:
let z = x + iy
\(\overline {z}\) = x – iy

Hence proved

Question 6.
Find the least value of the positive integer n for which (√3 + i)ⁿ (i) real, (ii) purely imaginary.
Solution:
Given (√3 + i)ⁿ
= (√3)² + 2i √3 + (i)²
= 3 + 2i √3 – 1
= 2 + 2i √3
= 2(1 + i√3)
put n = 3 or 4 or 5
then real part is not possible

which is purely real ∴ n = 6

(ii) (√3 + i)ⁿ

which is purely imaginary
∴ n = 3

Question 7.
Show that
(i) (2 + i√3)¹⁰ – (2 – i√3)¹⁰ is purely imaginary.
Solution:
Let z = (2 + i√3)¹⁰ – (2 – i√3)¹⁰
Let Z

= (2 – i√3)¹⁰ – (2 + i√3)¹⁰
= -[(z + i√3)¹⁰ – (2 – i√3)¹⁰]
= -z
(2 + i√3)¹⁰ – (2 – i√3)¹⁰ is purely imaginary

(ii) \(\left(\frac{19-7 i}{9+i}\right)^{12}\) + \(\left(\frac{20-5 i}{7-6 i}\right)^{12}\) is real
Solution:

∴ z is real.

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 6 Hardware and Software Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 6 Hardware and Software

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Hardware and Software Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
Find out the part that is not found in the CPU?
a. MotherBoard
b. SMPS
c. RAM
d. Mouse
Answer:
d. Mouse

Question 2.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Free and Open source
(b) Free and Traditional software
(c) passive and Open source
(d) Passive and Traditional source
Answer:
(a) Free and Open source

Question 3.
LINUX is a
a. Paid Software
b. Licensed Software
c. Free and Proprietary software
d. Free and Open-source software
Answer:
d. Free and Open-source software

Question 4.
Find out Paid and Proprietary software from the given list
(a) Windows
(b) MAC OS
(c) Adobe Photoshop
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 5.
……….. is an Operating System
a. Android
b. Chrome
c. Internet
d. Pendrive
Answer:
a. Android

II. Match the following

Answer:
1. – b
2. – e
3. – d
4. – c
5. – a

III. Short answer:

Question 1.
What are Hardware and Software?
Answer:
Hardware:

1. Hardware is the parts of the computer which we can touch and feel.
2. Hardware includes input and output devices, Cabinet, Hard disk, Mother Board, SMPS, CPU, RAM, CD Drive, and Graphics card.

Software :

1. Software is programmed and coded application to process the input information.
2. The software processes the data by converting the input information into coding or programmed language.
3. Touching and feeling is not possible. But, we can see the functions of the software in the form of output.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Operating System? How does it work?
Answer:

1. System software (operating system is software that makes the hardware devices process the data inputted by the user and to display the result on the output devices like a monitor. Without the operating system, the computer cannot function on its own. Popular OS are Linux, Windows, Mac, Android, etc.

Question 3.
What is Free and Open Source Software? Give any two examples?
Answer:

1. Free and open software is available free of cost and can be shared with many end-users.
2. Free software is editable and customizable by the user and this leads to the update or development of new software.
3. Examples: 1. Linux, 2. Geogebra.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Hardware and Software Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
Email existed before the
(a) Google
(b) Chrome
(c) World Wide Web
(d) Whatsapp
Answer:
(c) World Wide Web

Question 2.
A _____ device helps to enter input information.
(a) Hardware
(b) Software
(c) Monitor
(d) Modem
Answer:
(a) Hardware

Question 3.
Completes one or more than two works of the end-user?
(a) System software
(b) Operating system
(c) Free software
(d) Application software
Answer:
(d) Application software

Question 4.
The _____ can be installed in the hard disk for the usage on a particular computer.
(a) Opening system
(b) Translator
(c) Application program
(d) Image editor
Answer:
(c) Application Program

Question 5.
___________ is an operating system
(a) Linux
(b) Chrome
(c) Google
(d) Pen drive
Answer:
(a) Linux

II. Match the following:

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – e
5. – b

III. Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are the types of software?
Answer:
Software is divided into two types based on the process. They are:

1. System Software (Operating System).
2. Application software.

Question 2.
What is Application software?
Answer:
It is a program or a group of programs designed for the benefit of end-user to work on computers. The application programs can be installed in the hard disk for the usage on a particular computer. This type of application program completes one or more than two works of the end-user.

