Category: Class 6

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 1 Civics Chapter 1 Understanding Diversity Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Understanding Diversity

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Understanding Diversity Text Book Back Questions and Answers

A. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
India consists of ……………. states and ……………. Union territories.
(a) 27,9
(b) 29,7
(c) 28,7
(d) 28,9
Answer:
(b) 29,7

Question 2.
India is known as a
(a) Continent
(b) Subcontinent
(c) Island
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Sub continent

Question 3.
Mawsynram, the land of highest rainfall is located in …………….
(a) Manipur
(b) Sikkim
(c) Nagaland
(d) Meghalaya
Answer:
(d) Meghalaya

Question 4.
Which one of the following religion is not practised in India
(a) Sikhism
(b) Islam
(c) Zoroastrianism
(d) Confucianism
Answer:
(d) Confucianism

Question 5.
Recognised official languages of India, as per VUIth schedule of Indian constitution …………….
(a) 25
(b) 23
(c) 22
(d) 26
Answer:
(c) 2

Question 6.
Onam festival celebrated in
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Punjab
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(a) Kerala

Question 7.
Mohiniyattam is a classical dance of …………….
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Manipur
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(a) Kerala

Question 8.
Discovery of India’ a book was written by
(a) Rajaji
(b) V.O.C
(c) Nethaji
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 9.
The phrase ‘Unity in Diversity’ was coined by …………….
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Ambedkar
(c) Mahathma Gandhi
(d) Rajaji
Answer:
(a) JawahalalNehru

Question 10.
V.A. Smith called India as __________
(a) Great Democracy
(b) Unique land of diversities
(c) Ethnological museum
(d) Secular nation
Answer:
(c) Ethnological museum

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Geographical features and climatic conditions determine the ……………. activities of a region.
2. Jaisalmer, the land of lowest rainfall is located in …………….
3. Tamil was declared as classical language in the year …………….
4. Bihu festival is celebrated in …………….

Answer:

1. economic
2. Rajasthan
3. 2004
4. Assam

III. Match the following

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – a
4. – b

IV. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Define diversity.
Answer:
We, the Indians come from different backgrounds, belong to different cultures, worship in different ways. This is known as diversity.

Question 2.
What are the types of diversity?
Answer:

1. Landform and lifestyle diversity
2. Social diversity
3. Religious diversity
4. Linguistic diversity
5. Cultural diversity

Question 3.
Why is India called a subcontinent?
Answer:
A continent is a very large area of land with various physical features such as mountains, plateaus, plains, rivers and seas, and various types of weather patterns. India has all of them. So India is known as a subcontinent.

Question 4.
Write the names of three major festivals celebrated in India.
Answer:

1. Deepavali
2. Christmas
3. Ramzan

Question 5.
List out some of the classical dances of India,
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu – Bharatanatyam
2. Kerala – Kathakali
3. Karnataka – Yakshagana
4. Odisha – Odissi
5. Andhra Pradesh – Kuchipudi
6. Manipur – Manipuri
7. Assam – Sattriya

Question 6.
Why is India called the land of unity in diversity?
Answer:
Though diversity is visible in every aspect of life in India, we are united by the spirit of patriotism.

V. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
Explain Linguistic diversity and cultural diversity.
Answer:
Linguistic Diversity:

1. According to the census of India 2001, India has 122 major languages and 1599 other languages.
2. Four major Indian language families are Indo-Aryan, Dravidian, Austroasiatic, and Sino Tibetian. Tamil is the oldest Dravidian language.
3. Historically, the Portuguese, the Dutch, the British, the Danish and the French came to India for trade and their occupation of India or some parts of it has left behind a certain impact upon the culture and language of the people.
4. In due course, English has emerged as an important language and a medium of instruction in schools and colleges.
5. (It is widely used in official communication and daily life.

Cultural Diversity:

1. The term ‘culture’ refers to the customs and practices of people, their language, their dress code, cuisine, religion, social habits, music, art, and architecture.
2. The culture of a group of people is reflected in their social behaviour and interactions.
3. The group identity fostered by social patterns is unique to a group.
4. Art and architecture are an integral part of every community.
5. It develops as a part of the culture and tradition of a community.

Question 2.
“‘India is a land of diversity, yet we are all united”. Explain.
Answer:

1. Diversity is visible in every aspect of life in India.
2. Even then, we are united by the spirit of patriotism.
3. Symbols such as the National Flag and National Anthem remind us of our great nation and need to stay united.
4. We come together when we celebrate Independence Day, Republic Day and Gandhi Jayanthi every year.
5. India has a multi-cultural society.
6. India evolved as a single nation through common beliefs, customs, and cultural practices.
7. The freedom struggle and the drafting of our constitution stand as ample evidence , to the spirit of unity of India.

VI. Projects and Activities (For Students)

1. “The occupation of people depends on the landform of a place” Give some examples.
2. Read about a state of your choice and make an album to show the culture and tradition of people who live in that state.
3. Collect the pictures to show the and and architecture of Tamilnadu.

VII. HOTS

List out the various festivals celebrated in different states.

VIII. Life Skill

Suggest measures to bring unity in your school.

1. Uniform dress
2. Celebrating festivals of all religions.
   • Deepavali
   • Christmas
   • Ramzan
   • Pongal
3. Conducting community prayers.
4. Inter – dining
5. Celebration of School Day
6. Other extracurricular activities.
7. Conducting L.D.S meetings.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Understanding Diversity Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The oldest Dravidian language is …………….
(a) Hindi
(b) Tamil
(c) Sanskrit
(d) Telugu
Answer:
(b) Tamil

Question 2.
Punjab is well-known as for_______ dance.
(a) Bihu
(b) Dandia
(c) Bhangra
(d) Dumhal
Answer:
(c) Bhangra

Question 3.
Tamil was declared as a classical language in …………….
(a) 2002
(b) 2004
(c) 2012
(d) 2008
Answer:
(b) 2004

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Gurunanak Jayanthi is celebrated by the ……………..
2. India became independent in the year ……………..
3. The first Prime Minister of independent India is ……………..
4. The fundamental unit of a society is the ……………..
5. The folk dance of Punjab is ……………..

Answer:

1. Sikhs
2. 1947
3. Jawaharlal Nehru
4. Family
5. Bhangra

III. Answer in brief

Question 1.
What is meant by family? What are the types of the family?
Answer:
Family is the fundamental unit of society. Joint families and nuclear families are the two types of families.

Question 2.
Define community.
Answer:
Our community is made up of peasants, labourers, artisans, parents, teachers, students, and many others.

Question 3.
What is a continent?
Answer:
A continent is a very large area of land with various physical features such as mountains, plateaus, plains, rivers and seas and various types of weather patterns.

Question 4.
Name the religions which flourish in India.
Answer:
Hinduism, Islam, Christianity, Sikhism, Buddhism, Jainism and Zoroastrianism flourish in India.

Question 5.
Mention the religions of India.
Answer:

1. Hinduism
2. Islam
3. Christianity
4. Sikhism
5. Buddhism
6. Jainism and Zoroastrianism are the religion of India.

Question 6.
Mention the people who came to India for trade.
Answer:
The Portuguese, the Dutch, the British, the Danish and the French came to India for trade.

Question 7.
Mention any four folk dances of India.
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu – Karagattam, Oyillattam, Kummi, Thappattam
2. Kerala – Mohiniattam
3. Punjab – Bhangra
4. Gujarat – Dandia

IV. Mind Map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 1 Geography Chapter 2 Land and Oceans Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Land and Oceans

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Land and Oceans Text Book Back Questions and Answers

A. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which of the following is the smallest ocean on Earth?
(a) The Pacific Ocean
(b) The Indian Ocean
(c) The Atlantic Ocean
(d) The Arctic Ocean
Answer:
(d) The Arctic Ocean

Question 2.
The Malacca Strait connects
(a) The Pacific and Atlantic Oceans
(b) The Pacific and Southern Oceans
(c) The Pacific and Indian Oceans
(d) The Pacific and Arctic Oceans
Answer:
(c) The Pacific and Indian Oceans

Question 3.
Which of the following oceans is the busiest ocean?
(a) The Pacific Ocean
(b) The Atlantic Ocean
(c) The Indian Ocean
(d) The Arctic Ocean
Answer:
(b) The Atlantic Ocean

Question 4.
The frozen continent is
(a) North America
(b) Australia
(c) Antarctica
(d) Asia
Answer:
(c) Antarctica

Question 5.
A narrow strip of water that connects two large water bodies?
(a) A Strait
(b) An Isthmus
(c) An Island
(d) A Trench
Answer:

B. Fill in the blanks

1. The world’s largest continent is …………….
2. ……………. is the mineral-rich plateau in India.
3. The largest ocean is …………….
4. Deltas are ……………. order landforms ……………..
5. The Island continent is …………….

Answer:

1. Asia
2. Chotanagpur Plateau
3. The Pacific ocean
4. Third
5. Australia

C. Circle the odd one out

D. Match the following

Answer:
1. – b
2. – a
3. – d
4. – e
5. – c

E. (i) Consider the following statements

1. Plains are formed by rivers.
2. The ‘South Sandwich Trench’ is found in the Indian Ocean.
3. Plateaus have steep slopes.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only
Answer:
(a) 1 and 3

(ii) Consider the following statements

Statement I : Mountains are second order landforms.
Statement II : The Mariana Trench is the deepest trench in the world.
Which of the statement(s) is/are true?
(a) I is true; II is wrong
(b) I is wrong; II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Statements I and II are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are true

F. Answer in a word

Question 1.
Which is the highest plateau in the world?
Answer:
Tibetan Plateau.

Question 2.
Name a second-order landform.
Answer:
Mountains or Plateaus or Plains

Question 3.
Which ocean is named after a country?
Answer:
Indian Ocean.

Question 4.
Name the island located in the Arabian Sea.
Answer:
Lakshadweep islands

Question 5.
What is the deepest part of the ocean called?
Answer:
Trench

G. Answer in brief

Question 1.
What is a continent?
Answer:
The vast landmasses on Earth are called Continents.

Question 2.
Name the continents which surround the Atlantic Ocean.
Answer:
The Atlantic ocean is bounded by North America and South America in the West, and ( Europe and Africa in the East)

Question 3.
What are the oceans?
Answer:
Oceans are a vast expanse of water.

Question 4.
List out the names of continents according to their size
Answer:
From the largest to the smallest, they are Asia, Africa, North America, South America,  Antarctica, Europe, and Australia.

Question 5.
Name the oceans which surround North America and South America.
Answer:
North America: On the west by the Pacific Ocean, on the east by Atlantic ocean and on the north by Arctic ocean
South America: On the west by the Pacific Ocean, on the east by Atlantic ocean.

H. Distinguish between

Question 1.
A Mountain and a Plateau?
Answer:
Mountains

1. A landform that rises over 600 meters above its surroundings and has steep slopes is called a mountain.
2. Example: Himalayas

Plateaus

1. Plateaus are the elevated portions of the Earth that have flat surfaces bounded by steep slopes. The elevation of plateaus maybe a few hundred metres or several thousand metre.
2. Example: Chotanagpur Plateau

Question 2.
An ocean and a sea
Answer:

Ocean

1. Oceans are a vast expanse of water.
2. Eg. the Pacific Ocean

Sea

1. Seas are water bodies partially or fully enclosed by land.
2. Eg: Bay of Ben, Arabian Sea.

I. Answer the following questions in detail

Question 1.
Mention the classification of landforms.
Answer:
First-order landforms:

1. Continents and oceans are grouped as first-order landforms.
2. The vast landmasses on Earth are called Continents and huge water bodies are called Oceans.
3. There are seven continents in the world. They are Asia, Africa, North America, South America, Antarctica, Europe and Australia.
4. The five oceans are the Pacific, Atlantic, Indian, Southern, and Arctic Oceans.

