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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which one of the following was launched by Haji Shariatullah in 1818 in East Bengal?
(a) Wahhabi Rebellion
(b) Farazi Movement
(c) Tribal uprising
(d) Kol Revolt
Answer:
(b) Farazi Movement

Question 2.
‘Who declared that “Land belongs to God” and collecting rent or tax on it was against divine law?
(a) Titu Mir
(b) Sidhu
(c) Dudu Mian
(d) Shariatullah
Answer:
(c) Dudu Mian

Question 3.
Who were driven out of their homeland during the process of creation of Zamins under Permanent Settlement?
(a) Santhals
(b) Titu Mir
(c) Munda
(d) Kol
Answer:
(a) Santhals

Question 4.
Find out the militant nationalist from the following.
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Justice Govind Ranade
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal
(d) Romesh Chandra
Answer:
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal

Question 5.
When did the Partition of Bengal come into effect?
(a) 19 June 1905
(b) 18 July 1906
(c) 19 August 1907
(d) 16 October 1905
Answer:
(a) 19 June 1905

Question 6.
What was the context in which the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act was passed?
(a) Kol Revolt
(b) Indigo Revolt
(c) Munda Rebellion
(d) Deccan Riots
Answer:
(c) Munda Rebellion

Question 7.
Who set up the first Home Rule League in April 1916?
(a) Annie Basant
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Tilak
Answer:
(d) Tilak

Question 8.
Who drew the attention of the British to the suffering of Indigo cultivation through his play Nil darpanl
(a) Dina Bandhu Mitra
(b) Romesh Chandra Dutt
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) Birsa Munda
Answer:
(a) Dina Bandhu Mitra

II. Fill in the blanks

1. In 1757, Robert Clive was financially supported by ……………….. the moneylenders of Bengal.
2. ……………….. was an anti-imperial and anti-landlord movement which originated in and around 1827.
3. The major tribal revolt which took place in Chotanagpur region was ………………..
4. The ……………….. Act, restricted the entry of non-tribal people into the tribal land.
5. Around 1854 activities of social banditry were led by ………………..
6. The British Commander of Kanpur killed by the rebels during the 1857 Rebellion was ………………..
7. Chota Nagpur Act was passed in the year ………………..
8. W.C. Bannerjee was elected the president of Indian National Congress in the year ………………..

Answers:

1. Jagat Seth
2. The Wahhabi rebellion
3. Kol revolt
4. Chota Nagpur Tenancy
5. Birsingh
6. Major General Hugh Wheeler
7. 1908
8. 1885

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The Company received ₹ 22.5 million from Mir Jafar and invested it to propel the industrial revolution in Britain.
(ii) Kols organized an insurrection in 1831-1832, which was directed against government officers and moneylenders.
(iii) In 1855, two Santhal brothers, Sidhu and Kanu, ledtheSanthal Rebellion.
(iv) In 1879, an Act was passed to regulate the territories occupied by the Santhals.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Dudu Mian laid emphasis on the egalitarian nature of Islam and declared that “Land belongs to God”.
(ii) According to the Doctrine of Lapse, new territories under the corrupt Indian rulers were to be annexed.
(iii) The British officials after the suppression of 1857 Revolt were given power to judge and take the lives of Indians without due process of law.
(iv) One of the causes of the failure of the Revolt of 1857 was many of the Indjan princes and zamindars remained loyal to the British.
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii) and are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (iii) and are correct

Question 3.
(i) One of the most significant contributions of the early Indian Nationalists was the formulation of an economic critique of colonialism.
(ii) The early Congress leaders stated that religious exploitation in India was the primary reason for the growing poverty.
(iii) One of the goals of the moderate Congress leaders was to achieve Swaraj or self-rule.
(iv) The objective of the Partition of Bengal was to curtail the Bengali influence and weaken the nationalist movement.
(a) (i) and (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Under colonial rule, for the first time in Indian history, government claimed a direct proprietary right over forests.
Reason (R): Planters used intimidation and violence to compel farmers to grow indigo.
(a) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) A is wrong and R is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are wrong

Question 5.
Assertion (A): The Revolt of 1857 was brutally suppressed by the British army.
Reason (R): The failure of the rebellion was due to the absence of Central authority.
(a) Both A and R are wrong
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

V. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
How are the peasant uprisings in British India classified?
Answer:
There were nearly a hundred peasant uprisings during British rule. They can be classified into the following categories –

• Restorative rebellions
• Religious movements
• Social Banditry
• Mass insurrection

Question 2.
Write about the Kanpur Massacre of 1857.
Answer:

1. The seige of Kanpur was an important episode in the 1857 Rebellion.
2. The rebel forces under Nana Sahib besieged the Company forces and civilians in Kanpur.
3. They were unprepared for the extended besiege.
4. It forced them to surrender to the rebel forces under Nana Sahib, in return for a safe passage to Allahabad.
5. The boats in which they were proceeding were burned and most of them were killed including Major General Hugh Wheeler the British Commander of Kanpur.

Question 3.
Name the territories annexed by the British under the Doctrine of Lapse.
Answer:
Satara, Sambalpur, parts of Punjab, Jhansi and Nagpur.

Question 4.
What do you mean by drain of wealth?
Answer:
India was economically subjugated and transformed into a supplier of raw materials. It became a market to dump English manufactures and for the investment of British Capital. So the colonial economy was a continuous transfer of resources from India to Britain without any favourable returns back to India. This is referred as “the drain of wealth”.

Question 5.
Explain the concept of constructive swadeshi?
Answer:
Under Constructive Swadeshi, the self-defeating modest approach of moderates was rejected and self-help was focused on through swadeshi industries, national schools, arbitration courts and constructive programmes in the village. It was totally non-political in nature.

Question 6.
Highlight the objectives of Home Rule Movement.
Answer:
Objectives of the Home Rule Movement:

1. To attain self Government within the British empire by constitutional means.
2. To obtain the status of dominion a political position.
3. To use non-violence constitutional methods to achieve their goals.

Question 7.
Summarise the essence of Lucknow Pact.
Answer:
In the Lucknow Pact that took place in 1916, the Congress Party and the Muslim League agreed that there should be self-government in India as soon as possible. In return of this gesture from the Muslim League, the congress leadership accepted the concept of separate electorate for Muslims. This created a new sense of enthusiasm among the people.

VI. Answer all the questions under each caption

Question 1.
Deccan riots

(a) When and where did the first recorded incident of rioting against the moneylenders in the Deccan appear?
Answer:
In May 1875 in Supa, a village near Poona the first recorded incident of rioting against the moneylenders in the Deccan appeared.

(b) What was the right given to moneylenders under a new law of the British?
Answer:
Under the new law of the British the moneylenders were given the right to attach the mortgaged land of the defaulters auction it off.

(c) What did it result in?
Answer:
It resulted in the transfer of land from the cultivators to the non-cultivating classes.

(d) Against whom was the violence directed in the Deccan riots.
Answer:
In the Deccan riots violence was directed against the Gujarat money lenders.

Question 2.
The Revolt of 1857
(a) Who assaulted his officer, an incident that led to the outbreak of 1857 Revolt?
Answer:
Mangal Pandey assaulted his officer.

(b) Who was proclaimed the Shahenshah-e-Hindustan in Delhi?
Answer:
The Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah II was proclaimed the Shahenshah-e-Hindustan in Delhi.

(c) Who was the correspondent of London Times to report on the brutality of the 1857 revolt?
Answer:
The correspondent’s name was William Howard Russell.

(d) What did the Queen’s proclamation say on matters relating to religion?
Answer:
The Queen proclaimed to the Indian people that the British government would not interfere in traditional institutions and religious matters.

Question 3.
Indian National Congress

(a) What were the techniques adopted by the Congress to get its grievances redressed ?
Answer:
The congress to get its grievances redressed adopted the techniques by way of appeals petitions and delegations.

(b) What do you know of Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate?
Answer:
Lala Lajpat Rai of Punjab, Bal Gangadara Tilak of Maharashtra and Bipin Chandra Pal of Bengal called as Lai – Bal – Pal.
Lai – Bal – Pal triumvirate were the prominent Congress leaders of militiant nationalists.

(c) Where was the first session of Indian National Congress held?
Answer:
The first session of Indian National Congress was held at Bombay.

(d) How did the British respond to the Swadeshi Movement?
Answer:
The British brutally crushed the Swadeshi Movement. Revolutionaries were hanged. Press was crushed and prominent leaders were arrested and imprisoned for long terms.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Discuss the causes and consequences of the Revolt of 1857?
Answer:
The Great Rebellion of 1857 is a unique example of resistance to the British authorities, in India. There were several reasons that triggered the Revolt:
(i) The annexation policy of British India created dissatisfaction among the native rulers. The British claimed themselves as paramount, exercising supreme authority. New territories were annexed on the grounds that the native rulers were corrupt, and inept.

(ii) The British annexed several territories such as Satara, Sambalpur, parts of Punjab, Jhansi and Nagpur through the Doctrine of Lapse. This also angered many Indian rulers.

(iii) Indian sepoys were upset with discrimination in salary’ and promotion. They were paid much less than their European counterparts. They felt humiliated and racially abused by their seniors.

Consequences:
(i) India was pronounced as one of the many crown colonies to be directly governed by the Parliament. This resulted in the transfer of power from the East India company to the British crown.

(ii) Queen Victoria proclaimed to the Indian people that the British government would not interfere in traditional institutions and religious matters. It was promised that Indians would be absorbed in government services.

(iii) There came significant changes in the Indian army. The number of Indians was reduced.
Indians were restrained from holding important ranks and position.

(iv) It was also decided that instead of recruiting soldiers from Rajputs, Brahmins and North Indian Muslims, more soldiers would be recruited from the Gorkhas, Sikhs and Pathans.

Question 2.
How did the people of Bengal respond to the Partition of Bengal (1905)?
Answer:

1. In 1899 Lord Curzon was appointed as the Viceroy of India.
2. Curzon resorted to repressive measures to undermine the idea of local Government, autonomy of higher educational Institutions and gag the press.
3. The idea of partition was planned to suppress the political activities against the British rule in Bengal by creating a Hindu-Muslim divide.
4. It was openly stated that the main notion of partition was to curtail Bengali mfluence and to weaken the nationalist movement.
5. Bengal was Partitioned into two units Bengali Hindus (West Bengal) and Muslims (East Bengal).
6. Partition of Bengal in 1905 led to widespread protests all across India, starting a new phase of the Indian National movement.
7. The partition instead of dividing, united the people of Bengal.
8. People marched on the streets of Calcutta in thousands singing Bande mataram.
9. The partition led to the Boycott of the British goods and Swadeshi movement.

Question 3.
Attempt a narrative account of how Tilak and Annie Besant by launching Home Rule Movement sustained the Indian freedom struggle after 1916?
Answer:
(i) The Indian National Movement was revived and also radicalised during the Home Rule , League Movement that lasted from 1915 to 1918. It was led by Lokamanya Tilak and Annie Besant.

(ii) The objective of the Home Rule Movement was to attain self-government within the British Empire.

(iii) Tilak set up the first Home Rule League in April 1916. In September 1916, after repeated demands of her followers, Annie Besant decided to start the Home Rule League without the support of the Congress. Both the Leagues worked independently.

(iv) The Home Rule Leagues were utilised to carry extensive propaganda through press, speeches, public meetings, lectures, discussions and touring in favour of self government.

(v) Both the leagues succeeded in enrolling young people in large numbers and extending the movement to the rural areas.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Identify the Acts passed in British India from 1858 to 1919, with a brief note on each.
Answer:
Government of India Act (1858):

1. It was passed to end the rule of the East India Company and transfer the power to the British Crown.
2. The British Governor General Post was designated as viceroy of India, who became the representative of the British Monarch.

Indian Council Act – 1892:

1. The British Parliament introduced various amendments to the composition and functions of legislative council, increased the number of additional members to be represented both in central and provinces.
2. The members were given the right to ask questions on budget.
3. This Act laid the foundation of parliamentary system in India.
4. It is a landmark in the constitutional development.

Indian Council Act of 1909:

1. Popularly known as Minto – Morley Reforms.
2. This Act directly introduced the elective principle to membership in the imperial and local legislative councils.
3. It increased the involvement of Indians limitedly in the British Governance.

Montagu – Chelmsford Reform (1919):

1. The British Parliament passed this Act to expand participation of Indians in the division of executive branch of each provincial Government in to authoritarian and popularly responsible section for the provinces of British India.
2. Embodied reforms recommended in the report of the secretary of state of India.
3. This Act promised gradual progress of India towards self – Government.

Dy Archy (1919):

1. This Act introduced dual Government for the provinces of British India. One is accountable and the other one non accountable.
2. It marked the 1st introduction of democratic principle into the executive branch of British administration.
3. It was the association of Indians with the legislation work.
4. Introduced Port – folio system.

Question 2.
Mark the important centres of 1857 Revolt on an outline map.
Answer:

Question 3.
Prepare an album with pictures of frontline leaders of all the anti-colonial struggles launched against the British.
Answer:
Pictures of Moderates

Tribal Rebellion and other movement

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Nawab of Bengal ……………….. was defeated by the East India company at the Battle of Plassey.
(a) Shuja-ud-daullah
(b) Siraj-ud-daullah
(c) Mirjafar
(d) Mir Kasim
Answer:
(b) Siraj-ud-daullah

Question 2.
Indian Historians describes the revolt of 1857 as ……………….
(a) Sepoy mutiny
(b) First war of Indian Independence
(c) Military revolt
Answer:
(b) First war of Indian Independence

Question 3.
The collective farming of the tribals of Ranchi was known as:
(a) Jhum
(b) Bethbegari
(c) Khunkatti
(d) Ryotwari
Answer:
(c) Khunkatti

Question 4.
The peasants had to pay heavy …………….
(a) land taxes
(b) tariffs
(c) service taxes
Answer:
(a) land taxes

Question 5.
The ……………….. had leased out to moneylenders the job of revenue collection.
(a) Raja of Chota Nagpur
(b) European officers
(c) Nawab of Bengal
(d) Birsaite Raj
Answer:
(a) Raja of Chota Nagpur

Question 6.
The sepoys broke into open revolt at …………..
(a) Meerut
(b) Kanpur
(c) Barrackpore
Answer:
(a) Meerut

Question 7.
On ……………….. a band of sepoys from Meerut marched to the Red Fort in Delhi.
(a) 1^st May 1858
(b) 11^th May 1852
(c) 11^th May 1857
(d) 19^th September 1916
Answer:
(c) 11^th May 1857

Question 8.
After the  1857 revolt the Governor-General of India was designated as …………….
(a) Viceroy of India
(b) Ruler of India
(c) Minister of India
Answer:
(a) Viceroy of India

Question 9.
……………….. led the Revolt at Bareilly.
(a) Bahadur Shah – II
(b) Khan Bahadur
(c) Nana Sahib
(d) Kunwar Singh
Answer:
(b) Khan Bahadur

Question 10.
Rani Lakshmi Bai led the revolt at …………….
(a) Kanpur
(b) Central India
(c) Lucknow
Answer:
(b) Central India

Question 11.
The play “Nil Darpan” by ……………….. did much to draw attention in India and Europe to the plight of the indigo growers.
(a) Dina Bandhu mitra
(b) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(c) Lockmanya Tilak
(d) Ranajit Guha
Answer:
(a) Dina Bandhu mitra

Question 12.
In 1858, the Royal Durbar was held at …………..
(a) Meerut
(b) Allahabad
(c) Delhi
Answer:
(b) Allahabad

Question 13.
The Madras Native Association was formed in the year:
(a) 1806
(b) 1852
(c) 1884
(d) 1852
Answer:
(b) 1852

Question 14.
Which one was not a trading company?
(a) The Portuguese
(b) The French
(c) The Japanese
Answer:
(c) The Japanese

Question 15.
……………….. lent his services to facilitate the formation of Indian National Congress.
(a) A.O.Hume
(b) W.C.Baneijee
(c) Mrs. Annie Besant
(d) V.O.Chidambarampillai
Answer:
(a) A.O.Hume

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The ………………….. helped to unite the Congress party after the Surat split.
2. The ………………….. movement enhanced to participation of masses in Nationalist Politics.
3. The British mainly responded to political activities of nationalists by repression and …………………..
4. The Indian National Movement was revived and ………………….. during the Home Rule movement.
5. ………………….. launched the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company in Tuticorin.
6. One of the common goals of the extremist leaders was to achieve …………………..
7. For ………………….. Swaraj was the attainment of complete autonomy and total freedom from foreign rule.
8. ………………….. decided to started the Home Rule League without the support of the Congress.
9. The Home Rule Movement in India borrowed much of its principles from the …………………..
10. In the ………………….. session of Indian National Congress (1916) decided to admit the militant faction in to the party.
11. Pherozeshah Metha and Gokhale two main voices of opposition against militant faction had died in …………………..
12. Bengal was officially partitioned on ………………….. by Lord Curzon.
13. The official declaration of partition of Bengal was observed as a day of …………………..
14. In a divided Bengal Curzen made the Bengali speaking people to a …………………..
15. In the year 1899 ………………….. was appointed as the viceroy of India.
16. Early Indian Nationalists advocated …………………..
17. The formation of the ………………….. in 1885 was intended to establish an All India Organisation.
18. The early leaders felt that ………………….. was the main obstacle to the India’s Economic Development.
19. One of the key demand of the Indian National Congress was creation of ………………….. at provincial and central level.
20. ………………….. played a significant role in propagating the ideas of Nationalism.
21. Under British rule peasants were forced to pay revenue directly to the …………………..
22. Vicious cycle of debt forced the peasants to abandon ………………….. in 1875.
23. The British planters forced the cultivators to grow ………………….. rather than food crops.
24. ………………….. was appointed by the British Parliament to look into the Indian affairs after 1857 revolt.
25. In November 1858 the power to govern India was transferred from ………………….. to the British Crown.
26. The ………………….. was an important episode in the rebellion of 1857.
27. The Kingdom of Jhansi was annexed under …………………..
28. De throning of many Indian rulers affected the livelihood of ………………….. due to lose of patronage.
29. ………………….. of the people against the British took the form of a people’s revolt.
30. Thousands of weavers were thrown out of employment due to the dumping of …………………..
31. By the beginning of June 1857 except ………………….. and ………………….. British Rule in North India had disappeared because of the mutineers.
32. The precursor to the revolt was the introduction of new ………………….. of the Enfiled Rifles.
33. The ………………….. claimed themselves as paramount power.
34. The ………………….. was the first major revolt of armed forces accompanied by civilian rebellion.
35. In the 1890’s ………………….. offered resistance against the alienation of tribal people from their land.
36. The ………………….. prompted the British to formulate a policy on Tribal land.
37. The Munda people were forcefully recruited as ………………….. to work on plantations.
38. The Munda rebellion movement received an impetus when ………………….. declared himself as the messenger of God.
39. The disillusionment with ………………….. aggravated the miseries of Munda people.
40. One of the prominent tribal rebellion in Ranchi was known as …………………..
41. After the battle of ………………….. the British adopted a policy of territorial expansion.
42. The British ………………….. was rapidly mechanized with the money received by the company from Mir Jafar.
43. India was led to the path of because of Britsh manufactured goods.
44. ………………….. was forced to create a market for the products from Britain.
45. The plunder of India by the ………………….. continued for nearly 190 years.
46. There were nearly a hundred ………………….. during the British rule.
47. The leaders of ………………….. movements were looked upon by their people as heroes of their cause.
48. The ………………….. are usually leaderless and spontaneous uprising.
49. The subletting of land by the zamindars increased the ………………….. on the peasants.
50. Wahhabi Rebellion originated in 1827 in and around ………………….. of Bengal.

Answer:

1. Home Ruler Movement
2. Swadeshi
3. Reconciliation
4. Radicaliszed
5. V.O.Chidambaranar
6. Swaraj or Self Rule
7. Tilak
8. Mrs. Annie Besant
9. Irish Home Rule Movement
10. Lucknow session
11. 1915
12. 16^th October 1905
13. Mourning
14. Linguistic minority
15. Lord Curzon
16. Industrialisation
17. Indian National Congress
18. Colonialism
19. Legislative councils
20. Print media
21. Government
22. agriculture
23. Indigo plant
24. Secretary of State
25. English East India Company
26. Seige of Kanpur
27. Doctrine of Lapse
28. Artisans and handicrafts persons
29. Collective anger
30. British manufacture
31. Punjab and Bengal
32. greased cartridges
33. British
34. Great Rebellion of 1857
35. Tribal chiefs
36. Munda rebellion
37. Indentured labourers
38. Birsa Munda
39. Christian missionaries
40. Ulugalan rebellion
41. Plassey
42. Textile industry
43. De. industrialisation
44. India
45. East India company
46. Peasant uprisings
47. Social banditry
48. Mass insurrection
49. Tax burden
50. Barasat

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The urban elite of India was busy responding to the western ideas through socio – religious reform movements.
(ii) The traditional elite and peasantry wanted to restore pre – colonial order by revolts.
(iii) The practice of letting out and subletting of land complicated the industrial relations.
(iv) Changes introduced in the land tenures significantly altered the agrarian relations.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The commercialisation of forest led to the disintegration of the traditional tribal system.
(ii) The usury and forcible eviction of tribals from their land led to the resentment of kols.
(iii) The pushed out santhals were forced to rely on the moneylenders for their subsistence.
(iv) Santhals felt secured under the British.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii)-and(iii) are correct
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii)-and(iii) are correct

Question 3.
(i) The British annexed more territories through two major policies.
(ii) Indian sepoys accepted the new dress code and overseas service.
(iii) Before loading into Enfiled Rifle the cartridges had to be bitten off.
(iv) The Indian Sepoys felt humiliated and racially abused by their seniors.
(a) (i) and (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The mutiny was equally supported by an aggrieved rural society of North India.
Reason (R): Sepoys working in British army were infact peasants in uniform.
(a) Both A and R are wrong.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is the not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): India extended its support to the British in world war I. Reason (R): Hoping for the attainment of self – Government after the war.
(a) A is correct R is wrong.
(b) Both A and R are wrong.
(c) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (vi)
F. (vii)

V. Answer the following question briefly

Question 1.
What caused huge loss of revenue in Bengal?
Answer:
Aurangzeb’s farman had granted the company only the right to trade duty free. But the officials of the company, who were carrying on private trade on side also stopped paying duty. This caused a huge loss of revenue for Bengal.

