Bhagya

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.8 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.8

Question 1.
If to ω ≠ 1 is a cube root of unity, then show that

Solution:
L.H.S

Question 2.
Show that

Solution:

Question 3.

Solution:


Aliter method:

Question 4.
If 2cos α = x + \(\frac{1}{x}\) and 2 cos β = y + \(\frac{1}{x}\), show that
(i) \(\frac{x}{y}+\frac{y}{x}=2 \cos (\alpha-\beta)\)
Solution:
Given 2 cos α = x + \(\frac{1}{x}\) and cos β = y + \(\frac{1}{y}\)
simplifying x² – 2x cos α + 1 = 0

if x = cos α + i sin α, then \(\frac{1}{x}\) = cos α – i sin α
similarly y = cos β + i sin β and \(\frac{1}{y}\) = cos β – i sin β

Hence proved

(ii) xy = (cos α + i sin α)(cos β + i sin β )
Solution:
xy = (cos α + i sin α) (cos β + i sin β)
= cos (α + β) + i sin (α + β)
[∵ arg (z₁z₂) = arg z₁ + arg z₂
\(\frac{1}{xy}\) = cos (α + β) – i sin (α + β)
∴ xy – \(\frac{1}{xy}\) = cos (α + β) + i sin (α + β) – cos (α + β) + i sin (α + β)
= 2i sin (α + β)
Hence proved

(iii) \(\frac{x^{m}}{y^{n}}-\frac{y^{n}}{x^{m}}\) = 2 i sin (mα – nβ)
Solution:

Hence Proved

(iv) x^m yⁿ + \(\frac { 1 }{ x^m y^n }\) = 2 cos(mα – nβ)
Solution:
= (cos mα + sin mα) (cos nβ + i sin nβ)
= cos (mα + nβ) + i sin (mα + nβ)

Hence proved

Question 5.
Solve the equation z³ + 27 = 0.
Solution:
z³ + 27 = 0
z³ = – 27 = 27 (-1)
= 27 [cos(π + 2kπ) + i sin(π + 2kπ)], k ∈ z
∴ z = (27)^1/3[cos (2k + 1)π + i sin (2k+1)π]^1/3 k ∈ z

Question 6.
If ω ≠ 1 is a cube root of unity, show that the roots of the equation (z – 1)³ + 8 = 0 are -1, 1 – 2ω, 1 – 2ω².
Solution:
Given ω ≠ 1 is a active root of unity
(z – 1)³ + 8 = 0
(z- 1)³ = -8
z – 1 = (-8)^1/3 (1)^1/3
= (-2) (1, ω, ω²)
z – 1 = (-2, -2ω, -2ω²)
= z – 1 = -2
z = -2 + 1 = -1
z – 1 = -2ω
z = 1 – 2ω
z – 1 = -2ω²
z = 1 – 2ω²

Question 7.

Solution:
\(\sum_{k=1}^{8}\) (cos \(\frac { 2kπ }{ 9 }\) + i sin \(\frac { 2kπ }{ 9 }\))
The sum all nth root of unity is
1 + ω + ω² + …….. + ω^n-1 = 0
From the given polar from , it is clear that the complex number is 1 + i0 (unity)

Question 8.
If ω ≠ 1 is a cube root of unity, show that
(i) (1 – ω + ω²)⁶ + (1 + ω – ω²)⁶ = 128.
Solution:
ω is a cube root of unity ω³ = 1; 1 + ω + ω² = 0
(1 – ω + ω²)⁶ + (1 + ω – ω²)⁶
= (-ω – ω)⁶ + (-ω² – ω²)⁶
= (-2ω)⁶ + (-2ω²)⁶
= (-2)⁶(ω⁶ + ω¹²)
= (64)(1 + 1)
= 128

(ii) (1 + ω) (1 + ω²) (1 + ω⁴) (1 + ω⁸)….. (1 + ω²ⁿ) = 1
Solution:
(1 + ω)(1 + ω²)(1 + ω⁴)(1 + ω⁸) …… (1 + ω²ⁿ)
= (1 + ω)(1 + ω²)(1 + ω⁴)(1 + ω⁸) ……. 2n factors
= (-ω²)(-ω)(-ω²)(-ω) …… 2n factors
= ω³. ω³
= 1
Hence proved.

Question 9.
If z = 2 – 2i, find the rotation of z by θ radians in the counterclockwise direction about the origin when
Solution:
Let 2 – 2i
Modules = |z| = \(\sqrt{2^2+2^2}\) = 2√2
Argument θ = tan^-1(\(\frac{-2}{2}\)) = tan^-1(-1) = –\(\frac{π}{4}\)
(i) when ‘z’ is rotated in the counter clockwise direction about the origin when θ = \(\frac{π}{3}\) i.,e argument of new position

(ii) θ = \(\frac{2π}{3}\)
Solution:

(iii) θ = \(\frac{3π}{3}\)
Solution:

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 3 Theory of Equations Ex 3.2 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Theory of Equations Ex 3.2

Question 1.
If k is real, discuss the nature of the roots of the polynomial equation 2x² + kx + k = 0, in terms of k.
Solution:
The given quadratic equation is 2x² + kx + k = 0
a = 2, b = k, c = k
∆ = b² – 4ac = k² – 4(2) k = k² – 8k
(i) If the roots are equal
k² – 8k = 0
⇒ k(k – 8) = 0
⇒ k = 0, k = 8
(ii) If the roots are real
k² – 8k > 0
k(k – 8) > 0
k ∈ (-∞, 0) ∪ (8, ∞)
(iii) If this roots are imaginary
k² – 8k < 0
⇒ k ∈ (0, 8)

Question 2.
Find a polynomial equation of minimum degree with rational coefficients, having 2 + √3 i as a root.
Solution:
Let the root be 2 + i √3
Another root be 2 – i √3
Sum of the roots = 2 + i √3 + 2 – i √3 = 4
Product of the roots = (2 + i √3) (2 – i √3) = 2² + √3² = 4 + 3 = 7
x² – (SR)x + PR = 0
x² – 4x + 7 = 0

Question 3.
Find a polynomial equation of minimum degree with rational coefficients, having 2i + 3 as a root.
Solution:
Given roots is (3 + 2i), the other root is (3 – 2i);
Since imaginary roots occur in with real co-efficient occurring conjugate pairs.
x² – x(S.O.R) + P.O.R = 0
⇒ x² – x(6) + (9 + 4) = 0
⇒ x² – 6x + 13 = 0

Question 4.
Find a polynomial equation of minimum degree with rational coefficients, having √5 – √3 as a root.
Solution:
Let the root be √5 – √3,
Another root is √5 + √3
Sum of the roots = √5 – √3 + √5 + √3 = 2√5
Product of roots = (√5 – √3) (√5 + √3)
√5² – √3² = 5 – 3 = 2
x² – (SR)x + PR = 0
x² – 2√5 x + 2 = 0 which is not rational co-efficient.
to make rational co-efficient
(x² + 2√5 x + 2) (x² + 2 + 2√5 x) = 0
(x² + 2)² – (2√5x)² = 0
x⁴ + 4 + 4x² – 20x² = 0
⇒ x⁴ – 16x² + 4 = 0 is a rational co-efficient polynomial equation.

Question 5.
Prove that a straight line and parabola cannot intersect at more than two points.
Solution:
Let the standard equation of parabola y² = 4ax …..(1)
Equation of line be y = mx + c …(2)
Solving (1) & (2)
(mx + c)² = 4ax
⇒ mx² + 2mcx + c² – 4ax = 0
⇒ mx² + 2x(mc – 2a) + c² = 0
This equation can not have more than two solutions and
hence a line and parabola cannot intersect at more than two points.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 3 Theory of Equations Ex 3.1 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Theory of Equations Ex 3.1

Question 1.
If the sides of a cubic box are increased by 1, 2, 3 units respectively to form a cuboid, then the volume is increased by 52 cubic units. Find the volume of the cuboid.
Solution:
Let the side of the cube be ‘x’
Sides of cuboid are (x + 1) (x + 2) (x + 3)
∴ Volume of cuboid = x³ + 52
⇒ (x + 1) (x + 2) (x + 3) = x³ + 52
⇒ (x² + 3x + 2)(x + 3) = x³ + 52
⇒ x³ + 3x² + 3x² + 9x + 2x + 6 – x³ – 52 = 0
⇒ 6x² + 11x – 46 = 0 (÷2)
⇒ (x – 2) (6x + 23) = 0
⇒ x – 2 = 0 or 6x + 23 = 0
⇒ x = 2 or x = \(-\frac{23}{6}\) (not possible)
∴ x = 2
Volume of cube = 2³ = 8
Volume of cuboid = 52 + 8 = 60 cubic units

Question 2.
Construct a cubic equation with roots
Solution:
(i) 1, 2, and 3
α = 1, β = 2, γ = 3
α + β + γ = 6
αβ + βγ + γα = 2 + 6 + 3 = 11
αβγ = 6
x³ – (α + β + γ)x² + (αβ + βγ + γα)x – αβγ = 0
x³ – 6x² + 11x – 6 = 0

(ii) 1, 1, and -2
α = 1, β = 1, γ = -2
α + β + γ = 1 + 1 – 2 = 0
αβ + βγ + γα = 1 – 2 – 2 = -3
αβγ = 1(1)(-2) = -2
x³ – 0x² – 3x + 2 = 0
∴ x³ – 3x + 2 = 0

(iii) 2, \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\), and 1.

Multiplying by 2
2x³ – 7x² + 7x – 2 = 0

Question 3.
If α, β and γ are the roots of the cubic equation x³ + 2x² + 3x + 4 = 0, form a cubic equation whose roots are
(i) 2α, 2β, 2γ,
(ii) \(\frac{1}{α}\), \(\frac{1}{β}\), \(\frac{1}{γ}\)
(iii) – α, – β, – γ
Solution:
(i) Given that α, β, γ are the roots of x³ + 2x² + 3x + 4 = 0
Compare with x³ + bx² + cx + d = 0
b = 2, c = 3, d = 4
α + β + γ = -6 = -2
αβ + βγ + γα = c = 3
αβγ = -d = -4
Given roots are 2α, 2β, 2γ
2α + 2β + 2γ = 2 (α + β + γ)
= 2 (-2)
= -4
(2α) (2β) + (2β) (2γ) + (2γ) (2α) = (4αβ + 4βγ + 4γα)
= 4(αβ + βγ + γα)
= 4(3)
= 12
(2α) (2β) (2γ) = 8(αβγ)
= 8(-4)
= -32
The equation is
x³ – x² (2α + 2β + 2γ) + x (4αβ + 4βγ + 4γα) – 8 (αβγ) = 0
⇒ x³ – x² (-4) + x (12) – (-32) = 0
⇒ x³ + 4x² + 12x + 32 = 0

(ii) The new roots are \(\frac{1}{α}\), \(\frac{1}{β}\), \(\frac{1}{γ}\)

⇒ 4x³ + 3x² + 2x + 1 = 0

(iii) The given roots are -α, -β, -γ
The cubic equation is
x³ – x² (-α – β – γ) + x (αβ + βγ + γα) + (αβγ) = 0
⇒ x³ + x² (α + β + γ) + x (αβ + βγ + γα) + (αβγ) = 0
⇒ x³ + x² (-2) + x (3) – 4 = 0
⇒ x³ – 2x² + 3x – 4 = 0

Question 4.
Solve the equation 3x³ – 16x² + 23x – 6 = 0 if the product of two roots is 1.
Solution:
Let the roots be α, β, γ
Given αβ = 1, β = \(\frac{1}{α}\)

⇒ 3α² – 10α + 3 = 0
3α² – 9α – α + 3 = 0
3α(α – 3) -1(α – 3) = 0
(3α – 1) (α – 3) = 0
α = 3 or α = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
If α = 3, β = \(\frac{1}{3}\), γ = 2 (or)
α = \(\frac{1}{3}\), β = 3, γ = 2
⇒ [α, β, γ] = (\(\frac{1}{3}\), 3, 2)

Question 5.
Find the sum of squares of roots of the equation 2x⁴ – 8x³ + 6x² – 3 = 0.
Solution:
The given equation is 2x⁴ – 8x³ + 6x² – 3 = 0.
(÷ 2) ⇒ x⁴ – 4x³ + 3x² – \(\frac{3}{2}\) = 0
Let the roots be α, β, γ, δ
α + β + γ + δ = -b = 4
(αβ + βγ + γδ + αδ + αγ + βδ) = c = 3
αβγ + βγδ + γδα = -d = 0
αβγδ = \(\frac{-3}{2}\)
To Find α² + β² + γ² + δ² = (α + β + γ + δ)² – 2 (αβ + βγ + γδ + αδ + αγ + βδ)
= (4)² – 2(3)
= 16 – 6
= 10

Question 6.
Solve the equation x³ – 9x² + 14x + 24 = 0 if it is given that two of its roots are in the ratio 3 : 2.
Solution:
Let the roots are 3α, 2α, β
sum of the roots are
3α + 2α + β = 9
5α + β = 9 ………. (1)
Product of two roots
3α(2α) + 2α(β) + β(3α) = 14
6α² + 5αβ = 14 ……… (2)
Product of three roots
(3α) (2α)β = -24
α²β = -4 ………. (3)
(1) ⇒ β = 9 – 5 α
(2) ⇒ 6α² + 5α (9 – 5α) = 14
6α² + 45α – 25α² = 14
-19α² + 45α – 14 = 0
19α² – 45α + 14 = 0
(α – 2) (α – \(\frac{7}{19}\)) = 0
α = 2 or α = \(\frac{7}{19}\)
If α = 2, β = 9 – 5 (α) = 9 – 5(2) = 9 – 10 = -1
roots are 3α, 2α, β
3(2), 2(2), -1 (i,e.,) 6, 4, -1
If α = \(\frac{7}{19}\), β = 9 – 5(\(\frac{7}{19}\)) = (\(\frac{136}{19}\))
roots are 3α, 2α, β (i,e.,) \(\frac{21}{19}\), \(\frac{14}{19}\), \(\frac{136}{19}\)

Question 7.
If α, β, and γ are the roots of the polynomial equation ax³ + bx² + cx + d = 0, find the value of Σ\(\frac{α}{βγ}\) terms of the coefficients.
Solution:

Question 8.
If α, β, γ and δ are the roots of the polynomial equation 2x⁴ + 5x³ – 7x² + 8 = 0, find a quadratic equation with integer coefficients whose roots are α + β + γ + δ and αβγδ.
Solution:

pq = (\(\frac{-5}{2}\))(4) = -10
x² – (p + q)x + pq = 0
x² – \(\frac{3}{2}\)x – 10 = 0
2x² – 3x – 20 = 0

Question 9.
If p and q are the roots of the equation lx² + nx + n = 0,
show that,
Solution:
p and q are the roots of the equation lx² + nx + n = 0
p + q = –\(\frac{n}{l}\), pq = \(\frac{n}{l}\)
LHS

Question 10.
If the equations x² + px + q = 0 and x² + p’x + q’ = 0 have a common root, show
that it must be equal to \(\frac{pq’-p’q}{q-q’}\) and \(\frac{q-q’}{p’-p}\)
Solution:
Let it be α common roots of x² + px + q = 0
x² + p’x + q’ = 0
(i,e.,) α² + pα + q = 0 …… (1) and
α² + p’α + q’ = 0 ………. (2)
Solving 1 and 2 by cross multiplication method, we have

Hence proved.

Question 11.
A 12-meter tall tree was broken into two parts. It was found that the height of the part which was left standing was the cube root of the length of the part that was cut away. Formulate this into a mathematical problem to find the height of the part which was cut away.
Solution:
Let the height of the tree = 12
length of the cut part = x³
Length of left out part = \(\sqrt[3]{x^{3}}\)
= x
Given x + x³ = 12
x³ + x – 12 = 0

Which is required mathematical problem

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.9 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.9

Choose the most suitable answer.

