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Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 5 India’s International Relations Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 5 India’s International Relations

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s International Relations Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
McMahon Line is a border between
(a) Burma and India
(b) India and nepal
(c) India and China
(d) India and Bhutan
Answer:
(c) India and China

Question 2.
India is not a member of which of the following …………..
1. G20
2. ASEAN
3. SAARC
4. BRICS
Select the correct option
(a) 4 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2, 4 and 1
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer:
2 only

Question 3.
OPEC is:
(a) An international insurance Co.
(b) An international sports club
(c) An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries
(d) An international company
Answer:
(c) An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries

Question 4.
With which country does India share its longest land border?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Myanmar
(c) Afghanistan
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Bangladesh

Question 5.
Match the following and choose the correct answer form the codes given below.

(a) 3 14 2
(b) 3 12 4
(c) 3 4 12
(d) 4 3 2 1
Answer:
(a) 3 14 2

Question 6.
How many countries share its border with India?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 7

Question 7.
Which two island countries are India’s neighbours?
(a) Sri Lanka and Andaman island
(b) Maldieves and Lakshadweep island
(c) Maldieves and Nicobar island
(d) Sri Lanka and Maldieves
Answer:
(d) Sri Lanka and Maldieves

Question 8.
Which Indian state is surrounded by three countries?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Mizoram
(d) Sikkim
Answer:
(a) Arunachal Pradesh and (d) Sikkim

Question 9.
How many Indian states have their boundary with Nepal?
(a) Five
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Two
Answer:
(a) Five

Question 10.
Who drew up the borders for newly independent Pakistan?
(a) Lord Mountbatten
(b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe
(c) Clement Atlee
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………. is a small Himalayan kingdom.
2. India’s gateway to South East Asia is ……………….
3. ………………. is a buffer country between India and China.
4. A strip of land ………………. belongs to India on West Bengal and Bangladesh border.
5. ………………. is known as the Land of thunderbolt.
6. India and Sri Lanka are separated by ……………….

Answer:

1. Bhutan
2. Myanmar
3. Nepal
4. Teen Bigha Corridor
5. Bhutan
6. Palk strait

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
The Kaladan transport project by India and Myanmar consists of which of the following modes of transport?
1. Roads
2. Railways
3. Shipping
4. Inland water transport
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1,3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer:
(b) 1,3 and 4 only

Question 2.
Assertion (A): India and France launched International Solar Alliance.
Reason (R): It was done to bring together countries between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn for co-operation of solar energy.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Which of the following statements are true?
Statement 1: ICCR has initiated a Tagore Chair in University of Dhaka.
Statement 2: Myanmar is India’s gateway to western countries.
Statement 3: Nepal and Bhutan are land locked nations.
Statement 4: Sri Lanka is one of the partner in Nalanda University Project of India.
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1,2 and 4
Answer:
(c) 1, 3 and 4

Question 4.
Assertion (A): OPEC has vested interest in India’s economic growth.
Reason (R): Devoid of necessary oil resources India strongly focuses on agriculture and industrial production.
(a) A is correct and R explains A
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both are correct

IV. Match the following

A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
Name the neighbouring countries of India.
Answer:

• India is a vast country with Pakistan and Afghanistan to the north-west
• China, Nepal, Bhutan to the north
• Bangladesh to the east
• Myanmar to the far east
• Sri Lanka (from south-east) and Maldives (from south-west) are two countries that lie close to India separated by the Indian Ocean.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Strategic partnership Agreement (SPA).
Answer:

1. Indo – Afghan relation was strengthened by the strategic partnership , agreement.
2. SPA provide assistance to rebuild Afghan’s infrastructure, institutions, agriculture, water, education, health and providing duty – free access to the Indian market.

Question 3.
Mention the member countries of BRICS.
Answer:

• Brazil
• Russia
• India
• China
• South Africa

Question 4.
What do you know about Kaladan Multi-Model Transit Transport?
Answer:

1. India is building the kaladan multi – model transit transport, a road-river- port cargo transport project to link kolkata to Sittwe in Myanmar.
2. A project aiming to connect Kolkata with Ho chi minh city on the south sea for the formation of an economic zone will have a road pass through Myanmar, Cambodia and Vietnam and work on the first phase connecting Guwahati with Mandalay is currently underway.

Question 5.
How do you assess the importance of Chabahar agreement?
Answer:
A trilateral agreement called the Chabahar Agreement was signed between India, Afghanistan . and Iran, which has led to the establishment of transit and transport corridor among three countries using Chabahar port. This port is seen as golden gateway for India to access landlocked markets of Afghanistan and Central Asia by passing Pakistan.

Question 6.
List out any five global groupings in which India is a member.
Answer:
IBSA, BCIM, MGC, BBIN, and SCO.

Question 7.
What is the role of Japan India Institute of Manufacturing (JIM)?
Answer:
In the manufacturing sector Japan announced its co-operation of training 30,000 Indian people in the Japan India Institute of Manufacturing (JIM) providing Japanese style manufacturing skills to enhance India’s manufacturing industry base and contribute to ‘Make in India’ and ‘Skill India’ initiatives. In 2017, the first four JIMs were started in the states of Gujarat, Karnataka, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Highlight India and International organisation with special reference to any three India’s global groupings.
Answer:

1. India is a potential superpower and has a growing international influence all around the world.
2. India has is a member of formal groupings like UNO, NAM, SAARC, G20 and the commonwealth.
3. India is an activity engaged in general economic diplomacy, which is evident in the country being part of several economic coalitions, as listed in the table below.

Question 2.
Trace the reason for the formation of BRICS and write its objectives.
Answer:
Reason for the formation of BRICS To be an alternative to World Bank and IMF to challenge U.S. supremacy.
To provide self-owned and self-managed organisations to carry out developmental and economical plans in its member nations.
Objectives of BRICS

• To achieve regional development
• It acts as a bridge between developed and developing countries
• To contribute extensively to development of humanity
• To establish a more equitable and fair world
• Boost intra BRICS trade in their local currencies to increase trade cooperation and cope with the current international financial crisis.
• To promote the technological information exchange among the member states
• To enhance inclusive economic growth that will lead to an increase in the creation of jobs, fight against poverty and accelerate the economic transformation of members.

Question 3.
Mention OPEC missions and how does it help other countries?
Answer:
OPEC’S Mission:

1. To coordinate oil policies in its member countries.
2. Help stabilise oil markets.
3. To secure fair and stable income to petroleum producers.
4. An efficient, economic and regular supply of oil to consuming nations.
5. A fair return on capital to those investing in the petroleum industry.

How does OPEC help other countries?

1. The OPEC, fund for International Development (OPID) is an institution that help finance projects with low interest loans.
2. It also provides grants to social and humanitarian projects..
3. OPEC has an information centre with over 20,000 volumes including books reports, maps and conference, proceedings related to petroleum energy and the oil markets.
4. The information centre is open to the public and is often used by researchers and students.

VII. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Students can be asked to collect information from newspapers about India’s relation with world countries.
Answer:
Students should find any article from Tamil (or) English newspaper about India’s relation with world countries.

Eg: Foreign Minister’s visit to India.

[OR]

Indian Prime Minister or President’s visit to foreign countries. After finding the information, cut down the article with its date and year of publication and the name of the newspaper. A minimum of five such news articles can be collected and can be pasted in a notebook to prepare an album to submit as project to the subject teacher.

A sample news taken from the English newspaper.

Times of India
Date: Sep. 17,2019

AGARTALA: Bangladesh Information Minister Hasan Mahmud said ties between India and Bangladesh is becoming better by the day under the leadership of Narendra Modi and Sheikh Hasina.

Inaugurating a 3 – day film festival here, the Minister said Bangladesh believes in having good relations with its neighbours and films play a great role in that. The film festival will feature 20 films made on the Bangladesh Liberation war.

Question 2.
Group project involving students to prepare an album with pictures on India’s latest projects with its neighboring countries.
Answer:
India’s latest project with its neighbouring countries: The Government of India gives high importance to strengthen the friendly relations and to promote understanding with neighbouring countries. As part of this policy, the Government has undertaken several development projects with our neighbouring countries. Details of projects (a sample) is given below.

Note: Students should find and collect information (or) pictures related to the project of Gol (Government of India) with its neighbouring countries taking the sample few projects given here (or) other projects also. Students should paste the pictures in a note book underlining the project, prepare it as an album, submit to the subject teacher.

Projects

Bhutan: Projects completed in Bhutan with GOI assistance include Paro airport, Bhutan broadcasting station, major highways, and construction of Mini – Hydel projects. Penden cement plant with 300 tonnes capacity was completed in 1982 with GOI assistance.

Bangladesh: India is gifting 10 ambulances to Bangladesh.

Maldives: The 200 – bed Indira Gandhi Memorial Hospital (IGMH) was set up in Maldives in 1995 at a cost of about ₹40 crores.

Nepal: The recently completed projects include 22 bridges on the East – West Highway. Setting up of trauma – center at Bir hospital in Kathmandu.

Sri Lanka: GOI has committed US $ 7.5 million to set up an India cancer centre in Colombo.

The above mentioned are only guidelines that could help a student to find what type of projects are generally undertaken.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s International Relations Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Independent India has been consistently fostering.
(a) World peace
(b) International co-operation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 2.
………… development of nations can be achieved only through world peace.
(a) Economic
(b) Social
(c) Political
Answer:
(a) Economic

Question 3.
How many kilometre that Pipeline between Siliguri in West Bengal and ‘ Parbatipur (Bangladesh).
(a) 130
(b) 150
(c) 170
(d) 190
Answer:
(a) 130

Question 4.
China became republic in ……………
(a) 1947
(b) 1949
(c)1950
Answer:
(b) 1949

Question 5.
How many hydro electric projects the Government of India has constricted in Bhutan.
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 6.
…………….. is located South of Lakshadweep islands in the Indian ocean.
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Myanmar
(c) Maldives
(d) none
Answer:
(c) Maldives

Question 7.
India’s second-largest border is shared with:
(a) Maldives
(b) Myanmar
(c) Nepal
(d) Bhutan
Answer:
(b) Myanmar

Question 8.
In …………… a 25 years treaty of friendship, co-operation and peace was signed by India and Bangladesh at …………..
(a) 1971, New Delhi
(b) 1972, Dacca
(c) 1982, Lahore
Answer:
(b) 1972, Dacca

Question 9.
The 204 – kilometre long Mahendra Raj marg to link …………….. and India
(a) Kathmandu
(b) Kalandan
(c) Sittwe
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Kathmandu

Question 10.
In which agreement India tried to bring positive change in the relationship of Pakistan.
(a) Strategic Partnership Agreement
(b) Shimla Agreement
(c) International Agreement
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Shimla Agreement

Question 11.
Which king had sent his son and daughter to ceylon (Sri Lanka) for the propagation of Buddhism.
(a) Chandra Gupta Mourya
(b) Ashoka
(c) Kanishka
(d) none
Answer:
(b) Ashoka

Question 12.
The cease fire line determined in ……………………….. was called the LOC.
(a) 1947
(b) 1945
(c) 1949
(d) 1943
Answer:
(c) 1949

Question 13.
……………… gives India access to advance communication technology used in U.S defence equipment.
(a) COMCASA
(b) AVSINDEX
(c) JIM
(d) MAHSR
Answer:
(a) COMCASA

Question 14.
India and France launched the international ……………… between Tropic of cancer and Tropic of capricorn.
(a) Solar Alliance
(b) Railway
(c) domestic development
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Solar Alliance

Question 15.
Which country decided to introduce the Japan’s Shikansen system.
(a) Australia
(b) India
(c) West Asia
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) India

Question 16.
Which institute providing manufacturing skills to enhance India’s manufacturing industry (Make in India).
(a) JIM
(b) JEC
(c) MAHSR
(d) COMCASA
Answer:
(a) JIM

Question 17.
Which course was introduced in engineering colleges was established in Andhrapradesh.
(a) JIM
(b) JEC
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(b) JEC

Question 18.
Which port is seen as golden gate way for India?
(a) Chabahar
(b) Kandla
(c) Gwadar
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Chabahar

Question 19.
Mention the C of the BRICS:
(a) China
(b) Vienna
(c) Japan
(d) Europe
Answer:
(a) China

Question 20.
Which economist was coined BRICS?
(a) British
(b) French
(c) German
(d) Russian
Answer:
(a) British

Question 21.
NDB gives priority to projects aimed at developing ……………… sources.
(a) Renewable
(b) Non – Renewable
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Renewable

Question 22.
The contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) for providing protection against ……………… pressures.
(a) liquidity
(b) currency issues
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) Trade
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 23.
Which centre has cover 20,000 volumes including books, maps related to petroleum.
(a) Information centre (OPEC)
(b) Research Centre (OPEC)
(c) Universities (OPEC)
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Information centre (OPEC)

Question 24.
……………… is one of the biggest consumers of crude oil.
(a) Nepal
(b) China
(c) India
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(c) India

Question 25.
India strongly focuses on production.
(a) Agriculture
(b) industrial
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) rural
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 26.
India extend its support to the in all her efforts.
(a) U.N.O
(b) W. T. O
(c) world bank
(d) none
Answer:
(a) U.N.O

Question 27.
Who is an active member of BRICS.
(a) Nepal
(b) Pakistan
(c) India
(d) Bangladesh
Answer:
(c) India

Question 28.
Which bank is lending for infrastructure project?
(a) The New Development Bank
(b) Contingent Reserve Arrangement
(c) global liquidity currency
(d) none
Answer:
(a) The New Development Bank

Question 29.
How many seats per year to Indian national for a master’s degree in university of Japan.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 20

Question 30.
Who is a super power and has a growing international influence all around the world.
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Pakistan
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………….. has always been known as a peace – loving country.
2. India’s position is ……………….. in its neighbourhood.
3. ……………….. is surrounded by many neighbouring countries.
4. Indo – Afghan relation was strengthened by the ………………..
5. ……………….. of Baluchistan active supporter of the Indian National congress.
6. ……………….. has built kandahar international cricket stadium.
7. India and ……………….. share 54 common rivers and a bilateral joint River commission is working to maximise benefits.
8. ……………….. has initiated a Tajore chair in university of Dhaka (Scholarship).
9. ……………….. is India’s gate way to Western countries.
10.  ……………….. one of the partner in Nalanda university project of India.
11.  ……………….. represents one of the main indicators of bilateral co-operation between India and Bhutan.
12. India declared the bilateral trade relation known as ………………..
13. China being the ……………….. of the world.
14. ……………….. is a small land locked country.
15. Nepali and Indian people visit each other’s country for religions ………………..
16. India included ……………….. in the VIII schedule of the constitution.
17. There are a number of ……………….. along Indo- Nepal border.
18. A joint hydropower project is being built on the ……………….. River.
19. The Government of India and Nepal have signed ……………….. agreements.
20. ……………….. remains our core concern in the relationship with Pakistan.
21. The cross-border firing between India and ………………..
22. ……………….. is the bone of contention between India and Pakistan.
23. ……………….. is a major irritant.
24. India and Pakistan under the ……………….. of 1972.
25. Sri Lankan investments in India include ……………….. (garment city)
26. COMCASA is valid for a period of ………………..
27. French space launch pads are used by ………………..
28. ……………….. broadens the relationship raising awareness and promoting exchanges between two countries.
29. ……………….. is one of most successful examples of Japanese co-operation.
30. JIM providing training for Indian-people in ………………..
31. Trade relations were established between civilisation of Mesopotemia and ………………..
32. ……………….. gateway to land locked and energy rich
33. In trading routes ran from ancient Sumeria to the Indus civilisation called ………………..
34. The acronym BRICS was coined by ……………….. a famous British economist.
35. ……………….. is a multilateral development Bank.
36. ……………….. are defining changes to have huge geo – economic and geo – political impact.
37. ……………….. mission to co-ordinate oil policies in its member countries.
38. ……………….. is an institution that help finance projects with low interest loans.
39. ……………….. doesn’t have enough oil reserves.
40. India – Japan join laboratories in the area of ………………..

Answers:

1. India
2. unique
3. India
4. Strategic Partnership Agreement (SPA)
5. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
6. India
7. Bangladesh
8. Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR)
9. Myanmar
10. Sri Lanka
11. Hydel power sector
12. Bharat to Bhutan B2B
13. Manufacturing hub
14. Nepal
15. Pilgrimage
16. Nepalese language
17. Tiger reserves
18. Sharda
19. Three-sister-city
20. Terrorism
21. Pakistan
22. Kashmir
23. Cross border terrorism
24. Shimla Agreement
25. Brandix
26. 10 years
27. ISRO
28. The Australia India council
29. Delhi metro
30. Manufacturing sector
31. The Indus valley
32. West Asia, Central Asia
33. Meluna
34. Jim O’Neill
35. NDB (New Development Bank)
36. The Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA)
37. OPEC 38. OPID
38. India
39. Information and communication Technology

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The Farakka accord on sharing of Ganga waters signed in 1977 is a historic agreement.
Reason (R): India and Bangladesh share 54 common rivers and a bilateral joint river commission is working to maximise benefits.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A.

Question 2.
Which of the following statements are false?
Statement 1: India’s position is unique in its neighbourhood.
Statement 2: Myanmar is a land locked nations.
Statement 3: The cross border firing between India and Nepal.
Statement 4: Kashmir is the bone of contention between India and Pakistan.
(a) 1,2, and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Answer:
(d) 2 and 3

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Maldives is located South of Lakshadweep Islands in the Indian oceans.
Reason (R): The relationship with Maldives is important for India given its strategic location and geo – graphical proximity.
(a) A is correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): McMahon line is the boundary line between India and China.
Reason (R): The secretary of state for India (in British cabinet) Arthur Henry McMahon represented British India at the conference.
(a) A is correct and explains A
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is correct and R is wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

Match the Column I with Column II.
Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)
E. (i)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (v)
E. (i)

Question 5.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

V. Give Short Answer

Question 1.
What is the role of India as a Great Helper?
Answer:
India is basically against colonization and wants to see all the countries of the world free from foreign domination. It played a great role in freeing Indonesia from the domination of Holland. In the same way, it has supported the freedom movements started by Egypt, Sudan, Indo-China, Ghana, Morocco and Bangladesh.

Question 2.
Name the formal groups in which India is a member.
Answer:
India is a member of formal groupings like U.N.O, NAM, SAARC, G-20 and the common wealth.

Question 3.
Explain India’s relationship with Pakistan.
Answer:
Inspite of part conflicts both India and Pakistan are trying to come closer. The Delhi-Lahore bus service was launched on March 10th 1999 to bring the people of the two countries closer. Negotiations for setting up Iran-Pakistan-India gas pipeline are taking place.

Question 4.
Mention the India’s relationship with OPEC.
Answer:

1. India is one of the biggest consumers of crude oil.
2. OPEC obviously has vested interest in India’s economic growth.
3. We import 86% of crude oil, 70% natural gas, 35% of cooking gas from OPEC countries.
4. India has been identified as a greater partner for OPEC mainly because of its high oil demand.

Question 5.
‘The relationship between India and Sri Lanka is smooth’-Justify.
Answer:
Sri Lanka is a Buddist country. The Mauryan emperor Ashoka spread Buddism there by sending his son and daughter. We have good trade relation with Sri Lanka India always support Sri Lanka on just and reasonable grounds. Thus the relationship between India and Sri Lanka is very smooth. It will be continued forever.

Question 6.
Write about Khan Abdual Ghaffar Khan.
Answer:
Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan of Baluchistan (a border province in 10 day’s Pakistan) was a prominent leader of the Indian independence movement and active supporter of the Indian national congress.

Question 7.
Why Buddhist saint went to Bhutan from India?
Answer:
Gur Padmasambhava, a Buddhist saint who want to Bhutan from India, played an influential role in spreading Buddhism and Cementing traditional ties between people of both nations.

Question 8.
List out the Indian states have their boundary with Nepal.
Answer:
Sikkim, west Bengal, Bihar, Uttarpradesh and Uttarakhand.

Question 9.
In what way JIM providing training to Indian people?
Answer:
The Japan India Institute of manufacturing(JIM) providing Japanese style manufacturing skills to enhance India’s manufacturing industry base and contribute to “Make in India” and “skill India” initiatives.

Question 10.
Write a short note on a joint hydro power project.
Answer:

1. A joint hydropower project is being built on the Sharda river.
2. This power plant helps both India and Nepal with respect to electricity production and irrigation facilities.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain the relationship of India with her neighbouring countries.
Answer:
India and Pakistan:
Insipite of port conflicts both India and Pakistan are trying to come closer. The Delhi-Lahore bus service was launched on March 16^th 1999 to bring the people of the two countries closer. Negotiations for setting up Iran-Pakistan-India gas pipeline are taking place.

India and China:
When China became republic in 1949, India was the first country to recognize it. Both the countries have successfully attempted to restore the economic lines. China has formally declared that she will back India’s claim for becoming a permenent member of United Nation’s Security Council.

India and Srilanka:
Srilanka is a Buddhist country. The Mauryan emperor Ashoka spread Buddhism there by sending his son and daughter. We have good trade relation with Srilanka. India always support Srilanka on just and reasonable grounds. Thus the relationship between India and Srilanka is very smooth. It will be continued for ever.

India and Bangladesh:
It is due to the effort and support of Smt. Indira Gandhi, the Prime Minister of India, Bangladesh got freedom from Pakistan in 1971. In 1972, a 25 years treaty of friendship, co operation and peace was signed in Dacca by India and Bangladesh. The farakka Barrage issue regarding the distribution of Ganga water was settled amicably. Thus India is a very good friend of Bangladesh. Our friendship with Bangladesh will go on forever.

Question 2.
Write about India and Pakistan relationship?
Answer:

1. Since the bifurcation of territory which demarcated India and Pakistan in 1947.
2. The two nations have had strained relations due to disagreements over a number of key issues.
3. Terrorism remains our core concern in the relationship with Pakistan.
4. But India has made extreme efforts to improve and stabilise relations with Pakistan.
5. The cross – border firing between India and Pakistan and the terrorist attacks combined have taken its toll on the Kashmiri’s who have suffered poor living standards and an erosion of human rights.
6. Kashmir is the bone of contention between India and Pakistan, which has brought the two countries into open clash many times.
7. Cross-border-terrorism is a major irritant.
8. India tried bring a positive change in the relationship of the two countries through bilateral agreements such as Shimla Agreement and Lahore Declaration.

Students can download 6th Science Term 2 Chapter 1 Heat Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Heat

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Heat Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
When an object is heated, the molecules that make up the object
(a) begin to move faster
(b) lose energy
(c) become heavier
(d) become lighter
Answer:
(a) begin to move faster

Question 2.
The unit of heat is
(a) newton
(b) joule
(c) volt
(d) Celsius
Answer:
(b) joule

Question 3.
One litre of water at 30°C is mixed with one litre of water at 50°C. The temperature of the mixture will be
(a) 80°C
(b) More than 50°C but less than 80°C
(c) 20°C
(d) around 40°C
Answer:
(d) around 40° C

Question 4.
An iron ball at 50°C is dropped in a mug containing water at 50°C. The heat will
(a) flow from iron ball to water.
(b) not flow from iron ball to water or from water to iron ball.
(c) flow from water to iron ball.
(d) increase the temperature of both.
Answer:
(b) not flow from iron ball to water or from water to iron ball.

