Category: Class 6

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 3 Civics Chapter 2 Local Bodies: Rural and Urban Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Local Bodies: Rural and Urban

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Local Bodies: Rural and Urban Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
……………… is set up with several village panchayats
(a) Panchayat Union
(b) District Panchayat
(c) Taluk
(d) Revenue village
Answer:
(a) Panchayat Union

Question 2.
_______ is National panchayat Raj day
a) January 24
(b) July 24
(c) November 24
(d) April 24
Answer:
(d) April 24

Question 3.
The oldest urban local body in India is ………………
(a) Delhi
(b) Chennai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(b) Chennai

Question 4.
_________ District has the highest number of Panchayat Unions.
(a) Vellore
(b) Thiruvallore
(c) Villupuram
(d) Kanchipuram
Answer:
(c) Villupuram

Question 5.
The head of a corporation is called a ………………
(a) Mayor
(b) Commissioner
(c) Chair Person
(d) President
Answer:
(a) Mayor

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………… is the first state in India to introduce town Panchayat.
2. The Panchayat Raj Act was enacted in the year ………………
3. The tenure of the local body representative is ……………… years.
4. ……………… is the first municipality in Tamil Nadu.

Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu
2. 1992
3. 5
4. Walajahphet Municipality

III. Match the following Answer

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – a
4. – b

IV. Answer the following

Question 1.
Is there any corporation in your district? Name it.
Answer:
Yes, Tirunelveli Corporation.

Question 2.
What is the need for local bodies?
Answer:
In order to fulfill the requirements of the people and to involve them directly in governance, there is a need for an effective system of local bodies.

Question 3.
What are the divisions of a rural local body?
Answer:
The rural bodies are categorized into village panchayats, Panchayat Unions, and District panchayats.

Question 4.
What are the divisions of an Urban local body?
Answer:
The Urban local bodies are Categorized into City Municipal Corporations, Municipalities and Town Panchayats.

Question 5.
Who are the representatives elected in a Village Panchayat?
Answer:
The Elected Representatives in a Village Panchayat

1. Panchayat president
2. Ward members
3. Councillor
4. District Panchayat Ward Councillor

Question 6.
List out a few functions of corporations.
Answer:

1. Drinking-Water Supply
2. Street Light
3. Maintenance of Clean Environment
4. Primary Health facilities
5. Corporation Schools
6. Birth and Death registration etc.

Question 7.
List out a few means of revenue of village Panchayats.
Answer:

1. House tax
2. Professional tax
3. Tax on shops
4. Water charges
5. Specific fees for property tax Funds from Central and State Governments etc.

Question 8.
When are Grama Sabha meetings convened? What are the special on those days?
Answer:

1. The Grama Sabha meetings are Convened on January 26, May 1, August 15, and October 2.
2. These days are celebrated as National festival days every year.

Question 9.
What are the special features of the Panchayat Raj system?
Answer:

1. Special features of Panchayat Raj
2. Grama Sabha
3. Three-tier local body governance
4. Reservations
5. Panchayat Elections
6. Tenure
7. Finance Commission
8. Account and Audit etc.

Question 10.
What is the importance of Grama Sabha?
Answer:

1. Grama Sabha is essential for the effective functioning of Village Panchayat.
2. It enhances public participation in the planning and implementation of schemes for social benefit.

V. HOTS

Question 1.
Local bodies play an important role in the development of villages and cities. How?
Answer:

1. India is a vast nation. It is very difficult for a single government to run the entire Country.
2. Our Constitution has provided for three separate levels of government.
3. Union government
4. State government
5. Local government
6. The Local government takes care of the local administration of cities and villages.
7. The main jobs of these bodies are
8. Keeping an area clean
9. Construction of roads and schools
10. arrangements for water and electricity etc.

VI. Activities

1. Prepare a questionnaire to interview a local body representative.
2. Discuss; If there is a contribution to the improvement of your school by local body representatives.
3. If I were a local body representative, I would
4. Find out the number of local bodies in your district and list them.
   

Question 1.
Prepare …………… representative
1. What is your plan to bring in a good drainage system?
2. When will the bridgework Connecting Maharaja Nagar and Thyagaraja Nagar be completed?
3. How many months it will take to bring street lights in our area?

Question 2.
Discuss: If there representatives:
1. Local body members of our area have Contributed much to the upliftment of our school.
2. They met the VIPS, the Common public, and the old Students to meet out the needs of the school.
3. From the Sponsorship they supplied things like Computer Laboratory equipment and books for the library.

Question 3.
If I were …………… them.
1. I would take steps to eradicate Dengu and all sorts of infectious diseases.
2. I would try to maintain a proper drainage system.
3. I would bring in proper roads and lightings etc.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Local Bodies: Rural and Urban Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks Answer

1. There are ………………. Corporations in Tamil Nadu.
2. The Chennai Corporation was founded in ……………….
3. ………………. District has the most number of municipalities
4. A ………………. Panchayat is between a Village and a city
5. The ………………. Panchayats are the local bodies of Villages.
6. The ………………. and ………………. Districts have the lowest number of Panchayat Unions.
7. The Constituencies are also called……………….

Answer:

1. Twelve
2. 1688
3. Kanchipuram
4. Town
5. Village
6. Nilgris and Perambalur
7. Wards

II. Choose the Correct answer

Question 1.
advocated Panchayat Raj as the foundation of India’s Political System ……………….
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Rajendra Prasad
Answer:
(b) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 2.
A Bio element Officer (BDQ) is the administrative head of a __________
(a) Village Panchayat
(b) District Panchayat
(c) Panchayat Union
(d) Town Panchayat
Answer:
(c) Panchayat Union

Question 3.
In the 2011 Local Bodies election, percent Seats were won by women ……………….
(a) 38
(b) 28
(c) 48
Answer:
(a) 38

Question 4.
Discretionary function of a Village Panchayat __________
(a) Cleaning roads
(b) Libraries
(c) Water supply
(d) Street lighting
Answer:
(b) Libraries

Question 5.
The Tamil Nadu State Election Commission is situated in ……………….
(a) Chennai
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Trichy
Answer:
(a) Chennai

III. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Write about the officials of Municipal Corporation.
Answer:

1. A City Municipal Corporation has a Commissioner, who is an IAS Officer.
2. Government Officials are deputed as Commissioners for municipalities.
3. The administrative officer of a Municipality is an Executive officer (EO)

Question 2.
Explain briefly about Panchayat Union.
Answer:

1. Many Village Panchayats join to form a Panchayat Union.
2. A Councillor is elected from each Panchayat.
3. The Councillors will elect a Panchayat union Chairperson among themselves.
4. A Vice-Chairperson is also elected.
5. A Block Development Officer (BDO) is the administrative head, of a Panchayat Union.
6. The Services are provided on the Panchayat Union level.

Question 3.
List out the Strength of local bodies in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu:

1. Village Panchayats – 12, 524
2. Panchayat Unions – 385
3. District Panchayats – 31
4. Town Panchayats – 561
5. Municipalities – 125
6. City Municipal Corporation – 12

IV. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
Discuss the District Panchayat
Answer:

1. A District Panchayat is formed in every district.
2. A district is divided into wards on the basis of a 50,000 population.
3. The ward members are elected by the village panchayats.
4. The members of the District Panchayat elect the District Panchayat Committee Chairperson.
5. They provide essential services and facilities to the rural population.
6. They also provide planning and execution of development programmes for the district.

Question 2.
List out the Works carried out by local bodies during natural disasters and outbreaks of diseases.
Answer:

1. Rescuing the public and settle them in a safer places.
2. Arranging food packets and pure drinking water.
3. Assisting them with medical Aids.
4. Creating awareness about the clean environment to the public.
5. Keeping the medicines in the upto date conditions.
6. Preventing them from getting panic against the diseases and make the situation, calm.

V. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 3 Geography Chapter 1 Asia and Europe Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Asia and Europe

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Asia and Europe Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer

Question 1.
Which is not the Western margin of Asia?
(a) Black Sea
(b) Mediterranean Sea
(c) Red Sea
(d) Arabian Sea
Answer:
(d) Arabian Sea

Question 2.
The Intermontane …………… plateau is found between Elbruz and Zagros.
(a) Tibet
(b) Iran
(c) Deccan
(d) The Yunnan
Answer:
(b) Iran

Question 3.
Equatorial climate:
(i) Uniform throughout the year.
(ii) The average / mean rainfall is 200 mm.
(iii) The average temperature is 10°C.
(iv) Of the statements give above.
(a) i alone is correct
(b) ii and iii are correct
(c) i and iii are correct
(d) i and ii are correct
Answer:
(a) i alone is correct

Question 4.
Match list I correctly with list II and select your answer from the codes given below.

Codes:
(a) 2, 3, 4, 1
(b) 4, 3 , 2, 1
(c) 4, 3, 1, 2
(d) 2, 3, 1, 4
Answer:
(a) 2, 3, 4, 1

Question 5.
India is the leading producer of ______
(a) Zinc
(b) Mica
(c) Manganese
(d) Coal
Answer:
(b) Mica

Question 6.
The natural boundary between Spain and France is ……………
(a) The Alps
(b) The Pyrenees
(c) The Carpathian
(d) The Caucasus
Answer:
(b) The Pyrenees

Question 7.
The western and north-western Europe enjoys mild and humid climate.
Choose the correct option:
(a) These regions are found near the equator
(b) It is influenced by the North Atlantic Drift
(c) It is surrounded by mountains
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) It is influenced by the North Atlantic Drift

Question 8.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Europe produces electricity from hydel power.
(b) All the rivers of Europe originate in the Alps.
(c) Most of the rivers in Europe are used for inland navigation.
(d) The fivers of Europe are perennial in nature.
Answer:
(b) All the rivers of Europe originate in the Alps.

Question 9.
Choose the incorrect pair.
(a) The Meseta – Spain
(b) The Jura – France
(c) The Pennine – Italy
(d) The Black Forest – Germany
Answer:
(c) The Pennines – Italy

Question 10.
Which country in Europe has a very low density of population?
(a) Iceland
(b) The Netherlands
(c) Poland
(d) Switzerland
Answer:
(a) Iceland

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The Taurus and the Pontine ranges radiate from the …………….
2. The wettest place in the world is …………….
3. Iran is the largest producer of ……………. in the world.
4. Europe connected with south and south east Asia by …………….
5. The national dance of Philippines is …………….
6. The second highest peak in Europe is …………….
7. The type of climate that prevails in the central and eastern parts of Europe is …………….
8. The important fishing ground in North Sea is ……………..
9. The density of population in Europe is ……………..
10. The river ……………. passes through nine countries of Europe.

Answer:

1. Armenian
2. Mawsynram
3. dates
4. the Suez canal
5. Tinikling
6. the Mont Blanc
7. Continental type
8. Dogger Bank
9. 34 persons/Km²
10. Danube

III. Match the following

Answer:
1. – d
2. – a
3. – e
4. – b
5. – c

IV. Let us learn

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Italy has dry summers and rainy winters
Reason (R) : It is located in the Mediterranean region
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Answer:
(d) A is false, but R is true

Question 2.
Places marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the given map are noted for the following plains.
(a) Indo – Gangetic plain
(b) Manchurian plain
(c) Mesopotamian
(d) Great plains of China
Match the plains with the notation on the map and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes:

Answer:
b) 2 1 3 4

Question 3.
In the given outline map of Asia, the shaded areas indicate the cultivation of ……………..

(a) Sugarcane
(b) Dates
(c) Rubber
(d) Jute
Answer:
(b) Dates

V. Answer in Brief

Question 1.
Name the important intermontane plateaus found in Asia.
Answer:
The plateau of Anatolia, The plateau of Iran, and the plateau of Tibet are the important intermontane plateaus found in Asia.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the monsoon climate.
Answer:

1. The south, southeast and eastern parts of Asia are strongly influenced by monsoon winds.
2. Summer is hot and humid while winter is cool and dry.
3. The summer monsoon winds bring heavy rainfall to India, Bangladesh, Indo-China, Philippines and Southern China.

Question 3.
How does physiography play a vital role in determining the population of Asia?
Answer:

1. In Asia, the population is unevenly distributed because of various physical features.
2. China and India alone cover three-fifth of Asia’s population.
3. River plains and industrial regions have a high density of population, whereas low density is found in the interior parts of Asia.

Question 4.
Name the ports found is Asia.
Answer:
Tokyo, Shanghai, Singapore, Hong Kong, Chennai, Mumbai, Karachi and Dubai are the important seaports in Asia.

Question 5.
Asia is called the ‘Land of Contrasts – Justify.
Answer:
The biggest continent Asia is called “the land of contrasts”.
Because:

1. Asia is the biggest continent has different types of land features such as mountain, plateau, plain, valley, bay, island etc.
2. It has different climatic conditions from the equator to polar region.
3. Apart from this many races, languages, religions and cultures are followed by people who live in Asia. Therefore, Asia is called ‘the land of contrasts’.

Question 6.
Name the important mountains found in the Alpine system.
Answer:
The important mountain ranges in the Alpine system are the Sierra Nevada, the Pyrenees, the Alps, the Apennines, the Dinaric Alps, the Caucasus and the Carpathian.

Question 7.
What are the important rivers of Europe?
Answer:
The important rivers of Europe are Volga, Danube, Dnieper, Rhine, Rhone, Po, and Thames.