Question 2.
Mention some of the issues of peasants that added to the sense of resentment against the British.
Answer:

1. The concept of private property rights in land.
2. Rigorous collection of land revenue.
3. Encroachment of tribal land by non-tribal people.
4. Interference of Christian Missionaries in the socio – religious life of the local people.

Were some of the issues of resentment against the British.

Question 3.
Why did the Battle of Plassey become famous?
Answer:
It was the first major victory the company won in India.

Question 4.
What were the reasons for Tribal upraising?
Answer:

1. Under colonial rule the Government claimed a direct proprietary right over forests.
2. The commercialisation of forests led to the disintegration of the traditional tribal system.
3. It encouraged the incursion of tribal areas by non-tribal people such as contractors, moneylenders traders, land grabbers.
4. This led to the wide spread loss of adivasi land and their displacement from their traditional habitats. So Tribal resistance arose.

Question 5.
What were the grievances of the company regarding the Nawabs of Bengal?
Answer:
The company declared that the unjust demands of the local officials were ruining the trade of the company. Trade could flourish only if the duties were removed. It was also convinced to expand trade, it had to enlarge its settlements, buy up villages and rebuild its forts.

Question 6.
Name the early leaders who criticized about colonial economy.
Answer:
Dadabhai Naoroji, Justice Ranade and Romesh Chandra Dutt strongly criticised about the colonial economy.

They clearly stated that the prosperity of the British lay in the economic and political subjugation of India.

They concluded that the colonialism was the main obstacle to the India’s economic development.

Question 7.
Which battle did Robert Clive fight in 1757 and against whom?
Answer:
In 1757, he fought the Battle of Plassey against Siraj-ud-daulah.

VI. Answer all the questions under each caption

Question 1.
Political causes for the Revolt of 1857.

(a) Who introduced subsidiary Alliance?
Answer:
Lord Wellesley introduced subsidiary Alliance.

(b) Name the policy introduced by Lord Balhousie.
Answer:
Lord Dalhousie introduced the policy of “Doctrine of Lapse”.

(c) What was the order issued by the British against the Mughal emperor?
Answer:
The British Government had ordered that the Mughal emperor had to give up their ancestral palace and Red fort.

(d) Why did Nana Saheb develop a grudge against the British.
Answer:
The British stopped the pension to Nana Saheb. So he developed a grudge against the British.

Question 2.
Great Rebellion of 1857

(a) What was the biggest challenge witnessed by the British in 1857?
Answer:
The Great Rebellion by the Sepoys and the civilians.

(b) What was witnessed by both sides during the revolt?
Answer:
Unprecedented violence

(c) What were the causes of the revolt?
Answer:

1. Annexation policy of the British in India.
2. Insensitivity of the British to Indian cultural sentiments.

(d) What was the people’s opinion on the new regulations of the British.
Answer:
There was always a suspicion among the people regarding British new regulations intention.

Question 3.
Wahhabi Rebellion in Barasat

(a) Who led the Wahhabi Rebellion? Write a few lines about him.
Answer:
Titu Mir, an Islamic preacher led this rebellion. He was deeply influenced by the Wahhabi teachings. He became an important figure among the predominantly Muslim peasantry oppressed under the zamindari system.

(b) How did this movement acquire an anti-Hindu complexion?
Answer:
The majority of zamindars were Hindus. Thus, the movement acquired an anti-Hindu complexion.

(c) what happened on 6 November 1831?
Answer:
On 6 November 1831, the first major attack was made in the town of Pumea. Titu Mir immediately declared freedom from British Rule.

(d) How did the British respond to this rebellion?
Answer:
The British sent a large number of Troops to Narkelberia. Titu Mir along with his soldiers were killed in the staiggle.

Question 4.
Peasant and Tribal Resistance

(a) What was the nature of the resistance against the British rule emerged in rural India?
Answer:
More aggressive response emerged in rural India.

(b) Who revolted against the British in rural areas?
Answer:
Traditional elite and peasants along with tribals revolted.

(c) What did they seek for?
Answer:
They sought for the restoration of the Pre-colonial order and not the removal of the British.

(d) What was the outlook of the tribals on British?
Answer:
The tribal people started looking at the British as invaders and encroachers.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Enumerate the cause for the failure of the Great Revolt of 1857.
Answer:
Administrative changes:

1. Disunity among the Indians was the first and the foremost cause.
2. A large number of rulers of the Indian states and the big zamindars did not join the movement,
3. The rulers of the Indian states, who did not support the movement, remained neutral.
4. The educated Indians did not support the movement.
5. The telegraph and postal communication proved very helpful to the British for proper military actions and sending their reinforcements at the earliest time.
6. The rebellious soldiers were short of modem weapons and other materials of war.
7. The rebellious soldiers had to fight with traditional weapons which were no match to modem weapons possessed by the British forces.
8. The revolt was not extended beyond North.
9. The Indian leaders like Nana Saheb, Tantia Tope, Rani Lakshmi Bai where no match to the British generals.
10. The revolt broke out prematurely and the preparations for the revolt remained incomplete.
11. The organization and the planning of the rebels was very poor.
12. The Indian leaders were brave and selfless but they lacked unity of command and discipline.
13. The revolutionaries had no common idea.
14. The Muslims wanted to revive Mughal rule and the Hindus wanted to receive the Peshwa Raj.
15. The British diplomacy of Divide and Rule prevented most of the Indian mlers to join together for a common cause.

Question 2.
What was the objective of the partition of Bengal (1905) and what was its result?
Answer:

1. The main objective of partition of Bengal was to divide the Hindu – Muslim unity and to influence and weaken the nationalist movement.
2. Bengal was partitioned into two administrative units.
3. Reduced the Bengali – speaking people to a linguistic minority in a divided Bengal.
4. Curzon assured Muslims that in the new province of East Bengal Muslim would enjoy a unity.

Result:

1. Curzon thought the partition would divide the Bengali people on religious line.
2. Instead the partition united the people of Bengal.
3. The growth of the vernacular newspapers played a vital role in building a sense of proud Bengali identity.
4. The day Bengal was officially partitioned (16th Oct 1905) was declared as a day of mourning.
5. Thousands of people took bath in Ganga and marched on the streets of Calcutta singing Bande Mataram.

Question 3.
Throw light on the Farazi Movement.
OR
Highlight the different phases of the Farazi Movement under Haji Shariatullah and his son Dudu Mia.
Answer:
Farazi Movement under Haji Shariatullah:
The Farazi Movement was launched by Haji Shariatullah in 1818, in the parts of eastern Bengal. The movement advocated the participants to keep themselves away from conflict with the zamindars and subsequently with the British, who favoured the zamindars to suppress the peasant uprising.

Farazi Movement under Dudu Mian:
After the death of Shariatullah in 1839, the movement was led by his son Dudu Mian. He called upon the peasant not to pay tax. The movement became popular on a simple doctrine that land and all wealth should be equally enjoyed by the common mass. Dudu Mian laid emphasis on the egalitarian nature of religion and declared that “Land belongs to God’’ and collecting rent or levying taxes on it was therefore against the divine law. The movement spread far and wide and was joined by a huge number of peasants. There were violent crashes throughout 1840s and 1850s with the zamidars and planters. The movement continued to resist even after the death of Dudu Mian in 1862.

Question 4.
What were the main objectives and key demands of Indian National Congress?
Answer:
The main objectives of Indian National Congress were to develop and consolidate the sentiments of national unity and loyalty to Britain.

Some of the key demands were:

1. Creation of legislative councils at provincial and central level.
2. Reducing military expenditure.
3. Holding civil services exams in India as well as in England.
4. Promotion of Indian industries and an end to unfair tariffs and an end to unfair tariffs and excise duties.
5. Extension of trial by jury.
6. Increasing the number of elected members in the legislative council.
7. Police reforms
8. Reduction of Home charges.
9. Reconsideration of forest laws.
10. Separating Judicial and executive functions.

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Who was the first President of the Madras Mahajana Sabha?
(a) T.M. Nair
(b) P. Rangaiah
(c) G. Subramaniam
(d) G.A. Natesan
Answer:
(b) P. Rangaiah

Question 2.
Where was the third session of the Indian National Congress held?
(a) Marina
(b) Mylapore
(c) Fort St. George
(d) Thousand Lights
Answer:
(d) Thousand Lights

Question 3.
Who said “Better bullock carts and freedom than a train deluxe with subjection”?
(a) Annie Besant
(b) M. Veeraraghavachari
(c) B.P. Wadia
(d) G.S. Arundale
Answer:
(a) Annie Besant

Question 4.
Which among the following was SILF’s official organ in English?
(a) Dravidian
(b) Andhra Prakasika
(c) Justice
(d) New India
Answer:
(c) Justice

Question 5.
Who among the following were Swarajists?
(a) S. Satyamurty
(b) Kastunrangar
(c) P. Subbarayan
(d) Periyar EVR
Answer:
(a) S. Satyamurty

Question 6.
Who set up the satyagraha camp in Udyavanam near Madras?
(a) Kamaraj
(b) Rajaji
(c) K. Santhanam
(d) T. Prakasam
Answer:
(d) T. Prakasam

Question 7.
Where was the anti-Hindi Conference held?
(a) Erode
(b) Madras
(c) Salem
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(c) Salem

Question 8.
Where did the congress volunteers clash with the military during Quit India Movement?
(a) Erode
(b) Madras
(c) Salem
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(d) Madurai

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………… was appointed the first Indian Judge of the Madras High Court.
2. The economic exploitation of India was exposed by ………………… through his writings.
3. Nilakanta Brahmachari started the secret society named …………………
4. The starting of trade unions in Madras was pioneered by …………………
5. The Dravidian Association Hostel for non-Brahmin students was established by …………………
6. ………………… formed the first Congress Ministry in Madras.
7. ………………… was the founder of the Madras branch of the Muslim League.
8. ………………… hoisted the national flag atop Fort St. George on 26 January 1932.

Answers:

1. T. Muthuswami
2. G. Subramaniam
3. Bharata Matha Society
4. B.P.Wadia
5. C. Natesanar
6. C. Rajaji
7. Yakub Hasan
8. Bashyam

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Madras Native Association was founded in 1852.
(ii) Tamil nationalist periodical Swadesamitran was started in 1891.
(iii) The Madras Mahajana Sabha demanded conduct of civil services examinations only in India
(iv) V.S. Srinivasanar was an extremist.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) EVR did not participate in the Non- Cooperation Movement.
(ii) Rajaji worked closely with Yakub Hasan of the Muslim League.
(iii) Workers did not participate in the Non- Cooperation Movement.
(iv) Toddy shops were not picketed in Tamil Nadu.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) is correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (ii) is correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Justice Party opposed the Home Rule Movement.
Reason (R): The Justice Party feared that Home Rule would give the Brahmins more power.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): EVR raised the issue of representation for non-Brahmins in legislature.
Reason (R): During the first Congress Ministry, Rajaji abolished sales tax.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct but R is wrong.
(c) Both A and R are wrong.
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is wrong.

IV. Match the following

Answers:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

V. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
List out the contribution of the moderates.
Answer:
The primary contribution of the moderates lies in exposing the liberal claims of the British. They exposed how the British exploited India, and their hypocrisy in following democratic principles in England but imposing an unrepresentative government in colonies.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Tirunelveli Uprising.
Answer:

1. V.O Chidambaranar with Subramania Siva an organising the mill workers in Thoothukudi and Tirunelveli.
2. In 1908 he led a strike in the European owned coral mills. It coincided with the release of Bipin Chandra Pal.
3. In celebrate the release of Bipin Chandra Pal V.O.C and Subramania Siva organised a public meeting.
4. The two leaders were charged with sedition and sentenced to rigorous imprisonment.
5. The news of the arrest sparked riots in Tirunelveli leading to the burning down of the Police Station, Court Building and Municipal Office.
6. It led to the death of four people in police firing. V.O.C was treated harshly.

Question 3.
What is the contribution of Annie Besant to India’s freedom struggle?
Answer:
Annie Besant started the Home Rule League. She wrote two books and a pamphlet on self-government. Members of the movement played a key role in organising working classes through trade unions.

Question 4.
Mention the various measures introduced by the Justice Ministry.
Answer:
The Justice Ministry introduced “Various measures for the benefit of Non – Brahmins, They were

1. Reservation of appointments in local bodies and education institutions.
2. Establishment of Staff Selection Board which later became the Public Service Commission.
3. Enactment of Hindu Religious Endowment Act.
4. Madras State Aid to Industries Act.
5. Abolition of Devadasi system.
6. Allotment of waste Government lands (Poromboke) to the poor for housing.
7. Extension of primary education to the depressed classes through fee concessions, scholarships and mid – day meals.

Question 5.
Write briefly on EVR’s contribution to the constructive programme?
Answer:
E.V. Ramaswamy campaigned for the promotion and sale of khadi, opposed the consumption of liquor, and played a key role in the satyagraha for temple entry in Vaikom. Gandhi called him Vaikom Hero for his contribution against caste discrimination and agitation for temple entry.

Question 6.
What is Cheranmadevi Gurukulam controversy?
Answer:

1. To further the cause of national education a gurukulam was established in Cheranmadevi by V.V Subramanianar. It received funds from congress.
2. Students were discriminated on the basis of caste.
3. They were made to dine separately and the food served too was different.
4. The issue was brought to the notice of E.V.R who questioned and severely criticised it along with another leader Dr. RVaradarajulu.
5. The Cheranmadevi Gurukulam controversy and opposition to communal representation within the congress led to E.V.R (Periyar) to leave the Congress.

Question 7.
Why was anti-Hindi agitation popular?
Answer:
The anti-Hindi agitation was popular because Hindi was considered a form of Aryan and North Indian imposition which was detrimental to Tamil language and culture.

Question 8.
Outline the key incidents during the Quit India Movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
On 8^th August 1942 Quit India resolution was passed. The entire congress leadership was arrested overnight.

1. At every railway station the policemen waited with a list of local leaders and arrested them when they got down.
2. Kamaraj who saw this on his return from Bombay conference slipped from police arrest. He then worked underground and organised the people during Quit India Movement.
3. All sections of society participated in the movement.
4. There were many instances of violence such as setting fire to post offices Vellore and Panapakkam.
5. Gutting of telegraph lines.
6. Congress volunteers clashed with the Military in Madurai.
7. Disrupting railway traffic trains derailed in Coimbatore.
8. There were police firings at Rajapalayam, Karaikudi and Devakottai.

These were some of the key incidents.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption

Question 1.
Early Nationalist Movement in Tamil Nadu

(a) What were the objectives of Madras Native Association?
Answer:
The objective of Madras Native Association was to promote the interests of its members and reduction of taxes. It also protested against the government’s support to missionary activities.

(b) What led to the emergence of nationalist press in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
The entire press opposed the appointment of the first South Indian judge of the Madras High Court in 1878. This led to a need of a nationalist press to express the Indian perspective. The Hindu was started in 1878 and soon became a vehicle for nationalist propaganda.

(c) What were the demands of Madras Mahajana Sabha?
Answer:
The demands of Madras Mahajana Sabha were to conduct civil services examinations simultaneously in England and India, abolition of India Council in London, reduction of taxes, and reduction of civil and military expenditure.

(d) Who were the early nationalist leaders in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Some early nationalists in Tamil Nadu were: V.S. Srinivasa Sastri, P.S. Sivasamy Iyer, V. Krishnasamy Iyer, T.R. Venkatrama Sastri, G.A. Natesan, T.M. Madhava Rao and S. Subramania Iyer.

Question 2.
Revolutionary Movement In Tamil Nadu:

(a) List a few revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
M.P.T. Acharya, V.V. Subramanianar and T.S.S. Rajan were few of the revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu.

(b) Why did Subramania Bharati moved to Pondicherry?
Answer:
To avoid imprisonment, Subramania Bharati moved to Pondicherry.

(c) Name a few of the revolutionary literature.
Answer:
Few of the Revolutionary literature were India, Vijaya and Suryodayam.

(d) What did Vanchinathan do?
Answer:
Vanchinathan of Senkottai, influenced by Bharatha Matha Society, shot dead Robert W.D’E. Ashe collector of Tirunelveli in Maniyachi junction.

Question 3.
Non-Brahmin Movement

(a) Why was the South Indian Liberal Federation formed?
Answer:
The South Indian Liberal Federation was formed to promote the interests of non-Brahmins.

(b) What is the Non-Brahmin Manifesto?
Answer:
The Non-Brahmin Manifesto had objectives such as reservation of jobs for non-Brahmins in government service and seats in representative bodies. It opposed the Home Rule Movement and criticised Congress as a party of Brahmins.

(c) Why did EVR join the Non-Brahmin Movement?
Answer:
EVR joined the non-Brahmin movement because he felt the Congress was promoting the interests of Brahmins alone.

(d) What do you know about anti-Hindi agitation?
Answer:
A massive campaign was led by EVR against the introduction of Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools. The anti-Hindi agitation was popular because Hindi was considered a form of Aryan and North Indian imposition. EVR organized an anti-Hindi conference. More than ‘ 1200 protesters were arrested at a rally. The subject was later removed after protests.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Discuss the response to Swadeshi Movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The Swadeshi Movement made a deep impact in Tamil Nadu. The congress carried on Vigorous campaign for boycott of Foreign goods.

Prominent leaders who played a Key role:

V.O.Chidambaranar, V.Chakkaraiyar, Subramania Bharati and Surendranath Arya.

1. The extremist leader Bipin Chandrapal toured Madras and delivered lectures.
2. Inspired by his speech students and youths widely participated in the Swadeshi Movement.

Propagation of Swadeshi ideals:
Many journals were started to propagate Swadeshi ideals the prominent among them were swadesamitran and India.

Mobilisation of people:

1. Public meetings were organised in various parts of Tamil Nadu. Thousands of people attended it.
2. For the first time was used on the public platform.

Awakening and inculcating patriotic spirit:
Subramania Bharati’s patriotic songs were especially the most important in stirring the patriotic emotions of the people.

Question 2.
Examine the origin and growth of Non-Brahmin Movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
As there was rapid growth of education in Madras Presidency, there was an increase in the number of educated non-Brahmins. They began to raise the issue of caste discrimination and unequal opportunities in employment and representation in elected bodies. The Congress also mainly consisted of Brahmins. The non-Brahmins then began to organise themselves into political organisations to protect their interests, such as the Madras Dravidian Association and the South Indian Liberal Federation. A non-Brahmin manifesto was also released.

Question 3.
Describe the role of Tamil Nadu in the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Answer:

1. Transformation of congress: In the 1920’s congress with Gandhi in leadership was transforming in to a broad based movement in Tamil Nadu.
2. The Madras session of the Indian National Congress in 1927 declared complete independence as its goal.
3. In the 1929 Pooma Swaraj was adopted as the goal at Lahore session of Congress.
4. In 1930 Gandhi launched the Civil Disobedience Movement by setting out on a salt satyagraha with a march to a Dandi.

Role of Tamil Nadu:

1. Tamil Nadu was in the forefront of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
2. In city of Madras shops were picketed and foreign goods boycotted.

Salt Satyagraha: Rajaji organised and led a Salt Satyagraha to Vedaranyam. The march started from Trichirapalli to Vedaranyam on 13th April 1930 and reached Vedaranyam in Thanjavur district on 28th April.

Special Song: Composed by Ramalinganar (Nammakkal Kavingnar) for the March.

Leaders who participated: T.S.S.Rajan, C.Swaminathar, Rukmani Lakshmipathi, Sardar Vedarathnam and K.Santhanam.

Agitations: The Satyagraha’s under the leadership of T.Prakasan and K.Nageswara Rao set up a camp at Udayavanani near Madras. Police arrested them that led to Hartal in Madras. Clashes with the police in Tiruvallikeni lasted for three hours on 27th April 1930 left three dead.

Response from the people:

1. Mill workers struck work across the province.
2. Women participated enthusiastically.
3. Volunteers attempted to offer Salt Satyagraha at Rameswaram, Thoothukudi, Uvari, Anjengo, Veppalodai, and Tharuvaikulam were stopped and arrested.

Important Event: Bhashyam popularly known as Arya, hoisted the national flag atop St. George Fort on 26th January 1932. Satyamurti, actively picketed shops selling foreign clothes, organised processions and distributed pamphlets.

Martyrdom of Tirupur Kumaran: On January 1932 a procession carrying national flags singing patriotic songs were brutally beaten up by police in Tirupur. Tirupur Kumaran fell dead holding the flag a loft. Thus civil Disobedience movement was one of the mass movements in Tamil Nadu.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Students can be asked to write a sentence or two about the important places of freedom struggle in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Important Places of freedom struggle in Tamil Nadu a sentence or two about each place.

