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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Solutions Chapter 1.2 தமிழ்சொல் வளம்

கற்பவை கற்றபின்

Question 1.
பின்வரும் நிலவகைகளின் பெயர்களுக்கான காரணங்களைக் கேட்டறிந்து வகுப்பறையில் பகிர்க.
தரிசு, சிவல், கரிசல், முரம்பு, புறம்போக்கு, சுவல், அவல்.
Answer:
தரிசு நிலம் : பயிர் செய்யாத நிலம்
சிவல் நிலம் : செந்நிலம் அல்லது சிவந்த நிலம்
கரிசல் நிலம் : கரிய நிறமுடைய மண் கொண்ட நிலம் கரிசல் நிலம் (அ) கரிந்த பாலை நிலம்
முரம்பு நிலம் : பருக்கைக் கற்கள் கொண்ட மேட்டு நிலம்
புறம்போக்கு நிலம் : ஊர்ப்புறத்தே குடிகள் வாழ்தலில்லாத நிலம்
சுவல் நிலம் : மேட்டு நிலம்
அவல் நிலம் : ‘அவல்’ என்பதன் பொருள் ‘பள்ளம்’. ஆகவே பள்ளமான நிலப்பகுதி அவல் என அழைக்கப்படுகிறது. விளை நிலமாகவும் அமைகிறது.

Question 2.
ஒரு பொருள் தரும் பல சொற்களைப் பட்டியலிடுக.
எ.கா: சொல்லுதல் – பேசுதல், விளம்புதல், செப்புதல், உரைத்தல், கூறல், இயம்பல், மொழிதல்
Answer:
அ) மலர்தல் – அவிழ்தல், அலர்தல், நெகிழ்தல், விள்ளல், விரிதல்.
ஆ) ஞாயிறு – I சூரியன், கதிரவன், வெய்யோன், பகலவன், பரிதி.
இ) அரசன் – கோ, கொற்றவன், வேந்தன், ராஜா, கோன்.
ஈ) அழகு – அணி, வடிவு, பொலிவு, எழில்.
உ) அடி- கழல், கால், தாள், பதம், பாதம்.
ஊ) தீ – அக்கினி, நெருப்பு, தழல்.
எ) அச்சம் – பயம், பீதி, உட்கு .
ஏ) துன்பம் – இன்னல், அல்லல், இடும்பை
ஐ) அன்பு – கருணை , நேசம், ஈரம், பரிவு, பற்று.
ஓ) செய்யுள் – பா, கவிதை, யாப்பு.
ஓ) பெண் – நங்கை, வனிதை, மங்கை.
ஔ) வயல் – கழனி, பழனம், செய்.

பாடநூல் வினாக்கள்

பலவுள் தெரிக

Question 1.
‘காய்ந்த இலையும் காய்ந்த தோகையும்’ நிலத்துக்கு நல்ல உரங்கள். இத்தொடரில் அடிக்கோடிட்ட பகுதி குறிப்பிடுவது
அ) இலையும் சருகும்
ஆ) தோகையும் சண்டும்
இ) தாளும் ஓலையும்
ஈ) சருகும் சண்டும்
Answer:
ஈ) சருகும் சண்டும்

Question 2.
வேர்க்கடலை, மிளகாய் விதை, மாங்கொட்டை ஆகியவற்றைக் குறிக்கும் பயிர்வகை
அ) குலை வகை
ஆ) மணி வகை
இ) கொழுந்து வகை
ஈ) இலை வகை
Answer:
ஆ) மணி வகை

குறுவினா

Question 1.
ஒரு தாற்றில் பல சீப்பு வாழைப்பழங்கள் உள்ளன.
ஒரு சீப்பில் பல தாறு வாழைப்பழங்கள் உள்ளன.
ஒரு சீப்பில் பல வாழைப்பழங்கள் உள்ளன.

மேற்கண்ட தொடர்களில் சரியான தொடர்களைச் சுட்டிக்காட்டி, எஞ்சிய பிழையான தொடரிலுள்ள பிழைக்கான காரணத்தை எழுதுக.
Answer:

சிறுவினா

Quesiton 1.
‘புளியங்கன்று ஆழமாக நடப்பட்டுள்ளது.’
இதுபோல் இளம் பயிர் வகை ஐந்தின் பெயர்களைத் தொடர்களில் அமைக்க.
Answer:
பிள்ளை – தென்னம் பிள்ளை வாங்கி வந்தேன் .
வடலி – காட்டில் பனை வடலியைப் பார்த்தேன்.
நாற்று – நெல் நாற்று நட்டேன்.
கன்று – வாழைக்கன்று நட்டேன்.
பைங்கூழ் – சோளப் பைங்கூழ் பசுமையாக உள்ளது.

நெடுவினா

Question 1.
தமிழின் சொல்வளம் பற்றியும் புதிய சொல்லாக்கத்திற்கான தேவை குறித்தும் தமிழ் மன்றத்தில் பேசுவதற்கான உரைக் குறிப்புகளை எழுதுக.
Answer:

குறிப்புச்சட்டம் –
அறிமுகவுரை சொல்வளம் சொல்லாக்கத்திற்கான தேவை நிறைவுரை அறிமுகவுரை: வணக்கம்! அன்னைமொழியே! அழகார்ந்த செந்தமிழே! எனப் போற்றப்படும் தமிழ்மொழி பிறமொழிகளுக்கெல்லாம் தலைச்சிறந்த மொழியாகும். அம்மொழியின் சொல்வளத்தைப் பற்றிக் காண்போம்.

சொல்வளம்:

• இலக்கியச் செம்மொழிகளுக்கெல்லாம் பொதுவேனும், தமிழ்மட்டும் அதில் தலை சிறந்ததாகும்.
• தமிழ்ச்சொல் வளத்தைப் பலதுறைகளிலும் காணலாம்.
• ஒருபொருட் பல சொல் வரிசைகள் தமிழைத் தவிர வேறு எந்தத் திராவிட மொழிகளின் அகராதிகளிலும் காணப்படவில்லை .
• “பிற திராவிட மொழிகளுக்குரியனவாகக் கருதப்படும் சொற்களும் தமிழில் உள்” என்கிறார் கால்டுவெல்.

சொல்லாக்கத்திற்கான தேவை:

• சொல்லாக்கத்திற்கான தேவை என்பது அதன் பயன்பாட்டு முறையைக் கொண்டே அமைகிறது.
• இன்றைய அறிவியல் வளர்ச்சிக்கேற்ப நூல்களைப் புதிய சொல்லாக்கத்துடன் படைத்தல் வேண்டும்.
• இலக்கிய மேன்மைக்கும் மக்கள் அறிவுடையவர்களாக உயர்வதற்கும், புதிய சொல்லாக்கம் தேவை.
• மொழி என்பது உலகின் போட்டி போராட்டத்திற்கு ஒரு போர்க்கருவியாகும். அக்கருவி காலத்திற்கேற்ப மாற்றப்பட வேண்டும்.
• தமிழின் பெருமையும் மொழியின் சிறப்பும் குன்றாமல் இருக்க தமிழில் புதிய சொல்லாக்கம் தேவை.
• உலகின் பிற ஆய்வுச் சிந்தனைகளைத் தமிழ்ப்படுத்தி எழுதும் போது பிறமொழி அறியாத தமிழரும்
• அவற்றைக் குறித்து அறிந்துகொள்ள முடியும்.
• மொழியே கலாச்சாரத்தின் வழிகாட்டி. அதை நிலைநாட்ட புதிய சொல்லாக்கம் தேவை.
• மக்களிடையே பரந்த மனப்பான்மையையும், ஆளுமையையும் நிலைநாட்ட புதிய சொல்லாக்கம் தேவைப்படுகிறது.
• பிறமொழிச் சொற்கள் கலவாமல் இருக்க காலத்திற்கேற்ப புதிய கலைச்சொல்லாக்கம் ஏற்படுத்த வேண்டும்.

நிறைவுரை:

மென்மையான தமிழை மேன்மையான தமிழாக்க அறிவியல் தொழில்நுட்பச் சொற்களைத் தமிழ்ப்படுத்தி தமிழின் பெருமையை உலகிற்குக் கொண்டு செல்வோம்.

கூடுதல் வினாக்கள்

பலவுள் தெரிக

Question 1.
மரஞ்செடியினின்று பூ கீழே விழுந்த நிலையைக் குறிக்கும் சொல் எது?
அ) அரும்பு
ஆ) மலர்
இ) வீ
ஈ) செம்மல்
Answer:
இ) வீர

Question 2.
திராவிட மொழிகளின் ஒப்பியல் இலக்கணம் என்னும் நூலை எழுதியவர் யார்?
அ) பாவாணர்
ஆ) கால்டுவெல்
இ) இரா. இளங்குமரனார்
ஈ) திரு.வி.க
Answer:
ஆ) கால்டுவெல்

Question 3.
திருவள்ளுவர் தவச்சாலை அமைந்துள்ள இடம் எது?
அ) அல்லூர்
ஆ) திருவள்ளூர்
இ) கல்லூர்
ஈ) நெல்லூர்
Answer:
அ) அல்லூர்

Question 4.
குச்சியின் பிரிவு எச்சொல்லால் அழைக்கப்படுகிறது? அ) போத்து
ஆ) குச்சி
இ) இணுக்கு
ஈ) சினை
Answer:
இ) இணுக்கு

Question 5.
பொருத்துக.
1. தாள் – அ) குத்துச்செடி, புதர் முதலியவற்றின் அடி
2. தண்டு – ஆ) நெட்டி, மிளகாய்ச்செடி முதலியவற்றின் அடி
3. கோல் – இ) தண்டு, கீரை முதலியவற்றின் அடி
4. தூறு – ஈ) நெல், கேழ்வரகு முதலியவற்றின் அடி
அ) 1.ஈ 2.இ 3.ஆ 4.அ
ஆ) 1.ஆ 2.அ 3.ஈ 4-இ
இ) 1.இ 2.ஈ 3.அ 4.ஆ
ஈ) 1.அ 2.இ 3.ஆ 4.ஈ
Answer:
அ) 1.ஈ 2.இ 3.ஆ 4.அ

Question 6.
பொருத்துக.
1. தட்டு – அ) கரும்பின் அடி
2. கழி – ஆ) புளி, வேம்பு முதலியவற்றின் அடி
3. கழை – இ) கம்பு, சோளம்
முதலியவற்றின் அடி – ஈ) மூங்கிலின் அடி
அ) 1.ஆ 2.அ 3.ஈ. 4.இ
ஆ) 1.இ 2.அ 3.ஈ. 4.ஆ
இ) 1.ஈ 2.இ 3.அ 4.ஆ
ஈ) 1.இ 2.அ 3.ஆ 4.ஈ
Answer:
ஆ) 1.இ 2.அ 3.ஈ 4.ஆ

Question 7.
பொருத்துக.
1. கவை – அ) அடிமரத்தினின்று பிரியும் மாபெரும் கிளை
2. கொம்பு – ஆ) கிளையின் பிரிவு
3. சினை – இ) கவையின் பிரிவு
4. போத்து – ஈ) சினையின் பிரிவு
அ) 1.அ 2.இ 3.ஆ 4.ஈ
ஆ) 1.ஈ 2.இ 3.அ 4.ஆ
இ) 1.ஆ 2.அ 3.ஈ. 4.இ
ஈ) 1.இ 2.ஆ 3.அ 4.ஈ
Answer:
அ) 1.அ 2.இ 3.ஆ 4.ஈ

போத்து 8.
பொருந்தாதவற்றைக் கண்டறிக.
அ) தூறு
ஆ) கழி
இ) கழை
ஈ) கவை
Answer:
ஈ) கவை

Question 9.
பொருந்தாதவற்றைக் கண்டறிக.
அ) தாள்
ஆ) தண்டு
இ) கிளை
ஈ) கோல்
Answer:
இ) கிளை

Question 10.
பொருந்தாதவற்றைக் கண்டறிக.
அ) கவை
ஆ) தட்டு
இ) கொம்பு
ஈ) சினை
Answer:
ஆ) தட்டு

Question 11.
பொருந்தாத இணையைக் கண்டறிக.
அ) கவை – குச்சியின் பிரிவு
ஆ) கொம்பு – கவையின் பிரிவு
இ) போத்து – சினையின் பிரிவு
ஈ) குச்சி – போத்தின் பிரிவு
Answer:
அ) கவை-குச்சியின் பிரிவு

Question 12.
வேறுபட்ட குழுவினைக் கண்டறிக.
அ) தாள், தண்டு, கோல், தூறு
ஆ) கவை, கொம்பு, கிளை, சினை
இ) சுள்ளி, விறகு, வெங்கழி, கட்டை
ஈ) கழி, குச்சு, இணுக்கு, கழை
Answer:
ஈ) கழி, குச்சு, இணுக்கு, கழை

Question 13.
பொருத்துக.
1. இலை – அ) தென்னை , பனை முதலியவற்றின் இலை
2. தாள் – ஆ) சோளம், கம்பு முதலியவற்றின் அடி
3. தோகை – இ) புளி, வேம்பு முதலியவற்றின் இலை
4. ஓலை – ஈ) நெல், புல் முதலியவற்றின் இலை
அ) 1.ஈ 2.இ 3.அ 4.ஆ
ஆ) 1.இ 2.ஈ 3.ஆ 4.அ
இ) 1.ஆ 2.அ 3.ஈ 4.இ
ஈ) 1.இ 2.ஈ 3.அ 4.ஆ
Answer:
ஆ) 1.இ 2.ஈ 3.ஆ 4.அ

Question 14.
பொருத்தமற்ற ஒன்றைக் கண்டறிக.
அ) சண்டு
ஆ) சருகு
இ) தோகை
ஈ) கட்டை
Answer:
ஈ) கட்டை

Question 15.
பொருந்தாத இணையைக் கண்டறிக.
அ) சண்டு – காய்ந்த தாளும் தோகையும்
ஆ) சருகு – காய்ந்த இலை
இ) தாள் – புலி, வேம்பு முதலியவற்றின் இலை
ஈ) தோகை – சோளம், கம்பு முதலியவற்றின் இலை
Answer:
இ) தாள் – புலி, வேம்பு முதலியவற்றின் இலை

Question 16.
வேறுபட்ட குழுவினைக் கண்டறிக.
அ) தோகை, ஓலை, சண்டு, சருகு
ஆ) துளிர், முறி, கொழுந்து, கொழுந்தாடை
இ) பூம்பிஞ்சு, பிஞ்சு, வடு, கவ்வை
ஈ) கருக்கல், கச்சல், கொத்து, குலை
Answer:
ஈ) கருக்கல், கச்சல், கொத்து, குலை

Question 17.
தும்பி – இச்சொல்லின் பொருள்
அ) தும்பிக்கை
ஆ) வண்டு
இ) துந்துபி
ஈ) துன்பம்
Answer:
ஆ) வண்டு

Question 18.
தாவரங்களின் இலை வகைகளைக் குறிக்கும் சொற்களுள் – சரியானவற்றைச் தேர்ந்தெடு.
அ) இலை, தாள், தோகை, ஒலை, சண்டு, சருகு
ஆ) இலை, தோகை, தாள், தளிர், குருத்து, அரும்பு
இ) தாள், தோகை, தூறு, தட்டு, தண்டு, ஓலை
ஈ) இலை, தாள், ஓலை, தளிர், கொழுந்து, சண்டு
Answer:
அ) இலை, தாள், தோகை, ஒலை, சண்டு, சருகு

Question 19.
‘நாடும் மொழியும் நமதிரு கண்கள்’ என்று பாடியவர் யார்?
அ) பாரதியார்
ஆ) பாரதிதாசன் இ) பெருஞ்சித்திரனார்
ஈ) தேவநேயப் பாவாணர்
Answer:
அ) பாரதியார்

Question 20.
சொல்லாராய்ச்சியில் பாவாணரும் வியந்த பெருமகனார் யார்?
அ) தேவநேயப் பாவாணர்
ஆ) இளங்குமரனார்
இ) திரு.வி.கலியாணசுந்தரனார்
ஈ) மறைமலையடிகள்
Answer:
ஆ) இளங்குமரனார்

Question 21.
பாவாணர் நூலகம் ஒன்றை உருவாக்கியவர் யார்?
அ) தேவநேயப் பாவாணர்
ஆ) இளங்குமரனார்
இ) திரு.வி.க
ஈ) மறைமலையடிகள்
Answer:
ஆ) இளங்குமரனார்

Question 22.
தமிழ்வழித் திருமணங்களை நடத்தி வருபவர் யார்?
அ) தேவநேயப் பாவாணர்
ஆ) பெருஞ்சித்திரனார்
இ) இளங்குமரனார்
ஈ) பெருந்தேவனார்
Answer:
இ) இளங்குமரனார்

Question 23.
விழிகளை இழக்க நேரிட்டால் கூட தாய்த்தமிழினை இழந்துவிடக் கூடாது என்று எண்ணியவர் யார்?
அ) ஜி. யு. போப்
ஆ) வீரமாமுனிவர்
இ) இளங்குமரனார்
ஈ) பெருங்குமரனார்
Answer:
இ) இளங்குமரனார்

Question 24.
இளங்குமரனார் யார் போல இமைகளை மூடியபடி எழுதும் ஆற்றலைக் கற்றுக் கொண்டவர்?
அ) திரு.வி.க
ஆ) பாவாணர்
இ) மு.வ
ஈ) ஜீவா
Answer:
அ) திரு.வி.க

Question 25.
இமைகளை மூடியபடி எழுதும் ஆற்றலைக் கற்றுக்கொண்டவர்
அ) தமிழழகனார்
ஆ) அப்பாத்துரையார்
இ) தேவநேயப் பாவாணர்
ஈ) இரா.இளங்குமரனார்
Answer:
ஈ) இரா.இளங்குமரனார்