Question 8.
Name a few countries which enjoy the Mediterranean type of climate.
Answer:
The Mediterranean and sub-mediterranean climate regions in Europe are found in much of southern Europe, mainly in southern Portugal, most of Spain, the southern coast of France, Italy, the Croatian Coast, much of Bosnia, Montenegro, Kosovo, Serbia, Albania, Macedonia, Greece and the Mediterranean Islands.

Question 9.
Give a short note on the population of Europe.
Answer:

1. Europe is the third-most populous continent, after Asia and Africa. The population density in Europe is.34 persons / km2.
2. High population density is often associated with the coalfields of Europe.
3. Other populous areas are sustained by mining, manufacturing, commerce, offering large market, labour forces and productive agriculture.
4. Monaco, Malta, San Marino, and the Netherlands are the most densely populated countries; Iceland and Norway have a very low density of population.

Question 10.
Name the important festivals celebrated in Europe.
Answer:

1. The Europeans celebrate both religious and holiday festivals.
2. Christmas, Easter, Good Friday, the Saint Day, Redentore, Tomatina and Carnival are the important festivals of Europe.

VI. Distinguish

Question 1.
Intermontane plateaus and southern plateaus.
Answer:
Intermontane plateaus:

1. Intermontane plateaus are found in the mountain ranges.
2. Eg, The plateau of Anatolia, The plateau of Iran, and the plateau of Tibet

Southern plateaus:

1. The southern plateaus are relatively lower than the northern plateaus.
2. Eg. Arabian Plateau, Deccan Plateau, Shan Plateau, and the Yunnan Plateau.

Question 2.
Cold desert and hot desert.
Answer:
Cold desert:

1. A barren or desolate area especially sandy region of little rainfall, featuring cold dry winter.
2. Cold deserts are found in the antarctic, Green land, Western China, Turkartan the Gopi crodi desert in Mongolia.

Hot desert:

1. A barren or desolate area often the sandy region of little rainfall.
2. The largest hot desert is the Sahara desert.

Question 3.
Tundra and Taiga.
Answer:

Thunder:

1. The Arctic and northern Scandinavian highland have Tundra type of vegetation.
2. The winters are very long and severe summers are very short and warm.
3. It is the land with few animals like polar bear, reindeer and walrus
4. No trees. Lowest form of vegetation like Mosses and Lichen only available.

Taiga:

1. They are found in the south of the Tundra region in Norway, Sweden, Finland, Germany, Poland and Austria.
2. The winters are long and cold. Summers are short and warm.
3. It is the land of fur bearing animals. Eg. Mink, silver fox, squirrel etc.
4. Pine, fir, spruce and larch are the important tree varieties.

Question 4.
The North-Western highlands and Alpine mountain range
Answer:
The North-Western Highlands:

1. This region includes the mountains and plateaus of Norway, Sweden, Finland, Scotland, and Iceland.
2. This region has a fjord coast. It was created by glaciations.
3. A lot of lakes here serve as reservoirs for producing hydroelectricity.

The Alpine mountain range:

1. The Alpine mountain system consists of a chain of young fold mountains found in the southern part of Europe.
2. The Sierra Nevada, the Pyrenees, the Alps, the Apennines, the Dinaric Alps, the Caucasus and the
3. Carpathian is the important mountain ranges.
4. The Pyrenees is a natural boundary between Spain and France.

VII. Give Reasons

Question 1.
Asia is the leading producer of rice.
Answer:
Because:

1. In Asia, India has the largest area of arable lands.
2. Agriculture is intensively practiced in the riverine plains of Asia
3. China and India are the leading producers of rice in the world.

Question 2.
Asia is the largest and most populous continent in the world.
Answer:
Because:

1. Most of the land of Asia in the northern hemisphere has different physical and cultural features.
2. Lofty mountains, plateaus, plains, islands and peninsulas are the major physiographic features.
3. Many perennial rivers flow through different parts. These river valleys are the cradles of ancient civilizations.
4. River plains and industrial regions have high density of population. Population density 143 persons/Km².
5. Asia covers about 30 percent of the world’s population.

Question 3.
Although Western Europe is located in the high latitudes, it has a moderate climate.
Answer:
Because:

1. The western part has a mild, generally humid climate, influenced by the North Atlantic Drift.
2. North Atlantic Drift is a Warm ocean current which brings warmth to the Western Europe.

VIII. Answer in Paragraph

Question 1.
Give an account of the drainage system in Asia.
Answer:

1. The rivers of Asia originate mostly from the central highlands.
2. The Ob, Yenise and Lena are the major rivers flow towards the north and drain into the Arctic Ocean. They remain frozen during winter.
3. Many perennial rivers like Brahmaputra, Indus, Ganga and Irrawaddy originate from the high mountains.
4. They do not freeze during winter.
5. The Euphrates and Tigris flow in west Asia.
6. The Amur, Huang He, Yangtze and Mekong flow in the south and southeastern parts. The Yangtze is the longest river in Asia.

Question 2.
Describe the mineral sources found in Asia.
Answer:

1. Asia has a variety of mineral deposits like Iron, Coal, Manganese, Bauxite, Zinc, Tungsten, Petroleum, Tin etc. Oil and Natural Gas found in the west Asian countries.
2. Iron Ore: Asia has the largest deposits of iron ore in the world. China and India are the important iron ore deposit countries of Asia.
3. Coal: Coal is a fossil fuel. China and India are the largest producers of coal in Asia.
4. Petroleum: Petroleum is a mineral oil. The largest petroleum reserves are found in South West Asia. The important petroleum-producing countries are Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, Iran, Bahrain, Qatar and UAE.
5. Bauxite is found in India and Indonesia.
6. Mica: India is the largest producer in the world.
7. Tin is found in Myanmar, Thailand, Malaysia, and Indonesia.

Question 3.
What are fjords? How do they protect harbours from bad weather conditions?
Answer:

1. A fjord is a narrow and deep-sea inlet between steep clifts.
2. Fjords reduce the speed of wind irrespective of their direction.
3. The force of sea waves is also controlled.
4. Fjord coast was created by glaciations in the past.
5. Areas with fjords are best suited for natural harbours. Example : Norway.

Question 4.
Describe the climatic divisions of Europe.
Answer:

1. The climate of Europe varies from the subtropical to the polar climate.
2. The Mediterranean climate of the south has warm summer and rainy winter.
3. The western and northwestern parts have a mild, generally humid climate, influenced by the North Atlantic Drift.
4. In central and eastern Europe, the climate is humid continental-type.
5. In the northeast, subarctic and tundra climates are found.
6. The whole of Europe is subject to the moderating influence of prevailing westerly winds from the Atlantic Ocean.
7. North Atlantic Drift is a warm ocean current which brings warmth to Western Europe.
8. The westerly wind further transports warmth across Europe.

X. Activity

Question 1.
Complete the following
I belong to ………… district. My district is famous for the following : …………, ………… and ………… . The boundaries of my districts are in the north, in the east, in the south and in the west. It spreads for an area of km². There are ………… taluks and ………… villages in my district. …………, …………, ………… are the important mountain / plain / plateaus (If all, mention all features). The rivers …………, ………… ………… criss – cross my district. …………, …………, ………… are common trees and wildlife such as, are found here. …………, …………, ………… are important minerals available in my district. Based on this …………, ………… industries are located here. The major crops are …………, …………, ………… . (Coastal districts may write the variety of fish). The total population is …………. We celebrate …………, …………, ………… festivals.
Answer:
Tirunelveli, Nellaiyappar Temple, Courttalam, Halwa, Virudhunagar, Tuticorin, Kanyakumari, Western Ghats, 6823sq.kms, 16 taluks, 559 Villages, Thamirabarani, Chittar, Manimuthar, Palm, Neem, Cocount, Monkeys, Tigers, Elephants, Bluemetal, Lime stone, Thorium, Cement, Ginning, Vessels, Paddy, Cotton, Sugarcane, 33, 22, 644, Pongal, Deepavali, Christmas.

Question 2.
If you get a chance to settle in Europe, which country would you choose? List out the reasons why?

Question 3.
Choose any region is Asia. In the map of Asia, mark its distribution of natural vegetation and wildlife. Paste related pictures.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Asia and Europe Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
……………. separates Asia from Africa
(a) Suez Canal
(b) Bering Strait
(c) Mediterranean Sea
(d) Palk Striat
Answer:
(a) Suez Canal

Question 2.
Shan plateau is located in ______
(a) Saudi Arabia
(b) Myanmar
(c) India
(d) China

Question 3.
The South Asian rivers
(i) remain frozen during winter
(ii) flow towards the north
(iii) are perennial
Of the statements given above
(a) i alone is correct
(b) iii alone is correct
(c) All the three are correct
(d) All the three are wrong
Answer:
(b) iii alone is correct

Question 4.
Find out the wrong pair.
(a) Coal – China
(b) Iron ore – India
(c) Bauxite – Iran
(d) Tin – Myanmar
Answer:
(c) Bauxite – Iran

Question 5.
River yangtze flows in ……………
(a) Inida
(b) Japan
(c) Myanmar
(d) China
Answer:
(d) China

Question 6.
The light house of the Mediterranean is ______
(a) Mt. Stromboli
(b) Mt. Etana
(c) Mt. Vesuvius
(d) None of the above

Question 7.
Choose the incorrect pair:
(a) Siberian Plain – Ob, Yenisey
(b) Manchurian Plain – Amur
(c) Greet plain of China – Yangtze, Sikiang
(d) Mesopotamian Plain – Irrawaddy
Answer:
(d) Mesopotamian Plain – Irrawaddy

II. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – e
3. – d
4. – b
5. – a

III. True/False

1. There are two knots found in Asia.
2. Ob, Yensie, Lena remain frozen during winter
3. Teak, Sandal wood are coniferous trees
4. The fjord region has a lot of lakes
5. Wheat is the dominant crop throughout Europe.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. True

IV. Answer in Brief

Question 1.
What are the cradles of ancient civilization? Why?
Answer:

1. The river valleys are the cradles of civilizations.
2. Because the ancient civilizations Indus valley, Mesopotamian and Chinese civilizations were born in Asian river valleys.

Question 2.
Mention the Physical divisions of Asia.
Answer:
The physical divisions of Asia are

1. The Northern lowlands
2. The Central High Mountains
3. The Southern Plateaus
4. The Great Plains and
5. The Island Groups.

Question 3.
What are the rare species found in Asia?
Answer:

1. Orang – Utan
2. Komodo Dragon
3. Giant Panda

Question 4.
Mention the Great Plains of Asia.
Answer:
The great plains of Asia are

1. West Siberian plain (Ob and Yenisey)
2. Manchurian Plain (Amur)
3. Great Plain of China (Yangtze and Sikiang)
4. Indo-Gangetic Plain (Indus and Ganga)
5. Mesopotamian plain (Tigris and Euphrates) and
6. The Irrawaddy plain (Irrawaddy)

Question 5.
Name the countries where fishing is a large industry.
Answer:

1. Norway
2. Iceland
3. Russia
4. Denmark
5. The United Kingdom
6. The Netherlands

V. Give Reasons

Question 1.
Europe is a modern and economically developed continent.
Answer:
Avilability of sources, efficient educated work force, research, contact with other nations and innovations are the factors that transformed like this.

Question 2.
Varied patterns of agricultural activities are in use in Europe.
Answer:

1. Europe is an industrially developed continent. It has great diversity in its topography, climate and soil.
2. These interact to produce varied patterns of agriculture activities.

[The varied patterns of agriculture activities in use: Mediterranean agriculture, Dairy farming, mixed livestock, crop farming, horticulture]

Question 3.
There is no winter in the equatorial region.
Answer:
The areas found in and around the equator of Asia have uniform climate throughout the year. There is no winter. Average temperature 27°c. The mean rainfall 1270 mm.

VI. Answer in Paragraph

Question 1.
Describe Industries in Europe.
Answer:

1. Large scale Industries : Steel and Iron are, Ship building, Motor vehicle, Aircraft construction, Pharmaceutical drugs.
2. Small scale Industries that produce nondurable goods are found throughout Europe.
3. Some countries have a reputation for speciality goods.
   • Bicycles – English, Italian and Dutch
   • Glass – Swedish and Finnish
   • Perfumes and fashion goods – Parisian
   • Precision instruments – Swiss

VII. Mind map

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Democracy

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Democracy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The early man settled near ……………….. and practiced agriculture.
(a) plains
(b) bank of rivers
(c) mountains
(d) hills
Answer:
(b) bank of rivers

Question 2.
The birth place of democracy is ________
(a) China
(b) America
(c) Greece
(d) Rome
Answer:
(c) Greece

Question 3.
……………….. is celebrated as the International Democracy Day.
(a) September 15
(b) October 15
(c) November 15
(d) December 15
Answer:
(a) September 15

Question 4.
Who has the right to work in a direct Democracy?
(a) Men
(b) Women
(c) Representatives
(d) All eligible voters
Answer:
(d) All eligible voters

II. Fill in the blanks 

1. Direct Democracy is practiced in ………………
2. The definition of democracy is defined by ………………
3. People choose their representatives by giving their ………………
4. In our country ……………… democracy is in practice.