Question 3.
Give some examples of Application Software.
Answer:
The following are the examples of the application program: Video player, Audio player, Word processing software, Drawing tools, Editing software, etc.

Students can download 10th Social Science Economics Chapter 4 Government and Taxes Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Government and Taxes

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Government and Taxes Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The three levels of governments in India are:
(a) Union, State and local
(b) Central, State and village
(c) Union, Municipality and Panchayat
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Union, State and local

Question 2.
In India, taxes are including ……………..
(a) Direct taxes
(b) Indirect taxes
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 3.
Which is the role of government and development policies?
(a) Defence
(b) Foreign policy
(c) Regulate the economy
(d) all of above
Answer:
(d) all of above

Question 4.
The most common and important tax levied on an individual in India is ……………..
(a) Service tax
(b) Excise duty
(c) Income tax
(d) Central sales tax
Answer:
(c) Income tax

Question 5.
Under which tax one nation, one uniform tax is ensured:
(a) Value added tax (VAT)
(b) Income tax
(c) Goods and service tax
(d) Sales tax
Answer:
(c) Goods and service tax

Question 6.
Income tax was introduced in india for the first time in the year ……………
(a) 1860
(b) 1870
(c) 1880
(d) 1850
Answer:
(a) 1860

Question 7.
…………………….. tax is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership.
(a) Income tax
(b) Wealth tax
(c) Corporate tax
(d) Excise duty
Answer:
(b) Wealth tax

Question 8.
What are identified as causes of black money?
(a) Shortage of goods
(b) High tax rate
(c) Smuggling
(d) All of above
Answer:
(d) All of above

Question 9.
Tax evasion is the illegal evasion of taxes by:
(a) Individuals
(b) Corporations
(c) Trusts
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 10.
Payments are ………….
(a) Fees and fines
(b) Penalties and forfeitures
(c) None of the above
(d) a and b

II. Fill in the blanks

1. …………………. is levied by Government for the development of the state’s economy.
2. The origin of the word ‘tax’ is from the word ………………….
3. The burden of the …………………. tax cannot be shifted to others.
4. tax is levied on companies that exist as separate entities from their shareholders.
5. The Goods and Service Tax act came into effect on ………………….
6. The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called ………………….

Answers:

1. Tax
2. taxation
3. direct
4. Corporate tax
5. 1^st July 2017
6. Black Money

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Which of the following statement is correct about GST?
(i) GST is the ‘one point tax’.
(ii) This aims to replace all direct taxes levied on goods and services by the Central and State Governments.
(iii) It will be implemented from 1 July 2017 throughout the country.
(iv) It will unified the tax structure in India.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(d) All are correct

Question 2.
Choose the incorrect statements.
(i) Shortage of goods, whether natural or artificial, is the root cause of black money.
(ii) Industrial sector has been the major contributor to black money.
(iii) Smuggling is one of the major sources of black money.
(iv) When the tax rate is low, more black money is generated.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (iv)

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
Define tax.
Answer:
Tax is levied by the government for the development of the state’s economy. The revenue of the government depends on direct and indirect taxes.

Question 2.
Why we pay tax to the government?
Answer:
We pay tax to the Government because the country have to carryout many functions like building infrastructure like transportation, sanitation, public , safety, education, healthcare, military, public works etc.,

Question 3.
Write the canons of tax system?
Answer:
Every type of tax has some advantages and some disadvantages. So we have a tax system, that is, a collection of variety of taxes. All countries use a variety of taxes. There are some characteristics of tax system that economists think should be followed while designing a tax system. These characteristics are called as canons of taxation.

