Category: Class 10

Students can download Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.4 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.4

Question 1.
An aluminium sphere of radius 12 cm is melted to make a cylinder of radius 8 cm. Find the height of the cylinder.
Answer:
Sphere – Radius r₁ = 12 cm
Cylinder – Radius r₂ = 8 cm
h₂ = ?
Volume of cylinder = Volume of sphere melted

∴ Height of the cylinder made = 36 cm.

Question 2.
Water is flowing at the rate of 15 km per hour through a pipe of diameter 14 cm into a rectangular tank which is 50 m long and 44 m wide. Find the time in which the level of water in the tanks will rise by 21 cm.
Answer:
Length of the rectangular tank (l) = 50 m = 5000 cm
Width of the rectangular tank (b) = 44 m = 4400 cm
Level of water in the tank (h) = 21 cm
Volume of the tank = l × b × h cu. units = 5000 × 4400 × 21 cm³
Radius of the pipe (r) = 7 cm
Speed of the water = 15 km/hr.
(h) = 15000 × 100 cm / hr.
Volume of water flowing in one hour

Question 3.
A conical flask is full of water. The flask has base radius r units and height h units, the water poured into a cylindrical flask of base radius x r units. Find the height of water in the cylindrical flask.
Answer:
Radius of the conical flask = r units
Height of the conical flask = h units
Volume of the conical flask = \(\frac{1}{3} \pi r^{2} h\) cu.units
Radius of the cylindrical flask = x r units
Let the height of the cylindrical flask be “H” units
Volume of the cylindrical flask = Volume of the Conical flask

Height of the cylindrical flask = \(\frac{h}{3 x^{2}}\) units

Question 4.
A solid right circular cone of diameter 14 cm and height 8 cm is melted to form a hollow sphere. If the external diameter of the sphere is 10 cm, find the internal diameter.
Answer:
Radius of a cone (V) = 7 cm
Height of a cone (h) = 8 cm
External radius of the hollow sphere (R) = 5 cm
Let the internal radius be “x”
Volume of the hollow sphere = Volume of the Cone


Internal diameter of the Hollowsphere = 2 × 3 = 6 cm.

Question 5.
Seenu’s house has an overhead tank in the shape of a cylinder. This is filled by pumping water from a sump (underground tank) which is in the shape of a cuboid. The sump has dimensions 2 m × 1.5 m × 1 m. The overhead tank has its radius of 60 cm and height 105 cm. Find the volume of the water left in the sump after the overhead tank has been completely filled with water from the sump which has been full, initially.
Answer:
Length of the cuboid tank (l) = 2 cm = 200 cm
Breadth of the cuboid tank (b) = 1.5 cm = 150 cm
Height of the tank (h) = 1 m = 100 cm
Volume of the cuboid = l × b × h cu. units
= 200 × 150 × 100 cm³
= 30,00,000 cm³
Radius of the tank (r) = 60 cm
Height of the tank (h) = 105 cm
Volume of the cylindrical tank = πr²h cu. units
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 60 × 60 × 105 cm³
= 22 × 60 × 60 × 15 cm³
= 1188000 cm³
Volume of water left in the sump = Volume of the sump – Volume of the tank
= 3000000 – 1188000 cm³
= 1812000 cm³

Question 6.
The internal and external diameter of a hollow hemispherical shell is 6 cm and 10 cm respectively. If it is melted and recast into a solid cylinder of diameter 14 cm, then find the height of the cylinder.
Answer:
Internal radius of the shell (r) = 3 cm
External radius of the shell (R) = 5 cm
Radius of the cylinder (r) = 7 cm
Let the height of the cylinder be “h”
Volume of the cylinder = Volume of the hemispherical shell

Height of the cylinder = 1.33 cm

Question 7.
A solid sphere of radius 6 cm is melted into a hollow cylinder of uniform thickness. If the external radius of the base of the cylinder is 5 cm and its height is 32 cm, then find the thickness of the cylinder.
Answer:
Radius of a sphere (r) = 6 cm
External radius of the cylinder (R) = 5 cm
Height of the cylinder (h) = 32 cm
Let the internal radius of the cylinder be ‘x’
Volume of the hollow cylinder = Volume of a sphere
πh (R² – r²) = \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr³
π × 32 (5 + x) (5 – x) = \(\frac{4}{3}\) × π × 6 × 6 × 6
32 (25 – x²) = 4 × 2 × 6 × 6
25 – x² = 9
x² = 25 – 9 = 16
x = √16 = 4
Thickness of the cylinder = 5 – 4 = 1 cm.

Question 8.
A hemispherical bowl is filled to the brim with juice. The juice is poured into a cylindrical vessel whose radius is 50% more than its height. If the diameter is same for both the bowl and the cylinder then find the percentage of juice that can be transferred from the bowl into the cylindrical vessel.
Answer:
Let the height of the cylinder be “h”
radius is 50% more than the height


From (1) and (2) we get,
Volume of the cylinder = Volume of the hemisphere
It is possible to transfer the full quantity from the bowl into the cylindrical vessel.
100 % of the juice can be transferred.

Students can download Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.3 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.3

Question 1.
A vessel is in the form of a hemispherical bowl mounted by a hollow cylinder. The diameter is 14 cm and the height of the vessel is 13 cm. Find the capacity of the vessel.
Answer:
Radius of a hemisphere = Radius of the cylinder

Question 2.
Nathan, an engineering student was asked to make a model shaped like a cylinder with two cones attached at its two ends. The diameter of the model is 3 cm and its length is 12 cm. If each cone has a height of 2 cm, find the volume of the model that Nathan made.
Answer:
Radius of the cone = Radius of the cylinder

r = \(\frac{3}{2}\) cm
Height of the cone (H) = 2 cm
Height of the cylinder (h) = 12 – (2 + 2) cm = 8 cm
Volume of the model = Volume of the cylinder + Volume of 2 cones

Question 3.
From a solid cylinder whose height is 2.4 cm and the diameter 1.4 cm, a cone of the same height and same diameter is carved out. Find the volume of the remaining solid to the nearest cm³.
Answer:
Radius of a cylinder = Radius of a cone r = 0.7 cm
Height of a cylinder = Height of a cone (h) = 2.4 cm

Volume of the remaining solid = Volume of the cylinder – Volume of a cone

Volume of the remaining soild = 2.46 cm³

Question 4.
A solid consisting of a right circular cone of height 12 cm and radius 6 cm standing on a hemisphere of radius 6 cm is placed upright in a right circular cylinder full of water such that it touches the bottom. Find the volume of the water displaced out of the cylinder, if the radius of the cylinder is 6 cm and height is 18 cm.

Answer:
Radius of a cone = Radius of a hemisphere = Radius of a cylinder
r = 6 cm
Height of a cone (h) = 12 cm
Volume of the water displaced = Volume of the solid inside = Volume of the cone + Volume of the hemisphere

Volume of water displaced = 905. 14 cm³.

Question 5.
A capsule is in the shape of a cylinder with two hemispheres stuck to each of its ends. If the length of the entire capsule is 12 mm and the diameter of the capsule is 3 mm, how much medicine it can hold?
Answer:
Radius of a hemisphere = Radius of a Cylinder

r = \(\frac{3}{2}\) mm = 1.5 mm
Height of the cylinderical portion = 12 mm – (1.5 mm + 1.5 mm) = (12 – 3) mm = 9 mm
Volume of the capsule

Volume of the capsule = 77.8 cu. mm

Question 6.
As shown in figure a cubical block of side 7 cm is surmounted by a hemisphere. Find the surface area of the solid.

Answer:
Side of a cube (a) = 7 cm
Radius of a hemisphere (r) = \(\frac{7}{2}\) cm
Surface area of the solid = T.S.A of the cube + C.S.A of the hemisphere – Area of the base of the hemisphere

Question 7.
A right circular cylinder just encloses a sphere of radius r units. Calculate
(i) the surface area of the sphere
(ii) the curved surface area of the cylinder
(iii) the ratio of the areas obtained in (i) and (ii).
Answer:
(i) Surface area of sphere = 4πr² sq. units

Question 8.
A shuttlecock used for playing badminton has the shape of a frustum of a cone is mounted on a hemisphere. The diameters of the frustum are 5 cm and 2 cm. The height of the entire shuttlecock is 7 cm. Find its external surface area.
Answer:

Students can download Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.2 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.2

Question 1.
A 14 m deep well with inner diameter 10 m is dug and the earth taken out is evenly spread all around the well to form an embankment of width 5 m. Find the height of the embankment.

Answer:
Radius of the well (r₁) = 5 m
Depth of the well (h) = 14 m
Width of the embankment = 5 m
Outer radius (R) = 5 + 5 = 10 m
Let the height of the embankment be “H”
Volume of Earth in the embankment = Volume of the well
πH(R² – r²) = \(\pi r_{1}^{2} h\)
H(10² – 5²) = 5 × 5 × 14
H (100 – 25) = 5 × 5 × 14
H = \(\frac{5 \times 5 \times 14}{75}\) = 4.67 m
Height of the embankment = 4.67 m

Question 2.
A cylindrical glass with diameter 20 cm has water to a height of 9 cm. A small cylindrical metal of radius 5 cm and height 4 cm is immersed it completely. Calculate the rise of the water in the glass?
Answer:
Radius of the cylindrical glass (r) = 10 cm
Height of the water (h) = 9 cm
Radius of the cylindrical metal (R) = 5 cm
Height of the metal (H) = 4 cm
Let the height of the water raised be “h”
Volume of the water raised in the cylinder = Volume of the cylindrical metal
πr²h = πr²H
10 × 10 × h = 5 × 5 × 4
h = \(\frac{5 \times 5 \times 4}{10 \times 10}\) = 1 cm
Raise of water in the glass = 1 cm

Question 3.
If the circumference of a conical wooden piece is 484 cm then find its volume when its height is 105 cm.
Answer:
Circumference of the wooden piece = 484 cm
2πr = 484
2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × r = 484 cm
r = \(\frac{484 \times 7}{2 \times 22}\)
r = 77 cm
Height of the wooden piece (h) = 105 cm
Volume of the conical wooden piece = \(\frac{1}{3} \pi r^{2} h\) cu.units
= \(\frac{1}{3} \times \frac{22}{7} \times 77 \times 77 \times 105 \mathrm{cm}^{3}\)
= 22 × 11 × 77 × 35 cm³
= 652190 cm³
Volume of the wooden piece = 652190 cm³

Question 4.
A conical container is fully filled with petrol. The radius is 10m and the height is 15 m. If the container can release the petrol through its bottom at the rate of 25 cu. meter per minute, in how many minutes the container will be emptied. Round off your answer to the nearest minute.
Answer:
The radius of the conical container (r) = 10 m
Height of the container (h) = 15 m

Question 5.
A right-angled triangle whose sides are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm is revolved about the sides containing the right angle in two ways. Find the difference in volumes of the two solids so formed.

Answer:
Three sides of a triangle are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm.
Case (i): If the triangle is revolved about the side 6 cm, the cone will be formed with radius 6 cm and height 8 cm.
Volume of the cone = \(\frac{1}{3} \pi r^{2} h\) cu. units
= \(\frac{1}{3}\) × π × 6 × 6 × 8 = 96π cm³
Case (ii): If the triangle is revolved about the side 8 cm, the cone will be formed with radius 8 cm and height 6 cm.
Volume of the cone = \(\frac{1}{3}\) × π × 8 × 8 × 6 = 128π cm³
Difference in volume of the two solids = (128π – 96π) cm³ = 32π cm³ = 32 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) cm³ = 100.57 cm³
The difference in the volume of the two solids = 100.57 cm³

Question 6.
The volumes of two cones of same base radius are 3600 cm³ and 5040 cm³. Find the ratio of heights.
Answer:
Let the radius of the two cones be ‘r’
Let the height of the two cones be h₁ and h₂
Ratio of their volumes = 3600 : 5040 (÷ 10)
\(\frac{1}{3} \pi r^{2} h_{1}: \frac{1}{3} \pi r^{2} h_{2}\) = 360 : 504 (÷4)
h₁ : h₂ = 90 : 126 (÷3)
= 30 : 42 (÷3)
= 10 : 14 (÷2)
h₁ : h₂ = 5 : 7
Ratio of heights = 5 : 7

Question 7.
If the ratio of radii of two spheres is 4 : 7, find the ratio of their volumes.
Answer:
Let the ratio of their radii is r₁ : r₂
r₁ : r₂ = 4 : 7
Ratio of their volumes
V₁ : V₂ = \(\frac{4}{3} \pi r_{1}^{3}: \frac{4}{3} \pi r_{2}^{3}\)
= \(r_{1}^{3}: r_{2}^{3}\)
= 43 : 73
Ratio of their volumes = 64 : 343

Question 8.
A solid sphere and a solid hemisphere have an equal total surface area. Prove that the ratio of their volume is 3√3 : 4.
Answer:
Total surface area of a sphere = \(4 \pi r_{1}^{2}\) sq. units
Total surface area of a hemisphere = \(3 \pi r_{2}^{2}\) sq. units
Ratio of Total surface area = \(4 \pi r_{1}^{2}: 3 \pi r_{2}^{2}\)
1 = \(\frac{4 \pi r_{1}^{2}}{3 \pi r_{2}^{2}}\) (Same Surface Area)
1 = \(\frac{4 r_{1}^{2}}{3 r_{2}^{2}}\)

Ratio of their volumes = 3√3 : 4
Hence it is proved.

Question 9.
The outer and the inner surface areas of a spherical copper shell are 576π cm² and 324π cm² respectively. Find the volume of the material required to make the shell.
Answer:
Outer surface area of a spherical shell = 576π cm²
4πR² = 576π
4 × R² = 576
R² = \(\frac{576}{4}\) = 144
R = √144 = 12 cm
Inner surface area of a spherical shell = 324π cm²
4πr² = 324π
4r² = 324
r² = 81
r = √81 = 9
Volume of the material required = Volume of the hollow hemisphere = \(\frac{4}{3}\) π(R³ – r³) cm³

Volume of the material required = 4186.29 cm³

Question 10.
A container open at the top is in the form of a frustum of a cone of height 16 cm with radii of its lower and upper ends are 8 cm and 20 cm respectively. Find the cost of milk which can completely fill a container at the rate of ₹ 40 per litre.
Answer:
Height of the frustrum (h) = 16 cm
Radius of the upper part (R) = 20 cm
Radius of the lower part (r) = 8 cm
Volume of the frustum

Cost of milk in the container = 10.459 × 40 = ₹ 418.36
Cost of the milk = ₹ 418.36

Students can download Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1

Question 1.
The radius and height of a cylinder are in the ratio 5 : 7 and its curved surface area is 5500 sq.cm. Find its radius and height.
Answer:
Let the radius be 5x and the height be 7x
C.S.A of a cylinder = 5500 sq.cm.
2πrh = 5500
2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 5x × 7x = 5500
2 × 22 × 5 × x² = 5500
x² = \(\frac{5500}{2 \times 22 \times 5}\)
x² = 25 cm
x = 5 cm
Radius of the cylinder = 5 × 5 = 25 cm
Height of the cylinder = 7 × 5 = 35 cm

Question 2.
A solid iron cylinder has total surface area of 1848 sq.m. Its curved surface area is five-sixth of its total surface area. Find the radius and height of the iron cylinder.
Answer:
T.S.A of the cylinder =1848 sq.cm
2πr(h + r) = 1848 ……. (1)
Curved surface area = \(\frac{5}{6}\) × 1848 sq.cm
2πrh = 5 × 308
2πrh = 1540 sq.m ……… (2)
Substitute the value of2πrh in (1)
2πr(h + r) = 1848
2πrh + 2πr² = 1848
1540 + 2πr² = 1848
2πr² = 1848 – 1540
2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × r² = 308
r² = \(\frac{308 \times 7}{2 \times 22}\) = 49
r = 7
Radius of the cylinder = 7m
2πrh = 1540
2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 7 × h = 1540
h = \(\frac{1540}{2 \times 22}\) = 35 m
Radius of the cylinder = 7 m
Height of the cylinder = 35 m

Question 3.
The external radius and the length of a hollow wooden log are 16 cm and 13 cm respectively. If its thickness is 4 cm then find its T.S.A.
Answer:
External radius of the wooden log (R) = 16 cm
Thickness = 4 cm
Internal radius (r) = 16 – 4 = 12 cm
Length of the wooden log (h) = 13 cm
T.S.A of the hollow cylinder = 2π (R + r) (R – r + h) sq.cm
= 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × (16 + 12) (16 – 12 + 13) sq.cm
= 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 28 × 17 sq.cm
= 2 × 22 × 4 × 17 sq.cm.
= 2992 sq.cm.
T.S.A of the hollow wooden = 2992 sq.cm.

Question 4.
A right angled triangle PQR where ∠Q = 90° is rotated about QR and PQ. If QR = 16 cm and PR = 20 cm, compare the curved surface areas of the right circular cones so formed by the triangle.
Answer:

In the Right Triangle
QP² = PR² – QR²= 20² – 16² = 400 – 256 = 144
QP = √144 = 12 cm
When PQ is rotated r = 12, l = 20
C.S.A of the cone = πrl sq. units = π × 12 × 20 cm² = 240π cm²
When QR is rotated r = 16, l = 20
C.S.A of the cone = nrl sq. units = π × 16 × 20 = 320π cm²
C.S.A. of a cone when rotated about QR is larger.

Question 5.
4 persons live in a conical tent whose slant height is 19 cm. If each person requires 22 cm² of the floor area, then find the height of the tent.
Answer:
Slant height of a cone (r) = 19 cm
Floor area for 4 persons = 4 × 22 cm²
πr² = 88 cm

Height of the tent = 18.25 cm

Question 6.
A girl wishes to prepare birthday caps in the form of right circular cones for her birthday party, using a sheet of paper whose area is 5720 cm², how many caps can be made with radius 5 cm and height 12 cm.
Answer:
Radius of a cap (r) = 5 cm

Question 7.
The ratio of the radii of two right circular cones of the same height is 1 : 3. Find the ratio of their curved surface area when the height of each cone is 3 times the radius of the smaller cone.
Answer:
Let the radius of the first cone be ‘x’ and the Height of the cone be 3x

Question 8.
The radius of a sphere increases by 25%. Find the percentage increase in its surface area.
Answer:
Let the radius of the be “r”
Surface area of the sphere = 4πr² sq.units …….. (1)
If the radius is increased by 25%



Percentage of increase in surface area = 56.25 %

Question 9.
The internal and external diameters of a hollow hemispherical vessel are 20 cm and 28 cm respectively. Find the cost to paint the vessel all over at ₹ 0.14 per cm².
Answer:

Question 10.
The frustum shaped outer portion of the table lamp has to be painted including the top part. Find the total cost of painting the lamp if the cost of painting 1 sq.cm is ₹ 2.