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Heat flows from a ……….. body to a ………… body.
2. The hotness of the object is determined by its ………..
3. The SI unit of temperature is …………
4. Solids ……….. on heating and ………… on cooling.
5. Two bodies are said to be in the state of thermal ………… if there is no transfer of heat taking place.

Answer:

1. hot, cold
2. temperature
3. Kelvin
4. expand, contract
5. equilibrium

III. True or False. If False, give the correct answer.

1. Heat is a kind of energy that flows from a hot body to a cold body.
2. Steam is formed when heat is released from water.
3. Thermal expansion is always a nuisance.
4. Borosilicate glass do not expand much on being heated.
5. The unit of heat and temperature are the same.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – Steam is formed when the heat is absorbed from the water.
3. False – Thermal expansion is always not a nuisance.
4. True
5. False – Unit of heat and temperature are different.

IV. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
An ordinary glass bottle cracks when boiling water is poured into it, but a borosilicate glass bottle does not.
Answer:
The reason is that the borosilicate glass does not expand much on being heated and therefore they do not crack.

Question 2.
The electric wire which sag in summer become straight in winter.
Answer:

1. During summer thermal expansion takes place in electric wire.
2. In winter it contracts so it becomes straight.

Question 3.
Rivet is heated before fixing in the hole to join two metal plates.
Answer:

1. When we heat rivet expansion takes place and becomes soft.
2. One end of the rivet is hammered to form a new head.
3. When cooled, the rivet will contract and hold tightly.

V. Match the following

Answer:
1. – e
2. – c
3. – d
4. – a
5. – b

VI. Analogy

1. Heat: Joule :: Temperature : ………
2. Ice cube : 0°C :: Boiling water : ………..
3. Total Kinetic Energy of molecules: Heat:: Average Kinetic Energy : …………….

Answer:

1. Kelvin
2. 100° C
3. Temperature

VII. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Make a list of electrical types of equipment at home from which we get heat.
Answer:
Water heater, Iron box, Electric kettle, Micro oven.

Question 2.
What is the temperature?
Answer:
The measurement of the warmness or coldness of a substance is known as its temperature.

Question 3.
What is thermal expansion?
Answer:
The expansion of a substance on heating is called thermal expansion.

Question 4.
What do you understand by thermal equilibrium?
Answer:
When two objects in thermal contact, no longer affect each other’s temperature, there exists Thermal equilibrium.

VIII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
What difference do you think heating the solid will make in their molecules?
Answer:

1. When we heat solids the vibrations and movement of molecules will increase.
2. The temperature of the object increases.
3. The distance between molecules will increase.

Question 2.
Distinguish between heat and temperature.
Answer:

IX. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Explain thermal expansion with suitable examples.
Answer:
Thermal expansion: The expansion of a substance on heating is called, the thermal expansion of that substance.

Fitting the iron rim on the wooden wheel:

1. The diameter of the iron ring is slightly less than that of the wooden wheel.
2. So, it cannot be easily slipped on from the rim of a wooden wheel.
3. The iron ring is, therefore, first heated to a higher temperature so that it expands in size and the hot ring is then easily slipped over to the rim of the wooden wheel.
4. Coldwater is now poured on the iron ring so that it contracts in size and holds the wooden wheel tightly.

Rivetting:

1. Rivets are used to join two steel plates together.
2. Hot rivet is driven through the hole in the plates.
3. One end of the rivet is hammered to form a new rivet head.
4. When cooled, the rivet will contract and hold the two plates tightly together.

Cracking of a thick glass tumbler:

1. Glass is a poor conductor of heat.
2. When hot liquid is poured into the tumbler, the inner surface of the tumbler becomes hot and expands while the outer surface remains at room temperature and does not expand.
3. Due to this unequal expansion, the tumbler cracks.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
When a window is accidentally left open on a winter night, will you feel uncomfortable because the cold is getting in, or because the heat is escaping from the room?
Answer:

1. When a window is left open on a winter night I will feel uncomfortable because the heat is escaping from the room.
2. The heat will transfer from high temperature to low temperature.
3. During winter cold air enters the room, so room temperature will decrease.

Question 2.
Suppose your normal body temperature was lower than what it is. How would the sensation of hot and cold change?
Answer:

1. When our body temperature is lower than normal temperature, We feel hot from the surrounding.
2. Because the surrounding temperature will be high compare to our body.

Question 3.
If you heat a circular disk with a hole, what change do you expect in the diameter of the hole? Remember that the effect of heating increases the separation between any pair of particles.
Answer:
Many of us “expect” that the diameter of the hole will decrease because the circular disk is free to expand in all directions as well. Note that expansion of metal due to heating is not like gas spreading out wherever space is available. The correct way to think about it is as follows: Hole size is irrelevant in this case. So we can think that hole is very large.

If we carve a hole so large that its radius is slightly less than that of the circular disk itself, then we will have a ring. It is obvious that the radius of the ring will increase, as atoms have more energy so their oscillation amplitude will increase. As the diameter of the ring increases, the diameter of the hole will also increase.

For example, if you want to insert one hallow pipe inside another hollow pipe of the same diameter, just heat anyone and insert the second one into the heated pipe. This explains the answer in an easy way. So it says that diameter will increase with increasing temperature.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Heat Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
When an electric current is passing through the conductor …………… energy is produced.
(a) Electric
(b) Heat
(c) Chemical
(d) Kinetic energy
Answer:
(b) Heat

Question 2.
One day in 1922, the air temperature was measured at 59°C in the shade in Libya ________
(a) America
(b) Africa
(c) Antarctica
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) Africa

Question 3.
The temperature of boiling water is …………..
(a) 0° C
(b) 32° C
(c) 100° C
(d) 110° C
Answer:
(c) 100°C

Question 4.
The temperature determines the direction flow of _______
(a) heat energy
(b) kinetic energy
(c) potential energy
(d) light energy
Answer:
(a) heat energy

Question 5.
When we cool the liquid it will become …………..
(a) Gas
(b) Solid
(c) Vapour
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Solid

II. Say True or False.

1. Heat is measured in Celsius or centigrade.
2. Temperature in the form of energy.
3. The normal temperature of our body is 37°C.
4. Two objects are said to be in thermal contact if they can exchange heat energy.
5. When the vibrations move from one molecule to another molecule heat will flow.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. True

III. Match the Following:

Answer
1. – iv
2. – i
3. – ii
4. – v
5. – iii

IV. Analogy

1. Summer : Sag :: Winter : …………
2. Evaporation : 100°C :: Freezing : …………

Answer:

1. contract
2. 0°C

V. Give reasons for the following:

Question 1.
Gaps are left in between rails while laying a railway track.
Answer:
Reason: During summer thermal expansion takes place.

Question 2.
Hot metal ball of 80° C is dipped into water of 80°C. The ball will not contract.
Answer:
Reason: Both are in same temperature.

VI. Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are the sources of heat?
Answer:

1. The main source of heat is Sun.
2. Other sources are combustion, friction and electricity.

Question 2.
Define – heat.
Answer:
Heat is an energy that raises the temperature of a thing by causing the molecules in that thing to move faster.

Question 3.
How will you identify two objects are said to be in thermal equilibrium?
Answer:
Two objects in thermal contact have same temperature they are said to be in thermal equilibrium.

Question 4.
What are the measuring unit of temperature?
Answer:
SI unit of temperature is kelvin. Celsius and Fahrenheit are the other units used.

Question 5.
What will determine the direction of flow of heat from one object to another?
Answer:
Temperature will determine the direction of the flow of heat.

VII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain linear expansion with an experiment.
Answer:

1. The expansion in length is called linear expansion.
2. Take a bulb, dry cell, candle, cycle spoke, coin, and two wooden boxes.
3. Place one end of the cycle spoke on a wooden block and connect an electric wire to it. Put a stone over the spoke to hold it.
4. The other one of the cycle spoke is placed on another wooden block.
5. Wrap some electric wire around the coin and place it on the block. Put a stone over the coin to hold it in place.
6. Connect bulb and dry cell to the free ends of wires connected to the coin and the spoke and make the circuit.
7. When we heat the cycle spoke with a candle the length will expand and touches the coin.
8. So the circuit completes, the bulb will glow.
9. When we cool the spoke it contracts and does not touch the coin. So the circuit will disconnect, the bulb will not glow.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 7 Computer – An Introduction Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 7 Computer – An Introduction

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Computer – An Introduction Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Who is the father of computer?
a. Martin Luther King
b. Graham Bell
c. Charlie Chaplin
d. Charles Babbage
Answer:
d. Charles Babbage

Question 2.
Which of the following is another form of computer?
(a) Blackboard
(b) Mobile
(c) Radio
(d) Book
Answer:
(b) Mobile

Question 3.
When was the first computer introduced?
a. 1980
b. 1947
c. 1946
d. 1985
Answer:
c. 1946

Question 4.
Who is the computer’s first programmer?
(a) Lady Wellington
(b) Augusta ado Lovelace
(c) Mary Curie
(d) Mary Comb
Answer:
(b) Augusta ado Lovelace

Question 5.
Pick out the odd one?
a. Calculator
b. Abacus
c. Flash Card
d. Laptop
Answer:
c. Flash Card

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Data is ………… Information.
2. World’s first general purpose computer is ……….
3. Information is ……… data
4. Fifth generation computer has ………. Intelligence.
5. ………… is the device that uses Index number.

Answer:

1. Processed
2. Electronic Numerical Integrator and computer
3. a form of processed
4. Artificial
5. Analog Computer

III. State True or false.

1. The computer is an Electronic device.
2. Sir Isaac Newton invented the Computer.
3. The computer can do calculations fast.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – b
4. – e
5. – a

V. Answer the following

Question 1.
What is a Computer?
Answer:
Computer is an electronic device that processes data and information according to our needs.

Question 2.
Who are the pioneers/forerunners of computers?
Answer:
1. Charles Babbage: a professor in mathematics has designed an analog computer. He is known as the father of computers.
2. Augusta Ada Lovelace: the first programmer as she developed essential commands for mathematical operations.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Data.
Answer:

1. Data is the information that has to be processed.
2. They are in the form of numbers, alphabets, and images.

Question 4.
Name any four input devices.
Answer:
Keyboard, Mouse, Bar code reader, Digital camera, etc.

Question 5.
Differentiate Hardware and Software.
Answer:
Hardware: The parts that are available on the computer that helps the software to work.
Software: The commands or programs that are used on a computer.

VI. Answer in Details.

Question 1.
Explain in detail the Applications of the computer.
Answer:

1. The computer is used in textile shops for billing purposes.
2. It is used in the railway station for issuing tickets.
3. It is used in the banks for multi-purpose.
4. It is used in ATMs.
5. It is used in the Post office.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 6 Health and Hygiene Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 6 Health and Hygiene

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Health and Hygiene Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Our body needs for muscle-building
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) fat
(c) Protein
(d) Water
Answer:
(c) Protein

Question 2.
Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of _______
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
Answer:
(c) Vitamin C

Question 3.
Calcium is an example of a
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) fat
(c) Protein
(d) minerals
Answer:
(d) minerals

Question 4.
We should include fruits and vegetables in our diet, because _______
(a) They are the best source of Carbohydrates
(b) They are the best source of Proteins
(c) They are rich in minerals and Vitamins
(d) They have high water content
Ans:
(c) They are rich in minerals and Vitamins

Question 5.
Bacteria are very small microorganism.
(a) Prokaryotic
(b) Eukaryotic
(c) Protozoa Acellular
(d) Acellular
Answer:
(a) prokaryotic

II. True or False

1. There are three main nutrients present in food.
2. Fats are used as an energy store by our body.
3. All bacteria have flagella.
4. Iron helps in the formation of haemoglobin.
5. Virus can grow and multiply outside host.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. False

III. Fill in the blanks

1. Malnutrition leads to …………
2. Iodine deficiency leads to ……… in adults.
3. Vitamin D deficiency causes ………..
4. Typhoid is transmitted due to contamination of ……….. and water.
5. Influenza is a ………. disease.

Answer:

1. Deficiency diseases
2. Goitre
3. Rickets and water.
4. Food
5. Viral

IV. Complete the Analogy

1. Rice: Carbohydrate : : Pulses: …………
2. Vitamin D: Rickets : : Vitamin C: …………..
3. Iodine: Goitre : : Iron: ……………
4. Cholera: Bacteria : : Smallpox: ………….

Answer:

1. Protein
2. Scurvy
3. Anemia
4. Virus

V. Match the Following

Answer:
1. – b
2. – d
3. – e
4. – a
5. – c

VI. Complete the Diagram

Answer:

VII. Write a Short Answer.

Question 1.
Write two examples for each of the following.
(a) Food items rich in fat.
(b) Vitamin deficiency diseases.
Answer:
(a) Food items rich in fat: Meat, fish, egg yolk, milk.
(b) Vitamin deficiency diseases: Night blindness, Beriberi, Scurvy, Rickets.

Question 2.
Differentiate between Carbohydrate and Protein.
Answer:
Carbohydrate:

1. Energy giving component of the food.
2. The sources of carbohydrates are nuts, fruits, rice, and maize.

Protein:

1. It is body building foods.
2. The sources of proteins are pulses, soybean, nuts, egg, and fish.

Question 3.
Define the term “Balanced diet”.
Answer:
A diet which contains a sufficient amount of various nutrients to ensure good health is called a Balanced diet.

Question 4.
Why should the fruits and vegetables not to be washed after cutting? Vitamins are of two types.
Answer:
We should not wash the fruits and vegetables after cutting, because the minerals and protein in the fruits and vegetables will also be washed away.

Question 5.
Write any two viral diseases.
Answer:
Common cold, smallpox, polio are viral diseases.

Question 6.
What are the main features of a microorganism?
Answer:
Microorganism will be seen with the help of a microscope. They are very small in size.

VIII. Long Answers.

Question 1.
Tabulate the vitamins and their corresponding deficiency diseases.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Health and Hygiene Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best options

Question 1.
Name the sunshine Vitamin
(a) A
(b) D
(c) C
(d) K
Answer:
(b) D

Question 2.
_______ is a highly rich source of protein.
(a) Nut
(b) Gram
(c) Chicken
(d) Soya bean
Answer:
(d) Soya bean

Question 3.
The minerals are called by this name:
(a) Energy Food
(b) Balance diet
(c) Food for growth
(d) protective food
Answer:
(d) protective food

Question 4.
Ben Ben is caused due to the deficiency of _______
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin K
(d) Vitamin B
Ans:
(d) Vitamin B

Question 5.
How much water is needed for a man in a day?
(a) 2L
(b) 3L
(c) 1.5L
(d) 1L
Answer:
(a) 2 lr

II. Matching

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – b
4. – a

III. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
Define Nutrients.
Answers:
Chemical constituents of food which give us energy, help to build our body, and protect us from diseases are called Nutrients.

Question 2.
List the six important nutrition.
Answer:

1. Carbohydrate
2. Vitamins
3. Protein
4. Minerals
5. Fat
6. Water.

Question 3.
List out the types of vitamins.
Solution:
Vitamins are classified into six major types. They are Vitamin A, B, C, D, E, and K. In the type,
Vitamin B and C are water-soluble Vitamins
Vitamin A, D, E, K are Fat-soluble vitamins.

Question 4.
Differentiate between Kwashiorkor and Marasmus.
Answer:
Kwashiorkor:
Stunted growth.
Swelling of face and limbs diarrhea.

Marasmus:
Skinny appearance.
slow body growth.

Question 5.
What are food items contain minerals?
Answer:
Green leafy vegetables like spinach, pulses, eggs, milk, fish, and fruits are food items that contain minerals.

IV. Give detailed Answers

Question 1.
Fill ABCDE in this tabular column.
Answer:

Question 2.
What are the uses of exercise?
Answer:

1. It improves growth and development.
2. It delays aging.
3. It strengthens muscles and blood circulation.
4. It develops athletic skills and reduces weight.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 13 Structural Organisation of Animals Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 13 Structural Organisation of Animals

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Structural Organisation of Animals Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
In leech locomotion is performed by:
(a) Anterior sucker
(b) Posterior sucker
(c) Setae
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Anterior sucker

Question 2.
The segments of leech are known as _____.
(a) Metameres (somites)
(b) Proglottids
(c) Strobila
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(a) Metameres (somites).

Question 3.
Pharyngeal ganglion in leech is a part of:
(a) Excretory system
(b) Nervous system
(c) Reproductive system
(d) Respiratory system
Answer:
(b) Nervous system

Question 4.
The brain of leech lies above, the _____.
(a) Mouth
(b) Buccal Cavity
(c) Pharynx
(d) Crop.
Answer:
(c) Pharynx

Question 5.
The body of leech has:
(a) 23 segments
(b) 33 segments
(c) 38 segments
(d) 30 segments
Answer:
(b) 33 segments

Question 6.
Mammals are animals.
(a) Cold blooded
(b) Warm blooded
(c) Poikilothermic
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Warm blooded

Question 7.
The animals which give birth to young ones are _____.
(a) Oviparous
(b) Viviparous
(c) Ovoviviparous
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The posterior sucker is formed by the fusion of the ………. segments.
2. The existence of two sets of teeth in the life of an animal is called ……….. dentition.
3. The anterior end of leech has a lobe-like structure called ………..
4. The blood sucking habit of leech is known as ………..
5. ………. separate nitrogenous waste from the blood in rabbit.
6. ……… spinal nerves are present in rabbit.

Answer:

1. last seven
2. diphyodont
3. anterior sucker
4. sanguivorous
5. Nephrons (kidney)
6. 37 pair

III. Identify whether the statements are True or False. Correct the false statement:

1. An anticoagulant present in saliva of leech is called heparin.
2. The vas deferens serves to transport the ovum.
3. The rabbit has a third eyelid called tympanic membrane which is movable.
4. Diastema is a gap between premolar and molar teeth in rabbit.
5. The cerebral hemispheres of rabbit are connected by band of nerve tissue called corpora quadrigemina.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – Vas deferens serves to transport the sperm.
3. True
4. False – The gap between the incisors and premolars.
5. False – The cerebral hemispheres of rabbit are connected by band of nerve tissue called corpora corpus callosum.

IV. Match columns I, II and III correctly:

Answer:

V. Answer in a sentence:

Question 1.
Give the common name of the Hirudinaria granulosa.
Answer:
The common name of Hirundinaria granulosa is Indian Cattle Leech.

Question 2.
How does leech respire?
Answer:
Leech respire through the skin.

Question 3.
Write the dental formula of rabbit.
Answer:
The dental formula of rabbit is \(\frac{2033}{1023}\)

Question 4.
How many pairs of testes are present in leech?
Answer:
There are 11 pairs of testes are present in Leech.

Question 5.
How is diastema formed in rabbit?
Answer:
Diastema is due to the absence of canine. It is a gap between incisors and premolars in the upper jaw and lower jaw.

Question 6.
What organs are attached to the two bronchi?
Answer:
The organs attached to the two bronchi are lungs.

Question 7.
Which organ acts as a suction pump in leech?
Answer:
The Pharynx acts as a suction pump in Leech.

Question 8.
What does CNS stand for?
Answer:
The full form of CNS is Central Nervous System.

Question 9.
Why is the teeth of rabbit called heterodont?
Answer:
The dentition of rabbit is called heterodont, as they have different types of teeth (Incisors, premolars and molars).

Question 10.
How does leech suck blood from the host?
Answer:
The Anterior sucker helps in feeding, while both the suckers, help in attachment and locomotion.

VI. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
Why are the rings of cartilages found in trachea of rabbit?
Answer:
The wall of larynx which serves as the voice box is supported by 4 cartilaginous plates. When the air passes the vocal cord, it vibrates resulting in sound production.

Question 2.
List out the parasitic adaptations in the leech.
Answer:
Leeches lead a parasitic mode of life, by sucking the blood of vertebrates. The adaptations are

• Blood is sucked by the pharynx.
• Anterior and Posterior Suckers are provided, by which the animal attaches itself to the body of the host.
• The three Jaws, inside the mouth, causes a painless Y – shaped wound in the skin of the host,
• The salivary glands produce Hirudin, which does not allow the blood to coagulate. So, the continuous supply of blood is maintained.
• Parapodia and Setae are absent.
• Blood is stored in the crop. It gives nourishment to the leech for several months. So there is no elaborate secretion of the digestive juices and enzymes.

VII. Long answer questions:

Question 1.
How is the circulatory system designed in leech to compensate the heart structure?
Answer:
The circulation in Leech is Haemocoelic system. There are no true blood vessels. The blood vessels are replaced by channels called Haemocoelic channels or canals, filled with blood like a fluid. The coelomic fluid contains Haemoglobin.

There are four longitudinal channels. One channel lies above (dorsal) to the Alimentary canal, one below (ventral) to the Alimentary canal. The other two channels lie on either (lateral) side of the Alimentary canal, which serves as a heart and have inner valves. All the four channels are connected together posteriorly in the 26th segment. Thus the circulatory system is designed in Leech to compensate the heart structure.

Question 2.
How does locomotion take place in leech?
Answer:

1. Looping or Crawling movement : Looping movement is brought about by the contraction and relaxation of muscles. The two suckers serve for attachment during movement. The animal fixes its posterior sucker on the substratum.
2. Swimming movement : The animal swims in the water by undulating movements of the body.

Question 3.
Explain the male reproductive system of rabbit with a labelled diagram.
Answer:
The male rabbit has a pair of testes. They are oval in shape. They are kept in two sacs called scrotal sacs hanging down from the abdomen. Each testes is formed of numerous fine tubules called seminiferous tubules. A coiled tubule called epididymis is formed at the end of seminiferous tubules. Epididymis lead into the sperm duct called vas deferens. The vas deferens run forward and enters abdominal cavity through urinary bladder. The urethra runs back and passes into the penis. There are three accessory glands associated with the male reproductive system. They are prostate glands, cowper’s gland and perineal glands. Their secretion nourishes and activates the reproduction.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS).

Question 1.
Arjun is studying in the tenth standard. He was down with fever and went to meet the doctor. As he went to the clinic he saw a patient undergoing treatment for severe leech bite. Being curious, Arjun asked the doctor why leech bite was not felt as soon as it attaches to the skin? What would have been the reply given by the doctor?
Answer:
The doctors would have replied that the leeches inject an anaesthetic substance, that prevents the host from feeling their bite.

Question 2.
Shylesh has some pet animals at his home. He has few rabbits too, one day while feeding them he observed something different with the teeth. He asked his grandfather, why is it so? What would have been the explanation of his grandfather?
Answer:
The rabbit has three types of teeth – Incisors are front teeth used for cutting, premolar and molar are used for grinding. Canine is absent as rabbit are herbivores. The gap between the incisor and premolar is called diastema. It helps in mastication and chewing of food in herbivores animal.

