Category: Class 10

Students can download Maths Chapter 8 Statistics and Probability Ex 8.1 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 8 Statistics and Probability Ex 8.1

Question 1.
Find the range and coefficient of range of the following data.
(i) 63, 89, 98, 125, 79, 108, 117, 68
(ii) 43.5, 13.6, 18.9, 38.4, 61.4, 29.8
Answer:
(i) Here the largest value (L) = 125
The smallest value (S) = 63
Range = L – S = 125 – 63 = 62

Question 2.
If the range and the smallest value of a set of data are 36.8 and 13.4 respectively, then find the largest value.
Solution:
If the range = 36.8 and
the smallest value = 13.4 then
the largest value = L = R + S
= 36.8 + 13.4 = 50.2

Question 3.
Calculate the range of the following data.

Answer:
Smallest value (S) = 400
Largest value (L) = 650
Range = L – S = 650 – 400 = 250

Question 4.
A teacher asked the students to complete 60 pages of a record notebook. Eight students have completed only 32, 35, 37, 30, 33, 36, 35 and 37 pages. Find the standard deviation of the pages yet to be completed by them.
Answer:
The remaining number of pages to be completed is 60 – 32; 60 – 35; 60 – 37; 60 – 30; 60 – 33; 60 – 36; 60 – 35 and 60 – 37
The pages to be completed are, 28, 25, 23, 30, 27, 24, 25, and 23
Arrange in ascending order we get, 23, 23, 24, 25, 25, 27, 28 and 30

Question 5.
Find the variance and standard deviation of the wages of 9 workers given below:
₹ 310, ₹ 290, ₹ 320, ₹ 280, ₹ 300, ₹ 290, ₹ 320, ₹ 310, ₹ 280.
Answer:
Arrange in ascending order we get,
280, 280, 290, 290, 300, 310, 310, 320 and 320
Assumed mean = 300


Variance = 222.222
Standard deviation = √Variance = √222.222 = 14.907 = 14.91
Variance = 222.22
Standard deviation = 14.91

Question 6.
A wall clock strikes the bell once at 1 o’clock, 2 times at 2 o’clock, 3 times at 3 o’clock and so on. How many times will it strike in a particular day? Find the standard deviation of the number of strikes the bell make a day.
Answer:
Wall clock strikes the bell in 12 hours
1, 2, 3, 4, 5,… ,12
Wall clock strikes in a day (24 hours)
2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18, 20, 22, 24.
Assumed mean = 14



The standard deviation of bell strike in a day is 6.9

Question 7.
Find the standard deviation of the first 21 natural numbers.
Answer:
Here n = 21
The standard deviation of the first ‘n’ natural numbers,

The standard deviation of the first 21 natural numbers = 6.06

Question 8.
If the standard deviation of a data is 4.5 and if each value of the data is decreased by 5, then find the new standard deviation.
Solution:
If the standard deviation of a data is 4.5 and each value of the data decreased by 5, the new standard deviation does not change and it is also 4.5.

Question 9.
If the standard deviation of a data is 3.6 and each value of the data is divided by 3, then find the new variance and new standard deviation.
Answer:
The standard deviation of the data = 3.6
Each value of the data is divided by 3
New standard deviation = \(\frac{3.6}{3}\) = 1.2
New Variance = (1.2)² = 1.44 [∴ Variance = (S.D)²]
New standard Deviation = 1.2
New variance = 1.44

Question 10.
The rainfall recorded in various places of five districts in a week are given below.

Find its standard deviation.
Answer:
Assumed mean = 60

Question 11.
In a study about viral fever, the number of people affected in a town were noted as

Find its standard deviation.
Answer:
Assumed mean = 35

Question 12.
The measurements of the diameters (in cms) of the plates prepared in a factory are given below. Find the standard deviation.

Answer:
Assumed mean = 34.5

Question 13.
The time taken by 50 students to complete a 100 meter race are given below. Find its standard deviation.

Answer:
Assumed mean = 11


Standard deviation (σ) = 1.24

Question 14.
For a group of 100 candidates, the mean and standard deviation of their marks were found to be 60 and 15 respectively. Later on, it was found that the scores 45 and 72 were wrongly entered as 40 and 27. Find the correct mean and standard deviation.
Answer:
Number of candidates = 100
n = 100
Mean (\(\bar{x}\)) = 60
standard deviation (σ) = 15
Mean (\(\bar{x}\)) = \(\frac{\Sigma x}{n} \Rightarrow 60=\frac{\Sigma x}{100}\)
Σx = 6000
Correct total = 6000 + (45 – 40) + ( 72 – 27) = 6000 + 5 + 45 = 6050
Correct mean (\(\bar{x}\)) = \(\frac{6050}{100}\) = 60.5
Given standard deviation = 15


Correct mean = 60.5
Correct standard deviation (σ) = 14. 61

Question 15.
The mean and variance of seven observations are 8 and 16 respectively. If five of these are 2, 4, 10, 12 and 14, then find the remaining two observations.
Answer:
Let the missing two observations be ‘a’ and ‘b’
Arithmetic mean = 8

Students can download Maths Chapter 7 Mensuration Additional Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Additional Questions

I. Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder of radius 1 cm and height 1 cm is equal to ______
(1) π cm²
(2) 2π cm²
(3) 3π cm²
(4) 2 cm²
Answer:
(2) 2π cm²
Hint:
C.S.A of a cylinder = 2πrh sq. units = 2 × π × 1 × 1 cm² = 2π cm²

Question 2.
The total surface area of a solid right circular cylinder whose radius is half of its height h is equal to ______ sq. units.
(1) \(\frac{3}{2} \pi h\)
(2) \(\frac{2}{3} \pi h^{2}\)
(3) \(\frac{3}{2} \pi h^{2}\)
(4) \(\frac{2}{3} \pi h\)
Answer:
(3) \(\frac{3}{2} \pi h^{2}\)
Hint:
T.S.A = 2πr(h + r)
[radius is half of the height]
= \(2 \pi \times \frac{h}{2}\left(\frac{h}{2}+h\right)\)
= \(=\pi h\left(\frac{3 h}{2}\right)=\frac{3}{2} \pi h^{2}\) sq. units

Question 3.
Base area of a right circular cylinder is 80 cm². If its height is 5 cm, then the volume is equal to _______
(1) 400 cm³
(2) 16 cm³
(3) 200 cm³
(4) \(\frac{400}{3}\) cm³
Answer:
(1) 400 cm³
Hint:
Volume of a cylinder = πr²h cu. units
[Base area (πr²) = 80 cm² = 80 × 5 cm³ = 400 cm³

Question 4.
If the total surface area of a solid right circular cylinder is 200π cm² and its radius is 5 cm, then the sum of its height and radius is ______
(1) 20 cm
(2) 25 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 15 cm
Answer:
(1) 20 cm
Hint:
T.S.A of a cylinder = 200π cm²
2πr (h + r) = 200π
2 × 5 (h + r) = 200
(h + r) = 20 cm

Question 5.
The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder whose radius is a units and height is b units, is equal to ______
(1) πa²b sq.cm
(2) 2πab sq.cm
(3) 2π sq.cm
(4) 2 sq.cm
Answer:
(2) 2πab sq.cm .
Hint:
C.S.A. of a cylinder = 2πrh sq. units = 2 × π × a × b sq. cm = 2πab sq. cm

Question 6.
Radius and height of a right circular cone and that of a right circular cylinder are respectively, equal. If the volume of the cylinder is 120 cm³, then the volume of the cone is equal to _______
(1) 1200 cm³
(2) 360 cm³
(3) 40 cm³
(4) 90 cm³
Answer:
(3) 40 cm³
Hint:
Volume of the cone = \(\frac{1}{3}\) × volume of the cylinder
= \(\frac{1}{3}\) × 120 cm³
= 40 cm³

Question 7.
If the diameter and height of a right circular cone are 12 cm and 8 cm respectively, then the slant height is
(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 96 cm
Answer:
(1) 10 cm
Hint:
Slant height of a cone

Question 8.
If the circumference at the base of a right circular cone and the slant height are 120π cm and 10 cm respectively, then the curved surface area of the cone is equal to ______
(1) 1200π cm²
(2) 600π cm²
(3) 300π cm²
(4) 600 cm²
Answer:
(2) 600π cm²
Hint:
Circumference (2πr) = 120π cm
Slant height (l) = 10 cm;
Curved surface area of a cone = πrl sq. units
= \(\frac{120 \pi}{2}\) × 10 cm² = 600π cm²

Question 9.
If the volume and the base area of a right circular cone are 48π cm and 12π cm respectively, then the height of the cone is equal to ______
(1) 6 cm
(2) 8 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 12 cm
Answer:
(4) 12 cm
Hint:
Volume of a cone = 48π cm³
[Base area (πr²) = 12π]
\(\frac{1}{3}\) πr²h = 48π
\(\frac{1}{3}\) × 12π × h = 48π
[Substitute πr² = 12π]
h = \(\frac{48}{4}\) = 12 cm

Question 10.
If the height and the base area of a right circular cone are 5 cm and 48 sq.cm respectively, then the volume of the cone is equal to _______
(1) 240 cm³
(2) 120 cm³
(3) 80 cm³
(4) 480 cm³
Answer:
(3) 80 cm³
Hint:
Volume of a cone (V) = \(\frac{1}{3}\) πr²h sq. units
Base area (πr²) = 48 sq. cm
V = \(\frac{1}{3}\) × 48 × 5 = 80 cm³

Question 11.
The ratios of the respective heights and the respective radii of two cylinders are 1 : 2 and 2 : 1 respectively. Then their respective volumes are in the ratio _______
(1) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2
Answer:
(3) 2 : 1
Hint:
h₁ : h₂ = 1 : 2
r₁ : r₂ = 2 : 1
Ratio of their volumes
= \(\frac{1}{3} \pi r_{1}^{2} h_{1}: \frac{1}{3} \pi r_{2}^{2} h_{2}\)
= 22 × 1 : 12 × 2 = 4 : 2 = 2 : 1

Question 12.
If the radius of a sphere is 2 cm, then the curved surface area of the sphere is equal to ________
(1) 8π cm²
(2) 16 cm²
(3) 12π cm²
(4) 16π cm²
Answer:
(4) 16π cm²
Hint:
C.S.A of a sphere = 4πr² sq. units
[radius = 2 cm]
= 4 × π × 22 cm²
= 16π cm²

Question 13.
The total surface area of a solid hemisphere of diameter 2 cm is equal to _______
(1) 12 cm²
(2) 12π cm²
(3) 4π cm²
(4) 3π cm²
Answer:
(4) 3π cm²
Hint:
Radius of a hemisphere = \(\frac{2}{2}\) = 1 cm
Total surface area of a hemisphere = 3πr² sq. units = 3 × π × 12 cm² = 3π cm²

Question 14.
If the volume of a sphere is \(\frac{9}{16} \pi\) cu.cm, then its radius is ________
(1) \(\frac{4}{3}\) cm
(2) \(\frac{3}{4}\) cm
(3) \(\frac{3}{2}\) cm
(4) \(\frac{2}{3}\) cm
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{3}{4}\) cm
Hint:
Volume of the sphere = \(\frac{9}{16} \pi\)

Question 15.
The surface areas of two spheres are in the ratio of 9 : 25. Then their volumes are in the ratio _______
(1) 81 : 625
(2) 729 : 15625
(3) 27 : 75
(4) 27 : 125
Answer:
(4) 27 : 125
Hint:
Ratio of their surface area = 9 : 25

Question 16.
The total surface area of a solid hemisphere whose radius is a units, is equal to ________
(1) 2πa² sq. units
(2) 3πa² sq. units
(3) 3πa sq. units
(4) 3a² sq. units
Answer:
(2) 3πa² sq. units
Hint:
T.S.A. of a solid hemisphere = 3πr² sq. units
= 3 × π × a × a sq.units
= 3πa² sq. units

Question 17.
If the surface area of a sphere is 100π cm², then its radius is equal to ______
(1) 25 cm
(2) 100 cm
(3) 5 cm
(4) 10 cm
Answer:
(3) 5 cm
Hint:
Surface area of a sphere = 100π cm²
4πr² = 100π
r² = 25
r = √25 = 5 cm

Question 18.
If the surface area of a sphere is 36π cm², then the volume of the sphere is equal to _______
(1) 12π cm³
(2) 36π cm³
(3) 72π cm³
(4) 108π cm³
Answer:
(2) 36π cm³
Hint:
Surface area of a sphere = 36π cm²
4πr² = 36π
r² = 9
r = 3 cm
Volume of a sphere = \(\frac{4}{3} \pi r^{3}\) cu. units
= \(\frac{4}{3} \pi\) × 3 × 3 × 3 cm³ = 36π cm³

Question 19.
If the total surface area of a solid hemisphere is 12π cm² then its curved surface area is equal to ______
(1) 6π cm²
(2) 24π cm²
(3) 36π cm²
(4) 8π cm²
Answer:
(4) 8π cm²
Hint:
T.S.A of a hemisphere = 12π cm²
3πr² = 12π
r² = 4
r = 2
Curved surface area of a hemisphere = 2πr² = 2 × π × 4 = 8π cm²

Question 20.
If the radius of a sphere is half of the radius of another sphere, then their respective volumes are in the ratio _____
(1) 1 : 8
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 8 : 1
Answer:
(1) 1 : 8
Hint:
\(r_{1}=\frac{r_{2}}{2} \Rightarrow \frac{r_{1}}{r_{2}}=\frac{1}{2} \Rightarrow r_{1}: r_{2}=1: 2\)

II. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Curved surface area and circumference at the base of a solid right circular cylinder are 4400 sq.cm and 110 cm respectively. Find its height and diameter.
Answer:
Given, Circumference of the base of a cylinder = 110 cm
2πr = 110 ……. (1)
Curved surface area = 4400 cm²
2πrh = 4400 cm² ……. (2)
From (1) & (2), \(\frac{(2)}{(1)} \Rightarrow \frac{2 \pi r h}{2 \pi r}=\frac{4400}{110}=40 \mathrm{cm}\)
Height of the cylinder (h) = 40 cm
From (1), 2πr = 110
2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × r = 110
r = \(\frac{35}{2}\)
We know that, diameter (d) = 2 × radius
d = 2 × \(\frac{35}{2}\) = 35 cm
Diameter of the Circular cylinder = 35 cm

Question 2.
A mansion has 12 right cylindrical pillars each having radius 50 cm and height 3.5 m. Find the cost of painting the lateral surface of the pillars at ₹ 20 per square metre.
Answer:
Given, Radius of a cylinder (r) = 50 cm = 0.5 m
Height of a cylinder (h) = 3.5 m
Curved surface area of a pillar = 2πrh sq. units
Curved surface area of 12 pillars = 12 × 2πrh
= 12 × 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 0.5 × 3.5 m²
= 132 sq. m.
Cost for painting the lateral surface of pillars per metre = ₹ 20
Cost of painting = 132 × ₹ 20 = ₹ 2640

Question 3.
The total surface area of a solid right circular cylinder is 231 cm². Its curved surface area is two thirds of the total surface area. Find the radius and height of the cylinder.
Answer:
Given, Total surface area of a cylinder (T.S. A) = 231 sq.cm
Curved surface area = \(\frac{2}{3}\) × T.S.A = \(\frac{2}{3}\) × 231 = 154 cm²
2πrh = 154 cm² …… (1)
Total surface area = 231 cm²
2πr (h + r) = 231
2πrh + 2πr²= 231
154 + 2πr² = 231 [from (1)]
2πr² = 231 – 154 = 77

Radius of the cylinder = 3.5 cm
Height of the cylinder = 7 cm

Question 4.
The total surface area of a solid right circular cylinder is 1540 cm². If the height is four times the radius of the base, then find the height of the cylinder.
Answer:
Given, Let the radius of the cylinder be ‘r’
Height of a cylinder (h) = 4r (by given condition)
Total surface area = 1540 cm²
2πr(h + r) = 1540 cm²

Height of the cylinder = 4r = 4 × 7 = 28 cm

Question 5.
If the vertical angle and the radius of a right circular cone are 60° and 15 cm respectively, then find its height and slant height.
Answer:
Given, In the figure, OAB is a cone and OC ⊥ AB
∠AOC = \(\frac{60^{\circ}}{2}\) = 30°
In the right ∆OAC, tan 30° = \(\frac{\mathrm{AC}}{\mathrm{OC}}\)

Slant Height of the cone (l) = 15 × 2 = 30 cm

Question 6.
The central angle and radius of a sector of a circular disc are 180° and 21 cm respectively. If the edges of the sector are joined together to make a hollow cone, then find the radius of the cone.
Answer:

Given, Radius of a sector (r) = 21 cm
The angle of the sector (θ) = 180°
Let “R” be the radius of the cone.
Circumference of the base of a cone = Arc length of the sector

Radius of the cone (R) = 10.5 cm

Question 7.
If the curved surface area of a solid hemisphere is 2772 sq.cm, then find its total surface area.
Answer:
Given, the Curved surface area of a solid hemisphere = 2772 cm²
2πr² = 2772

Total surface area = 3πr² sq. units
= 3 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 21 × 21
= 4158 sq.cm
Aliter:
C.S.A of a hemisphere = 2772 cm²
2πr² = 2772 cm²
πr² = \(\frac{2772}{2}\) = 1386 cm
T.S.A of a hemisphere = 3πr² sq.units = 3 × 1386 cm² = 4158 cm²

Question 8.
An inner curved surface area of a hemispherical dome of a building needs to be painted. If the circumference of the base is 17.6 m, find the cost of painting it at the rate of ₹ 5 per sq. m.
Answer:
Given, Circumference of the dome = 17.6 m
2πr = 17.6
\(r=\frac{17.6 \times 7}{2 \times 22}=\frac{8.8 \times 7}{22}=2.8 \mathrm{m}\)
Curved surface area of the dome = 2πr² sq. units
= 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 2.8 × 2.8 m²
= 49.28 m²
Cost of painting for one sq.metre = ₹ 5
Cost of painting the curved surface = 49.28 × ₹ 5 = ₹ 246.40

Question 9.
Volume of a solid cylinder is 62.37 cu.cm. Find the radius if its height is 4.5 cm.
Answer:
Given, Height of a cylinder (h) = 4.5 cm
Volume of a solid cylinder = 62.37 cu. cm

Radius of a cylinder (r) = 2.1 cm

Question 10.
A rectangular sheet of metal foil with dimension 66 cm × 12 cm is rolled to form a cylinder of height 12 cm. Find the volume of the cylinder.
Answer:
After rolling the rectangular sheet into a cylinder

Volume of the cylinder = 4158 cm³

Question 11.
The circumference of the base of a 12 m high wooden solid cone is 44 m. Find the volume.
Answer:
Given, Height of the wooden solid cone (h) = 12 m
Circumference of the base = 44 m
2πr = 44
r = \(\frac{44 \times 7}{2 \times 22}\) = 7 m
Volume of the wooden solid = \(\frac{1}{3} \pi r^{2} h\) cu. units
= \(\frac{1}{3} \times \frac{22}{7} \times 7 \times 7 \times 12 \mathrm{m}^{3}\)
= 88 × 7
= 616 m³
Volume of the solid = 616 m³

Question 12.
Find the volume of the largest right circular cone that can be cut out of a cube whose edge is 14 cm.
Answer:
Given, Edge of the cube = 14 cm
The largest circular cone is cut out from the cube.
Radius of the cone (r) = \(\frac{14}{2}\) = 7 cm
Height of the cone (h) = 14 cm
Volume of a cone

Volume of a cone = 718.67 cm³

Question 13.
The thickness of a hemispherical bowl is 0.25 cm. The inner radius of the bowl is 5 cm. Find the outer curved surface area of the bowl. (Take π = \(\frac{22}{7}\))
Answer:
Let r, R and w be the inner and outer radii and thickness of the hemispherical bowl respectively.

Given that r = 5 cm, w = 0.25 cm
R = r + w = 5 + 0.25 = 5.25 cm
Now, outer surface area of the bowl = 2πR²
= 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 5.25 × 5.25
= 173.25 sq. cm
Thus, the outer surface area of the bowl = 173.25 sq. cm

Question 14.
Volume of a hollow sphere is \(\frac{11352}{7}\) cm3. If the outer radius is 8 cm, find the inner radius of the sphere. (Take π = \(\frac{22}{7}\))
Answer:
Let R and r be the outer and inner radii of the hollow sphere respectively.
Let V be the volume of the hollow sphere.

