Category: Class 6

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 2 History Chapter 3 From Chiefdoms to Empires Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 From Chiefdoms to Empires

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science From Chiefdoms to Empires Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Kingdom which was most powerful among the four Mahajanapadas …………….
(a) Anga
(b) Magadha
(c) Kosala
(d) Vajji
Answer:
(b) Magadha

Question 2.
Among the following who was the contemporary of Gautama Buddha?
(a) Ajatasatru
(b) Bindusara
(c) Padmanabha Nanda
(d) Brihadratha
Answer:
(a) Ajatasatru

Question 3.
Which of the following are the sources of Mauryan period?
(a) Artha Sastra
(b) Indica
(c) Mudrafakshasa
(d) All
Answer:
(d) All

Question 4.
Chandra Gupta Maurya abdicated the thrown and went to Sravanbelgola along with Jina Saint ; .
(a) Badrabahu
(b) Stulabahu
(c) Parswanatha
(d) Rushabhanatha
Answer:
(a) Badrabahu

Question 5.
……………. was the ambassador of Seleucus Nicator.
(a) Ptolemy
(b) Kautilya
(c) Xerxes
(d) Megasthenese
Answer:
(d) Megasthenese

Question 6.
Who was the last emperor of the Mauryan Dynasty?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Ashoka
(c) Brihadratha
(d) Bindusara
Answer:
(c) Brihadratha

II. Match the Statement with the reason/ Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Statement (A) : Ashoka is considered as one of India’s greatest rulers.
Reason (R) : He ruled according to the principle of Dhamma.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
Statement 1 : Chandragupta Maurya was the first ruler who unified entire India under one political unit.
Statement 2 : The Arthashastra provides information about the Mauryan administration.
(a) only 1
(b) only 2
(c) both 1 and 2
(d) neither 1 nor 2
Answer:
(b) only 2

Question 3.
Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statement(s) is/are correct.
1. Chandragupta Maurya was the first king of Magadha.
2. Rajagriha was the capital of Magadha.
(a) only 1
(b) only 2
(c) both 1 and 2
(d) neither 1 nor 2
Answer:
(c) both 1 and 2

Question 4.
Arrange the following dynasties in chronological order.
(a) Nanda – Sishunaga – Haryanka – Maurya
(b) Nanda – Sishunaga – Maurya – Haryanka
(c) Haryanka – Sishunaga – Nanda – Maurya
(d) Sishunaga – Maurya – Nanda – Haryanka
Answer:
(c) Haryanka – Sishunaga – Nanda – Maurya

Question 5.
Which of the following factors contributed to the rise of Magadhan Empire?
(1) Strategic location
(2)Thick forest supplied timber and elephant
(3) Control over sea
(4) Availability of rich deposits of iron ores
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) 1,2 and 4 only

III. Fill in the blanks

1. …………….. was the earliest capital of Magadha.
2. Mudrarakshasa was written by …………….
3. ……………. was the son of Bindusara.
4. The founder of the Maurya Empire was …………….
5. ……………. were appointed to spread Dhamma all over the empire.

Answer:

1. Rajagriha
2. Visakadatta
3. Ashoka
4. Chandragupta Maurya
5. Dhamma – mahamattas

IV. State True or False

1. The tittle Devanam Piya was given to Chandragupta Maurya.
2. Ashoka gave up war after his defeat in Kalinga.
3. Ashoka’s Dhamma was based on the principle of Buddhism.
4. The lions on the currency notes is taken from the Rampurwa bull capital.
5. Buddha’s relics were placed in the centre of the Stupas.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True

V. Match the following

Answer:
(a) 3 4 1 2

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Mention any two literary sources of the Mauryan period.
Answer:

1. Secular Literature
2. Religious Literature: Vedic, Jain, Buddhist texts and Puranas

Question 2.
What is a stupa?

1. A Stupa is a semi-spherical dome-like structure constructed on brick or stone.
2. The Buddha’s relics were placed in the centre of the dome.

Question 3.
Name the dynasties of Magadha.
Answer:
Four dynasties ruled over Magadha Empire.

1. The Haryanka dynasty
2. The Shishunaga dynasty
3. The Nanda dynasty
4. The Maurya dynasty

Question 4.
What were the sources of revenue during the Mauryan period?
Answer:
(i) The land was the most important source of revenue for the state. Ashokan inscription at Lumbini mentions Bali and bagha as taxes collected from people. The land tax (Bhaga) collected was 1/6 of the total produce.
(ii) Revenue from taxes on forests, mines, salt, and irrigation provided additional revenue to the government.

Question 5.
Who assisted Nagarika in the administration of towns?
Answer:
Sthanika and Gopa assisted Nagarika in the administration of towns.

Question 6.
What do you know from the Rock Edicts II and XIII of Ashoka?
Answer:

1. The horror of the Kalinga war was described by the king himself in the Rock Edict XIII.
2. The Rock Edicts II and XIII of Ashoka refer to the names of the three dynasties namely Pandyas, Cholas, the Keralaputras, and the Sathyaputras.

Question 7.
Which classical Tamil poetic works have the reference of Mauryans?
Answer:
Mamulahar’s poem in Agananuru gives the reference of the Mauryans.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
What did Ashoka do to spread Buddhism? (Write any three points)
Answer:

1. Ashoka sent his son Mahinda and daughter Sanghamitta to Srilanka to propagate Buddhism.
2. He also sent missionaries to West Asia, Egypt, and Eastern Europe to spread the message of Dhamma.
3. The Dhamma-mahamattas was a new cadre of officials created by Ashoka.
4. Their job was to spread dhamma all over the empire.
5. Ashoka held the third Buddhist council at his capital pataliputra.

Question 2.
Write any Hire causes for the rise off Mapdk
Answer:
The Causes for the Rise of Magadha

1. Magadha was located on the lower part of the Gangetic plain.
2. The plain was fertile which ensured the rich agricultural yield.
3. This provided regular and substantial income to the state.
4. The thick forests supplied timber for the construction of buildings and elephants for the army.
5. The abundance of natural resources especially iron enabled them to equip themselves with weapons made of iron.

VIII. HOTS

Question 1.
Kalinga war became a turning point in Ashoka’s life. How?
Answer:

1. In the war of Kalinga, many people died.
2. He understood that war only brings destruction to families.
3. The Kalinga war had incredible influence over the personal life and policy of Ashoka.
4. Hence Kalinga war proved to be a turning point in the life of Ashoka.
5. He found his consolation in Buddhism.
6. He was representing for his deeds. He embraced Buddhism and took the vow of inculcation ‘Dhamma’ to all men throughout his life.
7. He gave up the policy of Dig Vijay and adopted the policy of Dharma Vijay.

Question 2.
Write any five welfare measures you would do If you were a Mug like Ashoka?
Answer:
If I were a king like Ashoka

1. First I would have taken proper steps to help the cultivations, especially storing j the excess water available in rainy season for agriculture.
2. Monetary compensation would have been given during natural calamities.
3. Child protection act would be passed very effectively.
4. Stringent punishments would be given against corruption.
5. Suggestions would have been taken from the general public for quality improvement.

IX. Picture Study

This is the picture of Ashokan edicts.

Question a.
What are edicts?
Answer:
Edicts are official proclamations issued by authority or a king.

Question b.
How are Ashokan edicts useful?
Answer:
Ashokan edicts showed his belief in peace, righteousness, justice, and his concern for the welfare of his people.

Question c.
Where were these edicts inscribed?
Answer:
Edicts were inscribed on the pillars, boulders and cave walls.

Question d.
Name the script used in Sanchi Inscription.
Answer:
Brahmi

Question e.
How many Rock Edicts are there?
Answer:
33 Edicts

X. Who am I

Question 1.
I belonged to Haryanka dynasty. I extended territory by matrimonial alliances. My son is Ajatasatru – Who am I?
Answer:
Bimbisara

Question 2.
I played a significant role in the transformation of society. I am used to making ploughshare – Who am I?
Answer:
Iron

Question 3.
I was known as Devanampiya. I embraced the path of peace – Who am I?
Answer:
Ashoka

Question 4.
I established the first largest empire in India. I performed Sallekhana – Who am I?
Answer:
Chandragupta Maurya.

Question 5.
I am found in the Lion Capital of Ashoka. I am at the centre of our national flag – Who am I?
Answer:
The Ashoka Chakra

XI. Decipher the code – The Mauryan Empire

Answer:

1. The first dynasty that ruled over Magadha was ……………… (8, 1, 18, 25, 1, 14, 11, 1)
2. ………………empire was the first largest empire. (13, 1, 21, 18, 25, 1)
3. ……………… laid the foundation of the new capital at Pataliputra. (21, 4, 1, 25, 9, 14)
4. ……………… was one of the main exports (19, 16, 9, 3, 5, 19)
5. ……………… bacame later the most renowned seat of learning. (14, 1, 12, 1, 14, 4, 1)
6. Revenue from agricultural produce was called ……………… (2, 8, 1, 7, 1)
7. The horror of war was described in ……………… (18, 15, 3, 11, 5, 4, 9, 3, 20)
8. Greeks called Bindusara as ………………  (1, 13, 9, 20, 18, 1, 7, 1, 20, 8.1)
9. The crowning element in Saranath Pillar is ……………… (4, 8, 1, 18, 13, 1, 3, 8, 1, 11, 18, 1)
10. Council of ministers were known as ……………… (13, 1, 14, 4, 18, 9, 16, 1, 18, 9, 19, 8, 1, 4)

Answer:

1. Haryanka
2. Maurya
3. Udayin
4. Spices
5. Nalanda
6. Rhaga
7. Rockedict
8. Amitragatha
9. Dharma Chakra
10. Mantriparishad

XII. Activity (For Students)

1. Field trip to Museum
2. Movie show – about Ashoka and Chandragupta

XIV. Life Skill (For Students)

1. Make a model of Ashoka Chakra
2. Make a model of Sanchi Stupa
3. Draw and colour our National Flag.

XV. Answer Grid

Question 1.
Name the two kinds of government in North India during 6th century B.C. (BCE)
Answer:
Gana – Sanghas and Kingdoms

Question 2.
Who conducted second Buddhist Council at Vaishali?
Answer:
Kalasoka

Question 3.
What is the modern name for Kalinga?
Answer:
Odisha

Question 4.
Town was administrated by …………….
Answer:
Nagarika

Question 5.
Where was the third Buddhist council convened by Ashoka?
Answer:
Pataliputra

Question 6.
Name any two major Mahajanapadas.
Answer:
Magadha, Avanti

Question 7.
Which inscription records the Construction of Sudarshana lake?
Answer:
Junagath Girnar

Question 8.
Who was the last Nanda ruler?
Answer:
Dhana Nanda Maurian period.