Question 26.
விழிகளை மூடியபடி எழுதும் ஆற்றல் வாய்ந்த வர்கள் ………… …………
அ) திரு.வி.க., இளங்குமரனார்
ஆ) தமிழழகனார், அப்பாத்துரையார்
இ) தேவநேயப் பாவாணர், கால்டுவெல்
ஈ) பெருஞ்சித்திரனார், சுந்தரனார்
Answer:
அ) திரு.வி.க., இளங்குமரனார்

Question 27.
‘தமிழ்த்தென்றல்’ என்று போற்றப்பட்டவர் யார்?
அ) இளங்குமரனார்
ஆ) பெருந்தேவனார்
இ) திரு.வி.க
ஈ) ம.பொ .சி
Answer:
இ) திரு.வி.க

Question 28.
உலகிலேயே ஒரு மொழிக்காக உலக மாநாடு நடத்திய முதல் நாடு எது? மாநாட்டுக்குரிய அம்முதல் மொழியும் தமிழே என்று கூறியவர் யார்?
அ) மலேசியா, க. அப்பாத்துரையார்
ஆ) சிங்கப்பூர், தேவநேயப் பாவாணர்
இ) இந்தியா, இளங்குமரனார் ஈ) கனடா, ஜி.யு. போப்
Answer:
அ) மலேசியா, க. அப்பாத்துரையார்

Question 29.
‘பன்மொழிப் புலவர்’ என்றழைக்கப்பட்டவர் யார்?
அ) க.அப்பாத்துரையார்
ஆ) தேவநேயப் பாவாணர்
இ) இளங்குமரனார்
ஈ) ஜி.யு.போப்
Answer:
அ) க.அப்பாத்துரையார்

Question 30.
சம்பா நெல்லின் உள் வகைகள் எத்தனை?
அ) 30
ஆ) 60
இ) 40
ஈ) 80
Answer:
ஆ) 60

Question 31.
‘மொழி ஞாயிறு’ என்றழைக்கப்பட்டவர் யார்? அ) க.அப்பாத்துரை
ஆ) தேவநேயப் பாவாணர்
இ) இளங்குமரனார்
ஈ) ஜி.யு.போப்
Answer:
ஆ) தேவநேயப் பாவாணர்

Question 32.
‘தமிழ்ச்சொல் வளம்’ என்னும் கட்டுரை இடம் பெற்றுள்ள நூல் எது?
அ) சொல்லாய்வுக் கட்டுரைகள், தேவநேயப் பாவாணர்
ஆ) தேவநேயம், இளங்குமரனார்
இ) மொழி மரபு, மு.வ ஈ) ஆய்வியல் நெறிமுறைகள், பொற்கோ
Answer:
அ) சொல்லாய்வுக் கட்டுரைகள், தேவநேயப் பாவாணர்

Question 33.
பொருத்திக் காட்டுக.
i) சுள்ளி – 1. காய்ந்த குச்சு (குச்சி)
iii) விறகு – 2. காய்ந்த சிறுகிளை
iii) வெங்கழி – 3. காய்ந்த கொம்பும் கவையும் அடியும்
iv) கட்டை – 4. காய்ந்த கழி
அ) 1, 2, 4, 3
ஆ) 2, 1. 3, 4
இ) 1, 3, 4, 2
ஈ) 4, 3, 2, 1
Answer:
அ) 1, 2, 4, 3

Question 34.
பொருத்திக் காட்டுக.
i) இளநீர் – 1. வாழைப்பிஞ்சு
ii) நுழாய் – 2. இளநெல்
iii) கருக்கல் – 3. இளம்பாக்கு
iv) கச்ச ல் – 4. முற்றாத தேங்காய்
அ) 4, 3, 2, 1
ஆ) 2, 3, 4, 1
இ) 1, 2, 3, 4
ஈ) 3, 4, 2, 1
Answer:
அ) 4, 3, 2, 1

Question 35.
பொருத்திக் காட்டுக.
i) சிவியல் – சூட்டினால் பழுத்த பிஞ்சு
ii) அளியல் – பதராய்ப் போன மிளகாய்
iii) சொண்டு – குளுகுளுத்த பழம்
iv) வெம்பல் – சுருங்கிய பழம்
அ) 4, 3, 2, 1
ஆ) 3, 2, 1, 4
இ) 1, 3, 4, 2
ஈ) 1, 3, 4, 2
Answer:
அ) 4, 3, 2, 1

Question 36.
ஒரு நாட்டு வளத்திற்குத் தக்கபடியே, அந்நாட்டு மக்களுக்கு எது அமைந்திருக்கும்? அ) அன்பொழுக்கம்
ஆ) அறிவொழுக்கம்
இ) களவொழுக்கம்
ஈ) கற்பொழுக்கம்
Answer:
ஆ) அறிவொழுக்கம்

Question 37.
செந்தமிழ்ச் சொற்பிறப்பியல் அகரமுதலித் திட்ட இயக்குநராகப் பணியாற்றியவர் யார்?
அ) தேவநேயப் பாவாணர்
ஆ) வெள்ளைவாரணார்
இ) இளங்குமரனார்
ஈ) பெருந்தேவனார்
Answer:
அ) தேவநேயப் பாவாணர்

Question 38.
உலகத் தமிழ்க் கழகத்தை நிறுவித் தலைவராக இருந்தவர் யார்?
அ) தனிநாயகம் அடிகள்
ஆ) தேவநேயப் பாவாணர்
இ) இளங்குமரனார்
ஈ) மு. வரதராசனார்
Answer:
ஆ) தேவநேயப் பாவாணர்

Question 39.
போர்ச்சுகீசு நாட்டின் தலைநகர் எது?
அ) லெபனான்
ஆ) லிசுபன்
இ) கெய்ரோ
ஈ) ஹராரே
Answer:
ஆ) லிசுபன்

Question 40.
இந்திய மொழிகளிலேயே மேலை நாட்டு எழுத்துருவில் முதலில் அச்சேறிய மொழி எது?
அ) இந்தி
ஆ) தமிழ்
இ) தெலுங்கு
ஈ) வங்காளம்
Answer:
ஆ) தமிழ்

Question 41.
கார்டிலா என்னும் போர்ச்சுகீசிய நூல் தமிழில் மொழிபெயர்க்கப்பட்டதைக் குறிப்பிடுவது எது?
அ) ஆறாம் உலகத் தமிழ் மாநாட்டு மலர்
ஆ) நான்காம் உலகத் தமிழ் மாநாட்டு மலர்
இ) செம்மொழி மாநாட்டு மலர்
ஈ) தமிழிலக்கிய வரலாறு மு.வ.
Answer:
அ) ஆறாம் உலகத் தமிழ் மாநாட்டு மலர்

Question 42.
கொழுந்தாடை என்பது யாது?
அ) நெல், புல் ஆகியவற்றின் கொழுந்து
ஆ) புளி, வேம்பு முதலியவற்றின் கொழுந்து
இ) தென்னை, பனை முதலியவற்றின் கொழுந்து
ஈ) கரும்பின் நுனிப்பகுதி
Answer:
ஈ) கரும்பின் நுனிப்பகுதி

குறுவினா

Question 1.
தாவரத்தின் அடிப்பகுதியைக் குறிப்பதற்கான சொற்கள் யாவை?
Answer:
தாள், தண்டு , கோல், தூறு, தட்டு, கழி, கழை, அடி.

Question 2.
தாவரங்களின் அடியிலிருந்து பிரிந்து செல்லும் பிரிவுகளுக்கு வழங்கப்படும் சொற்கள் யாவை?
Answer:
கவை, கொம்பு, கொப்பு, கிளை, சினை, போத்து, குச்சி, இணுக்கு.

Question 3.
தாவரங்களின் காய்ந்த பகுதிகளுக்கு வழங்கப்படும் சொற்கள் யாவை?
Answer:
சுள்ளி, விறகு, வெங்கழி, கட்டை.

Question 4.
தாவரங்களின் இலை வகைகளைக் குறிக்கும் சொற்கள் யாவை?
Answer:
இலை, தாள், தோகை, ஓலை, சண்டு, சருகு.

Question 5.
தாவரங்களின் நுனிப்பகுதியைக் குறிக்கும் சொற்கள் யாவை? (கொழுந்து வகை)
Answer:

• துளிர் அல்லது தளிர்
• குருத்து
• முறி அல்லது கொழுந்து
• கொழுந்துதாடை

Question 6.
பூவின் நிலைகளைக் குறிக்கும் சொற்கள் யாவை?
Answer:
அரும்பு, போது, மலர், வீ, செம்மல்.

Question 7.
தாவரங்களின் பிஞ்சு வகைகளுக்கு வழங்கப்படும் சொற்கள் யாவை?
Answer:
பூம்பிஞ்சு, பிஞ்சு, வடு, மூசு, கவ்வை, குரும்பை, முட்டுக்குரும்பை, இளநீர், நுழாய், கருக்கல், கச்சல்.

Question 8.
தாவரங்களின் குலை வகைகளைக் குறிப்பதற்கான சொற்கள் யாவை?
Answer:
கொத்து, குலை, தாறு, கதிர், அலகு அல்லது குரல், சீப்பு.

Question 9.
கெட்டுப்போன காய்க்கும் கனிக்கும் தாவரத்திற்கேற்ப வழங்கப்படும் சொற்கள் யாவை?
Answer:
சூம்பல், சிவியல், சொத்தை, வெம்பல், அளியல், அழுகல், சொண்டு, தேரைக்காய், அல்லிக்காய், ஒல்லிக்காய், கோட்டான்காய் (அ) கூகைக்காய்.

Question 10.
பழங்களின் மேற்பகுதியினைக் குறிக்க வழங்கும் சொற்கள் யாவை?
Answer:
தொலி, தோல், தோடு, ஓடு, குடுக்கை, மட்டை, உமி, கொம்மை.

Question 11.
தானியங்களுக்கு வழங்கப்படும் சொற்கள் யாவை?
Answer:
கூலம், பயறு, கடலை, விதை, காழ், முத்து, கொட்டை, தேங்காய், முதிரை.

Question 12.
தாவரங்களின் இளமைப் பெயர்களை எழுது.
Answer:
நாற்று, கன்று, குருத்து, பிள்ளை , குட்டி, பைங்கூழ், மடலி (அ) வடலி.

Question 13.
கோதுமையின் வகைகளில் சிலவற்றைக் கூறு.
Answer:
சம்பாக்கோதுமை, குண்டுக்கோதுமை, வாற்கோதுமை.

Question 14.
சம்பா நெல் வகைகளை எழுதுக.
Answer:
ஆவிரம்பூச்சம்பா, ஆனைக் கொம்பன் சம்பா, குண்டுச் சம்பா, குதிரைவாலிச் சம்பா, சிறுமணிச்சம்பா, சீரகச்சம்பா முதலிய அறுபது வகைகள் சம்பாவில் உள்ளன.

Question 15.
இரா. இளங்குமரனாரின் தமிழ்ப்பணியைத் தரம் உயர்த்திய நல்முத்துகள் யாவை?
Answer:

• இலக்கண வரலாறு
• தமிழிசை இயக்கம்
• தனித்தமிழ் இயக்கம்
• பாவாணர் வரலாறு
• குண்டலகேசி உரை
• யாப்பருங்கலம் உரை
• புறத்திரட்டு உரை
• திருக்குறள் தமிழ் மரபுரை
• காக்கைப் பாடினிய உரை
• தேவநேயம்

முதலியன இரா. இளங்குமரனாரின் தமிழ்ப்பணியைத் தரமுயர்த்திய நல்முத்துகளாகும்.

Question 16.
உலகத்தமிழ் மாநாடு குறித்து க. அப்பாத்துரையார் கூறுவன யாவை?
Answer:
“உலகத்திலேயே ஒரு மொழிக்காக உலக மாநாடு நடத்திய முதல் நாடு மலேசியா. அம்மாநாட்டுக்குரிய முதல் மொழியும் தமிழே!” என்று க. அப்பாத்துரையார் கூறுகின்றார்.

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
தேவநேயப்பாவாணர் பற்றி நீவீர் அறிந்தவற்றை எழுதுக.
Answer:
பெயர் : தேவநேயப் பாவாணர்
சிறப்புப்பெயர் : மொழிஞாயிறு
படைப்புகள் : இலக்கணக் கட்டுரைகள், மொழியாராய்ச்சிக் கட்டுரைகள், சொல்லாய்வுக் கட்டுரைகள்.
பணி : செந்தமிழ்ச் சொற்பிறப்பியல் அகர முதலித் திட்ட இயக்குநர், உலகத் தமிழ்க் கழகத் தலைவர்

Question 2.
இரா. இளங்குமரனார் குறித்து நீவீர் அறிந்தவற்றைக் கூறுக.
Answer:
பெயர் : இரா. இளங்குமரனார்
தமிழ்ப்பற்று : விழிகளை இழக்க நேரிட்டால் கூட தாய்த்தமிழினை இழந்துவிடக் கூடாது என்றார்.
திரு.வி.க வழி : தமிழ்த்தென்றல் திரு.வி.க. போல் இமைகளை மூடியபடி எழுதும் ஆற்றலைக் கொண்டவர்.
சிறந்த நூல்கள் : இலக்கண வரலாறு, தமிழிசை இயக்கம், தனித்தமிழ் இயக்கம், பாவாணர் வரலாறு, குண்டலகேசி உரை, யாப்பருங்கலம் உரை, திருக்குறள் தமிழ் மரபுரை, புறத்திரட்டு உரை, காக்கைப் பாடினிய உரை, தேவநேயம்
பிற செய்திகள் : திருவள்ளுவர் தவச்சாலை மற்றும் பாவாணர் நூலகத்தை அமைத்தார்.

Question 3.
கார்டிலா – நூல் குறிப்பு வரைக.
Answer:

• 1554-ல் போர்ச்சுகீசு நாட்டில் தமிழில் முதன்முதலில் மொழிபெயர்க்கப்பட்ட நூல்.
• ரோமன் வரிவடிவில் அச்சிடப்பட்ட நூல்.
• இதனை Carthila de lingoa Tamul e Portugues என்பர்.
• இந்திய மொழிகளுள் மேலை நாட்டு மொழிகளில் அச்சிடப்பட்ட முதல் நூல் தமிழ்மொழி நூலே.

Question 4.
எந்தெந்தத் தாவரங்களின் அடிப்பகுதி என்னென்ன பெயர்களால் அழைக்கப்படுகிறது எனப் பட்டியலிடுக.
Question

• தாள் – நெல், கேழ்வரகு முதலியவற்றின் அடி
• தண்டு – கீரை, வாழையின் அடி
• கோல் – நெட்டி, மிளகாய்ச் செடியின் அடி
• துறு – குத்துச்செடி, புதர் முதலியவற்றின் அடி
• தட்டு (அ) தட்டை – கம்பு, சோளம் முதலியவற்றின் அடி
• கழி – கரும்பின் அடி
• கழை – மூங்கிலின் அடி
• அடி – புளி, வேம்புவின் அடி

Question 5.
தாவரங்களின் அடியிலிருந்து பிரிந்து செல்லும் பிரிவுகளுக்கு வழங்கும் சொற்களையும் அவை
தாவரங்களின் எப்பகுதிக்குப் பொருந்தும் என்பதையும் எழுது.
Answer:

• கவை – மரத்தினின்று பிரியும் மாபெரும் கிளை
• கொம்பு (அ) கொப்பு – கவையின் பிரிவு
• கிளை – கொம்பின் பிரிவு
• சினை – கிளையின் பிரிவு
• போத்து – சினையின் பிரிவு
• குச்சி – போத்தின் பிரிவு
• இணுக்கு – குச்சியின் பிரிவு

Question 6.
எந்தெந்தத் தாவரங்களின் இலைகள் என்னென்ன பெயர்களால் அழைக்கப்படுகின்றன என்பதைப்
பட்டியலிடுக.
Answer:

• புளி, வேம்பு – இலை
• தென்னை, பனை – ஓலை
• நெல், புல் – தாள்
• காய்ந்த இலை – சருகு
• சோளம், கரும்பு – தோகை

Question 7.
தாவரங்களின் பிஞ்சு வகைகளுக்கு வழங்கப்படும் பெயர்களையும் அவை எத்தாவரப் பிஞ்சுகளுக்குப்
பொருந்தும் என்பதையும் கூறு.
Answer:
(பூம்பிஞ்சு -பூவோடு கூடிய இளம்பிஞ்சு, பிஞ்சு – இளம்காய்)

• வடு – மாம்பிஞ்சு
• இளநீர் – முற்றாத தேங்காய்
• மூசு – பலாப்பிஞ்சு
• நுழாய் – இளம்பாக்கு
• கவ்வை – எள் பிஞ்சு
• கருக்கல் – இளநெல்
• குரும்பை – தென்னை, பனை பிஞ்சு
• கச்சல் – வாழைப்பிஞ்சு

Question 8.
எந்தெந்தத் தாவரங்களின் குலைகள் என்னென்ன பெயர்களால் அழைக்கப்படுகின்றன எனப் பட்டியலிடுக.
Answer:

• கொத்து – அவரை, துவரை
• கதிர் – கேழ்வரகு, சோளக் கதிர்
• குலை – கொடி முந்திரி
• அலகு (அ) குரல் – நெல், தினைக் கதிர்
• தாறு – வாழைக்குலை
• சீப்பு – வாழைத் தாற்றின் பகுதி

Question 9.
கெட்டுப்போன காய்க்கும் கனிக்கும் தாவரத்திற்கேற்ப வழங்கப்படும் பெயர்கள் யாவை?
Answer:

• சூம்பல் – நுனியில் சுருங்கிய காய்
• சிவியல் – சுருங்கிய பழம்
• சொத்தை – புழுபூச்சி அரித்த காய் (அ) கனி
• வெம்பல் – சூட்டினால் பழுத்த பிஞ்சு
• அளியல் – குளுகுளுத்த பழம்
• அழுகல் – குளுகுளுத்து நாறிய பழம் (அ) காய்
• சொண்டு – பதறாய்ப் போன மிளகாய்
• கோடான்காய் (அ) கூகைக்காய் – கோட்டான் அமர்ந்ததினால் கெட்ட காய்
• தேரைக்காய் – தேரை அமர்ந்ததினால் கெட்டகாய்
• அல்லிக்காய் – தேரை அமாந்ததினால் கெட்ட தேங்காய்
• ஒல்லிக்காய் – தென்னையில் கெட்ட காய்