IX. Value-Based Questions:

Question 1.
Leeches do not have an elaborate secretion of digestive juices and enzymes. Why?
Answer:
The digestion in leeches in very slow. So, the blood stored in the crop gives nourishment to the leech for several months. So there is not elaborate secretion of digestive juices and enzymes.

Question 2.
How is the digestive system of rabbit suited for herbivorous mode of feeding?
Answer:
Rabbit are herbivores which feed on plants. The plant contain cellulose which need cellulose to digest. The laccum of Rabbit contain large number of symbiotic bacteria that helps in digestion of cellulose.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Structural Organisation of Animals Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
(a) Vas deferens and Epididymis
(b) Ovary and Caeca
(c) Hirudin and Stomach
(d) Nephridia and Papillae.
Answer:
(a) Vas deferens and Epididymis

Question 2.
Diastema is:
(a) A part of pelvic girdle in rabbit
(b) A type of tooth in rabbit
(c) Space in teeth line in mammals
(d) Structure in eye of rabbit
Answer:
(c) Space in teeth line in mammals

Question 3.
(a) Suckers and Mammary glands
(b) Cowper’s gland and Perineal gland
(c) Forebrain and Oesophagus
(d) Cellulose and Colouration.
Answer:
(b) Cowper’s gland and Perineal gland

Question 4.
If the dental formula of rabbit is \(\frac{2023}{1023}\) What does it show?
(a) Total number of teeth in Rabbit is 15
(b) Number of total incisors in Rabbit is 3
(c) Diastema is present between incisors and premolars
(d) In the formula 2033 is for adult and 1023 is for young ones
Answer:
(c) Diastema is present between incisors and premolars

Question 5.
Number of pairs of salivary glands present in Rabbit is:
(a) one
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(c) four

Question 6.
Number of Vertebrae in rabbit is:
(a) 44 – 47
(b) 40 – 44
(c) 42 – 48
(d) 47 – 50
Answer:
(a) 44 – 47

Question 7.
If the diaphragm of a rabbit is perforated breathing is:
(a) Not affected
(b) Increased
(c) Decreased
(d) Stopped
Answer:
(d) Stopped

Question 8.
Tracheal rings in rabbit are:
(a) complete
(b) dorsally incomplete
(c) lateral incomplete
(d) incomplete
Answer:
(b) dorsally incomplete

Question 9.
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of leech?
(a) closed circulatory system
(b) segmentation
(c) pseudo coelom
(d) ventral nerve cord
Answer:
(c) pseudo coelom

Question 10.
The blood vascular system, of rabbit is:
(a) open type
(b) closed type
(c) semi closed type
(d) semi open type
Answer:
(b) closed type

Question 11.
The wall of Rabbit’s heart is thick due to the presence of:
(a) Inner layer endocardium
(b) Middle layer myocardium
(c) Outer layer pericardium
(d) Outer layer epicardium
Answer:
(b) Middle layer myocardium

Question 12.
Leech belongs to the class:
(a) polychaeta
(b) oligochaeta
(c) hirundinea
(d) archiannelida
Answer:
(c) hirundinea

Question 13.
A temporary clitellum occur during the breeding season in:
(a) Pheretima
(b) Heteroneris
(c) Hirundinaria
(d) Aphrodile
Answer:
(c) Hirundinaria

Question 14.
Saliva of leeches contains an anti coagulation called:
(a) Heparin
(b) Histamine
(c) Hirudin
(d) Haematin
Answer:
(c) Hirudin

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Hirudinaria granulosa belong to the phylum ……..
2. The scientific name of the rabbit is ………
3. ………. is the segmentation of the body.
4. The type of movement is brought by the contraction and relaxation of muscles in leeches is ………
5. In leech, the digestion takes place in stomach by the action of …………
6. The ……….. prevents the entry of food into the trachea through the glottis.
7. The existence of two sets of teeth in the life of an animal is called ………… dentition.
8. ……….. contains bacteria that helps in digestion of cellulose.
9. The anterior part of the oviduct in rabbit is …………
10. Breathing movement in mammals are brought by ………..
Answer:
1. Annelida
2. Oryctolagus cuniculus
3. Metamerism
4. Looping or crawling movement
5. Proteolytic enzyme
6. Epiglottis
7. Diphyodont
8. Caecum
9. Fallopian tube
10. Diaphragm

III. Identify whether the statements are True or False. Correct the false statement:

1. Mammary gland in male is the most striking feature of mammals.
2. The leech makes a triradiate or y-shaped incision in the skin of the host by the joins protrude through the mouth.
3. Crop and its diverticular in leech can store large amount of blood which can be slowly digested.
4. Breathing movement in Rabbit are brought by the movement of vibrissae.
5. In rabbit pair of cowper’s gland and perineal gland are present only in the male.

Answer:

1. False – Mammary gland in female is the most striking feature of mammals.
2. True
3. True
4. False – Breathing movement in Rabbit are brought by Diaphragm
5. False – In rabbit pair of cowper’s gland and perineal gland are present both male and female

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (iv)

V. Answer in a sentence:

Question 1.
Name the excretory organ of leech.
Answer:
Excretion in leech takes place by nephridia.

Question 2.
Give the Scientific name of Rabbit.
Answer:
Oryctolagus Cuniculus.

Question 3.
Where is the brain of rabbit located?
Answer:
The brain of rabbit is located in the cranial cavity and covered by three membrane of duramater, piamater and arachnoid membrane.

Question 4.
How many pairs of cranial nerves are there in the Peripheral Nervous System?
Answer:
12 pairs of cranial nerves.

Question 5.
What is other name of whiskers in rabbit?
Answer:
The sides of the upper lip produce stiff long thick hairs called vibrissae or whisker which are tactile sensory organ.

Question 6.
Which type of rabbit are endangered species?
Answer:
Pygmy Rabbits are listed as an endangered species.

Question 7.
Name the existence of two sets of teeth in the life of an animal.
Answer:
Diphyodont dentition

Question 8.
Why Rabbits are called gregarious animals?
Answer:
Rabbits are called gregarious animals as they move in group.

Question 9.
Which animals are called sanguivorous?
Answer:
Blood sucking animals.

Question 10.
What are nephridropores?
Answer:
In leech, excretion takes place by segmentally arranged paired tubules called nephridia. There are 17 pairs of nephridia which open by nephridiopores from 6th to 22nd segment.

VI. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Write the systematic position of Indian Cattle Leech.
Answer:

Question 2.
What do you know about the Trunk of Rabbit?
Answer:
The trunk is divisible into an anterior thorax and a posterior abdomen. In females, four or five teats or nipples are present on the ventral surface between Thorax and abdomen. The trunk has two pairs of Pentadactyl limbs. The forelimbs are shorter than the hind limbs.

All the digits bear claws. The anus is present at the posterior end. In females, on the ventral side, a slit-like Vulva is present. In males, the Penis is present in the ventral side of Anus. The male has a pair of testes, enclosed by Scrotal Sacs.

Question 3.
How do the leeches respire?
Answer:
There is no special respiration organ in leech. The skin serves as a respiratory i organ. The capillaries containing the haemocoelomic fluid extend in between the cells of the epidermis, acts as a permeable membrane through which the exchange of gases takes place by diffusion.

Question 4.
What are diphyodont dentition and Heterodont dentition?
Answer:
The existence of two sets of teeth in the life of an animal is called diphyodont dentition. The two types of teeth are Milk teeth (Young ones) and Permanent teeth (in adults).

The different types of dentition are called Heterodont. There are four kinds of teeth in mammals.
The incisors (I), Canines (C), Premolars (PM) and Molars (M).

Question 5.
List out the five layers of body wall of Leech.
Answer:
The body wall of leech consists of five layers.

1. Cuticle
2. Epidermis
3. Dermis
4. Muscular layer and
5. Botryoidal tissue

Question 6.
Give the systematic position of Rabbit.
Answer:

Question 7.
Explain the Respiratory system of Leech.
Answer:
Respiration takes place through the skin in Leech. Dense, network to tiny blood vessels called Capillaries, containing haemocoel fluid extend, in between the cells of the epidermis. The exchange of respiratory gases takes place by diffusion. Oxygen dissolved in water diffuses through the skin, into haemocoel fluid, while Carbon dioxide, diffuses out. The skin is kept moist and slimy, due to the secretion of mucus, which prevents the skin from drying.

Question 8.
List out the steps involved in Inspiration in Rabbit.
Answer:
During Inspiration the atmospheric air takes the following route.

VII. Long answer questions:

Question 1.
Compare the digestive system of Leech and Rabbit.
Answer:

Question 2.
Short notes on the Nervous System of Leech.
Answer:
The Central Nervous System of Leech consists of a nerve ring and a paired ventral nerve cord. The nerve ring surrounds the Pharynx and is formed of Suprapharyngeal ganglion (brain), Circum pharyngeal connective and Subpharyngeal ganglion. The Subpharyngeal ganglion lies below the Pharynx and is formed by the fusion of four pairs of Ganglia.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 18 Heredity Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 18 Heredity

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Heredity Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
According to Mendel alleles have the following character:
(a) Pair of genes
(b) Responsible for character
(c) Production of gametes
(d) Recessive factors
Answer:
(b) Responsible for character

Question 2.
9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio is due to ______.
(a) Segregation
(b) Crossing over
(c) Independent assortment
(d) Recessiveness.
Answer:
(c) Independent assortment

Question 3.
The region of the chromosome where the spindle fibres get attached during cell division:
(a) Chromomere
(b) Centrosome
(c) Centromere
(d) Chromonema
Answer:
(c) Centromere

Question 4.
The centromere is found at the centre of the ______ chromosome.
(a) Telocentric
(b) Metacentric
(c) Sub – metacentric
(d) Acrocentric.
Answer:
(b) Metacentric

Question 5.
The units form the backbone of the DNA.
(a) 5 carbon sugar
(b) Phosphate
(c) Nitrogenous bases
(d) Sugar phosphate
Answer:
(d) Sugar phosphate

Question 6.
Okazaki fragments are joined together by ______.
(a) Helicase
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) RNA primer
(d) DNA ligase.
Answer:
(d) DNA ligase.

Question 7.
The number of chromosomes found in human beings are:
(a) 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes.
(b) 22 autosomes and 1 allosome
(c) 46 autosomes
(d) 46 pairs autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes.
Answer:
(a) 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes.

Question 8.
The loss of one or more chromosome in ploidy is called ______.
(a) Tetraploidy
(b) Aneuploidy
(c) Euploidy
(d) Polyploidy.
Answer:
(b) Aneuploidy

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The pairs of contrasting character (traits) of Mendel are called ……..
2. Physical expression of a gene is called ………..
3. The thin thread like structures found in the nucleus of each cell are called ……….
4. DNA consists of two ……….. chains.
5. An inheritable change in the amount or the structure of a gene or a chromosome is called ……….

Answer:

1. alleles or allelomorphs
2. Phenotype
3. Chromosomes
4. Polynucleotide chain
5. Mutation

III. Identify whether the statement are True or False. Correct the false statement.

1. A typical Mendelian dihybrid ratio of F₂ generation is 3 : 1.
2. A recessive factor is altered by the presence of a dominant factor.
3. Each gamete has only one allele of a gene.
4. Hybrid is an offspring from a cross between genetically different parent.
5. Some of the chromosomes have an elongated knob-like appendages known as telomere.
6. New nucleotides are added and new complementary strand of DNA is formed with the help of enzyme DNA polymerase.
7. Down’s syndrome is the genetic condition with 45 chromosomes.

Answer:

1. False – A typical Mendelian dihybrid ratio of F₂ generation is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. False – Some of the chromosomes have an elongated knob-like appendages known as satellite
6. True
7. True

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

V. Answer in a sentence.

Question 1.
What is a cross in which inheritance of two pairs of contrasting characters are studied?
Answer:
Dihybrid cross is a cross in which inheritance of two pairs of contrasting characters.

Question 2.
Name the conditions when both the aisles are identical?
Answer:
Homozygous alleles.

Question 3.
A garden pea plant produces axial white flowers. Another of the same species produced terminal violet flowers. Identify the dominant trait.
Answer:
The dominant trait is axial white flower.

Question 4.
What is the name given to the segments of DNA, which are responsible for the inheritance of a particular character?
Answer:
Genes are the segments of DNA, which are responsible for the inheritance of a particular character.

Question 5.
Name the bond which binds the nucleotides in a DNA.
Answer:
Hydrogen bond binds the nucleotides in a DNA.

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Why did Mendel select pea plant for his experiments?
Answer:

1. It is naturally self-pollinating and so is very easy to raise pure breeding individuals.
2. It has a short life span as it is an annual and so it was possible to follow several generations.
3. It is easy to cross-pollinate.
4. It has deeply defined contrasting characters.
5. The flowers are bisexual.

Question 2.
What do you understand by the term phenotype and genotype?
Answer:

• The external expression of a particular trait is known as the phenotype.
• The genetic expression of an organism is a genotype.

Question 3.
What are allosomes?
Answer:
Allosomes are chromosomes which are responsible for determining the sex of an individual. They are also called as sex chromosomes or hetero-chromosomes. There are two types of sex chromosomes, X and Y- chromosomes.

Question 4.
What are the Okazaki fragments?
Answer:
The short segments of DNA are called Okazaki fragments.

Question 5.
Why is euploidy considered to be advantageous to both plants and animals?
Answer:
Euploidy is the condition in which individual bears more than the usual number of diploid (2n) chromosome. It is used in plant breeding and horticulture. It has economic significance by the production of large sized flowers and fruits. It plays a significant role in the evolution of new species.

Question 6.
A pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with the pure dwarf plant (tt), what would be the F₁ and F₂ generations? Explain.
Answer:
In the F₁ generation, all are tall plants. (Genotype all are Tt and phenotype all are tall).
In F₂ generation, genotype three tall and one dwarf. [TT : Tt : tt = 1 : 2 : 1] phenotype.
Tall : dwarf 3 : 1 [TT : Tt : Tt : tt].

Question 7.
Explain the structure of a chromosome.
Answer:
The chromosomes are thin, long and thread like structures consisting of two identical strands called sister chromatids. They are held together by the centromere. Each chromatid is made up of spirally coiled thin structure called chromonema. The chromonema has number of bead-like structures along its length which are called chromomeres.

Question 8.
Label the parts of the DNA in the diagram given below. Explain the structure briefly.
Answer:
(i) DNA molecule consists of two polynucleotide chains.
(ii) These chains form a double helix structure with two strands which run anti-parallel to one another.
(iii) Nitrogenous bases in the centre are linked to sugar-phosphate units which form the backbone of the DNA.
(iv) Pairing between the nitrogenous bases is very specific and is always between purine and pyrimidine linked by hydrogen bonds.

VII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain with an example of the inheritance of dihybrid cross. How is it different from a monohybrid cross?
Answer:
Dihybrid cross involves the inheritance of two pairs of contrasting characteristics (or contrasting traits) at the same time. The two pairs of contrasting characteristics chosen by Mendel were shape and color of seeds: round-yellow seeds and wrinkled-green seeds.
Mendel crossed pea plants having round-yellow seeds with pea plants having wrinkled-green seeds. Mendel made the following observations:

(i) Mendel first crossed pure breeding pea plants having round-yellow seeds with pure breeding pea plants having wrinkled-green seeds and found that only round-yellow seeds were produced in the first generation (F₁). No wrinkled-green seeds were obtained in the F₁ generation. From this it was concluded that round shape and yellow color of the seeds were dominant traits over the wrinkled shape and green color of the seeds.

(ii) When the hybrids of F₁ generation pea plants having round-yellow seeds were cross-bred by self pollination, then four types of seeds having different combinations of shape and color were obtained in second generation or F₂ generation. They were round yellow, round-green, wrinkled-yellow and wrinkled-green seeds.
The ratio of each phenotype (or appearance)of seeds in the F₂ generation is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. This is known as the Dihybrid ratio.

Monohybrid cross is a genetic cross that involves a single pair of gene or trait. In this parents differ by single trait. Eg: Height.
Dihybrid cross is a genetic cross that involves two pairs of genes, which are responsible for two trait. In this, parents have two different independent trait. Eg: flower colour, stem length.

Question 2.
How is the structure of DNA organised? What is the biological significance of DNA?
Answer:
DNA is the genetic material of almost all the organisms. One of the active functions of DNA is to make its copies which are transmitted to the daughter cells. Replication is the process by which DNA makes exact copies of itself. Replication is the basis of like and takes place during the inter phase stage.

During replication of DNA, two complementary strand of DNA unwind and separate from one end in a zipper like fashion. The enzyme helicase unwinds the two strands of the DNA. The enzyme called topoisomerase separates the double helix above the replication fork and removes the twists formed during the unwinding process. For the synthesis of new DNA, two things are required. One is RNA primer and enzyme primase. The DNA polymerase moves along the newly formed RNA primer nucleotides, which leads to the elongation of DNA. In the other strand DNA is synthesized in small fragments called Okazaki fragments.

These fragments are linked by the enzyme called ligase. In the resulting DNA, one of the strand is parental and the other is the newer strands which is formed discontinuously.

Significance of DNA:
(i) It is responsible for the transmission of hereditary information from one generation to next generation.
(ii) It contains information required for the formation of proteins.
(iii) It controls the developmental process and life activities of an organism.

Question 3.
The sex of the new born child is a matter of chance and neither of the parents may be considered responsible for it. What would be the possible fusion of gametes to determine the sex of the child?
Answer:
Sex determination is a chance of probability as to which category of sperm fuses with the egg. If the egg (X) is fused by the X-bearing sperm an XX individual (female) is produced. If the egg (X) is fused by the Y-bearing sperm an XY individual (male) is produced. The sperm, produced by the father, determines the sex of the child. The mother is not responsible in determining the sex of the child.

Now let’s see how the chromosomes take part in this formation. Fertilization of the egg (22+X) with a sperm (22+X) will produce a female child (44+XX). while fertilization of the egg (22+X) with a sperm (22+Y) will give rise to a male child (44+XY).

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
Flowers of the garden pea are bisexual and self-pollinated. Therefore, it is difficult to perform hybridization experiment by crossing a particular pistil with the specific pollen grains. How Mendel made it possible in his monohybrid and dihybrid crosses?
Answer:
He worked on nearly 10,000 pea plants of 34 different varieties. He had chosen 7 pairs of contrasting characters. As the pea plants, are self-pollinating it is easy to raise pure breeding individuals. It is easy to cross-pollinate. It has contrasting characters. So Mendel made it possible in his monohybrid and dihybrid crosses.

Question 2.
Pure-bred tall pea plants are first crossed with pure-bred dwarf pea plants. The pea plants obtained in F₁ generation are then cross-bred to produce F₂ generation of pea plants.
(a) What do the plants of F₁ generation look like?
(b) What is the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in F₂ generation?
(c) Which type of plants were missing in F₁ generation but reappeared in F₂ generation?
Answer:
(a) plants will be tall
(b) 3 : 1
(c) Tall heterozygous (Tt)

Question 3.
Kavitha gave birth to a female baby. Her family members say that she can give birth to only female babies because of her family history. Is the statement given by her family members true? Justify your answer.
Answer:
The statement given by her family members were not true. It is not hereditary or family history. The sex determination mainly depends on which category of sperm fuses with the egg. If the egg [X] is fused by the X – bearing sperm, an XX individual (female) is produced. If the egg [X] is fused by the Y – bearing sperm an XY individual (male) is produced.

IX. Value-Based Questions

Question 1.
Under which conditions does the law of independent assortment hold good and why?
Answer:
During meiosis, chromosomes assort randomly into gametes, such that the segregation of alleles of one gene is independent of alleles of another gene. This is stated in Mendel’s Second Law and is known as the law of independent assortment.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Heredity Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Exchange of genetic material take place in:
(a) vegetative reproduction
(b) asexual reproduction
(c) sexual reproduction
(d) budding
Answer:
(c) sexual reproduction

Question 2.
In human, the number of chromosomes in each cell is _______
(a) 22 pairs
(b) 21 pairs
(c) 23 pairs
(d) 20 pairs
Answer:
(c) 23 pairs

Question 3.
If a round green seeded pea plant (RRYY) is crossed with wrinkled, yellow seeded pea plant,(rrYY) the seeds produced in F₁ generation are:
(a) round and yellow
(b) round and green
(c) wrinkled and green
(d) wrinkled and yellow
Answer:
(a) round and yellow

Question 4.

In the new complementary strand of DNA, in one strand, the daughter strand is synthesized, as a continuous strand called ______
(a) Lagging strand
(b) Parent strand
(c) RNA primer
(d) Leading strand
Answer:
(d) Leading strand

Question 5.
A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a:
(a) boy
(b) girl
(c) x- chromosome does not determine the sex of a child
(d) either boy or girl
Answer:
(b) girl

Question 6.
In pea, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed to a short plant (tt). The ratio of pure tall plants to short plants in F2 is:
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 2 : 1
Answer:
(b) 3 : 1

Question 7.
The number of pairs of sex chromosomes in the zygote of human is:
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(a) one

Question 8.
Pure breeding varieties are otherwise called as:
(a) dominant
(b) recessive
(c) wild type
(d) mixed type
Answer:
(c) wild type

Question 9.
The genotype of a character is influenced by factors called:
(a) chromosome
(b) nucleus
(c) cytoplasm
(d) genes
Answer:
(d) genes

Question 10.
Monosomy is represented by:
(a) 2n + 1
(b) 2n – 1
(c) 2n + 2
(d) 2n – 2
Answer:
(b) 2n – 1

Question 11.
The term chromosome was introduced by:
(a) Bridges
(b) Waldeyer
(c) Balboni
(d) Flemming
Answer:
(b) Waldeyer

Question 12.
Diagrammatic representation of Karyotype of a species is:
(a) Idiogram
(b) Albinism
(c) Karyo tyning
(d) Heredity
Answer:
(a) Idiogram

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The Genotypic ratio of Monohybrid cross is ………….
2. ……… is a graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotype of off spring in a genetic cross.
3. The gene is present at a specific position on the chromosome called ……….
4. The end of the chromosome is called ………
5. The chromosomes with satellites are called as ………..
6. ……… act as a aging clock in every cell.
7. Nitrogen base + sugar = …………
8. The two strands of DNA open and separate at the point forming …………
9. Nullisomy is represented by ……….
10. The gametes produced by the organisms contain a single set of chromosomes is ……….
Answer:
1. 1 : 2 : 1
2. Punnet square
3. Locus
4. Telomere
5. Sat-chromosome
6. Telomeres
7. Nucleoside
8. Replication fork
9. 2n – 2
10. haploid (n)

III. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (iv)

IV. State whether True or false, If false write the correct statement:

1. The daughter strand synthesized in DNA is called logging strand.
2. The centromere is found near the centre of the chromosome in sub metacentric.
3. Primary construction in chromosome is called as nucleolar organizer.
4. T.H. Morgan was awarded Nobel prize for determining the role of chromosome in heredity.
5. Adenine links Thymine with three hydrogen bonds.