Madras:

1. Thousands lights: Third session of Indian Nation Congress was held in 1887 with Badruddin Tyabji as president 362 members participated out of 607 were from Madras.
2. Thoothukudi: Swadesh ships plied from Thoothukudi to Colombo launched ’ by the Swadeshi steam Navigation company of V.O.Chidambaranar.
3. Tirunelveli: Mill workers led a strike under Swadeshi Movement.
4. Pondicherry: Haven for the revolutionists Maniyachi junction (Tirunelveli). Collector W.D’E. Ashe was shot dead by a revolutionary youth Vanchinathan.
5. Adayar (Madras): Home Rule Movement was started by Annie Besant in 1916.
6. Marina Beach: On 18th March 1919 Gandhi addressed a meeting on Marina Beach against ‘Black Act’ (Rowlatt Act).
7. Tiruchirapalli: Salt March started from here.
8. Vedaranyam: Salt march led by Rajaji ended by breaking salt law.
9. Thirupur: Martyrdom of Kumaran holding National Flag.
10. Madurai: Temple entry programme with Harijans in Meenakshi amman temple was organised.
11. Salem: Anti Hindi agitation.
12. Coimbatore: V.O. Chidambaranar made to pull oil press in the prison.

Question 2.
Role Play: Students can be divided into groups and asked to debate the -views of the Moderates, Extremists, Revolutionaries, Annie Besant’s supporters, Justice Party, and British Government.
Answer:
Characters:

1. British Government – Police forces, and Governor
2. Revolutionaries – Arbindo Gosh, Vanchinathan Bharathi (Songs)
3. Justice party – E.V.R (Periyar)
4. Moderates – V.O.Chidambaranar, Subramaniya siva, Rajaji, Satyamurti
5. Extremist – Bipin Chandra Pal

Debate Between

1. Justice party – EVR and Rajaji on the issue of Hindi as a compulsory language at schools and temple entry incident.
2. Extremists and moderates – Prochangers and No changers.
3. British Government and Revolutionaries.

The class can be divided into three groups each to represent (3 + 3)

2 persons can be selected for each group to represent the character. Character allotment can be given by the teacher concerned and the students are requested to prepare the dialogues.

Points for Debate can be selected from the events (in Tamil Nadu as given in the lesson) Swadeshi Movement, Anti Hindi Agitation, Vedaranyam Salt March, Vaikom Satyagraha Quit India Movement, Non – Cooperation Movement.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer

Question 1.
Madras Native Association was formed in the year:
(a) 1825
(b) 1806
(c) 1852
(d) 1860
Answer:
(c) 1852

Question 2.
In 1908 Bharathiar organized a huge public meeting to celebrate ……………
(a) Swaraj day
(b) Birthday
(c) Republic day
Answer:
(a) Swaraj day

Question 3.
One of the prominent moderate who attended the meeting in Madras before the formation of Indian National Congress:
(a) Gokhale
(b) Bharathiyar
(c) Aurobindo Gosh
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Answer:
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji

Question 4.
The person who is called Kappalotiya Tamizhan ……………..
(a) V.O.C
(b) Bharathiyar
(c) Gandhiji
Answer:
(a) V.O.C

Question 5.
The extremist leaders …………………. inspired many youths to join the Swadeshi movement in Madras.
(a) Aurobindo Gosh
(b) Nilakanta Brahmachari
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal
(d) Mrs. Annie Besant
Answer:
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal

Question 6.
Gandhi’s ‘Do or Die’ slogan came during which movement?
(a) Non-cooperation Movement
(b) Quit India Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Khilafat Movement
Answer:
(b) Quit India Movement

Question 7.
…………………. championed the cause of ‘Criminal Tribes’ of Tamil Nadu.
(a) Yakub Hasan
(b) V.V.Somayajulu
(c) George Joseph
(d) Maulana Shaukat Ali
Answer:
(c) George Joseph

Question 8.
The Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company was launched at ………..
(a) Colombo
(b) Madras
(c) Vellore
(d) Thoothukudi
Answer:
(d) Thoothukudi

Question 9.
…………………. was one of the epicenter of Khilafat agitation.
(a) Chennai
(b) Vaniyambadi
(c) Arakkonam
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(b) Vaniyambadi

Question 10.
Who gave the slogan “A war is ahead sans sword, sans bloodshed…”?
(a) T. Prakasham
(b) Namakkal V Ramalingam
(c) N. M. R. Subbaraman
(d) K. Kamraj
Answer:
(b) Namakkal V Ramalingam

Question 11.
…………………. arrived in Madras on 18th February 1929 greeted with hartals, demonstrations etc.
(a) Torture commission
(b) Cripps mission
(c) Simon commission
(d) Prince of Wales
Answer:
(c) Simon commission

Question 12.
In the elections held in …………………. the Swarajists won the majority seats in Madras.
(a) 1924
(b) 1926
(c) 1927
(d) 1906
Answer:
(b) 1926

Question 13.
At Vedaranyam …………………. broke the salt law by picking up salt along with 12 volunteers.
(a) T. Prakasam
(b) K. Nageswara Rao
(c) K. Kamaraj
(d) C. Rajaji
Answer:
(d) C. Rajaji

Question 14.
E.V.R. left the congress and started the …………………. movement.
(a) Swadeshi
(b) Quit India
(c) Self Respect
(d) Civil Disobedience
Answer:
(c) Self Respect

Question 15.
In Tamil Nadu …………………. were led by S. Srinivasanar and S.Satyamurthi.
(a) Swarajists
(b) Satyagrahis
(c) Mill workers
(d) Zamindars
Answer:
(a) Swarajists

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………….. contributed much to the development of education and amelioration of the depressed classes.
2. Introduction, of ……………….. helped the educated Indian middle class to fought against colonial rule.
3. Social disability hindered the society imposed by obnoxious ………………..
4. Madras Native Association was ceased to exist by ………………..
5. The newspaper ……………….. was started in 1878 became the vehicle of nationalist propaganda.
6. Swadesamitran periodical became daily newspaper in ………………..
7. Many of the demands of Madras Mahajana sabha were adopted later by the ………………..
8. The early nationalists believed in ……………….. methods.
9. The early nationalists were came to be knowrr as ………………..
10. Out of a total of 72 delegates who attended the first session of Indian National Congress ……………….. members were from Madras.
11. ……………….. through his writings advanced the cause of Nationalism.
12. ……………….. was previously called as ‘Makkis Garden’ where the third session of Indian National congress was held.
13. ……………….. partriotic songs arouse the patriotic emotions of the people.
14. V.O.Chidambaranar launched ……………….. in pursuance of Swadeshi at Thoothukudi.
15. The Swadeshi ships plied between ………………..
16. ……………….. and ……………….. were the name of the two ships purchased by V.O.Chidambaranar.
17. V.O.C was treated harshly in prison and was made to pull the ………………..
18. To avoid imprisonment Subramanya Bharati moved to ………………..
19. Revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu were trained in revolutionary activities at ………………..
20. Revolutionary radical papers and Bharati’s poems were banned as ………………..
21. Revolutionary activities continued till the out break of ………………..
22. The revolutionary activities were intensified with arrival ……………….. and ……………….. in 1910.
23. ……………….. of senkottai was influenced by the Bharata Matha society.
24. ……………….. failed to inspire and mobilize the people despite their patriotism.
25. The objective of the Bharata Matha Society was to kindle the ……………….. fewer among the people by killing British officials.
26. At ……………….. the collector of Tirunelveli Robert W.D’E. Ashe was shot dead.
27. Mrs. Annie Besant started the newspapers ……………….. and ……………….. to carry forward her agenda of Home rule movement.
28. Under ……………….. Annie Besant was asked to pay hefty amount as security.
29. ……………….. was elected as the president of the congress session of 1917.
30. The differences between the two Non-Brahmin leaders ……………….. and ……………….. was solved by CNatesanar.
31. The ……………….. demanded communal representation.
32. The ……………….. provided reservation of seats to Non-Brahmins.
33. After the 1923 elections ……………….. of the Justice party formed the ministry.
34. The staff selection Board established by the Justice party later became the ………………..
35. The Rowlat Act was named after ……………….. who headed the committee.
36. On 18 march 1919 ……………….. addressed a meeting on marina beach to protest against Rowlet Act.
37. To further the cause of national education a gurukulam was started at ………………..
38. When Rajaji formed the ministry in 1937 the status of James Neill finally moved to ………………..
39. For the salt march to Vedaranyam led by C.Rajaji a special song was composed by ………………..
40. ……………….. was the forst woman to pay penalty for violation of salt laws.
41. ……………….. fell dead holding the national flag in a procession organised under Civil Disobedience Movement.
42. Tirupur Kumaran was hailed as ………………..
43. The ……………….. was trounced in 1937 elections to the Madras province.
44. ……………….. Act was passed in 1939 for the removal of the civil and social disabilities against the ‘depressed classes’.
45. The Governor of Madras who took over the administration removed ……………….. as compulsory subject after the resignation of the congress ministry.

Answers:

1. Christian Missionaries
2. Western Education
3. Caste, system
4. 1862
5. The Hindu
6. 1899
7. Indian National Congress
8. Constitutional
9. Moderates
10. 22
11. G. Subramaniam
12. Thousand lights
13. Subramanya Bharati
14. Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company
15. Thoothukudi and Colombo
16. Gallia, Lavo
17. heavy oil press
18. Pondicherry
19. India House in London and in Paris
20. Seditious Literature
21. First World War
22. Aurobindo Ghosh, V.V.Subramanianar
23. Vanchinathan
24. Young revolutionaries
25. Patriotic
26. Maniyachi junction
27. India and Commonweal
28. Press Act of 1910
29. Annie Besant
30. Dr. T.M.Nair, and P.Thyagarayar
31. Justice party
32. Act of 1919
33. Raja of Panagal
34. Public Service Commission
35. Sir Sydney Rowlatt
36. Gandhi
37. Cheranmadevi
38. Madras Museum
39. Namakkal V. Ramalinganar
40. Rukmani Lakshmipathi
41. Tirupur Kumaran
42. Kodikatha Kumaran
43. Justice party
44. The Temple Entry Authorisation and Indemnity
45. Hindi

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Madras Native Association, Madras Mahajan Sabha and the Nationalist press led to the growth of Nationalism in Tamil Nadu.
(ii) Madras Native Association primarily consisted merchants.
(iii) Madras Native Association focussed on reduction in taxation.
(iv) It led to the formation of congress.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The educated middle class did not show interest in public affairs.
(ii) The appointment of first Indian Judge to the Madras High court was Criticized by the press.
(iii) The moderates exposed the liberal claims of the British.
(iv) Boycott of foreign goods was not propagated by the congress.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 3.
(i) In 1908 V.O.C led a strike in the European owned Coral Mills.
(ii) V.O.C was given a draconian sentence of two life imprisonments.
(iii) Students and youths did not participated in the Swadeshi Movement.
(iv) Extremists and revolutionaries were not suppressed by the British with . an iron hand.
(a) (i) and (iii) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): When the National movement was in ebb, Annie Besant proposed the Home Rule Movement.
Reason (R): Home Rule Demanded a nominal allegience to British crown.
(a) A is correct but R is wrong
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Kamaraj gave the police the slip and got down at Arakkonam worked underground to organise people during quit India movement.
Reason (R): While returning from Bombay he saw the police at every railway station to arrest the local leaders when they got down.
(a) Both A and R are correct R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct R is wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct R explains A.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): V.O.C and Subramania Siva were charged with sedition and sentenced to rigorous imprisonment.
Reason (R): Both the leaders organised a public meeting to celebrate the release of Bipin Chandrapal.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) A is wrong R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct R explains A
(d) Both A and R are correct R does not explains A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct R explains A

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Kumaraswamy of Thiruppur is hailed as Kodikatha Kumaran.
Reason (R): At the procession of agitation as a part of civil obedience he fell dead holding the national flag aloft.
(a) A ands R are correct R is not explaining A
(b) A and R are wrong
(c) A is wrong R is correct
(d) Both A and R correct R explains A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R correct R explains A.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (iii)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

V. Answer the question briefly

Question 1.
What do you know about Tirupur Kumaram?
Answer:

• Tirupur Kumaran was bom in Chennimalai, Erode district in Tamil Nadu.
• He was a great revolutionary.
• He participated in the march against the ban on the national flag and he died from injuries sustained from a police assault.
• Kumaran died holding the flag of the Indian Nationalists.
• Kumaran is revered as a martyr in Tamil Nadu and is known by the epithet Kodi Kaththa Kumaran.

Question 2.
Name the Newspapers and journals started by Indians to express the Indian perspective.
Answer:
To express the perspective of the Indians “The Hindu, Swadesamitran, Indian patriot, South Indian mail, Madras standard, vijaya’ India, Suryodayam, Desabhimani” were some of the newspapers started and they became the vehicle of nationalist propaganda.

Question 3.
Give an account on Vanchinathan’s role in the struggle for freedom.
Answer:

1. Vanchinathan was under the service of the state of Travancore.
2. The activities of the extremists greatly alarmed the British.
3. The collector Ashe, shot down and killed four extremists in Tirunelveli.
4. So Vanchinathan wanted to take revenge against the collector.
5. He secretly went to Maniyachi Railway Station and shot dead Ashe on 17th June 1911 and he himself committed suicide.

Question 4.
Name of the books written by Annie Besant.
Answer:
Annie Besant wrote two books namely.

1. How India wrought for freedom and
2. “India” – A nation and a pamphlet on self-Govemment.

Question 5.
Give an account on V.O.C role in the stuggle for freedom.
Answer:

• In 1907 V.O.C attended the congress sessions held at Surat.
• He followed the militant leader Bala Gangadhar Tilak and preached his philosophy.
• He charged with sedition he was sentenced to forty years of imprisonment.

Question 6.
Write a short note on south Indian Liberal Federation (SILF).
Answer:
The Non-Brahmins organised themselves into political organisation to protect their interests. On 20th November a meeting of about thirty Non -Brahmins was held under the leadership of Dr.T.M.Nair P.Thiyagarayar and C.Natesanar at victoria public hall chennai.. The South Indian Liberal Federation (SILF) was founded to promote the interests of Non-Brahmins. It later came to be known as ‘Justice Party’.

Question 7.
How was the freedom struggle in Tamil Nadu unique?
Answer:
The freedom struggle in Tamil Nadu was unique because from the beginning it was not only ‘ a struggle for independence from the English rule but also a struggle for independence from the social disability imposed by the obnoxious caste system.

Question 8.
When and where the meeting Rowlatt Sathyagraha held? Who addressed it?
Answer:
On 18th March 1919 a meeting was held on Marina Beach and Gandhi addressed the meeting. Later madras Satyagraha sabha was formed.

Question 9.
Throw light on the beginning of the nationalist press in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
When it was realised that press was essential to express the Indian perspective, people like G. Subramaniam, M. Veeraraghavachari and four other friends together started a newspaper The Hindu in 1878. Soon it became the vehicle of nationalist propaganda. G Subramaniam also started a Tamil nationalist periodical Swadesamitran in 1891 which became a daily in 1899. The founding of The Hindu and Swadesamitran provided encouragement to the starting of other native newspapers such as Indian Patriot, South Indian Mail, Madras Standard, Desabhimani, Vijaya, Suryodayam, and India.

Question 10.
Describe briefly the Non-cooperation Movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu was very active during the Non-cooperation Movement under the leadership of C Rajagopalachari and E V Ramaswamy. Rajaji worked closely with Yakub Hasan, the founder of the Madras branch of the Muslim League. As a result, the Hindus and Muslims cooperated closely during the movement in Tamil Nadu. A Congress volunteer corps of about 1000 members was set up to distribute pamphlets, carry flags during processions and to maintain order in the meetings.

VI. Answer all the questions Given under each caption

Question 1.
Salt march to vedaranyam

(a) What was in forefront of the civil disobedience movement in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Demonstrations, hartals, staging of Swadeshi dramas and songs were the order of the day both in rural and urban areas of Tamil Nadu.

(b) How was the movement in Madras city?
Answer:
In the city of Madras as a part of civil Disobedience movement shops were picketed and foreign goods were.boycotted.

(c) Who organised and led the Salt Satyagraha March to Vedaranyam?
Answer:
Rajaji organised and led the Salt Satyagraha March ro Vedaranyam.

(d) From where and when does the march started and reached Vedaranyam?
Answer:
The march started from Trichirapalli on 13th April 1930 and reached Vedaranyam in (Tanjore district) on 28th April.

Question 2.
Swarajists-Justicites Rivalry
(a) Who were ‘no-changers’? Who were ‘pro-changers’?
Answer:
‘No-changers’ wanted to continue the boycott of the councils and ‘pro-changers’ wanted to ’ contest the elections for the councils.

(b) What did Rajaji oppose? Name two persons who supported him.
Answer:
Rajaji opposed the council entry. The two persons who supported him were Kasturi Ranga Iyengar and M. A. Ansari.

(c) Who formed Swaraj Party?
Answer:
Chittaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru together formed the Swaraj Party.

(d) Who led the Swarajists in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
S. Srinivasa Iyengar and S. Satyamurthi led the Swarajists in Tamil Nadu.

Question 3.
Non-cooperation Movement in Tamil nadu

(a) Name the leaders provided leadership during non-cooperation movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
E.V.Ramaswamy (Periyar) and C.Rajaji provided the leadership for non – cooperation movement.

(b) Who was the founder of the Madras branch of the Muslim League?
Answer:
Yakub Hasan was the founder of the Madras branch of the Muslim League.

(c) What was set up as a part of Non-cooperation movement?
Answer:
A Congress volunteer corps was set up a part of Non – cooperation movement.

(d) How did these volunteers assist?
Answer:
The volunteers corps distributed pamphelts, carry flags during processions and to maintain order in the meetings and also in picketing of liquor shops.

Question 4.
No tax – Campaigns and Temperance Movement

(a) Where did the No-tax campaigns take place?
Answer:
A no-tax campaign took place in Thanjavur.

(b) How did the people show their protest?
Answer:
Councils, schools and courts and foreign goods were boycotted and a number of workers’ strikes took place all over.

(c) What was one of the important aspects of the movement in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
One of the important aspects of the movement in Tamil Nadu was the ‘Temperance Movement or Movement against liquor’.

(d) What was the Act for which the communities agitated?
Answer:
The communities agitated against the criminal Tribes Act.

VII. Answer In detail

Question 1.
Explain the contribution of Madras Mahajana Sabha.
Answer:
Madras Mahajana Sabha:

1. It was established by M. Veeraraghavachari, P. Anandacharlu, P. Rangaiah.
2. P. Rangaiah Naidu was elected the first president of the Sabha.

The contributions of Madras Mahajana Sabha:

1. The Madras Mahajana Sabha has contributed a lot for our national freedom.
2. The Sabha voiced out the fundamental right of our country men.
3. It had developed very close relationship with the Indian National Congress since 1920.
4. In 1930, the Sabha organised the Salt Sathyagraha Movement in Madras George Town. Esplanade the high court and beach areas. The members were attacked savagely by the British police.
5. When the British government banned the congress party. Madras Mahajana Sabha conducted numerous exhibition and Swadesh exhibition.
6. These exhibition instigated patriotic feelings in the hearts of our country men.

Question 2.
What were the scenario of Tamil Nadu during the Quit India movement?
Answer:

1. On 8^th August 1942 Quit India Resolution was passed and Gandhi gave the slogan ‘Do or Die’.
2. It was an undying mass movement.
3. K. Kamaraj worked underground and organised people during the quit India movement.
4. The movement was wide spread in Tamil Nadu.
5. All section of society participated in this movement.
6. There were large number of workers strike such as strikes in Bukingham and camatic Mills, Madras Port Trust, Madras, Corporation and Madras Tramway.
7. Telegraph and Telephone lines were cut and public buildings were burnt at Vellore and Panapakkam.
8. The airport in Sulur was attacked and trains derailed in Coimbatore.
9. Congress volunteers clashed with the military in Madurai.
10. There were police firings at Rajapalayam Karaikudi and Devakottai.
11. Many young men and women also joined Indian National Army.
12. Students of various colleges took active part in the protests.
13. The Quit India Movement was suppressed by the British with brutal force.

Question 3.
Under what circumstances did E. V. R. leave the Congress?
Or
What was Cheranmadevi Gurukulam controversy? How did it lead E. V. R. to leave the Congress?
Answer:
(i) E. V. Ramaswamy, popularly known as E. V. R. played an active role in Tamil Nadu
during the freedom struggle of India. But he was not satisfied with the Congress because he felt that it was promoting the interests of the Brahmins alone.

(ii) To further the cause of national education, a Gurukulam was established in Cheranmadevi by V. V. S. Iyer. It received funds from the Congress. However, students were discriminated on the basis of caste.

(iii) Brahmin and non-Brahmin students were made to dine separately and the food served too was different. The issue was brought to the notice of E. V. R. in 1925 who questioned the practice and severely criticized it along with another leader, Dr. P. Varadarajulu.

(iv) In Kanchipuram Conference of the Tamil Nadu Congress Committee held on 21 November 1925, he raised the issue of representation for non-Brahmins in the legislature. But his efforts to achieve this since 1920 had met with failure.