Question 10.
பழங்களின் மேற்பகுதியினைக் குறிக்க அவற்றின் தன்மைக்கேற்ப தாவரங்களுக்கு வழங்கப்படும் சொற்களை எழுதுக.
Answer:

• தொலி – மிக மெல்லியது
• குடுக்கை – சுரையின் ஓடு
• தோல் – திண்ணமானது
• மட்டை – தேங்காய் நெற்றின் மேற்பகுதி
• தோடு – வன்மையானது
• உமி – நெல், கம்பு ஆகியவற்றின் மூடி
• ஓடு – மிக வன்மையானது
• கொம்மை – வரகு, கேழ்வரகு உமி

Question 11.
தானியங்களுக்குத் தாவரத்திற்கேற்ப வழங்கப்படும் சொற்கள் யாவை?
Answer:

• கூலம் – நெல், புல் தானியங்கள்
• பயறு – அவரை, உளுந்து
• கடலை – வேர்க்கடலை
• விதை – கத்தரி, மிளகாய் வித்து, கொண்டைக் கடலை
• காழ் – புளி, காஞ்சிரை வித்து
• முத்து – வேம்பு, ஆமணக்கு வித்து
• கொட்டை – மா, பனை வித்து
• தேங்காய் – தென்னை வித்து
• முதிரை – அவரை, துவரை பயறுகள்

Question 12.
தாவரங்களின் இளம் பருவத்திற்கான சொற்களையும் அதற்குரிய தாவரங்களின் பெயர்களையும் எழுது.
Answer:

• நாற்று – நெல், கத்திரியின் இளநிலை
• கன்று – மா, புளி, வாழையின் இளநிலை
• குருத்து – வாழையின் இளநிலை
• பிள்ளை – தென்னையின் இளநிலை
• குட்டி – விளாவின் இளநிலை .
• மடலி (அ) வடலி – பனையின் இளநிலை
• பைங்கூழ் – நெல், சோளத்தின் இளநிலை

Question 13.
தமிழ்ச் சொல் வளம் குறித்து கால்டுவெல் குறிப்பிடும் கருத்தை எழுதுக.
Answer:
தமிழல்லாத திராவிட மொழிகளின் அகராதிகளை ஆராயும்போது, தமிழிலுள்ள ஒருபொருட் பலசொல் வரிசைகள் அவற்றில் இல்லாக்குறை எந்தத் தமிழறிஞர்க்கும் மிகத் தெளிவாகத் தோன்றும்.

தமிழில் மட்டும் பயன்படுத்தப்பட்டுத் தமிழுக்கே சிறப்பாக உரியனவாகக் கருதப்படும் சொற்கள் மட்டுமன்றித் தெலுங்கு, கன்னடம் முதலிய பிற திராவிட மொழிகளுக்குரியனவாகக் கருதப்படும் சொற்களும் தமிழில் உள என்கிறார் கால்டுவெல்.

Question 14.
எவற்றை அமைத்துக்கொள்வது, சிறந்த மதிநுட்பமும் பண்பாடும் உடைய மக்கட்கே இயலும்?
Answer:
திருந்திய மக்களை மற்ற உயிரினின்றும் பிரித்துக் காட்டுவது மொழியாதலின், அதுவே ஒரு நாட்டாரின் அல்லது இனத்தாரின் நாகரிகத்தை அளந்தறிவதற்கும் சிறந்த வழியாகும்.

பொருளைக் கூர்ந்து நோக்கி நுண்பாகுபாடு செய்து அவற்றிற்கேற்பப் பருப்பொருட் சொற்களும், நுண்பொருட்சொற்களும் அமைத்துக்கொள்வது, சிறந்த மதிநுட்பமும் பண்பாடும் உடைய மக்கட்கே இயலும்.

Question 15.
பழங்காலத்தில் விளைந்த அளவு இக்காலத்தில் விளையாதவை எவை? விளைந்து வருபவை எவை?
Answer:
பழங்காலத்தில் விளைந்த அளவு பொன்னும் மணியும் முத்தும் பவளமும் இன்று விளையாவிடினும் அருமையான கூலங்களும் சிறுகூலங்களும் இன்றும் தென்றமிழ் நாட்டில் விளைந்து வருகின்றன.

நெடுவினா

Question 1.
தமிழ், சொல் வளமுடையதென்றும் தமிழ்நாடு பொருள் வளமுடையதென்றும் தெளிவாக விளங்குவதற்கான காரணங்கள் சிலவற்றைத் தொகுத்தெழுதுக.
Answer:

முன்னுரை:

தமிழ், சொல் வளமுடையது, தமிழ்நாடு பொருள் வளமுடையது என்பதைப் பாவாணர், சொல்லாய்வுக் கட்டுரைகள் என்ற நூலில், ‘தமிழ்ச் சொல்வளம்’ என்னும் கட்டுரையில் எடுத்துரைக்கிறார்.

தாவரங்களின் அடிப்பகுதிப் பெயர்:

• தாள் – நெல், கேழ்வரகு முதலியவற்றின் அடி
• தண்டு – கீரை, வாழையின் அடி
• கோல் – நெட்டி, மிளகாய்ச் செடியின் அடி
• தூறு- குத்துச்செடி, புதர் முதலியவற்றின் அடி
• தட்டு (அ) தட்டை – கம்பு, சோளம் முதலியவற்றின் அடி
• கழி – கரும்பின் அடி
• கழை – மூங்கிலின்
• அடி – புளி, வேம்புவின் அடி

அடிப்பகுதிபிரிவு பெயர்:

• கவை – மரத்தினின்று பிரியும் மாபெரும் கிளை
• கொம்பு (அ) கொப்பு – கவையின் பிரிவு
• கிளை – கொம்பின் பிரிவு
• சினை – கிளையின் பிரிவு
• போத்து – சினையின் பிரிவு
• குச்சி – போத்தின் பிரிவு
• இணுக்கு – குச்சியின் பிரிவு

தாவர இலைப் பெயர்:

• புளி, வேம்பு – இலை
• தென்னை – பனை
• நெல், புல் – தா ள்
• காய்ந்த இலை – சருகு
• சோளம், கரும்பு – தோகை

தாவரங்களின் பிஞ்சுவகைப் பெயர்:
(பூம்பிஞ்சு -பூவோடு கூடிய இளம்பிஞ்சு, பிஞ்சு – இளம்காய்)

• வடு – மாம்பிஞ்சு
• இளநீர் – முற்றாத தேங்காய்
• மூசு – பலாப்பிஞ்சு
• நுழாய் – இளம்பாக்கு
• கவ்வை – எள் பிஞ்சு
• கருக்கல் – இளநெல்
• குரும்பை – தென்னை, பனை பிஞ்சு
• கச்சல் – வாழைப்பிஞ்சு

தாவரங்களின் குலைப் பெயர்:

• கொத்து – அவரை, துவரை
• கதிர் – கேழ்வரகு, சோளக் கதிர்
• குலை – கொடி முந்திரி
• அலகு (அ) குரல் – நெல், தினைக் கதிர்
• தாறு – வாழைக்குலை
• சீப்பு – வாழைத் தாற்றின் பகுதி

கெட்டுப்போன காய், கனிப்பெயர்:

• சூம்பல் – நுனியில் சுருங்கிய காய்
• சிவியல் – சுருங்கிய பழம்
• சொத்தை – புழுபூச்சி அரித்த காய் (அ) கனி
• வெம்பல் – சூட்டினால் பழுத்த பிஞ்சு
• அளியல் – குளுகுளுத்த பழம்
• அழுகல் – குளுகுளுத்து நாறிய பழம் (அ) காய்
• சொண்டு – பதறாய்ப் போன மிளகாய்
• கோடான்காய் (அ) கூகைக்காய் – கோட்டான் அமர்ந்ததினால் கெட்ட காய்
• தேரைக்காய் – தேரை அமர்ந்ததினால் கெட்டகாய்
• அல்லிக்காய் – தேரை அமாந்ததினால் கெட்ட தேங்காய்
• ஒல்லிக்காய் – தென்னையில் கெட்ட காய்

முடிவுரை:

மேற்குறித்த பெயர்கள் மூலம், தமிழின் சொல்வளத்தையும் தமிழ்நாட்டின் பொருள் வளத்தையும் நன்கு அறிய முடிகின்றது.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Maths Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Maths Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2:30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – 1

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
For non empty sets A and B if A ⊂ B then (A × B) n (B × A) is equal to ………………….
(a) A ∩ B
(b) A × A
(c) B × B
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) A × A

Question 2.
The solution set of the inequality |x – 1| ≥ |x – 3| is ………………..
(a) [0, 2]
(b) [2, ∞)
(c) (0, 2)
(d) (-∞, 2)
Answer:
(b) [2, ∞)

Question 3.
The numer of solutions of x² + |x – 1| = 1 is …………………
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer:
(c) 2

Question 4.
Which of the following is not true?
(a) sin θ = – \(\frac{3}{4}\)
(b) cos θ = -1
(c) tan θ = 25
(d) sec θ = \(\frac{1}{4}\)
Answer:
(d) sec θ = \(\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 5.
Let f_k(x) = \(\frac{1}{k}\) [sin^k x + cos² x] where x ∈ R and k ≥ 1. Then f₄(x) – f₆(x) = …………………
(a) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{12}\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{1}{12}\)

Question 6.
If A and B are coefficients of xⁿ in the expansion of (1 + x)²ⁿ and (1 + x)^2n-1 respectively then \(\frac{A}{B}\) =
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{n}\)
(c) 1
(d) 2
Answer:
(d) 2

Question 7.
The value of 15C₈ + 15C₉ – 15C₆ – 15C₇ is …………………
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer:
(a) 0

Question 8.
The slope of the line which makes an angle 45° with the line 3x -y = – 5 are …………………
(a) 1, -1
(b) \(\frac{1}{2}\), -2
(c) 1, \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(d) 2, \(\frac{-1}{2}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{1}{2}\), -2

Question 9.
The sum of the binomial co-efficients is ………………….
(a) 2n
(b) 2ⁿ
(c) n²
(d) 1
Answer:
(b) 2ⁿ

Question 10.
If the square of the matrix \(\begin{pmatrix} \alpha & \beta \\ \gamma & -\alpha \end{pmatrix}\) satisfy the relation
(a) 1 + α² + βγ = 0
(b) 1 – α² – βγ = 0
(c) 1 – α² + βγ = 0
(d) 1 + α² – βγ = 0
Answer:
(b) 1 – α² – βγ = 0

Question 11.
The value of x for which the matrix A = \(\begin{bmatrix} e^{ x-2 } & e^{ 7+x } \\ e^{ 2+x } & e^{ 2x+3 } \end{bmatrix}\) is singular is ………………….
(a) 9
(b) 8
(c) 7
(d) 6
Answer:
(b) 8

Question 12.
If A = \(\begin{pmatrix} \lambda & 1 \\ -1 & -\lambda \end{pmatrix}\) then for what value of λ, A² = 0?
(a) 0
(b) ±1
(c) -1
(d) 1
Answer:
(b) ±1

Question 13.
lim_x→1 \(\frac { xe^{ x }-sinx }{ x } \) is ……………….
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 0
Answer:
(d) 0

Question 14.
If the points whose position vectors 10\({ \vec { i } }\) + 3\({ \vec { j } }\) + 12\({ \vec { i } }\) – 5\({ \vec { j } }\) and a\({ \vec { i } }\) + 11\({ \vec { j } }\) are collinear then the value of a is ……………….
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 8
Answer:
(d) 8

Question 15.
If y = mx + c and f(0) = f'(0) = 1 then f(2) = ………………..
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 16.
lim_x→1 \(\frac { e^{ x }-e }{ x-1 } \) = ……………….
(a) 1
(b) e
(c) ∞
(d) 0
Answer:
(b) e

Question 17.
∫2^3x+5 dx is ………………..
(a) \(\frac { 3(2^{ 3x+5 }) }{ log2 } \) + c
(b) \(\frac { 2^{ 3x+5 } }{ 2log(3x+5) } \) + c
(c) \(\frac { 2^{ 3x+5 } }{ 2log3 } \) + c
(d) \(\frac { 2^{ 3x+5 } }{ 3log2 } \) + c
Answer:
(d) \(\frac { 2^{ 3x+5 } }{ 3log2 } \) + c

Question 18.
∫x² cos xdx is ………………..
(a) x²sinx + 2xcosx – 2 sinx + c
(b) x² – 2xcosx – 2sinx + c
(c) -x² + 2xcosx + 2sinx + c
(d) -x² – 2xcosx + 2 sinx + c
Answer:
(a) x²sinx + 2xcosx – 2 sinx + c

Question 19.
∫\(\frac { x }{ 1+x^{ 2 } } \) dx = ………………
(a) tan^-1 x + c
(b) log (1 + x²) + c
(c) log x + c
(d) \(\frac{1}{2}\) log (1 + x²) + c
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{1}{2}\) log (1 + x²) + c

Question 20.
Ten coins are tossed. The probability of getting atleast 8 heads is …………….
(a) \(\frac{7}{64}\)
(b) \(\frac{7}{32}\)
(c) \(\frac{7}{128}\)
(d) \(\frac{7}{16}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{7}{128}\)

PART – II

II. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
To secure an A grade one must obtain an average of 90 marks or more in 5 subjects each of maximum 100 marks. If A scored 84, 87, 95, 91 in first four subjects, what is the minimum mark be scored in the fifth subject to get an A grade in the course?
Answer:
Required marks = 5 × 90 = 450
Total marks obtained in 4 subjects = 84 + 87 + 95 + 91 = 357
So required marks in the fifth subject = 450 – 357 = 93.

Question 22.
Prove that (1 + tan1°) (1 + tan2°) (1 + tan 3°) …. (1 + tan 44°) is a multiple of 4?
Answer:
45°= 1 + 44 (or) 2 + 43 (or) 3 + 42 (or) 22 + 23
So we have 22 possible pairs
sa the product is (2) (22) = 44
which is ÷ by 4

Question 23.
Find the distinct permutations of the letters of the word MISSISSIPPI?
Answer:
MISSISSIPPI
Number of letters = 11
Here M-1 time, I-4timcs, S-4times, P-2timcs
So total number of arrangement is of this word = \(\frac { 11! }{ 4!4!2! } \)
\(\frac { 11\times 10\times 9\times 8\times 7\times 6\times 5\times 4! }{ 4\times 3\times 2\times 1\times 2\times 1\times 4! } \) = 34650

Question 24.
Compare |A| using Sarrus rule if A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
3 & 4 & 1 \\
0 & -1 & 2 \\
5 & -2 & 6
\end{array}\right]\)
Answer:

|A| = [3(-1) (6) + 4(2)(5) + 1(0)(-2)] -[5(-1)(1) + (-2)(2)3 + 6(0)(4)] = [-18 + 40 + 0] – [-5 – 12 + 0] = 22 + 17 = 39.

Question 25.
If |\({ \vec { a } }\)|, |\({ \vec { b } }\)| = 6, |\({ \vec { c } }\)| =7 and \({ \vec { a } }\) + \({ \vec { b } }\) + \({ \vec { c } }\) = 0 find \({ \vec { a } }\).\({ \vec { b } }\) + \({ \vec { b } }.\) \({ \vec { c } }\) + \({ \vec { c } }\).\({ \vec { a } }\)
Answer:
Given \(\bar { a } \)+\(\bar { b } \)+\(\bar { c } \) = 0
⇒ (\(\bar { a } \)+\(\bar { b } \)+\(\bar { c } \))² = 0
(i.e;) |\(\bar { a } \)|² + |\(\bar { b } \)|² + |\(\bar { c } \)|² + 2 [\(\bar { a } \).\(\bar { b } \)+\(\bar { b } \).\(\bar { c } \)+\(\bar { c } \).\(\bar { a } \)) = 0
⇒ 5²+6²+7²+2(\(\bar { a } \).\(\bar { b } \)+\(\bar { b } \).\(\bar { c } \)+\(\bar { c } \).\(\bar { a } \)) = 0
⇒2(\(\bar { a } \).\(\bar { b } \)+\(\bar { b } \).\(\bar { c } \)+\(\bar { c } \).\(\bar { a } \)) = – 25 – 36 – 49 = -110
⇒\(\bar { a } \).\(\bar { b } \)+\(\bar { b } \).\(\bar { c } \)+\(\bar { c } \).\(\bar { a } \) = \(\frac{-110}{2}\) = -55

Question 26.
Find \(\lim _{ t\rightarrow 0 }{ \frac { \sqrt { t^{ 2 }+9-3 } }{ t^{ 2 } } } \)
Answer:
We can’t apply the quotient Iieorem it.:iiediatcly. Use the algebra technique of rationalising the numerator.

Question 27.
Evaluate y = e^-x.log x?
Answer:
y = e^-x log x = uv(say)
Here u = e^-x and v = log x
⇒ u’ = -e^-x and v’ = uv’ + vu’
Now y = uv ⇒y’ = uv’ + vu’
(i.e). \(\frac{dy}{dx}\) = e^-x(\(\frac{1}{x}\)) + log x(- e^-x)
= e^-x(\(\frac{1}{x}\) – log x)

Question 28.
Evaluate ∫\(\frac { 1 }{ \sqrt { 1+(4x)^{ 2 } } } \) dx
Answer:
Let I = ∫\(\frac { 1 }{ \sqrt { 1+4x^{ 2 } } } \)dx = ∫\(\frac { 1 }{ \sqrt { 1+(2x^{ 2 }) } } \) dx
Putting 2x = t ⇒ 2 dx = dt ⇒ dx = \(\frac{1}{2}\) dt
Thus, I = \(\frac{1}{2}\)∫\({ \frac { 1 }{ \sqrt { 1^{ 2 }+t^{ 2 } } } }\) dt
I = \(\frac{1}{2}\) log |t+\(\sqrt { t^{ 2 }+1 } \) + c = \(\frac{1}{2}\) log |2x + \(\sqrt { (2x)^{ 2 }+1 } \)| + c
I = \(\frac{1}{2}\) log |2x+\(\sqrt { 4^{ 2 }+1 } \)| + c.

