Prasanna

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 3 Geography Chapter 1 Asia and Europe Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Asia and Europe

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Asia and Europe Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer

Question 1.
Which is not the Western margin of Asia?
(a) Black Sea
(b) Mediterranean Sea
(c) Red Sea
(d) Arabian Sea
Answer:
(d) Arabian Sea

Question 2.
The Intermontane …………… plateau is found between Elbruz and Zagros.
(a) Tibet
(b) Iran
(c) Deccan
(d) The Yunnan
Answer:
(b) Iran

Question 3.
Equatorial climate:
(i) Uniform throughout the year.
(ii) The average / mean rainfall is 200 mm.
(iii) The average temperature is 10°C.
(iv) Of the statements give above.
(a) i alone is correct
(b) ii and iii are correct
(c) i and iii are correct
(d) i and ii are correct
Answer:
(a) i alone is correct

Question 4.
Match list I correctly with list II and select your answer from the codes given below.

Codes:
(a) 2, 3, 4, 1
(b) 4, 3 , 2, 1
(c) 4, 3, 1, 2
(d) 2, 3, 1, 4
Answer:
(a) 2, 3, 4, 1

Question 5.
India is the leading producer of ______
(a) Zinc
(b) Mica
(c) Manganese
(d) Coal
Answer:
(b) Mica

Question 6.
The natural boundary between Spain and France is ……………
(a) The Alps
(b) The Pyrenees
(c) The Carpathian
(d) The Caucasus
Answer:
(b) The Pyrenees

Question 7.
The western and north-western Europe enjoys mild and humid climate.
Choose the correct option:
(a) These regions are found near the equator
(b) It is influenced by the North Atlantic Drift
(c) It is surrounded by mountains
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) It is influenced by the North Atlantic Drift

Question 8.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Europe produces electricity from hydel power.
(b) All the rivers of Europe originate in the Alps.
(c) Most of the rivers in Europe are used for inland navigation.
(d) The fivers of Europe are perennial in nature.
Answer:
(b) All the rivers of Europe originate in the Alps.

Question 9.
Choose the incorrect pair.
(a) The Meseta – Spain
(b) The Jura – France
(c) The Pennine – Italy
(d) The Black Forest – Germany
Answer:
(c) The Pennines – Italy

Question 10.
Which country in Europe has a very low density of population?
(a) Iceland
(b) The Netherlands
(c) Poland
(d) Switzerland
Answer:
(a) Iceland

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The Taurus and the Pontine ranges radiate from the …………….
2. The wettest place in the world is …………….
3. Iran is the largest producer of ……………. in the world.
4. Europe connected with south and south east Asia by …………….
5. The national dance of Philippines is …………….
6. The second highest peak in Europe is …………….
7. The type of climate that prevails in the central and eastern parts of Europe is …………….
8. The important fishing ground in North Sea is ……………..
9. The density of population in Europe is ……………..
10. The river ……………. passes through nine countries of Europe.

Answer:

1. Armenian
2. Mawsynram
3. dates
4. the Suez canal
5. Tinikling
6. the Mont Blanc
7. Continental type
8. Dogger Bank
9. 34 persons/Km²
10. Danube

III. Match the following

Answer:
1. – d
2. – a
3. – e
4. – b
5. – c

IV. Let us learn

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Italy has dry summers and rainy winters
Reason (R) : It is located in the Mediterranean region
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Answer:
(d) A is false, but R is true

Question 2.
Places marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the given map are noted for the following plains.
(a) Indo – Gangetic plain
(b) Manchurian plain
(c) Mesopotamian
(d) Great plains of China
Match the plains with the notation on the map and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes:

Answer:
b) 2 1 3 4

Question 3.
In the given outline map of Asia, the shaded areas indicate the cultivation of ……………..

(a) Sugarcane
(b) Dates
(c) Rubber
(d) Jute
Answer:
(b) Dates

V. Answer in Brief

Question 1.
Name the important intermontane plateaus found in Asia.
Answer:
The plateau of Anatolia, The plateau of Iran, and the plateau of Tibet are the important intermontane plateaus found in Asia.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the monsoon climate.
Answer:

1. The south, southeast and eastern parts of Asia are strongly influenced by monsoon winds.
2. Summer is hot and humid while winter is cool and dry.
3. The summer monsoon winds bring heavy rainfall to India, Bangladesh, Indo-China, Philippines and Southern China.

Question 3.
How does physiography play a vital role in determining the population of Asia?
Answer:

1. In Asia, the population is unevenly distributed because of various physical features.
2. China and India alone cover three-fifth of Asia’s population.
3. River plains and industrial regions have a high density of population, whereas low density is found in the interior parts of Asia.

Question 4.
Name the ports found is Asia.
Answer:
Tokyo, Shanghai, Singapore, Hong Kong, Chennai, Mumbai, Karachi and Dubai are the important seaports in Asia.

Question 5.
Asia is called the ‘Land of Contrasts – Justify.
Answer:
The biggest continent Asia is called “the land of contrasts”.
Because:

1. Asia is the biggest continent has different types of land features such as mountain, plateau, plain, valley, bay, island etc.
2. It has different climatic conditions from the equator to polar region.
3. Apart from this many races, languages, religions and cultures are followed by people who live in Asia. Therefore, Asia is called ‘the land of contrasts’.

Question 6.
Name the important mountains found in the Alpine system.
Answer:
The important mountain ranges in the Alpine system are the Sierra Nevada, the Pyrenees, the Alps, the Apennines, the Dinaric Alps, the Caucasus and the Carpathian.

Question 7.
What are the important rivers of Europe?
Answer:
The important rivers of Europe are Volga, Danube, Dnieper, Rhine, Rhone, Po, and Thames.

Question 8.
Name a few countries which enjoy the Mediterranean type of climate.
Answer:
The Mediterranean and sub-mediterranean climate regions in Europe are found in much of southern Europe, mainly in southern Portugal, most of Spain, the southern coast of France, Italy, the Croatian Coast, much of Bosnia, Montenegro, Kosovo, Serbia, Albania, Macedonia, Greece and the Mediterranean Islands.

Question 9.
Give a short note on the population of Europe.
Answer:

1. Europe is the third-most populous continent, after Asia and Africa. The population density in Europe is.34 persons / km2.
2. High population density is often associated with the coalfields of Europe.
3. Other populous areas are sustained by mining, manufacturing, commerce, offering large market, labour forces and productive agriculture.
4. Monaco, Malta, San Marino, and the Netherlands are the most densely populated countries; Iceland and Norway have a very low density of population.

Question 10.
Name the important festivals celebrated in Europe.
Answer:

1. The Europeans celebrate both religious and holiday festivals.
2. Christmas, Easter, Good Friday, the Saint Day, Redentore, Tomatina and Carnival are the important festivals of Europe.

VI. Distinguish

Question 1.
Intermontane plateaus and southern plateaus.
Answer:
Intermontane plateaus:

1. Intermontane plateaus are found in the mountain ranges.
2. Eg, The plateau of Anatolia, The plateau of Iran, and the plateau of Tibet

Southern plateaus:

1. The southern plateaus are relatively lower than the northern plateaus.
2. Eg. Arabian Plateau, Deccan Plateau, Shan Plateau, and the Yunnan Plateau.

Question 2.
Cold desert and hot desert.
Answer:
Cold desert:

1. A barren or desolate area especially sandy region of little rainfall, featuring cold dry winter.
2. Cold deserts are found in the antarctic, Green land, Western China, Turkartan the Gopi crodi desert in Mongolia.

Hot desert:

1. A barren or desolate area often the sandy region of little rainfall.
2. The largest hot desert is the Sahara desert.

Question 3.
Tundra and Taiga.
Answer:

Thunder:

1. The Arctic and northern Scandinavian highland have Tundra type of vegetation.
2. The winters are very long and severe summers are very short and warm.
3. It is the land with few animals like polar bear, reindeer and walrus
4. No trees. Lowest form of vegetation like Mosses and Lichen only available.

Taiga:

1. They are found in the south of the Tundra region in Norway, Sweden, Finland, Germany, Poland and Austria.
2. The winters are long and cold. Summers are short and warm.
3. It is the land of fur bearing animals. Eg. Mink, silver fox, squirrel etc.
4. Pine, fir, spruce and larch are the important tree varieties.

Question 4.
The North-Western highlands and Alpine mountain range
Answer:
The North-Western Highlands:

1. This region includes the mountains and plateaus of Norway, Sweden, Finland, Scotland, and Iceland.
2. This region has a fjord coast. It was created by glaciations.
3. A lot of lakes here serve as reservoirs for producing hydroelectricity.

The Alpine mountain range:

1. The Alpine mountain system consists of a chain of young fold mountains found in the southern part of Europe.
2. The Sierra Nevada, the Pyrenees, the Alps, the Apennines, the Dinaric Alps, the Caucasus and the
3. Carpathian is the important mountain ranges.
4. The Pyrenees is a natural boundary between Spain and France.

VII. Give Reasons

Question 1.
Asia is the leading producer of rice.
Answer:
Because:

1. In Asia, India has the largest area of arable lands.
2. Agriculture is intensively practiced in the riverine plains of Asia
3. China and India are the leading producers of rice in the world.

Question 2.
Asia is the largest and most populous continent in the world.
Answer:
Because:

1. Most of the land of Asia in the northern hemisphere has different physical and cultural features.
2. Lofty mountains, plateaus, plains, islands and peninsulas are the major physiographic features.
3. Many perennial rivers flow through different parts. These river valleys are the cradles of ancient civilizations.
4. River plains and industrial regions have high density of population. Population density 143 persons/Km².
5. Asia covers about 30 percent of the world’s population.

Question 3.
Although Western Europe is located in the high latitudes, it has a moderate climate.
Answer:
Because:

1. The western part has a mild, generally humid climate, influenced by the North Atlantic Drift.
2. North Atlantic Drift is a Warm ocean current which brings warmth to the Western Europe.

VIII. Answer in Paragraph

Question 1.
Give an account of the drainage system in Asia.
Answer:

1. The rivers of Asia originate mostly from the central highlands.
2. The Ob, Yenise and Lena are the major rivers flow towards the north and drain into the Arctic Ocean. They remain frozen during winter.
3. Many perennial rivers like Brahmaputra, Indus, Ganga and Irrawaddy originate from the high mountains.
4. They do not freeze during winter.
5. The Euphrates and Tigris flow in west Asia.
6. The Amur, Huang He, Yangtze and Mekong flow in the south and southeastern parts. The Yangtze is the longest river in Asia.

Question 2.
Describe the mineral sources found in Asia.
Answer:

1. Asia has a variety of mineral deposits like Iron, Coal, Manganese, Bauxite, Zinc, Tungsten, Petroleum, Tin etc. Oil and Natural Gas found in the west Asian countries.
2. Iron Ore: Asia has the largest deposits of iron ore in the world. China and India are the important iron ore deposit countries of Asia.
3. Coal: Coal is a fossil fuel. China and India are the largest producers of coal in Asia.
4. Petroleum: Petroleum is a mineral oil. The largest petroleum reserves are found in South West Asia. The important petroleum-producing countries are Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, Iran, Bahrain, Qatar and UAE.
5. Bauxite is found in India and Indonesia.
6. Mica: India is the largest producer in the world.
7. Tin is found in Myanmar, Thailand, Malaysia, and Indonesia.

Question 3.
What are fjords? How do they protect harbours from bad weather conditions?
Answer:

1. A fjord is a narrow and deep-sea inlet between steep clifts.
2. Fjords reduce the speed of wind irrespective of their direction.
3. The force of sea waves is also controlled.
4. Fjord coast was created by glaciations in the past.
5. Areas with fjords are best suited for natural harbours. Example : Norway.

Question 4.
Describe the climatic divisions of Europe.
Answer:

1. The climate of Europe varies from the subtropical to the polar climate.
2. The Mediterranean climate of the south has warm summer and rainy winter.
3. The western and northwestern parts have a mild, generally humid climate, influenced by the North Atlantic Drift.
4. In central and eastern Europe, the climate is humid continental-type.
5. In the northeast, subarctic and tundra climates are found.
6. The whole of Europe is subject to the moderating influence of prevailing westerly winds from the Atlantic Ocean.
7. North Atlantic Drift is a warm ocean current which brings warmth to Western Europe.
8. The westerly wind further transports warmth across Europe.

X. Activity

Question 1.
Complete the following
I belong to ………… district. My district is famous for the following : …………, ………… and ………… . The boundaries of my districts are in the north, in the east, in the south and in the west. It spreads for an area of km². There are ………… taluks and ………… villages in my district. …………, …………, ………… are the important mountain / plain / plateaus (If all, mention all features). The rivers …………, ………… ………… criss – cross my district. …………, …………, ………… are common trees and wildlife such as, are found here. …………, …………, ………… are important minerals available in my district. Based on this …………, ………… industries are located here. The major crops are …………, …………, ………… . (Coastal districts may write the variety of fish). The total population is …………. We celebrate …………, …………, ………… festivals.
Answer:
Tirunelveli, Nellaiyappar Temple, Courttalam, Halwa, Virudhunagar, Tuticorin, Kanyakumari, Western Ghats, 6823sq.kms, 16 taluks, 559 Villages, Thamirabarani, Chittar, Manimuthar, Palm, Neem, Cocount, Monkeys, Tigers, Elephants, Bluemetal, Lime stone, Thorium, Cement, Ginning, Vessels, Paddy, Cotton, Sugarcane, 33, 22, 644, Pongal, Deepavali, Christmas.

Question 2.
If you get a chance to settle in Europe, which country would you choose? List out the reasons why?

Question 3.
Choose any region is Asia. In the map of Asia, mark its distribution of natural vegetation and wildlife. Paste related pictures.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Asia and Europe Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
……………. separates Asia from Africa
(a) Suez Canal
(b) Bering Strait
(c) Mediterranean Sea
(d) Palk Striat
Answer:
(a) Suez Canal

Question 2.
Shan plateau is located in ______
(a) Saudi Arabia
(b) Myanmar
(c) India
(d) China

Question 3.
The South Asian rivers
(i) remain frozen during winter
(ii) flow towards the north
(iii) are perennial
Of the statements given above
(a) i alone is correct
(b) iii alone is correct
(c) All the three are correct
(d) All the three are wrong
Answer:
(b) iii alone is correct

Question 4.
Find out the wrong pair.
(a) Coal – China
(b) Iron ore – India
(c) Bauxite – Iran
(d) Tin – Myanmar
Answer:
(c) Bauxite – Iran

Question 5.
River yangtze flows in ……………
(a) Inida
(b) Japan
(c) Myanmar
(d) China
Answer:
(d) China

Question 6.
The light house of the Mediterranean is ______
(a) Mt. Stromboli
(b) Mt. Etana
(c) Mt. Vesuvius
(d) None of the above

Question 7.
Choose the incorrect pair:
(a) Siberian Plain – Ob, Yenisey
(b) Manchurian Plain – Amur
(c) Greet plain of China – Yangtze, Sikiang
(d) Mesopotamian Plain – Irrawaddy
Answer:
(d) Mesopotamian Plain – Irrawaddy

II. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – e
3. – d
4. – b
5. – a

III. True/False

1. There are two knots found in Asia.
2. Ob, Yensie, Lena remain frozen during winter
3. Teak, Sandal wood are coniferous trees
4. The fjord region has a lot of lakes
5. Wheat is the dominant crop throughout Europe.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. True

IV. Answer in Brief

Question 1.
What are the cradles of ancient civilization? Why?
Answer:

1. The river valleys are the cradles of civilizations.
2. Because the ancient civilizations Indus valley, Mesopotamian and Chinese civilizations were born in Asian river valleys.

Question 2.
Mention the Physical divisions of Asia.
Answer:
The physical divisions of Asia are

1. The Northern lowlands
2. The Central High Mountains
3. The Southern Plateaus
4. The Great Plains and
5. The Island Groups.

Question 3.
What are the rare species found in Asia?
Answer:

1. Orang – Utan
2. Komodo Dragon
3. Giant Panda

Question 4.
Mention the Great Plains of Asia.
Answer:
The great plains of Asia are

1. West Siberian plain (Ob and Yenisey)
2. Manchurian Plain (Amur)
3. Great Plain of China (Yangtze and Sikiang)
4. Indo-Gangetic Plain (Indus and Ganga)
5. Mesopotamian plain (Tigris and Euphrates) and
6. The Irrawaddy plain (Irrawaddy)

Question 5.
Name the countries where fishing is a large industry.
Answer:

1. Norway
2. Iceland
3. Russia
4. Denmark
5. The United Kingdom
6. The Netherlands

V. Give Reasons

Question 1.
Europe is a modern and economically developed continent.
Answer:
Avilability of sources, efficient educated work force, research, contact with other nations and innovations are the factors that transformed like this.

Question 2.
Varied patterns of agricultural activities are in use in Europe.
Answer:

1. Europe is an industrially developed continent. It has great diversity in its topography, climate and soil.
2. These interact to produce varied patterns of agriculture activities.

[The varied patterns of agriculture activities in use: Mediterranean agriculture, Dairy farming, mixed livestock, crop farming, horticulture]

Question 3.
There is no winter in the equatorial region.
Answer:
The areas found in and around the equator of Asia have uniform climate throughout the year. There is no winter. Average temperature 27°c. The mean rainfall 1270 mm.

VI. Answer in Paragraph

Question 1.
Describe Industries in Europe.
Answer:

1. Large scale Industries : Steel and Iron are, Ship building, Motor vehicle, Aircraft construction, Pharmaceutical drugs.
2. Small scale Industries that produce nondurable goods are found throughout Europe.
3. Some countries have a reputation for speciality goods.
   • Bicycles – English, Italian and Dutch
   • Glass – Swedish and Finnish
   • Perfumes and fashion goods – Parisian
   • Precision instruments – Swiss

VII. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 3 Civics Chapter 1 Democracy Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Democracy

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Democracy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The early man settled near ……………….. and practiced agriculture.
(a) plains
(b) bank of rivers
(c) mountains
(d) hills
Answer:
(b) bank of rivers

Question 2.
The birth place of democracy is ________
(a) China
(b) America
(c) Greece
(d) Rome
Answer:
(c) Greece

Question 3.
……………….. is celebrated as the International Democracy Day.
(a) September 15
(b) October 15
(c) November 15
(d) December 15
Answer:
(a) September 15

Question 4.
Who has the right to work in a direct Democracy?
(a) Men
(b) Women
(c) Representatives
(d) All eligible voters
Answer:
(d) All eligible voters

II. Fill in the blanks 

1. Direct Democracy is practiced in ………………
2. The definition of democracy is defined by ………………
3. People choose their representatives by giving their ………………
4. In our country ……………… democracy is in practice.