Question 1.
iⁿ + iⁿ⁺¹+ iⁿ⁺² + iⁿ⁺³ is:
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) -1
(d) z
Solution:
(a) 0
Hint:
iⁿ + iⁿ⁺¹+ iⁿ⁺² + iⁿ⁺³
= iⁿ[1 + i + i² + i³]
= iⁿ[1 + i – 1 – i]
iⁿ (0) = 0

Question 2.
The value of \(\sum _{ i=1 }^{ 13 }{ ({ i }^{ n }+{ i }^{ n-1 }) } \) is
(a) 1 + i
(b) i
(c) 1
(d) 0
Solution:
(a) 1 + i
Hint:
\(\sum _{ i=1 }^{ 13 }{ ({ i }^{ n }+{ i }^{ n-1 }) } \)= (i¹ + i² + i³ + … + i¹³) + (i⁰ + i¹ + i² + … + i¹²)
= i⁰ + 2(i¹ + i² + i³  + ….. i¹²) + i¹³
= 1 + 2(i – 1 – i + 1 + … + 1) + 1
= 1 + 2(0) + i = 1 + i

Question 3.
The area of the triangle formed by the complex numbers z, iz, and z + iz in the Argand’s diagram is:
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\) |z|²
(b) |z|²
(c) \(\frac{3}{2}\) |z|²
(d) 2|z|²
Solution:
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\) |z|²
Hint:
Area of the triangle formed by the complex numbers z, iz and z + iz.
Let z = a + ib ⇒point (a, b)
iz = – b + ia ⇒ point (- b, a)
z + iz =(a – b) + i(a + b) point((a – b),(a + b))
Area of the triangle
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) [x₁(y₂ – y₃) + x₂(y₃ – y₁) + x₃(y₁ – y₂)]
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) [a(a – a – b) -b(a + b – b) + (a – b)(b – a)]
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) [-ab – ab + ab – a² – b² + ab]

Question 4.
The conjugate of a complex number is \(\frac{1}{i-2}\) Then, the complex number is:
(a) \(\frac{1}{i+2}\)
(b) \(\frac{-1}{i+2}\)
(c) \(\frac{-1}{i-2}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{i-2}\)
Solution:
(b) \(\frac{-1}{i+2}\)
Hint:
Conjugate of complex number is \(\frac{1}{i-2}\)
∴ the complex number is \(\frac{-1}{i+2}\)

Question 5.
If z = \(\frac{(√3+i)^3(3i+4)²}{(8+6i)²}\)
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Solution:
(c) 2
Hint:

Question 6.
If z is a non zero complex number, such that 2iz² = \(\bar { z }\) then | z | is:
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2
Solution:
z is a non zero complex number
Given 2iz² = \(\bar { z }\)
let z = x + iy
2i(x + iy)² = x – iy
simplifying 2i(x² – y² + 2ixy) = x – iy
-4xy + 2i(x² – y²) = x – iy
Equating real and imaginary parts
-4xy = x, 2(x² – y²) = -y
solving x = \(\frac{√3}{4}\), y =-\(\frac{1}{4}\)
z = \(\frac{√3}{4}\) – \(\frac{i}{4}\)
|z| = \(\sqrt { \frac{3}{16}+\frac{1}{16}}\) = \(\sqrt { \frac{1}{4}}\)
= \(\frac {1}{2}\)

Question 7.
If |z – 2 + i | ≤ 2, then the greatest value of |z| is:
(a) √3 – 2
(b) √3 + 2
(c) √5 – 2
(d) √5 + 2
Solution:
(d) √5 + 2
Hint:
|z – 2 + i | ≤ 2
|z + (-2 + i)| ≤ |z| + |-2 + i|
|z| ± √5
Given |z – 2 + i| ≤ 2
∴ |z| ± √5 ≤ 2
|z| ≤ 2 – √5. |z| ≤ 2 + √5
∴ The greatest value is 2 + √5

Question 8.
If |z – \(\frac{3}{2}\)| = 2 then the least value of |z| is:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
Solution:
(a) 1
Hint:

|z|² – 2 |z| + 1 ≤ 3 + 1
(|z| – 1)² ≤ 4
|z| – 1 ≤ ± 2
|z| ≤ 2 + 1 and |z| ≤ – 2 + 1
|z| = -1
But |z| = 1

Question 9.
If |z| = 1, then the value of \( \frac { 1+z }{ 1+\bar { z } } \) is
(a) z
(b) \( \bar { z } \)
(c) \(\frac{1}{z}\)
(d) 1
Solution:
(a) z
Hint:

Question 10.
The solution of the equation |z| – z = 1 + 2i is:
(a) \(\frac{3}{2}\) – 2i
(b) – \(\frac{3}{2}\) + 2i
(c) 2 – \(\frac{3}{2}\)i
(d) 2 + \(\frac{3}{2}\)i
Solution:
(a) \(\frac{3}{2}\) – 2i
Hint:
|z| – z = 1 + 2i
Let z = x + iy
|z| = x + iy + 1 + 2i
\(\sqrt{x^2+y^2}\) = (x + 1) + i(y + 2)
\(\sqrt{x^2+y^2}\) = x + 1 y + 2 = 0
x² + y² = (x + 1)² y = -2
y² = 2x + 1
2x = 3
x = \(\frac{3}{2}\)
∴z = x + iy = \(\frac{3}{2}\) – 2i

Question 11.
If |z₁| = 1,|z₂| = 2, |z₃| = 3 and |9z₁z₂ + 4z₁z₃ + z₂z₃| = 12, then the value of |z₁ + z₂ + z₃| is:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Solution:
(b) 2
Hint:

Question 12.
If z is a complex number such that z∈C\R and z + \(\frac{1}{z}\) ∈R, then |z| is:
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Solution:
(b) 1
Hint:
If z ∈ C\R and z + \(\frac{1}{z}\) ∈ R
Then |z| = 1

Question 13.
z₁, z₂ and z₃ are complex numbers such that z₁ + z₂ + z₃ = 0 and |z₁| = |z₂| = |z₃| = 1 then \({ z }_{ 1 }^{ 2 }+{ z }_{ 2 }^{ 2 }+{ z }_{ 3 }^{ 2 }\) is
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 0
Solution:
(d) 0

Question 14.
If \(\frac{z-1}{z+1}\)is purely imaginary, then |z| is
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Solution:
(b) 1
Hint:

Question 15.
If z = x + iy is a complex number such that |z + 2| = |z – 2|, then the locus of z is:
(a) real axis
(b) imaginary axis
(c) ellipse
(d) circle
Solution:
(b) imaginary axis
Hint:
|z + 2| = |z – 2|
Let z = x + iy
|(x + 2) + iy| = |(x – 2) + iy|
(x + 2)² + y² = (x – 2)² + y²
x² + 4x + 4 = x² – 4x + 4
⇒ x = 0

Question 16.
The principal argument of \(\frac{3}{-1+i}\) is:
(a) \(\frac{-5π}{6}\)
(b) \(\frac{-2π}{3}\)
(c) \(\frac{-3π}{4}\)
(d) \(\frac{-π}{2}\)
Solution:
(c) \(\frac{-3π}{4}\)
Hint:

Since Real and imaginary parts are negative.
‘θ’ lies in 3rd quadrant.
∴ Principal argument = – \(\frac {3π}{4}\) [∵ \(\frac {π}{4}\) – π]

Question 17.
The principal argument of (sin 40° + i cos 40°)⁵ is:
(a) – 110°
(b) -70°
(c) 70°
(d) 110°
Solution:
(a) – 110°
Hint:
z = (sin 40° + i cos 40°)⁵
= (cos 50° + i sin 50°)⁵
= cos 250° + i sin 250°]
= cos (360° – 110°) + i sin (360° – 110°)
= cos 110° – i sin 110°
= cos (-110°) + i sin (-110°)
∴ Principal argument is – 110°

Question 18.
If (1 + i) (1 + 2i) (1 + 3i) ……. (l + ni) = x + iy, then 2.5.10 …… (1 + n²) is:
(a) 1
(b) i
(c) x² + y²
(d) 1 + n²
Solution:
(c) x² + y²
Hint:
(1 + i) (i + 2i) ….. (1 + ni) = x + iy
Taking of two modulli of each of squaring
2.5.10 … (1 +n²) = x²+ y²

Question 19.
If ω ≠ 1 is a cubic root of unity and (1 + ω)⁷ = A + Bω, then (A, B) equals:
(a) (1, 0)
(b) (-1, 1)
(c) (0, 1)
(d) (1, 1)
Solution:
(d) (1, 1)
Hint:
(1 + ω)⁷ = A + Bω
(- ω²)⁷ = A + Bω
– ω¹⁴ = A + Bω
– ω² = A + Bω
1 + ω² = A + Bω
∴ A = 1, B = 1

Question 20.
The principal argument of the complex number \(\frac{(1+i \sqrt{3})^{2}}{4 i(1-i \sqrt{3})}\) is:
(a) \(\frac{2π}{3}\)
(b) \(\frac{π}{6}\)
(c) \(\frac{5π}{6}\)
(d) \(\frac{π}{2}\)
Solution:
(d) \(\frac{π}{2}\)
Hint:

Question 21.
If α and β are the roots of x² + x + 1 = 0, then α²⁰²⁰ + β²⁰²⁰ is
(a) -2
(b) -1
(c) 1
(d) 2
Solution:
(b) -1
Hint:
x² + x + 1 = 0

Question 22.
The product of all four values of (cos\(\frac{π}{3}\) + i sin \(\frac{π}{3}\))^{\(\frac{3}{4}\)} is:
(a) -2
(b) -1
(c) 1
(d) 2
Solution:
(c) 1

Question 23.
If ω ≠ 1 is a cubic root of unity and

(a) 1
(b) -1
(c) √3 i
(d) -√3 i
Solution:
(d) -√3 i

= 1(ω² – ω⁴) – (ω – ω²) + 1(ω² – ω) = 3k
= ω² – ω – ω + ω² + ω² – ω = 3k
= 3ω² – 3ω = 3k
= 3(ω² – ω) = 3k
∴ k = ω² – ω

Question 24.
The value of (\(\frac{1+√3 i}{1-√3 i}\))¹⁰ is:
(a) cis\(\frac{2π}{3}\)
(b) cis\(\frac{4π}{3}\)
(c) -cis\(\frac{2π}{3}\)
(d) -cis\(\frac{2π}{3}\)
Solution:
(a) cis\(\frac{2π}{3}\)
Hint:

Question 25.
If ω = cis\(\frac{2π}{3}\), then the number of distinct roots of
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Solution:


The expansion 1 becomes
z³ + (0) z² + (0) z + 0 = 0
⇒ z³ = 0
z = 0 is the only solution.

Students can download 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Human Geography of Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The delta which is known as Granary of South India is:
(a) Cauvery delta
(b) Mahanadi delta
(c) Godavari delta
(d) Krishna delta
Answer:
(a) Cauvery delta

Question 2.
Second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu is ……………
(a) Pulses
(b) Millets
(c) Oilseeds
(d) Rice
Answer:
(b) Millets

Question 3.
Literacy rate of Tamil Nadu as per 2011 census is:
(a) 80.32%
(b) 62.33%
(c) 73.45%
(d) 80.33%
Answer:
(d) 80.33%

Question 4.
A major hydro-electric power project of Tamil Nadu is …………..
(a) Mettur
(b) Papanasam
(c) Sathanur
(d) Tungabhadra
Answer:
(a) Mettur

Question 5.
Number of major and minor ports in Tamil Nadu are:
(a) 3 and 15
(b) 4 and 15
(c) 3 and 16
(d) 4 and 15
Answer:
(a) 3 and 15

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Agriculture of Tamil Nadu constitutes ………………. % of its economy.
2. Sathanur dam is constructed across the river ……………….
3. Tamil Nadu ranks ………………. in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects under operation in the Public – Private Partnership (PPP).
4. ………………. is the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.
5. The difference between the value of exports and imports is called ……………….

Answers:

1. 21%
2. Then Pennai
3. second
4. Chennai
5. balance of trade

III. Match the following

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (iii)

IV. Questions 1-2 are assertion and reasoning type

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Coimbatore, Tiruppur and Erode region is called as The Textile Valley of Tamil Nadu.
Reason (R): They contribute a major share to the state’s economy through textiles.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Nilgiris is the least populated district of Tamil Nadu. Reason (R): It is located in the western most part of Tamil Nadu.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is false
Answer:
(d) (A) is false but (R) is false

V. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
Explain the cropping seasons of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The farmers select different crops for different seasons of cultivation based on the temperature and availability of moisture in the soil.

Question 2.
Why is Coimbatore called the Manchester of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Maximum units are concentrated in and around Coimbatore region. For this region, it is known as the “Manchester of South India”. It is known as such because of presence of more than 25,000 small, medium, large scale industries and textile mills.

Question 3.
Name the important multipurpose projects of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The important multipurpose project of Tamil Nadu are:

1. Mettur Dam – River Cauvery – Mettur (Salem)
2. Bhavani Sagar Dam – Bhavani – Erode
3. Amaravathi Dam – Amaravathi – Udumalpet (Tirupur)
4. Krishnagiri Dam – Cauvery – Krishnagiri
5. Sathanur Dam – Then Pennai – Chengam
6. Mullai Periyar – Periyar – Tamil Nadu, Kerala Border fix) Vaigai Dam – Vaigai – Andipatti (Theni)
7. Manimuthar Dam – manimuthar – Tirunelveli
8. Papanasam Dam – Karaiyar – Tirunelveli
9. Parambikulam Aliyar – Aliyar and Parambikulam – Joint venture of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

Question 4.
What is MRTS?
Answer:
MRTS means mass Rapid Transport System and currently developing a Metro System, with its first underground stretch in operation since May 2017.

Question 5.
List out the air ports and sea ports of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Airports: Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai and Tiruchiraplli.
Sea ports:
Three major sea ports – Chennai, Ennore, Tuticorin. An intermediate port at Nagapattinam and 51 minor ports are there in Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
Have you heard about any stampede in your district? Write about that incident briefly.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

VI. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Marine Fishing and inland fishing.
Answer:
Marine Fishing:

1. Fishing is carried out in ocean and sea in shore fishing and off shore fishing.
2. Fish varieties caught are sharks, flying fish, counch, cat fish, silver bellies and crabs.
3. Large mechanised boats are used.
4. Chennai, Kanyakumari, Tirunelveli, Nagapattinam, Thanjavur and Ramanathapuram are the major areas.

Inland Fishing:

1. Fishing is carried out in lakes, rivers, ponds, estuaries, backwaters and swamps.
2. Carp, Tilapia, Barbus, Rohu, catla and mrigal are caught. Oyster and prawns are cultured in nurseries.
3. Catamaran, diesel boats and floating nets are used.
4. Vellore leads in inland fishing production followed by Cuddalore, Sivagangai and Virudhunagar districts.

Question 2.
Food crops and non-food crops.
Answer:
Food Crops:

1. Staple food crops paddy, millets and pulses.
2. From the major source of regular diet.
3. Mostly grown under subsistence farming the excess is given for sale

Non – Food Crops:

1. Oil seeds, sugarcane, cotton and plantation crops.
2. Mainly used for commercial purpose (cash crops).
3. Mostly grown and commercial farming mainly grown for agro-based manufacturing sector.

Question 3.
Surface water and groundwater.
Answer:
Surface Water:

1. Water available on the surface of the earth in lakes, ponds, rivers, stream, reservoirs etc.,
2. The surface water is put in to various uses like drinking, for hydelpower, irrigation etc.
3. Availability depend upon the rainfall nature of soil, land form temperature etc.
4. Not reliable
5. May be polluted and contaminated by the external forces.

Ground Water:

1. Water found underground at deep in large aquifers (porous rock layers) by seeping the soil.
2. Water has to be pumped out by drilling a deep well.
3. Availability depend upon the nature of absorption by the aqueous layer of rocks.
4. Reliable sources of water.
5. Mostly polluted due to depth.

VII. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Farmers switch over from inorganic to organic farming.
Answer:
To promote organic farming a central scheme named ‘National Project on Organic Farming’ was launched Apart from general things, the scheme provides financial assistance through Capital investment Subsidy Scheme for agro-waste compost production units, bio-fertilizers/ bio-pesticides production units, development and implementation of a quality control regime, human resource development etc. In organic farming synthetic fertilizers, pesticides, growth regulator and livestock feed additives are not used. This type of fanning rely on crop rotation, crop residues, animal manure, off-farm organic wastes and biological pest control to maintain soil productivity.

Question 2.
Cities are densely populated than the villages.
Answer:
Cities are densely populated than villages because of several facilities like education, recreation, medical and mainly employment opportunities in various sectors to earn for their livelihood.

Question 3.
Karur is Called the Textile Capital of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Karur is a well known industrial centre the city is famous for cottage and handloom textiles. It exports all kinds of textile items all over the world.

Question 4.
Mostly stampede occurs in Temples.
Answer:
During festival seasons in temples people from all over gather in thousands or lakhs. Sometimes the uncontrolled crowds when they move towards each other (to and fro) may push each other. The packed situation and lack of space lead to panic and asphysciation that make breathing very difficult and stampede occurs.

VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
Write about the plantation farming of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Tea, coffee, cashew, rubber and cinchona are the major plantation crops of the state.
• Tamil Nadu ranks second in area and production of tea in India next to Assam.
• Tea plantations are found in the hills of the Nilgiris and Coimbatore.
• Coffee plants are grown in the hills of Western Ghats as well as Eastern Ghats.
• The Nilgiris and Yercaud in Salem are the notable regions for tea plantations.
• It is also found in the hilly slopes of Dindigul, Madurai, Theni and Dharmapuri districts.
• Tamil Nadu stands second in area and production of coffee next to Karnataka.
• Rubber plantations are significant in Kanyakumari.
• Pepper is confined to the warm and wet slopes of Eastern and Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu
• Cashew is extensively cultivated in Cuddalore district.
• Cinchona is planted at heights varying from 1060 to 1280 metres in Anaimalai hills.
• Cardamom estates are located at few places in the hills of the Madurai region at an elevation of 915 to 1525 metres.

Question 2.
Give an account on water resources of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu has only 2.5% of India’s water resources. More than 95% of the surface water and 80% of the ground water have already been put into use.

Major uses of water: It include human / animal consumption, irrigation and industrial use.

Rainfall: The state is mainly dependent on monsoon rains. The average annual rainfall is around 930 mm. 47% during north east monsoon, 35% during the south west Monsoon 14% in summer and 4% in winter.

Surface water Resources: River Basin, Reservoirs, Tanks, Tube wells and other wells and open wells. Approximately getting 20,46,788 million cubic metres.

Question 3.
Bring out the mineral distribution in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu is the leading holder of country’s. resources of vermiculite, magnetite, dunite, rutile, garnet, molybdenum and ilmenite.

Contribution for the country’s mineral resources:
75% vermiculite, 55.3% lignite, 69% dunite, 52% molybdenum, 59% garnet, 30% titanium.
Important Minerals and area of occurrence:

In some parts of the state feldspar, quartz, copper and lead also found in less quantity.

Question 4.
State the densely populated regions of Tamil Nadu and account for its high density.
Answer:

1. The plains with suitable climate, the coasted plains with mild temperature and large towns are densely populated.
2. The state ranks 12lh among the Indian States in population density.
3. The nation average density of population as per the 2011 census in 382. Chennai is the densest district with 26,903 person per sq. km.
4. Followed by Kanyakumari – 1106
   Tiruvallur – 1049
   Kancheepuram – 927
   Madurai – 823
   Coimbatore – 748
   Cuddalore – 702
   Thanjavur – 691
   Nagapattinam – 668
   Salem – 663
   Vellore – 646
   Tiruchirappalli – 602
   These are the regions with high density of population.

Question 5.
Explain the different modes of transport available in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Road ways:

1. The state has a total road length of 1,67,000 km. 60,628 km are maintained by state Highways department.
2. It ranks second in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects under operation in the Public Private Partnership (PPP) model.

Railways:

1. As a part of Southern Railway with headquarters at Chennai, Tamil Nadu has well developed rail network.
2. Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length 6,693 km with 690 railway station.
3. Main Junctions: Chennai, Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Salem, Tiruchirapalli and Tirunelveli.
4. Chennai has a well established suburban railway network a Mass Rapid Transit System (MRTS) and is currently developing a metro system with its first underground stretch in operation since May 2017.

Airways:

1. Increased industrial activity has given rise to an increase in passenger traffic as well as freight movement. It has been growing over 18% per year.
2. Major International Airports – Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai and Tiruchirapalli. Chennai International airport is the third largest airport in India next to Mumbai and Delhi.
3. Domestic Airport – The state has domestic airports at Tuticorin and Salem connecting several parts of the country.

Waterways:

1. Tamil Nadu has three major ports – Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin.
2. Minor ports – About 15 and Nagapattinam serves as an intermediate port.