Question 9.
Name the silver coin which was in use during the Mauryan Period.
Answer:
Panas

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science From Chiefdoms to Empires Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Mahajanapadas dotted the Indo – Gangetic plain in sixth century BC.
(a) Ten
(b) Fourteen
(c) Sixteen
(d) eighteen
Answer:
(c) Sixteen

Question 2.
Kosala, one of the Mahajanapadas belonged to
(a) Eastern Uttar Pradesh
(b) Allahabad
(c) Bihar
(d) Ujjain
Answer:
(a) Eastern Uttar Pradesh

Question 3.
The horror of the Kalinga war was described in the Rock Edict …………….
(a) X
(b) XI
(c) XII
(d) XIII
Answer:
(d) XIII

Question 4.
The Source of information about the Mauryan Empire is from
(a) Puranas
(b) Edicts of Ashoka
(c) Bihar
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

II. Match the statement with the Reason / Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Statement (A) : Magadha’s gradual rise to political supremacy began with Bimbisara.
Reason (R) : Bimbisara extended the territory by conquests and matrimonial alliances.
(a) A is true but R is false
(b) A is false but R is true
(c) Both A and R are true
(d) Both A and R are false
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are true

Question 2.
Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statement(s) is/are correct.
(1) Board of 40 members divided into eight committees. Each had 5 members to manage the administration of the city.
(2) Town administration was under Nagarika.
(a) only 1
(b) only 2
(c) both 1 and 2
(d) neither 1 nor 2
Answer:
(b) only 2

III. Fill in the blanks

1. Chandragupta Maury a overthrew …………….
2. ……………. convened the first Buddhist council at Rajagriha.
3. The meaning of ……………. is explained in Ashoka’s – Pillar Edict II.
4. Council of ministers known as ……………. assisted the King.

Answer:

1. Dhana Nanda
2. Ajatasatru
3. Dhamma
4. Mantriparishad

IV. State True or False

1. Gold played a significant role in this transformation of society.
2. Magadha was located on the lower part of the Gangetic plain.
3. Mahapadma Nanda and his eight sons were known as Navanandas.
4. Ashoka held the third Buddist council at Kashmir.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False

V. Match the following

Answer:
b) 4 3 2 1

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What were the two kinds of government in North India during the sixth century BC?
Answer:

1. Gana – Sanghas (Non-monarchical states)
2. Kingdoms (Monarchies)

Question 2.
How were Mahajanapadas formed?
Answer:

1. Janapadas were the earliest gathering places of men.
2. Later, Janapadas became republics or smaller kingdoms. The widespread use of iron in the Gangetic plain created conditions for the formation of larger territorial^ units transforming the janapadas into Mahajanapadas.

Question 3.
What did Ashoka lay stress on?
Answer:

1. Compassion
2. Charity
3. Purity
4. Saintliness
5. Self – control
6. Truthfulness
7. Obedience and respect

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
Give reasons for the decline of the Mauryan Empire.
Answer:

1. Ashoka’s successors were very weak.
2. Continuous revolts in different parts of the empire.
3. Invasion by the Bactrian Greeks weakened the empire.
4. Last Maurya ruler Brihadratha was killed by his commander Pushyamitra Sungha.
5. He established the Sungha dynasty.

Question 2.
What do you know about the Royal Art of Mauryan?
Answer:
Royal Art consists of palaces and public buildings, Monolithic pillars, Rock-cut Architecture and Stupas.

Stupas:

1. It is a semicircle dome constructed on brick or stone.
2. The Buddha’s relics were placed in the centre.
3. We can see the stupa at Sanchi near Bhopal.

Monolithic Pillar:

1. The crowning element in this pillar is ‘Dharma Chakra’.
2. We can see the pillar at Samath.

Rock cut Architecture:

1. Rock cut caves are in Barabar hills and Nagarjuna hills
2. They are to the north of Bodh Gaya.
3. 3 caves in Barabar hills have Ashoka’s inscriptions.
4. 3 caves in Nagarjuna hills have Dasharatha Maurya’s inscriptions, (grandson of Ashoka).

VII. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 1 Civics Chapter 2 Achieving Equality Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Achieving Equality

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Achieving Equality Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not the reason for Prejudice?
(a) Socialization
(b) Economic Benefits
(c) Authoritarian personality
(d) Geography
Answer:
(d) Geography

Question 2.
Discrimination done on the basis of gender is referred to as
(a) gender discrimination
(b) caste discrimination
(c) religious discrimination
(d) inequality
Answer:
(a) gender discrimination

Question 3.
Gender-based stereotypes are often portrayed in …………….
(a) films
(b) advertisements
(c) TV serials
(d) All the these
Answer:
(d) All the these

Question 4.
Name the book/s written by A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(a) India 2020
(b) Wings of Fire
(c) Ignited Minds
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 5.
A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was conferred Bharat Ratna in the year …………….
(a) 1997
(b) 1996
(c) 1995
(d) 1994
Answer:
(a) 1997

Question 6.
Viswanathan Anand became India’s first grandmaster in the year.
(a) 1985
(b) 1986
(c) 1987
(d) 1988
Answer:
(d) 1988

Question 7.
In which sport Ilavazhagi excels …………….
(a) Chess
(b) Wrestling
(c) Carrom
(d) Tennis
Answer:
(c) Carrom

Question 8.
Which article of the Constitution says discrimination against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them is not permitted?
(a) 14(1)
(b) 15(1)
(c) 16(1)
(d) 17(1)
Answer:
(b) 15(1)

Question 9.
B.R. Ambedkar was conferred Bharat Ratna in the year …………….
(a) 1990
(b) 1989
(c) 1988
(d) 1987
Answer:
(a) 1990

Question 10.
As per the 2011 Census the highest literate district in Tamil Nadu
(a) Namakkal
(b) Salem
(c) Kanyakumari
(d) Sivagangai
Answer:
(c) Kanyakumari

II. Fill in the blanks

1. People have false belief and ideas on others is called …………….
2. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was born in …………….
3. ……………. was the first recipient of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award, India’s highest Sport honour.
4. ……………. was the independent India’s first Law Minister.
5. As per the 2011 census the lowest Sex ratio was in …………….

Answer:

1. Prejudice
2. 1931
3. Viswanathan Anand
4. Dr.B.R.Ambedkar
5. Dharmapuri

III. Match the following

Answer:
1. – e
2. – d
3. – b
4. – c
5. – a

IV. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
What is Prejudice?
Answer:

1. Prejudice means to judge other people in a negative or inferior manner, without knowing much about them.
2. It happens when people have false beliefs and ideas.

Question 2.
What is a stereotype?
Answer:

1. A stereotype is a false view or idea about something.
2. For example, girls are not good at sports.
3. When prejudice gets stronger, it develops into a stereotype.

Question 3.
What is discrimination?
Answer:

1. Discrimination can be defined as negative actions towards people.
2. Discrimination can happen on the basis of colour, class, religion, and gender, etc.

Question 4.
What are the articles that are discussing equality in the Indian constitution?
Answer:

1. Article 14 of the constitution
2. Article 15(1) of the constitution

V. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
What are the causes of prejudice?
Answer:

1. Socialization
2. Conforming behaviours
3. Economic benefits
4. Authoritarian personality
5. Ethno – centrism
6. Group closure
7. Conflicts

Question 2.
Write any two types of discrimination?
Answer:
(a) Gender discrimination:

1. Gender discrimination refers to health, education, economic and political inequalities between men and women in India.
2. For example a girl is not allowed to go to college after finishing her schooling.
3. Most of the girls are not allowed to select a career of their choice, rather they are forced into marriage.
4. In some families, girls are not allowed to wear modem dresses while boys in such families often wear modem dresses.

(b) Religious discrimination:

1. Religious discrimination is unequal treatment of an individual or group based on their beliefs.
2. Religious discrimination has been around for a long time.
3. There have been problems between people of different religions for thousands of years.
4. Some people are not allowed to enter in public places; especially the places of worship, because they belong to another religion.
5. Some religious people often end up in conflict with each other because of their rituals and way of life.

Question 3.
Explain the solution to the removal of inequality and discrimination in Indian society.
Answer:
The remedial measures for abolishing inequality and discrimination in Indian society are as follows.

1. Wider access to quality based services like healthcare and education for all.
2. Be aware of current gender bias.
3. Make women more visible in public life and institution to eradicate gender disparity.
4. Be open to learning about other religions.
5. Promoting community dining in the classroom may help the students to sit together without any bias of caste, religion, or gender.
6. Socialise with people of all types outside the home.
7. Effective implementation of laws.

VI. Projects and Activities

1. Split the class into small groups, discuss with your peer group on discrimination and write a report on it.
2. Collect information about any two famous personalities who faced prejudice and discrimination.

VII. HOTS

Question 1.
Various discrimination in India. Discuss.
Answer:

1. The different forms of inequalities such as caste inequality, religious inequality, race inequality, or gender inequality give rise to discrimination.
2. Discrimination can happen on the basis of colour, class, religion gender, etc.
3. Treating dark-skinned people differently from fair-skinned people, giving more importance to people of higher than to those of lower caste, and thinking boys are smarter than girls are all thoughts of discrimination.
4. Article 15(1) of the constitution states that the State not to discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them.

VIII. Life Skill

1. How can you fight against prejudice and discrimination in your village?

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Achieving Equality Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Apartheid was practiced in ……………
(a) Germany
(b) Australia
(c) South Africa
(d) India
Answer:
(c) South Africa

Question 2.
Viswanathan Anand was born in _______
(a) Chennai
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Thiruvananthapuram
(b) Vishakapatnam
Answer:
(a) Chennai

Question 3.
The chairman of the Drafting Committee of India’s constituent Assembly was ……………
(a) Nehru
(b) Dr. Ambedkar
(c) Mount Batten
(d) Dr. Abdul kalam
Answer:
(b) Dr. Ambedkar

Question 4.
Apartheid, the racist policy was brought to an end by _______
(a) Martin Luther
(b) Nelson Mandela
(c) Mother Theresa
(d) Tagore
Answer:
(b) Nelson Mandela

Question 5.
Mr. Viswanathan Anand won the World Junior Championship in ……………
(a) Chess
(b) Carrom
(c) Cricket
(d) High jump
Answer:
(a) Chess

II. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Mention the types of prejudice
Answer:

1. Gender prejudice
2. Racial prejudice
3. Class prejudice
4. Disability prejudice

Question 2.
Name the books written by Dr. APJ Abdul Kaiam.
Answer:
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam wrote many books. The famous among them are –

1. India 2020
2. Wings of Fire
3. Ignited Minds
4. The Luminous Sparks
5. Mission India.

Question 3.
What is meant by constitution?
Answer:
A constitution is a set of rules and regulations guiding the administration of a country.

Question 4.
What does Article 15(1) of our constitution state about discrimination?
Answer:
The state shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex and place of birth or any of them.