(v) When the resolution was defeated, E. V. R. left the Conference along with other non-Brahmin leaders who met separately. Soon he left the Congress and started the Self-respect Movement. Thus, the Cheranmadevi Gurukulam controversy and opposition to communal rengress led E. V. R. leave the Congress.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part -I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
How many times security can be sold in a secondary market?
(a) Only one time
(b) Two times
(c) Three times
(d) Multiple times
Answer:
(d) Multiple times

Question 2.
Debt Instruments are issued by Corporate Houses are raising short-term financial resources
from the money market are called ………………
(a) Treasury Bills
(b) Commercial Paper
(c) Certificate of Deposit
(d) Government Securities
Answer:
(b) Commercial Paper

Question 3.
The market for buying and selling of Commercial Bills of Exchange is known as a ……………
(a) Commercial Paper Market
(b) Treasury Bill Market
(c) Commercial Bill Market
(d) Capital Market
Answer:
(c) Commercial Bill Market

Question 4.
A bull operator believes in …………….
(a) Increase in Prices
(b) Decrease in Prices
(c) Stability in Prices
(d) No change in Prices
Answer:
(a) Increase in Prices

Question 5
means the price at which securities are bought and sold are recorded and made public…………….
(a) Market Quotations
(b) Trade Quotations
(c) Business Quotations
(d) Buyers Quotations
Answer:
(a) Market Quotations

Question 6.
Trading is dematerialized shares commenced on the NSE is ……………….
(a) January 1996
(b) June 1998
(c) December 1996
(d) December 1998.
Answer:
(c) December 1996

Question 7.
Transfer is an source of recruitment……………
(a) Internal
(b) External
(c) Outsourcing
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Internal

Question 8.
Which of the following orders is followed in a typical selection process.
(а) Application form test and or interview, reference check and physical examination
(b) Application form test and or interview, reference check, and physical examination
(c) Reference check, application form, test and interview and physical examination
(d) Physical examination test and interview application term and reference check
Answer:
(b) Application form test and or interview, reference check, and physical examination

Question 9
…………….. is useful to prevent skill obsolescence of employees.
(a) Training
(b) Job Analysis
(c) Selection
(d) Recruitment
Answer:
(a) Training

Question 10.
Which one is the example of Intangible product?
(a) Education
(b) Mobiles
(c) Garments
(d) Vehicles
Answer:
(a) Education

Question 11.
A company’s products and prices is visually represented by ……………
(a) Shopping Cart
(b) Web portal
(c) Electronic catalogue
(d) Revenue model
Answer:
(c) Electronic catalogue

Question 12.
………….. of every year is declared as a consumer protection Day to educate the public about their rights and responsibilities.
(a) August 15
(b) April 15
(c) March 15
(d) September 15
Answer:
(c) March 15

Question 13.
It is the responsibility of a consumer that he must obtain ……………. as a proof for the purchase of goods.
(a) Cash receipt
(b) Warranty card
(c) Invoice
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Invoice

Question 14.
The District Forum can entertain complaints where the value of goods or services and the compensation if any claimed is less than …………….
(a) Below ₹ 10,00,000
(b) Below ₹ 20,00,000
(c) Below ₹ 40,00,000
(d) Below ₹ 50,00,000
Answer:
(b) Below ₹ 20,00,000

Question 15.
……………. is a stipulation which is collateral to main purpose of contract.
(a) Warranty
(b) Condition
(c) Right
(d) Agreement
Answer:
(a) Warranty

Question 16.
When crossing restrict further negotiation ……………
(a) Not negotiable crossing
(b) General Crossing
(c) A/c payee crossing
(d) Special crossing
Answer:
(a) Not negotiable crossing

Question 17.
Which of the below is a commercial function?
(a) Accounting
(b) Coordination
(c) Discovery of idea
(d) Planning
Answer:
(a) Accounting

Question 18.
Poultry, Flowers, Fruits etc are called allied products of entrepreneur.
(a) Corporate
(b) Retail
(c) Trading
(d) Agricultural
Answer:
(d) Agricultural

Question 19.
…………… has to include the mechanism for managing venture in the project report.
(a) Banker
(b) Government
(c) Lending Institutions
(d) Entrepreneur
Answer:
(d) Entrepreneur

Question 20.
Specify the type of resolution to be passed to choose the location of Registered Office of the company within the town or village or city.
(a) Ordinary
(b) Special
(c) Either Ordinary or Special
(d) Board
Answer:
(d) Board

Part – II

Answer any seven in which Question No.30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
How do you co-ordinate your class room with peace?
Answer:
All the activities are divided groupwise or sectionwise under organising function. Now, such grouped activities are co-ordinated towards the accomplishment of objectives of a classroom. With the function of co-ordination the classroom must be peaceful and calm.

Question 22.
What are the instruments of Money Market?
Answer:

• Treasury Bills in the Treasury Market
• Money at Call and Short Notice in the Call Loan Market
• Commercial Bills and Promissory Notes in the Bill Market

Now in addition to the above, the following new instruments come into existence:

• Commercial Papers
• Certificate of Deposits
• Inter-Bank participation Certificates
• Repo Instruments

Question 23.
What are the types of Speculators?
Answer:
Speculators in a stock market are of different types. They are named on the basis of animals behaviour. They are

• Bull
• Bear
• Stag
• Lame duck

Question 24.
Mention the headquarters of SEBI.
Answer:
SEBI has its headquarters at the business district of BandraKurla Complex in Mumbai, and has Northern, Eastern, Southern and Western Regional Offices in New Delhi,. Kolkata, Chennai and Ahmedabad, respectively.

Question 25.
What is Role Play?
Answer:
Under this method trainees are explained the situation and assigned roles. They have to act out the roles assigned to them without any rehearsal.

Question 26.
What is meant by Regulated Market?
Answer:
Very Short Period Market: Markets which deal in perishable goods like, fruits, milk, vegetables etc., are called as very short period market.

Question 27.
What is Social Marketing?
Answer:
Social marketing is a new marketing tool. It is the systematic application of marketing philosophy and techniques to achieve specific behavioural goals which ensure social good. For example- not to smoke in public areas.

Question 28.
What is mixed Economy?
Answer:
Mixed economy is a combination of both state owned and private sector ownership.

Question 29.
What is a Contingent Goods?
Answer:
Contingent goods are the goods, the acquisition of which by the seller depends upon a . contingency (an event which may or may not happen). Contingent goods are a part of future goods.

Question 30.
Define Intrapreneur.
Answer:
Intrapreneur is one who thinks and acts like an entrepreneur for the firm’s development during the course of employment in an organisation.

Part – III

Answer any seven in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
State the importance of Motivation.
Answer:
The goals are achieved with the help of motivation. Motivation includes increasing the speed of performance of a work and developing a willingness on the part of workers. This is done by a resourceful leader. The workers expect, favourable climate conditions to work, fair treatment, monetary or non-monetary incentive, effective communication and gentleman approach.

Question 32.
Write a note on National Clearance and Depository System (NCDS).
Answer:
Under the scripless trading system, settlement of transactions relating to securities takes place through a book entry. The entire scripless trading system comprises the following three segments:

• National Trade Comparison and Reporting System which prescribes the terms and conditions of contract for the securities market.
• National Clearing System which aims at determining the net cash and stock liability of each broker on a settlement date.
• National Depository System which arranges to provide for the transfer of ownership of securities in exchange on payment by book entry on electronic ledgers without any physical movement of transfer deed.

Question 33.
What is the power of SEBI under securities Contract Act?
Answer:

• For effective regulation of stock exchange, the Ministry of Finance issued a Notification on 13 September, 1994 delegating several of its powers under the Securities Contracts (Regulations) Act to SEBI.
• SEBI is also empowered by the Finance Ministry to nominate three members on the Governing Body of every stock exchange.

Question 34.
What are the features of internal source of recruitment?
Answer:
The main features of internal source of recruitment are:

• Quick process.
• Cheaper than the external recruitment process.
• Works as a tool of motivation for the staff.
• The company’s choice is limited to existing employees of the company.

Question 35.
Why Customer support is needed to Market?
Answer:
Customer or the consumer is the king and is considered to be a guest to your shop. Without the customer there is no business. To develop the market the number of customer is to be increased. So customer support is necessary to increase the sales and gain more profit.

Question 36.
What is the role of Government in Consumer Protection?
Answer:
Since most of consumers including academically educated are illiterate about their rights and hence passive. Government should assure an active role in safeguarding the consumers. Government both the central and the state have brought out a number of legislations to protect the interest of consumers across the country. Law enforcement authorities should see that penal clause is not mere paper jaws-they should sting the offenders mercilessly.

Question 37.
What are the functions of the GST Council?
Answer:
The functions of GST Council:

• The GST council can recommend to the Central and State Government on issues relating to GST.
• The Goods and Services that may be subjected to or exempted from the Goods and Services Tax.
• Model GST laws, principles of levy are framed by the GST council.
• The rates including floor rates with bands of Goods and Services Tax.

Question 38.
Discuss the two different types of Crossing.
Answer:
(i) General Crossing
(ii) Special Crossing

• General Crossing: “Where a cheque bears across its face an addition of the words “ an company” or any abbreviation there of, between to parallel transverse lines or of two parallel transverse line simply either with or without the words “Not negotiable” that addition shall be deemed a crossing and the cheque shall be deemed to be crossed generally”.
• Special Crossing: “ Where a cheque bears across its face an addition of the name of a banker with or without the words “Not Negotiable”, that addition shall be deemed a crossing and the cheque shall be deemed to be crossed specially and to be crossed to that banker”.

Question 39.
How does a professional entrepreneur operate?
Answer:
Professional entrepreneur is one who is having a rich expertise in starting a venture but lack interest in continuing the venture as a manager or as a owner. He/she simply sells out the venture started by him to someone else after its successful take-off.

Question 40.
What resolution is requires special notice?
Answer:
There are certain matters specified in the Companies Act, 2013 which may be discussed at a general meeting only if a special notice is given at least 14 days before the meeting. The intention to propose any resolution must be notified to the company. The following matters require special notice before they are discussed in the meeting:-

• To appoint an auditor, a person other than a retiring auditor
• To provide expressly that a retiring Auditor shall not be reappointed
• To remove a director before the expiry of his period of office
• To appoint a director in the place of a director so removed

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Discuss the various types of Financial markets?
Answer:
Financial assets can be classified differently under different circumstances. One such classification is:
(i) Marketable assets
(ii) Non-marketable assets
(i) Marketable Assets: Marketable assets are those which can be easily transferred from one person to another without much hindrance. Example: Shares of Listed Companies, Government Securities, Bonds of Public Sector Undertakings etc.

(ii) Non-Marketable Assets: On the other hand, if the assets cannot be transferred easily, they come under this category. Example: Bank Deposits, Provident Funds, Pension Funds, National Savings Certificates, Insurance Policies etc.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the importance of Recruitment.
Answer:
Recruitment is the process of having the right person, in the right place, at the right time. It is crucial to organisational performance. Recruitment is the first step in an organisation’s Human Resource Planning. It fulfills the organisation’s need of a set of competitive, motivated and flexible employees who work towards achieving the organisation’s objectives.

Competent Human Resources at the right positions are crucial for the organisation and constitute core competency. Recruitment helps in creating a pool of prospective employees for the organisation, so that the right candidates for the right jobs can be selected from this pool. It establishes a link between the job seekers and employers.

Proper recruitment enables the organisation to appoint talented persons for various activities, thereby leading to improved productivity and profitability of the organisation. Unless a company adopts a suitable recruitment policy, it may not be possible for a company to have right candidates for right job.

Question 42.
(a) State the advantages of warehousing.
Answer:

• Goods produced may be stored till the time of demand. Hence the goods are stored in warehouses.
• Also the goods are stored till the goods have good quality.
• Warehouses create time utility by storing the goods throughout the year and release them as and when they are needed.

Several types of warehouses are used for storing of goods. They are as follows:

• Public warehouse
• Private warehouse
• Bonded warehouse.

[OR]

(b) What are the objectives of United Nations guidelines for consumer protection?
Answer:
The General Assembly of the United Nations passed a Resolution on April 9, 1985 adopting a set of guidelines for consumer protection to persuade the member countries.
Objectives of United Nations Guidelines for Consumer Protection:

• To assist countries in achieving or maintaining protection to consumers.
• To facilitate production and distribution patterns responsive to the needs and desires of consumers.
• To encourage high levels of ethical conduct for production and distribution of goods and services to consumers.
• To facilitate the developing of independent consumer groups.
• To encourage the development of market conditions which provide consumers with greater choice at lower prices.

Question 43.
(a) How to create Consumer awareness?
Answer:
The first priority of a consumer organisation is to increase consumer awareness towards their rights. The following are the points for awareness:

• To publish brochures, journals and monographs.
• To arrange conferences, seminars and workshops.
• To educate consumers to help themselves.
• To provide special education to women about consumerism.

(b) Explain in detail the various functions of an entrepreneur?
Answer:
The functions of an entrepreneur is divided into
(a) Promotional functions
(b) Managerial functions and
(c) Commercial functions.

(a) Promotional functions
(i) Discovery of Idea: The first and foremost function of entrepreneur is idea generation. A person may conceive his own ideas or develop the ideas contributed by others. Ideas can be generated through several ways like own experience and exposure of entrepreneur, keen observation of environment, education, training, market survey, environmental scanning and so on.

(ii) Detailed Investigation: Entrepreneur should investigate commercial feasibility of the product proposed to be produced and conduct market study to ascertain the potential demand for the product.

(iii) Mobilisation of funds: Entrepreneur has to take steps to mobilise capital needed to implement the venture. Entrepreneur has to estimate the fixed capital and working capital required for running the project.

(b) Managerial functions

Planning: In this function, the entrepreneur has to lay down the objectives, goals, vision, mission, policies, procedures, programmes, budget, schedules etc., for enabling the venture to proceed towards established destinations.

Directing: In this function, the entrepreneur has to motivate, lead, guide and communicate with subordinates on an ongoing basis in order to accomplish pre-set goals.

(c) Commercial functions

Production or Manufacturing: Under production function, entrepreneur has to take decision relating to selection of factory site, design and layout, type of products to be manufactured, research and development.

Accounting: Entrepreneur has to arrange to prepare trading and profit and loss account in order to know the profit or loss incurred out of operation of the business and prepare balance sheet to know the financial status of business.

Question 44.
(a) What is the maximum limit for the Managerial remuneration?
Answer:
Managerial Remuneration: The Managerial remuneration is payable to a person’s appointed u/s 196 of the Act. The Term remuneration means any money or its equivalent given for their services.

Adequate profits: A Public Company can pay remuneration to its directors including Managing Director and Whole-time Directors, and its managers which shall not exceed 11% of the net profit. Maximum Remuneration Payable by a Company to its Managerial Personnel – No adequate Profits:

Remuneration Payable by a company in case where there is no profit or inadequacy of profit and remuneration payable is detailed below:

[OR]

(b) Explain different types of open and secret types of voting.
Answer:
The word ‘Vote’ originated from Latin word ‘Votum’ indicating one’s wishes or desire. He can vote formally by expressing his opinion or wish in favour or against a proposal.
Types of Voting: There are two methods of voting viz, open and secret procedures.
(i) Open Voting: This type of voting has no secrecy as all the members assembled can see voting. There are two types of open voting namely voice voting and voting by show of hands.

• By Voice: Voice voting is a popular type of voting in which the chairman allows the members to raise their voice in favour or against an issue ‘Yes’ for approval and ‘No’ for rejection.
• By Show of Hands: Under this method, the chairman requests the members to raise
  their hands for the proposal.

(ii) Secret Procedure: Secret procedure is adopted to decide certain vital issues. It may be of two types:

• By Ballot: Under this system, ballot paper bearing serial number is given to the members to record their opinion by marking with the symbol.
• Postal Ballot: Big companies or big associations having members scattered all over the country follow this method of voting. Under this method, the members or voters fill in the ballot papers sent by the company and return them in sealed covers.

Question 45.
(a) Distinguish between the rural and Urban entrepreneur?
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Explain the principles of modern management.
Answer:
The Father of Modem Management is Mr.Henry Fayol, and according to him there are 14 major principles of management which every manager has to practice for the success of the organisation.

(i) Division of Work: According to this principle the whole work is divided into small tasks. This leads to specialization which increases the efficiency of labour.

(ii) Authority and Responsibility: This is the issue of commands followed by responsibility for their consequences.

(iii) Discipline: It is obedience, proper conduct in relation to others, respect of authority, etc.
It is essential for the smooth functioning of all organizations.

(iv) Unity of Command: This principle states that each subordinate should receive orders and be accountable to one and only one superior.

(v) Unity of Direction: All related activities should be put under one group, there should be one plan of action for them, and they should be under the control of one manager.

(vi) Subordination of Individual Interest to Mutual Interest: The management must put aside personal considerations and put company objectives firstly.

(vii) Remuneration: Workers must be paid sufficiently as this is a chief motivation of employees and therefore greatly influences productivity.

(viii) The Degree of Centralization: The amount of power wielded with the central management depends on company size.

(ix) Line of Authority/Scalar Chain: This refers to the chain of superiors ranging from top management to the lowest rank.

(x) Order: Social order ensures the fluid operation of a company through authoritative procedure.

(xi) Equity: Employees must be treated kindly, and justice must be enacted to ensure a just
workplace.

(xii) Stability of Tenure of Personnel: Stability of tenure of personnel is a principle stating that in order for an organisation to run smoothly, personnel (especially managerial personnel) must not frequently enter and exit the organisation.

(xiii) Initiative: Using the initiative of employees can add strength and new ideas to an organisation.

(xiv) Esprit de Corps/Team Spirit: This refers to the need of managers to ensure and develop morale in the workplace; individually and communally.

Question 46.
(a) Explain the characteristics of Money Market?
Answer:
(i) Short-term Funds: It is a market purely for short-term funds or financial assets called near money.
(ii) Maturity Period: It deals with financial assets having a maturity period upto one year only.
(iii) Conversion of Cash: It deals with only those assets which can be converted into cash readily without loss and with minimum transaction cost.
(iv) No Formal Place: Generally, transactions take place through phone, i.e., oral communication. Relevant documents and written communications can be exchanged subsequently.
(v) Sub-markets: It is not a single homogeneous market. It comprises of several sub-markets ‘ each specialising in a particular type of financing.
(vi) Role of Market: The components of a money market are the Central Bank, Commercial Banks. Commercial banks generally play a dominant role in this market.
(vii) Highly Organized Banking System: The Commercial Banks are the nerve centre of the whole money market. They are the principal suppliers of short-term funds.

(viii) Existence of Secondary Market: There should be an active secondary market for these instruments. (be) Demand and Supply of Funds: There should be a large demand and supply of short-term funds.
(ix) Wholesale Market: It is a wholesale market and the volume of funds or financial assets traded in the market is very large.
(xi) Flexibility: Due to greater flexibility in the regulatory framework, there are constant endeavours for introducing new instruments.
(xii) Presence of a Central Bank: The central bank keeps their cash reserves and provides them financial accommodation in difficulties by discounting their eligible securities.

[OR]

(b) What are the difference between on the job training and off the job training?
Answer:

Question 47.
(a) How the market can be classified? On the basis of different approaches markets can be classified as follows:
Answer:
On the basis of Geographical Area:

• Family Market
• Local Market
• National Market
• International Market or World Market

On the Basis of Commodities / Goods:
(a) Commodity Market:

• Produce Exchange Market
• Manufactured Goods Market
• Bullion Market

(b) Capital Market:

• Money Market
• Foreign Exchange Market
• The Stock Market

On the Basis of Economics:

• Perfect Market
• Imperfect Market

On the Basis of Transaction:

• Spot Market
• Future market

On the Basis of Regulation:

• Regulated Market
• Unregulated Market

On the Basis of Time:

• Very Short Period Market
• Short Period Market
• Long Period Market

On the Basis of Volume of Business:

• Wholesale Market
• Retail Market

On the Basis of Importance:

• Primary Market
• Secondary Market
• Terminal Market

[OR]

(b) Explain the role of consumers in consumer protection.
Answer:
Consumers have to be vigilant and organise themselves into a movement for concerned action.
Activation of Consumer Action Councils:

• Consumer action councils established at village levels should educate consumers.
• Consumer protection agencies should take necessary steps to investigate consumer complaints and grievances.
• Voluntary consumer groups should provide information so as to educate consumers.
• Consumer cooperatives need to be strengthened.
• Consumer groups should contact the legislators to raise the consumer issue in Assembly and Parliament.
• There should be testing laboratories at each district to test the purity of goods.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 5 Acoustics Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 5 Acoustics

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Acoustics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
When a sound wave travels through air, the air particles:
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion.
(b) vibrate but not in any fixed direction.
(c) vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion.
(d) do not vibrate.
Answer:
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion.

Question 2.
The velocity of sound in a gaseous medium is 330 ms^-1. If the pressure is increased by 4 times without causing a change in the temperature, the velocity of sound in the gas is _____.
(a) 330 ms^-1
(b) 660 ms^-1
(c) 156 ms^-1
(d) 990 ms^-1.
Answer:
(a) 330 ms^-1
Hint: Pressure has no effect on the velocity of sound in the gas. So velocity of sound remains unchanged.

Question 3.
The frequency, which is audible to the human ear is:
(a) 50 kHz
(b) 20 kHz
(c) 15000 kHz
(d) 10000 kHz
Answer:
(b) 20 kHz

Question 4.
The velocity of sound in air at a particular temperature is 330 ms^-1. What will be its value when the temperature is doubled and the pressure is halved?
(a) 330 ms^-1
(b) 165 ms^-1
(c) 330 × √2 ms^-1
(d) 320/√2 ms^-1.
Answer:
(c) 330 × √2 ms^-1
Hint: As there is no effect of change in pressure on the velocity of sound in air, and v ∝ √T therefore, when the temperature is doubled, so the velocity becomes 330√2 m/s.

Question 5.
If a sound wave travels with a frequency of 1.25 × 10⁴ Hz at 344 ms^-1, the wavelength will be:
(a) 27.52 m
(b) 275.2 m
(c) 0.02752 m
(d) 2.752 m
Answer:
(c) 0.02752 m

Question 6.
The sound waves are reflected from an obstacle into the same medium from which they were incident. Which of the following changes?
(a) speed
(b) frequency
(c) wavelength
(d) none of these
Answer:
(d) none of these

Question 7.
The velocity of sound in the atmosphere of a planet is 500 ms^-1. The minimum distance between the sources of sound and the obstacle to hearing the echo should be ______.
(a) 17 m
(b) 20 m
(c) 25 m
(d) 50 m.
Answer:
(c) 25 m
Hint: The minimum distance of the source of the sound and hear the echo,
\(d=\frac{v t}{2}\)
t = 0.1 s, \(d=\frac{500 \times 0.1}{2}\) = 25 m.