Question 29.
Nine coins are tossed once. Find the probablity to get atleast 2 heads?
Answer:
Let S be the sample and A be the event of getting at least two heads.
Therefore, the event \(\bar { A } \) denotes, getting at most one head.
n(S) = 2⁹ = 521, n(\(\bar { A } \)) = 9C₀ + 9C₁ = 1 + 9 = 10
P(\(\bar { A } \)) = \(\frac{10}{512}\) = \(\frac{5}{256}\)
P(A) = 1- P(\(\bar { A } \)) = 1 – \(\frac{5}{256}\) = \(\frac{251}{256}\)

Question 30.
If P(A) denotes the power set of A, then find n(P(P(ϕ))))?
Answer:
Since P(∅) contains 1 element, P(P(∅)) contains 2¹ elements and hence P(P(P(∅))) contains 2² elements. That is, 4 elements.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
A simple cipher takes a number and codes it, using the function f(x) = 3x – 4. Find the inverse of this function, determine whether the inverse is also a function and verify the symmetrical property about the line y = x (by drawing the lines)?

Question 32.
Show that 4 sin A sin (60° + A). sin(60° – A) = sin 3A?

Question 33.
How many strings of length 6 can be formed using letters of the word FLOWER if (i) either starts with F or ends with R?

Question 34.
Find the distance of the line 4x – y = 0 from the point P(4, 1) measured along the line making an angle 135° with the positive x- axis?

Question 35.
Using factor theorem prove that \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
x+1 & 3 & 5 \\
2 & x+2 & 5 \\
2 & 3 & x+4
\end{array}\right|\) = (x – 1)² + ( x+ 9)

Question 36.
Find the unit vectors perpendicular to each of the vectors \({ \vec { a } }\) + \({ \vec { b } }\) and \({ \vec { a } }\) – \({ \vec { b } }\). Where \({ \vec { a } }\) = \({ \vec { i } }\) + \({ \vec { j } }\) + \({ \vec { k } }\) and b = \({ \vec { i } }\) + 2\({ \vec { j } }\) + 3\({ \vec { k } }\)?

Question 37.
If y = tan^-1 \(\left(\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right)\), find y’?

Question 38.
Evaluate ∫\(\frac { x }{ \sqrt { 1+x^{ 2 } } } \) dx?

Question 39.
If A and B are two events such that P(A∪B) = 0.7, P(A∩B) = 0.2 and P(B) = 0.5 then show that A and B are independent?

Question 40.
Resolve into partial fractions \(\frac { 2x^{ 2 }+5x-11 }{ x^{ 2 }+2x-3 } \)

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questIons [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) A photocopy store charges Rs. 1.50 per copy for the first 10 copies and Rs. 1.00 per copy after the 10th copy. Let x be the number of copies, and let y be the total cost of photocopying.
(a) Draw graph of the cost as x goes from 0 to 50 copies?
(b) Find the cost of making 40 copies

[OR]

(b) If the difference of the roots of the equation 2x² – (a + 1)x + a – 1 = 0 is equal to their product then prove that a =2?

Question 42.
(a) Prove that tan 70° – tan 20° – 2 tan 40° = 4 tan 10°?

[OR]

(b) In a ∆ABC, if a = 2\(\sqrt{3}\), b = 2\(\sqrt{2}\) and C = 75° find the other side and the angles?

Question 43.
(a) Use induction to prove that n³ – 7n + 3, is divisible by 3, for all natural numbers n?

[OR]

(b) Evaluate y = (x² + 1) \(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ x^{ 2 }+2 } \)?

Question 44.
(a) Show that f(x) f(y) = f(x + y), where f(x) = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
\cos x & -\sin x & 0 \\
\sin x & \cos x & 0 \\
0 & 0 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)

[OR]

(b) The chances of X, Y and Z becoming managers of a certain company are 4 : 2 : 3. The probabilities that bonus scheme will be introduced if X, Y and Z become managers are 0.3, 0.5 and 0.4 respectively. 1f the bonus scheme has been introduced, what is the probability that Z was appointed as the manager?

Question 45.
(a) If the equation λx² – 10xy + 12y² + 5x – 16y – 3 = O represents a pair of straight lines, find

1. The value of λ and the separate equations of the lines
2. Angle between the lines

[OR]

(b) Show that

1. \(\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1+2+3+\ldots+n}{3 n^{2}+7 n+2}=\frac{1}{6}\)
2. \(\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1^{2}+2^{2}+\ldots+(3 n)^{2}}{(1+2+\ldots+5 n)(2 n+3)}=\frac{9}{25}\)
3. \(\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{1.2}+\frac{1}{2.3}+\frac{1}{3.4}+\ldots .+\frac{1}{n(n+1)}=1\)

Question 46.
(a) A man repays an amount of ₹3250 by paying ₹20 in the first month and then increases the payment by ₹15 per month. How long will it take him to clear the amount?

[OR]

(b) Find the area of the triangle whose vertices are A (3, -1, 2), B (1, -1, -3) and C (4, -3, 1)?

Question 47.
(a) Evaluate (x + 1) \(\sqrt { 2x+3 } \)?
[OR]

(b) Evaluate ∫cosec²x dx?

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 1 History Chapter 3 Indus Civilisation Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Indus Civilisation

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Indus Civilisation Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
What metals were known to the people of Indus Civilisation?
(a) Copper, bronze, silver, gold, but not iron
(b) Copper, silver, iron, but not bronze
(c) Copper, gold, iron, but not silver
(d) Copper, silver, iron, but not gold
Answer:
(a) Copper, bronze, silver, gold, but not iron

Question 2.
Indus Civilisation belonged to.
(a) Old Stone age
(b) Medieval stone age.
(c) New stone age
(d) Metal age
Answer:
(d) Metal age

Question 3.
River Valleys are said to be the cradle of civilisation because ………………..
(a) Soil is very fertile.
(b) They experience good climate.
(c) They are useful for transportation.
(d) Many civilizations flourished on river valleys.
Answer:
(d) Many civilizations flourished on river valleys.

II. Match the statement with the Reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Statement : Harappan civilisation is said to be an urban civilisation.
Reason : It has well planned cities with advanced drainage system.
(a) Statement and reason are correct.
(b) Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement is true, but the reason is wrong.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement and reason are correct

Question 2.
Statement : Harappan civilization belongs to BronzeAge.
Reason : Harappans did not know the use of iron.
(a) Statement and reason are correct.
(b) Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement is correct, but the reason is wrong.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement and reason are correct

Question 3.
Statement : The engineering skill of Harappans was remarkable.
Reason : Building of docks after a careful study of tides, waves and currents.
(a) Statement and reason are correct.
(b) Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement is correct, but the reason is wrong.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement and reason are correct.

Question 4.
Which of the following statement about mohanjadaro is correct?
(a) Gold ornaments were unknown.
(b) Houses were made of burnt bricks.
(c) Implements were made of iron.
(d) Great Bath was made water tight with the layers f natural bitumen.
Answer:
(b) Houses were made burnt brick.
(d) Greal Bath was made water tight with thc laye of natural bitnmen.

Question 5.
Consider the following statements.
1. Uniformity in layout of town, streets, and brick sizes
2. An elaborate and well laid out drainage system
3. Granaries constituted an important part of Harappan cities Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1&2
(b) 1&3
(c) 2&3
(d) all the three
Answer:
(d) all the three

Question 6.
Circle the odd one.
Answer:

1. Oxen
2. Sheep
3. Buffaloes
4. Pigs
5. Horses

Question 7.
Find out the wrong pair.
(a) ASI – John Marshall
(b) Citadel – Granaries
(c) Lothal – dockvard
(d) Harappan Civilisation – River Cauvery
Answer:
(d) Harappan – River Cauvery

III. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………… is the oldest civilisation.
2. Archaeological Survey of India was founded by ………………
3. ……………… were used to store grains.
4. Group of people form ………………

Answer:

1. Mesopotamian civilisation.
2. Alexander Cunningham.
3. Granaries.
4. Community.

IV. State True or False

1. Mehergarh is a Neolithic site.
2. Archaeological survey of India is responsible for preservation of cultural monuments in the country.
3. Granaries were used to store grains.
4. The earliest form of writings was developed by the Chinese.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. False

V. Match the following

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – a
4. – b

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What are the uses of metal?
Answer:

1. Gold and Silver were used to make ornaments.
2. They used copper and bronze to make weapons and vessels.
3. Bronze was used to make statues. ( Example: Statue of a dancing girl.)

Question 2.
Make a list of baked and raw foods that we eat.
Answer:

1. Baked foods: Rice, wheat, vegetables, greens, roots, mutton, fish etc
2. Raw Foods: Fruits, some vegetables and nuts

Question 3.
Do we have the practice of worshipping animate and trees?
Answer:
Yes, people belonging to some religions worship animals and trees.

Question 4.
River valleys are cradles of civilization. Why?
Answer:

1. In the river valleys, the soil is fertile.
2. Freshwater is available for drinking, watering livestock, and irrigation.
3. Easy movement of people and goods is possible.

So people settled in the river valleys. Many civilizations flourished on river valleys. Florence river valleys are called cradles of civilization.

Question 5.
Just because a toy move doesn’t mean instead batteries?
Answer:
They used wheels.

Question 6.
Dog was the first animal to be tamed. Why?
Answer:

1. Dogs prevented the entry of dangerous animals by its sniffing skill.
2. Dogs helped the people in their hunting activities.

Question 7.
If you were an Archaeologist, what will you do?
Answer:
If I were an archaeologist I would go to Adichanallur which is located in our district and do excavation there.

Question 8.
Name any two Indus sites located on the Indian border
Answer:

1. Kalibangan
2. Lothal

Question 9.
In Indus civilization, which features you like the most? Why?
Answer:

1. I like the drainage system very much.
2. Most of the drains were covered with slabs or bricks. Even after nearly 5000 years many of the modern cities don’t have covered drains.
3. It is said that each house had its own soak pit, which collected all the sediments and allowed only the water to flow into the street drain. I like this system very much.

Question 10.
What instrument is used nowadays to weigh things?
Answer:
Electronic weighing machine.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
What method is used to explore buried buildings nowadays?
Answer:

1. To see under the ground, the archaeologists may uSe a magnetic scanner.
2. The presence and absence of archaeological remains can be detected by the Radar and Remote Sensing Method.

Question 2.
Why Indus Civilisation Is called Bronze Age civilization?
Answer:

1. Bronze is an alloy.
2. This period is characterized by the articles made of bronze?
3. So Indus Valley Civilization is also known as bronze age civilization.

Question 3.
Indus civilization is called urban civilization. Give reasons.
Answer:
The reasons are.

1. Well conceived town planning.
2. Astonishing masonry and architecture.
3. Priority for hygiene and public health.
4. Standardized weights and measures.
5. Solid agricultural and artisanal base.

Question 4.
Can you point out the special feature of their drainage system?
Answer:

1. They had well-covered drains. The drains were covered with slabs or bricks,
2. Each drain had a gentle slope, so that water could flow.
3. Manholes were provided at regular intervals to clear the drains.
4. House drains passed below many lanes before finally emptying into the drains.
5. Every house had its own soak pit, which collected all the sediments and allowed only the water to flow into the street drain.

Question 5.
What do you know about the Great Bath?
Answer:

1. The Great Bath is one of the earliest public tanks.
2. It is a waterproof structure.
3. The bath was lined with bricks.
4. It was made watertight using layers of natural bitumen.
5. There were rooms on three sides.
6. The water was drained after use.
7. There were steps on both sides of the pool.

Question 6.
How do you know that Indus people trade with other
Answer:

1. King Naram – the sin of the Akkadian empire has written about buying jewellery from the land of Melukha which is a region of the Indus valley.
2. The same types of seals found in Mesopotamia have been also found in the Indus area.
3. A naval dockyard has been discovered in Lothal in Gujarat. All these things show that the Indus people traded with other countries.

VIII. HOTS

Question 1.
Observe the following features of Indus civilization and compare that with the present day.
Answer:
(a) Lamp post:

1. In the Indus cities, street lights were an important feature. The lamp posts were made of stones.
2. Now we have iron lamp posts and cement lamp posts.

(b) Burnt bricks:

1. The houses were built using burnt brick. The bricks were of uniform size.
2. The bricks were burnt because burnt bricks are strong, hard, durable, resistant to fire, and will not dissolve in water.
3. The present-day buildings are also constructed with burnt bricks.

(c) Underground drainage system:

1. The Indus cities had an underground drainage system. They were covered with slabs or bricks. Holes were provided at regular intervals to clean the drains.
2. Even in some of the modern cities, there is no underground drainage system. This system is being introduced gradually now. In Tamil Nadu, there is an underground drainage system almost in all the corporations.

(d) Weights and measurements:

1. Standardized weights and measures were used by the Indus valley people. They used sticks with marks to measure length.
2. Now we have various types of weighing machines and scales.

(e) Dockyard:

1. Lothal was a port in Gujarat. There was a naval dockyard in Lothal. It shows the maritime activities of the Indus people.
2. Now, dockyards are found almost in all ports. Apart from loading, unloading and repairing of ships new ships are built in these yards.
3. Example: Mazagaon dock at Mumbai.

Question 2.
Agriculture was one of their occupations, How can you prove this? (with the findings)
Answer:

1. Agriculture might have been their main occupation since they settled near the Indus river bank.
2. We find the terracotta plough which might have been used for agriculture.
3. They used granaries to store food grain.
4. A granary with walls made of mud, bricks, which are still in good condition, has been discovered in Rakhigarhi, a village in Haryana belonging to the Mature Harappan phase.

Question 3.
Many potteries and their pieces have been discovered from Indus sites. What do you know from that?
Answer:

1. It shows that they know the art of making pottery.
2. The broken pieces of pottery have animal figures on them.
3. It shows that they reared various animals. It also shows their skill in painting.

Question 4.
A naval dockyard has been discovered In Lothal, What does it convey?
Answer:

1. The Dockyard at Lothal is considered as the first naval dockyard of the world,
2. It has favourable features in terms of height, width, and length compared to the modem dockyards of Mumbai and Visakhapatnam.
3. Boats of 60-75 tonnes capacity and 20-25 metres in length could enter Lothal DOCK.
4. It was designed in such a manner as to ensure berthing 20-30 boats, a fairly large size.
5. Large foreign and Indian ships could enter the harbour without any difficulty

Question 5.
Can you guess what happened to the Harappans?
Answer:
The Harappans might have disappeared due to the following reasons.

1. Repeated floods.
2. Ecological changes.
3. Invasions.
4. Natural calamity.
5. Climatic changes.
6. Deforestation.
7. An epidemic.

IX. Activity (For Students)

1. Prepare a scrapbook. (Containing more information about objects collected from Mohenjo – Daro, and Harappa.)

2. You are a young archaeologist working at a site that was once an Indus city. What will you collect?

3. Make flashcards.
(Take square cards and stick a picture in one card and the information for the same picture in another card. Circulate among the groups and tell them to match the picture with information.)

4. Draw your imaginary town planning in a chart.

5. Make a model of anyone structure of Indus Civilisation using clay, broken pieces of bangles, matchsticks, woollen thread, and ice cream sticks.

6. Can you imagine how toys have changed through the ages?
Collect toys made of Clay → stone → wood → metal → plastic → fur → electric → electronic → ???

7 . Crossword puzzle

Top to Bottom:

1. Director-General of ASI
2. Is older than Mohenjo – Daro
3. This is age civilization
4. Each house had a

Left to Right

5. Place used to store grains
6. A dockyard has been found
7. is unknown to Indus people
8. It is used to make watertight.

Right to Left

9. From this we can get a lot of information
10. This is responsible for research

X. Rapid Fire Quiz (Do it in groups)

Question 1.
Which crop did Indus people use to make clothes?
Answer:
Cotton.

Question 2.
Which was the first Indus city discovered?
Answer:
Harappa.

Question 3.
Where was the Indus civilization?
Answer:
The Indus valley.

Question 4.
Which animal was used to pull carts?
Answer:
Bullocks.

Question 5.
Which metal was unknown to the Indus people?
Answer:
Iron

Question 6.
What was used to make pots?
Answer:
Wheel.

Question 7.
Which is considered the largest civilization among four ancient civilizations of the world?
Answer:
The Indus valley civilization.

XI. Life skill

1. Making an animal or a pot out of clay.
2. Making terracotta toy with movable limbs.
3. Pot painting (with geometric pattern).
4. Make informational charts and posters.

X. Answer Grid

Question 1.
What did Charles Masson see?
Answer:
Some mysterious brick mounds

Question 2.
List three things people used which we use today?
Answer:

1. Toys
2. Carts
3. Jewels

Question 3.
What else has been found?
Answer:
Burnt bricks

Question 4.
Can you say three things unknown to Indus people?
Answer:

1. Gun.
2. Paper.
3. Ink.

Question 5.
Which metal was unknown to the Indus people?
Answer:
Iron.

Question 6.
Which is the oldest civilization in the world?
Answer:

1. Mesopotamian
2. Civilization

Question 7.
Why the dog was the first animal to be tamed?
Answer:
It helped them in hunting.

Question 8.
Who were the first people to grow cotton?
Answer:
Sumerians.