Second-order landforms:

1. Mountains, Plateaus, and Plains are grouped as second-order landforms.
2. A landform that rises 600 meters above its surroundings and has steep slopes is called a mountain. Example:
3. The Himalayas, the Rocky Mountains, and the Andes.
4. Plateaus are the elevated portions of the Earth that have flat surfaces bounded by steep slopes. Example:
5. Tibetan plateau and Deccan plateau.
6. Plains are flat and relatively low-lying lands. These plains are used extensively for agriculture. Example: Indo – Gangetic plain.

Third-order landforms:

1. Third-order landforms are formed on mountains, plateaus, and plains mainly by erosional and depositional activities of rivers, glaciers, winds, and waves.
2. Example: Valleys, beaches, and sand dunes.

Question 2.
Write a note on plateaus.
Answer:
Ocean:

• An ocean is a vast expanse of water.
• Oceans are very deep.
• Example: The Pacific Ocean

Sea:

• A sea is a water body partially or fully enclosed by land.
• Seas are not so deep as oceans
• Example: The Arabian sea

Question 3.
Plains are highly populated. Give reasons.
Answer:

1. Plains are flat and relatively low-lying lands.
2. Plains are formed by rivers and their tributaries and distributaries.
3. Plains are used extensively for agriculture due to the availability of water and fertile soil.
4. Plains are most suitable for human inhabitation. Hence, they are highly populated.

Question 4.
Give the important features of the Pacific Ocean,
Answer:

1. The Pacific Ocean is the largest and deepest ocean on Earth.
2. It covers about one-third of the Earth’s total area.
3. It is bounded by Asia and Australia in its west and North America and South America in its east.
4. On its apex is the Bering Strait. It connects the Pacific Ocean with the Arctic Ocean.
5. The deepest point Mariana Trench is located in the Pacific Ocean.
6. A chain of volcanoes is located around the Pacific Ocean.

Question 5.
Write above the importance of oceans.
Answer:

1. Oceans are the first order landform.
2. 71% of the earth’s surface is covered with water.
3. Oceans influence man in various ways, from the climate he experiences to the food he eats.
4. Oceans are a major source of salt, valuable minerals, petroleum, pearls, and diamonds.
5. Ocean currents affect the climate of neighbouring areas.
6. Ocean trade plays an important role in the world economy.
7. Ocean currents can be converted into electricity.

J. Picture Study

Question 1.
Name the landform.
Answer:
Sand dune

Question 2.
What order of a landform is this?
Answer:
Third-order landform

Question 3.
By which activity of river is this landform formed?
Answer:
Deposition

K. (i) Activity (Activity to be done by students)

Trip to the nearby area to appreciate the physical features of any kind of landform.
Conduct a quiz on landforms and oceans.

(ii) Activity

Question 1.
Give examples for the following using an Atlas.
Answer:

1. Bay: Hudson Bay, Bay of Bengal, Bay of Biscay
2. Gulf: the Persian Gulf, Gulf of Kutch, Gulf of Mannar
3. Island: Srilanka, Australia, Maldives
4. Straits: Palk strait, Bering strait, Magellan strait

Question 2.
Map reading (with the help of an atlas)
Answer:

1. A sea in the east of India – Bay of Bengal
2. Continents in the west of Atlantic Ocean – North America, South America
3. Continents in the south of Arctic Ocean – Europe, Asia
4. A strait between India and Sri Lanka – Palk strait
5. Oceans which surround Australia – Indian ocean, Pacific ocean
6. Find out the Isthmusses – Isthmus of Panama, Isthmus of Avalon, Isthmus of La Dune

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Land and Oceans Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
International Mountain Day is ……………..
(a) June 15
(b) April 11
(c) November 11
(d) December 11
Answer:
(d) December 11

Question 2.
Andes mountain is located in
(a) North America
(b) South America
(c) Asia
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) South Amei leaf

Question 3.
The highest plateau in the world is …………….
(a) Ladakh plateau
(b) Tibetan plateau
(c) Deccan plateau
(d) Chotanagpur plateau
Answer:
(b) Tibetan plateau

Question 4.
The International Mountain Day is
(a) December 10th
(b) December 11th
(c) December 12th
(d) December 13th
Answer:
(b) December 11th

Question 5.
It connects the Pacific Ocean with the Arctic ocean.
(a) Bering strait
(b) Magellan strait
(c) Gibraltar strait
(d) Palk strait
Answer:
(a) Bering strait

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The sea around Pangea is called ……………….
2. The smallest continent is ……………….
3. The smallest ocean is ……………….
4. ………………. is called the Roof of the world
5. The deepest point in the Indian ocean is ……………….

Answer:

1. Panthalasa
2. Australia
3. Arctic ocean
4. Tibetan Plateau
5. Java trench

III. Answer in brief

Question 1.
What is an Isthmus?
Answer:
A narrow strip of land which connects two large landmasses or separates two large water bodies is called an Isthmus.

Question 2.
What are the Second-order landforms?
Answer:
The Second-order landforms are categorised as mountains, plateaus, and plains.

Question 3.
Bring out the importance of mountains.
Answer:

1. Mountains are the source of rivers.
2. They block the moisture-bearing winds and cause rainfall.
3. They provide shelter to flora and fauna.
4. They promote tourism.
5. During summer people go to mountain regions to enjoy the pleasing cool weather.
6. There are a number of hill stations in the mountains.

Question 4.
Mention some of the early civilizations.
Answer:
The Indus valley civilization, the Mesopotamian civilization, The Egyptian civilization, and the Chinese civilization. Where some of the early civilizations?

Question 5.
Write a few lines about The Indian Ocean.
Answer:

1. The Indian Ocean is the third largest ocean on the earth.
2. It is named after India.
3. It is triangular in shape.
4. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Maldives, Sri Lanka, and Mauritius are the islands located in the Indian Ocean.
5. Java Trench is the deepest point in this ocean.

IV. Mind Map

 

 

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 1 Geography Chapter 1 The Universe and Solar System Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 The Universe and Solar System

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Universe and Solar System Text Book Back Questions and Answers

A. Fill in the blanks

1. The Universe was formed after ……………. explosion.
2. …………….. is the unit used to measure the distance between two celestial bodies.
3. …………….. is the centre of the solar system.
4. The word planet means ………………
5. ………………planet has many natural satellites.
6. India’s first ever mission to the moon is ………………
7. Earth is inclined by ……………… degrees.
8. The Equator faces the Sun directly on ………………
9. At the time of Perihelion, the Earth is ………………
10. The line which divides day and night on the Earth’s surface is ……………….

Answer:

1. Big Bang
2. Light year
3. The Sun
4. wanderer
5. Jupiter
6. Chandrayaan
7. 23 1/2
8. 21st March, 23rd Sep to the Sim.
9. Closest
10. Terminator line

B. Choose the best answer

Question 1.
The movement of the Earth on its axis is called _______
(a) Revolution
(b) Seasons
(c) Rotation
(d) Circulation
Answer:
(c) Rotation

Question 2.
The Tropic of Capricorn faces the Sun directly on
(a) March 21
(b) June 21
(c) September 23
(d) December 22
Answer:
(c) September 23

Question 3.
The galaxy in which our solar system is found is _______
(a) Andromeda
(b) Magellanic clouds
(c) Milky way
(d) Starburst
Answer:
(c) Milky way

Question 4.
The only celestial body where man has successfully landed
(a) Mars
(b) Moon
(c) Mercury
(d) Venus
Answer:
(b) Moon

Question 5.
Which of the following planets can float On water?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Saturn
(c) Uranus
(d) Neptune
Answer:
(b) Saturn

C. Circle the odd one out

D. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – e
5. – b

E. (i) Consider the following statements

1. Venus rotates from east to west.
2. The Tropic of Cancer faces the Sun on June 21.
3. Mars has rings around it.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only
Answer:
(a) 1 and 2

(ii) Consider the following statements

Statement I : Earth is called a watery planet.
Statement II. : The rotation of the Earth causes seasons.
Which of the statement(s) is/are true?
(a) I is true; II is wrong
(b) I is wrong; II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Statements I and II are wrong.
Answer:
(a) I is true; II is wrong

F. Name the following

Question 1.
Cluster of stars.
Answer:
Galaxy

Question 2.
The nearest galaxy to the solar system.
Answer:
Andromeda

Question 3.
The brightest planet.
Answer:
Venus

Question 4.
The living sphere.
Answer:
Biosphere

Question 5.
The year which has 366 days.
Answer:
Leap year

G. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Name the inner planets.
Answer:
The inner planets are Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars.

Question 2.
Pluto is no longer a planet, Reason out,

1. In August 2006, the International Astronomical Union (IAU) down-graded the status of Pluto to that of dwarf planet.
2. The three criteria of the IAU for a full sized planet are
   • It is in orbit around the Sun.
   • It has sufficient Mass to assume nearly a round shape.
   • It has cleared the neighbourhood around its orbit.
3. Since Pluto is able to meet only the first two of the criteria, it in no more a planet.

Question 3.
What is perihelion?
Answer:
Perihelion is the Earth’s closest position to the Sun.

Question 4.
How many times in a year would you find the Sun overhead if you lived on 20 N Latitude?
Answer:
Two times. It would be on the 21st March and 23rd September.

Question 5.
Which celestial body shares its orbit with others? Give an example.
Answer:

1. The dwarf planets share their orbits with others.
2. The five dwarf planets of the solar system are Pluto, Ceres, Eris, Makemake, and Haumea.

H. Give reasons

Question 1.
Why is Uranus called the somersaulting planet?
Answer:
It’s axis is tilted so much, that it appears to orbit the Sun on its sides like a rolling ball. So it is called the somersaulting planet.

Question 2.
The surface of the moon has many craters.
Answer:
The craters are formed due to the meteorites which fall on the moon’s surface.

Question 3.
The velocity of Earth’s rotation is zero at poles.
Answer:
It is due to the shape and inclination of the earth.

I. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Distinguish between inner and outer planets.
Answer:
Inner or Terrestrial Planets

1. Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars.
2. They are comparatively smaller in size.
3. They are composed of rocks. The surface of the inner planets has mountains, volcanoes and craters.
4. None of the inner planets have rings orbiting them

Outer Planets or Jovian Planets, or Gaseous Giants

1. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune.
2. They are huge in size.
3. Most of them are made of gas.
4. All of the outer planets have rings orbiting them.

Question 2.
What are the effects of rotation and revolution?
Answer:
Effects of Rotation:

1. It is the spinning movement of the Earth on its axis
2. The time taken by the Earth to complete one rotation is called a day.
3. The rotation of the Earth causes day and night, As the Earth is spherical in shape, only one half of it is illuminated by the Sun at a time.
4. The other half remains dark.
5. The illuminated portion of the Earth experiences day, whereas the darkened part of the Earth experiences night.

Effects of Revolution:

1. It is the movement of the Earth around the Sun on its elliptical path.
2. The Earth takes 36514 days to complete one revolution.
3. It revolves around the Sun at a speed of 30 km per second.
4. The remaining quarter day is added once in every four years in the month of February.
5. The inclination of the Earth on its axis and its revolution around the Sun cause different seasons.

Question 3.
Explain the characteristics of the various spheres of the Earth.
Answer:
Earth is the most suitable planet to support life. It has three major components that we call the realms of the Earth lithosphere, hydrosphere, and atmosphere.

(i) Lithosphere: The word lithosphere is derived from the Greek word Lithos, which means rocky. The Lithosphere is the land on which we live.

(ii) Hydrosphere: The word Hydro means water in Greek. The hydrosphere consists of water bodies such as oceans, seas, rivers, lakes, ice caps on mountains, and water vapour in the atmosphere.

(iii) Atmosphere: The word Atmo means the air in Greek. The atmosphere is the envelope of air that surrounds the Earth. Different types of gases make up the atmosphere. The major gases are Nitrogen (78%) and Oxygen (21%).

(iv) Biosphere: The narrow belt of interaction among the lithosphere, the hydrosphere, and the atmosphere, where life exists is known as Biosphere. Bio means life in Greek. It consists of distinct zones.

J. Picture Study

Question 1.
Study the picture and answer the given questions.