Cargo handling:

1. 24% of India’s cargo is handled by the ports of Tamil Nadu. They are currently capable of handling over 73 millions metric tonnes of cargo annually.
2. All the minor ports are managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai port.
3. Chennai port – It is an artificial harbour and the second principal port in the country for handling containers.
4. It is currently upgraded to have a dedicated terminal for cars capable of handling 4,00,0000 vehicles.
5. Ennore port – It was recently converted as a major port and handles the major coal and are traffic in Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
Write about Road safety rules.
Answer:

• Aware of the road signals
• Stop, look and cross
• Listen and ensure whether a vehicle is approaching
• Don’t rush on roads
• Crossroads in pedestrian crossings
• Don’t stretch hands while driving vehicles
• Never crossroad at bends and stay safe in a moving vehicle

IX. Map study

Question 1.
Mark the areas of major crops, minerals, dams, airports and seaports.
Answer:
(a) On an outline map of Tamil Nadu the areas of major crops.

1. Paddy – Thanjavur, Tiruvarur, Tirunelveli
2. Millets – Coimbatore, Dharmapuri, Vellore, Perambalur.
3. Pulses – Coimbatore, Tiruvarur, Nagapattinam, Thoothukudi, Krishnagiri.
4. Oil seeds – Vellore, Tiruvannamalai, Villupuram, Salem, Pudukottai.
5. Sugarcane – Kancheepuram, Tiruvallur, Cuddalore, Erode, Tirunelveli.
6. Cotton – Coimbatore, Salem, Madurai, Ramanathapuram, Virudhunagar.
7. Tea and coffee – Nilgiris, Kodaikanal, Kanyakumari, Anaimalai hills.

(b) Distribution of minerals:
Refer VIII. Paragraph Q. No 3 for Distribution of minerals areas.

(c) Dams:

(d) Seaports and airports:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Human Geography of Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
A triangular-shaped alluvial tract formed at the mouth of the river:
(a) Doab
(b) Bay
(c) Delta
(d) Harbour
Answer:
(c) Delta

Question 2.
Agriculture is the ………….. and traditional occupation.
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Service
Answer:
(a) Primary

Question 3.
……………….. with alluvial soil enhances agricultural productivity.
(a) hills
(b) plateaus
(c) plains
(d) dry lands
Answer:
(c) plains

Question 4.
Pearl fishing is predominant in ………….. region.
(a) Gulf of Mannar
(b) Rameshwaram
(c) Chinna muttom
Answer:
(a) Gulf of Mannar

Question 5.
India observed as ……………….. national year of millets.
(a) 2015
(b) 2016
(c) 2017
(d) 2018
Answer:
(d) 2018

Question 6.
The Manchester of South India is ……………..
(a) Salem
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Mumbai
Answer:
(b) Coimbatore

Question 7.
……………….. is the major oil seed of the Tamil Nadu state.
(a) Coconut
(b) Ground nut
(c) Sunflower
(d) Gingelly
Answer:
(b) Ground nut

Question 8.
The Headquarters of the Southern Railways is in …………….
(a) Chennai
(b) Cochin
(c) Mumbai
Answer:
(a) Chennai

Question 9.
……………….. is also called inshore fishing or neritic fishing.
(a) Oyster cultivation
(b) Inland fishing
(c) Marine fishing
(d) Pearl fishing
Answer:
(c) Marine fishing

Question 10.
…………….. dam was built by British administration in 1895.
(a) Cauvery
(b) Mettur
(c) Mullaiperiyar
Answer:
(c) Mullaiperiyar

Question 11.
……………….. is one of the biggest Earthen dams in the country.
(a) Mullai Periyar Dam
(b) Bhavani Sagar Dam
(c) Mettur Dam
(d) Sathanur Dam
Answer:
(b) Bhavani Sagar Dam

Question 12.
……………….. is also known as ‘Karaiyar Dam’.
(a) Papanasam Dam
(b) Vaigai Dam
(c) Manimuthar Dam
(d) Krishnagiri Dam
Answer:
(a) Papanasam Dam

Question 13.
……………….. silk is unique in its quality and traditional value all over the world.
(a) Ami
(b) Salem
(c) Kancheepuram
(d) Banaras
Answer:
(c) Kancheepuram

Question 14.
The lowest literacy rate is found in ……………….. district.
(a) Kanyakumari
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Nilgiris
(d) Dharmapuri
Answer:
(d) Dharmapuri

Question 15.
……………….. is the shortest national highway in Tamil Nadu.
(a) NH7
(b) NH44
(c) NH785
(d) NH4
Answer:
(c) NH785

Question 16.
“Fire works” capital of India is:
(a) Sivakasi
(b) Salem
(c) Kamr
(d) Erode
Answer:
(a) Sivakasi

Question 17.
……………….. is the official enumeration of population-based on various aspects.
(a) Density
(b) Census
(c) Religion
(d) Stampede
Answer:
(b) Census

Question 18.
At districts level ……………….. is the Chairman of disaster management in the state.
(a) Local Police
(b) Civil Defence
(c) District Magistrate
(d) District Collector
Answer:
(d) District Collector

Question 19.
As per 2011 census the rural population of the state is:
(a) 48.40%
(b) 11.19%
(c) 60.07%
(d) 51.60%
Answer:
(d) 51.60%

Question 20.
The rapid increase of ……………….. may retard economic growth.
(a) population
(b) literacy
(c) agriculture
(d) industries
Answer:
(a) population

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The ………………. are the most significant resource on the earth surface.
2. ………………. is the mainstay of the state’s economy.
3. ………………. is the major sources of rainfall for Tamil Nadu.
4. Fruits and vegetables are mainly cultivated in ………………. cropping season.
5. FAO has decided to observe ………………. as the International year of millets.
6. Tamil Nadu co-operative Milk Producers Federation Limited is popularly known as ……………….
7. With very low investments ………………. can be made into profitable venture for small farmers.
8. Fishing done in 20 – 30 miles away from the shore is known as ……………….
9. Vaigai dam is has its surname as ………………. due to its unique as
10. Parappalar project is located near ……………….
11. The percapita availability of water resources in Tamil Nadu is just ………………. cubic metres.
12. Coimbatore, Tirupur and Erode region is referred as ……………….
13. ………………. convert raw materials into usable product or goods.
14. ………………. districts has some specialised areas for the manufacturing of synthetic silk clothes.
15. Hundreds of leather tanneries are located around ………………. district.
16. Vellore leather accounts for more than ………………. % of leather and related products.
17. ………………. paper mill in Karur was started in the year 1979.
18. G.l Tag of Nagercoil is its ……………….
19. Pattamadai is famous for ……………….
20. ………………. is the second largest software exporter next to Karnataka.
21. Tamil Nadu accounts for ………………. % automobile components produced in India.
22. The single largest cottage industry in the state is the ……………….
23. ………………. is an area in which business and trade laws are different from the rest of the country.
24. ………………. refers to the number to people living in a defined area.
25. If any district has a population of about 15 – 20 lakhs it cames under ………………. population category.
26. ………………. district is the least populated one.
27. The ………………. represents the number of females per 1000 males.
28. The ………………. is the commercial part of a harbour with the facility of loading and unloading of goods and storage of cargo.
29. N.H 785 runs from to to a distance of 35 km.
30. ‘1077’ is the ………………. contact number.
31. The state Disaster management Authority chairman is ……………….
32. Education on awareness regarding the disasters may help in the ………………. during disasters.
33. ………………. is a deposit in the earth crust with one or more value minerals.
34. ………………. are the people with the ability to read and write.
35. ………………. is a large natural or artificial lake used as a source of water supply.
36. ………………. is the statistical study of the characteristics of human population.
37. ………………. are the people who make a deep and detailed study of the population.
38. ………………. is one of major problem confronting our nation with all its evil effects.
39. ………………. is reared in the arid, semi-arid and mountainous areas in Tamil Nadu.
40. ………………. is the best alternative for rearing in the marginal and undulating lands.

Answer:

1. human beings
2. Agriculture
3. North-East monsoon
4. Navarai
5. 2023
6. Aavin
7. goat rearing
8. off-shore fishing
9. little – Brindavan
10. Ottanchatram
11. 900
12. Textile Valley of Tamil Nadu
13. Industries
14. Ramanathapuram
15. Vellore
16. 37
17. Kagithapuram
18. Temple Jewellery
19. mats
20. Tamil Nadu
21. 35%
22. handloom sector
23. Special Economic Zone ,(SEZ)
24. Population
25. Moderate
26. The Nilgiri
27. Sex – Ration
28. Port
29. Madurai to Nattham
30. control room of district Collector / Magistrate
31. Chief Minister
32. reduction of risks
33. Ore
34. Literates
35. Reservoirs
36. Demography
37. Demographers
38. Over population
39. Sheep
40. Goat

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Vellore is the top exporter of finished leather goods.
Reason (R): Hundreds of leather tannaries are located around Vellore.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is true (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false (R) is true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct R does not explains (A).
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): TNPL is one of the most accomplished paper mill in the world. Reason (R): TNPL is a Government of Tamil Nadu enterprise.
(a) Both (A) and (R) is correct (R) explains of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explains (A).
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explains (A).

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Industrial disaster are caused by negligence or incompetence. Reason (R): Over heating and use of high quality control.
(a) Both (A) and (R) is true.
(b) (A) is correct (R) is false.
(c) Both (A) and (R) is correct (R) explains (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) does not explains (A).
Answer:
(b) (A) is correct (R) is false.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Cropping seasons in Tamil Nadu have different types of crop cultivation.
Reason (R): Cultivation of crops depend on the temperature and availability of moisture.
(a) Both (A) and (R) is true (R) explains (A).
(b) (A) is correct (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false (R) is correct.
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) does not explain (A).
Answer:
(d) Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) does not explain (A).

V. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
What is Agriculture?
Answer:
It is the process of producing food, feed fiber and many other desired products by the cultivation of certain plants and the raising of domesticated plants.

Question 2.
What do you mean by “Human Geography”.
Answer:
Human Geography refers to the study of ways of development of human societies and their operation in relation to their physical environment.

Question 3.
What is Port?
Answer:
The commercial port of a harbour with the facility of loading and unloading of goods and space for the storage of cargo.

Question 4.
Name the types of agriculture practices followed in Tamil Nadu and their regions.
Answer:
Farming Type:

1. Subsistence intensive agriculture
2. Plantation agriculture
3. Mixed farming

Regions:

1. All over Tamil Nadu except few regions
2. Hill slopes of Eastern and Western Ghats
3. Banks of R. Cauvery and ThenPennai

Question 5.
Define Birth rate:
Answer:
The number of live births per annum per thousand people in a region is called birth rate.

Question 6.
What are the conditions required for the cultivation of pulses?
Answer:

1. Pulses are mostly grown in drier regions with or without irrigation.
2. Mild cool climate and a low to moderate rainfall are best suited for these crops.

Question 7.
What are the important pulses varieties grown in Tamil Nadu? and their uses.
Answer:

1. Bengal gram, black gram, green gram, cow pea, and horse gram.
2. Uses: Pulses are the major sources of protein and they serve as excellent fodder.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the term ‘mixed farming’?
Answer:
It is a type of farming which involves both growing of crops and the raising of live-stock simultaneously in a land holding.

Question 9.
What are fibre crops?
Answer:

• Fibre crops include cotton and jute.
• Cotton thrives well in black soil.
• It is the major fibre crop of Tamil Nadu.
• It is cultivated on a large scale in the districts of Coimbatore, Tirunelveli, Cuddalore.

Question 10.
Write the significance of Hand looms and power looms industry.
Answer:

1. Handloom sector in the state is the single largest cottage industry.
2. It provides livelihood to a large number of rural people.
3. It promotes export earnings.
4. It generates gainful employment for more than 4.29 lakh weaver households and 11.64 lakh weavers in the state.

Significance of power loom industry:

1. A tradition industry.
2. Contributes a large to India economy in. terms of foreign exchange earnings,
3. Greater employment opportunities are provided (nearly 6.5 million people are employed).

Question 11.
Define Harbour.
Answer:

1. Harbour is an extensive stretch of deepwater near the seashore where vessels (ships) can anchor securely.
2. It is used for exports and imports of goods.

Question 12.
What do you mean by Irrigation?
Answer:
Irrigation refers to the artificial supply of watering the fields. For a monsoon fed region like Tamil Nadu where rainfall is irregular and seasonal irrigation – become essential.

Question 13.
What are economic activities?
Answer:
The activities that involve the production, distribution and consumption of goods and services at all levels within a country are called as economic activities.

Question 14.
What is the aim of Special Economic Zones (SEZ)?
Answer:
The aims of Special Economic Zones is to increase trade balance, employment increased investment, job creation and effective administration.

Question 15.
What are the significant contributions of the manufacturing industry?
Answer:
The manufacturing industry broadly covers manufacture of machinery and equipment, motor vehicles, basic metal and alloy industries, metal products and repair of capital goods.

VI. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Sornavari cropping season and Samba cropping season.
Answer:
Sornavari cropping season:

1. Sornavari cropping season is called chithirai pattam as it falls in the Tamil month Chithirai.
2. Sowing period: April – May and Harvesting period : August – September.
3. Millets and cotton are the crops grown in this season.

Samba cropping season:

1. Samba cropping season also called as Adipattam as it falls in the Tamil month Adi.
2. Sowing period: July – August Harvesting period: January – February.
3. Paddy and sugarcane are the crops grown in this season.

Question 2.
Subsistence farming and Plantation farming.
Answer:
Subsistence farming:

1. Mostly food crops are grown.
2. Farming is done for own consumption purpose only excess is sent for sale.
3. Plains with alluvial soil is suitable for cultivation.
4. Paddy, pulses and millets are grown.

Plantation farming:

1. Mainly cash crops are grown.
2. Farming is done mainly for sale purpose.
3. Hill slopes are the ideal landform of this type of farming.
4. Tea, coffee and spices are grown.

Question 3.
Imports and exports.
Answer:
Imports:

1. Goods and services are bought from overseas producers.
2. Local currency is involved.
3. Improves the internal economy.
4. Main imports are Machineries, Newsprint and Fertilisers.

Exports:

1. Goods and services arc sold to other countries.
2. Earns foreign exchange (Foreign currency).
3. Improves the standard of living of the people.
4. Main exports are agricultural products and leather goods.

Question 4.
Harbour and Port.
Answer:
Harbour:

1. An extensive stretch of deep water near the sea shore where vessels can anchor securely.
2. It may be natural or artificial.
3. Vishakapattinam (Natural harbour) Chennai (artificial harbour).

Port:

1. The commercial part of a harbour with the facility of loading and unloading of goods and space for storage of goods.
2. It is man made feature.
3. Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin are the major ports of Tamil Nadu.

Question 5.
Personal communication and Mass communication.
Answer:
Personal Communication:

1. Communication is only between two persons.
2. Telephone, letter and e-mail are some form of personal communication.
3. Personal messages and informations are shared.

Mass Communication:

1. Communication is shared with large number of people.
2. Mass medias like radio, television and news papers are the medium of communication,
3. Awareness, entertainment, news and weather report are shared.

VII. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Only the tropical crops are grown in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu is situated in the tropical zone nearer to the equator. The . temperature in Tamil Nadu is relatively high almost throughout the year. So only the tropical crops are grown in Tamil Nadu.

Question 2.
Human beings are the most significant reasons on the earth surface.
Answer:

1. The resources available on the earth are useful only when they are utilised.
2. Human beings using their intelligence and skill made these resources useful to mankind.

Thus the human beings are the most significant resources on the earth surface.

Question 3.
Agriculture has strong link with economic growth.
Answer:

1. Agriculture has been the mainstay of the state’s economy since independence.
2. More than 65% of the population depends upon this sector.
3. It provides employment to rural people on a large scale, enhancing economic growth.

Question 4.
Live stock has remained an integral part of socio-economic fabric of rural people.
Answer:

1. Livestock provides a profitable venture for small and marginal farmers.
2. More over they provide a dependable sources of income to the rural people who rear cow, goat, sheep and poultry.
3. Rearing of cattle breed for milk forms major component of rural economy.

Question 5.
It is important to save water for us and the future generation.
Answer:

1. The state is entirely dependent on rains for recharging its water resources.
2. Monsoon failures lead to acute water scarcity and severe droughts. So it is important to save water for us and the future generation.

Question 6.
TNPL is one of the most accomplished mills in the world.
Answer:
TNPL produces different varieties paper of acceptable quality primarily from bagasse and wood pulp and is eco-friendly. Thus it is referred as one of the , most accomplished mills in the world.

VIII. Answer the following in paragraph

Question 1.
Write about the Paper Industry in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Paper Industry:
Tamil Nadu stands second in paper production in our country Bambo, grass and bagasse from sugercane are raw materials for paper industry. Soda, Soda ash, Chlorine, Sulphur, wood pulp and plenty of water are other requirements for setting up of paper industries. Pukkathurai in Kancheepuram district, Bhavani sagar, Pallipalayam, Pugalur, Paramathi Vellore, Coimbatore, Udumalai pettai, Thoppampettai, Nilakottai and Cheranmadevi are centres of paper mills in Tamil Nadu.

Tamil Nadu Newsprint and Papers Limited (TNPL) is a government of Tamil Nadu enterprise producing newsprint and printing and writing paper at its mill located at Kagithapuram in Karur district. It was started in 1979 with an installed capacity of 2.45 lakh MT of production per annum. TNPL is one of the most accomplished mills in the world/producing different varieties paper of acceptable quality primarily from bagasse and pulpwood.

Question 2.
Define the man-made disaster and enumerate the reasons for the industrial disaster.
Answer:

1. “A disastrous events caused directly or indirectly by human actions” are called as man made disaster.
2. Industrial Disaster.

Major Reasons: Disasters caused by industrial companies either by

• Accident
• Negligence or
• Incompetence
• Electrical faults

(iii) Main factors contributing to fire accidents in industries:

• Overheating
• Aging of materials
• Use of sub – stranded quality of electrical gadgets.

(iv) Electricity is not just a life line; it can also take away life when handled improperly. Other causes for industrial disasters are:

• Explosions
• Leaking of poisonous gases
• Injuries and deaths caused by machines.

The regular maintenance of machines and wires may reduce the frequency of accidents. More over the administration should be employees friendly and ready to extend their help in case of any untoward incidents.

Question 3.
“Write about the Central Scheme” National Project on Organic Farming”.
Answer:
(i) To promote organic Farming a central scheme named “National project on Organic Farming” was launched.