Question 9.
Which institution is responsible for archaeological research?
Answer:
The Archaeological Survey of India

Question 10.
Was there any river valley civilization found in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
No

Question 11.
Name any two Harappan sites which were found on the Indian border?
Answer:

1. Lothal
2. Kalibangan

Question 12.
Can we say the Indus cities as cities of children?
Answer:
Yes.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Indus Civilisation Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The headquarters of the Archaeological Survey of India is located in ……………
(a) Chennai
(b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(d) Delhi

Question 2.
The dancing girl statue was made out of
(a) gold
(b) silver
(c) bronze
(d) iron
Answer:
(c) bronze

Question 3.
The word ‘civilization’ comes from the ancient Latin word ‘civis’ which means ……………
(a) City
(b) Village
(c) People
(d) Govern
Answer:
(c) People

Question 4.
The first metal discovered and used by humans was ……………..
(a) Iron
(b) Copper
(c) Bronze
(d) Silver
Answer:
(b) Copper

II. Match the statement with the reason. Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Which of the following statements is true.
(a) Copper was the first metal used by humans.
(b) Horse was used by the Indus people to pull carts.
(c) Mohenjo – Daro was older than Harappa.
(d) Harappan civilization is a rural civilization.
Answer:
(a) Copper was the first metal used by humans.

Question 2.
Consider the following statements.
1. The streets of the Indus area have a grid pattern.
2. There is no evidence of the presence of palaces.
3. There are evidence of the presence of places of worship. Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All the three
Answer:
(a) 1 and 2

Question 3.
Circle the odd one:
Answer:

1. Harappa
2. Mohenjodaro
3. Lahore
4. Lothal
5. Kalibangan

III. Fill in the blanks

1. In 1924, the Director-General of ASI was ……………..
2. The Archaeological Survey of India was started in ……………..
3. The earliest form of writing was developed by the ……………..
4. The great pyramid of Giza was built by king ……………..
5. Granaries were used to store.

Answer:

1. Sir John Marshall
2. 1861
3. Sumerians
4. Khufu
5. Foodgrains

IV. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Why did people settle near rivers?
Answer:
People settled near rivers because

1. The soil is fertile.
2. Freshwater is available for drinking, watering livestock, and irrigation.
3. Easy movement of people and goods is possible.

Question 2.
Why do we say that the Indus people were the first to make cotton clothes?
Answer:

1. Cotton fabrics were in common use.
2. Clay spindles unearthed suggest that yam was spun.

Question 3.
Write about the occupations of the Indus people.
Answer:

1. Agriculture, handicrafts, pottery making, jewellery making, weaving, carpentry, and trading were practiced.
2. There were merchants, traders, and artisans.
3. They reared cattle and other animals.

Question 4.
Who built the Pyramid of Giza?
Answer:

1. The Pyramid of Giza was built by King Khufu in 2500 BCE.
2. It was built with limestone (15 tons each)

V. Mind Map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 2 Civics Chapter 2 The Constitution of India Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 The Constitution of India

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Constitution of India Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer

Question 1.
The Constitution Day is celebrated on ……………..
(a) January 26
(b) August 15
(c) November 26
(d) December 9
Answer:
(c) November 26

Question 2.
The Constituent Assembly accepted the Constitution of India in the year
(a) 1946
(b) 1950
(c) 1947
(d) 1949
Answer:
(d) 1950

Question 3.
There are …………….. amendments made in the Constitution of India till 2016.
(a) 101
(b) 100
(c) 78
(d) 46
Answer:
(a) 101

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a fundamental right?
(a) Right to freedom
(b) Right to equality
(c) Right to vote
(d) Right to education
Answer:
(c) Right to vote

Question 5.
An Indian citizen has the right to vote at ……………..
(a) 14 years
(b) 18 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 21 years
Answer:
(b) 18 years

II. Fill in the blanks

1. …………….. was selected as the chairman of the Constituent Assembly.
2. The farther of the Constitution of India is ……………..
3. …………….. protects our fundamental rights.
4. The Constitution of India came into existence on ……………..

Answer:

1. Mr. Rajendra Prasad
2. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
3. Law of the country
4. 26th January 1950

III. Match the following

Answer:
b) c d a b

IV. Answer the question given under the caption (Constituent Assembly)

Question 1.
In which year was the Constituent Assembly formed?
Answer:
Constituent Assembly was formed in the year 1946.

Question 2.
How many members were in the Drafting Committee?
Answer:
There are eight members in the Drafting Committee.

Question 3.
How many women were part of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
There were fifteen women participants in the constituent Assembly.

Question 4.
When was the Constitution of India completed?
Answer:
The Constitution of India was completed on 26th November 1949.

V. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Why was January 26 adopted as Republic day?
Answer:

1. When the Congress met at Lahore in 1929, the members of the Congress unofficially declared the same day as the Day of Pooma Swaraj or the Day of complete self-governance.
2. The next year, 26th January 1930 was celebrated as Independence Day. That day has been observed as our Republic Day.

Question 2.
What is the Constitution of India?
Answer:

1. The constitution of India is the ultimate law.
2. We have to abide by it.
3. It explains the fundamental concepts of structure, methods, powers, and duties of Government bodies.
4. It also lists the fundamental rights and duties of the citizens.
5. Directive Principles are also mentioned in the constitution.
6. So it is holistic in nature.

Question 3.
List out the special features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:

1. The preface of the constitution is the Preamble.
2. According to it, India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular democratic republic.
3. The constitution has granted people the right to rule. Sovereignty refers to the ultimate power of the country.
4. The term secular refers to the freedom of worship.
5. The Constitution provides a Parliamentary form of Government, both at the center

Question 4.
What are the fundamental rights?
Answer:
Fundamental rights are the basic human rights of all citizens. They are

• Right to Equality
• Right to Freedom
• Right against exploitation
• Right to freedom of Religion
• Cultural and Educational Rights
• Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Question 5.
List out the fundamental duties that you would like to fulfill.
Answer:

1. Respecting the National flag and National Anthem.
2. Respect and protect the Constitution.
3. Readiness to serve our country if the need arises.
4. Treating everyone as brothers and sister
5. Avoid violence.
6. Protect government property etc.

Question 6.
What is Preamble?
Answer:

1. The Preamble of our constitution stresses justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity.
2. The preface of the constitution is the preamble. According to it, India is a sovereign, socialists, secular democratic republic.

Question 7.
What do you understand by Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity?
Answer:

1. The preamble of the Indian constitution clearly says that
2. To achieve Justice-social, economic and political
3. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship.
4. Equality of status and opportunity.
5. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation.

Question 8.
Define: Sovereign
Answer:

1. The Constitution of India has granted the people the right to vote.
2. The members of the Parliament and the Legislative Assembly are elected by the people.
3. The right to decide is only in the hands of the representatives.
4. Sovereignty refers to the ultimate power of the country.
5. Sovereignty refers to India as an independent country.
6. India is not subject to any external power of influence.

VI. Projects and Activities

Question 1.
Let the students work individually or in a group to prepare rules for their class. From them discuss and form a list of rules and regulations for their class.
Answer:

1. Listen to the teacher
2. Respect each other
3. Respect other people’s property
4. Listen to others
5. Take care of our equipment

Question 2.
List your duties at
(a) School
(b) Home and
(c) Society
Answer:
(a) At School:

1. Participate in learning opportunities
2. Attend school regularly on time

(b) at Home:

1. Honour your father and mother
2. Simple hygiene – brush teeth, wash and dry hands, and brush hair.

c) At Society:

1. Teach the illiterate to read and write.
2. Take an active role in literacy campaigns

Question 3.
Discuss these topics:

1. Equality
2. Child labour
3. Right to Education

Answer:

1. Equality means equal rights for all the people and the abolition of all special rights and privileges.
2. Child labour refers to the employment of children in any work that deprives the children of their childhood.
3. The right to education is a fundamental human right. Every individual irrespective of race, gender, social origin, religion, or age are entitled to free elementary education.

Question 4.
Kailash Satyarti (India) and Malala Yusufsai (Pakistan) have been awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace (2014) Find out the reason why?
Answer:
“For their struggle against the suppression of children and young people and for the right of all children to education.

VII. Life Skill

Question 1.
Which of the fundamental rights do you like the most? Why?
Answer:
Fundamental rights and duties are guaranteed by the constitution. Look at the picture and share your opinions. Right against Exploitation. Traffic in Human beings and all forms of forced labour are prohibited.

Question 2.
Fundamental rights and duties are guaranteed by the constitution. Look at the picture and share your opinions. (For Students)
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Constitution of India Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks Answer

1. The Constitutions of nearly …………….. countries have been adopted by our Constitution.
2. …………….. refers to the ultimate power of the country.
3. …………….. is collectively responsible to the legislature.
4. The chief architect of the Drafting Committee was
5. The Constitution of India provides a …………….. form of government both at the centre and the state.

Answer:

1. 60
2. Sovereignty
3. Executive
4. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
5. Parliamentary

II. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
What is the Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
Universal Adult Franchise is every Indian citizen’s right to vote when they attain 18 years of age.

Question 2.
What are the Directive Principles?
Answer:
Directive Principles are certain guidelines to be followed while the government frame law.

Question 3.
What is Democracy?
Answer:
Democracy is a type of government in which representatives are elected by the people of that country.

Question 4.
What is Secular?
Answer:
Secular is a state which does not discriminate against anyone on a religious ground.

III. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 2 Civics Chapter 1 National Symbols Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 National Symbols

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science National Symbols Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer

Question 1.
The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by …………….
(a) Pingali Venkayya
(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(d) Gandhiji
Answer:
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

Question 2.
Which is the National Anthem of India?
(a) Jana Gana Mana
(c) Amar Sonar Bangla
(b) Vande Mataram
(d) Neerarum kaduluduththa
Answer:
(a) Jana Gana Manal

Question 3.
Who wrote the most famous novel Anand Math?
(a) Akbar
(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

Question 4.
_______ birthday is celebrated as the International Day of non violence.
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Subash Chandra Bose
(c) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(a) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 5.
The colour of the Asoka chakra found in our National flag is ……………..
(a) sky blue
(b) navy blue
(c) blue
(d) green
Answer:
(b) navy blue

Question 6.
The first flag ever flown after the Independence is stored in _______
(a) Chennai fort Museum
(c) Saranath Museum
(b) Delhi Museum
(d) Kolkata Museum
Answer:
(a) Chennai fort Museum

Question 7.
The National Anthem was written by ……………..
(a) Devandranath Tagore
(b) Bharathiyar
(c) Rabindranath Tagore
(d) Bala Gangadhar Tilak
Answer:
(c) Rabindranath Tagore

Question 8.
The time taken to play the National Anthem is _______
(a) 50 seconds
(c) 52 seconds
(b) 52 minutes
(d) 20 seconds
Answer:
(c) 52 seconds

Question 9.
“Vande Mataram” was first sung by at the 1896 session of the National Congress.
(a) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Sarojini Naidu
Answer:
(b) Rabindranath Tagore

Question 10.
_______ hoists the flag on Independence day in Delhi
(a) The Prime Minister
(c) Vice President
(b) The President
(d) Any Political leader
Answer:
(a) The Prime Minister

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The National emblem was adopted from the Ashoka pillar of ……………..
2. The National fruit of India is ……………..
3. The National Bird of India is ……………..
4. Our National tree is the ……………..
5. The flag which was flown in 1947 Independence day was weaved in ……………..
6. The Indian National Flag was designed by ……………..
7. …………….. Started the Saka Era.
8. The longest river in India is ……………..
9. The Indian Rupee symbol was designed by ……………..
10. The Chakra of the National Flag has …………….. spokes.

Answer:

1. Sarnath
2. Mango
3. Peacock
4. Banyan tree
5. Gudiyatham
6. Pinglivenkayya
7. Kanishka
8. The Ganges
9. D. Udhaya Kumar
10. 24

III. Choose the Correct Answer

1. The Lion Capital is now in the _______ museum (Kolkata / Sarnath)
2. The National Anthem was adopted in _______ (1950 / 1947)
3. _______ is declared as our National Microorganism (Lactobacillus / Rhizobium)

Answer:

1. Sarnath
2. 1950
3. Lactobacillus

IV. Fill in the blanks

1. Saffron – Courage; White – ……………..
2. Horse – Energy; Bull – ……………..
3. 1947 – Independence day; 1950 – ……………..

Answer:

1. Honestly
2. Hard work
3. Republic day

V. Choose the Correct Option

Answer:
c) d a b c

VI. Match and Choose the Wrong pair

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – b

VII. Choose the wrong sentence

Question 1.
The ratio of our National Flags length and breadth is 3:2
e. The Chakra has 24 spokes
f. The Chakra is Sky Blue in colour
Answer:
f. The Chakra is Sky Blue in colour

Question 2.
The National Flag was designed by pingali Venkayya
g. The First ever flown Flag after the Independence is stored in Kolkata Museum.
h. The First National Flag was weaved in Gudiyattam.
Answer:
g. The First ever flown Flag after the Independence is stored in Kolkata Museum.

VII. Choose the Correct sentence

(a) August 15 is celebrated as the Independence day.
(b) November 26 is celebrated as the Republic day
(c) October 12 is celebrated as Gandhi Jayanti.
Answer:
(a) August 15 is celebrated as the Independence day

IX. Answer the following

Question 1.
What do the colours in our National Flag represent?
Answer:

1. The saffron at the top represents valour and sacrifice.
2. The green at the bottom represents fertility and prosperity.
3. The white band in between represents honesty, peace, and purity.
4. The Ashoka Chakra or the wheel in navy blue represents truth and peace.

Question 2.
What are the parts of our National emblem?
Answer:

1. The four lions on top of the Ashoka Pillar at Samath was chosen to be our National emblem.
2. ‘Satyameva Jayate” has been inscribed at its bottom. It means truth alone triumphs.
3. The National emblem consists of two parts the upper and lower parts.
4. The upper part has four lions facing the North, South, East and West. This is on a circular pedestal. One can see only three lions at a time.
5. The lower part has an elephant, a horse, a bull and a lion. The ‘Wheel of righteousness’ is placed between them.

Question 3.
What are the salient features of the National Anthem?
Answer:

1. ‘Jana Gana Mana’ is our National anthem.
2. It symbolizes the sovereignty and integrity of our Nation.
3. This anthem was written by Rabindranath Tagore in Bengali.

Question 4.
Draw and define the Indian Rupee symbol.
Answer:

1. The Indian currency is the Indian rupees.
2. The symbol of rupees is ?.
3. This was designed by D. Udhayakumar from Tamil Nadu in the year 2010

Question 5.
Where do we use our National emblem?
Answer:
The National emblem is found at the top of the Government Communication, Indian Currency and passport.

Question 6.
Who wrote the National pledge?
Answer:

1. “India is my country. All Indians are my brothers and sisters” is our national pledge.
2. The pledge was written by Pydimarri Venkata Subba Rao in Telugu.

Question 7.
What are the animals found at the bottom of the emblem?
Answer:
At the bottom of the emblem, we see an elephant, a horse, a bull, and a lion.

Question 8.
What are the natural national symbols?
Answer:
Tiger, Elephant, River dolphin of Ganges, Peacock, King cobra, Banyan tree, Mango, The Ganges, and Lotus are the natural national symbols.

Question 9.
Where is the peacock sanctuary located in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
There is a peacock sanctuary at Viralimalai in the district of Pudukottai (Tamil Nadu).

X. Activities

Question 1.
Draw the natural National symbols as scenery / Frame a story. (For Students)

Question 2.
Prepare a logo for your class/school of your own. (For Students)

Question 3.
What should we do to protect endangered plants and animals? Discuss?
Answer:

1. Educate your family about endangered plants and animals in your area.
2. Recycle and buy sustainable products.
3. Reduce water consumption.
4. Do not buy plastic products.

Question 4.
Celebrate the national events in your school and prepare a news item for a local newspaper.
Answer:
A feast for the eyes:

1. Marchpastl drills and entertainment programme were part of the Independence day celebration held in
2. Angel public school R. T. Nagar.
3. Dances were choreographed to spread the message of unity in diversity and peace.

XI. Life Skill Activity

Question 1.
Why are certain organisms adopted as natural National symbols? Analyse.
Answer:

1. To cultivate a deep sense of pride in the hearts of Indian citizens.
2. To represent a quality unique to India and its citizens.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science National Symbols Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks Answer

1. Our government has released a postal stamp of Tirupur Kumaran to remember his ……………… and Sacrifice and dedication ……………… to the nation.
2. The first Indian flag was hoisted by ……………… on 15th August 1947 at Red fort (Delhi)
3. The currency released by Shershahsur in the sixteenth century was ………………
4. ……………… is known for its digestive quality and cooling capacity.
5. From August 1947 to 26th January 1950, the ……………… was the honorary head ot India.
6. ……………… a variety of mango was cultivated during the Mughal reign for the royal family.

Answer:

1. Sacrifice and dedication
2. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Rupiya
4. Curd
5. Queen of Britain
6. Imam pasand

II. Answer the following

Question 1.
What are the rules to be observed while singing the Anthem?
Answer:

1. Everyone should stand erect while singing the national anthem.
2. One should understand the meaning while singing.

Question 2.
List out Tamil Nadu’s Natural symbols.
Answer:

1. Animal – Nilgiritahr Bird
2. Flower – Gloriosa Superba Tree

Question 3.
Who has been given the right to manufacture the National flag?
Answer:
As of 2009, the Karnataka Khadi Gramodyoga Samyukta Sangha has been the sole manufacturer of the flag.

III. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 1 Geography Chapter 1 The Universe and Solar System Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 The Universe and Solar System

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Universe and Solar System Text Book Back Questions and Answers

A. Fill in the blanks

1. The Universe was formed after ……………. explosion.
2. …………….. is the unit used to measure the distance between two celestial bodies.
3. …………….. is the centre of the solar system.
4. The word planet means ………………
5. ………………planet has many natural satellites.
6. India’s first ever mission to the moon is ………………
7. Earth is inclined by ……………… degrees.
8. The Equator faces the Sun directly on ………………
9. At the time of Perihelion, the Earth is ………………
10. The line which divides day and night on the Earth’s surface is ……………….