Question a.
Which is the closest planet to the Sun?
Answer:
Mercury

Question b.
Which is the largest planet?
Answer:
Jupiter

Question c.
Which is the farthest planet from the Sun?
Answer:
Neptune

Question d.
Which is the second smallest planet?
Answer:
Mars

Question 2.
Look at the picture and answer the questions given below.

Question a.
Identify the planet
Answer:
Uranus

Question b.
What is the colour of the planet?
Answer:
Green

Question c.
Why is it of this colour?
Answer:
Due to the presence of Methane

STUDENT ACTIVITY
K. Solve the puzzle

Across:

2. A dwarf planet.
3. Equal days and nights.
7. I am a gas found in the Sun.
8. I appear once in 76 years.

Down:

1. I am the morning star.
2. India’s first moon mission.
4. I have two natural satellites.
5. I am the farthest planet.
6. An imaginary line passing through the centre of the Earth.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Universe and Solar System Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks

1. The study of the universe is called ………………
2. A cluster of stars is known as ………………
3. The Roman word ‘Sol’ means ………………
4. The ……………… is at the centre of the solar system.
5. The elliptical path in which the planets move around the Sun is ………………

Answer:

1. Cosmology
2. Galaxy
3. Sun God
4. Sun
5. Orbit

II. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The closest planet to the Sun is _______
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Uranus
(d) Saturn
Answer:
(a) Mercury

Question 2.
The solar system is believed to have formed about _______billion years ago.
(a) 3
(b) 4.5
(c) 3.5
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 4.5

Question 3.
The ringed planet is _______
(a) Mars
(b) Venus
(c) Saturn
(d) Mercury
Answer:
(c) Saturn

Question 4.
The Outer Planets are _______
(a) Jupiter and Mercury
(b) Venus and Earth
(c) Saturn and Mars
(d) Uranus and Neptune
Answer:
(d) Uranus and Neptune

Question 5.
The Tropic of Cancer faces the Sun directly on _______
(a) March 21
(b) June 21
(c) September 23
(d) December 22
Answer:
(b) June 21

III. (i) Consider the following statements

1. The earth is the third planet in the solar system
2. The Sun is made up of hot gases like Hydrogen and Nitrogen
3. Mercury has no natural satellites
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only
Answer:
(c) 1 and 3

(ii) Consider the following statements

1. The sun revolves around the earth.
2. Mars is named after the Roman God of war.
3. Uranus appears green
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

(iii) Consider the following statements

Question 1.
Statement I: Jupiter is the fastest spinning planet in the solar system.
Statement II: Neptune is the coldest planet Which of the statement (s) is/are true?
(a) I is true, II is wrong
(b) I is wrong, II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Both statements are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are true

(iv) Consider the following statements

Question 1.
Statement I : The earth is inclined at 32 1/2°angle.
Statement II : The specific gravity of Saturn is more than that of water.
Which of the statement (s) is/are true
(a) I is true, II is wrong
(b) I is wrong, II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Both the statement are wrong
Answer:
(d) Both the Statement are wrong

IV. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
What is meant by light year?
Answer:
A light-year is a distance traversed by light in a year at a velocity of 30,000 km per second.

Question 2.
Mention the hierarchy of the universe.
Answer:

1. Universe
2. Galaxy
3. Solar system
4. Planets
5. Satellites

Question 3.
How many planets are there in the solar family? Name them.
Answer:
There are eight planets in the solar family. They are

1. Mercury
2. Venus
3. Earth
4. Mars
5. Jupiter
6. Saturn
7. Uranus and
8. Neptune.

V. Mind map

 

 

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 1 History Chapter 4 Ancient Cities of Tamilagam Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 4 Ancient Cities of Tamilagam

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Ancient Cities of Tamilagam Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which of the following region has a city more than 6500 years old?
(a) Iraq
(b) Indus valley
(c) Tamilagam
(d) Thondaimandalam
Answer:
(a) Iraq

Question 2.
Which one of the following is a Tamil city?
(a) Iraq
(b) Harappa
(c) Mohenjo-Daro
(d) Kancheepuram
Answer:
(d) Kancheepuram

Question 3.
Which city is not related to the Bay of Bengal?
(a) Poompuhar
(b) Thondi
(c) Korkai
(d) Kancheepuram
Answer:
(b) Madurai

Question 4.
The water management system of Tamils are known from
a. Kallanai
b. Tanks in Kancheepuram
c. Prakirama Pandyan Tank
d. River Cauvery
(a) (a) is correct
(b) (b) is correct
(c) (c) is correct
(d) (a) and (b) are correct
Answer:
(d) (a) and (b) are correct

Question 5.
Which is not the oldest city among the following ones?
(a) Madurai
(b) Kancheepuram
(c) Poompuhar
(d) Chennai
Answer:
(a) Madurai

Question 6.
Which city is related to Keezhadi excavation?
(a) Madurai
(b) Kancheepuram
(c) Poompuhar
(d) Harappa
Answer:
(a) Madurai

II. Tick the appropriate answer. Match the statement with the reason

Question 1.
Statement: Goods were imported and exported from the city of Poompuhar.
Reason: the Bay of Bengal was suitable for trading with neighbouring countries.
(a) Statement is correct, but the reason is wrong.
(b) Statement and its reason are correct.
(c) Statement is wrong, but the reason is correct.
(d) Both are wrong.
Answer:
(b) Statement and its reason are correct.

Question 2.
(a) Thirunavukkarasar said “kalviyil karaiillatha”. This statement refers to the city of Kancheepuram.
(b) Hieun Tsang said, “Kancheepuram is one among the seven sacred places of  India”.
(c) Kalidasa said, “Kancheepuram is the best city among the cities”
(a) only a is correct (b) the only b is correct
(c) the only c is correct (d) All are correct
Answer:
(d) All are correct!

Question 3.
Find out the correct statement
(a) Naalangadi – Night shop
(b) Allangdi – Day -time shop
(c) Ancient Roman coin factory was found at Poompuhar.
(d) Pearls were exported from Uvari near Korkai.
Answer:
(d) Pearls were exported from Uvari near Korkai

Question 4.
Find out the wrong statement.
(a) Megasthanese has mentioned Madurai in his account.
(b) Hien Tsang came to the Tamil city of Kancheepuram.
(c) Kovalan and Kannagi lived in Kancheepuram.
(d) Iraq is mentioned in Pattinapalai.
Answer:
(c) Kovalan and Kannagi lived in Kancheepuram.

Question 5.
Find out the correct pair
(a) Koodal Nagar – Poompuhar
(b) Thoonga Nagaram – Harappa
(c) City of Education – Madurai
(d) City of Temples – Kancheepuram
Answer:
(d) City of Temples – Kancheepuram

Question 6.
Find out the wrong pair
(a) Vadamalai – Gold
(c) Southern Sea – Pearls
(b) Western Ghats – Sandal
(d) Eastern Sea – Ahil
Answer:
(d) Eastern Sea – Ahil

III. Fill in the blanks

1. Kanchi Kailasanathar temple was built by ……………..
2. …………….. is known as the city of temples.
3. Masathuvan means ……………..

Answer:

1. Raja Simh
2. Kanchi
3. A big trader

IV. State True or False:

1. Cultural relationship with the outside world developed in Poompuhar because of its trade relationship with it.
2. Women also purchased from Allangadi of Madurai without fear.
3. Many rock-cut temples were made during the Pallava period.
4. Bodhi Dharma belonged to Kancheepuram.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True

V. Answer in one word

Question 1.
What do you know about the term ‘export’?
Answer:
Exports are goods and services produced in one country and purchased by the citizens of another country.

Question 2.
Mention the epic and the Sangam poem you read in this lesson.
Answer:

1. The epic is Silapthikaram (or) Manimegalai.
2. Sangam Literature is Pattinappaalai.

Question 3.
Which is the oldest city in Thondai Nadu?
Answer:
Kanchi is the oldest city in Thondai Nadu.

Question 4.
Point out anyone difference between a village and a city.
Answer:
A village will have a small group of settlements whereas a city will have a large group of settlements.

Question 5.
Which civilization is associated with the city Lothal?
Answer:
The Indus Valley Civilisation is associated with the city Lothal.

Question 6.
Name the oldest civilization of the world
Answer:
Mesopotamian civilization is the earliest civilization in the world.

VI. Answer the following

Question 1.
Write a brief note on ancient cities in India?
Answer:

1. Harappa and Mohenjodaro were prominent cities of ancient India.
2. They developed along the banks of the river Indus.
3. They were the symbol of urban civilization.
4. They had very good town planning, a well-constructed house, well-maintained drainage system.
5. They had very good civic sense.
6. They developed pottery, ornaments as well as a script which is yet to be deciphered.

Question 2.
Mention the ancient cities of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. In Tamizhagam the well-known cities were Madurai, Kanchi, and Poompuhar.
2. Poompuhar is one of the oldest towns in ancient Tamizhagam.
3. Madurai has been one of the oldest cities in India.
4. It is known as “Sangam Valartha Nagaram”
5. Kanchi is the oldest town in Thondai Nadu.
6. Scholars like Dharmabalar, Jothibalar, Sumathi, and Bodhi Dharma were born in Kanchi.

Question 3.
Discuss the sources available to know about Tamil cities?
Answer:

1. Tamil literature, accounts of foreign travellers, and archaeological finds provide information about the ancient towns of Tamizhagam.
2. Sangam Tamil Literature Pattinappaalai and Tamil epics Silappathikaram and Manimegalai have references about Poompuhar.
3. Madurai is proudly associated with three Sangams.
4. The fame of Madurai can be attested from the accounts of the Greek historian Megasthenes.
5. Chanakya mentions Madurai in his famous work Arthashastra.
6. The Chinese Traveller Hieun Tsang writes about the greatness of Kanchi.
7. Poet Kalidasa refers to Kanchi as the best of the towns.

Question 4.
Write about the kings who ruled Madurai.

1. Pandyas, the Cholas and later the Kalabras ruled Madurai in the ancient
2. During medieval times, later Cholas and later Pandyas followed by the Nayaks ruled this historic town.

Question 5.
Mention the other names of Madurai?
Answer:

1. Sangam Valartha Nagaram
2. Thoonga Nagaram (the city that never sleeps).
3. Koodal Nagar are the other names of Madurai

Question 6.
What is the difference between Naalaugadi and Allangadi?
Answer:
Naalangadi

1. It is Day Marget.
2. It works only in the day time.

Allangadi

1. It is the evening Market.
2. It works only in the Evening,

Question 7.
Name the scholars who were born at Kancheepuram
Answer:
Scholars like Dharmabalar, Jothibalar, Sumathi, and Bodhi Dharma were bom in Kanchi.

Question 8.
Which is known as the city of lakes? Why?
Answer:

1. Water management played an important role in the agrarian society of those times.
2. Hundreds of lakes were created for storing water around the town of Kanchi.
3. These lakes were well connected with canals.
4. During the later period, Kanchi came to be known as the district of lakes.

VII. HOTS

Question 1.
Write a short note on Iraq.
Answer:

1. Modem Iraq was called Mesopotamia in the ancient period. It was the birthplace of Sumerian civilization.
2. Iraq is watered by two rivers namely Euphrates and Tigris.
3. It is an important trading centre.
4. Pattinappaalai speaks about the trade relations of Iraq With other countries.

Question 2.
Write a paragraph about the city of Poompuhar with special reference to trade.
Answer:

1. Poompuhar was a port.
2. Big traders and sea traders had settled down there.
3. Numerous merchants from foreign countries such as Greece and Rome landed at Poompuhar.
4. Brisk seaborne trade took place in Puhar.
5. Foreign traders stayed on indefinitely at Puhar.
6. There is evidence of foreign settlements in the town.

Question 3.
Write about the accounts given by scholars about Kanchi.
Answer:

1. Poet Kalidasa says “Kanchi is the best of the towns”.
2. Poet Thirunavukarasar praises Kanchi as “Kalviyil Karaiillatha Kanchi.
3. Hieun Tsang has said,”Kanchi can be counted as one among the seven sacred places like Budh Gaya and Sanchi”.