Answer:

1. False – The daughter strand synthesized in DNA is called leading strand
2. True
3. False – Primary construction in chromosome is called as secondary construction.
4. True
5. False – Adenine links Thymine with two hydrogen bonds.

V. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
What is heredity?
Answer:
Heredity is transmission of characters from one generation to the next generation.

Question 2.
What is Alleles or Allelomorphs?
Answer:
The factors making up a pair of contrasting characters are called alleles or allelomorphs.

Question 3.
Define variation.
Answer:
Differences shown by the individuals of the same species and also by the offspring of the same parents.

Question 4.
What is Terminus?
Answer:
The replication fork of DNA, of the two sides, meet at a site called terminus.

Question 5.
Write the expanded form of DNA.
Answer:
Deoxyribo nucleic acid

Question 6.
What is the satellite?
Answer:
Some of the chromosomes have an elongated knob-like appendage at one end of the chromosome known as the satellite.

Question 7.
How many types of nitrogenous bases are present in DNA? Name them.
Answer:
There are two types of nitrogenous bases in DNA. They are purines (Adenine and Guanine) pyrimidines (Cytosine and Thymine).

Question 8.
Why is DNA called polynucleotide?
Answer:
DNA is a large molecule consisting of millions of nucleotides. Hence it is called as polynucleotide.

Question 9.
Name two purine nitrogenous bases found in a DNA molecule.
Answer:
Adenine and Guanine

Question 10.
What are the three chemically essential parts of nucleotides containing a DNA?
Answer:
Nitrogenous base, pentose sugar and phosphate.

Question 11.
What are autosomes?
Answer:
Autosomes are chromosomes that contain genes which determine the somatic characters.

Question 12.
How is the sex of a new born determines in humans?
Answer:
The sperm produced by the father determines the sex of the child.

Question 13.
Define genetics.
Answer:
The branch of biology that deals with the genes genetic variation and heredity of living organisms is called genetics.

Question 14.
Define mutation.
Answer:
Mutation is an inheritable sudden change in the genetic material (DNA) of an organism.

Question 15.
Name the types of chromosomes based on the position of centromere.
Answer:
Based on the position of centromere, the chromosomes are classified as Telocentric, Aerocentric, submeta centric and meta centric.

VI. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are chromosomes made up of?
Answer:
Chromosomes are made up of DNA, RNA, chromosomal proteins (histones and non-histones) and certain metallic ions. These proteins provide structural support to the chromosome.

Question 2.
What is the mechanism behind the expression of a particular trait? Explain.
Answer:
The factor for each character or trait remain independent and maintain their identity in the gametes. The factors are independent to each other and pass to the offspring through gametes.

Question 3.
If a pure tall pea plant is crossed with a pure dwarf plant, then in the first generation only tall plant appears.
(a) What happens to the traits of the dwarf plant?
(b) In the second generation, the dwarf trait reappears? Why?
Answer:
(a) The tall plant (dominant) mask the expression of the dwarf plant.
(b) When F₁ hybrids are self crossed, the two entities separate and then unite independently forming tall and dwarf plant.

Question 4.
Explain the types of chromosome-based on function.
Answer:
Based on function, the chromosomes are classified into:

1. Autosomes: Autosomes contain genes that determine the somatic (body) characters. Male and female have an equal number of autosomes.
2. Allosomes: Allosomes are responsible for determining the sex of an individual. They are also called sex chromosomes or heterochromosomes. There are two types of sex chromosomes.

The human male has one X chromosome and one Y chromosome and human female have two X chromosomes.

VII. Long Question and Answer:

Question 1.
How are Mutation classified? Explain.
Answer:
Mutations are classified into two main types, namely chromosomal mutation and gene mutation.
Chromosomal mutation:
The sudden change in the structure or number of chromosomes is called a chromosomal mutation. This may result in
(i) Changes in the structure of chromosomes: Structural changes in the chromosomes usually occurs due to errors in cell division. Changes in the number and arrangement of genes take place as a result of deletion, duplication, inversion and translocation in chromosomes.

(ii) Changes in the number of chromosomes: They involve addition or deletion in the number of chromosomes present in a cell. This is called ploidy. There are two types of ploidy
(a) Euploidy (b) Aneuploidy.

Gene or point mutation: Gene mutation is the changes occurring in the nucleotide sequence of a gene. It involves substitution, deletion, insertion or inversion of a single or more than one nitrogenous base. Gene alteration results in abnormal protein formation in an organism.

Question 2.
What is a mutation? Explain the two types of mutation.
Answer:
The mutation is an inheritable sudden change in the genetic material (DNA) of an organism. Mutations are broadly classified into 1. Chromosomal mutation and 2. Gene mutation.

1. Chromosomal Mutation:
The sudden change in the structure or number of chromosomes is called chromosomal mutation. This result in
(a) Change in the structure of chromosomes: Structural changes occur due to errors in cell division. Changes in the number and arrangement of genes take place as a result of deletion, duplication, inversion and translocation in chromosomes.

(b) Changes in the number of chromosomes: They involve addition or deletion in the number of chromosomes present in a cell and is called ploidy. The two types of ploidy are:

(i) Euploidy: It is the condition, in which the individual bears more than the usual number. If an individual has three haploid sets of chromosomes, the condition is called triploidy [3n]. Triploid plants and animals are sterile. If an individual has four haploid sets of chromosomes, the condition is called tetraploidy [4n], Tetraploid plants often result in increased fruit and flower size.

(ii) Aneuploidy:
It is the loss or gain of one or more chromosomes in a set. It is of three types:

• Monosomy [2n – 1]
• Trisomy [2n + 1]
• Nullisomy [2n – 2]

(iii) Down’s syndrome:
It is one of the commonly known aneuploid condition, in man. It is a genetic condition, in which there is an extra copy of chromosome 21 (Trisomy 21). It is associated with mental retardation, delayed development, behavioural problems, weak muscle tone, vision and hearing disability are some of the conditions seen in children.

2. Gene or point mutation:
Gene mutation is the changes occurring in the nucleotide sequence of a gene. It involves substitution, deletion, insertion or inversion of a single or more than one nitrogenous base. Gene alteration results in abnormal protein formation.

Question 3.
Write a note on down’s syndrome.
Answer:
Down’s syndrome: This condition was first identified by a doctor named Langdon Down in 1866. It is a genetic condition in which there is an extra copy of chromosome 21 (Trisomy 21). It is associated with mental retardation, delayed development, behavioural problems, weak muscle tone, vision and hearing disability are some of the conditions seen in these children.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
In a plant gene ‘A’ is responsible for tallness and its recessibe allele ‘a’ for dwarfness and ‘B’ is responsible for red colour to recessive allele ‘b’ for white flower colour. A tall and red flowered plant with genotype AaBb crossed with dwarf and red flowers (aaBb). What is the percentage of dwarf white flowered off spring of above cross?
Answer:
12.5 %

Question 2.
In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is:
Answer:
0.6

Question 3.
A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with dwarf true breeding garden Pea plant. When the F₁ plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of:
Answer:
1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall homozygous; Tall heterozygous Dwarf.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 16 Plant and Animal Hormones Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 16 Plant and Animal Hormones

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Plant and Animal Hormones Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Gibberellins cause:
(a) Shortening of genetically tall plants
(b) Elongation of dwarf plants
(c) Promotion of rooting
(d) Yellowing of young leaves
Answer:
(b) Elongation of dwarf plants

Question 2.
The hormone which has a positive effect on apical dominance is _____.
(a) Cytokinin
(b) Auxin
(c) Gibberellin
(d) Ethylene.
Answer:
(b) Auxin

Question 3.
Which one of the following hormones is naturally not found in plants:
(a) 2, 4-D
(b) GA3
(c) Gibberellin
(d) IAA
Answer:
(a) 2, 4-D

Question 4.
Avena coleoptile test was conducted by _____.
(a) Darwin
(b) N. Smit
(c) Paal
(d) F.W. Went.
Answer:
(d) F.W. Went.

Question 5.
To increase the sugar production in sugarcanes they are sprayed with
(a) Auxin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Gibberellins
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(d) Ethylene

Question 6.
LH is secreted by _____.
(a) Adrenal gland
(b) Thyroid gland
(c) Anterior pituitary
(d) Hypothalamus.
Answer:
(c) Anterior pituitary

Question 7.
Identify the exocrine gland:
(a) Pituitary gland
(b) Adrenal gland
(c) Salivary gland
(d) Thyroid gland
Answer:
(c) Salivary gland

Question 8.
Which organ acts as both exocrine gland as well as endocrine gland?
(a) Pancreas
(b) Kidney
(c) Liver
(d) Lungs.
Answer:
(a) Pancreas

Question 9.
Which one is referred to as “Master Gland”?
(a) Pineal gland
(b) Pituitary gland
(c) Thyroid gland
(d) Adrenal gland
Answer:
(b) Pituitary gland

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ………. causes cell elongation, apical dominance and prevents abscission.
2. …………. is a gaseous hormone involved in abscission of organs and acceleration of fruit ripening.
3. ……… causes stomatal closure.
4. Gibberellins induce stem elongation in ……… plants.
5. The hormone which has negative effect on apical dominance is ………
6. Calcium metabolism of the body is controlled by ………
7. In the islets of Langerhans, beta cells secrete ………
8. The growth and functions of thyroid gland is controlled by ………..
9. Decreased secretion of thyroid hormones in the children leads to ………

Answer:

1. Auxin
2. Ethylene
3. Abscisic acid
4. Rosette
5. Ethylene
6. Parathormone
7. Insulin
8. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
9. Cretinism

III. Match Column I with Columns II and III

Question 1

Answer:

Question 2.
Match the following hormones with their deficiency states.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

IV. State whether True or false, If false write the correct statement.

1. A plant hormone concerned with stimulation of cell division and promotion of nutrient mobilization is cytokinin.
2. Gibberellins cause parthenocarpy in tomato.
3. Ethylene retards senescence of leaves,flowers and fruits.
4. Exopthalmic goiter is due to the over secretion of thyroxine.
5. Pituitary gland is divided into four lobes.
6. Oestrogen is secreted by corpus luteum.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False – Ascorbic Acid retards senescence of leaves, flowers and fruits.
4. True
5. False – Parathyroid gland is divided into four lobes.
6. False – Oestrogen is produced by the Graffian follicles.

V. Assertion and Reasoning:

Direction: In each of the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding statement of reason (R) is given just below it. Mark the correct statement as.
Question 1.
Assertion (A): Application of cytokinin to marketed vegetables can keep them fresh for several days.
Reason (R): Cytokinins delay senescence of leaves and other organs by mobilisation of nutrients.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) Both A and R are false
Answer:
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Pituitary gland is referred as “Master gland”.
Reason (R): It controls the functioning of other endocrine glands.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) Both A and R are false
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Diabetes mellitus increases the blood sugar levels.
Reason (R): Insulin decreases the blood sugar levels.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) Both A and R are false
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A

VI. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
Which hormone promotes the production of male flowers in Cucurbits?
Answer:
Gibberellin promotes the production of male flower in Cucurbits.

Question 2.
Write the name of synthetic auxin.
Answer:
2, 4 D (2, 4 Dichlorophenoxy Acetic acid).

Question 3.
Which hormone induces parthenocarpy in tomatoes?
Answer:
Gibberellin induces parthenocarpy in tomatoes.

Question 4.
What is the hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in the female after childbirth?
Answer:
Prolactin stimulates the production of milk after childbirth. Oxytocin helps milk ejection from the mammary gland after childbirth.

Question 5.
Name the hormones which regulates water and mineral metabolism in man.
Answer:
Mineralocorticoids hormones of Adrenal cortea maintain the water balance and mineral metabolism in man.

Question 6.
Which hormone is secreted during an emergency situation in a man?
Answer:
The hormones of Adrenal medulla,

• Epinephrine (Adrenaline)
• Norepinephrine (Noradrenaline) are secreted during an emergency situation in man.

Question 7.
Which gland secretes digestive enzymes and hormones?
Answer:
Pancreas secretes digestive enzymes and hormones.

Question 8.
Name the endocrine glands associated with kidneys.
Answer:
Adrenal gland, which is called suprarenal glands is associated with kidneys.

VII. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are synthetic auxins? Give examples.
Answer:
Artificially synthesized auxin which has the properties of auxins are called Synthetic Auxin. Eg: 2, 4-D

Question 2.
What is bolting? How can it be induced artificially?
Answer:
Treatment of rosette plants with gibberellin induces sudden shoot elongation followed by flowering is called bolting. It can be induced artificially before the crop is harvested.

Question 3.
Bring out any two physiological activities of abscisic acid.
Answer:
The two physiological activities of abscisic acid are:

1. During water stress and drought conditions, Abscisic acid causes stomatal closure.
2. Abscisic acid induces bud dormancy towards the approach of winter in trees like birch.

Question 4.
What will you do to prevent leaf fall and fruit drop in plants? Support your answer with reason.
Answer:

• Very chill deposition on leaves and fruits cause the drop in plants. Protect the tree from frost providing an overhead cover.
• The plant hormone ethylene controls fruit ripening, flower wilting and leaf fall by stimulating the conversion of starch and acids to sugar.

Question 5.
What are chemical messengers?
Answer:
Endocrine glands control and coordinate the body functions through secreting certain chemical messengers called hormones.

Question 6.
Write the differences between endocrine and exocrine gland.
Answer:

Question 7.
What is the role of parathormone?
Answer:
The parathormone regulates calcium and phosphorus metabolism in the body. They act on bone, kidney and intestine to maintain blood calcium levels.

Question 8.
What are the hormones secreted by posterior lobe of the pituitary gland? Mention the tissues on which they exert their effect.
Answer:
The hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary are:

1. Vasopressin or Antidiuretic hormone: In kidney tubules it increases reabsorption of water.
2. Oxytocin: They exert their effect on the muscles of uterus which helps in the contraction of smooth muscles of uterus at the time of child birth and milk ejection from mammary gland after child birth.

Question 9.
Why are thyroid hormones referred to as personality hormone?
Answer:
Thyroid hormones are referred to as personality hormone because they are essential for normal physical, mental and personality development.

Question 10.
Which hormone requires iodine for its formation? What will happen if intake of iodine in our diet is low?
Answer:
The formation of Thyroxine or Thyroid hormone requires iodine. If there is an inadequate supply of iodine in our diet it leads to goitre.

VIII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
(a) Name the gaseous plant hormone. Describe its three different actions in plants.
(b) Which hormone is known as a stress hormone in plants? Why?
Answer:
(a) Ethylene is a gaseous plant hormone. It is a growth inhibitor. The different actions of ethylene are as follows:

• Ethylene promotes the ripening of fruits, eg. Tomato, Apple, Mango, Banana and etc.
• Ethylene inhibits the elongation of stem and root in dicots.
• Ethylene hastens the senescence of leaves and flowers.
• Ethylene stimulates the formation of Abscission zone in leaves, flowers and fruits. This leads to premature shedding.
• Ethylene breaks the dormancy of buds, seeds and storage organs.

(b) Abscisic acid (ABA) is a growth inhibitor which regulates abscission and dormancy. It increases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stress. So, it is also called a stress hormone.

Question 2.
Describe an experiment which demonstrates that growth stimulating hormone is produced at the tip of coleoptile.
Answer:
Frits Warmolt Went (1903 – 1990), a Dutch biologist demonstrated the , existence and effect of auxin in plants. He did a series of experiments in , Avena coleoptiles.

In his first experiment he removed the tips of Avena coleoptiles. The cut tips did not grow indicating that the tips produced something essential for growth.In his second experiment he placed the agar blocks on the decapitated coleoptile tips. The coleoptile tips did not show any response. In his next experiment he placed the detached coleoptile tips on agar blocks. After an hour, he discarded the tips and placed this agar block on the decapitated coleoptile. It grew straight up indicating that some chemical had diffused from the cut coleoptile tips into the agar block which stimulated the growth.

From his experiments went concluded that a chemical diffusing from the tip of coleoptiles was responsible for growth and he named it as “Auxin” meaning “to grow”.

Question 3.
Write the physiological effects of gibberellins.
Answer:

• Application of gibberellins on plants stimulates extraordinary elongation of internodes. eg. Com and Pea.
• Treatment of rosette plants with gibberellin induces sudden shoot elongation followed by flowering, called bolting.
• Gibberellins promote the production of male flowers in monoecious plants like Cucurbits
• Gibberellins break the dormancy of potato tubers.
• Gibberellins is inducing the formation of seedless fruit, termed as Parthenocarpic fruits (Development of fruits without fertilization) eg. Tomato.

Question 4.
Where are oestrogens produced? What is the role of oestrogens in the human body?
Answer:
Oestrogen is produced by the Graafian follicles of the ovary.
Functions of oestrogens:

1. It brings about the changes that occur during puberty.
2. It initiates the process of oogenesis.
3. It stimulates the maturation of ovarian follicles in the ovaiy.
4. It promotes the development of secondary sexual characters (breast development, high pitched voice etc).

Question 5.
What are the conditions which occur due to lack of ADH and insulin? How are the conditions different from one another?
Answer:
Lack of ADH: Deficiency of ADH (Antidiuretic hormone) reduces the reabsorption of water and causes an increase in urine output (polyuria). This deficiency disorder is called Diabetes insipidus.
Lack of insulin: The deficiency of insulin causes Diabetes mellitus. It is characterised by,

• Increase in blood sugar level (Hyperglycemia).
• Excretion of excess glucose in the urine (Glycosuria).
• Frequent Urination (Polyuria).
• Increased thirst (Polydipsia).
• Increase in appetite (Polyphagia).

Lack of ADH reduces the reabsorption of water and increases the urine output. Lack of insulin causes the Diabetes mellitus, which increases the blood sugar level and excrete the excess glucose in the urine, causing frequent urination.

Insulin:
Deficiency in insulin causes Diabetes mellitus.
Insulin deficiency increase the blood sugar level (Hyperglycemia), excretion of excess glucose in the urine (Glycosuria), frequent urination (Polyuria) increased thirst (Polydipsia), increase in appetite (Polyphagia).

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
What would be expected to happen if
(a) Gibberellin is applied to rice seedlings.
Answer:
Causes imemodal elongation in rice.

(b) A rotten fruit gets mixed with unripe fruits.
Answer:
If a rotten fruits get mixed with unripe fruit. Then the ethylene produced from the rotten fruit will hasten the ripening of the unripe fruits.

(c) When cytokinin is not added to culture medium.
Answer:
Formation of new organs from the callus in tissue culture (Morphogenesis) will not be formed.

Question 2.
A plant hormone was first discovered in Japan when rice plants were suffering from Bakanae disease caused by Gibberella fujikoroi. Based on this information answer the following questions:

1. Identify the hormone involved in this process.
2. Which property of this hormone causes the disease?
3. Give two functions of this hormone.

Answer:

1. Gibberellins
2. Intermodal elongation
3. Functions:
   • promotes the production of male flowers in monoecious plants.
   • Gibberellins break the dormancy of potato tubers.

Question 3.
Senthil has high blood pressure, protruded eyeball and increased body temperature. Name the endocrine gland involved and hormone secretion responsible for this condition.
Answer:
The gland involved is the thyroid gland. The hormone involved in a thyroid hormone. It is due to excess secretion of thyroid hormones called hyperthyroidism which leads to Graver’s disease.

Question 4.
Sanjay is sitting in the exam hall. Before the start of the exam, he sweats a lot, with an increased rate of heartbeat. Why does this condition occur?
Answer:
This is due to the secretion of the hormone Adrenaline in Adrenal medulla of Adrenal gland.

Question 5.
Susan’s father feels very tired and frequently urinates. After clinical diagnosis he was advised to take an injection daily to maintain his blood glucose level. What would be the possible cause for this? Suggest preventive measures.
Answer:
A balance between insulin and glucogon production is necessary to maintain blood glucose concentration.
The deficiency of insulin causes Diabetes Mellitus.
Preventive measure:

1. Take proper or balanced diet.
2. Exercise regularly
3. Avoid stress.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Plant and Animal Hormones Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Auxin is mainly produced by:
(a) Apical root meristem
(b) Root cambium
(c) Apical shoot meristem
(d) Phloem in shoot tip
Answer:
(c) Apical shoot meristem

Question 2.
Plant hormones are;
(a) Growth regulators
(b) Growth promoters
(c) Growth inhibitors
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Growth regulators

Question 3.
Pick out the hormone which maintain mineral metabolism.
(a) Parathormone
(b) Thymosin
(c) Thyroxine
(d) Melatonin
Answer:
(a) Parathormone

Question 4.
Among the following, which one is attached to the hypothalamus.
(a) Pineal
(b) Pituitary
(c) Thymus
(d) Thyroid
Answer:
(b) Pituitary

Question 5.
Stem elongation affected by:
(a) Gibberellin and Florigen
(b) Florigen and Kinn
(c) Kinn and Auxin
(d) Auxin and Gibberellin
Answer:
(d) Auxin and Gibberellin

Question 6.
Which of the following is not natural occuring plant hormone?
(a) 2, 4-D
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Gibberellin
(d) IAA
Answer:
(a) 2, 4-D

Question 7.
Leaf fall occur when the content of:
(a) Auxin increases
(b) Auxin decreases
(c) Abscisic acid decreases
(d) Gibberellin acid decreases
Answer:
(b) Auxin decreases

Question 8.
Indole acetic add generally inhibits the growth of:
(a) Root
(b) Leaves
(c) Shoots
(d) Plants in general
Answer:
(a) Root

Question 9.
Hormones are chemically:
(a) Amino acid
(b) Protein
(c) Steroid
(d) All
Answer:
(d) All

Question 10.
Pituitary gland is under the control of:
(a) Hypothalamus
(b) Adrenal gland
(c) Pineal gland
(d) Thyroid
Answer:
(a) Hypothalamus

Question 11.
Hypothyroidism in adults causes:
(a) Addison’s disease
(b) Myxoedema
(c) Sterility
(d) Cretinism
Answer:
(b) Myxoedema

Question 12.
Parathormone deficiency in man causes:
(a) Hyper calcaemia
(b) Hypo calcaemia
(c) Goitre
(d) All
Answer:
(b) Hypo calcaemia

Question 13.
The function of norepinephrine is:
(a) Almost similar to epinephrine
(b) Similar to ADH
(c) Opposite to epinephrine
(d) Opposite to ADH
Answer:
(a) Almost similar to epinephrine

Question 14.
Adrenalin increases:
(a) Heart beat
(b) Blood pressure
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 15.
Hormone responsible for ovulation is:
(a) LH
(b) GSH
(c) Progesterone
(d) Testosterone
Answer:
(a) LH

Question 16.
Which hormone is responsible for milk ejection after the birth of baby?
(a) Progesterone
(b) Prolactin
(c) Oxytocin
(d) Oestrogen
Answer:
(c) Oxytocin

Question 17.
The islets of Langerhans are found in:
(a) Pancreas
(b) Stomach
(c) Liver
(d) Alimentary canal
Answer:
(a) Pancreas

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Gibbereilin promotes cell division and elongation in ………, ………. and ………
2. Abscisic acid controls ……….
3. ………. is called as ‘Master gland’ of the body.
4. Growth hormone is produced in …………
5. Urine concentration is controlled by …………
6. The two lobes of thyroid glands are joined by horizontal connection called …………
7. Insulin are secreted by ……….. cells.
8. Progesterone maintains ……….. pregnancy.
9. The normal blood glucose level is ………… mg/100 ml of blood.
10. ………… converts glycogen into glucose.
11. ………… is responsible for growth of female reproductive organs.
12. Anti-inflammatory hormone is ……….
13. ……….. hormone stimulates the growth of mammary gland.
14. …….. helps in reabsorption of water.
15. Endocrine glands are ………. glands.
Answer:
1. Roots, stem and leaves
2. Leaf fall and dormancy
3. Pituitary
4. Pituitary
5. ADH
6. isthumus
7. Beta
8. normal
9. 80 – 120
10. Glucogon
11. oestrogen
12. Cortisone
13. LTH
14. Oxytocin
15. duct less

III. Match the following:

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iv)
E. (v)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

IV. State whether True or false, If false write the correct statement.

1. Bakacae disease or Foolish seedling disease in cucurbits.
2. Synthesis of ethylene occurs during ripening of fruits.
3. The secretion of Neurohypophysis are secretions of part of only pituitary.
4. Excess production of GH in children result in dwarfism.
5. Cortisone stimulates the breakdown of glycogen into glucose.