(ii) Apart from general things likes

• Creating awareness
• Promoting organic fertilizers
• Training
• Capacity building etc.,

(iii) The scheme provides financial assistance through “Capital Investment Subsidy Scheme” for

• agro-waste compost production units.
• bio fertilizers / bio pesticides production units.
• development and implementation of quality control regime.
• human resources development etc.,

Question 4.
What do you understand by the term “Second Green Revolution”?
Answer:
The Second Green Revolution is nothing but Eco-Farming or Organic Farming.

1. In this type of farming inorganic farming synthetic fertilizers, pesticides, growth regulator, and live stock feed additives are not used.
2. This type of farming rely on crop – rotation off-farm organic wastes and biological pest control.
3. This in turn helps in maintaining soil fertility.
4. This farming method has to be encouraged so that the present and future generation may able to get chemical free substances.

Question 5.
Write a note on (i) TANTEA (ii) TANCEM.
Answer:
TANTEA: Tamil Nadu Tea Plantation Corporation Limited is one of the biggest black tea producers in India with high quality clonal tea. It’s plantation spreads over nearly 4500 hectares.

TANCEM: Tamil Nadu Cements Corporation Limited is one among the major cement producers in Tamil Nadu operating two cement units at (i) Ariyalur and (ii) Alangulam

The other units of TANCEM are (i) Asbestos cement sheet plant at Alangulam and (ii) Stone ware pipe unit at Virudhachalam.

Major private cement brands produced in Tamil Nadu are

Sankar cement, Zuari cement, Ultratech cement, Madras cement and Dalmia cement.

Question 6.
What does the term ‘Gl Tag’ refer to? List out some important Gl tags of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
“Gl (Geographical Indication) is a name or sign used on products which corresponds to a specific geographical location. It provides rights and protection of holders.

Some important Gl tags of Tamil Nadu are:

Question 7.
What is special about SEZs and write about the SEZs zones in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Special Economic Zones (SEZs) provide an internationally competetive hassle free environment for exports.
2. Units in SEZs manufacture goods and provide range of services.
3. SEZs are located in Nanguneri, Ennore, Hosur and Perambalur.
4. IT and ITES, SEZ named TIDEL – IT and TIDEL IIT and Bio – Pharmaceuticals SEZ are located in Chennai and Coimbatore SEZ called the TIDEL park IV is located in the city.
5. Special Economic Zone means the specified area within the territory of the state.
6. There are 36 special economics zone are operational in Tamil Nadu which tops in highest number of SEZ.
7. It helps in the economic and Industrial development of the state.
8. Helps to create employment opportunity and to earn foreign exchange.

IX. Map study

Question 1.
Industrial area
Answer:
(i) Textile Industry:
Cotton – Coimbatore, Tirupur, Erode.
Silk – Arani, Salem, Kancheepuram.

(ii) Leather Industry – Vellore.
Paper industry – Coimbatore, Karur, Erode.
Cement industry – Ariyalur, Virudhachalam.

(iii) Cities having Special Economic Zones (SEZ)
SEZ Zones: Chennai, Coimbatore.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 2 Force and Motion Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Force and Motion

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Force and Motion Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
Unit of speed is
a. m
b. s
c. kg
d. m/s
Answer:
d. m/s

Question 2.
Oscillatory motion among the following is
(a) Rotation of the earth about its axis
(b) Revolution of the moon about the earth
(c) To and fro movement of a vibrating string
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) To and fro movement of a vibrating string

Question 3.
The correct relation among the following is
a. speed = distance × time
b. Speed = distance / time,
c. speed = time / distance
d. Speed = 1 / (distance × time)
Answer:
b. Speed = distance / time

Question 4.
Gita rides with her father’s bike to her uncle’s house which is 40 km away from her home. She takes 40 minutes to reach there.
Statement 1 : She travels with a speed of 1 km/minute.
Statement 2 : She travels with a speed of 1 km/hour
(a) Statement 1 alone is correct.
(b) Statement 2 alone is correct.
(c) Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
(d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct.
Answer:
(a) Statement 1 alone is correct

II. Find whether the following statements are true or false. – if false give the correct Answer.

1. To and fro motion is called oscillatory motion.
2. Vibratory motion and rotatory motion are periodic motions.
3. Vehicles moving with varying speeds are said to be in uniform motion.
4. Robots will replace human in future.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. Non-uniform.
4. False, Robots can never be conscious.

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. A bike moving on a straight road is an example of ……… motion.
2. Gravitational force is a ………… force.
3. Motion of a potter’s wheel is an example of ………… motion.
4. When an object covers equal distances in equal interval of time, it is said to be in ……….. motion.

Answer:

1. Linear
2. non-contact
3. Rotatory
4. Uniform

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – b
4. – a
5. – e

V. Analogy:

1. Kicking a ball: contact force :: falling of leaf : …………
2. Distance : metre :: Speed : ………….
3. circulatory motion : a spinning top oscillatory motion : …………

Answer:

1. non contact forces
2. m/s
3. Pendulum

VI. Given below is the distance – travelled by an elephant across a forest with uniform speed. 

Complete the data of the table given below with the idea of uniform speed.

Answer:

VII. Complete the web chart.

Answer:

VIII. Give one word for the following statements.

Question 1.
The force which acts on an object without Physical contact with it.
Answer:
Non-contact force.

Question 2.
A change in the position of an object with time.
Answer:
Motion.

Question 3.
The motion which repeats itself after a fixed interval of time.
Answer:
Oscillatory motion.

Question 4.
The motion of an object travels equal distances in equal intervals of time.
Answer:
Uniform motion.

Question 5.
A machine capable of carrying out a complex series of actions automatically.
Answer:
Robots.

IX. Answer the following in a sentence or two:

Question 1.
Define force.
Answer:
Forces are push or pull by an animate or inanimate agency.

Question 2.
Name different types of motion based on the path.
Answer:

1. Linear motion.
2. Curvilinear motion.
3. Circular motion.
4. Rotatory motion.
5. Oscillatory motion.
6. Zigzag (irregular) motion.

Question 3.
If you are sitting in a moving car will you be at rest or motion with respect to your friend sitting next to you?
Answer:
I am at rest with respect to my friend, sitting inside the car.

Question 4.
The rotation of the earth is a periodic motion. Justify.
Answer:
Motion repeated in equal intervals of time is called periodic motion. The earth rotates on its axis once in 24 hours. The duration of time is fixed as 24 hours. Therefore the rotation of the earth is a periodic motion.

Question 5.
Differentiate between rotational and curvilinear motion
Answer:

Rotational motion:

1. A body moves along a circular path.
2. Without changing its position, about its own (fixed) axis.
3. Eg. Rotation of a spinning top.

Curvilinear motion:

1. A body moves along a curved path.
2. Changes its position with motion.
3. Eg. Throwing paper airplanes or paper darts.

X. Calculate.

Question 1.
A vehicle covers a distance of 400 km in 5 hours calculate its average speed.
Answer:
Average speed = \(\frac{distence}{time}\)
= \(\frac{400}{5}\) = 80 km per hour

XI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What is motion? classify different types of motion with examples.
Answer:
Motion: The change of position of an object with respect to time is known as motion.

1. Based on Path:

• Linear motion. – Ex.: Parade of the soldiers.
• Curvilinear motion. – Ex.: Paper flight moving.
• Circular motion. – Ex.: Swirling stone tied to the rope.
• Rotatory motion. – Ex.: Rotating top.
• Oscillatory motion. – Ex.: Clock pendulum.
• Zigzag (irregular) motion. – Ex.: Motion of a bee.

2. Based on Duration :

• Periodic motion. – Ex.: Motion of a bob of simple Pendulum.
• Non-periodic motion. – Ex.: Swaying of the branches of a tree.

3. Based on Speed:

• Uniform motion. – Ex.: Hour hand of a clock.
• Non – uniform motion. – Ex.: Motion of a train, as it leaves a station.

XII. Fill with Examples

Answer:
Linear motion – A man walking in a straight road
Curvilinear motion – motion of paper Aeroplane
Self rotatory motion – Motion of wheel in a cart
Circular motion – Motion of moon a round earth.
Oscillatory motion – Motion of pendulum
Irregular motion – Motion of honey bee.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Force and Motion Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best option:

Question 1.
How earth revolves?
(a) From west to east
(b) east to west
(c) From north to south
(d) south to west.
Answer:
(a) From west to east

Question 2.
People walking in a crowded street is an example of _______ motion.
(a) linear
(b) circular
(c) rotatory
(d) zigzag
Answer:
(d) zigzag

Question 3.
What is the unit of average speed in SI system?
(a) metre / second
(b) kilometre/ seconds
(c) kilometre/ time
(d) Metre/ Time.
Answer:
(a) metre / second

Question 4.
Usain Bolt crossed 100 metre in _______ seconds and made a world record.
(a) 9.58
(b) 9.83
(c) 9.85
(d) 9.38
Answer:
(a) 9.58

Question 5.
The motion of the moon which revolves around the earth is
(a) Oscillatory motion
(b) Periodic motion
(c) curvilinear
(d) b and c
Answer:
(b) Periodic motion

II. Correct Answer: If it is wrong give the correct answer.

1. Change of position of an object with respect to time is motion
2. Swirling stone tied to the rope is an example of rotatory motion.
3. The children flying in a swing is a periodic motion.
4. All the oscillatory movements are periodic motions.
5. The SI unit of speed is kilometer

Answer:

1. correct
2. wrong.
   A swirling stone tied to the rope is an example of circular motion.
3. correct
4. correct
5. wrong, The SI unit of speed is meter.

III. Fill up the blanks:

1. People walking in a crowded street is ……….. type of motion.
2. Object moves not at a constant speed then the motion is ………..
3. If Priya in her cycle travels 40 km in 2 hours then what is her average speed?
4. Motion is of ………… types.
5. The movement of a body about its own axis is ………….

Answer:

1. Irregular
2. on- uniform motion
3. 20 km /hr
4. four
5. Rotatory motion

IV. Matching

Answer:
1. – b
2. – d
3. – a
4. – c

V. Fill up the blanks in accordance with their relation:

1. The Motion of train – uniform motion. The motion of vehicles ………..
2. Periodic motion – The motion of the moon revolves around the earth. Oscillatory motion ………..

Answer:

1. non – uniform motion.
2. Motion of simple pendulum.

VI. Fill up the missing statement.

VII. Fill up the blanks with the help of examples:

1. The motion of the needle of a clock.
2. The motion of an athlete of 100 m race
3. The motion of flag wagging
4. The motion of a car that goes in a circular path.
5. The motion of a needle in a sewing machine.

Answer:

1. Oscillatory motion.
2. Linear motion.
3. Non- periodic motion
4. circular motion
5. periodic motion or uniform motion.

VIII. Two Mark Questions: Short answers:

Question 1.
Define motion.
Answer:
When there is a change of position of an object with respect to time, then it is called motion.

Question 2.
What are the types of Force?
Answer:

1. Contact Force;
2. Non-Contact Force

Question 3.
List out the types of forces on the basis of contact.
Answer:
There are two types:

1. Contact force,
2. Non-contact force.

Question 4.
What is the average speed of the object?
Answer:
The distance travelled by an object in unit time is called the average speed of the object.

Question 5.
Define non-periodic motion.
Answer:
When a motion is not in uniform interval, then such motion is called non-periodic motion.

IX. Give Detailed Answers:

Question 1.
What is a force? What are its types?
Answer:
Forces: Forces are push or pull by an animate or inanimate agency.
Types of Forces:

1. Contact forces;
2. Non – Contact forces.

1. Contact forces: The force that is executed by touching the body is a contact force Eg. Kicking the football
2. Non – Contact forces: The force is applied. Without touching the object then it is called noncontact force.
Forces can
(i) Change the states of the body from rest to motion or motion to rest.
(ii) Either change the speed or direction or both of the body.
(iii) Change the shape of the body.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 20 Breeding and Biotechnology Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 20 Breeding and Biotechnology

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Breeding and Biotechnology Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which method of crop improvement can be practised by a farmer if he is inexperienced?
(a) clonal selection
(b) mass selection
(c) pureline selection
(d) hybridisation
Answer:
(b) mass selection

Question 2.
Pusa Komal is a disease resistant variety of ______.
(a) sugarcane
(b) rice
(c) cow pea
(d) maize.
Answer:
(c) cow pea

Question 3.
Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of:
(a) chilli
(b) maize
(c) sugarcane
(d) wheat
Answer:
(d) wheat

Question 4.
The miracle rice which saved millions of lives and celebrated its 50th birthday is ______.
(a) IR – 8
(b) IR – 24
(c) Atomita – 2
(d) Ponni.
Answer:
(a) IR – 8

Question 5.
Which of the following is used to produce products useful to humans by biotechnology techniques?
(a) enzyme from organism
(b) live organism
(c) vitamins
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) enzyme from organism

Question 6.
We can cut the DNA with the help of ______.
(a) scissors
(b) restriction endonucleases
(c) knife
(d) RNAase.
Answer:
(b) restriction endonucleases

Question 7.
rDNA is a:
(a) vector DNA
(b) circular DNA
(c) recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA:
(d) satellite DNA
Answer:
(c) recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA:

Question 8.
DNA fingerprinting is based on the principle of identifying ______ sequences of DNA.
(a) single-stranded
(b) mutated
(c) polymorphic
(d) repetitive.
Answer:
(d) repetitive

Question 9.
Organisms with modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are also known as:
(a) transgenic organsims
(b) genetically modified
(c) mutated
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) transgenic organsims

Question 10.
In a hexaploid wheat (2n = 6x = 42) the haploid (n) and the basic (x) number of chromosomes respectively are ______.
(a) n = 7 and x = 21
(b) n = 21 and x = 21
(c) n = 7 and x = 7
(d) n = 21 and x = 7.
Answer:
(d) n = 21 and x = 7.

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Economically important crop plants with superior quality are raised by ………..
2. A protein rich wheat variety is ………
3. ………. is the chemical used for doubling the chromosomes.
4. The scientific process which produces crop plants enriched with desirable nutrients are called ………
5. Rice normally grows well in alluvial soil, but ………… is a rice variety produced by mutation breeding that grows well in saline soil.
6. ……….. technique made it possible to genetically engineer living organism.
7. Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA molecule at specific positions known as …………
8. Similar DNA fingerprinting is obtained for ………..
9. ………… cells are undifferentiated mass of cells.
10. In gene cloning the DNA of interest is integrated in a …………
Answer:
1. Hybridization
2. Altas 66
3. Colchicine
4. Bio fortification
5. Atomita 2 rice
6. Recombinant
7. Phosphodiester
8. Identical twins
9. stem cells
10. bacterial cell

III. State whether true or false. If false, write the correct statement:

1. Raphanobrassica is a tetraploid man-made genus produced by colchicine treatment.
2. The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is called mutation.
3. A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual reproduction are called a pureline.
4. Iron fortified rice variety determines the protein quality of the cultivated plant.
5. Golden rice is a hybrid.
6. Bt gene from bacteria can kill insects. ,
7. In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation done inside the body.
8. DNA fingerprinting technique was developed by Alec Jeffrey.
9. Molecular scissors refers to DNA ligases.
Answer:
1. False – Raphanobrassica is a allotetra ploid man-made genus produced by colchicine treatment.
2. False – The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is called polyploidy.
3. True
4. False – Iron rich rice variety determines the protein quality of the cultivated plant.
5. False – Golden rice is a genetically modified plant
6. True
7. False – In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation done outside the body.
8. True
9. False – Molecular scissors refers to Restriction enzymes

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)
F. (viii)
G. (vi)
H. (vii)

V. Understand the assertion statement, justify the reason given and choose the correct choice:

(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong.
(c) Both assertion and reason is correct.
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong.
1. Assertion : Hybrid is superior than either of its parents.
Reason: Hybrid vigour is lost upon inbreeding.
Answer:
(c) Both assertion and reason is correct.

2. Assertion: Colchicine reduces the chromosome number.
Reason: It promotes the movement of sister chromatids to the opposite poles.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong.

3. Assertion: rDNA is superior over hybridisation techniques.
Reason: Desired genes are inserted without introducing the undesirable genes in target organisms.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.

VI. Answer in a sentence:

Question 1.
Give the name of the wheat variety having higher dietary fibre and protein.
Answer:
Triticale a hybrid of wheat having dietary fibre and protein.

Question 2.
Semi-dwarf varieties were introduced in rice. This was made possible by the presence of the dwarfing gene in rice. Name this dwarfing gene.
Answer:
The dwarfing gene is Sd.I.

Question 3.
Define genetic engineering.
Answer:
Genetic engineering is the manipulation and transfer of genes from one, organism to another organism to create a new DNA called as recombinant DNA(rDNA).

Question 4.
Name the types of stem cells?
Answer:
Embryonic stem cell and Adult stem cell or somatic stem cell, are the two types of stem cells.

Question 5.
What are transgenic organisms?
Answer:
Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene is known as transgenic organism.

Question 6.
State the importance of bio-fertiliser.
Answer:
Increasing the harvest yields, improving soil structure, better water relation, economical, eco – friendly and more efficient farms are due importance of biofertilizer.

VII. Short Answers Questions:

Question 1.
Discuss the method of breeding for disease resistance.
Answer:

Question 2.
Name three improved characteristics of wheat that helped India to achieve high productivity.
Answer:

1. High yielding
2. Semi – dwarf
3. Fertilizer responsive.

These are the three improved characteristics of wheat that helped India to achieve high productivity. Sonalika and Kalyan Sona are the high yielding varieties of wheat.

Question 3.
Name two maize hybrids rich in amino acid lysine.
Answer:
Protina, shakthi are the maize hybrids rich in amino acid lysin.

Question 4.
Distinguish between
(a) somatic gene therapy and germ line gene therapy.
Answer:
Somatic gene therapy :
It is the replacement of defective gene in somatic cells.

Germ line gene therapy :
It is replacement of defective gene in germ cell (egg and sperm).

(b) undifferentiated cells and differentiated cells.
Answer:
Undifferentiated cells :
The cells which have not become specialized are called undifferentiated cells.
Eg: Cells in early embryos

Differentiated cells :
The cells which have become specialized for doing certain job.
Eg: Muscle cell, nerve cell.