Answer:

1. Switzerland
2. Abraham Lincoln
3. Votes
4. Parliamentary

III. Answer the following

Question 1.
What is Democracy?
Answer:

1. The citizens of a country select their representatives through elections.
2. Thus they take part in the direct governance of a country. This is termed democracy.

Question 2.
What are the types of democracy?
Answer:

1. There are various types of democracy in practice around the world.
2. Among those, direct democracy and representative democracy are the most popular forms of government.

Question 3.
Define: Direct Democracy
Answer:

1. In a direct democracy, only the citizens can make laws.
2. All changes have to be approved by the citizens.
3. The politicians only rule over parliamentary procedure. Eg. Switzerland.

Question 4.
Define Representative Democracy.
Answer:

1. In a representative democracy, all the members should be represented by a group of representatives.
2. To select their representative’s elections are held.
3. On behalf of people, these representatives obtain the power to take decisions in a democratic manner.
4. This is termed Representative Democracy.

Question 5.
What are the salient features of our constitution that you have understood?
Answer:

1. The Constitution of India guides the Indians in all aspects and maintains law and order.
2. It ensures freedom, equality and justice to everyone.
3. It defines the political principles, the structure of government, the powers and responsibilities.
4. It fixes the Rights and Duties and Directive Principles of the Citizens.
5. It is the longest written constitution in the world.

IV. HOTS

Question 1.
Compare and contrast direct democracy and representative democracy.
Answer:

V. Activity

Question 1.
Find out your area’s representative’s names and write down

1. MP
2. MLA
3. Local body member

Answer:

1. MP – KRPPrabakara
2. MLA – TPM Mohideenkhan
3. Local body member – A. Radhakrishnan

Question 2.
Discuss about the merits and demerits of democracy.
Answer:
The merits of democracy are :

1. A democratic government is better form of government because it is more accountable form of government.
2. Democracy improves the quality of decision making,
3. Democracy enhances the dignity of citizens.
4. Poor and least educated has the same status as the rich and educated.
5. Democracy allows us to correct own mistake.

Demerits:

1. Leaders keep on changing leading to instability.
2. Democracy in all about political competition and power play and there is no scope for mortality.
3. So many people have to be consulted in a democracy that it lead to delays.
4. Democracy leads to corruption for it is based on electoral competition.
5. Ordinary people do not know what is good for them, they should not decide anything

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Democracy Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks Answer

1. The UNO General Assembly resolved to observe 15th September as the International Day of Democracy in ………………
2. ……………… constitution is the longest written constitution in the world.
3. The Drafting committee of the Constituent Assembly was headed by ………………
4. In India, all the people above ……………… years of age enjoy universal Adult Franchise.
5. The oldest and longest functioning parliament in the world is ………………

Answer:

1. 2007
2. Indian
3. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
4. 18
5. The Iceland Democracy

II. Choose the Correct answer

Question 1.
The Chief Architect of our constitution is ………………
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
Answer:
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 2.
USA follows ______
(a) Direct democracy
(b) Representative democracy
(c) Monarchy
(d) Dictatorship
Answer:
(b) Representative democracy

Question 3.
Presidential Democracy is practised in ………………
(a) USA
(b) Canada
(c) (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) (a) and (b)

Question 4.
Presidential democracy is followed in
(a) USA
(b) India
(c) England
(d) Switzerland
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 5.
The Constitution of India guarantees ……………… fundamental rights to its citizens.
(a) 6
(b) 9
(c) 8
Answer:
(a) 6

III. Match the following

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – b
4. – e
5. – a

IV. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
What is a Government
Answer:
A group of people with the authority to govern a country is called government.

Question 2.
How did Abraham Lincoln define democracy?
Answer:
Abraham Lincoln defined democracy as “Government of the people, by the people, and for the people”

Question 3.
What is meant by democratic decision making?
Answer:

1. In the system of democracy, the power to take decisions does not lie with the head.
2. All the members of the group hold open discussions and take final decisions only when everyone is convinced.
3. This is called democratic way of decision making.

IV. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
What are the Aims of Democracy?
Answer:

1. To preserve and promote the dignity and fundamental rights of the individual
2. To achieve Social justice and Social development of the Community.
3. To establish the rule of law.
4. To enable the People to choose their government.
5. To work towards the development of the country with the help of People’s Participation.

V. Mind map

 

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 3 Geography Chapter 3 Understanding Disaster Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Understanding Disaster

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Understanding Disaster Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
……………… was the founder of Gupta dynasty.
(a) Chandragupta I
(b) Sri Gupta
(c) Vishnu Gopa
(d) Vishnugupta
Answer:
(b) Sri Gupta

Question 2.
Prayog prashasti was composed by ………………
(a) Kalidasa
(b) Amarasimha
(c) Harisena
(d) Dhanvantri
Answer:
(c) Harisena

Question 3.
The monolithic iron pillar of Chandragupta is at ………………
(a) Mehrauli
(b) Bhitari
(c) Gadhva
(d) Mathura
Answer:
(a) Mehrauli

Question 4.
……………… was the first Indian to explain the process of surgery.
(a) Charaka
(b) Sushruta
(c) Dhanvantri
(d) Agnivasa
Answer:
(b) Sushruta

Question 5.
……………… was the Gauda ruler of Bengal.
(a) Sasanka
(b) Maitraka
(c) Rajavardhana
(d) Pulikesin II
Answer:
(a) Sasanka

II. Match the statement with the reason and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Chandragupta I crowned himself as a monarch of a large kingdom after eliminating various small states in Northern India.
Reason (R) : Chandragupta I married Kumaradevi of Lichchavi family.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I : Chandragupta II did not have cordial relationship with the rules of South India.
Statement II : The divine theory of kingship was practised by the Gupta rulers.
(a) Statement I is wrong but statement II is correct.
(b) Statement II is wrong but statement I is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement I is wrong but statement II is correct.

Question 3.
Which of the following is arranged in chronological order?
(a) Srigupta – Chandragupta I – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya
(b) Chandragupta I – Vikramaditya – Srigupta – Samudragupta
(c) Srigupta – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya – Chandragupta I
(d) Vikramaditya – Srigupta – Samudragupta – Chandragupta I
Answer:
(a) Srigupta – Chandragupta I – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya

Question 4.
Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statements (s) is/are correct.
(1) Lending money at high rate of interest was practised.
(2) Pottery and mining were the most flourishing industries,
(a) 1. is correct
(b) 2. is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Both 1 and 2 are wrong
Answer:
(a) 1. is correct

Question 5.
Circle the odd one
(1)
Answer:
Samudragupta

(2)
Answer:
Harshacharita

III. Fill in the blanks Answer

1. …………….., the king of Ceylon, was a contemporary of Samudragupta
2. Buddhist monk from China …………….., visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II.
3. …………….. invasion led to the downfall of Gupta Empire.
4. …………….. was the main revenue to the Government.
5. The official language of the Guptas was ……………..
6. …………….., the Pallava king was defeated by Samudragupta.
7. …………….. was the popular king of Vardhana dynasty.
8. Harsha shifted his capital from …………….. to Kanauj.

Answer:

1. reign of
2. Fahien
3. Huns
4. Land tax
5. Sanskrit
6. Vishnugopa
7. Harsha Vardhana
8. Thaneswar

IV. State whether True of False

1. Dhanvantri was a famous scholar in the field of medicine.
2. The structural temples built during the Gupta period resemble the Indo – Aryan style.
3. Sati was not in practice in the Gupta Empire.
4. Harsha belonged to Hinayana school of thought
5. Harsha was noted for his religious intolerance.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. False
5. False

V. Match the following

A.

Answer:
b) 2,4,1,3,5

B.

Answer:
c) 3, 5,1, 2,4

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Who was given the title Kaviraja? Why?
Answer:

1. Samudragupta was given the title Kaviraja.
2. Because he was a lover of poetry and music.

Question 2.
What are the two types of disasters? Give examples.
Answer:

1. Disaster can be classified as natural and man-made disaster.
2. Natural disaster: Earthquakes, Volcanoes, Tsunami, Cyclones, Floods, Landslides, Avalanches, Thunder and lightning.
3. Man made disaster: Fire, Destruction of building, Accidents in industries, Accident in transport, Terrorism, Stampede.

Question 3.
Explain the Divine Theory of Kingship.
Answer:

1. The Divine Theory of Kingship was practised by the Gupta rulers.
2. The king is the representative of God on earth. He is answerable only to God and not to anyone else.

Question 4.
Chennai, Cuddalore and Cauvery delta are frequently affected by floods. Give reason.
Answer:

1. In our State, Northeast Monsoon season starts from October. It will continue till December.
2. Every year, during this Northeast Monsoon season, low pressure depressions are formed in the Bay of Bengal.
3. The low pressure depressions are then transformed into cyclones and hit the coastal districts.
4. Heavy rain follows the depressions and cyclones.
5. Hence, Chennai, Cuddalore and Cauvery delta are often affected by floods

Question 5.
Who were the Huns?
Answer:

1. Huns were the nomadic tribes.
2. They were terrorising Rome and Constantinople.
3. The white Huns came to India through Central Asia.
4. They were giving trouble to all Indian frontier states.

Question 6.
Differentiate Landslide – Avalanches.
Answer:

Landslide

1. The movement of a mass of rocks, debris, soil etc., down slope is called landslide.

Avalanches

1. A large amount of ice, snow and rock falling quickly down the side of a mountain is called an Avalanches.

Question 7.
Name the books authored by Harsha.
Answer:

1. Ratnavali
2. Nagananda
3. Priyadharshika

VII. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Write a note on Prashasti.
Answer:

1. Prashasti is a Sanskrit word, meaning communication or in praise of.
2. Court poets flattered their kings listing out their achievements.
3. These accounts were later engraved on pillars so that the people could read them.

Question 2.
Give an account of Samudragupta’s military conquests.
Answer:

1. Samudragupta was a great general and he carried on a vigorous campaign all over the country.
2. He defeated the Pallava king Vishnugopa.
3. He conquered nine kingdoms in northern India.
4. He reduced 12 rulers of southern India to the status of feudatories and to pay tribute.
5. He received homage from the rulers of East Bengal, Assam, Nepal, the eastern part of Punjab and various tribes of Rajasthan.

Question 3.
Describe the land classification during the Gupta period.
Answer:
Classification of land during Gupta period.

1. Kshetra – Cultivable land
2. Khila – Wasteland
3. Aprahata – Jungle (or) Forest land
4. Vasti – Habitable land
5. Gapata saraha – Pastoral land

Question 4.
Write about Sresti and Sarthavaha traders.
Answer:
Sresti:
Sresti traders were usually settled at a standard place.

Sarthavaha:
Sarthavaha traders caravan traders who carried their goods to different places.

Question 5.
Highlight the contribution of Guptas to architecture.
Answer:

1. From the earlier tradition of rock-out shrines, the Guptas were the first to contruct temples.
2. These temples, adorned with towers and elaborate carvings, were dedicated ‘ to all Hindu deities.
3. The most notable rock – cut caves are found at Ajanta and Ellora, Bagh and Udaygiri.
4. The structural temples built during this period resemble the Dravidian style.

Question 6.
Name the works of Kalidasa.
Answer:

1. Kalidasa’s famous dramas were Sakunthala, Malavikagnimitra and Vikramaoorvashiyam.
2. Other sigrificant works were Meghaduta, Raghuvamsa, Kumarasambava and Ritusamhara

Question 7.
Estimate Harshvardhana as a poet and a dramatist.
Answer:

1. Harsha himself was a poet and dramatist.
2. Around him gathered a best of poets and artists.
3. His popular works are Ratnavali, Nagananda and Priyadharshika
4. His royal court was adorned by Banabhatta, Mayura, Hardatta and Jayasena.

VIII. HOTS

Question 1.
The gold coins issued by Gupta kings indicate.
Answer:
(a) the availability of gold mines in the kingdom
(b) the ability of the people to work with gold
(c) the prosperity of the kingdom
(d) the extravagant nature of kings.
Answer:
(c) the prosperity of the kingdom

Question 2.
The famous ancient paintings at Ajanta were painted on.
(a) walls of caves
(b) ceilings of temples
(c) rocks
(d) papyrus
Answer:
(a) walls of caves

Question 3.
Gupta period is remembered for.
(a) renaissance in literature and art
(b) expeditions to southern India
(c) invasion of Huns
(d) religious tolerance
Answer:
(a) renaissance in literature and art

Question 4.
What did Indian scientists achieve in astronomy and mathematics during the Gupta period?
Answer:

1. Invention of Zero and the cosequent evolution of the decimal system to the modern world.
2. Aryabhatta explained the true causes of solar and lunar eclipses. He was the, first Indian astronomer to declare that the earth revolves around its own axis.

IX. Student activity (For Students)

1. Stage any one of the dramas of Kalidasa in the classroom.
2. Compare and contrast the society of Guptas with that of Mauryas.

X. Life Skills (For Students)

1. Collect information about the contribution of Aryabhatta, Varahamihira and Brahmagupta to astronomy.
2. Visit a nearby ISRO centre to know more about satellite launching.

XI. Answer Grid

Question 1.
Who was Toromana?
Answer:
Answer:
Toromana was the chief of white Huns.

Question 2.
Name the high ranking officials of Gupta Empire.
Answer:
Dandanayakas and Maha dandanayakas

Question 3.
Name the Gupta kings who performed AsVamedha yagna.
Answer:
Samudragupta and Kumaragupta I

Question 4.
Name the book which explained the causes for the lunar and solar eclipses.
Answer:
Surya Siddhanta

Question 5.
Name the first Gupta king to find a place on coins.
Answer:
Samudragupta

Question 6.
Which was the main source of information to know about the Samudragupta’s reign?
Answer:
Allahabad Pillar

Question 7.
Harsha was the worshipper of in the beginning.
Answer:
Shiva

Question 8.
Universitv reached its fame during Harsha period.
Answer:
The Nalanda

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Understanding Disaster Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The successor of Sri Gupta …………….
(a) Kumaragupta I
(b) Skandagupta
(c) Vishnugupta
(d) Ghatotkacha
Answer:
(d) Ghatotkacha

Question 2.
‘Nitisara’ emphasises the importance of …………….
(a) Trade
(b) Military
(c) Agriculture
(d) Treasury
Answer:
(d) Treasury

Question 3.
The Huhs chief who crowned himself as king.
(a) Yasodharman
(b) Attila
(c) Mihirakula
(d) Toromana
Answer:
(d) Toromana

Question 4.
The Gupta coins were known as Dinara …………….
(a) Copper
(b) Silver
(c) Bronze
(d) Gold
Answer:

Question 5.
The place Harsha went to participate in the great Kumbhamela held.
(a) Allahabad
(b) Kasi
(c) Ayodhya
(d) Prayag
Answer:
(d) Prayag

II. Match the statement with the reason and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : The last of the great Guptas Narasimha Gupta I was paying tribute to Mihirakula.
Reason (R) : He stopped paying tribute as Mihirakula’s hostility towards Buddhism.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explantion of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
(d) A is not correct but R is correct
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is no correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I : Criminal law was not more severe than that of the Gupta age.
Statement II : Death punishment was the punishment for violation of the laws and for plotting against the king.
(a) Statement I is wrong but statement II is correct
(b) Statement II is wrong but statement I is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(d) Both the statements are wrong

III. Fill in the blanks

1. In the assembly at ……………. Harsha distributed his weath.
2. The capital of China ……………. was a great centre of art and learning.
3. ……………. was wife of chandragupta I.
4. The military campaigns of kings were financed through revenue.
5. The peasants were required to pay various taxes and were reduced to the position of ……………..

Answer:

1. Prayag
2. Xi’an
3. Kumaradevi
4. surpluses revenue
5. serfs

IV. Match the following

Answer:
b) 4, 5, 2,1, 3

V. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Write a note on ‘Lichchhavi’.
Answer:

1. Lichchhavi was an old gana – Sanga and its territory lay between the Ganges and the Nepal Terai.
2. Chandragupta I married Kumaradevi of the famous and powerful lichchhavi family.

Question 2.
What do you know about ‘Kaviraja’?
Answer:

1. In one of the gold coins issued by Samudragupta he is portrayed playing harp (Veena).
2. He was a lover of poetry and music and for this, he earned the title ‘Kaviraja’.

Question 3.
What did the travel accounts of Fahien provide information about the condi¬tions of the people of Magadha?
Answer:

1. According to Fahien the people of Magadha were happy and prosperous.
2. Gaya was desolated. Kapilvasthu had become a jungle, but at Pataliputra people were rich and prosperous.

VII. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Name the officials employed by the Gupta rulers.
Answer:

1. High – ranking officials were called dandanayakas and mahadandnayakas.
2. The provinces known as deshas or bhuktis were administered by the governors designated as Uparikas. The districts such as vishyas, were controlled by vishyapatis. At the village level gramika and gramadhyaksha were the functionaries.
3. The military designations.
   Baladhikrita (Commander of infantry)
   Mahabaladhikrita (Commander of cavalry)
   Dutakas (spies)

Question 2.
Mention the importance of Forecasting and Early warning.
Answer:
(i) Weather forecasting, Tsunami early warning system, cyclonic forecasting and warning provide necessary information. This information help in reducing risks during disasters.

(ii) School Disaster Management Committee, Village Disaster Management Committee, State and Central government institutions take mitigation measures, together during disaster.

(iii) Newspaper, Radio, Television and social media bring updated information and give alerts on the vulnerable area, risk preparatory measures and relief measures including medicine.