II. Fill up the blanks:

1. Rapid back and forth motion of a particle about its mean position is called …………
2. If the energy in a longitudinal wave travels from south to north, the particles of the medium would be vibrating in …………
3. A whistle giving out a sound of frequency 450 Hz, approaches a stationary observer at a speed of 33 ms^-1. The frequency heard by the observer is (speed of sound = 330 ms^-1) ………..
4. A source of sound is travelling with a velocity 40 km/h towards an observer and emits a sound of frequency 2000 Hz. If the velocity of sound is 1220 km/h, then the apparent frequency heard by the observer is …………

Answer:

1. Wave
2. South to north
3. 500 Hz
4. 2067-3 Hz

III. True or false: (If false give the reason)

1. Sound can travel through solids, gases, liquids and even vacuum.
2. Waves created by Earthquake are Infrasonic.
3. The velocity of sound is independent of temperature.
4. The Velocity of sound is high in gases than liquids.

Answer:

1. False – Sound cannot travel through vacuum.
2. True
3. False – The velocity of sound depends on temperature.
4. True

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (i)

V. Assertion and Reason Questions.

Question 1.
Assertion : The change in air pressure affects the speed of sound.
Reason : The speed of sound in a gas is proportional to the square of the pressure.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 2.
Assertion : Sound travels faster in solids than in gases.
Reason : Solid posses a greater density than that of gases.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

VI. Answer very briefly:

Question 1.
What is a longitudinal wave?
Answer:
In longitudinal wave, the particles of the medium vibrate along the direction of the wave.

Question 2.
What is the audible range of frequency?
Answer:
Audible waves: These are sound waves with a frequency ranging between 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz.

Question 3.
What is the minimum distance needed for an echo?
Answer:
The minimum distance needed for an echo is 17.2 metre.

Question 4.
What will be the frequency sound having 0.20 m as its wavelength when it travels with a speed of 331 ms^-1?
Answer:
Frequency of sound = \(\frac{\text { velocity of sound }}{\text { wavelength of sound }}\)
\(n=\frac{v}{\lambda}=\frac{331}{0.20}\)
n = 1655 Hz.

Question 5.
Name three animals, which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
Answer:
The animals are dogs, bats and dolphins.

VII. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Why does sound travel faster on a rainy day than on a dry day?
Answer:
When humidity increases, the speed of sound increases. Hence, sound travels faster on a rainy day than a dry day.

Question 2.
Why does an empty vessel produce more sound than a filled one?
Answer:
The intensity of sound is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude of vibration. I ∝ A² since, the amplitude of vibration of air molecules (empty vessel) is greater than liquid molecules (filled vessel), therefore empty vessel produces a louder sound than the filled vessel.

Question 3.
Air temperature in the Rajasthan desert can reach 46°C. What is the velocity of sound in air at that temperature? (V_o = 331 ms^-1)
Answer:
Velocity of sound at 0°C is V_o = 331 ms^-1
Let the sound at 46°C is be v_t
\(\frac{v_t}{v_o}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac{273+T}{273}}\)
where temperature is T = 46°C

= 1.080
v_t = 331 × 1.080 = 357.48 m/s.
∴ Velocity of sound in air at that temperature = 357.48 m/s.

Question 4.
Explain why the ceilings of concert halls are curved.
Answer:

1. These are basically curved surfaces (concave), which are used in auditoria and halls to improve the quality of sound. This board is placed such that the speaker is at the focus of the concave surface.
2. The sound of the speaker is reflected towards the audience thus improving the quality of sound heard by the audience.

Question 5.
Mention two cases in which there is no Doppler effect in sound?
Answer:

1. When source (S) and listener (L) both are at rest.
2. When S and L move in such a way that distance between them remains constant.

VIII. Problem Corner:

Question 1.
A sound wave has a frequency of 200 Hz and a speed of 400 ms-1 in a medium. Find the wavelength of the sound wave.
Answer:
Speed of sound wave v = 400 m/s
Frequency of sound wave n = 200 Hz
∴ Wavelength sound wave λ = \(\frac{v}{n}\)
= \(\frac{400}{200}\) = 2 m
∴ Wavelength = 2 m

Question 2.
The thunder of the cloud is heard 9.8 seconds later than the flash of lightning. If the speed of sound in air is 330 ms^-1, what will be the height of the cloud?
Solution:
The height of the cloud (distance) = speed of sound × time
d = v × t = 330 × 9.8 = 3234 m
The height of the cloud is 3234 m.

Question 3.
A person who is sitting at a distance of 400 m from a source of sound is listening to a sound of 600 Hz. Find the time period between successive compressions from the source?
Answer:
Distance of the observer = 400 m
Frequency of sound n = 600 Hz
Let velocity of sound be v = 330 \(\frac{m}{s}\)
Wavelength λ = \(\frac{v}{n}\) = \(\frac{330}{600}\)
= 55 × 10^-2 = 0.55 m
Distance between two successive compressions is \(\frac{λ}{2}\)
Time period successive compressions is = \(\frac{1}{\frac{λ}{2}}\)
= \(\frac{2}{λ}\) = \(\frac{2}{0.55}\)
T = \(\frac{2}{0.55}\) = 3.6363 second
Time period = 3.6363 second.

Question 4.
An ultrasonic wave is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is found that the time interval between the transmission and reception of the wave is 1.6 seconds. What is the depth of the sea, if the velocity of sound in the seawater is 1400 ms^-1?
Answer:
Time interval t = 1.6 s
Velocity of sound in water = 1400 m/s.
Depth of the sea = \(\frac{v×t}{2}\)
= \(\frac{1400×1.6}{2}\)
= 1120 m
Depth of the sea = 1120 m

Question 5.
A man is standing between two vertical walls 680 m apart. He claps his hands and hears two distinct echoes after 0.9 seconds and 1.1 second respectively. What is the speed of sound in the air?
Answer:
Distance between two walls λ = 680 m.
Time periods T₁ = 0.9 s
T₂ = 1.1 s
∴ Frequencies n₁ = \(\frac{1}{T_1}\) = \(\frac{1}{0.9}\) = \(\frac{10}{9}\)
= 1.11 Hz
n₂ = \(\frac{1}{T_2}\)
= \(\frac{1}{1.1}\) = \(\frac{10}{11}\)
= 0.9090 Hz.
Difference x₁ – x₂ = 1.11 – 0.9090
= 0.201 Hz
Speed of sound = (n₁ – n₂)λ
= 0.201 × 680 = 136.68

Question 6.
Two observers are stationed in two boats 4.5 km apart. A sound signal sent by one, underwater, reaches the other after 3 seconds. What is the speed of sound in the water?
Solution:
Distance between the two boats, d = 4.5 km
d = 4500 m
Time, t = 3 seconds
Speed of sound in the water = \(\frac{\text { Distance travelled by sound }}{\text { Time taken }}\) = \(\frac{4500}{3}\)
v = 1500 ms^-1.

Question 7.
A strong sound signal is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is received back after Is.What is the depth of sea given that the speed of sound in water 1450 ms^-1?
Answer:
Speed of sound in water v = 1450 m/s
Time taken t = 1 + 1 = 2 s.
Depth of the sea d = \(\frac{v}{t}\)
= \(\frac{1450}{2}\)
= 725 m
Depth of the sea = 725 m.

IX. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
What are the factors that affect the speed of sound in gases?
Answer:
Effect of density:
The velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of the density of the gas. Hence, the velocity decreases as the density of the gas increases.
\(v \propto \sqrt{\frac{1}{d}}\)

Effect of temperature:
(i) The velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its temperature.
(ii) The velocity of sound in gas increases with the increase in temperature,
v ∝ √T Velocity at temperature T is given by the following equation:
v_T = (v₀ + 0.61 T) ms^-1
Here, v₀ is the velocity of sound in the gas at 0° C. For air, v₀ = 331 ms^-1.
Hence, the velocity of sound changes by 0.61 ms^-1 when the temperature changes by one – degree celsius.

Effect of relative humidity: When humidity increases, the speed of sound increases. That is why we can hear sound from long distances clearly during rainy seasons.

Question 2.
What is mean by reflection of sound? Explain:
(a) Reflection at the boundary of a rarer medium.
(b) Reflection at the boundary of a denser medium.
(c) Reflection at curved surfaces.
Answer:
When sound waves travel in a given medium and strike the surface of another medium, they can be bounced back into the first medium. This phenomenon is known as reflection.
(a) Reflection at the boundary of a rarer medium :

Consider a wave travelling in a solid medium striking on the interface between the solid and the air. The compression exerts a force F on the surface of the rarer medium. As a rarer medium has smaller resistance for any defonnation, the surface of separation is pushed backwards. As the particles of the rarer medium are free to move, a rarefaction is produced at the interface. Thus, a compression is reflected as a rarefaction and a rarefaction travels from right to left.

(b) Reflection at the boundary of a denser medium :

A longitudinal wave travels in a medium in the form of compressions and rarefactions. Suppose a compression travelling in air from left to right reaches a rigid wall. The compression exerts a force F on the rigid wall. In turn, the wall exerts an equal and opposite reaction R = – F on the air molecules.

This results in a compression near the rigid wall. Thus, a compression travelling towards the rigid wall is reflected back as a compression. That is the direction of compression is reversed.

(c) Reflection at curved surfaces :
When the sound waves are reflected from the curved surfaces, the intensity of the reflected waves is changed. When reflected from a convex surface, the reflected waves are diverged out and the intensity is decreased. When sound is reflected from a concave surface, the reflected waves are converged and focused at a point. So the intensity of reflected waves is concentrated at a point.

Question 3.
(a) What do you understand by the term ‘ultrasonic vibration’?
(b) State three uses of ultrasonic vibrations.
(c) Name three animals which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
Answer:
(a) Ultrasonic Vibration: The vibrations whose frequencies are greater than 20000 Hz are called ultrasonic vibrations.

(b) (i) They are used in SONAR to measure the depth of the sea (or ocean) and to locate underwater objects.
(ii) It is used for scanning and imaging the position and growth of a foetus and presence of stones in the gall bladder and kidney.
(iii) It is used for homogenising milk in milk plants where fresh milk is agitated with the desired quantity of fat and powdered milk to obtain toned milk.

(c) Mosquito, Dogs and Bats are the three animals that can hear ultrasonic vibrations.

Question 4.
What is an echo?
Answer:
An echo is the sound reproduced due to the reflection of the original sound wave.

(a) State two conditions necessary for hearing an echo.
(b) What are the medical applications of echo?
(c) How can you calculate the speed of sound using echo?
Answer:
(a) (i) The persistence of hearing for human ears is 0.1 second. This means that you can hear two sound waves clearly, if the time interval between the two sounds is at least 0.1 s. Thus, the minimum time gap between the original sound and an echo must be 0.1 s.

(ii) The above criterion can be satisfied only when the distance between the source of sound and the reflecting surface would satisfy the following equation:

Since, t = 0.1 second, then
d = \(\frac{v×0.1}{2}\) = \(\frac{v}{20}\)
Thus the minimum distance required to hear an echo is 1/20^th part of the magnitude of the velocity of sound in air. If you consider the velocity of sound as 344 ms^-1, the minimum distance required to hear an echo is 17.2 m.

(b) The principle of echo is used in obstetric ultrasonography, which is used to create real-time visual images of the developing embryo or foetus in the mother’s uterus. This is a safe testing tool, as it does not use any harmful radiations.

(c) The sound pulse emitted by the source travels a total distance of 2d while travelling from the source to the wall and then back to the receiver. The time taken for this has been observed to be ‘t’. Hence, the speed of sound wave is given by:
Speed of sound

X. HOT Questions

Question 1.
Suppose that a sound wave and a light wave have the same frequency, then which one has a longer wavelength?
(a) Sound, (b) Light, (c) both a and b, (d) data not sufficient
Answer:
(b) Light: Since the velocity of light (C = 3 × 10⁸ m/s) is greater than the velocity of sound, light wave has a longer wavelength.

Question 2.
When sound is reflected from a distant object, an echo is produced. Let the distance between the reflecting surface and the source of sound remain the same. Do you hear an echo sound on a hotter day? Justify your answer.
Answer:
An echo can only be heard if it reaches the ear after 0.1 secs.
\(\text { Time taken }=\frac{\text { Totaldistance }}{\text { Velocity }}\)
As on a hotter day, the velocity of sound is more. So if the time taken by the echo is less than 0.1 sec than it won’t be heard.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Acoustics Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Sound waves are:
(a) Transverse waves
(b) Longitudinal waves
(c) Waves
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Longitudinal waves

Question 2.
The velocity of sound in air is ______.
(a) faster in dry air than in moist air
(b) directly proportional to temperature.
(c) directly proportional to pressure.
(d) Slower in dry air than in moist air.
Answer:
(b) directly proportional to temperature.
Hint: v ∝ √T

Question 3.
Which of the following does not affect the velocity of sound?
(a) mass of the gas
(b) density of the gas
(c) temperature of the gas
(d) pressure of the gas
Answer:
(d) pressure of the gas

Question 4.
The apparent frequency in Doppler’s effect does not depend upon.
(a) Speed of the listener.
(b) Distance between the listener and the source.
(c) Speed of the source.
(d) Frequency of the source.
Answer:
(b) Distance between the listener and the source.
Hint: Apparent frequency in Doppler’s effect depends on frequency of the source, direction and velocity of source and listener. It does not depend on the distance between the listener and the source.

Question 5.
Sound of frequency 256 Hz passes through a medium. The maximum displacement is 0.1 m. The maximum velocity is:
(a) 60π m/s
(b) 30π m/s
(c) 51.2π m/s
(d) 512π m/s
Answer:
(c) 51.2π m/s

Question 6.
The speed of a wave in a medium is 760 ms^-1. If 3600 waves the medium in 2 min, then its wavelength is ______.
(a) 13.8 m
(b) 41.5 m
(c) 25.3 m
(d) 57.2 m.
Answer:
(c) 25.3 m
Hint: Number of waves crossing a point per second.
\(\begin{array}{l}{n=\frac{3600}{2 \times 60}=30} \\ {\lambda=\frac{v}{n}=\frac{760}{30}=25.3 \mathrm{m}}\end{array}\).

Question 7.
Two waves are propagating with same amplitude and nearly same frequency in opposite they result in:
(a) longitudinal wave
(b) transverse wave
(c) stationary wave
(d) resonance wave
Answer:
(c) stationary wave

Question 8.
Of these properties of a sound wave, the one that is independent of others is its:
(a) speed
(b) frequency
(c) wavelength
(d) amplitude
Answer:
(d) amplitude

Question 9.
No echo will be heard if the distance between the reflecting obstacle and the source is:
(a) greater than 17.2 m
(b) less than 17.2 m
(c) less than 34.4 m
(d) greater than 34.4 m
Answer:
(b) less than 17.2 m

Question 10.
The velocity of sound in a gas is independent of:
(a) temperature
(b) density
(c) humidity
(d) pressure
Answer:
(d) pressure

Question 11.
The velocity of sound increases for every degree rise of temperature by:
(a) 1 ms^-1
(b) 330 m/s
(c) 0.61 ms^-1
(d) 6.1 m/s
Answer:
(c) 0.61 ms^-1

Question 12.
Longitudinal waves are characterised by:
(a) crest and troughs
(b) compressions and rarefactions
(c) nodes and antinodes
(d) wavelength and frequency
Answer:
(b) compressions and rarefactions

Question 13.
If the frequency of waves lies between 20 Hz and 20 KHz then, they are:
(a) infrasonic waves
(b) ultrasonic waves
(c) audible waves
(d) transverse waves
Answer:
(c) audible waves

Question 14.
The frequency of an infrasonic wave is:
(a) 20 Hz
(b) below 20 Hz
(c) above 20 Hz
(d) above 20 KHz
Answer:
(b) below 20 Hz

Question 15.
The sound waves having frequency greater than 20 KHz are known as:
(a) audible waves
(b) ultrasonic waves
(c) infrasonic waves
(d) mechanical waves
Answer:
(b) ultrasonic waves

Question 16.
Which of the following waves cannot be detected by human ear?
(a) audible wave
(b) infrasonic wave
(c) ultrasonic wave
(d) mechanical wave
Answer:
(c) ultrasonic wave

Question 17.
Which waves are generated by stretched strings?
(a) audible waves
(b) sound waves
(c) ultrasonic waves
(d) infrasonic waves
Answer:
(a) audible waves

Question 18.
The waves produced during earthquake, ocean waves are known as:
(a) audible waves
(b) infrasonic waves
(c) ultrasonic waves
(d) mechanical waves
Answer:
(b) infrasonic waves

Question 19.
Sound wave belong to:
(a) mechanical waves
(b) electromagnetic waves
(c) transverse waves
(d) waves
Answer:
(a) mechanical waves

Question 20.
The waves produced by bats are called:
(a) infrasonic waves
(b) ultrasonic waves
(c) electromagnetic waves
(d) mechanical waves
Answer:
(b) ultrasonic waves

Question 21.
At N.T.P speed of sound waves in air is about:
(a) 3 x 108 m/s
(b) 3 x 10″8 m/s
(c) 340 cm/s
(d) 340 m/s
Answer:
(d) 340 m/s

Question 22.
Sound waves are:
(a) mechanical waves
(b) longitudinal waves
(c) transverse waves
(d) waves
Answer:
(b) longitudinal waves

Question 23.
The velocity of sound is least in ………. medium.
(a) solid
(b) liquid
(c) gaseous
(d) water
Answer:
(c) gaseous

Question 24.
Velocity of sound ……… as the density of the solid increases.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) changes
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) decreases

Question 25.
Velocity of sound at a temperature T is given by:
(a) V_T = (V₀ + 0.61 T)
(b) V_T = \(\frac{V_0}{273}\)
(c) V_T = (V₀ – 0.61 T)
(d) V_T = V₀(0.61T)
Answer:
(a) V_T = (V₀ + 0.61 T)

Question 26.
In the case of reflection of sound waves angle of incidence is:
(a) less than angle of incidence
(b) equal to angle of incidence
(c) greater than angle of incidence
(d) greater than angle of refraction.
Answer:
(b) equal to angle of incidence

Question 27.
The direction of compression is reversed during:
(a) refraction
(b) reflection at the boundary of a denser medium
(c) reflection at the boundary of a rarer medium
(d) reflection at the boundary of a curved surface
Answer:
(b) reflection at the boundary of a denser medium

Question 28.
Which of the following property of sound waves is used in ultrasonography?
(a) Reflection of sound
(b) Refraction of sound
(c) Echo sound
(d) Doppler effect sound
Answer:
(c) Echo sound

Question 29.
Which of the following is application of reflection of sound?
(a) Mega phone
(b) Ear trumpet
(c) Sound board
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 30.
In Doppler effect when the source and listener move away from each other, the apparent frequency is given by:

Answer:
(a)

Question 31.
When a listener approaches a stationary source, the apparent frequency is given by:

Answer:
(b)

Question 32.
If a source and a listener move towards each other, then the apparent frequency is:

Answer:
(c)

Question 33.
When a source recedes from a stationary listener the apparent frequency is:

Answer:
(a)

Question 34.
When a source moves towards a stationary listener the ratio of apparent frequency to the original frequency is:

Answer:
(b)

Question 35.
When source and listener move one behind the other the apparent frequency is

Answer:
(c)

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The vibrating bodies produce waves in the form of ………
2. For the propagation of sound, a ………. is required.
3. The frequency range of audible waves is ………..
4. The frequency of infrasonic waves is …………
5. The sound waves with a frequency greater than 20 KHz are known as ………..
6. The wavelength of sound waves ranges from ………..
7. Sound waves are ……….
8. If wavelength of a wave is λ and its time period is T, then velocity of sound wave is ………..
9. If n is the frequency and λ is the wavelength of sound wave then is velocity of wave is given by …………
10. The ascending order of velocity of sound in solids, liquids and gases is given by …………
11. Velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the ………… of the medium.
12. Velocity of sound in solid is directly proportional to the square root of the ……….. of the medium.
13. Sound can be heard from long distances clearly during …………..
14. When the temperature of a gas changes by one degree Celsius, the velocity of sound changes by ………..
15. In the case of reflection of sound, angle of incidence is equal to ………….
16. When sound waves undergo reflection by convex surface, its intensity is ………..
17. ……….. are used when sound waves have to be focused at a point.
18. In ……….. surfaces, sound from one focus will always be reflected to the other focus.
19. The reproduction of sound due to the reflection of sound is known as …………
20. The minimum time gap between the original sound and an echo must be ………..
21. Echo is used to determine the velocity of ………… in any medium.
22. A horn-shaped device works on the principle of ………….
23. The phenomenon in which the frequency of sound heard by a listener is different from that of sound emitted by the source due to ……….. between a source and a listener is known as Doppler effect.
24. When the distance between the source and listener decreases, the apparent frequency is ………..
25. Apparent frequency in Doppler effect depends on the ……….. of the source and the listener.
26. When a listener moves away from a source at rest, the apparent frequency is n’ = ………..
27. When distance between source listener decreases, the apparent frequency is ………. than ……….. frequency.
28. If the medium moves with a velocity W in a direction opposite to the propagation of sound then, velocity of sound v becomes ………..
29. If the apparent frequency is n’ = (\(\frac{V}{V+V_{S}}\))n then source moves ………….. the ……….. listener.
30. If a listener moves towards the ………. source, the apparent frequency n’ = (\(\frac{V+V_{L}}{V}\))n.
Answer:
1. sound waves
2. medium
3. From 20 Hz to 20 KHz
4. below 20 Hz
5. ultrasonic waves
6. 1.65 cm to 1.65 m
7. longitudinal
8. V = \(\frac{λ}{T}\)
9. V = nλ
10. V_S > V_L > V_G
11. density
12. elastic modulus
13. rainy seasons
14. 0.61 m/s
15. the angle of reflection
16. decreased
17. parabolic surface
18. elliptical
19. echo
20. 0.1 second
21. sound waves
22. echo
23. relative motion
24. n’ = (\(\frac{V+V_{L}}{V-V_{S}}\))n
25. velocities
26. (\(\frac{V+V_{L}}{V}\))n
27. more, actual
29. [V – W]
29. away from, stationary
30. stationary

III. True/False Questions: (If false give the reason)

1. Sound waves are transverse waves by nature.
2. Longitudinal waves are characterised by compressions and rarefactions.
3. Medium is not required for the propagation of light.
4. Ultrasonic waves are the waves with a frequency about 20 KHz.
5. Velocity of sound is the greatest in gas.
6. Velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its temperature.
7. According to law of reflection of sound, angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection.
8. When sound waves are reflected from a plane surface, the intensity of the reflected wave is neither decreased nor increased.
9. Ear trumpet works on the principle of reflection of sound.
10. The principle of SONAR is Doppler effect.
Answer:
1. False – Sound waves are longitudinal waves by nature.
2. True
3. True
4. False – Ultrasonic waves are the waves with a frequency greater than 20 KHz.
5. False – Velocity of sound is the least in gas.
6. True
7. True
8. True
9. False – Ear trumpet works on the principle of reflection of sound.
10. True

IV. Match the following:

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (D)
(ii) – (E)
(iii) – (A)
(iv) – (B)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (D)
(ii) – (A)
(iii) – (B)
(iv) – (E)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (E)
(ii) – (F)
(iii) – (A)
(iv) – (C)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (C)
(ii) – (E)
(iii) – (A)
(iv) – (D)

V. Assertion and Reason Questions:

Question 1.
Assertion: Sound waves cannot be propagated through vacuum but light can be transmitted.
Reason: Sound waves cannot be polarised but light wave can be polarised.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: Ocean waves hitting a beach are always found to be nearly normal to the shore.
Reason: Ocean waves hitting a beach are assumed to be plane waves.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: Speed of a wave is the ratio between wavelength and time period of a wave.
Reason: Wavelength is the distance between two nearest particles in phase.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: When a people moves along the sand within few centimetres of a sand scorpion, the scorpion immediately turns towards the people and dashes towards it.
Reason: When a people disturbs the sand, it sends pulses along the sand’s surface. One set of pulses is longitudinal and other set is transverse.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 5.
Assertion: Light waves are transverse.
Reason: Light waves travel in air with a velocity of 3 × 10⁸ m/s .
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 6.
Assertion: Velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the density of a gas.
Reason: When humidity increases the velocity of sound increases.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 7.
Assertion: Echo is produced due to the reflection of sound from walls, mountains etc.
Reason: Echo is used in ultrasonography.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 8.
Assertion: Doppler effect is due to relative motion between the source and listener.
Reason: Echo is used in RADAR and SONAR.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

VI. Answers very briefly:

Question 1.
What is the nature of sound waves?
Answer:
Sound waves travel through any medium in the form of longitudinal waves.