Hence, the inner radius r = 5 cm

Question 15.
How many litres of water will a hemispherical tank whose diameter is 4.2 m?
Answer:
Radius of the tank = \(\frac{4.2}{2}\) = 2.1 m
Volume of the hemisphere
= \(\frac{2}{3} \pi r^{3}\) cu.units
= \(\frac{2}{3} \times \frac{22}{7} \times 2.1 \times 2.1 \times 2.1 \mathrm{m}^{3}\)
= 19.404 m³
= 19.404 x 1000 lit
= 19,404 litres

III. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
A vessel is in the form of a hollow hemisphere mounted by a hollow cylinder. The diameter of the hemisphere is 14 cm and the total height of the vessel is 13 cm. Find the inner surface area of the vessel.
Answer:

For cylindrical part:
Radius (r) = 7 cm
Height (h) = 6 cm
Curved surface area = 2πrh = 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 7 × 6 cm² = 264 cm²
For hemispherical part:
Radius (r) = 7 cm
Surface area (h) = 2πr²
= 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 7 × 7 cm²
= 308 cm²
Total surface area = (264 + 308) = 572 cm²

Question 2.
A medicine capsule is in the shape of a cylinder with two hemispheres stuck to each of its ends. The length of the entire capsule is 14 mm and the diameter of the capsule is 5 mm. Find its surface area.
Answer:

Question 3.
From a solid cylinder whose height is 2.4 cm and diameter 1.4 cm, a conical cavity of the same height and same diameter is hollowed out. Find the total surface area of the remaining solid to the nearest cm2.
Answer:

For cylinderical part:
Height (h) = 2.4 cm
Diameter (d) = 1.4 cm
Radius (r) = 0.7 cm
Total surface area of the cylindrical part

For conical part:
Base area (r) = 0.7 cm
Height (h) = 2.4 cm

Question 4.
A 20 m deep well with diameter 7 m is dug and the earth from digging is evenly spread out to form a platform 22 m by 14 m. Find the height of the platform.
Answer:
Diameter of the cylindrical well = 7 m
Radius of the cylinder (r) = \(\frac{7}{2}\) m
Depth of the well (h) = 20 m
Volume = πr²h
= \(\frac{22}{7} \times \frac{7}{2} \times \frac{7}{2} \times 20 \mathrm{m}^{3}\)
= 22 × 7 × 5 m³
Volume of the earth taken out = 22 × 7 × 5 m³
Now this earth is spread out to form a cuboidal platform having
Length (l) = 22 m
Breadth (b) = 14 m
Let ‘h’ be the height of the platform.
Volume of the platform = 22 × 14 × h m³
Volume of the platform = Volume of the earth taken out
22 × 14 × h = 22 × 7 × 5
\(h=\frac{22 \times 7 \times 5}{22 \times 14}=\frac{5}{2} \mathrm{m}=2.5 \mathrm{m}\)
Thus, the required height of the platform is 2.5 m.

Question 5.
The perimeters of the ends of the frustum of a cone are 207.24 cm and 169.56 cm. If the height of the frustum is 8 cm, find the whole surface area of the frustum. [Use π = 3.14]
Answer:

Let the radii of circular ends are R and r [R > r]
Perimeter of circular ends are 207.24 cm and 169.56 cm
2πR = 207.24 cm

The whole surface area of the frustum = π [(R² + r²) + (R + r) l]
Required whole surface area of the frustum
= 3.14 [33² + 27² + (33 + 27) × 10] cm²
= 3.14 [1089 + 729 + 600] cm²
= 3.14 [2418] cm²
= 7592.52 cm²

Question 6.
A cuboid-shaped slab of iron whose dimensions are 55 cm × 40 cm × 15 cm is melted and recast into a pipe. The outer diameter and thickness of the pipe are 8 cm and 1 cm respectively. Find the length of the pipe. (Take π = \(\frac {22}{7}\))
Answer:

Let h₁ be the length of the pipe
Let R and r be the outer and inner radii of the pipe respectively.
Iron slab:
Volume = lbh = 55 × 40 × 15 cm³
Iron pipe:
Outer diameter, 2R = 8 cm
Outer radius, R = 4 cm
Thickness, w = 1 cm
Inner radius, r = R – w = 4 – 1 = 3 cm
Now, the volume of the iron pipe = Volume of the iron slab

Time is taken by the pipe to empty half of the tank = 3 hours 12 minutes.

Question 7.
The perimeter of the ends of a frustum of a cone are 44 cm and 8.4π cm. If the depth is 14 cm., then find its volume.
Answer:
Given let the radius of the top of the frustum be “R” and the radius of the bottom of the frustum be “r”

Question 8.
A tent is in the shape of a right circular cylinder surmounted by a cone. The total height and the diameter of the base are 13.5 m and 28 m. If the height of the cylindrical portion is 3 m, find the total surface area of the tent.
Answer:

Given, Total height of solid = 13.5 cm
Diameter of the cylinder (d) = 28 m
Height of a cylinder (h) = 3 m
Height of a conical portion = 13.5 – 3 = 10.5 m
From the diagram, Radius of a cone = Radius of a cylinder
Radius (r) = 14 m

Students can download Maths Chapter 8 Statistics and Probability Unit Exercise 8 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 8 Statistics and Probability Unit Exercise 8

Question 1.
The mean of the following frequency distribution is 62.8 and the sum of all frequencies is 50. Compute the missing frequencies f₁ and f₂.

Answer:
Arithmetic Mean (\(\bar{x}\)) = 62.8
Sum of all the frequencies (Σf_i) = 50
Let the missing frequencies be f₁ and f₂


Substitute of the value of f₂ in (1)
f₁ + 12 = 20
⇒ f₁ = 20 – 12 = 8
The Missing frequency is 8 and 12.

Question 2.
The diameter of circles (in mm) drawn in the design are given below.

Calculate the standard deviation.
Answer:
Assumed mean = 42. 5

Question 3.
The frequency distribution is given below

In table k is a positive integer, has a variance of 160. Determine the value of k.
Answer:
Assumed mean = 3k



The value of k = 7

Question 4.
The standard deviation of some temperature data in degree Celsius (°C) is 5. If the data were converted into degree Fahrenheit (°F) then what is the variance?
Solution:
F° = (C° × 1.8) + 32
\(\begin{array}{l}{\sigma_{c}=5^{\circ} \mathrm{C}} \\ {\sigma_{\mathrm{F}}=\left(1.8 \times 5^{\circ} \mathrm{C}\right) \cdot 9^{\circ} \mathrm{F}}\end{array}\)
Adding value to data doesn’t affect standard deviation.
New variance = \(\sigma_{\mathrm{F}}^{2}=81^{\circ} \mathrm{F}\)

Question 5.
If for a distribution, Σ (x – 5) = 3, Σ (x – 5)² = 43, and total number of observations is 18, find the mean and standard deviation.
Answer:


(i) Arithmetic mean (\(\bar{x}\)) = 5.17
(ii) Standard deviation (σ) = 1.53

Question 6.
Prices of peanut packets in various places of two cities are given below. In which city, prices were more stable?

Answer:
Coefficients of variation of prices in city A.
Arrange in ascending order we get, 16, 19, 20, 22, 23
Assumed mean = 20

Coefficient of variation = \(\frac{\sigma}{\bar{x}} \times 100\)
= \(\frac{2.45}{20} \times 100\)
= 12. 25%
Coefficient of variation = 12.25%
Coefficients of variation of prices in city B.
Arrange in ascending order we get, 10, 12, 15, 18, 20
Assumed mean = 15


Prices in city A is more stable (since 12.25 < 24.6 %)

Question 7.
If the range and coefficient of range of the data are 20 and 0.2 respectively, then find the largest and smallest values of the data.
Answer:
Range of the data (R) = 20
L – S = 20 ……(1)
Coefficient of range = 0.2
Coefficient of range = \(\frac{L-S}{L+S}\)
0.2 = \(\frac{20}{L+S}\)

substituting the value of L = 60 in (2)
60 + S = 100
S = 100 – 60 = 40
Largest value = 60
Smallest value = 40

Question 8.
If two dice are rolled, then find the probability of getting the product of face value 6 or the difference of face values 5.
Answer:
Sample space = {(1, 1),(1, 2),(1, 3),(1, 4),(1, 5),(1, 6),(2, 1),(2, 2),(2, 3),(2, 4),(2, 5),(2, 6), (3, 1), (3, 2), (3, 3),(3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6), (4, 1), (4, 2), (4, 3), (4, 4), (4, 5), (4, 6), (5, 1), (5, 2), (5, 3), (5, 4), (5, 5), (5, 6), (6, 1),(6, 2), (6, 3), (6, 4),(6, 5), (6, 6)}
n(S) = 36
(i) Let A be the event of getting product of face value 6.
A = {(1, 6), (2, 3), (3, 2) (6, 1)}
n(A) = 4
P (A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{4}{36}\)
(ii) Let B be the event of getting difference of face value is 5.
B = {(6, 1)}
n(B) = 1

The probability is \(\frac{1}{9}\)

Question 9.
In a two children family, find the probability that there is at least one girl in a family.
Answer:
Sample space (S) = {(Boy, Boy) (Boy, Girl) (Girl, Boy) (Girl, Girl)}
n(S) = 4
Let A be the event of getting atleast one Girl
A = {(Boy, Girl) (Girl, Boy) (Girl, Girl)}
n(A) = 3
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{4}\)
Probability of atleast one girl in a family is \(\frac{3}{4}\)

Question 10.
A bag contains 5 white and some black balls. If the probability of drawing a black ball from the bag is twice the probability of drawing a white ball then find the number of black balls.
Answer:
Let the number of black balls be “x”
Sample space (S) = x + 5
n(S) = x + 5
Let A be the event of drawing a black ball
n (A) = x
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{x}{x+5}\)
Let B be the event of getting a white ball
n(B) = 5
P(B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{5}{x+5}\)
By the given condition,
\(\frac{x}{x+5}=2 \times\left(\frac{5}{x+5}\right)\)
⇒ \(\frac{x}{x+5}=\left(\frac{10}{x+5}\right)\)
⇒ 10x + 50 = x² + 5x
⇒ x² + 5x – 10x – 50 = 0
⇒ x² – 5x – 50 = 0
⇒ (x – 10)(x + 5) = 0
⇒ x = 10 or x = -5
Number of balls will not be negative.
Number of black balls = 10

Question 11.
The probability that a student will pass the final examination in both English and Tamil is 0.5 and the probability of passing neither is 0.1. If the probability of passing the English examination is 0.75, what is the probability of passing the Tamil examination?
Answer:
Let A be the event of getting student pass in English
Let B be the event of getting student pass in Tamil


Probability of passing the tamil examination is \(\frac{13}{20}\)

Question 12.
The King, Queen and Jack of the suit spade are removed from a deck of 52 cards. One card is selected from the remaining cards. Find the probability of getting
(i) a diamond
(ii) a queen
(iii) a spade
(iv) a heart card bearing the number 5.
Answer:
Total number of cards = 52
3 cards are removed
Remaining number of cards = 52 – 3 = 49
n(S) = 49
(i) Let A be the event of getting a diamond card.
n(A) = 13
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{13}{49}\)
(ii) Let B be the event of getting a queen card.
n(B) = (4 – 1) = 3
P(B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{49}\)
(iii) Let C be the event of getting a spade card.
n(C) = (13 – 3) = 10
P(C) = \(\frac{n(C)}{n(S)}=\frac{10}{49}\)
(iv) Let D be the event of getting a 5 of heart card.
n(D) = 1
P(D) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{D})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{1}{49}\)

Students can download Maths Chapter 8 Statistics and Probability Ex 8.5 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 8 Statistics and Probability Ex 8.5

Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a measure of dispersion?
(1) Range
(2) Standard deviation
(3) Arithmetic mean
(4) Variance
Answer:
(3) Arithmetic mean
Hint:
Measures of dispersion are,
(i) Range
(ii) Mean deviation
(iii) Quartile deviation
(iv) Standard deviation
(v) Variance
(vi) coefficient of variation

Question 2.
The range of the data 8, 8, 8, 8, 8.. . 8 is
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 8
(4) 3
Solution:
(1) 0
Hint
R = L – S = 8 – 8 = 0

Question 3.
The sum of all deviations of the data from its mean is _______
(1) always positive
(2) always negative
(3) zero
(4) non-zero integer
Answer:
(3) zero

Question 4.
The mean of 100 observations is 40 and their standard deviation is 3. The sum of squares of all deviations is
(1) 40000
(2) 160900
(3) 160000
(4) 30000
Solution:
(2) 160900
Hint:
σ = 3

Question 5.
Variance of first 20 natural numbers is ______
(1) 32.25
(2) 44.25
(3) 33.25
(4) 30
Answer:
(3) 33.25
Hint:
Variance of 20 natural numbers is

Question 6.
The standard deviation of a data Is 3. If each value is multiplied by 5 then the new variance is
(1) 3
(2) 15
(3) 5
(4) 225
Solution:
σ = 3. 1f each is multiplied by 5. The new standard variation is also multiplied by 3.
∴ The new S.D = 5 × 3 = 15
Variance = 15² = 225

Question 7.
If the standard deviation of x, y, z is p then the standard deviation of 3x + 5, 3y + 5, 3z + 5 is ________
(1) 3p + 5
(2) 3p
(3) p + 5
(4) 9p + 15
Answer:
(2) 3p
Hint:
(i) Each value is added by any constant there is no change in standard deviation.
(ii) Each value is multiplied by 3 standard deviations also multiplied by 3.
The standard deviation is 3p.

Question 8.
If the mean and coefficient of variation of a data are 4 and 87.5% then the standard
deviation is
(1) 3.5
(2) 3
(3) 4.5
(4) 2.5
Solution:
(1) 3.5
Hint:
\(\bar{x}\) = 4, coefficient of variation is = 87. 5%

Question 9.
Which of the following is incorrect?
(1) P(A) > 1
(2) 0 ≤ P(A) ≤ 1
(3) P(Φ) = 0
(4) P(A) + P(\(\bar{A}\)) = 1
Answer:
(1) P(A) > 1
Hint:
Probability is always less than one or equal to one.

Question 10.
The probability a red marble selected at random from a jar containing p red, q blue and r green marbles is _________
(1) \(\frac{q}{p+q+r}\)
(2) \(\frac{p}{p+q+r}\)
(3) \(\frac{p+q}{p+q+r}\)
(4) \(\frac{p+r}{p+q+r}\)
Answer:
(1) \(\frac{q}{p+q+r}\)
Hint:
Sample spaces = p + q + r
Let A be the event of getting red
n(A) = p
P(A) = \(\frac{q}{p+q+r}\)

Question 11.
A page is selected at random from a book. The probability that the digit at units place of the page number chosen is less than 7 is _______
(1) \(\frac{3}{10}\)
(2) \(\frac{7}{10}\)
(3) \(\frac{3}{9}\)
(4) \(\frac{7}{9}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{7}{10}\)
Hint:
Here n(S)= 10 (given digit at imit place. It has two digit)
n(A) = 7
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{7}{10}\)

Question 12.
The probability of getting a job for a person is \(\frac{x}{3}\). If the probability of not getting the job is \(\frac{2}{3}\) then the value of x is.
(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 1.5
Solution:
(2) 1
Hint:
Probability of getting a job = \(\frac{x}{3}\)
Probability of not getting a job = 1 – \(\frac{x}{3}\)

Question 13.
Kamalam went to play a lucky draw contest. 135 tickets of the lucky draw were sold. If the probability of Kamalam winning is \(\frac{1}{9}\), then the number of tickets bought by Kamalam is _______
(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 20
Answer:
(3) 15
Hint:
n(S) = 135
P(A) = \(\frac{1}{9}\)

Question 14.
If a letter is chosen at random from the English alphabets {a, b, …, z}, then the probability that the letter chosen precedes x.
(1) \(\frac{12}{13}\)
(2) \(\frac{1}{13}\)
(3) \(\frac{23}{26}\)
(4) \(\frac{3}{26}\)
Solution:
(3) \(\frac{23}{26}\)
Hint:
n(S) = 26
Let A denote the letter chosen precedes x
A= {a, b, c, d, …, x}
n(A) = 23
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{23}{26}\)

Question 15.
A purse contains 10 notes of ₹ 2000, 15 notes of ₹ 500, and 25 notes of ₹ 200. One note is drawn at random. What is the probability that the note is either a ₹ 500 note or ₹ 200 note?
(1) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
(2) \(\frac{3}{10}\)
(3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(4) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
Answer:
(4) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
Hint:
Sample space (S) = 10 + 15 + 25 = 50
n(S) = 50
Let A be the event of getting ₹ 500 note
n (A) = 15
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{15}{50}\)
Let B be the event of getting ₹ 200 note
n (B) = 25
P(B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{25}{50}\)
Probability of the note is either a ₹ 500 note or ₹ 200 note
P(A) + P(B) = \(\frac{15}{50}+\frac{25}{50}\) = \(\frac{40}{50}\) = \(\frac{4}{5}\)

Students can download 10th Social Science Economics Chapter 5 Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 5 Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
‘The Detroit of Asia’ is
(a) Tuticorin
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(c) Chennai

Question 2.
Pumpsets and motors are produced mostly in …………….
(a) Salem
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) Dharampuri
Answer:
(b) Coimbatore

Question 3.
Tuticorin is known as:
(a) Gateway of India
(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu
(c) Pump city
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu

Question 4.
……………… are an essential aspect of a nation’s development.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) Railway
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Question 5.
Tiruppur is known for:
(a) Leather tanning
(b) Lock making
(c) Knitwear
(d) Aigo-processing
Answer:
(c) Knitwear

Question 6.
Along with Ambur and Vaniyambadi ………….. is also a centre for leather goods exports.
(a) Chennai
(b) Sivakasi
(c) Coimbatore
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(a) Chennai

Question 7.
IT means
(a) Indian Technology
(b) Information Technology
(c) Institute of Technology
(d) Initiative Technology
Answer:
(b) Information Technology

Question 8.
A successful industrial cluster entirely created by the Tamil Nadu is ………………
(a) Hosur
(b) Dindigul
(c) Kovilpatti
(d) Thirunelveli
Answer:
(a) Hosur

Question 9.
SIPCOT was formed in the year:
(a) 1972
(b) 1976
(c) 1971
(d) 1978
Answer:
(c) 1971

Question 10.
Which is the Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Agency?
(a) SIPCOT
(b) TANSIDCO
(c) TIDCO
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………….. are very important in the modern economic activates of man.
2. ………….. are groups of firms in a defined geographic area that share common market and technologies.
3. Hundred of leather and tannery facilities are located around ………….. District inTamilNadu.
4. ………….. is fondly calls as ‘Little Japan’.
5. Special Economic Zones policy was introduced on in …………..
6. ………….. is an innovator of new ideas and business processes.

Answers:

1. Industrialisation
2. Industrial Clusters
3. Vellore
4. Sivakasi
5. April 2000
6. Entrepreneur

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Entrepreneurship promotes capital formation by mobilising the idle saving of the public.
(ii) They are not provide large scale employment to artisan, technically qualified persons and professionals.
(iii) Entrepreneurs help the country to increase the GDP and per capitals income.
(iv) Entrepreneurs not promote country’s export trade.
(a) (i) and (iv) is correct
(b) (i) only correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) is correct
(d) (i) and (iii) is correct
Answer:
(d) (i) and (iii) is correct

IV. Pick out odd one

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not having leather factories?
(a) Ranipet
(b) Bharmapuri
(c) Ambur
(d) Vaniyambadi
Answer:
(b) Bharmapuri

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not a industrial developing agency?
(a) TIDCO
(b) SIDCO
(c) MEPG
(d) SIPCOT
Answer:
(c) MEPG

V. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

VI. Write Short Answer

Question 1.
Why should a developing economy diversify out of agriculture?
Answer:
As an economy grows and incomes increase, consumers tend to spend a lesser share of their income on products from the agricultural sector. There are limits to the ability of agriculture to absorb labour due to the declining marginal productivity of land. Due to this, there is a need for an economy’s production and employment base to diversity away from agriculture.