VIII. Mind map

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TN State Board 11th Physics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

PART – I

Answer all the questions: [15 × 1 = 15]

Question 1.
If the error in the measurement of radius is 2%, then the error in the determination of volume of the sphere will be ………………..
(a) 8%
(b) 2%
(c) 4%
(d) 6%
Hint:
Volume of the sphere, V = \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr³
\(\frac{∆V}{V}\) × 100 = 3 × (\(\frac{∆r}{r}\) × 100) = 3 × 2%
\(\frac{∆V}{V}\) × 100 = 6%
Answer:
(d) 6%

Question 2.
A ball is dropped from a building. It takes 4s to reach the ground. The height of the building is (use g= 10 m/s²)
(a) 20 m
(b) 40 m
(c) 80 m
(d) 75 m
Hint:
s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at² s = h, g = a, u = 0
h = \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt²
h = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10 × (4)²; h = 80m
Answer:
(c) 80 m

Question 3.
For inelastic collision between two spherical rigid bodies ……………………
(a) the total kinetic energy is conserved
(b) the total mechanical energy is not conserved
(c) the linear momentum is not conserved
(d) the linear momentum is conserved
Answer:
(d) the linear momentum is conserved

Question 4.
Two rods OA and OB of equal length and mass are lying on xy plane as shown in figure. Let I_x, I_y and I_z be the moments of inertia of the the rods about x, y and z axis respectively, then …………………….
(a) I_x = I_y > I_z
(b) I_x > I_y > I_z
(c) I_x = I_y < I_z
(d) I_z > I_y > I_x

Hint:
I_x = I_y = 2\(\left[\frac{\mathrm{M} l^{2}}{3} \sin ^{2} 45^{\circ}\right]\) = \(\frac { ml^{ 2 } }{ 3 }\)
I_z = \(\left[\frac{m l^{2}}{3}\right]\) = \(\frac { 2ml^{ 2 } }{ 3 }\)
Answer:
(c) I_x = I_y < I_z

Question 5.
The motion of a rocket is based on the principle of conservation of ………………….
(a) Linear momentum
(b) Mass
(c) Angular momentum
(d) Kinetic energy
Answer:
(a) Linear momentum

Question 6.
The work done by the Sun’s gravitational force on the Earth is ………………….
(a) Always zero
(b) Always positive
(c) Can be positive or negative
(d) Always negative
Answer:
(c) Can be positive or negative

Question 7.
A given glass tube having uniform cross section is filled with water and is mounted on a rotatable shaft as shown. If the tube is rotated with a constant angular velocity ω, then …………………
(a) Water levels in both sections A and B go up
(b) Water level in section A goes up and that in B comes down
(c) Water level in section B goes up and that in A comes down
(d) Water level remain same in both
Answer:
(a) Water levels in both sections A and B go up

Question 8.
The efficiency of a heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water is …………………..
(a) 6.25%
(b) 20%
(c) 26.8%
(d) 12.5%
Hint:
Freezing point of water T_L = 0°C = 273K
Boiling point of water T_H – 100°C = 373K
∴ Efficiency, η = 1 – \(\frac { T_{ L } }{ T_{ H } } \) = 1- \(\frac{273}{373}\) = 0.2861; η = 26.8%.
Answer:
(c) 26.8%

Question 9.
Two waves represented by the following equation are travelling in the same medium
y₁ = 5 sin 2π (75 t – 0.25 x), y₂ = 10 sin 2π (150 – 0.25 x)
The intensity ratio of the two waves is ………………….
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 4
(c) 1 : 8
(d) 1 : 16
Hint:
I ∝ A² ⇒ \(\frac { I_{ 1 } }{ I_{ 2 } }\) = (\(\frac { A_{ 1 } }{ A_{ 2 } }\))² = (\(\frac{5}{2}\))² = \(\frac{1}{4}\)
Answer:
(b) 1 : 4

Question 10.
A man pushes a wall and fails to displace it. He does …………………..
(a) Negative work
(b) Positive but not maximum work
(c) No work at all
(d) Maximum work
Answer:
(c) No work at all

Question 11.
A car moving on a horizontal road may be thrown out of the road in taking a turn …………………
(а) By the gravitational force
(b) Due to lack of sufficient centripetal force
(c) Due to rolling frictional force between tyre and road
(d) Due to the reaction of the ground
Answer:
(b) Due to lack of sufficient centripetal force

Question 12.
The volume of a gas expands by 0.25 m³ at a constant pressure of 10³ N/m, the workdone is equal to ……………………..
(a) 250 W
(b) 2.5 W
(c) 250 N
(d) 250 J
Hint:
Workdone = P. ∆V = 10³ × 0.25 = 250 J
Answer:
(d) 250 J

Question 13.
When three springs of spring constants k₁, k₂, k₃ connected in parallel, then the resultant spring constant is ……………………
(a) K = k₁ + k₂ + k₃
(b) \(\frac{1}{K}\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ k_{ 1 } } +\frac { 1 }{ k_{ 2 } } +\frac { 1 }{ k_{ 3 } } \)
(c) K = \(\frac { 1 }{ k_{ 1 } } +\frac { 1 }{ k_{ 2 } } +\frac { 1 }{ k_{ 3 } } \)
(d) K = k₁ – k₂ – k₃
Answer:
(a) K = k₁ + k₂ + k₃

Question 14.
The distance of the two planets from Sun are 10¹³ and 10¹² m respectively. The ratio of time period of the planets is …………………..
(a) 100
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{ \sqrt { 10 } } \)
(c) \(\sqrt{10}\)
(d) 10\(\sqrt{10}\)
Hint:
According to Kepler’s third law of planetary motion.
\(\frac { T_{ 1 } }{ T_{ 2 } } \) = \(\sqrt{\frac{R_{1}^{3}}{R_{2}^{3}}}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac{\left(10^{13}\right)^{3}}{\left(10^{12}\right)^{3}}}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac{10^{39}}{10^{36}}}\) = \(\sqrt{10^{3}}\) = 10\(\sqrt{10}\)
Answer:
(d) 10\(\sqrt{10}\)

Question 15.
The dimensional formula of planck’s constant is ………………..
(a) [M L² T^-1]
(b) [M L² T^-3]
(c) [M L T^-1]
(d) [M L³ T^-3]
Answer:
(a) [M L² T^-1]

PART – II

Answer any six questions in which Q. No 23 is compulsory. [6 × 2 = 12]

Question 16.
A particle is moving along a circular track of radius lm with uniform speed. What is the ratio of the distance covered and the displacement in half revolution?
Answer:
Distance covered by a particle = π × 1 = πm
Displacement covered by a particle = 2 × 1 = 2m
Ratio between distance and displacement

Question 17.
Give one argument in favour of the fact that frictional force is a non-conservative force?
Answer:
The direction of the frictional force is opposite to the direction of motion. When a body is moved, say from A to B and then back to A, work is required to be done both during forward and backward motion. So, the net workidone in a round trip is not zero. Hence, the frictional force is a non-conservative force.

Question Question 18.
Why does a gas not have a unique value of specific heat?
Answer:
This is because a gas can be heated under different conditions of pressure and volume. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass through unit degree is different under different conditions of heating.

Question 19.
A boat which has a speed of 5 km/h in still water crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest path in 15 min. Calculate the velocity of river water in km/h?
Answer:
Resultant velocity = \(\frac{1km}{(15/60)h}\) = 4 km/h
If v is velocity of river, then v² + 4² = 5² ⇒ v = \(\sqrt{2-16}\) =3 km/h

Question 20.
In a dark room would you be able to tell whether a given note had been produced by a Piano or a Violin?
Answer:
Yes, in a dark room we can easily identify a sound produced by a Piano or a Violin by using the knowledge of timber or quality of sound. The two sources even though having the same intensity and fundamental frequency will be associated with different number of overtones of different relative intensities. These overtones combine and produce different sounds which enables us to identify them.

Question 21.
What is mean by P – V diagram?
Answer:
PV diagram is a graph between pressure P and volume V of the system. The P-V diagram is used to calculate the amount of work done by the gas during expansion or on the gas during compression.

Question 22.
Why does a parachute descend slowly?
Answer:
The surface area of a parachute is much larger as compared to the surface area of stone. So, the air resistance in the case of a parachute is much larger than in the case of a stone. This explains as to why parachute descends slowly.

Question 23.
What is Brownian motion?
Answer:
The motion of the particles in a random and zig-zag mannar in a fluid is called Brownian motion.

Question 24.
Write a note on reverberation?
Answer:
The persistence of audible sound after the source has ceased to emit sound is called reverberation.

PART – III

Answer any six questions in which Q.No. 29 is compulsory. [6 × 3 = 18]

Question 25.
Write the rules for determining significant figure?
Answer:
Rules for counting significant figures:

Question 26.
Explain Joule’s experiment of the mechanical equivalent of heat?
Answer:
Joule’s mechanical equivalent of heat:
The temperature of an object can be increased by heating it or by doing some work on it. In the eighteenth century, James Prescott Joule showed that mechanical energy can be converted into internal energy and vice versa. In his experiment, two masses were attached with a rope and a paddle wheel as shown in Figure. When these masses fall through a distance h due to gravity, both the masses lose potential energy equal to 2 mgh.

When the masses fall, the paddle wheel turns. Due to the turning of wheel inside water, frictional force comes in between the water and the paddle wheel. This causes a rise in temperature of the water. This implies that gravitational potential energy is converted to internal energy of water.

The temperature of water increases due to the work done by the masses. In fact, Joule was able to show that the mechanical work has the same effect as giving heat. He found that to raise 1 g of an object by 1°C , 4.186 J of energy is required. In earlier days the heat was measured in calorie. 1 cal = 4.186 J This is called Joule’s mechanical equivalent of heat.

Question 27.
How do you classify the physical quantities on the basis of dimension?
Answer:
(I) Dimensional variables:
Physical quantities, which possess dimensions and have variable values are called dimensional variables. Examples are length, velocity, and acceleration etc.

(II) Dimensionless variables:
Physical quantities which have no dimensions, but have variable values are called dimensionless variables. Examples are specific gravity, strain, refractive index etc.

(III) Dimensional Constant:
Physical quantities which possess dimensions and have constant values are called dimensional constants. Examples are Gravitational constant, Planck’s constant etc.

(IV) Dimensionless Constant:
Quantities which have constant values and also have no dimensions are called dimensionless constants. Examples are n, e, numbers etc.

Question 28.
State laws of simple pendulum?
Answer:
Law of length:
For a given value of acceleration due to gravity, the time period of a simple pendulum is directly proportional to the square root of length of the pendulum.
T ∝ \(\sqrt{l}\)

Law of acceleration:
For a fixed length, the time period of a simple pendulum is inversely proportional to square root of acceleration due to gravity.
T ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ \sqrt { g } } \)

Question 29.
Explain super position principle for gravitational field?
Answer:
The total gravitational field at a point due to all the masses is given by the vector sum of the gravitational field due to the individual masses. This principle is known as superposition of
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}_{\text {total }}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}_{1}+\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}_{2}+\ldots \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}_{n}=-\frac{\mathrm{G} m_{1}}{r_{1}^{2}} \hat{r}_{1}-\frac{\mathrm{G} m_{2}}{r_{2}^{2}} \hat{r}_{2}-\ldots \cdot \frac{\mathrm{G} m_{n}}{r_{n}^{2}} \hat{r}_{n}\)
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}_{\mathrm{total}}=-\sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{\mathrm{G} m_{n}}{r_{n}^{2}} \hat{r}_{n}\)

Question 30.
Write a note on static friction?
Answer:
Static Friction:
Static friction is the force which opposes the initiation of motion of an object on the surface. The magnitude of static frictional force f_s lies between
0 ≤ f_s ≤ µ_sN
where, µ_s – coefficient of static friction
N – Normal force then, equation shows that f_s can take any value from 0 & µ_sN. If object is at rest, when no external force acts on it then f_s = 0. If object is at rest, also external force acts on it, then f_s = F_ext
But still the static friction f_s is less than µ_sN when object begins to slide, the static friction (f_s) acting on the object attains maximum.

Question 31.
A small metal ball falls in liquid with a terminal velocity of V. If a ball of radius twice of first ball but same mass falls through a same medium, calculate the terminal velocity with which it falls?
Answer:
Given v = \(\frac{2 r^{2} \rho g}{9 \eta}\)
mass = \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr³ ρ = \(\frac{4}{3}\)π(2r)³ ρ¹ or ρ¹ = \(\frac{ρ}{8}\)
Terminal velocity of second ball is
v¹ = \(\frac{2(2 r)^{2}\left(\frac{\rho}{8}\right) g}{9 \eta}\) = \(\frac{v}{2}\)
v¹ = \(\frac{v}{2}\)

Question 32.
Derive an expression for co-efficient of performance of refrigerator?
Answer:
Coefficient of performance (COP) (β):
COP is a measure of the efficiency of a refrigerator. It is defined as the ratio of heat extracted from the cold body (sink) to the external work done by the compressor W.
COP = β = \(\frac { Q_{ L } }{ W } \) …………………… (1)
From the equation Q_L + W = Q_H
β = \(\frac{Q_{L}}{Q_{H}-Q_{L}}\)
β = \(\frac{1}{\frac{\mathrm{Q}_{\mathrm{H}}}{\mathrm{Q}_{\mathrm{L}}}-1}\) ………………. (2)
But we know that \(\frac { Q_{ H } }{ Q_{ L } } \) = \(\frac { T_{ H } }{ T_{ L } } \)
Substituting this equation (1) we get β = \(\frac{1}{\frac{T_{H}}{T_{L}}-1}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{L}}}{\mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{H}}-\mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{L}}}\)

Question 33.
Derive an expression for Laplace’s correction?
Answer:
Laplace’s correction:
In 1816, Laplace satisfactorily corrected this discrepancy by assuming that when the sound propagates through a medium, the particles oscillate very rapidly such that the compression and rarefaction occur very fast. Hence the exchange of heat produced due to compression and cooling effect due to rarefaction do not take place, because, air (medium) is a bad conductor of heat.

Since, temperature is no longer considered as a constant here, sound propagation is an adiabatic process. By adiabatic considerations, the gas obeys Poisson’s law (not Boyle’s law as Newton assumed), which is
PV^γ = Constant …………… (4)

where, γ = \(\frac { C_{ p } }{ C_{ v } } \) which is the ratio between specific heat at constant pressure and specific heat at constant volume.

Differentiating equation (4) on both the sides, we get
\(\mathrm{V}^{\gamma} d \mathrm{P}+\mathrm{P}\left(\gamma \mathrm{V}^{\gamma-1} d \mathrm{V}\right)=0\)
or
\(\gamma \mathrm{P}=-\mathrm{V} \frac{d p}{d \mathrm{V}}=\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{A}}\) ………………… (5)

where, B_A is the adiabatic bulk modulus of air. Now, substituting equation (5) in equation
V = \(\sqrt{\frac{B}{\rho}}\), the speed of sound in air is
v_a = \(\sqrt{\frac{B_{A}}{\rho}}=\sqrt{\frac{\gamma P}{\rho}}=\sqrt{\gamma v_{T}}\)

Since air contains mainly, nitrogen, oxygen, hydrogen etc, (diatomic gas), we take γ = 1.47. Hence, speed of sound in air is v_a = (\(\sqrt{1.4}\)) (280m s^-1) = 331.30 m s^-1, which is very much closer to experimental data.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 × 5 = 25]

Question 34 (a).
Explain different types of error?
Answer:
The uncertainty in a measurement is called an error. Random error, systematic error and gross error are the three possible errors.

(I) Systematic errors:
Systematic errors are reproducible inaccuracies that are consistently in the same direction. These occur often due to a problem that persists throughout the experiment. Systematic errors can be classified as follows

(i) Instrumental errors:
When an instrument is not calibrated properly at the time of manufacture, instrumental errors may arise. If a measurement is made with a meter scale whose end is worn out, the result obtained will have errors. These errors can be corrected by choosing the instrument carefully.

(ii) Imperfections in experimental technique or procedure:
These errors arise due to the limitations in the experimental arrangement. As an example, while performing experiments with a calorimeter, if there is no proper insulation, there will be radiation losses. This results in errors and to overcome these, necessary correction has to be applied

(iii) Personal errors:
These errors are due to individuals performing the experiment, may be due to incorrect initial setting up of the experiment or carelessness of the individual making the observation due to improper precautions.

(iv) Errors due to external causes:
The change in the external conditions during an experiment can cause error in measurement. For example, changes in temperature, humidity, or pressure during measurements may affect the result of the measurement.

(v) Least count error:
Least count is the smallest value that can be measured by the measuring instrument, and the error due to this measurement is least count error. The instrument’s resolution hence is the cause of this error. Least count error can be reduced by using a high precision instrument for the measurement.

(II) Random errors:
Random errors may arise due to random and unpredictable variations in experimental conditions like pressure, temperature, voltage supply etc. Errors may also be due to personal errors by the observer. Who performs the experiment. Random errors are sometimes called “chance error”. When different readings are obtained by a person every time he repeats the experiment, personal error occurs.

For example, consider the case of the thickness of a wire measured using a screw gauge. The readings taken may be different for different trials. In this case, a large number of measurements are made and then the arithmetic mean is taken.

If n number of trial readings are taken in an experiment, and the readings are
a₁, a₂, a₃, ………………. a_n. The arthematic mean is
\(a_{m}=\frac{a_{1}+a_{2}+a_{3}+\ldots \ldots \ldots a_{n}}{n}\) (or) \(a_{m}=\frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^{i=n} a_{i}\)

[OR]

(b) By using equations of motion, derive an expression for range and maximum height reached by the object thrown at an oblique angle θ with respect to the horizontal direction?
Answer:

This projectile motion takes place when the initial velocity is not horizontal, but at some angle with the vertical, as shown in Figure.

(Oblique projectile):
Examples:

1. Water ejected out of a hose pipe held obliquely.
2. Cannot fired in a battle ground.

Consider an object thrown with initial velocity at an angle 0 with the horizontal.
Then,
\(\vec { u } \) = u_x\(\hat { i } \) + u_y\(\hat { j } \)
where u_x = u cos θ is the horizontal component and u_y = u sin θ the vertical component of velocity.

Since the acceleration due to gravity is in the direction opposite to the direction of vertical component u_y, this component will gradually reduce to zero at the maximum height of the projectile.

At this maximum height, the same gravitational force will push the projectile to move downward and fall to the ground. There is no acceleration along the x direction throughout the motion. So, the horizontal component of the velocity (u_x = u cos θ) remains the same till the object reaches the ground.

Hence after the time f, the velocity along horizontal motion v_x = u_x + a_xt = u_x = u cos θ.
The horizontal distance travelled by projectile in time t is s_x = u_xt + \(\frac{1}{2}\)a_xt²
Here, s_x = x, u_x = u cos θ, a_x = 0.