Question 4.
City of temple Gives short notes.
Answer:

1. Kanchi is also known as the Temple city.
2. The famous Kailasanathar temple is at Kanchi.
3. There are a large number of cave temples in Kanchi. So Kanchi is known as the Temple city.

Question 5.
Kancheepuram was famous for education. Prove this statement
Answer:

1. Several schools were established in great numbers in Kanchi.
2. There were Jainpallis and Viharas.
3. The Chinese traveller Hieun Tsang visited Kanchi Kadigai to continue his studies
4. Tamil poet saint Thirunavukarasar praises Kanchi as’Kalviyil karaiillatha Kanchi’.

VIII. Student Activity

1. Make an album about Keezhadi excavations.
2. Poompuhar was famous for trading activities. Discuss.
3. Collect the pictures of Pallava temple architecture.
4. Prepare a Booklet describing the famous lakes of Tamilnadu.
5. Make a booklet about the famous cities of Tamilnadu.
6. Go to the library and find out the places of importance in your district.

IX. Answer Grid

Question 1.
Poompuhar was located on which riverbank?
Answer:
Cauvery

Question 2.
Name the ancient city which had Tamil Sangam.
Answer:
Madurai

Question 3.
Name a Sangam literary work.
Answer:
Pattinappaalai

Question 4.
Which Greek historian gave accounts about the Pandya kingdom?
Answer:
Megasthanese

Question 5.
To which the Tamil Kingdom did the southern districts of Tamil Nadu belong to during the Sangam Age?
Answer:
Pandyas.

Question 6.
Name the Chinese traveller who stayed and studied in Nalanda University.
Answer:
Hieun Tsang

Question 7.
Thirunavukarasar mentioned Kanchi as _______
Answer:
Kalviyil karaiillatha Kanchi

Question 8.
What is the name of the evening market during the Sangam Age?
Answer:
Allangadi

Question 9.
Name the temple built by Pallava king Rajasimha at Kanchi.
Answer:

1. Kailasanathar
2. Temple.

Question 10.
Which district is known as the district of lakes?
Answer:
Kanchi

Question 11.
What is trade?
Answer:
The act of buying and selling goods and services is called trade.

Question 12.
Name a port located on the shore of the Bay of Bengal
Answer:
Chennai.

X. Life Skill (For Students)

1. Make a handout that shows the importance of the place where you live.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Ancient Cities of Tamilagam Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The earliest civilization in the world is …………….
(a) Egyptian Civilization
(b) Chinese civilization
(c) Indus valley civilization
(d) Mesopotamian civilization
Answer:
(d) Mesopotamian civilization

Question 2.
Name the place related to the export of Sandal.
(a) the Western Ghats
(b) Southern Sea
(c) Eastern Sea
(d) Elam
Answer:
(a) the Western Ghats

Question 3.
Kailasanathar temple was built by …………….
(a) Mahendra varman
(b) Narasimha Varman
(c) Raja Simha
(d) Aparajitha
Answer:
(c) Raja Simha

Question 4.
Ahil was a
(a) Port
(b) Fragrant wood
(c) Educated centre
(d) Ornament
Answer:
(b) Fragrant wood

Question 5.
Puhar served as the port of ……………
(a) Chera kingdom
(b) Chola kingdom
(c) Pandya kingdom
(d) Kalabras
Answer:
(b) Chola kingdom

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Sea traders are known by the name ……………
2. Chanakya was Chandragupta’s ……………
3. The Buddhist monk Manimegalai spent the last part of her life at ……………

Answer:

1. Maanaigan
2. Minister
3. Kanchi

III. State True or False

1. The lead female character of Silappathikaram is Manimegalai
2. The present-day Thanjavur was once part of Chera Nadu
3. Poompuhar served as the port of the early Chola kingdom
4. Silappathikaram speaks about the greatness of Poompuhar
5. Many cave temples were built during the Pallava period

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. True

IV. Answer the following

Question 1.
How was Poompuhar different from other towns?
Answer:
Each social group had a separate settlement
Streets were broad and straight, dotted with well-designed houses.
There was also a dockyard

V. Mind map

 

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 1 History Chapter 3 Indus Civilisation Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Indus Civilisation

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Indus Civilisation Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
What metals were known to the people of Indus Civilisation?
(a) Copper, bronze, silver, gold, but not iron
(b) Copper, silver, iron, but not bronze
(c) Copper, gold, iron, but not silver
(d) Copper, silver, iron, but not gold
Answer:
(a) Copper, bronze, silver, gold, but not iron

Question 2.
Indus Civilisation belonged to.
(a) Old Stone age
(b) Medieval stone age.
(c) New stone age
(d) Metal age
Answer:
(d) Metal age

Question 3.
River Valleys are said to be the cradle of civilisation because ………………..
(a) Soil is very fertile.
(b) They experience good climate.
(c) They are useful for transportation.
(d) Many civilizations flourished on river valleys.
Answer:
(d) Many civilizations flourished on river valleys.

II. Match the statement with the Reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Statement : Harappan civilisation is said to be an urban civilisation.
Reason : It has well planned cities with advanced drainage system.
(a) Statement and reason are correct.
(b) Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement is true, but the reason is wrong.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement and reason are correct

Question 2.
Statement : Harappan civilization belongs to BronzeAge.
Reason : Harappans did not know the use of iron.
(a) Statement and reason are correct.
(b) Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement is correct, but the reason is wrong.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement and reason are correct

Question 3.
Statement : The engineering skill of Harappans was remarkable.
Reason : Building of docks after a careful study of tides, waves and currents.
(a) Statement and reason are correct.
(b) Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement is correct, but the reason is wrong.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement and reason are correct.

Question 4.
Which of the following statement about mohanjadaro is correct?
(a) Gold ornaments were unknown.
(b) Houses were made of burnt bricks.
(c) Implements were made of iron.
(d) Great Bath was made water tight with the layers f natural bitumen.
Answer:
(b) Houses were made burnt brick.
(d) Greal Bath was made water tight with thc laye of natural bitnmen.

Question 5.
Consider the following statements.
1. Uniformity in layout of town, streets, and brick sizes
2. An elaborate and well laid out drainage system
3. Granaries constituted an important part of Harappan cities Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1&2
(b) 1&3
(c) 2&3
(d) all the three
Answer:
(d) all the three

Question 6.
Circle the odd one.
Answer:

1. Oxen
2. Sheep
3. Buffaloes
4. Pigs
5. Horses

Question 7.
Find out the wrong pair.
(a) ASI – John Marshall
(b) Citadel – Granaries
(c) Lothal – dockvard
(d) Harappan Civilisation – River Cauvery
Answer:
(d) Harappan – River Cauvery

III. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………… is the oldest civilisation.
2. Archaeological Survey of India was founded by ………………
3. ……………… were used to store grains.
4. Group of people form ………………

Answer:

1. Mesopotamian civilisation.
2. Alexander Cunningham.
3. Granaries.
4. Community.

IV. State True or False

1. Mehergarh is a Neolithic site.
2. Archaeological survey of India is responsible for preservation of cultural monuments in the country.
3. Granaries were used to store grains.
4. The earliest form of writings was developed by the Chinese.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. False

V. Match the following

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – a
4. – b

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What are the uses of metal?
Answer:

1. Gold and Silver were used to make ornaments.
2. They used copper and bronze to make weapons and vessels.
3. Bronze was used to make statues. ( Example: Statue of a dancing girl.)

Question 2.
Make a list of baked and raw foods that we eat.
Answer:

1. Baked foods: Rice, wheat, vegetables, greens, roots, mutton, fish etc
2. Raw Foods: Fruits, some vegetables and nuts

Question 3.
Do we have the practice of worshipping animate and trees?
Answer:
Yes, people belonging to some religions worship animals and trees.

Question 4.
River valleys are cradles of civilization. Why?
Answer:

1. In the river valleys, the soil is fertile.
2. Freshwater is available for drinking, watering livestock, and irrigation.
3. Easy movement of people and goods is possible.

So people settled in the river valleys. Many civilizations flourished on river valleys. Florence river valleys are called cradles of civilization.

Question 5.
Just because a toy move doesn’t mean instead batteries?
Answer:
They used wheels.

Question 6.
Dog was the first animal to be tamed. Why?
Answer:

1. Dogs prevented the entry of dangerous animals by its sniffing skill.
2. Dogs helped the people in their hunting activities.

Question 7.
If you were an Archaeologist, what will you do?
Answer:
If I were an archaeologist I would go to Adichanallur which is located in our district and do excavation there.

Question 8.
Name any two Indus sites located on the Indian border
Answer:

1. Kalibangan
2. Lothal

Question 9.
In Indus civilization, which features you like the most? Why?
Answer:

1. I like the drainage system very much.
2. Most of the drains were covered with slabs or bricks. Even after nearly 5000 years many of the modern cities don’t have covered drains.
3. It is said that each house had its own soak pit, which collected all the sediments and allowed only the water to flow into the street drain. I like this system very much.

Question 10.
What instrument is used nowadays to weigh things?
Answer:
Electronic weighing machine.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
What method is used to explore buried buildings nowadays?
Answer:

1. To see under the ground, the archaeologists may uSe a magnetic scanner.
2. The presence and absence of archaeological remains can be detected by the Radar and Remote Sensing Method.

Question 2.
Why Indus Civilisation Is called Bronze Age civilization?
Answer:

1. Bronze is an alloy.
2. This period is characterized by the articles made of bronze?
3. So Indus Valley Civilization is also known as bronze age civilization.

Question 3.
Indus civilization is called urban civilization. Give reasons.
Answer:
The reasons are.

1. Well conceived town planning.
2. Astonishing masonry and architecture.
3. Priority for hygiene and public health.
4. Standardized weights and measures.
5. Solid agricultural and artisanal base.

Question 4.
Can you point out the special feature of their drainage system?
Answer:

1. They had well-covered drains. The drains were covered with slabs or bricks,
2. Each drain had a gentle slope, so that water could flow.
3. Manholes were provided at regular intervals to clear the drains.
4. House drains passed below many lanes before finally emptying into the drains.
5. Every house had its own soak pit, which collected all the sediments and allowed only the water to flow into the street drain.

Question 5.
What do you know about the Great Bath?
Answer:

1. The Great Bath is one of the earliest public tanks.
2. It is a waterproof structure.
3. The bath was lined with bricks.
4. It was made watertight using layers of natural bitumen.
5. There were rooms on three sides.
6. The water was drained after use.
7. There were steps on both sides of the pool.

Question 6.
How do you know that Indus people trade with other
Answer:

1. King Naram – the sin of the Akkadian empire has written about buying jewellery from the land of Melukha which is a region of the Indus valley.
2. The same types of seals found in Mesopotamia have been also found in the Indus area.
3. A naval dockyard has been discovered in Lothal in Gujarat. All these things show that the Indus people traded with other countries.

VIII. HOTS

Question 1.
Observe the following features of Indus civilization and compare that with the present day.
Answer:
(a) Lamp post:

1. In the Indus cities, street lights were an important feature. The lamp posts were made of stones.
2. Now we have iron lamp posts and cement lamp posts.

(b) Burnt bricks:

1. The houses were built using burnt brick. The bricks were of uniform size.
2. The bricks were burnt because burnt bricks are strong, hard, durable, resistant to fire, and will not dissolve in water.
3. The present-day buildings are also constructed with burnt bricks.

(c) Underground drainage system:

1. The Indus cities had an underground drainage system. They were covered with slabs or bricks. Holes were provided at regular intervals to clean the drains.
2. Even in some of the modern cities, there is no underground drainage system. This system is being introduced gradually now. In Tamil Nadu, there is an underground drainage system almost in all the corporations.

(d) Weights and measurements:

1. Standardized weights and measures were used by the Indus valley people. They used sticks with marks to measure length.
2. Now we have various types of weighing machines and scales.