Question 2.
Why are wages low in the agricultural sector?
Answer:
Labour productivity cannot increase in the agricultural sector as the marginal productivity of land goes on decreasing. Therefore wages remain low resulting in poverty.

Question 3.
What is meant by an industrial cluster?
Answer:
Industrial clusters are groups of firms in a defined geographic area that share common markets, technologies and skill requirements. An important aspect of clusters is the nature of inter-firm networks and interactions.

Question 4.
What are the routes for cluster formation?
Answer:

1. When artisans settle in one region and slowly spread their art in other regions.
2. When a large firm is established, to take care of its inputs and service requirements a cluster of firms may emerge.
3. Governments initiative to encourage Industrial sector using raw materials from a region.

Question 5.
Mention the 3 areas of policy-making that helped Tamil Nadu become one of the most industrialised states in the country.
Answer:
(a) Tamilnadu Industrial Policy – 2014
(b) Tamilnadu SEZs Policy
(c) Tamilnadu Biotechnology Policy – 2014

Question 6.
Mention any three-industrial development agencies in Tamil Nadu and their role.
Answer:
SIPCOT – State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu.

To promote Industrial growth by setting up Industrial Estates.

TIIC – Tamil Nadu Industrial Investment Cooperation Limited

To provide low – cost financial support for both setting up new firms and also to expand.

TIDCO – Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation.

To promote Industrial growth by setting up Industrial Estate

Question 7.
What are the problems of industrialization currently in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
To begin with, some clusters, especially chemicals, textiles and leather clusters, tend to generate a lot of polluting effluents that affect health. The effluents also pollute water bodies ‘ into which effluents are let into and also adjoining agricultural lands.

Second, employment generation potential has declined because of use of frontier technologies because of the need to compete globally. Quality of employment also has suffered in recent years as most workers are employed only temporarily. This issue too requires urgent attention among policymakers.

Question 8.
What is Meant by Entrepreneur?
Answer:
Entrepreneur is the person one who possess management skills, strong team building abilities and essential leadership qualities to manage a business.

Question 9.
What is Entrepreneurship?
Answer:
Entrepreneurship is a process of an action of an entrepreneur who undertakes to establish his entreprise. It is the ability to create and build something.

VII. Write brief Answer

Question 1.
What are the contributions of industrialization to development?
Answer:

1. Industries contribute by producing inputs such as fertilizers and tractors to agriculture thereby help them to increase productivity.
2. Services like Banking, transport and trade are dependent on the production of Industrial goods.
3. By using modem methods of production Industries contribute to better productivity and hence lower cost of production:
4. Industries helps to absorb the labour force coming out of agriculture.
5. By using modem technology, labour productivity increases, which help workers to get higher wages.
6. Increased income of the people lead to more demand for goods and services.
7. By producing more Industrial products, exports increases, thereby generate more foreign exchange.

Question 2.
Write a note on history of industrialisation in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Industrialisation in the Colonial Period

• The introduction of cotton cultivation in western and southern Tamil Nadu by the colonial government led to the emergence of a large-scale textile sector in these parts, which involved ginning, pressing, spinning and weaving operations.
• Introduction of railways also expanded the market for cotton yam and helped develop the sector.
• There was increase in trade during this period which led to industrial development. The two active ports in the region were Chennai and Tuticorin.
• In Western Tamil Nadu, the emergence of textiles industries also led to demand and starting
  of textile machinery industry in the region.

Post-Independence to early 1990s:

• After independence, several large enterprises were set up by both the central and state governments.
• The Integral Coach Factory in Chennai made railway coaches and the Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) in Tiruchirapalli manufactured boilers and turbines.
• Ashok Motors and Standard Motors together helped form an automobile cluster in the Chennai region.
• The 1970s and 1980s saw the setting up of emergence of power loom weaving clusters in the Coimbatore region as well as expansion of cotton knitwear cluster in Timppur and home furnishings cluster in Kamr.
• The Hosur industrial cluster is a successful case of how such policy efforts to promote industrial estates helped develop industries in a backward region.

Industrialization in Tamil Nadu – Liberalization Phase:

• The final phase of industrialisation is the post-reforms period since the early 1990s.
• Because of trade liberalisation measures, exports of textiles, home furnishings and leather products began to grow rapidly.
• Efforts to attract investments led to entry of leading multinational firms (MNCs) into the state, especially in the automobile sector.
• Chennai region also emerged as a hub for electronics industry with MNCs such as Nokia, Foxconn, Samsung and Flextronics opening plants on the city’s outskirts.
• A significant share of these investments has come up in special economic zones in the districts bordering Chennai.
• The major industries are automobiles, autocomponents, light and heavy engineering, machinery, cotton, etc.
• This diffused process of industrialisation and corresponding urbanisation has paved the way for better rural-urban linkages in Tamil Nadu than in most other states.

Question 3.
What are the important characteristics of successful industrial clusters? .
Answer:
The following are the chief characteristics of a successful cluster.

1. Geographical proximity of Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs)
2. Sectoral specialisation
3. Close inter firm collaboration
4. Inter – firm competition based on innovation
5. A Socio – Cultural Identity which facilitates trust.
6. Multi – skilled workforce
7. Active self – help organisations and
8. Supportive regional and municipal governments.
9. Through Competition, they are forced to become more efficient.

Question 4.
Write about the Textile industry cluster in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Textile Clusters:
Tamil Nadu is home to the largest textiles sector in the country. Because of the development of cotton textile industry since the colonial period, Coimbatore often referred as the “Manchester of South India”. At present, most of the spinning mills have moved to the smaller towns and villages at a radius over 100 to 150 km around the Coimbatore city. Tamil Nadu is the biggest producer of cotton yam in the country.

Palladam and Somanur, small towns near Coimbatore and the villages near these towns, are home to a dynamic powerloom weaving cluster as well. Powerloom is however more widespread with Erode and Salem region too having a large number of power loom units.

Tiruppur is famous for clustering of a large number of firms producing cotton knitwear. It accounts for nearly 80% of the country’s cotton knitwear exports and generates employment in the range of over three lakh people since the late 1980s. It is also a major producer for the domestic market. Because of its success in the global market, it is seen as one of the most dynamic clusters in the Global South. While initially most firms were run by local entrepreneurs, at present, some of the leading garment exporters in India have set up factories here.

Apart from body building, Karur is a major centre of exports of home furnishings like table cloth, curtains, bed covers and towels. Bhavani and Kumrapalayam are again major centres of production of carpets, both for the domestic and the global markets.

Apart from such modem clusters, there are also traditional artisanal clusters such as Madurai and Kanchipuram that are famous for silk and cotton handloom sarees. Even these clusters have witnessed a degree of modernisation with use of powerlooms in several units.

Question 5.
Write in detail about the types of policies adopted by the Tamil Nadu government to industrialise.
Answer:
The type of policies that are adopted by the Tamil Nadu Government to Industrialise are:- Education, Infrastructure, and Industrial promotion.

(i) Education: Industries require skilled human resources. Therefore, labourers are given technical knowledge apart from basic skills to enrich themselves. Many engineering colleges, polytechnics and Industrial training centres are opened in the country.

(ii) Infrastructure: Excellent infrastructure facilities has contributed to the spread of Industrialisation in smaller towns and villages in the state. Rural electrification, transport and especially minor roads that connect rural parts of the State enabled vast Industrialisation.

(iii) Industrial Promotion: Policies to promote specific sectors like automobile, auto components, bio – technology and information and communication sectors have been formulated to promote Industries of the state.

Question 6.
Explain the role of Entrepreneur?
Answer:
Role of an Entrepreneur:
Entrepreneurs play a most important role in the economic growth and development of a country’s economy.

1. They promote development of industries and help to remove regional disparities by industrialising rural and backward areas.
2. They help the country to increase the GDP and Per Capita Income.
3. They contribute towards the development of society by reducing concentration of income and wealth.
4. They promote capital formation by mobilising the idle savings of the citizens and country’s export trade.
5. Entrepreneurs provide large-scale employment to artisans, technically qualified persons and professionals and work in an environment of changing technology and try to maximise profits by innovations.
6. They enable the people to avail better quality goods at lower prices, which results in the improvement of their standard of living.

VIII. Case studies

Question 1.
Choose a cluster in Tamil Nadu based on online research and write a note on it.
Answer:
An example of a cluster in Tamil Nadu is given below. Students can do online research on their own and write details using this as a sample.

Example case study of a pulp and paper industry in Tamil Nadu.

Tamil Nadu Newprint and papers Limited (http:// www.tnpl.co.in/)

The company: TNPL was formed by the Government of India in 1979 as a public limited company under the provisions of the companies Act of 1956. Objective: The primary objective of the company is to produce newsprint and printing and writing paper using bagasse, a sugarcane residue as the primary raw material.

Assistance: The only paper will in India assisted by the World Bank.

Machinery: The state of art machines were built in flexibility for manufacturing both newsprint and printing and writing papers in the same machine.

Capacity: The latest upgraded capacity enhanced to 2,30,000 tpa in April 2003 through upgradation of the paper machines which is considered as the largest production capacity in India at a single location.

Marketing: The products are being marketed throughout the country and also exported to 20 countries around the world.

Location: The factory is situated at Kagithapuram in Kanir district in Tamil Nadu.

IX. Activity and Project

Question 1.
Write a note on a cluster or a firm near your school/home based on your observations.
Answer:
Here is an sample of a cluster of firm observed in an area is given. This is to help students gain a basic idea about how to undertake this activity. Students can select their location, observe and write findings and do this activity.

Name of the Village: Neikkarapatti, Salem

Industrial cluster: Good quality and high production of Jaggery. The area in around almost all the houses, small or big make it a point to involve themselves in the production of Jaggery.

Type: It is one of the prominent Cottage Industry in the area.

Reason: Most of the farmers in the region cultivate sugarcane and own a jaggery making unit.

Labour: It is a manual jaggery making traditional work, unmindful of the challenges.

Process: The whole process takes about five hours with different names locally as Vellam and Mandai Vellam based on the shape of the mould.

X. Life Skills

Question 1.
Teacher and Students discuss about the entrepreneurs and their activities and Write an a essay in the topic of “If you are like a Entrepreneur”.
Answer:
Note: Students should imagine themselves as entrepreneurs and write an essay on the topic. This is sample essay given as a guideline for the students.

(A stationery shop – business)

Entrepreneurs are business owners. If I am a entrepreneur, first of all, I should start my business in the line of my interest and in part with the demand of the locality and their needs. This would help me to earn profit from it.

I prefer do my entrepreneurial task by staring it at a small level with less financial investment (approx. 10,000) from my uncle who is also an entrepreneur who supports and motivates me.

I purchase my products for sale from the whole saler. The items I purchase are not perishable stationery items. It is easy for me to store it in my house itself. I get bulk orders from nearby shops. Sometimes, latest arrivals of designed erasers, pencil sharpeners will be a attractive one.

As an entrepreneur, I am ready to face risk factors, price hike, less demand, poor quality, seasonal changes and so on. But, I enjoy my work as a businessman and earn profit that gives my career a spark to continue in the same line of business.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The conversion of raw materials into usable materials is called as
(a) Entrepreneur
(b) Industry
(c) Exports
(d) Clusters
Answer:
(b) Industry

Question 2.
Wind energy is a form of …………… energy.
(a) Solar
(b) Petrol
(c) Hydel
Answer:
(a) Solar

Question 3.
SMESare:
(a) Small and Medium Enterprises
(b) Small, Medium, Export Services
(c) Small and Medium Export Services
(d) Salem Metal Export Services.
Answer:
(a) Small and Medium Enterprises

Question 4.
TIDCo is another government agency to establish ………………. estates.
(a) Industrial
(b) tea
(c) Real
Answer:
(a) Industrial

Question 5.
The Namakkal -Tiruchengode belt in Western Tamil Nadu is known for its ………………. building industry.
(a) Textile
(b) Truck body
(c) Coach
(d) Steel
Answer:
(b) Truck body

Question 6.
MEPZ is a special Economic zone in …………….
(a) Chennai
(b) Trichy
(c) Tirunelveli
Answer:
(a) Chennai

Question 7.
TANS! was formed in the year:
(a) 1945
(b) 1955
(c) 1965
(d) 1975
Answer:
(c) 1965

Question 8.
………………. is an innovator of new ideas in business.
(a) Agriculturalist
(b) Entrepreneur
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Entrepreneur

Question 9.
There are limits to the ability of agriculture to absorb labour due to the ………………. marginal productivity of land.
(a) Increasing
(b) Decreasing
(c) Steady
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Decreasing

Question 10.
Health care and educational services are diffused across major cities of:
(a) Chennai
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Tiruppur
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 11.
Nanguneri SEZ is situated at:
(a) Tiruvallur
(b) Vayalur
(c) Thirunelveli
(d) Tambaram
Answer:
(c) Thirunelveli

Question 12.
………………. is intended to provide low – cost financial support for both setting up of new units and for expansion of existing units.
(a) TIDCO
(b) TANSI
(c) TIIC
(d) MEPZ
Answer:
(c) TIIC

Question 13.
When Government decide to encourage manufacturing using raw material from a region. It may lead to emergence of:
(a) Industrial clusters
(b) More taxation
(c) Subsidy
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) Industrial clusters

Question 14.
The notion of an “Industrial district” was developed by Prof:
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Marshall
(c) Samuelson
(d) Pigou
Answer:
(b) Marshall

Question 15.
Heavy vechicles factory was set up to manufacture tanks in:
(a) Peramber
(b) Avadi
(c) Tiruchy
(d) Vellore
Answer:
(b) Avadi

Question 16.
Dindigul, Vellore and Amber area are famous for products.
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Leather
(d) Marine
Answer:
(c) Leather

Question 17.
The Avadi Industrial Estate was set up in the year:
(a) 1950
(b) 1960
(c) 1970
(d) 1980
Answer:
(a) 1950

Question 18.
IT (Information Technology) Specific Special Economic Zones are located in ………………. locations in Tamil Nadu.
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 10
Answer:
(c) 8

Question 19.
The agencies that is formed to promote Industrial growth in the state by setting up Industrial estates are:
(a) SIPCOT
(b) TIDCO
(c) TIIC
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 20.
Over the last ten years a few software firms have moved from Chennai to:
(a) Madurai
(b) Bangalore
(c) Coimbatore
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Coimbatore

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Stand up India scheme was launched in India in the year
2. ………….. is the ability to create and built something.
3. The Industries that produce raw materials for other Industries are called ………….. Industries.
4. If the output is consumed by another producer then, it is called as ………….. goods.
5. Geographical proximity of small and medium enterprise is a chief characteristic of a ………….. cluster.
6. ………….. policies have contributed to the decline of the handloom weaving industry.
7. The Salem steel plant was set up in the year …………..
8. Home Furnishings cluster is located at …………..
9. Integral Coach Factory (ICF) makes …………..
10. MNC means …………..
11. There are ………….. clusters in 13 districts of Tamil Nadu.
12. Transportation and poultry clusters are located in …………..
13. ………….. located in Trichy manufactures Boilers and Turbines.
14. The ………….. district is the top exporter of finished leather goods in the country.
15. SIPGOT was formed in the year …………..
16. MEPZ was established in the year to promote foreign direct investment.
17. A policy was set up in the year ………….. for setting up special Economic zone.
18. TANSI was formed in the year …………..
19. The poison control centre is associated with ………….. SEZ.
20. ………….. is the first Industrial cooperation operating in the domain of small enterprises.
21. There are ………….. export processing zones in the country set up by the Central Government.
22. ………….. schemes provides financial help specifically to SC and ST borrower and woman borrower.
23. Start up India scheme was launched to generate ………….. and creating …………..

Answers:

1. 5^th April 2016
2. Entrepreneur
3. Basic goods
4. capital
5. successful
6. Colonial
7. 1973
8. Karur
9. Railway coaches
10. Multi – National Companies
11. 27
12. Namakkal
13. BHEL
14. Vellore
15. 1971
16. 1984
17. 2000
18. 1965
19. Bio – pharmaceuticals
20. TANSI
21. Seven
22. Standup India
23. employment, wealth

IV. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The development of Industries in India can be studied under colonial phase, post independent phase and liberalisation phase.
(ii) Services sector contributes a major share in employment generation.
(iii) Karur is expertised in bus body building and home furnishing.
(iv) Tamil Nadu is the biggest producer of cotton yarn in the country.
(a) (i), (ii) are correct
(b) (iii), (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
(d) all are correct
Answer:
(d) all are correct

Question 2.
(i) Only after the economic reforms in 1990 the state has been the entry of hardware and electronic manufacture centres.
(ii) Bhavani and Kumarapalayan are major centres of production of carpets locally and globally.
(iii) Sivakasi region has now become a major centre for printing and fireworks in the country.
(iv) Dindigul and Erode are major employment generators in Knitwear industry.
(a) (i), (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) only (ii) and (iv) correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct

V. Pick out odd one

Question 1.
Which is not a export processing zone?
(a) MEPZ
(b) SEZ
(c) TIDCO
(d) ELCOT
Answer:
(c) TIDCO

Question 2.
Tamil Nadu’s Textile clusters does not include
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Padalam
(c) Somanur
(d) Dindigul
Answer:
(d) Dindigul

Question 3.
Which of the following is not under IT cluster?
(a) Nokia
(b) Foxconn
(c) Infosys
(d) MEPZ
Answer:
(d) MEPZ

VI. Write Short Answer

Question 1.
What is the industry?
Answer:
“Any human activity which is engaged in the conversion of raw materials into readily usable materials is called an industry”.

Question 2.
Why is small scale sectors considered important?
Answer:
The small scale sector is seen as important for two reasons.

1. To generate more employment than the large – scale sector.
2. The small scale sectors allows for a larger number of entrepreneurs to emerge from less privileged groups.

Question 3.
What is MEPZ?
Answer:
MEPZ is a special Economic Zone in Chennai and it is one of the seven export processing zones in the country set up by the central government. It was established in 1984. The MPEZ head-quarters is located on GST Road in Tambaram, Chennai.

Question 4.
Write the names of MNCs in Chennai region.
Answer:
MNCs such as Nokia, Foxconn, Samsung and Flextronics.

Question 5.
Write about Bus Body Building Industry clusters.
Answer:
The Namakkal-Tiruchengode belt in western Tamil Nadu is known for its truck body building industry. About 150 of the 250 units in this sector are located in this cluster including 12 large-sized body building houses. Karur is another major hub with more than 50 units. Many entrepreneurs were previous employees in a big firm involved in body building who came out . to set up their own units.

Question 6.
List down the names of the agencies that have played an important role in the Industrialisation of a state.
Answer:

1. SIPCOT – State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu.
2. TANSIDCO – Tamil Nadu Small Industries Development Corporation.
3. TIDCO – Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation
4. TIIC – Tamil Nadu Industrial Investment Corporation Limited.
5. TANSI – Tamil Nadu Small Industries Corporation Limited.

Question 7.
What is meant by SEZ?
Answer:
SEZ means Special Economic Zone in the country with a view to improve free environment for exports.

Question 8.
What do you understand by Stand up India Scheme?
Answer:
It is a scheme launched by the Indian Government with the primary objective of generation employment and wealth creation.

Question 9.
What do you understand by standup India scheme?
Answer:
It is a scheme launched by the Indian Government to facilitate bank loans between ₹ 10 lakh and ₹ 1 crore to atleast one scheduled caste (or) scheduled Tribe borrower and one woman borrower per bank branch for setting up a greenfield enterprise.

Question 10.
How do entrepreneurs promote formation?
Answer:
Entrepreneurs promote capital formation by mobilising the idle savings of the citizens and increasing country’s exports.

VII. Write Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write in detail about the types of industries on the basis of its use, raw ‘ material, ownership, and size.
Answer:
Types of Industries:

On the basis of

Uses:
Consumer goods Industries ⇒ output to the final consumer
Capital goods Industries ⇒ output consumed by another producer.
Basic goods Industries ⇒ output as the raw material for other Industries.