Answer:

1. Switzerland
2. Abraham Lincoln
3. Votes
4. Parliamentary

III. Answer the following

Question 1.
What is Democracy?
Answer:

1. The citizens of a country select their representatives through elections.
2. Thus they take part in the direct governance of a country. This is termed democracy.

Question 2.
What are the types of democracy?
Answer:

1. There are various types of democracy in practice around the world.
2. Among those, direct democracy and representative democracy are the most popular forms of government.

Question 3.
Define: Direct Democracy
Answer:

1. In a direct democracy, only the citizens can make laws.
2. All changes have to be approved by the citizens.
3. The politicians only rule over parliamentary procedure. Eg. Switzerland.

Question 4.
Define Representative Democracy.
Answer:

1. In a representative democracy, all the members should be represented by a group of representatives.
2. To select their representative’s elections are held.
3. On behalf of people, these representatives obtain the power to take decisions in a democratic manner.
4. This is termed Representative Democracy.

Question 5.
What are the salient features of our constitution that you have understood?
Answer:

1. The Constitution of India guides the Indians in all aspects and maintains law and order.
2. It ensures freedom, equality and justice to everyone.
3. It defines the political principles, the structure of government, the powers and responsibilities.
4. It fixes the Rights and Duties and Directive Principles of the Citizens.
5. It is the longest written constitution in the world.

IV. HOTS

Question 1.
Compare and contrast direct democracy and representative democracy.
Answer:

V. Activity

Question 1.
Find out your area’s representative’s names and write down

1. MP
2. MLA
3. Local body member

Answer:

1. MP – KRPPrabakara
2. MLA – TPM Mohideenkhan
3. Local body member – A. Radhakrishnan

Question 2.
Discuss about the merits and demerits of democracy.
Answer:
The merits of democracy are :

1. A democratic government is better form of government because it is more accountable form of government.
2. Democracy improves the quality of decision making,
3. Democracy enhances the dignity of citizens.
4. Poor and least educated has the same status as the rich and educated.
5. Democracy allows us to correct own mistake.

Demerits:

1. Leaders keep on changing leading to instability.
2. Democracy in all about political competition and power play and there is no scope for mortality.
3. So many people have to be consulted in a democracy that it lead to delays.
4. Democracy leads to corruption for it is based on electoral competition.
5. Ordinary people do not know what is good for them, they should not decide anything

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Democracy Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks Answer

1. The UNO General Assembly resolved to observe 15th September as the International Day of Democracy in ………………
2. ……………… constitution is the longest written constitution in the world.
3. The Drafting committee of the Constituent Assembly was headed by ………………
4. In India, all the people above ……………… years of age enjoy universal Adult Franchise.
5. The oldest and longest functioning parliament in the world is ………………

Answer:

1. 2007
2. Indian
3. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
4. 18
5. The Iceland Democracy

II. Choose the Correct answer

Question 1.
The Chief Architect of our constitution is ………………
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
Answer:
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 2.
USA follows ______
(a) Direct democracy
(b) Representative democracy
(c) Monarchy
(d) Dictatorship
Answer:
(b) Representative democracy

Question 3.
Presidential Democracy is practised in ………………
(a) USA
(b) Canada
(c) (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) (a) and (b)

Question 4.
Presidential democracy is followed in
(a) USA
(b) India
(c) England
(d) Switzerland
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 5.
The Constitution of India guarantees ……………… fundamental rights to its citizens.
(a) 6
(b) 9
(c) 8
Answer:
(a) 6

III. Match the following

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – b
4. – e
5. – a

IV. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
What is a Government
Answer:
A group of people with the authority to govern a country is called government.

Question 2.
How did Abraham Lincoln define democracy?
Answer:
Abraham Lincoln defined democracy as “Government of the people, by the people, and for the people”

Question 3.
What is meant by democratic decision making?
Answer:

1. In the system of democracy, the power to take decisions does not lie with the head.
2. All the members of the group hold open discussions and take final decisions only when everyone is convinced.
3. This is called democratic way of decision making.

IV. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
What are the Aims of Democracy?
Answer:

1. To preserve and promote the dignity and fundamental rights of the individual
2. To achieve Social justice and Social development of the Community.
3. To establish the rule of law.
4. To enable the People to choose their government.
5. To work towards the development of the country with the help of People’s Participation.

V. Mind map

 

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Understanding Disaster

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Understanding Disaster Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
……………… was the founder of Gupta dynasty.
(a) Chandragupta I
(b) Sri Gupta
(c) Vishnu Gopa
(d) Vishnugupta
Answer:
(b) Sri Gupta

Question 2.
Prayog prashasti was composed by ………………
(a) Kalidasa
(b) Amarasimha
(c) Harisena
(d) Dhanvantri
Answer:
(c) Harisena

Question 3.
The monolithic iron pillar of Chandragupta is at ………………
(a) Mehrauli
(b) Bhitari
(c) Gadhva
(d) Mathura
Answer:
(a) Mehrauli

Question 4.
……………… was the first Indian to explain the process of surgery.
(a) Charaka
(b) Sushruta
(c) Dhanvantri
(d) Agnivasa
Answer:
(b) Sushruta

Question 5.
……………… was the Gauda ruler of Bengal.
(a) Sasanka
(b) Maitraka
(c) Rajavardhana
(d) Pulikesin II
Answer:
(a) Sasanka

II. Match the statement with the reason and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Chandragupta I crowned himself as a monarch of a large kingdom after eliminating various small states in Northern India.
Reason (R) : Chandragupta I married Kumaradevi of Lichchavi family.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I : Chandragupta II did not have cordial relationship with the rules of South India.
Statement II : The divine theory of kingship was practised by the Gupta rulers.
(a) Statement I is wrong but statement II is correct.
(b) Statement II is wrong but statement I is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement I is wrong but statement II is correct.

Question 3.
Which of the following is arranged in chronological order?
(a) Srigupta – Chandragupta I – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya
(b) Chandragupta I – Vikramaditya – Srigupta – Samudragupta
(c) Srigupta – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya – Chandragupta I
(d) Vikramaditya – Srigupta – Samudragupta – Chandragupta I
Answer:
(a) Srigupta – Chandragupta I – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya

Question 4.
Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statements (s) is/are correct.
(1) Lending money at high rate of interest was practised.
(2) Pottery and mining were the most flourishing industries,
(a) 1. is correct
(b) 2. is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Both 1 and 2 are wrong
Answer:
(a) 1. is correct

Question 5.
Circle the odd one
(1)
Answer:
Samudragupta

(2)
Answer:
Harshacharita

III. Fill in the blanks Answer

1. …………….., the king of Ceylon, was a contemporary of Samudragupta
2. Buddhist monk from China …………….., visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II.
3. …………….. invasion led to the downfall of Gupta Empire.
4. …………….. was the main revenue to the Government.
5. The official language of the Guptas was ……………..
6. …………….., the Pallava king was defeated by Samudragupta.
7. …………….. was the popular king of Vardhana dynasty.
8. Harsha shifted his capital from …………….. to Kanauj.

Answer:

1. reign of
2. Fahien
3. Huns
4. Land tax
5. Sanskrit
6. Vishnugopa
7. Harsha Vardhana
8. Thaneswar

IV. State whether True of False

1. Dhanvantri was a famous scholar in the field of medicine.
2. The structural temples built during the Gupta period resemble the Indo – Aryan style.
3. Sati was not in practice in the Gupta Empire.
4. Harsha belonged to Hinayana school of thought
5. Harsha was noted for his religious intolerance.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. False
5. False

V. Match the following

A.

Answer:
b) 2,4,1,3,5

B.

Answer:
c) 3, 5,1, 2,4

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Who was given the title Kaviraja? Why?
Answer:

1. Samudragupta was given the title Kaviraja.
2. Because he was a lover of poetry and music.

Question 2.
What are the two types of disasters? Give examples.
Answer:

1. Disaster can be classified as natural and man-made disaster.
2. Natural disaster: Earthquakes, Volcanoes, Tsunami, Cyclones, Floods, Landslides, Avalanches, Thunder and lightning.
3. Man made disaster: Fire, Destruction of building, Accidents in industries, Accident in transport, Terrorism, Stampede.

Question 3.
Explain the Divine Theory of Kingship.
Answer:

1. The Divine Theory of Kingship was practised by the Gupta rulers.
2. The king is the representative of God on earth. He is answerable only to God and not to anyone else.

Question 4.
Chennai, Cuddalore and Cauvery delta are frequently affected by floods. Give reason.
Answer:

1. In our State, Northeast Monsoon season starts from October. It will continue till December.
2. Every year, during this Northeast Monsoon season, low pressure depressions are formed in the Bay of Bengal.
3. The low pressure depressions are then transformed into cyclones and hit the coastal districts.
4. Heavy rain follows the depressions and cyclones.
5. Hence, Chennai, Cuddalore and Cauvery delta are often affected by floods

Question 5.
Who were the Huns?
Answer:

1. Huns were the nomadic tribes.
2. They were terrorising Rome and Constantinople.
3. The white Huns came to India through Central Asia.
4. They were giving trouble to all Indian frontier states.

Question 6.
Differentiate Landslide – Avalanches.
Answer:

Landslide

1. The movement of a mass of rocks, debris, soil etc., down slope is called landslide.

Avalanches

1. A large amount of ice, snow and rock falling quickly down the side of a mountain is called an Avalanches.

Question 7.
Name the books authored by Harsha.
Answer:

1. Ratnavali
2. Nagananda
3. Priyadharshika

VII. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Write a note on Prashasti.
Answer:

1. Prashasti is a Sanskrit word, meaning communication or in praise of.
2. Court poets flattered their kings listing out their achievements.
3. These accounts were later engraved on pillars so that the people could read them.

Question 2.
Give an account of Samudragupta’s military conquests.
Answer:

1. Samudragupta was a great general and he carried on a vigorous campaign all over the country.
2. He defeated the Pallava king Vishnugopa.
3. He conquered nine kingdoms in northern India.
4. He reduced 12 rulers of southern India to the status of feudatories and to pay tribute.
5. He received homage from the rulers of East Bengal, Assam, Nepal, the eastern part of Punjab and various tribes of Rajasthan.

Question 3.
Describe the land classification during the Gupta period.
Answer:
Classification of land during Gupta period.

1. Kshetra – Cultivable land
2. Khila – Wasteland
3. Aprahata – Jungle (or) Forest land
4. Vasti – Habitable land
5. Gapata saraha – Pastoral land

Question 4.
Write about Sresti and Sarthavaha traders.
Answer:
Sresti:
Sresti traders were usually settled at a standard place.

Sarthavaha:
Sarthavaha traders caravan traders who carried their goods to different places.

Question 5.
Highlight the contribution of Guptas to architecture.
Answer:

1. From the earlier tradition of rock-out shrines, the Guptas were the first to contruct temples.
2. These temples, adorned with towers and elaborate carvings, were dedicated ‘ to all Hindu deities.
3. The most notable rock – cut caves are found at Ajanta and Ellora, Bagh and Udaygiri.
4. The structural temples built during this period resemble the Dravidian style.

Question 6.
Name the works of Kalidasa.
Answer:

1. Kalidasa’s famous dramas were Sakunthala, Malavikagnimitra and Vikramaoorvashiyam.
2. Other sigrificant works were Meghaduta, Raghuvamsa, Kumarasambava and Ritusamhara

Question 7.
Estimate Harshvardhana as a poet and a dramatist.
Answer:

1. Harsha himself was a poet and dramatist.
2. Around him gathered a best of poets and artists.
3. His popular works are Ratnavali, Nagananda and Priyadharshika
4. His royal court was adorned by Banabhatta, Mayura, Hardatta and Jayasena.

VIII. HOTS

Question 1.
The gold coins issued by Gupta kings indicate.
Answer:
(a) the availability of gold mines in the kingdom
(b) the ability of the people to work with gold
(c) the prosperity of the kingdom
(d) the extravagant nature of kings.
Answer:
(c) the prosperity of the kingdom

Question 2.
The famous ancient paintings at Ajanta were painted on.
(a) walls of caves
(b) ceilings of temples
(c) rocks
(d) papyrus
Answer:
(a) walls of caves

Question 3.
Gupta period is remembered for.
(a) renaissance in literature and art
(b) expeditions to southern India
(c) invasion of Huns
(d) religious tolerance
Answer:
(a) renaissance in literature and art

Question 4.
What did Indian scientists achieve in astronomy and mathematics during the Gupta period?
Answer:

1. Invention of Zero and the cosequent evolution of the decimal system to the modern world.
2. Aryabhatta explained the true causes of solar and lunar eclipses. He was the, first Indian astronomer to declare that the earth revolves around its own axis.

IX. Student activity (For Students)

1. Stage any one of the dramas of Kalidasa in the classroom.
2. Compare and contrast the society of Guptas with that of Mauryas.

X. Life Skills (For Students)

1. Collect information about the contribution of Aryabhatta, Varahamihira and Brahmagupta to astronomy.
2. Visit a nearby ISRO centre to know more about satellite launching.

XI. Answer Grid

Question 1.
Who was Toromana?
Answer:
Answer:
Toromana was the chief of white Huns.