Question 5.
What does Article 14 of our constitution state about equality?
Answer:
Article 14 provides equality before law or equal protection within the territory of India and prohibits unreasonable discrimination between persons.

III. Mind map

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf History Term 1 Chapter 1 What is History?Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Solutions History Term 1 Chapter 1 What is History?

6th Social Science Guide What is History? Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
What was the step taken by the early man to collect his food?
(a) trade
(b) hunting
(c) painting
(d) rearing of animals
Answer:
(b) hunting

II. Match the statement with the reason. Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Statement: Pre historic man went along with the dog for hunting.
Reason: Dogs with its sniffing power would find out other animals.
(a) Statement is true, but reason is wrong.
(b) Statement and reason are correct.
(c) Statement is wrong, but reason is correct.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(b) Statement and reason are correct

Question 2.
Statement: The objects used by the early man are excavated. They are preserved to know the lifestyle of the people.
Find out which of the following is related to the statement.
(a) Museum
(b) Burial materials
(e) Stone tools
(d) Bones
Answer:
(a) Museum

Question 3.
Find out the wrong pair:
(a) Old stone age – Stone tools
(b) Rock paintings – Walls of the caves
(c) Copper plates – A source of history
(d) Cats – First domesticated
Answer:
(d) Cats – First domesticated

Question 4.
Find the odd one:
(a) Paintings were drawn on rocks and caves.
(b) There were paintings depicting hunting scenes.
(c) It was drawn to show his family members about hunting.
(d) The paintings were painted by using many colours.
Answer:
(c) It was drawn to show his family members about hunting.

III. Fill in the blanks

1. The Old Stone age man lived mostly in ………………
2. ……………… is the Father of history.
3. ………………was the first animal tamed by Old Stone Age man.
4. Inscriptions are ……………… sources
5. Ashoka Chakra has ……………… spokes.

Answer:

1. Caves
2. Herodotus
3. Dog
4. archaeological
5. 24

IV. State True or False

1. Stone tools belonging to the Old Stone age have been excavated at Athtirampakkam near Chennai.
2. The materials used by the ancient people are preserved in the museums by the Archaeological Department.
3. During the period of Ashoka, Buddhism spread across the country.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True

V. Match the following

1. – d
2. – a
3. – b
4. – c

VI. Answer in one word

Question 1.
Can you say any two advantages of writing a diary?
Answer:

1. Diary writing helps to record the events.
2. It reveals the lifestyle of people of that period.

Question 2.
How do we know the people’s lifestyle of the Old Stone Age?
Answer:
We understand the lifestyle of people of the Old Stone Age from used stone tools, their paintings on the rocks and walls of the caves.

Question 3.
Is inscription a written record?
Answer:
Yes. The inscription is a written record.

Question 4.
What is proto history?
Answer:
Protohistory is the period between prehistory and history.

Question 5.
Name an epic.
Answer:
Silapadhikaram.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
What is history?
Answer:

1. History is a record of past events in chronological order.
2. The term History has been derived from the Greek word Istoria which means learning by enquiry.

Question 2.
What do you know about the prehistoric period?
Answer:

1. The period between the use of the first stone tools and the invention of writing systems is pre-history.
2. Stone tools excavated materials, and rock paintings are the major sources of pre-history

Question 3.
What are the sources available to know about the prehistoric period?
Answer:
Paintings on the rocks and the walls of the caves, stone tools, excavated materials are the sources available to know about the pre-historic period.

Question 4.
Mention the places from where we got pre-historic tools.
Answer:
We find the pre-historic tools at Kondapur, Nevasa, Mehrgash, Rock shelters of Bhimbetka, and Edakkal caves in India. In Tamilnadu Attirampakkam, Ariyalur, Perambulur, Adichanalur are the places where we came across the pre-historic tools.

Question 5.
What are the benefits of a museum?
Answer:

1. Museums are community centres designed to inform and teach the public.
2. The educational benefit of a museum is academic learning.
3. Museums are the caretakers of history as much as they offer connections to history.
4. Museums are full of stories, and it is interesting for students to hear these stories.
5. Museums offer opportunities for children to compare and contrast leading to critical thinking skills.
6. Children’s curiosity comes out in the form of questions.
7. Students are exposed to new ideas and concepts.
8. Museums inspire students to wonder, imagine, and dream Of possibilities that are beyond what they know.
9. Students are exposed to opportunities that spark creative moments.

Question 6.
Name some tools used by early man to hunt animals.
Answer:

1. Blade cores were used. These were chunks of Sharp rocks.
2. An end scraper is a tear-drop shaped piece of stone used to scrap fur and fatty tissue from the hides of animals.
3. Burins were stone tools with a rounded grasping end and at the sharp, razor-like working end.
4. Awls were small circular stone flakes.

Question 7.
Why were paintings drawn on rocks?
Answer:

1. Paintings could have been drawn or rocks to convey their lifestyles to future generations.
2. They might have wished to record their activities through their paintings.

Question 8.
Name any two artifacts.
Answer:
Potteries, Toys, Tools, and Ornaments.

1. An artefact is something made or given shape by men, such as a tool or a work of art, especially an object of archaeological interest.
2. Some of the artefacts are potteries, toys, tools, and ornaments.

VIII. HOTS

Question 1.
How dogs were useful to prehistoric man?
Answer:

1. Dogs with their sniffing power helped them find out other wild animals.
2. Dog helped them prevent the entry of dangerous animals.
3. Thus dogs helped them in hunting and protection.

Question 2.
Compare the lifestyle of Old. Stone Age man with present-day lifestyle.
Answer:
Old Stone age man

1. He was a nomad.
2. Took shelter on branches of trees, in holes and caves.
3. Wore dresses made out of leaves, the skin of animals, and barks of trees.
4. Ate vegetables, fruits, and roots which he gathered from jungles.
5. Not civilized.

Present-day man:

1. Settled in villages and towns.
2. Lives in well-built houses.
3. Wears dresses made out of cotton and other materials.
4. Eats all kinds of food grains.
5. Well civilized.

IX. Activity (For Students)

1. Write down the important events of your family with years. Draw a timeline with the help of your teacher of with your classmates.
2. Early man used stones as a weapon. Make an album showing the various uses of stone.
3. Identify the category of the following sources of history.
   • Urns excavated from Adhichanallur.
   • Copper plates of Velvikudi.
   • Mahabharatha.
   • Sanchi Stupa
   • Pattinappaalai.
   • The earthernwares form keezhadi
   • Toys of Indus Civilisation.
   • Big Temple of Thanjavur.

X. Life Skill (For Students)

1. Make some weapon models used by the old stone Age man using clay.
2. Discuss with your grandpa, grandma, neighbours, and teachers and collect information about your street, villages, town or school. With the collected data, try to write its history titling your writing as “I am a Historian”.

XI. Answer Grid

Question 1.
Early men scribbled and painted on me Today they used me to build houses and lay roads. Who am I?
Answer:
Rock.

Question 2.
Name any two archaeological sources?
Answer:

1. Coins
2. Inscriptions

Question 3.
Name the types of literary sources?
Answer:

1. Secular literature
2. Religious literature

Question 4.
Expand BC (BCE).
Answer:
Before the common era

Question 5.
What is the meaning of the Greek word “Istoria”?
Answer:
Learning by enquiry

Question 6.
Expand AD (CE).
Answer:
Common era

Question 7.
…………….. is the study of inscriptions..
Answer:
Epigraphy

Question 8.
…………….. is the study of coins.
Answer:
Numismatics

Question 9.
I can help you to talk, see, hear, write, and read. There is no world without me. Who am I?
Answer:
Mobile Phone

6th Social Science Guide What is History? Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Dhamma is a word.
(a) Prakrit
(b) Sanskrit
(c) Latin
(d) Greek
Answer:
(a) Prakrit

II. Match the statement with the reason

Question 1.
Statement: Ashoka was the first ruler to give up war after victory.
Reason: He was upset and grief-stricken at the sight of the war.
(a) Statement is true but the reason is wrong.
(b) Both statement and reason are correct.
(c) Both statement and reason are wrong.
(d) Statement is wrong but the reason is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both statement and reason are correct

Question 2.
(a) Statement: Archaeological sources help to know about the early man.
Find out which of the following is related to the statement.
(a) Monuments
(b) Pictures
(c) Metals
(d) Books
Answer:
(a) Monuments

Question 3.
Find out the wrong pair.
(a) Numismatics – The study of coins
(b) Epigraphy – The study of Inscription
(c) Epic – Pattinapaalai
(d) Copper plates – Velvikudi
Answer:
(c) Epic – Pattinapaalai

Question 4.
Find the odd one.
(a) The dharma chakra has 24 spokes.
(b) It is seen in our National Flag.
(c) It was taken from Sanchi Stupa.
(d) It belongs to the Mauryan period
Answer:
(c) It was taken from Sanchi Stupa

III. Fill in the blanks

1. The Big Temple is in ……………
2. The most famous ruler of ancient India was ……………
3. Istoria means ……………

Answer:

1. Thanjavur.
2. Ashoka.
3. Learning by enquiry.

IV. State True or False

1. The term History has been derived from the Latin word ‘Istoria’.
2. We understand the lifestyle of old stone age people from used stone tools.
3. Thirumalai Nayakkar Mahal is in Thanjavur.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False

V. Match the following

Answer:
1. – b
2. – a
3. – d
4. – c

VI. Mind Map

Students can download 6th Social Science History Term 1 Chapter 2 Human Evolution Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Human Evolution

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Human Evolution Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The process of evolution is …………….
(a) direct
(b) indirect
(c) gradual
(d) fast
Answer:
(c) gradual

Question 2.
Tanzania is situated in the continent of ________.
(a) Asia
(b) Africa
(c) America
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) Africa

II. Match the statement with the reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Statement : Migration of man of different parts of the world resulted in changes of physic and colour
Reason : Climatic changes.
(a) Statement is correct.
(b) Reason is wrong.
(c) Statement and Reason are correct.
(d) Statement and Reason are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Statement and Reason are correct

III. Find out the right pair

(a) Australopithecus – Walked on both legs
(b) Homo habilis – Upright man
(c) Homo erectus – Wise man
(d) Homo sapiens – Less protruding face
Answer:
(c) Homo erectus – Wise man

IV. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………. unearthed the footprints of humans in Tanzania.
2. Millions of years ago, our ancestors led a ………………. life.
3. The main occupations of the ancient humans were ………………. and ……………….
4. The invention of ………………. made farming easier.
5. Rock paintings are found at ………………. in Nilgiris.

Answer:

1. Anthropologist.
2. Nomadic.
3. hunting, gathering.
4. Plough.
5. Porivarai cave.

V. State True or False

1. Anthropology is the study of coins.
2. Homo erectus (Java man) had the knowledge of fire.
3. The first scientific invention of humans was wheel.
4. Goat was the first animal to be domesticated by humans.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False

VI. Answer in one word

Question 1.
What method is used to find out the age of the excavated materials?
Answer:
Radio Carbon dating method.