Question 4.
What are the types of tax? Give examples.
Answer:
Direct taxes – Eg: Income tax, wealth tax and corporation tax.
Indirect taxes – Eg: Stamp duty, Entertainment tax and Excise duty, Goods and services tax.

Question 5.
Write short note on Goods and Service Tax.
Answer:
Goods and Service Tax is defined as the tax levied when a consumer buys a good or service. That aims to replace all indirect taxes levied on goods and services by the Central and state governments. GST would eliminative the cascading effect of taxes on the production and distribution of goods and services. It is also a “one-point tax” unlike value-added tax (VAT), which was a multipoint tax.

Question 6.
What is progressive tax?
Answer:
Progressive tax is the tax in which the rate of taxation increases as the tax base increases. When income increases, the tax rate also increases. This is known as a progressive tax.

Question 7.
What is meant by black money?
Answer:
Black money is funds earned on the black market on which income and other taxes have not been paid. The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called black money.

Question 8.
What is tax evasion?
Answer:
The illegal non – payment of taxes is generally called as tax evasion, either by individuals corporations and trusts.

Question 9.
Write some causes of tax evasion.
Answer:
Tax evasion resulting in black money prevents the resource mobilisation efforts of the Union government. Shortage of funds distorts the implementation of developmental plans and forces the government to resort to deficit financing in case public expenditure is inelastic.

Tax evasion interferes with the declared economic policies of the government by distorting saving and investment patterns and availability of resources for various sectors of the economy.

Question 10.
What is the difference between tax and payments?
Answer:
Tax is a compulsory payment whereas payment is voluntary. Payment for getting any service gives direct benefits whereas payments for tax will not give any direct benefit.

VI. Brief Answer

Question 1.
Briefly explain the role of government in development policies.
Answer:
In India, there are three levels of Governments. They are Union Government, State Government and Local Government. They carryout functions for the benefit of people and society. The role of Government can be studied under the following heads.

(i) Defence: To create and maintain defence forces in the country as an essential security function to protect our country from enemies. (Army, Navy and Air Force)

(ii) Foreign policy: India is committed to world peace. We maintain friendly economic relationship to all the countries of the world.

(iii) Conduct of periodic elections: India is a democratic country. We elect our representatives to parliament and State Assemblies.

(iv) Law and order: To settle disputes, the Union Government consists of strong judicial system with court at the National, State and Lower levels. The State Governments takes responsibility to maintain law and order with responsibility from police department.

(v) Public administration and provision of public goods: The public administration is done by the Government with the help of departments for revenue, health, education, rural development etc. Also, it provides public goods like rural roads, drainage, drinking water etc.

(vi) Redistribution of Income and Abolision of poverty: The Government spends money in such a way that the poorer are given basic necessities of life like food, clothing, shelter, education, health care, etc. Thereby the redistribution of income should eradicate poverty in the country.

(vii) Regulate the Economy: The Central Government with the help of the Reserve Bank of India, controls supply of money in the economy and the Interest rate, inflation and foreign exchange. The various agencies like securities Exchange Board of India and competition commission if India are also a tool for the Government to control the economy.

Question 2.
Explain some direct and indirect taxes.
Answer:
Types of Taxes:
Direct Taxes: A tax imposed on an individual or organisation, which is paid directly, is a direct tax. The burden of a direct tax cannot be shifted to others. J.S. Mill defines a direct tax as “one which is demanded from the very persons who it is intended or desired should pay it.” Some direct taxes are income tax, wealth tax and corporation tax.

Income tax: Income tax is the most common and most important tax levied on an individual in India. It is charged directly based on the income of a person. The rate at which it is charged varies, depending on the level of income.