Question 2.
Name the high ranking officials of Gupta Empire.
Answer:
Dandanayakas and Maha dandanayakas

Question 3.
Name the Gupta kings who performed AsVamedha yagna.
Answer:
Samudragupta and Kumaragupta I

Question 4.
Name the book which explained the causes for the lunar and solar eclipses.
Answer:
Surya Siddhanta

Question 5.
Name the first Gupta king to find a place on coins.
Answer:
Samudragupta

Question 6.
Which was the main source of information to know about the Samudragupta’s reign?
Answer:
Allahabad Pillar

Question 7.
Harsha was the worshipper of in the beginning.
Answer:
Shiva

Question 8.
Universitv reached its fame during Harsha period.
Answer:
The Nalanda

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Understanding Disaster Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The successor of Sri Gupta …………….
(a) Kumaragupta I
(b) Skandagupta
(c) Vishnugupta
(d) Ghatotkacha
Answer:
(d) Ghatotkacha

Question 2.
‘Nitisara’ emphasises the importance of …………….
(a) Trade
(b) Military
(c) Agriculture
(d) Treasury
Answer:
(d) Treasury

Question 3.
The Huhs chief who crowned himself as king.
(a) Yasodharman
(b) Attila
(c) Mihirakula
(d) Toromana
Answer:
(d) Toromana

Question 4.
The Gupta coins were known as Dinara …………….
(a) Copper
(b) Silver
(c) Bronze
(d) Gold
Answer:

Question 5.
The place Harsha went to participate in the great Kumbhamela held.
(a) Allahabad
(b) Kasi
(c) Ayodhya
(d) Prayag
Answer:
(d) Prayag

II. Match the statement with the reason and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : The last of the great Guptas Narasimha Gupta I was paying tribute to Mihirakula.
Reason (R) : He stopped paying tribute as Mihirakula’s hostility towards Buddhism.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explantion of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
(d) A is not correct but R is correct
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is no correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I : Criminal law was not more severe than that of the Gupta age.
Statement II : Death punishment was the punishment for violation of the laws and for plotting against the king.
(a) Statement I is wrong but statement II is correct
(b) Statement II is wrong but statement I is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(d) Both the statements are wrong

III. Fill in the blanks

1. In the assembly at ……………. Harsha distributed his weath.
2. The capital of China ……………. was a great centre of art and learning.
3. ……………. was wife of chandragupta I.
4. The military campaigns of kings were financed through revenue.
5. The peasants were required to pay various taxes and were reduced to the position of ……………..

Answer:

1. Prayag
2. Xi’an
3. Kumaradevi
4. surpluses revenue
5. serfs

IV. Match the following

Answer:
b) 4, 5, 2,1, 3

V. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Write a note on ‘Lichchhavi’.
Answer:

1. Lichchhavi was an old gana – Sanga and its territory lay between the Ganges and the Nepal Terai.
2. Chandragupta I married Kumaradevi of the famous and powerful lichchhavi family.

Question 2.
What do you know about ‘Kaviraja’?
Answer:

1. In one of the gold coins issued by Samudragupta he is portrayed playing harp (Veena).
2. He was a lover of poetry and music and for this, he earned the title ‘Kaviraja’.

Question 3.
What did the travel accounts of Fahien provide information about the condi¬tions of the people of Magadha?
Answer:

1. According to Fahien the people of Magadha were happy and prosperous.
2. Gaya was desolated. Kapilvasthu had become a jungle, but at Pataliputra people were rich and prosperous.

VII. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Name the officials employed by the Gupta rulers.
Answer:

1. High – ranking officials were called dandanayakas and mahadandnayakas.
2. The provinces known as deshas or bhuktis were administered by the governors designated as Uparikas. The districts such as vishyas, were controlled by vishyapatis. At the village level gramika and gramadhyaksha were the functionaries.
3. The military designations.
   Baladhikrita (Commander of infantry)
   Mahabaladhikrita (Commander of cavalry)
   Dutakas (spies)

Question 2.
Mention the importance of Forecasting and Early warning.
Answer:
(i) Weather forecasting, Tsunami early warning system, cyclonic forecasting and warning provide necessary information. This information help in reducing risks during disasters.

(ii) School Disaster Management Committee, Village Disaster Management Committee, State and Central government institutions take mitigation measures, together during disaster.

(iii) Newspaper, Radio, Television and social media bring updated information and give alerts on the vulnerable area, risk preparatory measures and relief measures including medicine.

VIII. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 3 History Chapter 4 South Indian Kingdoms Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 South Indian Kingdoms

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science South Indian Kingdoms Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer

Question 1.
Who among the following built the Vaikundaperumal temple?
(a) Narasimhavarma II
(b) Nandivarma II
(c) Dantivarman
(d) Parameshvaravarma
Answer:
(b) Nandivarma II

Question 2.
Which of the following titles were the titles of Mahendra Varma I?
(a) Mattavilasa
(b) Vichitra Chitta
(c) Gunabara
(d) all the three
Answer:
(d) all the three

Question 3.
Which of the following inscriptions describes the victories of Pulakesin II?
(a) Aihole
(b) Saranath
(c) Sanchi
(d) Junagath
Answer:
(a) Aihole

II. Read the statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Statement I : Pallava art shows transition from rock – cut – monolithic structure to stone built temple.
Statement II : Kailasanatha temple at Kanchipuram is an example of Pallava art and architecture.
(a) Statement I is wrong
(b) Statement II is wrong
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct

Question 2.
Consider the following statement(s) about Pallava Kingdom.
Statement I : Tamil literature flourished under Pallava rule, with the rise in popularity of Thevaram composed by Appar.
Statement II : Pallava King Mahendravarman was the author of the play MattavilasaPrahasana.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer:
(c) Both I and II

Question 3.
Consider the following statements about the Rashtrakuta dynasty and find out which of the following statements are correct.
(1) It was founded by Dantidurga
(2) Amogavarsha wrote Kavirajmarga
(3) Krishna I built the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) all the three
Answer:
(d) all the three

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a correct pair?
Answer:
(a) Ellora caves – Rashtrakutas
(b) Mamallapuram – Narasimhavarma I
(c) Elephanta caves – Ashoka
(d) Pattadakal – Chalukyas
Answer:
(c) Elephanta caves – Ashoka

Question 5.
Find out the wrong pair.
(a) Dandin – Dasakumara Charitam
(b) Vatsyaya – Bharathavenba
(c) Bharavi – Kiratarjuneeyam
(d) Amogavarsha – Kavirajamarga
Answer:
(b) Vatsyaya – Bharathavenba

III. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………….. defeated Harsha Vardhana on the banks of the river Narmada.
2. ……………….. destroyed Vatapi and assumed the title VatapiKondan.
3. ……………….. was the author of Aihole Inscription.
4. ……………….. was the army general of Narasimhavarma I
5. The music inscriptions in ……………….. and ……………….. show Pallavas ‘interest in music.

Answer:

1. Pulakesin II
2. Narasimhavarma
3. Ravikirti
4. Paranjothi
5. Kudumianmalai, Thiruamayam

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – b

V. State True or False

1. The famous musician Rudracharya lived during Mahendravarma I.
2. The greatest king of the Rashtrakuta dynasty was Pulakesin II.
3. Mamallapuram is one of the UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
4. Thevaram was composed by Azhwars.
5. The Virupaksha temple was built on the model of Kanchi Kailasanatha Temple.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. False

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Name the three gems of Kannada literature.
Answer:
The three gems of Kannada literature were Pampa, Sri Ponna, and Raima.

Question 2.
How can we classify the Pallava architecture?
Answer:
Pallava architecture can be classified as

1. Rock-cut temples – Mahendravarman style.
2. Monolithic Rathas and Sculptural Mandapas Mamallan style.
3. Structural Temples – Rajasimhan style and Nandivarman style.

Question 3.
What do you know of Gatika?
Answer:

1. Gatika means monastery or Centre of learning.
2. It was popular during the Pallava times at Kanchi.
3. It attracted students from all parts of India and abroad.
4. Vatsyayana who wrote Nyaya Bhashya was a teacher at Kanchi (Gatika). Panchapandavar rathas are monolithic rathas. Explain.

Question 4.
Panchapandavar rathas are monolithic rathas. Explain
Answer:

1. Under Mamalla style, the five rathas (chariots), popularly called Panchapandavar rathas, signify the different style of temple architecture.
2. Each ratha has been carved out of a single rock.
3. So they are called monolithic.
4. The popular mandapams here are Mahishasuramardhini mandapam, Thirumoorthi mandapam and Varaha mandapam.

Question 5.
Make a note on Battle of Takkolam.
Answer:

1. Krishna III was the last able ruler of the Rashtrakuta dynasty,
2. He defeated the Cholas in the battle of Takkolam (presently in Vellore Dt) and captured Thanjavur.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
Examine Pallavas’ contributions to architecture.
Answer:
Pallava period is known for architectural splendour. In 1984 Mamallapuram was added to the list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites. The illustrious examples of Pallava architecture are the Shore Temple, other temples and the Varaha cave.

Mahendra style : (Rock – cut temples)
Mahendravarma style of cave temples are seen at Mandagapattu, Mahendra vadi, Mamandur, Dalavanur, Trichirapalli, Vallam, Tirukazhukkundram and Siyamangalam.

Mamalla Style : (Monolithic Rathas and Sculptural Mandapas)

1. The last example for Mamalla style monolithic is Panchapandavar rathas. Mahishasuramardhini mandapam, Thirumoorthi mandapam and Varaha mandapam are the popular mandapams.
2. The most important is the open art gallery. The fall of the Ganges from the head of Lord Shiva and the Arjun’s penance are notable sculptures.

Rajasimha Style : (Structural Temples)
Rajasimha (Narasimhavarma II) Style was a structural temple. The best example is the Kailasanatha temple at Kanchipuram. This temple is called Rajasimheswaram.

Nandivarma Style : (Structural Temples)
Nandivarma style was the last stage of pallava architecture. The best example is Vaikunda Perumal temple at Kanchipuram.

Question 2.
Write a note on Elephanta island and Kailasanatha temple at Ellora.
Answer:
Elephanta island:

1. Elephanta is an island near Mumbai. It is originally known as Sripuri and the local people called Gharapuri.
2. The Portuguese named it as Elephanta after seeing the image.
3. The Trimurthi Siva icon and the images of dwarapalakas are seen in the cave temple.

Kailasanatha temple at Ellora:

1. Krishna I built the Kailasanatha temple. It was one of the 30 temples carved out at Ellora.
2. The temple covers an area of over 60,000 sq. feet and vimanam rises to a height of 90 feet.
3. It portrays typical Dravidian features and has a resemblance to the shore temple at Mamallapuram.

VIII. HOTS

Question 1.
Give an account of the Western Chalukyas of Kalyani.
Answer:
Western Chalukyas of Kalyani:

1. They were the descendants of Badami Chalukyas ruled from Kalyani (modem day Basavakalyan).
2. In 973, Tailapa II, a feudatory of the Rashtrakuta mling from the Bijapur region, defeated Parmara of Malwa.
3. Tailapa II occupied Kalyani and his dynasty quickly grew into an empire under Someswara I.
4. Someswara I moved the capital from Manyakheta to Kalyani.
5. For over a century, both the Chalukyas and the Cholas fought many fierce battles to control the fertile region of Vengi.
6. In the late 11th century, under Vikramaditya VI, vast areas between the Narmada river in the north and Kaveri river in the South came under Chalukya control.
7. The Kasi Vishwesvara Temple at Lakkundi, the Mallikaijuna temple at Kuruvatti, the Kalleshwara temple at Bagali and the Mahadeva temple at Itagi represent well-known examples of the architecture of Western Chalukyas of Kalyani.

IX. Life Skills (For Students)

1. Collect temple architecture pictures of Pallavas, Chalukyas and Rashtrakutas and identify the distinguishing features of each period.
2. Field Trip : Plan a trip to any place of historical importance.

X. Activity

Question 1.
(a) Sketch the biography of Mahendravarma I and Pulakesin II.
(b) See the picture and write a few sentences on it.
Answer:
Arjuna is fasting in one leg At the centre there is a naga Siva is attended by devaganas Hunters, animals, birds and trees are seen. There is also a herd of elephants.