(e) Dockyard:

1. Lothal was a port in Gujarat. There was a naval dockyard in Lothal. It shows the maritime activities of the Indus people.
2. Now, dockyards are found almost in all ports. Apart from loading, unloading and repairing of ships new ships are built in these yards.
3. Example: Mazagaon dock at Mumbai.

Question 2.
Agriculture was one of their occupations, How can you prove this? (with the findings)
Answer:

1. Agriculture might have been their main occupation since they settled near the Indus river bank.
2. We find the terracotta plough which might have been used for agriculture.
3. They used granaries to store food grain.
4. A granary with walls made of mud, bricks, which are still in good condition, has been discovered in Rakhigarhi, a village in Haryana belonging to the Mature Harappan phase.

Question 3.
Many potteries and their pieces have been discovered from Indus sites. What do you know from that?
Answer:

1. It shows that they know the art of making pottery.
2. The broken pieces of pottery have animal figures on them.
3. It shows that they reared various animals. It also shows their skill in painting.

Question 4.
A naval dockyard has been discovered In Lothal, What does it convey?
Answer:

1. The Dockyard at Lothal is considered as the first naval dockyard of the world,
2. It has favourable features in terms of height, width, and length compared to the modem dockyards of Mumbai and Visakhapatnam.
3. Boats of 60-75 tonnes capacity and 20-25 metres in length could enter Lothal DOCK.
4. It was designed in such a manner as to ensure berthing 20-30 boats, a fairly large size.
5. Large foreign and Indian ships could enter the harbour without any difficulty

Question 5.
Can you guess what happened to the Harappans?
Answer:
The Harappans might have disappeared due to the following reasons.

1. Repeated floods.
2. Ecological changes.
3. Invasions.
4. Natural calamity.
5. Climatic changes.
6. Deforestation.
7. An epidemic.

IX. Activity (For Students)

1. Prepare a scrapbook. (Containing more information about objects collected from Mohenjo – Daro, and Harappa.)

2. You are a young archaeologist working at a site that was once an Indus city. What will you collect?

3. Make flashcards.
(Take square cards and stick a picture in one card and the information for the same picture in another card. Circulate among the groups and tell them to match the picture with information.)

4. Draw your imaginary town planning in a chart.

5. Make a model of anyone structure of Indus Civilisation using clay, broken pieces of bangles, matchsticks, woollen thread, and ice cream sticks.

6. Can you imagine how toys have changed through the ages?
Collect toys made of Clay → stone → wood → metal → plastic → fur → electric → electronic → ???

7 . Crossword puzzle

Top to Bottom:

1. Director-General of ASI
2. Is older than Mohenjo – Daro
3. This is age civilization
4. Each house had a

Left to Right

5. Place used to store grains
6. A dockyard has been found
7. is unknown to Indus people
8. It is used to make watertight.

Right to Left

9. From this we can get a lot of information
10. This is responsible for research

X. Rapid Fire Quiz (Do it in groups)

Question 1.
Which crop did Indus people use to make clothes?
Answer:
Cotton.

Question 2.
Which was the first Indus city discovered?
Answer:
Harappa.

Question 3.
Where was the Indus civilization?
Answer:
The Indus valley.

Question 4.
Which animal was used to pull carts?
Answer:
Bullocks.

Question 5.
Which metal was unknown to the Indus people?
Answer:
Iron

Question 6.
What was used to make pots?
Answer:
Wheel.

Question 7.
Which is considered the largest civilization among four ancient civilizations of the world?
Answer:
The Indus valley civilization.

XI. Life skill

1. Making an animal or a pot out of clay.
2. Making terracotta toy with movable limbs.
3. Pot painting (with geometric pattern).
4. Make informational charts and posters.

X. Answer Grid

Question 1.
What did Charles Masson see?
Answer:
Some mysterious brick mounds

Question 2.
List three things people used which we use today?
Answer:

1. Toys
2. Carts
3. Jewels

Question 3.
What else has been found?
Answer:
Burnt bricks

Question 4.
Can you say three things unknown to Indus people?
Answer:

1. Gun.
2. Paper.
3. Ink.

Question 5.
Which metal was unknown to the Indus people?
Answer:
Iron.

Question 6.
Which is the oldest civilization in the world?
Answer:

1. Mesopotamian
2. Civilization

Question 7.
Why the dog was the first animal to be tamed?
Answer:
It helped them in hunting.

Question 8.
Who were the first people to grow cotton?
Answer:
Sumerians.

Question 9.
Which institution is responsible for archaeological research?
Answer:
The Archaeological Survey of India

Question 10.
Was there any river valley civilization found in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
No

Question 11.
Name any two Harappan sites which were found on the Indian border?
Answer:

1. Lothal
2. Kalibangan

Question 12.
Can we say the Indus cities as cities of children?
Answer:
Yes.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Indus Civilisation Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The headquarters of the Archaeological Survey of India is located in ……………
(a) Chennai
(b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(d) Delhi

Question 2.
The dancing girl statue was made out of
(a) gold
(b) silver
(c) bronze
(d) iron
Answer:
(c) bronze

Question 3.
The word ‘civilization’ comes from the ancient Latin word ‘civis’ which means ……………
(a) City
(b) Village
(c) People
(d) Govern
Answer:
(c) People

Question 4.
The first metal discovered and used by humans was ……………..
(a) Iron
(b) Copper
(c) Bronze
(d) Silver
Answer:
(b) Copper

II. Match the statement with the reason. Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Which of the following statements is true.
(a) Copper was the first metal used by humans.
(b) Horse was used by the Indus people to pull carts.
(c) Mohenjo – Daro was older than Harappa.
(d) Harappan civilization is a rural civilization.
Answer:
(a) Copper was the first metal used by humans.

Question 2.
Consider the following statements.
1. The streets of the Indus area have a grid pattern.
2. There is no evidence of the presence of palaces.
3. There are evidence of the presence of places of worship. Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All the three
Answer:
(a) 1 and 2

Question 3.
Circle the odd one:
Answer:

1. Harappa
2. Mohenjodaro
3. Lahore
4. Lothal
5. Kalibangan

III. Fill in the blanks

1. In 1924, the Director-General of ASI was ……………..
2. The Archaeological Survey of India was started in ……………..
3. The earliest form of writing was developed by the ……………..
4. The great pyramid of Giza was built by king ……………..
5. Granaries were used to store.

Answer:

1. Sir John Marshall
2. 1861
3. Sumerians
4. Khufu
5. Foodgrains

IV. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Why did people settle near rivers?
Answer:
People settled near rivers because

1. The soil is fertile.
2. Freshwater is available for drinking, watering livestock, and irrigation.
3. Easy movement of people and goods is possible.

Question 2.
Why do we say that the Indus people were the first to make cotton clothes?
Answer:

1. Cotton fabrics were in common use.
2. Clay spindles unearthed suggest that yam was spun.

Question 3.
Write about the occupations of the Indus people.
Answer:

1. Agriculture, handicrafts, pottery making, jewellery making, weaving, carpentry, and trading were practiced.
2. There were merchants, traders, and artisans.
3. They reared cattle and other animals.

Question 4.
Who built the Pyramid of Giza?
Answer:

1. The Pyramid of Giza was built by King Khufu in 2500 BCE.
2. It was built with limestone (15 tons each)

V. Mind Map

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 2 Water Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Water

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Water Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
Around 97% of water available on earth is water.
a. fresh
b. pure
c. salty
d. polluted
Answer:
c. salty

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a part of the water cycle?
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation
(c) rain
(d) distillation
Answer:
(d) distillation

Question 3.
Which of the following processes add water vapour to the atmosphere?
i. Transpiration
ii. Precipitation
iii. Condensation
iv. Evaporation
a. ii and iii
b. ii and iv
c. i and iv
d. i and ii
Answer:
c. i and iv

Question 4.
About 30% of the freshwater is found in?
(a) glaciers
(b) groundwater
(c) other sources of water
(d) 0.3%
Answer:
(b) groundwater

Question 5.
Using R.O. plant at home eliminates lot of non-potable water. The best way to effectively use the expelled water of R.O. plant is ……….
a. make the expelled water go and seep near the bore well
b. use it for watering plants
c. to drink the expelled water after boiling and cooling
d. to use for cooking as the water is full of many nutrients
Answer:
b. use it for watering plants

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Only ……… percent of natural water is available for human consumption.
2. The process of changing water into its vapour is called ………..
3. ……….. is built on rivers to regulate water flow and distribute water.
4. Water levels in rivers increase greatly during …………
5. Water cycle is also called as ………..

Answer:

1. 3%
2. Evaporation
3. Dam
4. Rainy days
5. hydrological cycle

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

1. Water present in rivers, lakes and ponds is unfit for use by human beings.
2. Seas are formed when the water table meets the land surface.
3. The evaporation of water takes place only in sunlight.
4. Condensation results in the formation of dew on grass.
5. Seawater can be used for irrigation as such.

Answer:

1. False – Water present in rivers, lakes and ponds is fit for use by human beings.
2. True
3. False – The evaporation of water takes place in any source of heat.
4. True
5. False – Sea water can not be used for irrigation as such.

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – e
2. – a
3. – b
4. – c
5. – d

V. Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence

1. These vapours condense to form tiny droplets of water.
2. The water droplets come together to form large water droplets.
3. The heat of the sun causes evaporation of water from the surface of the earth, oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies.
4. The large water droplets become heavy and the air cannot hold them, therefore, they fall as rains.
5. Water vapour is also continuously added to the atmosphere through transpiration from the surface of the leaves of trees.
6. Warm air carrying clouds rises up.
7. Higher up in the atmosphere, the air is cool.
8. These droplets floating in the air along with the dust particles form clouds.

Answer:

1. The heat of the sun causes evaporation of water from the surface of the earth, oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies.
2. Water vapour is also continuously added to the atmosphere through transpiration from the surface of the leaves of trees.
3. These droplets floating in the air along with the dust particles form clouds.
4. Warm air carrying clouds rises up.
5. Higher up in the atmosphere, the air is cool.
6. These vapours condense to form tiny droplets of water.
7. The water droplets come together to form large water droplets.
8. The large water droplets become heavy and the air cannot hold them, therefore, they fall as rains.

VI. Analogy:

Question 1.
Population explosion : Water scarcity : : Recycle : ………..
Answer:
Water management

Question 2.
Groundwater : ……….. : : Surface-water : Lakes
Answer:
Wells

VII. Give Very Short Answer

Question 1.
Name four different sources of water.
Answer:
Rivers, wells, lakes, glaciers, ponds, etc.

Question 2.
How do people in cities and rural areas get water for various purposes?
Answer:
People get water from wells, canals, tanks, ponds, rivers, water tanks, hand pipes for various purposes.

Question 3.
Take out of cooled bottle of water from refrigerator and keep it on a table. After some time you notice a puddle of water around it. Why?
Answer:
The cooled surface of the bottle cools the air around it and the water vapour of the air condenses. So after some time, a puddle of water can be noticed around the bottle.

Question 4.
We could see clouds almost every day. Why doesn’t it rain daily?
Answer:
When the air around the clouds is cool the clouds then only rain comes. That is the reason why we can’t get rain daily.

Question 5.
Name the places where water is found as ice.
Answer:
Polar ice-caps, Ice sheets, and glaciers in Artie region arid Antarctica.

Question 6.
How do aquatic animals manage to live in Arctic and Antarctic Circle?
Answer:
Floating layer of ice acts as a protective coat and does not permit heat to escape from water. So aquatic animals manage to live in Arctic and Antarctic circle.

Question 7.
What are the types of rainwater harvesting?
Answer:
There are two types of rainwater harvesting.

1. Collecting water from where it falls.
2. Collecting rainwater by constructing bunds.

VIII. Give Short Answer

Question 1.
Differentiate between surface water and groundwater.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write a few slogans of your own on the topic “Save Water”.
Answer:

1. “To a thirsty man, a drop of water is worth more than a sack of gold”.
2. “Water covers 2/3 of the surface of the earth. But only 0.002% is drinkable. Save water”
3. “Save water to secure your future”
4. “Don’t make nature cry, keep your water clean”
5. “Store water for dry days”.