Corporate tax: This tax is levied on companies that exist as separate entities fronl their shareholders. It is charged on royalties, interest gains from sale of capital assets located in India and fees for a technical services and dividends. Foreign companies are taxed on income that arises or is deemed to arise in India.

Wealth tax: Wealth tax is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership. The same property will be taxed every year on its current market value. The tax is levied on the individuals and companies alike.

Indirect Taxes: If the burden of the tax can be shifted to others, it is an indirect tax. The impact is on one person while the incidence is on the another person. Therefore, in the case of indirect taxes, the tax payer is not the tax bearer. Some indirect taxes are stamp duty, entertainment tax, excise duty and goods and service tax (GST).

Stamp duty: Stamp duty is a tax that is paid on official documents like marriage registration or documents related to a property and in some contractual agreements.

Entertainment tax: Entertainment tax is a duty that is charged by the government on any source of entertainment provided. This tax can be charged on movie tickets, tickets to amusement parks, exhibitions and even sports events.

Excise duty: An excise tax is any duty on manufactured goods levied at the movement of manufacture, rather than at sale. Excise is typically imposed in addition to an indirect tax such as a sales tax.

Question 3.
Write the structure of GST.
Answer:
Structure of GST
SGST (State Goods and Services Tax):
Levied Intra-state (or) within the state

Eg:

1. VAT / sales tax, purchase tax
2. Entertainment tax, luxury tax
3. Lottery tax
4. State surcharges and cesses.

Payable to state Government.

CGST (Central Goods and Service Tax):
Levied Intra state (or) within the state.

Eg:

1. Central Excise Duty, services tax
2. Customs duty, surcharges
3. Education and sec. Hr. sec. cess.

Payable to Central Government.

IGST (Integrated Goods and Services Tax)

Levied Inter State (or) between States.
Payable to Central Government.
Four major GST rates are
5%, 12%, 18%, 28%

Question 4.
What is black money? Write the causes of black money.
Answer:
Black Money
Black money is funds earned on the black market on which income and other taxes have not been paid. The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called black money.
Causes of Black Money:
Shortage of goods: Shortage of goods, whether natural or artificial, is the root cause of black money. Controls are often introduced to check black money.

Licensing proceeding: It is firmly believed that the system of controls permits, quotes and licences are associated with maldistribution of commodities in short supply, which results in the generation of black money.

Contribution of the industrial sector: Industrial sector has been the major contributor to black money. For example, the Controller of Public Limited Companies tries to buy commodities at low prices and get them billed at high amounts and pockets the difference personally.

Smuggling: Smuggling is one of the major sources of black money. When India had rigid system of exchange controls, precious metals like gold and silver, textiles and electronics goods were levied a heavy excise duty. Bringing these goods by evading the authorities is smuggling.

Tax structure: When the tax rate is high, more black money is generated.

Question 5.
Explain the role of taxation in economic development.
Answer:
Resources Mobilisation:

1. The Government is able to mobilise resources and earn revenue from tax.
2. They utilise this revenue for the welfare of the people.

Reduction in Inequalities of Income:

1. Taxation follows the principal of equity.
2. When the nature of taxes are progressive that is when income increases, the tax rate also increases. .
3. So, poor will not be taxed much when their income is less.

Social welfare: Higher taxes are levied on undesirable products like alcoholic products thereby promoting social welfare.

Foreign Exchange: Taxation encourages exports and restricts imports. When there is no tax on export items, country earn more foreign exchange. Regional development: Generally, when industries are set up in backward regions, to motivate such business firms, tax incentives (or) tax hoildays are given to encourage development.

Control of Inflation: Through Taxation Government can control inflation of reducing the tax on the commodities.