Question 5.
State the applications of DNA fingerprinting technique.
Answer:
DNA fingerprinting technique is widely used in forensic applications such as identifying the – culprit. It is also used for paternity testing in case of disputes. It also helps in the study of genetic diversity of population, evolution and speciation.

Question 6.
How are stem cells useful in regenerative process?
Answer:
If cells, tissues and organs in the body get permanently damaged or lost due to genetic condition or disease or injury, it can be cured by regeneration process of stem cell. In stem cell therapy, stem cells are used to replace the damage of lost cells.

Question 7.
Differentiate between outbreeding and inbreeding.
Answer:
Outbreeding Inbreeding

VIII. Long Answers Questions:

Question 1.
What are the effects of hybrid vigour in animals?
Answer:
The superiority of the hybrid, obtained by cross-breeding is called heterosis or hybrid vigour.
Effects of hybrid vigour in animal breeding:

• Increased production of milk by cattle.
• Increased production of an egg by poultry.
• High quality of meat is produced.
• The increased growth rate in domesticated animals.

Question 2.
Describe mutation breeding with an example.
Answer:
Mutation is defined as the sudden heritable change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA in an organism. It is a process by which genetic variations are created which in turn brings about changes in the organism. The organism which undergoes mutation is called a mutant.

The factors which induce mutations are known as mutagens or mutagenic agents. Mutagens are of two types namely physical mutagens and chemical mutagens.
(i) Physical mutagens : Radiations like X-rays, a, (3 and y-rays, UV rays, temperature etc. which induce mutations are called physical mutagens
(ii) Chemical mutagens : Chemical substances that induce mutations are called chemical mutagens. Eg: Mustard gas and nitrous acid. The utilisation of induced mutation in crop improvement is called mutation breeding.

Achievements of mutation breeding: Some achievements of mutation breeding are-
(a) Sharbati Sonora wheat produced from Sonora-64 by using gamma rays.
(b) Atomita 2 rice with saline tolerance and pest resistance
(c) Groundnuts with thick shells

Question 3.
Biofortification may help in removing hidden hunger. How?
Answer:
Biofortification is the scientific process of helping crop plants, enriched with high levels of desirable nutrients like vitamins, proteins and minerals. Micronutrient malnutrition is called hidden hunger, the lack of micronutrients such as vitamin A, zinc and iron in the diet.

Biofortification is effective in removing hidden hunger and improving the nutritional value of food. Scientists breed crops whose edible parts (seed, tuber and roots) have improved nutritional value. Biofortified foods can contribute to body stores of micronutrients throughout the life cycle.
Some example of crop varieties developed as a result of biofortification are:

• Protina, Shakti and Rathna are lysine-rich maize hybrids.
• Atlas 66, a protein-rich wheat variety.
• Iron-rich fortified rice variety.
• Vitamin A enriched carrots, pumpkin and spinach.

Question 4.
With a neat labelled diagram explain the techniques involved in gene cloning.
Answer:

In gene cloning, a gene or a piece of DNA fragment is inserted into a bacterial cell where DNA will be multiplied (copied) as the cell divides. A brief outline of the basic steps involved in gene cloning are:

1. Isolation of desired DNA fragment by using restriction enzymes.
2. Insertion of the DNA fragment into a suitable vector (Plasmid) to make rDNA.
3. Transfer of rDNA into bacterial host cell (Transformation)
4. Selection and multiplication of recombinant host cell to get a clone.
5. Expression of cloned gene in host cell.
   Using this strategy several enzymes, hormones and vaccines can be produced.

Question 5.
Discuss the importance of biotechnology in the field of medicine.
Answer:
Using genetic engineering techniques, medicinally important valuable proteins or polypeptides, which form the potential pharmaceutical products for the treatment of various diseases have been developed on a commercial scale.
Pharmaceutical products developed by rDNA technique:

• Insulin used in the treatment of diabetes.
• Human growth hormone used for treating children with growth deficiencies.
• Blood clotting factors are developed to treat haemophilia.
• Tissue plasminogen activator is used to dissolve blood clots and to prevent heart attack.
• Development of vaccines against various diseases like hepatitis B and rabies.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
A breeder wishes to incorporate desirable characters into the crop plants. Prepare a list of characters he will incorporate.
Answer:
Tallness and profuse branching are desirable characters for fodder crop.

Question 2.
Organic farming is better than Green Revolution. Give reasons.
Answer:
Green revolution is the process of increasing food production through high yielding crop varieties and modem agricultural techniques. Organic farming is a method of crop production in an ecofriendly and pollution free environment to release nutrients to crop. As organic farming is an ecofriendly and pollution free, it is better than green revolution.

Question 3.
Polyploids are characterised by gigantism. Justify your answer.
Answer:
An organism having more than 2 sets of chromosomes is called polyploid. It can be induced by physical events such as heat or cold treatment, X – rays and chemical agents like colchicine. Polyploid cell or organism has three or more times the haploid chromosomal number.

Polyploid has a major role in the evolution of both wild and cultivated plants. Polyploid has a key role in plant breeding. There are increase and increased woodiness which has been observed in some insular plants. So polyploids are characterized by gigantism.

Question 4.
‘P’ is a gene required for the synthesis of vitamin A. It is integrated with genome of ‘Q’ to produce genetically modified plant ‘R’
(i) What is P, Q and R?
(ii) State the importance of ‘R’ in India.
Answer:
(i) P is Beta carotene gene
Q Bio fortification
R Golden rice

(ii) Golden rice is genetically modified rice can produce beta carotene,that prevent vitamin A deficiency.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Breeding and Biotechnology Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Modem biotechnology consist:
(a) Genetic engineering
(b) Tissue culture
(c) Gene cloning
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 2.
The disease-resistant cauliflower variety is ______.
(a) Himgiri
(b) Pusa Shubhra
(c) Pusa Komal
(d) IR – 8.
Answer:
(b) Pusa Shubhra

Question 3.
Transgenic animals has:
(a) Foreign DNA in all its cell
(b) Foreign RNA in all its cells
(c) Foreign DNA in some of the cells
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Foreign DNA in all its cell

Question 4.
The gamete cells, which have only one set of chromosomes is called ______.
(a) diploid
(b) polyploid
(c) triploid
(d) haploid.
Answer:
(d) haploid.

Question 5.
A kind of Biotechnology involving manipulation of DNA is:
(a) DNA replication
(b) Denaturation
(c) Genetic Engineering
(d) Renaturation
Answer:
(c) Genetic Engineering

Question 6.
A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using:
(a) ECORI
(b) Taq polymerase
(c) Polymerase III
(d) Ligase
Answer:
(d) Ligase

Question 7.
Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with Vitamin ‘A’ deficiency?
(a) Golden Rice
(b) Bt-Brinjal
(c) Flaver savr tomato
(d) Canolla
Answer:
(a) Golden Rice

Question 8.
Restriction endonucleses are enzymes which:
(a) Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule.
(b) Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule.
(c) Recognise a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase.
(d) Restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase.
Answer:
(b) Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule.

Question 9.
……….. is the Father of Indian Green Revolution.
(a) Nammalvar
(b) Dr Borloug
(c) Dr M.S.Swaminathan
(d) Dr Sultan Ismail
Answer:
(c) Dr M.S.Swaminathan

Question 10.
New lined of sheep developed in Punjab is:
(a) Sahiwal
(b) Hisardale
(c) Triticale
(d) Sharbati sonara
Answer:
(b) Hisardale

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ………. is a cross between Male Donkey and Female Horse.
2. ……….. is a DNA molecule found in the cytoplasm of bacterial cell.
3. ………. was the first cloned female sheep.
4. Human insulin can be synthesized by using ……….
5. In genetic engineering, a DNA segment is transfered to the host cell through ………..
6. Genetically identical individuals are ………..
7. Ligase is used for joining two ………..
8. Enzyme that cleaves nucleic acids within the polynucleotide chain is known as …………
9. The bacterium used as biopesticide is …………
10. A strain of golden rice contains high content of …………..
Answer:
1. Mule
2. Plasmid
3. Dolly
4. rDNA technology
5. Vector
6. Clones
7. DNA fragments
8. Endonuclease
9. Bacillus thuringiensis.
10. Vitamin A

III. State whether true or false. If false, write the correct statement:

1. The structure used to transfer the piece of DNA attached to it into a host ceil is vector.
2. Restriction endonucleases are used to join the DNA fragments having sticky ends.
3. The progeny of a single individual obtained by self breeding is clonal selection.
4. The aim of crop improvement is to develop improved crop varieties.
5. International Rice Research institute (IRRI) is in Indonesia.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – Restriction endonucleases are used to join the DNA fragments having ligase ends.
3. False – The progeny of a single individual obtained by self breeding is pureline selection.
4. True
5. False – International Rice Research institute (IRRI) is in Philippines.

IV. M.atch the following:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (iv)

V. Understand the assertion statement, justify the reason given and choose the correct choice:

(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong
(c) Both assertion and reason is correct
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong
1. Assertion: Bacillus thuringiensis is toxic to many insects.
Reason: It inhibits ion transport in the mid gut.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong

2. Assertion.: Recombinant DNA technology has become successful due to restriction endonucleases present in Eukaryotic cells.
Reason: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA molecule to form blunt ends.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong

VI. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
Name two neurodegenerative disorders.
Answer:
Parkinson’s disease and Alzheimer disease.

Question 2.
Name two chemical mutagens.
Answer:
Mustard gas and nitrous acid.

Question 3.
What is plant breeding?
Answer:
Plant breeding is the art of developing economically important plants with superior quality.

Question 4.
What is the aim of Animal husbandry?
Answer:
The aim of Animal husbandry is to improve the genotypes of animals to make them more useful to the welfare of mankind.

Question 5.
What are exotic species?
Answer:
The process of introducing high yield varieties of plants from one place to another are called as exotic species.

Question 6.
List the two main aspects of hybridization.
Answer:
Combining the characters of two plants in one plant and to utilize hybrid vigour are the two main aspects of hybridization.

Question 7.
What is heterosis?
Answer:
The superiority of the hybrid obtained by cross breeding is called heterosis.

Question 8.
What are plasmids?
Answer:
Circular, self-replicating, extra chromosomal DNA in bacteria.

Question 9.
What is transgene?
Answer:
A gene which is transferred from one organism into another organism by genetic engineering.

Question 10.
Name the Research institute found by Nammalvar.
Answer:
Nammalvar ecological foundation for farm research and global food security trust.

VII. Short Answers Questions:

Question 1.
List out the pest-resistant crop varieties.
Answer:

Question 2.
What does the nutritional quality of crop depend on?
Answer:
The nutritional quality of crops depends on the quality and quantity of nutrients.
The nutritional quality may be improved with respect to its:

• Protein content and quality of proteins.
• Oil content.
• Mineral content.

Question 3.
Write a note on Gamma Garden.
Answer:
Gamma garden or Atomic garden is a concept popularised after World War -II for the peaceful use of atomic energy for crop improvement. This is a type of induced mutation breeding where radioactive sources particularly gamma rays from Cobalt-60 or Caesium-137 are used to induce desirable mutations in crop plants.

Question 4.
An organism having more than two sets of chromosomes is called polyploid. It can be induced by physical agents such as heat or cold treatment, X-rays and chemical agents like colchicine.
Answer:
Achievements of polyploidy breeding:

• Seedless watermelons (3n) and bananas (3n).
• TV – 29 (triploid variety of tea) with larger shoots and drought tolerance.
• Triticale (6n) is a hybrid of wheat and rye: It has higher dietary fibre and protein.
• Rapuano brassica is an allotetraploid by colchicine treatment.

Question 5.
Mention the two important properties of stem cells.
Answer:

1. Its ability to divide and give rise to more stem cells by self-renewal.
2. Its ability to give rise to specialised cells with specific functions by the process of differentiation.

Question 6.
Illustrate hybridization with example.
Answer:
Triticale is the first man made cereal hybrid. It is obtained by crossing wheat Triticum durum (2n = 28) and rye (secale cereal, 2n = 14)
Parent Tritium durum × Secale cereal

VIII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain the following methods of plant breeding for crop improvement.
Answer:
(a) Introduction of new varieties in plants:
The process of introducing high yielding varieties of plants from one place to another is called exotic species. These imported plants may carry pathogens and pests. It should be thoroughly checked before introducing to the fields, eg. Phaseolus mungo was introduced from China.

(b) Selection:
Selection is a type of plant breeding, in which individual plants or group of plants are sorted out from a mixed population based on the morphological characters.

Methods of selection:
(i) Mass selection:
Seeds of plants with desired characters are collected from a mixed population. The collected seeds are allowed to raise the second generation. This process is carried out for seven or eight generations. In the end, they are distributed to the farmers for cultivation, eg. TMV – 2 and AK – 10 (groundnut varieties).

(ii) Pure line selection:
Pureline is the “progeny of a single individual obtained by self breeding”. This is also called as individual plant selection. In pure line selection, large numbers of plants are selected from a self – pollinated crop and harvested individually. Progeny is similar, both genotypically and phenotypically.

(iii) Clonal selection:
A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual reproduction are called clones. All the plants of a clone are similar both in genotype and phenotype. Selection of desirable clones from the mixed population of the vegetatively propagated crop is called clonal selection.

Question 2.
In what way trans organism are better?
Answer:
Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are also known as transgenic organisms.

The transgenic plants are much stable, with improved nutritional quality, resistant to diseases and tolerant to various environment conditions. Similarly transgenic animals are used to produce proteins of medicinal importance at low cost and improve livestock quality.

Question 3.
Describe the tools of recombinant DNA technology.
Answer:
Techniques of Genetic Engineering – Basic Requirements:
Important discoveries that led to the stepping stone of rDNA technology were

1. Presence ofplasmid in bacteria that can undergo replication independently along with chromosomal DNA.
2. Restriction enzymes cuts or break DNA at specific sites and are also called as molecular scissors.
3. DNA ligases are the enzymes which help in ligating (joining) the broken DNA fragments.

Question 4.
Give the Schematic representation of Mass selection.
Answer:

Mass selection : Seeds of best plants showing desired characters are collected from a mixed population. The collected seeds are allowed to raise the second generation. This process is carried out for seven or eight generations. At the end, they will be multiplied and distributed to the farmers for cultivation. Some common examples for mass selection are groundnut varieties like TMV-2 and AK-10. Its schematic representation is given below.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
Although ‘green revolution’ increases the food production, it is not enough to feed growing population. This probelm is overcomed by ‘X’ crops.
(a) What is ‘X’?
(b) Explain it with examples.
Answer:
(a) ‘X’ is Genetically modified crops.
(b) Genetic modification refers to the manipulation of genes in the organism using rDNA techniques to produce desired character.

Question 2.
What is Gamma garden?
Answer:
In gamma garden or atomic garden, a type of induced mutation breeding, where radioactive sources, particularly gamma rays from Cobalt – 60 or Caesium – 137 are used to induce desirable mutations in crop plants.

Students can download 10th Social Science Economics Chapter 2 Globalization and Trade Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 2 Globalization and Trade

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Globalization and Trade Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Who is the head of the World Trade Organisation (WTO)?
(a) Ministerial conference
(b) Director General
(c) Deputy Director General
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Director General

Question 2.
How many countries were membership in WTO at present?
(a) 159
(b) 164
(c) 148
(d) 128
Answer:
(b) 164

Question 3.
Colonial advent in India:
(a) Portuguese, Dutch, English, Danish, French
(b) Dutch, English, Danish , French
(c) Portuguese , Danish, Dutch, French, English
(d) Danish, Portuguese, French, English, Dutch
Answer:
(a) Portuguese, Dutch, English, Danish, French

Question 4.
Who first came to India for trading purpose?
(a) Roman Empire
(b) Portuguese
(c) Dutch
(d) Danish
Answer:
(b) Portuguese

Question 5.
When did Portuguese colonize India?
(a) 1600 BC
(b) 1602 BC
(c) 1498 BC
(d) 1616 BC
Answer:
(c) 1498 BC

Question 6.
GATT’s first round held in
(a) Tokyo
(b) Uruguay
(c) Torquay
(d) Geneva
Answer:
(d) Geneva

Question 7.
India signed the Dunket proposal in:
(a) 1984
(b) 1976
(c) 1950
(d) 1994
Answer:
(d) 1994

Question 8.
Who granted the English “golden Fireman” in 1632?
(a) Jahangir
(b) Sultan of Golconda
(c) Akbar
(d) Aurangazeb
Answer:
(b) Sultan of Golconda

Question 9.
Foreign investment policy (FIR) announced in
(a) June 1991
(b) July 1991
(c) July-Aug-1991
(d) Aug 1991
Answer:
(c) July-Aug-1991

Question 10.
Indian government was introduced in …………. 1991.
(a) Globalization
(b) World Trade Organisation
(c) New Economic Policy
(d) none
Answer:
(c) New Economic Policy

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The Dutch captured Pondicherry in ………………
2. A better economy Introduce rapid development of the ………………
3. The East india Company built fortified factory in Madras which known as ………………
4. WTO agreement came into force from ………………
5. The term globalization Invented by ………………
6. French East India company established second factory at ………………

Answer:

1. 1693
2. Capital market
3. Fort St. George
4. January 1, 1995
5. Prof. Theodore Levitt
6. Pondicherry

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The East Indian Company especially to participate in the East Indian Spice Trade and later added cotton, silk, indigo.
(ii) Merchants cf the Dutch East India Company first established at Calicut
(iii) Nanadesis were a guild of traders at the time of Hoysala Empire
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (in) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
What is globalization?
Answer:
Globalization is the process of integrating various economies of the world without creating any barriers in the free flow of goods and services, technology, capital and even labour or human capital.

Question 2.
Write the types of globalization?
Answer:
The types of Globalization are:

1. Economic Globalization: Countries integrating economically
2. Social: Information and ideas integration socially all over the world.
3. Political: Political co-operation between countries.

Question 3.
Write short note on Multinational corporation.
Answer:
Multinational corporation is a corporate organisation which owns or controls production of . goods or services in at least one country other than its home country. MNCs are also called Transnational corporation (TNG) or Multinational Enterprise (MNE). Most of the MNCs at present belong to the lour major exporting countries – USA. UK. France and Germany.

Question 4.
Short note: The Dutch in South India.
Answer:
Dutch East India company was formed in 1602. Dutch established factories at Masulipatnam, Pettapoli, Devanampattinam and with the help of King of Chandragiri Pulicut factory also. The commodities exported by the Dutch were Indigo, Saltpeter, Bengal raw silk. They captured Nagapatnam from Portuguese in 1659.