Question 3.
About 71% of earth’s surface is covered with water, then why do we face scarcity of water?
Answer:
71% of the earth’s surface is covered with water. The freshwater will be only 3%. It remains the same. But the water useful for plants, animals, and men is increasing day by day. So we face water scarcity.

Question 4.
Give reason for the following statement – Sewage should not be disposed of in rivers or oceans before treatment.
Answer:
Sewage contains harmful and toxic chemicals. They can disturb the ecosystem of the living animals, in the rivers or oceans. So it should be treated effectually before disposing into rivers or oceans.

Question 5.
The freshwater available on earth is only 3%. We cannot increase the amount of water. In that case, how can sustain the water level?
Answer:

1. The sewage water treatment is to be adopted.
2. Decrease the usage of pesticides, insecticides, and fertilizers in agriculture.
3. Protect forest and trees.
4. Adopt drip irrigation and sprinkler irrigation in agriculture.
5. Rainwater harvesting should be implemented in every building.
6. Create awareness about the impact of throwing wastes into the water bodies.

IX. Answer in detail

Question 1.
What is potable water? List down its characteristics.
Answer:
The water which is fit for drinking by human beings is called potable water, characteristics

1. It is transparent.
2. It is odourless and colourless.
3. It is harmless or free from disease-causing bacteria.

Question 2.
Who is known as waterman of India? Browse the net and find the details about the award, the waterman received for water management. State the findings by drafting a report.
Answer:
The ‘Waterman of India’ is Dr. Rajendra Singh. He is a well-known water conservationist and environmentalist from Alwar district, Rajasthan.

Awards:

1. He gets the Ramon Magsaysay award for community leadership in 2001.
2. In 2005, he got the Jamnalal Bajaj Award for Science and Technology for rural development.
3. In 2008, The Guardian named him amongst its list of 50 people who could save the planet.
4. In 2015, he won the Stockholm Water Prize. He runs an NGO called ‘Tarun Bharat Sangh’ (TBS), which was founded in 1975.
5. In 2016, he was bestowed with Ahimsa Award by the Institute of Jainology based in UK.

Question 3.
What is rainwater harvesting? Explain in a few sentences how it can be used in houses.
Answer:
Rainwater harvesting:
Direct collection and use of rainwater are called rainwater harvesting.

There are two types of rainwater harvesting.

(a) Collecting water from where it falls.
Example: Collecting water from the rooftops of the houses or buildings (Roof water harvesting).

(b) Collecting flowing rainwater.
Example: Collecting rainwater by constructing ponds with bund.

X. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills.

Question 1.
When there is no pond or lake in an area, will there be the formation of clouds possible in that area?
Answer:
When there is no pond or lake in an area formation of clouds will be possible. Transpiration from the aerial parts of all plants and trees will evaporate water and it will form clouds.

Question 2.
To clean the spectacles, people often breathe out on glasses to make them wet. Explain why do the glasses become wet.
Answer:
When we breathe out, the hot air comes out from our mouth which gets condensed and changed into tiny water droplets, and glasses become wet.

XI. Crossword

Down:
1. A method of water conservation.
2. Process of getting water vapour from seawater.
6. Water stored in dams is used for the generation of ………..

Across:
3. ………. is a large body of non -potable water found in nature.
4. In summer, the body loses water as ……..
5. Plants undergo ………….. and contribute to the water cycle.

Answer:

XII. Observe the given graph carefully and answer the questions.

Question 1.

1. What percentage of water is seen in fish?
2. Name the food item that has the maximum amount of water in its content.
3. Name the food item that has a minimum amount of water in its content.
4. The human body consists of about ………. percentage of water.
5. Specify the food item that can be consumed by a person when he / she is suffering from dehydration.

Answer:

1. Fish – 70%
2. Watermelon
3. Fish
4. 60%
5. watermelon, pineapple

Question 2.
Look at the map of Tamilnadu showing annual rainfall and answer the questions given below

a. Identify the districts that get only low annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
Answer:
northwest zone (Coimbatore, Erode, Namakkal, Karur)

b. Identify the districts that get a medium annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
Answer:
Pudhukottai, Virthunagar, Sivagangai, Salem, Dindigul, Theni, Vellore.

c. State the districts that enjoy high annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
Answer:
Tirunelveli, Kanyakumari, Chennai, Vizhupuram, Thiruvallur, Kadalur, Nagapattinam

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Water Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best Answer:

Question 1.
If the total water on earth be 100% the percentage of freshwater is ………..
(a) 97%
(b) 93%
(c) 3%
(d) 0.3%
Answer:
(c) 3%

Question 2.
_______ is a transparent, tasteless, odourless, chemical substance.
(a) Petrol
(b) Wax
(c) Water
(d) Kerosene
Ans:
(c) Water

Question 3.
Which one is not an example of groundwater?
(a) hand pump
(b) borewell
(c) wetland water
(d) well
Answer:
(c) wetland water

Question 4.
Water from oceans, lakes, ponds, and rivers evaporates due to the heat of _______
(a) Sun
(b) Pressure
(c) Atmosphere
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Sun

Question 5.
………. are wetlands where water bodies meet the sea.
(a) lake
(b) well
(c) estuary
(d) glacier
Answer:
(c) estuary

II. True or False.

1. Maximum surface water is stored in lakes.
2. The oceanic volcanoes add salts to the sea.
3. Water is a non-transparent chemical.
4. Transpiration takes place in rivers and lakes.
5. Nitrogen is used for the treatment of drinking water.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. False

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – v.
2. – iv.
3. – i.
4. – ii.
5. – iii.

IV. Analogy:

1. Low rainfall: Water scarcity : : Recycling Water : ………..
2. Frozen Water : Glaciers : : Surface Water : ………..
3. Evaporation : Sea : : …………. : Trees
4. Filtering : Sand : : ………….. : Ammonia
5. Solid State : ………… : : Gaseous State : Vapour

Answer:

1. Water Management
2. River
3. Transpiration
4. Disinfection
5. Ice

V. Very Short Answer

Question 1.
What is the composition of water?
Answer:

1. Water is composed of two atoms of hydrogen combining with one atom of oxygen gas.
2. The molecular formula of water is H₂O.

Question 2.
What is water?
Answer:
Water is a transparent, tasteless, odourless and nearly colourless chemical substance.

Question 3.
What is saltwater?
Answer:
Water which has more than 3% salt is called saltwater. We can not drink and use this water.

Question 4.
What are the three stages in the water cycle?
Answer:
Evaporation, condensation and precipitation.

Question 5.
What is transpiration?
Answer:
It is the process of loss of water from the aerial parts of a plant in vapour form is called transpiration.

VI. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain the three stages of the water cycle.
Answer:

1. Water cycle is a continuous process.
2. It is also called the hydrological cycle.
3. The stages are

1. Evaporation :
Water from oceans, lakes, ponds and rivers evaporates due to the heat of the Sun.

2. Condensation:
Water vapour which enters into the atmosphere by evaporation moves upward with air, gets cooled and changes into tiny water droplets that form clouds in the sky.

3. Precipitation:
Millions of tiny droplets collide with each other to form large droplets. The air around the clouds is cool these drops of a waterfall in the form of snow or rain.

Question 2.
How water is conserved by water management method?
Answer:
Water management consists of the following factors:

1. Bringing awareness about the bad effects of throwing wastes into the water bodies.
2. Recycling of water by separating pollutants.
3. Minimizing the use of chemical fertilizers in agriculture. It reduces the pollution of underground water.
4. Controlling deforestation.
5. Adopting drip irrigation and sprinkler irrigation in agriculture. In this way, a lesser amount of water can be used for irrigation.

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 1 Magnetism Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Magnetism

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Magnetism Text Book Back Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
An object that is attracted by a magnet.
a. wooden piece
b. plain pins
c. eraser
d. a piece of paper
Answer:
b. Plain pins

Question 2.
People who made mariner’s compass for the first time.
(a) Indians
(b) Europeans
(c) Chinese
(d) Egyptians
Answer:
(c) Chinese

Question 3.
A freely suspended magnet always comes to rest in the direction
a. North-east
b. South-west
c. East-west
d. North-south
Answer:
d. North-South

Question 4.
Magnets lose their properties when they are
(a) used
(b) stored
(c) hit with a hammer
(d) cleaned
Answer:
(c) hit with a hammer

Question 5.
Mariner’s compass is used to find the
a. speed
b. displacement
c. direction
d. motion.
Answer:
c. direction

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Artificial magnets are made in different shapes such as ……….., ………… and ………..
2. The Materials which are attracted towards the magnet are called ………..
3. Paper is not a ……….. material.
4. In olden days, sailors used to find direction by suspending a piece of ………..
5. A magnet always has ………. poles.

Answer:

1. Oval shape, Disc Shape, cylindrical shape
2. magnetic materials
3. magnetic
4. lodestone
5. Two

III. True or False. If False, give the correct answer.

1. A cylindrical magnet has only one pole.
2. Similar poles of a magnet repel each other.
3. Maximum iron filings stick in the middle of a bar magnet when it is brought near them.
4. A compass can be used to find East-West direction at any place.
5. Rubber is a magnetic material.

Answer:

1. False – A cylindrical magnet has two poles.
2. True
3. False – Maximum iron fillings stick in the poles of a bar magnet when it is brought near them.
4. False – A. compass can be used to find north-south direction at any place.
5. False – Rubber is a non-magnetic material.

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – b
4. – a

V. Circle the odd ones and give reasons

Question 1.
Iron, nail, pins, rubber tube, needle
Answer:
Iron, nail, pins,  needle
Rubber tube is a non-magnetic substance.

Question 2.
Lift, escalator, electromagnetic train, electric bulb
Answer:
Lift, escalator, electromagnetic train,
Electromagnet is not used in an electric bulb.

Question 3.
Attraction, repulsion, pointing direction, illumination
Answer:
Attraction, repulsion, pointing direction,
Illumination is not a magnetic property.

VI. The following diagrams show two magnets near one another. Use the words, ‘Attract, Repel,Turn around’ to describe what happens in each case:

Answer:
(a) Attract. Opposite poles S – N attracts each other.
(b) Repel. Like poles S – S repel each other.
(c) Attract. Opposite poles N – S attract each other.
(d) Turn around.
(e) Repel. Like poles N – N repel each other.
(f) Turn around.

VII. Write down the names of substances.

Answer:

VIII. Give Short Answer

Question 1.
Explain the attraction and repulsion between magnetic poles.
Answer:

1. Like poles (N – N, S – S) repel each other.
2. Unlike poles (N – S, S – N) attract each other.

Question 2.
A student who checked some magnets in the school laboratory found out that their magnetic force is worn out. Give three reasons for that?
Answer:
Magnets lose their properties if they are heated or dropped from a height or hit with a hammer.

IX. Answer in detail

Question 1.
You are provided with an iron needle. How will you magnetize it?
Answer:

1. Place the iron needle on the table.
2. Take a bar magnet and place one of its poles near one edge of the iron needle.
3. Rub from one end to another without changing the direction of the pole of the magnet.
4. Repeat the process 30 to 40 times. The needle will be magnetized.
5. If it will not attract pin or iron fillings continue the same process for some more time.

Question 2.
How does electromagnetic train work?
Answer:

1. Electromagnets are used in electromagnetic trains.
2. Electromagnets are magnetised when current flows through them. When the direction of the current is changed, poles will be changed.
3. Magnets are attached at the bottom of the train and rail tracks.
4. The train is lifted from track up to 10 cm height by the property of the same poles repel each other.
5. By using attraction and repulsion at the same time between the magnets in tracks and bottom of train move forward.
6. The magnets are controlled by electricity.
7. There is no friction. So the train can easily attain a speed of 300 km/ h.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
You are provided with iron filings and a bar magnet without labelling the poles of the magnet. Using this ……….

a. How will you identify the poles of the magnet?
Answer:

1. When we place the bar magnet in iron fillings a large number of iron fillings stick on the two ends of the bar magnet. These ends are poles of the magnet.
2. Poles will attract more iron filings. Because poles have high magnetic strength.

b. Which part of the bar magnet attracts more iron filings? Why?
Answer:
The more iron filings are attracted by the poles of the magnet because the poles have more concentrated magnetic power.