Answer:

1. False – Bakacae disease or Foolish seedling disease in rice
2. True
3. False – The secretion of Neurohypophysis are secretions of part of the nervous system.
4. False – Excess production of GH in children result in Gigantism.
5. True

V. Assertion and Reasoning:

Direction: In each of the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding statement of reason (R) is given just below it. Mark the correct statement as.
Question 1.
Assertion (A): Ethylene is a plant hormone, which can transfer from one plant to another plant.
Reason (R): Ethylene is a gaseous hormones in plants.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Senescence is induced by the application of cytokinin in plants.
Reason (R): Cytokinin promotes the degradation of chlorophyll and nucleic acids.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are false.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): ABA plays an important role in plants during water stress.
Reason (R): ABA promotes stomatal closing during water stress.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Gibberellin is a bolting hormone.
Reason (R): Gibberellin induces parthenocarpy in fruits.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are false.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Bolting effect in plants is performed by Gibberellin.
Reason (R): Gibberellin induce internode elongation.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): Vasopressin is a new hormone.
Reason (R): Vasopressin is synthesized by pars nervosa of pituitary glands.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false.

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Hormones are said to be similar to enzyme in action and chemical nature.
Reason (R): Hormones and enzymes are proteinaceous in nature and act as informational nature.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are false.

Question 8.
Assertion (A): Deficiency of insulin produce polyuria condition.
Reason (R): Glucogon is antagonistic hormone of insulin.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 9.
Assertion (A): Epinephrine and nor-epinephrine are secreted by adrenal medulla are called emergency hormone.
Reason (R): These hormones rapidly mobilize the body to face a stress or emergency situation.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 10.
Assertion (A): Ovaries are both cytogenic and endocrine.
Reason (R): Ovaries produce ovum and reproductive hormone.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

VI. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
What is apical dominance?
Answer:
The auxins produced by the apical buds suppress the growth of lateral bud is called apical dominance.

Question 2.
Name the types of Auxins.
Answer:

• Natural Auxins – The Auxins produced by plants.
• Synthetic Auxins – Artificially synthesized auxins.

Question 3.
Write the chemical composition of thyroxine?
Answer:
Thyroxine is an iodinated protein, composed of the amino acid, tyrosine and iodine.

Question 4.
When does the maximum synthesis of ethylene occur?
Answer:
Maximum synthesis of ethylene occurs during the ripening of fruits like apples, bananas and melons.

Question 5.
In which condition the excess of dilute urine is produced? Name the disease.
Answer:
Due to less production of ADH, excess of dilute urine is produced, it causes diabetes insipidus.

Question 6.
Name the two distinct parts of adrenal.
Answer:
Adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla.

Question 7.
What are the target organs?
Answer:
The hormones, which are produced in minute quantities, act on specific organs which are called as target organs.

VII. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Name the layers of the adrenal cortex.
Answer:
The adrenal cortex consists of three layers of cells called zono glomerulosa, zona fasciculata and zona reticularis.

Question 2.
Write any three physiological effects of Auxins.
Answer:

• Auxins promote the elongation of stems and coleoptiles.
• Auxins prevent the formation of abscission layer.
• Auxins induce root formation at low concentration and inhibit it at higher concentration.

Question 3.
Which hormone is called as life-saving hormone? Why?
Answer:
The cortisol hormones is called as life saving hormone. The cortisol hormones of adrenal cortex serves to maintain the body in living condition and recover it from the severe effects of stress reaction. Thus an increased output of cortisol is life saving in shock conditions.

Question 4.
Name the endocrine glands present in human and other vertebrates.
Answer:

• Pituitary gland
• Thyroid gland
• Parathyroid gland
• Pancreas (Islets of Langerhans)
• Adrenal gland (Adrenal cortex and Adrenal medulla)
• Gonads (Testes and Ovary)
• Thymus gland.

Question 5.
Write the functions of thymosin.
Answer:

1. It has a stimulatory effect on the immune function.
2. It stimulates the production and differentiation of lymphocytes.

Question 6.
Which endocrine gland is called “Master gland”? Why?
Answer:
Pituitary gland. The pituitary gland forms the major endocrine gland in most vertebrates. It regulates and controls other endocrine glands and so it is called “Master gland”.

Question 7.
Differentiate Hyperglycemia and Hypoglycemia.
Answer:

Question 8.
Write any three physiological effects of Gibberellins.
Answer:

• Elongation of internodes.
• Promote the production of male flowers in monoecious plants.
• Break dormancy of potato tubers.

VIII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Write the functions of thyroid hormones.
Answer:
The functions of thyroid hormones are:

1. Production of energy by maintaining the Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) of the body.
2. Helps to maintain normal body temperature.
3. Influences the activity of the central nervous system.
4. Controls growth of the body and bone formation and development of gonads.
5. Essential for normal physical, mental and personality development. It is also known as personality hormone.
6. Regulates cell metabolism.
7. Increases oxygen consumption in tissues.

Question 2.
List out the hormones secreted by Adenohypophysis of pituitary-Explain any two.
Answer:

1. Growth Hormone
2. Thyroid-stimulating Hormone
3. Adrenocorticotropic Hormone
4. Gonadotropic Hormone which comprises the Follicle Stimulating Hormone and Luteinizing Hormone
5. Prolactin

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) : TSH controls the growth of thyroid gland, coordinates its activities and hormone secretion.

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) : ACTH stimulates adrenal cortex of the adrenal gland for the production of its hormones. It also influences protein synthesis in the adrenal cortex.

Question 3.
Explain the testes and its functions.
Answer:
Testes are the reproductive glands of the males. They are composed of ‘ seminiferous tubules, leydig cells and sertoli cells. Leydig cells form the endocrine part of the testes. They secrete the male sex hormone called testosterone.
Functions of testosterone:

1. It influences the process of spermatogenesis.
2. It stimulates protein synthesis and controls muscular growth.
3. It is responsible for the development of secondary’ sexual characters (distribution of hair on body and face, deep voice pattern, etc).

Question 4.
Write the physiological effects of cytokinin.
Answer:

1. Cytokinin induces cell division (cytokinesis) in the presence of auxins.
2. Cytokinin also causes cell enlargement.
3. Both auxins and cytokinins are essential for the formation of new organs from the callus in tissue culture (Morphogenesis).
4. Cytokinins promote the growth of lateral buds even in the presence of apical bud.
5. Application of cytokinin delays the process of ageing in plants. This is called Richmond Lang effect.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in an artificial culture. Name the hormones to be added to the medium to secure shoots as well as roots.
Answer:
The hormones to be added to the medium are gibberellin and abscisic acid.

Question 2.
Insulin and thyroxine arrive at an organ at the same time. Thyroxine causes an effect on the organ but insulin does not. This is because:
Answer:
The organ’s cells have receptors for thyroxine but not for insulin.

Question 3.
A person entering an empty room suddenly finds a snake right in front on opening the door. What changes happen in his neuro-hormonal control system?
Answer:
Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrin and norepinephrine from adrenal medulla.

Question 4.
A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of:
Answer:
Deficiency of iodine in diet.

Question 5.
A patient of diabetes mellitus excretes glucose in urine even when he kept in a carbohydrate free diet. It is because:
Answer:
Fats are catabolised to form glucose.

Question 6.
Dr. F went noted that if Coleoptile tips were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would produce a bending when placed on one side of freshly cut coleoptile stumps. What is the significance of this experiment.
Answer:
The experiment demonstrated the polar movement of Auxin.

Students can download 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 6 Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The latitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is:
(a) 8°4’N to 13°35’N
(b) 8°5’S to 13°35’S
(c) 8°0’N to 13°5’N
(d) 8°0’S to 13°05’S
Answer:
(a) 8°4’N to 13°35’N

Question 2.
The longitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is …………………
(a) 76°18′ E to 80°20’E
(b) 76° 18′ W to 80°20′ W
(c) 86°18’Eto 10°20’E
(d) 86°18′ W to 10°20′ W
Answer:
(a) 76°18′ E to 80°20’E

Question 3.
The highest peak in Tamil Nadu is:
(a) Anaimudi
(b) Doddabetta
(c) Mahendragiri
(d) Servarayan
Answer:
(b) Doddabetta

Question 4.
Which of the following passes is not located in the Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu?
(a) Palghat
(b) Shencottah
(c) Bhorghat
(d) Achankoil
Answer:
(c) Bhorghat

Question 5.
Which one of the following rivers is flow into the Arabian Sea?
(a) Periyar
(b) Cauvery
(c) Chittar
(d) Bhavani
Answer:
(a) Periyar

Question 6.
The district with largest mangrove forest cover in Tamil Nadu is ……………
(a) Ramanathapuram
(b) Nagapattinam
(c) Cuddalore
(d) Theni
Answer:
(c) Cuddalore

Question 7.
The forest cover of Tamil Nadu as per 2017 Indian Forest Report is:
(a) 20.21%
(b) 20.31%
(c) 21.20%
(d) 21.30%
Answer:
(a) 20.21%

Question 8.
Retreating monsoon wind picks up moisture from …………….
(a) Arabian sea
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) Timor sea
Answer:
(b) Bay of Bengal

Question 9.
hich of the following district is affected by sand dunes to a large extent?
(a) Theni
(b) Madurai
(c) Thanjavur
(d) Ramanathapuram
Answer:
(d) Ramanathapuram

Question 10.
The district which has the largest forest cover in Tamil Nadu is ………………
(a) Dharmapuri
(b) Vellore
(c) Dindigul
(d) Erode
Answer:
(a) Dharmapuri

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The plateau which lies between the Nilgiris and Dharmapuri districts is ………………
2. ……………… is the highest peak in the southern most part of the Eastern Ghats.
3. The riverine Island of Srirangam is located between ……………… and ……………… branches of cauvery.
4. ……………… soil is suitable for the cultivation of tea and coffee plants.
5. ……………… is the Tamil Nadu state animal which is found in ………………

Answers:

1. Coimbatore
2. Solaikaradu
3. Northern (Coleroon or Kollidam), and Southern (Cauvery)
4. Laterite
5. Nilgiri Tahir, Western Ghats, Tamil Nadu and Kerala

III. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (v)
E. (i)

IV. Assertion type Question

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Tamil Nadu does not receive much rainfall from southwest monsoon.
Reason (R): It is situated in the rain shadow area of the Western Ghats.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A).
(c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true but, (A) is false.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Red soil is rich in iron oxides.
Reason (R): It is formed by leaching.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A).
(c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true but, (A) is false.
Answer:
(c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.

V. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
State the boundaries of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu is surrounded by the Bay of Bengal in the east, Indian ocean in the South, Kerala and Karnataka in the west and Andhra Pradesh on the North.

Question 2.
List out the districts of Tamil Nadu which are partly/fully located on Eastern and Western Ghats separately.
Answer:

• Districts of Tamil Nadu Partly / fully located on Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats.
• Districts on Eastern Ghats: Vellore, Thiruvannamalai, Salem, Nammakal, Trichirapalli, Perambalur.
• Districts on Western Ghats: Nilgiris, Kanyakumari, Dindigul, Virudhunagar.

Question 3.
What is ‘Teri??
Answer:
The sand dunes formed along the coast of Ramanathapuram and Thoothukudi districts are called Teri.

Question 4.
How is coastal plain formed?
Answer:
Coastal plains is formed by die rivers that flow towards east and drain in the Bay of Bengal in Tamil Nadu. It is more than 80 kilometers wide at some places.

Question 5.
Name the major islands of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Pamban, Hare, Krusadai, Nallathanni Theevu, Pullivasal, Srirangam, Upputanni, Island Grounds, Kattupalli Island, Quibble Island and Vivekananda Rock Memorial are some major islands of Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
Name the tributaries of river Thamirabarani.
Answer:
Karaiyar, Servalar, Manimuthar, Gadananathi, Pachaiyar, Chittar, and Ramanathi are the main Tributaries of Thamirabarani.

Question 7.
Define Disaster Risk Reduction.
Answer:
The concept and practice of disaster risks through systematic efforts to analyse and manage the causal factors of disasters including through reduced exposure to hazards, lessened vulnerability of people and property, wise management of land and environment and improved preparedness for adverse events.

Question 8.
During cyclone, how does the Meterological department warn the . fishermen?
Answer:
During Cyclone the Meterological Department warn the fishermen through State Government officials and broadcast of warnings through All India Radio and National Regional (Doordharshan) telecast programme. During Cyclone four stages of warning are given by the Meteorological Department to keep the fishermen alert and to return back who ventured into the sea through coast guards also.

VI. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.
Answer:
Western Ghats (in Tamil Nadu):

1. Western Ghats extends from the Nilgiris in the North to Marunthuvazh malai at Swamithope in Kanyakumari in the South.
2. It is a continuous range.
3. Doddabetta (in the Nilgiris) is the highest peak.
4. It’s height ranges from 2000mts to 3000 mts above sea level.
5. Important hills are Nilgiris, Anaimalai and palani hills etc.

Eastern Ghats (in Tamil Nadu):

1. Major hills of the Eastern Ghats of Tamil Nadu are located in the Northern districts of the State.
2. It is discontinuous dissected at many places by the east flowing rivers.
3. Solaikaradu in the Servarayan hills is the highest peak.
4. It’s height ranges from 1,100 mts to 1600 mts above sea level.
5. Javadhu, Kalvarayan and Servarayan etc are some of the major hills.

Question 2.
Southwest monsoon and Northeast monsoon.
Answer:
Southwest Monsoon:

1. Period of Southwest monsoon is from March to May.
2. Tamil Nadu is located in the rainshadow region for the wind hence gets only less rainfall.
3. Rainfall decreases from West to East,
4. CoimbatorePlateau,Kanyakumari and Tirunelveli districts receives 50 – 100 cm rainfall during this period.

Northeast Monsoon:

1. Period of Northeast Monsoon is from October and lasts till mid – December.
2. 48% of annual rainfall to Tamil Nadu is from this wind.
3. It is the rainy season for the districts of Tamil Nadu.
4. Coastal districts get nearly 60% of annual rainfall and interior districts get 40 – 50 cm rainfall.

Question 3.
Tropical evergreen and Tropical deciduous forests.
Answer:
Tropical Evergreen Forests:

1. This types of forest is found in the areas of heavy rainfall.
2. It is dense, multilayered forest.
3. The major type of trees found in the forests are Cinnamon, Malabar ironwood kindal, jamun etc.
4. It is found in the upper slopes of Western Ghats of Tirunelveli, Kanyakumari, Nilgiris and Coimbatore districts.

Tropical Deciduous Forests:

1. It is found in the regions of sub tropical climate with moderate rainfall.
2. The trees in this forest shed their leaves during dry season.
3. The major trees are kapok, kadamba, axle wood, bamboo, dog- teak, silk cotton etc some trees are economically important.
4. It is found in the margin of semi evergreen and evergreen forests – Servarayan, Kollimalai, Pachaimalai Eastern Ghats.

VII. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Eastern Ghats are not a continuous range.
Answer:
Eastern Ghats is a discontinuous and irregular one. It is dissected at many places by the rivers, which drain into the Bay of Bengal. Its height ranges from 1,100 to 1,600 metres.

Question 2.
Tamil Nadu receives low rainfall during Southwest monsoon.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu is located in the rainshadow region for the wind which blows from the Arabian sea. As a result Tamil Nadu receives low rainfall during Southwest monsoon.

Question 3.
Alluvial soil is fertile.
Answer:
Alluvial soil are formed by the deposition of silt by the rivers. Alluvial soils are generally fertile as they are rich in minerals such as lime, potassium, magnesium, nitrogen and phosphoric acid. It is deficient in nitrogen and humus. It is porous and loamy.

Question 4.
Cuddalore is a multiprone disaster zone.
Answer:
Cuddalore is a multiprone disaster zone, because it is located under the very high cyclone prone zone and flood prone zone. More over it is an coastal area often affected by the vulnerable natural disasters.

VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
Describe the nature of the plateau region of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Plateau of Tamil Nadu is located between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats.
• It is roughly triangular in shape and covers an area of about 60,000 sq. km.
• Its height increases from east to west. Its height ranges between 150 and 600 m.
• This plateau is broader in the north and very narrow in the south and it has many subdivisions.
• Bharamahal plateau is a part of the Mysore plateau situated in the northwestern part of Tamil Nadu. Dharmapuri and Krishnagiri districts are located in this region.
• Coimbatore plateau lies between the Nilgiris and Dharmapuri districts. Its height varies from 150 to 450 metres. Moyar river separates this plateau from the Mysore plateau.
• Rivers like Bhavani, Noyyal and Amaravathi, which originate from Western Ghats form Valleys in the region. Many intermontane plateaus are found in the region of the Nilgiris. Sigur plateau is one such plateau.
• Madurai plateau found in Madurai district extends up to the foothills of the Western Ghats. Vaigai and Thamirabarani basins are located in the zone.

Question 2.
Write an account on river Kaveri.
Answer:
Origin of River Kaveri: The river Kaverioriginates in the Brahmagiri hills of Kodagu (coorg) district of Karnataka in the Western Ghats. It serves as the boundary between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu for a distance of 64 k.m.

Length of its course in Tamil Nadu: 416 km

Upper course: It enters into Tamil Nadu in the form of Hogenakkal falls in Dharmapuri district. Mettur Dam (Stanely Reservoir) is built across the river in Salem District. A tributary called Bhavani joins Cauvery on the right bank about 45 km from the Mettur Reservoir.

Middle course: Then it takes easterly direction to enter into the plains of Tamil Nadu.

1. At Thirumukkudal 10 km from Karur, two more tributaries Noyyal and Amaravathi confluence the river on the right bank. In this region the river is wider and called ‘Agandra Cauvery’.
2. In Tiruchirappalli the river branches into two. The Northern branch is called Coleroon or Kollidam and the Southern branch remains Cauvery. After flowing for about 16 km, the two branches join again to form the ‘Srirangam Island’.
3. The Grand Anaicut, called as Kallanai was built across the river Cauvery. The deltaic stage begins in the middle course.

Lower course: After Kallanai the river breaks into a large number of distributaries and forms a network all over the delta. River Cauvery merges into Bay of Bengal to the South of Cuddalore.

Question 3.
Explain the characteristic features of summer and winter seasons of Tamil Nadu. Summer Seasons:
Answer:
The apparent migration of the sun towards north during March, April and May result in the reception of vertical sun’s rays by South India. Thus there is a steady rise in temperature from the equator. Hence, Tamil Nadu located to the south of Tropic of Cancer experiences high temperature. Generally, the temperature varies from 30°C to more than 40°C. During this season particularly in the month of May, the southern part of the state receives some rainfall from pre-monsoon showers (Mango/Blossom showers) and some parts experience convectional rainfall.

Winter Seasons:
During January’ and February, the vertical rays of the sun fall between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Equator. Hence, Tamil Nadu and India on the whole receive slanting rays from the sun. So, the weather is slightly cooler during these months. The difference between summer and winter temperature is not very high. Winter temperature in Tamil Nadu varies from 15°C to 25°C. However, in the hill stations, the winter temperature drops below 5°C occasionally. Some valleys in the Nilgiris record even 0°C. This drop in temperature leads to the formation of thick mist and frost. This season is practically dry.

Question 4.
What is desertification and write about the areas affected by it in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. The process by which fertile land becomes desert due to inappropriate agriculture, deforestation, and drought is termed as desertification. It is a type of land degradation which lead to the extension of desert area.
2. In Tamil Nadu Theni, the Nilgiris and Kanyakumari are the worst affected districts by desertification.
3. About 12,000 hectares (120sq. km) were affected by sand deposition in Theni and Rajapalayam.

Question 5.
Bring out the types and distribution of soils in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
According to their characteristics, soils of Tamil Nadu are classified into five types.

Soil Types	Distribution
Alluvial soil	River valley regions and coastal plains – Thanjavur, Nagapattinam, Cuddalore, Villupuram, Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari.
Black soil	Semi arid regions – Coimbatore, Madurai, Virudhunagar, Tirunelveli and Thoothukudi.
Red soil	Cover two-third areas of Tamil Nadu – particularly in the central district and mainly in Sivagangai and Ramanathapuram.
Laterite soil	Intense leaching areas – parts of Kanchipuram, Thiruvallur and Thanjavur, patches over the mountainous region in the Nilgiris.
Saline soil	Confined to the Coromandel coast – Vedaranyam.

Question 6.
Name the areas which are affected by landslides. What will you do before, during and after landslides?
Answer:
Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu is identified as one of the most vulnerable districts in the country and landslides pose a major threat in this area. The other regions which are prone to land slides are Coimbatore and palani hill of Dindigul district where Kodaikanal hill station is located.

Before: Create awareness; stay alert and awake; monitor the news updates; make evacuation plan; listen for any unusual sounds that might indicate moving debris such as trees cracking, boulders knocking and consider leaving the place of landslide if it is safe to do so.

After: Stay away from the slide area; listen to local radio or television stations for the latest emergency information; watch for flooding, which may occur after a landslide or debris flow; check for injured and trapped persons near the slide, without entering the direct slide area.

IX. Map study

Question 1.
Mark important rivers, distribution of soil and forest types on different Tamil Nadu maps.