Thus, x = u cos θ.t or t = \(\frac{x}{u cosθ}\) …………….. (1)
Next, for the vertical motion v_y= u_y + a_yt
Here u_y = u sin θ, ay = – g (acceleration due to gravity acts opposite to the motion).
Thus, v_y = u sin θ – gt
The vertical distance travelled by the projectile in the same time t is
Here, s_y = y, u_y = u sin θ, a_x = – g Then,
y = u sin θ t – \(\frac{1}{2}\)gt² ……………….. (2)
Subsitute the value of t from equation (i) and equation (ii), we have
y = \(u \sin \theta \frac{x}{u \cos \theta}-\frac{1}{2} g \frac{x^{2}}{u^{2} \cos ^{2} \theta}\)
y = \(x \tan \theta-\frac{1}{2} g \frac{x^{2}}{u^{2} \cos ^{2} \theta}\) ………………… (3)
Thus the path followed by the projectile is an inverted parabola.

Maximum height (h_max):
The maximum vertical distance travelled by the projectile during the journey is called maximum height. This is determined as follows:
For the vertical part of the motion
\(v_{y}^{2}=u_{y}^{2}+2 a_{y} s\)
Here, u_y = u sin θ, a = -g, s = h_max, and at the maximum height v_y = 0
Hence, (0)² = u² sin² θ = 2gh_max
or
h_max = \(\frac{u^{2} \sin ^{2} \theta}{2 g}\) …………….. (4)

Time of flight (T_f):
The total time taken by the projectile from the point of projection till it hits the horizontal plane is called time of flight.
This time of flight is the time taken by the projectile to go from point O to B via point A as shown in figure.
We know that s_y = u_yt + \(\frac{1}{2}\) a_yt²
Here, s_y = y = 0 (net displacement in y-direction is zero), u_y = u sin θ, a_y = -g, t = T_f.
Then 0 = u sinθ T_f – \(\frac{1}{2}\)gT^2_f
T_f = 2u \(\frac{sin θ}{g}\) …………………. (5)

Horizontal range (R):
The maximum horizontal distance between the point of projection and the point on the horizontal plane where the projectile hits the ground is called horizontal range (R). This is found easily since the horizontal component of initial velocity remains the same. We can write

Range R = Horizontal component of velocity x time of flight = u cos θ × T_f = \(\vec{r}_{1} \times \vec{r}_{2}\)

The horizontal range directly depends on the initial speed (u) and the sine of angle of projection (θ). It inversely depends on acceleration due to gravity ‘g’.

For a given initial speed u, the maximum possible range is reached when sin 2θ is maximum,
sin 2θ = 1. This implies 2θ = π/2
or θ = \(\frac{π}{4}\)
This means that if the particle is projected at 45 degrees with respect to horizontal, it attains maximum range is given by.
R_max = \(\frac { u^{ 2 } }{ g }\) ……………….. (6)

Question 35 (a).
Explain in detail the triangle law of vector addition?
Answer:
Let us consider two vectors \(\vec { A } \) and \(\vec { B } \) as shown in figure.

To find the resultant of the two vectors we apply the triangular law of addition as follows: Represent the vectors \(\vec { A } \) and \(\vec { B } \) by the two adjacent sides of a triangle taken in the same order. Then the resultant is given by the third side of the triangle as shown in figure.

To explain further, the head of the first vector \(\vec { A } \) is connected to the tail of the second vector \(\vec { B } \). Let 0 be the angle between A and B. Then R is the resultant vector connecting the tail of the first vector \(\vec { A } \) to the head of the second vector \(\vec { B } \).

The magnitude of R (resultant) is given geometrically by the length of \(\vec { R } \)(OQ) and the direction of the resultant vector is the angle between R and A. Thus we write \(\vec { R } \) = \(\vec { A } \) + \(\vec { B } \).
\(\overline { OQ } \) = \(\overline { OP } \) + \(\overline { PQ } \)

(I) Magnitude of resultant vector:
The magnitude and angle of the resultant vector are determined by using triangle law of vectors as follows.
From figure, consider the triangle ABN, which is obtained by extending the side OA to ON. ABN is a right angled triangle.

From figure, let R is the magnitude of the resultant of \(\vec { A } \) and \(\vec { B } \).
cos θ = \(\frac{AN}{B}\) ∴ AN = B cos θ and sin θ = \(\frac{BN}{B}\) ∴BN = B sin θ
For ∆OBN, we have OB² = ON² + BN²
⇒ R² = (A + B cos θ)² + (B sin θ)²
⇒ R² = A² + B² cos² θ + 2AB cos θ + B² sin² θ
⇒ R² = A² + B ² (cos² θ + sin² θ) + 2AB cos θ
⇒ R² = \(\sqrt{A^{2}+B^{2}+2 A B \cos \theta}\)

(II) Direction of resultant vectors:
If θ is the angle between \(\vec { A } \) and \(\vec { B } \), then
|\(\vec { A } \) + \(\vec { B } \)| = \(\sqrt{A^{2}+B^{2}+2 A B \cos \theta}\)
IF \(\vec { R } \) makes an angle α with \(\vec { A } \), then in ∆OBN,
tan α = \(\frac{BN}{ON}\) = \(\frac{BN}{OA + AN}\)
tan α = \(\frac{B \sin \theta}{A+B \cos \theta}\) ⇒ α = tan^-1(\(\frac{B \sin \theta}{A+B \cos \theta}\))

[OR]

(b) Arrive at an expression for velocity of objects in one dimensional elastic collision?
Answer:
Consider two elastic bodies of masses m₁ and m₂ moving in a straight line (along positive x direction) on a frictionless horizontal surface as shown in figure.

In order to have collision, we assume that the mass m₁ moves faster than mass m₂ i.e., u₁ > u₂. For elastic collision, the total linear momentum and kinetic energies of the two bodies before and after collision must remain the same.

From the law of conservation of linear momentum,
Total momentum before collision (ρ_i) = Total momentum after collision (ρ_f)
m₁u₁ + m₂u₂ = m₁u₁ + m₂v₁ ………………. (1)
or m₁ (u₁ – v₁) = m₂(v₂ – u₂) ………………. (2)
Further,

Total kinetic energy before collision KE_i = Total kinetic energy after collision KE_f
\(\frac{1}{2} m_{1} u_{1}^{2}+\frac{1}{2} m_{2} u_{2}^{2}=\frac{1}{2} m_{1} v_{1}^{2}+\frac{1}{2} m_{2} v_{2}^{2}\) ……………….. (3)
After simplifying and rearranging terms,
\(m_{1}\left(u_{1}^{2}-v_{1}^{2}\right)=m_{2}\left(v_{2}^{2}-u_{2}^{2}\right)\)
Using the formula a² – b² = (a + b) (a – b), we can rewrite the above equation as
m₁(u₁ + v₁) = m₂(v₂ + u₂) (v₂ – u₂) …………………. (4)
Dividing equation (4) by (2) gives,
\(\frac{m_{1}\left(u_{1}+v_{1}\right)\left(u_{1}-v_{1}\right)}{m_{1}\left(u_{1}-v_{1}\right)}=\frac{m_{2}\left(v_{2}+u_{2}\right)\left(v_{2}-u_{2}\right)}{m_{2}\left(v_{2}-u_{2}\right)}\)
u₁ + v₁ = v₂ + u₁
Rearranging, u₁ – u₂ = v₂ – v₁ ………………… (5)
Equation (5) can be written as
u₁ – u₂ = -(v₁ – v₂)
This means that for any elastic head on collision, the relative speed of the two elastic bodies after the collision has the same magnitude as before collision but in opposite direction. Further note that this result is independent of mass.
Rewriting the above equation for v₁ and v₂,
v₁ = v₂ + u₂ – u₁ …………………. (6)
or v₂ = u₁ + v₁ – u₁ ………………. (7)

To find the final velocities v₁ and v₂:
Substituting equation (7) in equation (2) gives the velocity of m₁ as
m₁ (u₁ – v₁) = m₂ (u₁ + v₁ – u₂ – u₂)
m₁ (u₁ – v₁) = m₂ (u₁ + v₁ – 2a₂)
m₁u₁ – m₁v₁ = m₂u₁ + m₂v₁ + 2m₂u₂
m₁u₁ = m₂u₁ + 2m₂u₂ = m₁v₁ + m₂v₁
(m₁ – m₂) u₁ + 2m₂u₂ = (m₁ + m₂)v₁
or v₁ = \(\left(\frac{m_{1}-m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\right)\) u₁ + \(\left(\frac{2 m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\right)\) u₂ ……………. (8)
Similarly, by substituting (6) in equation (2) or substituting equation (8) in equation (7), we get the final velocity of m₂ as
v₂ = \(\left(\frac{2 m_{1}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\right)\) u₁ + \(\left(\frac{m_{2}-m_{1}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\right)\) u₂ ………………. (9)

Question 36 (a).
Discuss the variation of g with change in altitude and depth?
Answer:
When an object is on the surface fo the Earth, it experiences a centrifugal force that depends on the latitude of the object on Earth. If the Earth were not spinning, the force on the objecf would have been mg. Elowever, the object experiences an additional centrifugal force due to spinning of the Earth.

This centrifugal force is given by mω²R’.
\(\mathrm{OP}_{z}, \cos \lambda=\frac{\mathrm{PZ}}{\mathrm{OP}}=\frac{\mathrm{R}^{\prime}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
R’ = R cos λ
where λ is the latitude. The component of centrifugal acceleration experienced by the object in the direction opposite to g is
\(a_{\mathrm{PQ}}=\omega^{2} \mathrm{R} \cos \lambda=\omega^{2} \mathrm{R} \cos ^{2} \lambda\)
Since R’ = R cos λ

Therefore, g’ = g – ω²2 R cos² λ
From the above expression, we can infer that at equator, λ = 0, g’ = g – ω²R. The acceleration due to gravity is minimum. At poles λ = 90; g’ = g, it is maximum. At the equator, g’ is minimum.

Variation of g with depth:
Consider a particle of mass m which is in a deep mine on the Earth. (Example: coal mines in Neyveli). Assume the depth of the mine as d. To calculate g’ at a depth d, consider the following points. The part of the Earth which is above the radius (R_e – d) do not contribute to the acceleration. The result is proved earlier and is given as

g’ = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}^{\prime}}{\left(\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{e}}-d\right)^{2}}\) ………………. (1)
Here M’ is the mass of the Earth of radius (R_e – d) Assuming the density of the earth ρ be constant,
ρ = \(\frac{M}{V}\) …………………. (2)

where M is the mass of the Earth and V its volume, Thus,

Here also g’ < g. As depth increases, g’ decreases. It is very interesting to know that acceleration due to gravity is maximum on the surface of the Earth but decreases when we go either upward or downward.

[OR]

(b) Explain in detail the maxwell Boltzmann distribution function?
Answer:
Maxwell-Boltzmann: In speed distribution function:-
Consider an atmosphere, the air molecules-are moving in random directions. The speed of each molecule is not the same even though macroscopic parameters like temperature and pressure are fixed. Each molecule collides with every other molecule and they exchange their speed.

In the previously we calculated the rms speed of each molecule and not the speed of each molecule which is rather difficult. In this scenario we can find the number of gas molecules that move with the speed of 5 ms^-1 to 10 ms^-1 or 10 ms^-1
to 15 ms^-1 etc. In general our interest is to find how many gas molecules have the range of speed from v to v + dv. This is given by Maxwell’s speed distribution function.

The above expression is graphically shown as follows:

From the figure (1), it is clear that, for a given temperature the number of molecules having lower speed increases parabolically but decreases exponentially after reaching most probable speed. The rms speed, average speed and most probable speed are indicated in the figure (1). It can be seen that the rms speed is greatest among the three.

1. The area under the graph will give the total number of gas molecules in the system.
2. Figure 2 shows the speed distribution graph for two different temperatures.

As temperature increases, the peak of the curve is shifted to the right. It implies that the average speed of each molecule will increase. But the area under each graph is same since it represents the total number of gas molecules.

Question 37 (a).
What is meant by simple harmonic motion?
Answer:
A particle is said to execute simple harmonic motion if it moves to and fro about a mean position under the action of a restoring force which is directly proportional to its displacement from the mean position and is always directed towards the mean position.

(b) The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the moon is 1.7 ms^-2. What is the time period of simple pendulum on the moon if its time period on the Earth is 3.5 s? Given g on Earth = 9.8 ms^-2?
Answer:

(c) A man with wrist watch on his hand falls from the top of the tower. Does the watch , give correct time during the free fall?
Answer:
Yes. Because the working of a wrist watch does pot depend on gravity at that place but depends on spring action.

[OR]

(d) State Wien’s law?
Answer:
When the animals feed cold, they curl their bodies into the ball so as to decrease the surface area of their bodies. As total energy radiated by a body varies directly as the surface area of the body, the loss of heat due to radiation would be reduced.

(e) Normal human body of the temperature is 98.6°F. During high fever if the temperature increases to 104°F. What is the change in peak wavelength that emitted by our body (Assume human body is a black body)?
Answer:
Normal human body temperature (T) = 98.6°F.
Convert Fahrenheit into Kelvin, \(\frac{F-32}{180}\) = \(\frac{K-273}{100}\)
So, T = 98.6°F = 310K
From Wien’s displacement law
Maximum wavelength λ_max = \(\frac{b}{T}\) = \(\frac { 2.898\times 10^{ -3 } }{ 313 } \)
λ_max = 9348 × 10^-9 m
λ_max = 9348 nm (at 98.6°F)
During high fever, human body temperature
T = 104°F = 313K
Peak wavelength λ_max = \(\frac{b}{T}\) = \(\frac { 2.898\times 10^{ -3 } }{ 313 } \)
λ_max = 9259 × 10^-9 m
λ_max = 9259 (at 104°F)

(f) Animals curl into a ball, when they feel very cold. Why?
Answer:
When animals feel cold, they curl their bodies into the ball so as to decrease the surface area of their bodies. As total energy radiated by a body varies directly as the surface area of the body, the loss of heat due to radiation would be reduced.

Question 38 (a).
Explain the horizontal oscillations of spring?
Answer:
Horizontal oscillations of a spring-mass system: Consider a system containing a block of mass m attached to a massless spring with stiffness constant or force constant or spring constant k placed on a smooth horizontal surface (frictionless surface) as shown in figure.

Let x₀ be the equilibrium position or mean position of mass m when it is left undisturbed. Suppose the mass is displaced through a small displacement x towards right from its equilibrium position and then released, it will oscillate back and forth about its mean position x₀. Let F be the restoring force (due to stretching of the spring) which is proportional to the amount of displacement of block. For one dimensional motion, . mathematically, we have.
F ∝ x
F = -kx ……………… (1)

where negative sign implies that the restoring force will always act opposite to the direction of the displacement. This equation is called Hooke’s law. Notice that, the restoring force is linear with the displacement (i.e., the exponent of force and displacement are unity).

This is not always true; in case if we apply a very large stretching force, then the amplitude of oscillations becomes very large (which means, force is proportional to displacement containing higher powers of x) and therefore, the oscillation of the system is not linear and hence, it is called non-linear oscillation.

We restrict ourselves only to linear oscillations throughout our discussions, which means Hooke’s law is valid (force and displacement have a linear relationship). From Newton’s second law, we can write the equation for the particle executing simple harmonic motion.

\(m \frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}=-k x\) ……………….. (1)
\(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}=-\frac{k}{m} x\) ……………….. (2)
Comparing the equation with simple harmonic motion equation, we get
ω² = \(\frac{k}{m}\) ………………….. (3)

which means the angular frequency or natural frequency of the oscillator is
ω = \(\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}} \mathrm{rad} s^{-1}\) ……………….. (4)

The frequency of the oscillation is
f = \(\frac{\omega}{2 \pi}=\frac{1}{2 \pi} \sqrt{\frac{k}{m}} \mathrm{Hertz}\) …………………… (5)
and the time period of the oscillation is
T = \(\frac{1}{f}\) = 2π \(\sqrt{m/k}\) seconds …………………. (6)

[OR]

(b) What is capillarity? Obtain an expression for the surface tension of a liquid by capillary rise method?
Answer:
In a liquid whose angle of contact with solid is less than 90° suffers capillar rise. On the other hand, in a liquid whose angle of contact is greater than 90°, suffers capillary fall. The rise or fall of a liquid in a narrow tube is called capillarity or capillary action.

Practical application of capillarity:

1. Due to capillary action, oil rises in the cotton within an earthen lamp. Likewise, sap raises from the roots of a plant to its leaves and branches.
2. Absorption of ink by a blotting paper.
3. Capillary action is also essential for the tear fluid from the eye to drain constantly.
4. Cotton dresses are preferred in summer because cotton dresses have fine pores which act as capillaries for sweat.

Surface Tension by capillary rise method:
The pressure difference across a curved liquid air interface is the basic factor behind the rising up of water in a narrow tube (influence of gravity is ignored). The capillary rise is more dominant in the case of very fine tubes.

But this phenomenon is the outcome of the force of surface tension. In order to arrive a relation between the capillary rise (h) and surface tension (T), consider a capillary tube which is held vertically in a beaker containing water, the water rises in the capillary tube to a height h due to surface tension.

The surface tension force F_T acts along the tangent at the point of contact downwards and its reaction force upwards. Surface tension T, it resolved into two components

1. Horizontal component T sin θ and
2. Vertical component T cos θ acting upwards, all along the whole circumference of the meniscus.

Total upward force = (T cos θ) (2nr) = 2nrT cos θ)

where θ is the angle of contact, r is the radius of the tube. Let ρ be the density of water and h be the height to which the liquid rises inside the tube. Then,

The upward force supports the weight of the liquid column above the free surface, therefore,

If the capillary is a very fine tube of radius (i.e., radius is very small) then \(\frac{r}{3}\) can be neglected when it is compared to the height h. Therefore,
T = \(\frac{r \rho g h}{2 \cos \theta}\)
Liquid rises through a height h
h = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{T} \cos \theta}{r \rho g} \Rightarrow h \alpha \frac{1}{r}\)
This implies that the capillary rise (h) is inversely proportional to the radius (r) of the tube, i.e., the smaller the radius of thd tube greater will be the capillarity.