XI. Answer Grid

Question 1.
Give examples for the structural temples of Pallava period.
Answer:
Kailasanatha temple, Vaikunda Perumal temple

Question 2.
Name the new style of architecture developed during Chalukya period.
Answer:
Vesara

Question 3.
What does Aihole inscription mention?
Answer:
Defeat of Harsha Vardhana by Pulakesan II

Question 4.
Who built the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora?
Answer:
Krishna I

Question 5.
Name the sculptural mandapas of Mamallan style of architecture.
Answer:
Monolithic

Question 6.
Where do structural temples of Chalukya exist?
Answer:
Aihole, Badami, Pattadakal

Question 7.
Name two Saivite saints and Vaishnavite saints who practised bhakticult during Pallava period?
Answer:
Appar, Manikkavasakar. Nammazhvar, Andal

Question 8.
Who was the founder of Rashtrakuta dynasty?
Answer:
Dantidurga

Question 9.
What were the titles adopted by Narasimhavarma I?
Answer:
Mamallan, Vatapi kondan

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science South Indian Kingdoms Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
Who was Avanisimha?
(a) Simhavishnu
(b) Pulakesin II
(c) Mahendravarman
(d) Aparajita
Answer:
(a) Simhavishnu

Question 2.
Cave temples of the Pallavas are found at ________
(a) Vallam
(b) Vengi
(c) Badami
(d) Pattadakal
Answer:
(a) Vallam

Question 3.
Mangalesa belonged to Dynasty.
(a) Chalukya
(b) Pallava
(c) Rashtrakuta
(d) Gupta
Answer:
(a) Chalukya

Question 4.
The new style of architecture Vesara was introduced by
(a) Chalukyas
(b) Pallavas
(c) Rastrakutadas Vakataka
(d) Cave
Answer:
(a) Chalukyas

II. Read the statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Statement I : The life of Rishabadeva, the first Jain Tirthankara is depicted in Adipurana
Statement II : The Rashtrakutas followed Jainism
(a) Statement I is wrong
(b) Statement II is wrong
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(b) Statement II is wrong

Question 2.
Statement I : Appar and Manikkavasakar were Vaishnavites.
Statement II : Nammazhvar and Andal were saivites
(a) Statement I is correct
(b) Statement II is correct
(c) Both the statements are wrong
(d) Both the statements are correct.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are wrong

III. Fill in the blanks

1. The last Pallava ruler …………..
2. The poet who was patronized by Nandivarman II was …………..
3. The style adopted by Chalukyas in paintings is ……………
4. The last ruler to hold the empire intact was ……………

Answer:

1. Aprajita
2. Perundevanar
3. Vakataka
4. Govinda III

IV. State True or False

1. Rudracharya was a famous musician during Pallava Period
2. Varaha, Narasimha, Vamana are the Avatar of Siva
3. The Rashtrakutas were of Telugu origin
4. The Chalukyas perfected the art of stone building without mortar.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True

V. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Write about ‘Siruthondar’
Answer:

1. The army general of Narasimhavarman I, Paranjothi, led the army during the invasion of Vatapi.
2. After the victory devoted himself to Lord Siva, he was known as Siruthondar (one of the 63 Nayanmars)

Question 2.
Write a note on Simhavishnu.
Answer:

1. Simhavishnu, son of Simhavarman-II, created a strong Pallava kingdom after destroying the Kalabhras.
2. He defeated many kings in the south including the Cholas and Pandyas.
3. His able son was Mahendravarman I.

Question 3.
Name the distinct but closely related and independent Chalukya dynasties.
Answer:

1. Chalukyas of Badami
2. Chalukyas of Vengi (Eastern chalukyas)
3. Chalukyas of Kalyani (Western chalukyas)

Question 4.
Who were Chalukyas?
Answer:

1. There were three distinct but closely related and independent Chalukya dynasties,
2. They were:
   • Chalukyas of Badami
   • Chalukyas of Vengi (Eastern Chalukyas)
   • Chalukyas of Kalyani (Western Chalukyas).
3. These Chalukyas held Harsha in the north, the Pallavas in the south and Kalinga (Odisha) in the east.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
Explain – ’Pattatakal’
Answer:

1. Pattatakal is a small village in Bagalkot district of Karnataka.
2. Here are 10 temples. Out of them 4 were in Nagara style and 6 were in Dravida style.
3. Dravida style – Virupaksha Temple, Sangameshwara Temple.
4. Nagara style – Papanatha Temple.
5. Pattatakal is one of the UNESCO World Heritage sites.

Question 2.
What do you know about ‘Rashtrakutas?
Answer:

1. Rashtrakutas were of Kannada origin. They ruled not only the Deccan but parts of the far south and the Ganges plain during 8 – 10 centuries.
2. Dantidurga was the founder of the Rashtrakuta dynasty. He was an official of high rank under the Chalukyas of Badami.
3. Krishna I was the successor of Dantidurga and he built the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora.
4. The greatest king of Amogavarsha. Krishna III was the last able ruler of the Rashtrakuta dynasty.
5. Capital: Malkhed (Manyakheta). Port: Broach.

VIII. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 3 Civics Chapter 3 Road Safety Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Road Safety

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Road Safety Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following

Question 1.
Prepare slogans for Road safety.
Answer:
Slogans on Road Safety

1. Alert today – Alive tomorrow.
2. Leave sooner, drive slower, live longer.
3. Speed thrills but kills.
4. Be alert! Accidents hurt.
5. Drive carefully, to live joyfully.
6. A little care makes accidents rare.
7. Fast-drive could be your last drive.
8. Driving faster can cause disaster
9. Chance takers are accident makers.

Question 2.
Identify the following signs.
Answer:

(a) No U-turn
(b) No entry
(c) Crossroad
(d) Hospital

Question 3.
Discuss the statistics of 2017 accidents data.
Answer:

1. Nearly three persons died every ten minutes in road accidents across India last year.
2. The Report, prepared by the Transport Research Wing of the Ministry of Road Transport and highways, discovered that a total of 4,64,910 road accidents were reported by States and Union territories in the calendar year of 2017, claiming 1,47,913 lives and causing injuries to 4,70,975 persons.
3. The subject of road safety is an important one. Victims of hit and run cases would now be compensated for up to Rs one million in case of road accident fatalities.
4. Among vehicle categories involved in road accidents, two-wheelers accounted for the highest share (33.9%) in total accidents and fatalities (29.8%) in 2017.
5. However, there has been a decline in the total number of road accidents as compared with the year 2016.
6. In percentage terms, the number of accidents in 2017 was lower by 3.3 percent and injuries 4.8 percent over that of the previous year.

Question 4.
Debate: Is wearing a helmet necessary?
Answer:
Advantages of wearing Helmets:

1. Higher visibility in general weather protection.
2. Upto 47% of injured cyclists get head injuries.
3. Wearing a helmet can provide an 88% reduction in the risk of head injury.
4. Disadvantages of wearing Helmets
5. Helmets look uncool
6. Helmets are uncomfortable to wear

Conclusion:

1. Even though there are few disadvantages to wearing helmets, we should practice the habit of wearing helmets.
2. After all our life is the most important reason for us to live in this world.
3. Let’s Spread this good awareness and let’s make the most of our lives.

Question 5.
Draw posters related to road safety.
Answer:
Safety on the Road:
To be safe on the road, we must follow some rules.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Road Safety Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks Answer

1. ……………… are the laws that govern how, when, and why you are allowed to drive any vehicle.
2. ……………… and ……………… ensure the safety of the children at home and School.
3. Cautionary signs are generally in ……………… Shape.
4. In road signs ……………… Circles give positive instructions.
5. Wait until a ……………… Singal appears before proceeding.

Answer:

1. Traffic rules
2. Parents and teachers
3. triangular
4. Blue
5. Green

II. Choose the Correct answer

Question 1.
In road signs …………….. Circles give negative instructions.
(a) Orange
(b) Red
(c) Green
Answer:
(b) Red

Question 2.
…………….. arrow means you can go in the direction shown by the arrow.
(a) Green
(b) Red
(c) Blue
Answer:
(a) Green

Question 3.
The pedestrian crossing was instituted in …………….. in 1934.
(a) France
(b) Russia
(c) Britain
Answer:
(c) Britain

Question 4.
Mandatory road signs are generally …………….. in shape.
(a) triangular
(b) rectangular
(c) Circular
Answer:
(c) Circular

III. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
What are the three types of traffic signs?
Answer:
The three types of traffic signs are Mandatory, Cautionary, and Informatory.

Question 2.
What are Mandatory road signs?
Answer:
Mandatory road signs are the ones that give orders regarding do’s and don’ts and are to be followed strictly. These are generally circular in shape.

Question 3.
What are Cautionary road signs?
Answer:
Cautionary road signs are the ones that warn the road user regarding the road situation ahead. Cautionary signs are generally in a triangular shape.

Question 4.
What are the Informatory signs?
Answer:
Informatory signs are the ones that give information regarding directions, destinations, etc. Informatory signs are generally rectangular in shape.

Question 5.
What do the three Colours Red, Amber, and Green signify?
Answer:

1. Red means Stop
2. Amber means Caution
3. Green means Go

Question 6.
What are the traffic signs?
Answer:
Traffic signs are there to regulate traffic, warn about hazards, and to guide the road user.

Question 7.
What are the safety measures for a pillion rider / Co – passengers.
Answer:

1. Always wear helmet/seat belt
2. Do not indulge in talking with the driver.
3. Children above 12 years of age should occupy the back seat.

Question 8.
Mention the safety measures you take while playing.
Answer:

1. Do not play on roads
2. Look for a playground or vacant land to play.
3. Do not play around a vehicle parked inside your School Premises / Colony or near your residence.

IV. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
Discuss the Do’s and Don’ts of a Pedestrian.
Answer:
Do’s:

1. Walk on any side of the road if there are Foot Paths.
2. On roads without footpath walk on your extreme right side facing the oncoming traffic.
3. Children below 8 years of age should cross the road with the help of elders.
4. Cross the road when the vehicles are at a safe distance.
5. Wear light coloured dresses at night.

Don’ts:

1. Don’t Cross the road hastily by running.
2. Don’t Cross the road in front of or in between Parked Vehicles.
3. Don’t try to cross the road where you are not visible to the vehicle driver.
4. Don’t jump over railings to cross the road.

Question 2.
Safety measures would you take while riding a bicycle.
Answer:

1. The cycle must be fixed with the standard gadgets.
2. Cycle on the extreme left side of the road or use service road, if available.
3. Avoid busy roads
4. Keep a safe distance from a fast motorized vehicle.
5. Give proper indications before stopping and turning.
6. Don’t indulge in any kind of Stunts
7. Don’t load the cycle with heavy goods
8. Don’t ride holding on to other fast-moving vehicles.

Question 3.
Mention the rules you need to follow while Commuting in School transportation.
Answer:

1. Get up early and start at home early.
2. Board the bus from the designated bus stop in a queue.
3. Once inside the bus behave properly.
4. Get down only when the bus has Completely Stopped.
5. If the driver is not following the road safety norms bring it to the notice of school authorities/parents or traffic helpline.
6. Do not run or rush to catch your bus.
7. Do not stand on the steps of the bus.
8. Do not make noise that may distract the driver.
9. Do not put any part of the body outside the bus.

V. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 3 Geography Chapter 2 Globe Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Globe

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Globe Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks

1. The line of latitude which is known as the Great Circle is ……………..
2. The imaginary lines drawn horizontally on Earth from the West to East are called ……………..
3. The 90° lines of latitude on the Earth are called ……………..
4. The Prime Meridian is also called ……………..
5. The world is divided into …………….. time zones.

Answer:

1. Equator
2. lines or parallels of latitude
3. Poles
4. Greenwich meridian
5. 24

II. Choose the best answer

Question 1.
The shape of the Earth is ……………..
(a) Square
(b) Rectangle
(c) Geoid
(d) Circle
Answer:
(c) Geoid

Question 2.
The North Pole is _______.
(a) 90° N Latitude
(b) 90° S latitude
(c) 90° W Longitude
(d) 90° E longitude
Answer:
(a) 90° N Latitude

Question 3.
The area found between 0° and 180° E lines of longitude is called ……………..
(a) Southern Hemisphere
(b) Western Hemisphere
(c) Northern Hemisphere
(d) Eastern Hemisphere
Answer:
(d) Eastern Hemisphere

Question 4.
The 23 ° N line of latitude is called _______.
(a) Tropic of Capricorn
(b) Tropic of Cancer
(c) Arctic Circle
(d) Antarctic Circle
Answer:
(b) Tropic of Cancer

Question 5.
180° line of longitude is ……………..
(a) Equator
(b) International Date Line
(c) Prime Meridian
(d) North Pole
Answer:
(b) International Date Line

Question 6.
The Sun is found overhead the Greenwich Meridian at ________
(a) 12 midnight
(b) 12 noon
(c) 1 p.m.
(d) 11 a.m.
Answer:
(b) 12 noon

Question 7.
A day has ……………
(a) 1240 minutes
(b) 1340 minutes
(c) 1440 minutes
(d) 1140 minutes
Answer:
(c) 1440 minutes

Question 8.
Which of the following lines of longitude is considered for the Indian Standard Time?
(a) 82 1/2° E
(b) 82 1/2° W
(c) 811/2° E
(d) 81 1/2° W
Answer:
(a) 82 1/2° E

Question 9.
The total number of lines of latitude are ……………
(a) 171
(b) 161
(c) 181
(d) 191
Answer:
(c) 181

Question 10.
The total number of lines of longitude are ________
(a) 370
(b) 380
(c) 360
(d) 390
Answer:
(c) 360

III. pic the odd one Answer

Question 1.
North Pole, South Pole, Equator, International Date Line.
Answer:
International Dateline

Question 2.
Tropic of Capricorn, Tropic of Cancer, Equator, Prime Meridian.
Answer:
Prime Meridian

Question 3.
Torrid Zone, Time Zone, Temperate Zone, Frigid Zone
Answer:
Time Zone

Question 4.
Royal Astronomical Observatory, Prime Meridian, Royal Astronomical Greenwich Meridian, International Date Line.
Answer:
Royal Astronomical observatory

Question 5.
10° North, 20° South, 30°, North, 40° West
Answer:
40° west.