Question 2.
What did early humans wear?
Answer:
Hides of animals and barks of trees and leaves.

Question 3.
Where did early humans live?
Answer:
In caves.

Question 4.
Which animal was used for ploughing?
Answer:
Oxen

Question 5.
When did humans settle in one place?
Answer:
When people began to practice agriculture, life became an organised one. It made the people settle in one place.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
What is evolution?
Answer:
Evolution is the process through which humankind changes and develops towards an advanced stage of life.

Question 2.
Write any two characteristics of Homo sapiens,
Answer:

1. Homo sapiens were wise men.
2. They migrated out of Eastern Africa settled in different parts of the world.
3. Their lifestyle also evolved and they made it suitable to the environs in which they lived.

Question 3.
Why did humans move from place to place?
Answer:
Humans kept on moving in search of food.

Question 4.
Describe the ancient methods of hunting,
Answer:

1. Collective hunting: Went as a group and hunted the prey
2. They dung a pit and trapped the animals and hunted.

Question 5.
Why were axes made?
Answer:
The axes were made to cut trees, remove barks, dig pits, hunt animals and remove the skin of animals.

Question 6.
How would you define archaeology?
Answer:

1. Archaeology is the study of pre-historic humans.
2. Excavated material remains are the main source for archaeological studies.

Question 7.
What do you know about anthropology?
Answer:
Anthropology is the study of humans and evolutionary history.

VIII. HOTS

Question 1.
Importance of invention of the wheel from the ancient period to the modern period
Answer:

1. Early homosapiens realised that round objects could be easily moved by rolling them.
2. Their descendants advanced this rolling technique into the transportation of large objects on cylindrical logs.
3. The invention of the wheel and axle allowed a rolling log to be placed through a hole in the wheel to create a cart.
4. Chariot racing was influential in the evolution of the spoked wheel as it allowed chariots to move much faster.
5. The invention of air-filled rubber tyres allowed wheels to be much faster, sturdier, and stronger.

IX. Activity ( For Student)

Prepare an album collecting the pictures of ancient humans of different ages.

X. Answer Grid

Question 1.
The invention of …………….. made pot making it easier.
Answer:
Wheel

Question 2.
Barter system means ……………..
Answer:
Exchanging one thing for another.

Question 3.
Name any two weapons used by early humans for hunting.
Answer:
Stones, bones, and horns of animals.

Question 4.
Which is the best stone for making weapons?
Answer:
chikki – mukki – kal

Question 5.
Towns and cities emerged because ……………. of …………….. and.
Answer:
trade, commerce

Question 6.
Which was the first scientific invention of humans?
Answer:
Wheel.

Question 7.
Identify the pictures in rock paintings.
Answer:
Hunting and dancing pictures

Question 8.
Which was the main occupation of early humans? What do cave paintings tell us?
Answer:
Information about the past.

Question 9.
Where did the early humans live?
Answer:
In caves.

Question 10.
…………….. is related to the field of archaeology.
Answer:
Anthropology

Question 11.
Name any two animals domesticated by an early humans.
Answer:
Dogs and Oxen

XI. Life Skill (For Students)

1. Make pots and tools by using clay.
2. Collect different types of moving dolls and tell them to change the wheels with different shapes like square, triangle, etc., and find out how it moves.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Human Evolution Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The word ‘anthropology’ is derived from two …………….. words.
(a) Greek
(b) Latin
(c) Sanskrit
(d) Prakrit
Answer:
(a) Greek

Question 2.
Harpoons and spear throwers were used by _______
(a) Homo erectus
(b) Homo sapiens
(c) Cromagnons
(d) Homo habilis

II. Match the statement with the reason

Question 1.
Statement: Early humans decided to use guns for hunting.
Reason: It was difficult for them to kill big animals with a stick or stone.
a. Both statement and reason are correct
b. Both statement and reason are the wrong
c. The statement is wrong and the reason is correct.
d. Statement is correct and the reason is wrong.
Answer:
(c) Statement is wrong and the reason is correct.

III. Find out the wrong pair

(a) Homo sapiens – Africa
(b) Homo habits – South Africa
(c) Homo erectus – Asia
(d) Cro – magnons – China
Answer:
(d) Cro – magnons – China

IV. State True or False

1. The Neanderthal people buried the dead.
2. During the prehistoric period, horses were used to draw carts. Homo sapiens were wise.
3. Flintstones were easily available.
4. Coins made of iron were used by prehistoric people.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. False

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Write a short note on the mode of transport in 1850.
Answer:

1. There were no buses or cycles.
2. A cart pulled by mules and bullocks were seen on the roads.
3. A horse-drawn cart was a rare occurrence.

Question 2.
What is meant by the barter system?
Answer:
The early men exchanged the surplus grains with other groups for the other things they were in need of. This is called the barter system.

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Write a short note on the mode of transport in 1850.
Answer:

1. There were no buses or cycles.
2. A cart pulled by mules and bullocks were seen on the roads.
3. A horse-drawn cart was a rare occurrence.

Question 2.
What is meant by the barter system?
Answer:
The early men exchanged the surplus grains with other groups for the other things they were in need of. This is called the barter system.

VI. Mind map

 

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 3 Chemistry in Everyday Life Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Chemistry in Everyday Life Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
Soaps were originally made from ………
a. proteins
b. animal fats and vegetable oils
c. chemicals extracted from the soil
d. foam booster
Answer:
b. animal fats and vegetable oils.

Question 2.
The saponification of a fat or oil is done using _______ solution for hot process.
(a) Potassium hydroxide
(b) Sodium hydroxide
(c) Hydrochloric acid
(d) Sodium chloride
Answer:
(b) Sodium hydroxide

Question 3.
Gypsum is added to the cement for ………..
a. fast setting
b. delayed setting
c. hardening
d. making paste
Answer:
b. delayed setting

Question 4.
Phenol is ……..
a. carbolic acid
b. acetic acid
c. benzoic acid
d. hydrochloric acid
Answer:
a. carbolic acid

Question 5.
Natural adhesives are made from ………..
a. Protein
b. fat
c. starch
d. vitamins
Answer:
c. starch

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ………… gas causes tears in our eyes while cutting onions.
2. Water, coconut oil and ……….. are necessary for soap preparation.
3. ………..is called a farmer’s best friend.
4. …………. fertilizer is ecofriendly.
5. ………… is an example for natural adhesive.

Answer:

1. Propane Thiol Oxide
2. NaOH
3. Earthworm
4. Artificial
5. Starch

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

1. Concentrated phenol is used as a disinfectant.
2. Gypsum is largely used in medical industries.
3. Plaster of Paris is obtained from heating gypsum.
4. Adhesives are the substances used to separate the components.
5. NPK are the primary nutrients for plants.

Answer:

1. False. – Low concentrated Phenol is used as a disinfectant.
2. False – Epsum is largely used in medical industry.
3. True.
4. False – Adhesives are substances that are used to join two (or) more components.
5. True

IV. Match the following:

Answer
1. – c
2. – d
3. – e
4. – b
5. – a

V. Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence:

1. Pour that solution into an empty matchbox, soap can be obtained after drying.
2. Take the necessary quantity of water in a jar.
3. Then add coconut oil drop by drop and stir it well.
4. Add concentrated sodium hydroxide in the jar and allow it to cool.
5. Try this soap to wash your handkerchief.
6. Cover your work area with old newspaper.

Answer:

1. Cover your work area with old newspaper.
2. Take the necessary quantity of water in a jar.
3. Add concentrated sodium hydroxide in the jar and allow it to cool.
4. Then add coconut oil drop by drop and stir it well.
5. Pour that solution into an empty matchbox, soap can be obtained after drying.
6. Try this soap to wash your handkerchief.

VI. Analogy:

1. Urea : Inorganic fertilizer :: Vermi Compost: …………
2. ……….. : Natural Adhesives :: Cello tape : Artificial Adhesives

Answer:

1. Natural Fertilizer
2. Starch

VII. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are the three main constituents of soap?
Answer:
The three main constituents of soap are Lye (Sodium hydroxide), coconut oil, and water.

Question 2.
What are the two different types of molecules found in the soap?
Answer:
The two types of molecules found in the soap are

1. water-loving
2. water-hating.

Question 3.
Give an example of inorganic fertilizer.
Answer:
The Inorganic fertilizers are Urea, Ammonium sulphate, and Superphosphate.

Question 4.
Mention any three physical properties of phenol.
Answer:
Phenol properties:

1. It is a weak acid.
2. It is a volatile, white crystalline powder.
3. It is a colourless solution but changes into the red in the presence of dust.

Question 5.
Explain the uses of plaster of Paris.
Answer:
Uses of plaster of pairs:

1. In making blackboard chalks.
2. In surgery for setting fractured bones.
3. For making casts for statues and toys etc.
4. In the construction industry.

Question 6.
What are the ingredients of the cement?
Answer:
The ingredients of the cement are lime, clay, and gypsum.

Question 7.
Why gypsum is used in cement production?
Answer:
Gypsum is added to control the setting of cement.

VIII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Why earthworm is called a farmer’s friend?
Answer:

1. Earthworms take organic wastes as food and produce compost castings.
2. They provide a multitude of services to improve soil health and consequently plant health.
3. So earthworm is called a farmer’s friend.

Question 2.
Explain the process of manufacturing cement.
Answer:
The cement is manufactured by crushing naturally occurring minerals such as limestone, clay, and gypsum through a milling process.

Question 3.
What are the uses of Gypsum?
Answer:

1. Used as fertilizers
2. Used in the process of making cement and plaster of Paris.

IX. Answer in detail

Question 1.
How are detergents manufactured?
Answer:
Manufacture of Detergents:
Materials used:
Acid slurry, Soda ash (or) Sodium Carbonate, Trisodium phosphate (TSP), sodium tripolyphosphate (STPP), Carboxy Methyl Chloride (or) Cellulose, Glauber’s salt, colour perfume and brightner.

Preparation:

1. Acid slurry is first neutralised.
2. Then neutralised Acid Slurry is mixed with Soda ash and kept for one hour for completion of reaction.
3. Other ingredients such as Trisodium phosphate (TSP), Sodium tripolyphosphate (STPP), Carboxy Methyl Chloride (or) Cellulose, Glauber’s salt, colour, perfume, brightner are then blended to the neutralised Acid Slurry with continuous mixing.
4. Then the mixture is dried.
5. Now we get detergent powder.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
Ravi is a farmer; he rears many cattle in his farm. His field has many biowastes. Advise Ravi on how to change this biowaste to compost by using vermicomposting techniques. Explain the benefits of vermi castings?
Answer:

1. Make a pit of 30 cm or take a wooden box.
2. Place a thin net on the base of the pit or wooden box.
3. Fill it with sand for about 1-2 cm.
4. Spread some plant wastes (like a dry leaf, flower) and biodegradable wastes on it.
5. Sprinkle some water.
6. Add some earthworms to these substances and cover them with an old cloth or dried coconut leaf.
7. We can find that vermicompost is formed after four weeks.
8. Use this vermicompost as manure for plants and conserve soil fertility.