Question 2.
Two bar magnets are given in figure A and B. By the property of attraction, identify the North pole and the South pole in the bar magnet (B)

Answer:
Opposite poles attract each other. The second pole of magnet A is N (north pole). So magnet B has S – N poles. Then only they will attract.

Question 3.
Take a glass of water with a few pins inside. How will you take out the pins without dipping your hands into the water?
Answer:

1. Take a bar magnet.
2. Tie it in a thread.
3. Dip the tied magnet into the glass of water.
4. The pins are attracted by the magnet.
5. Now take out the magnet from the glass of water.
6. Collect the pins from the magnet.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Magnetism Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
Which is not attracted by a magnet?
(a) Iron
(b) Cobolt
(c) Nickel
(d) Rubber
Answer:
(d) Rubber

Question 2.
Among the following which one is a magnetic substance?
(a) Nickel
(b) Sodium
(c) Oxygen
(d) Potassium
Answer:
(a) Nickel

Question 3.
Who invented leading stone?
(a) Indians
(b) Europians
(c) Chinese
(d) Americans
Answer:
(c) Chinese

Question 4.
Magnets lose their properties if they are _______
(a) dipped in water
(b) dipped in oil
(c) heated
(d) in freezer
Answer:
(c) heated

Question 5.
The maximum speed of electromagnetic train is
(a) 380 km/hr
(b) 600 km/h
(c) 480 km/h
(d) 690 km/h
Answer:
(b) 600 km/h

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Magnets are used to find directions. So they are called as ………..
2. ……….. is the ore with attracting property.
3. Ever silver spoon is a ……….. material.
4. ……….. is used to seperate iron from wastages.
5. The attractive force of magnet is high near …………

Answer:

1. leading stem
2. Magnetite
3. non-magnetic
4. electromagnet
5. Poles

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – v.
2. – iii.
3. – i.
4. – ii.
5. – iv.

IV. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are artificial magnets?
Answer:
Man-made magnets are called artificial magnets.
(Eg.) bar-magnets, horseshoe magnets.

Question 2.
What are the different types of artificial magnets?
Answer:

1. Bar-magnet, Horseshoe magnet, Ring magnet and Needle magnet are generally used artificial magnets.
2. Oval-shape, Disc shape and cylindrical shape magnets are also available.

Question 3.
What are magnetic substances?
Answer:
Substances which are attracted by magnets are called magnetic substances. (Eg.) Iron, Cobolt, Nickel

Question 4.
What are non-magnetic substances?
Answer:
Substances which are not attracted by magnets are called non-magnetic substances. (Eg.) Paper, Plastic etc.

Question 5.
What are the uses of magnets?
Answer:

1. We use various equipment with magnets in day to day life.
2. We use magnets in speakers, small electric motors, some door locks, bags, some toys, compass, pencil boxes, phone covers, pin holders and magnetic crane.

V. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are the storage methods of magnets?
Answer:

1. Improper storage can also cause magnets to lose their properties.
2. To keep them safe, bar magnets should be kept in pairs with their unlike poles on the same side.
3. They must be seperated by a piece of wood and two pieces of soft iron should be placed across their ends.
4. For a horse shoe magnet a single piece of soft iron can be used as a magnetic keeper across the poles.

Question 2.
How to find directions with a magnet?
Answer:

1. Tie a piece of thread to the centre of a bar magnet and suspend it freely.
2. Note the direction in which the magnet stops.
3. Draw a line on a cardboard sheet along the direction in which the bar magnet stops, (ie., a line parallel to the bar magnet)
4. Turn the magnet gently and let it come to stop again.
5. Repeat it three or four times. The magnet always comes to rest in north-south direction.

VI. Questions based on higher-order thinking skills:

Question 1.
When iron needle is rubbed with bar magnet the needle get magnetized. But rubber piece is rubbed with magnet it will not get magnetized. Why?
Answer:
Because rubber is a non-magnetic substance.

Question 2.
What will happen when we place magnets near cell phone, computer and DVD?
Answer:

1. Magnets will lose their property.
2. These objects also will get affected.

Students can download 6th Science Term 2 Chapter 7 Parts of Computer Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 7 Parts of Computer

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Parts of Computer Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is an output device?
(a) Mouse
(b) Keyboard
(c) Speaker
(d) Pen drive
Answer:
(c) Speaker

Question 2.
Name the cable that connects CPU to the Monitor
(a) Ethernet
(b) VGA cable
(c) HDMI
(d) USB
Answer:
(b) VGA cable

Question 3.
Which one of the following is an input device?
(a) Speaker
(b) Keyboard
(c) Monitor
(d) Printer
Answer:
(b) Keyboard

Question 4.
Which one of the following is an example for wireless connections?
(a) Wi-Fi
(b) Electric wires
(c) VGA
(d) USB
Answer:
(a) Wi-Fi

Question 5.
Pen drive is ……… device.
(a) Output
(b) Input
(c) Storage
(d) Connecting cable
Answer:
(c) Storage

II. Match the following

Answer:
1. – Connecting Cable
2. – wireless connection
3. – Output device
4. – Input device
5. – LDMI

III. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Name the parts of a computer.
Answer:
The computer has three parts like,
1. Input unit
2. Central Processing Unit
3. Output

Question 2.
Answer:

Activity

Look at the magic of connecting cables to desktop computer with 4,3,2,1 formula, start from 4 proceed till 1. Now your computer is ready to use.

By connecting the various parts of a computer we can assemble a computer. For the construction activity, students have to use 4-3-2-1 formula.

A system consist of mouse, key board, monitor, CPU, power cables, and connecting cables Students has to connect the four parts of a computer in row 4, using the cables in row 3, through the power cables in row 2 to construct a system.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Parts of Computer Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not important part of computer?
(a) Input device
(b) Output device
(c) Mouse
(d) Central Processing Unit
Answer:
(c) Mouse

Question 2.
The page on the monitor can be moved up and down using the _______
(a) Right button
(b) Scroll ball
(c) Left button
(d) Number key
Answer:
(b) Scroll ball

Question 3.
Which one of the following is an example for wireless connection.
(a) USB
(b) power cord
(c) HDMI
(d) wi-fi
Answer:
(d) wi-fi

Question 4.
The data is measured in units which is called as _______
(a) micron
(b) meter
(c) millimeter
(d) Bit
Answer:
(d) Bit

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ………, ……….. plays a role of data in computer.
2. …….. controls the functions of all parts of the computer.
3. Memory unit divided into ………. types.
4. The data is measured in units which is called as ………..
5. Mouse is connected with the computer using ………..

Answer:

1. Numbers and alphabets
2. control unit
3. 2
4. Bit
5. USB cord or cable

III. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – e
5. – b

Students can download 6th Science Term 2 Chapter 6 Human Organ Systems Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 6 Human Organ Systems

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Human Organ Systems Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The circulatory system transports these throughout the body
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nutrient
(c) Hormones
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 2.
Main organ of respiration in human body is
(a) Stomach
(b) Spleen
(c) Heart
(d) Lungs
Answer:
(d) Lungs

Question 3.
Breakdown of food into smaller molecules in our body is known as
(a) Muscle contraction
(b) Respiration
(c) Digestion
(d) Excretion
Answer:
(a) Digestion

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. A group of organs together make up an ………. system.
2. The part of the skeleton that protects the brain is …………
3. The process by which the body removes waste is ………..
4. The ………. is the largest sense organ in our body.
5. The endocrine glands produce chemical substances called …………

Answer:

1. Organ
2. Skull
3. Excretion
4. Skin
5. hormones

III. True or False. If False, give the correct answer.

1. Blood is produced in the bone marrow.
2. All the waste products of the body are excreted through the circulatory system.
3. The other name of the food pipe is an alimentary canal.
4. Thin tube-like structures which are the component of the circulatory system are called blood vessels.
5. The brain, the spinal cord, and nerves form the nervous system.

Answer:

1. False – RBC’s are produced in the bone marrow.
2. False – All the waste products are transported through the circulatory system.
3. False – The other name of the digestive tract is an alimentary canal.
4. True
5. True

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – e
3. – b
4. – a
5. – d

V. Arrange in the correct sequence

Question 1.
Stomach → Large intestine → Oesophagus → Pharynx → Mouth → Small Intestine → Rectum → Anus
Answer:
Mouth → Pharynx → Oesophagus → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine → Rectum

Question 2.
Urethra → Ureter → Urinary Bladder → Kidney
Answer:
Kidney → Ureter → Urinary bladder → Urethra

VI. Analogy

1. Arteries : Carry blood from the heart:: ……….. : Carry blood to the heart.
2. Lungs : Respiratory system :: ……….. : Circulatory system.
3. Enzymes : Digestive glands :: ………… : Endocrine glands

Answer:

1. Veins
2. Heart
3. Hormones

VII. Give a Very short answer:

Question 1.
Describe the skeletal system.
Answer:

1. The skeletal system consists of bones, cartilages and joints.
2. Bones provide a framework for the body.
3. Bones along with muscles help in movements such as walking, running, chewing and dancing etc.

Question 2.
Write the functions of epiglottis?
Answer:

1. It prevents the entry of food into the windpipe.
2. It opens when the air enters the windpipe.

Question 3.
What are the three types of blood vessels?
Answer:

1. Arteries
2. Veins
3. Capillaries

Question 4.
Define the term “Trachea”
Answer:

1. The trachea commonly called “Windpipe” is a tube supported by cartilaginous rings.
2. It connects the pharynx and larynx to the lungs.
3. Allowing the passage of air.

Question 5.
Write any two functions of the digestive system.
Answer:

1. The digestive system is involved in the conversion of complex food substances into simple forms.
2. Absorption of digested food.

Question 6.
Name the important parts of the eye?
Three main parts.
Answer:

1. Cornea
2. Iris
3. Pupil

Question 7.
Name the five important sense organs.
Answer:

1. Eyes
2. Ears
3. Nose
4. Tongue
5. Skin

VIII. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
Write a short note on the rib cage.
Answer:

1. The rib cage is made up of 12 pairs of curved, flat rib bones.
2. It protects the delicate vital organs such as the heart and lungs.

Question 2.
List out the functions of the human skeleton.
Answer:

1. The skeletal system gives shape to the body.
2. Bones provide a framework for the body.
3. Bones along with muscles help in movements such as walking, running, chewing and dancing, etc.
4. It protects the soft internal organs.

Question 3.
Differentiate between the voluntary muscles and involuntary muscles.
Answer:

IX. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
List out the functions of the Endocrine system and Nervous system.
Answer:

1. Endocrine system regulates various functions of the body and maintains the internal environment.
2. Endocrine glands produce chemical substances called “Hormones’ which control various activities of the body.
   Eg. Growth hormone controls growth, the Adrenalin hormone acts at the time of fear stress, etc.

Functions of the nervous system:

1. Sensory input: The conduction of signals from sensory receptors.
2. Integration: The interpretation of the sensory signals and the formulation of responses.
3. Motor output: The conduction of signals from the brain and spinal card to effectors such as muscle and gland cells.

Question 2.
Label the diagram given below to show the four main parts of the urinary system and answer the following questions.

a. Which organ removes extra salts and water from the blood?
b. Where is the urine stored?
c. What is the tube through which urine is excreted out of the body?
d. What are the tubes that transfer urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder called?
Answer:
a. The functional units of the kidney are called Nephrons which filter the blood and form the urine.
b. Urine is stored in the urinary bladder.
c. Urine is expelled out through the urethra.
d. The ureters that transfer urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
What will happen if the diaphragm shows no movement?
Answer:

1. The diaphragm is the primary organ of breathing.
2. The movement of the diaphragm expands the lungs and creates a vacuum.
3. Due to this, the air is sucked in.
4. If the diaphragm does not move the lungs do not expand or contract and breathing stops.
5. The person will die.