Question 5.
What are the reforms made to adopt globalization?
Answer:
The following reforms were made-to adapt globalization in India.

1. Abolition of industrial licensing, except for a few industries.
2. Reduction in the number of industries reserved for public sector.
3. Fixation of a realistic exchange rate of rupee to exchange exports of Indian goods.
4. Foreign exchange regulations were suitably amended.
5. The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) was reduced to increase lending by RBI.

Question 6.
What is fair trade?
Answer:
Fair trade is a way of doing business that ultimately aims to keep small farmers an active part of the world market and aims to empower consumer to make purchases that support their values.

Question 7.
Write any five principles of Fair Trade Practices.
Answer:
Five principles of Fair trade practices:

1. Creating opportunities for economically disadvantaged producers.
2. Transforming and accountability.
3. Fair trading practices and payment of fair price.
4. Ensuring no child labour and forced labour.
5. Respect for the environment.

Question 8.
What is the main objective of WTO?
Answer:
The main objective of WTO (World Trade Organisation) is to enforce rules for International trade, to resolve trade disputes and to provide a forum for negotiating and monitoring trade.

Question 9.
Write short note on TRIPs and TRIMs.
Answer:
TRIPs – Trade Related aspects of Intellectual Property Rights – is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World Trade Organisation (WTO). It sets down minimum standards for the regulation by national Governments of many fonns of intellectual property as applied to nationals of other WTO member nations. TRIPs was negotiated at the end of the Uruguay Round of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) between 1989 and 1990 and is administered by the WTO.

TRIMS – Trade Related Investment Measures – The Uruguay Round Agreement on TRIMs referes to certain conditions or restrictions imposed by a Government in respect of foreign investment in the country in order to give adequate provisions for the home industries to develop.

Question 10.
Write the positive impact of Globalization.
Answer:

• A better economy introduces rapid development of the capital market
• Standard of living has increased
• Better trade, therefore more employment
• Introduction of new technologies
• New scientific research patterns .
• Increases GDP of a country
• Increase free flow of goods and
• Increase FDI – Foreign Direct Investment

VI. Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write briefly the history of Globalization.
Answer:
The term Globalization was introduced by Prof. Theodore Levitt. The history of Globalization can be explained in three stages namely

1. Archaic globalization
2. Proto Globalization
3. Modem Globalization

Archaic Globalization: An early form of globalized economies and culture is known as Archaic Globalization existed during the Hellenistic Age. The trade links of the earlier days can be summarised as

1. Between Sumerian and Indus Valley Civilisation
2. Greek culture stretched from India to Spain
3. Between Roman empire, Parthian empire and the Hans dynasty.
4. The advent of Mongol empire greatly facilitated travel along the silk road.

These Pre-modem phases of global exchange are called Archaic Globalization.

Proto Globalization: It arose because of the rise of maritime European empires in the 16^th and 17^th Centuries, the Portuguese, Spanish, Dutch and British empires. In the 17^th century, the British East India company is described as the first Multinational Company and the Dutch East India company were established.

Modern Globalization: It is witnessed between 19^th and 20^th century. In the 19^th century – Global trade and capital investment. In the 20^th century, higher share of trade in merchant production, Global trade in services, Rise in production and trade by MNCs and Technological changes. Agreements of trade contracts like the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) and World Trade Organisation (WTO). Technological changes lowered the cost of transport charges.

Question 2.
Briefly explain the evolution of MNC and its advantages and disadvantages.
Answer:
Multinational companies first started their activities in the extractive industries and controlled raw materials in the host countries during 1920s and then entered the manufacturing and service sectors after 1950s. Most of the MNCs at present belong to the four major exporting countries i.e., USA, UK, France and Germany. However, the largest is America. In 1971, the American Corporations held 52% of the total world stock of foreign direct inverstment. Great Britain held 14.5% followed by France 5% and Federal Republic of Germany 4.4% and Japan 2.7%.
Advantages of MNCs:

• MNCs produce the same quality of goods at lower cost and without transaction cost.
• They reduce prices and increase the purchasing power of consumers world wide.
• They are able to take advantage of tax variation.
• They spur job growth in the local economy.

Disadvantages of MNCs:

• They have led to the downfall of smaller, local business.
• With more companies transferring offices and centering operations in other countries, jobs for the people living in developed countries are threatened.
• MNCs often invest in developing countries where they can take advantage of cheaper labour. Some MNCs prefer to put up branches in these parts of the world where there are no stringent policies in labour and where people need jobs because these MNCs can demand for cheaper labour and lesser healthcare benefits.

Question 3.
Explain the trade and traders in South India.
Answer:

1. South India trade guilds were formed by merchants inorder to organise and expand their trading activities.
2. South India trade was dominated by the Cholas and it w’as replaced by the Pallavas.
3. Several trade guilds operated in medieval southern India such as the Gatrigas, Nakaras, Mummuridandas, Settis, Birudas, Gavaras etc.
4. In the early trade, the Kalinga traders brought red coloured stone decorative objects for trade and also cotton textile to south east Asia.
5. The discovery of a new all sea route from Europe to India via Cape of Good Hope by Vasco-do-Gama helped to flourish trade in India.
6. India’s coastal and maritime trade was monopolized by the Europeans.
7. Therefore it was due to the trading activities European companies came to India.

Question 4.
Write about the World Trade Organisation.
Answer:
The World Trade Organisation or WTO is the only global international organisation dealing with the rules of trade between nations. At its heart are the WTO agreements, negotiated and signed by the bulk of the world’s trending nations and satisfied in their Parliaments. The WTO began operations on January 1, 1995 after the completion of the Uruguay Round (1986-94) of Multi lateral trade negotiations.
WTO has six key objectives

1. To set and enforce for international trade.
2. To provide a forum for negotiating and monitoring further trade liberalisation.
3. To resolve trade disputes.
4. To increase the transparency of decision making.
5. To corporate with other major international economic institutions involved in global economic management.
6. To help developing countries benefit fully from the global trading system.

Question 5.
Write the challenges of Globalization.
Answer:

1. Globalization means the integration of the home economy with the world Economy
2. There is a general belief that the benefits of globalization extends to all countries. But that will not happen automatically.
3. There is a constant fear the globalization leads to instability in the developing world.
4. Due to globalization, the industrial world has increased global competition.
5. This leads to race in low level, labour right and employment practices among the industrial world.
6. It may led to global imbalance.
7. It may result to activities like child labour, slavery.
8. It may also affect health as consumers are tempted to use more attracti ve junk foods.
9. It may affect environment .Because more of use and throw products and packed items may affect nature and our survival.

VII. Activity and Project

Question 2.
Students are collect the images regarded to the globalization and make the album, (south Indian trade and traders images, and silk route map, spice route map, and kalinga trade map, etc).
Answer:
Students should collect pictures of South Indian

(a) Traders and make it as an album: Student can access to google and search by typing” ancient South Indian Traders” images and collect the relevant information.

Silk route map: The silk route was an ancient network of trade routes that connected the East and the West connecting Asia, Europe and Africa. It was mainly used to transport silk.

Spice route map: Spice route is the name as spices were traded with a way of sea route. Spices such as cinnamon, ginger, pepper, turmeric etc. Traded between Asia, Europe and Africa.

Kalinga route map: Trade routes of Kalinga sailors. They used to trade along their South West voyage along the East Coast of India. Their boats used to sail from Mahanadhi to Bali and right upto Nagapattinam in Cauvery delta. Also they sail along the East coast of Srilanka.

Question 3.
Students are collect the picture of various Multinational corporation companies in India and its products pictures.
Answer:
Students can collect the pictures of various Multinational corporation companies (list is given in the text book itself) and paste the pictures and make an album.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Globalization and Trade Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The supporting pillars of NEP, 1991 of India is …………………
(a) LPG
(b) WTO
(c) IMF
(d) None
Answer:
(a) LPG

Question 2.
The Dames sold all their Indian settlements to ……………
(a) the British
(b) the French
(c) the Portuguese
(d) none
Answer:
(a) the British

Question 3.
The term ………………… refers to the integration of the domestic economy with the rest of the world.
(a) Privatisation
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Globalization
(d) World trade
Answer:
(c) Globalization

Question 4.
Which among the following was the largest MNC in India in 2018?
(a) Pepsi Company
(b) Tata Group
(c) Microsoft Corporation
(d) Sony Corporation
Answer:
(d) Sony Corporation

Question 5.
The term Globalization was introduced by …………………
(a) Simon Kuznets
(b) Theodore Levitt
(c) Marshall
(d) Adam Smith
Answer:
(b) Theodore Levitt

Question 6.
A company that owns or controls production in more than one nation is called ………………
(a) Foreign Company
(b) Multinational Company
(c) Local Company
Answer:
(b) Multinational Company

Question 7.
Archaic Globalization is the ………………… stage of Globalization.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(a) one

Question 8.
Which one of the following is not an MNC?
(a) Reebok shoes
(b) SAIL
(c) Infosys
Answer:
(b) SAIL

Question 9.
Proto Globalization is the ………………… stage of Globalization.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(b) two

Question 10.
WTO is dominated by countries like …………….
(a) US and UK
(b) China and France
(c) India and Japan
Answer:
(a) US and UK

Question 11.
The 17^th century Globalization became ………………… business phenomenon.
(a) Government
(b) Private
(c) Domestic
(d) Foreign
Answer:
(b) Private

Question 12.
………………… is an example for a multinational trade agreement.
(a) GATT
(b) WTO
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) MNC
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 13.
South India trade ………………… were formed by merchants in order to organize and expand their trade activities.
(a) routes
(b) guilds
(c) organisation
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(b) guilds

Question 14.
The olden days Kalinga is the present day …………………
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Orissa
(c) M.P.
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(b) Orissa

Question 15.
Chettiars in Tamil Nadu are examples of early …………………
(a) people
(b) Traders
(c) nationalists
(d) Bankers
Answer:
(b) Traders

Question 16.
The arrival of Alvarez cabral in India in 1500 A.D. led to the establishment of trading station at …………………
(a) Cochin
(b) Calcutta
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 17.
………………… was the headquarters of the Dutch in India.
(a) Portuguese
(b) Dutch
(c) Arabia
(d) Pulicut
Answer:
(d) Pulicut

Question 18.
The Sultan of Golconda granted the English the “Golden Fireman” in …………………
(a) 1634
(b) 1632
(c) 1631
(d) 1630
Answer:
(b) 1632

Question 19.
In 1639, English build a fortified factory in Madras which was known as …………………
(a) Fort Pulicut
(b) Fort St. George
(c) Fort Masulipatnam
(d) Fort Pettapoli
Answer:
(b) Fort St. George

Question 20.
The first French factory in India was established in ………………… by obtaining permission from the Sultan of Golconda.
(a) 1634
(b) 1668
(c) 1693
(d) 1642
Answer:
(b) 1668

Question 21.
Pondicherry was the headquarters of the
(a) British
(b) Spanish
(c) French
(d) Dutch
Answer:
(c) French

Question 22.
Initially Pondicherry was captured by the ………………… and later handed over to the French.
(a) British
(b) Dutch
(c) Spaniards
(d) Sultan of Golconda
Answer:
(b) Dutch

Question 23.
Pondicherry became the headquarters of the France in the year …………………
(a) 1664
(b) 1693
(c) 1700
(d) 1701
Answer:
(d) 1701

Question 24.
India signed the Dunkel draft in the year …………………
(a) 1664
(b) 1993
(c) 1994
(d) 1893
Answer:
(c) 1994

Question 25.
One of the reform made to adopt Globalization was …………………
(a) Abolition of Industrial licensing
(b) Reduction of Public Sector
(c) Foreign exchange regulations
(d) All the industries above
Answer:
(d) All the industries above

Question 26.
Multinational corporations are also called as …………………
(a) Transnational corporation
(b) Multi-national Enterprise
(c) MNCs
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 27.
………………… country has the largest multinational companies in the world.
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) France
(d) Germany
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 28.
Of the below given choices, find out, which is a multinational corporation.
(a) Tata Group
(b) Nettle
(c) IBM
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 29.
GATT was established in …………………
(a) 1946
(b) 1945
(c) 1947
(d) 1948
Answer:
(c) 1947

Question 30.
Eighth round of GATT was known as ………………… Round.
(a) Tokyo
(b) Uruguay
(c) Torquay
(d) Geneva
Answer:
(b) Uruguay

Question 31.
………………… countries participated in the eighth round of GATT.
(a) 127
(b) 117
(c) 167
(d) 107
Answer:
(b) 117

Question 32.
The eighth round of Talks of GATT took place in the year …………………
(a) 1983
(b) 1984
(c) 1985
(d) 1986
Answer:
(d) 1986

Question 33.
Uruguay Round final Act was signed by the member nations in the year …………………
(a) 1986
(b) 1990
(c) 1992
(d) 1994
Answer:
(d) 1994

Question 34.
The Headquarters of WTO is in …………………
(a) Geneva
(b) Scotland
(c) America
(d) Holland
Answer:
(a) Geneva

Question 35.
G7 countries means ………………… countries of the world.
(a) Developed
(b) Developing
(c) Under developed
(d) Less developed
Answer:
(a) Developed

Question 36.
GATT was signed by ………………… countries in 1947.
(a) 22
(b) 23
(c) 21
(d) 117
Answer:
(b) 23

Question 37.
TRIPS include the following areas of …………………
(a) Trade Secrets
(b) Copy rights
(c) patents
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 38.
Globalization increases GDP of a country by free flow of goods and also to increase …………………
(a) FDI
(b) GNP
(c) Technological improvement
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Question 39.
TRIMs refers to certain ………………… imposed by the government in respect of foreign investment of a country.
(a) Conditions
(b) Control
(c) Restrictions
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 40.
………………… sometimes may lead to Child labour and slavery.
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Globalization
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Globalization

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. LPG is the supporting pillar of India’s ………………..
2. means integration of the international market for goods and services.
3. The term Globalization was introduced by Prof ………………..
4. The History of Globalization can be studied under ……………….. stages.
5. The first stage of the history of Globalization is called ……………….. Globalization.
6. The third stage of the history of Globalization is called ……………….. Globalization.
7. The Proto Globalization is the ……………….. stage of the history of Globalization.
8. The Archaic Globalization existed during the ……………….. Age.
9. The Dutch East India Company was founded in the year ………………..
10. The expansion of GATT is ………………..
11. The ……………….. is the expansion for WTO
12. South Indian trade was dominated by the ……………….. and replaced by the ………………..
13. Kalinga traders brought ……………….. coloured stone decorative objects for trade.
14. India’s coastal and maritime trade was monopolized by the ………………..
15. The Portuguese under the leadership of Vasco do Gama landed at Calicut in ………………..
16. ……………….. was the early capital of Portuguese in India.
17. The Sultan of Golconda granted the English the ……………….. in 1632.
18. In 1639, English build a fortified factory in Madras which is known as ………………..
19. ……………….. was the headquarters of Danes in India
20. The first French factory was established in ………………..
21. The first French factory was established with the permission from the Sultan of ………………..
22. ……………….. was the headquarters of the French.
23. Pondicherry became the headquarters of the French in the year ………………..
24. Recently the Government of India has set up ……………….. to boost exports.
25. India signed the Dunkel Draft in the year ………………..
26. When India was in crisis in 1990’s India mortgaged 40 tons of gold to the Bank of ………………..
27. The New Economic Policy was put forth in the year ………………..
28. The ……………….. is a corporate organisation operates in many countries other than home country.
29. Multinational Corporations are also called as ………………..
30. Of the MNC ……………….. is the largest, holding a major share of the FDI
31. India announced the Foreign Investment policy in the year ………………..
32. The growth of MNC may lead to the downfall of smaller local ……………….. of the host country.
33. The expansion of FCRA is ………………..
34. GATT was signed in the year ………………..
35. Initially, GATT was signed by ……………….. countries.
36. In the seventh round of GATT ……………….. countries participated.
37. GATT’s primary purpose was to increase International Trade by reducing ………………..
38. The headquarters of GATT is in ………………..
39. The Eighth round of GATT is called as ………………..
40. The signing of GATT in 1994 paved the way for the setting up of ………………..
41. Intellectual property right may be defined as ………………..
42. The expansion of TRIPs is ………………..
43. The expansion of TRIMs is ………………..
44. One of the negative effect of ……………….. is that it may lead to slavery and Child labour.
45. The Trade Secret is an agreement covered under ………………..

Answers:

1. New Economic Policy
2. Globalization
3. Theodore Levitt
4. Three
5. Archaic
6. Modem
7. Second
8. Hellenistic
9. 1602
10. General Agreement on Tariffs and
11. World Trade Organisation
12. Cholas, Pallavas
13. Red
14. Europeans
15. 1498
16. Cochin
17. Golden Fireman
18. Fort St.George
19. Triangular
20. 1668
21. Golconda
22. Pondicherry
23. 1701
24. Special Economic Zones
25. 1994
26. England
27. 1991
28. MNC
29. Multinational Enterprise
30. America
31. 1991
32. Business
33. Foreign Contribution Regulation Act
34. 1947
35. 23
36. 99
37. various tariffs
38. Geneva
39. Uruguay Round
40. WTO
41. Information with a commercial value
42. Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights
43. Trade Related Investment Measures
44. Globalization
45. TRIPs

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Globalization has led to environmental degradation.
(ii) GATT was signed by 73 countries in 1949
(iii) TRIPs and TRIMs are a part of WTO
(iv) It takes only a few hours to transport goods between continents today.
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) is correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iv) is correct
(c) (i), (ii) is correct
(d) (ii), (iv) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) is correct

Question 2.
(i) Proto Globalization was characterized by the rise of maritime European Empires.
(ii) The pre-modern phase of global exchange are sometimes known as Proto Globalization.
(iii) The Kalinga traders brought Red coloured stone decorative objects for trade
(iv) The Danes formed an East India Company and arrive in India in 1616.
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) is correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iv) is correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii)is correct
(d) (iii), (iv) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) is correct

Question 3.
(i) The MNC first started their activities in controlling the industries of the host countries.
(ii) Indian Government mortgaged 40 tons of gold to the Bank of England prior to 1991.
(iii) To boost exports, recently, the Government of India announced Demonetisation and Goods and Services Tax.
(iv) The French failed in India and in 1845, they were forced to sell all their Indian settlements to the British.
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) is correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iv) is correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) is correct
(d) (i), (ii) is correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) is correct

Question 4.
(i) The main reason for the growth of MNC is on the account of technological superiorities.
(ii) An MNC is able to take advantage of tax variation.
(iii) WTO provides a forum for negotiating and monitoring trade liberalisation.
(iv) The agreement of the final act of Uruguay Round was agreed by 104 member countries.
(a) (i),(ii),(iii) are correct
(b) (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) are wrong
(d) (i) is correct
Answer:
(b) (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv) are correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): After 1991, there was a spurt of foreign collaborations in India and increase flow of FDI-Foreign Direct Investment.
Reason (R): The liberalized Foreign Investment Policy (FIP) was announced in India in July-August 1991.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation to A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) A is wrong, but R is correct
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A

Question 2.
Assertion (A); The introduction of MNC into a host country’s economy may lead to the downfall of small, local business.
Reason (R): Spurring job growth in the local economies.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation to A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) A is wrong, but R is correct
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation to A

Question 3.
Assertion (A): India’s coastal and maritime trade was monopolized by the Europeans.
Reason (R): Trade guilds were channels through which Indian Culture was exported to other lands.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A.
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation to A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) A is wrong, but R is correct.
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation to A

V. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (vi)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (vi)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

VI. Give Short answers

Question 1.
What is the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010?
Answer”
The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act or FCRA, 2010 has been enacted the Parliament to consolidate the law to regulate the acceptance and utilisation of Foreign contributions or foreign hospitality by certain individuals or associations or companies and to prohibit acceptance and utilisation of foreign contribution or foreign hospitality for any activities detrimental to national interest and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

Question 2.
How did India’s NEP emerged?
Answer:
When India was facing a down grading economic crisis situation, the government presented a budget in July 1991 for 1991-92 with a series of policy changes which underlined liberalization, privatization and globalization. This has come to be called as India’s New Economic policy.