Answer:
The slant height of the frustum (l)


Cost of painting = ₹ 678.86 × 2 = ₹ 1357.72

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 23 Visual Communication Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 23 Visual Communication

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Visual Communication Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
Which software is used to create animation?
(a) Paint
(b) PDF
(c) MS Word
(d) Scratch
Answer:
(d) Scratch

Question 2.
All files are stored in the _______.
(a) folder
(b) box
(c) pai
(d) scanner.
Answer:
(a) folder

Question 3.
Which is used to build scripts?
(a) Script area
(b) Block palette
(c) Stage
(d) Sprite
Answer:
(a) Script area

Question 4.
Which is used to edit programs?
(a) Inkscape
(b) Script editor
(c) Stage
(d) Sprite.
Answer:
(b) Script editor

Question 5.
Where you will create category of blocks?
(a) Block palette
(b) Block menu
(c) Script area
(d) sprite
Answer:
(b) Block menu

II. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

III. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is Scratch?
Answer:
Scratch is a software used to create animations, cartoons and games easily. Scratch, on the other hand, is a visual programming language.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the editor and its types.
Answer:
Editors or text Editors are software programs that enable the user to create and edit text files Editors are generally classified into 5 types as,

1. Line Editor [Ex: teco]
2. Stream Editor [Ex: Sed]
3. Screen Editor [Ex: Notepad]
4. Word processors [Ex: MS – word]
5. Structure Editor [Ex: Netbeans IDE].

Question 3.
What is stage?
Answer:
Stage is the background appearing when we open the scratch window. The background will most often be white. You can change the background colour as you like.

Question 4.
What is Sprite?
Answer:
The characters on the background of a Scratch window are known as Sprite. Usually, a cat appears as a sprite when the Scratch window is opened. The software provides facilities to make alternations in the sprite.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Visual Communication Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
The output we get from any application is commonly referred as
(a) file
(b) data
(c) record
(d) folder
Answer:
(a) file

Question 2.
_______ is used to choose the block to use.
(a) Script area
(b) Block palette
(c) Block menu
(d) Sprite.
Answer:
(b) Block palette

Question 3.
Which app is used, we can draw and edit pictures?
(a) My computer
(b) Notepad
(c) Paint
(d) Games
Answer:
(c) Paint

Question 4.
Choose the odd one from the following _______.
(a) File
(b) Folder
(c) Memory space
(d) Mouse.
Answer:
(d) Mouse.

Question 5.
Write a good example for visual communication.
(a) Picture
(b) Cinema
(c) Radio
(d) FM
Answer:
(b) Cinema

Question 6.
Choose the wrong statement from the following statements _______.
(a) The scripts tab contains additional tabs of costumes and sounds.
(b) Block palette is used to choose the block to use.
(c) The right contains additional tabs of costumes and sounds.
(d) Scratch is software.
Answer:
(a) The scripts tab contains additional tabs of costumes and sounds.

Question 7.
Choose the incorrect pair:
(a) Windows – operating system
(b) Visual – Cinema
(c) Costume – editor
(d) Stage – a input device
Answer:
(d) Stage – a input device

Question 8.
Identify which is not a file format _______.
(a) CSS
(b) PSO
(c) PNG
(d) EPS.
Answer:
(b) PSO

Question 9.
Choose the incorrect statement:
(a) More people are using windows operating system.
(b) We can collect our notes in Notepad application.
(c) We can draw pictures in paint application.
(d) A folder is a file name.
Answer:
(d) A folder is a file name.

Question 10.
The start button is present in the ______ corner of the computer.
(a) Center
(b) top
(c) left
(d) right.
Answer:
(c) left

Question 11.
Assertion (A) : Pictures and audio-visuals gives us more understanding than teaching and writing on the black board.
Reason (R) : The device which helps in explaining the concepts easily through pictures is known as visual communication device.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation assertion.

Question 12.
Pick the odd one out:
(a) LINUX
(b) Paint
(c) Spread sheet
(d) PPTs
Answer:
(a) LINUX

II. Match the following:

Answer:
A – (iii)
B – (i)
C – (iv)
D – (ii)

III. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is the reason, we prefer computer?
Answer:
The reason, we prefer computer is its speed and the ability to store data.

Question 2.
What is a folder?
Answer:
A folder is a storage space that contains multiple files. We can create files as per the user’s need.

Question 3.
What is a file?
Answer:
The output we get from any application is commonly referred as file.
Therefore, the application for the specific purposes determines the nature of the file.

Question 4.
Name the different parts of Scratch Editor?
Answer:

• Stage
• Sprite
• Script Editor / Costume Editor.

Question 5.
Explain the using script editor?
Answer:
Script editor / costume editor: Where you edit your programs or your sprite’s pictures.
You should see a single window with at least the following three panes: the stage (top left), the Sprite List (bottom left), and the Scripts tab (right), which contains the Blocks tab and the Scripts Area. The right pane also contains two additional tabs, Costumes and Sounds.
The script editor has three main parts:

1. Script area: Where you build scripts.
2. Block menu: Where you choose the category of blocks (programming statements) to use.
3. Block palette: Where your choose the block to use.

Question 6.
Write a note on Script editor.
Answer:
Script editor/costume editor: Where you edit your programs or your sprite’s pictures. You should see a single window with at least the following three panes: the Stage (top left), the Sprite List (bottom left), and the Scripts tab (right), which contains the Blocks tab and the Scripts Area. The right pane also contains two additional tabs, Costumes and Sounds.

Students can download 10th Social Science Economics Chapter 1 Gross Domestic Product and its Growth: an Introduction Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 1 Gross Domestic Product and its Growth: an Introduction

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Gross Domestic Product and its Growth: an Introduction Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
GNP equals:
(a) NNP adjusted for inflation
(b) GDP adjusted for inflation
(c) GDP plus net factor income from abroad
(d) NNP plus net property income or abroad
Answer:
(c) GDP plus net factor income from abroad

Question 2.
National Income is a measure of ……………
(a) Total value of money
(b) Total value of producer goods
(c) Total value of consumption goods
(d) Total value of goods and services
Answer:
(d) Total value of goods and services

Question 3.
Primary sector consist of:
(a) Agriculture
(b) Automobiles
(c) Trade
(d) Banking
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Question 4.
……………… approach is the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of the final good.
(a) Expenditure approach
(b) Value-added approach
(c) income approach
(d) National Income
Answer:
(b) Value-added approach

Question 5.
Which one sector is highest employment in the GDP?
(a) Agricultural sector
(b) Industrial sector
(c) Service sector
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Agricultural sector

Question 6.
Gross value added at current prices for services sector is estimated at …………… lakh crore in 2018-19.
(a) 91.06
(b) 92.26
(c) 80.07
(d) 98.29
Answer:
(b) 92.26

Question 7.
India is ……………. largest producer in agricultural product.
(a) 1^st
(b) 3^rd
(c) 4^th
(d) 2^nd
Answer:
(d) 2^nd

Question 8.
India’s life expectancy at birth is ………….. years.
(a) 65
(b) 60
(c) 70
(d) 55
Answer:
(a) 65

Question 9.
Which one is a trade policy?
(a) irrigation policy
(b) import and export policy
(c) land-reform policy
(d) wage policy
Answer:
(b) import and export policy

Question 10.
Indian economy is ……………
(a) Developing Economy
(b) Emerging Economy
(c) Dual Economy
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………… sector is largest sector in India.
2. GDP is the indicator of ………………… economy.
3. Secondary sector otherwise called as …………………
4. ………………… sector is the growth engine of Indian economy.
5. India is ………………… largest economy of the world.
6. India is ………………… fastest growing nation of the world.
7. ………………… policy envisages rapid industrialization with modernization for attaining rapid economic growth of GDP.

Answers:

1. Service
2. economic health
3. Industrial sector
4. Service
5. 6^th
6. fifth
7. Industrial

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
The rate of saving is low in India for the following reason
(i) Low per capita income.
(ii) Poor performance and less contribution of public sector.
(iii) Poor contribution of household sector.
(iv) Savings potential of the rural sector not tapped fully.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

V. Give Short Answer

Question 1.
Define National income
Answer:
National Income is a measure of the total value of goods and services produced by an economy over a period of time, normally a year. National Income is also known as Gross National Product or GNP or National Dividend.

Question 2.
What is meant by Gross Domestic product?
Answer:
The Gross Domestic product is the market value of all the goods and services produced in the country during a time period.

Question 3.
Write the importance of Gross domestic product.
Answer:
The GDP is one of primary indicators used to measure the health of a country’s economy. It represents the total dollar value of all goods and services produced over a specific time period, often referred to as the size of the economy.

Question 4.
What is Per-Capita Income?
Answer:
Per-Capita Income is an indicator to show the living standard of people in a country. It is obtained by dividing the National Income by the population of a country. It is also called as output per person of an economy.

Question 5.
Define the value added approach with example.
Answer:
In the value added approach, the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of the final goods. Take example of a cup of tea which is a final good. The goods used to produce it are – tea powder, milk and sugar. These things (goods) are ‘intermediate goods’ since they form a part of the final good, i.e., the cup of tea. Each intermediate good the tea powder, milk and sugar, adds value to the final output, the cup of tea.

Question 6.
Name the sectors contribute to the GDP with examples.
Answer:
The three sectors that contribute to the GDP are primary sector (or) Agricultural Sector, Secondary Sector (or) Industrial Sector, Tertiary Sector (or) Service Sector. Eg: Agricultural based allied activities. Farm, fishing

1. Mining and Foresty – Primary sector.
2. Major Industries and small scale Industries – Industrial sector.
3. Transport and Communication, Post and Telegraph, Banking, Education, Entertainment, Health care and Information Technology.

Question 7.
Write the sector wise Indian GDP composition in 2017.
Answer:

Question 8.
What are the factors supporting to develop the Indian economy?
Answer:
Factors supporting to develop the Indian economy :

• A fast growing population of working age.
• India has a strong legal system and many English language speakers
• Wage costs are low here.
• India’s economy has successfully developed highly advanced and attractive clusters of business in the technology space.

Question 9.
Write the name of economic policies in India.
Answer:
Agricultural Policy, Industrial Policy, New Economic Policy, Domestic Trade Policy, International Trade Policy, Employment Policy, Currency and Banking Policy, Fiscal and Monetary policy, Wage Policy, Population policy.

Question 10.
Write a short note:
1) Gross National Happiness (GNH)
2) Human Development Index (HDI)
Answer:
1) Gross National Happiness or GNH is a global indicator of progress, which measures both sustainable economy and social developments, while protecting the environment and culture:

2) The Human Development Index or HDI is a statistic composite index of life expectancy, education and per capita income indicators, which are used to rank countries into four tiers of human development. A country scores a higher HDI when the lifespan is higher, the education level is higher and the gross national income or GNI per capital is higher.

VI. Write in detail answer

Question 1.
Briefly explain various terms associated with measuring of National Income.
Answer:
(i) Gross National Product (GNP): It is the total value of goods and services produced and income received by the domestic residents of a country. It includes profit earned from capital invested abroad.
GNP = C + I + G + (X – M) + NFIA

(ii) Gross Domestic Product (GDP): It is the value of output of goods and service produced by the factors of production within the Geographical boundaries of a country.
GDP = GNP – NFIA

(iii) Net National Product (NNP): It is arrived by deducting Depreciation value from the Gross National Product.
NNP = GNP – Depreciation

(iv) Net Domestic Product ( NDP): It is arrived by deducting the value of depreciation from the Gross Domestic Product.
NDP = GDP – Depreciation

(v) Per-Capita Income: It is obtained by dividing the National Income by the population of a country.
PCI = N.I / population
In the above context,
C – Consumption expenditure
I – Investment expenditure
G – Government expenditure
NFIA – Net Factor Income earned from Abroad
Depreciation – Wear and Tear expenses

(vi) Personal Income: It is the total money income received by all the individual of a country from all possible sources before direct taxes.
PI = NI Corporate Income Taxes – Undistributed Corpo – rate profit – social security Contribution + Transfer payment

(vii) Disposable Income (DI): It means the actual income which can be spent on consumption by the people of the country.
DI = PI – Direct taxes

Question 2.
What are the methods of calculating Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
Methods of calculating Gross Domestic Product or GDP:

1. Expenditure Approach – In this method, the GDP is measured by adding the expenditure on all the final goods and services produced in the country during a specified period.
2. Income Approach – This method looks at GDP from the perspective of the earnings of the men and women who are involved in producing the goods and services.
3. Value-added Approach – In the value – added approach the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of the fiscal good. The sum of the value added by all the intermediate goods used in productions gives us the total value of the final goods produced in the economy.

Question 3.
Write about the composition of GDP in India.
Answer:
The composition of GDP in India include three sectors which are listed as
(i) Agricultural Sector
(ii) Industrial Sector
(iii) Service Sector.

(i) Agricultural Sector: It is also known as primary sector. Agricultural activities, Agricultural based allied activities, cattle farm, fishing, mining, forestry, mining are all included in this sector. Their total production is the pirimary sector contribution to India’s GDP.

(ii) Industrial Sector: It is also known as secondary sector. Production of goods using raw materials in the form of either Small Scale Industries, or Large Scale Industries like Iron and steel, Automobiles etc., are included in this sector. Their total production is the secondary sector contribution to India’s GDP.

(iii) Service Sector: It is also known as Tertiary sector. It includes Government, transport and communications, Scientific Research, Post and telegraph, trade, Banking, Education, Entertainment, Health care and Information Technology’ in this sector. Their total production is the service sector contribution to India’s GDP.

Sector-wise contribution of GDP (2018 – 19)
Agricultural Sector – 14.39 %
Industrial Sector – 31.46%
Sen/ice Sector – 54.15%

Question 4.
Write the differences between the growth and the development.
Answer:

Question 5.
Explain the Developmental path based on GDP and employment.
Answer:
Developmental path based on GDP and employment

1. In the development path of India, at first undertook the policy of closed trade. It means that trade and interaction with the outside world remained limited.
2. In 1991, India finally decided to open its borders to free trade and liberalised its economy by allowing foreign companied to enter the Indian economy.
3. A thrust was given to employment generation under the Five Year Plans. Rural development was also given importance in India.
4. The public sector was given significant importance. Private companies and industries were subject to strict regulations and standards. It was believed that the Government was the sole protector of the people and would work towards social welfare.
5. India has sustained rapid growth of GDP for most of the last two decades leading to rising per capita income and a reduction in absolute poverty. Per capital incomes have doubled in 12 years.

Question 6.
Explain the following policies.
Answer:
Agricultural Policy: It means a set of decisions and actions taken by the government relating to domestic agriculture and imports of agricultural products.

The policy mainly focus on the following areas:

(a) Risk Management and Adjustment
(b) Economic Stability
(c) Natural Resources
(d) Environmental Sustainability
(e) Research and Development
(f) Market for domestic agricultural commodities

In general, the agricultural policy includes Price policy, Land Reform policy, Green Revolution, Irrigation policy, Food policy, Labour policy and co operative policy.

Industrial policy: It means a set of decisions taken by the government relating to industrial sector, domestic production, trade, self-sufficiency and modernisation.

The policy mainly focus on the following areas:

1. Employment generation
2. Utilisation of Natural resources
3. Boosting the other sector development
4. Research and Development
5. Modernisation
6. Environmental protection
7. Trade
8. Development of small scale industries.

In general, the Industrial policy include Textile Industry policy, Sugar industry policy, Price policy, Small scale industries policy, Industrial Labour policy.

New Economic Policy: The New Economic Policy was introduced in 1991 which includes LPG. LPG refers to Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation. Therefore the policy is called LPG model.

The main objective of this model was to make the economy of India, the fastest developing economy of the world to become equal to the biggest economies of the world. Definitely, this model had influenced India’s Economic growth and development.

VII. Activity and Project

Question 1.
Students are collect the Gross Domestic Product datas of Tamilnadu and compare the other state of Karnataka and Kerala’s GDP.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala GDP are called SGDP- State Gross Domestic Product. This comparison help us to understand, the performance of each state and comparatively which state has performed better. Given here, is a sample of the activity and students should elaborate it and make it as perfect project.