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 3 History Chapter 4 South Indian Kingdoms Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 South Indian Kingdoms

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science South Indian Kingdoms Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer

Question 1.
Who among the following built the Vaikundaperumal temple?
(a) Narasimhavarma II
(b) Nandivarma II
(c) Dantivarman
(d) Parameshvaravarma
Answer:
(b) Nandivarma II

Question 2.
Which of the following titles were the titles of Mahendra Varma I?
(a) Mattavilasa
(b) Vichitra Chitta
(c) Gunabara
(d) all the three
Answer:
(d) all the three

Question 3.
Which of the following inscriptions describes the victories of Pulakesin II?
(a) Aihole
(b) Saranath
(c) Sanchi
(d) Junagath
Answer:
(a) Aihole

II. Read the statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Statement I : Pallava art shows transition from rock – cut – monolithic structure to stone built temple.
Statement II : Kailasanatha temple at Kanchipuram is an example of Pallava art and architecture.
(a) Statement I is wrong
(b) Statement II is wrong
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct

Question 2.
Consider the following statement(s) about Pallava Kingdom.
Statement I : Tamil literature flourished under Pallava rule, with the rise in popularity of Thevaram composed by Appar.
Statement II : Pallava King Mahendravarman was the author of the play MattavilasaPrahasana.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer:
(c) Both I and II

Question 3.
Consider the following statements about the Rashtrakuta dynasty and find out which of the following statements are correct.
(1) It was founded by Dantidurga
(2) Amogavarsha wrote Kavirajmarga
(3) Krishna I built the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) all the three
Answer:
(d) all the three

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a correct pair?
Answer:
(a) Ellora caves – Rashtrakutas
(b) Mamallapuram – Narasimhavarma I
(c) Elephanta caves – Ashoka
(d) Pattadakal – Chalukyas
Answer:
(c) Elephanta caves – Ashoka

Question 5.
Find out the wrong pair.
(a) Dandin – Dasakumara Charitam
(b) Vatsyaya – Bharathavenba
(c) Bharavi – Kiratarjuneeyam
(d) Amogavarsha – Kavirajamarga
Answer:
(b) Vatsyaya – Bharathavenba

III. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………….. defeated Harsha Vardhana on the banks of the river Narmada.
2. ……………….. destroyed Vatapi and assumed the title VatapiKondan.
3. ……………….. was the author of Aihole Inscription.
4. ……………….. was the army general of Narasimhavarma I
5. The music inscriptions in ……………….. and ……………….. show Pallavas ‘interest in music.

Answer:

1. Pulakesin II
2. Narasimhavarma
3. Ravikirti
4. Paranjothi
5. Kudumianmalai, Thiruamayam

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – b

V. State True or False

1. The famous musician Rudracharya lived during Mahendravarma I.
2. The greatest king of the Rashtrakuta dynasty was Pulakesin II.
3. Mamallapuram is one of the UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
4. Thevaram was composed by Azhwars.
5. The Virupaksha temple was built on the model of Kanchi Kailasanatha Temple.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. False

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Name the three gems of Kannada literature.
Answer:
The three gems of Kannada literature were Pampa, Sri Ponna, and Raima.

Question 2.
How can we classify the Pallava architecture?
Answer:
Pallava architecture can be classified as

1. Rock-cut temples – Mahendravarman style.
2. Monolithic Rathas and Sculptural Mandapas Mamallan style.
3. Structural Temples – Rajasimhan style and Nandivarman style.

Question 3.
What do you know of Gatika?
Answer:

1. Gatika means monastery or Centre of learning.
2. It was popular during the Pallava times at Kanchi.
3. It attracted students from all parts of India and abroad.
4. Vatsyayana who wrote Nyaya Bhashya was a teacher at Kanchi (Gatika). Panchapandavar rathas are monolithic rathas. Explain.

Question 4.
Panchapandavar rathas are monolithic rathas. Explain
Answer:

1. Under Mamalla style, the five rathas (chariots), popularly called Panchapandavar rathas, signify the different style of temple architecture.
2. Each ratha has been carved out of a single rock.
3. So they are called monolithic.
4. The popular mandapams here are Mahishasuramardhini mandapam, Thirumoorthi mandapam and Varaha mandapam.

Question 5.
Make a note on Battle of Takkolam.
Answer:

1. Krishna III was the last able ruler of the Rashtrakuta dynasty,
2. He defeated the Cholas in the battle of Takkolam (presently in Vellore Dt) and captured Thanjavur.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
Examine Pallavas’ contributions to architecture.
Answer:
Pallava period is known for architectural splendour. In 1984 Mamallapuram was added to the list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites. The illustrious examples of Pallava architecture are the Shore Temple, other temples and the Varaha cave.

Mahendra style : (Rock – cut temples)
Mahendravarma style of cave temples are seen at Mandagapattu, Mahendra vadi, Mamandur, Dalavanur, Trichirapalli, Vallam, Tirukazhukkundram and Siyamangalam.

Mamalla Style : (Monolithic Rathas and Sculptural Mandapas)

1. The last example for Mamalla style monolithic is Panchapandavar rathas. Mahishasuramardhini mandapam, Thirumoorthi mandapam and Varaha mandapam are the popular mandapams.
2. The most important is the open art gallery. The fall of the Ganges from the head of Lord Shiva and the Arjun’s penance are notable sculptures.

Rajasimha Style : (Structural Temples)
Rajasimha (Narasimhavarma II) Style was a structural temple. The best example is the Kailasanatha temple at Kanchipuram. This temple is called Rajasimheswaram.

Nandivarma Style : (Structural Temples)
Nandivarma style was the last stage of pallava architecture. The best example is Vaikunda Perumal temple at Kanchipuram.

Question 2.
Write a note on Elephanta island and Kailasanatha temple at Ellora.
Answer:
Elephanta island:

1. Elephanta is an island near Mumbai. It is originally known as Sripuri and the local people called Gharapuri.
2. The Portuguese named it as Elephanta after seeing the image.
3. The Trimurthi Siva icon and the images of dwarapalakas are seen in the cave temple.

Kailasanatha temple at Ellora:

1. Krishna I built the Kailasanatha temple. It was one of the 30 temples carved out at Ellora.
2. The temple covers an area of over 60,000 sq. feet and vimanam rises to a height of 90 feet.
3. It portrays typical Dravidian features and has a resemblance to the shore temple at Mamallapuram.

VIII. HOTS

Question 1.
Give an account of the Western Chalukyas of Kalyani.
Answer:
Western Chalukyas of Kalyani:

1. They were the descendants of Badami Chalukyas ruled from Kalyani (modem day Basavakalyan).
2. In 973, Tailapa II, a feudatory of the Rashtrakuta mling from the Bijapur region, defeated Parmara of Malwa.
3. Tailapa II occupied Kalyani and his dynasty quickly grew into an empire under Someswara I.
4. Someswara I moved the capital from Manyakheta to Kalyani.
5. For over a century, both the Chalukyas and the Cholas fought many fierce battles to control the fertile region of Vengi.
6. In the late 11th century, under Vikramaditya VI, vast areas between the Narmada river in the north and Kaveri river in the South came under Chalukya control.
7. The Kasi Vishwesvara Temple at Lakkundi, the Mallikaijuna temple at Kuruvatti, the Kalleshwara temple at Bagali and the Mahadeva temple at Itagi represent well-known examples of the architecture of Western Chalukyas of Kalyani.

IX. Life Skills (For Students)

1. Collect temple architecture pictures of Pallavas, Chalukyas and Rashtrakutas and identify the distinguishing features of each period.
2. Field Trip : Plan a trip to any place of historical importance.

X. Activity

Question 1.
(a) Sketch the biography of Mahendravarma I and Pulakesin II.
(b) See the picture and write a few sentences on it.
Answer:
Arjuna is fasting in one leg At the centre there is a naga Siva is attended by devaganas Hunters, animals, birds and trees are seen. There is also a herd of elephants.

XI. Answer Grid

Question 1.
Give examples for the structural temples of Pallava period.
Answer:
Kailasanatha temple, Vaikunda Perumal temple

Question 2.
Name the new style of architecture developed during Chalukya period.
Answer:
Vesara

Question 3.
What does Aihole inscription mention?
Answer:
Defeat of Harsha Vardhana by Pulakesan II

Question 4.
Who built the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora?
Answer:
Krishna I

Question 5.
Name the sculptural mandapas of Mamallan style of architecture.
Answer:
Monolithic

Question 6.
Where do structural temples of Chalukya exist?
Answer:
Aihole, Badami, Pattadakal

Question 7.
Name two Saivite saints and Vaishnavite saints who practised bhakticult during Pallava period?
Answer:
Appar, Manikkavasakar. Nammazhvar, Andal

Question 8.
Who was the founder of Rashtrakuta dynasty?
Answer:
Dantidurga

Question 9.
What were the titles adopted by Narasimhavarma I?
Answer:
Mamallan, Vatapi kondan

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science South Indian Kingdoms Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
Who was Avanisimha?
(a) Simhavishnu
(b) Pulakesin II
(c) Mahendravarman
(d) Aparajita
Answer:
(a) Simhavishnu

Question 2.
Cave temples of the Pallavas are found at ________
(a) Vallam
(b) Vengi
(c) Badami
(d) Pattadakal
Answer:
(a) Vallam

Question 3.
Mangalesa belonged to Dynasty.
(a) Chalukya
(b) Pallava
(c) Rashtrakuta
(d) Gupta
Answer:
(a) Chalukya

Question 4.
The new style of architecture Vesara was introduced by
(a) Chalukyas
(b) Pallavas
(c) Rastrakutadas Vakataka
(d) Cave
Answer:
(a) Chalukyas

II. Read the statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Statement I : The life of Rishabadeva, the first Jain Tirthankara is depicted in Adipurana
Statement II : The Rashtrakutas followed Jainism
(a) Statement I is wrong
(b) Statement II is wrong
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(b) Statement II is wrong

Question 2.
Statement I : Appar and Manikkavasakar were Vaishnavites.
Statement II : Nammazhvar and Andal were saivites
(a) Statement I is correct
(b) Statement II is correct
(c) Both the statements are wrong
(d) Both the statements are correct.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are wrong

III. Fill in the blanks

1. The last Pallava ruler …………..
2. The poet who was patronized by Nandivarman II was …………..
3. The style adopted by Chalukyas in paintings is ……………
4. The last ruler to hold the empire intact was ……………

Answer:

1. Aprajita
2. Perundevanar
3. Vakataka
4. Govinda III

IV. State True or False

1. Rudracharya was a famous musician during Pallava Period
2. Varaha, Narasimha, Vamana are the Avatar of Siva
3. The Rashtrakutas were of Telugu origin
4. The Chalukyas perfected the art of stone building without mortar.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True

V. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Write about ‘Siruthondar’
Answer:

1. The army general of Narasimhavarman I, Paranjothi, led the army during the invasion of Vatapi.
2. After the victory devoted himself to Lord Siva, he was known as Siruthondar (one of the 63 Nayanmars)

Question 2.
Write a note on Simhavishnu.
Answer:

1. Simhavishnu, son of Simhavarman-II, created a strong Pallava kingdom after destroying the Kalabhras.
2. He defeated many kings in the south including the Cholas and Pandyas.
3. His able son was Mahendravarman I.

Question 3.
Name the distinct but closely related and independent Chalukya dynasties.
Answer:

1. Chalukyas of Badami
2. Chalukyas of Vengi (Eastern chalukyas)
3. Chalukyas of Kalyani (Western chalukyas)

Question 4.
Who were Chalukyas?
Answer:

1. There were three distinct but closely related and independent Chalukya dynasties,
2. They were:
   • Chalukyas of Badami
   • Chalukyas of Vengi (Eastern Chalukyas)
   • Chalukyas of Kalyani (Western Chalukyas).
3. These Chalukyas held Harsha in the north, the Pallavas in the south and Kalinga (Odisha) in the east.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
Explain – ’Pattatakal’
Answer:

1. Pattatakal is a small village in Bagalkot district of Karnataka.
2. Here are 10 temples. Out of them 4 were in Nagara style and 6 were in Dravida style.
3. Dravida style – Virupaksha Temple, Sangameshwara Temple.
4. Nagara style – Papanatha Temple.
5. Pattatakal is one of the UNESCO World Heritage sites.

Question 2.
What do you know about ‘Rashtrakutas?
Answer:

1. Rashtrakutas were of Kannada origin. They ruled not only the Deccan but parts of the far south and the Ganges plain during 8 – 10 centuries.
2. Dantidurga was the founder of the Rashtrakuta dynasty. He was an official of high rank under the Chalukyas of Badami.
3. Krishna I was the successor of Dantidurga and he built the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora.
4. The greatest king of Amogavarsha. Krishna III was the last able ruler of the Rashtrakuta dynasty.
5. Capital: Malkhed (Manyakheta). Port: Broach.

VIII. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 3 Civics Chapter 3 Road Safety Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Road Safety

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Road Safety Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following

Question 1.
Prepare slogans for Road safety.
Answer:
Slogans on Road Safety

1. Alert today – Alive tomorrow.
2. Leave sooner, drive slower, live longer.
3. Speed thrills but kills.
4. Be alert! Accidents hurt.
5. Drive carefully, to live joyfully.
6. A little care makes accidents rare.
7. Fast-drive could be your last drive.
8. Driving faster can cause disaster
9. Chance takers are accident makers.

Question 2.
Identify the following signs.
Answer:

(a) No U-turn
(b) No entry
(c) Crossroad
(d) Hospital

Question 3.
Discuss the statistics of 2017 accidents data.
Answer:

1. Nearly three persons died every ten minutes in road accidents across India last year.
2. The Report, prepared by the Transport Research Wing of the Ministry of Road Transport and highways, discovered that a total of 4,64,910 road accidents were reported by States and Union territories in the calendar year of 2017, claiming 1,47,913 lives and causing injuries to 4,70,975 persons.
3. The subject of road safety is an important one. Victims of hit and run cases would now be compensated for up to Rs one million in case of road accident fatalities.
4. Among vehicle categories involved in road accidents, two-wheelers accounted for the highest share (33.9%) in total accidents and fatalities (29.8%) in 2017.
5. However, there has been a decline in the total number of road accidents as compared with the year 2016.
6. In percentage terms, the number of accidents in 2017 was lower by 3.3 percent and injuries 4.8 percent over that of the previous year.

Question 4.
Debate: Is wearing a helmet necessary?
Answer:
Advantages of wearing Helmets:

1. Higher visibility in general weather protection.
2. Upto 47% of injured cyclists get head injuries.
3. Wearing a helmet can provide an 88% reduction in the risk of head injury.
4. Disadvantages of wearing Helmets
5. Helmets look uncool
6. Helmets are uncomfortable to wear

Conclusion:

1. Even though there are few disadvantages to wearing helmets, we should practice the habit of wearing helmets.
2. After all our life is the most important reason for us to live in this world.
3. Let’s Spread this good awareness and let’s make the most of our lives.

Question 5.
Draw posters related to road safety.
Answer:
Safety on the Road:
To be safe on the road, we must follow some rules.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Road Safety Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks Answer

1. ……………… are the laws that govern how, when, and why you are allowed to drive any vehicle.
2. ……………… and ……………… ensure the safety of the children at home and School.
3. Cautionary signs are generally in ……………… Shape.
4. In road signs ……………… Circles give positive instructions.
5. Wait until a ……………… Singal appears before proceeding.

Answer:

1. Traffic rules
2. Parents and teachers
3. triangular
4. Blue
5. Green

II. Choose the Correct answer

Question 1.
In road signs …………….. Circles give negative instructions.
(a) Orange
(b) Red
(c) Green
Answer:
(b) Red

Question 2.
…………….. arrow means you can go in the direction shown by the arrow.
(a) Green
(b) Red
(c) Blue
Answer:
(a) Green

Question 3.
The pedestrian crossing was instituted in …………….. in 1934.
(a) France
(b) Russia
(c) Britain
Answer:
(c) Britain

Question 4.
Mandatory road signs are generally …………….. in shape.
(a) triangular
(b) rectangular
(c) Circular
Answer:
(c) Circular

III. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
What are the three types of traffic signs?
Answer:
The three types of traffic signs are Mandatory, Cautionary, and Informatory.

Question 2.
What are Mandatory road signs?
Answer:
Mandatory road signs are the ones that give orders regarding do’s and don’ts and are to be followed strictly. These are generally circular in shape.

Question 3.
What are Cautionary road signs?
Answer:
Cautionary road signs are the ones that warn the road user regarding the road situation ahead. Cautionary signs are generally in a triangular shape.

Question 4.
What are the Informatory signs?
Answer:
Informatory signs are the ones that give information regarding directions, destinations, etc. Informatory signs are generally rectangular in shape.

Question 5.
What do the three Colours Red, Amber, and Green signify?
Answer:

1. Red means Stop
2. Amber means Caution
3. Green means Go

Question 6.
What are the traffic signs?
Answer:
Traffic signs are there to regulate traffic, warn about hazards, and to guide the road user.

Question 7.
What are the safety measures for a pillion rider / Co – passengers.
Answer:

1. Always wear helmet/seat belt
2. Do not indulge in talking with the driver.
3. Children above 12 years of age should occupy the back seat.

Question 8.
Mention the safety measures you take while playing.
Answer:

1. Do not play on roads
2. Look for a playground or vacant land to play.
3. Do not play around a vehicle parked inside your School Premises / Colony or near your residence.

IV. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
Discuss the Do’s and Don’ts of a Pedestrian.
Answer:
Do’s:

1. Walk on any side of the road if there are Foot Paths.
2. On roads without footpath walk on your extreme right side facing the oncoming traffic.
3. Children below 8 years of age should cross the road with the help of elders.
4. Cross the road when the vehicles are at a safe distance.
5. Wear light coloured dresses at night.

Don’ts:

1. Don’t Cross the road hastily by running.
2. Don’t Cross the road in front of or in between Parked Vehicles.
3. Don’t try to cross the road where you are not visible to the vehicle driver.
4. Don’t jump over railings to cross the road.

Question 2.
Safety measures would you take while riding a bicycle.
Answer:

1. The cycle must be fixed with the standard gadgets.
2. Cycle on the extreme left side of the road or use service road, if available.
3. Avoid busy roads
4. Keep a safe distance from a fast motorized vehicle.
5. Give proper indications before stopping and turning.
6. Don’t indulge in any kind of Stunts
7. Don’t load the cycle with heavy goods
8. Don’t ride holding on to other fast-moving vehicles.

Question 3.
Mention the rules you need to follow while Commuting in School transportation.
Answer:

1. Get up early and start at home early.
2. Board the bus from the designated bus stop in a queue.
3. Once inside the bus behave properly.
4. Get down only when the bus has Completely Stopped.
5. If the driver is not following the road safety norms bring it to the notice of school authorities/parents or traffic helpline.
6. Do not run or rush to catch your bus.
7. Do not stand on the steps of the bus.
8. Do not make noise that may distract the driver.
9. Do not put any part of the body outside the bus.

V. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 3 Geography Chapter 2 Globe Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Globe

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Globe Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks

1. The line of latitude which is known as the Great Circle is ……………..
2. The imaginary lines drawn horizontally on Earth from the West to East are called ……………..
3. The 90° lines of latitude on the Earth are called ……………..
4. The Prime Meridian is also called ……………..
5. The world is divided into …………….. time zones.

Answer:

1. Equator
2. lines or parallels of latitude
3. Poles
4. Greenwich meridian
5. 24

II. Choose the best answer

Question 1.
The shape of the Earth is ……………..
(a) Square
(b) Rectangle
(c) Geoid
(d) Circle
Answer:
(c) Geoid

Question 2.
The North Pole is _______.
(a) 90° N Latitude
(b) 90° S latitude
(c) 90° W Longitude
(d) 90° E longitude
Answer:
(a) 90° N Latitude

Question 3.
The area found between 0° and 180° E lines of longitude is called ……………..
(a) Southern Hemisphere
(b) Western Hemisphere
(c) Northern Hemisphere
(d) Eastern Hemisphere
Answer:
(d) Eastern Hemisphere

Question 4.
The 23 ° N line of latitude is called _______.
(a) Tropic of Capricorn
(b) Tropic of Cancer
(c) Arctic Circle
(d) Antarctic Circle
Answer:
(b) Tropic of Cancer

Question 5.
180° line of longitude is ……………..
(a) Equator
(b) International Date Line
(c) Prime Meridian
(d) North Pole
Answer:
(b) International Date Line

Question 6.
The Sun is found overhead the Greenwich Meridian at ________
(a) 12 midnight
(b) 12 noon
(c) 1 p.m.
(d) 11 a.m.
Answer:
(b) 12 noon

Question 7.
A day has ……………
(a) 1240 minutes
(b) 1340 minutes
(c) 1440 minutes
(d) 1140 minutes
Answer:
(c) 1440 minutes

Question 8.
Which of the following lines of longitude is considered for the Indian Standard Time?
(a) 82 1/2° E
(b) 82 1/2° W
(c) 811/2° E
(d) 81 1/2° W
Answer:
(a) 82 1/2° E

Question 9.
The total number of lines of latitude are ……………
(a) 171
(b) 161
(c) 181
(d) 191
Answer:
(c) 181

Question 10.
The total number of lines of longitude are ________
(a) 370
(b) 380
(c) 360
(d) 390
Answer:
(c) 360

III. pic the odd one Answer

Question 1.
North Pole, South Pole, Equator, International Date Line.
Answer:
International Dateline

Question 2.
Tropic of Capricorn, Tropic of Cancer, Equator, Prime Meridian.
Answer:
Prime Meridian

Question 3.
Torrid Zone, Time Zone, Temperate Zone, Frigid Zone
Answer:
Time Zone

Question 4.
Royal Astronomical Observatory, Prime Meridian, Royal Astronomical Greenwich Meridian, International Date Line.
Answer:
Royal Astronomical observatory

Question 5.
10° North, 20° South, 30°, North, 40° West
Answer:
40° west.

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – b
4. – a

V. Examine the following statements

1. The Earth is spherical in shape.
2. The shape of the Earth is called a geoid.
3. The Earth is flat.
Look at the options given below and choose the correct answer
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct
(d) 1, 2, and 3 are correct
Answer:
(c) 1 and 2 are correct

VI. Examine the following statements

Question 1.
Statement I: The lines of latitude on Earth are used to find the location of a place and define the heat zones on Earth.
Statement II: The lines of longitudes on Earth are used to find the location of a place and to calculate time.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Statement I is correct; II is wrong
(b) Statement I is wrong; II correct
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are wrong
Answer:
(a) Statement I is correct; II is wrong

VII. Name the following

Question 1.
The imaginary lines are drawn horizontally on Earth
Answer:
Lines of latitude/parallels

Question 2.
The imaginary lines are drawn vertically on Earth.
Answer:
Lines of longitude /Meridians

Question 3.
The three dimensional model of the Earth.
Answer:
Globe

Question 4.
India is located in this hemisphere based on lines of longitude.
Answer:
Southern Hemisphere

Question 5.
The network of lines of latitude and longitude.
Answer:
Earth grid / Geographic grid

VIII. Answer briefly

Question 1.
What is a geoid?
Answer:

1. The Earth cannot be compared with any other geometrical shape as it has a very unique shape.
2. Hence, its shape is called a geoid (earth shaped).

Question 2.
What is the local time?
Answer:

1. When the sun is overhead on a particular line of longitude, it is 12 moon at all the places located on that line of longitude.
2. This is called local time.

Question 3.
How many times would the sun pass overhead a line of longitude?
Answer:
The sun is overhead on a line of longitude only once a day.

Question 4.
What are lines of latitude and longitude?
Answer:

1. There are imaginary lines which are drawn on the globe horizontally and vertically to find a location and calculate distance and time.
2. These imaginary lines are called lines of latitudes and longitudes.

Question 5.
Name the four hemispheres of the Earth.
Answer:

1. Northern Hemisphere,
2. Southern Hemisphere,
3. Eastern Hemisphere and
4. Western Hemisphere.

IX. Give reason

Question 1.
The 0° line or longitude is called the Greenwich Meridian.
Answer:
The 0° line of longitude is called the Greenwich Meridian because it passes through Greenwich.

Question 2.
The regions on Earth between North & South lines of latitude (66 Vi°) and poles (90°) is called Frigid Zone.
Answer:

1. From the Arctic circle (66 ‘A° N) to the North Pole (90° N) and from the Antarctic circle (66 Vi0 S) to the South Pole (90° S) the sun’s rays full further inclined, through out the year.
2. The temperature is very low.
3. Hence this region is known as Frigid Zone.

Question 3.
The International Date Line runs zigzag.
Answer:
If the International Date line is drawn straight, two places in the same country would have different dates. So the International date line is found Zig Zag to avoid confusion.

X. Answer in detail

Question 1.
What are the uses of globe?
Answer:

1. Since the Earth is huge and we live on a very area, we are not able to see the Earth as a whole.
2. But when we travel to space, we can see the Earth as a whole.
3. So, in order to see the shape of the Earth as a whole and to know its unique features, a three-dimensional model of the Earth was created with a specific scale in the name of the globe.

Question 2.
How are the hemispheres divided on the basis of lines of latitude and longitude? Explain with diagrams.
Answer:
Northern Hemisphere:
Northern Hemisphere. The area of the Earth found between the Equator (Oo) and the North pole (90oN) is called the Northern Hemisphere.

Southern Hemisphere:
Southern Hemisphere. The area of the Earth from the Equator (0°) and the South pole (90°S) is called the Southern Hemisphere.

Eastern Hemisphere:
Eastern Hemisphere. The part of the Earth between the 0° line of longitude and 180° East line of longitude is known as the Eastern Hemisphere.

Western Hemisphere
Western Hemisphere. The part of the Earth from Oo line of longitude and 180° West line of longitude is called as Western Hemisphere.

Question 3.
What are the significant lines of latitude? Explain the zones found between them.
Answer:

1. The significant lines of latitude are
2. Equator 0°
3. Tropic of cancer 23 1/2° N
4. Tropic of Capricorn 23 1/2° S
5. Arctic Circle 66 1/22°N
6. Antarctic Circle 66 1/2° S
7. North Pole 90° N
8. South Pole 90° S
9. Based on the amount of heat received from the sun, our world is broadly divided into three heat zones.

1. The Torrid Zone : On both sides of the equator, the region lying between the Tropic of cancer and Tropic of Capricorn is called the Torrid zone. This zone gets the direct rays of the sun all the year round. Hence the climate is hot and humid.

2. The Temperature Zone : This zone is neither hot nor very cold. It lies between the Torrid zone and Frigid zone in both the hemispheres.

3. The Frigid Zone : The region lying between the Arctic circle and North pole and between Antarctic circle and south pole is called the frigid zone. It receives very slanting rays of the sun and is therefore very cold.

Question 4.
Explain : Indian Stanard Time.
Answer:

1. The longitudinal extent of India is from 68° 7’E to 97° 25’E
2. Twenty nine lines of longitude pass through India.
3. Having 29 standard time is not logical
4. Hence 821/2° E line of longitude is observed as the prime meridian to calculate the Indian standard Time (IST)

XI. Activity

There are five Posistion marked on the grid given below. Look at them carefully and fill the blanks with reference to the lines of latitude and longitude. The first one is done for you.

1. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point A 40° N 30°W
2. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point B 20° N 10°W
3. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point C 10° N 20°W
4. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point D 40° N 50°W
5. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point E 20° N 20°W

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Globe Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks Answer

1. The surface area of the Earth is ………….. million square kilometres.
2. ………….. was the first person to draw the lines of latitude and longitude on a map
3. The Royal Astronomical observatory is located at …………..
4. The directions on the ground are always shown with respect to the …………..
5. There are four ………….. directions.

Answer:

1. 510.1
2. Ptolemy
3. Greenwich
4. North
5. Cardinal

II. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Who said this? The stars in the sky seem to move towards the west because of the Earth’s rotation on its axis
Answer:
Aryabhata – The Indian astronomer

Question 2.
Who wrote the book ‘Geographia’?
Answer:
Ptolemy, (a Greco – Roman mathematician (astronomer and geographer)

Question 3.
Name the country that has 7 time zones.
Answer:
Russia

III. Answer in briefly

Question 1.
Define Meridian
Answer:
The word meridian is derived from the latin word ‘Meridianus’. It means mid day. So, meridian means the postion of the sun overhead at the place at noon.

Question 2.
What is an axis?
Answer:

1. An imaginary line around which a large round object such as the Earth turns.
2. The Earth rotates on its axis between the north and South Poles.

Question 3.
What is hemisphere?
Answer:
A half of the earth usually as divided into Northern and Southern halves by the equator or into Western and Eastern halves by an imaginary line passing through the poles.

IV. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
23 1/220° N and S 66 1/220° N and S lines of latitudes are called ……………..
(a) Low latitudes
(b) Middle latitudes
(c) High latitudes
Answer:
(b) Middle latitudes

Question 2.
The Sun’s rays fall vertically in this region.
(a) Frigid Zone
(b) Temperate Zone
(c) Torrid Zone
Answer:
(c) Torrid Zone

Question 3.
High latitudes are there between
(a) 66 1/2°N and S – 90°N and S
(b) 231/2°N and S and 66f°N and S
(c) 0° – 23 1/2°N and S
(d) North poles
Answer:
(a) 66 1/2° N and S – 90°N and S

Question 4.
Latitudes are also known as ……………..
(a) Nilavangu
(b) Ahalangu
(c) Nettangu
Answer:
(b) Ahalangu

Question 5.
Lines of latitudes merge
(a) at poles
(b) at the equator
(c) at International Date line
(d) do not merge
Answer:
(d) do not merge

V. Match the following

Answer:
1. – b
2. – d
3. – e
4. – a
5. – c

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Draw the Heat Zones of the Earth
Answer:

VII. Mind map

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TN State Board 12th Computer Sceince Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

PART – 1

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [15 × 1 = 15]

Question 1.
Which of the following defines what an object can do?
(a) OS
(b) Computer
(c) Interface
(d) Interpreter
Answer:
(c) Interface

Question 2.
Identify the constructor from the following?
(a) City=makecity(name, lat, Ion)
(b) Getname (city)
(c) Getlat (city)
(d) Getlon (city)
Answer:
(a) City=makecity(name, lat, Ion)

Question 3.
Which of the following security technique that regulates who can use resources in a computing environment?
(a) Password
(b) Authentication
(c) Access control
(d) Certification
Answer:
(c) Access control

Question 4.
………………….. is an expression of algorithm in a programming language.
(a) Program
(b) Language
(c) Module
(d) Memory
Answer:
(a) Program

Question 5.
In selection sort, there will be ……………. exchange for every pass through the list.
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) n
(d) n²
Answer:
(b) 1

Question 6.
………….. function is the alternative for bin ( ) function.
(a) Ord ( )
(b) Format ( )
(c) Binary ( )
(d) Bin ( )
Answer:
(b) Format ( )

Question 7.
Which command is used to remove the entire string variable?
(a) Remove
(b) Del
(c) Delete
(d) Strike
Answer:
(b) Del

Question 8.
Functions defined inside a class ………………..
(a) Functions
(b) Module
(c) Methods
(d) Section
Answer:
(c) Methods

Question 9.
In which database systems, transaction management is efficient?
(a) DBMS
(b) RDBMS
(c) ERDMS
(d) DMBS
Answer:
(b) RDBMS

Question 10.
When the command to run a python program is given to interpreter, code at ……………… indentation is executed ………………..
(a) level 0
(b) level 1
(c) level 2
(d) level 3
Answer:
(a) level 0

Question 11.
Which has a native library for sqlite?
(a) C
(b) C++
(c) Java
(d) Python
Answer:
(d) Python

Question 12.
Which table holds the key information about the database tables?
(a) Page
(b) Select
(c) Primary
(d) Master
Answer:
(d) Master

Question 13.
Pick the odd one out
(a) Dashboard
(b) Live graph
(c) Barplot
(d) Histogram
Answer:
(c) Barplot

Question 14.
Which function shows the percentage value in pie chart?
(a) Percent
(b) Percentage
(c) Slice
(d) Autopct
Answer:
(d) Autopct

Question 15.
Which of the following module is provided by Python to do several operations on the CSV files?
(a) Py
(b) Xls
(c) Csv
(d) Os
Answer:
(d) Os

PART – II

Answer any six questions. Question No. 21 is compulsory. [6 × 2 = 12]

Question 16.
Write note on Grant and Revoke command?
Answer:
Grant: Grants permission to one or more users to perform specific tasks.
Revoke: Withdraws the access permission given by the GRANT statement.

Question 17.
Name some clauses in SQL?
Answer:

1. DISTINCT
2. WHERE
3. GROUP BY
4. ORDER BY
5. HAVING

Question 18.
Define subroutine?
Answer:
Subroutines are the basic building blocks of computer programs. Subroutines are small sections of code that are used to perform a particular task that can be used repeatedly. In Programming languages these subroutines are called as Functions.

Question 19.
Write note on modules?
Answer:
A module is a part of a program. Programs are composed of one or more independently developed modules. A single module can contain one or several statements closely related each other. Modules work perfectly on individual level and can be integrated with other modules.

Question 20.
Write note on Exponent data?
Answer:
An Exponent data contains decimal digit part, decimal point, exponent part followed by one or more digits.

Question 21.
Write a program to check if year is leap or not?
Answer:
n=int(input(“Enter any year”1)) if(n % 4 == 0):
print “Leap Year”
else:
print “Not a Leap Year”

Question 22.
Write the syntax of if-else statements?
Answer:
Syntax:
if:
statements-block 1 else:
statements-block 2

Question 23.
Write note on list comprehension?
Answer:
List comprehension is a simplest way of creating sequence of elements that satisfy a certain condition.
Syntax:
List = [expression for variable in range]

Question 24.
What is the purpose of Destructor?
Answer:
Destructor is also a special method gets executed automatically when an object exit from the scope. It is just opposite to constructor. In Python, del ( ) method is used as destructor.

PART – III

Answer any six questions. Question No. 29 is compulsory. [6 × 3 = 18]

Question 25.
What are the two phases in the Analysis of algorithms and performance evaluation?
Answer:
(a) A Priori estimates:
This is a theoretical performance analysis of an algorithm. Efficiency of an algorithm is measured by assuming the external factors.

(b) A Posteriori testing:
This is called performance measurement. In this analysis, actual statistics like running time and required for the algorithm executions are collected.

Question 26.
Write note on Arithmetic operators?
Answer:
An arithmetic operator is a mathematical operator that takes two operands and performs a calculation on them. They are used for simple arithmetic. Most computer languages contain a set of such operators that can be used within equations to perform different types of sequential calculations.

Question 27.
Write note on comments?
Answer:
In Python, comments begin with hash symbol (#). The lines that begins with # are considered as comments and ignored by the Python interpreter. Comments may be single line or no multi-lines. The multiline comments should be enclosed within a set of:-
# as given below.
# It is Single line Comment
# It is multiline comment
which contains more than one line #

Question 28.
Give the flowchart for ‘for loop’ execution?
Answer:

Question 29.
What is the output of the following snippet?
Answer:
i=1
while True:
if i%3 =0:
break
print(i,end=”)
i +=1 Output:
12

Question 30.
Give the syntax for break, continue, pass?
Answer:
Syntax:
break

Syntax:
continue

Syntax:
pass

Question 31.
Fill the Table with appropriate values?

Answer:

Question 32.
Give the 3 different syntax formats for deleting the elements from a list?
Answer:
Syntax:
del List [index of an element]
# to delete a particular element
del List [index from: index to]
# to delete multiple elements del List
# to delete entire list

Question 33.
What is the output of the following program?
Answer:
class Sample:
_num=10
def disp(self):
print(self._num)
S=Sample( )
S.disp( )
print(S._num)
Output:
Error Sample has no attribute S._num
10

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 × 5 = 25]

Question 34(a).
Describe in detail the procedure script mode programming?
Answer:
Basically, a script is a text file containing the Python statements. Python Scripts are reusable code. Once the script is created, it can be executed again and again without retyping. The Scripts are editable.

Creating Scripts in Python:
(I) Choose File —> New File or press Ctrl + N in Python shell window.

(II) An untitled blank script text editor will be displayed on screen

(III) Type the following code in Script editor

a =100
b = 350
c = a + b
print (“The Sum=”, c)

Saving Python Script:

(I) Choose File → Save or Press Ctrl + S

(II) Now, Save as dialog box appears on the screen

(III) In the Save As dialog box, select the location where you want to save your Python code, and type the file name in File Name box. Python files are by default saved with extension .py. Thus, while creating Python scripts using Python Script editor, no need to specify the file extension.

(IV) Finally, click Save button to save your Python script.

Executing Python Script:-
(I) Choose Run → Run Module or Press F5

(II) If your code has any error, it will be shown in red color in the IDLE window, and Python describes the type of error occurred. To correct the errors, go back to Script editor, make corrections, save the file using Ctrl + S or File → Save and execute it again.