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – b
4. – a

V. Examine the following statements

1. The Earth is spherical in shape.
2. The shape of the Earth is called a geoid.
3. The Earth is flat.
Look at the options given below and choose the correct answer
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct
(d) 1, 2, and 3 are correct
Answer:
(c) 1 and 2 are correct

VI. Examine the following statements

Question 1.
Statement I: The lines of latitude on Earth are used to find the location of a place and define the heat zones on Earth.
Statement II: The lines of longitudes on Earth are used to find the location of a place and to calculate time.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Statement I is correct; II is wrong
(b) Statement I is wrong; II correct
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are wrong
Answer:
(a) Statement I is correct; II is wrong

VII. Name the following

Question 1.
The imaginary lines are drawn horizontally on Earth
Answer:
Lines of latitude/parallels

Question 2.
The imaginary lines are drawn vertically on Earth.
Answer:
Lines of longitude /Meridians

Question 3.
The three dimensional model of the Earth.
Answer:
Globe

Question 4.
India is located in this hemisphere based on lines of longitude.
Answer:
Southern Hemisphere

Question 5.
The network of lines of latitude and longitude.
Answer:
Earth grid / Geographic grid

VIII. Answer briefly

Question 1.
What is a geoid?
Answer:

1. The Earth cannot be compared with any other geometrical shape as it has a very unique shape.
2. Hence, its shape is called a geoid (earth shaped).

Question 2.
What is the local time?
Answer:

1. When the sun is overhead on a particular line of longitude, it is 12 moon at all the places located on that line of longitude.
2. This is called local time.

Question 3.
How many times would the sun pass overhead a line of longitude?
Answer:
The sun is overhead on a line of longitude only once a day.

Question 4.
What are lines of latitude and longitude?
Answer:

1. There are imaginary lines which are drawn on the globe horizontally and vertically to find a location and calculate distance and time.
2. These imaginary lines are called lines of latitudes and longitudes.

Question 5.
Name the four hemispheres of the Earth.
Answer:

1. Northern Hemisphere,
2. Southern Hemisphere,
3. Eastern Hemisphere and
4. Western Hemisphere.

IX. Give reason

Question 1.
The 0° line or longitude is called the Greenwich Meridian.
Answer:
The 0° line of longitude is called the Greenwich Meridian because it passes through Greenwich.

Question 2.
The regions on Earth between North & South lines of latitude (66 Vi°) and poles (90°) is called Frigid Zone.
Answer:

1. From the Arctic circle (66 ‘A° N) to the North Pole (90° N) and from the Antarctic circle (66 Vi0 S) to the South Pole (90° S) the sun’s rays full further inclined, through out the year.
2. The temperature is very low.
3. Hence this region is known as Frigid Zone.

Question 3.
The International Date Line runs zigzag.
Answer:
If the International Date line is drawn straight, two places in the same country would have different dates. So the International date line is found Zig Zag to avoid confusion.

X. Answer in detail

Question 1.
What are the uses of globe?
Answer:

1. Since the Earth is huge and we live on a very area, we are not able to see the Earth as a whole.
2. But when we travel to space, we can see the Earth as a whole.
3. So, in order to see the shape of the Earth as a whole and to know its unique features, a three-dimensional model of the Earth was created with a specific scale in the name of the globe.

Question 2.
How are the hemispheres divided on the basis of lines of latitude and longitude? Explain with diagrams.
Answer:
Northern Hemisphere:
Northern Hemisphere. The area of the Earth found between the Equator (Oo) and the North pole (90oN) is called the Northern Hemisphere.

Southern Hemisphere:
Southern Hemisphere. The area of the Earth from the Equator (0°) and the South pole (90°S) is called the Southern Hemisphere.

Eastern Hemisphere:
Eastern Hemisphere. The part of the Earth between the 0° line of longitude and 180° East line of longitude is known as the Eastern Hemisphere.

Western Hemisphere
Western Hemisphere. The part of the Earth from Oo line of longitude and 180° West line of longitude is called as Western Hemisphere.

Question 3.
What are the significant lines of latitude? Explain the zones found between them.
Answer:

1. The significant lines of latitude are
2. Equator 0°
3. Tropic of cancer 23 1/2° N
4. Tropic of Capricorn 23 1/2° S
5. Arctic Circle 66 1/22°N
6. Antarctic Circle 66 1/2° S
7. North Pole 90° N
8. South Pole 90° S
9. Based on the amount of heat received from the sun, our world is broadly divided into three heat zones.

1. The Torrid Zone : On both sides of the equator, the region lying between the Tropic of cancer and Tropic of Capricorn is called the Torrid zone. This zone gets the direct rays of the sun all the year round. Hence the climate is hot and humid.

2. The Temperature Zone : This zone is neither hot nor very cold. It lies between the Torrid zone and Frigid zone in both the hemispheres.

3. The Frigid Zone : The region lying between the Arctic circle and North pole and between Antarctic circle and south pole is called the frigid zone. It receives very slanting rays of the sun and is therefore very cold.

Question 4.
Explain : Indian Stanard Time.
Answer:

1. The longitudinal extent of India is from 68° 7’E to 97° 25’E
2. Twenty nine lines of longitude pass through India.
3. Having 29 standard time is not logical
4. Hence 821/2° E line of longitude is observed as the prime meridian to calculate the Indian standard Time (IST)

XI. Activity

There are five Posistion marked on the grid given below. Look at them carefully and fill the blanks with reference to the lines of latitude and longitude. The first one is done for you.

1. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point A 40° N 30°W
2. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point B 20° N 10°W
3. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point C 10° N 20°W
4. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point D 40° N 50°W
5. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point E 20° N 20°W

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Globe Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks Answer

1. The surface area of the Earth is ………….. million square kilometres.
2. ………….. was the first person to draw the lines of latitude and longitude on a map
3. The Royal Astronomical observatory is located at …………..
4. The directions on the ground are always shown with respect to the …………..
5. There are four ………….. directions.

Answer:

1. 510.1
2. Ptolemy
3. Greenwich
4. North
5. Cardinal

II. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Who said this? The stars in the sky seem to move towards the west because of the Earth’s rotation on its axis
Answer:
Aryabhata – The Indian astronomer

Question 2.
Who wrote the book ‘Geographia’?
Answer:
Ptolemy, (a Greco – Roman mathematician (astronomer and geographer)

Question 3.
Name the country that has 7 time zones.
Answer:
Russia

III. Answer in briefly

Question 1.
Define Meridian
Answer:
The word meridian is derived from the latin word ‘Meridianus’. It means mid day. So, meridian means the postion of the sun overhead at the place at noon.

Question 2.
What is an axis?
Answer:

1. An imaginary line around which a large round object such as the Earth turns.
2. The Earth rotates on its axis between the north and South Poles.

Question 3.
What is hemisphere?
Answer:
A half of the earth usually as divided into Northern and Southern halves by the equator or into Western and Eastern halves by an imaginary line passing through the poles.

IV. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
23 1/220° N and S 66 1/220° N and S lines of latitudes are called ……………..
(a) Low latitudes
(b) Middle latitudes
(c) High latitudes
Answer:
(b) Middle latitudes

Question 2.
The Sun’s rays fall vertically in this region.
(a) Frigid Zone
(b) Temperate Zone
(c) Torrid Zone
Answer:
(c) Torrid Zone

Question 3.
High latitudes are there between
(a) 66 1/2°N and S – 90°N and S
(b) 231/2°N and S and 66f°N and S
(c) 0° – 23 1/2°N and S
(d) North poles
Answer:
(a) 66 1/2° N and S – 90°N and S

Question 4.
Latitudes are also known as ……………..
(a) Nilavangu
(b) Ahalangu
(c) Nettangu
Answer:
(b) Ahalangu

Question 5.
Lines of latitudes merge
(a) at poles
(b) at the equator
(c) at International Date line
(d) do not merge
Answer:
(d) do not merge

V. Match the following

Answer:
1. – b
2. – d
3. – e
4. – a
5. – c

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Draw the Heat Zones of the Earth
Answer:

VII. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 2 History Chapter 2 Great Thinkers and New Faiths Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Great Thinkers and New Faiths

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Great Thinkers and New Faiths Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
What is the name of the Buddhist scripture?
(a) Angas
(b) Tripitakas
(c) Tirukkural
(d) Naladiyar
Answer:
(b) Tripitakas

Question 2.
Who was the first Tirthankara of Jainism?
(a) Rishabha
(b) Parsava
(c) Vardhamana
(d) Buddha
Answer:
(a) Rishabha

Question 3.
How many Tirthankaras were there in Jainism?
(a) 23
(b) 24
(c) 25
(d) 26
Answer:
(b) 24

Question 4.
Where was the third Buddhist Council convened?
(a) Rajagriha
(b) Vaishali
(c) Pataliputra
(d) Kashmir
Answer:
(c) Pataliputra

Question 5.
Where did Buddha deliver his first sermon?
(a) Lumbini
(b) Saranath
(c) Taxila
(d) Bodh Gaya
Answer:
(b) Saranath

II. Match the Statement with the Reason. Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Statement : A common man could not understand Upanishads.
Reason : Upanishads were highly philosophical.
(a) Statement and its Reason are correct
(b) Statement is wrong
(c) Statement is true, but the Reason for that is wrong
(d) Both Statement and Reason are wrong
Answer:
(a) Statement and its Reason are correct

Question 2.
Statement: The Jatakas are popular tales,
Reason: Frescoes on the ceilings and walls of Ajanta caves depict the Jataka Tales.
(a) Statement and its Reason are correct.
(b) Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement is true, but the Reason for that is wrong.
(d) Both statement and Reason are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement and its. Reason are correct,

Question 3.
Find out the correct answer:
Buddha Viharas are used for
1. Education
2. Stay of Buddhist monks
3. Pilgrims stay
4. Prayer hall
(a) 2 is correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 1,2,4 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
Answer:
(b) 1 and 3 are correct

Question 4.
Consider the following statements regarding the causes of the origin of Jainism and Buddhism.
I. Sacrificial ceremonies were expensive.
II. Supertitious beliefs and practices confused the common man.
Which of the above statement (s) is / are correct?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I & II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer:
(c) Both I & II

Question 5.
Which of the following about Jainism is correct?
Which of the following about Jainism is correct?
(a) Jainism denies God as the creator of universe
(b) Jainism accepts God as the creator of universe
(c) The basic philosophy of Jainism is idol worship
(d) Jains accept the belief in Last Judgement. ,
Answer:
(a) Jainism denies God as the creator of universe

Question 6.
Circle the odd one:

Answer:
Parsava

Question 7.
Find out the wrong pair:
(a) Ahimsa – not to injure
(b) Satya – to speak truth
(c) Asteya – not to steal
(d) Brahmacharya – married status
Answer:
(d) Brahmacharya – married status

Question 8.
All the following statements are true of Siddhartha Gautama except:
(a) He is the founder of Hinduism
(b) He was bom in Nepal
(c) He attained Nirvana
(d) He was known as Sakyamuni
Answer:
(a) He is the founder of Hinduism

III. Fill in the blanks

1. The doctrine of Mahavira is called …………….
2. ……………. is a state of freedom from suffering and rebirth.
3. ……………. was the founder of Buddhism.
4. Thiruparthikundram, a village in Kanchipuram was once called …………….
5. ……………. were built over the remains of Buddha’s body.

Answer:

1. Jainism
2. Nirvana
3. Gautama Buddha
4. Jina Kanchi
5. Stupas

IV. True or False

1. Buddha believed in Karma.
2. Buddha had faith in caste system
3. Gautama Swami compiled the teachings of Mahavira.
4. Viharas are temples.
5. Emperor Ashoka followed Buddhism.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True

V. Match the following Answer

Answer:
1. – d
2. – a
3. – 4
4. – c
5. – b

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What are the Tri-Ratna (three jewels) of Jainism?
Answer:
Triratna (Three Jewels) of Jainism are

1. Right Faith
2. Right Knowledge
3. Right action.

Question 2.
What are the two sects of Buddhism?
Answer:
The two sects of Buddhism are Hinayana, Mahayana.

Question 3.
What does Jina mean?
Answer:
Jina means conquering self and the external world.

Question 4.
Write any two common features of Buddhism and Jainism.
Answer:

1. Both Buddhism and Jainism denied the authority of Vedas.
2. Both believed in the doctrine of Karma.

Question 5.
Write a note on Buddhist Sangha.
Answer:

1. Sangha, meaning ‘association’ for the propagation of Buddha’s faith.
2. It was formed to propagate Buddha’s faith.
3. The members were called Bhikshus (monks).
4. They led a life of austerity.

Question 6.
Name the Chinese traveller who visited Kancheepuram in the seventh century AD. (CE).

1. Hieun Tsang visited Kanchipuram in the seventh century A.D. (CE).
2. There he noticed the presence of 100 feet stupa built by Ashoka.

Question 7.
Name the female Jain monk mentioned in Silapathikaram.
Answer:
Silapathikaram mentions that when Kovalan and Kannagi were on their way to Madurai, Gownthiyadigal a female Jain monk blessed the couple and accompanied them.