[For refer Table – 12 CSO – Central Statistical Organisation, New Delhi ]

Question 2.
Students are collect the details of Employment growth of Tamilnadu.
Answer:

1. The Employment Growth of Tamil Nadu refers to the rate of growth of work force or labour force of the state. The students should understand that this can be compared between the two Census (2001 and 2011).
2. The state of TamilNadu total population grew from 62.41 million in 2001 to 72.15 million in 2011.
3. Between these two Censuses, the total number of workers in the slate increased by 1.18% that is from 27.88 million to 32.88 million.
4. Among the districts work participation is the lowest at 36.3% in Kanyakumari despite the fact it has high literacy level. It is nigh in Erode with 53.1% as per 2011 Census.
5. Taking the above given sample information, students should, do activity considering the labour force participation men. women ratio scpaiaiciy.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Gross Domestic Product and its Growth: an Introduction Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
‘Your mother is cooking’- In this statement, cooking is …………………
(a) Good
(b) Service
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Service

Question 2.
‘Economic growth is one aspect of economic development’. Who said it?
(a) Amarthya Sen
(b) Manmohan Singh
(c) Mehabub ul Haq
(d) Ramachandra Guha
Answer:
(a) Amarthya Sen

Question 3.
Goods and Service has a market …………………
(a) value
(b) price
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) to fix a price
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not an example of tertiary sector?
(a) Communication
(b) Banking
(c) Transport
(d) Forestry
Answer:
(d) Forestry

Question 5.
The intermediate Goods value are indirectly included in the measurement of …………………
(a) GDP
(b) GNP
(c) SGDP
(d) NDP
Answer:
(a) GDP

Question 6.
GDP of a country can be calculated by ……………..
(a) 2 Approach
(b) 3 Approach
(c) 4 Approach
Answer:
(b) 3 Approach

Question 7.
The ………………… value is derived from the price at which the Goods and Services are sold in the market.
(a) currency
(b) frequency
(c) Nation’s
(d) Trade
Answer:
(a) currency

Question 8.
National Income is otherwise called as ……………..
(a) Real Income
(b) Money Income
(c) Gross National Product
Answer:
(c) Gross National Product

Question 9.
Imagine your father knows book binding technique and after you get new books for this year, he bounded and gave you. Whether binding charges are included on the GDP?
(a) Included
(b) Partially Included
(c) Not included
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) Not included

Question 10.
The method by which we arrive at National Income in India is …………..
(a) Product method
(b) Expenditure method
(c) Product and Income method
Answer:
(c) Product and Income method

Question 11.
If the ………………… goods are included in the GDP, it will result in Double counting.
(a) Final
(b) Intermediate
(c) Import
(d) Export
Answer:
(b) Intermediate

Question 12.
Commonly, National Income is called as …………………
(a) GNP
(b) GDP
(c) NNP
(d) PCI
Answer:
(a) GNP

Question 13.
………………… is also called as National Dividend.
(a) GNP
(b) GDP
(c) NNP
(d) NFIA
Answer:
(a) GNP

Question 14.
GNP ………………… net factor from abroad.
(a) Excludes
(b) includes
(c) Sums up
(d) (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) (a) and (c)

Question 15.
GDP ………………… net factor income from abroad.
(a) Excludes
(b) includes
(c) Sums up
(d) (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Excludes

Question 16.
GNP minus depreciation gives …………………
(a) NDP
(b) NNP
(c) GDP
(d) NFIA
Answer:
(b) NNP

Question 17.
NDP is the value of depreciation excluded from …………………
(a) GDP
(b) NNP
(c) NFIA
(d) (X-M)
Answer:
(a) GDP

Question 18.
………………… denotes the standard of living of the people.
(a) NNP
(b) NDP
(c) PCI
(d) NFIA
Answer:
(c) PCI

Question 19.
………………… represents all sources of income excluding direct taxes.
(a) GNP
(b) PCI
(c) PI
(d) DI
Answer:
(c) PI

Question 20.
Personal income minus direct taxes will give …………………
(a) DI
(b) DPI
(c) PI
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

Question 21.
The quarterly GDP estimates for the ………………… quarter includes months January, February and March.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
Answer:
(d) fourth

Question 22.
The quarterly GDP estimates of the month July, August and September includes ………………… quarter.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
Answer:
(b) second

Question 23.
The first quarter of the GDP estimates includes the months …………………
(a) Jan, Feb, March
(b) July, Aug, Sep
(c) April, May, June
(d) Oct, Nov, Dec.
Answer:
(c) April, May, June

Question 24.
October, November, December, months are included in ………………… quarter estimates of GDP.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
Answer:
(c) third

Question 25.
The modern concept of GDP was first developed by Simon Kuznets in the year …………………
(a) 1930
(b) 1932
(c) 1933
(d) 1934
Answer:
(d) 1934

Question 26.
There are ………………… methods to calculate GDP.
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 1
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 27.
The prices paid to the factors of production are included in the ………………… approach
(a) Income
(b) Expenditure
(c) Value added
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Income

Question 28.
………………… helps in the estimation of purchasing power.
(a) GNP
(b) GDP
(c) NDP
(d) NNP
Answer:
(b) GDP

Question 29.
Adding up all the expenditures incurred in a country during a specific period of time is called ………………… method.
(a) Income
(b) Expenditure
(c) Value added
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Expenditure

Question 30.
GDP measures only the quantity but not …………………
(a) quality
(b) price
(c) market value
(d) trade
Answer:
(a) quality

Question 31.
There are ………………… sectors in an economy.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(c) three

Question 32.
India is the ………………… largest producer of agricultural products.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
Answer:
(b) second

Question 33.
Amartya Sen is an ………………… Economist.
(a) American
(b) Australian
(c) Indian
(d) Pakistani
Answer:
(c) Indian

Question 34.
The key parameters of economic growth of an economy are its GDP and ………………… which helps in measuring the actual size of the economy.
(a) GNP
(b) NFIA
(c) Depreciation
(d) PCI
Answer:
(a) GNP

Question 35.
The GDP of India is ………………… million United States dollars.
(a) 19.3
(b) 2.8
(c) 3.6
(d) 7.8
Answer:
(b) 2.8

Question 36.
The GDP of United States is ………………… million.
(a) 19.3
(b) 2.8
(c) 3.6
(d) 7.9
Answer:
(a) 19.3

Question 37.
India is ranked ………………… in Globe as regard to GDP.
(a) fourth
(b) fifth
(c) sixth
(d) third
Answer:
(c) sixth

Question 38.
United States is ranked ………………… in Globe as regard to GDP.
(a) third
(b) fourth
(c) second
(d) first
Answer:
(d) first

Question 39.
Economic Growth is ………………… in nature.
(a) quantitative
(b) qualitative
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) peculiar
Answer:
(a) quantitative

Question 40.
Economic ………………… is a broader concept.
(a) Development
(b) Growth
(c) Project
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Development

Question 41.
………………… helps to measure the real development of an economy.
(a) GDP
(b) HDI
(c) GNHI
(d) NNP
Answer:
(b) HDI

Question 42.
The concept of Economic development is mainly applicable to ………………… economies.
(a) Developed
(b) Developing
(c) Under developed
(d) Less developed
Answer:
(b) Developing

Question 43.
The concept of Economic Growth is mainly applicable to ………………… economies.
(a) Developed
(b) Developing
(c) Less developed
(d) Under developed
Answer:
(a) Developed

Question 44.
The concept of Human Development Index was put forward by …………………
(a) Amartya Sen
(b) Mahbub-ul-Haq
(c) Wangehuck
(d) Simon Kuznets
Answer:
(b) Mahbub-ul-Haq

Question 45.
The concept of HDI was first introduced at the …………………
(a) United Nations
(b) United Stated
(c) United Kingdom
(d) UAE
Answer:
(a) United Nations

Question 46.
The concept of HDI was introduced in the year
(a) 1960
(b) 1970
(c) 1990
(d) 1980
Answer:
(c) 1990

Question 47.
India lies in ………………… Human Development Index Category.
(a) High
(b) Low
(c) Medium
(d) Very Low
Answer:
(c) Medium

Question 48.
India’s HDI value for 2017 is …………………
(a) 0.001
(b) 0.540
(c) 0.640
(d) 0.340
Answer:
(c) 0.640

Question 49.
When a country’s HDI increases, it removes the country from …………………
(a) Development
(b) Poverty
(c) Trade disputes
(d) Stagnation
Answer:
(b) Poverty

Question 50.
GNHI is a philosophy that guides the government of …………………
(a) America
(b) Nepal
(c) Bhutan
(d) India
Answer:
(c) Bhutan

Question 51.
Co-operative policy is a part of ………………… policy.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) NEP
(d) Wage
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Question 52.
The city ………………… has emerged as a hub for global software business today.
(a) Chennai
(b) Mumbai
(c) Bangalore
(d) Calcutta
Answer:
(c) Bangalore

Question 53.
The structural reforms brought in India recently are …………………
(a) GST
(b) Demonetisation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 54.
The measure of the value of goods and services produced in an area, industry (or) sector of the economy is called …………………
(a) GDP
(b) GNP
(c) GVA
(d) NDP
Answer:
(c) GVA

Question 55.
According to IMF, India is ………………… fastest growing nation of the World.
(a) 3^rd
(b) 2^nd
(c) 4^th
(d) 5^th
Answer:
(d) 5^th

II. Fill in the blanks

1. In order to know the performance of India, one should know the ………………. of our country.
2. Goods are difference from ……………….
3. Services are ……………….
4. The GDP is the ………………. value of final goods and services produced in the country.
5. The price at which the goods are sold in the market is called ……………….
6. The GDP is measured in terms of ………………. value of our country.
7. “The final goods and services will not be a part of other goods and Services”, said by ……………….
8. The goods that are used in the production of other goods are called as ………………. goods.
9. If the intermediate goods are included in the GDP, then it will result in ……………….
10. Commonly National Income is called as ……………….
11. National Income (or) GNP is also called as ……………….
12. Profits earned from abroad is ………………. with GDP to get GNP.
13. If the total value of goods and services are calculated within the geographical boundary of a country it is called
14. The process of loosing the value of anything is called as ……………….
15. The Income of individuals from all sources before payment of taxes is called as ……………….
16. Personal income minus Direct taxes will give ……………….
17. ………………. used the term Per Capita Income for the first time in 1867-68.
18. ………………. is the name of the book written by Dadabhai Navroji.
19. GDP minus depreciation gives ……………….
20. GNP minus depreciation gives ……………….
21. ………………. is the indicator of standard of living of people in a country.
22. The formulae to calculate PCI is ……………….
23. The cost of saree brought by your brother to your mother ………………. from China will be from India’s GDP.
24. My uncle sends money to his family in India from Dubai. It is included in India’s ……………….
25. GDP is measured both annually and ……………….
26. There are ………………. quarters with which GDP is measured.
27. January, February, March refers to the ………………. quarter of the measurement of GDP.
28. April to June measured as the ………………. quarter in measurement of GDP.
29. The path of development of India in recent years is moving from agricultural sector to ………………. sector.
30. Wage costs are ………………. in India.
31. GNHf is a philosophy instituted as the goal of government of ……………….
32. India is now experiencing a period of ……………….
33. As per HDI, India is in the ………………. human development category.
34. In ………………. India, opened up to free trade policy.
35. Economic development is a ………………. preocess.
36. In India, ………………. city is considered as a hub for global software businesses.
37. The new model of economic reforms put forward in 1991 by India is called as ………………. model.
38. According to IMF, GDP growth rate of India in 2018 is projected at ……………….
39. According to World economic outlook, India is ………………. fastest growing nation of the World.
40. According to IMF World Economic Outlook ………………. is in the rank as a fastest growing nation of the world.

Answers:

1. GDP
2. Services
3. Intangible
4. Market
5. Market value
6. Rupee
7. Tyler Cowen and Alex Tabarrok
8. Intermediate
9. Double counting
10. Gross National Product
11. National Dividend
12. Included
13. GDP
14. Depreciation
15. Personal income
16. Disposable income
17. Dadabhai Navroji
18. Poverty and Unemployment
19. NDP
20. NNP
21. Per Capita Income
22. N.I. / population
23. Excluded
24. GNP
25. Quarterly
26. Four
27. Fourth
28. First
29. Service
30. Low
31. Bhutan
32. Demographic transition
33. Medium
34. 1991
35. Continuous
36. Bangalore
37. LPG
38. 7.3%
39. Fifth
40. Bangladesh

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Only the final goods are included in the GDP.
(ii) If the value of the Intermediate goods are included,, it will result in double counting,
(iii) The rupee values are desired from the prices at which the goods and services are sold in the market.
(iv) There is no sensible way to add the quantities of goods produced with those of the services produced.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Personal income minus direct taxes gives the disposable income.
(ii) GDP of India includes the market value of all the goods and services produced in the global level.
(iii) Disposable Income minus Transfer payments plus subsidies gives personal income.
(iv) The Quantum of wear and tear expenses are called Depreciation.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) income methods sums up all forms of income earned by individuals who are involved in the production of goods and services.
(ii) There are several methods to calculate National income or GDP.
(iii) The Modern concept of GDP was first developed by Simon Kuznets in 1934.
(iv) The annual GDP of financial year 2017-18 will include only the goods and services produced during that financial year.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct

Question 4.
(i) GDP measures only quantity but not quality.
(ii) CSO conducts annual survey based on Indexes like Index on Industrial Production (llP) and Consumer Price Index (CPl).
(iii) High level of Per Capita real GDP will lead to low level of pollution and low suicidal rate.
(iv) India is the largest producer of agricultural products in the world.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) are correct
(d) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) are correct

Question 5.
(i) Economic Growth is one aspect of Economic Development-Said by Economist Amartya Sen.
(ii) HDl is apt tool to measure the real development in an economy.
(iii) United States of America ranks top in the globe in terms of its GDP.
(iv) Economic development is quantitative in nature.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct

Question 6.
(i) Poverty alleviation came as a corollary of rural development.
(ii) In 2011, The UN Genera! Assembly passed Resolution Happiness towards a Holistic approach to development.
(iii) There are nine domains in GNHI
(iv) There are two structural reforms recently brought in India- demonetisation and Goods and Services Tax.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Economic Development is a broader concept.
Reason (R): It is long-term in nature and includes variables like removal of poverty, Rise in life expectancy rate etc.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.
(b) A is correct and R is not the relevant explanation to A
(c) A is wrong, R is correct.
(d) A is wrong and R is wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): There are two major structural reforms brought in India recently. They are demonetization and Goods and Services Tax.
Reason (R): India economy is the 5th fastest growing nation of the World.
(a) A is correct, and R is the relevant explanation to A.
(b) A is correct and R is not the relevant explanation to A
(c) A is wrong, R is correct.
(d) A and R is wrong.
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is not the relevant explanation to A

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Intermediate goods are not counted in calculating the GDP.
Reason (R): Their value is already included in the final goods.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.
(b) A is correct and R is not the relevant explanation to A
(c) A is wrong, R is correct
(d) A and R is wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Economic Growth is a quantitative measure.
Reason (R): It considers the increase in the output produced in an economy in a particular period of time.
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.
(b) A is correct and R is not the relevant explanation to A
(c) A is wrong, R is correct
(d) A and R is wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the relevant explanation to A.

V. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (vi)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

VI. Give Short Answer

Question 1.
What is Gross Value Added?
Answer:
Gross Value Added or GVA is the measure of the value of goods and services produced in an area, industry of sector of an economy. In national accounts GVA is output minus intermediate consumption; it is a balancing item of the national accounts’ production account.

Question 2.
Distinguish between goods and services.
Answer:

Goods	Services
Goods are tangible	Services are intangible
Goods can be separated from its owner	Services cannot be separated from its owner
Eg: Table, chair, Apple etc.,	Service of a teacher, Lawyer, cook in a hotel etc.,
Goods are products	Services are activities

Question 3.
In what two ways is the GDP measured in India?
Answer:
In India GDP is measured both annualy and quarterly. The annual GDP is for a financial year which is from April 1 of one year, for example 2017 to March 31 of the next year, for example 2018.
This is written as 2017-18.
The quarterly GDP estimates are for each of the four quarters into which India’s financial year is divided.
First quarter, denoted Q1 : April, May and June .
Second Quarter – Q2 : July, August and September
Third Quarter – Q3 : October, November and December
Fourth Quarter – Q4 : January, February and March

Question 4.
What is meant by Intermediate good? Give example.
Answer:
The goods which will be used for the production of other goods are called Intermediate goods. Eg: Sugar.

Question 5.
How do you arrive at NNP?
Answer:
We arrive at the NNP by deducting the value of depreciation from Gross National Products. NNP = GNP (-) Depreciation.

Question 6.
What is meant by GVA?
Answer:
Gross Value Added is called as GVA. It is the measure of the value of goods and services produced in an area (or) sector of an economy.
GVA = GDP + Subsidies – Taxes.

Question 7.
Give examples for tertiary sector.
Answer:
Tertiary sector include Trade, Hotel industry, Transport, Storage, Communication, Finance, Insurance, Real estate, Social services, Postal and Telegraph, Banking, Education, Entertainment, Health care and Information Technology, etc.

Question 8.
What is the financial year of India?
Answer:
The financial year is the year of the calculation of GDP. In India it starts from April 1^st and ends on March 31^st.

Question 9.
What is Depreciation?
Answer:
Decline in the value of capital assets (machineries) due to tear and wear is measured as depreciation.

Question 10.
Write few parameters to measure economic growth?
Answer:
Human Resources, Natural Resources, Advancement in technology, Capital formation, Political and social economic factors are few parameters to measure economic growth.

Question 11.
What is Disposable Income (DI)?
Answer:
Disposable Income means actual income which can be spent on consumption by individuals and families, thus, it can be expressed as DPI = PI – Direct Taxes.

VII. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the limitations of GDP.
Answer:
(i) Non – Marketed items are left out of GDP: GDP includes only the goods and services that are sold in the market, Non-Marketed items are not included. Eg: Services provided by parents to their children, clean air has no market value (or) price. Hence it is left out of GDP.

(ii) GDP measures only quantity not quality: At times, we can see some products which are available at large quantities in the product, at a very low price. Only the quantity sold and its price is measured in GDP. Quality of the product is not taken care of.

(iii) Income Distribution: The GDP of a country may be growing rapidly. But income may not be distributed equally. This brings a lot of unequal distribution of income and wealth. GDP actually do not suggest on income distribution.

(iv) Way of life of the people: A high level of Per-Capita real GDP, may lead to a very low health condition of the people, an undemocratic political system, High pollution, High suicidal rate.

Question 2.
How are three sectors of an economy are interdependent?
Answer:
There are many activities that are undertaken by directly using natural resources, it is an activity of the primary sector.
The secondary sector covers activity in which the natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity. It is the next step after primary.

The third category of activities falls under tertiary sector. These activities help in the development of the primary- and secondaiy sectors. These activities by themselves, do not produce goods but they are an aid or a support for the production process, for example, transport and communication, etc.

Thus, we can clearly say tiiat the three sectors of an economy are highly interdependent.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Casparian strips are present in of the root.
(a) cortex
(b) pith
(c) pericycle
(d) endodermis
Answer:
(d) endodermis

Question 2.
The endarch condition is the characteristic feature of ______.
(a) root
(b) stem
(c) leaves
(d) flower.
Answer:
(b) stem

Question 3.
The xylem and phloem arranged side by side on same radius is called:
(a) radial
(b) amphivasal
(c) conjoint
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) conjoint

Question 4.
Which is formed during anaerobic respiration:
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Acetyl CoA
(d) Pyruvate
Answer:
(b) Ethyl alcohol

Question 5.
Kreb’s cycle takes place in ______.
(a) chloroplast
(b) mitochondrial matrix
(с) stomata
(d) inner mitochondrial membrane.
Answer:
(b) mitochondrial matrix

Question 6.
Oxygen is produced at what point during photosynthesis?
(a) when ATP is converted to ADP
(b) when CO₂ is fixed
(c) when H₂O is splitted
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Cortex lies between ……….
2. Xylem and phloem occur on the same radius constitute a vascular bundle called ………..
3. Glycolysis takes place in ………..
4. The source of O₂ liberated in photosynthesis is ……….
5. …….. is the ATP factory of the cells.