Answer:

1. Big Bang
2. Light year
3. The Sun
4. wanderer
5. Jupiter
6. Chandrayaan
7. 23 1/2
8. 21st March, 23rd Sep to the Sim.
9. Closest
10. Terminator line

B. Choose the best answer

Question 1.
The movement of the Earth on its axis is called _______
(a) Revolution
(b) Seasons
(c) Rotation
(d) Circulation
Answer:
(c) Rotation

Question 2.
The Tropic of Capricorn faces the Sun directly on
(a) March 21
(b) June 21
(c) September 23
(d) December 22
Answer:
(c) September 23

Question 3.
The galaxy in which our solar system is found is _______
(a) Andromeda
(b) Magellanic clouds
(c) Milky way
(d) Starburst
Answer:
(c) Milky way

Question 4.
The only celestial body where man has successfully landed
(a) Mars
(b) Moon
(c) Mercury
(d) Venus
Answer:
(b) Moon

Question 5.
Which of the following planets can float On water?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Saturn
(c) Uranus
(d) Neptune
Answer:
(b) Saturn

C. Circle the odd one out

D. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – e
5. – b

E. (i) Consider the following statements

1. Venus rotates from east to west.
2. The Tropic of Cancer faces the Sun on June 21.
3. Mars has rings around it.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only
Answer:
(a) 1 and 2

(ii) Consider the following statements

Statement I : Earth is called a watery planet.
Statement II. : The rotation of the Earth causes seasons.
Which of the statement(s) is/are true?
(a) I is true; II is wrong
(b) I is wrong; II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Statements I and II are wrong.
Answer:
(a) I is true; II is wrong

F. Name the following

Question 1.
Cluster of stars.
Answer:
Galaxy

Question 2.
The nearest galaxy to the solar system.
Answer:
Andromeda

Question 3.
The brightest planet.
Answer:
Venus

Question 4.
The living sphere.
Answer:
Biosphere

Question 5.
The year which has 366 days.
Answer:
Leap year

G. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Name the inner planets.
Answer:
The inner planets are Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars.

Question 2.
Pluto is no longer a planet, Reason out,

1. In August 2006, the International Astronomical Union (IAU) down-graded the status of Pluto to that of dwarf planet.
2. The three criteria of the IAU for a full sized planet are
   • It is in orbit around the Sun.
   • It has sufficient Mass to assume nearly a round shape.
   • It has cleared the neighbourhood around its orbit.
3. Since Pluto is able to meet only the first two of the criteria, it in no more a planet.

Question 3.
What is perihelion?
Answer:
Perihelion is the Earth’s closest position to the Sun.

Question 4.
How many times in a year would you find the Sun overhead if you lived on 20 N Latitude?
Answer:
Two times. It would be on the 21st March and 23rd September.

Question 5.
Which celestial body shares its orbit with others? Give an example.
Answer:

1. The dwarf planets share their orbits with others.
2. The five dwarf planets of the solar system are Pluto, Ceres, Eris, Makemake, and Haumea.

H. Give reasons

Question 1.
Why is Uranus called the somersaulting planet?
Answer:
It’s axis is tilted so much, that it appears to orbit the Sun on its sides like a rolling ball. So it is called the somersaulting planet.

Question 2.
The surface of the moon has many craters.
Answer:
The craters are formed due to the meteorites which fall on the moon’s surface.

Question 3.
The velocity of Earth’s rotation is zero at poles.
Answer:
It is due to the shape and inclination of the earth.

I. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Distinguish between inner and outer planets.
Answer:
Inner or Terrestrial Planets

1. Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars.
2. They are comparatively smaller in size.
3. They are composed of rocks. The surface of the inner planets has mountains, volcanoes and craters.
4. None of the inner planets have rings orbiting them

Outer Planets or Jovian Planets, or Gaseous Giants

1. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune.
2. They are huge in size.
3. Most of them are made of gas.
4. All of the outer planets have rings orbiting them.

Question 2.
What are the effects of rotation and revolution?
Answer:
Effects of Rotation:

1. It is the spinning movement of the Earth on its axis
2. The time taken by the Earth to complete one rotation is called a day.
3. The rotation of the Earth causes day and night, As the Earth is spherical in shape, only one half of it is illuminated by the Sun at a time.
4. The other half remains dark.
5. The illuminated portion of the Earth experiences day, whereas the darkened part of the Earth experiences night.

Effects of Revolution:

1. It is the movement of the Earth around the Sun on its elliptical path.
2. The Earth takes 36514 days to complete one revolution.
3. It revolves around the Sun at a speed of 30 km per second.
4. The remaining quarter day is added once in every four years in the month of February.
5. The inclination of the Earth on its axis and its revolution around the Sun cause different seasons.

Question 3.
Explain the characteristics of the various spheres of the Earth.
Answer:
Earth is the most suitable planet to support life. It has three major components that we call the realms of the Earth lithosphere, hydrosphere, and atmosphere.

(i) Lithosphere: The word lithosphere is derived from the Greek word Lithos, which means rocky. The Lithosphere is the land on which we live.

(ii) Hydrosphere: The word Hydro means water in Greek. The hydrosphere consists of water bodies such as oceans, seas, rivers, lakes, ice caps on mountains, and water vapour in the atmosphere.

(iii) Atmosphere: The word Atmo means the air in Greek. The atmosphere is the envelope of air that surrounds the Earth. Different types of gases make up the atmosphere. The major gases are Nitrogen (78%) and Oxygen (21%).

(iv) Biosphere: The narrow belt of interaction among the lithosphere, the hydrosphere, and the atmosphere, where life exists is known as Biosphere. Bio means life in Greek. It consists of distinct zones.

J. Picture Study

Question 1.
Study the picture and answer the given questions.

Question a.
Which is the closest planet to the Sun?
Answer:
Mercury

Question b.
Which is the largest planet?
Answer:
Jupiter

Question c.
Which is the farthest planet from the Sun?
Answer:
Neptune

Question d.
Which is the second smallest planet?
Answer:
Mars

Question 2.
Look at the picture and answer the questions given below.

Question a.
Identify the planet
Answer:
Uranus

Question b.
What is the colour of the planet?
Answer:
Green

Question c.
Why is it of this colour?
Answer:
Due to the presence of Methane

STUDENT ACTIVITY
K. Solve the puzzle

Across:

2. A dwarf planet.
3. Equal days and nights.
7. I am a gas found in the Sun.
8. I appear once in 76 years.

Down:

1. I am the morning star.
2. India’s first moon mission.
4. I have two natural satellites.
5. I am the farthest planet.
6. An imaginary line passing through the centre of the Earth.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Universe and Solar System Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks

1. The study of the universe is called ………………
2. A cluster of stars is known as ………………
3. The Roman word ‘Sol’ means ………………
4. The ……………… is at the centre of the solar system.
5. The elliptical path in which the planets move around the Sun is ………………

Answer:

1. Cosmology
2. Galaxy
3. Sun God
4. Sun
5. Orbit

II. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The closest planet to the Sun is _______
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Uranus
(d) Saturn
Answer:
(a) Mercury

Question 2.
The solar system is believed to have formed about _______billion years ago.
(a) 3
(b) 4.5
(c) 3.5
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 4.5

Question 3.
The ringed planet is _______
(a) Mars
(b) Venus
(c) Saturn
(d) Mercury
Answer:
(c) Saturn

Question 4.
The Outer Planets are _______
(a) Jupiter and Mercury
(b) Venus and Earth
(c) Saturn and Mars
(d) Uranus and Neptune
Answer:
(d) Uranus and Neptune

Question 5.
The Tropic of Cancer faces the Sun directly on _______
(a) March 21
(b) June 21
(c) September 23
(d) December 22
Answer:
(b) June 21

III. (i) Consider the following statements

1. The earth is the third planet in the solar system
2. The Sun is made up of hot gases like Hydrogen and Nitrogen
3. Mercury has no natural satellites
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only
Answer:
(c) 1 and 3

(ii) Consider the following statements

1. The sun revolves around the earth.
2. Mars is named after the Roman God of war.
3. Uranus appears green
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

(iii) Consider the following statements

Question 1.
Statement I: Jupiter is the fastest spinning planet in the solar system.
Statement II: Neptune is the coldest planet Which of the statement (s) is/are true?
(a) I is true, II is wrong
(b) I is wrong, II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Both statements are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are true

(iv) Consider the following statements

Question 1.
Statement I : The earth is inclined at 32 1/2°angle.
Statement II : The specific gravity of Saturn is more than that of water.
Which of the statement (s) is/are true
(a) I is true, II is wrong
(b) I is wrong, II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Both the statement are wrong
Answer:
(d) Both the Statement are wrong

IV. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
What is meant by light year?
Answer:
A light-year is a distance traversed by light in a year at a velocity of 30,000 km per second.

Question 2.
Mention the hierarchy of the universe.
Answer:

1. Universe
2. Galaxy
3. Solar system
4. Planets
5. Satellites

Question 3.
How many planets are there in the solar family? Name them.
Answer:
There are eight planets in the solar family. They are

1. Mercury
2. Venus
3. Earth
4. Mars
5. Jupiter
6. Saturn
7. Uranus and
8. Neptune.

V. Mind map

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Maths Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 & 3 \\
5 & -2
\end{array}\right]\) be such that λA^-1 = A, then λ is _______.
(a) 17
(b) 14
(c) 19
(d) 21
Answer:
(c) 19

Question 2.
If ω ≠ 1 is a cubic root of unity and (1+ ω)⁷ = A+ B ω, then (A, B) equals to _______.
(a) (1,0)
(b) (-1, 1)
(c) (0, 1)
(d) (1, 1)
Answer:
(d) (1, 1)

Question 3.
The value of z – \(\bar{Z}\) is ______.
(a) 2 Im (z)
(b) 2 i Im (z)
(c) Im (z)
(d) i Im (z)
Answer:
(b) 2 i Im (z)

Question 4.
If x³ + 12x² + 10ax + 1999 definitely has a positive zero, if and only if ________.
(a) a ≥ 0
(b) a > 0
(c) a < 0
(d) a < 0
Answer:
(c) a < 0

Question 5.
sin(tan^-1 x), |x| < 1 is equal to _______.

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{x}{\sqrt{1+x^{2}}}\)

Question 6.
The centre of the circle inscribed in a square formed by the lines x² – 8x – 12 = 0 and y² – 14y + 45 = 0 is _____.
(a) (4, 7)
(b) (7, 4)
(c) (9, 4)
(d) (4, 9)
Answer:
(a) (4, 7)

Question 7.
The axis of the parabola x² = – 4y is ______.
(a) y= 1
(b) x = 0
(c) y = 0
(d) x = 1
Answer:
(b) x = 0

Question 8.
The coordinates of the point where the line \(\vec{r}=(6 \hat{i}-\hat{j}-3 \hat{k})+t(-\hat{i}+4 \hat{k})\) meets the plane \(\vec{r} \cdot(\hat{i}+\hat{j}-\hat{k})=3\) are _______.
(a) (2, 1, 0)
(b) (7, -1, -7)
(c) (1, 2, -6)
(d) (5, -1, 1)
Answer:
(d) (5, -1, 1)

Question 9.
If the vectors \(\vec{a}=3 \vec{i}+2 \vec{j}+9 \vec{k}\) and \(\vec{b}=\vec{i}+m \vec{j}+3 \vec{k}\) are parallel then m is _________.

Answer:
(b) \(\frac{2}{3}\)

Question 10.
The minimum value of the function |3 – x | + 9 is ________.
(a) 0
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 9
Answer:
(d) 9

Question 11.
The curve y² = x² (1 – x²) has ______.
(a) an asymptote x = -1
(b) an asymptote x = 1
(c) two asymptotes x = 1 and x = -1
(d) no asymptote
Answer:
(d) no asymptote

Question 12.
If /(x, y, z) = xy + yz + zx, then f_x – f_z is equal to _______.
(a) z – x
(b) y – z
(c) x – z
(d) y – x
Answer:
(a) z – x

Question 13.
A circular template has a radius of 10 cm. The measurement of radius has an approximate error of 0.02 cm. Then the percentage error in calculating area of this template is _______.
(a) 0.2%
(b) 0.4%
(c) 0.04%
(d) 0.08%
Answer:
(b) 0.4%

Question 14.
The value of \(\int_{0}^{\pi} \sin ^{4} x d x\) is _______.

Answer:
(b) \(\frac{3 \pi}{8}\)

Question 15.
\(\int_{a}^{b} f(x) d x\) is _______.

Answer:
(d) \(\int_{a}^{b} f(a+b-x) d x\)

Question 16.
The degree of the differential equation \(y(x)=1+\frac{d y}{d x}+\frac{1}{1.2}\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{2}+\frac{1}{1.2 .3}\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{3}+\ldots\) is ________.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 1

Question 17.
In finding the differential equation corresponding toy = e^mx where m is the arbitrary constant, then m is ____.
(a) \(\frac{y}{y^{\prime}}\)
(b) \(\frac{y^{\prime}}{y}\)
(c) y’
(d) y
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{y^{\prime}}{y}\)

Question 18.
Let X be random variable with probability density function f(x) = \(\left\{\begin{array}{ll}
2 / x^{3} & x \geq 1 \\
0 & x<1
\end{array}\right.\)
Which of the following statement is correct
(a) both mean and variance exist
(b) mean exists but variance does not exist
(c) both mean and variance do not exist
(d) variance exists but mean does not exist
Answer:
(b) mean exists but variance does not exist

Question 19.
The random variable X has the probability density function f(x) = \(\left\{\begin{array}{cc}
a x+b, & 0<x<1 \\
0, & \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\)
and E(X) = \(\frac{7}{12}\), then a and b are respectively _______.
(a) 1 and \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{2}\) and 1
(c) 2 and 1
(d) 1 and 2
Answer:
(a) 1 and \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 20.
A binary operation on a set S is a function from ________.
(a) S → S
(b)(S x S) → S
(c) S → (S x S)
(d) (S x S) → (S x S)
Answer:
(b)( S x S) → S

Part – II

II. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Solve the following system of homogeneous equations.
3x + 2y + 7z = 0, 4x – 3y – 2z = 0, 5x + 9y + 23z = 0
Answer:
The matrix form of the above equation is

The augmented matrix [A, B] is

The above matrix is in echelon form. Here ρ(A, B) = ρ( A) < number of unknowns.
⇒ The system is consistent with infinite number of solutions. To find the solutions.
Writing the equivalent equations.
We get 3x + 2y + 7z = 0 ……..(1)
-17y – 34z = 0 …….(2)
Taking z = t in (2) we get -17y – 34t = 0
⇒ -17y = 34t
⇒ y= \(\frac{34 t}{-17}\) = -2t
Taking z = t; y = -2t in (1) we get
3x + 2 (-2t) + 7t = 0
3x – 4t + 7t = 0
⇒ 3x = -3t ⇒ x = -t
So the solution is x = -t; y = -2t; and z = t, t∈R

Question 22.
Show that |3z – 5 + i| = 4 represents a circle, and, find its centre and radius.
Answer:
The given equation |3z – 5 + i| = 4 can be written as

It is of the form |z – z| = r and so it represents a circle, whose center and radius are \(\left(\frac{5}{3},-\frac{1}{3}\right)\) and 4/3 respectively.

Question 23.
Find the equation of the circle whose centre is (2, -3) and passing through the intersection of the line 3x – 2y = 1 and 4x + y = 27.
Answer:
Solving 3x – 2y = 1 and 4x + y = 27
Simultaneously, we get x = 5 and y = 7
∴ The point of intersection of the lines is (5, 7)
Now we have to find the equation of a circle whose centre is
(2, -3) and which passes through (5, 7)

∴ Required equation of the circle is
(x – 2)² + (y + 3)² = \((\sqrt{109})^{2}\)
⇒ x² + y² – 4x + 6y – 96 = 0

Question 24.
Find the intercepts cut off by the plane \(\vec{r} \cdot(6 \hat{i}+4 \hat{j}-3 \hat{k})=12\) on the coordinate axes.
Answer:
\(\vec{r} \cdot(6 \vec{i}+4 \vec{j}-3 \vec{k})=12\)
Compare the above equations into \(\vec{r} \cdot \vec{n}=q\) so q = 12
Let a, b, c are intercepts of x-axis, y-axis and z-axis respectively.
Clearly

x – intercept = 2; y – intercept = 3; z – intercept = -4

Question 25.
Find the values in the interval (1, 2) of the mean value theorem satisfied by the function f(x) = x – x² for 1 ≤ x ≤ 2.
Answer:
f(1) = 0 and f(2) = -2. Clearly f(x) is defined and differentiable in 1 < x < 2. Therefore, by the Mean Value Theorem, there exists a c ∈(1, 2) such that
f'(c) = \(\frac{f(2)-f(1)}{2-1}\) = 1 – 2c
That is, 1 – 2c = -2 ⇒ c = \(\frac{3}{2}\)

Question 26.
Show that the percentage error in the n^th root of a number is approximately \(\frac{1}{n}\) times the percentage error in the number.
Answer:

Question 27.
Solve the differential equation: tany \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = cos (x + y) + cos (x -y)
Answer:
tan y \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = cos (x + y) + cos(x – y)
tan y \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = cos x cos y – sin x sin y + cos x cos y + sin x sin y
tan y \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 2 cos x cos y
seperating the variables
\(\int \frac{\tan y}{\cos y}\) dy = 2∫cos x dx ⇒ ∫sec y tan y dy = 2∫cos x dx
sec y = 2 sin x + c

Question 28.
The probability density function of X is given by \(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}
k e^{-\frac{x}{3}} & \text { for } x>0 \\
0 & \text { for } x \leq 0
\end{array}\right.\)
Find the value of k.
Answer:

Question 29.
Construct the truth table for the following statement. \(\neg(p \wedge \neg q)\).
Answer:

Question 30.
Find an approximate value of \(\int_{1}^{1.5} x^{2} d x\) by applying the right-hand rule with the partition {1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 1.4, 1.5}.
Answer:
Here a = 1; b = 1.5; n = 5; f(x) = x²
So, the width of each subinterval is

x₀ = 1; x₁ = 1.1; x₂ = 1.2; x₃ = 1.3; x₄ = 1.4; x₅ = 1.5
The Right hand rule for Riemann sum,
S = [f(x₁) + f(x₂) + f(x₃) + f(x₄) + f(x₅)] Δx
= [f(1.1) + f(1.2) + f(1.3) + f(1.4) + f(1.5)] (0.1)
= [1.21 + 1.44 + 1.69 + 1.96 + 2.25] (0.1)
= [8.55] (0.1)
= 0.855.