Question 2.
Why is the heart divided into two halves by a thick muscular wall?
Answer:

1. The ventricles of the heart have thicker muscular walls than the atria.
2. The left ventricle also has a thicker muscular wall than the right ventricle.
3. This is due to the higher forces needed to pump blood through the systemic circuit compared to the pulmonary circuit.

Question 3.
Why do we sweat more in summer?
Answer:

1. Sweating plays an important health role as it helps to maintain constant body temperature by cooling us down.
2. When it is hot and we sweat that moisture evaporates and cools us immediately.
3. This is why we sweat more when the summer is very hot.

Question 4.
Why do we hiccup and cough sometimes when we swallow food?
Answer:
Reasons for hiccup and cough :

1. Eating too – quickly and swallowing air along with foods.
2. Eating too – many fatty or spicy foods in particular.
3. Drinking too much-carbonated beverages or alcohol can distend the stomach and irritate the diaphragm which can cause hiccups.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Human Organ Systems Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
A newborn baby has ……….. bones.
(a) 206
(b) More than 200
(c) More than 300
(d) 210
Answer:
(c) More than 300

Question 2.
_______ connect bone to muscle.
(a) Skeleton
(b) Tendons
(c) Cartilages
(d) Ligaments
Answer:
(b) Tendons

Question 3.
The walls of the heart is made up of
(a) Voluntary muscles
(b) Cardiae muscles
(c) Involuntary muscles
(d) Biceps muscle
Answer:
(b) Cardiac muscles

Question 4.
_______ muscles are found in the walls of the digestive tract, urinary bladder arteries, and other internal organs.
(a) Bone
(b) Smooth
(c) Cardiac
(d) triceps
Answer:
(b) Smooth

Question 5.
The bronchi divide further and end in small air sacs called
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Thymus
(c) Alveoli
(d) Pinna
Answer:
(c) Alveoli

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The adult human skeletal system consists of 206 bones and a few ………., ……… and ………..
2. The brain is covered by a three-layered tissue covering called………..
3. When we are walking, running or climbing the balance of the body is maintained by ………….
4. The endocrine gland present in the chest is …………..
5. The ………. brings blood containing oxygen and urea from the aorta to the kidneys.
6. connects the brain to a different part of the body through nerves.

Answer:

1. cartilages, ligaments, and tendons
2. meninges
3. Ears
4. Thymus Gland
5. renal artery
6. spinal cord

III. Match the Following:

Answer
1. – iii.
2. – i.
3. – iv.
4. – v.
5. – ii.

IV. Arrange in the correct sequence

Question 1.
Trachea → Bronchi → Pharynx → Lungs → Larynx → Nasal cavity → Nostrils → Bronchiole → Alveolus
Answer:
Nostrils → Nasal cavity → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchiole → Alveolus

Question 2.
Middle ear → Pinna → Outer ear → Inner ear
Answer:
Pinna → Outer ear → Middle ear → Inner ear.

V. Analogy

1. Skull: Made up of cranial bones and facial bones :: ………… : Made up of 12 pairs of curved flat rib bones
2. Biceps : Bends the arm at the elbow :: ……….. : Straightens the elbow

Answer:

1. Ribcage
2. Triceps

VI. Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are the two major divisions of the skeletal system?
Answer:
The two major divisions of the skeletal system are.

1. Axial skeleton
2. Appendicular skeleton.

Question 2.
Name the auditory ossicles.
Answer:

1. Malleus
2. Incus
3. Stapes

Question 3.
Which is the longest bone in our body?
Answer:
The thigh bone (femur) is the longest bone.

Question 4.
What is the name of the muscles in the heart?
Answer:
Cardiac muscle.

Question 5.
What is the length of the Alimentary canal?
Answer:
9 metres.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Tabulate the differences between arteries and veins.
Answer:
Arteries:

1. Carry blood from the heart to all parts of the body.
2. Carry oxygenated blood (Except pulmonary artery).
3. They have thick elastic muscular walls.
4. Valves are absent.
5. Blood flows under high pressure.

Veins:

1. Carry blood from all parts of the body back to the heart.
2. Carry deoxygenated blood (Except pulmonary vein).
3. They have thin non-elastic valves.
4. Valves are present to prevent the backward flow of blood.
5. Blood flows under low pressure.

Question 2.
Differentiate arteries from a vein and tabulate your answer.
Answer:

Students can download 6th Science Term 2 Chapter 5 The Cell Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 5 The Cell

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Cell Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The unit of measurement used for expressing dimension (size) of cell is
(a) centimeter
(b) millimeter
(c) micrometer
(d) meter
Answer:
(c) micrometer

Question 2.
Under the microscope, Priya observes a cell that has a cell wall and a distinct nucleus. The cell that she observed is
(a) a plant cell
(b) an animal cell
(c) a nerve cell
(d) a bacteria cell
Answer:
(d) a bacteria cell

Question 3.
A ‘control centre’ of the eukaryotic cell is
(a) Cell wall
(b) Nucleus
(c) Vacuoles
(d) Chloroplast
Answer:
(b) Nucleus

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not a unicellular organism?
(a) Yeast
(b) Amoeba
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Bacteria
Answer:
(c) Spirogyra

Question 5.
Most organelles in a eukaryotic cell are found in the
(a) Cell wall
(b) cytoplasm
(c) nucleus
(d) Vacuole
Answer:
(b) cytoplasm

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The instrument used to observe the cell is ………..
2. I control the food production of a cell. Who am I? ………..
3. I am like a policeman. Who am I ………?
4. The Term “cell” was coined by ………..
5. The egg of an Ostrich is the ……….. single cell.

Answer:

1. Microscope
2. Chloroplast
3. Cell membrane
4. Robert Hooke
5. Largest

III. True or False. If False, give the correct answer.

1. A cell is the smallest unit of life.
2. Nerve cell is the longest cell
3. Prokaryotes were the first form of life on earth.
4. The organelles of both plants and animals are made up of cells. (Organelles – Found inside the cell)
5. New cells are produced from existing cells.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – e
4. – a
5. – b

V. Arrange in a correct sequence

Question 1.
Elephant, Cow, Bacteria, Mango, Rose plant.
Answer:
Bacteria, Mango, Rose plant, Cow, Elephant.

Question 2.
Hen Egg, Ostrich egg, Insect egg.
Answer:
Insect egg, Hen egg, Ostrich egg

VI. Analogy

1. Prokaryote : Bacteria :: Eukaryote : ………..
2. Spirogyra : Plant cell :: Amoeba : ………….
3. Food producer : Chloroplasts :: Power house : …………

Answer:

1. Plants, Animals
2. Animal cell
3. Mitochondria

VII. Give a Very short answer:

Question 1.
Who discovered the cell in 1665?
Answer:
The English scientist Robert Hooke discovered the cell in 1665 from cork slices kept under a microscope.

Question 2.
What type of cells do we have?
Answer:
We have a Eukaryotic type of cells.

Question 3.
What are the essential components of a cell?
Answer:
A typical cell consists of three major parts.

1. An outer cell membrane
2. A liquid cytoplasm
3. Nucleus

Question 4.
What are the organelles found only in plant cells?
Answer:

1. Cell wall
2. Chloroplast

Question 5.
Give any three examples of eukaryotic cells.
Answer:

1. Plant cells
2. Animal cells
3. Most of fungi and Algae

Question 6.
Which one is called as “Area of movement”?
Answer:
The cytoplasm is a watery, gel-like material in which cell parts move. So it is known as an “Area of movement”.

Question 7.
Shiva said, “Bigger onion has larger cells when compared to the cells of the smaller onion”! Do you agree with his statement or not? Explain why?
Answer:
No, the big onion and small onion both of them have plant cell and the size of every cell remains the same whether it is of a small onion or big one. The shape is larger means that the number of cells is more in bigger onion.

VIII. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
Why cells are called building blocks of life?
Answer:
A brick is a basic building block of a wall, likewise, the cells are the basic structural and functional unit of every living organism. So the cells are called as building blocks of life.

Question 2.
Identify any four parts of the plant cell?

Answer:
A – Cell Wall,
B – Cytoplasm,
C – Nucleus,
D – Mitochondria

Question 3.
Distinguish between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
Answer:

Question 4.
Make sketches of animal and plant cells which you observe under the microscope.
Answer:

Cell Wall & Chloroplasts – Absent in Animal Cells
Centrioles – Absent in Plant Cells

Question 5.
Write about the contribution of Robert Hooke in cell biology
Answer:
Robert Hooke was a scientist and inventor. He improved the microscope and built a compound microscope. One day he made thin sections of the cork and observed many small identical chambers through his microscope. They were hexagonal in shape. Based on these observations Hooke published a book named Micrographia in the year 1665, where he first used the term Cell. He describes the structure of tissue using the term cell.

IX. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Tabulate any five cell organelles and their function.
Answer:

Question 2.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of a prokaryotic cell.
Answer:

X. Project (For Students)

Question 1.
Use your imagination and create a 3-D model of a plant cell?

Question 2.
You can use numerous food materials such as jelly and some cake to make a cell body. Cell organelles can be made using nuts and dry fruits. You can display the model in your classroom and invite teachers or students from other classes to rise questions on the project and try to give answers.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Cell Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
The first cell formed in the earth
(a) Eukaryotic cell
(b) Algal cell
(c) Fungal cell
(d) Prokaryotic cell
Answer:
(d) Prokaryotic cell

Question 2.
Robert Hooke published a book named ______ in the year 1665.
(a) Cellula
(b) Micrographia
(c) Cell biology
(d) Organelles
Answer:
(b) Micrographia

Question 3.
The pigment present in leaf to absorb light is
(a) chlorophyll
(b) chloroplast
(c) chromoplast
(d) leucoplast
Answer:
(a) chlorophyll

Question 4.
The largest cell is the egg of an ______ with 170-millimeter width.
(a) Ostrich
(b) viper
(c) tortoise
(d) Hen
Answer:
(a) Ostrich

II. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Chloroplast is a cell organelle
Reason (R) : An organelle is a distinct part of the cell which has a particular structure and Function.
(a) Assertion (A) and Reason R – True and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R – true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A True but R False
(d) A False but R True
Answer:
(a) Assertion (A) and Reason R – True and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Mitochondria is an important organ cell of the cell
Reason (R) : Mitochondria is involved in food preparation
(a) Assertion (A) and Reason R – True and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R – true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A True but R False
(d) A False but R True
Answer:
(c) A True but R False

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – B
2. – D
3. – E
4. – C

IV. Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Arrange the following cells in the order of their size.
(a) Bacteria cell
(b) Frogs egg
(c) Hen’s egg
(d) Human egg.
Answer:
(a) Bacterial cell
(b) Human egg
(c) Frogs egg
(d) Hen’s egg

Question 2.
How do you distinguish between living and dead cells?
Answer:
Living cells have a nucleus (Eg.) Onion peel cells.
Non-Living cells don’t have a nucleus (Eg.) Cork ceils.

Question 3.
Name the largest Angiosperm cell
Answer:
The largest Angiosperm cell is citrus reticulata (clearly visible in orange pulp) & citrus maxima.

Question 4.
Name the organelle without membrane.
Answer:
Ribosomes are the cell organelle in which the membrane is absent.

Question 5.
Identify the following diagram and label A, B, C, D

Answer:
The diagram is the structure of the chloroplast
A – outer membrane
B – inner membrane
C – Thylakoid
D – stroma

Question 6.
Identify the following diagram and label A, B, C

Answer:
A – Outer Membrane
B – Cristae
C – Matrix

Question 7.
Identify the following diagram and label A, B, C

Answer:
Structure of Nucleus
A – Nuclear membrane
B – Nuclear pore
C – Nucleolus
D – Chromatin reticulum