(a) Important rivers:

1. Cauvery
2. Palar
3. Then Pennaiyar / Ponnaiyar
4. Vaigai
5. Thamirabarani.

Other rivers:

1. Coleroon or Kollidam
2. Amaravathi
3. Bhavani
4. Noyyal
5. Cheyyar.

(b) Distribution of soil

Soil	Areas
Alluvial	Thiruvarur, Nagapattinam, Villupuram, Cuddalore, Tirunelveli, Kanyakumari and Cauvery Delta.
Black soil	Coimbatore, Madurai, Virudhunagar, Tirunelveli.
Red soil	Sivagangai, Ramanathapuram.
Laterite soil	Kancheepuram, Tiruvallur, Nilgiris.
Saline soil	Coromandel coast, Vedaranyam coast.

img 3

(c) Forest type (Natural vegetation)

1. Tropical evergreen forest: Slopes of Western Ghats Nilgiris, Coimbatore, Tirunelveli, Kanyakumari.
2. Temperature forest: Anaimalai, Palani hills.
3. Tropical deciduous forest: Eastern Ghats, Servarayan, Kollimalai, Pachaimalai.
4. Mangrove forest: Cuddalore, Chidambaram,

TB. PNo: 85
Find Out

Question 1.
Name the first state of India created on linguistic basis.
Answer:

1. Andhra Pradesh was the first State of India created on linguistic basis.
2. Bifurcated from Madras Presidency the Telugu speaking area – Andhra Pradesh on October – 1^st, 1953.

Question 2.
Why was the capital of Tamil Nadu renamed?
Answer:
After India got independence in 1947, the city became the capital of Madras state, which was renamed as Tamil Nadu on 1969. On 17 July 1996 the city known as Madras was officially renamed as Chennai.

Question 3.
What is the meaning of the word Chennai
Answer:
Face of the city.

TB. PNo: 86
Activity

Question 1.
Find out the coastal districts of Tamil Nadu with the help of a map.
Answer:
13 Districts – Thiruvallur, Chennai, Kaneheepuram, Villupuram, Cuddalore, Tiruvarur, Nagapattinam, Thanjavur, Pudukottai, Ramanathapuram, Thoothukudi, Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari are the coastal districts.

Question 2.
Group the districts of Tamil Nadu which share their boundary with the states of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Kerala separately.
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh – Krishnagiri, Vellore and Tiruvallur.
Karnataka – Krishanagiri. Dharmapuri, Erode, Nilgiris.
Kerala – Nilgiris, Coimbatore, Theni, Tirunelveli, Kanyakumari, Virudhunagar.

TB. PNo: 90
Find Out

Question 1.
Why are mountain heights measured from mean sea level and not from ground level?
Answer:
(i) Ocean is one continuous water body on the earth’s surface. Its surface tend to seek the same level whatever be the landform around.
(ii) It is difficult to establish the base of the mountain from the rest of the ground around as their elevation is not the same on all sides.

Question 2.
Name the hill resorts of Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Hill resorts of Western Ghats: Nilgiri hills, Anaimalai, Yelamalai, Varusanadu and Pothigai hills, Megamalai.
Hill resorts of Eastern Ghats: Servarayan hills, Kalvarayan hills, Pachaimalai and Kolli hills.

Question 3.
Is Ooty located on western Ghats?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 4.
Name the hill stations located in Western and Eastern Ghats of Tamil Nadu. Western Ghats:
Answer:
Ooty and coonoor – Nilgiri hills Valparai – Anaimalai hills Kodaikanal -Palani hills Kurangani -Kurangani hills (Theni)
Eastern Ghats:
Yercaud – Servarayan hills

Question 5.
Why is the Nilgiri hills called as Blue Mountains?
Answer:
Nilgiri hills are called as Blue Mountains, inspired by the Kurunji flower which blooms every twelve years giving the slopes a bluish tinge.

TB. PNo: 94
Find Out

Question 1.
What is Agni Nakshatram?
Answer:
Agni Nakshatram period marks the onset of summer season in the month of May – June a period of 21 days. Peak summer with very high temperature, scorching heat all over parts of India.

Question 2.
Group the districts of Tamil Nadu into low, moderate and heavy rainfall regions.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Initially after bifurcation in Madras State there were only ………………. districts.
(a) 13
(b) 14
(c) 15
(d) 16
Answer:
(a) 13

Question 2.
Tamil Nadu lies in the ……………. part of India.
(a) Northeast
(b) Southwest
(c) Southeast
Answer:
(c) Southeast

Question 3.
Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar separates Tamil Nadu from :
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Island
(b) Lakshadweep Island
(c) Nepal
(d) Srilanka
Answer:
(d) Srilanka

Question 4.
…………… hill is located in Eastern Ghats.
(a) Nilgiri
(b) Kalrayan
(c) Palani
Answer:
(b) Kalrayan

Question 5.
Tamil Nadu has Loksabha constituencies.
(a) 19
(b) 92
(c) 39
(4)21
Answer:
(c) 39

Question 6.
Mukuruthi is a peak located in the …………….
(a) Eastern Ghats
(b) Nilgiri Hills
(c) Palani Hills
Answer:
(b) Nilgiri Hills

Question 7.
The highest peak in Palani hills is :
(a) Vembadi Shola
(b) Vandaravu
(c) Doddabetta
(d) Ooty
Answer:
(b) Vandaravu

Question 8.
Mangrove forests are found in …………….
(a) Vedaranyam
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Nilgiris
Answer:
(a) Vedaranyam

Question 9.
………………. hills separate Vellore and Tiruvanamalai districts.
(a) Kolli
(b) Andipatti
(c) Pothigai
(d) Javadhu
Answer:
(d) Javadhu

Question 10.
…………. hills seperates Vellore and Thiruvanamali districts.
(a) Pothigai
(b) Andipatti
(c) Javadhu
Answer:
(c) Javadhu

Question 11.
Bharamahal Plateau is a part of ………………. Plateau.
(a) Mysore
(b) Chota Nagpur
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(a) Mysore

Question 12.
……………. helps in the prevention of coastal erosion from waves and stroms.
(a) Mangroves
(b) trees
(c) Land slide
Answer:
(a) Mangroves

Question 13.
………………. is one of the main tributary of Thamirabarani.
(a) Noyyal
(b) Amaravathi
(c) Moyar
(d) Manimuthar
Answer:
(d) Manimuthar

Question 14.
Tamil Nadu depends mostly on ……………… monsoon.
(a) South west
(b) Northeast
(c) Cyclone
Answer:
(b) Northeast

Question 15.
About ………………… % of the total area of the Tamil Nadu is drought prone.
(a) 26
(b) 62
(c) 64
(d) 46
Answer:
(c) 64

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………. is the branch of geography that deals with different physical aspects like landform soil etc.
2. For a short time Tamil country was ruled by the ………………. not much known.
3. Tamil Nadu coast is the second longest in India after ……………….
4. Kallakurichi, Thenkasi and ………………. are the newly formed districts of Tamil Nadu.
5. Our state has ………………. Assembly Constituencies.
6. All districts of Tamil Nadu except the ………………. the Nilgiris and Kanyakumari were bifurcated at different points of time.
7. The Nilgiri hills consists ………………. peaks with more than 2000 metres.
8. ………………. hills are located to the South of Palghat gap.
9. ISRO propulsion complex is situated on the lower slopes of ……………….
10. Vainu Bappu Observatory is in ……………….
11. The Kalvarayan hills separates the river basins of ……………….
12. The name Kalvarayan came from the name of ancient tribes.
13. ………………. temple an important pilgrim centre is located on Kolli hills range.
14. ………………. river separates Coimbatore plateau and Mysore plateau.
15. ………………. is one of the intermontane plateau found in the region of Nilgiri hills.
16. ………………. are found at the head of Gulf of Mannar in the East Coastal regions.
17. The Reservoir of ………………. is called Stanely Reservoir.
18. The network of distributaries of River Cauvery is called ……………….
19. Palar river enters into Bay of Bengal near ……………….
20. The origin of Thamirabarani river is associated with sage ……………….
21. Pre monsoon showers are also known as ………………. showers.
22. Black soil is also known as ……………….
23. ………………. reduces the fertility of the soil.
24. Trees of ………………. forests are economically important.
25. ………………. is the second largest Mangrove forest in the world found in Tamil Nadu.
26. Koonthankulam bird sanctuary is in ………………. district.
27. Pulicat lake bird sanctuary is in ………………. district.
28. A sudden natural catastrophe that causes great damage or less to lives and properties is called ……………….
29. The number of Municipal Corporations in Tamil Nadu is ……………….
30. Ancient Gondwana land broke away 135 years ago during ………………. period.
31. ………………. hills are the eastward extension of Western Ghats.
32. Coastal plains of Tamil Nadu extend from ………………. to ……………….
33. The ………………. coast along the Bay of Bengal consists of many beautiful exotic beaches.
34. ………………. of Tamil Nadu are its life line.
35. Except ………………. river all the other rivers of Tamil Nadu state are non – perennial.
36. Palar river originates beyond ………………. village in Kolar district of Karnataka.
37. The ………………. river is extensively dammed for irrigation especially in Tamil Nadu.
38. The surplus water in Vaigia river is discharged into ………………. tank.
39. The colour of the Red soil is due to the presence of high content of ……………….
40. ………………. soil is suitable for tea and coffee plants.
41. The systematic efforts taken to reduce the risks during disasters is ……………….
42. Water is the most common trigger of a ……………….
43. Tamil nadu was the worst affected state by the flood occured in ……………….

Answers:

1. Physical geography
2. Kalabras
3. Gujarat
4. Chengalpet
5. 234
6. Chennai
7. 24
8. Anaimalai
9. Mahendragiri hills
10. Kavalur
11. Cauvery and Palar
12. Karalar
13. Arapaleeswarar
14. Moyar
15. Slgur
16. Coral rocks
17. Mettur Dam
18. Garden of Southern India
19. Kuvattur
20. Agasthiyar
21. Mango I Blossm
22. Regur soil
23. Soll erosion
24. Tropical Deciduous forest
25. Pichavaram mangrove forest
26. Tirunelveli
27. Trruvallur
28. Disaster
29. 15
30. cretaceous
31. Palam
32. Chennai, Kanyakumari
33. Coromandel Coast
34. Rivers
35. Tharnirabarani
36. Talagavara
37. Then pennaiyar/ Then ponnaiyar
38. Ramnad big tank
39. Iron Oxides
40. Laterite
41. Disaster Risk Reduction
42. landslide
43. 2015

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.


Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

IV. Assertion type question

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Tamil Nadu state was reorganised several times even recently.
Reason (R): For the purpose of administrative convenience.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true but R does not explain (A).
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false but(R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
Answer:
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Pothigai hills are called by different names.
Reason (R): It has rich evergreen forest, waterfalls and Ancient temples.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) explains (A).
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explains (A).
Answer:
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explains (A).

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Yercaud is known as poor man’s Ooty.
Reason (R): It is on the Kolli hills.
(a) (A) is true (R) is false
(b) (A) is false (A) is true
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) explains (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explains (A).
Answer:
(a) (A) is true (R) is false

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Tamil Nadu experiences mild tremor.
Reason(R): The state is located in the moderately low risk seismic zone.
(a) (A) is true (R) is false.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) explains (A).
(c) (A) is false (R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explains (A).
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) explains (A).

V. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
What do you know about the land features of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu has many unique land features that include high eroded mountains. Shallow deep valleys and plains. The topography of the State slopes towards east.

Question 2.
Mention the Latitudinal and Longitudial extent of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu extends 8° 4′ N to 13° 35′ N latitudes and from 76° 18′ E to 80° 20′ E longitudes.

Question 3.
Name the hills of Western Ghats in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The Nilgiris, Anaimalai, Palani hills, Cardomom hills, Varusanadu, Andipatti and Agasthiyar hills.

Question 4.
Name the major physical divisions of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Western Ghats
• Eastern Ghats
• Plateaues
• Coastal plains and
• Inland plains

Question 5.
What are the other names of Pothigai hills?
Answer:
Pothigai hills are called by different names such as Shiva Jothi Parvath, Agasthiyar hills and Southern Kailash.

Question 6.
Name the rivers that flow in the South Of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

• Vaigai (Madurai)
• Vaippar (Virudhunagar)
• Thamirabarani (Thirunelveli)
• Kodaiyar (Kanyakumari) flows in the south of Tamil Nadu.

Question 7.
What do you mean by Coriolis Force?
Answer:
‘Coriolis Force” refers to the apparent force acts as a result of the earth’s rotation deflects the moving objects (such as projectiles or air currents) to the right in the Northern hemisphere and to the left in the Southern hemisphere. It is one of the main reason for the movement of the monsoon winds originates from the Indian Ocean.

Question 8.
Define Soil.
Answer:

• Soil is a loose material
• It forms the uppermost layer of the earth.
• It is essential for the development of agriculture.

Question 9.
Define soil and its significance.
Answer:
Soil is the loose material mainly formed by the weathering and erosion rocks. It forms an important elements of agriculture. It provides essential minerals and nutrients for the growth vegetation.

Question 10.
Bring out the significance of Kallanai in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Kallanai built around first century, by Karikalan is still in use.
2. It is considered to be the oldest water regulatory structure in the world.

Question 11.
What are all major factors that control the distribution of natural vegetation?
Answer:
Landforms, nature of the soil, temperature, rainfall and skspe of the relief features are the major factors that control the distribution of natural vegetation.

Question 12.
What is the role played by the mangroves in coastal zone management?
Answer:

1. Mangroves help in the prevention of coastal erosion from waves and storms.
2. It also protects coral reefs and sea grass meadows from being smothered in sediments.

Question 13.
Where the mangrove forests are found in general?
Answer:
In general the mangrove forests are found in the coastal areas, river deltas, tails of islands and over sea faces where accretion is in progress.

Question 14.
Name the places in Tamil Nadu where mangrove forest is found to a considerable extent.
Answer:
Pichavaram, Vedaranyam, Muthupet, Chatram and Thoothukudi are the places in Tamil Nadu where the mangrove forest is found to a considerable extent.

Question 15.
Name the three major Biosphere reservation in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The three major Bio – sphere Reservation in Tamil Nadu are:

1. Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve
2. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve (marine)
3. Agasthiyarmalai Biosphere Reserve

Question 16.
What does Disaster Risk Reduction include?
Answer:
The Disaster Risk Reduction includes:

1. Reducing exposure to hazards.
2. Lessening the vulnerability of people and property.
3. Wise management of land and environment.
4. Improving preparedness and early warning for adverse events.

Question 17.
How does the Government classify the ground water blocks?
Answer:

1. 145 out of 385 are classified as safe ground water blocks.
2. The others are in various stages of depletion such as over exploited, critical and semi-critical.
3. 2% of the blocks are saline and 64% of total area of the state is drought probe.

VI. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Distinguish between the plains and plateaus of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Plains:

1. Plains of Tamil Nadu is divided into Inland plains and Coastal Plains.
2. Inland plains are formed by the rivers of Tamil Nadu coastal plains are formed along the Bay of Bengal coast by the lower course of the river.
3. Height increases from West to East.
4. It covers the districts of Salem, Erode, Karur, Trichy, Thanjavur, Thiruvarur and Nagapattinam.

Plateaus:

1. Plateaus are subdivided into three – Dharmapuri plateau, Coimbatore plateau and Madurai plateau.
2. Plateaus are oldest region formed by the disintegration of lava rocks and they are located between Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.
3. Height increases from East to West.
4. Dharmapuri, Krishnagiri, Coimbatore, Nilgiris, Salem and Madurai are the districts lie in the plateau region.

Question 2.
Summer season and winter season in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Summer season:

1. Period of summer season begins from March – May.
2. Much variation in summer temperature increases from South to North (30°C – 40°C).
3. Pre monsoon showers and convection rainfall occurs in this season.

Winter season:

1. Period of winter season is from January – February.
2. Not much difference in winter temperature (15°C – 25°C).
3. Generally this season is dry.

Question 3.
Black soil and Alluvial soil.
Answer:
Black soil:

1. Its formation is by weathering of igneous rocks.
2. Clayey in nature when wet develop cracks when dry.
3. Cotton grows well in this soil.
4. It is developed over the Deccan lava granite region under semi arid condition.
5. Found in the districts of Coimbatore, Madurai, Tirunelveli, Virudhunagar.

Alluvial soil:

1. Formed by the deposition of silt by the rivers.
2. Fertile in nature as they are rich in minerals.
3. Paddy and sugar cane grows well in this soil.
4. It is found in the river valley regions and the coastal planis.
5. Found in the districts of Thanjavur, Tiruvarur, Nagapattinam, Cuddalore.

Question 4.
Montane Temperature forest and Tropical Thorn forest.
Answer:
Montane Temperature Forest:

1. Found over an altitude of 1000 mts in sheltered valleys of Anaimalai, Nilgiris and Palani hills.
2. Trees in these forest are evergreen and usually short.
3. Nilgiri champa, wights litsea and rose apple are the common trees.

Tropical Thom Forest:

1. Found where there is little rainfall from plains up to 400 mts altitude.
2. Trees are sturdy and withstand dry condition. Shmbs are common.
3. Palm, neem, rusty acacia, wheel are some of the varieties.

VII. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Black soil is also known as Black cotton soil.
Answer:

1. Black soil retails moisture which is very essential for yarning of thread.
2. As cotton grows well in this soil, it is also known as black cotton soil.

Question 2.
It is necessary to conserve the soil resources with intensive care.
Answer:

1. Soil forms the basis mainly for agriculture and other purposes. It is a non-renewable resource and difficult to replace it once it gets degraded.
2. Soil erosion reduces the fertility of the soil which in turn reduces agricultural productivity. So it is necessary to take intensive care to conserve the soil resources.

Question 3.
It is necessary to aware the measures to be adopted during different types of natural disasters.
Answer:
The alteration of natural environment by the technology and developmental activities increase the frequency of disaster all over the world. So it is necessary to aware the measures to be adopted during different types of natural disasters.

Question 4.
Tamil Nadu Government has banned trekking in the state for two months every year (Feb -15 to April 15).
Answer:

1. The high temperature during summer leads to occasional forest fire in deciduous and thorn forests in Tamil Nadu.
2. 23 people were killed as they were stuck in the forest fire at Kurangani hills while trekking. On March 11th, 2018.
3. Thus in the aftermath of this incident made the Tamil Nadu Government to ban trekking for two months during peak summer.

Question 5.
Always avoid roads and bridge during earthquake.
Answer:
Roads may develop crack and bridges may collapse and damaged by the earthquake so we should be causious.

Question 6.
Cardamom hills are also known as Yelamala.
Answer:
The hill acquires its name from the cardamom spice, which is commonly grown here.

VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
Write about the location and size of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Location: Tamil Nadu is located in the Southern most part of the country. It is one among the 29 states of India.

Extent: Latitudinally this land mass extends from 8°4’N to 13°35’N and longitudinally from 76°18’E to 80°20’E longitudes.

Extremities: Its Eastern and Western extremities are defined by the point calimere and the hills of Anaimalai respectively.

The Northern extremity of the state is Pulicate lake and the Southern most point is Cape Comorin.

Area: It covers an area of 1,30,058 sq.km covering 4% of the area of our country.

Size: It is the 11th largest state.

Question 2.
Tabulate the administrative Divisions of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The administrative divisions of the Tamil Nadu state are given under.

Division	Number
Districts	35 (32 + 3)
Revenue Divisions	76
Taluks	226
Firkas (Local Revenue Sub-divisions)	1,127
Revenue villages	16,564
Municipal Corporation	15
Municipalities	125
Panchayat Unions (Blocks)	385
Town Panchayats	561
Village Panchayats	12,618
Lok Sabha Constituencies	39
Assembly Constituencies	234

Question 3.
What are the users of forests?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu’s wealth of flora and fauna lies in the hilly and forest regions.

1. Forests are the sanctuaries for wild animals.
2. It provides valuable forest products like Cinchona, Eucalyptus, which are used as medicine for cold, malaria and as a pain reliever.
3. Palmyrah trees are useful for construction works.
4. Forest products are used as raw materials for several cottage industries.
5. Sandalwood is useful for making furniture.
6. These forests not only provide for the large economy of the state but also to the local livelihood.

Question 4.
Give an account of the River Thamirabarani.
Answer:

1. The name is interpreted as Thamiram (copper) Varuni (streams of river).
2. The water of this river gives a copper like appearance due to the presence of dissolved red soil.
3. The river originates from a peak in Pothigai hills on the Western Ghats above Papanasam in the Ambasamudram taluk, (only river originates in Tamil Nadu).
4. The origin of the river is associated with Sage Agasthiyar.
5. It courses through the districts of Tirunelveli and Thoothukudi.
6. It flows into Bay of Bengal near Punnaikayal in Thoothukudi district.
   Tributaries: Karaiyar, Servalar, Manimuthar, Gadananathi, Pachaiyar, Chittar and Ramanathi.
7. It is the only Perennial river of Tamil Nadu as it is fed by both the Southwest and Northeast monsoons.

Question 5.
Write about Pichavaram mangrove forest.
Answer:

1. Pichavaram mangrove forest is located near Chidambaram, Cuddalore district.
2. This is the second largest mangrove forest in the world covering about 1,100 hectares (11 sq.km) of area.
3. It is separated from the Bay of Bengal by a sandbar.
4. It consists of species like Avicennia and Rhizophora.
5. It also supports the existence of rare varieties of shell and fin fishes.

Question 6.
Name any five wild life (Animal) sanctuaries and Bird Sancturies in Tamil Nadu and their location.
Answer:

S.No	Name of the Wildlife Sanctuary	Location
1.	Mudumalai	Nilgiris
2.	Indira Gandhi	Coimbatore
3.	Sathyamangalam	Erode
4.	Grizzled Giant Squirrel	Virudhunagar
5.	Kalakad	Tirunelveli

S.No	Name of the Bird Sanctuary	Location
1.	Pulicat Lake	Tiruvallur
2.	Kanjirankulam	Ramanathapuram
3.	Vedanthangal	Kancheepuram
4.	Koonthankulam-kadankulam	Tirunelveli
5.	Karaivetti	Ariyalur

Question 7.
Write a paragraph on Tropical cyclonic rainfall in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Tropical cyclones are common during the North – East monsoon season. (October – December)
2. Cyclone originating from Bay of Bengal bring heavy rainfall to the east coastal regions of Tamil Nadu.
3. More than 50% of the state’s rainfall is received from tropical cyclones during this period amount of rainfall.
4. East coastal regions receive 100 to 200 cms of rainfall.
5. Central and North western parts receives 50 – 100 cm of rainfall.
6. The cyclones some times disturb the cultivation of crops and cause severe damage to life and property.

Question 8.
How Tamil Nadu can be classified in to based on cyclone prone zone? Mention the areas of very high and high zone.
Answer:
Based on the cyclone hit areas that ares often hit by the tropical cyclone formed in Bay of Bengal during Northeast monsoon season. Tamil Nadu is classified into five zones. Namelys

Very high, high, medium, low and veiy low cyclone prone zone.

Areas:
Very high zone: Southern part of Chennai, Eastern part of Kanchipuram and Villupuram, North Eastern part of Cuddalore and Union territory of Puduchery.