VII. Activity and Projects

Question 1.
Collect information about the local taxes (water, electricity and house tax etc).
Water Tax: (with respect to the city Chennai)
Answer:

1. The rate of water tax is fixed at the 1.5% of the assessed annual value.
2. The administration is related to water tax in the city of Chennai is vested with (CMWS and SB) Chennai Metro Water Supply and Sewage Board.
3. Water tax is levied on private individuals and businesses on tap water.
4. Payment for water tax can be done online receipts will be generated within 24 hours of payment.
5. The time line of payment will be specified in the demand notice.
6. Failing to make the payment even after demanding legal proceedings added with fine and other charges are made.

Electricity Tax:

1. Electricity tax is an excise duty that is charged on the supplies of electricity made on or after 1st October 2008.
2. The tax is charged on the final supply of electricity to the consumer.
3. The liability of payments arises at the time the electricity is supplied.
4. The tax at a rate of 5% of the consumption charges.

House Tax / Property Tax:

1. A property tax or a house tax is a tax on the value of a property like house, office building etc.
2. This tax is levied by the governing authority of the area in.which the property is located.

Question 2.
Students purchase some goods on the shop. The teacher and students discuss those goods, maximum retail price, purchasing price or GST.
Answer:

Question 3.
Students are asked to search a Income Tax website and know the Income Tax Slab for current year.
Answer:
Website: www.apnaplan.com
New Income Tax Slabs and rates for financial year 2019-20

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Government mobilises its …………………. resources by levying taxes.
(a) financial
(b) physical
(c) material
(d) all the above
Answer:
(a) financial

Question 2.
……………. tax is levied on companies that exist as seperate entities from their shareholders.
(a) direct
(b) Income
(c) Corporate
Answer:
(c) Corporate

Question 3.
Tax system should be designed in such a way that the people automatically pay more tax revenue with increase in income :
(a) Canon of equity
(b) Canon of elasticity
(c) Canon of certainty
(d) Canon of Economy
Answer:
(b) Canon of elasticity

Question 4.
In India almost all the direct taxes are collected by the ……………..
(a) Union Government
(b) State Government
(c) local bodies
Answer:
(a) Union Government

Question 5.
Energy, water and waste management systems are common public :
(a) utilities
(b) properties
(c) systems
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 6.
……………… has been the major contributor to black money.
(a) Agriculture sector
(b) Industrial sector
(c) Tax sectors
Answer:
(b) Industrial sector

Question 7.
An …………………. tax is a duty on manufactured goods levied at the movement of manufacture.
(a) Sales
(b) Excise
(c) Stamp duty
(d) Entertainment
Answer:
(b) Excise

Question 8.
The major Indirect taxes in India are …………………. and GST.
(a) Customs duty
(b) Sales tax
(c) Excise duty
(d) Stamp duty
Answer:
(a) Customs duty

Question 9.
The structure of GST in India consists of …………………. forms.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 10.
Sales tax is an example of …………………. taxation.
(a) Progressive
(b) Proportional
(c) Regressive
(d) Degressive
Answer:
(c) Regressive

II. Fill in the blanks

1. India is committed to …………………..
2. The origin of the word tax is from taxation which means …………………..
3. The symbol PIB means …………………..
4. Goods and services tax is one of the …………………..
5. ………………….. was the first country to implement GST.
6. ………………….. was a multi-point tax.
7. France introduced GST in the year …………………..
8. Indian tax system adheres to Canon of ………………….. more than anything else.
9. The ticket to amusement park is an example for ………………….. tax.
10. SIT means …………………..
11. ………………….. is the payment for getting any service.
12. Taxation follows the principal of …………………..

Answer:

1. World peace
2. Estimate
3. Press Information Bureau
4. Indirect taxes
5. France
6. VAT
7. 1954
8. Certainty
9. Entertainment
10. Special Investigation Team
11. Fee
12. equity

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Black money refers to the unaccounted money.
(ii) Taxation should be used as an instrument for controlling inflation.
(iii) Tax payer does not expect any direct benefit from direct taxes.
(iv) Unreporting income is a form of tax evasion.
(a) (i), (ii) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
(d) All are correct.
Answer:
(d) All are correct.