Answer:

1. epidermis and Pericycle
2. conjoint bundles
3. cytoplasm
4. splitting of Water molecules
5. Mitochondria

III. State whether the statements are true or false. Correct the false statement.

1. Phloem tissue is involved in the transport of water in plants.
2. The waxy protective covering of a plant is called as the cuticle.
3. In monocot, stem cambium is present in between xylem and phloem.
4. Palisade parenchyma cells occur below the upper epidermis in the dicot root.
5. Mesophyll contains chlorophyll.
6. Anaerobic respiration produces more ATP than aerobic respiration.

Answer:

1. False – Phloem tissue is involved in the transport of food in plants.
2. True
3. False – In monocot stem cambium is absent.
4. True
5. True
6. False – Aerobic respiration produces more ATP than anaerobic respiration.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

V. Answer in a sentence:

Question 1.
What is the collateral vascular bundle?
Answer:
If xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged along the same radius with phloem towards the outside, such vascular bundle is called a collateral vascular bundle.

Question 2.
Where does the carbon that is used in photosynthesis come from?
Answer:
The carbon that is used in photosynthesis comes from CO₂ from the air.

Question 3.
What is the common step in aerobic and anaerobic pathway?
Answer:
Glycolysis is the common step in aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

Question 4.
Name the phenomenon by which carbohydrates are oxidized to release ethyl alcohol.
Answer:
Alcohol fermentation.

VI. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
Give an account on vascular bundle of dicot stem.
Answer:
Vascular bundles of dicot stem are conjoint (xylem and phloem lies in the same radius) collateral (xylem is the centre and phloem lies towards periphery) endarch (proto xylem in the centre, Meta xylem lies in the periphery) and open (cambium present in between xylem and phloem: They are arranged in the form of ring around the pith.

Question 2.
Write a short note on mesophyll.
Answer:
In Dicot leaf, the tissue present between the upper and lower epidermis is called mesophyll. It is differentiated into

1. Palisade Parenchyma: They are found below the epidermis and are elongated. They have a number of chloroplasts and can take part in photosynthesis. The cells do not have intercellular spaces.
2. Spongy Parenchyma: They are found below the palisade parenchyma tissue. Cells are spherical or oval and are irregularly arranged. Cells have intercellular spaces and help in gaseous exchange.

In monocot leaves, mesophyll is present between both upper and lower epidermal layer. The cells are irregularly arranged with intercellular spaces. Mesophyll cells contain chloroplasts, to take part in photosynthesis.

Question 3.
Draw and label the structure of oxysomes.
Answer:

Question 4.
Name the three basic – tissues systems in flowering plants.
Answer:
The three basic tissue system in flowering plants are:

• Dermal or epidermal tissue system.
• Ground tissue system.
• Vascular tissue system.

Question 5.
What is photosynthesis and where in a cell does it occur?
Answer:
Photosynthesis is a process by which autotrophic organisms (green plants, algae and chlorophyll containing bacteria) utilize the energy from sunlight to synthesize their own food. It occur in the chloroplast of the cell.

Question 6.
What is respiratory quotient?
Answer:
Respiratory quotient is the ratio of volume of carbon dioxide liberated and the volume of oxygen consumed during respiration. It is expressed as

Question 7.
Why should the light – dependent reaction occur before the light-independent reaction?
Answer:
In light – dependent photosynthesis, the photosynthetic pigment absorbs the light energy and convert it into chemical energy, ATP and NADPH₂. These products move out from grana to the stroma of the chloroplast for the light-independent reactions (Dark reaction or Biosynthetic pathway). During this reaction, CO₂ is reduced in the carbohydrates with the help of light generated ATP and NADPH₂. So the light-dependent reaction should occur before the light-independent reaction.

Question 8.
Write the reaction for photosynthesis.
Answer:
The overall reaction for photosynthesis.

VII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Differentiate the following:
(a) Monocot root and Dicot root
Answer:

(b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration
Answer:

Question 2.
Describe and name three stages of cellular respiration that aerobic organisms use to obtain energy from glucose.
Answer:
The name and the three stages of cellular respiration.

• Glycolysis: (Glucose splitting): Glycolysis is the break down of one molecule of Glucose (6 Carbon) into two molecules of Pyruvic acid (3 Carbon). It takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell.
• Kreb’s cycle: This cycle occurs in the mitochondria matrix. At the end of Glycolysis, 2 molecules of pyruvic acid enter into mitochondria. The oxidation of pyruvic acid into CO₂ and H₂O takes place through this cycle. It is also called as Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle. (TCA)
• Electron transport chain: It is a system of Electron Transport Chain (ETC) located on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. NADH₂ and FADH₂ molecules formed during Glycolysis and Krebs cycle are oxidised to NAD+ and FAD+ to release the energy via electrons.

The electrons, as they move through the system, release energy which is trapped by ADP to synthesize ATP. This is called Oxidative Phosphorylation. During this process, oxygen which is the acceptor of electrons gets reduced to water.

Question 3.
How does the light dependent reaction differ from the light independent reaction?
What are the end product and reactants in each? Where does each reaction occur within the chioroplast?
Answer:

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills(HOTS):

Question 1.
The reactions of photosynthesis make up a biochemical pathway.
(a) What are the reactants and products for both light and dark reactions.
Answer:
The reaction of photosynthesis can be grouped into two: Light and Dark reaction.
The reaction involving pigments, solar energy and water that produce ATP and NADPH₂ are called light reaction.
The photosynthetic reactions in which CO₂ is reduced to carbohydrates making use of ATP and NADPH₂ generated by light reaction are called dark reaction.
The overall reaction of photosynthesis can be written as follows:

(b) Explain how the biochemical pathway of photosynthesis recycles many of its own reactions and identify the recycled reactants.
Answer:
Light reaction use light to synthesize ATP and NADPH₂. The calvin cycle uses these reactants to produce sugar from CO₂ molecule.
This cycle then produce NAP + ADP + Pi which is used in light reaction with H₂O molecules to produce ATP and NADPH₂ again.

Question 2.
Where do the light-dependent reaction and the Calvin cycle occur in the chloroplast?
Answer:
The Light-dependent reaction occurs in the Thylakoid membranes (Grana) of the chloroplast. The Light independent reaction occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The root hairs originate from:
(a) trichoblast
(b) endodermis
(c) hypodermis
(d) pericycle
Answer:
(a) trichoblast

Question 2.
Sachs classified tissue system in plants into _____.
(a) five types
(b) two types
(c) three types
(d) four types.
Answer:
(c) three types

Question 3.
The innermost layer of the cortex is:
(a) epidermis
(b) hypodermis
(c) endodermis
(d) pericycle
Answer:
(c) endodermis

Question 4.
The powerhouse of the cell or ATP factory of the cells _____.
(a) Plastids
(b) Vacuoles
(c) Nucleus
(d) Mitochondria.
Answer:
(d) Mitochondria.

Question 5.
The vascular bundle with protoxylem facing centre of the stem is:
(a) exarch
(b) endarch
(c) tetrarch
(d) polyarch
Answer:
(b) endarch

Question 6.
This is the first step of both Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration _____.
(a) Electron transport chain
(b) Respiratory Quotient
(c) Glycolysis
(d) Kreb’s Cycle.
Answer:
(c) Glycolysis

Question 7.
The vascular bundle in the leaf is:
(a) collateral and open
(b) collateral and closed
(c) bicollateral and open
(d) collateral and exarch
Answer:
(b) collateral and closed

Question 8.
Photosynthesis takes place in:
(a) mitochondria
(b) peroxisomes
(c) chloroplast
(d) ribosomes
Answer:
(c) chloroplast

Question 9.
The dark reaction of photosynthesis were discovered by:
(a) Embden and Meyer
(b) Melvin and Calvin
(c) Kreb
(d) Pamas
Answer:
(b) Melvin and Calvin

Question 10.
………. is the organelle of cell respiration.
(a) mitochondria
(b) chloroplast
(c) plastids
(d) cell wall
Answer:
(a) mitochondria

Question 11.
The hypodermis of monocot stem consists of:
(a) Collenchyma
(b) Sclsrenchyma
(c) Angular collenchyma
(d) Parenchyma
Answer:
(b) Sclsrenchyma

Question 12.
The layer is morphologically homologous to the endodermis found in the root which is:.
(a) periderm
(b) epidermis
(c) starch sheath
(d) mesophyll tissue
Answer:
(c) starch sheath

Question 13.
Pericycle is absent in:
(a) dicot stem
(b) monocot root
(c) dicot root
(d) monocot stem
Answer:
(d) monocot stem

Question 14.
………. is not a characteristic feature of spongy parenchyma.
(a) Gaseous exchange
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Irregular
(d) Closely arranged
Answer:
(d) Closely arranged

Question 15.
Which of the following is not applicable of dicot stem?
(a) wedge shaped
(b) endarch
(c) collateral
(d) closed
Answer:
(d) Closely arranged

II. Application based question:

Question 1.
In the given flow chart different layer of monocot root is shown. What is A and B?

(a) A – Hypodermis, B – Vascular bundle
(b) A – Cortex, B – Vascular bundle
(c) A – Cortex, B – Xylem
(d) A – Hypodermis, B – Xylem
Answer:
(b) A – Cortex, B – Vascular bundle

Question 2.
Casparian strip are characteristic feature of A endodermis and it is made up of B. What is A and B respectively?
(a) shoot, suberin
(b) root, lignin
(c) root, suberin
(d) root and shoot, suberin
Answer:
(c) root, suberin

Question 3.
Which of the following is present in monocot leaves?
A. Bulliform cell
B. Leaf base
C. Bundle sheath
D. Resin gland
E. Water cavity
(a) A, B, C, E
(b) A, B, D, E
(c) A, B, E
(d) A, B, C
Answer:
(d) A, B, C

Question 4.
A vascular bundle in which phloem is on both the sides of the xylem and separated from it by strips of cambium is said to be:
(a) Collateral open
(b) Bicollateral open
(c) Concentric
(d) Bicollateral closed
Answer:
(b) Bicollateral open

Question 5.
Presence of cuticle is a common character of:
A. Monocot stem
B. Dicot stem
C. Monocot root
D. Dicot root
E. Monocot leaf
F. Dicot leaf
(a) A, B, E, F
(b) B, F
(c) A, B, C, D, E, F
(d) A, E, F
Answer:
(a) A, B, E, F

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. ………. is known as “Father of Plant Anatomy”.
2. ……….. are the group of cells that are similar or dissimilar in structure and origin, but perform similar function.
3. Based on the ability to divide, tissues are classified into ……….. and ……… tissue.
4. ………. is the outermost layer.
5. The main function of vascular tissue system are transport of ……….. and ……….
6. Epidermis protects the ……… tissue.
7. ………, ………., ………… and ……….. forms the ground tissue system.
8. Epiblema is also known as ……… or ……….
9. ……….. helps in the movement of water and dissolved salts from cortex into xylem.
10. The tissue present between xylem and phloem is called …………
11. All the tissues inner to endodermis constitute …………
12. The tissue present between the upper and lower epidermis is called …………
13. Reaction centres and the accessory pigments together are called …………
14. Light reaction takes place in ………. membrane of the chloroplast.
15. Kreb cycle is also known as ……….
16. Glycolysis take place in ……… of the cell.
17. Krebs cycle occurs in ……….. matrix.
18. The gas evolved during photosynthesis is ……….
19. The first step in aerobic respiration is ………..
20. Energy currency of cells is ………..
21. Major functions of epiblema is ……….
Answer:
1. Nehemiah Grew
2. Tissues
3. Meristamatic and Permanent
4. Epidermis
5. Water and Food
6. inner
7. Cortex, Endodermis, Pericycle and Pith
8. Rhizodermis or Piliferous layer
9. Casparian strips
10. Conjuctive tissue
11. Stele
12. Hypodermis
13. Photosystems
14. thylakoid
15. Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle (TCA)
16. Cytoplasm
17. Mitochondria
18. Oxygen
19. Glycolysis
20. ATP
21. Protection

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

V. Answer in Sentence:

Question 1.
What are the functions of Epidermis?
Answer:

• The epidermis protects the inner surface.
• Stomata help in transpiration.
• Root hairs help in absorption of water and minerals.

Question 2.
Name the factors which affect photosynthesis.
Answer:
The process of photosynthesis is affected internally by:

1. Pigments
2. Leaf age
3. Accumulation of carbohydrates and
4. Hormones.

The process of photosynthesis is affected externally by:

1. Light
2. CO₂
3. Temperature
4. Water
5. Minerals.

Question 3.
What are Oxysomes?
Answer:
The inner mitochondria membrane bear minute regularly spaced, Tennis racket shaped particles called Oxysomes, which involve in ATP synthesis.

Question 4.
What is Cortex?
Answer:
The region below the epidermis is called cortex. Its main function is to store starch.

Question 5.
What is Pericycle?
Answer:
Pericycle is the outer most layer of stele. It is made of single layer of thin walled cells.

Question 6.
What are the functions of chloroplasts?
Answer:

• Photosynthesis
• Storage of starch
• Synthesis of fatty acids
• Storage of lipids
• Formation of chloroplasts.

Question 7.
Where are passage cell located and write its function?
Answer:
The passage cell is an endodermal cell located opposite to the protoxylem, which are thin wall without casparian strips. The main function of passage cell is entry of water from cortex to xylem.

Question 8.
What is protoxylem lacuna?
Answer:
In mature vascular bundle the lowest proto xylem disintegrates and form a cavity called protoxylem lacuna. Eg: Monocot stem.

Question 9.
Define Kreb’s cycle.
Answer:
The series of cyclic reaction involved in converting pyruvic acid to CO₂ and water in mitochondria is called Kreb’s cycle.

Question 10.
Why mitochondria is called ‘Power house of the cell’?
Answer:
A large number of ATP molecules are produced in the mitochondria, so they are called power house of the cell.

VI. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
Name the three types of plastids.
Answer:

1. Chloroplast: green coloured plastids helps in photosynthesis.
2. Chromoplast: yellow, red, orange coloured plastids, gives colour to flowers and fruits.
3. Leucoplast: colourless plastids, store food.

Question 2.
List out the functions of chloroplast.
Answer:

1. Photosynthesis
2. Storage of starch
3. Synthesis of fatty acids
4. Storage of lipids

Question 3.
What are Concentric bundles? Explain its types.
Answer:
Vascular bundles in which either xylem completely surrounds the phloem or phloem surrounds the xylem is called concentric vascular bundle. It is of two types:

1. Amphivasal: Xylem surrounds phloem. Eg: Dracaena
2. Amphicribral: Phloem surrounds xylem. Eg: Ferns

Question 4.
What are photosynthetic pigment?
Answer:

1. Pigments involved in photosynthesis are called Photosynthetic pigments.
2.  Primary pigment traps solar energy and converts it into electrical and chemical energy. Accessory pigments pass on the absorbed energy to primary pigment.

Question 5.
(a) Differentiate between Palisade parenchyma and spongy parenchyma.
Answer:

(b) Differentiate between Monocot ieaf and Dicot leaf.
Answer:

Question 6.
Define stele.
Answer:
Central Part inner to endodermis is called stele. It includes pericycle and vascular system.

Question 7.
Where respiratory cavity is located?
Answer:
The air space that is found next to the stomata is called respiratory cavity or sub stomatal cavity.

Question 8.
What is an isobilateral leaf? Give an example.
Answer:
In monocot leaf, the mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade parenchyma and spongy parenchyma (i.e., made of only spongy or palisade parenchyma) is called isobilateral leaf.
Eg: Grass (Monocot leaf)

Question 9.
What is dorsiventral leaf? Give an example.
Answer:
In dicot leaf, the mesophyll is differentiated into palisade parenchyma on the upper side and spongy parenchyma on the lower side. A leaf showing this differentiation is mesophyll is designated as dorsiventral. Eg: Dicot leaf.

Question 10.
Define tetrarch xylem.
Answer:
If the number of proto xylem points are four, the xylem is called tetrarch. Eg: Dicot root

Question 11.
What are generally called as accessory pigments?
Answer:
Photosynthetic pigments other than chlorophyll ‘a’ are generally I called accessory pigments. Eg: Chlorophyll ‘A’- Carotenoids and Xanthophyll.

Question 12.
W’rite any three significance of photosynthesis.
Answer:

1. It is the source of all our food and fuel,
2. It drives all other process of biological and a biological world,
3. It is responsible for the growth and sustenance of our biosphere.

Question 13.
What are the functions of epidermal tissue system?
Answer:

1. Epidermis protects the inner tissues.
2. Stomata helps in transpiration.
3. Root hairs help in absorption of water and minerals.

Question 14.
Differentiate between monocot and dicot stem.
Answer:

VII. Long answer questions:

Question 1.
Explain Epidermal tissue system.
Answer:

1. The outer most covering layer of plants.
2. It contains epidermis, stomata and epidermal out growths.
3. Epidermis are interrupted by many minute pores called stomata.
4. Epidermis is covered by cuticle to check evaporation of water.
5. Trichomes and root hairs are some epidermal growths.

Question 2.
Explain the types of Vascular bundle.
Answer:
Xylem and Phloem are present in the form of bundles called vascular bundles.
1. Radial
2. Conjoint
3. Concentric.
1. Radial vascular bundle : Xylem and phloem are arranged in an alternate matter or different radii are called Radial vascular bundle. Eg: roots

2. Conjoint vascular bundle : Xylem and phloem are arranged in the same radius are called conjoint vascular bundle. Divided in two types:
(a) Collateral vascular bundles : Xylem and phloem are arranged in the same radius with phloem towards the outside is called collateral vascular bundles. Eg: stem and leaf.
Collateral vascular bundles are of two types:

• Open collateral vascular bundle: Vascular bundle consists of cambial tissue in between xylem and phloem are called Open collateral vascular bundle. Eg: Dicot stem
• Closed collateral vascular bundle: Cambium is absent in vascular bundle are called Closed collateral vascular bundle. Eg: Monocot stem.

(b) Bicollateral : Phloem occurs on both the outer and inner side of xylem. This vascular bundle is Bicollateral vascular bundle. Eg: Cucurbita.