VI. Answer the following

Question 1.
Name the eightfold path of Buddhism?
Answer:

1. Right View
2. Right Thought
3. Right Speech
4. Right Action
5. Right Livelihood
6. Right Effort
7. Right Knowledge
8. Right Meditation

Question 2.
What are the five important rules of conduct in Jainism?
Answer:

1. Ahimsa – not to injure any living beings
2. Satya – to speak the truth
3. Asteya – not to steal
4. Aparigraha – not to own property
5. Brahmacharya – Celibacy

Question 3.
Narrate four noble truths of Buddha?
Answer:

1. Life is full of sorrow and misery.
2. Desire is the cause of misery.
3. Sorrows and sufferings can be removed by giving up one’s desire.
4. The desire can be overcome by following the right path (Noble eightfold path)

Question 4.
Write any three differences between Hinayana and Mahayana sects of Buddhism.
Answer:
Hinayana

1. Did not worship idols or images of Buddha.
2. Practiced austerity.
3. Believed that Salvation of the individual as its goal.
4. Used Prakrit language.
5. Confined to India.

Mahayana

1. Worshiped images of Buddha.
2. Observed elaborate rituals.
3. Believed that the salvation of all beings as its objective.
4. Used Sanskrit language.
5. Spread to Central Asia, Ceylon, Burma, Nepal, Tibet, China, Japan, where the middle path was accepted.

Question 5.
Jainism and Buddhism flourished in the Sangam period. Give any two pieces of evidence for each.
Answer:
(i) In ancient Tamil literature, Jainism is referred to as Samanam. There is a Samanar Hill or Samanar Malai in Keelakuyilkudi village, 15 km away from Madurai. The images of Tirthankaras created by Jain monks are found in the hill. It is a protected monument of the Archaeological Survey of India.

(ii) There is a reference to Aravor Palli, a place of living for Jain monks, in Manimegalai.

(iii) Buddhism spread to Tamil Nadu much later than Jainism. Manimekalai, one of the epics of the post-Sangam age is Buddhist literature.

(iv) There is an elaborate description of Kanchipuram in the classical epic Manimegalai.

VIII. HOTS

Question 1.
Karma – a person’s action. Name any 10 good actions (deeds).
Answer:

1. Help a friend in need
2. Let your first good deed be to a charity
3. Plant a tree
4. Donate an old cell phone
5. Donate blood
6. Decide to make one change in yourself that will make you a better person.
7. Swallow your pride and apologize for something you have done – whether big or small.
8. Donate school supplies to children from underprivileged homes.
9. Answer the phone in a cheerful voice.
10. When you are out buying food purchase, an extra item to donate to a food pantry or to a homeless person.

IX. Student Activity

Question 1.
Read any one story from Jatakas and write a similar story on your own.

Question 2.
Make a tabular column in the following 5 headings.
Answer:

Question 3.
Place the following words in the appropriate column.
Answer:
Words:

1. Jina
2. Mahay ana
3. Tirthankaras
4. Stupas
5. Nirvana
6. Digambara
7. Tripitaka’s
8. Agama

Question 4.
Task cards activity:
Make informative cards for the following religions. Hinduism, Christianity, Islam, Buddhism, Jainism
Answer:
Hinduism:

1. Dasavathara
2. Rudhthrava tandava
3. Siva – Vishnu
4. Maha Kumba Mela
5. Manu dharma

Christianity :

1. Crucified
2. Holy See
3. Nazareth
4. Sermon on the Mount
5. 12 Disciples

Islam:

1. Mecca
2. 786
3. Hijiri
4. The Quran
5. Mohamed Nabi

Buddhism:

1. Hinayana
2. Bodh Gaya
3. Dhamma
4. Tripitakkas
5. Stupas

Jainism :

1. Tirthankaras
2. Svethambara
3. Aravar Palli
4. Gownthiyadigal
5. Trirathnas

Question 5.
Make a Venn diagram to indicate similarities and dissimilarities of Jainism and Buddhism.
Answer:

Question 6.
Solve the puzzle
Answer:

Left to right:

1. One of the Tri Rathna: Right
2. Buddha’s teachings are referred to as
3. A great center of education
4. The place where Buddha attained enlightenment
5. Not to injure any living being

Right to left:

6. Mother of Siddhartha Maya
7. The Quality of man’s life depends on his deed

Top to bottom:

8. Lumbini is in
9. Buddhist prayer hall
10. A state of freedom from birth
11. Jain scripture compiled by Gautama Swami.

X. Life Skills (For Students)

Create a storyboard for Jainism / Buddhism in a chart Model.

XI. Answer Grid

Question 1.
The Jam monks who wear white clothes are called
Answer:
Svetambaras

Question 2.
What is the meaning of Buddha?
Answer:
The awakened or Enlightened.

Question 3.
Who is the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism?
Answer:
Mahavira

Question 4.
Who delivered Dharmachakra Pravartana?
Answer:
Buddha

Question 5.
How many noble truths are there in Buddhism?
Answer:
Four

Question 6.
Which religion’s teachings include four noble truth and eightfold path?
Answer:
Buddhism

Question 7.
Name the earliest Buddhist literature which deals with the stories of various births of Buddha?
Answer:
The Jatakas

Question 8.
Name any four places where Jain monasteries were located in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Puhar, Uraiyur, Madurai, Kanchi

Question 9.
Name one of the twin Indian’s Epics
Answer:
Silapathikaram

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Great Thinkers and New Faiths Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Samanar Malai in Keelakuyilkudi is 15km away from ………………
(a) Trichy
(b) Chennai
(c) Pudukottai
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(d) Madurai

Question 2.
Kevala refers to
(a) Buddha
(b) Rishaba
(c) Mahavira
(d) Thirthankara
Answer:
(c) Mahavira

Question 3.
…………….. represents the Buddhist view of the world.
(a) The wheel of Dharma
(b) The wheel of law
(c) The wheel of Dhamma
(d) The wheel of life
Answer:
(d) The wheel of life

Question 4.
Asteya means
(a) Ahimsa
(b) Not to steal
(c) To speak the truth
(d) Celibacy
Answer:
(b) Not to steal

II. Match the Statement with the Reason/ Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Statement: The sixth century B.C is a landmark period in the intellectual and spiritual development in India.
Reason: The exploitative practices that paved way for awakening.
(a) Statement is wrong
b) Both statement and reason are wrong
(c) Statement and its reason are correct
(d) Statement is true, but the reason for that is wrong
Answer:
(c) Statement and its reason are correct

Question 2.
Find the correct answer:
Vardhamana was:
1. Kshatriya prince
2. under twelve and a half years of penance
3. the real founder of Jainism
4. The first Tirthankara
(a) All are correct
(b) All are correct except
(c) All are wrong
(d) 3 and 4 are correct
Answer:
(b) All are correct except

III. Fill in the blanks

1. The famous Buddhist logician was …………….
2. Vardhaman means …………….
3. In ancient Tamil literature, Jainism is referred to …………….
4. The stepmother of Siddhartha was …………….

Answer:

1. Dinnaga
2. Prosperous
3. Samanam
4. Gautami

IV. True or False

1. The sacrificial ceremonies were expensive in the sixth century.
2. Uraiyur had a Buddhist monastery.
3. Buddha sat under a Neem tree and undertook a deep meditation.
4. Jainism remained in India only.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True

V. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What are the two sects of Jainism?
Answer:

1. Digambaras
2. Svetambaras

Question 2.
Why is Mahavira Believed to be the real founder of Jainism?
Answer:

1. Mahavira reviewed the ancient Shamanic traditions and came up with new doctrines.
2. Therefore he is believed to be the real founder of Jainism.

Question 3.
What kind of life did the Buddha bhikshus lead?
Answer:
The Buddha bhikshus led a life of austerity.

Question 4.
Mention the four sorrowful sights seen by Siddharta
Answer:
The four Sorrowful sights seen by Siddharta were

1. An uncared old man in rags with his bent back.
2. A sick man suffering from an incurable disease.
3. A dead body being carried to the burial ground by weeping relatives, An ascetic.

VI. Answer the following

Question 1.
Write about the four great sights of Buddha.
Answer:
At the age of 29, Siddhartha saw four sorrowful sights. They were

1. An uncared old man in rags with his bent back.
2. A sick man suffering from an incurable disease.
3. A man’s corpse being carried to the burial ground by weeping relatives.
4. An ascetic.

VII. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 2 Geography Chapter 1 Resources Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Resources

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Resources Text Book Back Questions and Answers

A. Match the following

B. Fill in the blanks

1. Sugarcane is processed to make ……………..
2. Conservation of resources is …………….. use of resources.
3. Resources which are confined to certain regions are called ……………..
4. …………….. resources are being used in the present.
5. …………….. resources are the most valuable resources.
6. Collection of resources directly from nature is called ……………..

Answer:

1. Sugar
2. Careful
3. Localized resources
4. Actual
5. Commercial
6. Primary activities

C. Write short notes on the following

Question 1.
Renewable resources
Answer:
After consumption, resources can be renewed with the period of time is called renewable resources.
Example: Air, Water, Sunlight

Question 2.
Human resources.

1. Human resources are groups of individuals who use nature to create more resources.
2. Though human beings are basically natural resources, we classify human beings separately.

Question 3.
Individual resources.
Answer:

1. Individual resources are resources privately owned by individuals.
2. Example: Apartments

Question 4.
Tertiary activities.
Answer:
Tertiary activities are basically concerned with the distribution of primary and secondary products through a system of transport and trade.
(e.g.) Banking, Trade, and Communications.

D. Give brief answers for the following

Question 1.
What are the resources?
Answer:

1. The resource is anything that fulfills human needs. When anything is of some use it becomes valuable.
2. All resources have value.
3. The value can be either commercial or non-commercial.

Question 2.
What are the actual resources?
Answer:
Actual resources are resources that are being used and the quantity available is known, (eg) Coal mining at Neyveli Lignite Corporation.

Question 3.
Define abiotic resources.
Answer:
Abiotic resources are non-living things. Land, Water, Air, and Minerals are abiotic resources.

Question 4.
What is sustainable development?
Answer:

1. Development is necessary without affecting the needs of future generations.
2. If the present needs of resources are met and the conserving of resources for the future is balanced, we call it sustainable development.

E. Give short answers to the following questions

Question 1.
Differentiate universal and localized resources.
Answer:
Universal Resources

1. Universal resources are present everywhere.
2. Eg. Sunlight and air

Localized Resources

1. Localized resources are present in specific regions.
2. Eg. Minerals

Question 2.
Though human beings are natural resources, why are they classified separately?
Answer:

1. Though human beings are basically natural resources, we classify human beings separately.
2. Education, health, knowledge, and skill have made them valuable resources. Eg. Doctors, Scientists, and Teachers

Question 3.
Compare National and International Resources.
Answer:
National resources

1. National resources are resources within the political boundaries and oceanic areas of a country.
2. Eg. Tropical Forest Region of India

International resources

1. International resources are all oceanic resources found in the open ocean. Resources found in the region can be utilized only after an international agreement.
2. Eg. Ambergris.

Question 4.
What is the difference between man-made resources and human resources?
Answer:
Man-made resources

1. Natural resources are modified or processed by technology into man-made resources.
2. Eg. Sugarcane processed to get Sugar
3. All structures built by man can also be called man-made resources.
4. Eg. Bridges, Houses, Road.

Human Resources

1. Human resources are groups of individuals who use nature to create more resources.
2. Through human beings are basically natural resources, we classify human beings separately.
3. Education health knowledge and skill have made them a valuable resource.
4. Eg. Doctors, Teachers, Scientists.

Question 5.
Write the Gandhian thought on conservation of resources.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi blamed “human beings” for the depletion of resources because of

1. overexploitation of resources
2. Unlimited needs of human beings. So, conservation is very important.

F. Give detailed answers to the following questions. (100 – 120 words)

Question 1.
How are natural resources classified? Explain any three with examples.
Answer:
Natural resources are classified according to theirs.

1. Origin
2. Development
3. Renewability
4. Distribution
5. Ownership

Question I.
On the basis of origin – Biotic Resources and Abiotic Resources
Answer:

1. All living resources are Biotic resources. Example: Plants, Animals, Microorganisms.
2. Non-living resources are abiotic resources. Example: Land, Water, Air, Minerals

Question II.
On the basis of development – Actual Resources and Potential Resources
Answer:

1. The resources that are being used at present are Actual resources. The quantity is known. Example: Coal at Neyveli.
2. The resources that are not utilized at present are potential resources. The quantity and location are not known.
3. Example: Marine yeast (in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea)

Question III.
On the basis of Renewability – Renewable Resources and Non – renewable Resouces?
Answer:

1. After consumption, resources can be renewed with the period of time is called renewable resources. Example: Air, Water, Sun Light
2. Natural resources that have limited stock are non – renewable resources. Example: Coal, Petroleum, Natural gas, Minerals

Question 2.
How can resources be conserved?
Answer:

1. Careful use of resources is the conservation of resources.
2. Due to the rapid increase in population the resources are being utilized at a very fast rate.
3. To avoid this we need sustainable development. Sustainable development can take place when
   1. • Wastage and excess consumption is prevented
      • Reusable resources are recycled
      • Pollution is prevented
      • Environment is protected
      • Natural vegetation and wildlife are preserved.
4. The easiest way to conserve resources is to follow the “3R”s: Reduce, Reuse, and Recycle.

Question 3.
What is resource planning and why is it necessary?
Answer:

1. The technique or skill of proper utilization of resources is Resource Planning. Resource Planning is necessary because
2. Resources are limited and we have to use them properly. Also, we have to save the resources for our future generation.
3. Resources are unevenly distributed over the different parts of the world.
4. It is also essential for the production of resources to protect them from overexploitation.