Raw material:
Agricultural sector
Industrial sector
Agro based sector
Leather Industries

Ownership:
Public owned ⇒ Government owned
Private owned ⇒ Private owned Co-operative owned

Size:
Large scale Industries
Small scale Industries
Medium scale Industries
Micro (or) tiny

Question 2.
Name some industrial development agencies and explain them.
Answer:
The following are some agencies that have played a key role in industrialization in the state. SIPCOT: (State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu), 1971 It was formed in the year 1971 to promote industrial growth in the state by setting up industrial estates.

TANSIDCO: (Tamil Nadu Small Industries Development corporation), 1970
TANSIDCO is a state-agency of the state of TN established in the year 1970 to promote small- scale industries in the state. It gives subsidies and provide technical assistance for new firms in the small scale sector.

TIDCO (Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation), 1965:
TIDCO is another government agency to promote industries in the state and to establish industrial estates.

TIIC (Tamil Nadu Industrial Investment Corporation Ltd.), 1949:
TIIC is intended to provide low-cost financial support for both setting up new units and also for expansion of existing units. Though it is meant to meet the requirements of all types of firms, 90% of support goes to micro, small and medium enterprises.

TANSI (Tamil Nadu Small Industries Corporation Ltd.), 1965:
TANSI was formed in 1965 to take over the small scale-units that were set up and run by the Department of Industries and Commerce. It is supposed to be the first industrial corporation operating in the domain for small enterprises.

Students can download 10th Social Science Economics Chapter 4 Government and Taxes Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Government and Taxes

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Government and Taxes Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The three levels of governments in India are:
(a) Union, State and local
(b) Central, State and village
(c) Union, Municipality and Panchayat
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Union, State and local

Question 2.
In India, taxes are including ……………..
(a) Direct taxes
(b) Indirect taxes
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 3.
Which is the role of government and development policies?
(a) Defence
(b) Foreign policy
(c) Regulate the economy
(d) all of above
Answer:
(d) all of above

Question 4.
The most common and important tax levied on an individual in India is ……………..
(a) Service tax
(b) Excise duty
(c) Income tax
(d) Central sales tax
Answer:
(c) Income tax

Question 5.
Under which tax one nation, one uniform tax is ensured:
(a) Value added tax (VAT)
(b) Income tax
(c) Goods and service tax
(d) Sales tax
Answer:
(c) Goods and service tax

Question 6.
Income tax was introduced in india for the first time in the year ……………
(a) 1860
(b) 1870
(c) 1880
(d) 1850
Answer:
(a) 1860

Question 7.
…………………….. tax is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership.
(a) Income tax
(b) Wealth tax
(c) Corporate tax
(d) Excise duty
Answer:
(b) Wealth tax

Question 8.
What are identified as causes of black money?
(a) Shortage of goods
(b) High tax rate
(c) Smuggling
(d) All of above
Answer:
(d) All of above

Question 9.
Tax evasion is the illegal evasion of taxes by:
(a) Individuals
(b) Corporations
(c) Trusts
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 10.
Payments are ………….
(a) Fees and fines
(b) Penalties and forfeitures
(c) None of the above
(d) a and b

II. Fill in the blanks

1. …………………. is levied by Government for the development of the state’s economy.
2. The origin of the word ‘tax’ is from the word ………………….
3. The burden of the …………………. tax cannot be shifted to others.
4. tax is levied on companies that exist as separate entities from their shareholders.
5. The Goods and Service Tax act came into effect on ………………….
6. The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called ………………….

Answers:

1. Tax
2. taxation
3. direct
4. Corporate tax
5. 1^st July 2017
6. Black Money

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Which of the following statement is correct about GST?
(i) GST is the ‘one point tax’.
(ii) This aims to replace all direct taxes levied on goods and services by the Central and State Governments.
(iii) It will be implemented from 1 July 2017 throughout the country.
(iv) It will unified the tax structure in India.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(d) All are correct

Question 2.
Choose the incorrect statements.
(i) Shortage of goods, whether natural or artificial, is the root cause of black money.
(ii) Industrial sector has been the major contributor to black money.
(iii) Smuggling is one of the major sources of black money.
(iv) When the tax rate is low, more black money is generated.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (iv)

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
Define tax.
Answer:
Tax is levied by the government for the development of the state’s economy. The revenue of the government depends on direct and indirect taxes.

Question 2.
Why we pay tax to the government?
Answer:
We pay tax to the Government because the country have to carryout many functions like building infrastructure like transportation, sanitation, public , safety, education, healthcare, military, public works etc.,

Question 3.
Write the canons of tax system?
Answer:
Every type of tax has some advantages and some disadvantages. So we have a tax system, that is, a collection of variety of taxes. All countries use a variety of taxes. There are some characteristics of tax system that economists think should be followed while designing a tax system. These characteristics are called as canons of taxation.

Question 4.
What are the types of tax? Give examples.
Answer:
Direct taxes – Eg: Income tax, wealth tax and corporation tax.
Indirect taxes – Eg: Stamp duty, Entertainment tax and Excise duty, Goods and services tax.

Question 5.
Write short note on Goods and Service Tax.
Answer:
Goods and Service Tax is defined as the tax levied when a consumer buys a good or service. That aims to replace all indirect taxes levied on goods and services by the Central and state governments. GST would eliminative the cascading effect of taxes on the production and distribution of goods and services. It is also a “one-point tax” unlike value-added tax (VAT), which was a multipoint tax.

Question 6.
What is progressive tax?
Answer:
Progressive tax is the tax in which the rate of taxation increases as the tax base increases. When income increases, the tax rate also increases. This is known as a progressive tax.

Question 7.
What is meant by black money?
Answer:
Black money is funds earned on the black market on which income and other taxes have not been paid. The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called black money.

Question 8.
What is tax evasion?
Answer:
The illegal non – payment of taxes is generally called as tax evasion, either by individuals corporations and trusts.

Question 9.
Write some causes of tax evasion.
Answer:
Tax evasion resulting in black money prevents the resource mobilisation efforts of the Union government. Shortage of funds distorts the implementation of developmental plans and forces the government to resort to deficit financing in case public expenditure is inelastic.

Tax evasion interferes with the declared economic policies of the government by distorting saving and investment patterns and availability of resources for various sectors of the economy.

Question 10.
What is the difference between tax and payments?
Answer:
Tax is a compulsory payment whereas payment is voluntary. Payment for getting any service gives direct benefits whereas payments for tax will not give any direct benefit.

VI. Brief Answer

Question 1.
Briefly explain the role of government in development policies.
Answer:
In India, there are three levels of Governments. They are Union Government, State Government and Local Government. They carryout functions for the benefit of people and society. The role of Government can be studied under the following heads.

(i) Defence: To create and maintain defence forces in the country as an essential security function to protect our country from enemies. (Army, Navy and Air Force)

(ii) Foreign policy: India is committed to world peace. We maintain friendly economic relationship to all the countries of the world.

(iii) Conduct of periodic elections: India is a democratic country. We elect our representatives to parliament and State Assemblies.

(iv) Law and order: To settle disputes, the Union Government consists of strong judicial system with court at the National, State and Lower levels. The State Governments takes responsibility to maintain law and order with responsibility from police department.

(v) Public administration and provision of public goods: The public administration is done by the Government with the help of departments for revenue, health, education, rural development etc. Also, it provides public goods like rural roads, drainage, drinking water etc.

(vi) Redistribution of Income and Abolision of poverty: The Government spends money in such a way that the poorer are given basic necessities of life like food, clothing, shelter, education, health care, etc. Thereby the redistribution of income should eradicate poverty in the country.

(vii) Regulate the Economy: The Central Government with the help of the Reserve Bank of India, controls supply of money in the economy and the Interest rate, inflation and foreign exchange. The various agencies like securities Exchange Board of India and competition commission if India are also a tool for the Government to control the economy.

Question 2.
Explain some direct and indirect taxes.
Answer:
Types of Taxes:
Direct Taxes: A tax imposed on an individual or organisation, which is paid directly, is a direct tax. The burden of a direct tax cannot be shifted to others. J.S. Mill defines a direct tax as “one which is demanded from the very persons who it is intended or desired should pay it.” Some direct taxes are income tax, wealth tax and corporation tax.

Income tax: Income tax is the most common and most important tax levied on an individual in India. It is charged directly based on the income of a person. The rate at which it is charged varies, depending on the level of income.

Corporate tax: This tax is levied on companies that exist as separate entities fronl their shareholders. It is charged on royalties, interest gains from sale of capital assets located in India and fees for a technical services and dividends. Foreign companies are taxed on income that arises or is deemed to arise in India.

Wealth tax: Wealth tax is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership. The same property will be taxed every year on its current market value. The tax is levied on the individuals and companies alike.

Indirect Taxes: If the burden of the tax can be shifted to others, it is an indirect tax. The impact is on one person while the incidence is on the another person. Therefore, in the case of indirect taxes, the tax payer is not the tax bearer. Some indirect taxes are stamp duty, entertainment tax, excise duty and goods and service tax (GST).

Stamp duty: Stamp duty is a tax that is paid on official documents like marriage registration or documents related to a property and in some contractual agreements.

Entertainment tax: Entertainment tax is a duty that is charged by the government on any source of entertainment provided. This tax can be charged on movie tickets, tickets to amusement parks, exhibitions and even sports events.

Excise duty: An excise tax is any duty on manufactured goods levied at the movement of manufacture, rather than at sale. Excise is typically imposed in addition to an indirect tax such as a sales tax.

Question 3.
Write the structure of GST.
Answer:
Structure of GST
SGST (State Goods and Services Tax):
Levied Intra-state (or) within the state

Eg:

1. VAT / sales tax, purchase tax
2. Entertainment tax, luxury tax
3. Lottery tax
4. State surcharges and cesses.

Payable to state Government.

CGST (Central Goods and Service Tax):
Levied Intra state (or) within the state.

Eg:

1. Central Excise Duty, services tax
2. Customs duty, surcharges
3. Education and sec. Hr. sec. cess.

Payable to Central Government.

IGST (Integrated Goods and Services Tax)

Levied Inter State (or) between States.
Payable to Central Government.
Four major GST rates are
5%, 12%, 18%, 28%

Question 4.
What is black money? Write the causes of black money.
Answer:
Black Money
Black money is funds earned on the black market on which income and other taxes have not been paid. The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called black money.
Causes of Black Money:
Shortage of goods: Shortage of goods, whether natural or artificial, is the root cause of black money. Controls are often introduced to check black money.

Licensing proceeding: It is firmly believed that the system of controls permits, quotes and licences are associated with maldistribution of commodities in short supply, which results in the generation of black money.

Contribution of the industrial sector: Industrial sector has been the major contributor to black money. For example, the Controller of Public Limited Companies tries to buy commodities at low prices and get them billed at high amounts and pockets the difference personally.

Smuggling: Smuggling is one of the major sources of black money. When India had rigid system of exchange controls, precious metals like gold and silver, textiles and electronics goods were levied a heavy excise duty. Bringing these goods by evading the authorities is smuggling.

Tax structure: When the tax rate is high, more black money is generated.

Question 5.
Explain the role of taxation in economic development.
Answer:
Resources Mobilisation:

1. The Government is able to mobilise resources and earn revenue from tax.
2. They utilise this revenue for the welfare of the people.

Reduction in Inequalities of Income:

1. Taxation follows the principal of equity.
2. When the nature of taxes are progressive that is when income increases, the tax rate also increases. .
3. So, poor will not be taxed much when their income is less.

Social welfare: Higher taxes are levied on undesirable products like alcoholic products thereby promoting social welfare.

Foreign Exchange: Taxation encourages exports and restricts imports. When there is no tax on export items, country earn more foreign exchange. Regional development: Generally, when industries are set up in backward regions, to motivate such business firms, tax incentives (or) tax hoildays are given to encourage development.

Control of Inflation: Through Taxation Government can control inflation of reducing the tax on the commodities.

VII. Activity and Projects

Question 1.
Collect information about the local taxes (water, electricity and house tax etc).
Water Tax: (with respect to the city Chennai)
Answer:

1. The rate of water tax is fixed at the 1.5% of the assessed annual value.
2. The administration is related to water tax in the city of Chennai is vested with (CMWS and SB) Chennai Metro Water Supply and Sewage Board.
3. Water tax is levied on private individuals and businesses on tap water.
4. Payment for water tax can be done online receipts will be generated within 24 hours of payment.
5. The time line of payment will be specified in the demand notice.
6. Failing to make the payment even after demanding legal proceedings added with fine and other charges are made.

Electricity Tax:

1. Electricity tax is an excise duty that is charged on the supplies of electricity made on or after 1st October 2008.
2. The tax is charged on the final supply of electricity to the consumer.
3. The liability of payments arises at the time the electricity is supplied.
4. The tax at a rate of 5% of the consumption charges.

House Tax / Property Tax:

1. A property tax or a house tax is a tax on the value of a property like house, office building etc.
2. This tax is levied by the governing authority of the area in.which the property is located.

Question 2.
Students purchase some goods on the shop. The teacher and students discuss those goods, maximum retail price, purchasing price or GST.
Answer:

Question 3.
Students are asked to search a Income Tax website and know the Income Tax Slab for current year.
Answer:
Website: www.apnaplan.com
New Income Tax Slabs and rates for financial year 2019-20

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Government mobilises its …………………. resources by levying taxes.
(a) financial
(b) physical
(c) material
(d) all the above
Answer:
(a) financial

Question 2.
……………. tax is levied on companies that exist as seperate entities from their shareholders.
(a) direct
(b) Income
(c) Corporate
Answer:
(c) Corporate

Question 3.
Tax system should be designed in such a way that the people automatically pay more tax revenue with increase in income :
(a) Canon of equity
(b) Canon of elasticity
(c) Canon of certainty
(d) Canon of Economy
Answer:
(b) Canon of elasticity

Question 4.
In India almost all the direct taxes are collected by the ……………..
(a) Union Government
(b) State Government
(c) local bodies
Answer:
(a) Union Government

Question 5.
Energy, water and waste management systems are common public :
(a) utilities
(b) properties
(c) systems
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 6.
……………… has been the major contributor to black money.
(a) Agriculture sector
(b) Industrial sector
(c) Tax sectors
Answer:
(b) Industrial sector

Question 7.
An …………………. tax is a duty on manufactured goods levied at the movement of manufacture.
(a) Sales
(b) Excise
(c) Stamp duty
(d) Entertainment
Answer:
(b) Excise

Question 8.
The major Indirect taxes in India are …………………. and GST.
(a) Customs duty
(b) Sales tax
(c) Excise duty
(d) Stamp duty
Answer:
(a) Customs duty

Question 9.
The structure of GST in India consists of …………………. forms.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 10.
Sales tax is an example of …………………. taxation.
(a) Progressive
(b) Proportional
(c) Regressive
(d) Degressive
Answer:
(c) Regressive

II. Fill in the blanks

1. India is committed to …………………..
2. The origin of the word tax is from taxation which means …………………..
3. The symbol PIB means …………………..
4. Goods and services tax is one of the …………………..
5. ………………….. was the first country to implement GST.
6. ………………….. was a multi-point tax.
7. France introduced GST in the year …………………..
8. Indian tax system adheres to Canon of ………………….. more than anything else.
9. The ticket to amusement park is an example for ………………….. tax.
10. SIT means …………………..
11. ………………….. is the payment for getting any service.
12. Taxation follows the principal of …………………..

Answer:

1. World peace
2. Estimate
3. Press Information Bureau
4. Indirect taxes
5. France
6. VAT
7. 1954
8. Certainty
9. Entertainment
10. Special Investigation Team
11. Fee
12. equity

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Black money refers to the unaccounted money.
(ii) Taxation should be used as an instrument for controlling inflation.
(iii) Tax payer does not expect any direct benefit from direct taxes.
(iv) Unreporting income is a form of tax evasion.
(a) (i), (ii) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
(d) All are correct.
Answer:
(d) All are correct.

Question 2.
(i) Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act is a recent legislation to curb black money in India.
(ii) Tax evasion is the illegal way of evading taxes by individuals only.
(iii) Overstating deductions is a form of generating black money.
(iv) Tax evasion penalties can be harsh depending on the severity of the crime.
(a) (i), (ii) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iv) are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Tax evasion undermines the equity attribute of the tax system.
(ii) Each Canons of taxation has its own unique characteristics.
(iii) GST is a form of direct tax.
(iv) GST came into force from 8th Nov – 2018.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) are correct
(c) (ii), (iv) are correct
(d) only (iv) is correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) are correct

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
Write a note on Law and Order:
Answer:
Both the Union and state governments enact numerous laws to protect our rights, properties and to regulate our economy and society. To settle disputes, the Union government has a vibrant judicial system consisting of courts at the national state and lower levels and the state government take the responsibility for administrating the police force in respective states.

Question 2.
What are the types of taxes?
Answer:
Taxes are of two types

1. Direct taxes
2. Indirect taxes

Direct taxes are levied on the income of the persons and the indirect taxes are levied on goods and services.

Question 3.
What is wealth tax?
Answer:
It is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership. The same property will be taxed every year on its current market value. The tax is levied on the individuals and companies alike.

Question 4.
What are the forms of tax evasion?
Answer:
The tax evasion activities include:

1. Under reporting income
2. Inflating deductions (or) expenses
3. Hiding money
4. Hiding interest in off-shore accounts
5. Dishonest tax reporting
6. Overstating deductions.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Excise duty.
Answer:
An excise tax is any duty on manufactured goods levied at the movements of manufacture, rather than at sale. Excise is typically imposed in addition to an indirect tax such as a sales tax.

Question 6.
State the reason”ln the case of Indirect taxes, the taxpayer is not the tax bearer why?
Answer:
In the case of Indirect taxes, the tax can be shifted to the others. That is the impact is on one person while the incidence is on the other person. Therefore, in the case of indirect taxes, the tax payer is not the tax bearer.

Question 7.
What is the main purpose of taxation?
Answer:
The main purpose of taxation is to accumulate funds for the functioning of the Government.

Question 8.
How are taxes levied in India?
Answer:
Taxes is levied in three ways

1. Progressive taxation
2. Proportionate taxation
3. Regressive taxation

Question 9.
Which Canon of tax system does Indian tax system adhere to?
Answer:
Indian tax system adheres to Canon of Certainty Government of India announce in advance the tax system so that every tax payer is able to calculate how much tax they have to pay.

Question 10.
When was the system of income tax introduced in India? and why?
Answer:
Income tax was introduced for the first time in India by Sir James Wilson in 1860 to meet the losses for the Government because of the sepoy mutiny of 1857.

Question 11.
What is meant by canon of equity?
Answer:
The canon of equity states that the rich should pay more tax revenue to the Government than the poor, thereby we can eliminate economic differences between them.

Question 12.
What is canon of certainty?
Answer:
The canon of certainty states that the Government should announce the tax system in advance and should not change it frequently.

Question 13.
What is canon of convenience?
Answer:
Tax should be collected from a person at the time he gets enough money to pay the tax. This is called canon of convenience.

Question 14.
What is canon of Economy?
Answer:
As tax payers, people may incur cost to process their accounts, In the same way, the Government also pay salary to its taxmen to run institution. The expenditure on all this should be economised or minimised.

Question 15.
What is canon of productivity?
Answer:
When the Government levies tax that can fetch more tax revenue to them then, it is called canon of productivity.

Question 16.
What is canon of Elasticity?
Answer:
The tax system should be designed in such a way that people automatically pay more tax revenue if their income grow. This is called canon of elasticity.

VI. Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write about the different canons of taxation.
Answer:
(i) Canon of Equity:
Since tax is a compulsory payment, all economists agree that equity is the cardinal principle in designing the tax system. The equity principal says that the rich should pay more tax revenue to government than the poor, because rich has more ability than the poor to pay the tax.

(ii) Canon of certainty:
Government should announce in advance the tax system so that every tax payer will be able to calculate how much tax amount one may have to pay during a year to the government.

(iii) Canons of Economy and Convenience:
These two canons are related. As tax payers we incur a cost to process our accounts and pay the tax, for example, salary paid to accountants and auditors.

Similarly government also pays salary to its taxmen and run huge institutions. If the tax is simple, then the cost of collecting taxes (tax payer cost + tax collector cost) will be very low.

Further, tax should be collected from a person at the time he gets enough money to pay the ‘ tax. This is called canon of convenience. A convenient tax reduces the cost of collecting tax.