High zone: Nagapattinam, Thiruvallur, Tiruvarur (except North Western part) Southern part of Tanjavur, Eastern part of Pudukottai, Cuddalore, Tiruvannamalai, North Eastern part of Vellore, Northern part of Chennai, North Western part to Kanchipuram and Middle portion of Villupuram.

Question 9.
How can we manage water scarcity? Suggest some methods of water conservation.
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu is water deficit state.
2. To manage water deficit, rain water harvesting and water conservation methods have to be implemented strictly.

Methods of water conservation:

1. Protect water conservation.
2. Rational use of ground water.
3. Renovation of traditional water source.
4. Increasing forest cover.
5. Recycling of water for other uses.
6. Changing crop pattern.
7. Flood management.
8. Use of geo-thermal water.

IX. Map study

Question 1.
On the given map of Tamil Nadu mark the following.
Answer:
(a) (i) Boundaries of Tamil Nadu
(ii) Capital of Tamil Nadu and its District.

Districts: (i) Any two coastal districts on the east
(ii) Kanyakumari, Cape Comorin, Nilgiris, Vellore
(iii) Pulicate lake.

(b)

1. Gulf of Mannar
2. Palk Strait
3. Palk Bay
4. Pamban
5. Rameswaram
6. Coromandel coast
7. Kaveri plains
8. Dharmapuri
9. Kollidam
10. Mettur Dam

(c)

1. Ooty
2. Kodaikanal
3. Doddabetta
4. Mukurti lake
5. Sathuragiri
6. Perumalmalai
7. Palani hills
8. Javadhi hills
9. Elagiri
10. Point calimere
11. Agathiyamalai

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 17 Reproduction in Plants and Animals Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 17 Reproduction in Plants and Animals

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Reproduction in Plants and Animals Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The plant which propagates with the help of its leaves is:
(a) Onion
(b) Neem
(c) Ginger
(d) Bryophyllum
Answer:
(d) Bryophyllum

Question 2.
Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in ______.
(a) Amoeba
(b) Yeast
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Bacteria.
Answer:
(b) Yeast

Question 3.
Syngamy results in the formation of:
(a) Zoospores
(b) Conidia
(c) Zygote
(d) Chlamydospores
Answer:
(c) Zygote

Question 4.
The essential parts of a flower are ______.
(a) Calyx and Corolla
(b) Calyx and Androecium
(c) Corolla and Gynoecium
(d) Androecium and Gynoecium.
Answer:
(d) Androecium and Gynoecium.

Question 5.
Anemophilous flowers have:
(a) Sessile stigma
(b) Small smooth stigma
(c) Colored flower
(d) Large feathery stigma
Answer:
(d) Large feathery stigma

Question 6.
Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of ______.
(a) Generative cell
(b) Vegetative cell
(c) Microspore mother cell
(d) Microspore.
Answer:
(a) Generative cell

Question 7.
What is true of gametes?
(a) They are diploid
(b) They give rise to gonads
(c) They produce hormones
(d) They are formed from gonads
Answer:
(d) They are formed from gonads

Question 8.
A single highly coiled tube where sperms are stored, get concentrated and mature is known as ______.
(a) Epididymis
(b) Vasa efferentia
(c) Vas deferens
(d) Seminiferous tubules.
Answer:
(d) Seminiferous tubules.

Question 9.
The large elongated cells that provide nutrition to developing sperms are:
(a) Primary germ cells
(b) Sertoli cells
(c) Leydig cells
(d) Spermatogonia
Answer:
(b) Sertoli cells

Question 10.
Estrogen is secreted by ______.
(a) Anterior pituitary
(b) Primary follicle
(c) Graafian follicle
(d) Corpus luteum.
Answer:
(b) Primary follicle

Question 11.
Which one of the following is an IUCD?
(a) Copper – T
(b) Oral pills
(c) Diaphragm
(d) Tubectomy
Answer:
(a) Copper – T

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The embryo sac in a typical dicot at the time of fertilization is ………
2. After fertilization the ovary develops into ………
3. Pianaria reproduces asexuallv by ………
4. Fertilization is ……….. in humans.
5. The implantation of the embryo occurs at about ……….. day of fertilization.
6. ………. is the first secretion from the mammary gland after child birth.
7. Prolactin is a hormone produced by …………

Answer:

1. Double fertilization
2. Fruits
3. Regeneration
4. Internal
5. 6 to 7
6. Colostrum
7. Anterior pituitary

III. Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iii)
C. (i)

Question 2.
Match the following terms with their respective meanings

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)

IV. State whether the following statements are True or False. Correct the false statement.

1. Stalk of the ovule is called pedicle.
2. Seeds are the product of asexual reproduction.
3. Yeast reproduces asexually by means of multiple fission.
4. The part of the pistil which serves as a receptive structure for the pollen is called as style.
5. Insect pollinated flowers are characterized by dry and smooth pollen.
6. Sex organs produce gametes which are diploid.
7. LH is secreted by the posterior pituitary.
8. Menstrual cycle ceases during pregnancy.
9. Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation.
10. The increased level of oestrogen and progesterone is responsible for menstruation.
Answer:
1. False – Stalk of the ovule is called Funiculus
2. False – Seeds are the product of sexual reproduction
3. False – Budding reproduces asexually by means of multiple fission.
4. False – The part of the pistil which serves as a receptive structure or the pollen is called as stigma.
5. False – Wind pollinated flowers are characterized by dry and smooth pollen.
6. False – Sex organs produce gametes which are haploid
7. False – Anterior pituitary (LH is secreted by the Anterior pituitary)
8. True
9. True
10. True

V. Answer in a word or sentence.

Question 1.
If one pollen grain produces two male gametes, how many pollen grains are needed to fertilize 10 ovules?
Answer:
Atleast 10 pollen grains required to fertilise 10 ovules because only one male gamete is involved in the fusion of male gamete with the egg cell.

Question 2.
In which part of the flower germination of pollen grains takes place?
Answer:
Pollen grains reach the stigma and begin to germinate.

Question 3.
Name two organisms which reproduces through budding.
Answer:
Yeast and hydra reproduce through budding.

Question 4.
Mention the function of the endosperm.
Answer:
The endosperm provides food to the developing embryo.

Question 5.
Name the hormone responsible for the vigorous contractions of the uterine muscles.
Answer:
Oxytocin from the posterior pituitary stimulates the uterine contraction.

Question 6.
What is the enzyme present in the acrosome of sperm?
Answer:
Hyaluronidase is the enzyme, present in the acrosome of sperm, which helps the sperm to enter the ovum during fertilization.

Question 7.
When is World Menstrual Hygiene Day observed?
Answer:
Every year May 28th is observed as Menstrual Hygiene day to make girls and women aware of maintaining menstrual hygiene and importance of menstrual hygiene for good health.

Question 8.
What is the need for contraception?
Answer:
Contraception is used to prevent pregnancy, to check population growth.

Question 9.
Name the part of the human female reproductive system where the following occurs, (a) Fertilization (b) Implantation
Answer:
(a) Fertilization: Occurs in the oviduct of the female genital tract. It takes place usually in the ampulla of the fallopian tube.
(b) Implantation: Blastocyst reaches the uterus (uterine wall) (endometrium)

VI. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What will happen if you cut planaria into small fragments?
Answer:
Each fragment will develop into a new individual by a specialized mass of cell. It is called regeneration. It is the ability of the lost body parts of an individual organism to give rise to a whole new organism.

Question 2.
Why is vegetative propagation practised for growing some type of plants?
Answer:
The vegetative part of plant, root, stem, leaf or budgets detached from the parent body and grows into an independent daughter plant by mitotic division. The daughter plants are genetically similar to the parent plant.

Question 3.
How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?
Answer:

Question 4.
Define triple fusion.
Answer:
The fusion involving two polar nuclei and a sperm nucleus, that occurs in double fertilization in a seed plant and results in the formation of endosperm, is called the triple fusion.

Question 5.
Write the characteristics of insect-pollinated flowers.
Answer:

1. The flowers are brightly coloured to attract insects which have smell and nectar.
2. The pollen grains are larger in size, the exine is pitted, spiny, so they can be adhered firmly on the stucky stigma.

Question 6.
Name the secondary sex organs in male.
Answer:
The secondary sex organs in the male are vas deferens, Epididymis, seminal vesicle, prostate gland and penis.

Question 7.
What is colostrum? How is milk production hormonally regulated?
Answer:
The milk produced from the breast during the first 2 to 3 days after child birth is called colostrum. Milk production from alveoli of mammary glands is stimulated by prolactin secreted from the anterior pituitary.

Question 8.
How can menstrual hygiene be maintained during menstrual days?
Answer:
Maintaining menstrual hygiene is important for the overall health of women.

• Sanitary pads should be changed regularly, to avoid infections due to microbes from vagina and sweat from genitals.
• Use of warm water to clean genitals, to get rid of menstrual cramps.
• Wearing loose clothing, to ensure the airflow around the genitals, to prevent sweating.

Question 9.
How does developing embryo gets its nourishment inside the mother’s body?
Answer:
The developing embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta. It is embedded in the uterine wall. This is a disc like tissue which develops between the uterine walls and embryo. It has villi of embryo side of the tissue. On the mother side are blood spaces with the villi. This gives a large surface area for oxygen and glucose to pass from the mother to the embryo.

Question 10.
Identify the parts A, B, C and D.

Answer:
A – Exine
B – Intine
C – Generative nucleus
D – Vegetative nucleus

Question 11.
Write the events involved in the sexual reproduction of a flowering plant.

1. Discuss the first event and write the types.
2. Mention the advantages and disadvantages of that event.

Answer:

1. The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a flower is called pollination. Self – Pollination and Cross-Pollination are the two types of Pollination.
2. Advantages:
   • It results in fertilization, which leads to the formation of fruits and seeds.
   • New varieties of plants are formed, through a new combination of genes,
3. Disadvantages:
   • More wastage of pollen grains.
   • Pollination may fail due to the distance barrier.
   • Flowers depend on external agencies for pollination.

Question 12.
Why are the human testes located outside the abdominal cavity? Name the pouch in which they are present.
Answer:
Human testes responsible for synthesis of male gametes(sperms) need slightly lower temperature than the normal body temperature for this function. Thus, they are located outside the abdominal cavity in a sac like structure called scrotum.

Question 13.
The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is also called the secretory phase. Give reason.
Answer:
During the Luteal phase of the menstrual cycle in the uterus, the hormone progesterone is produced by the ovaries. Progesterone and estrogen are secreted by the Corpus Luteum, which develops from the Graafian follicle. So this phase of the menstrual cycle is called the secretory phase.

Question 14.
Why are family planning methods not adopted by all the people of our country?
Answer:
Family planning is a way of living that is adopted voluntary by couples on the basis of knowledge and responsible decision to promote the health and welfare of the family group and society. As it is voluntary many people are not aware of the importance of family planning.

VII. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
With a neat labelled diagram describe the parts of a typical angiospermic ovule.
Answer:
Structure of the Ovule : The main part of the ovule is the nucellus which is enclosed by two integuments leaving an opening called as micropyle. The ovule is attached to the ovary wall by a stalk known as funiculus. Chalaza is the basal part.

The embryo sac contains seven cells and the eighth nuclei located within thenucellus. Three cells at the micropylar end form the egg apparatus and the three cells at the chalaza end are the antipodal cells. The remaining two nuclei are called polar nuclei found in the centre. In the egg apparatus one is the egg cell (female gamete) and the remaining two cells are the synergids.

Question 2.
What are the phases of menstrual cycle? Indicate the changes in the ovary and uterus.
Answer:

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
In angiosperms, the pollen germinates to produce a pollen tube that carries two gametes. What is the purpose of carrying two gametes when single gamete can fertilize the egg?
Answer:
One sperm fuses with the egg (syngamy) and forms a diploid zygote. The other sperm fuses with the secondary nucleus (Triple fusion) to form the primary endosperm. After triple fusion, the primary endosperm nucleus develops into an endosperm. The purpose of carrying two gametes is, endosperm provides food to the developing embryo.

Question 2.
Why menstrual cycle does not take place before puberty and during pregnancy?
Answer:
Menstruation occur when the egg is not fertilized. Every month uterus prepares itself to receive the fertilized egg to nourish the embryo, its lining becomes thick and spongy for implantation of the fertilized egg.
In case egg is not fertilized thin lining breaks and discharged out of the body through the vagina in the form of blood.
This condition will not happen before puberty and during pregnancy.

Question 3.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
Rohini and her parents were watching a television programme. An advertisement flashed on the screen which was promoting the use of sanitary napkins. Rohini’s parents suddenly changed the channel, but she objected to her parents and explained the need and importance of such advertisement.
(a) What is first menstruation called? When does it occur?
(b) List out the napkin hygiene measures taken during menstruation?
(c) Do you think that Rohini’s objection towards her parents was correct? If so, Why?
Answer:
(a) The first period or menstruation is a point in time, known as Menarche. It usually begins between 12 to 15 years of age.

(b)

1. The sanitary pad and tampons should be wrapped properly and discarded because they can spread infections.
2. Sanitary pad or tampon should not be flushed down the toilet.
3. Napkin incinerators are to be used properly for disposal of used Napkins.

(c) No, it was not correct. The parents and teachers have to create awareness among the school girls about the use of Napkins and their proper disposal. Girls should be educated and should know the importance of such advertisement on Television.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Reproduction in Plants and Animals Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
In a pollen grain the small nucleus is:
(a) Generative nucleus
(b) Tube nucleus
(c) Vegetative nucleus
(d) Pollen nucleus
Answer:
(a) Generative nucleus

Question 2.
The female part of the flower is ______.
(a) Androecium
(b) Anemophily
(c) Gynoecium
(d) Micropyle.
Answer:
(c) Gynoecium

Question 3.
Spirogyra is an:
(a) Virus
(b) Fungi
(c) Bacteria
(d) Algae
Answer:
(d) Algae

Question 4.
During pregnancy, the uterus expands, it’s normal size up to ______.
(a) 200 times
(b) 500 times
(c) 600 times
(d) 800 times.
Answer:
(b) 500 times

Question 5.
In wind pollinated flowers, the pollen grains are:
(a) sticky and powdery
(b) small and powdery
(c) dry and powdery
(d) wet and powdery
Answer:
(c) dry and powdery

Question 6.
Androecium is the part of the flower.
(a) upper
(b) male
(c) lower
(d) female
Answer:
(b) male

Question 7.
Zygote is a resulting product of:
(a) Germination
(b) Pollination
(c) Fusion of Embryosac
(d) Fertilization
Answer:
(d) Fertilization

Question 8.
Pick out the correct statement:
(a) Endosperm is a connective tissue
(b) Endosperm is a muscular tissue
(c) Endosperm is a nutritive tissue
(d) Endosperm is a nervous tissue
Answer:
(c) Endosperm is a nutritive tissue

Question 9.
The follicle that ruptures at the time of ovulation promptly fills with blood, forming:
(a) Corpus Luteum
(b) Corpus albricans
(c) Corpus Collosum
(d) Corpus Haemorrhagueim
Answer:
(a) Corpus Luteum

Question 10.
The endometrium is the lining of:
(a) bladder
(b) vagina
(c) uterus
(d) oviduct
Answer:
(c) uterus

Question 11.
Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of:
(a) Progesterone
(b) FSH
(c) Oxytocin
(d) Vasopressin
Answer:
(a) Progesterone

Question 12.
Testosterone is secreted by:
(a) Leydig cells
(b) Sertoli cells
(c) Seminiferous tubule
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 13.
In mammals, maturation of sperms take place at a temperature:
(a) Equal to that of body
(b) Higher than that of body
(c) Lower than that of body
(d) At any piece of mammalian sperm
Answer:
(c) Lower than that of body

Question 14.
If menstrual cycle is 30 days and bleeding starts on 1st day, then ovulation occur on:
(a) 14th day
(b) 18th day
(c) 30th day
(d) 16th day
Answer:
(d) 16th day

Question 15.
The symbol of family planning in India is:
(a) Square
(b) Inverted red triangle
(c) Rectangle
(d) Circle
Answer:
(b) Inverted red triangle

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent ………
2. Progesterone is secreted by ………..
3. Sertoli cells are found mg in ………….
4. Hormone responsible for ovulation and development of corpus luteum is ………..
5. First menstrual cycle starts is ………..
6. The functional maturation of sperms takes place in ………..
7. Seeds develops from …………
8. In ……… buds are produced in the notches along the leaf margin.
9. Androecium is a group of …………
10. In self pollination, flowers need not to depend on ………… of pollination.
11. Pollination by wind is called ………..
12. The point of attachment of ovule to the funicle is known as …………..
13. In Angiosperm pollen tube liberate their male gametes into the …………
14. Double fertiliztaion is essential for formation of ……….
15. During spore formation a structure called ………… develops from the fungal hypha
Answer:
1. Fertilization
2. Corpus luteum
3. Seminiferous tubule
4. LH
5. Menarche
6. Epididyms
7. Ovule
8. Bryophyllum
9. Stamens
10. Agents
11. Anemophily
12. Hilum
13. Synergids
14. Endosperm
15. Sporangium

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (iv)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (iii)

IV. Assertion and Reasoning:

Direction: In each of the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding statement of reason (R) is given just below it. Mark the correct statement as.
Question 1.
Assertion (A): Some of the Angiospermic plants are propagated only by vegetative propagation.
Reason (R): They have lost the capacity of seed formation.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Double fertilization is the universal features of all plants.
Reason (R): In this fusion only male gametes and secondary nucleus takes place.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are false.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The unit of Androecium is called stamen.
Reason (R): The most important part of androecium is anther.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Anemophily includes wastage of pollen grains.
Reason (R): Anemophilous flowers are neither attractive nor fragrant.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Sexual reproduction takes place with the participation of two different type of gametes.
Reason (R): Sexual reproduction is also known as Apomixies.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): In India, IUDS most widely accepted methods of contraception.
Reason (R): IUDS are injectable contraceptives, which prevent pregnancy for three months.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false.

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Over population has become a serious problem in developing countries.
Reason (R): It may exhaust natural resources, cause unemployment and lead to pollution.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

V. State whether True or false, If false write the correct statement

1. Tubectomy a method of population control performed on males.
2. Oral pills are very popular contraceptives among the rural women.
3. The germ pore of dicot seed is known as micropyle.
4. Vegetative reproduction is a kind of asexual reproduction.
5. The protective wall of the pollen is intine.

Answer:

1. False – Tubectomy a method of population control performed on females
2. False – Oral pills are very popular contraceptives among the urban women
3. True
4. True
5. False – The protective wall of the pollen is exine.

VI. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
Define reproduction.
Answer:
Reproduction is the process of producing offspring of their own kind.

Question 2.
Define Fertilization.
Answer:
The fusion of male gamete with female gamete to form zygote is called fertilization.

Question 3.
Where the fertilization takes place in human female?
Answer:
Fertilization in human female occurs in the oviduct of the female genetal tract. It takes place usually in the ampulla of the fallopian tube.

Question 4.
Name two types of reproduction.
Answer:
Asexual and Sexual reproduction.

Question 5.
Define Menstruation.
Answer:
Menstruation is a periodical phenomenon that continues from puberty to menopause. This will happen if the released ovum is not fertilized by the sperm.

Question 6.
Write the name of male and female reproductive part of a flower.
Answer:
Androecium and Gynoecium.

Question 7.
Define gestation period.
Answer:
Gestation is the time period during which the embryo attains its development in the uterus.

Question 8.
What is the gestation period in human?
Answer:
Normally gestation period of human last for about 280 days.

Question 9.
Write the full form of IUD and AIDS.
Answer:
IUD – Intra Uterine devices
AIDS – Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome

Question 10.
What is Menopause?
Answer:
A natural decline in reproductive hormones when a woman reaches 48-50 years of age.

Question 11.
Define Pollination.
Answer:
The transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of a flower is called pollination.

Question 12.
What are the agents of pollination?
Answer:
Animals, Insects, Wind and Water are the agents of Pollination.

Question 13.
What is Parturition?
Answer:
Parturition is the expulsion of young one from the mother uterus at the end of gestation.

Question 14.
What is endometrium?
Answer:
The endometrium is the inner epithelial layer along with its mucous membrane of the mammalian uterus.

Question 15.
What are gonads?
Answer:
Organs of the reproductive system are gonads. Testes are male gonads and ovaries are female gonads.

Question 16.
Name two sexually transmitted disease.
Answer:
Syphilis. AIDS

Question 17.
What is Vitelline membrane?
Answer:
The membrane forming the surface layer of the ovum is called vitelline membrane.

Question 18.
Which parts of the flower transform into the seed and fruit?
Answer:
Ovule develops into seed.
Ovary develops into fruit.

Question 19.
Name two sex hormones.
Answer:
Testosterone and Progesterone

Question 20.
What is umblical cord?
Answer:
A cord containing blood vessels that connects the placenta with the foetus is called the umblical cord.

VII. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is vegetative reproduction? Give an example.
Answer:
New plantlets, which are formed from the vegetative (somatic) parts of plants, such as root, stem, leaf or bud from the parent body is called vegetative reproduction, eg. In Bryophyllum, small plants grow at the leaf notches.

Question 2.
What happens when the egg is not fertilized?
Answer:
If the egg is not fertilized, corpus luteum degenerates, the egg disintegrates and the uterine lining slowly breaks, discharges as blood and mucus leading to menstrual events.

Question 3.
Explain the types of Urinary Tract Infection?
Answer:
Woman are susceptible to Urinary Tract Infection from the bacteria, that are present on skin, rectum or vagina. The types of UTI are:

• Cystitis or Bladder infection: Bacteria lodged in the urinary bladder, thrive and multiply leading to inflammation, at the age group of 20 to 50.
• Kidney Infection: The bacteria travels from the urinary bladder and upward to ureter and affect one or both the kidneys. It also infects the bloodstream and leads to serious life-threatening complications.
• Asymptomatic Bacteriuria: The bacteria present in the urinary bladder, which may not show any symptoms.

Question 4.
How does reproduction help in providing stability to population of species?
Answer:
Reproductive ensures the continuity and survival of the species. This process is to preserve individual species and it is called self perpetuation.

Question 5.
What is vegetative propagation? Write two examples where it is used.
Answer:
In vegetative propagation, new plantlets are formed from vegetative cells, buds or organs of plant. The vegetative part of plant get detached from the parent body and grow into an independent daughter plant. Root – Sweet potato, Stem – Strawberry.

Question 6.
What could be the reasons for adopting contraceptive methods?
Answer:

1. To avoid frequent pregnancies, which in turn helps in population control.
2. To prevent the spread of sexually transmitted diseases.

Question 7.
State in brief the function of the following organ,
(a) Ovary
(b) Fallopian tube
Answer:
(a) Ovary – Produce Oocytes (egg) for fertilization and produce hormones – Oestrogen and Progesterone.
(b) Fallopian tube – Transport the egg from the ovary to uterus.