Question 2.
How is the sound produced?
Answer:
By touching a ringing bell or a musical instrument while it is producing music, we conclude that sound is produced by vibrations.

Question 3.
A wave travelling in a medium has time period T and wavelength λ. How T and λ are related?
Answer:
Wave velocity v = \(\frac{λ}{T}\)
(or) λ = vT

Question 4.
Why don’t we hear sounds when our ears are closed?
Answer:

• We hear the sound even when we close our ears but its magnitude and frequency is very less due to the obstruction of our hands.
• It also depends upon the frequency and loudness of the sound.

Question 5.
What is the relation between frequency and wavelength?
Answer:
Wave velocity = Frequency × Wavelength
v = vλ

Question 6.
What do you understand by the term ‘infrasonic vibration’?
Answer:
Infrasonic waves: These are sound waves with a frequency below 20 Hz that cannot be heard by the human ear. E.g., waves produced during an earthquake, ocean waves, the sound produced by whales, etc.

Question 7.
What is the range of audible frequency?
Answer:
The audible range of frequency is from 20 Hz to 20 KHz.

VII. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
State the differences between sound and light.
Answer:

Question 2.
What is meant by particle velocity?
Answer:
The velocity with which the particles of the medium vibrate in order to transfer the energy in the form of a wave is called particle velocity.

Question 3.
What do you know about wave velocity?
Answer:
The velocity with which the wave travels through the medium is called wave velocity. In other words, the distance travelled by a sound wave in unit time is called the velocity of a sound wave.
∴ velocity = \(\frac{Distance}{Time taken}\)

Question 4.
Define wave velocity.
Answer:
Wave velocity is defined as the distance travelled per second by a sound wave. Since,
Frequency (n) = 1/T, V = \(\frac{λ}{T}\) can be written as V = nλ.

Question 5.
What is the effect of density of a gas on the velocity of sound?
Answer:
The velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of the density of the gas. Hence, the velocity decreases as the density of the gas increases.
V ∝\(\sqrt{\frac{1}{d}}\)

Question 6.
What is the effect of temperature of a gas on the velocity of sound?
Answer:
The velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its temperature. The velocity of sound in a gas increases with the increase in temperature.
V ∝ √T . Velocity at temperature T is given by the following equation:
V_T = (V₀ + 0.61T) ms²

Question 7.
What are the factors affect the speed of sound in gases?
Answer:

• Effect of density
• Effect of temperature
• Effect of humidity

Question 8.
What do you know about reflection of sound from a plane surface?
Answer:
When sound waves are reflected from a plane surface, the reflected waves travel in a direction, according to the law of reflection. The intensity of the reflected wave is neither decreased nor increased.

Question 9.
Write a note on whispering gallery.
Answer:
One of the famous whispering galleries is in St. Paul’s cathedral church in London. It is built with elliptically shaped walls. When a person is talking at one focus, his voice can be heard distinctly at the other focus. It is due to the multiple reflections of sound waves from the curved walls.

Question 10.
How is echo of sound produced?
Answer:
An echo is the sound reproduced due to the reflection of the original sound from various rigid surfaces such as walls, ceilings, surfaces of mountains, etc…

Question 11.
Write short notes about mega phone.
Answer:
A megaphone is a horn-shaped device used to address a small gathering of people. Its one end is wide and the other end is narrow. When a person speaks . at the narrow end, the sound of his speech is concentrated by the multiple reflections from the walls of the tube. Thus, his voice can be heard loudly over a long distance.

Question 12.
Define Doppler effect.
Answer:
When ever there is a relative motion between a source and a listener, the frequency of the sound heard by the listener is different from the original frequency of sound emitted by the source. This is known as “Doppler effect”.

Question 13.
How Doppler effect is used to measure the speed of an automobile?
Answer:
An electromagnetic wave is emitted by a source attached to a police car. The wave is reflected by a moving vehicle, which acts as a moving source. There is a shift in the frequency of the reflected wave. From the frequency shift, the speed of the car can be determined. This helps to track the over speeding vehicles.

Question 14.
How is Doppler effect utilised in tracking a satellite?
Answer:
The frequency of radio waves emitted by a satellite decreases as the satellite passes away from the Earth. By measuring the change in the frequency of the radio waves, the location of the satellites is studied.

Question 15.
How is the location of aircrafts found out?
Answer:
In RADAR, radio waves are sent, and the reflected waves are detected by the receiver of the RADAR station. From the frequency change, the speed and location of the aeroplanes and aircrafts are tracked.

Question 16.
How is the speed of submarine estimated?
Answer:
In SONAR, by measuring the change in the frequency between the sent signal and received signal, the speed of marine animals and submarines can be determined.

VIII. Numerical problems:

Question 1.
How far does the sound travel in air when a tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz makes 64 vibrations? Velocity of sound in air = 340 m/s².
Answer:
Velocity of sound in air v = 340 m/s
Frequency v = 256 Hz
Distance travelled by the wave in one vibration is equal to its wavelength. Wavelength λ = \(\frac{v}{V}\)
= \(\frac{340}{256}\) = 1.328 m
Distance travelled by the wave in 64 vibrations
= 1.328 × 64
= 84.992 m = 85 m

Question 2.
A train moving with velocity 30 ms^-1 blows a whistle of frequency 516 Hz. Find the pitch of the sound heard by a passenger ¡n another train approaching the first at a speed of 15 ms^-1, the velocity of sound = 330 ms^-1.
Solution:
It both the trains are approaching each other.
The apparent frequency, \(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v+v_{o}}{v-v_{\mathrm{s}}}\right) n\)
\(\begin{array}{l}{n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{330+15}{330-30}\right) \times 516} \\ {n=\frac{345}{300} \times 516=1.15 \times 516} \\ {n^{\prime}=593.4 \mathrm{Hz}}\end{array}\).

Question 3.
A body generates waves of 100 mm long through medium A and 0.25 m long in medium B. If the velocity of waves in medium A is 80 cm s^-1. Then, calculate the velocity of waves in medium B.
Answer:
In medium A wavelength λ_A = 100 mm
= 0.1 m
In medium A velocity v_A = 80 m/s
= 0.8 m/s
In medium B let velocity be v_B
In medium B, wavelength λ_B = 0.25 m
As the frequency of the wave remains same in the two media, so

= 2 m/s
∴ Velocity of waves in the medium B = 2 m/s

Question 4.
A radio station broadcasts its programme at 219.3 m wavelength. Determine the frequency of radio waves if velocity of radio waves 3 × 10⁸ m/s.
Answer:
Velocity of radio waves v = 3 × 10⁸ m/s
Wavelength of radio waves λ = 219.3 m
∴ Frequency of radio waves v = \(\frac{v}{λ}\)
v = \(\frac{3×10^8}{219.3}\)
= 0.013679 × 10⁸
= 13679 × 10² Hz
= 1.36 79 × 10³ Hz
Frequency v = 1.3679 KHz

Question 5.
The speed of a wave in a medium is 960 m/s. If 3600 waves are passing through a point in the medium in 1 minute, then calculate its wavelength.
Answer:
Speed of a wave v = 960 m/s
Frequency of the wave v = 3600 m^-1
\(\frac{3600}{60}\) = 60 s^-1
Wavelength λ = \(\frac{v}{V}\)
\(\frac{960}{60}\) = 16 m
Wavelength = 16 m

Question 6.
If a splash is heard 4.23 second after a stone is dropped into a well 78.4 m deep then calculate the speed of sound in air.
Answer:
For downward motion of the stone,
Initial velocity u = 0
Acceleration a = 9.8 m/s²
Distance S = 74.8 m.
Time t = ?
S = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at²
78.4 = 0 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9.8 t²
= 4.9 t²
∴ t² = \(\frac{78.4}{4.9}\) = 16
∴ t = 4 s
Let ‘t’ be the time taken by the splash of sound to reach the top of the well.
Then,
t + t’ = 4 +t’ = 4.23 s
∴ t = 4.23 – 4 = 0.23 s
∴ Speed of sound in air
\(\frac{distence}{Time}\)
= \(\frac{78.4}{0.23}\)
= 340.87 m/s

Question 7.
At what temperature will the speed of sound be double its value at 273 K?
Answer:
We know that velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to square root of its temperature

T₁ = 0°C = 0 + 273 = 273 K
v₁ = 2v₁ T₂ = ?

∴ T₂ = 4 × 273 = 1092 K
Required temperature = 1092 K

Question 8.
A listener moves towards a stationary source of sound with a velocity one fifth of the velocity of sound. What is the percentage increase in the apparent frequency?
Answer:
Hence listener moves towards the source.
V_L = –\(\frac{V}{5}\), V_S = 0
V_L – Velocity of listener
V_S – Velocity of source
V – Velocity of sound
Apparent frequency = n’

The percentage increase in apparent frequency

= 20%

Question 9.
A siren is fitted on a car going towards a vertical wall at a speed of 36 Kmph. A person standing on the ground behind the car, listens to the siren sound coming directly from the source as well as that coming after reflection from the wall. Calculate the apparent frequency of the wave coming directly from the siren to the person.
Answer:
Velocity of source = 36 Kmph
V_S = 36 × \(\frac{5}{18}\) = 10 m/s
Velocity of sound v = 340 m/s
Frequency n = 500 Hz
For the sound coming directly from the siren to the listener, source (siren) is moving away from the listener so
V_S = -10 m/s V₂ = 0
Apparent frequency of the wave

= 485.7 Hz

Question 10.
The sirens of two fire engines have a frequency of 600 Hz each. A man hears the sirens from the two engines, one approaching him with a speed of 30 Kmph and the car going away from him at a speed of 54 Kmph. What is the difference in frequency of two sirens heard by the man?
Answer:
Velocity of sound be 340 m/s
Frequency n = 600 Hz
Velocity of sound
V = 340 m/s
Velocity of source
Vs = 36 Kmph
\(\frac{36×5}{18}\) = 10 m/s
Velocity listener
V_S = 0
For the engine approaching man

= 618.2 Hz
For the engine going away from the man
V_S = -54 Kmph
= -54 × \(\frac{5}{18}\) = -15 m/s
Velocity of listener V_L = 0
Apparent frequency

Difference in frequencies = n’ – n” = 618.2 – 574.6
= 43.6 Hz

IX. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
Explain the nature of sound waves.
Answer:
Sound waves are longitudinal waves that can travel through any medium (solids, liquids, gases) with a speed that depends on the properties of the medium. As sound travels through a medium, the particles of the medium vibrate along the direction of propagation of the wave. This displacement involves the longitudinal displacements of the individual molecules from their mean positions. This results in a series of high and low pressure regions called compressions and rarefactions.

Question 2.
Explain in the details of measuring the velocity of sound by the Echo method.
Answer:
Apparatus required:
A source of sound pulses, a measuring tape, a sound receiver, and a stopwatch.
Procedure:

• Measure the distance d between the source of sound pulse and the reflecting surface using the measuring tape.
• The receiver is also placed adjacent to the source. A sound pulse is emitted by the source.
• The stopwatch is used to note the time interval between the instant at which the sound pulse is sent and the instant at which the echo is received by the receiver. Note the time interval as ‘t’.
• Repeat the experiment for three or four times. The average time taken for the given number of pulses is calculated.

Calculation of speed of sound:

• The sound pulse emitted by the source travels a total distance of 2d while travelling from the source to the wall and then back to the receiver.
• The time taken for this has been observed to be ‘t’. Hence, the speed of the sound wave is given by:
  \(\text { Speed of sound }=\frac{\text { Distance travelled }}{\text { Time taken }}=\frac{2 d}{t}\)

Question 3.
Explain laws of reflection with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
The following two laws of reflection are applicable to sound waves as well.
(i) The incident wave, the normal to the reflecting surface and the reflected wave at the point of incidence lie in the same plane.
(ii) The angle of incidence ∠i is equal to the angle of reflection ∠r.
These laws can be observed from figure

In the above Figure, the sound waves that travel towards the reflecting surface are called the incident waves. The sound waves bouncing back from the reflecting surface are called reflected waves. For all practical purposes, the point of incidence and the point of reflection is the same point on the reflecting surface.

A perpendicular line drawn at the point of incidence is called the normal. The angle which the incident sound wave makes with the normal is called the angle of incidence, ‘i’. The angle which the reflected wave makes with the normal is called the angle of reflection, ‘r’.

Question 4.
Explain applications of echo.
Answer:
(i) Some animals communicate with each other over long distances and also locate objects by sending the sound signals and receiving the echo as reflected from the targets.

(ii) The principle of echo is used in obstetric ultrasonography, which is used to create real-time visual images of the developing embryo or fetus in the mother’s uterus. This is a safe testing tool, as it does not use any harmful radiations.

(iii) Echo is used to determine the velocity of sound waves in any medium.

Question 5.
Explain various applications of Doppler effect.
Answer:
1. To measure the speed of an automobile:
An electromagnetic wave is emitted by a source attached to a police car. The wave is reflected by a moving vehicle, which acts as a moving source. There is a shift in the frequency of the reflected wave. From the frequency shift, the speed of the car can be determined. This helps to track the over speeding vehicles.

2. Tracking a satellite:
The frequency of radio waves emitted by a satellite decreases as the satellite passes away from the Earth. By measuring the change in the frequency of the radio waves, the location of the satellites is studied.

3. RADAR (Radio Detection and Ranging):
In RADAR, radio waves are sent, and the reflected waves are detected by the receiver of the RADAR station. From the frequency change, the speed and location of the aeroplanes and aircraft are tracked.

4. SONAR:
In SONAR, by measuring the change in the frequency between the sent signal and received signal, the speed of marine animals and submarines can be determined.

Question 6.
Describe (i) Soundboard
(ii) Ear trumpet and
(iii) Megaphone.
Answer:
(i) Sound Board: These are basically curved surfaces (concave), which are used in auditoria and halls to improve the quality of sound. This board is placed such that the speaker is at the focus of the concave surface. The sound of the speaker is reflected towards the audience thus improving the quality of sound heard by the audience.

(ii) Ear trumpet: Ear trumpet is a hearing aid, which is useful by people who have difficulty in hearing. In this device, one end is wide and the other end is narrow. The sound from the sources fall into the wide end and are reflected by its walls into the narrow part of the device. This helps in concentrating the sound and the sound enters the eardrum with more intensity. This enables a person to hear the sound better.

(iii) MegaPhone: A megaphone is a horn-shaped device used to address a small gathering of people. Its one end is wide and the other end is narrow. When a person speaks at the narrow end, the sound of his speech is concentrated by the multiple reflections from the walls of the tube. Thus, his voice can be heard loudly over a long distance.

Question 7.
What is the Doppler effect? Explain it in several situations.
Answer:
Whenever there is a relative motion between a source and a listener, the frequency of the sound heard by the listener is different from the original frequency of sound emitted by the source. This is known as “Doppler effect”.

For simplicity of calculation, it is assumed that the medium is at rest, That is the velocity of the medium is zero. Let S and L be the source and the listener moving with velocities v_S and v_L respectively. Consider the case of source and listener moving towards each other. As the distance between them decreases, the apparent frequency will be more than the actual source frequency.

Let n and n’ be the frequency of the sound produced by the source and the sound observed by the listener respectively. Then, the expression for the apparent frequency n’ is
n’ = (\(\frac{V+V_L}{V-V_S}\))n
Here, v is the velocity of sound waves in the given medium. Let us consider different possibilities of motions of the source and the listener. In all such cases, the expression for the apparent frequency is given in table

Suppose the medium (say wind) is moving with a velocity W in the direction of the propagation of sound. For this case, the velocity of sound, ‘v’ should be replaced with (v + W). If the medium moves in a direction opposite to the propagation of sound, then ‘v’ should be replaced with (v – W).

Question 8.
Describe the applications of Doppler effect.
Answer:
(i) To measure the speed of an automobile : An electromagnetic wave is emitted by a source attached to a police car. The wave is reflected by a moving vehicle, which acts as a moving source. There is a shift in the frequency of the reflected wave. From the frequency shift, the speed of the car can be determined. This helps to track the over speeding vehicles.

(ii) Tracking a satellite : The frequency of radio waves emitted by a satellite decreases as the satellite passes away from the Earth. By measuring the change in the frequency of the radio waves, the location of the satellites is studied.

(iii) RADAR (RAdio Detection And Ranging) : In RADAR, radio waves are sent, and the reflected waves are detected by the receiver of the RADAR station. From the frequency change, the speed and location of the aeroplanes and aircrafts are tracked.

(iv) SONAR (SOund Navigation And Ranging) : In SONAR, by measuring the change in the frequency between the sent signal and received signal, the speed of marine animals and submarines can be determined.

Question 9.
Explain the conditions for no Doppler effect.
Answer:
Under the following circumstances, there will be no Doppler effect and the apparent frequency as heard by the listener will be the same as the source frequency.

1. When source (S) and listener (L) both are at rest.
2. When S and L move in such a way that distance between them remains constant.
3. When source S and L are moving in mutually perpendicular directions.
4. If the source is situated at the center of the circle along which the listener is moving.

IX. Hot questions:

Question 1.
Why is frequency the most fundamental property of a wave?
Answer:
When a waves travels from one medium to another, its velocity and wavelength may change. But the frequency does not change hence the frequency is the most fundamental property of a wave.

Question 2.
Which properties of solid are required for the propagation of sound?
Answer:
Elasticity and inertia are the properties of solid are required for the propagation of sound.

Question 3.
What does cause the rolling sound of thunder?
Answer:
The multiple reflections of sound of lightning produce the rolling sound of thunder.

Question 4.
On the surface of moon, two astronauts can not talk to each other. Give reason.
Answer:
Sound waves require material medium for their propagation. As there is no ‘ atmosphere, on the moon, hence the sound wave can not propagate on the moon.

Question 5.
If a person places his ear to one end of a long iron pipeline, he can distinctly hear two sound waves when a workman hammers the other end of the pipeline. How?
Answer:
Sound waves travel sixteen times faster in iron than in air. Hence the person hears two sounds, the first one travelling through the iron pipeline and the second travelling through air.

Question 6.
Sound waves travel faster in solids than in liquids and gases. Why?
Answer:
Sound waves travel faster in solids with greatest speed. Because the coefficient of elasticity of solids is much greater than coefficient of elasticity of liquids and gases.

Question 7.
If an explosion takes place at the bottom of a lake, will the shock waves in water be longitudinal or transverse?
Answer:
An explosion in a lake produces shock waves there by creating enormous increase in pressure in water.
A shock wave is thus a longitudinal wave travelling at a speed that is greater than that of a longitudinal wave of ordinary intensity.

Question 8.
Sound can be heard over longer distances on a rainy day. Give reason.
Answer:
On a rainy day, air contains a large amount of water vapour. This decreases the density of air. Hence, sound travels faster in air and can be heard over longer distances.