(iv) Canons of Productivity and Elasticity:
Government should choose the taxes that can get enough tax revenue to it. Tax is paid by the people out their incomes. Therefore the tax system should be designed in such a way that the people automatically pay more tax revenue if their incomes grow. This is called canon of elasticity.

Question 2.
What are the penalties for a tax evader?
Answer:

1. If a person evade tax, he may be imprisoned upto to five years and had to pay a huge amount as fine.
2. The tax evader may also be ordered to pay for the costs of prosecution.
3. Other tax evasion penalties include community service, probation and restitution depending on the circumstances of the case.
4. If the crime of tax evader is very severe, the penalty can be harsh also.

Question 3.
What are the main differences between tax and other payments.
Answer:
Tax:

1. It is a compulsory payment to the Government.
2. Tax payer cannot expect direct benefit after paying taxes.
3. Tax payer has to pay the tax once it is imposed. Otherwise he/she will be penalised.
4. The purpose of levying tax is general. Money is used for the welfare of the people.
5. Eg: Income tax, gift box, wealth tax etc.,

Payments:

1. It is voluntary payment for getting any service.
2. Once payment is done, the person can expert direct benefit from it.
3. Payment need not be paid if the service is not necessary for a person.
4. The purpose of making payments is to enjoy certain special benefits.
5. Eg: Driving license, stamp fee, fee for Government Registration etc.,

Question 4.
What are the recent legislative measures to curb black money in India.
Answer:

1. SIT – Special Investigation Team on black money under Chairman and (Vice – Chairman of two former judges of the Supreme Court.)
2. The black money (undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of,tax Act – 2015.
3. MAG – Constitution of Multi Agency Group.
4. DTAAS – Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement.
5. FATCA – Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act.
6. Money Laundering Act.
7. Enactment of the Benami Transaction Amendment Act.
8. Launching of Operation clean money.
9. Lokpal and Lokayukta Act.
10. The Real Estate Regulation and Development Act of 2016.

Question 5.
How are taxes leevied in India.
Answer:
Taxes is levied by the Government progressively, proportionately as well as Regressively.

Progressive Tax: Progressive Tax rate is one in which the rate of taxation increase as the tax base increases. When income increases, the tax rate also increases. This is known as a progressive tax.

Proportional Tax: Tax levied on goods and services in fixed portion is known as proportionate taxes. Tax amount varies in the same proportion to that of Income.

Regressive Tax: It implies that higher the rate of tax, lower the income groups than in the case of higher income groups.

That is, tax is levied uniformly at a flat percentage regardless who the purchaser or owner Eg: Sales Tax, Property Tax.

Question 6.
As per the Interim budget for the financial year 2019 – 20, State the areas from where money / rupee is earned and spend hy Government of India (GOI).
Answer:
Earning money through:

1. Income Tax, Corporation tax
2. Customs
3. Union excise duties
4. GST
5. Borrowing and other liabilities
6. Non – dept capital assets
7. Non – Tax Revenues

Money goes to:

1. Interest payments
2. Central sector schemes
3. Centrally sponsored scheme
4. Pension and other expenditure
5. State share of duties and taxes
6. Defence
7. Subsidies
8. Finance commission and
9. Other transfers.

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 4 India’s Foreign Policy Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 4 India’s Foreign Policy

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s Foreign Policy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which Minister plays a vital role in molding foreign policy of our country?
(a) Defense Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) External Affairs Minister
(d) Home Minister
Answer:
(c) External Affairs Minister

Question 2.
The Panchsheel Treaty has been signed between ……………..
(a) India and Nepal
(b) India and Pakistan
(c) India and China
(d) India and Sri Lanka
Answer:
(c) India and China

Question 3.
Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?
(a) Article 50
(b) Article 51
(c) Article 52
(d) Article 53
Answer:
(b) Article 51

Question 4.
Apartheid is ………………
(a) An international association
(b) Energy diplomacy
(c) A policy of racial discrimination
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) A policy of racial discrimination

Question 5.
The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related to:
(a) Trade and Commerce
(b) Restoration of normal relations
(c) Cultural exchange programmes
(d) The Five Principles of Co existence
Answer:
(d) The Five Principles of Co existence

Question 6.
Which is not related to our foreign policy?
(a) World co-operation
(b) World peace
(c) Racial equality
(d) Colonialism
Answer:
(d) Colonialism

Question 7.
Which of the following country is not the founder member of NAM?
(a) Yugoslavia
(b) Indonesia
(c) Egypt
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(d) Pakistan

Question 8.
Find the odd one ………….
(a) Social welfare
(b) Health care
(c) Diplomacy
(d) Domestic affairs
Answer:
(c) Diplomacy

Question 9.
Non-Alliance means:
(a) being neutral
(b) freedom to decide on issues independently
(c) demilitarisation
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(d) none of the above

Question 10.
Non-military issues are
(a) Energy security
(b) Water security
(c) Pandemics
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

II. Fill in the blanks

1. India conducted its first nuclear test at ……………..
2. At present our foreign policy acts as a means to generate …………….. for domestic growth and development.
3. …………….. is the instrument for implementing foreign policy of a state.
4. …………….. was India’s policy in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war.
5. Our tradition and national ethos is to practice ……………..

Answer:

1. Pokhran
2. Inward Investment Business Technology
3. Diplomacy
4. Non – Alignment
5. disarmament

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Arrange the following in the correct chronological order and choose the correct answer from the code given below.
(i) Panchsheel
(ii) Nuclear test at Pokhran
(iii) Twenty-year Treaty
(iv) First Nuclear test
(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(d) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
Answer:
(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

Question 2.
Which of the following is not about NAM?
(i) The term Non-Alignment was coined by V. Krishna Menon.
(ii) It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by joining any military alliance.
(iii) At present it has 120 member countries.
(iv) It has transformed to an economical movement.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (iv) only
Answer:
(c) (ii) only

Question 3.
Write true or false against each of the statement.
(a) During Cold War India tried to form a third bloc of nations in the international affairs.
(b) The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for the conduct of the country’s foreign relations.
(c) The nuclear test at Pokhran was done under Subterranean Nuclear Explosions Project.
Answer:
(a) – True
(b) – False
(c) – True

Question 4.
Assertion(A): India aligned with Soviet Union by the Indo-Soviet treaty on 1971.
Reason(R): This began with a disastrous Indo -China war of 1962.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct and R is Wrong.
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is Wrong.

Question 5.
Assertion(A): India has formal diplomatic relations with most of the nations. Reason(R): India is the World’s second most populous country.
(a) A is correct and R explains A
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A

Question 6.
Avoidance of military blocs was necessity for India after political freedom. Because India had to redeemed from:
(a) acute poverty
(b) illiteracy
(c) chaotic socio-economic conditions
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
What is foreign policy?
Answer:
Foreign policy can be defined as a country’s policy that is conceived, designed and formulated to safeguard and promote her national interests in her external affairs, in the conduct of relationships with other countries, both bilaterally and multilaterally.

Question 2.
Explain India’s nuclear policy.
Answer:

1. India’s nuclear policy is based on two themes:
   • (a) No first use
   • (b) Credible minimum deterrence.
2. India has decided not to use nuclear power for offensive purposes.

Question 3.
Highlight the contribution by Nehru to India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, as opposed to the rivalry of the two superpowers (America and Russia). The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was ‘world co-operation, world peace, end of colonial imperialism, racial equality and non-alignment’.

Question 4.
Differentiate: Domestic policy and Foreign policy.
Answer:
Domestic Policy:

1. Domestic policy is the nation’s plan for dealing issues within its own nation.
2. It includes laws focusing on domestic affairs, social welfare, health care, education, civil rights, economic issues and social issues.

Foreign Policy:

1. Foreign policy is the nation’s plan for dealing with other nations.
2. Trade, diplomacy, sanctions, defence, intelligence and global environments are the types of foreign policy.

Question 5.
List any four guiding principles of Panchsheel?
Answer:
Guiding principles of Panchsheel are:

• Mutual Respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
• Mutual non-interference
• Equality and co-operation for mutual benefit
• Peaceful co-existence.

Question 6.
What was the reason for India to choose the path of Non-Alignment?
Answer:

1. Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister was opposed to the rivalry of the two super powers (America and Russia) who were trying to extend their influence over the newly emerged nations of Asia and Africa.
2. So he choose the path of Non – Alignment in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war and tried to form a third bloc of nations in international affairs.

Question 7.
In what ways are India’s global security concerns reflected?
Answer:
India’s global security concerns are reflected in its military modernisation, maritime security and nuclear policies.

Question 8.
List out the member countries of SAARC.
Answer:
The member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

Question 9.
Name the architects of the Non-Aligned Movement.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Tito of Yugoslavia, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia, and Kwame Nkumarah of Ghana were the founding fathers of NAM.

Question 10.
Mention the main tools of foreign policy.
Answer:
The main tools of foreign policy are treaties and executive agreements, appointing ambassadors, foreign aid international trade and armed forces.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write a detailed note on Non-alignment.
Answer:

1. The team “Non – Alignment” was coined by V. Krishna Menon in his speech at the United Nationsin 1953.
2. Non – Alignment has been regarded as the most important feature of India’s foreign policy.
3. It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by not joining any military alliance.
4. It was the largest political grouping of countries in a multilateral fora.
5. The Non – Aligned Movement (NAM) was formed with a membership of 120 countries and 17 states as observers and 10 international organisations.
6. It has transformed from a political movement to an economical movement.

The founding fathers of Non – Aligned Movement: Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Tito of Yugoslavia, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia, and Kwame Nkumarah of Ghana were the founding fathers of NAM.

The Non – Alignment roots did not prevent India from entering into an alignment with the Soviet Union by the Indo – Soviet treaty of 1971 (20 – year pact of ‘peace, friendship and co operation’)

Then India embarked on a substantial programme of military modernisation. In 1974, India also conducted its first nuclear test at Pokhran under Subterranean Nuclear Explosion Project, in response to China’s nuclear test in 1964 at Lop Nor.

Question 2.
Discuss the core determinants of India’s foreign policy?
Answer:
Basic Determinants of a Foreign Policy:

• Geographical position and size of the territory
• Nation’s history, traditions and philosophical basis
• Natural resources
• The compulsion of economic development
• Political stability and structure of government
• The necessity of peace, disarmament and non-proliferation of nuclear weapons
• Military strength
• International milieu

Question 3.
Make a list on basic concepts followed by India to maintain friendly relations with its neighbours.
Answer:
Prioritising an integrated Neighbourhood first policy:

1. India’s foreign policy has always regarded the concept of neighbourhood as one of widening concentric circles, around the central axis of historical and cultural commonalities.
2. India gives political and diplomatic priority to her immediate neighbours and the Indian Ocean Island states such as Maldives.
3. Greater connectivity and integration is provided so as to improve the free flow of goods, people, energy, capital and information.

Bridging diplomacy and development:

1. One of the major objectives India’s foreign policy has been to leverage international partnership for India’s domestic development.
2. This includes improving technological access, sourcing capital, gaining market access and securing natural resources.

A gradual transition from “Look East” to “Act East” Policy:

1. South East Asia begins with North East India.
2. Myanmar is our land bridge to the countries of the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN).
3. The purpose is to ensure a stable and multipolar balance of power in the Indo – Pacific and to become an integral part of Asia.
4. This policy emphasises a more priductive role for ASEAN ans EAST Asian countries.

Economic development:

1. Currently India’s political moves are being influenced by economic imperatives.
2. Many nations are moving to forge better relationship with India.
3. Accelerated, balanced and inclusive economic development to achieves this by ensuring peace and security, and by leveraging the nation’s international partnership.

India as a leading power:

1. India is a member of the G20, the East Asia Summit and the BRICS coalition atestament to its status as a large country with a fast growing economy.
2. India aspires for permanent membership of this UN Security Council.
3. India now has an increasing range of interests, which are anchored in different parts of the world and which stem from a wide range of factors (energy, natural resources, investment, trade etc.,)

New challenges forced India to adjust to new realities. Even then, basic framework of its foreign policy remained more (or) less the same.

VII. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Identify any two aspects of India’s foreign policy that you would like to retain and to change if you were the decision maker.
Answer:
India’s Foreign Policy focus on the following:

1. Preservation of national interest
2. Achievement of world peace
3. Disarmament
4. Maintaining cordial relationship with other countries
5. Anti – colonialism, Anti – Imperialism and Anti – Racism.

If I imagine myself as a decision maker of India’s foreign policy, I would like to retain the following two aspects of foreign policy.

1. Maintaining world peace, Disarmament.
2. Anti – colonialism, Anti – Imperialism and Anti – Racism.

The two aspects of foreign policy that I would like to change are:

1. Fostering cordial relationship with other countries. We can maintain cordial relationship with all countries, but if they tries to attract us, we should be ready to defend ourselves.
2. Equality in conducting International relations. We can maintain an equality in International relations along with the improvement in scientific economic aspects.

So, it can be enhancement in scientific and economic aspects in relation with other countries.

Note: The answer given is purely a sample answer, students should understand the answer, analyse, and think to give their personal views on the activity and submit to their teacher.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s Foreign Policy Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which policy seeks to secure the best interest of the people? (territory and economy of the country).
(a) Panchsheel
(b) Imperialism
(c) Foreign Policy
(d) Non-co-operation
Answer:
(c) Foreign Policy

Question 2.
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru’s five principles of peace are named as …………
(a) Swadesh
(b) New Deal
(c) Panchsheel
Answer:
(c) Panchsheel

Question 3.
An objective and goal oriented foreign policy has the potential to achieve:
(a) improved relation with other Nation.
(b) To accelerate growth
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 4.
India is called by the name of ………..
(a) Superpower
(b) Terrorist
(c) A great peacemaker
Answer:
(c) A great peacemaker

Question 5.
Which Institute provides training for officers of Indian Foreign Services (IFS)?
(a) The Foreign Services Training Institute
(b) An international association
(c) Ministry of external affairs of India
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) The Foreign Services Training Institute

Question 6.
China became a Republic in ………..
(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1949
Answer:
(c) 1949

Question 7.
………………… principles were incorporated in the Bandung Declaration.
(a) Non – Aligned Movement
(b) Panchsheel
(c) Trade and commerce
(d) Racial discrimination
Answer:
(b) Panchsheel

Question 8.
Bangladesh got freedom due to the efforts of ………….
(a) Nehru
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Gandhi
Answer:
(b) Indira Gandhi

Question 9.
What is the main aim of India’s foreign policy in the following?
(a) World co – operation
(b) World peace
(c) Racial equality
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 10.
The term ‘Non-Alignment’ was coined by ………….
(a) V. Krishna Menon
(b) Abul Ashar
(c) Jinnah
Answer:
(a) V. Krishna Menon

Question 11.
Whose vote against Iran at the’lnternational Atomic Energy agency?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Myanmar
(d) Egypt
Answer:
(b) India

Question 12.
The foremost task of india’s foreign policy:
(a) Domestic transformation
(b) Inward investment
(c) Business and technology
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 13.
India’s global security concerns:
(a) Military modernisation
(b) Nuclear policies
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 14.
Mention the basic concepts of India’s Foreign Policy.
(a) Disarmament
(b) Colonisation
(c) Imperialism
(d) Racism
Answer:
(a) Disarmament

Question 15.
How many member countries in SAARC organisation?
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 8

Question 16.
Which of the following country is a member of the SAARC?
(a) Myanmar
(b) Pakistan
(c) Egypt
(d) Indonesia
Answer:
(b) Pakistan

Question 17.
………………… policies aim to promote welfare economics and collective self-reliance among the countries (South Asia)
(a) SAARC
(b) Panchsheel
(c) Non – Alignment
(d) none
Answer:
(a) SAARC

Question 18.
………………… is the instrument for implementing the foreign policy of a state.
(a) Diplomacy
(b) Disarmament
(c) Racism
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Diplomacy

Question 19.
Who supported UN disarmament programme?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Srilanka
(c) China
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

Question 20.
………………… is the world’s second most populous country.
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Pakistan
(d) Srilanka
Answer:
(b) India

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The Foreign Service Training Institute was established in ………………….
2. The Afro – Asian conference held in ………………….
3. …………………. has been regarded as the most important feature of India’s foreign policy.
4. The founding father of NAM …………………. of India.
5. The Non – Aligned Movement (NAM) was formed with a membership of …………………. countries and …………………. international organisation.
6. India embarked on a substantial programme of ………………
7. The ……………… is meant for mutual assistance among nations for peace and progress.
8. The ……………… stance of India was supporting the cause of decolonisation.
9. India supported UN ……………… programme.
10. ……………… is an organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in ………………
11. SAARC Disaster management centre was set up at ………………
12. SAARC satellite is a proposed communication cum – meteorology satellite by ………………
13. The SAARC policies aim to accelerate ……………… development in the region.
14. ……………… is the nations plan for dealing with other nations.
15. India aspires for permanent membership on the ………………
16. ……………… forced India to adjust new realities.
17. Indo – US civilian ……………… marks significant progress in India’s foreign policy.
18. India provides ……………… with support as needed in the form of resources and training.
19. Since ……………… global non – proliferation has been a dominant theme of India’s nuclear policy.
20. Indian ……………… in 1974 and 1998 is only done for strategic purposes.

Answers:

1. 1986
2. Indonesia
3. Non – Alignment
4. Jawaharlal Nehru
5. 120, 10
6. Military modernisation
7. Non – Aligned Movement
8. foreign policy
9. disarmament
10. SAARC, South Asia
11. New Delhi
12. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
13. Socio-cultural
14. Foreign Policy
15. UN Security Council
16. New Challenges
17. Nuclear deal
18. neighbours
19. Independence
20. Nuclear Programme

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is not about SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation)?
(i) SAARC is an economic and geopolitical organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in south Asia.
(ii) SAARC policies aim to promote welfare economics and to accelerate socio-cultural development in the region.
(iii) SAARC Disaster management centre was set up at Mumbai.
(iv) SAARC satellite is a proposed communication cum – meteorology satellite by (ISRO).
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (iv) only
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Ministry of External Affairs of India also known as Foreign Ministry comes under Government of India.
Reason (R): It is responsible for the conduct of foreign relations of India.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explains A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): During Cold, War India tried to form a third block of Nations in international affairs.
Reason (R); The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was world cooperation world peace racial equality and non – alignment.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are right.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A.

Question 4.
Which of the following is about NAM?
(i) Non – alignment has been regarded most important feature if India’s Foreign Policy.
(ii) NAM was formed with 180 member countries.
(iii) NAM is establishing economic cooperation among under developed countries.
(iv) It was the largest political groping countries in a multilateral fora.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (iii),(iv)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (ii),(iv)
Answer:
(b) (i), (iii),(iv)

Question 5.
Assertion (A): : Since Independence global Non – proliferation has been dominant theme of India’s nuclear policy.
Reason (R): So India’s supported U.N Disarmament programme.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is correct and R does not explains A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are right.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are right.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column ll.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

V. Give short answers

Question 1.
What is Diplomacy?
Answer:
Diplomacy is the instrument for implementing the foreign policy of a state.

Question 2.
What is meant by G – 20 global group of countries?
Answer:
G – 20 refers to the largest established and emerging economies of the world. India is also a member of G – 20 countries.

Question 3.
Write a note on the policy of Apartheid.
Answer:

1. In South Africa the whites, did not give equal rights to the Native Africans.
2. India raised this issue for the first time in the UN General Assembly in 1946.
3. It was due to the constant moral support of India and the continuous struggle of Dr. Nelson Mandela, the policy of Apartheid was abolished in 1990.

Question 4.
List out the basic concept of India’s of foreign policy?
Answer:

1. Preservation of National interest.
2. Achievement of world peace.
3. Disarmament
4. Fostering cordial relationship with other countries.
5. Solving conflicts by peaceful means.
6. Equality in conducting international relations.
7. Anti – colonialism anti – imperialism anti – racism.

Question 5.
Write short notes on Article-51.
Answer:
Lays down the Directive Principles of India’s foreign policy.
The state shall endeavour to

1. Promote international peace and security
2. Maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
3. Foster respect for international law and international organisation.
4. Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

Question 6.
What is the major objectives of India’s foreign policy?
Answer:

1. one of the major objectives of India’s foreign policy has been to leverage international partnership for India’s domestic development.
2. This include improving technological access source of capital, gaining market access and securing natural resources.