Question 3.
What came to be known as India’s new economic policy? How was this policy strengthened?
Answer:
With the downgrading of India’s credit rating by some international agencies, these was heavy flight of capital out of India. The Government has to mortgage 40 tons of gold to the Bank of England. Under these circumstances, the Government for 1991-92 presented its budget in July 1991 with a series of policy changes which underlined globalization, liberalisation and privatisation. This has come to be called as India’s new economic policy.

Question 4.
Write a note on SEZ?
Answer:
SEZ means Special Economic Zones . Recently the Government of India has set up special Economic Zones in southern states of especially in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Kerala with a view to boost exports. Few SEZ in Tamil Nadu are Nanguneri SEZ, Ennore SEZ, Coimbatore SEZ.

Question 5.
How are producers beneficiaries of fair trade?
Answer:
For producers fair trade is unique in offering four important benefits.

• Stable prices that cover the costs of sustainable production.
• Market access That enables buyers to trade with producers who would otherwise be excluded from market.
• Partnerships (producers are involved) in decisions that affect their future.

Question 6.
Write any type of subsidies the WTO offers to its member countries?
Answer:

1. Tax concessions such as exemptions , credits (or) deferrals.
2. Cash subsidies such as the grants.

Question 7.
What was the idea behind developing SEZ in India?
Answer:
To attract foreign companies to invest in India.

VII. Brief Answer

Question 1.
What is fair trade? Who are the beneficiaries of fair trade practices? How?
Answer:
Fair trade is an industrial arrangement designed to help producers in developing countries achieve better trading conditions. Fair trade is about better prices, decent working conditions and fair terms of trade for fanners and workers.
With fair trade, everyone is the beneficiary. Take examples of consumers, traders and producers.
(i) Consumers – Fair trade relationship provide the basis for connecting producers with consumer and for informing consumers of the need for social justice and the opportunities for change. Consumer support enables fair trade organisation to be advocates and campaigners for wider reform of international trading rules, to achieve the ultimate goal of a just and equitable global trading system. Shoppers can buy products in line with their values and principles. They can choose from an ever growing range of great products.

(ii) Traders / Companies – Since its launch in 2002, the fair trade mark has become the most widely, recognised social and development label in the world. Fair trade offers companies a credible way to ensure that their trade has a positive impact for the people at the end of the chain.

(iii) Producers – For producers fair trade is unique in offering important benefits:
(a) stable prices that cover the costs of sustainable production,
(b) market access that enables buyers to trade with producers who would otherwise be excluded from market,
(c) partnership
(d) empowerment of farmers and workers.

Question 2.
Write a note on the beneficiaries of Fair Trade practices.
Answer:
Fair Trade is about better prices, decent working conditions and fair terms of trade for farmers and workers.

Beneficiaries of Fair Trade practices:

Consumers:

1. Consumers are the main beneficiaries.
2. This is because they can advocate and compare for wide reform of International trading rules.
3. They can choose from growing range of great products.
4. Consumers support producers by buying fair trade labelled products who are struggling to improve their lives.

Traders (or) companies:

1. Fair Trade offer companies a credible way to ensure that they have a positive impact.
2. Launched in 2002, Fair Trade mark has become the most widely, recognized social and development label in the world.

Producers:

1. It gives the farmers / producers a kind of empowerment.
2. Stable prices cover the cost of sustainable production.
3. Buyers easily access the market and trade with producers, which in turn boost production.

Question 3.
What are the factors that multinational companies take into account before setting up a factory in different countries?
Answer:
Before setting up a company or a factory, an MNC takes into account the following things:
(i) Availability of cheap labour and other resources:
MNC’s setup offices and factories for production in various regions of the world, where cheap labour and other resources are available in order to earn greater profit.

(ii) Partnership with local companies:
MNC’s setup partnership with local companies, by a closely competing with local companies or buying local companies for supply. As a result, production in these widely dispersed locations gets interlinked.

(iii) Favourable Government Policy:
If the Government Policies are favourable, it helps MNC’s. For example: Flexibility of labour laws will reduce cost of production. MNC’s are able to hire worker on casual and contractual wages for a short period instead of a regular basis. This reduces the cost of labour for the company and increases its margin of profit.

Question 4.
What are the reasons for the growth of MNC?
Answer:
Expansion of Market: For a large size firm, when its activities expand more and more , it goes beyond their country’s boundary and move to other countries market.

Marketing superiorities:

1. A MNC enjoys market reputation easily .
2. It faces loss difficulty in selling the products .
3. It can adopt very effective advertisement tactics.
4. All these help in their sales promotion.

High level of financial resources:

1. A MNC has high level of financial resources which helps them in high level of fund utilisation.
2. Easy access to external capital market.
3. Can raise more International resources to improve their production at any cost.

Advancement in Technology:

1. The High level of technology of the MNCs attract them to participate in Industrial development.
2. It helps them to offer products at a low price.

Product Innovation:

1. They can develop new products.
2. New Designs of existing products.
3. Designs that help the new generations to apply their knowledge.

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 2 Central Government Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Central Government

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Central Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Constitutional Head of the Union is:
(a) The President
(b) The Chief Justice
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) Council of Ministers
Answer:
(a) The President

Question 2.
Who is the real executive in a parliamentary type of government?
(a) Army
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The President
(d) Judiciary
Answer:
(b) The Prime Minister

Question 3.
Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
(a) The President
(b) Attorney General
(c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer:
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Question 4.
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the ……………
(a) The President
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) Rajya Sabha
Answer:
(c) The Prime Minister

Question 5.
The Joint sittings of Indian Parliament for transacting legislative business are presided over by?
(a) Senior most member of Parliament
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) The President of India
(d) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Answer:
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Question 6.
What is minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha?
(a) 18 Years
(b) 21 Years
(c) 25 Years
(d) 30 Years
Answer:
(c) 25 Years

Question 7.
The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rest with?
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) State Government
(d) Parliament
Answer:
(d) Parliament

Question 8.
Under which Article the President is vested with the power to proclaim Financial Emergency
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 360
(c) Article 356
(d) Article 365
Answer:
(b) Article 360

Question 9.
The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme court are appointed by:
(a) The President
(b) The Attorney General
(c) The Governor
(d) The Prime Minister
Answer:
(a) The President

Question 10.
Dispute between States of India comes to the Supreme Court under …………….
(a) Appellate Jurisdiction
(b) Original Jurisdiction
(c) Advisory Jurisdiction
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Original Jurisdiction

Question 11.
If you are elected as the President of India, which of the following decision can you take on your own?
(a) Nominate the leaders of your choice to the council of minister.
(b) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.
(c) Select the person you like as Prime Minister.
(d) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a majority in the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
(b) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………… Bill cannot be introduced in the Parliament without President’s approval.
2. ………………… is the leader of the nation and chief spokesperson of the country.
3. ………………… is the Ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
4. The President generally nominates two members belonging to the ………………… community to the Lok Sabha.
5. ………………… has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament.
6. The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of ………………… years.
7. ………………… is the Guardian of the Constitution.
8. At present, the Supreme Court consists of ………………… judges including the Chief Justice.

Answers:

1. Money
2. Prime Minister
3. Vice-President
4. Anglo-Indian
5. Attorney General
6. 65
7. Supreme Court
8. 28

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Total members of the Rajya Sabha is 250.
(ii) The 12 nominated members shall be chosen by the President from amongst persons experience in the field of literature, science, art, or social service.
(iii) The Members of the Rajya Sabha should not be less than 30 years of age.
(iv) The members of the Rajya Sabha are directly elected by the peoples.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of 62 years.
(ii) Judiciary is the third organ of the government.
(iii) The cases involving fundamental rights come under the Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
(iv) The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct
Answer:
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house and it cannot be dissolved.
Reason (R): One-third of the members of Rajya Sabha retire every two years, and new members are elected to fill the seats thus vacated.
(a) (A) is false but R is true
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A)
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

IV. Match the following

Answers:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

V. Answer the brief questions

Question 1.
How is President of India elected?
Answer:
The President of India is elected by an electoral college in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. The Electoral college consists of the elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and the elected members of the States and elected members of National Capital Territory of Delhi and Puducherry.

Question 2.
What are the different categories of Ministers at the Union level?
Answer:
The ministers are classified under three different categories.

1. Cabinet Ministers: An informal body of senior ministers who form the nucleus of administration.
2. Ministers of State: They are also incharge of ministries or departments.
3. Deputy Ministers: They assist either the Ministers of Cabinet or State.

Question 3.
What is the qualification of Judges of the Supreme Court?
Answer:
Qualification of the Supreme Court Judges are

1. He must be a citizen of India.
2. He should have worked as a Judge of a High Court for at least 5 years.
3. He should have worked as an advocate of the High Court for at least 10 years.
4. He is in the opinion of the President, a distinguished Jurist.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:

1. Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha who is elected by its members.
2. The Speaker presides over a joint sitting of theTwo Houses of Parliament.
3. He has the power to decide whether a Bill is a money Bill or an Ordinary Bill.

Question 5.
What is Money Bill?
Answer:
Money Bill refers to a bill (draft law) introduced in the Lok Sabha which generally covers the issue of receipt and spending of money, such as tax laws, prevention of black money etc.

Question 6.
List out any two special powers of the Attorney General of India?
Answer:

1. Attorney General of India has the right of audience in all Courts in the territory of India.
2. He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of the Parliament (or) their joint sitting but without a right to vote.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Describe the powers and functions of the President of India.
Answer:
The powers and the functions of the President of India are given below:
(i) He appoints the Prime Minister and the others members of the Council of Ministers, distributing portfolios to them on the advice of the Prime Minister.

(ii) He appoints Governors of States, the Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, the Attorney General, the Chief Election Commissioner, Ambassadors and High Commissioners to other countries.

(iii) He inaugurates tire session of the Parliament by addressing it after the general elections and also at the beginning of the first session each year.

(iv) Money Bill can be introduced in the Parliaments only with his prior recommendation. Annual Budget of the Central Government is presented before the Lok Sabha by the Union Finance Minister only with the permission of the President.

(v) The President of India has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishment, or to commute the sentence of any person convicted of an offence.

(vi) He is the supreme commander of the defence force of the country. He has been empowered to proclaim Emergency in the country.

Question 2.
Explain the Jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
Supreme Court is the Apex court in the Country.

It is the guardian of our Constitution. The following are the functions of the Supreme Court.

Original Jurisdiction:

1. Cases which are brought directly in the first instance come under original Jurisdiction.*
2. Dispute between two states or more
3. Dispute between the Centre and the State.
4. Writs issued for the enforcement of fundamental rights.

Appellate Jurisdiction:

1. The Supreme Court hears the appeals against the decisions of High court in “Civil, Criminal and Constitutional” cases.
2. With a certificate from the High Court that it is fit to appeal in the Supreme Court.
3. The Supreme, Court is the final appellate court in the country.

Advisory Jurisdiction:

1. President can refer to the Supreme Court if any question of law or fact which in his opinion is of Public importance miscellaneous Jurisdiction.
2. The Supreme Court has the complete control over its own establishment.
3. With the approval of the President the supreme court is authorized to make rules for regulatory, generally the practice and procedure of the court.
4. The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.

Judicial Review:

The power of the Judiciary to declare ‘a law as un-constitutional’ is known as Judicial Review.

Individual Review power with regard to

1. Protecting the fundamental right.
2. The laws passed by the legislature which are not in accordance with the Constitutional.
3. Dispute between the Centre and the States.

Question 3.
What are the Duties and Functions of Prime Minister of India?
Answer:
Duties and functions of the Prime Minister are given below

• The Prime Minister decides the rank of his ministers and distributes various departments among them.
• He decides the dates and the agenda of the meeting of the Cabinet which he presides.
• He supervises the work of various ministers
• The Prime Minister acts as a link between the President and the Council of Ministers.
• He is the leader of the nation and the chief spokesperson of the country.
• He is the head of the Cabinet and other Ministers are his colleagues.
• As the leader of the nation, the Prime Minister represents our nation at all international conferences like the commonwealth etc.

Question 4.
Critically examine the Powers and Functions of the Parliament.
Answer:

1. Parliament is the legislative organ of the Union Government.
2. Article 79 to 122 in part V of the Constitution deal with the organisation, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges of the Parliament.
3. The President, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are the three parts of the Parliament.
4. It is bicameral legislature.

Functions of the Parliament:

1. Legislation, passing of budget, ventilation of public grievances, over seeing of administration discussion of various subjects like developments plans, International relations and internal policies.
2. After passing of the bill in both the houses it is forwarded to the President for his assent.
3. If the President send back the bill to the Parliament for reconsideration and the bill is passed in both the houses without any amendment the President has to give his assent.

A bill has to pass three stages in the Parliament before it becomes an Act.

Parliament is also vested with powers to impeach the President and to remove judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. Chief Election Commissioner and Comptroller and Auditor – General of India in accordance with the procedure laid down in the Constitution.

Two-third majority from both the houses of the Parliament is needed in support for the impeachment.

The Parliament exercises control over the executive through asking questions and supplementary, questions, moving motions of adjournment, discussing and passing resolutions, discussing and pushing motion or vote of no¬confidence.

The first hour when the Parliament is in session is allotted for question hour.

The members can put forth questions to the concerned Ministry and pertain to get answers.

The Parliament has the power to change the boundaries of the states.

By Fifth Amendment under Article 3 of our Constitution the Parliament is empowered to the formation of new states, alteration of areas and boundaries or change the name of the existing state.

A government bill should get passed in the Parliament with majority vote in this regard.

Question 5.
List out the functions of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
Functions of Lok Sabha

1. The Lok Sabha is the lower House of the Parliament. It is also known as the House of the people. Any Bill including Money Bill can be introduced and passed in the Lok Sabha.
2. It has equal power as the Rajya Sabha in passing any Bill for constitutional amendment.
3. Lok Sabha members have the power to elect the President and Vice-President.
4. Motion of no confidence can only be introduced in Lok Sabha. If it is passed then the Prime Minister and other councils of ministers need to resign from their post.

Functions of the Rajya Sabha

1. Any bill (except the money bills) needs to be approved by Rajya Sabha
2. It has the same power as Lok Sabha for passing any Bill for a constitutional amendment?
3. The members of Rajya Sabha have the electoral power for selection for President and Vice – President.
4. It has power in the impeachment procedure of the President and judge of the Supreme Court and High Courts.

VII. Project and activity

Question 1.
Organise a mock Parliament in your class. Discuss the role of President,Prime Minister and Ministers.
Answer:
Mock Parliament:
Role of President
Role of Prime Minister and Ministers.
(mock Parliament video in you tube)

1. 14th National youth Parliament.
2. Mock Parliament session Anan kids Jim 26th 2018.
3. Mock Parliament in village school-Final Rehearsal of youth.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi intends to organise a mock Parliament in Delhi with representation from every district.

Key points:

1. Each class should prepare a list of activities.
2. This enables them to prepare themselves for the discussions in the House.

It is of two types:

1. Government Business (the member of the Cabinet rank) and
2. Private members business – the other members of the Parliament who is not in Minister rank.