3. Concentric vascular bundle : The vascular bundle in which either phloem surrounds the xylem or xylem surrounds the phloem completely called Concentric vascular bundles. It is of two types: (a) Amphivasal, (b) Amphicribral.
(a) Amphivasal: The Xylem completely surrounds the phloem. Eg: Dracaena
(b) Amphicribral: The Phloem completely surrounds the xylem. Eg: Ferns

Exarch: Protoxylem vessels are present towards the periphery and meta xylem towards the centre. Eg: Root
Endarch: Protoxylem are present towards the centre and meta xylem towards the periphery. Eg: Stem

Question 3.
Explain the Primary structure of Monocot root.
Answer:
The internal structure of Monocot root has
1. Epiblema/Rhizodermis
2. Cortex
3. Endodermis
4. Stele
1. Epiblema/Rhizodermis:

• Outer most layer of monocot root.
• Made up of single layer of thin walled, paranchymatous cell.
• Root hair helps in absorption of water and minerals.
• Stomata and cuticle are absent.
• Main function is to protect inner tissue.

2. Cortex:

• The region below the epidermis is cortex.
• Made up of only parenchymatous cells with intercellular space.
• It is a multi layer.
• Function is to store water and food material.

3. Endodermis:

• Inner most cortex is called Endodermis.
• It forms a complete ring around the stele with characteristic Casparian strips and Passage cell.
• There is a band like thickening made of suberin in casparian strips.

(iv) Stele:
Central part inner to endodermis is stele.
It contains Pericycle, vascular bundles and pith.
(a) Pericycle:

• Outer most layer of stele made of single layer of tightly arranged Parenchymatous cell.
• Function is to originate lateral root.

(b) Vascular bundles:

• Radial arrangement of vascular tissue.
• Xylem is exarch and polyarch.
• The conjuctive tissue is sclerenchymatous tissue.

(c) Pith:

• Large central part, composed of parenchyma cells with intercellular spaces.
• Function is to store the starch.

Question 4.
Draw the structure of Dicot root.
Answer:

Question 5.
Describe the Primary structure of T.S of Monocot stem.
Answer:
(i) Epidermis:

• Outer most layer of monocot stem.
• Made up of single layer and tightly packed parenchyma cells.
• Outer wall is covered by thick cuticle.
• Few stomata are seen in epidermis.
• Multicellular hairs are absent.

(ii) Hvpodermis:

• The layer below the epidermis is called hypodermis.
• Hypodermis is made up of sclerenchymatous cells.
• It is interrupted by chlorenchyma.

Sclerenchyma provides mechanical support to plant.

(iii) Ground tissue:

• There is no distinction of cortex, endodermis, pericycle and pith.
• Inner to hypodermis parenchyma cell forms the ground tissue.

(iv) Vascular bundles:

• Vascular bundles are scattered in the ground tissue. Each vascular bundle are surrounded by bundle sheath by sclerenchymatous tissue.
• Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral, endarch and closed.
• Xylem contains meta xylem and protoxylem.
• In mature Vascular bundle the lowest protoxylem disintegrates and form a cavity called protoxylem lacuna.
• Phloem contains seive tubes and companion cells.

(v) Pith:

• It is not differentiated in monocot stem.

Question 6.
Write a short note on structure of chloroplast.
Answer:
(i) Chloroplast are the actual site of photosynthesis.
(ii) They are green plastids containing green pigment called chlorophyll.
(iii) It mainly consists of Envelope, Stroma, Thylakoids and Grana.

Envelope : Chloroplast has outer and inner envelope membranes which is seperated by intermembrane space.
Stroma : Matrix present inside to the membrane is called stroma. It contains DNA, 70 S ribosomes and other molecules required for protein synthesis.
Thylakoids : It’s membrane encloses thylakoid lumen. Thylakoids forms a stack of disc like structures called a grana (singular-granum).
Grana : Some of the thylakoids are arranged in the form of discs stacked one above the other. These stacks are termed as grana,they are interconnected to each other by membranous lamellae called Fret channels.

Question 7.
Explain the primary structure of T.S Dicot stem.
Answer:
The internal structure of Dicot stem has
(i) Epidermis :

• Outer most layer of dicot stem made up of tightly packed parenchyma cells.
• Outer wall is covered by thick cuticle which check transpiration.
• Few stomata and multicellular hairs are present in epidermal cells.

(ii) Cortex :
Cortex is differentiated into 3 zones:

• Hypodermis : The layer below the epidermis is called Hypodermis. It is made by few layers of collenchymatous cells which gives mechanical strength.
• Middle cortex : Inner to hypodermis is made up of few layer of chlorenchymatous tissue which helps in photosynthesis.
• Inner cortex : Inner cortex is made by parenchyma cells which stores food materials. The inner most layer of cortex is called endodermis. The cells are compactly arranged in barrel shaped cells that contain starch grains. So this layer also called starch sheath.

(iii) Stele :
Central part inner to endodermis is called stele. It contains pericycle, vascular bundle and pith.

• Pericycle : A few layer of sclerenchyma cells occurs in patches outside the phloem in each vascular bundle.
• Vascular bundle : Vascular bundle are conjoint collateral, endarch and open. They are arranged in the form of ring.
• Pith : Large central part, composed if parenchyma cells with intercellular spaces. Function is to store the food.

Question 8.
Describe the structure of T.S of dicot leaf.
Answer:
The T.S of dicot leaf contains
(i) Epidermis – Upper and Lower
(ii) Mesophyll
(iii) Vascular bundles

(i) Epidermis :
The leaf is dorsiventral it has upper and lower epidermis.

• Upper Epidermis : Made up of single layer of tightly packed parenchyma cells. Cuticle is thicker than the lower epidermis.
• Lower Epidermis : Made up of single layer of parenchymatous cells with thin cuticle. Stomata are more in Lower epidermis. Used for transpiration and gaseous exchange.

(ii) Mesophyll :
The region between upper and lower epidermis is called mesophyll. It is differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma.

• Palisade parenchyma: Present below the upper epidermis cells are elongated. Cells do not have intercellular spaces. More number of chloroplast present. Function is photosynthesis.
• Spongy parenchyma: Present above the lower epidermis. Cells are irregular shaped. Cells have intercellular spaces less number of chloroplast is present. Function is gaseous exchange.

(iii) Vascular bundles : Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and closed. Vascular bundles are surrounded by a compact layer of parenchymatous cells. These are called Bundle sheath. Xylem is present towards the upper epidermis. Phloem is present towards the lower epidermis.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOT).

Question 1.
The cells of endodermis show band like thickening on their radial and inner tangential walls called casparian strips. Why?
Answer:
It is to prevent the re-entry of water into the cortex once water entered the xylem tissue.

Question 2.
Do plants like Croton, with non – green leaves have chlorophyll and do they perform photosynthesis?
Answer:
The chlorophyll is present in Croton leaves, embedded along with other coloured pigments like carotenoids and anthocyanin. These coloured pigments assist or help the pigment chlorophyll in the process of photosynthesis.

Question 3.
How do we see beautiful colours in Autumn and enjoy the fall?
Answer:
Chlorophyll gives a green colour to plants. During winter, there is not enough light for photosynthesis. So they use food, which is stored in summer. As the green chlorophyll disappears or fades away, we begin to see yellow, orange and red colour. We cannot see them in summer, because they are covered by the green chlorophyll.

But in autumn or fall season glucose trapped in the leaves, after photosynthesis stops. Sunlight and cool nights of autumn cause the leaves to turn this glucose into a red colour.
It is the combination of all these things, that make the beautiful colours, we enjoy in the fall.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 22 Environmental Management Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 22 Environmental Management

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Environmental Management Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks:

1. Deforestation leads to ……… in rainfall.
2. Removal of soil particles from the land is called ……….
3. Chipko movement is initiated against ……….
4. ……….. is a biosphere reserve in Tamilnadu.
5. Tidal energy is ………. type of energy.
6. Coal, petroleum and natural gas are called ……… fuels.
7. ……….. is the most commonly used fuel for the production of electricity.

Answer:

1. Decrease
2. Soil Erosion
3. Deforestation
4. Nilgiris
5. Non-conventional
6. Fossil
7. Coal

II. State whether True or False. Correct the statements which are false:

1. Biogas is a fossil fuel.
2. Planting trees increases the groundwater level.
3. Habitat destruction cause loss of wile life.
4. Nuclear energy is a renewable energy
5. Overgrazing prevents soil erosion.
6. Poaching of wild animals is a legal act.
7. National park is a protected park.
8. Wild life protection act was established in 1972.

Answer:

1. False – Biogas is a natural gas
2. True
3. True
4. False – Nuclear energy is non-renewable energy
5. False – Overgrazing causes soil erosion
6. False – Poaching of wild animals is an illegal act.
7. True
8. Tme

III. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (vi)
D. (ii)
E. (i)
F. (iv)
G. (vii)

IV. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following is / are a fossil fuel?
(i) Tar, (ii) Coal, (iii) Petroleum
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(c) (ii) and (iii)

Question 2.
What are the steps will you adopt for better waste management?
(a) reduce the amount of waste formed
(b) reuse the waste
(c) recycle the waste
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 3.
The gas released from vehicles exhaust are:
(i) carbon monoxide
(ii) Sulphur dioxide
(iii) Oxides of nitrogen:
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

Question 4.
Soil erosion can be prevented by ______
(a) deforestation
(b) afforestation
(c) over growing
(d) removal of vegetation
Answer:
(b) afforestation

Question 5.
A renewable source of energy is:
(a) petroleum
(b) coal
(c) nuclear fuel
(d) trees
Answer:
(d) trees

Question 6.
Soil erosion is more where there is _______
(a) no rainfall
(b) low rainfall
(c) rainfall is high
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) rainfall is high

Question 7.
An inexhaustible resources is:
(a) wind power
(b) soil fertility
(c) wild life
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 8.
Common energy source in village is ______
(a) electricity
(b) coal
(c) biogas
(d) wood and animal dung
Answer:
(d) wood and animal dung

Question 9.
Green house effect refers to:
(a) cooling of earth
(b) trapping of UV rays
(c) cultivation of plants
(d) warming of earth
Answer:
(d) warming of earth

Question 10.
A cheap, conventional, commercial and inexhaustible source of energy is _____
(a) hydropower
(b) solar energy
(c) wind energy
(d) thermal energy
Answer:
(b) solar energy

Question 11.
Global warming will cause
(a) raise in level of oceans
(b) melting of glaciers
(c) sinking of islands
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 12.
Which of the following statement is wrong with respect to wind energy?
(a) wind energy is a renewable energy
(b) the blades of windmill are operated with the help of an electric motor
(c) production of wind energy is pollution-free
(d) usage of wind energy can reduce the consumption of fossil fuels
Answer:
(b) the blades of windmill are operated with the help of the electric motor

V. Answer in a Sentence:

Question 1.
What will happen if trees are cut down?
Answer:
If trees are cut down it give rise to ecological problems like floods, drought, soil erosion, loss of wild life, extinction of species, imbalance of biogeochemical cycles, alternation of climatic conditions and desertification.

Question 2.
What would happen if the habitat of wild animals is disturbed?
Answer:
If the habitual wild animals disturbed, the biological diversity cannot be maintained and cannot promote economic activities, which generates revenue to the government.

Question 3.
What are the agents of soil erosion?
Answer:
Agents of soil erosion are high velocity of wind, air currents, flowing water, land slide, human activities like deforestation, farming and mining overgrazing by cattle.

Question 4.
Why fossil fuels are to be conserved?
Answer:
Like fossil fuels, accumulation is a very slow process and takes a very long period, and in order to preserve them for a future generation, fossil fuels are to be conserved.

Question 5.
Solar energy is a renewable energy. How?
Answer:
Solar energy is the energy obtained from the sun. This energy resources is available in unlimited amount in nature and it can be renewed over a short period of time, inexpensive and can be harvested continuously.

Question 6.
How are e-wastes generated?
Answer:
E-wastes are generated from spoiled, outdated, non-repairable electrical and electronic devices.

VI. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the importance of rainwater harvesting?
Answer:

1. Overcome the rapid depletion of ground water levels.
2. To Meet the increase demand of water.
3. Reduces flood and soil erosion.
4. Water stored in ground is not contaminated by human and animal wastes and hence can be used for drinking purpose.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of using biogas?
Answer:
The advantages of using biogas are as follows:

• It burns without smoke, causing less pollution.
• It is an excellent way to get rid of organic wastes like bio-waste and sewage material.
• The leftover slurry is good manure rich in nitrogen and phosphorus.
• It is safe and convenient to use.
• It can reduce the number of greenhouse gases emitted.

Question 3.
What are the environmental effect caused by sewage?
Answer:
Sewage water results in agricultural contamination and environmental degradation, pollute the water resources.

Question 4.
What are the consequences of deforestation?
Answer:
The contaminants can harm animals and damage the food chain.

• Deforestation becomes a threat to the economy, quality of life and future of the environment.
• Loss of many forests.
• It gives rise to ecological problems like floods, drought, soil erosion, loss of wildlife, extinction of species, imbalance of biogeochemical cycles, alteration of climatic conditions and desertification.

VII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
How does rainwater harvesting structures recharge groundwater?
Answer:
Recharge pit: In this method, the rainwater is first collected from the roof tops or open spaces and is directed into the percolation pits through pipes for filtration. After filtration the rainwater enters the recharge pits or ground wells.

People living in rural areas adopt a variety of water collecting methods to capture and store as rain water. Some of the methods used are-
(i) Digging of tanks or lakes (Eris) : It is one of the traditional water harvesting system in Tamil Nadu. Eris are constructed in such a way that if the water in one eri overflows, it automatically gets diverted to the eri of the next village, as these eris are interconnected.

(ii) Ooranis : These are small ponds to collect rainwater. The water is used for various domestic purposes (drinking, washing and bathing). These ponds cater the nearby villages.

Question 2.
How will you prevent soil erosion?
Answer:
The following are the methods to prevent soil erosion:

• Retain vegetation cover, so that soil is not exposed.
• Cattle grazing should be controlled.
• Crop rotation and soil management improve soil organic matter.
• Runoff water should be stored in the catchment.
• Reforestation, terracing and contour ploughing.
• Wind speed can be controlled by planting trees in the form of a shelterbelt.

Question 3.
What are the sources of solid wastes? How are solid wastes managed?
Answer:
Solid wastes mainly include municipal wastes, hospital wastes, industrial wastes and e-wastes etc. The solid wastes are dumped in the soil which results in landscape pollution.

Solid-waste management involves the collection, treatment and proper disposing of solid material that is discarded from the household and industrial activities.

Methods of solid wastes disposal:

1. Segregation : It is the separation of different type of waste materials like biodegradable and non biodegradable wastes.
2. Sanitary landfill : Solid wastes are dumped into low lying areas. The layers are compacted by trucks to allow settlement. The waste materials get stabilised in about 2-12 months. The organic matter undergoes decomposition.
3. Incineration : It is the burning of nonbiodegradable solid wastes (medical wastes) in properly constructed furnace at high temperature.
4. Composting : Biodegradable matter of solid wastes is digested by microbial action or earthworms and converted into humus.

Recycling of wastes:

1. Papers from old books, magazines and newspapers are recycled to produce papers in papermills.
2. Agricultural wastes like coconut shells, jute cotton stalk, bagasse of sugarcane can be used to make paper and hard board. Paddy husk can be used as livestock fodder.
3. Cowdung and other organic wastes can be used in gobar gas plant to provide biogas and manure for fields. The 3R approach such as Reduce, Reuse and Recycle may be followed for effective waste management.

Question 4.
Enumerate the importance of forest.
Answer:

• Forests are an important component of our environment.
• There are microorganisms, flowering plants, shrubs, climbers and dense trees in the forest.
• Forests provide a vast habitat for wild animals.
• Forests help for the economic development of our country.
• Forests are the source for a wide range of renewable natural resource.
• Forests provide wood, food, fodder, fibre and medicine.
• They act as a carbon sink, regulate climatic conditions, increase rainfall and reduce global warming.
• The natural hazards like flood and landslides are prevented.
• Wildlife is protected.
• It acts as a catchment for water conservation.
• Forests maintain ecological balance.

Question 5.
What are the consequences of soil erosion?
Answer:
The effects of soil erosion leads to loss of fertility of land, humus and nutrient. It leads to increased pollution, sedimentation in streams and rivers. Degraded lands able to hold water which can worsen flooding.

Question 6.
Why is the management of forest and wildlife resource considered as a challenging task?
Answer:
The management of forest and wildlife resource is considered as a challenging task because,

• Due to deforestation, there is a lack of oxygen.
• People kill animals, for making cloth designs so it harms the wildlife.
• There is a lack of public awareness.
• There are global warming and climate change.
• Water scarcity and changes in rainfall pattern.
• People kill animals and cut down trees, for economic benefit.
• Poaching.
• Forests cannot be irrigated like fields they depend on rain.
• Changes in rainfall pattern, affect the development of forests and may lead to destruction.

VIII. Assertion and Reasoning:

In each of the following question a statement of assertion(A) is given and a corresponding statement of reason (R). Of the four statements given below mark the correct answer.
Question 1.
Assertion (A): Rainwater harvesting is to collect and store rain water.
Reason (R): Rainwater can be directed to recharge the underground water source.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Energy efficient bulbs like CFL must be used to save electric energy.
Reason (R): CFL bulbs are costlier than ordinary bulbs, hence using ordinary bulbs can save our money.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Answer:
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
Although coal and petroleum are produced by degradation of biomass, yet we need to conserve them. Why?
Answer:
The formation of coal and petroleum is a very slow process and takes very long period of time for renewal. Moreover coal is uses for generation of electricity’ petroleum is used to run automobile, trucks, trains, ships and aeroplane. So we need to conserve them as they get exhausted.

Question 2.
What are the objectives for replacing non-conventional energy resources from conventional energy resources?
Answer:

• Non-conventional energy resources can be replenished quickly.
• Hydrocarbons are formed over a period of thousands of years when the remains of dead plants and animals are buried inside the Earth.
• Burning coal and oil results in air pollution.
• Conserve fossil fuels, using an alternate source of energy, when possible.
• Wise utilization of non-renewable natural resources.