Question 7.
What are the elements in our eastern policy?
Answer:
The three big elements in our eastern policy are stronger emphasis on physical connectivity commercial and security related.

Question 8.
Non – Alignement defined by Nehru?
Answer:
“Broudly, non – alignment means not tying yourself off with military blocks. It means trying to view things, as far as possible, not form the military point of view, though that has to come in sometimes, but independently, and trying to maintain friendly relations with all countries”.
– Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 9.
Mention few basic determinants of a foreign policy.
Answer:

1. Geographical position and size of territory.
2. Nation’s history, traditions and philosophical basis.
3. Natural resources
4. Political stability and structure of Government.

Question 10.
What do you mean by NAM?
Answer:
NAM means Non – Aligned Movement.

1. The NAM is meant for mutual assistance among nations for peace and progress.
2. It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by not , jointing any military alliance.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain about the shifts in India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
The shifts in India’s policy manifested in various ways such as:

1. Better relations with China – The look East policy (1992).
2. The second nuclear test at Pokhran (1998) in Rajasthan.
3. Defence procurement relationship with Israel.
4. Energy diplomacy with Arab countries and Iran.
5. Agreeing to US nuclear missile defence programme and
6. India’s vote against Iran at the International Automatic Energy Agency.

Question 2.
Write a short note on SAARC.
Answer:
SAARC:
SAARC means, The South Asian Association for regional co-operation.

(i) India took the initiative to form SAARC to maintain peace in the regional level.
(ii) SAARC’s first meeting was held at Dacca in Bangladesh in Dec 7, 1985.
(iii) Ashan of Bangladesh was the first secretary-general of SAARC.
(iv) The member countries are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Afghanistan and Sri Lanka.

(v) On April 3, 2007 the SAARC’s annual summit was held in New Delhi. Afghan president Hamid Karzai attended this meeting Afghanistan become its 8th member.

(vi) 18th SAARC summit took place on 26th and 27th of November 2014 at Kathmandu the capital of Nepal.

(vii) The SAARC countries identified mutual co-operation in the following areas transportation postal service, tourism, shipping meteorology, health, agriculture rural reconstruction and telecommunication.

Question 3.
How India accelerated balanced and inclusive economic development?
Answer:

1. India achieved economic development by ensuring peace and security.
2. By leveraging the nations international partnership, to obtain all that is needed to fuel economic development.
3. Economic development in the filed of markets, investment, fair global governance and a stable and fair environment conducive for growth.
4. Currently’ India’s political moves are being influenced by economic imperatives.
5. Many nations are moving to forge better relationship with India.

Question 4.
Explain about the principles of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Lays down directive principles of India’s foreign policy.

The state shall endeavour to

1. Promote International Peace and Security.
2. Maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
3. Foster respect for International law and international organisation.
4. Encourage settlement of International disputes by arbitration.

Question 5.
Write a short note on SAARC.
Answer:
SAARC – South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation.

1. SAARC is an economic and geopolitical organisation of eight countries that are primarily located in South Asia.
2. The SAARC policies aim to promote welfare economies, collective self – reliance and to accelerate socio – cultural development in the region.
3. SAARC Disaster Management Center was set up at New Delhi.
4. This centre working on various dimensions of disaster risk reduction and management,
5. SAARC satellite is a proposed communication-cum-meteorology satellite by Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) for the SAARC region.
6. The member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan, and SriLanka.

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 3 State Government Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 3 State Government

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science State Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Governor of the State is appointed by the:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Minister
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(c) President

Question 2.
The Speaker of a State is a ……………
(a) Head of State
(b) Head of government
(c) President’s agent
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 3.
Which among the following is not one of the powers of the Governor?
(a) Legislative
(b) Executive
(c) Judicial
(d) Diplomatic
Answer:
(d) Diplomatic

Question 4.
Who can nominate one representative of the Anglo-Indian Community to the State Legislative Assembly?
(a) The President
(b) The Governor
(c) The Chief Minister
(d) The Speaker of State legislature
Answer:
(b) The Governor

Question 5.
The Governor does not appoint:
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(c) Advocate General of the State
(d) Judges of the High Court
Answer:
(d) Judges of the High Court

Question 6.
The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by …………….
(a) The State Legislature
(b) The Governor
(c) The President
(d) The Speaker of State Legislative Assembly
Answer:
(b) The Governor

Question 7.
The State Council of Ministers is headed by:
(a) The Chief Minister
(b) The Governor
(c) The Speaker
(d) The Prime Minister
Answer:
(a) The Chief Minister

Question 8.
The Legislative Council ………….
(a) has a term of five years
(b) has a term of six years
(c) is a permanent house
(d) has a term of four years
Answer:
(c) is a permanent house

Question 9.
The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is:
(a) 25 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years
Answer:
(c) 30 years

Question 10.
The members of the Legislative Council are ……………
(a) Elected by the Legislative Assembly
(b) Mostly nominated
(c) Elected by local bodies, graduates, teachers, Legislative Assembly etc.
(d) Directly elected by the people
Answer:
(c) Elected by local bodies, graduates, teachers, Legislative Assembly etc.

Question 11.
Which one of the following States does not possess a bicameral legislature?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Telangana
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 12.
The High Courts in India were first started at ………………….
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras
(b) Delhi and Calcutta
(c) Delhi, Calcutta, Madras
(d) Calcutta, Madras, Delhi
Answer:
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras

Question 13.
Which of the following States have a common High Court?
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala and Telangana
(c) Punjab and Haryana
(d) Maharashtra and Gujarat
Answer:
(c) Punjab and Haryana

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Governor of the state government surrenders his resignation to ………………..
2. Members of the Legislative assembly (MLAs) elected by the ………………..
3. ……………….. is the first women Governor of Tamil Nadu.
4. ……………….. acts as the chancellor of universities in the state.
5. The Seventh Amendment Act of ……………….. authorised the Parliament to establish a common high court for two or more states.
6. The Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission can be removed only by the ………………..

Answers:

1. The President
2. people
3. Mrs.Fathima Beevi
4. The Governor
5. 1956
6. President

III. Match the following

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (iii)

IV. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Only some states in India have Legislative Councils.
(ii) Some members of Legislative Councils are nominated.
(iii) Some members of Legislative Councils are directly elected by the people.
(iv) Some members are elected by Local bodies.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and iv are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(e) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(e) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): There are limitations on the Legislative authority of the State Legislature.
Reason (R): Certain bills on the State List can be introduced in the State
Legislature only with the President’s approval.
(a) (A) is false but (R) is true
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

V. Answer in brief questions

Question 1.
How the state of Jammu and Kashmir differ from the other states of India?
Answer:
(i) The Constitution of India grants special status to Jammu and Kashmir among Indian States, and it is the only state in India to have a separate Constitution.

(ii) The Directive Principles of the State Policy and Fundamental Duties of the Constitution are not applicable to the State of Jammu and Kashmir.

(iii) Rights to property, which is denied as a Fundamental Right to rest of India is still guaranteed in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 2.
What is the importance of the Governor of a state?
Answer:

1. The Governor is the constitutional head of the state executive.
2. The administration of a state is carried on in the name of the governor.
3. The Governor is an integral part of the state legislature. But he is not a member in the legislature.
4. He has the right to summon, prorogue the state legislature and dissolve the Assembly.
5. Under Article 213 he can promulgate ordinances when the state legislature is not in session.

Question 3.
What are the qualifications for the appointment of Governor?
Answer:
Qualifications of the Governor is given below

1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He must have completed 35 years of age.
3. He should not be a member of Parliament or any State legislature.
4. He should not hold any other profitable occupation.

Question 4.
What is the original Jurisdiction of the High Court?
Answer:

1. Only in matters of admiralty, probate, matrimonial and contempt of Court the High Courts have original Jurisdiction.
2. The presidency High Courts ( Bombay, Calcutta and Madras) have original Jurisdiction in which the amount involved is more than 2000 and the criminal cases which are committed to them by the presidency magistrates.

Question 5.
What do you understand by the “Appellate Jurisdiction” of the High Court?
Answer:
As courts of appeal, all High Courts hear appeals in both civil and criminal cases against the divisions of the subordinate courts and can review their judgements.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
What are the powers and functions of the Chief Minister?
Answer:

1. The leader of the majority’ party or majority group in the state Legislative Assembly is appointed as the Chief Minister by the Governor.
2. The Chief Minister is the real executive head of the state administration.

The Powers and Functions of the Chief Minister:

1. Relating to the council of Ministers
2. Relating to the Governor
3. Relating to the State Legislature
4. Other functions and powers

Relating to the Council of Ministers:

1. The Chief Minister recommends a person who can be appointed as Minister by the Governor.
2. He allocates the port folios to the Ministers
3. He shuffles and reshuffles his ministry
4. He presides over the cabinet meetings and influences its decisions,
5. In case of difference of opinion he can ask a minister to resign or advices the Governor to dismiss him,
6. If the Chief Minister resigns the council of Ministers are also should resign.
7. He guides, directs, controls and coordinates the activities of all the Ministers.

Relating to the Governor:

1. The Chief Minister is the link between the Governor and the Council of Ministers.
2. He advices the Governor in relation to the appointment of Advocate general of the state, State Election Commissioner, Chairman and members of the State Planning Commission, State Public Service Commission and the State Finance Commission.

Relating to State Legislature:

1. On the advice of the Chief Minister Governor officially summons & prorogues the sessions of the state legislature.
2. He announces the government policies on the floor of the house.
3. He can introduce the bills in the Legislative Assembly.
4. Recommend for the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly to the Governor any time.

Other function and powers:

1. As the leader of the party he has to control the party and develop the disciplines.
2. To consider the demands of the different sections of the people.
3. As the political head supervise control and co-ordinate the secretaries of various departments in the state level.
4. For the smooth functioning of the state he has to develop a good rapport with the Central (Union) Government for good Centre-State relation.

Question 2.
Describe the various powers and functions of the Governor.
Answer:
The powers and functions of the Governor are:
(i) The Governor is the Constitutional head of the State. All the administration is carried on in his name.

(ii) He appoints the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly as the Chief Minister of the State. He appoints other members of the council of Ministers on the recommendation of the Chief Minister.

(iii) He appoints the Advocate General of the State, the chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission, the State Election Commissioner, the Attorney General of the State etc.

(iv) He has the right to summon, prorogue the State Legislature and dissolve the State Legislative Assembly.

(v) The Money Bills can be introduced in the State Legislature only with the prior recommendation of the Governor.

(vi) He constitutes a Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats and the municipalities.

Question 3.
Briefly discuss the Functions of the State Legislature.
Answer:
Legislative powers:

1. As per the constitution can pass laws on all subjects mentioned in the State List.
2. The passing of Bill into law follows the same procedure as in the union Parliament.
3. The state can make laws on concurrent subject also. The state made law will become inoperative when the Centre also passes law on the same subject.
4. The Bill passed in the State legislature will become law after Governor’s assent.

Financial powers:

1. Money bills can be introduced only in the Lower House or Assembly
2. No new tax can be levied without the sanction and permission of the Assembly.
3. The Legislature controls the finances of the State.

Control over the Executive:

1. The Legislature controls over the Executive.
2. The Council of Ministers is responsible to the Assembly.
3. They can be removed from the power if the Assembly passes “No confidence motion” against the Ministry.

Question 4.
Critically examine the functions and powers of the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
The functions and powers of the Council of Ministers –

1. It formulates and decides the policies of the State and implements them effectively.
2. It decides the legislative programmes of the Legislative Assembly and sponsors all important bills.
3. It controls the financial policy and decides the tax structure for the public welfare of the State.
4. It chalks out programmes and schemes for the socio-economic changes so that the State makes headway in various inter-related fields,
5. It makes the important appointments of the heads of departments.
6. The Annual Financial Statement called as the Budget is finalised by the Council of Ministers.
7. It advises the Governor on the appointment of judges of the subordinate courts.

Question 5.
Describe the powers and functions of the High Court
Answer:
High Court is the highest court in the state. Every High Court consists of a Chief Justice and other judges appointed by the President. The High Court enjoys the following Jurisdiction.

(i) Original Jurisdiction: The High Court can hear the cases like such as matters of admiralty, probate and matrimonial, contempt of court and in criminal cases.

(ii) Appellate Jurisdiction: As courts of appeal all High Courts appeals in civil and criminal cases and also cases of their own.

(iii) Writ Jurisdiction: Writs are issued by the High Court not only for the enforcement of fundamental rights but also where an ordinary legal rights has been infringed.

Kinds of Writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition ,Quo Warranto, Certiorari.

(iv) Supervisory Jurisdiction:

(a) High Court has the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals, (except military courts)
(b) High Court has an administrative powers.
(c) Its law is binding on all subordinate courts functioning within its territorial jurisdiction.
(d) It is consulted by the governor in the matters of appointment , posting and promotion, grant of leave, transfers and discipline court of Record.
(e) All the decisions and decrees issued by the High Court are printed and kept as a record for future needs.

Judicial Review: To examine the constitutionality of Legislative enactments and executive orders of both the central and the State Governments.

VII. Project & Activity

Question 1.
Prepare a flow chart showing the State Government’s Administrative setup.
Answer:

Question 2.
Students to list out the names of the Tamil Nadu Governor, Chief Minister, Ministers and the Governors and Chief Ministers of the neighbouring States.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science State Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The State of ……………… has a separate constitution.
(a) Punjab & Haryana
(b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Kerala & Karnataka
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Jammu & Kashmir

Question 2.
Who is not appointed by the Governor?
(a) The Advocate General of the State
(b) The State Election Commissioner
(c) The Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(d) The Chief Justice of the High Court
Answer:
(d) The Chief Justice of the High Court

Question 3.
The administration of the State is carried on in the name of the:
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Speaker
(d) Governor
Answer:
(d) Governor

Question 4.
How many High Courts are there for all 29 States?
(a) 29
(b) 27
(c) 25
(d) 22
Answer:
(c) 25

Question 5.
The ……………… has the power to summon, prorogue the State Legislative Assembly.
(a) President
(b) Governor
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Chairman of the Legislative Council
Answer:
(b) Governor

Question 6.
The State Government consists of …………… branches.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) five
Answer:
(b) three

Question 7.
Under Article ……………… the Governor can pass ordinance when the State Assembly is not in session.
(a) 311
(b) 312
(c) 213
(d) 32
Answer:
(c) 213

Question 8.
The ……………. provides a legislature for every state.
(a) Constitution
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rashtrapathi Bhavan
Answer:
(a) Constitution

Question 9.
The total strength of Legislative Assembly of Tamil Nadu is:
(aj 231
(b) 240
(c) 245
(d) 235
Answer:
(d) 235

Question 10.
……………… can introduce the Bills in the Legislative Assembly.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Advocate general
(c) Chief Minister
Answer:
(c) Chief Minister

Question 11.
The institution of High Court originated in India in:
(a) 1826
(b) 1816
(c) 1862
(d) 1870
Answer:
(c) 1862

Question 12.
The Statue of ……………… has been kept in front of the High Court building.
(a) Rajaraja Cholan
(b) Sama Needhi Kanda Cholan (Manu needhi Cholan)
(c) Karikal Cholan
(d) Rajendra Cholan
Answer:
(b) Sama Needhi Kanda Cholan (Manu needhi Cholan)

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Article 226 and 227 confer the power of ……………….. on a high court.
2. The ……………….. is the real centre of power in the State.
3. The Legislature of s State or a High Court has no power in the removal of ………………..
4. The present Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu is ………………..
5. The present Governor of Tamil Nadu is ………………..
6. The maximum strength of the Legislative Assembly must not below ………………..
7. The Standing committee of the Cabinet is ………………..
8. The ……………….. is removed from the office by a resolution of the Assembly after giving a 14 days notice.
9. The Legislative Council is the ……………….. of the State legislature.
10. Article ……………….. deals with the creation or abolition of Legislative Council.

Answers:

1. Judicial review
2. Legislative Assembly
3. Governor
4. Thiru Edappadi K. Palaniswami
5. Thiru Banvarilal Purohit
6. Sixty
7. Permanent
8. Speaker
9. Upper House
10. 169

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.


Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

IV. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The term of the Chief Minister is not fixed.
Reason (R): He may remain as the Chief Minister as long as he enjoys the support of the majority of the members of the State Legislative Assembly.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
(b) (A) is false (R) is true
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason
(d) (A) is true but (R) is false
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The number of judges varies from State to State.
Reason (R): The number of judges of each High Court is determined by the President. .
(a) (A) is false (R) is true
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct reason for A
(c) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for A
(d) (A) is true (R) is false
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct reason for A

Question 3.
(i) High Courts are given power to issue writs under Article 226 of the constitution.
(ii) The jurisdiction is limited only to the fundamental rights.
(iii) Writs are issued by the High Court when an ordinary legal right has been fringed.
(iv) Article 32 empowered to issue such writs.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 4.
(i) Council of Ministers work as a team under the Chief Minister.
(ii) Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the State Assembly.
(iii) The State ministry will be in power after the resignation of the Chief Minister.
(iv) Councils of Ministers do not aid and advice the Governor.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Write a short note on cabinet and cabinet committees.
Answer:
The Cabinet is the nucleus of the Council of Ministers. It consists of only the Cabinet Ministers. It is the real centre of authority in the State Government.
The cabinet works through various committees called Cabinet Committees. They are of two types – standing and ad hoc – the former are of a permanent nature while the latter are of a temporary nature.

Question 2.
How the Governor is appointed to a state?
Answer:

1. The Governor of a state is appointed by the President.
2. Generally, the Governor does not belongs to the state where he is appointed.
3. He also be transferred from one State to another.
4. If situation warrants so, the same person may be appointed as the Governor of two or more States.
5. Usually the term of office is five years but he may be appointed as a Governor any number of terms during the pleasure of the President.

Question 3.
Throw light on the emergency powers of the Governor.
Answer:
If the Governor is convinced that the Government of the State is not carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution, he may recommend to the President to impose Present Rule in that State. As soon as the President Rule is imposed, the administration of the State is carried on by the Governor as the representative of the President.

Question 4.
What is the strength of Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu according to the strength of legislative Assembly (234 +1) . 234 members are directly elected by the people from the constituencies on the basis of adult franchise and one member is nominated by the Governor from Anglo-Indian community.

Question 5.
How are the members of the Legislative Council elected?
Answer:
The members of the Legislative Council or the Upper House are elected in the following ways.

• 1/3 of the members are elected by local bodies. .
• 1/12 of the members are elected by graduates of the universities in the State.
• 1/12 of the members are elected by the graduate teachers.
• 1/3 of the members are elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly.
• 1/6 is nominated by the Governor who is eminent in the field of literary excellence, art, social or cooperates.

Question 6.
Write a brief note on the High Court of Madras?
Answer:

1. The High Court of Madras is the one of the three High Courts in India, established in the three presidency Towns of Bombay, Calcutta and Madras by letters patent granted by Queen Victoria dated 26th June 1862.
2. The High Court building is the second largest Judicial complex in the world after London.

Question 7.
Where were High Courts first established and when?
Answer:
High Courts were first established in the three Presidency cities of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in 1862.

Question 8.
How many High Courts are there in our country and who decides the number of judges to each High court?
Answer:

1. At present there are 25 High courts for 29 states (including New Andhra Pradesh High court established in 1st January 2019 at Amaravati) and seven union territories.
2. The number of judges of each High Court is determined by the President.

Question 9.
What do you mean by appellate system?
Answer:
It means that a person can appeal to a higher Court if they are not satisfied with the judgement of the lower Court.

Question 10.
Which Amendment abolished the power of Judicial Review by the state High Court? And by which amendment it was restored?
Answer:

1. The 42nd amendment of 1976 curtailed the power of Judicial Review by the High Court.
2. It debarred the constitutional validity of any central law.
3. The 43rd Amendment Act of 1977 restored the original position.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
What are all the privileges enjoyed by the Governor?
Answer:

1. Article 361 (1) provides the following privileges to the Governor.
2. The Governor of the state, is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office.
3. No criminal proceedings what so ever shall be instituted or continued against the Governor of a state, in any court during his term of office.
4. No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the Governor of a state shall issue from any court during his term of office.
5. No civil proceedings in which relief is claimed against the Governor of the state.