Question 2.
Bring out the differences and similarities between the US and Indian President’s.
Answer:

1. Both the US President and the Indian President are elected through election by voting.
2. The President of US and the President of India both are the Head of the Union and the first citizen.
3. Election to the US President is direct.
4. Election to the Indian President is indirect.
5. The President of US is the Real Executive of the government.
6. The President of India is only the Nominal Head.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Central Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Articles 52 to 78 in Part V deals with the:
(a) Judiciary
(b) Union Executive
(c) State Legislature
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Union Executive

Question 2.
Who is the supreme commander of the defence forces of India?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(c) President
(d) Vice – President
Answer:
(c) President

Question 3.
The …………….. is the Constitutional head of the Union Executive.
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice
(d) Council of Minister
Answer:
(a) President

Question 4.
Who occupies the second highest office in the country?
(a) President
(b) Vice President
(c) Attorney General
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(b) Vice President

Question 5.
Article …………….. lays down that the Supreme command of the Defense Force of the Union shall be vested in the President.
(a) 53(1)
(b) 53 (2)
(c) 53(3)
(d) 51(A)
Answer:
(b) 53 (2)

Question 6.
The eligible age to be appointed as the President of India is ……………..
(a) 25 years
(b) 35 years
(c) 21 years
Answer:
(b) 35 years

Question 7.
The Vice-President can act as the President for a maximum period of …………….. months.
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 6

Question 8.
The council of Rajya Sabha consists of …………… members
(a) 250
(b) 238
(c) 245
Answer:
(a) 250

Question 9.
If the office of the President and Vice President lie vacant …………….. of India works as President.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Deputy Ministers
(c) Ministers of State
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(d) Chief Justice

Question 10.
The members of the Rajya Sabha are ……………
(a) elected indirectly
(b) mostly nominated
(c) elected directly as well as indirectly
Answer:
(a) elected indirectly

Question 11.
The …………….. is instrumental in moving amendments to the Constitution.
(a) Cabinet
(b) Council of States
(c) President
(d) Attorney General
Answer:
(a) Cabinet

Question 12.
The …………….. is a permanent house and cannot be dissolved.
(a) Legislative Assembly
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Electoral College
Answer:
(c) Rajya Sabha

Question 13.
The Supreme Court of India, New Delhi was inaugurated on January 28 ……………..
(a) 1935
(b) 1940
(c) 1947
(d) 1950
Answer:
(d) 1950

Question 14.
In …………….. jurisdiction the Supreme Court hears appeals against the decisions of High Court.
(a) Original
(b) Appellate
(c) Advisory
(d) Judicial Review
Answer:
(b) Appellate

Question 15.
The law declared by the …………….. is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
(a) Supreme Court
(b) High Court
(c) District Court
(d) Revenue Court
Answer:
(a) Supreme Court

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The legislature in Central Government is known as ……………….
2. The President of India apart from Rashtrapathi Bhavan conducts office at least once a year in ………………. Hyderabad.
3. Once elected as the President, he has to take an oath of office before the ……………….
4. The present President of India is ……………….
5. The President summons Parliament at least ………………. a year.
6. President can make advances out of the ………………. of India to meet any unexpected expenditure.
7. ………………. emergency is declared by the President if there is a threat to financial stability or the credit of India.
8. The President may be removed from office for violation of Constitution by
9. At least a minimum of ………………. days notice should be given for the resolution for the removal of Vice President from his office.
10. When there is a tie of voting on Bill in Rajya Sabha the ………………. can cast his vote for or against using his discretion power.
11. The post of ………………. of India has adopted the West Minister (England) model of the Constitutional democracy.
12. The ………………. is an informal body of senior ministers who forms the nucleus of administration.
13. The ………………. belong to the second category of ministers in the council who are also incharge of ministries or departments.
14. The council of state or Rajya Sabha consists of ………………. members.
15. Any biii except money bill needs to be approved by ……………….

Answers:

1. Parliament
2. ‘Rashtrapati Nilayam’
3. Chief Justice of India
4. Thiru, Ramnath Govind
5. twice
6. contingency fund
7. Financial
8. impeachment
9. fourteen
10. Vice-President
11. Prime Minister
12. Cabinet
13. Ministers of State
14. Rajya Sabha
15. 250

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The Cabinet forms the nucleus of administration
Reason (R): All important decisions of the government are taken by the cabinet such as defence, finance, external affairs and home affairs.
(a) (A) is false, but R is true.
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for A.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for A.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for A.

Question 2.
(i) The Parliament has the power to change the boundaries of the states.
(ii) Parliament exercises control over the executive.
(iii) Parliament is an independent organ.
(iv) ft is a bicameral legislature
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Article 74 (1) says there shall be a council of ministers with the Prime Minister as the head to aid and advice the President.
(ii) The Prime Minister has no power to decide the dates and agenda of the Cabinet meeting.
(iii) The Prime Minister decides th’e rank of his ministers and distributes various departments,
(iv) The Prime Minister is the leader of the nation and chief spokes person of the country.
(a) (i), (ii) are true
(b) (i),(iii) and (iv) are true
(c) (i) and (iii) are true
(d) (i) and (iv) are true
Answer:
(b) (i),(iii) and (iv) are true

Question 4.
(i) Lok Sabha as of today has 552 members.
(ii) The President generally nominates 2 persons from Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha.
(iii) It is the house of the people.
(iv) It is the permanent house of the Parliament.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 5.
(i) Under Article 352 President has the power to proclaim National Emergency on the grounds of War.
(ii) Due to Constitutional failure in the State President can declare an Emergency under Article 356.
(iii) Article 61 deals with the removal of the President by impeachment.
(iv) The President is answerable to the court of law.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column If.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (vi)
E. (i)
F. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

V. Answer the brief questions

Question 1.
Describe briefly the diplomatic powers of the President.
Answer:

• The President appoints Indian diplomats to other countries and receives foreign diplomats posted to India.
• The ambassador-designate becomes ambassador after calling on the President and presenting his credentials.
• All treaties and agreements with foreign states are entered into in the name of the President.

Question 2.
“Prime Minister represents our nation at all International Conferences”- Explain.
Answer:
The Prime Minister is the leader of the Nation and chief spokes person of the country.

As the leader of the nation, the Prime Minister represents our nation at all International Conferences like the Common Wealth Summit of Non aligned Nations and SAARC.

Question 3.
What is meant by integrated judicial system?
Answer:
Integrated judiciary means that the judicial system is hierarchical one. At the top there is the Supreme Court and its decisions aie bonding precedent for low er subordinate Courts.

Question 4.
What are the qualification to become the member of Lok Sabha?
Answer:

1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He should not be less than 25 years of age.
3. He should have his name in the electoral rolls in some part of the country.
4. He should not hold any office of profit under the Union or State Government.
5. He should be mentally sound and economically solvent.

Question 5.
Throw light on the compositions of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The Lok Sabha is the Lower House of the Parliament. It is also known as the House of the people. It contains elected representatives of the people. The maximum number of members can be elected for the Lok Sabha is 552. Presently, the Lok Sabha has 543 elected members. Out of these, 530 members are elected members from different States and 13 members from the Union Territories. The President generally nominates two members belonging to the Anglo – Indian community. At present, the total strength of the Lok Sabha is 545.

Question 6.
Write a brief note on the appointment of judges of the Supreme Court?
Answer:

1. The Chief Justice of Supreme Court in India is appointed by the President of India.
2. The other judges are appointed by the President in consultation with the collegiums with Chief Justice Head.

Question 7.
Who is the head of the Union Executive?
Answer:
The President is the nominal executive authority in the Parliamentary systems of Government. He is also the Constitutional head of the Union Executive.

Question 8.
What do you know about motion of no confidence?
Answer:

1. Motion of no confidence can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.
2. When it is passed then the Prime Minister and other Council of Ministers need to resign from their post.

Question 9.
What is the qualification of President of Indi?
Answer:
The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a Presidential candidate:

• He should be a citizen of India.
• He must have completed the age of thirty-five years.
• He must not hold any office of profit under the Union, State or local government.
• He should have the other qualifications required to become a member of the Lok Sabha.
• He/her name should be proposed by at least ten electors and seconded by another ten electors of the Electoral college which elects the President.

Question 10.
What makes the Indian Parliament powerful?
Answer:
The representative of the people makes the Parliament powerful.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Write about the composition location and term of the judges of the Supreme court.
Answer:
In the beginning in 1950 our Supreme Court consisted of 8 judges including the Chief justice. As passage of time in need at present the Supreme Court consists of 28 judges including Chief justice.

The Constitution also provides appointment of judges to the supreme court on ad – hoc (temporary) basis.

1. The Chief justice and other judges of the Supreme Court can hold office up to the age of 65 yearn.
2. The judges of the Supreme Court can resign before their term by giving their resignation in writing to the President.
3. The Parliament also has power to remove the judges by invoking impeachment provisions for their proven misbehaviour.
4. The Supreme Court sits at New Delhi. It may also sit any other place in India which may be decided by the Chief Justice of India with the approval of the President.

Question 2.
Describe the duties and functions of the Attorney General of India.
Answer:
The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India. He is the highest law officer in the country. He is appointed by the President.
Duties and functions of the Attorney General of India.

1. To give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters which are referred to him by the President.
2. To perform such other duties of a legal character that are assigned to him by the President and discharge the functions conferred on him by the constitution are any other law.
3. In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General of India has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.
4. He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member but without a right to vote.
5. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament.

Question 3.
What are the functions of the Vice-President? How he can be removed?
Answer:
Functions of the Vice-President: The Vice-President is Ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
As the chairman of the house

1. He regulates the proceeding of the House.
2. He decides the order of the house.
3. He decides the admissibility of a resolution or questions.
4. He suspends or adjourns the house in case of a grave disorder.
5. He issues directions to various committees on matters relating to their functions.

Removal of the Vice-President:

1. The Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the council of states passed by a majority of all the then members of the council and agreed to by the House of the people.
2. A resolution for this purpose may be moved only after a notice of atleast a minimum of 14 days has been given of such an intention.

Question 4.
What is the role of the Vice President in the absence of the President?
Answer:

1. When the President is unable to discharge his duties due to illness or absence from the country he attends to the functions of the President.
2. When the President is unable to do his duties due to sickness or when the post of the President becomes vacant due to resignation, death or removal by impeachment etc., the Vice President can act as the President for a maximum period of six months.

Students can download 6th Science Term 1 Chapter 1 Measurements Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Measurements

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Measurements Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The girth of a tree can be measured by
(a) Metre scale
(b) Metre rod
(c) plastic ruler
(d)Measuring tape.
Answer:
(d) Measuring tape.

Question 2.
The conversion of 7 m into cm gives
(a) 70 cm
(b) 7 cm
(c) 700 cm
(d) 7000 cm
Answer:
(c) 700 cm

Question 3.
Quantity that can be measured is called ………
(a) Physical quantity
(b) Measurement
(c) Unit
(d) Motion.
Answer:
(b) Measurement

Question 4.
Choose the correct one
(a) km > mm > cm > m
(b) km> mm> m > cm
(c) km>m>cm>mm
(d) km > cm > m > mm
Answer:
(c) km > m > cm > mm

Question 5.
While measuring length of an oject using a ruler, the position of your eye should be
(a) Left side of the point.
(b) Vertically above the point where the measurement is to be taken.
(c) Right side of the point.
(d) Anywhere according to one’s convenience.
Answer:
(b) Vertically above the point where the measurement is to be taken.

II. True or false.

1. We can say that mass an object is 126 kg
2. Length of one’s chest can be measured by using metre scale.
3. Ten millimetres makes one centimetre.
4. A hand span is a reliable measure of length.
5. The SI system of units is accepted everywhere in the world.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True

III. Fill up the blanks:

1. SI unit of length is symbolically represented as ………..
2. 500 gm = …………. kilogram.
3. Distance between Delhi and Chennai can be measured in ……….
4. 1 m = ………. cm.
5. 5 km = ………. m.

Answer:

1. metre
2. 0.5
3. Kilometre
4. 100
5. 5000

IV. Analogy

Sugar: Beam Balance, Lime Juice?
Answer:
Graduated cylinders.

Height of a person: Cm: Length of your sharpened pencil lead?
Answer:
mm

Milk: Volume; vegetables?
Answer:
Weight

V. Match the following:

Answer:
1. Cubit
2. metre
3. 10^-9
4. second
5. 10³

VI. Complete the given table:

Answer:

VI. Arrange in increasing order of unit

1 Metre, 1 Centimetre, 1 Kilometre, and 1 Millimetre.
Answer:
1 Millimetre, 1 Centimetre, 1 Metre, 1 Kilometre.

VIII. Find the answer for the following questions within the grid:

1. 10^-3 is one _______
2. SI unit of time ______
3. Cross view of reading for measurement leads to ______
4. _______ is the one what a clock reads.
5. ______ is the amount of substance present in an object.
6. _______ can be taken to get the final reading of the recordings of different students for a single measurement.
7. ______ is a fundamental quantity.
8. _______ shows the distance covered by an automobile.
9. A tailor use _______ to take measurements to stitch a cloth.
10. Liquids are measured with this physical quantity ______

Answer:

1. millimeter
2. Second
3. Parallax
4. Time
5. mass
6. Accurate
7. Length
8. Odometer
9. tape
10. litres

IX. Answer in a word or two.

Question 1.
What is the full form of the SI system?
Answer:
An International System of unit

Question 2.
Name any one instrument used for measuring mass.
Answer:
Beam Balance

Question 3.
Find the odd one out: Kilogram, Millimetre, Centimetre, Nanometre
Answer:
Kilogram.

Question 4.
What is the SI unit of mass?
Answer:
Kilogram

Question 5.
What are the two parts present in a measurement?
Answer:

1. multiple
2. sub

X. Answer in a sentence or two:

Question 1.
Define measurement.
Answer:
The comparison of an unknown quantity with some known quantity is known as measurement.

Question 2.
Define mass.
Answer:
Mass is the measure of the amount of matter in an object.

Question 3.
The distance between the two places is 43.65 km. convert it into meter and cm.
Answer:
(a) Convert km into metre
1 km = 1000m
∴ 43.65 km = 43.65 × 1000 = 43650.00 = 43650
= 43650 m.

(b) Convert km into cm.
1 km = 1000 m
1 m = 100 cm
1 km = 1000 × 100 cm
1 km = 100000 cm
∴ 43.65 km = 43.65 × 100000 = 4365000.00
= 4365000 cm.

Question 4.
What are the rules to be followed to make an accurate measurement with scale?
Answer:

1. Take care to write the correct submultiple.
2. Always keep the object in parallel to the scale.
3. Start the measurement from ‘0’ of the scale.

XI. Solve the following:

Question 1.
The distance between your school and your house is 2250 m. Express this distance in kilometre.
Answer:
Distance between school and house is 2250 m.
1000 m = 1 km
∴ 2250 m = 2250 ÷ 1000 = 2.25 km.

Question 2.
While measuring the length of a sharpened pencil, the reading of the scale at one end is 2.0 cm and at the other end is 12.1 cm. What is the length of the pencil?
Answer:
Sharpened pencil Reading at one end = 2.0 cm.
Sharpened pencil Reading at the other end = 12.1 cm.
Length of the pencil = Difference between two ends.
= 12.1 cm. – 2.0 cm.
= 10.1 cm.

XII. Write in detail:

Question 1.
Explain two methods that you can use to measure the length of a curved line.
Answer:
Measuring the length of a curved line, by two methods.
First method – using a string.

1. Draw a curved line AB on the paper.
2. Place a string along the curved line.
3. Make sure that the string covers every bit of the curved line.
4. Mark the points where the curved line begins and ends on the string.
5. Now stretch the string along the length of a meter scale.
6. Measure the distance between two markings of the string.
7. This will give the length of a curved line.

Second method – using a divider.

1. Draw a curved line AB on a paper.
2. Separate the legs of the divider by 0.5 cm or 1 cm using a ruler.
3. Place it on the curved line starting from one end. Mark the position of the other end.
4. Move it along the line again and again cutting the line into a number of segments of equal lengths.
5. The remaining parts of the line can be measured using a scale.
6. Count the number of segments.
7. Length of the line = (No. of segments × length of each segment) + length of the leftover part.

Question 2.
Fill up the following chart.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Measurements Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best option:

Question 1.
What is 7 m in mm?
(a) 0.7 mm
(b) 700 mm
(c) 7000 mm
(d) 70 mm
Answer:
(c) 7000 mm

Question 2.
The distance between one end and the other end is called _____
(a) mass
(b) length
(c) time
(d) None
Answer:
(b) length

Question 3.
What is the unit of length?
(a) metre
(b) litre
(c) second
(d) kilogram.
Answer:
(a) metre

Question 4.
Five kilometre is equal to _____
(a) 500 cm
(b) 500 m
(c) 5000 m
(d) 5000 cm
Answer:
(c) 5000 m

Question 5.
These are the instruments used in measuring the volume of objects with irregular shapes.
(a) Balance
(b) Electronic balance
(c) Displacement of water method
(d) sand clock.
Answer:
(c) Displacement of water method.

II. True or false:

1. The comparison of a known quantity with the unknown quantity is the mass.
2. The area can be calculated by using the two lengths and width.
3. Using electronic balance weight can be measured accurately.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False.

III. Fill in the Blanks.

1. 78.75 cm = ______ m ______ cm
2. 1195 m = ______km ______ m
3. 15 cm 10 mm = ______ mm
4. 45 km 33 m = ______ m.
5. The metric system of unit is developed in the year ______ by French.

Answer:

1. -78 m, 75 cm
2. -1 km, 195 m
3. -160 mm
4. -45033 m
5. -1790

IV. Matching

Question 1.

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – b
4. – a

Question 2.

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – b
4. – a

V. Write the following unit in ascending order.

Question 1.
Ton – gram – kilogram – Metric ton
Answer:
Gram – kilogram – ton – metric ton.

VI. Very Short Answer (2 marks)

Question 1.
What is the length?
Answer:
The distance between one end and the other desired end is called length.

Question 2.
Differentiate mass from weight:
Answer:
Mass :
Mass is the measure of the amount of matter in an object.
Unit – kilogram

Weight :
Weight is the gravitational pull experienced by the mass.
Unit – Newton.

Question 3.
List the SI units of length, mass, and time.
Solution:

1. Length is measured by metre (m)
2. Mass is measured by the kilogram (kg)
3. Time is measured by second (s).

Question 4.
What is the basic quantity of physics?
Answer:

1. Length
2. Mass
3. Time.

Question 5.
Differentiate of Mass and Weight.
Answer:
Mass:

• Amount of matter in an object
• The measuring instrument is Beam balance

Weight:

• Gravitational pull experienced by the mass
• The measuring instrument is an electronic balance

Question 6.
What is the clock used to measure the time accurately?
Answer:

1. Electronic clock
2. Stop clock

Question 7.
Hold a sheet paper in one hand and a book in one hand. Which hand feels heavy? Why?
Solution:
The hand, which holds the book, will feel heavy. The mass of the book is more than that of a single sheet of paper. Therefore, the pull on the book is more than that of the paper. Hence our hand has to give more force to hold a book than a paper.

VII. Give detailed answers: (5 marks)

Question 1.
What are the features that we must give importance in measuring?
Answer:
The object should match with the ‘o’ of the scale.
The object should be in parallel with the scale.
Always start from ‘O’.
Measure the bigger division (m) first and then measure the smaller (mm) division. When we measure the bigger division it should be measured initially and then mark a point and then measure the smaller division (eg) if the length of the pencil is 6 cm 2 mm and then it is 6.2 cm.

Question 2.
How will you measure the weight of the object with irregular shapes?
Answer:
Fill a graduated measuring cylinder with 50 ml of water.
Tie the stone with a piece of fine thread and immerse the stone completely in the water. As the stone is immersed the water level will increase. And show 75 ml of rising. The stone displaces water and hence the rise. The amount of water displaced will be the volume of the stone.