(III) For all error free code, the output will appear in the IDLE window of python

[OR]

(b) Explain data types in python?
Answer:
Python Data types:
All data values in Python are objects and each object or value has type. Python has Built-in or Fundamental data types such as Number, String, Boolean, tuples, lists and dictionaries.

Number Data type:
The built-in number objects in Python supports integers, floating point numbers and complex numbers.

Integer Data can be decimal, octal or hexadecimal. Octal integer use O (both upper and lower case) to denote octal digits and hexadecimal integer use OX (both upper and lower case) and L (only upper case) to denote long integer.

Example :

A floating point data is represented by a sequence of decimal digits that includes a decimal point. An Exponent data contains decimal digit part, decimal point, exponent part followed by one or more digits.

Example :

Complex number is made up of two floating point values, one each for the real and imaginary parts.

Boolean Data type:
A Boolean data can have any of the two values: True or False.

Example :
Bool_var1=True
Bool_var2=False

String Data type:
String data can be enclosed with single quote or double quote or triple quote.

Example:
Char_data = ‘A’
String_data= “Computer Science”
Multiline_data= “““String data can be enclosed with single quote or double quote or triple quote.”””

Question 35(a).
Write a program to calculate the sum of numbers from 1 to 100?
Answer:
n = 100 sum = 0
for counter in range( 1 ,n+1):
sum = sum + counter
print(“Sum of 1 until %d: %d” % (n,sum))

Output:
Sum of 1 until 100: 5050

[OR]

(b) Write a program to replace a string with another string without replace ( )?
Answer:
s1 = input(“Enter the-string to be replaced : “)
s2 = input(“Enter the string to replace with “)
s1 = s2
print(“Replaced string is “, si)

Output:
Enter the string to be replaced: Computer
Enter the string to replace with: repcomputer
Replaced string is repcomputer

Question 36(a).
Write a program using class to accept 3 sides of a triangle and print its area?
Answer:
class Tr:
def init (self, a, b, c):
self.a = float(a)
self.b = float(b)
self.c = float(c)
def area(self):
s = (self.a + self.b + self.c)/2
return((s*(s-self.a) * (s-self.b) * (s-self.c) ** 0.5))
a = input(“Enter side 1:”)
b = input(“Enter side2:”)
c = input(“Enter side3:”)
ans=Tr(a,b,c)
print(ans.area())

Output:
Enter side 1 : 3 Enter side 2:4 Enter side 3 : 5

[OR]

(b) Explain different types of DBMS users?
Answer:
(I) Database Administrator:
Database Administrator or DBA is the one who manages the complete database management system. DBA takes care of the security of the DBMS, managing the license keys, managing user accounts and access etc.

(II) Application Programmers or Software Developers:
This user group is involved in developing and designing the parts of DBMS.

(III) End User:
End users are the one who store, retrieve, update and delete data.

(IV) Database designers:
Are responsible for identifying the data to be stored in the database for choosing appropriate structures to represent and store the data.

Question 37 (a).
Explain various components of DBMS?
Answer:
The Database Management System can be divided into five major components as follows:

1. Hardware
2. Software
3. Data
4. Procedures/Methods
5. Database Access Languages

1. Hardware:
The computer, hard disk, I/O channels for data, and any other physical component involved in storage of data

2. Software:
This main component is a program that controls everything. The DBMS software is capable of understanding the Database Access Languages and interprets into database commands for execution.

3. Data:
It is that resource for which DBMS is designed. DBMS creation is to store and utilize data.

4. Procedures/Methods:
They are general instructions to use a database management system such as installation of DBMS, manage databases to take backups, report generation, etc.

5. DataBase Access Languages:
They are the languages used to write commands to access, insert, update and delete data stored in any database.

[OR]

(b) Differentiate IN and NOTIN in SQL using sample commands? IN Keyword?
Answer:
The IN keyword is used to specify a list of values which must be matched with the record values. In other words it is used to compare a column with more than one value. It is similar to an OR condition.

For example :
SELECT Admno, Name, Place FROM Student WHERE Place IN (“Chennai”, “Delhi”);

Adm No	Name	Place
100	Ashish	Chennai
101	Adarsh	Delhi
103	Ayush	Delhi
104	Abinandh	Chennai
105	Revathi	Chennai
107	Hema	Chennai

NOT IN:
The NOT IN keyword displays only those records that do not match in the list.

For example:
SELECT Admno, Name, Place FROM Student WHERE Place NOT IN (“Chennai”, “Delhi”); will display students only from places other than “Chennai” and “Delhi”.

Question 38 (a).
Explain various python file modes?
Answer:

Adm No	Name	Place
102	Akshith	Bangalore
106	Devika	Bangalore

[OR]

(b) Explain getopt ( ) in python?
Answer:
Python getopt module:
The getopt module of Python helps you to parse (split) command-line options and arguments. This module provides two functions to enable command-line argument parsing, getopt.getopt method

This method parses command-line options and parameter list. Following is the syntax for this method
=getopt.getopt( argv, options, {long_options])
Here is the detail of the parameters –

getopt( ) method returns value consisting of two elements. Each of these values are stored separately in two different list (arrays) opts and args .Opts contains list of splitted strings like mode, path and args contains any string if at all not splitted because of wrong path or mode, args will be an empty array if there is no error in splitting strings by getopt( ). For example The Python code which is going to execute the C++ file p4 in command line will have the getopt Q method like the following one. opts, args = getopt.getopt (argv, “i:”,[‘ifile=’])

>>>print(args)
[ ]
Some more command for wrapping C++ code

if _name _==’_main_’;
main(sys.argv[l:])
_name_(A Special variable) in Python

Since there is no main( ) function in Python, when the command to run a Python program is given to the interpreter, the code that is at level 0 indentation is to be executed. However, before doing that, interpreter will define a few special variables. _name_ is one such special variable which by default stores the name of the file.

If the source file is executed as the main program, the interpreter sets the _name_ variable to have a value as ” main ” name is a built-in variable which evaluates to the name of the current module. Thus it can be used to check whether the current script is being run on its own.

For example consider the following
if_name_==’_main_’:
main(sys.argv[1:])
if the command line Python program itself is going to execute first, then _main_ contains the name of that Python program and the Python special variable _name_ also contain the Python program name. If the condition is true it calls the main which is passed with C++ file as argument.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Great Thinkers and New Faiths

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Great Thinkers and New Faiths Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
What is the name of the Buddhist scripture?
(a) Angas
(b) Tripitakas
(c) Tirukkural
(d) Naladiyar
Answer:
(b) Tripitakas

Question 2.
Who was the first Tirthankara of Jainism?
(a) Rishabha
(b) Parsava
(c) Vardhamana
(d) Buddha
Answer:
(a) Rishabha

Question 3.
How many Tirthankaras were there in Jainism?
(a) 23
(b) 24
(c) 25
(d) 26
Answer:
(b) 24

Question 4.
Where was the third Buddhist Council convened?
(a) Rajagriha
(b) Vaishali
(c) Pataliputra
(d) Kashmir
Answer:
(c) Pataliputra

Question 5.
Where did Buddha deliver his first sermon?
(a) Lumbini
(b) Saranath
(c) Taxila
(d) Bodh Gaya
Answer:
(b) Saranath

II. Match the Statement with the Reason. Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Statement : A common man could not understand Upanishads.
Reason : Upanishads were highly philosophical.
(a) Statement and its Reason are correct
(b) Statement is wrong
(c) Statement is true, but the Reason for that is wrong
(d) Both Statement and Reason are wrong
Answer:
(a) Statement and its Reason are correct

Question 2.
Statement: The Jatakas are popular tales,
Reason: Frescoes on the ceilings and walls of Ajanta caves depict the Jataka Tales.
(a) Statement and its Reason are correct.
(b) Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement is true, but the Reason for that is wrong.
(d) Both statement and Reason are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement and its. Reason are correct,

Question 3.
Find out the correct answer:
Buddha Viharas are used for
1. Education
2. Stay of Buddhist monks
3. Pilgrims stay
4. Prayer hall
(a) 2 is correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 1,2,4 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
Answer:
(b) 1 and 3 are correct

Question 4.
Consider the following statements regarding the causes of the origin of Jainism and Buddhism.
I. Sacrificial ceremonies were expensive.
II. Supertitious beliefs and practices confused the common man.
Which of the above statement (s) is / are correct?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I & II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer:
(c) Both I & II

Question 5.
Which of the following about Jainism is correct?
Which of the following about Jainism is correct?
(a) Jainism denies God as the creator of universe
(b) Jainism accepts God as the creator of universe
(c) The basic philosophy of Jainism is idol worship
(d) Jains accept the belief in Last Judgement. ,
Answer:
(a) Jainism denies God as the creator of universe

Question 6.
Circle the odd one:

Answer:
Parsava

Question 7.
Find out the wrong pair:
(a) Ahimsa – not to injure
(b) Satya – to speak truth
(c) Asteya – not to steal
(d) Brahmacharya – married status
Answer:
(d) Brahmacharya – married status

Question 8.
All the following statements are true of Siddhartha Gautama except:
(a) He is the founder of Hinduism
(b) He was bom in Nepal
(c) He attained Nirvana
(d) He was known as Sakyamuni
Answer:
(a) He is the founder of Hinduism

III. Fill in the blanks

1. The doctrine of Mahavira is called …………….
2. ……………. is a state of freedom from suffering and rebirth.
3. ……………. was the founder of Buddhism.
4. Thiruparthikundram, a village in Kanchipuram was once called …………….
5. ……………. were built over the remains of Buddha’s body.

Answer:

1. Jainism
2. Nirvana
3. Gautama Buddha
4. Jina Kanchi
5. Stupas

IV. True or False

1. Buddha believed in Karma.
2. Buddha had faith in caste system
3. Gautama Swami compiled the teachings of Mahavira.
4. Viharas are temples.
5. Emperor Ashoka followed Buddhism.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True

V. Match the following Answer

Answer:
1. – d
2. – a
3. – 4
4. – c
5. – b

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What are the Tri-Ratna (three jewels) of Jainism?
Answer:
Triratna (Three Jewels) of Jainism are

1. Right Faith
2. Right Knowledge
3. Right action.

Question 2.
What are the two sects of Buddhism?
Answer:
The two sects of Buddhism are Hinayana, Mahayana.

Question 3.
What does Jina mean?
Answer:
Jina means conquering self and the external world.

Question 4.
Write any two common features of Buddhism and Jainism.
Answer:

1. Both Buddhism and Jainism denied the authority of Vedas.
2. Both believed in the doctrine of Karma.

Question 5.
Write a note on Buddhist Sangha.
Answer:

1. Sangha, meaning ‘association’ for the propagation of Buddha’s faith.
2. It was formed to propagate Buddha’s faith.
3. The members were called Bhikshus (monks).
4. They led a life of austerity.

Question 6.
Name the Chinese traveller who visited Kancheepuram in the seventh century AD. (CE).

1. Hieun Tsang visited Kanchipuram in the seventh century A.D. (CE).
2. There he noticed the presence of 100 feet stupa built by Ashoka.

Question 7.
Name the female Jain monk mentioned in Silapathikaram.
Answer:
Silapathikaram mentions that when Kovalan and Kannagi were on their way to Madurai, Gownthiyadigal a female Jain monk blessed the couple and accompanied them.

VI. Answer the following

Question 1.
Name the eightfold path of Buddhism?
Answer:

1. Right View
2. Right Thought
3. Right Speech
4. Right Action
5. Right Livelihood
6. Right Effort
7. Right Knowledge
8. Right Meditation

Question 2.
What are the five important rules of conduct in Jainism?
Answer:

1. Ahimsa – not to injure any living beings
2. Satya – to speak the truth
3. Asteya – not to steal
4. Aparigraha – not to own property
5. Brahmacharya – Celibacy

Question 3.
Narrate four noble truths of Buddha?
Answer:

1. Life is full of sorrow and misery.
2. Desire is the cause of misery.
3. Sorrows and sufferings can be removed by giving up one’s desire.
4. The desire can be overcome by following the right path (Noble eightfold path)

Question 4.
Write any three differences between Hinayana and Mahayana sects of Buddhism.
Answer:
Hinayana

1. Did not worship idols or images of Buddha.
2. Practiced austerity.
3. Believed that Salvation of the individual as its goal.
4. Used Prakrit language.
5. Confined to India.

Mahayana

1. Worshiped images of Buddha.
2. Observed elaborate rituals.
3. Believed that the salvation of all beings as its objective.
4. Used Sanskrit language.
5. Spread to Central Asia, Ceylon, Burma, Nepal, Tibet, China, Japan, where the middle path was accepted.

Question 5.
Jainism and Buddhism flourished in the Sangam period. Give any two pieces of evidence for each.
Answer:
(i) In ancient Tamil literature, Jainism is referred to as Samanam. There is a Samanar Hill or Samanar Malai in Keelakuyilkudi village, 15 km away from Madurai. The images of Tirthankaras created by Jain monks are found in the hill. It is a protected monument of the Archaeological Survey of India.

(ii) There is a reference to Aravor Palli, a place of living for Jain monks, in Manimegalai.

(iii) Buddhism spread to Tamil Nadu much later than Jainism. Manimekalai, one of the epics of the post-Sangam age is Buddhist literature.

(iv) There is an elaborate description of Kanchipuram in the classical epic Manimegalai.

VIII. HOTS

Question 1.
Karma – a person’s action. Name any 10 good actions (deeds).
Answer:

1. Help a friend in need
2. Let your first good deed be to a charity
3. Plant a tree
4. Donate an old cell phone
5. Donate blood
6. Decide to make one change in yourself that will make you a better person.
7. Swallow your pride and apologize for something you have done – whether big or small.
8. Donate school supplies to children from underprivileged homes.
9. Answer the phone in a cheerful voice.
10. When you are out buying food purchase, an extra item to donate to a food pantry or to a homeless person.

IX. Student Activity

Question 1.
Read any one story from Jatakas and write a similar story on your own.

Question 2.
Make a tabular column in the following 5 headings.
Answer:

Question 3.
Place the following words in the appropriate column.
Answer:
Words:

1. Jina
2. Mahay ana
3. Tirthankaras
4. Stupas
5. Nirvana
6. Digambara
7. Tripitaka’s
8. Agama

Question 4.
Task cards activity:
Make informative cards for the following religions. Hinduism, Christianity, Islam, Buddhism, Jainism
Answer:
Hinduism:

1. Dasavathara
2. Rudhthrava tandava
3. Siva – Vishnu
4. Maha Kumba Mela
5. Manu dharma

Christianity :

1. Crucified
2. Holy See
3. Nazareth
4. Sermon on the Mount
5. 12 Disciples

Islam:

1. Mecca
2. 786
3. Hijiri
4. The Quran
5. Mohamed Nabi

Buddhism:

1. Hinayana
2. Bodh Gaya
3. Dhamma
4. Tripitakkas
5. Stupas

Jainism :

1. Tirthankaras
2. Svethambara
3. Aravar Palli
4. Gownthiyadigal
5. Trirathnas

Question 5.
Make a Venn diagram to indicate similarities and dissimilarities of Jainism and Buddhism.
Answer:

Question 6.
Solve the puzzle
Answer:

Left to right:

1. One of the Tri Rathna: Right
2. Buddha’s teachings are referred to as
3. A great center of education
4. The place where Buddha attained enlightenment
5. Not to injure any living being

Right to left:

6. Mother of Siddhartha Maya
7. The Quality of man’s life depends on his deed

Top to bottom:

8. Lumbini is in
9. Buddhist prayer hall
10. A state of freedom from birth
11. Jain scripture compiled by Gautama Swami.

X. Life Skills (For Students)

Create a storyboard for Jainism / Buddhism in a chart Model.

XI. Answer Grid

Question 1.
The Jam monks who wear white clothes are called
Answer:
Svetambaras

Question 2.
What is the meaning of Buddha?
Answer:
The awakened or Enlightened.

Question 3.
Who is the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism?
Answer:
Mahavira

Question 4.
Who delivered Dharmachakra Pravartana?
Answer:
Buddha

Question 5.
How many noble truths are there in Buddhism?
Answer:
Four

Question 6.
Which religion’s teachings include four noble truth and eightfold path?
Answer:
Buddhism

Question 7.
Name the earliest Buddhist literature which deals with the stories of various births of Buddha?
Answer:
The Jatakas

Question 8.
Name any four places where Jain monasteries were located in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Puhar, Uraiyur, Madurai, Kanchi

Question 9.
Name one of the twin Indian’s Epics
Answer:
Silapathikaram

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Great Thinkers and New Faiths Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Samanar Malai in Keelakuyilkudi is 15km away from ………………
(a) Trichy
(b) Chennai
(c) Pudukottai
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(d) Madurai

Question 2.
Kevala refers to
(a) Buddha
(b) Rishaba
(c) Mahavira
(d) Thirthankara
Answer:
(c) Mahavira

Question 3.
…………….. represents the Buddhist view of the world.
(a) The wheel of Dharma
(b) The wheel of law
(c) The wheel of Dhamma
(d) The wheel of life
Answer:
(d) The wheel of life

Question 4.
Asteya means
(a) Ahimsa
(b) Not to steal
(c) To speak the truth
(d) Celibacy
Answer:
(b) Not to steal

II. Match the Statement with the Reason/ Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Statement: The sixth century B.C is a landmark period in the intellectual and spiritual development in India.
Reason: The exploitative practices that paved way for awakening.
(a) Statement is wrong
b) Both statement and reason are wrong
(c) Statement and its reason are correct
(d) Statement is true, but the reason for that is wrong
Answer:
(c) Statement and its reason are correct

Question 2.
Find the correct answer:
Vardhamana was:
1. Kshatriya prince
2. under twelve and a half years of penance
3. the real founder of Jainism
4. The first Tirthankara
(a) All are correct
(b) All are correct except
(c) All are wrong
(d) 3 and 4 are correct
Answer:
(b) All are correct except

III. Fill in the blanks

1. The famous Buddhist logician was …………….
2. Vardhaman means …………….
3. In ancient Tamil literature, Jainism is referred to …………….
4. The stepmother of Siddhartha was …………….

Answer:

1. Dinnaga
2. Prosperous
3. Samanam
4. Gautami

IV. True or False

1. The sacrificial ceremonies were expensive in the sixth century.
2. Uraiyur had a Buddhist monastery.
3. Buddha sat under a Neem tree and undertook a deep meditation.
4. Jainism remained in India only.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True

V. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What are the two sects of Jainism?
Answer:

1. Digambaras
2. Svetambaras

Question 2.
Why is Mahavira Believed to be the real founder of Jainism?
Answer:

1. Mahavira reviewed the ancient Shamanic traditions and came up with new doctrines.
2. Therefore he is believed to be the real founder of Jainism.