Advantages of using vermicompost:

1. Vermicompost is an excellent organic manure for sustainable agro-practices.
2. Vermicompost is rich in essential plant nutrients.
3. In improves soil structure texture, aeration, and water holding capacity and prevents soil erosion.
4. Vermicompost is rich in nutrients and an eco-friendly amendment to the soil for farming and terrace gardening.
5. It enhances seed germination and ensures good plant growth.
6. Vermicompost can be prepared easily.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Chemistry in Everyday Life Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
………. to remove strong strains on the clothes.
(a) Detergents soap
(b) Bathing soap
(c) Bleaching powder
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Bleaching powder

Question 2.
_______ are the substances which can undergo chemical changes to produce certain materials.
(a) Soaps
(b) Fertilizers
(c) Plastics
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 3.
If 50 kg of Superphosphate is added to the soil, how much phosphorus would the soil get?
(a) 4 – 4.5 kg
(b) 8 – 9 kg
(c) 12 – 13 kg
(d) 16 – 18 kg
Answer:
(a) 4 – 4.5 kg

Question 4.
All the plants get their _______ from the soil.
(a) Nutrients
(b) Water
(c) Nitrogen
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Nutrients

Question 5.
The molecular formula of Epsom is _______
(a) CaSO₄1/2H₂O
(b) C₆H₅OH
(c) MgSO₄.7H₂O
(d) CaSO₄.2H₂O
Answer:
(c) MgSO₄.7H₂O

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ……… is a natural indicator.
2. ……….. molecules goes and joins with dirt and oil in the cloth.
3. Fertilizer facilitates the growth of ………….
4. ………….. is used to fix bone fractures.
5. Epsom salt is ………….

Answer:

1. turmeric powder
2. Water hating molecules
3. plants
4. Plaster of Paris
5. Magnesium Sulphate Hydrate

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – b
2. – a
3. – d
4. – c

IV. Arrange the following statements in correct sequence:

1. One side water-loving and other water-hating molecules.
2. When you agitate the cloth, the dirt is surrounded by many molecules and taken away from the cloth.
3. The dirt surrounded by the detergent molecules floats in the water making it dirty.
4. Finally, the cloth is clean.
5. The detergent molecules have two sides.
6. Water hating goes and joins with dirt and oil in the cloth while the water-loving joins with the water molecules.

Answer:

1. The detergent molecules have two sides.
2. One side water-loving and other water-hating molecules.
3. Water hating goes and joins with dirt and oil in the cloth while the water-loving joins with the water molecules.
4. When you agitate the cloth, the dirt is surrounded by many molecules and taken away from the cloth.
5. The dirt surrounded by the detergent molecules floats in the water making it dirty.
6. Finally, the cloth is clean.

V. Analogy:

1. Black board chalks : ………….. : : Plant growth : Epsum
2. …………. : Calcium Sulphate Dihydrate : : Plaster of Paris : Calcium Sulphate Hemihvdrate
3. ………. : Mortar : : Construction of bridges : Concrete

Answer:

1. Plaster of Paris
2. Gypsum
3. Construction of house walls.

VI. Give Very Short Answer

Question 1.
What are the principal nutrients?
Answer:
Principal nutrients are NPK

1. Nitrogen (N)
2. Phosphorus (P)
3. Potassium (K)

Question 2.
What are fertilizers?
Answer:
Fertilizers are organic (or) inorganic materials that we add to the soil to provide one (or) more nutrients to the soil.

Question 3.
Give two examples of organic fertilizers?
Answer:

1. Compost
2. Vermicompost

Question 4.
Why is called inorganic fertilizers?
Answer:
The fertilizers prepared by using natural elements by making them undergo chemical changes in the laboratories are called inorganic fertilizers.

Question 5.
Why is called Portland cement?
Answer:
It was named “Portland” cement because it resembled the high-quality building stones found in Portland, England.

VII. Answer in details:

Question 1.
What is Epsum? Mention it’s used.
Answer:
Epsum:

1. Epsum salt is magnesium Sulphate Hydrate.
2. Its molecular formula – MgSO₄. 7H₂O

Uses:

1. Eases stress and relaxes the body.
2. Helps muscles and nerves to function properly.
3. Medicine for skin problems.
4. Improving plant growth in agriculture.

Question 2.
Write about the Phenol and its uses.
Answer:
Phenol:

1. Phenol is a Carbolic acid of an organic compound.
2. It’s molecular formula C₆H₅OH
3. It is a weak acid.
4. It is a volatile, white crystalline powder.
5. It is a colourless solution but changes into the red in the presence of dust.
6. It irritates when exposed to human skin.

Uses:

1. It’s used industrial.
2. Low concentration of Phenol is used in mouth wash, disinfectant in household cleaners.
3. It is used as a surgical antiseptic since it kills microorganisms.

Question 3.
Tabulate the nutrients present in inorganic fertilizers.
Answer:

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 6 Hardware and Software Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 6 Hardware and Software

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Hardware and Software Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
Find out the part that is not found in the CPU?
a. MotherBoard
b. SMPS
c. RAM
d. Mouse
Answer:
d. Mouse

Question 2.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Free and Open source
(b) Free and Traditional software
(c) passive and Open source
(d) Passive and Traditional source
Answer:
(a) Free and Open source

Question 3.
LINUX is a
a. Paid Software
b. Licensed Software
c. Free and Proprietary software
d. Free and Open-source software
Answer:
d. Free and Open-source software

Question 4.
Find out Paid and Proprietary software from the given list
(a) Windows
(b) MAC OS
(c) Adobe Photoshop
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 5.
……….. is an Operating System
a. Android
b. Chrome
c. Internet
d. Pendrive
Answer:
a. Android

II. Match the following

Answer:
1. – b
2. – e
3. – d
4. – c
5. – a

III. Short answer:

Question 1.
What are Hardware and Software?
Answer:
Hardware:

1. Hardware is the parts of the computer which we can touch and feel.
2. Hardware includes input and output devices, Cabinet, Hard disk, Mother Board, SMPS, CPU, RAM, CD Drive, and Graphics card.

Software :

1. Software is programmed and coded application to process the input information.
2. The software processes the data by converting the input information into coding or programmed language.
3. Touching and feeling is not possible. But, we can see the functions of the software in the form of output.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Operating System? How does it work?
Answer:

1. System software (operating system is software that makes the hardware devices process the data inputted by the user and to display the result on the output devices like a monitor. Without the operating system, the computer cannot function on its own. Popular OS are Linux, Windows, Mac, Android, etc.

Question 3.
What is Free and Open Source Software? Give any two examples?
Answer:

1. Free and open software is available free of cost and can be shared with many end-users.
2. Free software is editable and customizable by the user and this leads to the update or development of new software.
3. Examples: 1. Linux, 2. Geogebra.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Hardware and Software Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
Email existed before the
(a) Google
(b) Chrome
(c) World Wide Web
(d) Whatsapp
Answer:
(c) World Wide Web

Question 2.
A _____ device helps to enter input information.
(a) Hardware
(b) Software
(c) Monitor
(d) Modem
Answer:
(a) Hardware

Question 3.
Completes one or more than two works of the end-user?
(a) System software
(b) Operating system
(c) Free software
(d) Application software
Answer:
(d) Application software

Question 4.
The _____ can be installed in the hard disk for the usage on a particular computer.
(a) Opening system
(b) Translator
(c) Application program
(d) Image editor
Answer:
(c) Application Program

Question 5.
___________ is an operating system
(a) Linux
(b) Chrome
(c) Google
(d) Pen drive
Answer:
(a) Linux

II. Match the following:

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – e
5. – b

III. Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are the types of software?
Answer:
Software is divided into two types based on the process. They are:

1. System Software (Operating System).
2. Application software.

Question 2.
What is Application software?
Answer:
It is a program or a group of programs designed for the benefit of end-user to work on computers. The application programs can be installed in the hard disk for the usage on a particular computer. This type of application program completes one or more than two works of the end-user.

Question 3.
Give some examples of Application Software.
Answer:
The following are the examples of the application program: Video player, Audio player, Word processing software, Drawing tools, Editing software, etc.

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 5 Plants in Daily Life Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 5 Plants in Daily Life

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
One of the following birds is an example of plant-pollinator
a. Duck
b. Parrot
c. Hummingbird
d. Dove
Answer:
c. Hummingbird

Question 2.
Natural Mosquito repellant is
(a) Nutmeg
(b) Bamboo
(c) Ginger
(d) Neem
Answer:
(d) Neem

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a root?
a. Potato
b. Carrot
c. Radish
d. Turnip
Answer:
a. Potato

Question 4.
Which of the following medicinal plants has anti-cancer properties?
(a) Amla
(b) Tulasi
(c) Turmeric
(d) Aloe
Answer:
(c) Turmeric

Question 5.
Which is the national tree of India?
a. Neem tree
b. Jack tree
c. Banyan tree
d. Mango tree
Answer:
c. Banyan tree

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. In every year October ……….is celebrated as world food day.
2. ………… is an example of textile fibre.
3. I am the state tree of Tamilnadu. Who am I ………… ?
4. The juice of the leaves of ……… plant relieves cough and bronchitis.
5. The edible seeds of leguminous plants are called …………

Answer:

1. 16
2. Cotton
3. Palm tree
4. Tulsi
5. pulses

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

1. Plants grown for decorative purposes are called as softwood.
2. Silkworm eats mulberry leaves.
3. Cauliflower is used for ornamental purpose.
4. Cotton cloth is not suitable for summer season.
5. Sugarcane is used as biofuel.

Answer:

1. False – Plants grown for decorative purposes are called as ornamental plants.
2. True.
3. False – Cauliflower is used for edible purpose.
4. False – Cotton cloth is only suitable for summer season
5. False – Sugarcane is used to produce sugar.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1 – c
2 – e
3 – a
4 – b
5 – d

V. Analogy:

1. mango : fruit:: maize : ………….
2. coconut: fibre :: rose : …………
3. bees : pollinate insect:: earthworms : …………

Answer:

1. cereal
2. essence
3. vermicompost producer

VI. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is food?
Answer:
Any nutritious substance that people or animals eat or drink or that plants absorb in order to maintain life and growth is called Food.

Question 2.
What are the medicinal plants?
Answer:
Some of the plants around us are good in healing our diseases. We call these plants as medicinal plants.