Question 8.
Surgical methods can be used to create a block in the reproductive system for contraceptive purpose. Name such parts where block are created in
(i) Male
(ii) Female.
Answer:
(i) Male – Vasectomy – ligation of vas deferens
(ii) Female – Tubectomy – ligation of Fallopian tube

VIII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
List out the different methods of contraceptive. Explain any two.
Answer:
Common contraceptive methods used to prevent pregnancy are:
(i) Barrier methods
(ii) Hormonal methods
(iii) Intra-Uterine Devices (IUDs)
(iv) Surgical methods

(i) Barrier Methods : This method prevents sperms from meeting the ovum. Its entry into the female reproductive tract is prevented by barrier.

1. Condom : Condom prevents deposition of sperms in the vagina. Condoms are made of thin rubber or latex sheath. Condom also protect against sexually transmitted diseases (STD) like syphilis, AIDS.
2. Diaphragm (Cervical cap) : Vaginal diaphragm fitting into the vagina or a cervical cap fitting over the cervix. This prevents the entry of sperms into the uterus.

(ii) Hormonal Methods : Hormonal preparations are in the form of pills or tablets (contraceptive pills). These hormones stop (interfere with ovulation) the release of egg from the ovary.

Question 2.
Explain the structure of pollen grain with a labelled diagram.
Answer:
Pollen grains are usually spherical in shape. It has two layered wall. The hard outer layer is known as exine. It has prominent apertures called germpore. The inner thin layer is known as intine. It is a thin and continuous layer made up of cellulose and pectin. Mature pollen grains contain two cells, the vegetative and the generative cell. Vegetative cell contains a large nucleus. The generative cell divides mitotically to form two male gametes.

Question 3.
Write the advantages and disadvantages of self and cross pollination.
Answer:
Advantages of self-pollination:

1. Self-pollination is possible in certain bisexual flowers.
2. Flowers do not depend on agents for pollination.
3. There is no wastage of pollen grains.

Disadvantages of self-pollination:

1. The seeds are less in numbers.
2. The endosperm is minute. Therefore, the seeds produce weak plants.
3. New varieties of plants cannot be produced.

Advantages of cross pollination:

1. The seeds produced as a result of cross pollination, develop and germinate properly and grow into better plants, i.e., cross pollination leads to the production of new varieties.
2. More viable seeds are produced.

Disadvantages of cross-pollination:

1. Pollination may fail due to distance barrier.
2. More wastage of pollen grains.
3. It may introduce some unwanted characters.
4. Flowers depend on the external agencies for pollination.

Question 4.
Explain the structure of human sperm with diagram.
Answer:

Structure of Human Sperm: The spermatozoan consists of head, a middle piece and tail. The sperm head is elongated and formed by the condensation of nucleus. The anterior portion has a cap like structure called acrosome. It contains hyaluronidase an enzyme that helps the sperm to enter the ovum during fertilization. A short neck connects the head and middle piece which comprises the centrioles. The middle piece contains the mitochondria which provides energy for the movement of tail. It brings about sperm motility which is essential for fertilization.

Question 5.
Explain the structure of ovum with diagram.
Answer:
The mature ovum or egg is spherical in shape. The ovum is almost free of yolk. It contains abundant cytoplasm and the nucleus. The ovum is surrounded by three membranes. The plasma membrane is surrounded by inner thin zona pellucida and an outer thick corona radiata. The corona radiata is formed of follicle cells. The membrane forming the surface layer of the ovum is called vitelline membrane. The fluid-filled space between zona pellucida and the surface of the egg is called perivitelline space.

IX. Give Reason:

Question 1.
If a women is using copper – T, will it help in protecting her from sexual transmitted diseases?
Answer:
No, Copper-T does not prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted diseases. Copper-T only prevents implantation. The only safe method used to prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted diseases is the use of condoms.

Question 2.
Leaves of the Bryophyllum fallen on the ground produce new plants whereas the leaves of rose do not. Why?
Answer:
The leaves of Bryophyllum is levoad and fleshy, has notches at its margins. Buds arise from the notches, but in rose plant notches are absent.

Question 3.
The organisms formed by asexual reproduction are considered as clones. Why?
Answer:
Offspring produced by a asexual reproduction are not only identical to parents, but are also exact copies of their parent because it involves only miotic cell division.

X. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 1.
Organism A needs water to multiply and organism B needs sugar solution to multiply. Identify the organism A and B and their method of Reproduction.
Answer:
Organism A is Amoeba – which multiplies by binary fusion.
Organism B is Yeast – which needs sugar medium for budding.

Question 2.
If ovaries from a pregnant woman arc removed in 4th month of pregnancy. What will happen?
Answer:
Embryo develops normally till birth as it grows in the utreus.

Question 3.
A pregnant female not able to delivers the baby due to lack of ‘X’ hormones. Identify ‘X’ hormone. Write its function.
Answer:
The ‘X” hormone is oxytocin. It provides force to expel the baby from the uterus causing birth.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 15 Nervous System Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 15 Nervous System

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nervous System Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Bipolar neurons are found in:
(a) retina of eye
(b) cerebral cortex
(c) embryo
(d) respiratory epithelium
Answer:
(a) retina of eye

Question 2.
The site for processing of vision, hearing, memory, speech, intelligence, and thought is ______
(a) kidney
(b) ear
(c) brain
(d) lungs
Answer:
(c) brain

Question 3.
In reflex action, the reflex arc is formed by:
(a) brain, spinal cord, muscle
(b) receptor, muscle, spinal cord
(c) muscle, receptor, brain
(d) receptor, spinal cord, muscle
Answer:
(d) receptor, spinal cord, muscle

Question 4.
Dendrites transmit impulse ______ cell body and axon transmit impulse ______ cell body.
(a) away from, away from
(b) towards, away from
(c) towards, towards
(d) away from, towards
Answer:
(b) towards, away from

Question 5.
The outer most of the three cranial meninges is:
(a) arachnoid membrane
(b) piamater
(c) duramater
(d) myelin sheath
Answer:
(c) duramater

Question 6.
There are …….. pairs of cranial nerves and ………. pairs of spinal nerves.
(a) 12, 31
(b) 31, 12
(c) 12, 13
(d) 12, 21
Answer:
(a) 12, 31

Question 7.
The neurons which carries impulse from the central nervous system to the muscle fibre _____
(a) afferent neurons
(b) association neuron
(c) efferent neuron
(d) unipolar neuron
Answer:
(c) efferent neuron

Question 8.
Which nervous band connects the two cerebral hemispheres of brain?
(a) thalamus
(b) hypothalamus
(c) corpus callosum
(d) pons
Answer:
(c) corpus callosum

Question 9.
Node of Ranvler is found in:
(a) muscles
(b) axons
(c) dendrites
(d) cyton
Answer:
(b) axons

Question 10.
Vomiting centre is located in ______
(a) medulla oblongata
(b) stomach
(c) cerebrum
(d) hypothalamus
Answer:
(a) medulla oblongata

Question 11.
Nerve cells do not possess:
(a) neurilemma
(b) sareolemma
(c) axon
(d) dendrites
Answer:
(b) sareolemma

Question 12.
A person who met with an accident lost control of body temperature, water balance, and hunger. Which of the following part of the brain is supposed to be damaged?
(a) medulla oblongata
(b) cerebrum
(c) pons
(d) hypothalamus
Answer:
(d) hypothalamus

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ……….. is the longest cell in our body.
2. Impulses travels rapidly ……….. in ……….. neurons.
3. A change in the environment that causes an animal to react is called ………..
4. ………. carries the impulse towards the cell body.
5. The two antagonistic component of autonomic nervous system are ……….. and ……….
6. A neuron contains all cell organelles except …………
7. ………. maintains the constant pressure inside the cranium.
8. ………… and ………… increases the surface area of cerebrum.
9. The part of human brain which acts as relay center is ………….

Answer:

1. Nerve cell or neuron
2. sensory
3. stimulus
4. Dentrites
5. sympathetic and parasympathetic system
6. Nucleus
7. Cerebro Spinal Fluid (CSF)
8. Gyri and sulci
9. thalamus

III. State whether true or false, if false write the correct statement:

1. Dendrons are the longest fibres that conducts impulses away from the cell body.
2. Sympathetic nervous system is a part of central nervous system.
3. Hypothalamus is the thermoregulatory centre of human body.
4. Cerebrum controls the voluntary actions of our body.
5. In the central nervous system myelinated fibres form the white matter.
6. All the nerves in the body are covered and protected by meninges.
7. Cerebrospinal fluid provides nutrition to brain.
8. Reflex arc allows the rapid response of the body to a stimulus.
9. Pons helps in regulating respiration.

Answer:

1. False – Axons are the longest fibres that conducts impulses away from the cell body.
2. False – Autonomic nervous system is a part of central nervous system.
3. True
4. False – Cerebellum controls the voluntary actions of our body.
5. True
6. False – Brain is covered and protected by meninges.
7. True
8. True
9. True

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)

V. Understand the assertion statement. Justify the reason given and choose the correct choice:

(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong.
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct.
(d) Both assertion and reason are wrong.
1. Assertion: Cerebrospinal fluid is present throughout the central nervous system.
Reason: Cerebrospinal fluid has no such functions.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.

2. Assertion: Corpus callosum is present in space between the duramater and . piamater.
Reason: It serves to maintain the constant intracranial pressure.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason are wrong.

VI. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Define the stimulus.
Answer:
The changes in the environmental condition that are detected by the receptors present in the body is called stimulus.

Question 2.
Name the parts of the hindbrain.
Answer:
The hindbrain is formed of three parts. Cerebellum, Pons and Medulla Oblongata.

Question 3.
What are the structures involved in the protection of brain?
Answer:
Cranium (skull) and three connective tissue membrane meninges – Duramater, Arachnoid membrane and piamater protect the brain.

Question 4.
Give an example for conditioned reflexes.
Answer:
The conditioned reflexes are the result of practice and learning. Playing the harmonium by striking a particular key, on seeing a music note is an example of conditioned reflexes.

Question 5.
Which acts as a link between the nervous system and endocrine system?
Answer:
Hypothalamus is the link between nervous system and endocrine system as it controls the secretion of hormones from anterior pituitary gland.

Question 6.
Define reflex arc.
Answer:
The path taken by nerve impulse to accomplish reflex action is called a Reflex arc.

VII. Differentiate between:

Question 1.
Voluntary and involuntary actions.
Answer:

Question 2.
Medullated and non-medullated nerve fibre.
Answer:

VIII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Illustrate the structure and functions of brain.
Answer:
The human brain is divided into 3 major parts. Fore brain, Mid brain and Hind brain.
Fore brian consists of Cerebrum, Thalamus and Hypothalamus.

Mid brain
Parts of the brain is Corpora quadrigemina
Function is control visual and auditory reflexes.

Hind brain consists of Pons, Cerebellum and Medulla Oblongata.

Question 2.
What will you do if someone pricks your hand with a needle? Elucidate the pathway of response with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
If we touch a sharp pointed object, we immediately withdraw our hand.
Here the skin is the receptor and it receives the stimulus, that is the pain. This stimulus (pain) in turn triggers an impulse in sensory neuron. The sensory neuron transmits or convey the message to the spinal cord. Spinal cord interprets the stimulus and the impulse is passed on to the relay neuron which in turn transmits it to a motor neuron. Motor neuron carry command from the spinal cord to our arm. Muscle in our arm contracts and we withdraw our hand immediately

Question 3.
With a neat labelled diagram explain the structure of a neuron.
Answer:

A neuron is the basic structural and functional unit of the nervous system. A neuron consists of Cyton, Dendrites and Axon.
Cyton : It has a central nucleus with abundant cytoplasm called neuroplasm. The cytoplasm has large granular body called Nissl’s granules and the other cell organelles like mitochondria, ribosomes, lysosomes, and endoplasmic recticulum.

Dendrites : These are the numerous branched cytoplasmic processes that project from the surface of the cell body. They conduct nerve impulses towards the cyton.

Axon : The axon is a single, elongated, slender projection. The end of axon terminates as fine branches which terminate into knob like swellings called synaptic knob. The plasma membrane of axon is called axolemma, while the cytoplasm is called axoplasm. It carries impulses away from the cyton. The axons may be covered by a protective sheath called myelin sheath which is further covered by a layer of Schwann ceils called neurilemma. Myelin sheath breaks at intervals by depressions called Nodes of Ranvier. The region between the nodes is called as internode. Myelin sheath acts as insulator and ensures rapid transmission of nerve impulses.

Question 4.
Describe the structure of spinal cord.
Answer:
Spinal cord is a cylindrical structure lying in the neural canal of the vertebral column. It is also covered by meninges.
It extends from the lower end of medulla oblongata to the first lumbar vertebra. The posterior most region of spinal cord tapers into a thin fibrous thread like structure called filum terminale.

Internally, the spinal cord contains a cerebrospinal fluid filled cavity known as the central canal. The grey matter of spinal cord is ‘H’ shaped. The upper end of letter ‘H” forms posterior horns and lower end forms anterior horns. A bundle of fibres pass into the posterior horn forming dorsal or afferent root. Fibres pass outward from the anterior hom forming ventral or efferent root. These two roots joins to form spinal nerves. The white matter is external and have bundle of nerve tracts. Spinal cord conducts sensory and motor impulses to and from the brain. It controls reflex actions of the body.

Question 5.
How nerve impulses are transferred from one neuron to next neuron?
Answer:
The information from the environment are detected by the receptors located in our sense organs such as the eyes, the nose, the skin etc..
Information from the receptors is transmitted as electrical impulse and is received by the dendritic tips of the neuron.
This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body and then along the axon to its terminal end.

On reaching the axonal end, it causes the nerve endings to release a chemical (neuro transmitter) which diffuses across a synapse and starts a similar electrical impulse in the dendrites of the next neuron, then to their cell body to be carried along the axon.

In this way, the electrical signal reaches the brain or spinal cord. The response from brain (or spinal cord) is similarly passed on to the effector organs such as the muscle or gland cell, that undergoes the desired response.

The flow of nerve impulses from axonal end of one neuron to dendrite of another neuron through a synapse is called synaptic transmission.

Question 6.
Classify neurons based on its structure.
Answer:
The neurons may be of different types based on their structure and functions. Structurally the neurons may be of the following types:

(i) Unipolar neurons: Only one nerve process arises from the cyton which acts as both axon and dendron.
(ii) Bipolar neurons: The cyton gives rise to two nerve processes of which one acts as an axon while another as a dendron.
(iii) Multipolar neurons: The cyton gives rise to many dendrons and an axon.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
‘A’ is a cylindrical structure that begins from the lower end of the medulla and extends downwards. It is enclosed in bony cage 4B’ and covered by membranes ‘C’. As many as ‘D’ pairs of nerves arise from the structure ‘A’.
(i) What is A?
(ii) Name (a) bony cage ‘B’ and (b) membranes ‘C’
(iii) How much is D?
Answer:
(i) Spinal cord
(ii) (a) Cranium
(b) Duramater, Arachnoid membrane, Piamater
(iii) 31 pairs of Spinal nerves

Question 2.
Our body contains a large number of cells ‘L’ which are the longest cells in the body.
L has long and short branch called as ‘M’ and ‘N’ respectively. There is a gap ‘O’ between two ‘l’ cells, through which nerve impulse transfer by release of chemical substance ‘P’.

1. Name the cells L.
2. what are M and N?
3. What is the gap O?
4. Name the chemical substance P.

Answer:

1. L is Nerve cell or Neuron
2. M is axon and N is dendrite
3. Gap O is synaptic junction
4. P is neuro transmitter – Acetylcholine

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nervous System Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Inner layer of Axon is:
(a) Myelin sheath
(b) Neurilemma
(c) Meninges
(d) Sarcolemma
Answer:
(b) Neurilemma

Question 2.
Which one is thin and vascularised?
(a) Piamater
(b) Duramater
(c) Arachnoid membrane
(d) Pleural membrane
Answer:
(b) Duramater

Question 3.
Uni polar neurons are found in:
(a) Adult nervous tissue
(b) Stem cells
(c) Embryonic stem cells
(d) Embryonic nervous tissue
Answer:
(d) Embryonic nervous tissue

Question 4.
Among the following which one controls our anger.
(a) Hypothalamus
(b) Cerebrum
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Thalamus
Answer:
(a) Hypothalamus

Question 5.
………. form the cerebral cortex of our brain.
(a) Grey neuron
(b) Fibrous tissue
(c) White neurons
(d) Ganglions
Answer:
(c) White neurons

Question 6.
……… is fitted with neuro transmitter.
(a) Synaptic knob
(b) Synaptic plate
(c) Synaptic cleft
(d) Synaptic branch
Answer:
(a) Synaptic knob

Question 7.
The functional connection between two neurons is called:
(a) Synapse
(b) Synapsis
(c) Chiasma
(d) Chiasmata
Answer:
(a) Synapse

Question 8.
Which of the following pair is correct?
(a) Sensory nerve – afferent
(b) Motor nerve – afferent
(c) Sensory nerve – ventral
(d) Motor nerve-dorsal
Answer:
(a) Sensory nerve – afferent

Question 9.
A healthy person got injured resulting in damage and death of a few cells. Which of the cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells:
(a) Liver cell
(b) Neuron
(c) Nephron
(d) Osteocytes
Answer:
(b) Neuron

Question 10.
The number of pairs of spinal nerves in human being is:
(a) 12
(b) 18
(c) 31
(d) 24
Answer:
(c) 31

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ………lies at the base of the thalamus.
2. ………. transmit electrical impulses towards the cyton.
3. The sensory organs contain ………. neuron.
4. Mid brain with ………. together form the brain stems.
5. Chemical substances which take part in synaptic transmission is ……….
6. The membrane which cover the brain and the spinal cord is ………..
7. If the corpus collosum is removed in Mammalian brain then ……… will be affected.
8. Last end of spinal cord is called ………..
9. The …………. is the continuation of medulla oblongata.
10. ………. is the part of the brain which helps to maintain balance.
Answer:
1. Hypothalamus
2. Dendrites
3. Bypolar
4. Hind brain
5. acetycholine
6. Meninges
7. coordination of cerebrum
8. filum terminate
9. spinal cord
10. Cerebellum

III. State whether true or false, if false write the correct statement.

1. The gaps on the cyton are called Nodes of Ranvier.
2. Corpus callosum is a sheet of Nervous tissue that unites the right and left Cerebral Hemisphere.
3. Cerebral aqueduct is found in Mid brain.
4. Dendrites transmit chemical impulse towards the cyton.
5. The lower end of medulla oblongata is filum terminate.

Answer:

1. False – The gaps on the axon are called Nodes of Ranvier.
2. True
3. False – Cerebral aqueduct is found in fore brain.
4. False – Dendrites transmit electrical impulse towards the cyton.
5. True

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (iii)

V. Understand the assertion statement.Justify the reason given and choose the correct choice:

(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong.
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct.
(d) Both assertion and reason are wrong.
1. Assertion: Medulla oblongata is very important for our body.
Reason: Medulla oblongata regulates all in voluntary activities.
Answer:
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct.

2. Assertion: With drawl reflex is controlled by spinal cord.
Reason: Initially cerebrum is involved and require alertness for perform this reflex.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.

3. Assertion: In human being, cerebrum is most developed part of brain. Reason: Cerebrum is having large surface area and analyzing centre for maintaining body activity.
Answer:
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct.

VI Answer in one or two Sentences.

Question 1.
List the components of Nervous system.
Answer:
The components of Nervous system are brain, spinal cord and brain.

Question 2.
What is Motor or efferent neuron?
Answer:
Motor or efferent neuron carries impulses from the Central Nervous System to effector organs such as muscle fibre or gland.

Question 3.
What is synapse?
Answer:
The paint of contract between the neighbouring nerve cells is called synapse.

Question 4.
Name the outermost fibrous membrane of the brain.
Answer:
Dura mater.

Question 5.
Name the two components, ANS (Autonomic Nervous System).
Answer:
The two antagonistic components of ANS are sympathetic and para sympathetic system.

VII. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
What is Coordination?
Answer:
The various organs working in a systematic controlled and efficient way to produce proper response to various stimuli is called coordination.

Question 2.
What are simple or basic reflexes? Give a few actions, as examples.
Answer:
These simple reflexes are inbuilt and unlearned responses. Many of the actions we perform in our day to day life are simple reflexes, eg. Winking of eyes, Sneezing, Coughing and Yawning. We perform these actions without thinking.

Question 3.
Name the second largest part of the brain. What is its functions?
Answer:
The cerebellum is the second largest part of the brain, formed of two large-sized hemispheres and middle vermis. Maintenance of posture and balance, co-ordinate voluntary muscle activity, are some of the functions of the cerebellum.

Question 4.
Differentiate simple reflexes and conditioned reflexes.
Answer:

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS).

Question 1.
Give two examples of conditional reflexion.
Answer:

• Applying the brake while driving, when a red or yellow traffic light appears. We do not have to think about pressing the brake.
• Producing saliva is a response of a dog naturally have, when they smell or see food or when a bell sound was followed by food.

Question 2.
Injury to medulla oblongata can cause death. Why?
Answer:
Medulla Oblongata emerges from the base of the brain and joins the brain to the spinal cord. It controls the involuntary functions.

IX. Long Answer Question:

Question 1.
Classify peripheral nervous based on the nerves arising from the brain and the spinal cord.
Answer:
Peripheral nervous system is formed by the nerves arising from the brain and the spinal cord. The nerves arising from the brain are called cranial nerves. Nerves arising from spinal cord are called spinal nerves.

Cranial Nerves : In man, there are 12 pairs of cranial nerves. Some of the cranial nerves are sensory Eg: optic nerve which innervates the eye. Some are motor nerves which helps in rotation of eyeball. It also innervates the eye muscles, muscles of iris and tear gland.

Spinal Nerves : There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves. Each spinal nerve has a dorsal sensory root and the ventral motor root. The direction of impulses in dorsal spinal root is towards the spinal cord and in ventral spinal root away from the spinal cord.

Question 2.
List out the components of Nervous system and its function.
Answer:
The nervous system is formed of three distinct components namely the neurons, neuroglia and nerve fibres.
(i) Neuron or nerve cell : A neuron or nerve cell is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system. It is the longest cell of the human body with a length of over 100μm. These cells are highly specialised to detect, receive and transmit different kinds of stimuli. Information is conducted through neurons in the form of electrical impulses from one part of the body to another.

(ii) Neuroglia : Neuroglia are also called as glial cells. They are non¬exciting, supporting cell of the nervous system. They do not initiate or conduct nerve impulses.

(iii) Nerve fibres : The nerve fibres are the long slender processes of neurons. A number of nerve fibres are bundled up together to form nerves.

Question 3.
Explain Autonomic Nervous system.
Answer:
Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) is also called as visceral nervous system as it regulates the function of internal visceral organs of our body through its two antagonistic (opposite) components sympathetic and parasympathetic systems. They enable the body to perform rapid and specific visceral activities in order to maintain steady state. It controls the involuntary functions of the visceral organs.