Question 3.
Why is the Government imposing ban on the use of polythene bags and plastics? Suggest alternatives. How is this ban likely to improve the environment?
Answer:

1. It is non-biodegradable material which cause environmental pollution. It is harmful to wild life and marine life. It is very hard to clean or remove from environment.
2. Alternatives to plastic bag are jute or canvas bags, paper bags.
3. It control the pollution and clean the environment and make it better’ place to live for all organism.

X. Value-Based Questions:

Question 1.
Why is it not possible to use solar cells to meet our energy needs? State three reason to support your answer.
Answer:

• The installing cost of solar cell panel is high, as the silicon wafer is very expensive and also the silver used in connecting solar cells.
• D.C electricity is produced. To operate any A.C device, this D.C. has to be connected in, as by using an inverter.
• The efficiency of energy conversion is low as compared to other means of generating electricity.

Question 2.
How would you dispose the following wastes?
(a) Domestic wastes like vegetable peels
(b) Industrial wastes like metallic cans
Can the disposal protect the environment? How?
Answer:
(a) Domestic waste like vegetable peels can be disposed by composting where solid wastes is digested by microbial action or earthworms and converted into humus.

(b) The metallic ions melt into molten aluminium this removes the coating and inks that may be present on the aluminium. The aluminium is then made into large blocks which is used to make other products.

Question 3.
List any three activities based on the 3R approach to conserve natural resources.
Answer:

• Integrated solid waste management is based on the 3R approach. (Reduce, Reuse and Recycle).
• 3R is aimed at the management of solid waste from all waste generating sectors.
• 3R helps to minimize the amount of wastes from generation to disposal.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Environmental Management Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
The best way to dispose waste is by:
(a) Making a paste for all domestic waste and putting them in a river.
(b) Separating biodegradable and non biodegradable before disposing in bins.
(c) Throw the waste an round side
(d) Dumping all domestic waste is better bin.
Answer:
(b) Separating biodegradable and non biodegradable before disposing in bins.

Question 2.
The solar energy which falls on the atmosphere reaches the Earth’s surface ______
(a) a little less than 42%
(b) more than 60%
(c) more than 52%
(d) a little less than 47%
Answer:
(d) a little less than 47%

Question 3.
Chipko Andolan is associated with
(a) Protesting against pasting of posters on walls.
(b) Saving money
(c) Using more postal stamps.
(d) Saving trees.
Answer:
(d) Saving trees.

Question 4.
The technique to harness the water energy is _______
(a) hydropower
(b) electrical energy
(c) tidal energy
(d) hydraulic fracturing
Answer:
(a) Hydropower

Question 5.
Conservation of wild life includes:
(a) Preventing poaching of animals
(b) Construction of National parks, Sanctuaries
(c) Ban on trading endangered species
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 6.
Select the eco-friendly activity among the following:
(a) Using car for transportation.
(b) Using polybags for shopping
(c) Using dyes for colouring clothes
(d) Using windmills to generate power for irrigation
Answer:
(d) Using windmills to generate power for irrigation

Question 7.
Pick the right combination of terms which has no fossil fuel.
(a) Wind, Ocean, Coal
(b) Kerosene, Wind, tide
(c) Wind, Wood, Sun
(d) Petroleum, Wood, Sun
Answer:
(c) Wind, Wood, Sun

Question 8.
Ground water will not be depleted due to:
(a) Afforestation
(b) Thermal power plants
(c) Loss of forest and decreased rainfall
(d) Cropping of high water demanding crops
Answer:
(a) Afforestation

Question 9.
Select the wrong statement:
(a) Forests provide variety of products
(b) Forests have greater plant diversity
(c) Forests do not conserve soil
(d) Forests conserve water
Answer:
(c) Forests do not conserve soil

Question 10.
The important messages conveyed by the ‘chipko movement’ is:
(a) To improve the community in forest conservation efforts.
(b) To ignore the community in forest conservation efforts.
(c) To cut down forest trees for developmental activities
(d) Preserves the natural ecosystem in the area.
Answer:
(a) To improve the community in forest conservation efforts.

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Automobiles are largest source of ……… pollution in cities.
2. The first movement against tree felling was fought in chamoli district name ……….
3. ………. National park was the first in India.
4. Removal of upper layer of soil by wind and water is called ……..
5. The white marble of ……….. became yellow due to air pollution.
6. Arrangement of many solar cells side by side connected to each other is ……..
7. Gas produced by the decomposition of animal and plant waste in the absence of oxygen is ……….
8. The fuel extracted by a technique called ………… from the rock.
9. The World’s largest and tallest wind turbine is situated in …………
10. ………… Dam is constructed by King Karikala Chola.
Answer:
1. air
2. Chipko movement
3. Jim Corbett
4. soil erosion
5. Taj Mahal
6. Solar panel
7. Gobar gas
8. hydraulic fracturing
9. Hawaii
10. Kallanai

III. Assertion and Reason:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Natural habitats of plants and animals should not be destroyed.
Reason (R): This is necessary for the conservation of biotic resources.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): To prevent hunting is not wildlife conservation in the real sense.
Reason (R): Some animals may multiply to the extent that they exhaust the food supply.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

V. State whether True or False. Correct the statements which are false:

1. The devices used for harnessing sun energy is wind mill.
2. Liquefied petroleum gas is obtained from petroleum.
3. Harnessing the energy from flowing water to produce electricity is hydro power.
4. 12% of e-wastes are from computer components.
5. LED bulbs consume more electrical energy.

Answer:

1. False – The devices used for harnessing wind is wind mill.
2. True
3. True
4. False – 12% of e-wastes are from telecommunication components
5. False – LED bulbs consume less electrical energy.

VI. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
Define Conservation.
Answer:
Proper utilization and management of nature and its resources in conservations.

Question 2.
What are the ways to sustain our resources?
Answer:
Some of the ways to sustain continuous use of resources are practices to utilise energy efficiently avoid wastage of water, avoid usage of Plastics and other non-biodegradable materials and to take care for the environment.

Question 3.
Suggest any two activities in daily life which are eco-friendly.
Answer:
Carrying jute or canvas bags for shopping instead of plastic bags.
Switch off electrical and electronic devices when not in use.

Question 4.
Name four substances that can be recycled.
Answer:
Newspaper, PET plastic bottles, steel can glass containers.

Question 5.
List any two common methods by which solid wastes of urban areas are disposed off.
Answer:

1. Segregation of waste into biodegradable and non-biodegradable.
2. Solid wastes are dumped into low lying areas.

Question 6.
What is chipko movement?
Answer:
The chipko movement was a non-violent that was aimed to protect and conserve the tree by the villagers of chamoli district of uttar pradesh.

Question 7.
Give the reason for decline in wildlife population.
Answer:
Over exploitation and shrinking of forest cover areas are the reason for animal extinction and verge of extinction.

VII. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What is conservation? Why should we conserve natural resources?
Answer:
Proper utilization and management of nature and its resources are termed as conservation. It is important to conserve the natural resources carefully, to preserve it for future generations. We have to build a sustainable world, which should last forever.

Question 2.
How can you as an individual contribute to the management of coal and petroleum.
Answer:

1. Use of coal and petroleum as a source of energy should be minimised.
2. Use of CNG or LPG as fuels in automobiles.
3. Renewable sources of energy like solar power, hydro power, wind energy, tidal energy should be used.

Question 3.
What are the methods to conserve the forest?
Answer:

• Afforestation: Planting and protecting trees which help in the restoration of green cover is called the afforestation programme. Destruction of trees should be avoided.
• Social forestry programme: Active participation of the public and utilization of common land, to produce firewood, fodder and timber for the benefit of the rural community.
• Forest Conservation through Laws: Adopting laws and policies, to conserve and protect forests through National Forest Policy,

Question 4.
List the wild life conservation Initiatives in India.
Answer:

1. Project Tiger and Project Elephant has been launched in 1973 and 1992 respectively.
2. Crocodile Conservation Project was launched in 1976.
3. Sea Turtle Conservation Project was launched in 1999.
4. Indian Rhino Vision 2020 is to conserve at least 3000 greater one-homed rhinos in Assam, India by 2020.

Question 5.
What are the steps to be taken to conserve coal and petroleum resources?
Answer:

• If electricity is saved, it will, in turn, reduce the use of coal.
• Using bicycles for covering short distances instead of using cars, scooters or motorcycles.
• Using pressure cooker can reduce the consumption of kerosene and LPG, during cooking food.
• Solar cooker and solar heaters can be used wherever possible.
• Motor vehicles should be designed with fuel-efficient engines to increase efficiency and also to reduce pollution.

Question 6.
What are the advantages of solar energy?
Answer:

1. It is available in abundance in our country and is free of cost.
2. It is a renewable source of energy.
3. It can be used for generating electricity or heat.
4. It does not cause pollution.

VIII. Long Answers Questions:

Question 1.
(a) What are the aims of wildlife management?
(b) What is the provision of the wildlife protection act?
Answer:
(a) The main aim of wildlife conservation are:

• To control and limit exploitation of species.
• To preserve the plants and animals from extinction.
• Maintenance of threatened species and protect species which are on the verge of extinction.
• Preserve the endangered species.
• To study the ecological relationship of the plants and animals in natural habitat.
• Hunting and poaching should be prohibited.
• Establishment of national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, protected areas and biosphere reserves.

(b) The provisions of the wildlife protection act:

• Prohibit killing and hunting of specified animals.
• Constitute sanctuaries, national parks and closed areas for wildlife conservation.
• Special schemes for the preservation of endangered species.
• Constitute central zoo authority and recognition of zoos.
• Restrict, regulate or prohibit trade in wild animals and products obtained from them.

Question 2.
Give the various steps to conserve non-renewable resource.
Answer:
It is necessary to conserve or save coal and petroleum resources for the future use, which can be done by reducing their consumption.

1. If electricity is saved, it will intum reduce the use of coal.
2. Using bicycle for covering short distances instead of using cars, scooters or motorcycles.
3. Using pressure cooker can reduce the consumption of kerosene and LPG while cooking food. Solar cooker and solar heaters can be used wherever possible.
4. Motor vehicles should be designed with fuel efficient engines to increase efficiency and also reduce air pollution.

Question 3.
Write notes for the following:
(a) Solar cells
(b) Solar panel
(c) Solar cooker and
(d) Solar thermal power plant
Answer:
(a) Solar cells: Solar cells are called photovoltaic devices, which are made up of silicon, that converts sunlight directly into electricity. Solar cells produce electricity, without polluting the environment. No harmful gases, no burning and no wastes are produced.

• It can be used for street lighting, traffic signals, water pumping and battery charging system, etc.
• It is used in artificial satellites and space probes.
• It provides radio and TV transmission to remote areas.
• It is used in calculators, electronic toys and watches.

(b) Solar panel: Arrangement of many solar cells side by side connected to each other is called solar panel. The capacity to provide electric current is much increased in the solar panel, but the process of manufacture is very expensive.

(c) Solar cooker: Solar cooker consists of an insulated metal box or wooden box, which is painted from inside, so as to absorb maximum solar radiations. A thick glass sheet forms the cover over the box. The reflector is the piano mirror, which is attached to the box. The food is cooked by energy radiated by the Sun.

(d) Solar thermal power plant:
In solar thermal power plants, many solar panels are used to concentrate sun rays, to heat up water into steam. The steam is used to run the turbines to produce electricity. The solar energy is available in our country at free of cost, do not cause any pollution and is a renewable source of energy.

Question 4.
Explain the tidal energy with its advantages.
Answer:
Tidal energy is the energy obtained from the movement of water due to ocean tides. Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted on the oceans of the earth.

A tidal stream is a fast flowing body of water created by tides. Turbines are placed in tidal streams. When the tides hit the turbine, the turbine rotates and converts the tidal energy into electric energy.

Advantages of tidal energy:

1. Tidal energy does not produce any pollution.
2. It does not use any fuel and does not produce any waste.
3. Tides are predictable, so tidal energy can be produced at any time.
4. Water is denser than air and therefore can generate electricity at lower speeds than wind turbines.

Question 5.
Explain the convention method of waste water treatments.
Answer:
The conventional wastewater treatment methods involve the following steps (a) Pre-screening (b) Aeration (c) Sludge Management and (d) Water Reuse.
(a) Pre-screening : Wastewater generated from domestic and industrial activities is screened to remove soil and solid particulates.

(b) Aeration : Screened wastewater is then pumped to an aeration tank. Here the microbial contaminants are removed by the biological degradation that occurs in the presence of air.
Sedimentation process : In this process, the solid particles in suspension form are allowed to settle. The particles that settle out from the suspension is known as sludge.

(c) Sludge removal : The sludge generated by the degradation process is transferred periodically from the tank for safe disposal.
Disinfection : Chlorination and ultraviolet (UV) radiation of treated water is required to remove any microorganism contamination.

(d) Water recycling : The water will then be supplied for domestic or industrial purposes.

IX. Hot Questions:

Question 1.
Name the movement aimed at the protection and conservation of trees. In which district was it originated?
Answer:
Chipko movement at Uttarkhand.

Question 2.
Name any two wildlife conservation initiatives in India.
Answer:

• Crocodile conservation project
• Indian Rhino vision 2020
• Sea Turtle conservation

X. Value Based Question:

Question 1.
The over exploitation of natural resources leads to decline of natural resources.
(a) What will be the effects decline of natural resources.
(b) How can be prevent it?
Answer:
(a) Decline of natural resources leads to energy crisis and disturbance in ecological balance.
(b) It can be prevented by using non-conventional energy resources.

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 1 Indian Constitution Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 1 Indian Constitution

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Indian Constitution Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which of the following sequences in right regarding the Preamble?
(a) Republic, democratic, secular, socialist, sovereign
(b) Sovereign, socialist, secular, republic, democratic
(c) Sovereign, republic, secular,socialist, democratic
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic
Answer:
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic

Question 2.
How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?
(a) once
(b) Twice
(c) Thrice
(d) Never
Answer:
(a) once

Question 3.
The Indian Constitution gives to its citizens:
(a) Double Citizenship
(b) Single Citizenship
(c) Single Citizenship in some States and double in others
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Single Citizenship

Question 4.
A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through …………..
(a) Descent
(b) Registration
(c) Naturalisation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Naturalisation

Question 5.
Find the odd one out.
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Right to Property
(d) Cultural and Educational Rights
Answer:
(c) Right to Property

Question 6.
One of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?
(a) Workers from Karnataka go to Kerala to work on the farms.
(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools.
(c) Men and Women government employees got the same salary.
(d) Parents property is inherited by their children
Answer:
(d) Parents property is inherited by their children

Question 7.
If the fundamental rights of Indian citizen are violated, they possess the right to have an access to:
(a) The Parliament
(b) The Attorney General
(c) The President of India
(d) The Supreme court of India
Answer:
(d) The Supreme court of India

Question 8.
Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right to equality
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies
(d) Right to property
Answer:
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies

Question 9.
How can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
(a) If the Supreme Court so desires
(b) If the Prime Minister orders to this effect
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency

Question 10.
We borrowed the Fundamental Duties from the ……………..
(a) American Constitution
(b) Canadian Constitution
(c) Russian Constitution
(d) Irish Constitution
Answer:
(c) Russian Constitution

Question 11.
The Directive Principles can be classified into:
(a) Liberal and Communist principles
(b) Socialist and Communist principles
(c) Liberal, Gandhian and Communist principles
(d) Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles
Answer:
(d) Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles

Question 12.
Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 368
Answer:
(c) Article 360

Question 13.
The procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution is given in:
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 368
Answer:
(d) Article 368

Question 14.
Which of the following committees/commissions made recommendations about the Centre-State Relations?
(i) Sarkaria Commission
(ii) Rajamannar Committee
(iii) M.N. Venkatachaliah Commission Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) i, ii and iii
(b) i and ii
(c) i and iii
(d) ii and iii
Answer:
(b) i and ii

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The concept of Constitution first originated in ……………….
2. ………………. was elected as the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly.
3. The Constitution of India was adopted on ……………….
4. ………………. writs are mentioned in Article 32.
5. Fundamental duties have been given to the citizen of India under Article ……………….

Answers:

1. U.S.A
2. Dr. Sachidanandha Sinha
3. 26th November 1949
4. Five
5. 51 A

III. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (v)
E. (iv)

IV. Give short Answers

Question 1.
What is the Constitution?
Answer:
A Constitution is a set of rules that form the basis of any kind of a state that we as citizens, desire to live in.

Question 2.
What is meant by citizenship?
Answer:
Citizenship is the state of being a person belonging to a particular country’. Having enjoying rights, privileges and duty to perform to the country. The Constitution of India provide for a single citizenship for the whole of India.

Question 3.
How many types of fundamental rights are listed by the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
There are six types of fundamental rights listed by the Indian Constitution.

Question 4.
What is a Writ?
Answer:
A Writ is an order or command issued by a court writing under its seal. Both the Supreme court and the High courts are empowered to issue five kinds of Writs- Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto and Certiorari.

Question 5.
What are the classical languages in India?
Answer:
There are six classical languages namely – Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia.

Question 6.
What is National Emergency?
Answer:
National Emergency is declared by the President. If India’s security is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion or if there is an imminent danger or threat under Article 352.

Question 7.
List out the three heads of the relations between the Centre and the States.
Answer:
There are

1. Legislative relations
2. Administrative relations
3. Financial relations.

V. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the salient features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:
Constitution is the set of rules framed by the Constituent Assembly by which we are governed and abide by it.

Salient features of Indian Constitution:

1. It is the lengthiest of all the written Constitution in the world.
2. It is partly rigid and partly flexible.
3. Most of its provisions are borrowed from the Constitutions of various countries.
4. It establishes a Federal system of government.
5. It establishes Parliamentary system.
6. It provides an independent Judiciary.
7. It provides single citizenship.
8. Introduces Universal Adult franchise, the right to vote to all citizens above the age of 18 without any discrimination.
9. It makes special provision for minorities scheduled castes, Scheduled Tribes etc.

Question 2.
Point out the Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35. There are six Fundamental Rights –
(i) Right to Equality: It provides equality before law. It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. It abolishes untouchability.

(ii) Right to Freedom: It provides freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.

(iii) “Right against Exploitation: It prohibits trafficking in human beings and forced labour. It also prohibits employment of children in factories, etc.

(iv) Right to religion: It gives freedom of conscience and free profession practice and propagations of religion.