Question 3.
How hardwood differ from softwood?
Answer:

Question 4.
What is Spice?
Answer:
Spices are the aromatic parts of tropical plants traditionally used to flavour food. Bark, roots, leaves, flowers, or stems of certain plants primarily used for flavouring colouring or preserving food.
(Eg.) roots – vetiver,
leaves – curry leaves
seeds – fenugreek
flower bud – clove

Question 5.
Name any three medicinal plants, which are available in your area?
Answer:

Question 6.
What are the uses of timber?
Answer:

1. A timer is used in the construction of buildings, making of furniture
2. It is used in making fibreboard, paper making.

VII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is a symbiotic relationship?
Answer:

1. The relationship between animals and plants, benefiting both of them is known as a symbiotic relationship.
2. (Eg.) Silkworms – feeding on Mulberry leaves – produce silk fibres.
3. Honey bee – feed on pollen and honey of plants – Agents of cross-pollination and form vegetables and fruits along with honey.

Question 2.
Write the uses of Neem?
Answer:

Question 3.
Name any five plants and their parts that we eat.
Answer:

1. Carrot, Beetroot, and radish – Taproots
2. Potato, Ginger, Turmeric – Underground stem
3. Curry leaves, Coriander leaves – Leaves
4. Drum stick – Leaves, Unripe fruit, and bark.
5. Paddy, Wheat, Maize, and Ragi – Seeds

VIII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write short notes on-Timber yielding plants.
Answer:
Wood is used commercially due to its features like durability, stylish finishing, and resistance to temperature changes.
Timbers can be classified into hardwoods and softwoods.

Question 2.
Comment on the importance of plant-animal interaction.
Answer:
The relationship between plants and animals, to get food and shelter etc.
This relationship which is economically significant benefits not only animals but also plants.

IX. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills:

Question 1.
Desert does not have water. Why? Give the reason.
Answer:

1. Most deserts get less than 10 inches of rainfall each year.
2. The evaporation rate is higher than the rainfall.
3. In the desert, there is little water available for plants (cactus-like) and other organisms.
4. Cactus like plants and animals living in such areas are adapted to save water and to endure drought.
   (Eg.) Cactus Camel etc.

Question 2.
Kavitha said, “Palm tree is a tall tree, so it gives hardwood”! Do you agree with her statement or not? Explain. Why?
Answer:
False. Because:

1. Even though they are tall, they produce only softwoods.
2. It is resilient and malleable can’t be used in heavy construction and other purposes.
3. So the wood is known as softwood.
4. Wood fibres are used for making hats and other things.

Question 3.
Look at the diagram given below and answer the following questions.
a. Soil fertility is increased by bacteria How?

Answer:
1. The droppings and shedding of leaves, fruits, and other dead parts of plants degrade in the soil by bacterial and fungal action to form humus-increase soil fertility.

2. Blue-green Algae and Bacteria are extensively used to fix Nitrogen in the soil and increase biofertilizer in the soil for agriculture.

b. Honey bees are essential for the reproduction of the plants Why?

Answer:

1. Honey bees suck nectar from flowers and convert it into honey.
2. During this process, they carry pollen on their bodies and help plants to do cross-pollination and inturn form vegetables and fruits.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
Which are the source of food and energy for all living organisms in the world.
(a) Plants only
(b) Plants and animals
(c) Animals only
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Plants only

Question 2.
Aloe ______ is used as a laxative
(a) Roots
(b) Stem
(c) Leaves
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Leaves

Question 3.
Leaf fibres are got from
(a) Aloe vera
(b) Agave
(c) Coconut
(d) Cotton
Answer:
(b) Agave

Question 4.
We are planting shrubs such as ________ to decorate houses
(a) Mandara
(b) Mullai
(c) Hibiscus
(d) Allamanda
Answer:
(c) Hibiscus

Question 5.
Plants grown or maintained for its aesthetic features are known as
(a) Fibre plants
(b) Medicinal plants
(c) Plants as food
(d) Ornamental plants
Answer:
(d) Ornamental plants

Question 6.
Bio fuels are less _______ in nature.
(a) Toxic
(b) Economic
(c) Nutrients
(d) Metals
Answer:
(a) Toxic

II. Very Short Answer

Question 1.
Give evidence for the fact that Rice, Wheat, and Millets were cultivated and utilised in the ancient days.
Answer:

1. The presence of charred grains in most of the excavation sites is proof of the above fact.
2. Also, ancient literature talks about the existence and usage of several crops of economic importance.

Question 2.
Classify plants on the basis of economic values and uses.
Answer:
They are classified into six varieties. They are:

1. Plants as food.
2. Spice yielding plants,
3. Medicinal plants.
4. Fibre yielding plants,
5. Timber yielding plants.
6. Ornamental plants.

Question 3.
Name the states in India with Jute cultivation?
Answer:
West Bengal, Assam, Orissa, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Tripura, and Meghalaya are the seven states producing jute.
Out of the above seven, West Bengal alone produces 50% jute of India.

Question 4.
Name some of the Indian spices.
Answer:
Cardamom, black pepper, curry leaves, fenugreek, fennel, ajwain, bay leaves, cumin, coriander seeds, turmeric, cloves, ginger, nutmeg, and cinnamon.

Question 5.
What are the medicinal plants?
Answer:
The plants that have chemical compounds to destroy disease-causing germs are known as medicinal plants.

Question 6.
Identify the plant part and write about its use?

Answer:
The given diagram is that of cloves the flower buds used as a spice – to flavour food.

Question 7.
Classify the Fibre yielding plants based on use.
Answer:

1. Textile Fibres – Cotton.
2. Cordage Fibres – Coconut Fibre.
3. Filling Fibres – Silk cotton

Question 8.
Write the importance of rubber?
Answer:

1. Rubber is got from the stem latex of the rubber plant.
2. Vehicle tyres, wire insulating covers, and many toys and others are produced out of natural rubber.
3. It satisfies 80% rubber demand of the world.

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 4 Our Environment Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 Our Environment

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Identify the freshwater ecosystem.
a. Pond
b. Lake
c. River
d. All of them
Answer:
d. All of them

Question 2.
Producers are ________
(a) Animals
(b) Birds
(c) Plants
(d) Snakes
Answer:
(c) Plants

Question 3.
It is a biodegradable waste
a. Plastic
b. Coconut Shell
c. Glass
d. Aluminium
Answer:
b. Coconut Shell

Question 4.
It is an undesirable change that occurs in air and water.
(a) Recycling
(b) Reuse
(c) Pollution
(d) Reduce
Answer:
(c) Pollution

Question 5.
Usage of chemical pesticides and fertilisers causes ……… pollution.
a. Air pollution
b. Water pollution
c. Noise pollution
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Water pollution

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Primary consumers that eat plants are called ……….
2. Temperature, light and wind are ………… factors.
3. ………. is the process of converting waste materials into new materials.
4. Water pollution can spread …………. and chemicals.
5. The 3R’s are Reduce, ………….. and Recycle.

Answer:

1. herbivores
2. physical
3. Recycle
4. diseases
5. reuse

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

1. The pacific ocean is an example of an aquatic ecosystem.
2. Bacteria and fungi are called decomposers.
3. Human and animal wastes are examples of non-biodegradable waste.
4. Excessive use of pesticides leads to air pollution.
5. In schools, waste management rules say that we should separate waste in two categories.

Answer:

1. True.
2. True.
3. False – Human and animal wastes are examples of bio-degradable waste.
4. False – Excess use of pesticides leads to land pollution.
5. False – In schools waste management rules say that we should separate waste in three categories.

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – e
2. – d
3. – b
4. – a
5. – c

V. Arrange the following in a correct sequence and form a food chain

1. Rabbit → Carrot → Eagle → Snake.
2. Human → Insect → Algae → Fish

Answer:

1. carrot → rabbit → snake → eagle.
2. Algae → Insect → Fish → Human

VI. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Define ecosystem.
Answer:
An ecosystem is a community of living or biotic and non-living or a biotic things that work together.

Question 2.
What are the two types of ecosystems?
Answer:
They are terrestrial (on land) and aquatic (in water).

Question 3.
Write any two things that can be recycled.
Answer:
Examples:

1. Old clothes
2. Plastics

Question 4.
What are the types of pollution?
Answer:
There are four major kinds of pollution.

1. Air pollution
2. Water pollution
3. Land (soil) pollution
4. Noise pollution

Question 5.
Give one example of a food chain in an aquatic ecosystem?
Answer:
Food chain in aquatic ecosystem.
Aquatic plant → Aquatic insect → Larva → Fish.

Question 6.
Name some pollutants.
Answer:
Pollutants:

1. Burning fossil fuel (petrol, coal, oil, etc).
2. Toxic gases, (Carbon monoxide).
3. Dust particles (ash, soot).

Question 7.
What are the pollutions caused by the objects given below?

1. Loud Speaker
2. Plastic

Answer:

1. Loud Speaker – Noise Pollution.
2. Plastic – Land Pollution.

VII. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
What is biodegradable waste?
Answer:
The term ‘Biodegradable’ is used for those things that can be easily decomposed by natural agents like water, oxygen, ultraviolet rays of the sun, microorganisms, etc. (Eg.) Vegetable and fruit peel leftover food, grass, leaves, and twigs.

Question 2.
How can we reduce water pollution?
Answer:

1. Do not pour leftover oil, old medicines or waste down the drain or into the toilet.
2. Reduce the use of chemical pesticides and fertilizers to grow crops.
3. Reduce the use of detergents and bleach to wash clothes.
4. Do not litter or dump waste always use a waste bin.

Question 3.
Write the importance of the food chain.
Answer:

1. Learning about the food chain help us to understand the feeding relationship and interaction between organisms in any ecosystem.
2. It also help us to appreciate the energy flow and nutrient circulation in an ecosystem. This enable us to understand the movement of toxic substances and their impacts.

VIII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Give two examples of how you can avoid or reduce waste?
Answer:
Examples of how we can Avoid waste:-
Avoid buying packaged foods. Refuse to buy ‘use-and-throw’ plastic products.

Examples of how we can reduce waste:-

1. Write on both sides of paper
2. Share newspaper and magazines with others.

Question 2.
Write a short note on noise pollution.
Answer:

1. Noise pollution affects the environment. We all like a quiet and peaceful place since unpleasant or loud sounds disturb us.
2. Loud music, the sounds of motor vehicles, fireworks and machines cause noise pollution. Continuous noise disturbs our sleep and does not let us study.
3. Noise pollution has been directly linked to stress and health impacts such as high blood pressure and hearing loss.
4. Loud noise or even loud music can damage our ears. Noise pollution also disturbs animals.
5. Birds have to communicate (talk) louder so that, they can hear each other in noisy areas.
6. Even underwater noise pollution from ships can make whales lose their way as they use sounds to navigate.

Reduce noise pollution :

1. Turn off your electronics when you do not use them.
2. Avoid fireworks.
3. Speak, do not shout.
4. Remind drivers not to use the horn too much.
5. Lower the volume when you watch TV (or) listen to music.