Students can download Maths Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Unit Exercise 5 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Unit Exercise 5

Question 1.
PQRS is a rectangle formed by joining the points P(- 1, – 1), Q(- 1, 4) , R(5, 4) and S (5, – 1). A, B, C and D are the mid-points of PQ, QR, RS and SP respectively. Is the quadrilateral ABCD a square, a rectangle or a rhombus? Justify your answer.
Answer:

Mid point of a line = (\(\frac{x_{1}+x_{2}}{2}, \frac{y_{1}+y_{2}}{2}\))
Mid point of PQ (A) = (\(\frac { -1-1 }{ 2 } \),\(\frac { -1+4 }{ 2 } \))
= (\(\frac { -2 }{ 2 } \),\(\frac { 3 }{ 2 } \)) = (-1,\(\frac { 3 }{ 2 } \))
Mid point of QR (B) = (\(\frac { -1+5 }{ 2 } \),\(\frac { 4+4 }{ 2 } \)) = (\(\frac { 4 }{ 2 } \),\(\frac { 8 }{ 2 } \)) = (2,4)
Mid point of RS (C) = (\(\frac { 5+5 }{ 2 } \),\(\frac { 4-1 }{ 2 } \)) = (\(\frac { 10 }{ 2 } \),\(\frac { 3 }{ 2 } \)) = (5,\(\frac { 3 }{ 2 } \))
Mid point of PS (D) = (\(\frac { 5-1 }{ 2 } \),\(\frac { -1-1 }{ 2 } \)) = (\(\frac { 4 }{ 2 } \),\(\frac { -2 }{ 2 } \)) = (2,-1)


img 355
AB = BC = CD = AD = \(\sqrt{\frac{61}{4}}\)
Since all the four sides are equal,
∴ ABCD is a rhombus.

Question 2.
The area of a triangle is 5 sq. units. Two of its vertices are (2,1) and (3, -2). The third vertex is (x, y) where y = x + 3 . Find the coordinates of the third vertex.
Answer:
Let the vertices A(2,1), B(3, – 2) and C(x, y)
Area of a triangle = 5 sq. unit

\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) [x₁y₂ + x₂y₃ + x₃y₁ – (x₂y₁ + x₃y₂ + x₁y₃)] = 5
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) [-4 + 3y + x – (3 – 2x + 2y)] = 5
-4 + 3y + x – 3 + 2x – 2y = 10
3x + y – 7 = 10
3x + y = 17 ……(1)
Given y = x + 3
Substitute the value ofy = x + 3 in (1)
3x + x + 3 = 17
4x = 17 – 3
4x = 14
x = \(\frac { 14 }{ 4 } \) = \(\frac { 7 }{ 2 } \)
Substitute the value of x in y = x + 3
y = \(\frac { 7 }{ 2 } \) + 3 ⇒ y = \(\frac { 7+6 }{ 2 } \) = \(\frac { 13 }{ 2 } \)
∴ The coordinates of the third vertex is (\(\frac { 7 }{ 2 } \),\(\frac { 13 }{ 2 } \))

Question 3.
Find the area of a triangle formed by the lines 3x + y – 2 = 0, 5x + 2y – 3 = 0 and 2x – y – 3 = 0
Answer:
3x + y = 2 ……..(1)
5x + 2y = 3 ………(2)
2x – y = 3 ……….(3)
Solve (1) and (2) to get the vertices B


Substitute the value of x = 1 in (1)
3(1) + y = 2
y = 2 – 3 = – 1
The point B is (1, – 1)
Solve (2) and (3) to get the vertices C

Substitute the value of x = 1 in (3)
2(1) – y = 3 ⇒ -y = 3 – 2
– y = 1 ⇒ y = – 1
The point C is (1, – 1)
Solve (1) and (3) to get the vertices A

Substitute the value of x = 1 in (1)
3(1) + y = 2
y = 2 – 3 = -1
The point A is (1, – 1)
The points A (1, – 1), B (1, -1), C(1, -1)
Area of ∆ABC = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) [x₁y₂ + x₂y₃ + x₃y₁ – (x₂y₁ + x₃y₂ + x₁y₃)]

Area of the triangle = 0 sq. units.
Note: All the three vertices are equal, all the point lies in a same points.

Question 4.
If vertices of a quadrilateral are at A(- 5, 7), B(- 4, k), C(- 1, – 6) and D(4, 5) and its area is 72 sq.units. Find the value of k.
Answer:

Area of the quadrilateral ABCD = 72 sq. units.
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) [(x₁y₂ + x₂y₃ + x₃y₄ + x₄y₁) – (x₂y₁ + x₃y₂ + x₄y₃ + x₁y₄)] = 72

-5k + 24 – 5 + 28 – (- 28 – K – 24 – 25) = 144
– 5k + 47 – k – 77 = 144
– 5k + 47 + k + 77 = 144
– 4k + 124 = 144
-4k = 144 – 124
– 4k = 20
k = -5
The value of k = – 5

Question 5.
Without using distance formula, show that the points (-2,-1), (4,0), (3,3) and (-3,2) are vertices of a parallelogram.
Answer:
The vertices A(-2, -1), B(4, 0), C(3, 3) and D(- 3, 2)

Slope of a line = \(\frac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\)
Slope of AB = \(\frac { 0+1 }{ 4+2 } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 } \)
Slope of BC = \(\frac { 3-0 }{ 3-4 } \) = \(\frac { 3 }{ -1 } \) = -3
Slope of CD = \(\frac { 2-3 }{ -3-3 } \) = \(\frac { -1 }{ -6 } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 } \)
Slope of AD = \(\frac { 2+1 }{ -3+2 } \) = \(\frac { 3 }{ -1 } \) = -3
Slope of AB = Slope of CD = \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 } \)
∴ AB || CD ……(1)
Slope of BC = Slope of AD = -3
∴ BC || AD …..(2)
From (1) and (2) we get ABCD is a parallelogram.

Question 6.
Find the equations of the lines, whose sum and product of intercepts are 1 and – 6 respectively.
Answer:
Let the “x” intercept be “a”
y intercept = 1 – a (sum of the intercept is 1)
Product of the intercept = – 6
a (1 – a) = – 6 ⇒ a – a² = – 6
– a² + a + 6 = 0 ⇒ a² – a – 6 = 0
(a – 3) (a + 2) = 0 ⇒ a – 3 = 0 (or) a + 2 = 0
a = 3 (or) a = -2
When a = 3
x – intercept = 3
y – intercept = 1 – 3 = – 2
Equation of a line is
\(\frac { x }{ a } \) + \(\frac { y }{ b } \) = 1
\(\frac { x }{ 3 } \) + \(\frac { y }{ -2 } \) = 1
\(\frac { x }{ 3 } \) – \(\frac { y }{ 2 } \) = 1
2x – 3y = 6
2x – 3y – 6 = 0

When a =-2
x – intercept = -2
y – intercept = 1 – (- 2) = 1 + 2 = 3
Equation of a line is
\(\frac { x }{ a } \) + \(\frac { y }{ b } \) = 1
\(\frac { x }{ -2 } \) + \(\frac { y }{ 3 } \) = 1
– \(\frac { x }{ 2 } \) + \(\frac { y }{ 3 } \) = 1
– 3x + 2y = 6
3x – 2y + 6 = 0

Question 7.
The owner of a milk store finds that, he can sell 980 litres of milk each week at ₹ 14/litre and 1220 litres of milk each week at ₹ 16/litre. Assuming a linear relationship between selling price and demand, how many litres could he sell weekly at ₹ 17/litre?
Answer:
Let the selling price of a milk be “x”
Let the demand be “y”
We have to find the linear equation connecting them
Two points on the line are (14, 980) and (16,1220)
Slope of the line = \(\frac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\)
= \(\frac { 1220-980 }{ 16-14 } \) = \(\frac { 240 }{ 2 } \) = 120
Equation of the line is y – y₁ = m (x – x₁)
y – 980 = 120 (x – 14) ⇒ y – 980 = 120 x – 1680
-120 x + y = -1680 + 980 ⇒ -120 x + y = -700 ⇒ 120 x – y = 700
Given the value of x = 17
120(17) – y = 700
-y = 700 – 2040 ⇒ – y = – 1340
y = 1340
The demand is 1340 liters

Question 8.
Find the image of the point (3,8) with respect to the line x + 3y = 7 assuming the line to be a plane mirror.
Answer:
Let the image of P(3, 8) and P’ (a, b)
Let the point of intersection be O

Slope of x + 3y = 7 is – \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \)
Slope of PP’ = 3 (perpendicular)
Equation of PP’ is
y – y₁ = m(x – x₁)
y – 8 = 3 (x – 3)
y – 8 = 3x – 9
-8 + 9 = 3x – y
∴ 3x – y = 1 ………(1)
The two line meet at 0

Substitute the value of x = 1 in (1)
3 – y = 1
3 – 1 = y
2 = y
The point O is (1,2)
Mid point of pp’ = (\(\frac{x_{1}+x_{2}}{2}, \frac{y_{1}+y_{2}}{2}\))
(1,2) = (\(\frac { 3+a }{ 2 } \),\(\frac { 8+b }{ 2 } \))
∴ \(\frac { 3+a }{ 2 } \) = 1 ⇒ 3 + a = 2
a = 2 – 3 = -1
\(\frac { 8+b }{ 2 } \) = 2
8 + b = 4
b = 4 – 8 = – 4
The point P’ is (-1, -4)

Question 9.
Find the equation of a line passing through the point of intersection of the lines 4x + 7y – 3 = O and 2x – 3y + 1 = 0 that has equal intercepts on the axes.
Answer:
Given lines

Substitute the value of y = \(\frac { 5 }{ 13 } \) in (2)
2x – 3 × \(\frac { 5 }{ 13 } \) = -1
2x – \(\frac { 15 }{ 13 } \) = -1
26x – 15 = -13
26x = -13 + 15
26x = 2
x = \(\frac { 2 }{ 26 } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 13 } \)
The point of intersection is (\(\frac { 1 }{ 13 } \),\(\frac { 5 }{ 13 } \))

Let the x – intercept and y intercept be “a”
Equation of a line is
\(\frac { x }{ a } \) + \(\frac { y }{ b } \) = 1
\(\frac { x }{ a } \) + \(\frac { y }{ a } \) = 1 (equal intercepts)
It passes through (\(\frac { 1 }{ 13 } \),\(\frac { 5 }{ 13 } \))
\(\frac { 1 }{ 13a } \) + \(\frac { 5 }{ 13a } \) = 1
\(\frac { 1+5 }{ 13a } \) = 1
13a = 6
a = \(\frac { 6 }{ 13 } \)
The equation of the line is

Question 10.
A person standing at a junction (crossing) of two straight paths represented by the equations 2x – 3y + 4 = 0 and 3x + 4y – 5 = 0 seek to reach the path whose equation is 6x – 7y + 8 = 0 in the least time. Find the equation of the path that he should follow.
Answer:
Two straight path will intersect at one point.
Solving this equations

2x – 3y + 4 = 0

Substitute the value of x = \(\frac { -1 }{ 17 } \) in (2)

The point of intersection is (-\(\frac { 1 }{ 17 } \),\(\frac { 22 }{ 17 } \))
Any equation perpendicular to 6x – 7y + 8 = 0 is 7x + 6y + k = 0
It passes through (-\(\frac { 1 }{ 17 } \),\(\frac { 22 }{ 17 } \))
7(-\(\frac { 1 }{ 17 } \)) + 6 (\(\frac { 22 }{ 17 } \)) + k = 0
Multiply by 17
-7 + 6 (22) + 17k = 0
-7 + 132 + 17k = 0
17k = -125 ⇒ k = – \(\frac { 125 }{ 17 } \)
The equation of a line is 7x + 6y – \(\frac { 125 }{ 17 } \) = 0
119x + 102y – 125 = 0
∴ Equation of the path is 119x + 102y – 125 = 0

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.5 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.5

Question 1.
Solve the following systems of linear equations by Gaussian elimination method:
(i) 2x – 2y + 3z = 2, x + 2y – z = 3, 3x – y + 2z = 1
Solution:
Augmented matrix

Writing the equivalent equations from echelon from.
x – y + 2z = 3 …………. (1)
5y – 6z = -4 ………….. (2)
-z = -4
z = 4
(2) ⇒ 5y – 6z = -4
5y – 24 = -4
5y = -4 + 24
5y = 20
y = 4
(1) ⇒ x – y + 2z = 3
x – 4 + 8 = 3
x = 3 + 4 – 8
x = -1
∴ x = -1, y = 4, z = 4

(ii) 2x + 4y + 6z = 22, 3x + 8y + 5z = 27, -x + y + 2z = 2.
Solution:
Augmented matrix

Writing the equivalent equations from echelon from.
x + 2y + 3z = 11 …………. (1)
y – 2z = -3 ………….. (2)
11z = 22
z = 2
(2) ⇒ y – 2z = -3
y – 4 = -3
y = -3 + 4
y = 1
(1) ⇒ x + 2y + 3z = 11
x + 2(1) + 3(2) = 11
x + 2 + 6 = 11
x = 11 – 8 = 3
∴ x = 3, y = 1, z = 2

Question 2.
If ax² + bx + c is divided by x + 3, x – 5, and x – 1, the remainders are 21, 61 and 9 respectively. Find a, b and c. (Use Gaussian elimination method.)
Solution:
Given: f(x) = ax² + bx + c
In Remainder Theorem
f(-3) = 21
a(-3)² + b(-3) + c = 21
9a – 3b + c = 21 ……….. (1)
f(5) = 61
25a + 5b + c = 61 …………. (2)
f(1) = 9
a + b + c = 9 ………… (3)
Augmented matrix

Writing the equivalent equations from echelon from.
a + b + c = 9 …………. (1)
b + 2c = 5 ………….. (2)
-4c = -8
c = 2
(2) ⇒ b + 2c = 5
b + 4 = 5
b = 5 – 4
b = 1
(1) ⇒ a + b + c = 9
a + 1 + 2 = 9
a = 9 – 3
a = 6
a = 6, b = 1, c = 2

Question 3.
An amount of Rs 65,000 is invested in three bonds at the rates of 6%, 8% and 10% per annum respectively. The total annual income is Rs 5,000. The income from the third bond is Rs 800 more than that from the second bond. Determine the price of each bond. (Use Gaussian elimination method.)
Solution:
Let the amounts of 3 bounds be x, y, z
x + y + z = 65,000

Writing the equivalent equations from echelon from.
x + y + z = 65000 …………. (1)
2y + 3z = 90000 ………….. (2)
21z = 42000
z = 20000
(2) ⇒ 2y = 90000 – 3 × 20000
2y = 30000
y = 15000
(1) ⇒ x + 15000 + 20000 = 65000
x = 30000
∴ x = 30000, y = 15000, z = 20000

Question 4.
A boy is walking along the path y = ax² + bx + c through the points (-6, 8),(-2, -12), and (3, 8). He wants to meet his friend at P(7, 60). Will he meet his friend? (Use Gaussian elimination method.)
Solution:
y = ax² + bx + c
At(-6, 8) ⇒ 8 = 36a – 6b + c ………… (1)
At(-2, -12) ⇒ -12 = 4a – 2b + c ………… (2)
At(3, 8) ⇒ 8 = 9a + 3b + c ………… (3)
Augmented matrix

Writing the equivalent equations from the echelon.
36a – 6b + c = 8 …………. (1)
3b – 2c = 29 ………….. (2)
5c = -50
c = -10
(2) ⇒ 3b – 2c = 29
3b – 20 = 29
3b = 9
b = 3
(1) ⇒ 36a – 18 – 10 = 8
36a = 8 + 18 + 10
36a = 36
a = 1
At P (7, 60), y = ax² + bx + c
60 = 1(7²) + 3(7) – 10
60 = 49 – 21 – 10
60 = 60
He will meet his friend at P (7, 60)

Students can download Maths Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.5 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.5

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The value of sin2 θ + \(\frac{1}{1+\tan ^{2} \theta}\) is equal to ………………
(1) tan² θ
(2) 1
(3) cot² θ
(4) 0
Answer:
(2) 1
Hint:
sin² θ + \(\frac{1}{1+\tan ^{2} \theta}\) = sin² θ + \(\frac{1}{\sec ^{2} \theta}\) = sin² θ + cos² θ = 1

Question 2.
tan θ cosec² θ – tan θ is equal to ………………
(1) sec θ
(2) cot² θ
(3) sin θ
(4) cot θ
Answer:
(4) cot θ
Hint:
tan θ cosec² θ – tan θ = tan θ (cosec² θ – 1)
= tan θ × cot² θ = \(\frac{1}{\cot \theta}\) × cot² θ = cot θ

Question 3.
If (sin α + cosec α)² + (cos α + sec α)² = k + tan² α + cot² α, then the value of k is equal to
(1) 9
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 3
Solution:
(2) 7
(sin α + cos α)² + (cos α + sec α)²
= sin² α + cosec² α + 2 sin α cosec α + cos² α + sec² α + 2 cos α sec α
= 1 + cosec² α + 2 + sec² α + 2
= 1 + cot² α + 1 + 2 + tan² α + 1 + 2
= 7 + tan² α + cot² α
k = 7

Question 4.
If sin θ + cos θ = a and sec θ + cosec θ = b , then the value of b (a2 – 1) is equal to ……………
(1) 2 a
(2) 3 a
(3) 0
(4) 2 ab
Answer:
(1) 2 a
Hint:
b (a² – 1) = (sec θ + cosec θ) [(sin θ + cos θ)² – 1]
= \(\frac{1}{\cos \theta}+\frac{1}{\sin \theta}\) [sin² θ + cos² θ + 2 sin θ cos θ – 1]

Question 5.
If 5x = sec θ and \(\frac { 5 }{ x } \) = tan θ, then x2 – \(\frac{1}{x^{2}}\) is equal to …………….
(1) 25
(2) \(\frac { 1 }{ 25 } \)
(3) 5
(4) 1
Answer:
(2) \(\frac { 1 }{ 25 } \)
Hint:



Question 6.
If sin θ = cos θ , then 2 tan² θ + sin² θ – 1 is equal to ………………
(1) \(\frac { -3 }{ 2 } \)
(2) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 } \)
(3) \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 } \)
(4) \(\frac { -2 }{ 3 } \)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 } \)
Hint:

Question 7.
If x = a tan θ and y = b sec θ then …………..
(1) \(\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}-\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}=1\)
(2) \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}-\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=1\)
(3) \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}-\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=0\)
(4) \(\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}-\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}=0\)
Answer:
(1) \(\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}-\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}=1\)
Hint:
x = a tan θ
\(\frac { x }{ a } \) = tan θ
\(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}\) = tan² θ
\(\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}-\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}\) = sec² θ – tan² θ = 1
y = b sec θ
\(\frac{y}{b}\) = sec θ
\(\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}\) = sec² θ

Question 8.
(1 + tan θ + sec θ) (1 + cot θ – cosec θ) is equal to ……………
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) -1
Answer:
(3) 2
Hint:
(1 + tan θ + sec θ) (1 + cot θ – cosec θ)

Question 9.
a cot θ + b cosec θ = p and b cot θ + a cosec θ = q then p² – q² is equal to
(1) a² – b²
(2) b² – a²
(3) a² + b²
(4) b-a
Solution:
(2) b² – a²
(a cot θ + b cosec θ)² = p²
(b cot θ + a cosec θ )² = q²
p² – q² = a² cost²θ + a² cot²θ + 2ab cot θ cosec θ – (b²cot²θ + a² cosec²θ + 2ab cot θ cosec θ) = (a² – b²) cot²θ + (b² – a²)cosec²θ = (a² – b²) (cosec²θ – 1) + (b² – a²) (cosec²θ)
= (a² – b²)cosec²θ – (a² – b²) – (a² – b²) cosec²θ
= b² – a²

Question 10.
If the ratio of the height of a tower and the length of its shadow is \(\sqrt { 3 }\) : 1, then the angle of elevation of the sun has a measure
(1) 45°
(2) 30°
(3) 90°
(4) 60°
Answer:
(4) 60°
Hint:
Ratio of length of the tower : length of the shadow = \(\sqrt { 3 }\) : 1

Let the tower be \(\sqrt { 3 }\) x and the shadow be x
tan C = \(\frac { AB }{ BC } \) ⇒ tan C = \(\frac{\sqrt{3} x}{x}\) = \(\sqrt { 3 }\)
tan C = tan 60° ⇒ ∴ ∠C = 60°

Question 11.
The electric pole subtends an angle of 30° at a point on the same level as its foot. At a second point ‘6’ metres above the first, the depression of the foot of the tower is 60° . The height of the tower (in metres) is equal to ……………
(1) \(\sqrt { 3 }\) b
(2) \(\frac { b }{ 3 } \)
(3) \(\frac { b }{ 2 } \)
(4) \(\frac{b}{\sqrt{3}}\)
Answer:
(3) \(\frac { b }{ 2 } \)
Hint:
Let the height of the pole BC be h
AC = b + h
Let CD be x
In the right ∆ BCD, tan 30° = \(\frac { BC }{ AB } \)
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) = \(\frac { h }{ x } \)
x = \(\sqrt { 3 }\) h ………. (1)

In the right ∆ ACD, tan 60° = \(\frac { AC }{ CD } \)
\(\sqrt { 3 }\) = \(\frac { b+h }{ x } \)
x = \(\frac{b+h}{\sqrt{3}}\) ………(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
\(\sqrt { 3 }\) h = \(\frac{b+h}{\sqrt{3}}\) ⇒ 3 h = b + h
2 h = b ⇒ h = \(\frac { b }{ 2 } \)

Question 12.
A tower is 60 m height. Its shadow is x metres shorter when the sun’s altitude is 45° than when it has been 30° , then x is equal to
(1) 41. 92 m
(2) 43. 92 m
(3) 43 m
(4) 45. 6 m
Answer:
(2) 43. 92 m
Hint:
In the right ∆ ABC, tan 30° = \(\frac { AB }{ BC } \) = \(\frac { 60 }{ x+y } \)
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) = \(\frac { 60 }{ x+y } \) ⇒ x + y = 60 \(\sqrt { 3 }\)

y = 60 \(\sqrt { 3 }\) – x …….(1)
In the right ∆ ABD, tan 45° = \(\frac { AB }{ BD } \)
1 = \(\frac { 60 }{ y } \) ⇒ y = 60 ………..(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
60 = 60 \(\sqrt { 3 }\) – x
x = 60 \(\sqrt { 3 }\) – 60 = 60 (\(\sqrt { 3 }\) – 1) = 60 (1.732 – 1)
= 60 × 0.732
x = 43.92 m

Question 13.
The angle of depression of the top and bottom of 20 m tall building from the top of a multistoried building are 30° and 60° respectively. The height of the multistoried building and the distance between two buildings (in metres) is …………….
(1) 20,10\(\sqrt { 3 }\)
(2) 30, 5 \(\sqrt { 3 }\)
(3) 20, 10
(4) 30, 10\(\sqrt { 3 }\)
Answer:
(4) 30, 10\(\sqrt { 3 }\)
Hint:
Let the height of the multistoried building AB be “h”
AE = h – 20
Let BC be x
In the right ∆ ABC, tan 60° = \(\frac { AB }{ BC } \) ⇒ \(\sqrt { 3 }\) = \(\frac { h }{ x } \)
x = \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{3}}\) ………..(1)

In the right ∆ ABC, tan 30° = \(\frac { AE }{ ED } \) = \(\frac { h-20 }{ x } \)
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) = \(\frac { h-20 }{ x } \)
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) = \(\frac { h-20 }{ x } \)
x = (h – 20) \(\sqrt { 3 }\) ………(2)
From (1) and (2) we get,
\(\frac{h}{\sqrt{3}}\) = (h – 20) \(\sqrt { 3 }\)
h = 3h – 60 ⇒ 60 = 2 h
h = \(\frac { 60 }{ 2 } \) = 30
Distance between the building (x) = \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{30}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{30 \sqrt{3}}{3}=10 \sqrt{3}\)

Question 14.
Two persons are standing ‘x’ metres apart from each other and the height of the first person is double that of the other. If from the middle point of the line joining their feet an observer finds the angular elevations of their tops to be complementary, then the height of the shorter person (in metres) is ……………….
(1) \(\sqrt { 2 }\)x
(2) \(\frac{x}{2 \sqrt{2}}\)
(3) \(\frac{x}{\sqrt{2}}\)
(4) 2 x
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{x}{2 \sqrt{2}}\)
Hint:
Consider the height of the 2^nd person ED be “h”
Height of the second person is 2 h
C is the mid point of BD
In the right ∆ ABC, tan θ = \(\frac { AB }{ BC } \)

Question 15.
The angle of elevation of a cloud from a point h metres above a lake is β . The angle of depression of its reflection in the lake is 45° . The height of the location of the cloud from the lake is ………….