Question 2.
(i) Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act is a recent legislation to curb black money in India.
(ii) Tax evasion is the illegal way of evading taxes by individuals only.
(iii) Overstating deductions is a form of generating black money.
(iv) Tax evasion penalties can be harsh depending on the severity of the crime.
(a) (i), (ii) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iv) are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Tax evasion undermines the equity attribute of the tax system.
(ii) Each Canons of taxation has its own unique characteristics.
(iii) GST is a form of direct tax.
(iv) GST came into force from 8th Nov – 2018.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) are correct
(c) (ii), (iv) are correct
(d) only (iv) is correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) are correct

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
Write a note on Law and Order:
Answer:
Both the Union and state governments enact numerous laws to protect our rights, properties and to regulate our economy and society. To settle disputes, the Union government has a vibrant judicial system consisting of courts at the national state and lower levels and the state government take the responsibility for administrating the police force in respective states.

Question 2.
What are the types of taxes?
Answer:
Taxes are of two types

1. Direct taxes
2. Indirect taxes

Direct taxes are levied on the income of the persons and the indirect taxes are levied on goods and services.

Question 3.
What is wealth tax?
Answer:
It is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership. The same property will be taxed every year on its current market value. The tax is levied on the individuals and companies alike.

Question 4.
What are the forms of tax evasion?
Answer:
The tax evasion activities include:

1. Under reporting income
2. Inflating deductions (or) expenses
3. Hiding money
4. Hiding interest in off-shore accounts
5. Dishonest tax reporting
6. Overstating deductions.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Excise duty.
Answer:
An excise tax is any duty on manufactured goods levied at the movements of manufacture, rather than at sale. Excise is typically imposed in addition to an indirect tax such as a sales tax.

Question 6.
State the reason”ln the case of Indirect taxes, the taxpayer is not the tax bearer why?
Answer:
In the case of Indirect taxes, the tax can be shifted to the others. That is the impact is on one person while the incidence is on the other person. Therefore, in the case of indirect taxes, the tax payer is not the tax bearer.

Question 7.
What is the main purpose of taxation?
Answer:
The main purpose of taxation is to accumulate funds for the functioning of the Government.

Question 8.
How are taxes levied in India?
Answer:
Taxes is levied in three ways

1. Progressive taxation
2. Proportionate taxation
3. Regressive taxation

Question 9.
Which Canon of tax system does Indian tax system adhere to?
Answer:
Indian tax system adheres to Canon of Certainty Government of India announce in advance the tax system so that every tax payer is able to calculate how much tax they have to pay.

Question 10.
When was the system of income tax introduced in India? and why?
Answer:
Income tax was introduced for the first time in India by Sir James Wilson in 1860 to meet the losses for the Government because of the sepoy mutiny of 1857.

Question 11.
What is meant by canon of equity?
Answer:
The canon of equity states that the rich should pay more tax revenue to the Government than the poor, thereby we can eliminate economic differences between them.

Question 12.
What is canon of certainty?
Answer:
The canon of certainty states that the Government should announce the tax system in advance and should not change it frequently.

Question 13.
What is canon of convenience?
Answer:
Tax should be collected from a person at the time he gets enough money to pay the tax. This is called canon of convenience.

Question 14.
What is canon of Economy?
Answer:
As tax payers, people may incur cost to process their accounts, In the same way, the Government also pay salary to its taxmen to run institution. The expenditure on all this should be economised or minimised.

Question 15.
What is canon of productivity?
Answer:
When the Government levies tax that can fetch more tax revenue to them then, it is called canon of productivity.

Question 16.
What is canon of Elasticity?
Answer:
The tax system should be designed in such a way that people automatically pay more tax revenue if their income grow. This is called canon of elasticity.

VI. Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write about the different canons of taxation.
Answer:
(i) Canon of Equity:
Since tax is a compulsory payment, all economists agree that equity is the cardinal principle in designing the tax system. The equity principal says that the rich should pay more tax revenue to government than the poor, because rich has more ability than the poor to pay the tax.