Part – III

III. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Find a matrix A if adj (A) = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
7 & 7 & -7 \\
-1 & 11 & 7 \\
11 & 5 & 7
\end{array}\right]\)

Question 32.
Obtain the Cartesian form of the locus of z = x + iy in the following case Im[(1 – i)z +1] = 0

Question 33.
If \(\vec{a}=\hat{i}-\hat{k}, \vec{b}=x \hat{i}+\hat{j}+(1-x) \hat{k}, \vec{c}=y \hat{i}+x \hat{j}+(1+x-y) \hat{k}\), show that \([\vec{a} \vec{b} \vec{c}]\) depends on neither x nor y.

Question 34.
The Taylor’s series expansion of f(x) = sin x about x = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) is obtained by the following way.

Question 35.
The edge of a cube was found to be 30 cm with a possible error in measurement of 0.1 cm. Use differentials to estimate the maximum possible error in computing (i) the volume of the cube and (ii) the surface area of cube.

Question 36.
Evaluate \(\int_{0}^{1} \frac{\sin \left(3 \tan ^{-1} x\right) \tan ^{-1} x}{1+x^{2}} d x\)

Question 37.
Find the particular solution of (1 + x³) dy – x² ydx = 0 satisfying the condition y(1) = 2.

Question 38.
If X is the random variable with distribution function F(x) given by,
\(\mathrm{F}(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ll}
0, & x<0 \\
x, & 0 \leq x<1 \\
1, & 1 \leq x
\end{array}\right.\)
then find (z) the Probability density function f(x)

Question 39.
Show that \(((\neg q) \wedge p) \wedge q\) is a contradiction.

Question 40.
Show that the absolute value of difference of the focal distances of any point P on the hyperbola is the length of its transverse axis.

Part – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) By using Gaussian elimination method, balance the chemical reaction equation:
C₂H₆ + O₂ → H₂O + CO₂.
[OR]
(b) \(\frac{d y}{d x}+\frac{3 y}{x}=\frac{1}{x^{2}}\), given that y = 2 when x = 1

Question 42.
(a) Find the real values of x and y for the equation \(\frac{(1+i) x-2 i}{3+i}+\frac{(2-3 i) y+i}{3-i}=i\)
[OR]
(b) Find the area between the line y = x + 1 and the curve y = x² – 1.

Question 43.
(a) Determine k and solve the equation 2x³ – 6x² + 3x + k = 0 if one of its roots is twice the sum of the other two roots.
[OR]
(b) Evaluate: \(\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{d x}{5+4 \sin ^{2} x}\)

Question 44.
(a) A tunnel through a mountain for a four lane highway is to have a elliptical opening. The total width of the highway (not the opening) is to be 16 m, and the height at the edge of the road must be sufficient for a truck 4 m high to clear if the highest point of the opening is to be 5 m approximately. How wide must the opening be?
[OR]
(b) Using truth table check whether the statements \(\neg(p \vee q) \vee(\neg p \wedge q)\) and \(\neg p\) are logically equivalent.

Question 45.
(a) Find the value of cot^-1 x – cot^-1 (x + 2) = \(\frac{\pi}{12}\), x > 0
[OR]
(b) Verify Euler’s theorem for f(x, y) = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}}}\)

Question 46.
(a) Find the points where the straight line passes through (6, 7, 4) and (8, 4, 9) cuts the xz and yz planes.
[OR]
(b) If X is the random variable with probability density function f(x) given by,
\(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{rc}
x+1, & -1 \leq x<0 \\
-x+1, & 0 \leq x<1 \\
0, & \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\)
then find (z) the distribution function f(x) (ii) P (-0.5 ≤ X ≤ 0.5)

Question 47.
(a) Sketch the graph of the function: y = \(x \sqrt{4-x}\)
(b) The velocity v, of a parachute falling vertically satisfies the equation, \(v \frac{d v}{d x}=g\left(1-\frac{v^{2}}{k^{2}}\right)\)
where g and k are constants. If v and x are both initially zero, find v in terms of x.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Biology Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Biology Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. 1. The question paper comprises of four parts. Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
   2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
   3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
   4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
   5. Question numbers 9 to 14 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
   6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
   7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio-Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
A Plant called ‘X’ possesses small flower with reduced perianth and versatile anther. The probable agent for pollination would be _________.
(a) water
(b) air
(c) butterflies
(d) beetles
Answer:
(b) air

Question 2.
“Gametes are never hybrid”. This is a statement of _______.
(a) Law of dominance
(b) Law of independent assortment
(c) Law of segregation
(d) Law of random fertilization
Answer:
(c) Law of segregation

Question 3.
In which techniques Ethidium Bromide is used?
(a) Southern Blotting techniques
(b) Western Blotting techniques
(c) Polymerase Chain Reaction
(d) Agarose Gel Electrophoresis
Answer:
(d) Agarose Gel Electrophoresis

Question 4.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Agar is not extracted from marine algae such as seaweeds
(b) Callus undergoes differentiation and produces somatic embryoids
(c) Surface sterilization of explants is done by using mercuric bromide
(d) pH of the culture medium is 5.0 to 6.0
Answer:
(d) pH of the culture medium is 5.0 to 6.0

Question 5.
The term pedogenesis is related to _______.
(a) Fossils
(b) Water
(c) Population
(d) Soil
Answer:
(d) Soil

Question 6.
Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancer?
(a) Ammonia
(b) Methane
(c) Nitrous oxide
(d) Ozone
Answer:
(d) Ozone

Question 7.
A wheat variety, Atlas 66 which has been used as a donor for improving cultivated wheat is rich in _______.
(a) iron
(b) carbohydrates
(c) proteins
(d) vitamins
Answer:
(c) proteins

Question 8.
Statement A: Coffee contains caffeine.
Statement B: Drinking coffee enhances cancer.
(a) A is correct, B is wrong
(b) A and B – Both are correct
(c) A is wrong, B is correct
(d) A and B – Both are wrong
Answer:
(b) A and B – Both are correct

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Draw and label the structure of a typical pollen grain.
Answer:

Question 10.
What is test cross? Why it is done?
Answer:
Test cross is crossing an individual of unknown genotype with a homozygous recessive. Test cross is used to identify whether an individual is homozygous or heterozygous for dominant character.

Question 11.
You are working in a biotechnology lab with a bacterium namely E.coli. How will you cut the nucleotide sequence? Explain it.
Answer:
The DNA nucleotide sequence can be cut using Restriction endonucleases (RE). Restriction

Question 12.
What is ecological hierarchy? Name the levels of ecological hierarchy.
Answer:
The interaction of organisms with their environment results in the establishment of grouping of organisms which is called ecological hierarchy.

Question 13.
Mutagens are the substances that induces mutation. Name any two physical and chemical mutagens.
Answer:
UV short waves, X-rays – Physical mutagens.
Nitromethyl, Urea – Chemical mutagens.

Question 14.
What is pseudo cereal? Give an example.
Answer:
The term pseudo-cereal is used to describe foods that are prepared and eaten as a whole grain, but are botanical outliers from grasses. Example: quinoa. It is actually a seed from the Chenopodium quinoa plant, belongs to the family Amaranthaceae.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
“Endothecium is associated with dehiscence of anther” Justify the statement.
Answer:
The inner tangential wall develops bands (sometimes radial walls also) of α cellulose (sometimes also slightly lignified). The cells are hygroscopic. The cells along the junction of the two sporangia of an anther lobe lack these thickenings. This region is called stomium. This region along with the hygroscopic nature of endothecium helps in the dehiscence of anther at maturity.

Question 16.
What is gene mapping? Write its uses.
Answer:
The diagrammatic representation of position of genes and related distances between the adjacent genes is called genetic mapping. It is directly proportional to the frequency of recombination between them. It is also called as linkage map.

Uses of genetic mapping:

• It is used to determine gene order, identify the locus of a gene and calculate the distances between genes.
• They are useful in predicting results of dihybrid and trihybrid crosses.
• It allows the geneticists to understand the overall genetic complexity of particular organism.

Question 17.
How synthetic seeds are developed?
Answer:
Artificial seeds or synthetic seeds (synseeds) are produced by using embryoids (somatic embryos) obtained through in vitro culture. They may even be derived from single cells from any part of the plant that later divide to form cell mass containing dense cytoplasm, large nucleus, starch grains, proteins, and oils, etc. To prepare the artificial seeds different inert materials are used for coating the somatic embryoids like agrose and sodium alginate.

Question 18.
Discuss the three zones of a lentic ecosystem.
Answer:
There are three zones, littoral, limnetic and profundal. The littoral zone, which is closest to the shore with shallow water region, allows easy penetration of light. It is warm and occupied by rooted plant species. The limnetic zone refers the open water of the pond with an effective penetration of light and domination of planktons.

The deeper region of a pond below the limnetic zone is called profundal zone with no effective light penetration and predominance of heterotrophs. The bottom zone of a pond is termed benthic and is occupied by a community of organisms called benthos (usually decomposers).

Question 19.
Write a short note on clean development mechanism.
Answer:
Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) is defined in the Kyoto protocol (2007) which provides project based mechanisms with two objectives to prevent dangerous climate change and to reduce green house gas emissions. CDM projects helps the countries to reduce or limit emission and stimulate sustainable development.

An example for CDM project activity, is replacement of conventional electrification projects with solar panels or other energy efficient boilers. Such projects can earn Certified Emission Reduction (CER) with credits / scores, each equivalent to one tonne of CO₂, which can be counted towards meeting Kyoto targets.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
(a) Describe dominant epistasis with an example.
Answer:

Dominant Epistasis – It is a gene interaction in which two alleles of a gene at one locus interfere and suppress or mask the phenotypic expression of a different pair of alleles of another gene at another locus. The gene that suppresses or masks the phenotypic expression of a gene at another locus is known as epistatic. The gene whose expression is interfered by non-allelic genes and prevents from exhibiting its character is known as hypostatic. When both the genes are present together, the phenotype is determined by the epistatic gene and not by the hypostatic gene.

In the summer squash the fruit colour locus has a dominant allele ‘W’ for white colour and a recessive allele ‘w’ for coloured fruit. ‘W’ allele is dominant that masks the expression of any colour. In another locus hypostatic allele ‘G’ is for yellow fruit and its recessive allele ‘g’ for green fruit. In the first locus the white is dominant to colour where as in the second locus yellow is dominant to green. When the white fruit with genotype WWgg is crossed with yellow fruit with genotype wwGG, the F₁ plants have white fruit and are heterozygous (WwGg). When F₁ heterozygous plants are crossed they give rise to F₂ with the phenotypic ratio of 12 white : 3 yellow : 1 green.

Since W is epistatic to the alleles ‘G’ and ‘g’ the white which is dominant, masks the effect of yellow or green. Homozygous recessive ww genotypes only can give the coloured fruits (4/16). Double recessive ‘wwgg’ will give green fruit (1/16). The Plants having only ‘G’ in its genotype (wwGg or wwGG) will give the yellow fruit(3/16).

[OR]

(b) Point out the significance of plant succession.
Answer:
Significance of Plant Succession:

• Succession is a dynamic process. Hence an ecologist can access and study the seral stages of a plant community found in a particular area.
• The knowledge of ecological succession helps to understand the controlled growth of one or more species in a forest.
• Utilizing the knowledge of succession, even dams can be protected by preventing siltation.
• It gives information about the techniques to be used during reforestation and afforestation.
• It helps in the maintenance of pastures.
• Plant succession helps to maintain species diversity in an ecosystem.
• Patterns of diversity during succession are influenced by resource availability and disturbance by various factors.
• Primary succession involves the colonization of habitat of an area devoid of life.
• Secondary succession involves the re-establishment of a plant community in disturbed area or habitat.
• Forests and vegetation that we come across all over the world are the result of plant succession.

Question 21.
(a) Compare the various types of Blotting techniques.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Explain different types of hybridization.
Answer:
Types of Hybridization:
According to the relationship between plants, the hybridization is divided into.
1. Intravarietal hybridization – The cross between the plants of same variety. Such crosses are Useful only in the self-pollinated crops.

2.. Intervarietal hybridization – The cross between the plants belonging to two different varieties of the same species and is also known as intraspecific hybridization. This technique has been the basis of improving self-pollinated as well as cross pollinated crops.

3. Interspecific hybridization – The cross between the plants belonging to different species belonging to the same genus is also called intragenic hybridization. It is commonly used for transferring the genes of disease, insect, pest and drought resistance from one species to another.
Example: Gossypium hirsutum x Gossypium arboreum – Deviraj.

4. Intergeneric hybridization – The crosses are made between the plants belonging to two different genera. The disadvantages are hybrid sterility, time consuming and expensive procedure. Example: Raphanobrassica and Triticale.

Bio-Zoology [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Select the correct production site and action site of Relaxin.
(a) Hypothalamus and pituitary gland
(b) Pituitary gland and Pelvic joints and cervix
(c) Placenta and pelvic joint and cervix
(d) Hypothalamus and placenta
Answer:
(c) Placenta and pelvic joint and cervix

Question 2.
Fusion of young individuals produced immediately after the mitotic division of adult parent cell is called _______.
(a) Merogamy
(b) Anisogamy
(c) Hologamy
(d) Paedogamy
Answer:
(d) Paedogamy

Question 3.
Mangolism is a genetic disorder which is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome number ______.
(a) 20
(b) 21
(c) 23
(d) 19
Answer:
(b) 21

Question 4.
DNA finger printing techniques was developed by _______.
(a) Jacob and Monod
(b) Alec Jeffreys
(c) Frederick Sanger
(d) Hershey and Chase
Answer:
(b) Alec Jeffreys

Question 5.
Identify the correct sequence of periods from oldest to youngest
(a) Cambrian → Permian → Devonian → Silurian → Ordovician
(b) Permian → Silurian → Devonian → Ordovician → Cambrian
(c) Permian → Devonian → Silurian → Cambrian → Ordovician
(d) Cambrian → Ordovician → Silurian → Devonian → Permian
Answer:
(d) Cambrian → Ordovician → Silurian → Devonian → Permian

Question 6.
Spread of cancerous cells to distant sites is termed as _________.
(a) Metastasis
(b) Oncogenes
(c) Proto-oncogenes
(d) Malignant neoplasm
Answer:
(a) Metastasis

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Streptomycin is an antibiotic.
Reason (R): Antibiotic are microbial chemicals inhibits the growth of pathogenic microbe.
(a) A is right R is wrong
(b) R explains A
(c) A and R are wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is right
Answer:
(b) R explains A

Question 8.
World Ozone Day was observed on _________.
(a) September 16^th
(b) October 12^th
(c) December 1^th
(d) August 18^th
Answer:
(a) September 16^th

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Name the active chemical found in the medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria. What type of diversity does it belongs to?
Answer:
Rauwolfia vomitoria can be cited as an example for genetic diversity. Reserpine is an active chemical extracted from Rauwolfia vomitoria.

Question 10.
State any two unique features of ELISA test.
Answer:
ELISA is highly sensitive and can detect antigen even in nanograms.
ELISA test does not require radioisotopes or radiation counting apparatus.

Question 11.
Define Anaphylaxis.
Answer:
Anaphylaxis is the classical immediate hypersensitivity reaction. It is a sudden, systematic, severe and immediate hypersensitivity reaction occurring as a result of rapid generalized mast-cell degranulation

Question 12.
Who is Cro-Magnon?
Answer:
Cro-Magnon was one of the most talked forms of modem human found from the rocks of Cro-Magnon, France and is considered as the ancestor of modem Europeans. They were not only adapted to various environmental conditions, but were also known for their cave paintings, figures on floors and walls.

Question 13.
What is S – D sequence?
Answer:
The 5′ end of the mRNA of prokaryotes has a special sequence which precedes the initial AUG start codon of mRNA. This ribosome binding site is called the Shine – Dalgamo sequence or S-D sequence. This sequences base-pairs with a region of the 16Sr RNA of the small ribosomal subunit facilitating initiation.

Question 14.
Expand (a) GIFT (b) ICSI
Answer:
GIFT – Gamete Intra – Fallopian Transfer
ICSI – Intra-cytoplasmic sperm injection

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Write a short note on encystment in amoeba.
Answer:
During unfavorable conditions (increase or decrease in temperature and scarcity of food) Amoeba withdraws its pseudopodia and secretes a three-layered, protective, chitinous cyst wall around it and becomes inactive. This phenomenon is called encystment. When conditions become favourable, the encysted Amoeba divides by multiple fission and produces many minute amoebae called pseudopodiospore or amoebulae.

The cyst wall absorbs water and breaks off liberating the young pseudopodiospores, each with a fine pseudopodia. They feed and grow rapidly to lead an independent life.

Question 16.
Draw a schematic representation of human oogenesis.
Answer:

Question 17.
Comment on the methods of Eugenics.
Answer:
Eugenics refers to the study of the possibility of improving the qualities of human population. Methods of Eugenics:

• Sex-education in school and public forums.
• Promoting the uses of contraception.
• Compulsory sterilization for mentally retarded and criminals.
• Egg donation.
• Artificial insemination by donors.
• Prenatal diagnosis of genetic disorders and performing MTP.
• Gene therapy.
• Cloning.
• Egg/sperm donation of healthy individuals.

Question 18.
Both strands of DNA are not copied during transcription. Give reason.
Answer:
Both the strands of DNA are not copied during transcription for two reasons.
1. If both the strands act as a template, they would code for RNA with different sequences. This in turn would code for proteins with different amino acid sequences. This would result in one segment of DNA coding for two different proteins, hence complicate the genetic information transfer machinery.