Question 4.
Explain Primary secondary and tertiary activities.
resources, (eg.) Sunlight and air.

(a) Primary Activities

1. They are concerned with the production of raw materials for foodstuff and industrial use.
2. Primary activities include agriculture, cattle rearing, fishing, mining, collection of fruits, nuts, honey, rubber, resin, and medical herbs, etc.

(b) Secondary Activities

1. The raw materials obtained from the primary activities are converted into finished products through machinery on a large scale.
2. These activities are called secondary activities.

(c) Tertiary activities:

1. Tertiary activities are basically concerned with the distribution of primary and secondary products through a system of transport and trade.
2. (Eg): Banking, Trade, and communication.

G. Statements and inferences

Question 1.
Statement: Solar energy is the best substitute for thermal energy in tropical regions.
Inference 1: Coal and petroleum resources are receding.
Inference 2: Solar energy will never deplete.
Now choose the right answer.
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows
(c) Neither 1 nor 2 follows
(d) Both 1 and 2 follow
Answer:
(d) Both 1 and 2 follow

Question 2.
Statement : If you don’t conserve resources, the human race may become extinct.
Inference 1 : You need not conserve resources.
Inference 2 : You need to conserve resources.
Now choose the right answer.
a) Only conclusion 1 follows.
b) Only conclusion 2 follows,
c) Neither 1 nor 2 follows.
d) Both 1 and 2 follow.
Answer:
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows

Question 3.
Statement : Man switched over to agriculture.
Inference 1 : Food gatherers experienced scarcity of food.
Inference 2 : Food gathered was not nutritious.
Now choose the right answer.
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows
(c) Neither 1 nor 2 follows
(d) Both 1 and 2 follow
Answer:
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows

H. Given are three suggestions to conserve resources: Write the 3Rs in suitable places.

1. Giving your childhood cycle to your neighbour
2. Using a flush that consumes less water
3. Melting used plastic to lay roads

Answer:

1. Reuse
2. Reduce
3. Recycle

I. Cross word puzzle

Across left to right:

1. A development that balances time
2. Energy from the sun
3. All resources that belong to a country

Down:

1. A resource found everywhere
2. An international resource
3. A resource provided by nature
4. A resource restricted to specific areas

Across right to left:

1.  One of the 3Rs

Answer:
Across left to right :

1. SUSTAINABLE
2. SOLAR
3. NATIONAL

Down:

1. UNIVERSAL
2. AMBERGRIS
3. NATURAL
4. LOCALIZED

Across right to left:

1. REUSE

K. Identify the different economic activities and fill the table given below

L . Teacher’s Activities

1. Observe “Save Energy Day” Once a month at school/class level
2. Try making wall hangings with waste materials to decorate your school corridors.
3. Find out if there are any industries near your school. A field trip may be arranged.
4. Collect pictures based on
   • Fishing
   • Hunting
   • Food – gathering
   • Forestry
   • Mining
   • Agriculture
   • Cattle – rearing
   • Lumbering

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Resources Additional Important Questions and Answers

A. Fill in the blanks Answer

1. ……………… are two important factors that determine Time and Technology whether a substance is a resource or not.
2. All resources that have been directly provided by Natural resources nature are called ………………
3. Man mined precious metals simultaneously for making ………………
4. The non – renewable resources become ……………… after use and the time they take to replace does not match the life cycle.
5. Ambergris is used in ……………… industries.
6. Marine yeast has greater potential than ……………… yeast.

Answer:

1. Time and Technology
2. Natural resources
3. ornaments
4. exhausted
5. perfume
6. terrestrial

B. Write short notes on the following

Question 1.
Non – renewable resources.
Answer:

1. Natural resources that have limited stock are non – renewable resources.
2. Example: Goal, Petroleum

Question 2.
Community-owned Resources.
Answer:

1. Community-owned resources are resources which can be utilised by all the members of the community.
2. Eg. Public Parks.

Question 3.
World’s largest Pharmacy.
Answer:

1. Tropical rain forests are called the world’s largest pharmacy.
2. 25% of the natural vegetation are medicinal plants. Example: Cinchona.

C. Give brief answers for the following

Question 1.
How can natural resources be classified depending on?
Answer:

1. Origin
2. Development
3. Renewability
4. Distribution
5. Ownership

Question 2.
What is an abiotic resource?
Answer:

1. Abiotic resources are non-living things.
2. Land, Water, Air, and minerals are abiotic resources.

D. Mind Map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 2 History Chapter 1 Vedic Culture in North India and Megalithic Culture in South India Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Vedic Culture in North India and Megalithic Culture in South India

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Vedic Culture in North India and Megalithic Culture in South India Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Aryans first settled in …………… region.
(a) Punjab
(b) Middle Gangetic
(c) Kashmir
(d) Northeast
Answer:
(a) Punjab

Question 2.
Aryans came from
(a) China
(b) North Asia
(c) Central Asia
(d) Europe
Answer:
(c) Central Asia

Question 3.
Our National Motto “Sathyameva Jayate” is taken from ……………
(a) Brahmana
(b) Veda
(c) Aranyaka
(d) Upanishad
Answer:
(d) Upanishad

Question 4.
What was the ratio of land revenue collected during the Vedic Age
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/6
(c) 1/8
(d) 1/9
Answer:
(b) 1/6

II. Match the Statement with the Reason/ Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Assertion: The Vedic age is evidenced by a good number of texts and an adequate amount of material evidence.
Reason: Shrutis comprise the Vedas, the Brahmanas, the Aranyakas, and the Upanishads.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(d) A is false but R is true

Question 2.
Statement I: Periplus mentions the steel imported into Rome from peninsular India was subjected to duty in the port of Alexandria.
Statement II: Evidence for iron smelting has come to light at Paiyampalii.
(a) Statement I is wrong.
(b) Statement II is wrong.
(c) Both the statements are correct,
(d) Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct

Question 3.
Which of the statement is not correct in the Vedic society.
(a) A widow could re-marry.
(b) Child marriage was in practice.
(c) Father’s property was inherited by his son
(d) Sati was unknown
Answer:
(b) Child marriage was in practice

Question 4.
Which is the correct ascending order of the Rig Vedic society?
(a) Grama < Kula < Vis < Rashtra < Jana
(b) Kula < Grama < Vis < Jana < Rashtra
(c) Rashtra < Jana < Grama < Kula < Vis
(d) Jana Grama < Kula < vis < Rashtra
Answer:
(d) Jana Grama < Kula < vis < Rashtra

III. Fill in the blanks

1. Vedic culture was ……………. in nature.
2. ……………. was a tax collected from the people in the Vedic period.
3. ……………. system is an ancient learning method.
4. Adhichanallur is in ……………. district.

Answer:

1. Chalcolithic
2. Bali
3. Gurukula
4. Thoothukudi

IV. True or False

1. The Roman artifacts found at various sites provide evidence of Indo – Roman trade relations.
2. A Hero Stone is a memorial stone raised in remembrance of the honourable death of a hero.
3. The army chief was called Gramani.
4. The Black and Red ware pottery became the characteristic of the Megalithic period.
5. Evidence for iron smelting has come to light at paiyampalli.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. True

V. Match the following

Answer:
(d) 1 2 3 4

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Name the four Vedas.
Answer:
The four Vedas are Rig, Yajur, Sama and Atharva.

Question 2.
What were the animals domesticated by Vedic people?
Answer:
Horses, cows, goats, sheep, oxen, and dogs were domesticated. In the later Vedic period the Aryans tamed elephants also.

Question 3.
What do you know about Megalith?
Answer:
The term ‘Megalith’ is derived from Greek. ‘Megas’ means great and ‘lithos’ means stone. Using big stone slabs built upon the places of burial is known as Megalith.

Question 4.
What are Dolmens?
Answer:
Dolmens are Megalithic tombs made of two or more upright stones with a single stone lying across the burial site.

Question 5.
What are Urns?
Answer:
Urns are large pottery jars used for burying the dead.

Question 6.
Name the coins used for business transactions in the Vedic period.
Answer:
Nishka, Satmana (gold coins), and Krishna (silver coins) were used for business transactions.

Question 7.
Name some Megalithic monuments found in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Dolmens
2. Menhir

Dolmens are Megalithic tombs. Megalithic Dolmens have been found in Veeraraghavapuram village, Kanchipuram district, Kummalamaruthupatti, Dindigulfc, district, and in Narasingampatti, Madurai district.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
Write briefly about the archaeological site at Kodumanal.

1. Kodumanal is located in the Erode district.
2. More than 300 pottery inscriptions in Tamil – Brahmi have been discovered there.
3. Archaeologists have also discovered spindles, whorls (used for making thread from cotton)
4. Pieces of cloth, along with tools, weapons, ornaments, beads, particularly camelina also discovered here.
5. A Menhir found at the burial site is assigned to the Megalithic period.

Question 2.
Write about the Vedic women in a paragraph.
Answer:

1. In the Rig Vedic society, women relatively enjoyed some freedom.
2. The wife was respected as the mistress of the household.
3. She could perform rituals in her house.
4. In Rig Vedic period widows could remarry.
5. But they were denied to inherit parental property.
6. They played no role in public affairs.
7. In the later Vedic period women’s position declined, demand to perform rituals and marriage rules became more rigid.
8. Polygamy became common, and women were denied an education.

VIII. HOTS

Question 1.
Difference between the Gurukula system of education and the Modern system of education.
Answer:

1. Apart from the Modern system of education, the Gurukula system is an ancient learning method.
2. The shishas resided with their guru and served them and simultaneously learned and gained knowledge.
3. The students received education through oral tradition. They had to memorize everything.
4. Four Vedas, Ithihasas, Puranas, Grammar, Logic, Ethics, Astrology, Maths, and Military Science were the subjects taught.
5. Only Dvijas could be students and they were trained to lead a disciplined life.

IX. Pride any joy – Let us find out the fact

X. Student Activity

Question 1.
Sentence making by using these new words. Shruti, Gramani, Rashtras, Iron Age, Semi-nomadic, Barter
Answer:

1. The one that was transmitted orally through generations is Shruti.
2. Gramani was the leader of the village.
3. Many Janas formed the Rashtra.
4. Iron Age society in South India belongs to the Vedic period in North India.
5. Rig Vedic Aryans were Semi-nomadic.
6. The barter system was prevalent in the Rig Vedic Period.

Question 2.
Word Search

Answer:

1. KHYBER
2. SMRITI
3. VIS
4. GANA
5. SAMITI
6. AGNI
7. SATMANA
8. IRON AGE
9. URN

XI. Life Skill

1. Collect information from Newspapers about archaeological finds with the help of your teacher.
2. Site Visit: Visit any one of the archaeological sites near your locality.

XII. Answer Grid

Question 1.
Mention two Ithikasas:
Answer:

1. Ramayana
2. Mahabharatha

Question 2.
Vertical monolithic pillar planted in memory of the dead is called …………….
Answer:
Menhir

Question 3.
Name the ancient town in the Sivagangai district dating to the Sangam age.
Answer:
Keezhadi

Question 4.
Name any two Iron Age sites in Tamilnadu
Answer:

1. Paiyampalli
2. Porunthal

Question 5.
What method of agriculture was practiced by early Aryans?
Answer:

1. Slash and burn
2. agriculture

Question 6.
Name two large cities that emerged during the Vedic period.
Answer:

1. Ndraprastha
2. Ayodhya

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Vedic Culture in North India and Megalithic Culture in South India Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The main occupation of the Aryans was ……………
(a) Agriculture
(b) Fishing
(c) Cattle rearing
(d) Hunting
Answer:
(c) Cattle rearing

Question 2.
The main source of wealth in the Rig Vedic period was ______
(a) Land
(b) Gold coins
(c) Cattle
(d) Rice
Answer:
(c) Cattle

Question 3.
The staple crop was ……………
(a) Barley
(b) Wheat
(c) Rice
(d) Cotton
Answer:
(a) Barley

Question 4.
Vishayapati was the head of a ______
(a) Rashtra
(b) Village
(c) Clan
(d) Jana
Answer:
(c) Clan

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Within the early Vedic Society there were …………… divisions.
2. When Aryans settled permanently they began to practice……………
3. The rules of …………… became much more complex and rigid.

Answer:

1. three
2. agriculture
3. marriage

III. True or False

1. Rig Vedic Aryans worshipped mostly the earthly and celestial gods.
2. True Education was denied to women.
3. The term ‘Megalith’ is derived from Latin.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

Answer:
(b) 2 4 1 3

V. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Name the metals known to Rig Vedic People.
Answer:

1. Gold (Hiranya)
2. Iron (Shyama)
3. Copper / Bronze (Ayas)

Question 2.
What are Shrutis?
Answer:

1. The Shmtis comprise the four Vedas, the Brahmanas, the Aranyakas, and the ’ Upanishads.
2. They are considered sacred, eternal, and unquestionable truth.

Question 3.
Name the occupations of Rig Vedic Aryans.
Answer:

1. Cattle rearing
2. Carpenters
3. Chariot makers
4. Potters
5. Smiths
6. Weavers
7. Leather Workers

VI. Mind map