(ii) Canon of certainty:
Government should announce in advance the tax system so that every tax payer will be able to calculate how much tax amount one may have to pay during a year to the government.

(iii) Canons of Economy and Convenience:
These two canons are related. As tax payers we incur a cost to process our accounts and pay the tax, for example, salary paid to accountants and auditors.

Similarly government also pays salary to its taxmen and run huge institutions. If the tax is simple, then the cost of collecting taxes (tax payer cost + tax collector cost) will be very low.

Further, tax should be collected from a person at the time he gets enough money to pay the ‘ tax. This is called canon of convenience. A convenient tax reduces the cost of collecting tax.

(iv) Canons of Productivity and Elasticity:
Government should choose the taxes that can get enough tax revenue to it. Tax is paid by the people out their incomes. Therefore the tax system should be designed in such a way that the people automatically pay more tax revenue if their incomes grow. This is called canon of elasticity.

Question 2.
What are the penalties for a tax evader?
Answer:

1. If a person evade tax, he may be imprisoned upto to five years and had to pay a huge amount as fine.
2. The tax evader may also be ordered to pay for the costs of prosecution.
3. Other tax evasion penalties include community service, probation and restitution depending on the circumstances of the case.
4. If the crime of tax evader is very severe, the penalty can be harsh also.

Question 3.
What are the main differences between tax and other payments.
Answer:
Tax:

1. It is a compulsory payment to the Government.
2. Tax payer cannot expect direct benefit after paying taxes.
3. Tax payer has to pay the tax once it is imposed. Otherwise he/she will be penalised.
4. The purpose of levying tax is general. Money is used for the welfare of the people.
5. Eg: Income tax, gift box, wealth tax etc.,

Payments:

1. It is voluntary payment for getting any service.
2. Once payment is done, the person can expert direct benefit from it.
3. Payment need not be paid if the service is not necessary for a person.
4. The purpose of making payments is to enjoy certain special benefits.
5. Eg: Driving license, stamp fee, fee for Government Registration etc.,

Question 4.
What are the recent legislative measures to curb black money in India.
Answer:

1. SIT – Special Investigation Team on black money under Chairman and (Vice – Chairman of two former judges of the Supreme Court.)
2. The black money (undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of,tax Act – 2015.
3. MAG – Constitution of Multi Agency Group.
4. DTAAS – Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement.
5. FATCA – Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act.
6. Money Laundering Act.
7. Enactment of the Benami Transaction Amendment Act.
8. Launching of Operation clean money.
9. Lokpal and Lokayukta Act.
10. The Real Estate Regulation and Development Act of 2016.

Question 5.
How are taxes leevied in India.
Answer:
Taxes is levied by the Government progressively, proportionately as well as Regressively.

Progressive Tax: Progressive Tax rate is one in which the rate of taxation increase as the tax base increases. When income increases, the tax rate also increases. This is known as a progressive tax.

Proportional Tax: Tax levied on goods and services in fixed portion is known as proportionate taxes. Tax amount varies in the same proportion to that of Income.

Regressive Tax: It implies that higher the rate of tax, lower the income groups than in the case of higher income groups.

That is, tax is levied uniformly at a flat percentage regardless who the purchaser or owner Eg: Sales Tax, Property Tax.

Question 6.
As per the Interim budget for the financial year 2019 – 20, State the areas from where money / rupee is earned and spend hy Government of India (GOI).
Answer:
Earning money through:

1. Income Tax, Corporation tax
2. Customs
3. Union excise duties
4. GST
5. Borrowing and other liabilities
6. Non – dept capital assets
7. Non – Tax Revenues

Money goes to:

1. Interest payments
2. Central sector schemes
3. Centrally sponsored scheme
4. Pension and other expenditure
5. State share of duties and taxes
6. Defence
7. Subsidies
8. Finance commission and
9. Other transfers.