2. If two RNA molecules were produced simultaneously, double stranded RNA complementary to each other would be formed. This would prevent RNA from being translated into proteins.

Question 19.
What is Q₁₀ value? How it is calculated?
Answer:
The effect of temperature on the rate of reaction is expressed in terms of temperature coefficient or Q₁₀ value. The Q₁₀ values are estimated taking the ratio between the rate of reaction at X°C and rate of reaction at (X-10°C).

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
(a) Differentiate between r-selected species and k-selected species.
Answer:
r – selected species:

• Smaller sized organisms
• Produce many offspring
• Mature early
• Short life expectancy
• Each individual reproduces only once or few times in their life time
• Only few reach adulthood
• Unstable environment, density independent

k – seleced species:

• Larger sized organisms
• Produce few offspring
• Late maturity with extended parental care
• Long life expectancy
• Can reproduce more than once in lifetime
• Most individuals reach maximum life span
• Stable environment, density dependent

[OR]

(b) Give a detailed account on ethanol production by microbes and the uses of ethanol.
Answer:
Ethanol production:
Saccharomyces cerevisiae (Yeast) is the major product of ethanol.

Since ethanol is used for industrial, laboratory and fuel proposes, it is called as industrial alcohol.

Organism used: Saccharomyces cerevisiae, bacteria like Zymomonas mobilis and Sarcina ventriculi.
Substances used: Molasses, Com, Potatoes, wood waste.

Process of ethanol production:
Step-1: Milling of fees stock.
Step-2: Adding fungal (Aspergillus) amylase to break down starch into sugar.
Step-3: Yeast is added to convert sugar into ethanol.
Step-4: Distillation yield 96% concentrated ethanol.

Uses of Ethanol:
Ethanol and bio-diesel are the two commonly used first generation bio-fuels.
Ethanol is used as fuel, mainly as bio-fuel additive for gasoline.

Question 21.
(a) How DNA is packed in an eukaryotic cell?
Answer:
In eukaryotes, organization is more complex. Chromatin is formed by a series of repeating units called nucleosomes. Komberg proposed a model for the nucleosome, in which 2 molecules of the four histone proteins H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 are organized to form a unit of eight molecules called histone octamere. The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamere to form a structure called nucleosome. A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA helix.

The histone octameres are in close contact and DNA is coiled on the outside of nucleosome. Neighbouring nucleosomes are connected by linker DNA (H1) that is exposed to enzymes. The DNA makes two complete turns around the histone octameres and the two turns are sealed off by an H1 molecule. Chromatin lacking H1 has a beads-on-a-string appearance in which DNA enters and leaves the nucleosomes at random places. H1 of one nucleosome can interact with H1 of the neighbouring nucleosomes resulting in the further folding of the fibre.

The chromatin fiber in interphase nuclei and mitotic chromosomes have a diameter that vary between 200-300 nm and represents inactive chromatin. 30 nm fibre arises from the folding of nucleosome, chains into a solenoid structure having six nucleosomes per turn. This structure is stabilized by interaction between different H1 molecules. DNA is a solenoid and packed about 40 folds. The hierarchical nature of chromosome structure is illustrated.

Additional set of proteins are required for packing of chromatin at higher level and are referred to as non-histone chromosomal proteins (NHC). In a typical nucleus, some regions of chromatin are loosely packed (lightly stained) and are referred to as euchromatin. The chromatin that is tightly packed (stained darkly) is called heterochromatin. Euchromatin is transcriptionally active and heterochromatin is transcriptionally inactive.

[OR]

(b) Explain Oparin – Haldane hypothesis on evolution.
Answer:
According to the theory of chemical evolution primitive organisms in the primordial environment of the Earth evolved spontaneously from inorganic substances and physical forces such as lightning, UV radiations, volcanic activities, etc. Oparin (1924) suggested that the organic compounds could have undergone a series of reactions leading to more complex molecules. He proposed that the molecules formed colloidal aggregates or ‘coacervates’ in an aqueous environment.

The coacervates were able to absorb and assimilate organic compounds from the environment. Haldane (1929) proposed that the primordial sea served as a vast chemical laboratory powered by solar energy. The atmosphere was oxygen free and the combination of CO₂, NH₃ and UV radiations gave rise to organic compounds. The sea became a ‘hot’ dilute soup containing large populations of organic monomers and polymers.

They envisaged that groups of monomers and polymers acquired lipid membranes and further developed into the first living cell. Haldane coined the term prebiotic soup and this became the powerful symbol of the Oparin-Haldane view on the origin of life (1924-1929). Oparin and Haldane independently suggested that if the primitive ‘ atmosphere was reducing and if there was appropriate supply of energy such as lightning or UV light then a wide range of organic compounds can be synthesized.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

PART – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
If A = {1,2}, B = {1, 2, 3, 4}, C = {5,6} and D = {5, 6, 7, 8} then state which of the following statement is true ………….. .
(1) (A × C) ⊂ (B × D)
(2) (B × D) ⊂ (A × C)
(3) (A × B) ⊂ (A × D)
(4) (D × A) ⊂ (B × A)
Answer:
(1) (A × C) ⊂ (B × D)

Question 2.
If f(x) = 2x² and g(x) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3x }\), then jog is ………….. .
(1) \(\frac{3}{2 x^{2}}\)
(2) \(\frac{2}{3 x^{2}}\)
(3) \(\frac{2}{9 x^{2}}\)
(4) \(\frac{1}{6 x^{2}}\)
Answer:
(3) \(\frac{2}{9 x^{2}}\)

Question 3.
Given F₁ = 1,F₂ = 3 and F_n = F_n-1 + F_n-2  then F₅ is ………….. .
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 11
Answer:
(4) 11

Question 4.
The value of (1³ + 2³ + 3³ +. . . .+ 15³) – (1 + 2 + 3 +….+ 15) is ………….. .
(1) 14400
(2) 14200
(3) 14280
(4) 14520
Answer:
(3) 14280

Question 5.
The solution of the system x + y – 3z = -6 , – 7y + 7z = 7, 3z = 9 is ………….. .
(1) x = 1, y = 2, z = 3
(2) x = -1, y = 2, z = 3
(3) x = -1, y = -2, z = 3
(4) x = 1, y = 2, z = 3
Answer:
(1) x = 1, y = 2, z = 3

Question 6.
If number of columns and rows are not equal in a matrix then it is said to be a ………….. .
(1) diagonal matrix
(2) rectangular matrix
(3) square matrix
(4) identity matrix
Answer:
(2) rectangular matrix

Question 7.
The slope of the line which is perpendicular to a line joining the points (0, 0) and (-8, 8) is ………….. .
(1) -1
(2) 1
(3) \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)
(4) -8
Answer:
(2) 1

Question 8.
If sin θ + cos θ = a and sec θ + cosec θ = 6, then the value of b (a² – 1} is equal to ………….. .
(1) 2 a
(2) 3 a
(3) 0
(4) 2 ab
Answer:
(1) 2 a

Question 9.
If two solid hemispheres of same base radius r units are joined together along their bases, then curved surface area of this new solid is ………….. .
(1) 4π r² sq. units
(2) 6π r² sq. units
(3) 3π r² sq. units
(4) 8π r² sq. units
Answer:
(1) 4π r² sq. units

Question 10.
The standard deviation of a data is 3. If each value is multiplied by 5 then the new variance is ………….. .
(1) 3
(2) 15
(3) 5
(4) 225
Answer:
(4) 225

Question 11.
Kamalam went to play a lucky draw contest. 135 tickets of the lucky draw were sold. If the probability of Kamalam winning is \(\frac { 1 }{ 9 }\), then the number of tickets bought by Kamalam is ………….. .
(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 20
Answer:
(3) 15

Question 12.
If α and β are the zeros of the polynomial p(x) = 4x² + 3x + 7 then \(\frac{1}{\alpha}+\frac{1}{\beta}\) is equal to …… .
(1) \(\frac{7}{3}\)
(2) \(-\frac{7}{3}\)
(3) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
(4) \(-\frac{3}{7}\)
Answer:
(4) \(-\frac{3}{7}\)

Question 13.
The common ratio of the G.P. a^m-n, a^m, a^{m + n} is ………….. .
(1) a^m
(2) a^-m
(3) aⁿ
(4) aⁿ
Answer:
(3) aⁿ

Question 14.
If the circumference at the base of a right circular cone and the slant height are 120π cm and 10 cm respectively, then the curved surface area of the cone is equal to ………….. .
(1) 1200 π cm²
(2) 600 π cm²
(3) 300 π cm²
(4) 600 π m²
Answer:
(2) 600 π cm²

PART – II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Let A = {1,2, 3, 4} and B = N . Let f: A → B be defined by f(x) = x³ then,
(i) find the range of f
(ii) identify the type of function
Answer:
A = {1,2,3,4}
B = (1,2,3,4,5, ………}
f(x) = x³
f(1) = 1³ = 1
f(2) = 2³ = 8
f(3) = 3³ = 27
f(4) = 4³ = 64
(i) Range = {1, 8,27, 64)
(ii) one -one and into function.

Question 16.
If f(x) = 2x -1, g (x) = \(\frac{x+1}{2}\), show that fog = gof = x
Answer:
f(x) = 2x – 1 : g(x) = \(\frac{x+1}{2}\)
fog = f[g(x)]
= \(f\left[\frac{x+1}{2}\right]\)
= \(2\left(\frac{x+1}{2}\right)-1\)
= x + 1 – 1
= x

gof = g[f(x)]
= g (2x – 1)
= \(\frac{2 x-1+1}{2}\)
= \(\frac{2 x}{2}\)
= x
∴ fog = gof = x
Hence it is proved.

Question 17.
Determine the general term of an A.P. whose 7^th term is -1 and 16^th term is 17.
Answer:
Let the AP. be t₁, t₂, t₃, t₄, ………
It is given that t₇ = -1 and t₁₆ = 17
a + (7 – 1)d = -1 and a + (16 – 1) d = 17
a + 6d = – 1 ……. (1)
a + 15d = 17 ……… (2)
Subtracting equation (1) from equation (2), we get 9d = 18 ⇒ d = 2
Putting d = 2 in equation (1), we get a + 12 = -1 So, a = -13
Hence, general term t_n = a + (n – 1) d = -13 + (n – 1) × 2 = 2n – 15

Question 18.
Find x so that x + 6, x + 12 and x + 15 are consecutive terms of a Geometric Progression.
Answer:
\(\frac{t_{2}}{t_{1}}=\frac{x+12}{x+6}\), \(\frac{t_{3}}{t_{2}}=\frac{x+15}{x+12}\)
Since it is a G.P.
\(\frac{x+12}{x+6}=\frac{x+15}{x+12}\)
(x + 12)² = (x + 6) (x + 15)
x² + 24x + 144 = x² + 21x + 90
3x = -54 ⇒ x = \(\frac{-54}{3}\) = – 18

Question 19.
Find the excluded values of the expression \(\frac{x^{2}+6 x+8}{x^{2}+x-2}\)
Answer:
x² + 6x + 8 = (x + 4)(x + 2)
x² + x – 2 = (x + 2)(x – 1)


The expression \(\frac{x+4}{x-1}\) is undefined
when x – 1 = 0 ⇒ x = 1
The excluded value is 1

Question 20.
Solve 3p² + 2√5p – 5 = 0 by formula method.
Answer:
Compute 3p² + 2√5p – 5 = 0 with the standard form ax² + bx + c = O
a = 3, b = 2√5, c = -5
p = \(\frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^{2}-4 a c}}{2 a}\)
Substituting the values of a, b and e in the formula we get,

Therefore, x = \(\frac{\sqrt{5}}{3},-\sqrt{5}\)

Question 21.
Write the expression \(\frac{\alpha+3}{\beta}+\frac{\beta+3}{\alpha}\) in terms of α + β and αβ.
Answer:

Question 22.
Rhombus PQRB is inscribed in ∆ABC such that ∠B is one of its angle. P, Q and R lie on AB, AC and BC respectively. If AB = 12 cm and BC = 6 cm, find the sides PQ, RB of the rhombus.
Answer:
Let the side of the rhombus be “x”. Since PQRB is a Rhombus PQ || BC
By basic proportionality theorem
\(\frac{A P}{A B}=\frac{P Q}{B C} \Rightarrow \frac{12-x}{12}=\frac{x}{6}\)
12x = 6(12 – x)
12x = 72 – 6x
12x + 6x = 72
18x = 72 ⇒ x = \(\frac { 72 }{ 18 }\) = 4
Side of a rhombus = 4cm
PQ = RB = 4cm

Question 23.
Find the equation of a straight line which is parallel to the line 3x – 7y = 12 and passing through the point (6,4)
Answer:
Equation of the straight line, parallel to 3x – 7y – 12 = 0 is 3x – 7y + k= O
Since it passes through the point (6,4)
3(6) – 7(4) + k = 0
k = 28 – 18= 10
Therefore, equation of the required straight line is 3x – 7y + 10 = 0.

Question 24.
Prove that \(\frac{\tan ^{2} \theta-1}{\tan ^{2} \theta+1}\) = 1 – 2 cos² θ
Answer:

= sin² θ – cos² θ = 1 – cos² θ – cos² θ
= 1 – 2 cos²θ
L.H.S = R.H.S
Hence it is proved.

Question 25.
The standard deviation and coefficient of variation of a data are 1.2 and 25.6 respectively. Find the value of mean.
Answer:
Standard deviation (σ) = 1.2
Coefficient of variation = 25.6
\(\frac{\sigma}{x} \times 100\) = 25.6
\(\frac{1.2}{\bar{x}} \times 100\) = 25.6 ⇒ 25.6 × x̄ = 1.2 × 100
x̄ = \(\frac{120}{25.6}=\frac{120 \times 10}{256}\) = 4.687 = 4.69
Value of mean = 4.69

Question 26.
Three dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability of getting the same number.
Answer:
Sample space = {(1, 1, 1) (1, 1,2) (1, 1,3). .. . (6,6, 6)}
n(S) = 216
Let A be the event of getting the same number on all the three dice
A = {(1,1,1),(2,2,2),(3,3,3),(4,4,4)(5,5,5)(6,6,6fl
n(A) = 6
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{6}{216}=\frac{1}{36}\)

Question 27.
If the curved surface area of a solid hemisphere is 2772 sq. cm, then find its total surface area.
Answer:
Curved surface area ofa hemisphere = 2772 sq.cm
2πr² = 2772
πr² = \(\frac{2772}{2}\) = 1386
T.S.A of the hemisphere = 3πr² sq. units
= 3 × 1386 cm²
= 4158 cm²

Question 28.
Which term of the geometric sequence 5,2, \(\frac{4}{5}, \frac{8}{25} \cdots \text { is } \frac{128}{15625}\) ?
Answer:
The given G.P is 5,2, \(\frac{4}{5}, \frac{8}{25} \cdots \text { is } \frac{128}{15625}\)
Here a = 5, r = \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\)
t_n = \(\frac{128}{15625}\)
a.r_n-a = \(\frac{128}{15625}\)

PART – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Let f: A → B be a function defined by f(x) = \(\frac { x }{ 2 }\) – 1, where A = {2,4,6,10,12}, B = {0,1,2,4,5,9} . Represent f by
(i) set of ordered pairs
(ii) a table
(iii) an arrow diagram
(iv) a graph
Answer:
(i) f = {(2,0)(4, 1)(6,2)(10,4)(12,5)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

Question 30.
Given f(x) = x – 1, g(x) = 3x + 1 and h(x) = x² show that (fog)oh = fo(goh)

Question 31.
The product of three consecutive terms of a Geometric Progression is 343 and their sum is \(\frac{91}{3}\) Find the three terms.

Question 32.
Find the sum of all natural numbers between 602 and 902 which are not divisible by 4?

Question 33.
There are 12 pieces of five, ten and twenty rupee currencies whose total value is ₹105. But when first 2 sorts are interchanged in their numbers its value will be increased by ₹20. Find the number of currencies in each sort.

Question 34.
A passenger train takes 1 hr more than an express train to travel a distance of 240 km from Chennai to Virudhachalam. The speed of passenger train is less than that of an express train by 20 km per hour. Find the average speed of both the trains.

Question 35.
ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC and P,Q are points on AD and BC respectively, such that PQ || DC if PD = 18 cm, BQ = 35 cm and QC = 15 cm, find AD.

Question 36.
Find the equation of the perpendicular bisector of the line joining the points A(-4,2) and B(6, -4).

Question 37.
From the top of a tower 50 m high, the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a tree and observed to be 30° and 45° respectively. Find the height of the tree. ( √3 = 1.732)

Question 38.
A hemispherical bowl is filled to the brim with juice. The juice is poured into a cylindrical vessel whose radius is 50% more than its height. If the diameter is same for both the bowl and the cylinder then find the percentage of juice that can be transferred from the bowl into the cylindrical 1 vessel.

Question 39.
A box contains cards numbered 3, 5, 7,9,… 35,37. A card is drawn at random from the box. Find the probability that the drawn card have either multiples of 7 or a prime number.

Question 40.
The function f: [-7, 6] → R is defined as follows.

Question 41.
The denominator of a fraction is 4 more than twice the numerator. When both the numerator and denominator are decreased by 6, then the denominator becomes 12 times the numerator determine the fraction.

Question 42.
If for distribution Σx – 7 = 3 ; (Σx – 7)² = 57 and total number of the item is 20; find the mean and standard deviation.

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Draw a circle of diameter 6 cm from a point P, which is 8 cm away from its centre. Draw the two tangents PA and PB to the circle and measure their lengths.

[OR]

(b) Construct a triangle ∆PQR such that QR = 5 cm, ∠P = 30° and the altitude from P to QR is of length 4.2 cm.

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = x² and hence solve x² – 4x – 5 = 0.

[OR]

(b) Draw the graph of y = x² + 3x + 2 and use it to solve the equation x² + 2x + 4 = 0.