Students can download Maths Chapter 2 Integers Ex 2.1 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Integers Ex 2.1

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks:
(i) The potable water available at 100 m below the ground level is denoted as ……… m.
(ii) A swimmer dives to a depth of 7 feet from the ground into the swimming pool. The integer that represents this, is ……… feet.
(iii) -46 is to the ……….. of -35 on the number line.
(iv) There are ……… integers from -5 to +5 (both inclusive)
(v) …….. is an integer which is neither positive nor negative.
Solution:
(i) 100
(ii) -7
(iii) left
(iv) 11
(v) 0

Question 2.
Say True or False
(i) Each of the integers -18, 6, -12, 0 is greater than -20.
(ii) -1 is to the right of 0.
(iii) -10 and 10 are at equal distance from 1.
(iv) All negative integers are greater than zero.
(v) All whole numbers are integers.
Solution:
(i) True
(ii) False
(iii) False
(iv) False
(v) True

Question 3.
Mark the numbers 4, -3, 6, -1 and -5 on the number line.
Solution:

Question 4.
On the number line, which number is
(i) 4 units to the right of -7?
(ii) 5 units to the left of 3?
Solution:
(i) -3
(ii) -2

Question 5.
Find the opposite of the following numbers.
(i) 44
(ii) -19
(iii) 0
(iv) -312
(v) 789
Solution:
(i) Opposite of 44 is – 44
(ii) Opposite of-19 is + 19 or 19
(iii) Opposite of 0 is 0
(iv) Opposite of-312 is + 312 or 312
(v) Opposite of 789 is – 789.

Question 6.
If 15 km east of a place is denoted as +15 km, What is the integer that represents 15 km west of it?
Solution:
Opposite of east is west.
∴ If 15 km east is + 15 km, then 15 km west is – 15 km.

Question 7.
From the following number lines, identify the correct and the wrong representations with reason.

Solution:
(i) Wrong, Integers are not continuously marked
(ii) Correct, Integers are correctly marked.
(iii) Wrong, Integer -2 is marked wrongly.
(iv) Correct, Integers are marked at equal distance.
(v) Wrong, negative integers marked wrongly.

Question 8.
Write all the integers between the given numbers.
(i) 7 and 10
(ii) -5 and 4
(iii) -3 and 3
(iv) -5 and 0
Solution:
(i) 8, 9
(ii) -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3
(iii) -2, -1, 0, 1, 2
(iv) -4, -3, -2, -1

Question 9.
Put the appropriate signs as <, > or = in the blank.
(i) -7 ___ 8
(ii) -8 ___ -7
(iii) -999 ___ -1000
(iv) 0 ___ -200
Solution:
(i) <
(ii) <
(iii) >
(iv) =
(v) >

Question 10.
Arrange the following integers in ascending order.
(i) -11, 12, -13, 14, -15, 16, -17, 18, -19, -20
(ii) -28, 6, -5, -40, 8, 0, 12, -1, 4, 22
(iii) -100, 10, -1000, 100, 0, -1, 1000, 1, -10
Solution:

(i) -11, 12, -13, 14, -15, 16, -17, 18, -19, -20

• First separating the positive integers 12, 14, 16, 18 and the negative integers -11,-13,-15,-17,-19,-20.
• Then arranging the positive integers in ascending order we get 12, 14, 16, 18 and negative integers in ascending order as -20, -19, -17, -15, -13, -11 4
• Now the ascending order : -20, -19, -17, -15, -13, -11, 12, 14, 16, 18.

(ii) -28, 6, -5, -40, 8, 0, 12, -1, 4, 22

• Positive integers are 6, 8, 12, 4, 22 Negative integers are -28, -5, -40, -1
• Arranging the positive integers in ascending order we get 4, 6, 8, 12, 22 and the negative integers in ascending order -40, -28, -5, -1
• The number 0 is neither positive nor negative and stands in the middle.
• In ascending order : -40, -28, -5, -1, 0, 4, 6, 8,12, 22

(iii) -100, 10, -1000, 100, 0, -1, 1000, 1, -10

• Separating positive integers 10, 100, 1000, 1 and negative integers -100, -1000, -1, -10.
• Now the positive integers in ascending order 1,10,100,1000 and the negative integers in ascending order. -1000, -100, -10, -1
• Also ‘0’ stand in the middle as its is neither positive nor negative.
• ∴ The numbers in ascending order: -1000, -100, -10, -1, 0, 1, 10, 100, 1000.

Question 11.
Arrange the following integers in descending order.
(i) 14, 27, 15, -14, -9, 0, 11, -17
(ii) -99, -120, 65, -46, 78, 400, -600
(iii) 111, -222, 333, -444, 555, -666, 777, -888
Solution:
(i) 27, 15, 14, 11, 0, -9, -14, -17
(ii) 400, 78, 65, -46, -99, -120, -600
(iii) 777, 555, 333, 111, -222, -444, -666, -888

Objective Type Questions

Question 12.
There are ……… positive integers from -5 to 6.
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 11
Solution:
(c) 7

Question 13.
The opposite of 20 units to the left of 0 is
(a) 20
(b) 0
(c) -20
(d) 40
Solution:
(a) 20

Question 14.
One unit to the right of -7 is
(a) +1
(b) -8
(c) -7
(d) -6
Solution:
(d) -6

Question 15.
3 units to the left of 1 is
(a) -4
(b) -3
(c) -2
(d) 3
Solution:
(c) -2

Question 16.
The number which determines marking the position of any number to its opposite on a number line is
(a) -1
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 10
Solution:
(b) 0

Students can download Maths Chapter 1 Fractions Ex 1.2 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Fractions Ex 1.2

Miscellaneous Practice Problems

Question 1.
Sankari purchased 2\(\frac{1}{2}\) m cloth to stich a long skirt and 1\(\frac{3}{4}\) m cloth to stitch blouse. If the cost is Rs. 120 per metre then find the cost of cloth purchased by her.
Solution:
Total cloth purchased

cost of 1 metre = Rs. 120
Total cost of cloth purchased
= Rs. 120 × \(\frac{17}{4}\)
= Rs. 510

Question 2.
From his office, a person wants to reach his house on foot which is at a distance of 5\(\frac{3}{4}\) km. If he had walked 2\(\frac{1}{2}\) km, how much distance still he has to walk to reach his house?
Solution:

Question 3.
Which is smaller? The difference between 2\(\frac{1}{2}\) and 3\(\frac{2}{3}\) or the sum of 1\(\frac{1}{2}\) and 2\(\frac{1}{4}\).
Solution:

∴ The difference of 2\(\frac{1}{2}\) and 3\(\frac{2}{3}\) is smaller

Question 4.
Mangai bought 6\(\frac{3}{4}\) kg of apples. If Kalai 1 bought 1\(\frac{1}{2}\) times a Mangai bought, then how many kilograms of apples did Kalai buy?
Solution:
Apples bought by Mangai = 6\(\frac{3}{4}\) kg
Apples bought by Kalai

Question 5.
The length of the staircase is 5\(\frac{1}{2}\) m. If one step is set at \(\frac{1}{4}\) m, then how many steps will be there in the staircase?

Solution:
Total length of the staircase = 5\(\frac{1}{2}\) m
length of each step = \(\frac{1}{4}\) m
No of steps in the stair case

= 22 steps

Challenge Problems

Question 6.
By using the following clues, find who am I?
(i) Each of my numerator and denominator is a single-digit number.
(ii) The sum of my numerator and denominator is a multiple of 3.
(iii) The product of my numerator and denominator is a multiple of 4.
Solution:
The numerator may be any one of!, 2, 3,4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 and the denominator may be any one of 1, 2,3,4, 5,6, 7,8,9. Sum of numerator and denominator is a multiple of 3.
∴ Possible proper fractions are \(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{5}, \frac{1}{8}, \frac{2}{4}, \frac{2}{7}, \frac{3}{6}, \frac{3}{9}, \frac{4}{5}, \frac{4}{8}, \frac{5}{7}, \frac{6}{9}\)
Also given the product of numerator and denominator is a multiple of 4.
∴ Possible fractions are \(\frac{1}{8}, \frac{2}{4}, \frac{4}{5}, \frac{4}{8}\)

Question 7.
Add the difference between 1\(\frac{1}{3}\) and 3\(\frac{1}{6}\) and the difference between 4\(\frac{1}{6}\) and 2\(\frac{1}{3}\)
Solution:

Adding Difference

Question 8.
What fraction is to be subtracted from 9\(\frac{3}{7}\) to get 3\(\frac{1}{5}\)?
Solution:
Let the fraction be x
According to the problem

The fraction to be subtracted is 6\(\frac{8}{35}\)

Question 9.
The sum of two fractions is 5\(\frac{3}{9}\). If one of the fractions is 2\(\frac{3}{4}\), find the other fraction.
Solution:
Let the other fraction be x
According to the problem,

∴ The other fraction is 2\(\frac{7}{12}\)

Question 10.
By what number should 3\(\frac{1}{16}\) be multiplied to get 9\(\frac{3}{16}\)?
Solution:
Let the number be x
According to the problem,

x = 3
The number is 3

Question 11.
Complete the fifth row in the Leibnitz triangle which is based on subtraction.

Solution:

Question 12.
A painter painted \(\frac{3}{8}\) of the wall of which one third is painted in yellow colour. What fraction is the yellow colour of the entire wall?

Solution:
yellow colour of the entire wall
= \(\frac{3}{8}\) × \(\frac{1}{3}\)
= \(\frac{1}{8}\)

Question 13.
A rabbit has to cover 26\(\frac{1}{4}\) m to fetch its food. If it covers 1\(\frac{3}{4}\) m in one jump, then how many jumps will it take to fetch its food?

Solution:
Total distance = 26\(\frac{1}{4}\) m
Distance covered in one jump = 1\(\frac{3}{4}\) m
Number of jumps required to fetch the food

= 15

Question 14.
Look at the picture and answer the following questions.

(i) What is the distance from the school to Library via Bus stop?
(ii) What is the distance between School and Library via Hospital?
(iii) Which is the shortest distance between (i) and (ii)?
(iv) The distance between School and Hospital is times the distance between School and Bus stop.
Solution:


(iii) Via bus stop
(iv) 6 times (6 × \(\frac{3}{4}\) = \(\frac{18}{4}\) = \(\frac{9}{2}\) = 4\(\frac{1}{2}\))

Students can download Maths Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.2 Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.2

Question 1.
Find the angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground, which is 30 m away from the foot of a tower of height 10 \(\sqrt { 3 }\) m.
Answer:
Height of the tower (AC) = 10 \(\sqrt { 3 }\) m
Distance between the base of the tower and point of observation (AB) = 30 m
Let the angle of elevation ∠ABC be θ
In the right ∆ ABC, tan θ = \(\frac { AC }{ AB } \)
= \(\frac{10 \sqrt{3}}{30}=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{3}\)

tan θ = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) = tan 30°
∴ Angle of inclination is 30°

Question 2.
A road is flanked on either side by continuous rows of houses of height 4\(\sqrt { 3 }\) m with no space in between them. A pedestrian is standing on the median of the road facing a row house. The angle of elevation from the pedestrian to the top of the house is 30° . Find the width of the road.
Answer:
Let the mid point of the road AB is “P” (PA = PB)
Height of the home = 4\(\sqrt { 3 }\) m
Let the distance between the pedestrian and the house be “x”
In the right ∆ APD, tan 30° = \(\frac { AD }{ AP } \)

\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{4 \sqrt{3}}{x}\)
x = 4 \(\sqrt { 3 }\) × \(\sqrt { 3 }\) = 12 m
∴ Width of the road = PA + PB
= 12 + 12
= 24 m

Question 3.
To a man standing outside his house, the angles of elevation of the top and bottom of a window are 60° and 45° respectively. If the height of the man is 180 cm and if he is 5 m away from the wall, what is the height of the window? (\(\sqrt { 3 }\) = 1.732)
Answer:
Let the height of the window FE be “h” m
Let FC be “x” m
∴ EC = (h + x) m

In the right ∆ CDF, tan 45° = \(\frac { CE }{ CD } \)
1 = \(\frac { x }{ 5 } \) ⇒ x = 5
In the right ∆ CDE, tan 60° = \(\frac { CE }{ CD } \)
\(\sqrt { 3 }\) = \(\frac { x+h }{ 5 } \) ⇒ x + h = 5\(\sqrt { 3 }\)
5 + h = 5 \(\sqrt { 3 }\) (substitute the value of x)
h = 5 \(\sqrt { 3 }\) – 5 = 5 × 1.732 – 5 = 8. 66 – 5 = 3.66
∴ Height of the window = 3.66 m

Question 4.
A statue 1.6 m tall stands on the top of a pedestal. From a point on the ground, the angle of elevation of the top of the statue is 60° and from the same point the angle of elevation of the top of the pedestal is 40° . Find the height of the pedestal.
(tan 40° = 0.8391, \(\sqrt { 3 }\) = 1.732)
Answer:
Height of the statue = 1.6 m
Let the height of the pedestal be “h”
AD = H + 1.6m
Let AB be x
In the right ∆ ABD, tan 60° = \(\frac { AD }{ AB } \)
\(\sqrt { 3 }\) = \(\frac { h+1.6 }{ x } \)
x = \(\frac{h+1.6}{\sqrt{3}}\) ……..(1)

In the right ∆ ABC, tan 40° = \(\frac { AC }{ AB } \)
0.8391 = \(\frac { h }{ x } \)
x = \(\frac { h }{ 0.8391 } \)
Substitute the value of x in (1)
\(\frac{h}{0.8391}=\frac{h+1.6}{\sqrt{3}}\)
(h + 1.6) 0.8391 = \(\sqrt { 3 }\) h
0.8391 h + 1.34 = 1.732 h
1.34 = 1.732 h – 0.8391 h
1.34 = 0.89 h
h = \(\frac { 1.34 }{ 0.89 } \) = \(\frac { 134 }{ 89 } \) = 1.5 m
Height of the pedestal = 1.5 m

Question 5.
A Flag pole ‘h’ metres is on the top of the hemispherical dome of radius ‘r’ metres. A man is standing 7 m away from the dome. Seeing the top of the pole at an angle 45° and moving 5 m away from the dome and seeing the bottom of the pole at an angle 30° . Find (i) the height of the pole (ii) radius of the dome. (\(\sqrt { 3 }\) = 1.732)

Answer:
Height of the Flag pole (ED) = h m
AF and AD is the radius of the semi circle (r)
AC = (r + 7)
AB = (r + 7 + 5)
= (r + 12)
In the right ∆ ABD, tan 30° = \(\frac { AD }{ AB } \)

\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{r}{r+12}\)
\(\sqrt { 3 }\) r = r + 12
\(\sqrt { 3 }\) r – r = 12 ⇒ r (\(\sqrt { 3 }\) – 1) = 12
r[1.732 – 1] = 12 ⇒ 0.732 r = 12
r = \(\frac { 12 }{ 0.732 } \) ⇒ = 16.39 m
In the right ∆ ACE, tan 45° = \(\frac { AE }{ AC } \)
1 + \(\frac { r+h }{ r+7 } \)
r + 7 = r + h
∴ h = 7 m
Height of the pole (h) = 7 m
Radius of the dome (r) = 16.39 m

Question 6.
The top of a 15 m high tower makes an angle of elevation of 60° with the bottom of an electronic pole and angle of elevation of 30° with the top of the pole. What is the height of the electric pole?
Answer:
Let the height of the electric pole AD be “h” m
EC = 15 – h m
Let AB be “x”

In the right ∆ ABC, tan 60° = \(\frac { BC }{ AB } \)
\(\sqrt { 3 }\) = \(\frac { 15 }{ x } \)
x = \(=\frac{15}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{15 \times \sqrt{3}}{3}\)
= 5\(\sqrt { 3 }\)
In the right ∆ CDE, tan 30° = \(\frac { EC }{ DE } \)
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{15-h}{x}\) ………….(1)
Substitute the value of x = 5 \(\sqrt { 3 }\) in (1)
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{15-h}{5 \sqrt{3}} \Rightarrow \sqrt{3}(15-h)=5 \sqrt{3}\)
(15 – h) = \(\frac{5 \sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{3}}\) ⇒ 15 – h = 5
h = 15 – 5 = 10
∴ Height of the electric pole = 10 m

Question 7.
A vertical pole fixed to the ground is divided in the ratio 1:9 by a mark on it with lower part shorter than the upper part. If the two parts subtend equal angles at a place on the ground, 25 m away from the base of the pole, what is the height of the pole?
Answer:
Let the first part of the pole be “x” and the second part be “9x”
∴ height of the pole (AC) = x + 9x = 10x
Given ∠CDB = ∠BDA
∴ BD is the angle bisector of ∠ADC
By angle bisector theorem

\(\frac { AB }{ BC } \) = \(\frac { AD }{ DC } \)
\(\frac { 9x }{ x } \) = \(\frac { AD }{ 25 } \) ⇒ AD = 9 × 25 = 225
In the right ∆ ACD
AD² = AC² + CD²
(225)² = (10x)² + 25²
50625 = 100x² + 625
∴ 100x² = 50625 – 625 = 50000
x² = \(\frac { 50000 }{ 100 } \) = 500
x = \(\sqrt { 500 }\) = \(\sqrt{5 \times 100}=10 \sqrt{5}\)
∴ AC = 10 × 10\(\sqrt { 5 }\) = 100 \(\sqrt { 5 }\) (AC = 10x)
∴ Height of the pole = 100 \(\sqrt { 5 }\) m

Question 8.
A traveler approaches a mountain on highway. He measures the angle of elevation to the peak at each milestone. At two consecutive milestones the angles measured are 4° and 8°. What is the height of the peak if the distance between consecutive milestones is 1 mile, (tan 4° = 0.0699, tan 8° = 0.1405)
Answer:
Let the height of the peak be “h” mile. Let AD be x mile.
∴ AB = (x + 1) mile.
In the right ∆ ADC, tan 8° = \(\frac { AC }{ AC } \)

0.1405 = \(\frac { h }{ x } \)
x = \(\frac { h }{ 0.1405 } \) ………..(1)
In ∆ ABC, tan 4° = \(\frac { AC }{ AB } \)
0.0699 = \(\frac { h }{ x+1 } \) ⇒ (x + 1) 0.0699 = h
0.0699x + 0.0699 = h
0.0699 x = h – 0.0699
x = \(\frac { h-0.0699 }{ 0.0699 } \) ………(2)
Equation (1) and (2) we get,
\(\frac { h-0.0699 }{ 0.0699 } \) = \(\frac { h }{ 0.1405 } \)
0.0699 h = 0.1405 (h – 0.0699)
0.0699 h = 0.1405 h – 0.0098
0.0098 = 0.1405 h – 0.0699 h
0.0098 = 0.0706 h
h = \(\frac { 0.0098 }{ 0.0706 } \) = \(\frac { 98 }{ 706 } \) = 0.1388
= 0.14 mile (approximately)
Height of the peak = 0.14 mile