Question 2.
How does a High Court keep control over the subordinate courts?
Answer:
A High, fourt has an administrative control over the subordinate Courts.
(i) It is consulted by the Governor in the matters of appointment, posting and promotions of District Judges and in appointments of persons to the judicial service of the State.

(ii) It deals with the matters of posting, promoting, grant of leave, transfers and discipline of . the members of the judicial services of the State.

(iii) It can withdraw a case pending in a subordinate court if it involves a substantial question of law that requires the interpretation of the Constitution. It can then either dispose of the case itself or determines the questions of law and return the case to the subordinate court with its judgement.

(iv) Its law is binding on all subordinate Courts functioning with its territorial jurisdiction in the same sense as the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all Courts in India.

Question 3.
Write about the Writs issued by the High Court?
Answer:
Under Article 226 of the constitution the High Courts are given powers of issuing writs. They are:

Habeas Corpus: It is issued to a detaining authority ordering the detainer to produce the detained person in the issuing court, along with the cause of his or her detention.

If the detention is found to be illegal, the court issues an order to set the person free.

Mandamus: It is issued to a Subordinate Court, an office or Government, or a Corporation or other Institution commanding the performance of certain acts or duties.

Prohibition: The writ of prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court prohibiting it from taking up a case because it is not under the jurisdiction of the lower court. Thus the higher court transfers the case to it. Quo Warranto: It is issued against a person the legality of holding a public office. Through this writ the court inquires “by what authority”? The person supports his / her claim.

Certiorari: This writ is issued to lower court directing that the record of a case be sent up for review, together with all supporting files, evidence and documents. It is one of the mechanism by which the fundamental rights of the citizens are upheld.

Question 4.
What are the works done by the High Court under supervisory Jurisdiction?
Answer:
The High Court has the power of superintendence over all Courts and Tribunals functioning in its Territorial Jurisdiction ( except the Military Courts or Tribunals).

Thus it may

1. Call for returns from them.
2. Make an issue, general rules and prescribe forms for regulating the practice and proceedings of them.
3. Prescribe forms in which books, entries and accounts are to be kept by them and
4. Settle the fee payable to the sheriff, clerks, officers and legal practitioners of them.

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 5 India’s International Relations Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 5 India’s International Relations

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s International Relations Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
McMahon Line is a border between
(a) Burma and India
(b) India and nepal
(c) India and China
(d) India and Bhutan
Answer:
(c) India and China

Question 2.
India is not a member of which of the following …………..
1. G20
2. ASEAN
3. SAARC
4. BRICS
Select the correct option
(a) 4 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2, 4 and 1
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer:
2 only

Question 3.
OPEC is:
(a) An international insurance Co.
(b) An international sports club
(c) An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries
(d) An international company
Answer:
(c) An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries

Question 4.
With which country does India share its longest land border?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Myanmar
(c) Afghanistan
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Bangladesh

Question 5.
Match the following and choose the correct answer form the codes given below.

(a) 3 14 2
(b) 3 12 4
(c) 3 4 12
(d) 4 3 2 1
Answer:
(a) 3 14 2

Question 6.
How many countries share its border with India?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 7

Question 7.
Which two island countries are India’s neighbours?
(a) Sri Lanka and Andaman island
(b) Maldieves and Lakshadweep island
(c) Maldieves and Nicobar island
(d) Sri Lanka and Maldieves
Answer:
(d) Sri Lanka and Maldieves

Question 8.
Which Indian state is surrounded by three countries?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Mizoram
(d) Sikkim
Answer:
(a) Arunachal Pradesh and (d) Sikkim

Question 9.
How many Indian states have their boundary with Nepal?
(a) Five
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Two
Answer:
(a) Five

Question 10.
Who drew up the borders for newly independent Pakistan?
(a) Lord Mountbatten
(b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe
(c) Clement Atlee
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………. is a small Himalayan kingdom.
2. India’s gateway to South East Asia is ……………….
3. ………………. is a buffer country between India and China.
4. A strip of land ………………. belongs to India on West Bengal and Bangladesh border.
5. ………………. is known as the Land of thunderbolt.
6. India and Sri Lanka are separated by ……………….

Answer:

1. Bhutan
2. Myanmar
3. Nepal
4. Teen Bigha Corridor
5. Bhutan
6. Palk strait

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
The Kaladan transport project by India and Myanmar consists of which of the following modes of transport?
1. Roads
2. Railways
3. Shipping
4. Inland water transport
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1,3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer:
(b) 1,3 and 4 only

Question 2.
Assertion (A): India and France launched International Solar Alliance.
Reason (R): It was done to bring together countries between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn for co-operation of solar energy.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Which of the following statements are true?
Statement 1: ICCR has initiated a Tagore Chair in University of Dhaka.
Statement 2: Myanmar is India’s gateway to western countries.
Statement 3: Nepal and Bhutan are land locked nations.
Statement 4: Sri Lanka is one of the partner in Nalanda University Project of India.
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1,2 and 4
Answer:
(c) 1, 3 and 4

Question 4.
Assertion (A): OPEC has vested interest in India’s economic growth.
Reason (R): Devoid of necessary oil resources India strongly focuses on agriculture and industrial production.
(a) A is correct and R explains A
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both are correct

IV. Match the following

A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
Name the neighbouring countries of India.
Answer:

• India is a vast country with Pakistan and Afghanistan to the north-west
• China, Nepal, Bhutan to the north
• Bangladesh to the east
• Myanmar to the far east
• Sri Lanka (from south-east) and Maldives (from south-west) are two countries that lie close to India separated by the Indian Ocean.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Strategic partnership Agreement (SPA).
Answer:

1. Indo – Afghan relation was strengthened by the strategic partnership , agreement.
2. SPA provide assistance to rebuild Afghan’s infrastructure, institutions, agriculture, water, education, health and providing duty – free access to the Indian market.

Question 3.
Mention the member countries of BRICS.
Answer:

• Brazil
• Russia
• India
• China
• South Africa

Question 4.
What do you know about Kaladan Multi-Model Transit Transport?
Answer:

1. India is building the kaladan multi – model transit transport, a road-river- port cargo transport project to link kolkata to Sittwe in Myanmar.
2. A project aiming to connect Kolkata with Ho chi minh city on the south sea for the formation of an economic zone will have a road pass through Myanmar, Cambodia and Vietnam and work on the first phase connecting Guwahati with Mandalay is currently underway.

Question 5.
How do you assess the importance of Chabahar agreement?
Answer:
A trilateral agreement called the Chabahar Agreement was signed between India, Afghanistan . and Iran, which has led to the establishment of transit and transport corridor among three countries using Chabahar port. This port is seen as golden gateway for India to access landlocked markets of Afghanistan and Central Asia by passing Pakistan.

Question 6.
List out any five global groupings in which India is a member.
Answer:
IBSA, BCIM, MGC, BBIN, and SCO.

Question 7.
What is the role of Japan India Institute of Manufacturing (JIM)?
Answer:
In the manufacturing sector Japan announced its co-operation of training 30,000 Indian people in the Japan India Institute of Manufacturing (JIM) providing Japanese style manufacturing skills to enhance India’s manufacturing industry base and contribute to ‘Make in India’ and ‘Skill India’ initiatives. In 2017, the first four JIMs were started in the states of Gujarat, Karnataka, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Highlight India and International organisation with special reference to any three India’s global groupings.
Answer:

1. India is a potential superpower and has a growing international influence all around the world.
2. India has is a member of formal groupings like UNO, NAM, SAARC, G20 and the commonwealth.
3. India is an activity engaged in general economic diplomacy, which is evident in the country being part of several economic coalitions, as listed in the table below.

Question 2.
Trace the reason for the formation of BRICS and write its objectives.
Answer:
Reason for the formation of BRICS To be an alternative to World Bank and IMF to challenge U.S. supremacy.
To provide self-owned and self-managed organisations to carry out developmental and economical plans in its member nations.
Objectives of BRICS

• To achieve regional development
• It acts as a bridge between developed and developing countries
• To contribute extensively to development of humanity
• To establish a more equitable and fair world
• Boost intra BRICS trade in their local currencies to increase trade cooperation and cope with the current international financial crisis.
• To promote the technological information exchange among the member states
• To enhance inclusive economic growth that will lead to an increase in the creation of jobs, fight against poverty and accelerate the economic transformation of members.

Question 3.
Mention OPEC missions and how does it help other countries?
Answer:
OPEC’S Mission:

1. To coordinate oil policies in its member countries.
2. Help stabilise oil markets.
3. To secure fair and stable income to petroleum producers.
4. An efficient, economic and regular supply of oil to consuming nations.
5. A fair return on capital to those investing in the petroleum industry.

How does OPEC help other countries?

1. The OPEC, fund for International Development (OPID) is an institution that help finance projects with low interest loans.
2. It also provides grants to social and humanitarian projects..
3. OPEC has an information centre with over 20,000 volumes including books reports, maps and conference, proceedings related to petroleum energy and the oil markets.
4. The information centre is open to the public and is often used by researchers and students.

VII. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Students can be asked to collect information from newspapers about India’s relation with world countries.
Answer:
Students should find any article from Tamil (or) English newspaper about India’s relation with world countries.

Eg: Foreign Minister’s visit to India.

[OR]

Indian Prime Minister or President’s visit to foreign countries. After finding the information, cut down the article with its date and year of publication and the name of the newspaper. A minimum of five such news articles can be collected and can be pasted in a notebook to prepare an album to submit as project to the subject teacher.

A sample news taken from the English newspaper.

Times of India
Date: Sep. 17,2019

AGARTALA: Bangladesh Information Minister Hasan Mahmud said ties between India and Bangladesh is becoming better by the day under the leadership of Narendra Modi and Sheikh Hasina.

Inaugurating a 3 – day film festival here, the Minister said Bangladesh believes in having good relations with its neighbours and films play a great role in that. The film festival will feature 20 films made on the Bangladesh Liberation war.

Question 2.
Group project involving students to prepare an album with pictures on India’s latest projects with its neighboring countries.
Answer:
India’s latest project with its neighbouring countries: The Government of India gives high importance to strengthen the friendly relations and to promote understanding with neighbouring countries. As part of this policy, the Government has undertaken several development projects with our neighbouring countries. Details of projects (a sample) is given below.

Note: Students should find and collect information (or) pictures related to the project of Gol (Government of India) with its neighbouring countries taking the sample few projects given here (or) other projects also. Students should paste the pictures in a note book underlining the project, prepare it as an album, submit to the subject teacher.

Projects

Bhutan: Projects completed in Bhutan with GOI assistance include Paro airport, Bhutan broadcasting station, major highways, and construction of Mini – Hydel projects. Penden cement plant with 300 tonnes capacity was completed in 1982 with GOI assistance.

Bangladesh: India is gifting 10 ambulances to Bangladesh.

Maldives: The 200 – bed Indira Gandhi Memorial Hospital (IGMH) was set up in Maldives in 1995 at a cost of about ₹40 crores.

Nepal: The recently completed projects include 22 bridges on the East – West Highway. Setting up of trauma – center at Bir hospital in Kathmandu.

Sri Lanka: GOI has committed US $ 7.5 million to set up an India cancer centre in Colombo.

The above mentioned are only guidelines that could help a student to find what type of projects are generally undertaken.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science India’s International Relations Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Independent India has been consistently fostering.
(a) World peace
(b) International co-operation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 2.
………… development of nations can be achieved only through world peace.
(a) Economic
(b) Social
(c) Political
Answer:
(a) Economic

Question 3.
How many kilometre that Pipeline between Siliguri in West Bengal and ‘ Parbatipur (Bangladesh).
(a) 130
(b) 150
(c) 170
(d) 190
Answer:
(a) 130

Question 4.
China became republic in ……………
(a) 1947
(b) 1949
(c)1950
Answer:
(b) 1949

Question 5.
How many hydro electric projects the Government of India has constricted in Bhutan.
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 6.
…………….. is located South of Lakshadweep islands in the Indian ocean.
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Myanmar
(c) Maldives
(d) none
Answer:
(c) Maldives

Question 7.
India’s second-largest border is shared with:
(a) Maldives
(b) Myanmar
(c) Nepal
(d) Bhutan
Answer:
(b) Myanmar

Question 8.
In …………… a 25 years treaty of friendship, co-operation and peace was signed by India and Bangladesh at …………..
(a) 1971, New Delhi
(b) 1972, Dacca
(c) 1982, Lahore
Answer:
(b) 1972, Dacca

Question 9.
The 204 – kilometre long Mahendra Raj marg to link …………….. and India
(a) Kathmandu
(b) Kalandan
(c) Sittwe
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Kathmandu

Question 10.
In which agreement India tried to bring positive change in the relationship of Pakistan.
(a) Strategic Partnership Agreement
(b) Shimla Agreement
(c) International Agreement
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Shimla Agreement

Question 11.
Which king had sent his son and daughter to ceylon (Sri Lanka) for the propagation of Buddhism.
(a) Chandra Gupta Mourya
(b) Ashoka
(c) Kanishka
(d) none
Answer:
(b) Ashoka

Question 12.
The cease fire line determined in ……………………….. was called the LOC.
(a) 1947
(b) 1945
(c) 1949
(d) 1943
Answer:
(c) 1949

Question 13.
……………… gives India access to advance communication technology used in U.S defence equipment.
(a) COMCASA
(b) AVSINDEX
(c) JIM
(d) MAHSR
Answer:
(a) COMCASA

Question 14.
India and France launched the international ……………… between Tropic of cancer and Tropic of capricorn.
(a) Solar Alliance
(b) Railway
(c) domestic development
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Solar Alliance

Question 15.
Which country decided to introduce the Japan’s Shikansen system.
(a) Australia
(b) India
(c) West Asia
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) India

Question 16.
Which institute providing manufacturing skills to enhance India’s manufacturing industry (Make in India).
(a) JIM
(b) JEC
(c) MAHSR
(d) COMCASA
Answer:
(a) JIM

Question 17.
Which course was introduced in engineering colleges was established in Andhrapradesh.
(a) JIM
(b) JEC
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(b) JEC

Question 18.
Which port is seen as golden gate way for India?
(a) Chabahar
(b) Kandla
(c) Gwadar
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Chabahar

Question 19.
Mention the C of the BRICS:
(a) China
(b) Vienna
(c) Japan
(d) Europe
Answer:
(a) China

Question 20.
Which economist was coined BRICS?
(a) British
(b) French
(c) German
(d) Russian
Answer:
(a) British

Question 21.
NDB gives priority to projects aimed at developing ……………… sources.
(a) Renewable
(b) Non – Renewable
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Renewable

Question 22.
The contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) for providing protection against ……………… pressures.
(a) liquidity
(b) currency issues
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) Trade
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 23.
Which centre has cover 20,000 volumes including books, maps related to petroleum.
(a) Information centre (OPEC)
(b) Research Centre (OPEC)
(c) Universities (OPEC)
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Information centre (OPEC)

Question 24.
……………… is one of the biggest consumers of crude oil.
(a) Nepal
(b) China
(c) India
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(c) India

Question 25.
India strongly focuses on production.
(a) Agriculture
(b) industrial
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) rural
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 26.
India extend its support to the in all her efforts.
(a) U.N.O
(b) W. T. O
(c) world bank
(d) none
Answer:
(a) U.N.O

Question 27.
Who is an active member of BRICS.
(a) Nepal
(b) Pakistan
(c) India
(d) Bangladesh
Answer:
(c) India

Question 28.
Which bank is lending for infrastructure project?
(a) The New Development Bank
(b) Contingent Reserve Arrangement
(c) global liquidity currency
(d) none
Answer:
(a) The New Development Bank

Question 29.
How many seats per year to Indian national for a master’s degree in university of Japan.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 20

Question 30.
Who is a super power and has a growing international influence all around the world.
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Pakistan
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………….. has always been known as a peace – loving country.
2. India’s position is ……………….. in its neighbourhood.
3. ……………….. is surrounded by many neighbouring countries.
4. Indo – Afghan relation was strengthened by the ………………..
5. ……………….. of Baluchistan active supporter of the Indian National congress.
6. ……………….. has built kandahar international cricket stadium.
7. India and ……………….. share 54 common rivers and a bilateral joint River commission is working to maximise benefits.
8. ……………….. has initiated a Tajore chair in university of Dhaka (Scholarship).
9. ……………….. is India’s gate way to Western countries.
10.  ……………….. one of the partner in Nalanda university project of India.
11.  ……………….. represents one of the main indicators of bilateral co-operation between India and Bhutan.
12. India declared the bilateral trade relation known as ………………..
13. China being the ……………….. of the world.
14. ……………….. is a small land locked country.
15. Nepali and Indian people visit each other’s country for religions ………………..
16. India included ……………….. in the VIII schedule of the constitution.
17. There are a number of ……………….. along Indo- Nepal border.
18. A joint hydropower project is being built on the ……………….. River.
19. The Government of India and Nepal have signed ……………….. agreements.
20. ……………….. remains our core concern in the relationship with Pakistan.
21. The cross-border firing between India and ………………..
22. ……………….. is the bone of contention between India and Pakistan.
23. ……………….. is a major irritant.
24. India and Pakistan under the ……………….. of 1972.
25. Sri Lankan investments in India include ……………….. (garment city)
26. COMCASA is valid for a period of ………………..
27. French space launch pads are used by ………………..
28. ……………….. broadens the relationship raising awareness and promoting exchanges between two countries.
29. ……………….. is one of most successful examples of Japanese co-operation.
30. JIM providing training for Indian-people in ………………..
31. Trade relations were established between civilisation of Mesopotemia and ………………..
32. ……………….. gateway to land locked and energy rich
33. In trading routes ran from ancient Sumeria to the Indus civilisation called ………………..
34. The acronym BRICS was coined by ……………….. a famous British economist.
35. ……………….. is a multilateral development Bank.
36. ……………….. are defining changes to have huge geo – economic and geo – political impact.
37. ……………….. mission to co-ordinate oil policies in its member countries.
38. ……………….. is an institution that help finance projects with low interest loans.
39. ……………….. doesn’t have enough oil reserves.
40. India – Japan join laboratories in the area of ………………..

Answers:

1. India
2. unique
3. India
4. Strategic Partnership Agreement (SPA)
5. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
6. India
7. Bangladesh
8. Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR)
9. Myanmar
10. Sri Lanka
11. Hydel power sector
12. Bharat to Bhutan B2B
13. Manufacturing hub
14. Nepal
15. Pilgrimage
16. Nepalese language
17. Tiger reserves
18. Sharda
19. Three-sister-city
20. Terrorism
21. Pakistan
22. Kashmir
23. Cross border terrorism
24. Shimla Agreement
25. Brandix
26. 10 years
27. ISRO
28. The Australia India council
29. Delhi metro
30. Manufacturing sector
31. The Indus valley
32. West Asia, Central Asia
33. Meluna
34. Jim O’Neill
35. NDB (New Development Bank)
36. The Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA)
37. OPEC 38. OPID
38. India
39. Information and communication Technology

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The Farakka accord on sharing of Ganga waters signed in 1977 is a historic agreement.
Reason (R): India and Bangladesh share 54 common rivers and a bilateral joint river commission is working to maximise benefits.
(a) A is correct and R explains A.
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A.

Question 2.
Which of the following statements are false?
Statement 1: India’s position is unique in its neighbourhood.
Statement 2: Myanmar is a land locked nations.
Statement 3: The cross border firing between India and Nepal.
Statement 4: Kashmir is the bone of contention between India and Pakistan.
(a) 1,2, and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Answer:
(d) 2 and 3

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Maldives is located South of Lakshadweep Islands in the Indian oceans.
Reason (R): The relationship with Maldives is important for India given its strategic location and geo – graphical proximity.
(a) A is correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): McMahon line is the boundary line between India and China.
Reason (R): The secretary of state for India (in British cabinet) Arthur Henry McMahon represented British India at the conference.
(a) A is correct and explains A
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is correct and R is wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

Match the Column I with Column II.
Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)
E. (i)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (ii)
D. (v)
E. (i)

Question 5.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

V. Give Short Answer

Question 1.
What is the role of India as a Great Helper?
Answer:
India is basically against colonization and wants to see all the countries of the world free from foreign domination. It played a great role in freeing Indonesia from the domination of Holland. In the same way, it has supported the freedom movements started by Egypt, Sudan, Indo-China, Ghana, Morocco and Bangladesh.