(v) Cultural and Educational rights: It gives protection of language, script and culture of minorities. It also gives minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions.

(vi) Right to Constitutional Remedies It allows individuals to seek redressal for the violation of their Fundamental Rights.

Question 3.
Write briefly on the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
Answer:

1. Article 32 of our Constitution deals with right to Constitutional remedies to safeguard other fundamental rights through writs.
2. A Writ is an order or command issued by a court in writing under its seal.
3. It is in the nature of a command or prohibition from performing certain acts that are specified in the order of the court.
4. Both the Supreme court and the High courts are empowered to issue five kinds of writs namely – Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo Warranto.
5. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Article 32 is “ the heart and soul of the Constitution”.
6. “Supreme Court’ is called the “ Guardian of our Constitution”.

Question 4.
Mention the differences between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights:

1. Derived from the Constitution of the U.S.A.
2. Even the Government cannot take away or abridge these rights.
3. These rights can be enforceable by law.
4. The rights have legal sanctions.
5. Strengthen the political democracy of the country.
6. They are natural and basic rights.

Directive Principles of State Policy:

1. Drawn on the model of the Constitution of Ireland.
2. These are mere instructions to the Government.
3. They are not enforceable by law in any court.
4. These directives have moral and political sanctions.
5. Implementation of these principles ensures social and economic democracy.
6. These lead to protect human rights.

VI. Project and activity

Question 1.
Collect information about the various members of the Constituent Assembly and their social background.
Answer:
Members of the constituent Assembly and their Social background.
Refer: https : //www.scrip.com: document. 15
https://www.wikipedia.org:wiki:const.

Question 2.
Collect the pictures of the Members of the Drafting Committee and their social background.
Answer:
Drafting committee is the most important body responsible for creating the constitution of India.

Dr. Rajendra Prasad: President of the Drafting committee:

Ambedkar. An Indian Jurist, Social Reformer and Politician. Hailed as “Father of Indian Constitution’’. Campaigned against social discrimination towards the untouchables supported the Rights of women and labour.

Indian political leader. A lawyer by training. Joined the Indian National congress during the Independence movement and became a major leader from the Region of Bihar. He was the first President of India after Independence and served for full two terms from 1950 – 1962. The President who served foreth longest term.

Other members:

Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer. He was an Indian Lawy er. He also served as the Advocate General of Madras state from 1929 to 1944.

N. Gopalswami Iyengar: He was the Minister of Jammu and Kashmir from 1937 – 1943 and was appointed as council of state from 1943 – 1947. During that time he was the chairman of the committee for the Indianisation of Army from 1947 – 1948. He served as minister without Port folio in the 1st Cabinet under Pandit. Jawaharlal Nehru.

K.M. Munshi: A lawyer by profession. He was an Indian Independence movement activist, politician, writer and an educationist from Gujarat State.

Mohammad Saadullah B.L: A youthful Chairman of Gauhati (Guwahati) Municipality in 1919. Tali and an Athletic. M.A.BL. He served as the Minister incharge of Education and Agriculture for Assam from 1924 – 1934. He was the Prime Minister of Assam under British India.

B.L. Mitter: Ex-advocate General. The one and only official subreddit for India (Nehru’s cabinet) Governor of Bihar between 1962 – 1967. Resigned from the drafting committee due to ill health. N. Madhava Rao (Diwan of Mysore state) had replaced B.L. Mitter.

D.R Khaitan: A renounced lawyer. Scion of Khaitan business family ( a new firm). Died in 1948 and T.T. Krishnamachari replaced D.R Khaitan

TB Page 175
VII. Life Skill.

Question 1.
Prepare a chart containing the Rights and Duties of citizens and display it in your class room.
Answer:
I. Right to Equality

Art. 14 – Equality before law.
Art. 15 – Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race,caste, sex or place of birth.
Art. 16 – Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
Art. 17 – Abolition of Untouchability.
Art. 18 – Abolition of titles except military and academic.

II. Right to Freedom

Art. 19 – Freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.
Art. 20 – Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
Art. 21 – Protection of life and personal liberty.
Art. 21A – Right to elementary education.
Art. 22 – Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.

III. Right Against Exploitation

Art. 23 – Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
Art. 24 – Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.

IV. Right to Religion

Art. 25 – Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
Art. 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs.
Art. 27 – Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion.
Art. 28 – Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions.

V. Cultural and Educational Rights

Art. 29 – Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.
Art. 30 – Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.

VI. Right to Constitutional Remedies

Art. 32 – It allows individuals to seek redressal for the violation of their fundamental rights.

List of Fundamental Duties:

1. To abide by the constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired the national struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
5. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
6. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
7. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.
8. To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
9. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
10. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity, so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.
11. To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years. (The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act. 2002 has also introduced the 11th Fundamental Duty under 51 A(k) under which all citizens of India or parents shall provide opportunities for education to their children between age of 6 and 14 years).

TB Page 172

Question 1.
Violation of which Fundamental right is associated with the theme depleted in the stamps?
Answer:

The theme (child labour) depicted in the stamps is associated with Fundamental Right. Right against Exploitation. Art 24: Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc. (violation of employment children).

TB Page 175
Activity:

Question 1.
List out the recognised languages in the Eighth schedule of the Constitution:
Answer:
The Eighth schedule of the Constitution has recognised at present 22 languages .
They are:

1. Assamee
2. Bengali
3. Bodo
4. Dogri
5. Gujarathi
6. Hindi
7. Kannada
8. Kashmiri
9. Kenkani
10. Maithili
11. Malayalam
12. Manipuri
13. Marathi
14. Nepali
15. Oriya
16. Punjabi
17. Sanskrit
18. Santhali
19. Sindhi
20. Tamil
21. Telugu
22. Urdu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Indian Constitution Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Government of India granted ………………. languages as classical language status.
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 22
(d) 14
Answer:
(a) 6

Question 2.
Which of the following is given importance in the Preamble of our Constitution?
(a) Liberty
(b) Equality
(c) Fraternity
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 3.
The constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December ………………. 1946.
(a) 1^st
(b) 5^th
(c) 6^th
(d) 26^th
Answer:
(c) 6^th

Question 4.
‘Education’ comes under which list?
(a) Union list
(b) State list
(c) Concurrent list
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Concurrent list

Question 5.
Every year 26th January is observed as ……………….
(a) Independence day
(b) Gandhi Jayanthi
(c) Voters day
(d) Republic day
Answer:
(d) Republic day

Question 6.
Indian Constitution is the …………… Constitution in the world.
(a) Longest
(b) Shortest
(c) Lengthiest
Answer:
(c) Lengthiest

Question 7.
In the preamble of our Constitution the slogans of ………………. Liberty, Equality and Fraternity is given importance.
(a) French Revolution
(b) Russian Revolution
(c) American Revolution
(d) German Revolution
Answer:
(a) French Revolution

Question 8.
The Constituent Assembly was set up under ……………..
(a) Cripps Mission
(b) Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
Answer:
(b) Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946

Question 9.
………………. emergency can be declared under Article 356.
(a) National
(b) Financial
(c) State
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) State

Question 10.
Apart from B.R. Ambedkar, how many other members were in the Drafting Committee?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 7
Answer:
(b) 6

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Our Constitution is concerned with the framework of distribution of powers between the various organs of the government and between ………………. and ……………….
2. H.C. Mukherjee and ………………. were elected as the Vice-Presidents of the constituent Assembly at the time of framing Constitution.
3. The original Constitution was hand written by ……………….
4. Our Constitution is the ………………. of all the written Constitutions of the world.
5. India is a ………………. state.
6. The right to vote to all citizens above 18 years of age without any discrimination is ……………….
7. The preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ………………. drafted by Jawaharlal Nehru
8. Preamble begins with the phrase ……………….
9. The citizenship Act has been amended is far ………………. times.
10. The ………………. writ safeguards people from illegal arrest.
11. Under Article 21 A ………………. education was made as fundamental right to provide early childhood care and education.
12. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred ………………. subjects from state list to concurrent list.
13. Article 51A specified for the first time a code of fundamental duties of ………………. the citizens.
14. Parliament enacted the official language Act in the year

Answers:

1. Union and the States
2. V.T. Krishnamachari
3. Prem Behari Narain Raizada
4. lengthiest
5. Secular
6. Universal Adult Franchise
7. ‘Objective Resolution’
8. We the people of India
9. eight
10. Habeas Corpus
11. elementary
12. five
13. ten
14. 1963

III. Match the Following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.


Answers:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (i)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answers:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

IV. Give short Answers

Question 1.
Mention the phrase with which the Preamble of our Constitution begins? What does this imply?
Answer:
The Preamble of our Constitution beings with the phrase “We, the People of India”. This implies that the constitution derives its authority from the people of India.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on how our Constitution is framed?
Answer:
A Constituent Assembly was set up in 1946 to frame the Constitution . The Assembly consisted 389 members Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the president and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Chairman of the drafting committee. The Assembly worked through various committees and finally completed the draft. It was adopted on November 26^th 1949. Came into force on 26^th January 1950.

Question 3.
What is mandamus?
Answer:
Mandamus is a kind of writ that protects the petitioner who requires legal help to get his work done by respective public authorities.

Question 4.
What does Preamble refer to ? What does it contain?
Answer:

1. The term Preamble refers to the introduction or preface to the Constitution.
2. It consists of ideals, objectives and basic principles of the Constitution.
3. It is described as the ‘Key to the Constitution’.

Question 5.
Mention three ways of amendments in our Constitution.
Answer:
Our Constitution can be amended in the following three ways –

1. Amendment by a simple majority of the Parliament.
2. Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament.
3. Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of half of the State legislatives.

Question 6.
Name the three basic principles of our Constitution adopted from die slogan of French Revolution (1789).
Answer:

1. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship to all.
2. It gives Equality of status and opportunity.
3. It wants to promote Fratemity(brotherhood) among all Indians.

Question 7.
Abolition of titles lies in which Article of the Constitution.
Answer:
Abolition of titles lies in Article 18.

Question 8.
What change is made in Article 45 by 86th Amendment Act?
Answer:

1. The 86^th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject matter of Article 45 and made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21 A.
2. The amended directive request the State to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of 6 years.

Question 9.
Which is the single biggest source of Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The single biggest source of Indian Constitution is Government of India Act 1935.

Question 10.
Name the five subjects that are transferred from the State List to the Concurrent List.
Answer:
Education, Forests, weights and measures, protection of wild animals and birds and administration of justice, Constitution and organisation of all courts except the supreme court and the high courts.

V. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Mention any five Fundamental duties of the citizens of India.
Answer:

1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired the National struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
5. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

Question 2.
How can a person acquire citizenship of our country?
Answer:
According to the citizenship Act 1955, the citizenship could be acquired by any of these five ways.

1. By Birth: All persons bom in India on or after January 26th, 1950 are treated as citizens by birth.
2. By Descent: A person bom outside India on or after January 26th 1950 shall be a citizen of India by descent if his father is a citizen of India at the time of his birth.
3. By Registration: Aperson can acquire citizenship of India by registration with appropriate authority.
4. By Naturalization: A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship on application for naturalization to the Government of India.
5. By incorporation of Territory: In the event of a certain territory being added to the territory of India, the Government of India shall specify the persons of that territory who shall be the citizen of India.

Question 3.
What are the circumstances that compel the President to declare an emergency in a State?
Answer:
(i) Under Article 356, the President has the power to declare an emergency in a State if the Governor reports that a situation has risen under which the Government of a State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

(ii) The continuance of such an emergency beyond one year is possible only if emergency under Article 352 are in operation or the Election Commission certifies that there are difficulties in holding Assembly Elections. Maximum duration of the emergency can be three years.

(iii) In this kind of emergency, the States lose much of their autonomy in legislative and executive matters.

(iv) After such an announcement State legislative is suspended and the State is governed by the Governor on behalf of the President.

Question 4.
List the fundamental duties of every citizen of India.
Answer:
Under part IVA of our Constitution Article 51A declares the duty of a Citizen of India.

1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. To Cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired die national struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
5. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all the people of India.
6. To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
7. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
8. To Protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes,
9. rivers and wild life and to have compassion for living creatures.
10. To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
11. To safe guard public property and to abjure violence.
12. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity making the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement.
13. To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.
14. Under 51 A (k) 11^th fundamental duty.

Question 5.
Write briefly about Acquisition of Citizenship.
Answer:
The Citizenship Act of 1935 prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship, “viz, birth, descent, registration, naturalisation and incorporation of territory.
According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, the citizenship could be acquired through any of the following methods.
(i) By Birth: All persons bom in India on or after 26 January, 1950 are treated as citizens by birth.

(ii) By Descent: A person bom outside India on or after 26 January, 1950 shall be a citizen of India by descent. If his father is a citizen of India at the time of his birth.

(iii) By Registration: A person can acquire citizenship of India by registration with appropriate authority.

(iv) By Naturalisation: A foreigner can acquire Indian Citizenship on application for naturalization to the Government of India.

(v) By Incorporation of Territory: In the event of a certain territory being added to the “territory of India, the Government of India shall specify the persons of that territory who shall be citizen of India.

Question 6.
Write a paragraph on Constitutional Reform commissions.
Answer:
The National commission to review the working of the Constitution was set up by a resolution of the Government of India in 2000, headed by M.N Venkatachaliah. In April 2007 a three member commission headed by the former Chief Justice of India M.M. Punchchi was set up by the Government to take a fresh look at relative roles and responsibilities of various levels of Government and their inter relations.

Students can download 10th Social Science Economics Chapter 3 Food Security and Nutrition Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Food Security and Nutrition

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Food Security and Nutrition Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
……………….. of food is physical availability of food stocks in desired quantities, which is a function of domestic production, changes in stocks and imports.
(a) Availability of food
(b) Access to food
(c) Absorption of food
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Availability of food

Question 2.
Buffer stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice, procured by the government through the ……………
(a) FCI
(b) Consumer Cooperatives
(c) ICICI
(d) IFCI
Answer:
(a) FCI

Question 3.
Which is correct?
(i) HYV-High Yielding Varieties
(ii) MSP-Minimum Support Price
(iii) PDS-Public Distribution System
(iv) FGi-Food Corporation of India
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) all are correct
Answer:
(d) all are correct

Question 4.
…………… extended assistance through its Public Law 480.
(a) United States of America
(b) India
(c) Singapore
(d) UK
Answer:
(a) United States of America

Question 5.
……………….. revolution was born in India paving way for self sufficiency in food grain production.
(a) Blue Revolution
(b) White Revolution
(c) Green Revolution
(d) Grey Revolution
Answer:
(c) Green Revolution

Question 6.
………….. is the only state in India to adopt universal PDS.
(a) Kerala
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 7.
……………….. is the process of providing or obtaining the food necessary for health and growth.
(a) Health
(b) Nutrition
(c) Sanitation
(d) Security
Answer:
(b) Nutrition

Question 8.
Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme was started in …………..
(a) 1980
(b) 1975
(c) 1955
(d) 1985
Answer:
(a) 1980

Question 9.
……………….. status is one of the indicators of the overall well-being of population and human resources development.
(a) Health
(b) Nutritional
(c) Economic
(d) Wealth
Answer:
(a) Health

Question 10.
Tamil Nadu Health System Projects has launched ……….. service at free of cost.
(a) 106 ambulance
(b) 108 ambulance
(c) 107 ambulance
(d) 105 ambulance
Answer:
(b) 108 ambulance

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………… foundation from USA introduced HYV in India.
2. ……………… is an important indicator of nutrition deficiency.
3. In the year ……………… National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian Parliament.
4. ……………… play an important role in the supply of quality goods at reasonable rates to common people.
5. ……………… is the value of currency expressed in terms of the amount of goods and services that one unit of money can buy.

Answers:

1. Ford
2. Underweight
3. 2013
4. Consumer co-operatives
5. Purchasing Power

III. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Purchasing power increases, price decreases and vice versa.
Reason (R): The production of goods decline, the price of goods increases and then the purchasing power is affected.
(a) A is correct, R is false
(b) Both A and R are false statements
(c) A is correct but R is not a correct explanation
(d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer in Short

Question 1.
Define food security according to FAO.
Answer:
The United Nation’s Food and Agriculture Organisation defines food security as follows:
“Food security exists when all people, at all times, have physical, social and economic access to sufficient, safe and nutritious food which meets their dietary needs and food preferences for an active and healthy life.” (FAO, 2009)

Question 2.
what are the basic components of food and nutrition security?
Answer:
The hasic components of food and nutrition security are

1. Availability of food
2. Access to food
3. Absorption of food

Question 3.
Explain ‘ship to mouth’ phenomenon.
Answer:
United States of America extended assistance through its Public Law 480 (PL 480) scheme to India during early 1960s. This situation was popularly known as ‘Ship to Mouth’ existence.

Question 4.
What is the role of FCl in Green Revolution?
Answer:
The Food Corporation of India helped the State to procure the harvested grains at the beginning of the cropping season. The FCI built huge storage godowns and built buffer stocks of food grain during the harvest season to be distributed throughout the year.

Question 5.
What are the effects of Green Revolution?
Answer:

1. It increase the production and cultivation
2. It increase the productivity
3. Changes in cropping system
4. Industrial development

Question 6.
Write a note on Differential Universal PDS and Targeted PDS.
Answer:

1. Under Universal Public Distribution System all the family ration card holders are entitled to the supplies from PDS.
2. Under Targeted PDS, the beneficiaries are identified based on certain criteria and given their entitlements, leaving the others.
3. Tamil Nadu is following Universal PDS.

Question 7.
Write a short note on purchasing power.
Answer:
Purchasing power is the value of a currency expressed in terms of the amount of goods or services that one unit of money can buy. Price increases purchasing power declines and vice versa.

Question 8.
What are the main reasons for the New Agricultural Policy?
Answer:

1. To raise agricultural production and productivity.
2. To remove export restrictions such as export duty, export ban and quota restriction on organic and processed agricultural products.
3. All round development of the agriculture sector.

Question 9.
Write short note on multi-dimensional nature of poverty.
Answer:
Multi-dimensional poverty measures can be used to create a more comprehensive picture. They reveal who is poor, how they are poor and the range of disadvantages they experience. As well as providing a headline measure of poverty, multi-dimensional measures can be broken down to reveal the poverty level in different areas of a country, and among different subgroups of people.