Question 3.
What kind of life did the Buddha bhikshus lead?
Answer:
The Buddha bhikshus led a life of austerity.

Question 4.
Mention the four sorrowful sights seen by Siddharta
Answer:
The four Sorrowful sights seen by Siddharta were

1. An uncared old man in rags with his bent back.
2. A sick man suffering from an incurable disease.
3. A dead body being carried to the burial ground by weeping relatives, An ascetic.

VI. Answer the following

Question 1.
Write about the four great sights of Buddha.
Answer:
At the age of 29, Siddhartha saw four sorrowful sights. They were

1. An uncared old man in rags with his bent back.
2. A sick man suffering from an incurable disease.
3. A man’s corpse being carried to the burial ground by weeping relatives.
4. An ascetic.

VII. Mind map

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Computer Science Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Computer Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Computer Sceince Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

PART – 1

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [15 × 1 = 15]

Question 1.
Joining of two or more strings is called ……………….
(a) Append
(b) Repeating
(c) Concatenation
(d) Strike
Answer:
(c) Concatenation

Question 2.
What is the output of the following snippet?
T=1
while T:
print(True)
break
(a) False
(b) True
(c) 0
(d) No output
Answer:
(d) No output

Question 3.
………………… is an example for dynamic programming approach.
(a) Fibonacci
(b) Prime
(c) Factorial
(d) Odd, Even
Answer:
(a) Fibonacci

Question 4.
Match the following.
1. // – (I) Modulus
2. # – (II) Floor division
3. % – (III) Strings
4. ||| ||| – (IV) Comments
(a) 1-(II), 2-(IV), 3-(I), 4-(III)
(b) 1-(I), 2-(II), 3-(III), 4-(IV)
(c) 1-(IV) 2-(II) 3-(I) 4-(III)
(d) 1-(IV), 2-(I), 3-(III), 4-(II)
Answer:
(a) 1-(II), 2-(IV), 3-(I), 4-(III)

Question 5.
Lamda functions cannot be used in combination with ……………
(a) Filter
(b) Map
(c) Print
(d) Reduce
Answer:
(c) Print

Question 6.
What is stride?
(a) Index value of slide operation
(b) First argument of slice operation
(c) Second argument of slice operation
(d) Third argument of slice operation
Answer:
(d) Third argument of slice operation

Question 7.
function returns the length of the string?
(a) Strlen ( )
(b) Len (str)
(c) Length ( )
(d) Strlength ( )
Answer:
(b) Len (str)

Question 8.
Let setA={3,6,9}, setB={l,3,9}. What will be the result of the following snippet? print(setA|setB)
(a) {3,6,9,1,3,9}
(b) {3,9}
(c) {1}
(d) {1,3,6,9}
Answer:
(d) {1,3,6,9}

Question 9.
Which function is used to delete elements of a list if its index is unknown?
(a) Del
(b) Delete
(c) Remove( )
(d) Back space
Answer:
(c) Remove( )

Question 10.
The first argument of the class method is …………………..
(a) Class
(b) Func
(c) Def
(d) Self
Answer:
(d) Self

Question 11.
The …………………… command is used to insert, delete and update rows into the table.
(a) DCL
(b) DML
(c) DTL
(d) TCL
Answer:
(b) DML

Question 12.
What will be written inside the file test.csv using the following program
import csv
D = [[‘Exam’],[‘Quarterly’],[‘Halfyearly’]]
csv.register_dialect(‘M’,lineterminator = ‘\n’)
with open(‘c:\pyprg\chl3\line2.csv’, ‘w’) as f:
wr = csv.writer(f,dialect=’M’)
wr.writerows(D) f.close( )
(a) Exam Quarterly Halfyearly
(b) Exam Quarterly Halfyearly
(c) EQH
(d) Exam,Quarterly,Halfyearly
Answer:
(d) Exam,Quarterly,Halfyearly

Question 13.
The default mode when you open a file is ……………….
(a) r
(b) w
(c) x
(d) a
Answer:
(a) r

Question 14.
Which operator is used to access the functions of a imported value?
(a) +
(b) *
(c) .
(d) /
Answer:
(c) .

Question 15.
What will be the value assigned to the empty table if it is given Integer primary key?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) -1
Answer:
(b) 1

PART – II

Answer any six questions. Question No. 21 is compulsory. [6 × 2 = 12]

Question 16.
List some aggregate functions in SQL?
Answer:

1. COUNT( )
2. SUM( )
3. MIN( )
4. AVG( )
5. MAX( )

Question 17.
How recursive function works?
Answer:

1. Recursive function is called by some external code.
2. If the base condition is met then the program gives meaningful output and exits.
3. Otherwise, function does some required processing and then calls itself to continue recursion.

Question 18.
Write a short about the followings with suitable example?

1. Capitalize( )
2. Swapcase( )

Answer:

Question 19.
What is set in Python?
Answer:
In python, a set is another type of collection data type. A Set is a mutable and an unordered collection of elements without duplicates. That means the elements within a set cannot be repeated. This feature used to include membership testing and eliminating duplicate elements.

Question 20.
Write note on self?
Answer:
The class method must have the first argument named as self. No need to pass a value for this argument when we Call the method. Python provides its value automatically.

Even if a method takes no arguments, it should be defined with the first argument called self. If a method is defined to accept only one argument it will take it as two arguments i.e. self and the defined argument.

Question 21.
Differentiate data from Information.
Answer:

Question 22.
What does data manipulation means?
Answer:
By Data Manipulation we mean:

1. Insertion of new information into the database
2. Retrieval of information stored in a database.
3. Deletion of information from the database.
4. Modification of data stored in the database.

Question 23.
How will you sort more than one column from a csv file? Give an example statement?
Answer:
To sort by more than one column you can use itemgetter with multiple indices: operator 1
itemgetter (1,2).
#using operator module for sorting multiple columns
sortedlist =sorted (data, key=operator.itemgetter(l))

Question 24.
What are the different formats to create csv files?
Answer:

1. CSV file – data with default delimiter comma (,)
2. CSV file – data with Space at the beginning
3. CSV file – data with quotes
4. CSV file – data with custom Delimiters

PART – III

Answer any six questions. Question No. 29 is compulsory. [6 × 3 = 18]

Question 25.
Why access control is required?
Answer:

• Access control is a security technique that regulates who or what can view or use resources in a computing environment.
• It is a fundamental concept in security that minimizes risk to the object. In other words access control is a selective restriction of access to data.
• In Object oriented programming languages it is implemented through access modifies.
• Classical object-oriented languages, such as C++ and Java, control the access to class members by public, private and protected keywords.

Question 26.
How will you execute python script?
Answer:

1. If your code has any error, it will be shown in red color in the IDLE window, and Python describes the type of error occurred. To correct the errors, go back to Script editor, make corrections, save the file using Ctrl + S or File → Save and execute it again.
2. For all error free code, the output will appear in the IDLE window of Python.

Question 27.
Differentiate ceil( ) and floor( ) function?
Answer:

Question 28.
Give any 6 formatting characters with their usage?
Answer:

Question 29.
How will you access the list elements in reverse order?
Answer:

Question 30.
What are the advantages of Tuples over a list?
Answer:

1. The elements of a list are changeable (mutable) whereas the elements of a tuple are unchangeable (immutable), this is the key difference between tuples and list.
2. The elements of a list are enclosed within square brackets. But, the elements of a tuple are enclosed by paranthesis.
3. Iterating tuples is faster than list.

Question 31.
How will you create a set in python?
Answer:
A set is created by placing all the elements separated by comma within a pair of curly brackets.
The set( ) function can also used to create sets in Python.
Syntax:
Set_Variable = {E1, E2, E3 ……… En}
Example
>>> S1={ 1, 2, 3, ‘A’, 3.14}
>>>print(S1)
{1, 2, 3, 3.14, ‘A’}
>>> S2={1, 2,2, ‘A’, 3.14}
>>> print(S2)
{1, 2, ‘A’, 3.14}

Question 32.
Write a program that creates a list of numbers from 1 to 20 that are divisible by 4? Program to create a list of numbers from 1 to 20 that are divisible by 4?
Answer:
divBy4=[ ]
for i in range(21):
if (i%4= =0):
divBy4.append(i)
print(divBy4)

Output:
[0, 4, 8, 12, 16, 20]

Question 33.
Write the output for the program?
Answer:
class Sample:
def_init_(self, num):
print(“Constructor of class Sample…”)
self.num=num
print(“The value is num)
S=Sample(10)
Constructor of class sample…
The value is: 10

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 × 5 = 25]

Question 34(a).
Explain the concept of Dynamic programming with suitable example?
Answer:
Dynamic programming:
Dynamic programming is an algorithmic design method that can be used when the solution to a problem can be viewed as the result of a sequence of decisions.

Dynamic programming approach is similar to divide and conquer. The given problem is divided into smaller and yet smaller possible sub-problems.

Dynamic programming is used whenever problems can be divided into similar sub-problems. So that their results can be re-used to complete the process.

Dynamic programming approaches are used to find the solution in optimized way. For every inner sub problem, dynamic algorithm will try to check the results of the previously solved sub-problems. The solutions of overlapped sub-problems are combined in order to get the better solution.

Steps to do Dynamic programming

• The given problem will be divided into smaller overlapping sub-problems.
• An optimum solution for the given problem can be achieved by using result of smaller sub-problem.
• Dynamic algorithms uses Memoization.

Fibonacci Series – An example:
Fibonacci series generates the subsequent number by adding two previous numbers. Fibonacci series starts from two numbers – Fib 0 & Fib 1. The initial values of fibO & fibl can be taken as 0 and 1.
Fibonacci series satisfies the following conditions:
Fibn = Fib_n-1 + Fib_n-2

Hence, a Fibonacci series for the n value 8 can look like this
Fib8 = 0 1 1 2 3 5 8 13

Fibonacci Iterative Algorithm with Dynamic programming approach

The following example shows a simple Dynamic programming approach for the generation of Fibonacci series.
Initialize f0 = 0, f1 =1

step-1: Print the initial values of Fibonacci f0 and f1
step-2: Calculate fibonacci fib ← f0 + f1
step-3: Assign f0 ← f1, f1 ← fib
step-4: Print the next consecutive value of fibanocci fib
step-5: Goto step-2 and repeat until the specified number of terms generated.

For example if we generate fibanocci series up to 10 digits, the algorithm will generate the series as shown below:
The Fibonacci series is : 0 1 1 2 3 5 8 13 21 34 55

[OR]

(b) List out the set operations supported by python?
Answer:
(I) Union:
It includes all elements from two or more sets.
In python, the operator | is used to union of two sets. The function union( ) is also used to join two sets in python.

Example: Program to Join (Union) two sets using union operator
set_A={2,4,6,8}
set_B={‘A’, ‘B’, ’C, ’D’}
U_set=set_A|set_B
print(U_set)
Output:
{2, 4, 6, 8, ‘A’, ‘D’, ‘C’, ‘B’}

(II) Intersection:
It includes the common elements in two sets
The operator & is used to intersect two sets in python. The function intersection ( ) is also used to intersect two sets in python.
Example: Program to insect two sets using intersection operator
set_A={‘A’, 2, 4, ‘D’}
set_B={‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’}
print(set_A & set_B)
Output:
{A’, ‘D’}

(III) Difference:
It includes all elements that are in first set (say set A) but not in the second set (say set B)
The minus (-) operator is used to difference set operation in python.
The function difference() is also used to difference operation.
Example: Program to difference of two sets using minus operator
set_A={A’, 2, 4, ‘D’}
set_B={‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’}
print(set_A – set_B)
Output:
{2,4}

(IV) Symmetric difference:
It includes all the elements that are in two sets (say sets A and B) but not the one that are common to two sets.
The caret (^) operator is used to symmetric difference set operation in python. The function symmetric_difference( ) is also used to do the same operation.
Example: Program to symmetric difference of two sets using caret operator
set_A={‘A’, 2, 4, ‘D’}
set_B={‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’}
print(set_A ^ set_B)
Output:
(2, 4, ’B’, ‘C’}

Question 35(a).
Write a python program using list to read marks of six subjects and to print the marks scored in each subject and show the total marks?
Answer:
marks=[ ]
subjects=[‘Tamil’, ‘English’, ‘Physics’, ‘Chemistry’, ‘Comp. Science’, ’Maths’]
for i in range(6):
m=int(input(“Enter Mark = “))
marks.append(m)
for j in range(len(marks)):
print(“{ }. { } Mark= { } “.format(j1+,subjects[j],marks[j]))
print(“Total Marks = “, sum(marks))

Output
Enter Mark = 45
Enter Mark = 98
Enter Mark = 76
Enter Mark = 28
Enter Mark = 46
Enter Mark = 15

1. Tamil Mark = 45
2. English Mark = 98
3. Physics Mark = 76
4. Chemistry Mark = 28
5. Comp. Science Mark = 46
6. Maths Mark =15 Total Marks = 308

[OR]

(b) Write a class with two private class variables and print the sum using a method?
Answer:
class Sample:
def_init_(self, n1, n2):
self._n1=n1
self._n2=n2
def display(self):
print(“class variable 1:”, self._n1)
print(“class variable 2:”, self._n2)
print(“sum self._n1+ self._n2)
s = sample(10, 20)
s.display( )

Output:
class variable 1 : 10
class variable 2 : 20
sum : 30

Question 36 (a).
Explain the characteristics of DBMS?
Answer:
Characteristics of Database Management System?

[OR]

(b) Write any three DDL commands?
Answer:
(a) CREATE TABLE Command:
You can create a table by using the CREATE TABLE command.
CREATE TABLE Student
(Admno integer),
Name char(20), \
Gender char(1),
Age integer,
Place char(10),
);

(b) ALTER COMMAND:
The ALTER command is used to alter the table structure like adding a column, renaming the existing column, change the data type of any column or size of the column or delete the column from the table. Alter table Student add address char;

(c) DROP TABLE:
Drop table command is used to remove a table from the database.
DROP TABLE Student;

Question 37 (a).
What are the functions performed by DDL?
Answer:

1. It should identify the type of data division such as data item, segment, record and database file.
2. It gives a unique name to each data item type, record type, file type and data base.
3. It should specify the proper data type.
4. It should define the size of the data item.
5. It may define the range of values that a data item may use.
6. It may specify privacy locks for preventing unauthorized data entry.

[OR]

(b) Write the different methods to read a File in Python? Read a CSV File Using Python?
Answer:
There are two ways to read a CSV file.

1. Use the csv module’s reader function
2. Use the DictReader class.

(I) CSV Module’s Reader Function:
You can read the contents of CSV file with the help of csv.reader( ) method. The reader function is designed to take each line of the file and make a list of all columns. Then, you just choose the column you want the variable data for. Using this method one can read data from csv files of different formats like quotes (” “),pipe (|) and comma(,).

The syntax for csv.reader( ) is
csv. readert(fileobject, delimiter,fmtparams)

where:-
File object:- passes the path and the mode of the file
Delimiter:- An optional parameter containing the standard dilects like, I etc can be omitted.
Fmtparams:- Optional parameter which help to override the default values of the dialects like skipinitialspace,quoting etc can be omitted.

(II) Reading CSV File Into A Dictionary:
To read a CSV file into a dictionary can be done by using DictReader class of csv module which works similar to the reader( ) class but creates an object which maps data to a dictionary.

The keys are given by the fieldnames as parameter. DictReader works by reading the first line of the CSV and using each comma separated value in this line as a dictionary key. The columns in each subsequent row then behave like dictionary values and can be accessed with the appropriate key (i.e. fieldname).

If the first row of your CSV does not contain your column names, you can pass a fieldnames parameter into the DictReader’s constructor to assign the dictionary keys manually.

The main difference between the csv.reader( ) and DictReader( ) is in simple terms csv. reader and csv. writer work with list/tuple, while csv.DictReader and csv.DictWriter work with dictionary. csv.DictReader and csv.DictWriter take additional argument fieldnames that are used as dictionary keys.

Question 38 (a).
Write a python program to read a csv file and store it in a list? Read A CSV File And Store It In A List?
Answer:
In this topic you are going to read a CSV file and the contents of the file will be stored as a list. The syntax for storing in the List is
list = [ ]                           # Start as the empty list
list.append(element)      # Use append( ) to add elements
For example all the row values of “sample.csv” file is stored in a list using the following
program
import csv
# other way of declaring the filename
inFile= ‘c:\ \pyprg\\sample.csv’
F=open(inFile,’r’)
reader= csv.reader(F)
# declaring array array Value = [ ]
# displaying the content of the list for row in reader:
array Value.append(row)
print(row)
F.close( )

[OR]

(b) Explain OR, AND and NOT operator in SQL?
Answer:
The WHERE clause can be combined with AND, OR, and NOT operators. The AND and OR operators are used to filter records based on more than one condition. In this example you
are going to display the details of students who have scored other than ‘A’. or ‘B’ from the “student table”

Example for WHERE WITH NOT Operator
import sqlite3
connection= sqlite3 ,connect(” Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT *FROM student where grade< >’A’ and Grade< >’B'”)
result = cursor. fetchall( )
print(*result,sep=”\n”)

OUTPUT
(3, ’BASKAR’, ‘C, ‘M’, 75.2, ‘1998-05-17’)
(7, ‘TARUN’, ’D’, ‘M’, 62.3, ‘1999-02-01’)

Example for WHERE WITH AND Operator:-
In this example we are going to display the name, Rollno and Average of students who have scored an average between 80 to 90% (both limits are inclusive) import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect(” Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT Rollno, Same, Average FROM student WHERE (Average>=80 AND Average<=90)”)
result = cursor. fetchall( )
print(*result,sep=”\n”)

OUTPUT
(1, ’Akshay’, 87.8)
(5, ’VARUN’, 80.6)

Example for WHERE WITH OR Operator:-
In this example we are going to display the name and Rollno of students who have not scored an average between 60 to 70% import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect(” Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT Rollno,sname FROM student WHERE (Average<60 OR
Average> 70)”)
result = cursor. fetchall( )
print(*result,sep=”\n”)

OUTPUT
(1, ‘Akshay’)
(2, ‘Aravind’)
(3, ‘BASKAR’)
(4, ‘SAJINI’)
(5, ‘VARUN’)
(6, ‘PRIYA’)