IX. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
What would happen if an organism is removed from the food chain?
Answer:
If an organism is removed from the food chain,

1. The food chain will fall apart.
2. The ecosystem will become imbalanced and collapse.
3. For example, Consider a food chain: Plants → grasshoppers → frogs → snakes → hawks.

If frogs were to die off in this chain, (due to disease/pollutants), then, there will be an increase in the number of grasshoppers. This will cause a major problem.

Question 2.
Explain the link between waste and dangerous diseases like dengue and malaria?
Answer:

1. The substances consist of plastic materials, metal scraps, aluminium cans, and bottles which cannot be broken down or decomposed into the soil by natural agents are labelled as non-biodegradable.
2. When it rains, some of the water never reaches the ground as it collects in the plastic garbage at the dump.
3. Little pools of water let mosquitoes breed and they can spread unwanted diseases like dengue and malaria.
4.  Aedes aegypti is the vector responsible for dengue transmission.
5. It breeds in solid waste mud pots and other junk materials.
6. We must know mosquitoes tend to breed in places which are dirty.

X. See the diagram and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Explain what is happening in the picture?

Answer:

1. We can see the mixed waste dumped in the open ground.
2. There is a fire in the open dump and the garbage is burning.
3. By the burning of plastic materials, pipes, leather, and garbage smoke and toxins are coming out and pollute the air.
4. The leftover ash from burning waste pollutes the soil.
5. When it rains some of the dangerous chemicals leaching into the soil and groundwater.
6. Thus the unhealthy chemicals from the garbage pollute the ecosystem.

Question 2.
What types of pollution are caused by open dumps?
Answer:
The following types of pollution are caused by open dumps:

1. Water pollution
2. Land pollution
3. Air pollution

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best Answer:

Question 1.
The ecosystem that originated without human intervention is called
(a) natural ecosystem
(b) artificial ecosystem
(c) aquarium
(d) terrarium
Answer:
(a) natural ecosystem

Question 2.
An example for artificial aquatic ecosystem is _______
(a) Forest
(b) Pond
(c) Garden
(d) Aquarium
Answer:
(d) Aquarium

Question 3.
Ecosystems created and maintained by humans are called?
(a) lake
(b) river
(c) artificial ecosystem
(d) natural ecosystem
Answer:
(c) artificial ecosystem

Question 4.
Plants are producers because they make their own food by _______
(a) Respiration
(b) Consumer
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Decomposing
Answer:
(c) Photosynthesis

Question 5.
The micro-organisms that obtain energy from the chemical breakdown of dead organisms is called
(a) consumers
(b) decomposers
(c) omnivores
(d) producers
Answer:
(b) decomposers

II. True or False. If False, Give the correct statement.

1. The abiotic factors are the non-living parts such as sunlight, air, water, and minerals in the soil.
2. A Zoo is a natural ecosystem.
3. A food web is very useful to show the many different feeding relationships between different species within an ecosystem.
4. India produces 532 million kilos of solid waste every day.
5. Certain toxic gases from industries mix with raindrops and make rain unusually acidic.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – A Zoo is an artificial ecosystem.
3. True
4. True.
5. True.

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – d
2. – a
3. – e
4. – c
5. – b

IV. Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence and form a food chain:

Question 1.
Grasshopper → Frog → Grass → Crow.
Answer:
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Crow

Question 2.
Peacock → Rat → Grains → Snake
Answer:
Grains → Rat → Snake → Peacock

V. Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Give two examples of artificial terrestrial ecosystems?
Answer:

1. Paddy fields
2. Garden

Question 2.
What are called producers?
Answer:
Producers are organisms that are able to produce their own organic food.
(Eg) Plants.

Question 3.
What do plants need in order to photosynthesis?
Answer:
Plants need chlorophyll, water, carbon-di-oxide, and sunlight.

Question 4.
What are the two major types of solid wastes?
Answer:

1. Biodegradable
2. Non-biodegradable.

Question 5.
What happens to the dead organisms of animals and plants?
Answer:

1. They are broken down into simple organic substances by decomposers.
2. These substances go into the soil and are used by plants.

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
How do we reduce noise pollution?
Answer:

1. Turn off your electronics when we do not use them.
2. Lower the volume when we watch TV or listen to music.
3. Remind drivers not to use the horn too much.
4. Avoid fireworks.
5. Speak do not shout.

Question 2.
Differentiate the artificial ecosystem and natural ecosystem.
Answer:
Natural Ecosystem:

1. Ecosystem Originated without human intervention
2. Ex: Sea, River, Lake, Forest

Artificial Ecosystem:

1. Ecosystem Originated by human
2. Ex: Paddy field, garden, aquarium

VII. Questions based on higher-order thinking levels:

Question 1.
Are animal bones biodegradable?
Answer:

1. The microorganisms that break down tissues will also cause bones to decompose in a suitable aerated peaty soil.
2. In warm damp environments, bacteria and fungi attack the protein in the skeleton and it will break down in a matter of a decade or so.
3. But in a dry climate, it could take thousands of years
4. So bones do decay at a slower rate than other types of organic material and tissue.

Question 2.
Are all types of clothes biodegradable?
Answer:

1. Not all fabrics are safely biodegradable as they are made with artificial and chemical components.
2. It depends on what fibres or fabric is made from.
3. And also the more chemicals used the longer it takes to biodegrade.
4. Polyester has been introduced since 1951 created not by the textile industry but by American Chemical Company Dupont went on sale.
5. Polyester is a polymer or a long chain of repeating molecular units.
6. That basically means that our clothes are increasingly made of plastic.
7. In theory cotton, silk hemp is biodegradable and polyester is not.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 5 Living World of Animals Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 5 Living World of Animals

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Living World of Animals Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The study of living things or organisms is called
a. Psychology
b. Biology
c. Zoology
d. Botany
Answer:
b. Biology

Question 2.
Which of the following are characteristics of living beings?
(i) Respiration
(ii) Reproduction
(iii) Adaptation
(iv) Excretion
Choose the correct sequence
(a) (i), (ii), and (iv) only
(b) (i), (ii) only
(c) (ii) and (iv)only
(d) (i), (iv), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(d) (I), (iv), (il) and (iii)

Question 3.
Lizards breathe through their
a. Skin
b. Gills
c. Lungs
d. Trachea
Answer:
c. Lungs

Question 4.
All animals need _______
(a) Food and water only
(b) Water only
(c) Air, food and water
(d) Food only
Answer:
(c) Air, food and water

Question 5.
Which animal has the special organs of breathing called gills
a. Earthworm
b. fox
c. Fish
d. frog
Answer:
c. Fish

Question 6.
Choose the set that represents only biotic components of a habitat.
(a) Tiger, Deer, Grass, Soil
(b) Rocks, Soil, Plants, Air
(c) Sand, Turtle, Crab, Rocks
(d) Aquatic plant, Fish, Frog, Insects
Answer:
(d) Aquatic plant, Fish, Frog, Insects

Question 7.
Which of the following cannot be called as a habitat?
a. A desert with camels
b. A pond with fish and snails
c. Cultivated land with grazing cattle
d. A jungle with wild animals
Answer:
c. Cultivated land with grazing cattle

Question 8.
Birds fly in the air with the help of _______
(a) heavy and strong Bones
(b) Soft and thick Bones
(c) Hollow and light Bones
(d) Flat and thick Bones
Answer:
(c) Hollow and light Bones

Question 9.
Paramecium moves from one place to other with the help of
a. Pseudopodia
b. flagella
c. Foot
d. cilia
Answer:
d. Cilia

Question 10.
Kangaroo rat lives In _______
(a) Aquatic habitat
(b) Desert habitat
(c) Grass land habitat
(d) Mountain habitat
Answer:
(b) Desert habitat

II. Multiple Choice Questions Complete the following with appropriate word(s).

1. Aquatic, deserts, mountains are called ……….
2. Based on the number of cells present animals are classified into ………. and ………..
3. Tail of a bird acts as a rudder which helps to ………..
4. Amoeba moves with the help of …………

Answer:

1. Habitat
2. Unicellular, multicellular
3. control the direction of the movement
4. Pseudopodium.

III. True or False, If False gives the correct answer.

1. A habitat is a living or dwelling place of an organism.
2. The geographical features and environmental conditions on earth remain the same from one place to another.
3. Amoeba is a unicellular organism and moves with pseudopodia.
4. Birds can see only one object at a time.
5. Paramecium is a multicellular organism.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – The geographical features and environmental conditions on earth do not remain the same from one place to another.
3. True
4. True
5. False – Paramecium is a unicellular organism.

IV. Complete the following

1. Tropical rain forests, grasslands, and deserts are known as ………..
2. Some living things are made of a single cell, they are called a……….. organism
3. The breathing organ of a fish is known as ………..
4. The lizard ……….. on the ground with its claw on its feet.
5. Camel stores ………… in its hump.

Answer:

1. habitat
2. unicellular
3. gills
4. walk and run
5. fat

V. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
How do the birds catch their prey?
Answer:

• The prey-catching process depends on their types.
• The aquatic birds with the help of their beaks get their prey sliding upside down into the water.
• The birds of paddy fields get small insects with the help of sharp claws of their limbs.

Question 2.
Where can we see camels in India?
Answer:
We can see camels in the state of Rajasthan:

1. The dwelling places of camels
2. Jodhpur
3. Pushkar
4. Pikanur
5. Jaisalmer.

Question 3.
Name the locomotory organs of an Amoeba.
Answer:
Amoeba with the help of a finger-like projection called pseudopodia moves from place to place.

Question 4.
What are the body parts of the snake?
Answer:
Snake’s body is divided into-

1. Head
2. body
3. tail
4. Organs on the head-Two eyes, Two nostrils mouth.

Question 5.
Which structure helps the bird to change its direction while flying in the air?
Answer:
The tail helps the bird to change its direction while flying in air.

VI. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Differentiate between unicellular and multicellular organisms.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write the adaptive features of polar bears and penguins.
Answer:
Polar bear:

1. They have short limbs.
2. They have limited body surface to reduce the body temperature
3. They have thick skin.
4. A polar bear has thick skin for protection against the cold climate.
5. They have thick fat deposition under the skin.
6. They eat food rich in fat.

Penguin:

1. They have a boat-shaped body
2. Their feathers absorb sunlight
3. They have thick skin.
4. They have thick fat deposition under the skin.
5. They have short wings to fly above the water and paddle for swimming.

Question 3.
Mention the feature that helps a bird to fly in the air?
Answer:

1. The streamlined body shape.
2. Their forelimbs are modified into wings.
3. They have hollow and light bones for easy flying.
4. The body of the birds is covered with feathers.