Question 2.
Name the formal groups in which India is a member.
Answer:
India is a member of formal groupings like U.N.O, NAM, SAARC, G-20 and the common wealth.

Question 3.
Explain India’s relationship with Pakistan.
Answer:
Inspite of part conflicts both India and Pakistan are trying to come closer. The Delhi-Lahore bus service was launched on March 10th 1999 to bring the people of the two countries closer. Negotiations for setting up Iran-Pakistan-India gas pipeline are taking place.

Question 4.
Mention the India’s relationship with OPEC.
Answer:

1. India is one of the biggest consumers of crude oil.
2. OPEC obviously has vested interest in India’s economic growth.
3. We import 86% of crude oil, 70% natural gas, 35% of cooking gas from OPEC countries.
4. India has been identified as a greater partner for OPEC mainly because of its high oil demand.

Question 5.
‘The relationship between India and Sri Lanka is smooth’-Justify.
Answer:
Sri Lanka is a Buddist country. The Mauryan emperor Ashoka spread Buddism there by sending his son and daughter. We have good trade relation with Sri Lanka India always support Sri Lanka on just and reasonable grounds. Thus the relationship between India and Sri Lanka is very smooth. It will be continued forever.

Question 6.
Write about Khan Abdual Ghaffar Khan.
Answer:
Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan of Baluchistan (a border province in 10 day’s Pakistan) was a prominent leader of the Indian independence movement and active supporter of the Indian national congress.

Question 7.
Why Buddhist saint went to Bhutan from India?
Answer:
Gur Padmasambhava, a Buddhist saint who want to Bhutan from India, played an influential role in spreading Buddhism and Cementing traditional ties between people of both nations.

Question 8.
List out the Indian states have their boundary with Nepal.
Answer:
Sikkim, west Bengal, Bihar, Uttarpradesh and Uttarakhand.

Question 9.
In what way JIM providing training to Indian people?
Answer:
The Japan India Institute of manufacturing(JIM) providing Japanese style manufacturing skills to enhance India’s manufacturing industry base and contribute to “Make in India” and “skill India” initiatives.

Question 10.
Write a short note on a joint hydro power project.
Answer:

1. A joint hydropower project is being built on the Sharda river.
2. This power plant helps both India and Nepal with respect to electricity production and irrigation facilities.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain the relationship of India with her neighbouring countries.
Answer:
India and Pakistan:
Insipite of port conflicts both India and Pakistan are trying to come closer. The Delhi-Lahore bus service was launched on March 16^th 1999 to bring the people of the two countries closer. Negotiations for setting up Iran-Pakistan-India gas pipeline are taking place.

India and China:
When China became republic in 1949, India was the first country to recognize it. Both the countries have successfully attempted to restore the economic lines. China has formally declared that she will back India’s claim for becoming a permenent member of United Nation’s Security Council.

India and Srilanka:
Srilanka is a Buddhist country. The Mauryan emperor Ashoka spread Buddhism there by sending his son and daughter. We have good trade relation with Srilanka. India always support Srilanka on just and reasonable grounds. Thus the relationship between India and Srilanka is very smooth. It will be continued for ever.

India and Bangladesh:
It is due to the effort and support of Smt. Indira Gandhi, the Prime Minister of India, Bangladesh got freedom from Pakistan in 1971. In 1972, a 25 years treaty of friendship, co operation and peace was signed in Dacca by India and Bangladesh. The farakka Barrage issue regarding the distribution of Ganga water was settled amicably. Thus India is a very good friend of Bangladesh. Our friendship with Bangladesh will go on forever.

Question 2.
Write about India and Pakistan relationship?
Answer:

1. Since the bifurcation of territory which demarcated India and Pakistan in 1947.
2. The two nations have had strained relations due to disagreements over a number of key issues.
3. Terrorism remains our core concern in the relationship with Pakistan.
4. But India has made extreme efforts to improve and stabilise relations with Pakistan.
5. The cross – border firing between India and Pakistan and the terrorist attacks combined have taken its toll on the Kashmiri’s who have suffered poor living standards and an erosion of human rights.
6. Kashmir is the bone of contention between India and Pakistan, which has brought the two countries into open clash many times.
7. Cross-border-terrorism is a major irritant.
8. India tried bring a positive change in the relationship of the two countries through bilateral agreements such as Shimla Agreement and Lahore Declaration.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 13 Structural Organisation of Animals Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 13 Structural Organisation of Animals

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Structural Organisation of Animals Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
In leech locomotion is performed by:
(a) Anterior sucker
(b) Posterior sucker
(c) Setae
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Anterior sucker

Question 2.
The segments of leech are known as _____.
(a) Metameres (somites)
(b) Proglottids
(c) Strobila
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(a) Metameres (somites).

Question 3.
Pharyngeal ganglion in leech is a part of:
(a) Excretory system
(b) Nervous system
(c) Reproductive system
(d) Respiratory system
Answer:
(b) Nervous system

Question 4.
The brain of leech lies above, the _____.
(a) Mouth
(b) Buccal Cavity
(c) Pharynx
(d) Crop.
Answer:
(c) Pharynx

Question 5.
The body of leech has:
(a) 23 segments
(b) 33 segments
(c) 38 segments
(d) 30 segments
Answer:
(b) 33 segments

Question 6.
Mammals are animals.
(a) Cold blooded
(b) Warm blooded
(c) Poikilothermic
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Warm blooded

Question 7.
The animals which give birth to young ones are _____.
(a) Oviparous
(b) Viviparous
(c) Ovoviviparous
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The posterior sucker is formed by the fusion of the ………. segments.
2. The existence of two sets of teeth in the life of an animal is called ……….. dentition.
3. The anterior end of leech has a lobe-like structure called ………..
4. The blood sucking habit of leech is known as ………..
5. ………. separate nitrogenous waste from the blood in rabbit.
6. ……… spinal nerves are present in rabbit.

Answer:

1. last seven
2. diphyodont
3. anterior sucker
4. sanguivorous
5. Nephrons (kidney)
6. 37 pair

III. Identify whether the statements are True or False. Correct the false statement:

1. An anticoagulant present in saliva of leech is called heparin.
2. The vas deferens serves to transport the ovum.
3. The rabbit has a third eyelid called tympanic membrane which is movable.
4. Diastema is a gap between premolar and molar teeth in rabbit.
5. The cerebral hemispheres of rabbit are connected by band of nerve tissue called corpora quadrigemina.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – Vas deferens serves to transport the sperm.
3. True
4. False – The gap between the incisors and premolars.
5. False – The cerebral hemispheres of rabbit are connected by band of nerve tissue called corpora corpus callosum.

IV. Match columns I, II and III correctly:

Answer:

V. Answer in a sentence:

Question 1.
Give the common name of the Hirudinaria granulosa.
Answer:
The common name of Hirundinaria granulosa is Indian Cattle Leech.

Question 2.
How does leech respire?
Answer:
Leech respire through the skin.

Question 3.
Write the dental formula of rabbit.
Answer:
The dental formula of rabbit is \(\frac{2033}{1023}\)

Question 4.
How many pairs of testes are present in leech?
Answer:
There are 11 pairs of testes are present in Leech.

Question 5.
How is diastema formed in rabbit?
Answer:
Diastema is due to the absence of canine. It is a gap between incisors and premolars in the upper jaw and lower jaw.

Question 6.
What organs are attached to the two bronchi?
Answer:
The organs attached to the two bronchi are lungs.

Question 7.
Which organ acts as a suction pump in leech?
Answer:
The Pharynx acts as a suction pump in Leech.

Question 8.
What does CNS stand for?
Answer:
The full form of CNS is Central Nervous System.

Question 9.
Why is the teeth of rabbit called heterodont?
Answer:
The dentition of rabbit is called heterodont, as they have different types of teeth (Incisors, premolars and molars).

Question 10.
How does leech suck blood from the host?
Answer:
The Anterior sucker helps in feeding, while both the suckers, help in attachment and locomotion.

VI. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
Why are the rings of cartilages found in trachea of rabbit?
Answer:
The wall of larynx which serves as the voice box is supported by 4 cartilaginous plates. When the air passes the vocal cord, it vibrates resulting in sound production.

Question 2.
List out the parasitic adaptations in the leech.
Answer:
Leeches lead a parasitic mode of life, by sucking the blood of vertebrates. The adaptations are

• Blood is sucked by the pharynx.
• Anterior and Posterior Suckers are provided, by which the animal attaches itself to the body of the host.
• The three Jaws, inside the mouth, causes a painless Y – shaped wound in the skin of the host,
• The salivary glands produce Hirudin, which does not allow the blood to coagulate. So, the continuous supply of blood is maintained.
• Parapodia and Setae are absent.
• Blood is stored in the crop. It gives nourishment to the leech for several months. So there is no elaborate secretion of the digestive juices and enzymes.

VII. Long answer questions:

Question 1.
How is the circulatory system designed in leech to compensate the heart structure?
Answer:
The circulation in Leech is Haemocoelic system. There are no true blood vessels. The blood vessels are replaced by channels called Haemocoelic channels or canals, filled with blood like a fluid. The coelomic fluid contains Haemoglobin.

There are four longitudinal channels. One channel lies above (dorsal) to the Alimentary canal, one below (ventral) to the Alimentary canal. The other two channels lie on either (lateral) side of the Alimentary canal, which serves as a heart and have inner valves. All the four channels are connected together posteriorly in the 26th segment. Thus the circulatory system is designed in Leech to compensate the heart structure.

Question 2.
How does locomotion take place in leech?
Answer:

1. Looping or Crawling movement : Looping movement is brought about by the contraction and relaxation of muscles. The two suckers serve for attachment during movement. The animal fixes its posterior sucker on the substratum.
2. Swimming movement : The animal swims in the water by undulating movements of the body.

Question 3.
Explain the male reproductive system of rabbit with a labelled diagram.
Answer:
The male rabbit has a pair of testes. They are oval in shape. They are kept in two sacs called scrotal sacs hanging down from the abdomen. Each testes is formed of numerous fine tubules called seminiferous tubules. A coiled tubule called epididymis is formed at the end of seminiferous tubules. Epididymis lead into the sperm duct called vas deferens. The vas deferens run forward and enters abdominal cavity through urinary bladder. The urethra runs back and passes into the penis. There are three accessory glands associated with the male reproductive system. They are prostate glands, cowper’s gland and perineal glands. Their secretion nourishes and activates the reproduction.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS).

Question 1.
Arjun is studying in the tenth standard. He was down with fever and went to meet the doctor. As he went to the clinic he saw a patient undergoing treatment for severe leech bite. Being curious, Arjun asked the doctor why leech bite was not felt as soon as it attaches to the skin? What would have been the reply given by the doctor?
Answer:
The doctors would have replied that the leeches inject an anaesthetic substance, that prevents the host from feeling their bite.

Question 2.
Shylesh has some pet animals at his home. He has few rabbits too, one day while feeding them he observed something different with the teeth. He asked his grandfather, why is it so? What would have been the explanation of his grandfather?
Answer:
The rabbit has three types of teeth – Incisors are front teeth used for cutting, premolar and molar are used for grinding. Canine is absent as rabbit are herbivores. The gap between the incisor and premolar is called diastema. It helps in mastication and chewing of food in herbivores animal.

IX. Value-Based Questions:

Question 1.
Leeches do not have an elaborate secretion of digestive juices and enzymes. Why?
Answer:
The digestion in leeches in very slow. So, the blood stored in the crop gives nourishment to the leech for several months. So there is not elaborate secretion of digestive juices and enzymes.

Question 2.
How is the digestive system of rabbit suited for herbivorous mode of feeding?
Answer:
Rabbit are herbivores which feed on plants. The plant contain cellulose which need cellulose to digest. The laccum of Rabbit contain large number of symbiotic bacteria that helps in digestion of cellulose.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Structural Organisation of Animals Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
(a) Vas deferens and Epididymis
(b) Ovary and Caeca
(c) Hirudin and Stomach
(d) Nephridia and Papillae.
Answer:
(a) Vas deferens and Epididymis

Question 2.
Diastema is:
(a) A part of pelvic girdle in rabbit
(b) A type of tooth in rabbit
(c) Space in teeth line in mammals
(d) Structure in eye of rabbit
Answer:
(c) Space in teeth line in mammals

Question 3.
(a) Suckers and Mammary glands
(b) Cowper’s gland and Perineal gland
(c) Forebrain and Oesophagus
(d) Cellulose and Colouration.
Answer:
(b) Cowper’s gland and Perineal gland

Question 4.
If the dental formula of rabbit is \(\frac{2023}{1023}\) What does it show?
(a) Total number of teeth in Rabbit is 15
(b) Number of total incisors in Rabbit is 3
(c) Diastema is present between incisors and premolars
(d) In the formula 2033 is for adult and 1023 is for young ones
Answer:
(c) Diastema is present between incisors and premolars

Question 5.
Number of pairs of salivary glands present in Rabbit is:
(a) one
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(c) four

Question 6.
Number of Vertebrae in rabbit is:
(a) 44 – 47
(b) 40 – 44
(c) 42 – 48
(d) 47 – 50
Answer:
(a) 44 – 47

Question 7.
If the diaphragm of a rabbit is perforated breathing is:
(a) Not affected
(b) Increased
(c) Decreased
(d) Stopped
Answer:
(d) Stopped

Question 8.
Tracheal rings in rabbit are:
(a) complete
(b) dorsally incomplete
(c) lateral incomplete
(d) incomplete
Answer:
(b) dorsally incomplete

Question 9.
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of leech?
(a) closed circulatory system
(b) segmentation
(c) pseudo coelom
(d) ventral nerve cord
Answer:
(c) pseudo coelom

Question 10.
The blood vascular system, of rabbit is:
(a) open type
(b) closed type
(c) semi closed type
(d) semi open type
Answer:
(b) closed type

Question 11.
The wall of Rabbit’s heart is thick due to the presence of:
(a) Inner layer endocardium
(b) Middle layer myocardium
(c) Outer layer pericardium
(d) Outer layer epicardium
Answer:
(b) Middle layer myocardium

Question 12.
Leech belongs to the class:
(a) polychaeta
(b) oligochaeta
(c) hirundinea
(d) archiannelida
Answer:
(c) hirundinea

Question 13.
A temporary clitellum occur during the breeding season in:
(a) Pheretima
(b) Heteroneris
(c) Hirundinaria
(d) Aphrodile
Answer:
(c) Hirundinaria

Question 14.
Saliva of leeches contains an anti coagulation called:
(a) Heparin
(b) Histamine
(c) Hirudin
(d) Haematin
Answer:
(c) Hirudin

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Hirudinaria granulosa belong to the phylum ……..
2. The scientific name of the rabbit is ………
3. ………. is the segmentation of the body.
4. The type of movement is brought by the contraction and relaxation of muscles in leeches is ………
5. In leech, the digestion takes place in stomach by the action of …………
6. The ……….. prevents the entry of food into the trachea through the glottis.
7. The existence of two sets of teeth in the life of an animal is called ………… dentition.
8. ……….. contains bacteria that helps in digestion of cellulose.
9. The anterior part of the oviduct in rabbit is …………
10. Breathing movement in mammals are brought by ………..
Answer:
1. Annelida
2. Oryctolagus cuniculus
3. Metamerism
4. Looping or crawling movement
5. Proteolytic enzyme
6. Epiglottis
7. Diphyodont
8. Caecum
9. Fallopian tube
10. Diaphragm

III. Identify whether the statements are True or False. Correct the false statement:

1. Mammary gland in male is the most striking feature of mammals.
2. The leech makes a triradiate or y-shaped incision in the skin of the host by the joins protrude through the mouth.
3. Crop and its diverticular in leech can store large amount of blood which can be slowly digested.
4. Breathing movement in Rabbit are brought by the movement of vibrissae.
5. In rabbit pair of cowper’s gland and perineal gland are present only in the male.

Answer:

1. False – Mammary gland in female is the most striking feature of mammals.
2. True
3. True
4. False – Breathing movement in Rabbit are brought by Diaphragm
5. False – In rabbit pair of cowper’s gland and perineal gland are present both male and female

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (iv)

V. Answer in a sentence:

Question 1.
Name the excretory organ of leech.
Answer:
Excretion in leech takes place by nephridia.

Question 2.
Give the Scientific name of Rabbit.
Answer:
Oryctolagus Cuniculus.

Question 3.
Where is the brain of rabbit located?
Answer:
The brain of rabbit is located in the cranial cavity and covered by three membrane of duramater, piamater and arachnoid membrane.

Question 4.
How many pairs of cranial nerves are there in the Peripheral Nervous System?
Answer:
12 pairs of cranial nerves.

Question 5.
What is other name of whiskers in rabbit?
Answer:
The sides of the upper lip produce stiff long thick hairs called vibrissae or whisker which are tactile sensory organ.

Question 6.
Which type of rabbit are endangered species?
Answer:
Pygmy Rabbits are listed as an endangered species.

Question 7.
Name the existence of two sets of teeth in the life of an animal.
Answer:
Diphyodont dentition

Question 8.
Why Rabbits are called gregarious animals?
Answer:
Rabbits are called gregarious animals as they move in group.

Question 9.
Which animals are called sanguivorous?
Answer:
Blood sucking animals.

Question 10.
What are nephridropores?
Answer:
In leech, excretion takes place by segmentally arranged paired tubules called nephridia. There are 17 pairs of nephridia which open by nephridiopores from 6th to 22nd segment.

VI. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Write the systematic position of Indian Cattle Leech.
Answer:

Question 2.
What do you know about the Trunk of Rabbit?
Answer:
The trunk is divisible into an anterior thorax and a posterior abdomen. In females, four or five teats or nipples are present on the ventral surface between Thorax and abdomen. The trunk has two pairs of Pentadactyl limbs. The forelimbs are shorter than the hind limbs.

All the digits bear claws. The anus is present at the posterior end. In females, on the ventral side, a slit-like Vulva is present. In males, the Penis is present in the ventral side of Anus. The male has a pair of testes, enclosed by Scrotal Sacs.

Question 3.
How do the leeches respire?
Answer:
There is no special respiration organ in leech. The skin serves as a respiratory i organ. The capillaries containing the haemocoelomic fluid extend in between the cells of the epidermis, acts as a permeable membrane through which the exchange of gases takes place by diffusion.

Question 4.
What are diphyodont dentition and Heterodont dentition?
Answer:
The existence of two sets of teeth in the life of an animal is called diphyodont dentition. The two types of teeth are Milk teeth (Young ones) and Permanent teeth (in adults).

The different types of dentition are called Heterodont. There are four kinds of teeth in mammals.
The incisors (I), Canines (C), Premolars (PM) and Molars (M).

Question 5.
List out the five layers of body wall of Leech.
Answer:
The body wall of leech consists of five layers.

1. Cuticle
2. Epidermis
3. Dermis
4. Muscular layer and
5. Botryoidal tissue

Question 6.
Give the systematic position of Rabbit.
Answer:

Question 7.
Explain the Respiratory system of Leech.
Answer:
Respiration takes place through the skin in Leech. Dense, network to tiny blood vessels called Capillaries, containing haemocoel fluid extend, in between the cells of the epidermis. The exchange of respiratory gases takes place by diffusion. Oxygen dissolved in water diffuses through the skin, into haemocoel fluid, while Carbon dioxide, diffuses out. The skin is kept moist and slimy, due to the secretion of mucus, which prevents the skin from drying.

Question 8.
List out the steps involved in Inspiration in Rabbit.
Answer:
During Inspiration the atmospheric air takes the following route.

VII. Long answer questions:

Question 1.
Compare the digestive system of Leech and Rabbit.
Answer:

Question 2.
Short notes on the Nervous System of Leech.
Answer:
The Central Nervous System of Leech consists of a nerve ring and a paired ventral nerve cord. The nerve ring surrounds the Pharynx and is formed of Suprapharyngeal ganglion (brain), Circum pharyngeal connective and Subpharyngeal ganglion. The Subpharyngeal ganglion lies below the Pharynx and is formed by the fusion of four pairs of Ganglia.