Question 10.
Write some name of the nutrition programmes in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS), Mid-Day Meals Scheme, Reproductive and child Health Programmes (RHP) and National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) Puratchi Thalaivar MGR Nutritious Meal Programme (PTMGRNMP), Mid day meal programme.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Elucidate why the Green Revolution was born.
Answer:

1. For a country’s overall development process food security of people is one of the key determining factor.
2. After independence, even though India focused on Agriculture, industrialization was also given priority.
3. But the problem of drought experienced in India forced her to be dependent on imports of food grains.
4. Therefore India had to plead for food grains from richer countries at concessional rates.
5. United states of America extended assistance through its Public Law 480 to India. This situation was popularly known as ship to mouth existence.
6. An American Organisation Ford Foundation formulated a plan to increase food production in the country by introducing High Yielding varieties of wheat and rice.
7. When the results was very good in India, the idea of Green Revolution also bom in India.

Question 2.
Explain Minimum Support Price.
Answer:
Minimum Support Price is a price fixed by an expert group for a particular crop by considering various costs involved in the cultivation of that crop. After announcing the MSP, the State will open procurement centres in places where these crops are widely grown. However, the farmers are free to sell in the open market if they get a better price for their crop produce. On the other hand, if the open market price is lower than the MSP, the farmers would get an assured price (the MSP) by selling their produce to the FCI. Thus, with the implementation of MSP farmers are certain about the price they would get at the end of the crop season. Further, farmers also get insulated against any price crash during the harvest season.

Question 3.
Elaborate the Public Distribution System.
Answer:

1. Public Distribution system refers to the Ration Shops.
2. The step taken by the Government to distribute food grains at subsidised rates is through this Public Distribution System.
3. The nature, scope and functioning of PDS varies from State to State.
4. There are two types of Public Distribution System.
5. They are universal PDS and Targeted PDS.
6. Under universal PDS, all the family ration card holders are entitled to the supplies from PDS.
7. In the targeted PDS, the beneficiaries are identified based on certain criteria, leaving others.
8. Tamil Nadu continues to have the universal system of PDS and supplies rice at free of cost to all card holders.
9. Both the Union and the State Governments subsidised the supplies distributed through PDS.
10. The National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in 2013.
11. According to this Act 50% of urban households and 75% of the rural households are known as priority households based on a set of criteria.
12. They are supplied rice at ₹3 per kg, and wheat at ₹2 per kg, and millets at ₹1 per kg.
13. The Government of Tamil Nadu has declared that SMART family cards in lieu of existing family cards.

Question 4.
What are the factors affecting the purchasing power and explain them.
Answer:
• Over population: The population growth rate in India is high as 1.7 per 1000. Large population leads to increasing demand, but supply was not equal to the demand. So, the normal price level will be going an higher. So it affect purchasing power, especially in rural population.

• Increasing prices of essential goods: Even though there has been a constant growth in the GDP and growth opportunities in the Indian economy, there have been steady increase in the prices of essential goods. The continuous rise in the prices erodes the purchasing power and adversely affect the poor people. During 2015-16 an average rate of 2% flood inflation, the prices of pulses rose by about 40%.

• Demand for goods: When demand for goods increases, the price of goods increases then the purchasing power is affected.

• Price of goods affect the value of currency: When the price increases the purchasing power decreases and finally the value of currency decreases and vice versa.

• Production and supply of goods: The production and supply of goods decline, the price of goods increases, then the purchasing power is affected.

• Poverty and inequality: There exists a huge economic disparity in the Indian economy. The proportion of income and assets owned by the top 10% of Indian goes on increasing. This has led to an increase in the poverty level in society. Generally purchasing power is affected by poverty and unequal distribution of wealth also.

Purchasing power affects every aspect of economics, from consumers buying goods to investors and stock prices to a country’s economic prosperity. As such, a country’s government institutes policies and regulations to protect a currency’s purchasing power and keep an economy healthy. One method to monitor purchasing power is through the Consumer Price Index.

Question 5.
Write briefly some of the important objectives of India’s agricultural policy.
Answer:
The New Agricultural Policy was announced by the Government of India in 2018. The main objectives of the policy are:

1. Raising the productivity of inputs: Inputs for the growth of crops of such as HYV seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, irrigation projects should be improved.
2. Raising value – added per hectare: The policy aims at increasing the value addition per hectare by raising the productivity in small and marginal holding instead of raising physical output in general.
3. Protecting the interest of the poor farmers: The policy help the poor and marginal farmers by abolishing intermediaries, extended credit support and land reforms,
4. Modernising Agriculture sector: Introduction of modem technology in agricultural operations and application of improved agricultural inputs like HYV seeds, fertilizers etc.
5. Environmental Degradation: One of the objective of the agricultural policy is to check the environmental degradation of natural base.
6. Removing bureaucracy: Bureaucratic obstacles on the farmers co-operative societies and self – help institutions is to be removed so that farmers can work freely.

Question 6.
Discuss about the Multi-dimentional Poverty Index India and Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Multi-dimensional Poverty Index 2018 report prepared by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative makes the following observations about India.
India has reduced its poverty rate drastically from 55% to 28% in 10 years, with 271 million people moving out of poverty between 2005-06 and 2015-16.

• India still had 364 million poor people in 2015-16, the largest for any country, although it is down from 635 million in 2005-06.

• Of the 364 million people who were MPI poor in 2015-16,156 million were children whereas in 2005-06 there were 292 million poor children in India. This represents a 47% decrease or 136 million fewer children growing up in multi-dimensional poverty.

• 80% of people belonging to ST were poor in 2005-06 and 50% of them were still poor in 2015-16.

• Bihar with more than half its population in poverty was the poorest state in 2015-16.

• The four poorest states Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh were still home to 196 million MPI poor people, which was over half of all the MPI poor people in India.

• Kerala, one of the least poor regions in 2006, reduced its MPI by around 92%.

Multi-dimensional Poverty Index 2018 Report in Tamil Nadu:
Over the last decades, Tamil Nadu has made a significant progress in poverty reduction. The districts in Tamil Nadu are classified into three categories, namely high-poverty districts (more than 40% of the population living below poverty line), moderately poor districts (30% to 40%) and low level poverty districts (below 30%).

After 1994, poverty has declined steadily in both rural and urban areas of Tamil Nadu and the state has a smaller share of India’s poor relative to its-population. After 2005, the poverty reduction in this state has been faster than in many other states in India. Tamil Nadu leads in the poverty alleviation programmes during 2014-2017. Government of India is implementing many policies and programmes to eradicate poverty.
These policies and programmes, if continued, will completely eradicate the poverty in the state. In future, Tamil Nadu can become a model of development in India.

Question 7.
Briefly explain the nutritional and health status of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Nutrition plays a crucial role in human health and well being.
2. Tamil Nadu has played a pioneering role in bringing about significant changes in the health and nutrition status.
3. Children below six years of age, pregnant women, lactating mothers and adolescent girls are mainly taken care of.
4. Tamil Nadu’s budget allocation for health and nutrition is the highest in the country.
5. The performance of the Integrated Child Development Services, and the Puratchi Thalaivar MGR Nutritious Meal Programme (PTMGRNMP) are considered one of the best in the country.
6. In Tamil Nadu, ICDs is being implemented through 54,439 child centres, that is 49,499 Anganwadi centres and 4,940 mini Anganwadi centres.
7. There are 434 Child Development Blocks in which 385 in rural areas, 47 urban areas and 2 in tribal areas.
8. The Government of Tamil Nadu’s policy for “A Malnutrition free Tamil Nadu” guides the State’s long term Multi – sectoral strategy for eliminating malnutrition,
9. Amartya Sen, Noble prize winning Economist stated that he sees a political will and commitment in the state of Tamil Nadu to tackle these issues to achieve the status of a “Malnutrition” “Free state”.

VII. Activity and Projects

Question 1.
Visit nearby “Uzhavar Sandhai” and collect the information about the functions of market.
Answer:
Uzhavar Sandhai is a scheme of the Government of Tamil Nadu to promote direct contact between farmers and consumers in Tamil Nadu.

Functions of Uzhavar Sandhai:

1. Uzhavar Sandhai also called as Farmer’s market was started at Madurai in 1999 to help the farmers to sell their produce at reasonable rate without the interference of the middlemen.
2. Uzhavar Sandhai starts its functioning from early morning.
3. It facilitates direct contact between farmers and the public.
4. It provides fresh vegetables and fruits at reasonable price daily without any interference from the middlemen.
5. Prices are listed down in the blackboards in every shop.
6. It provides correct measurement to the consumers with the price lesser than the retail price in the market.
7. It also acts as a technical training centre to the farmers.
8. Some of the Uzhavar Sandhai’s also sell seeds and other inputs to the farmers.
9. Farmers those who produce less can also sell in these farmer’s market and benefit themselves.

Question 2.
Collect information about health centre functioning nearby your location.
Answer:
Health centres provide continuous and comprehensive care to the patients. It helps in making the patients available with the social welfare and pubilc health services initiated by the Governing bodies.

Functions of Health Centre:

1. Provision of medical care.
2. Education about health.
3. Prevention and control of locally epedemic diseases.
4. Safe water supply and basic sanitation.
5. Maternal – child health including family planning.
6. Clinical Services.
7. Aged and disability care.
8. Child care.
9. Overall Health Promotion.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Food Security and Nutrition Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The minimum support price is the price announced by the Government at the ……………… of the cropping season.
(a) end
(b) beginning
(c) harvest
(d) none
Answer:
(b) beginning

Question 2.
………… The programme was implemented in selected districts where irrigation was assured.
(a) FCI
(b) HYV
(c) MSD
Answer:
(b) HYV

Question 3.
The nature, scope and functioning of the ……………… varies from State to State.
(a) FCI
(b) PDS
(c) IRDP
(d) None
Answer:
(b) PDS

Question 4.
Buffer stock scheme purpose is …………..
(a) To save food grains from pest attack
(b) To deliver food
(c) To stop price fluctuations
Answer:
(c) To stop price fluctuations

Question 5.
Around 94% of the fair – price shops are run by ……………… in Tamil Nadu.
(a) banks
(b) government
(c) co-operatives
(d) local heads
Answer:
(c) co-operatives

Question 6.
It has been proposed to open new fair price shops so that, no cardholder walks more than ……………… km.
(a) 4
(b) 3.5
(c) 2.5
(d) 1.5
Answer:
(d) 1.5

Question 7.
……………… is a method of monitoring purchasing power.
(a) Purchasing power parity
(b) Whole sale price Index
(c) Consumer price index
(d) Inflation
Answer:
(c) Consumer price index

Question 8.
In general, purchasing power is affected by :
(a) Poverty
(b) Unequal distribution of wealth
(c) Price of the goods
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 9.
……………… is the largest economy in terms of PPP – GDP in 2019.
(a) USA
(b) China
(c) Japan
(d) India
Answer:
(b) China

Question 10.
……………… are the factors that constitute the Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index.
(a) Quality of work
(b) Health
(c) Education
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 11.
……………… district tops in Multi-dimensional index in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Kancheepuram
(c) Ariyalur
(d) Virudunagar
Answer:
(b) Kancheepuram

Question 12.
The status of ……………… in urban and Rural areas are traced with the help of the National Family Health Survey.
(a) Poverty
(b) Health
(c) Nutrition
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Nutrition

Question 13.
……………… is considered to be one of the world’s largest programme of its kind for the holistic development of the child.
(a) ICDS
(b) RCH
(c) NRHM
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) ICDS

Question 14.
Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy Maternity Benefit Scheme gives financial assistance to poor pregnant women upto :
(a) ₹ 25,000
(b) ₹ 12,000
(c) ₹ 15,000
(d) ₹ 50,000
Answer:
(b) ₹ 12,000

Question 15.
Better medical care leads to ……………… population.
(a) stable
(b) healthy
(c) disease less
(d) growth of active
Answer:
(b) healthy

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iii)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (i)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) India has reduced the poverty rate drastically from 55% to 28 % in the past 10 years.
(ii) Multidimensional poverty index reveals who is poor, how they are poor, and the disadvantages they experience.
(iii) A substantial number of Indian women and children are underweight, anaemic and deficient in micro-nutrient.
(iv) Though India has achieved self – sufficiency in food production, yet to attain food security to all.
(a) (i), (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (ii), (iii) are correct
(d) all are correct
Answer:
(d) all are correct

Question 2.
(i) Raising the productivity of inputs and modernising agricultural is one of the aim of PMGYS.
(ii) Amartya Sen is an leading nobel laureate in agricultural science.
(iii) Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition programme is assisted financially by the world bank.
(iv) The National Food Security Act was implemented in Tamil Nadu in 2016.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(b) only (iv) is correct
(c) (i), (iv) are wrong
(d) (iii), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) only (iv) is correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The New Agricultural policy was announced by the Government of India in 2018.
Reason (R): The Government decided to remove export restrictions on most organic and processed agricultural products.
(a) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation to A.
(b) A and R are wrong.
(c) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Government of India is implementing many policies and programmes to eradicate poverty in India.
Reason (R): These policies if continued, Tamil Nadu can become a model of development in India in future.
(a) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation to A.
(b) A is wrong R is correct.
(c) A is correct but R is the correct explanation to A.
(d) A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation to A.

V. Answer in Short

Question 1.
Write about the National Food Security Act in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
On 1 November 2016, Tamil Nadu became the last state in the country to implement the National Food Security Act after holding out for three years. In a government order issued on 27 October, the state specified that while it was enforcing the law, it would be modifying its provisions.

Question 2.
Define Nutrition Security.
Answer:
According to eminent agricultural scientist M.S.Swaminathan, Nutrition security is, “Physical, Economic and social access to a balanced diet, safe drinking water, environmental hygiene, primary health care and primary education.

Question 3.
What is the purchasing power parity?
Answer:
• PPP is an economic theory that estimates the amount that needs to be adjusted to the price of an item, given exchange rates of the two countries, in order for the exchange to match each currency’s purchasing power.

• PPP can be used to compare countries income levels and other relevant economics data concerning the cost of living, or possible rates of inflation and deflation.

Question 4.
What does availability of food depend upon?
Answer:
The Availability of food depends upon the domestic production, changes in stocks and imports.

Question 5.
Name the three-tier structure of consumer cooperative societies in India?
Answer:

1. Primary consumer cooperative societies
2. Central consumer cooperative stores.
3. State-level consumer federation.

Question 6.
Write a note on National Food Security Act in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in 2013. On Nov 1, 2016 Tamil Nadu became a last state in the country to implement the Act. On 27th October, the State specified that while enforcing the law, it would modify the provisions.

Question 7.
What is meant by Buffer stock?
Answer:
Buffer stock is the stock of food grains namely wheat and rice procured by the Government through the Food Corporation of India.

Question 8.
How does the Buffer stock scheme help the people?
Answer:
The Buffer stock helps to resolve the problem of shortage of food during adverse weather conditions or during the periods of calamity.

Question 9.
What is meant by Issue Price?
Answer:
Buffer stock is done to distribute food grains in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of the society at a price lower than the market price also known as the Issue Price.

Question 10.
What are the three major dimensions of poverty?
Answer:
Health, Education and living standard are the major dimensions of poverty.

Question 11.
What is Padhumaiyar Kuzhu?
Answer:
Empowering adolescent girls and making them participate in the peer group services and activities as a group. This would enable them to gain confidence and became a catalyst of change.

Question 12.
What is PPP?
Answer:
PPP refers to the Purchasing Power Parity. It is an economic theory that estimates the amount that needs to be adjusted to the price of the item, given the exchange rate of the two countries.

Question 13.
What are the uses of PPP?
Answer:
PPP is used to compare countries income levels, and other relevant economic data concerning the cost of living, (or) possible rates of Inflation or deflation.

Question 14.
What is meant by Agricultural policy?
Answer:
Agricultural policy of a country is designed for increasing the agricultural production and productivity thereby raising the level of income and standard of living of the farmers within a particular period of time.

Question 15.
What are the ten indicators of Multi – Dimensional poverty index.
Answer:

1. Nutrition and child mortality under health.
2. Years of schooling and school attendance under education.
3. Cooking fuel, sanitation, water, Electricity, floor, assets under living standards.

Question 16.
Write a note on The Chief Minister’s Comprehensive Health Insurance scheme.
Answer:

1. It was launched in 2011 – 12.
2. Aims to provide free medical and surgical treatment in Government and private hospital to any family whose annual income is less than ? 72,000
3. To reach the goal of Universal Health Care to All.

Question 17.
When does Food security exists?
Answer:
Food security exists when all people, at all times, have physical, social, and economic access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food to meet dietary needs and food preferences for an active and healthy life.

Question 18.
Write a note a Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy Maternity Benefit Scheme.
Answer:

1. Gives financial assistance upto ₹ 12,000 to poor pregnant women on nutritious diet in 3 instalments.
2. This helps to avoid low birth weight of new bom babies.
3. These women can avail ante – natal care delivering and immunising the baby bom on Government hospitals.

Question 19.
What was the aim of the National leprosy Eradication Programme?
Answer:
Its aim is to detect and to provide sustained regular treatment to all leprosy patients in the State.

Question 20.
Write the names of the four poorest states of India.
Answer:
Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttarpradesh and Madhyapradesh are the four states with more number of poor people live.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the role of consumer co-operation in food security of India.
Answer:

1. Consumer co-operatives play an important role in the supply of quality goods at reasonable rates to common people.
2. It has a three tier structure.
3. They are Primary Consumer Co-operative Society, Central Consumer Co-operative Stores, State Level Consumer Federations.
4. More than 50,000 village level societies are engaged in the distribution of consumer goods in rural areas.
5. There are other benefits from consumer co-operatives such as Health Care, Insurance, Housing etc.,
6. Consumer co-operatives play a very important role in Tamil Nadu can be well witnessed as to around 94% of fair price shops are being run by co-operatives.

Question 2.
Name and explain the two components of food security system in India:
Answer:
The two components of food security system in India are Buffer stock and Public distribution system.
(i) Buffer Stock:
It is the stock of food grains (wheat and rice) procured by the government through Food Corporation of India (FCI). It is used to distribute food grain in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of society at a price lower than the market price. This , stock is also used during among natural calamity such as drought or earthquake.

(ii) Public Distribution System:
The food produced by the FCI is distributed through government-regulated ration shops among the poorer section of the society. This is called the Public Distribution System.