Question 4.
What are the different types of invertebrates?
Answer:

1. Protozoa ( unicellular)
2. Porifera
3. Coelenterata
4. Platyhelminthes
5. Aschelminthes
6. Annelida
7. Arthropoda
8. Mollusca
9. Echinodermata

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Describe the various features which help Camel dwell well in the desert.
Answer:

1. The long leg of the camel helps to keep its body away from the desert.
2. Camel will drink a large amount of water and store it in the body.
3. Camel produces only a small quantity of urine.
4. The stored fat in the hump can break down for nourishment
5. A camel has large and flat padded feet which help in walking easily on soft sand.
6. The long eyelashes and hairs protect its eyes and ears from flowing dust.
7. It can keep its nostrils closed to avoid dust.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Living World of Animals Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best option:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is a unicellular organism
(a) Fish
(b) frog
(c) Euglena
(d) Lizard
Answer:
(c) Euglena

Question 2.
Polar bear and Penguins dwell in _______
(a) Cold region
(b) Hot region
(c) Cold and Hot region
(d) Forest region
Answer:
(a) Cold region

Question 3.
The animal lives in water and on land.
(a) Frog
(b) fish
(c) pigeon
(d) camel
Answer:
(a) Frog

Question 4.
Euglena moves with the help of
(a) Flagellum
(b) Cilia
(c) Pseudopods
(d) Legs
Answer:
(a) flagellum

Question 5.
Among the following, which Bird Sanctuary located in Tamilnadu?
(a) Kadalundi
(b) Bharatpur
(c) Vedanthangal
(d) Sultanpur
Answer:
(c) edanthangal

II. True or false. If it is wrong correct it and write.

1. Unicellular organisms grow by mitotic division.
2. The streamlined body of fish helps in swimming.
3. The tail of the bird helps it to control the direction of the movement and balance.
4. The hind limbs of birds are modified into wings
5. The tail of birds help in controlling the direction of the movement

Answer:

1. False – In unicellular organisms, the size of the cell increases as it grows
2. True
3. True
4. False – The forelimbs of birds are modified as wings.
5. True

III. Name the parts in a diagram.

Question 1.
In the given diagram name the A and B parts.

Answer:
A. Pseudopodia
B. Nucleus

Question 2.
In the given diagram Name the A and B parts.

Answer:
A. cilia
B. Contractile Vacuoles.

Question 3.
In the given diagram Name the A and B parts

Answer:
A. Flagella
B. Nucleus.

IV. Give Short Answers:

Question 1.
Give some examples of a unicellular and multicellular organisms.
Answer:
Unicellular: Amoeba, Paramecium, Euglena
Multicellular: Fish, Frog, Lizard, Birds, Man

Question 2.
What is meant by migration?
Answer:
When an animal moves from its location as the season changes it is called migration.

Question 3.
Define Adaptation.
Answer:
The presence of specific body features, for certain habits, which enable a plant or an animal to live in a particular habitat is called adaptation.

Question 4.
What is hibernation?
Answer:
Spending winters in a dormant condition is called hibernation, (eg) Turtle.

Question 5.
Which part protects the body of fish?
Answer:
Most of the fishes have slippery scales all over the body. It protects the body of fish.

Question 6.
Name any three bird sanctuaries in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Vedanthangal, Kodiyakkarai, and Koondhankulam are the bird sanctuaries in Tamil Nadu.

V. Detailed answer:

Question 1.
Give an account of adaptations of birds.
Answer:

1. Birds body is covered with feathers that are helpful in flying with reduced weight.
2. The mouth is converted into beaks.
3. They respire through the lungs.
4. Their forelimbs are modified as wings.
5. They have hollow bones.
6. With the help of a pair of clawed feet, birds can hop move, and run.

Question 2.
Describe various adaptive features of fishes.
Answer:

1. The head, trunk, and tail of a fish merge to form a streamlined shape.
2. It helps the fish to move through the water easily.
3. Gill is a special respiratory organ. It is adapted to breathe in water.
4. Most of the fishes have slippery scales. It protects the body.
5. It has fins for swimming.
6. It has a strong tail. It acts as a rudder to change direction and keeps its body balance in the water.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 4 The Living World of Plants Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 4 The Living World of Plants

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Living World of Plants Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The pond is an example of ………
(a) Marine habitat
(b) Freshwater habitat
(c) Deserts
(d) Mountain
Answer:
(b) Freshwater habitat

Question 2.
The important function of stomata is ______
(a) Conduction
(b) Transpiration
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Absorption
Answer:
(b) Transpiration

Question 3.
Organs of absorption are ………
(a) Root
(b) Stem
(c) Leaf
(d) Flower
Answer:
(a) Root

Question 4.
The habitat of water hyacinth is ______
(a) Aquatic
(b) Terrestrial
(c) Desert
(d) Mountain
Answer:
(a) Aquatic

II. True or False – If false give the correct answer.

1. Plants can live without water.
2. All plants have chlorophyll.
3. Plants have three parts; the root, the stem, and the leaves.
4. Mountain is an example of a freshwater habitat.
5. Root is modified into spines.
6. Green plants need sunlight.

Answer:

1. False – They need water to carry out various functions.
2. False – Only green plants have chlorophyll.
3. True
4. False – Mountain is an example of Terrestrial habitat.
5. False – Spines are usually modifications of leaves.
6. True

III. Fill in the blanks.

1. Earth’s surface is covered by ……….. % of water.
2. The driest places on earth are ……….
3. Fixation and absorption are the main functions of ……….
4. Primary organs of photosynthesis are ………..
5. Taproot system present in ……….. plants.

Answer:

1. 70%
2. Deserts
3. roots
4. leave
5. dicot.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
(i) – d
(ii) – c
(iii) – b
(iv) – e
(v) – a

V. Arrange in the correct sequence.

Question 1.
Leaf – Stem – Root – Flower
Answer:
root – stem – leaf – flower

Question 2.
Transpiration – Conduction – Absorption – Fixation.
Answer:
Fixation, Absorption, Conduction, Transpiration.

VI. Very short answer.

Question 1.
Classify plants on the basis of their habitat.
Answer:
Terrestrial and Aquatic are the 2 habitats

Question 2.
Identify the desert plant from the following – Cactus, Hydrilla, Mango, and Rose.
Answer:
Cactus plants – grow in deserts, and are able to store water in their stem.

Question 3.
Define the term habitat.
Answer:
Each and every organism needs a place to live and reproduce known as habitat.
The dwelling place of any organism is its habitat. Eg. Aquatic habitat

Question 4.
Relate the terms leaves and photosynthesis.
Answer:
Leaves are green in colour, they have chlorophyll and do photosynthesis.

VII. Short answer.

Question 1.
Why do you call Jasmine plants a twiner?
Answer:
Weak plant, cannot stand on its own, must climb on any support to survive.

Question 2.
Compare the taproot and fibrous root systems.
Answer:
Taproot system:

1. Consists of a single root.
2. it grows straight down in the ground
3. Seen in misogynous plants.

Fibrous root system:

1. Consists cluster of roots.
2. It is thin and uniform in size.
3. Seen in monocotyledonous plants.

Question 3.
Distinguish between terrestrial and aquatic habitats.
Answer:

Question 4.
List out the plants present in your school garden.
Answer:
Mango tree, Neem tree, Water lily, Clitoria, Hibiscus

VIII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Make a list of functions of root & stem.
Answer:
Functions of root:
The root,

• Fixes the plant to the soil.
• Absorbs water and minerals from the soil.
• Stores food in some plants like carrots and beetroot.

Functions of stem:
The stem,

• Supports the branches, leaves, flowers, and fruits.
• Transports water and minerals from roots to upper aerial plant parts.
• Transports the prepared food from leaves to other parts.
• Stores food as in the case of sugarcane.

Question 2.
Study the given concept map. Connect them correcting by drawing arrow marks. Complete the map by filling in the blanks.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Living World of Plants Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
Maize has ……….
(a) taproot
(b) fibrous root
(c) Adventitious root
(d) Fasciculate root
Answer:
(b) fibrous root

Question 2.
The underground part of the main axis of a plant is known as ______
(a) shoot
(b) node
(c) root
(d) leaf
Answer:
(c) root

Question 3.
The stalk of the leaf is known
(a) peduncle
(b) rachis
(c) pedicel
d) petiole
Answer:
(d) petiole

Question 4.
On the lower side of the leaf, there are tiny pores or openings known as ______
(a) Leaf base
(b) midrib
(c) petiole
(d) stomata
Answer:
(d) stomata

Question 5.
The diameter of the leaf of Victoria amazonica is
(a) 2 meters
(b) 2.5 cm
(c) 3 meters
(d) 1 meter
Answer:
(c) 3 meters

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Special features in plants which help them to survive in the habitats they live are known as ……….
2. The Great Indian Desert is an arid region of rolling sandhills on the Indian sub continent is known as ……….
3. ………. is the main vein of the lamina of the leaf.
4. A change in an organism caused by environmental factors is known as ………

Answer:

1. Adaptations
2. Thar desert
3. Midrib
4. Modification

III. Arrange in the correct sequence.

Question 1.
Sea – Lake – River – Pond
Answer:
Pond – Lake – River – Pond.

Question 2.
Internode – Node – Axillary Bud – Terminal Bud
Answer:
Terminal Bud – Axillary Bud – Node – Internodes.

IV. Very short answer.

Question 1.
Draw the structure of a leaf and neatly label the parts.
Answer:

Question 2.
List the main part of a flowering plant.
Answer:
The flowering plant consists of two main parts. They are

1. Root system
2. Shoot system

Question 3.
Differentiate between Gymnosperm and Angiosperm.
Answer:
Both groups produces seeds.
Gymnosperms – Non flowering but produce naked seeds Eg. Pinus, Cycas.
Angiosperms – Flowering and produce closed seeds Eg. Mango – Rose

Question 4.
Give some examples of monocotyledonous plants and dicotyledonous plants.
Answer:
Monocotyledonous plant – Grass, Paddy, Maize
Dicotyledonous plant – Bean, Mango, Neem

Question 5.
Notes on Thorns or Spines.
Answer:
Some plants leave – modified into sharp structures known as Thorns or Spines help to reduce water loss.
Eg – Agave – (leaf apex & margin modified into spines).

V. Answer in Details.

Question 1.
Explain Tendril climber.
Answer:
Tendril a twining climbing organ of some weak stemmed plants.
It coils around support and helps the plant to climb.

1. Sweet peas – Here leaflets are modified into tendrils.
2. Bitter gourd – Axillary buds of plant-modified into tendril, help climb up.

Question 2.
Write about Desert Habitat.
Answer:

1. Dry places on earth
2. Less rainfall – less than 25 cm annually.
3. Deserts cover 20% of the earth’s surface.
4. Plants – Adapted to withstand severe heat.

Thick leaves help them to store water and minerals. Eg. Aloe

1. Stems modified to store water. Eg. Cactus
2. Leaves – modified into spines – Opuntia.

Question 3.
Study was given concept map. Connect them by drawing marks- for example, the map by filling the blanks.
Answer: