Category: Class 10

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 20 Breeding and Biotechnology Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 20 Breeding and Biotechnology

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Breeding and Biotechnology Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which method of crop improvement can be practised by a farmer if he is inexperienced?
(a) clonal selection
(b) mass selection
(c) pureline selection
(d) hybridisation
Answer:
(b) mass selection

Question 2.
Pusa Komal is a disease resistant variety of ______.
(a) sugarcane
(b) rice
(c) cow pea
(d) maize.
Answer:
(c) cow pea

Question 3.
Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of:
(a) chilli
(b) maize
(c) sugarcane
(d) wheat
Answer:
(d) wheat

Question 4.
The miracle rice which saved millions of lives and celebrated its 50th birthday is ______.
(a) IR – 8
(b) IR – 24
(c) Atomita – 2
(d) Ponni.
Answer:
(a) IR – 8

Question 5.
Which of the following is used to produce products useful to humans by biotechnology techniques?
(a) enzyme from organism
(b) live organism
(c) vitamins
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) enzyme from organism

Question 6.
We can cut the DNA with the help of ______.
(a) scissors
(b) restriction endonucleases
(c) knife
(d) RNAase.
Answer:
(b) restriction endonucleases

Question 7.
rDNA is a:
(a) vector DNA
(b) circular DNA
(c) recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA:
(d) satellite DNA
Answer:
(c) recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA:

Question 8.
DNA fingerprinting is based on the principle of identifying ______ sequences of DNA.
(a) single-stranded
(b) mutated
(c) polymorphic
(d) repetitive.
Answer:
(d) repetitive

Question 9.
Organisms with modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are also known as:
(a) transgenic organsims
(b) genetically modified
(c) mutated
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) transgenic organsims

Question 10.
In a hexaploid wheat (2n = 6x = 42) the haploid (n) and the basic (x) number of chromosomes respectively are ______.
(a) n = 7 and x = 21
(b) n = 21 and x = 21
(c) n = 7 and x = 7
(d) n = 21 and x = 7.
Answer:
(d) n = 21 and x = 7.

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Economically important crop plants with superior quality are raised by ………..
2. A protein rich wheat variety is ………
3. ………. is the chemical used for doubling the chromosomes.
4. The scientific process which produces crop plants enriched with desirable nutrients are called ………
5. Rice normally grows well in alluvial soil, but ………… is a rice variety produced by mutation breeding that grows well in saline soil.
6. ……….. technique made it possible to genetically engineer living organism.
7. Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA molecule at specific positions known as …………
8. Similar DNA fingerprinting is obtained for ………..
9. ………… cells are undifferentiated mass of cells.
10. In gene cloning the DNA of interest is integrated in a …………
Answer:
1. Hybridization
2. Altas 66
3. Colchicine
4. Bio fortification
5. Atomita 2 rice
6. Recombinant
7. Phosphodiester
8. Identical twins
9. stem cells
10. bacterial cell

III. State whether true or false. If false, write the correct statement:

1. Raphanobrassica is a tetraploid man-made genus produced by colchicine treatment.
2. The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is called mutation.
3. A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual reproduction are called a pureline.
4. Iron fortified rice variety determines the protein quality of the cultivated plant.
5. Golden rice is a hybrid.
6. Bt gene from bacteria can kill insects. ,
7. In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation done inside the body.
8. DNA fingerprinting technique was developed by Alec Jeffrey.
9. Molecular scissors refers to DNA ligases.
Answer:
1. False – Raphanobrassica is a allotetra ploid man-made genus produced by colchicine treatment.
2. False – The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is called polyploidy.
3. True
4. False – Iron rich rice variety determines the protein quality of the cultivated plant.
5. False – Golden rice is a genetically modified plant
6. True
7. False – In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation done outside the body.
8. True
9. False – Molecular scissors refers to Restriction enzymes

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)
F. (viii)
G. (vi)
H. (vii)

V. Understand the assertion statement, justify the reason given and choose the correct choice:

(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong.
(c) Both assertion and reason is correct.
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong.
1. Assertion : Hybrid is superior than either of its parents.
Reason: Hybrid vigour is lost upon inbreeding.
Answer:
(c) Both assertion and reason is correct.

2. Assertion: Colchicine reduces the chromosome number.
Reason: It promotes the movement of sister chromatids to the opposite poles.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong.

3. Assertion: rDNA is superior over hybridisation techniques.
Reason: Desired genes are inserted without introducing the undesirable genes in target organisms.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.

VI. Answer in a sentence:

Question 1.
Give the name of the wheat variety having higher dietary fibre and protein.
Answer:
Triticale a hybrid of wheat having dietary fibre and protein.

Question 2.
Semi-dwarf varieties were introduced in rice. This was made possible by the presence of the dwarfing gene in rice. Name this dwarfing gene.
Answer:
The dwarfing gene is Sd.I.

Question 3.
Define genetic engineering.
Answer:
Genetic engineering is the manipulation and transfer of genes from one, organism to another organism to create a new DNA called as recombinant DNA(rDNA).

Question 4.
Name the types of stem cells?
Answer:
Embryonic stem cell and Adult stem cell or somatic stem cell, are the two types of stem cells.

Question 5.
What are transgenic organisms?
Answer:
Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene is known as transgenic organism.

Question 6.
State the importance of bio-fertiliser.
Answer:
Increasing the harvest yields, improving soil structure, better water relation, economical, eco – friendly and more efficient farms are due importance of biofertilizer.

VII. Short Answers Questions:

Question 1.
Discuss the method of breeding for disease resistance.
Answer:

Question 2.
Name three improved characteristics of wheat that helped India to achieve high productivity.
Answer:

1. High yielding
2. Semi – dwarf
3. Fertilizer responsive.

These are the three improved characteristics of wheat that helped India to achieve high productivity. Sonalika and Kalyan Sona are the high yielding varieties of wheat.

Question 3.
Name two maize hybrids rich in amino acid lysine.
Answer:
Protina, shakthi are the maize hybrids rich in amino acid lysin.

Question 4.
Distinguish between
(a) somatic gene therapy and germ line gene therapy.
Answer:
Somatic gene therapy :
It is the replacement of defective gene in somatic cells.

Germ line gene therapy :
It is replacement of defective gene in germ cell (egg and sperm).

(b) undifferentiated cells and differentiated cells.
Answer:
Undifferentiated cells :
The cells which have not become specialized are called undifferentiated cells.
Eg: Cells in early embryos

Differentiated cells :
The cells which have become specialized for doing certain job.
Eg: Muscle cell, nerve cell.

Question 5.
State the applications of DNA fingerprinting technique.
Answer:
DNA fingerprinting technique is widely used in forensic applications such as identifying the – culprit. It is also used for paternity testing in case of disputes. It also helps in the study of genetic diversity of population, evolution and speciation.

Question 6.
How are stem cells useful in regenerative process?
Answer:
If cells, tissues and organs in the body get permanently damaged or lost due to genetic condition or disease or injury, it can be cured by regeneration process of stem cell. In stem cell therapy, stem cells are used to replace the damage of lost cells.

Question 7.
Differentiate between outbreeding and inbreeding.
Answer:
Outbreeding Inbreeding

VIII. Long Answers Questions:

Question 1.
What are the effects of hybrid vigour in animals?
Answer:
The superiority of the hybrid, obtained by cross-breeding is called heterosis or hybrid vigour.
Effects of hybrid vigour in animal breeding:

• Increased production of milk by cattle.
• Increased production of an egg by poultry.
• High quality of meat is produced.
• The increased growth rate in domesticated animals.

Question 2.
Describe mutation breeding with an example.
Answer:
Mutation is defined as the sudden heritable change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA in an organism. It is a process by which genetic variations are created which in turn brings about changes in the organism. The organism which undergoes mutation is called a mutant.

The factors which induce mutations are known as mutagens or mutagenic agents. Mutagens are of two types namely physical mutagens and chemical mutagens.
(i) Physical mutagens : Radiations like X-rays, a, (3 and y-rays, UV rays, temperature etc. which induce mutations are called physical mutagens
(ii) Chemical mutagens : Chemical substances that induce mutations are called chemical mutagens. Eg: Mustard gas and nitrous acid. The utilisation of induced mutation in crop improvement is called mutation breeding.

Achievements of mutation breeding: Some achievements of mutation breeding are-
(a) Sharbati Sonora wheat produced from Sonora-64 by using gamma rays.
(b) Atomita 2 rice with saline tolerance and pest resistance
(c) Groundnuts with thick shells

Question 3.
Biofortification may help in removing hidden hunger. How?
Answer:
Biofortification is the scientific process of helping crop plants, enriched with high levels of desirable nutrients like vitamins, proteins and minerals. Micronutrient malnutrition is called hidden hunger, the lack of micronutrients such as vitamin A, zinc and iron in the diet.

Biofortification is effective in removing hidden hunger and improving the nutritional value of food. Scientists breed crops whose edible parts (seed, tuber and roots) have improved nutritional value. Biofortified foods can contribute to body stores of micronutrients throughout the life cycle.
Some example of crop varieties developed as a result of biofortification are:

• Protina, Shakti and Rathna are lysine-rich maize hybrids.
• Atlas 66, a protein-rich wheat variety.
• Iron-rich fortified rice variety.
• Vitamin A enriched carrots, pumpkin and spinach.

Question 4.
With a neat labelled diagram explain the techniques involved in gene cloning.
Answer:

In gene cloning, a gene or a piece of DNA fragment is inserted into a bacterial cell where DNA will be multiplied (copied) as the cell divides. A brief outline of the basic steps involved in gene cloning are:

1. Isolation of desired DNA fragment by using restriction enzymes.
2. Insertion of the DNA fragment into a suitable vector (Plasmid) to make rDNA.
3. Transfer of rDNA into bacterial host cell (Transformation)
4. Selection and multiplication of recombinant host cell to get a clone.
5. Expression of cloned gene in host cell.
   Using this strategy several enzymes, hormones and vaccines can be produced.

Question 5.
Discuss the importance of biotechnology in the field of medicine.
Answer:
Using genetic engineering techniques, medicinally important valuable proteins or polypeptides, which form the potential pharmaceutical products for the treatment of various diseases have been developed on a commercial scale.
Pharmaceutical products developed by rDNA technique:

• Insulin used in the treatment of diabetes.
• Human growth hormone used for treating children with growth deficiencies.
• Blood clotting factors are developed to treat haemophilia.
• Tissue plasminogen activator is used to dissolve blood clots and to prevent heart attack.
• Development of vaccines against various diseases like hepatitis B and rabies.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
A breeder wishes to incorporate desirable characters into the crop plants. Prepare a list of characters he will incorporate.
Answer:
Tallness and profuse branching are desirable characters for fodder crop.

Question 2.
Organic farming is better than Green Revolution. Give reasons.
Answer:
Green revolution is the process of increasing food production through high yielding crop varieties and modem agricultural techniques. Organic farming is a method of crop production in an ecofriendly and pollution free environment to release nutrients to crop. As organic farming is an ecofriendly and pollution free, it is better than green revolution.

Question 3.
Polyploids are characterised by gigantism. Justify your answer.
Answer:
An organism having more than 2 sets of chromosomes is called polyploid. It can be induced by physical events such as heat or cold treatment, X – rays and chemical agents like colchicine. Polyploid cell or organism has three or more times the haploid chromosomal number.

Polyploid has a major role in the evolution of both wild and cultivated plants. Polyploid has a key role in plant breeding. There are increase and increased woodiness which has been observed in some insular plants. So polyploids are characterized by gigantism.

Question 4.
‘P’ is a gene required for the synthesis of vitamin A. It is integrated with genome of ‘Q’ to produce genetically modified plant ‘R’
(i) What is P, Q and R?
(ii) State the importance of ‘R’ in India.
Answer:
(i) P is Beta carotene gene
Q Bio fortification
R Golden rice

(ii) Golden rice is genetically modified rice can produce beta carotene,that prevent vitamin A deficiency.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Breeding and Biotechnology Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Modem biotechnology consist:
(a) Genetic engineering
(b) Tissue culture
(c) Gene cloning
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 2.
The disease-resistant cauliflower variety is ______.
(a) Himgiri
(b) Pusa Shubhra
(c) Pusa Komal
(d) IR – 8.
Answer:
(b) Pusa Shubhra

Question 3.
Transgenic animals has:
(a) Foreign DNA in all its cell
(b) Foreign RNA in all its cells
(c) Foreign DNA in some of the cells
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Foreign DNA in all its cell

Question 4.
The gamete cells, which have only one set of chromosomes is called ______.
(a) diploid
(b) polyploid
(c) triploid
(d) haploid.
Answer:
(d) haploid.

Question 5.
A kind of Biotechnology involving manipulation of DNA is:
(a) DNA replication
(b) Denaturation
(c) Genetic Engineering
(d) Renaturation
Answer:
(c) Genetic Engineering

Question 6.
A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using:
(a) ECORI
(b) Taq polymerase
(c) Polymerase III
(d) Ligase
Answer:
(d) Ligase

Question 7.
Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with Vitamin ‘A’ deficiency?
(a) Golden Rice
(b) Bt-Brinjal
(c) Flaver savr tomato
(d) Canolla
Answer:
(a) Golden Rice

Question 8.
Restriction endonucleses are enzymes which:
(a) Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule.
(b) Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule.
(c) Recognise a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase.
(d) Restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase.
Answer:
(b) Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule.

Question 9.
……….. is the Father of Indian Green Revolution.
(a) Nammalvar
(b) Dr Borloug
(c) Dr M.S.Swaminathan
(d) Dr Sultan Ismail
Answer:
(c) Dr M.S.Swaminathan

Question 10.
New lined of sheep developed in Punjab is:
(a) Sahiwal
(b) Hisardale
(c) Triticale
(d) Sharbati sonara
Answer:
(b) Hisardale

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ………. is a cross between Male Donkey and Female Horse.
2. ……….. is a DNA molecule found in the cytoplasm of bacterial cell.
3. ………. was the first cloned female sheep.
4. Human insulin can be synthesized by using ……….
5. In genetic engineering, a DNA segment is transfered to the host cell through ………..
6. Genetically identical individuals are ………..
7. Ligase is used for joining two ………..
8. Enzyme that cleaves nucleic acids within the polynucleotide chain is known as …………
9. The bacterium used as biopesticide is …………
10. A strain of golden rice contains high content of …………..
Answer:
1. Mule
2. Plasmid
3. Dolly
4. rDNA technology
5. Vector
6. Clones
7. DNA fragments
8. Endonuclease
9. Bacillus thuringiensis.
10. Vitamin A

III. State whether true or false. If false, write the correct statement:

1. The structure used to transfer the piece of DNA attached to it into a host ceil is vector.
2. Restriction endonucleases are used to join the DNA fragments having sticky ends.
3. The progeny of a single individual obtained by self breeding is clonal selection.
4. The aim of crop improvement is to develop improved crop varieties.
5. International Rice Research institute (IRRI) is in Indonesia.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – Restriction endonucleases are used to join the DNA fragments having ligase ends.
3. False – The progeny of a single individual obtained by self breeding is pureline selection.
4. True
5. False – International Rice Research institute (IRRI) is in Philippines.

IV. M.atch the following:

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (iv)

V. Understand the assertion statement, justify the reason given and choose the correct choice:

(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong
(c) Both assertion and reason is correct
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong
1. Assertion: Bacillus thuringiensis is toxic to many insects.
Reason: It inhibits ion transport in the mid gut.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong

2. Assertion.: Recombinant DNA technology has become successful due to restriction endonucleases present in Eukaryotic cells.
Reason: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA molecule to form blunt ends.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason is wrong

VI. Answer in a word or sentence:

Question 1.
Name two neurodegenerative disorders.
Answer:
Parkinson’s disease and Alzheimer disease.

Question 2.
Name two chemical mutagens.
Answer:
Mustard gas and nitrous acid.

Question 3.
What is plant breeding?
Answer:
Plant breeding is the art of developing economically important plants with superior quality.

Question 4.
What is the aim of Animal husbandry?
Answer:
The aim of Animal husbandry is to improve the genotypes of animals to make them more useful to the welfare of mankind.

Question 5.
What are exotic species?
Answer:
The process of introducing high yield varieties of plants from one place to another are called as exotic species.

Question 6.
List the two main aspects of hybridization.
Answer:
Combining the characters of two plants in one plant and to utilize hybrid vigour are the two main aspects of hybridization.

Question 7.
What is heterosis?
Answer:
The superiority of the hybrid obtained by cross breeding is called heterosis.

Question 8.
What are plasmids?
Answer:
Circular, self-replicating, extra chromosomal DNA in bacteria.

Question 9.
What is transgene?
Answer:
A gene which is transferred from one organism into another organism by genetic engineering.

Question 10.
Name the Research institute found by Nammalvar.
Answer:
Nammalvar ecological foundation for farm research and global food security trust.

VII. Short Answers Questions:

Question 1.
List out the pest-resistant crop varieties.
Answer:

Question 2.
What does the nutritional quality of crop depend on?
Answer:
The nutritional quality of crops depends on the quality and quantity of nutrients.
The nutritional quality may be improved with respect to its:

• Protein content and quality of proteins.
• Oil content.
• Mineral content.

Question 3.
Write a note on Gamma Garden.
Answer:
Gamma garden or Atomic garden is a concept popularised after World War -II for the peaceful use of atomic energy for crop improvement. This is a type of induced mutation breeding where radioactive sources particularly gamma rays from Cobalt-60 or Caesium-137 are used to induce desirable mutations in crop plants.

Question 4.
An organism having more than two sets of chromosomes is called polyploid. It can be induced by physical agents such as heat or cold treatment, X-rays and chemical agents like colchicine.
Answer:
Achievements of polyploidy breeding:

• Seedless watermelons (3n) and bananas (3n).
• TV – 29 (triploid variety of tea) with larger shoots and drought tolerance.
• Triticale (6n) is a hybrid of wheat and rye: It has higher dietary fibre and protein.
• Rapuano brassica is an allotetraploid by colchicine treatment.

Question 5.
Mention the two important properties of stem cells.
Answer:

1. Its ability to divide and give rise to more stem cells by self-renewal.
2. Its ability to give rise to specialised cells with specific functions by the process of differentiation.

Question 6.
Illustrate hybridization with example.
Answer:
Triticale is the first man made cereal hybrid. It is obtained by crossing wheat Triticum durum (2n = 28) and rye (secale cereal, 2n = 14)
Parent Tritium durum × Secale cereal

VIII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain the following methods of plant breeding for crop improvement.
Answer:
(a) Introduction of new varieties in plants:
The process of introducing high yielding varieties of plants from one place to another is called exotic species. These imported plants may carry pathogens and pests. It should be thoroughly checked before introducing to the fields, eg. Phaseolus mungo was introduced from China.

(b) Selection:
Selection is a type of plant breeding, in which individual plants or group of plants are sorted out from a mixed population based on the morphological characters.

Methods of selection:
(i) Mass selection:
Seeds of plants with desired characters are collected from a mixed population. The collected seeds are allowed to raise the second generation. This process is carried out for seven or eight generations. In the end, they are distributed to the farmers for cultivation, eg. TMV – 2 and AK – 10 (groundnut varieties).

(ii) Pure line selection:
Pureline is the “progeny of a single individual obtained by self breeding”. This is also called as individual plant selection. In pure line selection, large numbers of plants are selected from a self – pollinated crop and harvested individually. Progeny is similar, both genotypically and phenotypically.

(iii) Clonal selection:
A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual reproduction are called clones. All the plants of a clone are similar both in genotype and phenotype. Selection of desirable clones from the mixed population of the vegetatively propagated crop is called clonal selection.

Question 2.
In what way trans organism are better?
Answer:
Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are also known as transgenic organisms.

The transgenic plants are much stable, with improved nutritional quality, resistant to diseases and tolerant to various environment conditions. Similarly transgenic animals are used to produce proteins of medicinal importance at low cost and improve livestock quality.

Question 3.
Describe the tools of recombinant DNA technology.
Answer:
Techniques of Genetic Engineering – Basic Requirements:
Important discoveries that led to the stepping stone of rDNA technology were

1. Presence ofplasmid in bacteria that can undergo replication independently along with chromosomal DNA.
2. Restriction enzymes cuts or break DNA at specific sites and are also called as molecular scissors.
3. DNA ligases are the enzymes which help in ligating (joining) the broken DNA fragments.

Question 4.
Give the Schematic representation of Mass selection.
Answer:

Mass selection : Seeds of best plants showing desired characters are collected from a mixed population. The collected seeds are allowed to raise the second generation. This process is carried out for seven or eight generations. At the end, they will be multiplied and distributed to the farmers for cultivation. Some common examples for mass selection are groundnut varieties like TMV-2 and AK-10. Its schematic representation is given below.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills: (HOTS)

Question 1.
Although ‘green revolution’ increases the food production, it is not enough to feed growing population. This probelm is overcomed by ‘X’ crops.
(a) What is ‘X’?
(b) Explain it with examples.
Answer:
(a) ‘X’ is Genetically modified crops.
(b) Genetic modification refers to the manipulation of genes in the organism using rDNA techniques to produce desired character.

Question 2.
What is Gamma garden?
Answer:
In gamma garden or atomic garden, a type of induced mutation breeding, where radioactive sources, particularly gamma rays from Cobalt – 60 or Caesium – 137 are used to induce desirable mutations in crop plants.

Students can download 10th Social Science Economics Chapter 2 Globalization and Trade Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Economics Chapter 2 Globalization and Trade

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Globalization and Trade Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Who is the head of the World Trade Organisation (WTO)?
(a) Ministerial conference
(b) Director General
(c) Deputy Director General
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Director General

Question 2.
How many countries were membership in WTO at present?
(a) 159
(b) 164
(c) 148
(d) 128
Answer:
(b) 164

Question 3.
Colonial advent in India:
(a) Portuguese, Dutch, English, Danish, French
(b) Dutch, English, Danish , French
(c) Portuguese , Danish, Dutch, French, English
(d) Danish, Portuguese, French, English, Dutch
Answer:
(a) Portuguese, Dutch, English, Danish, French

Question 4.
Who first came to India for trading purpose?
(a) Roman Empire
(b) Portuguese
(c) Dutch
(d) Danish
Answer:
(b) Portuguese

Question 5.
When did Portuguese colonize India?
(a) 1600 BC
(b) 1602 BC
(c) 1498 BC
(d) 1616 BC
Answer:
(c) 1498 BC

Question 6.
GATT’s first round held in
(a) Tokyo
(b) Uruguay
(c) Torquay
(d) Geneva
Answer:
(d) Geneva

Question 7.
India signed the Dunket proposal in:
(a) 1984
(b) 1976
(c) 1950
(d) 1994
Answer:
(d) 1994

Question 8.
Who granted the English “golden Fireman” in 1632?
(a) Jahangir
(b) Sultan of Golconda
(c) Akbar
(d) Aurangazeb
Answer:
(b) Sultan of Golconda

Question 9.
Foreign investment policy (FIR) announced in
(a) June 1991
(b) July 1991
(c) July-Aug-1991
(d) Aug 1991
Answer:
(c) July-Aug-1991

Question 10.
Indian government was introduced in …………. 1991.
(a) Globalization
(b) World Trade Organisation
(c) New Economic Policy
(d) none
Answer:
(c) New Economic Policy

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The Dutch captured Pondicherry in ………………
2. A better economy Introduce rapid development of the ………………
3. The East india Company built fortified factory in Madras which known as ………………
4. WTO agreement came into force from ………………
5. The term globalization Invented by ………………
6. French East India company established second factory at ………………

Answer:

1. 1693
2. Capital market
3. Fort St. George
4. January 1, 1995
5. Prof. Theodore Levitt
6. Pondicherry

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The East Indian Company especially to participate in the East Indian Spice Trade and later added cotton, silk, indigo.
(ii) Merchants cf the Dutch East India Company first established at Calicut
(iii) Nanadesis were a guild of traders at the time of Hoysala Empire
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (in) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

V. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
What is globalization?
Answer:
Globalization is the process of integrating various economies of the world without creating any barriers in the free flow of goods and services, technology, capital and even labour or human capital.

Question 2.
Write the types of globalization?
Answer:
The types of Globalization are:

1. Economic Globalization: Countries integrating economically
2. Social: Information and ideas integration socially all over the world.
3. Political: Political co-operation between countries.

Question 3.
Write short note on Multinational corporation.
Answer:
Multinational corporation is a corporate organisation which owns or controls production of . goods or services in at least one country other than its home country. MNCs are also called Transnational corporation (TNG) or Multinational Enterprise (MNE). Most of the MNCs at present belong to the lour major exporting countries – USA. UK. France and Germany.

Question 4.
Short note: The Dutch in South India.
Answer:
Dutch East India company was formed in 1602. Dutch established factories at Masulipatnam, Pettapoli, Devanampattinam and with the help of King of Chandragiri Pulicut factory also. The commodities exported by the Dutch were Indigo, Saltpeter, Bengal raw silk. They captured Nagapatnam from Portuguese in 1659.

Question 5.
What are the reforms made to adopt globalization?
Answer:
The following reforms were made-to adapt globalization in India.

1. Abolition of industrial licensing, except for a few industries.
2. Reduction in the number of industries reserved for public sector.
3. Fixation of a realistic exchange rate of rupee to exchange exports of Indian goods.
4. Foreign exchange regulations were suitably amended.
5. The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) was reduced to increase lending by RBI.

Question 6.
What is fair trade?
Answer:
Fair trade is a way of doing business that ultimately aims to keep small farmers an active part of the world market and aims to empower consumer to make purchases that support their values.

Question 7.
Write any five principles of Fair Trade Practices.
Answer:
Five principles of Fair trade practices:

1. Creating opportunities for economically disadvantaged producers.
2. Transforming and accountability.
3. Fair trading practices and payment of fair price.
4. Ensuring no child labour and forced labour.
5. Respect for the environment.

Question 8.
What is the main objective of WTO?
Answer:
The main objective of WTO (World Trade Organisation) is to enforce rules for International trade, to resolve trade disputes and to provide a forum for negotiating and monitoring trade.

Question 9.
Write short note on TRIPs and TRIMs.
Answer:
TRIPs – Trade Related aspects of Intellectual Property Rights – is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World Trade Organisation (WTO). It sets down minimum standards for the regulation by national Governments of many fonns of intellectual property as applied to nationals of other WTO member nations. TRIPs was negotiated at the end of the Uruguay Round of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) between 1989 and 1990 and is administered by the WTO.

TRIMS – Trade Related Investment Measures – The Uruguay Round Agreement on TRIMs referes to certain conditions or restrictions imposed by a Government in respect of foreign investment in the country in order to give adequate provisions for the home industries to develop.

Question 10.
Write the positive impact of Globalization.
Answer:

• A better economy introduces rapid development of the capital market
• Standard of living has increased
• Better trade, therefore more employment
• Introduction of new technologies
• New scientific research patterns .
• Increases GDP of a country
• Increase free flow of goods and
• Increase FDI – Foreign Direct Investment

VI. Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write briefly the history of Globalization.
Answer:
The term Globalization was introduced by Prof. Theodore Levitt. The history of Globalization can be explained in three stages namely

1. Archaic globalization
2. Proto Globalization
3. Modem Globalization

Archaic Globalization: An early form of globalized economies and culture is known as Archaic Globalization existed during the Hellenistic Age. The trade links of the earlier days can be summarised as

1. Between Sumerian and Indus Valley Civilisation
2. Greek culture stretched from India to Spain
3. Between Roman empire, Parthian empire and the Hans dynasty.
4. The advent of Mongol empire greatly facilitated travel along the silk road.

These Pre-modem phases of global exchange are called Archaic Globalization.

Proto Globalization: It arose because of the rise of maritime European empires in the 16^th and 17^th Centuries, the Portuguese, Spanish, Dutch and British empires. In the 17^th century, the British East India company is described as the first Multinational Company and the Dutch East India company were established.

Modern Globalization: It is witnessed between 19^th and 20^th century. In the 19^th century – Global trade and capital investment. In the 20^th century, higher share of trade in merchant production, Global trade in services, Rise in production and trade by MNCs and Technological changes. Agreements of trade contracts like the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) and World Trade Organisation (WTO). Technological changes lowered the cost of transport charges.

Question 2.
Briefly explain the evolution of MNC and its advantages and disadvantages.
Answer:
Multinational companies first started their activities in the extractive industries and controlled raw materials in the host countries during 1920s and then entered the manufacturing and service sectors after 1950s. Most of the MNCs at present belong to the four major exporting countries i.e., USA, UK, France and Germany. However, the largest is America. In 1971, the American Corporations held 52% of the total world stock of foreign direct inverstment. Great Britain held 14.5% followed by France 5% and Federal Republic of Germany 4.4% and Japan 2.7%.
Advantages of MNCs:

• MNCs produce the same quality of goods at lower cost and without transaction cost.
• They reduce prices and increase the purchasing power of consumers world wide.
• They are able to take advantage of tax variation.
• They spur job growth in the local economy.

Disadvantages of MNCs:

• They have led to the downfall of smaller, local business.
• With more companies transferring offices and centering operations in other countries, jobs for the people living in developed countries are threatened.
• MNCs often invest in developing countries where they can take advantage of cheaper labour. Some MNCs prefer to put up branches in these parts of the world where there are no stringent policies in labour and where people need jobs because these MNCs can demand for cheaper labour and lesser healthcare benefits.

Question 3.
Explain the trade and traders in South India.
Answer:

1. South India trade guilds were formed by merchants inorder to organise and expand their trading activities.
2. South India trade was dominated by the Cholas and it w’as replaced by the Pallavas.
3. Several trade guilds operated in medieval southern India such as the Gatrigas, Nakaras, Mummuridandas, Settis, Birudas, Gavaras etc.
4. In the early trade, the Kalinga traders brought red coloured stone decorative objects for trade and also cotton textile to south east Asia.
5. The discovery of a new all sea route from Europe to India via Cape of Good Hope by Vasco-do-Gama helped to flourish trade in India.
6. India’s coastal and maritime trade was monopolized by the Europeans.
7. Therefore it was due to the trading activities European companies came to India.

Question 4.
Write about the World Trade Organisation.
Answer:
The World Trade Organisation or WTO is the only global international organisation dealing with the rules of trade between nations. At its heart are the WTO agreements, negotiated and signed by the bulk of the world’s trending nations and satisfied in their Parliaments. The WTO began operations on January 1, 1995 after the completion of the Uruguay Round (1986-94) of Multi lateral trade negotiations.
WTO has six key objectives

1. To set and enforce for international trade.
2. To provide a forum for negotiating and monitoring further trade liberalisation.
3. To resolve trade disputes.
4. To increase the transparency of decision making.
5. To corporate with other major international economic institutions involved in global economic management.
6. To help developing countries benefit fully from the global trading system.

Question 5.
Write the challenges of Globalization.
Answer:

1. Globalization means the integration of the home economy with the world Economy
2. There is a general belief that the benefits of globalization extends to all countries. But that will not happen automatically.
3. There is a constant fear the globalization leads to instability in the developing world.
4. Due to globalization, the industrial world has increased global competition.
5. This leads to race in low level, labour right and employment practices among the industrial world.
6. It may led to global imbalance.
7. It may result to activities like child labour, slavery.
8. It may also affect health as consumers are tempted to use more attracti ve junk foods.
9. It may affect environment .Because more of use and throw products and packed items may affect nature and our survival.

VII. Activity and Project

Question 2.
Students are collect the images regarded to the globalization and make the album, (south Indian trade and traders images, and silk route map, spice route map, and kalinga trade map, etc).
Answer:
Students should collect pictures of South Indian

(a) Traders and make it as an album: Student can access to google and search by typing” ancient South Indian Traders” images and collect the relevant information.

Silk route map: The silk route was an ancient network of trade routes that connected the East and the West connecting Asia, Europe and Africa. It was mainly used to transport silk.

Spice route map: Spice route is the name as spices were traded with a way of sea route. Spices such as cinnamon, ginger, pepper, turmeric etc. Traded between Asia, Europe and Africa.

Kalinga route map: Trade routes of Kalinga sailors. They used to trade along their South West voyage along the East Coast of India. Their boats used to sail from Mahanadhi to Bali and right upto Nagapattinam in Cauvery delta. Also they sail along the East coast of Srilanka.

Question 3.
Students are collect the picture of various Multinational corporation companies in India and its products pictures.
Answer:
Students can collect the pictures of various Multinational corporation companies (list is given in the text book itself) and paste the pictures and make an album.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Globalization and Trade Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The supporting pillars of NEP, 1991 of India is …………………
(a) LPG
(b) WTO
(c) IMF
(d) None
Answer:
(a) LPG

Question 2.
The Dames sold all their Indian settlements to ……………
(a) the British
(b) the French
(c) the Portuguese
(d) none
Answer:
(a) the British

Question 3.
The term ………………… refers to the integration of the domestic economy with the rest of the world.
(a) Privatisation
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Globalization
(d) World trade
Answer:
(c) Globalization

Question 4.
Which among the following was the largest MNC in India in 2018?
(a) Pepsi Company
(b) Tata Group
(c) Microsoft Corporation
(d) Sony Corporation
Answer:
(d) Sony Corporation

Question 5.
The term Globalization was introduced by …………………
(a) Simon Kuznets
(b) Theodore Levitt
(c) Marshall
(d) Adam Smith
Answer:
(b) Theodore Levitt

Question 6.
A company that owns or controls production in more than one nation is called ………………
(a) Foreign Company
(b) Multinational Company
(c) Local Company
Answer:
(b) Multinational Company

Question 7.
Archaic Globalization is the ………………… stage of Globalization.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(a) one

Question 8.
Which one of the following is not an MNC?
(a) Reebok shoes
(b) SAIL
(c) Infosys
Answer:
(b) SAIL

Question 9.
Proto Globalization is the ………………… stage of Globalization.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(b) two

Question 10.
WTO is dominated by countries like …………….
(a) US and UK
(b) China and France
(c) India and Japan
Answer:
(a) US and UK

Question 11.
The 17^th century Globalization became ………………… business phenomenon.
(a) Government
(b) Private
(c) Domestic
(d) Foreign
Answer:
(b) Private

Question 12.
………………… is an example for a multinational trade agreement.
(a) GATT
(b) WTO
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) MNC
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 13.
South India trade ………………… were formed by merchants in order to organize and expand their trade activities.
(a) routes
(b) guilds
(c) organisation
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(b) guilds

Question 14.
The olden days Kalinga is the present day …………………
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Orissa
(c) M.P.
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(b) Orissa

Question 15.
Chettiars in Tamil Nadu are examples of early …………………
(a) people
(b) Traders
(c) nationalists
(d) Bankers
Answer:
(b) Traders

Question 16.
The arrival of Alvarez cabral in India in 1500 A.D. led to the establishment of trading station at …………………
(a) Cochin
(b) Calcutta
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 17.
………………… was the headquarters of the Dutch in India.
(a) Portuguese
(b) Dutch
(c) Arabia
(d) Pulicut
Answer:
(d) Pulicut

Question 18.
The Sultan of Golconda granted the English the “Golden Fireman” in …………………
(a) 1634
(b) 1632
(c) 1631
(d) 1630
Answer:
(b) 1632

Question 19.
In 1639, English build a fortified factory in Madras which was known as …………………
(a) Fort Pulicut
(b) Fort St. George
(c) Fort Masulipatnam
(d) Fort Pettapoli
Answer:
(b) Fort St. George

Question 20.
The first French factory in India was established in ………………… by obtaining permission from the Sultan of Golconda.
(a) 1634
(b) 1668
(c) 1693
(d) 1642
Answer:
(b) 1668

Question 21.
Pondicherry was the headquarters of the
(a) British
(b) Spanish
(c) French
(d) Dutch
Answer:
(c) French

Question 22.
Initially Pondicherry was captured by the ………………… and later handed over to the French.
(a) British
(b) Dutch
(c) Spaniards
(d) Sultan of Golconda
Answer:
(b) Dutch

Question 23.
Pondicherry became the headquarters of the France in the year …………………
(a) 1664
(b) 1693
(c) 1700
(d) 1701
Answer:
(d) 1701

Question 24.
India signed the Dunkel draft in the year …………………
(a) 1664
(b) 1993
(c) 1994
(d) 1893
Answer:
(c) 1994

Question 25.
One of the reform made to adopt Globalization was …………………
(a) Abolition of Industrial licensing
(b) Reduction of Public Sector
(c) Foreign exchange regulations
(d) All the industries above
Answer:
(d) All the industries above

Question 26.
Multinational corporations are also called as …………………
(a) Transnational corporation
(b) Multi-national Enterprise
(c) MNCs
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 27.
………………… country has the largest multinational companies in the world.
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) France
(d) Germany
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 28.
Of the below given choices, find out, which is a multinational corporation.
(a) Tata Group
(b) Nettle
(c) IBM
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 29.
GATT was established in …………………
(a) 1946
(b) 1945
(c) 1947
(d) 1948
Answer:
(c) 1947

Question 30.
Eighth round of GATT was known as ………………… Round.
(a) Tokyo
(b) Uruguay
(c) Torquay
(d) Geneva
Answer:
(b) Uruguay

Question 31.
………………… countries participated in the eighth round of GATT.
(a) 127
(b) 117
(c) 167
(d) 107
Answer:
(b) 117

Question 32.
The eighth round of Talks of GATT took place in the year …………………
(a) 1983
(b) 1984
(c) 1985
(d) 1986
Answer:
(d) 1986

Question 33.
Uruguay Round final Act was signed by the member nations in the year …………………
(a) 1986
(b) 1990
(c) 1992
(d) 1994
Answer:
(d) 1994

Question 34.
The Headquarters of WTO is in …………………
(a) Geneva
(b) Scotland
(c) America
(d) Holland
Answer:
(a) Geneva

Question 35.
G7 countries means ………………… countries of the world.
(a) Developed
(b) Developing
(c) Under developed
(d) Less developed
Answer:
(a) Developed

Question 36.
GATT was signed by ………………… countries in 1947.
(a) 22
(b) 23
(c) 21
(d) 117
Answer:
(b) 23

Question 37.
TRIPS include the following areas of …………………
(a) Trade Secrets
(b) Copy rights
(c) patents
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 38.
Globalization increases GDP of a country by free flow of goods and also to increase …………………
(a) FDI
(b) GNP
(c) Technological improvement
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Question 39.
TRIMs refers to certain ………………… imposed by the government in respect of foreign investment of a country.
(a) Conditions
(b) Control
(c) Restrictions
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 40.
………………… sometimes may lead to Child labour and slavery.
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Globalization
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Globalization

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. LPG is the supporting pillar of India’s ………………..
2. means integration of the international market for goods and services.
3. The term Globalization was introduced by Prof ………………..
4. The History of Globalization can be studied under ……………….. stages.
5. The first stage of the history of Globalization is called ……………….. Globalization.
6. The third stage of the history of Globalization is called ……………….. Globalization.
7. The Proto Globalization is the ……………….. stage of the history of Globalization.
8. The Archaic Globalization existed during the ……………….. Age.
9. The Dutch East India Company was founded in the year ………………..
10. The expansion of GATT is ………………..
11. The ……………….. is the expansion for WTO
12. South Indian trade was dominated by the ……………….. and replaced by the ………………..
13. Kalinga traders brought ……………….. coloured stone decorative objects for trade.
14. India’s coastal and maritime trade was monopolized by the ………………..
15. The Portuguese under the leadership of Vasco do Gama landed at Calicut in ………………..
16. ……………….. was the early capital of Portuguese in India.
17. The Sultan of Golconda granted the English the ……………….. in 1632.
18. In 1639, English build a fortified factory in Madras which is known as ………………..
19. ……………….. was the headquarters of Danes in India
20. The first French factory was established in ………………..
21. The first French factory was established with the permission from the Sultan of ………………..
22. ……………….. was the headquarters of the French.
23. Pondicherry became the headquarters of the French in the year ………………..
24. Recently the Government of India has set up ……………….. to boost exports.
25. India signed the Dunkel Draft in the year ………………..
26. When India was in crisis in 1990’s India mortgaged 40 tons of gold to the Bank of ………………..
27. The New Economic Policy was put forth in the year ………………..
28. The ……………….. is a corporate organisation operates in many countries other than home country.
29. Multinational Corporations are also called as ………………..
30. Of the MNC ……………….. is the largest, holding a major share of the FDI
31. India announced the Foreign Investment policy in the year ………………..
32. The growth of MNC may lead to the downfall of smaller local ……………….. of the host country.
33. The expansion of FCRA is ………………..
34. GATT was signed in the year ………………..
35. Initially, GATT was signed by ……………….. countries.
36. In the seventh round of GATT ……………….. countries participated.
37. GATT’s primary purpose was to increase International Trade by reducing ………………..
38. The headquarters of GATT is in ………………..
39. The Eighth round of GATT is called as ………………..
40. The signing of GATT in 1994 paved the way for the setting up of ………………..
41. Intellectual property right may be defined as ………………..
42. The expansion of TRIPs is ………………..
43. The expansion of TRIMs is ………………..
44. One of the negative effect of ……………….. is that it may lead to slavery and Child labour.
45. The Trade Secret is an agreement covered under ………………..

Answers:

1. New Economic Policy
2. Globalization
3. Theodore Levitt
4. Three
5. Archaic
6. Modem
7. Second
8. Hellenistic
9. 1602
10. General Agreement on Tariffs and
11. World Trade Organisation
12. Cholas, Pallavas
13. Red
14. Europeans
15. 1498
16. Cochin
17. Golden Fireman
18. Fort St.George
19. Triangular
20. 1668
21. Golconda
22. Pondicherry
23. 1701
24. Special Economic Zones
25. 1994
26. England
27. 1991
28. MNC
29. Multinational Enterprise
30. America
31. 1991
32. Business
33. Foreign Contribution Regulation Act
34. 1947
35. 23
36. 99
37. various tariffs
38. Geneva
39. Uruguay Round
40. WTO
41. Information with a commercial value
42. Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights
43. Trade Related Investment Measures
44. Globalization
45. TRIPs

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Globalization has led to environmental degradation.
(ii) GATT was signed by 73 countries in 1949
(iii) TRIPs and TRIMs are a part of WTO
(iv) It takes only a few hours to transport goods between continents today.
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) is correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iv) is correct
(c) (i), (ii) is correct
(d) (ii), (iv) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) is correct

Question 2.
(i) Proto Globalization was characterized by the rise of maritime European Empires.
(ii) The pre-modern phase of global exchange are sometimes known as Proto Globalization.
(iii) The Kalinga traders brought Red coloured stone decorative objects for trade
(iv) The Danes formed an East India Company and arrive in India in 1616.
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) is correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iv) is correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii)is correct
(d) (iii), (iv) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) is correct

Question 3.
(i) The MNC first started their activities in controlling the industries of the host countries.
(ii) Indian Government mortgaged 40 tons of gold to the Bank of England prior to 1991.
(iii) To boost exports, recently, the Government of India announced Demonetisation and Goods and Services Tax.
(iv) The French failed in India and in 1845, they were forced to sell all their Indian settlements to the British.
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) is correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iv) is correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) is correct
(d) (i), (ii) is correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) is correct

Question 4.
(i) The main reason for the growth of MNC is on the account of technological superiorities.
(ii) An MNC is able to take advantage of tax variation.
(iii) WTO provides a forum for negotiating and monitoring trade liberalisation.
(iv) The agreement of the final act of Uruguay Round was agreed by 104 member countries.
(a) (i),(ii),(iii) are correct
(b) (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) are wrong
(d) (i) is correct
Answer:
(b) (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv) are correct

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): After 1991, there was a spurt of foreign collaborations in India and increase flow of FDI-Foreign Direct Investment.
Reason (R): The liberalized Foreign Investment Policy (FIP) was announced in India in July-August 1991.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation to A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) A is wrong, but R is correct
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A

Question 2.
Assertion (A); The introduction of MNC into a host country’s economy may lead to the downfall of small, local business.
Reason (R): Spurring job growth in the local economies.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation to A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) A is wrong, but R is correct
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation to A

Question 3.
Assertion (A): India’s coastal and maritime trade was monopolized by the Europeans.
Reason (R): Trade guilds were channels through which Indian Culture was exported to other lands.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation to A.
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation to A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) A is wrong, but R is correct.
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation to A

V. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (vi)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (vi)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

VI. Give Short answers

Question 1.
What is the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010?
Answer”
The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act or FCRA, 2010 has been enacted the Parliament to consolidate the law to regulate the acceptance and utilisation of Foreign contributions or foreign hospitality by certain individuals or associations or companies and to prohibit acceptance and utilisation of foreign contribution or foreign hospitality for any activities detrimental to national interest and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

Question 2.
How did India’s NEP emerged?
Answer:
When India was facing a down grading economic crisis situation, the government presented a budget in July 1991 for 1991-92 with a series of policy changes which underlined liberalization, privatization and globalization. This has come to be called as India’s New Economic policy.

Question 3.
What came to be known as India’s new economic policy? How was this policy strengthened?
Answer:
With the downgrading of India’s credit rating by some international agencies, these was heavy flight of capital out of India. The Government has to mortgage 40 tons of gold to the Bank of England. Under these circumstances, the Government for 1991-92 presented its budget in July 1991 with a series of policy changes which underlined globalization, liberalisation and privatisation. This has come to be called as India’s new economic policy.

Question 4.
Write a note on SEZ?
Answer:
SEZ means Special Economic Zones . Recently the Government of India has set up special Economic Zones in southern states of especially in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Kerala with a view to boost exports. Few SEZ in Tamil Nadu are Nanguneri SEZ, Ennore SEZ, Coimbatore SEZ.

Question 5.
How are producers beneficiaries of fair trade?
Answer:
For producers fair trade is unique in offering four important benefits.

• Stable prices that cover the costs of sustainable production.
• Market access That enables buyers to trade with producers who would otherwise be excluded from market.
• Partnerships (producers are involved) in decisions that affect their future.

Question 6.
Write any type of subsidies the WTO offers to its member countries?
Answer:

1. Tax concessions such as exemptions , credits (or) deferrals.
2. Cash subsidies such as the grants.

Question 7.
What was the idea behind developing SEZ in India?
Answer:
To attract foreign companies to invest in India.

VII. Brief Answer

Question 1.
What is fair trade? Who are the beneficiaries of fair trade practices? How?
Answer:
Fair trade is an industrial arrangement designed to help producers in developing countries achieve better trading conditions. Fair trade is about better prices, decent working conditions and fair terms of trade for fanners and workers.
With fair trade, everyone is the beneficiary. Take examples of consumers, traders and producers.
(i) Consumers – Fair trade relationship provide the basis for connecting producers with consumer and for informing consumers of the need for social justice and the opportunities for change. Consumer support enables fair trade organisation to be advocates and campaigners for wider reform of international trading rules, to achieve the ultimate goal of a just and equitable global trading system. Shoppers can buy products in line with their values and principles. They can choose from an ever growing range of great products.

(ii) Traders / Companies – Since its launch in 2002, the fair trade mark has become the most widely, recognised social and development label in the world. Fair trade offers companies a credible way to ensure that their trade has a positive impact for the people at the end of the chain.

(iii) Producers – For producers fair trade is unique in offering important benefits:
(a) stable prices that cover the costs of sustainable production,
(b) market access that enables buyers to trade with producers who would otherwise be excluded from market,
(c) partnership
(d) empowerment of farmers and workers.

Question 2.
Write a note on the beneficiaries of Fair Trade practices.
Answer:
Fair Trade is about better prices, decent working conditions and fair terms of trade for farmers and workers.

Beneficiaries of Fair Trade practices:

Consumers:

1. Consumers are the main beneficiaries.
2. This is because they can advocate and compare for wide reform of International trading rules.
3. They can choose from growing range of great products.
4. Consumers support producers by buying fair trade labelled products who are struggling to improve their lives.

Traders (or) companies:

1. Fair Trade offer companies a credible way to ensure that they have a positive impact.
2. Launched in 2002, Fair Trade mark has become the most widely, recognized social and development label in the world.

Producers:

1. It gives the farmers / producers a kind of empowerment.
2. Stable prices cover the cost of sustainable production.
3. Buyers easily access the market and trade with producers, which in turn boost production.

Question 3.
What are the factors that multinational companies take into account before setting up a factory in different countries?
Answer:
Before setting up a company or a factory, an MNC takes into account the following things:
(i) Availability of cheap labour and other resources:
MNC’s setup offices and factories for production in various regions of the world, where cheap labour and other resources are available in order to earn greater profit.

(ii) Partnership with local companies:
MNC’s setup partnership with local companies, by a closely competing with local companies or buying local companies for supply. As a result, production in these widely dispersed locations gets interlinked.

(iii) Favourable Government Policy:
If the Government Policies are favourable, it helps MNC’s. For example: Flexibility of labour laws will reduce cost of production. MNC’s are able to hire worker on casual and contractual wages for a short period instead of a regular basis. This reduces the cost of labour for the company and increases its margin of profit.

Question 4.
What are the reasons for the growth of MNC?
Answer:
Expansion of Market: For a large size firm, when its activities expand more and more , it goes beyond their country’s boundary and move to other countries market.

Marketing superiorities:

1. A MNC enjoys market reputation easily .
2. It faces loss difficulty in selling the products .
3. It can adopt very effective advertisement tactics.
4. All these help in their sales promotion.

High level of financial resources:

1. A MNC has high level of financial resources which helps them in high level of fund utilisation.
2. Easy access to external capital market.
3. Can raise more International resources to improve their production at any cost.

Advancement in Technology:

1. The High level of technology of the MNCs attract them to participate in Industrial development.
2. It helps them to offer products at a low price.

Product Innovation:

1. They can develop new products.
2. New Designs of existing products.
3. Designs that help the new generations to apply their knowledge.

Students can download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 2 Central Government Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Central Government

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Central Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Constitutional Head of the Union is:
(a) The President
(b) The Chief Justice
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) Council of Ministers
Answer:
(a) The President

Question 2.
Who is the real executive in a parliamentary type of government?
(a) Army
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The President
(d) Judiciary
Answer:
(b) The Prime Minister

Question 3.
Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
(a) The President
(b) Attorney General
(c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer:
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Question 4.
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the ……………
(a) The President
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) Rajya Sabha
Answer:
(c) The Prime Minister

Question 5.
The Joint sittings of Indian Parliament for transacting legislative business are presided over by?
(a) Senior most member of Parliament
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) The President of India
(d) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Answer:
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Question 6.
What is minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha?
(a) 18 Years
(b) 21 Years
(c) 25 Years
(d) 30 Years
Answer:
(c) 25 Years

Question 7.
The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rest with?
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) State Government
(d) Parliament
Answer:
(d) Parliament

Question 8.
Under which Article the President is vested with the power to proclaim Financial Emergency
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 360
(c) Article 356
(d) Article 365
Answer:
(b) Article 360

Question 9.
The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme court are appointed by:
(a) The President
(b) The Attorney General
(c) The Governor
(d) The Prime Minister
Answer:
(a) The President

Question 10.
Dispute between States of India comes to the Supreme Court under …………….
(a) Appellate Jurisdiction
(b) Original Jurisdiction
(c) Advisory Jurisdiction
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Original Jurisdiction

Question 11.
If you are elected as the President of India, which of the following decision can you take on your own?
(a) Nominate the leaders of your choice to the council of minister.
(b) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.
(c) Select the person you like as Prime Minister.
(d) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a majority in the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
(b) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………… Bill cannot be introduced in the Parliament without President’s approval.
2. ………………… is the leader of the nation and chief spokesperson of the country.
3. ………………… is the Ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
4. The President generally nominates two members belonging to the ………………… community to the Lok Sabha.
5. ………………… has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament.
6. The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of ………………… years.
7. ………………… is the Guardian of the Constitution.
8. At present, the Supreme Court consists of ………………… judges including the Chief Justice.

Answers:

1. Money
2. Prime Minister
3. Vice-President
4. Anglo-Indian
5. Attorney General
6. 65
7. Supreme Court
8. 28

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Total members of the Rajya Sabha is 250.
(ii) The 12 nominated members shall be chosen by the President from amongst persons experience in the field of literature, science, art, or social service.
(iii) The Members of the Rajya Sabha should not be less than 30 years of age.
(iv) The members of the Rajya Sabha are directly elected by the peoples.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of 62 years.
(ii) Judiciary is the third organ of the government.
(iii) The cases involving fundamental rights come under the Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
(iv) The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct
Answer:
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house and it cannot be dissolved.
Reason (R): One-third of the members of Rajya Sabha retire every two years, and new members are elected to fill the seats thus vacated.
(a) (A) is false but R is true
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A)
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

IV. Match the following

Answers:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

V. Answer the brief questions

Question 1.
How is President of India elected?
Answer:
The President of India is elected by an electoral college in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. The Electoral college consists of the elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and the elected members of the States and elected members of National Capital Territory of Delhi and Puducherry.

Question 2.
What are the different categories of Ministers at the Union level?
Answer:
The ministers are classified under three different categories.

1. Cabinet Ministers: An informal body of senior ministers who form the nucleus of administration.
2. Ministers of State: They are also incharge of ministries or departments.
3. Deputy Ministers: They assist either the Ministers of Cabinet or State.

Question 3.
What is the qualification of Judges of the Supreme Court?
Answer:
Qualification of the Supreme Court Judges are

1. He must be a citizen of India.
2. He should have worked as a Judge of a High Court for at least 5 years.
3. He should have worked as an advocate of the High Court for at least 10 years.
4. He is in the opinion of the President, a distinguished Jurist.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:

1. Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha who is elected by its members.
2. The Speaker presides over a joint sitting of theTwo Houses of Parliament.
3. He has the power to decide whether a Bill is a money Bill or an Ordinary Bill.

Question 5.
What is Money Bill?
Answer:
Money Bill refers to a bill (draft law) introduced in the Lok Sabha which generally covers the issue of receipt and spending of money, such as tax laws, prevention of black money etc.

Question 6.
List out any two special powers of the Attorney General of India?
Answer:

1. Attorney General of India has the right of audience in all Courts in the territory of India.
2. He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of the Parliament (or) their joint sitting but without a right to vote.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Describe the powers and functions of the President of India.
Answer:
The powers and the functions of the President of India are given below:
(i) He appoints the Prime Minister and the others members of the Council of Ministers, distributing portfolios to them on the advice of the Prime Minister.

(ii) He appoints Governors of States, the Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, the Attorney General, the Chief Election Commissioner, Ambassadors and High Commissioners to other countries.

(iii) He inaugurates tire session of the Parliament by addressing it after the general elections and also at the beginning of the first session each year.

(iv) Money Bill can be introduced in the Parliaments only with his prior recommendation. Annual Budget of the Central Government is presented before the Lok Sabha by the Union Finance Minister only with the permission of the President.

(v) The President of India has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishment, or to commute the sentence of any person convicted of an offence.

(vi) He is the supreme commander of the defence force of the country. He has been empowered to proclaim Emergency in the country.

Question 2.
Explain the Jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
Supreme Court is the Apex court in the Country.

It is the guardian of our Constitution. The following are the functions of the Supreme Court.

Original Jurisdiction:

1. Cases which are brought directly in the first instance come under original Jurisdiction.*
2. Dispute between two states or more
3. Dispute between the Centre and the State.
4. Writs issued for the enforcement of fundamental rights.

Appellate Jurisdiction:

1. The Supreme Court hears the appeals against the decisions of High court in “Civil, Criminal and Constitutional” cases.
2. With a certificate from the High Court that it is fit to appeal in the Supreme Court.
3. The Supreme, Court is the final appellate court in the country.

Advisory Jurisdiction:

1. President can refer to the Supreme Court if any question of law or fact which in his opinion is of Public importance miscellaneous Jurisdiction.
2. The Supreme Court has the complete control over its own establishment.
3. With the approval of the President the supreme court is authorized to make rules for regulatory, generally the practice and procedure of the court.
4. The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.

Judicial Review:

The power of the Judiciary to declare ‘a law as un-constitutional’ is known as Judicial Review.

Individual Review power with regard to

1. Protecting the fundamental right.
2. The laws passed by the legislature which are not in accordance with the Constitutional.
3. Dispute between the Centre and the States.

Question 3.
What are the Duties and Functions of Prime Minister of India?
Answer:
Duties and functions of the Prime Minister are given below

• The Prime Minister decides the rank of his ministers and distributes various departments among them.
• He decides the dates and the agenda of the meeting of the Cabinet which he presides.
• He supervises the work of various ministers
• The Prime Minister acts as a link between the President and the Council of Ministers.
• He is the leader of the nation and the chief spokesperson of the country.
• He is the head of the Cabinet and other Ministers are his colleagues.
• As the leader of the nation, the Prime Minister represents our nation at all international conferences like the commonwealth etc.

Question 4.
Critically examine the Powers and Functions of the Parliament.
Answer:

1. Parliament is the legislative organ of the Union Government.
2. Article 79 to 122 in part V of the Constitution deal with the organisation, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges of the Parliament.
3. The President, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are the three parts of the Parliament.
4. It is bicameral legislature.

Functions of the Parliament:

1. Legislation, passing of budget, ventilation of public grievances, over seeing of administration discussion of various subjects like developments plans, International relations and internal policies.
2. After passing of the bill in both the houses it is forwarded to the President for his assent.
3. If the President send back the bill to the Parliament for reconsideration and the bill is passed in both the houses without any amendment the President has to give his assent.

A bill has to pass three stages in the Parliament before it becomes an Act.

Parliament is also vested with powers to impeach the President and to remove judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. Chief Election Commissioner and Comptroller and Auditor – General of India in accordance with the procedure laid down in the Constitution.

Two-third majority from both the houses of the Parliament is needed in support for the impeachment.

The Parliament exercises control over the executive through asking questions and supplementary, questions, moving motions of adjournment, discussing and passing resolutions, discussing and pushing motion or vote of no¬confidence.

The first hour when the Parliament is in session is allotted for question hour.

The members can put forth questions to the concerned Ministry and pertain to get answers.

The Parliament has the power to change the boundaries of the states.

By Fifth Amendment under Article 3 of our Constitution the Parliament is empowered to the formation of new states, alteration of areas and boundaries or change the name of the existing state.

A government bill should get passed in the Parliament with majority vote in this regard.

Question 5.
List out the functions of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
Functions of Lok Sabha

1. The Lok Sabha is the lower House of the Parliament. It is also known as the House of the people. Any Bill including Money Bill can be introduced and passed in the Lok Sabha.
2. It has equal power as the Rajya Sabha in passing any Bill for constitutional amendment.
3. Lok Sabha members have the power to elect the President and Vice-President.
4. Motion of no confidence can only be introduced in Lok Sabha. If it is passed then the Prime Minister and other councils of ministers need to resign from their post.

Functions of the Rajya Sabha

1. Any bill (except the money bills) needs to be approved by Rajya Sabha
2. It has the same power as Lok Sabha for passing any Bill for a constitutional amendment?
3. The members of Rajya Sabha have the electoral power for selection for President and Vice – President.
4. It has power in the impeachment procedure of the President and judge of the Supreme Court and High Courts.

VII. Project and activity

Question 1.
Organise a mock Parliament in your class. Discuss the role of President,Prime Minister and Ministers.
Answer:
Mock Parliament:
Role of President
Role of Prime Minister and Ministers.
(mock Parliament video in you tube)

1. 14th National youth Parliament.
2. Mock Parliament session Anan kids Jim 26th 2018.
3. Mock Parliament in village school-Final Rehearsal of youth.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi intends to organise a mock Parliament in Delhi with representation from every district.

Key points:

1. Each class should prepare a list of activities.
2. This enables them to prepare themselves for the discussions in the House.

It is of two types:

1. Government Business (the member of the Cabinet rank) and
2. Private members business – the other members of the Parliament who is not in Minister rank.

Question 2.
Bring out the differences and similarities between the US and Indian President’s.
Answer:

1. Both the US President and the Indian President are elected through election by voting.
2. The President of US and the President of India both are the Head of the Union and the first citizen.
3. Election to the US President is direct.
4. Election to the Indian President is indirect.
5. The President of US is the Real Executive of the government.
6. The President of India is only the Nominal Head.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Central Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Articles 52 to 78 in Part V deals with the:
(a) Judiciary
(b) Union Executive
(c) State Legislature
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Union Executive

Question 2.
Who is the supreme commander of the defence forces of India?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(c) President
(d) Vice – President
Answer:
(c) President

Question 3.
The …………….. is the Constitutional head of the Union Executive.
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice
(d) Council of Minister
Answer:
(a) President

Question 4.
Who occupies the second highest office in the country?
(a) President
(b) Vice President
(c) Attorney General
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(b) Vice President

Question 5.
Article …………….. lays down that the Supreme command of the Defense Force of the Union shall be vested in the President.
(a) 53(1)
(b) 53 (2)
(c) 53(3)
(d) 51(A)
Answer:
(b) 53 (2)

Question 6.
The eligible age to be appointed as the President of India is ……………..
(a) 25 years
(b) 35 years
(c) 21 years
Answer:
(b) 35 years

Question 7.
The Vice-President can act as the President for a maximum period of …………….. months.
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 6

Question 8.
The council of Rajya Sabha consists of …………… members
(a) 250
(b) 238
(c) 245
Answer:
(a) 250

Question 9.
If the office of the President and Vice President lie vacant …………….. of India works as President.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Deputy Ministers
(c) Ministers of State
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(d) Chief Justice

Question 10.
The members of the Rajya Sabha are ……………
(a) elected indirectly
(b) mostly nominated
(c) elected directly as well as indirectly
Answer:
(a) elected indirectly

Question 11.
The …………….. is instrumental in moving amendments to the Constitution.
(a) Cabinet
(b) Council of States
(c) President
(d) Attorney General
Answer:
(a) Cabinet

Question 12.
The …………….. is a permanent house and cannot be dissolved.
(a) Legislative Assembly
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Electoral College
Answer:
(c) Rajya Sabha

Question 13.
The Supreme Court of India, New Delhi was inaugurated on January 28 ……………..
(a) 1935
(b) 1940
(c) 1947
(d) 1950
Answer:
(d) 1950

Question 14.
In …………….. jurisdiction the Supreme Court hears appeals against the decisions of High Court.
(a) Original
(b) Appellate
(c) Advisory
(d) Judicial Review
Answer:
(b) Appellate

Question 15.
The law declared by the …………….. is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
(a) Supreme Court
(b) High Court
(c) District Court
(d) Revenue Court
Answer:
(a) Supreme Court

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The legislature in Central Government is known as ……………….
2. The President of India apart from Rashtrapathi Bhavan conducts office at least once a year in ………………. Hyderabad.
3. Once elected as the President, he has to take an oath of office before the ……………….
4. The present President of India is ……………….
5. The President summons Parliament at least ………………. a year.
6. President can make advances out of the ………………. of India to meet any unexpected expenditure.
7. ………………. emergency is declared by the President if there is a threat to financial stability or the credit of India.
8. The President may be removed from office for violation of Constitution by
9. At least a minimum of ………………. days notice should be given for the resolution for the removal of Vice President from his office.
10. When there is a tie of voting on Bill in Rajya Sabha the ………………. can cast his vote for or against using his discretion power.
11. The post of ………………. of India has adopted the West Minister (England) model of the Constitutional democracy.
12. The ………………. is an informal body of senior ministers who forms the nucleus of administration.
13. The ………………. belong to the second category of ministers in the council who are also incharge of ministries or departments.
14. The council of state or Rajya Sabha consists of ………………. members.
15. Any biii except money bill needs to be approved by ……………….

Answers:

1. Parliament
2. ‘Rashtrapati Nilayam’
3. Chief Justice of India
4. Thiru, Ramnath Govind
5. twice
6. contingency fund
7. Financial
8. impeachment
9. fourteen
10. Vice-President
11. Prime Minister
12. Cabinet
13. Ministers of State
14. Rajya Sabha
15. 250

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The Cabinet forms the nucleus of administration
Reason (R): All important decisions of the government are taken by the cabinet such as defence, finance, external affairs and home affairs.
(a) (A) is false, but R is true.
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for A.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for A.
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for A.

Question 2.
(i) The Parliament has the power to change the boundaries of the states.
(ii) Parliament exercises control over the executive.
(iii) Parliament is an independent organ.
(iv) ft is a bicameral legislature
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Article 74 (1) says there shall be a council of ministers with the Prime Minister as the head to aid and advice the President.
(ii) The Prime Minister has no power to decide the dates and agenda of the Cabinet meeting.
(iii) The Prime Minister decides th’e rank of his ministers and distributes various departments,
(iv) The Prime Minister is the leader of the nation and chief spokes person of the country.
(a) (i), (ii) are true
(b) (i),(iii) and (iv) are true
(c) (i) and (iii) are true
(d) (i) and (iv) are true
Answer:
(b) (i),(iii) and (iv) are true

Question 4.
(i) Lok Sabha as of today has 552 members.
(ii) The President generally nominates 2 persons from Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha.
(iii) It is the house of the people.
(iv) It is the permanent house of the Parliament.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 5.
(i) Under Article 352 President has the power to proclaim National Emergency on the grounds of War.
(ii) Due to Constitutional failure in the State President can declare an Emergency under Article 356.
(iii) Article 61 deals with the removal of the President by impeachment.
(iv) The President is answerable to the court of law.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column If.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (vi)
E. (i)
F. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (ii)

V. Answer the brief questions

Question 1.
Describe briefly the diplomatic powers of the President.
Answer:

• The President appoints Indian diplomats to other countries and receives foreign diplomats posted to India.
• The ambassador-designate becomes ambassador after calling on the President and presenting his credentials.
• All treaties and agreements with foreign states are entered into in the name of the President.

Question 2.
“Prime Minister represents our nation at all International Conferences”- Explain.
Answer:
The Prime Minister is the leader of the Nation and chief spokes person of the country.

As the leader of the nation, the Prime Minister represents our nation at all International Conferences like the Common Wealth Summit of Non aligned Nations and SAARC.

Question 3.
What is meant by integrated judicial system?
Answer:
Integrated judiciary means that the judicial system is hierarchical one. At the top there is the Supreme Court and its decisions aie bonding precedent for low er subordinate Courts.

Question 4.
What are the qualification to become the member of Lok Sabha?
Answer:

1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He should not be less than 25 years of age.
3. He should have his name in the electoral rolls in some part of the country.
4. He should not hold any office of profit under the Union or State Government.
5. He should be mentally sound and economically solvent.

Question 5.
Throw light on the compositions of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The Lok Sabha is the Lower House of the Parliament. It is also known as the House of the people. It contains elected representatives of the people. The maximum number of members can be elected for the Lok Sabha is 552. Presently, the Lok Sabha has 543 elected members. Out of these, 530 members are elected members from different States and 13 members from the Union Territories. The President generally nominates two members belonging to the Anglo – Indian community. At present, the total strength of the Lok Sabha is 545.

Question 6.
Write a brief note on the appointment of judges of the Supreme Court?
Answer:

1. The Chief Justice of Supreme Court in India is appointed by the President of India.
2. The other judges are appointed by the President in consultation with the collegiums with Chief Justice Head.

Question 7.
Who is the head of the Union Executive?
Answer:
The President is the nominal executive authority in the Parliamentary systems of Government. He is also the Constitutional head of the Union Executive.

Question 8.
What do you know about motion of no confidence?
Answer:

1. Motion of no confidence can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.
2. When it is passed then the Prime Minister and other Council of Ministers need to resign from their post.

Question 9.
What is the qualification of President of Indi?
Answer:
The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a Presidential candidate:

• He should be a citizen of India.
• He must have completed the age of thirty-five years.
• He must not hold any office of profit under the Union, State or local government.
• He should have the other qualifications required to become a member of the Lok Sabha.
• He/her name should be proposed by at least ten electors and seconded by another ten electors of the Electoral college which elects the President.

Question 10.
What makes the Indian Parliament powerful?
Answer:
The representative of the people makes the Parliament powerful.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Write about the composition location and term of the judges of the Supreme court.
Answer:
In the beginning in 1950 our Supreme Court consisted of 8 judges including the Chief justice. As passage of time in need at present the Supreme Court consists of 28 judges including Chief justice.

The Constitution also provides appointment of judges to the supreme court on ad – hoc (temporary) basis.

1. The Chief justice and other judges of the Supreme Court can hold office up to the age of 65 yearn.
2. The judges of the Supreme Court can resign before their term by giving their resignation in writing to the President.
3. The Parliament also has power to remove the judges by invoking impeachment provisions for their proven misbehaviour.
4. The Supreme Court sits at New Delhi. It may also sit any other place in India which may be decided by the Chief Justice of India with the approval of the President.

Question 2.
Describe the duties and functions of the Attorney General of India.
Answer:
The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India. He is the highest law officer in the country. He is appointed by the President.
Duties and functions of the Attorney General of India.

1. To give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters which are referred to him by the President.
2. To perform such other duties of a legal character that are assigned to him by the President and discharge the functions conferred on him by the constitution are any other law.
3. In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General of India has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.
4. He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member but without a right to vote.
5. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament.

Question 3.
What are the functions of the Vice-President? How he can be removed?
Answer:
Functions of the Vice-President: The Vice-President is Ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
As the chairman of the house

1. He regulates the proceeding of the House.
2. He decides the order of the house.
3. He decides the admissibility of a resolution or questions.
4. He suspends or adjourns the house in case of a grave disorder.
5. He issues directions to various committees on matters relating to their functions.

Removal of the Vice-President:

1. The Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the council of states passed by a majority of all the then members of the council and agreed to by the House of the people.
2. A resolution for this purpose may be moved only after a notice of atleast a minimum of 14 days has been given of such an intention.

Question 4.
What is the role of the Vice President in the absence of the President?
Answer:

1. When the President is unable to discharge his duties due to illness or absence from the country he attends to the functions of the President.
2. When the President is unable to do his duties due to sickness or when the post of the President becomes vacant due to resignation, death or removal by impeachment etc., the Vice President can act as the President for a maximum period of six months.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 19 Origin and Evolution of Life Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 19 Origin and Evolution of Life

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Origin and Evolution of Life Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Biogenetic law states that:
(a) Ontogeny and phylogeny go together
(b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny
(c) Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny
(d) There is no relationship between phylogeny and ontogeny
Answer:
(b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny

Question 2.
The ‘use and disuse theory’ was proposed by:
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Ernst Haeckel
(c) Jean Baptiste Lamarck
(d) Gregor Mendel
Answer:
(c) Jean Baptiste Lamarck

Question 3.
Paleontologists deal with:
(a) Embryological evidences
(b) Fossil evidences
(c) Vestigial organ evidences
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Embryological evidences

Question 4.
The best way of direct dating fossils of recent origin is by:
(a) Radio-carbon method
(b) Uranium lead method
(c) Potassium-argon method
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Radio-carbon method

Question 5.
The term Ethnobotany was coined by:
(a) Khorana
(b) J.W. Harshberger
(c) Ronald Ross
(d) Hugo de Vries
Answer:
(b) J.W. Harshberger

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The characters developed by the animals during their life time, in response to the environmental changes are called ………..
2. The degenerated and non-functional organs found in an organism are called ……….
3. The forelimb of bat and human are examples of ………. organs.
4. The theory of natural selection for evolution was proposed by ………..

Answer:

1. acquired characters
2. vestigial organs
3. homologous
4. Charles Darwin

III. State true or false. Correct the false statements.

1. The use and disuse theory of organs’ was postulated by Charles Darwin.
2. The homologous organs look similar and perform similar functions but they have different origin and developmental pattern.
3. Birds have evolved from reptiles.

Answer:

1. False – The use and disuse theory of organs’ was postulated by Jean Baptiste Lamarck.
2. False – The analogous organs look similar and perform similar functions but they have different origin and developmental pattern.
3. True

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (ii)
E. (vi)
F. (v)

V. Answer in a word or sentence.

Question 1.
A human hand, a front leg of a cat, a front flipper of a whale and a bat’s wing look dissimilar and adapted for different functions. What is the name given to these organs?
Answer:
Homologous organ – as they have inherited from common ancestors with similar developmental pattern in embryos.

Question 2.
Which organism is considered to be the fossil bird?
Answer:
Archaeopteryx is the fossil bird, found in the Jurassic period.

Question 3.
Why is Archaeopteryx considered to be a connecting link?
Answer:
Archaeopteryx is considered to be a connecting link between reptiles and birds as it had wings with feathers like a bird and had a long tail, clawed digits and conical teeth like a reptile.

VI. Short Answers Questions

Question 1.
The degenerated wing of a kiwi is an acquired character. Why is it an acquired character?
Answer:
The characters developed by the animals during their life time in response to the environmental changes are called acquired character. The acquired characters are transmitted to the offspring by the process of inheritance.

Question 2.
Why is Archaeopteryx considered to be a connecting link?
Answer:
Archaeopteryx is the oldest known fossil bird. It is considered to be a connecting link between reptiles and birds. It had wings with feathers, like a bird. It had a long tail, clawed digits and conical teeth, like a reptile.

Question 3.
Define Ethnobotany and write its importance.
Answer:
Ethnobotany is the study of a region’s plants and their practical uses through the traditional knowledge of the local culture of people.

Question 4.
How can you determine the age of the fossils?
Answer:
The age of fossils is determined by radioactive elements present in it. The elements may be carbon, uranium, lead or potassium. Carbon consumption of animals and plants stops after death, and the decaying process of C14 occurs continuously. The time passed since the death of a plant or animal can be calculated by measuring the amount of C14 present in their body.

VII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Natural selection is a driving force for evolution-How?
Answer:
Survival of the fittest or Natural selection : During the struggle for existence, the organisms which can overcome the challenging situation, survive and adapt to the surrounding environment. Organisms which are unable to face the challenges, are unfit to survive and disappear. The process of selection of organisms with favourable variation is called as natural selection.

Question 2.
How do you differentiate homologous organs from analogous organs?
Answer:

Question 3.
How does fossilization occur in plants?
Answer:
The process of formation of fossil in the rocks is called Fossilization. The common methods of fossilization include:
1. Petrifaction: Minerals like silica slowly penetrate in and replace the original organic tissue and forms a rock-like fossil. This method of fossilization can preserve hard and soft parts mostly bones and wood fossils are petrified.

2. Mould and cast: A replica of a plant or animal is preserved in sedimentary rocks. When the organism gets buried in sediment it is dissolved by underground water leaving a hollow depression called a mould. It shows the original shape but does not reveal the internal structure. Minerals or sediment fill the hollow depression and form a cast.

3. Preservation: Original remains can be preserved in ice or amber (tree sap). They protect the organisms from decay. The entire plant or animal is preserved.

4. Compression: When an organism dies, the hard parts of their bodies settle at the bottom of the sea bed and are covered by sediment. The process of sedimentation goes on continuously and fossils are formed.

5. Infiltration or Replacement: The precipitation of minerals takes place which later on infiltrates the cell wall. The process is brought about by several mineral elements such as silica, calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate. Hard parts are dissolved and replaced by these minerals.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS).

Question 1.
Arun was playing in the garden. Suddenly he saw a dragon fly sitting on a plant. He observed the wings of it. He thought it looked similar to a wing of a crow. Is he correct? Give reason for your answer.
Answer:
No. Arun is not correct. It is called as Analogous organ. They look similar and perform similar functions, but they have different origin and developmental pattern.

Question 2.
Imprints of fossils tell us about evolution-How?
Answer:
Fossils provide solid evidence that organisms from the past are not the same as those found today. Fossils show a progression of evolution by comparing the anatomical record of fossils with modem and extinct species. Palaeontologist can infer the linkages of their species. For this the body parts such as shell bones or teeth are used. The resulting fossil record tells the story of the part and show the evolution of form over millions of years.

Question 3.
Octopus, cockroach and frog all have eyes. Can we group these animals together to establish a common evolutionary origin. Justify your answer.
Answer:
No, we cannot group these animals together because development of eye is not a point utilised in classification as well as in evolution.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Origin and Evolution of Life Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Life originated in:
(a) Air
(b) Earth
(c) Water
(d) Nitrogen
Answer:
(c) Water

Question 2.
Believers of spontaneous generation theory believed that:
(a) Life originated from a similar organism
(b) Life originated from the air
(c) Life originated only spontaneously
(d) Life originated from pre-existing life
Answer:
(c) Life originated only spontaneously

Question 3.
Which of the following organ in man is not vestigial?
(a) Vermiform appendix
(b) Nictitating membrane
(c) Ear muscles
(d) Epiglottis
Answer:
(a) Vermiform appendix

Question 4.
Analogous organs are:
(a) similar in origin
(b) similar in structure
(c) non-functional
(d) similar in function
Answer:
(b) similar in structure

Question 5.
Wings of locust, pigeon and bat are example of:
(a) Vestigial organs
(b) Analogous organs
(c) Homologous organs
(d) Evolution
Answer:
(a) Vestigial organs

Question 6.
The distance needs to be neither too hot nor too cold is called ______.
(a) habitable zone
(b) Goldilock zone
(c) Aquatic zone
(d) Terrestrial zone.
Answer:
(c) Aquatic zone

Question 7.
Fossils are dated by:
(a) Amount of calcium residue
(b) Amount of radio active carbon compound
(c) Association with other mammals
(d) Structure of bones
Answer:
(b) Amount of radio active carbon compound

Question 8.
A basket of vegetables contains carrot, potato and tomato. Which of them represent the correct homologous structures?
(a) Carrot and potato
(b) Carrot and tomato
(c) Radish and carrot
(d) Radish and potato
Answer:
(c) Radish and carrot

Question 9.
Most fossil have been found in:
(a) Black soil
(b) Lava flows
(c) Granite
(d) Sedimentary rocks
Answer:
(d) Sedimentary rocks

Question 10.
Birbal sahni was a:
(a) Zoologist
(b) Lounder of Central Drug Research Institute
(c) Ornithologist
(d) Palaeobotanist
Answer:
(d) Palaeobotanist

Question 11.
Darwin in his ‘Natural Selection Theory’ did not believe in any role of which one of the following in organic evolution.
(a) Parasites and Predators as natural enemies
(b) Survival of the fittest
(c) Struggle for existence
(d) Discontinuous Variation
Answer:
(d) Discontinuous Variation

Question 12.
Fossilizaticn can occur in:
(a) Animals are burned and preserved by natural process
(b) Animals are destroyed by scavangers
(c) Animals are eaten by predators
(d) Animals are destroyed by environmental conditions
Answer:
(a) Animals are burned and preserved by natural process

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Branch of biology which deals with fossils is …………
2. Archaeopteryx is connecting link between reptiles and ………..
3. Darwin explained origin of species through …………
4. The ship on which Darwin worked as naturalist was …………
5. The book Origin of Species was published in the year …………
6. Mutation can be artificially induced by ………..
7. Extraterrestrial states that units of life called ………..
8. The idea of chemical evolution of life was developed by …………..
9. Living being able to reproduce more individuals and form the own progeny is called …………..
10. ……….. is the raw material which plays an important role in evolution.
Answer:
1. Palaeontology
2. Birds
3. Natural selection
4. H.M.S. Beagle
5.1859
6. Radiation
7. Panspermia (spores)
8. Oparin and Haldane
9. Over production
10. Variation

III. Match the following.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (iii)

IV. State whether True or false. If false write the correct statement.

1. De Vries is called as the Father of Palaeontology.
2. NASA is developing the Mars 2020 astrobiology to investigate an astrobiologically details of Mars.
3. Competition among the individual of same species is Interspecific struggle.
4. Abiogenesis states that life originates from pre existing life.
5. The Big Bang theory explains the origin of Universe.

Answer:

1. False – Leonardo da vinci is called as the Father of Palaeontology.
2. True
3. False – Competition among the individual of same species is Intraspecific struggle.
4. False – Biogenesis states that life originates from pre existing life.
5. True

V. Answer in a word or sentence.

Question 1.
Who proposed the theory of Natural selection?
Answer:
Charles Darwin

Question 2.
What do you understand by evolution?
Answer:
Formation of new species due to changes in specific characters over several generations as response to natural selection is called evolution.

Question 3.
How do embryological studies provide evidences for evolution?
Answer:
The embryos from fish to mammals are similar in their early stages of development. The differentiation of their special characters appear in the later stages of development.

Question 4.
Mention three important features of fossils.
Answer:

1. Fossils are useful in classification of organisms.
2. Fossils are used in the field of descriptive and comparative analoms.
3. Fossils throw light on phylogeny and evolution of organisms.

Question 5.
Who is the Father of Indian Paleobotany? What is his contribution in this field.
Answer:
Birbal Sahani is the Father of Indian Paleobotany. He presented his research on two different areas of Paleobotany.

1. The anatomy and morphology of paleozoic ferns.
2. The fossil plants of the Indian Gondwana formation.

Question 6.
List out the methods of Fossilization.
Answer:
Common methods of fossilization includes petrifaction molds and cast, carbonization preservation, compression and infiltration.

Question 7.
What are extremophiles?
Answer:
The organisms which live in extreme environmental conditions on earth are called extremophiles.

Question 8.
What is Goldilock zone for life. Name the planet in the Goldilock zone.
Answer:
The Goldilock zone for life is the zone having a right mass to retain an atmosphere and have an orbit at the right distance from its star that allows liquid water to exist and the distance need to be neither too hot or cold. In our solar system – Earth is the only planet in the Goldilock zone.

Question 9.
What are the three types of struggle for existence?
Answer:

1. Intra specific struggle
2. Inter specific struggle
3. Environmental struggle

Question 10.
What is Atavism?
Answer:
The appearance of the ancestral character in some individuals is called Atavism. Eg: Presence of rudimentary tail in newborn babies.

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Distinguish between acquired and inherited trait with example.
Answer:

Question 2.
What are the aspects of ethnobotany?
Answer:
Ethnobotany has relevance with problems of nutrition, health care and life support system, faith in plants, cottage industries, economic upliftment, conservation of biodiversity and sustainable use of plant resources.

Question 3.
What is the Geological Time Scale?
Answer:
The geological time scale is a system of chronological dating that relates geological rock strata to time and is used by geologists, palaeontologists and other Earth scientists to describe the timing and relationships of events that have occurred during Earth’s history.

Question 4.
Write a note on types of Germinal Variation.
Answer:
Germinal variation are classified into two types:

1. Continuous variation,
2. Discontinuous variation

1. Continuous variation : These are small variations which occur among individuals of a population. They are also called as fluctuating variations. They occur by gradual accumulation in a population, e.g. skin colour, height and weight of an individual, colour of eye, etc.

2. Discontinuous variation : These are sudden changes which occur in an organism due to mutations. They do not have any intermediate forms. These large variations are not useful for evolution, e.g. short legged Ancon sheep, six or more digits (fingers) in human, etc.

Question 5.
Explain the existence for astro biology.
Answer:
The theory explains that any planets can support the existence of life, if it fulfills two important criteria.

1. It must have a right mass to retain an atmosphere.
2. It must have an orbit at just the right distance from its star (Sun) that it allows liquid water to exist. Thus, the distance need to be neither too hot or not too cold and is often referred as Goldilock Zone for life.

VII. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Explain the various methods of Fossilization.
Answer:
Common methods of fossilization includes petrifaction, molds and cast, carbonization, preservation, compression and infiltration.
Petrifaction : Minerals like silica slowly penetrate in and replace the original organic tissue and forms a rock like fossil. This method of fossilization can preserve hard and soft parts. Most bones and wood fossils are petrified.

Mold and Cast : A replica of a plant or animal is preserved in sedimentary rocks. When the organism gets buried in sediment it is dissolved by underground water leaving a hollow depression called a mold. It shows the original shape but does not reveal the internal structure. Minerals or sediment fill the hollow depression and forms a cast.

Preservation : Original remains can be preserved in ice or amber (tree sap). They protect the organisms from decay. The entire plant or animal is preserved.

Compression : When an organism dies, the hard parts of their bodies settle at the bottom of the sea bed and are covered by sediment. The process of sedimentation goes on continuously and fossils are formed.

Infiltration or Replacement : The precipitation of minerals takes place which later on infiltrate the cell wall. The process is brought about by several mineral elements such as silica, calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate. Hard parts are dissolved and replaced by these minerals.

Question 2.
Explain the principles of Lamarckism.
Answer:
Principles of Lamarckism:
(i) Internal vital force : Living organisms or their component parts tend to increase in size continuously. This increase in size is due to the inherent ability of the organisms.

(ii) Environment and new needs : A change in the environment brings about changes in the need of the organisms. In response to the changing environment, the organisms develop certain adaptive characters. The adaptations of the organisms may be in the form of development of new parts of the body.

(iii) Use and disuse theory : Lamarck’s use and disuse theory states that if an organ is used constantly, the organ develops well and gets strengthened. When an organ is not used for a long time, it gradually degenerates.

The ancestors of giraffe were provided with short neck and short – forelimbs. Due to shortage of grass, they were forced to feed on leaves from trees. The continuous stretching of their neck and forelimbs resulted in the development of long neck and long forelimbs which is an example for constant use of an organ. The degenerated wing of Kiwi is an example for organ of disuse.

(iv) Theory of Inheritance of acquired characters : When there is a change in the environment, the animals respond to the change. They develop adaptive structures. The characters developed by the animals during their life time, in response to the environmental changes are called acquired characters. According to Lamarck, the acquired characters are transmitted to the offspring by the process of inheritance.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS).

Question 1.
What is the relationship between mutation and variation?
Answer:
Mutation and variation are the two events involved in the process of evolution. Mutation arises due to errors occurring in DNA during replication or exposure to ultraviolet rays or chemicals. The mutation leads to variation. It brings about changes in a single individual.

Question 2.
Picture of the newborn baby to be given.

(i) Name the phenomenon responsible for the structure marked (a) in the Figure.
Answer:
Atavism

(ii) Give the definition of the phenomenon responsible for the development for the structure marked.
Answer:
The reappearance, ancestral character in some individuals.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

PART – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
If A = {1,2}, B = {1, 2, 3, 4}, C = {5,6} and D = {5, 6, 7, 8} then state which of the following statement is true ………….. .
(1) (A × C) ⊂ (B × D)
(2) (B × D) ⊂ (A × C)
(3) (A × B) ⊂ (A × D)
(4) (D × A) ⊂ (B × A)
Answer:
(1) (A × C) ⊂ (B × D)

Question 2.
If f(x) = 2x² and g(x) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3x }\), then jog is ………….. .
(1) \(\frac{3}{2 x^{2}}\)
(2) \(\frac{2}{3 x^{2}}\)
(3) \(\frac{2}{9 x^{2}}\)
(4) \(\frac{1}{6 x^{2}}\)
Answer:
(3) \(\frac{2}{9 x^{2}}\)

Question 3.
Given F₁ = 1,F₂ = 3 and F_n = F_n-1 + F_n-2  then F₅ is ………….. .
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 11
Answer:
(4) 11

Question 4.
The value of (1³ + 2³ + 3³ +. . . .+ 15³) – (1 + 2 + 3 +….+ 15) is ………….. .
(1) 14400
(2) 14200
(3) 14280
(4) 14520
Answer:
(3) 14280

Question 5.
The solution of the system x + y – 3z = -6 , – 7y + 7z = 7, 3z = 9 is ………….. .
(1) x = 1, y = 2, z = 3
(2) x = -1, y = 2, z = 3
(3) x = -1, y = -2, z = 3
(4) x = 1, y = 2, z = 3
Answer:
(1) x = 1, y = 2, z = 3

Question 6.
If number of columns and rows are not equal in a matrix then it is said to be a ………….. .
(1) diagonal matrix
(2) rectangular matrix
(3) square matrix
(4) identity matrix
Answer:
(2) rectangular matrix

Question 7.
The slope of the line which is perpendicular to a line joining the points (0, 0) and (-8, 8) is ………….. .
(1) -1
(2) 1
(3) \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)
(4) -8
Answer:
(2) 1

Question 8.
If sin θ + cos θ = a and sec θ + cosec θ = 6, then the value of b (a² – 1} is equal to ………….. .
(1) 2 a
(2) 3 a
(3) 0
(4) 2 ab
Answer:
(1) 2 a

Question 9.
If two solid hemispheres of same base radius r units are joined together along their bases, then curved surface area of this new solid is ………….. .
(1) 4π r² sq. units
(2) 6π r² sq. units
(3) 3π r² sq. units
(4) 8π r² sq. units
Answer:
(1) 4π r² sq. units

Question 10.
The standard deviation of a data is 3. If each value is multiplied by 5 then the new variance is ………….. .
(1) 3
(2) 15
(3) 5
(4) 225
Answer:
(4) 225

Question 11.
Kamalam went to play a lucky draw contest. 135 tickets of the lucky draw were sold. If the probability of Kamalam winning is \(\frac { 1 }{ 9 }\), then the number of tickets bought by Kamalam is ………….. .
(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 20
Answer:
(3) 15

Question 12.
If α and β are the zeros of the polynomial p(x) = 4x² + 3x + 7 then \(\frac{1}{\alpha}+\frac{1}{\beta}\) is equal to …… .
(1) \(\frac{7}{3}\)
(2) \(-\frac{7}{3}\)
(3) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
(4) \(-\frac{3}{7}\)
Answer:
(4) \(-\frac{3}{7}\)

Question 13.
The common ratio of the G.P. a^m-n, a^m, a^{m + n} is ………….. .
(1) a^m
(2) a^-m
(3) aⁿ
(4) aⁿ
Answer:
(3) aⁿ

Question 14.
If the circumference at the base of a right circular cone and the slant height are 120π cm and 10 cm respectively, then the curved surface area of the cone is equal to ………….. .
(1) 1200 π cm²
(2) 600 π cm²
(3) 300 π cm²
(4) 600 π m²
Answer:
(2) 600 π cm²

PART – II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Let A = {1,2, 3, 4} and B = N . Let f: A → B be defined by f(x) = x³ then,
(i) find the range of f
(ii) identify the type of function
Answer:
A = {1,2,3,4}
B = (1,2,3,4,5, ………}
f(x) = x³
f(1) = 1³ = 1
f(2) = 2³ = 8
f(3) = 3³ = 27
f(4) = 4³ = 64
(i) Range = {1, 8,27, 64)
(ii) one -one and into function.

Question 16.
If f(x) = 2x -1, g (x) = \(\frac{x+1}{2}\), show that fog = gof = x
Answer:
f(x) = 2x – 1 : g(x) = \(\frac{x+1}{2}\)
fog = f[g(x)]
= \(f\left[\frac{x+1}{2}\right]\)
= \(2\left(\frac{x+1}{2}\right)-1\)
= x + 1 – 1
= x

gof = g[f(x)]
= g (2x – 1)
= \(\frac{2 x-1+1}{2}\)
= \(\frac{2 x}{2}\)
= x
∴ fog = gof = x
Hence it is proved.

Question 17.
Determine the general term of an A.P. whose 7^th term is -1 and 16^th term is 17.
Answer:
Let the AP. be t₁, t₂, t₃, t₄, ………
It is given that t₇ = -1 and t₁₆ = 17
a + (7 – 1)d = -1 and a + (16 – 1) d = 17
a + 6d = – 1 ……. (1)
a + 15d = 17 ……… (2)
Subtracting equation (1) from equation (2), we get 9d = 18 ⇒ d = 2
Putting d = 2 in equation (1), we get a + 12 = -1 So, a = -13
Hence, general term t_n = a + (n – 1) d = -13 + (n – 1) × 2 = 2n – 15

Question 18.
Find x so that x + 6, x + 12 and x + 15 are consecutive terms of a Geometric Progression.
Answer:
\(\frac{t_{2}}{t_{1}}=\frac{x+12}{x+6}\), \(\frac{t_{3}}{t_{2}}=\frac{x+15}{x+12}\)
Since it is a G.P.
\(\frac{x+12}{x+6}=\frac{x+15}{x+12}\)
(x + 12)² = (x + 6) (x + 15)
x² + 24x + 144 = x² + 21x + 90
3x = -54 ⇒ x = \(\frac{-54}{3}\) = – 18

Question 19.
Find the excluded values of the expression \(\frac{x^{2}+6 x+8}{x^{2}+x-2}\)
Answer:
x² + 6x + 8 = (x + 4)(x + 2)
x² + x – 2 = (x + 2)(x – 1)


The expression \(\frac{x+4}{x-1}\) is undefined
when x – 1 = 0 ⇒ x = 1
The excluded value is 1

Question 20.
Solve 3p² + 2√5p – 5 = 0 by formula method.
Answer:
Compute 3p² + 2√5p – 5 = 0 with the standard form ax² + bx + c = O
a = 3, b = 2√5, c = -5
p = \(\frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^{2}-4 a c}}{2 a}\)
Substituting the values of a, b and e in the formula we get,

Therefore, x = \(\frac{\sqrt{5}}{3},-\sqrt{5}\)

Question 21.
Write the expression \(\frac{\alpha+3}{\beta}+\frac{\beta+3}{\alpha}\) in terms of α + β and αβ.
Answer:

Question 22.
Rhombus PQRB is inscribed in ∆ABC such that ∠B is one of its angle. P, Q and R lie on AB, AC and BC respectively. If AB = 12 cm and BC = 6 cm, find the sides PQ, RB of the rhombus.
Answer:
Let the side of the rhombus be “x”. Since PQRB is a Rhombus PQ || BC
By basic proportionality theorem
\(\frac{A P}{A B}=\frac{P Q}{B C} \Rightarrow \frac{12-x}{12}=\frac{x}{6}\)
12x = 6(12 – x)
12x = 72 – 6x
12x + 6x = 72
18x = 72 ⇒ x = \(\frac { 72 }{ 18 }\) = 4
Side of a rhombus = 4cm
PQ = RB = 4cm

Question 23.
Find the equation of a straight line which is parallel to the line 3x – 7y = 12 and passing through the point (6,4)
Answer:
Equation of the straight line, parallel to 3x – 7y – 12 = 0 is 3x – 7y + k= O
Since it passes through the point (6,4)
3(6) – 7(4) + k = 0
k = 28 – 18= 10
Therefore, equation of the required straight line is 3x – 7y + 10 = 0.

Question 24.
Prove that \(\frac{\tan ^{2} \theta-1}{\tan ^{2} \theta+1}\) = 1 – 2 cos² θ
Answer:

= sin² θ – cos² θ = 1 – cos² θ – cos² θ
= 1 – 2 cos²θ
L.H.S = R.H.S
Hence it is proved.

Question 25.
The standard deviation and coefficient of variation of a data are 1.2 and 25.6 respectively. Find the value of mean.
Answer:
Standard deviation (σ) = 1.2
Coefficient of variation = 25.6
\(\frac{\sigma}{x} \times 100\) = 25.6
\(\frac{1.2}{\bar{x}} \times 100\) = 25.6 ⇒ 25.6 × x̄ = 1.2 × 100
x̄ = \(\frac{120}{25.6}=\frac{120 \times 10}{256}\) = 4.687 = 4.69
Value of mean = 4.69

Question 26.
Three dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability of getting the same number.
Answer:
Sample space = {(1, 1, 1) (1, 1,2) (1, 1,3). .. . (6,6, 6)}
n(S) = 216
Let A be the event of getting the same number on all the three dice
A = {(1,1,1),(2,2,2),(3,3,3),(4,4,4)(5,5,5)(6,6,6fl
n(A) = 6
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{6}{216}=\frac{1}{36}\)

Question 27.
If the curved surface area of a solid hemisphere is 2772 sq. cm, then find its total surface area.
Answer:
Curved surface area ofa hemisphere = 2772 sq.cm
2πr² = 2772
πr² = \(\frac{2772}{2}\) = 1386
T.S.A of the hemisphere = 3πr² sq. units
= 3 × 1386 cm²
= 4158 cm²

Question 28.
Which term of the geometric sequence 5,2, \(\frac{4}{5}, \frac{8}{25} \cdots \text { is } \frac{128}{15625}\) ?
Answer:
The given G.P is 5,2, \(\frac{4}{5}, \frac{8}{25} \cdots \text { is } \frac{128}{15625}\)
Here a = 5, r = \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\)
t_n = \(\frac{128}{15625}\)
a.r_n-a = \(\frac{128}{15625}\)

PART – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Let f: A → B be a function defined by f(x) = \(\frac { x }{ 2 }\) – 1, where A = {2,4,6,10,12}, B = {0,1,2,4,5,9} . Represent f by
(i) set of ordered pairs
(ii) a table
(iii) an arrow diagram
(iv) a graph
Answer:
(i) f = {(2,0)(4, 1)(6,2)(10,4)(12,5)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

Question 30.
Given f(x) = x – 1, g(x) = 3x + 1 and h(x) = x² show that (fog)oh = fo(goh)

Question 31.
The product of three consecutive terms of a Geometric Progression is 343 and their sum is \(\frac{91}{3}\) Find the three terms.

Question 32.
Find the sum of all natural numbers between 602 and 902 which are not divisible by 4?

Question 33.
There are 12 pieces of five, ten and twenty rupee currencies whose total value is ₹105. But when first 2 sorts are interchanged in their numbers its value will be increased by ₹20. Find the number of currencies in each sort.

Question 34.
A passenger train takes 1 hr more than an express train to travel a distance of 240 km from Chennai to Virudhachalam. The speed of passenger train is less than that of an express train by 20 km per hour. Find the average speed of both the trains.

Question 35.
ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC and P,Q are points on AD and BC respectively, such that PQ || DC if PD = 18 cm, BQ = 35 cm and QC = 15 cm, find AD.

Question 36.
Find the equation of the perpendicular bisector of the line joining the points A(-4,2) and B(6, -4).

Question 37.
From the top of a tower 50 m high, the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a tree and observed to be 30° and 45° respectively. Find the height of the tree. ( √3 = 1.732)

Question 38.
A hemispherical bowl is filled to the brim with juice. The juice is poured into a cylindrical vessel whose radius is 50% more than its height. If the diameter is same for both the bowl and the cylinder then find the percentage of juice that can be transferred from the bowl into the cylindrical 1 vessel.

Question 39.
A box contains cards numbered 3, 5, 7,9,… 35,37. A card is drawn at random from the box. Find the probability that the drawn card have either multiples of 7 or a prime number.

Question 40.
The function f: [-7, 6] → R is defined as follows.

Question 41.
The denominator of a fraction is 4 more than twice the numerator. When both the numerator and denominator are decreased by 6, then the denominator becomes 12 times the numerator determine the fraction.

Question 42.
If for distribution Σx – 7 = 3 ; (Σx – 7)² = 57 and total number of the item is 20; find the mean and standard deviation.

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Draw a circle of diameter 6 cm from a point P, which is 8 cm away from its centre. Draw the two tangents PA and PB to the circle and measure their lengths.

[OR]

(b) Construct a triangle ∆PQR such that QR = 5 cm, ∠P = 30° and the altitude from P to QR is of length 4.2 cm.

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = x² and hence solve x² – 4x – 5 = 0.

[OR]

(b) Draw the graph of y = x² + 3x + 2 and use it to solve the equation x² + 2x + 4 = 0.

Students can download 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Resources and Industries Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Resources and Industries

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Resources and Industries Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Manganese is used in:
(a) Storage batteries
(b) Steel Making
(c) Copper smelting
(d) Petroleum Refining
Answer:
(b) Steel Making

Question 2.
The Anthracite coal has
(a) 80 to 95% Carbon
(b) Above 70% Carbon
(c) 60 to 7% Carbon
(d) Below 50% Carbon
Answer:
(a) 80 to 95% Carbon

Question 3.
The most important constituents of petroleum are hydrogen and:
(a) Oxygen
(b) Water
(c) Carbon
(d) Nitrogen
Answer:
(c) Carbon

Question 4.
The city which is called the Manchester of South India is
(a) Chennai
(b) Salem
(c) Madurai
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(d) Coimbatore

Question 5.
The first Jute mill of India was established at:
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) Baroda
Answer:
(a) Kolkata

Question 6.
The first Nuclear Power station was commissioned in
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(c) Maharashtra

Question 7.
The most abundant source of energy is:
(a) Biomass
(b) Sun
(c) Coal
(d) Oil
Answer:
(b) Sun

Question 8.
The famous Sindri Fertilizer Plant is located in
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Assam
Answer:
(a) Jharkhand

Question 9.
The nucleus for the development of the chotanagpur plateau region is:
(a) Transport
(b) Mineral Deposits
(c) Large demand
(d) Power Availability
Answer:
(b) Mineral Deposits

Question 10.
One of the shore-based steel plants of India is located at
(a) Kolkata
(b) Tuticorin
(c) Goa
(d) Visakhapatnam
Answer:
(d) Visakhapatnam

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (ii)
E. (iii)

III. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
Define the resource and state its types.
Answer:
Any matter or energy derived from the environment that is used by living things including humans is called a natural resource.
Types of Natural Resources are:

1. Renewable and
2. Non – renewable resources.

Question 2.
Name the states that lead in the production of Iron ore in India.
Answer:
Jharkhand is the leading producer of Iron ore (25%), other states are Odisha (21%), Chattisgarh (18%), Karnataka (20%), Andhra Pradesh (5%) and also the state of Tamil Nadu.

Question 3.
What are the minerals and its types?
Answer:
A mineral is a natural substance of organic or inorganic origin with definite chemical and physical properties.
Types of Minerals are:

1. Metallic minerals
2. Non – metallic minerals.

Question 4.
State the uses of Manganese.
Answer:

1. Manganese is a silvery grey element always available with iron, laterite and other minerals.
2. It is very hard and brittle. So it is used for making iron and steel to give strength.
3. It also serves as raw materials for alloying.
4. It is also used in the manufacture of bleaching powder, insecticides, paints and batteries.

Question 5.
What is natural gas?
Answer:
It usually accompanies petroleum accumulations.
[OR]
Natural gas is an important clean energy resources found in association with or without petroleum. It is used as a source of energy as well as an industrial raw material in the petrochemical industry. It is considered an eco-friendly fuel because of low carbondioxide emissions.

Question 6.
Name the different types of coal with their carbon content.
Answer:
Based on carbon content coal is classified into

1. Anthracite – contains 80% to 90% carbon.
2. Bituminous – contains 60% to 80% carbon.
3. Lignite – contains 40% to 60% carbon
4. Peat – less than 40% carbon

Question 7.
Mention the major areas of jute production in India.
Answer:
West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Assam, Chattisgarh, Odisha are the major jute producing area.

Question 8.
Name the important oil producing regions of India.
Answer:
West coast: Mumbai high, Gujarat coast, Basseim, Aliabet (South of Bhavanagar), Ankleshwar, Cambay – Luni region, Ahmedabad -Kaloi region and Punjab – Haryana.

East Coast: Brahmaputra valley, Digboi, Nahoratitya, Moran-Hugrijan, Rudrasagar-Lawa (Assam region), Surrma Valley. Andaman and Nicobar, Gulf of Mannar, Punjab. Haryana, Baleshwar coast.

IV. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Renewable and non-renewable resources
Answer:
Renewable resources:

1. These resources can be replenished after utilization.
2. Abundantly available in nature.
3. Eg: Sun energy, Wind etc.

Non-Renewable resources:

1. These resources cannot be regained after utilization.
2. Limited stock take millions of years for formation.
3. Eg: Minerals

Question 2.
Metallic and non-metallic minerals
Answer:
Metallic minerals:

1. These minerals contain one or more metallic elements.
2. They can be further classified into ferrous and Non-ferrous minerals.
3. Eg: Iron-ore, Manganese

Non-Metallic minerals:

1. These minerals do not contain metal in them.
2. They can be classified into energy fuels and construction minerals.
3. Eg: Coal, Petroleum, lime stone, Gypsum.

Question 3.
Agra based industry and mineral based industry.
Answer:
Agro based industry:

1. These industries obtain raw materials from agricultural products.
2. Eg: Cotton textile industry, Jute mills, Silk industry, Sugar industry etc.
3. Labour intensive

Mineral based industry:

1. These industries obtain raw materials from metallic and non- metallic minerals.
2. Eg: Coal industry, Iron and Steel industry etc.
3. Capital intensive

Question 4.
Jute industry and sugar industry.
Answer:
Jute industry:

1. Second largest textile industry.
2. Jute fibre is the basic raw material.
3. Gunny bags, Canvas, pack sheets,Cordage are some of the Jute products.
4. Concentrated in and around West Bengal.

Sugar industry:

1. Second largest agro based industry.
2. Sugarcane is the basic raw material.
3. Sugar Jaggery, Khandsari are some of the products of sugar industry.
4. Uttar Pradesh have more than 50% of the sugar industries.

Question 5.
Conventional energy and non- conventional energy
Answer:
Conventional energy:

1. Non renewable energy.
2. Mainly energy is produced by burning fossil fuels.
3. Production of energy till the stock of mineral availability.
4. Thermal power – Coal, petroleum and Natural gas and Nuclear minerals.

Non-Conventional energy:

1. Renewable energy
2. Mainly energy is produced by harnessing power from nature.
3. Continuous flow of energy production is possible.
4. Solar energy, Wind energy. Bio mass energy, tidal and wave energy.

V. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
Write about the distribution of cotton textile industries in India.
Answer:
The cotton textile industries contribute about 7% of industrial output, 2% of India’s GDP and 15% of the country’s export earnings. It is one of the largest sources of employment generation in the country. At present there are 1,719 textile mills in the country. Out of which 188 mills are in public sector, 147 in cooperative sector and 1,284 in private sector. Currently, India is the third largest producer of cotton and has the largest loom arc and ring spindles in the world. At present, cotton textile industry is the largest organized modem industry of India. About 16% of the industrial capital, 14% of industrial production and over 20% of the industrial labour of the country are engaged in this industry.

The higher concentration of textile mills in and around Mumbai, makes it as “Manchester of India”. Presence of black cotton soil in Maharashtra, humid climate, presence of Mumbai port, availability of hydro power, good market and well developed transport facility favour the cotton textile industries in Mumbai. The major cotton textile industries are concentrated in the states of Maharashtra, Gujarat, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh and Tamil nadu. Coimbatore is the most important centre in Tamil nadu with 200 mills out of its 435 and called as “Manchester ‘ of South India”. Erode, Tirupur, Karur, Chennai, Thirunelveli, Madurai, Thoothukudi, Salem and Virudhunagar are the other major cotton textiles centres in the state.

Question 2.
Explain the factors responsible for the concentration of jute industries in the Hoogly region.
Answer:
The following factors are responsible for the concentration of Jute industries in the Hoogly region in West Bengal.

1. Raw materials: West Bengal is the largest producer of Jute. Availability of raw Jute for production.
2. Processing: Jute require fresh water for processing. Abundant water supply is available by the riverines and continuous supply of fresh water is ensured due to Perennial nature.
3. Transport: Well connected by the network of water ways, road ways and railways.
4. Cheap labour: West Bengal is one of the densely populated area . So cheap labour is available.
5. Market: Kolkatta being one of the textile centre great demand for the product as well as port facilities available for export.

Question 3.
Write an account on the major iron and steel industries of India.
Answer:
Iron and Steel industry is the basic industry. The raw materials are obtained both from Metallic and Non-Metallic minerals.

Iron and Steel industries are located in close proximity to the coal fields or Iron ore mines.

VI. On the outline map of India mark the following.

Question 1.
iron ore production centres.
Answer:

Question 2.
Centres of Petroleum and Natural Gas production.
Answer:

Question 3.
Coal mining centres.
Answer:

Question 4.
Areas of cultivation of cotton.
Answer:

Question 5.
Iron and Steel industries.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Resources and Industries Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The ………………. is called as mineral oil.
(a) Petroleum
(b) Coal
(c) Natural gas
(d) Mica
Answer:
(a) Petroleum

Question 2.
Manchester of India is ……..
(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
Answer:
(b) Mumbai

Question 3.
The ………………. is the largest oil field in India producing 65% of oil.
(a) Ankaleshwar
(b) Mumbai high
(c) Kalol
(d) Surma valley
Answer:
(b) Mumbai high

Question 4.
Chotta Nagpur plateau is noted for ……..
(a) Natural vegetation
(b) Mineral resource
(c) Cotton cultivation
Answer:
(b) Mineral resource

Question 5.
TamilNadu produces about ………………. % of the total thermal electricity produced in India.
(a) 5
(b) 20
(c) 18
(d) 90
Answer:
(a) 5

Question 6.
In India most of the Iron and Steel industries are located in the …… plateau.
(a) Chott Nagpur
(b) Deccan
(c) Malwa
Answer:
(a) Chott Nagpur

Question 7.
Areas near ………………. district has the largest concentrations of wind farm capacity at a single location in the world.
(a) Ramanathapuram
(b) Tuticorin
(c) Thiruvallur
(d) Kanyakumari
Answer:
(d) Kanyakumari

Question 8.
The resources that can be reproduced again and again is called ……
(a) Mineral resources
(b) Renewable resource
(c) Natural resource
Answer:
(b) Renewable resource

Question 9.
Bysinosis is an occupational lung disease caused by exposure to:
(a) natural gas
(b) cotton dust
(c) coal power
(d) automobile
Answer:
(b) cotton dust

Question 10.
Lignite is extracted in Tamil Nadu …….
(a) Kadaloor
(b) Neyveli
(c) Madurai
Answer:
(b) Neyveli

Question 11.
National News Print and Papermills (NEPA) is in ………………. state.
(a) Odisha
(b) West Bengal
(c) TamilNadu
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Question 12.
Sugar bowl of India is …….
(a) West Bengal
(b) Uttar pradesh and Bihar
(c) Mumbai
Answer:
(b) Uttar pradesh and Bihar

Question 13.
The ………………. is the largest producer of electronic goods in India.
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Mysuru
(c) Delhi
(d) Jaipur
Answer:
(a) Bengaluru

Question 14.
The leading producer of electronic goods is ……..
(a) Bangalore
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Hyderabad
Answer:
(a) Bangalore

Question 15.
………………. is an aluminium ore.
(a) Manganese
(b) Magnesium
(c) Bauxite
(d) Anthracite
Answer:
(c) Bauxite

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (i)

III. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
What are the features of copper and aluminium?
Answer:

• Malleability
• Expandability
• Good conductor of heat and energy (electricity)

Question 2.
Where was the first hydro-electric power station in India established?
Answer:
The first hydro-electric power station in India was established at “Darjeeling” in 1897.

Question 3.
In which type of rocks is limestone found?
Answer:
Limestone is found in sedimentary rocks.

Question 4.
What is the origin of the word petroleum?
Answer:
The word petroleum is derived from two Latin words petro (Rock) and Oleum (oil) thus petroleum is oil obtained from rocks of the earth. It is also called as mineral oil.

Question 5.
Name any five software centres.
Answer:

1. Chennai
2. Bangalore
3. Mysore
4. Hyderabad
5. Coimbatore

Question 6.
When was the Nuclear power programme initiated in India and where was the first Atomic Power station was set up?
Answer:

1. Nuclear Power programme was initiated in the 1940s, when “ Tata Atomic Research Commission was incorporated in August 1948.
2. The 1st nuclear power station was set up at Tarapur near Mumbai in 1969.

Question 7.
What are the raw materials for the paper industry?
Answer:
Woodpulp, bamboo, salai, Sabai grasses, waste paper and bagasse

Question 8.
Write a note on NPCIL.
Answer:

1. The Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited ( NPCIL) is wholly owned by the Government of India.
2. It is a Public sector undertaking.
3. Responsible for the generation of nuclear power for electricity.
4. Administered by the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE). It is responsible for designing, constructing and operating the Nuclear power stations in India.

Question 9.
What are the major centres of the automobile industry?
Answer:
Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata, New Delhi, Pune, Ahmedabad, Lucknow, Satara and Mysore.

Question 10.
Where are the centres of IT parks located in India?
Answer:
Centres of IT parks in India are located in Chennai, Coimbatore, Thiruvananthapuram, Bengaluru, Mysuru, Hyderabad, Vishakapatnam, Mumbai, Pune, Indore, Gandhinagar, Jaipur, Noida, Mohali and Srinagar.

IV. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Paper industry and Iron and Steel industry.
Answer:
Paper industry

1. Forest-based industry.
2. Serve as an index for education and literacy.
3. Wood pulp, Bamboo, bagasse are some of the basic raw materials.

Iron and Steel industry:

1. Mineral-based industry.
2. Key industry for industrial development.
3. Iron ore and Manganese are the main raw materials.

Question 2.
Solar and Wind energy.
Answer:
Solar energy:

1. Conversion of sunlight into electricity.
2. Photo voltoic cells or use of lenses, mirror and tracking system is used.
3. Installation cost is more and different applications is required as per the need.
4. Occupy more space.

Wind energy:

1. Conversion of energy is from the flow of wind.
2. Wind turbines are used.
3. Installation cost is comparatively less.
4. Occupy less space.

Question 3.
Difference between Manganese and Mica.
Answer:
Manganese:

1. It is a Metallic mineral.
2. Very hard and brittle in nature.
3. Raw material for iron and steel basic raw material for alloying.

Mica:

1. It is a Non-Metallic mineral.
2. Translucent, splitable into thin sheets, elastic and incompressible.
3. Exclusively used in electrical goods and also for making lubricants, paints, varnishes etc.

Question 4.
Iron and Steel industry and Software industry.
Answer:
Iron and Steel industry:

1. Age old industry.
2. Depend upon minerals.
3. Large scale industry.
4. Began in 1907.

Software industry:

1. Recently developed industry.
2. Depend upon skill and knowledge (technical).
3. Small and medium scale industry.
4. Began in 1970.

V. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
Enumerate the automobile industry as the fast-growing industry of India.
Answer:
The first automobile industry was established at the Premier Automobiles Ltd at Kurla (Mumbai) in 1947 and the Hindustan Motor Ltd at Uttarpara (Kolkata) in 1948. At present India is the 7th largest producer of automobile manufactures which includes two wheelers, commercial vehicles, passenger cars, Jeep, scooty, scooters, motor cycles mopeds and three wheelers.

Among the production of two wheelers, motorcycles are manufactured at Faridabad, Haryana and Mysore. While scooters are manufactured at Lucknow, Satara, Akudi (Pune), Panki (Kanpur) and Odhai (Ahmedabad). The cars produced at Haryana, Kolkata, Mumbai and Chennai are Maruti, Ambassador, Fiat, Ford and Hyndai etc. Presenceof foreign car companies such as Mercedes Benz, Fiat, General Motors, Toyota and the recent entry of passenger cars manufacturers BMW, Audi, Volks Wagen and Volvo makes the Indian automobile sector a special one.

Several new joint venture agreements for the manufacture of cars have recently been signed by the Indian companies and renowned car manufacturers of the world. The Indian auto industry is said to take a big leep in the near fixture. This expected to provide much more competitive environment to the industry and a wide choice of ultra modem cars to the consumers. This is the fast growing industry in India.

Question 2.
What are the different forms of Iron ore and their nature?
Answer:
Iron ores are rocks and minerals from which metallic iron can be economically extracted.

The different forms of Iron ore are:

Nature: The ores are usually rich in iron oxides and vary in colour from dark grey, bright yellow or deep purple to rusty red.

Question 3.
Write about the uses of Coal and its areas of distribution.
Answer:

1. Coal is a non-renewable resource. It is available in the form of sedimentary rocks.
2. It has close association with the industrial development of any country.

Uses: Coal is an important source of energy in India with its varied and innumerable uses

1. It is converted into gas, oil and thermal power electricity.
2. Besides it forms a basic raw materials for the production of chemicals, dyes, fertilizers, paints, synthetic and explosives.
3. Distribution: Indian coal is mostly associated with Gondwana region and is primarily found in peninsular India.
4. The States of Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal and Madhya Pradesh alone account for nearly 90% of coal reserves of the country. About 2% of India’s coal is of tertiary type and is mostly in Assam and Jammu and Kashmir.
5. Jharkhand is the largest coal producing state in the country. Indian lignite (brown coal) deposits occur particularly in Tamil Nadu ( Neyveli), Puducherry and Kerala.

Question 4.
Give an account on Automobile industry in India.
Answer:
Automobile industry’ is one of the most dynamic industrial groups in India. India is the 7th largest producer of automobile manufacturers.

Distribution: The automobile industries are found in four clusters viz: Delhi, Gurgaon and Manesar in North India.

West India: Pune, Nasik, Halol and Aurangabad East India: Jamshedpur and Kolkatta South India: Chennai, Bengaluru and Hosur.

Major-Indian companies which manufacture commercial vehicles: Tata motors, Ashok Leyland, Mahindra and Mahindra, Eicher motors and Ford motors.

Foreign companies which manufacture commercial vehicles: Hyundai, Mercedes Benz , ITEC, MAN.

Automobile industries in India manufactures two wheelers passenger car, Jeep, Scooty, Scooter, Mopeds, Motorcycles and three wheelers.

Passenger car manufacturers: Tata motors, Maruti Suzuki , Mahindra and Mahindra and Hindustan motors are Indian companies.

Foreign car companies in India: Mercedez Benz, Fiat, General motors, Toyota, recent entry BMW, Audi, Volkswagon and Volvo.

Two wheeler manufacturing is dominated by Indian companies like Hero, Bajaj Auto and TVS.

Major centres of Automobile industries: Mumbai, Chennai, Jamshedpur, Jabalpur, Kolkata, Pune, New Delhi, Kanpur, Bengaluru, Satara, Lucknow • and Mysuru. Chennai is named as “Detroit of Asia” due to the presence of major automobile manufacturing units and allied industries around the city.

Question 5.
What are the major challenges faced by the Indian industries?
Answer:
Some major challenges faced by industries in India are:

1. Non-availability of large blocks of land.
2. Shortage and fluctuation in power supply.
3. Non-availability of cheap labourers.
4. Poor access to credit.
5. High rate of interest for borrowed loan.
6. Lack of technical and vocational training for employees.
7. In appropriate living conditions nearby industrial areas.

VI. On the outline map of India mark the following

Question 1.
Any two places producing limestone
Answer:

Question 2.
Any two Nuclear power stations
Answer:

Question 3.
Any two Thermal power stations in Tamil Nadu
Answer:

Question 4.
Wind farm places (any 2)
Answer:

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

PART – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
If the ordered pairs (a + 2, 4) and (5, 2a + b) are equal then (a, b) is …………. .
(1) (2,-2)
(2) (5,1)
(3) (2,3)
(4) (3,-2)
Answer:
(4) (3,-2)

Question 2.
f(x) = (x + 1)³ – (x – 1)³ represents a function which is …………. .
(1) linear
(2) cubic
(3) reciprocal
(4) quadratic
Answer:
(4) quadratic

Question 3.
Using Euclid’s division lemma, if the cube of any positive integer is divided by 9 then the possible remainders are …………. .
(1) 0,1,8
(2) 1,4,8
(3) 0,1,3
(4) 1,3,5
Answer:
(1) 0,1,8

Question 4.
If the sequence t₁, t₂, t₃, are in A.P. then the sequence t₆, t₁₂, t₁₈, …….. is …………….
(1) a Geometric progression
(2) an Arithmetic progression
(3) neither an Arithmetic progression nor a Geometric progression
(4) a constant sequence
Answer:
(2) an Arithmetic progression

Question 5.
\(\frac{3 y-3}{y} \div \frac{7 y-7}{3 y^{2}}\) is ………….
(1) \(\frac{9 y}{7}\)
(2) \(\frac{9 y^{3}}{(21 y-21)}\)
(3) \(\frac{21 y^{2}-42 y+21}{3 y^{3}}\)
(4) \(\frac{7\left(y^{2}-2 y+1\right)}{y^{2}}\)
Answer:
\(\frac{9 y}{7}\)

Question 6.
The solution of (2x – 1)² = 9 is equal to …………. .
(1) -1
(2) 2
(3) -1,2
(4) None of these
Answer:
(3) -1,2

Question 7.
In ∆LMN, ∠L = 60°, ∠M = 50°. If ∆LMN ~ ∆PQR then the value of ∠R is …………. .
(1) 40°
(2) 70°
(3) 30°
(4) 110°
Answer:
(2) 70°

Question 8.
A tower is 60 m height. Its shadow is x metres shorter when the sun’s altitude is 45° than when it has been 30° , then x is equal to…………. .
(1) 41.92 m
(2) 43.92 m
(3) 43 m
(4) 45.6 m
Answer:
(2) 43.92 m

Question 9.
A shuttle cock used for playing badminton has the shape of the combination of …………. .
(1) a cylinder and a sphere
(2) a hemisphere and a cone
(3) a sphere and a cone
(4) frustum of a cone and a hemisphere
Answer:
(4) frustum of a cone and a hemisphere

Question 10.
Which of the following is not a measure of dispersion?
(1) Range
(2) Standard deviation
(3) Arithmetic mean
(4) Variance
Answer:
(3) Arithmetic mean

Question 11.
Variance of first 20 natural numbers is …………. .
(1) 32.25
(2) 44.25
(3) 33.25
(4) 30
Answer:
(3) 33.25

Question 12.
The equation of a straight line having slope 3 and Y intercept -4 is …………. .
(1) 3x – y + 4 = 0
(2) 3x + y – 4 = 0
(3) 3x – y + 4 = 0
(4) 3x – y – 4 = 0
Answer:
(4) 3x – y – 4 = 0

Question 13.
In the given diagram PA and PB are tangents drawn from P to a circle with centre O ∠OPA = 35° then a and b is …………. .

(1) a = 30°, b = 60°
(2) a = 35°, b = 55°
(3) a = 40°, b = 50°
(4) a = 45°, b = 45°
Answer:
(2) a = 35°, b = 55°

Question 14.
If \(\left[ \begin{matrix} -1 & -2 & 4 \end{matrix} \right] \left[ \begin{matrix} 2 \\ a \\ -3 \end{matrix} \right] = -10\) then the value of “a” is …………. .
(1) 2
(2) -4
(3) 4
(4) -2
Answer:
(4) -2

PART – II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Show that the function f : N → N defined by f(m) = m² + m + 3 is one-one function.
Answer:
N = {1,2, 3,4, 5,………. }
f(m) = m² + m + 3
f(1) = 1² + 1 + 3 = 5
f(2) = 2²+ 2 + 3 = 9
f(3) = 3² + 3 + 3 = 15
f(4) = 4² + 4 + 3 = 23
f = {(1,5) (2, 9) (3, 15) (4, 23)}
From the diagram we can understand different elements in (N) in domain,
there are different images in (N) co-domain.
∴ The function is one-one function.

Question 16.
If the ordered pairs (x² – 3x, y² + 4y) and (-2, 5) are equal, then find x and y.
Answer:
(x² – 3x, y² + 4y) = (-2, 5)
x² – 3x = -2
x² – 3x + 2 = 0

(x – 2)(x – 1) = 0
x – 2 = 0 or x – 1 =0
x = 2 or 1

y² + 4y = 5
y² + 4y – 5 = o

(y + 5)(y – 1) = o
y + 5 = 0 or y – 1 = 0
y = -5 or y = 1

Question 17.
If x is congruent to 13 modulo 17 then 7x – 3 is congruent to which number modulo 17?
Answer:
Given x ≡ 13 (mod 17) ……. (1)
7x – 3 ≡ a (mod 17) ….(2)
From (1) we get
x – 13 = 17 n(n may be any integer)
x – 13 is a multiple of 17
∴ The least value of x = 30
From (2) we get
7(30) – 3 ≡ a(mod 17)
210 – 3 ≡ a(mod 17)
207 ≡ a(mod 17)
207 ≡ 3(mod 17)
∴ The value of a = 3

Question 18.
How many terms of the series 1 + 4 + 16 + . . . . make the sum 1365?
Answer:
Let n be the number of terms to be added to get the sum 1365
a = 1, r = \(\frac { 4 }{ 1 }\) = 4 > 1
s_n = 1365 gives \(\frac{a\left(r^{n}-1\right)}{r-1}\) = 1365
\(\frac{1\left(4^{n}-1\right)}{4-1}\) = 1365 so, (4ⁿ – 1) = 4095
4ⁿ = 4096 then 4ⁿ = 4⁶
n = 6

Question 19.
Find the LCM of x⁴ – 27a³x, (x – 3a)² whose GCD is (x – 3a)
Answer:
p(x) = x⁴ – 27a³x
= x[x³ – 27a³]
= x[x³ – (3a)³]
= x(x – 3a) (x² + 3ax + 9a²)
g(x) = (x – 3a)²
G.C.D. = x – 3a
L.C.M = \(\frac{p(x) \times g(x)}{\text { G.C.D. }}\)
= \(\frac{x(x-3 a)\left(x^{2}+3 a x+9 a^{2}\right) \times(x-3 a)^{2}}{(x-3 a)}\)
L.C.M = x(x – 3a)²(x² + 3ax + 9a²)

Question 20.
Reduce the given Rational expression to its lowest form \(\frac{x^{3 a}-8}{x^{2 a}+2 x^{a}+4}\)
Answer:
x^3a – 8 = (x^a)³ – 2³
= (x^a – 2) [(x^a)² + x^a × 2 + 2²]
= (x^a – 2) (x^2a + 2x^a + 4)

Question 21.
Find the values of x,y, z if (x y -z z + 3) + (y 4 3) = (4 8 16)
Answer:
[x y – z z + 3] + [y 4 3] = [4 8 16]
x + y = 4 ….(1)
y – z + 4 = 8 ….(2)
z + 3 + 3 = 16
z + 6 = 16
z = 16 – 6 = 10
Sùbstitute the value of z in (2)
(2) ⇒ y – 10 = 4 ⇒ y = 14
Substitute the value of y in (1)
(1) ⇒ x + 14 = 4
x = 4 – 14 = -10
∴ The value of x = -10, y = 14 and z = 10

Question 22.
Suppose AB, AC and BC have lengths 13,14 and 15 respectively. If \(\frac{A F}{F B}=\frac{2}{5}\) and \(\frac{C E}{E A}=\frac{5}{8}\) Find BD and DC.
Answer:

Given that AB = 13, AC = 14 and BC = 15
Let BD = x and DC = y
Using Ceva’s theorem, we have, \(\frac{\mathrm{BD}}{\mathrm{DC}} \times \frac{\mathrm{CE}}{\mathrm{EA}} \times \frac{\mathrm{AF}}{\mathrm{FB}}=1\) ….(1)
Substitute the values of \(\frac{A F}{F B}\) and \(\frac{C E}{E A}\) in (1),
we have \(\frac{B D}{D C} \times \frac{5}{8} \times \frac{2}{5}=1\)
\(\frac{x}{y} \times \frac{10}{40}=1\) we get \(\frac{x}{y} \times \frac{1}{4}=1\). Hence, x = 4y ……. (2)
BC = BD + DC = 15 so, x + y = 15 ……. (3)
From (2), using x = 4y in (3) we get, 4y + y = 15 gives 5y = 15 then y = 3
Substitute y = 3 in (3) we get, x = 12. Hence BD = 12 , DC = 3.

Question 23.
Find the equation of a straight line which has slope \(\frac { -5 }{ 4 }\) and passing through the point (-1,2).
Answer:
Slope of a line (m) = \(\frac{-5}{4}\)
The given point (x₁, y₁) = (-1, 2)
Equation of a line is y – y₁ = m (x – x₁)
y – 2 = \(\frac{-5}{4}\)(x + 1)
5(x + 1) = 4(y – 2) ⇒ 5x + 5 = 4y + 8
5x + 4y + 5 – 8 = 0 ⇒ 5x + 4y – 3 = 0
The equation of a line is 5x + 4y – 3 = 0

Question 24.
A road is flanked on either side by continuous rows of houses of height 4√3 m with no space in between them. A pedestrian is standing on the median of the road facing a row house. The angle of elevation from the pedestrian to the top of the house is 30° . Find the width of the road.
Answer:

Let the mid point of the road AB is “P” (PA = PB)
Height of the home = 4 √3 m
Let the distance between the pedestrian and the house be “x”
In the right ∆ APD, tan 30° = \(\frac{\mathrm{AD}}{\mathrm{AP}}\)
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{4 \sqrt{3}}{x}\)
x = 4√3 × √3 = 12 m
∴ Width of the road = PA + PB
= 12 + 12
= 24m

Question 25.
If the standard deviation of a data is 3.6 and each value of the data is divided by 3, then find the new variance and new standard deviation.
Answer:
Standard deviation of the data = 3.6
Each value of the data is divided by 3
New standard deviation = \(\frac{3.6}{3}\) = 1.2
New Variance = (1.2)² [Variance = (S. D)²]
= 1.44
New standard Deviation = 1.2
New variance = 1.44

Question 26.
If -4 is a root of the equation x² + px – 4 = 0 and if the equation x² + px + q = 0 has equal roots, find the values of p and q.
Answer:
Let p(x) = x² + px – 4
-4 is the root of the equation
p(-4)  = 0
16 – 4p – 4 = 0 ⇒ -4p + 12 = 0
-4p = -12
p = \(\frac { 12 }{ 4 }\) = 3
The equation x² + px + q = 0 has equal roots x² + 3x – q = O
Here a = 1,b = 3,c = q
since the roots are real and equal
b² – 4ac = 0 ⇒ 3² – 4(1) (q) = 0
9 – 4q = 0 ⇒ 94q
q = \(\frac{9}{4}\)
∴ The value of p = 3 and q = \(\frac{9}{4}\)

Question 27.
A shopkeeper has one spherical laddoo of radius 5 cm. With the same amount of material how many laddoos of radius 2.5 cm can made?
Answer:
Radius of the larger laddoo (R) = 5 cm
Radius of the smaller laddoo (r) = 2.5 cm


∴ 8 laddoos can be made

Question 28.
If P(A) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) ; P(B) = \(\frac { 7 }{ 10 }\) , P(A ∪ B) = 1 find P(A’ ∩ B’)
Answer:
Given P(A) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\), P(B) = \(\frac { 7 }{ 10 }\), P(A ∪ B) = 1
P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
1 = \(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{7}{10}\) – P(A ∩ B)
P(A ∩ B) = \(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{7}{10}-1=\frac{5+7-10}{10}=\frac{2}{10}=\frac{1}{5}\)
P(A’ ∪ B’) = P(A ∩ B)’
= 1 – P(A ∩ B)
= \(1-\frac{1}{5}=\frac{5-1}{5}=\frac{4}{5}\)

PART – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
If X = {-5, 1, 3, 4} and Y = {a, b, c}, then which of the following relations are functions from X to Y?
(i) R₁ = {(-5, a), (1, a), (3, b)}
(ii) R₂ = {(-5, b), (1, b), (3, a), (4, C)}
(iii) R₃ = {(-5, a), (1, a), (3, b), (4, c), (1, b)}

Question 30.
If f(x) = x², g(x) = 3x and h(x) = x – 2, Prove that (fog)oh = fo(g o h).

Question 31.
The houses of a street are numbered from 1 to 49. Senthil’s house is numbered such that the sum of numbers of the houses prior to Senthil’s house is equal to the sum of numbers of the houses following Senthil’s house. Find Senthil’s house number.

Question 32.
The 104^th term and 4^th term of an A.P are 125 and 0. Find the sum of first 35 terms.

Question 33.
There are 12 pieces of five, ten and twenty rupee currencies whose total value is ₹105. But when first 2 sorts are interchanged in their numbers its value will be increased by ₹20. Find the number of currencies in each sort.

Question 34.
If 9x⁴ + 12x³ + 28x² + ax + b is a perfect square, find the values of a and b.

Question 35.
Find X and Y if X + Y = \(\left( \begin{matrix} 7 & 0 \\ 3 & 5 \end{matrix} \right) \) and X – Y = \(\left( \begin{matrix} 3 & 0 \\ 0 & 4 \end{matrix} \right) \)

Question 36.
In figure ABC is a triangle with ∠B = 90° , BC = 3 cm and AB = 4 cm. D is point on AC such that AD = 1 cm and E is the midpoint of AB. Join D and E and extend DE to meet CB at F. Find BF.

Question 37.
Find the equation of a straight line joining the point of intersection of 3x + y + 2 = 0 and x – 2y -4 = 0 to the point of intersection of 7x – 3y = -12 and 2y = x + 3

Question 38.
A man is standing on the deck of a ship, which is 40 m above water level. He observes the angle of elevation of the top of a hill as 60° and the angle of depression of the base of the hill as 30° . Calculate the distance of the hill from the ship and the height of the hill. (√3 = 1.732)

Question 39.
Find the number of coins, 1.5 cm in diameter and 2 mm thick, to be melted to form a right circular cylinder of height 10 cm and diameter 4.5 cm.

Question 40.
The following table gives the number of goals scored by 71 leading players in international football matches. Find the standard deviation of the data.

Question 41.
A two digit number is such that the product of its digits is 18. When 63 is subtracted from the number, the digits interchange their places. Find the numbers.

Question 42.
The sum of 5^th and 9^th term of an AP is 72 and the sum of 7^th and 12^th term is 97. Find the A.P.

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Construct a triangle similar to a given triangle LMN with its sides equal to \(\frac { 4 }{ 5 }\) of the corresponding sides of the triangle LMN (scale factor \(\frac { 4 }{ 5 }\)).

[OR]

(b) Draw the two tangents from a point which is 10 cm away from the centre of a circle of radius 5 cm. Also, measure the lengths of the tangents.

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = x² – 4 and hence solve x² – x – 12 = 0.

[OR]

(b) Solve graphically (2x + 1) (x -3) = 0

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 7 Atoms and Molecules Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 7 Atoms and Molecules

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Atoms and Molecules Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following has the smallest mass?
(a) 6.023 × 10²³ atoms of He
(b) 1 atom of He
(c) 2 g of He
(d) 1-mole atoms of He
Answer:
(b) 1 atom of He

Question 2.
Which of the following is a triatomic molecule?
(a) Glucose
(b) Helium
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Hydrogen.
Answer:
(c) Carbon dioxide
Hint:
(a) Glucose = C₆H₁₂O₆ (Polyatomic molecule)
(b) Helium = He (Monoatomic molecule)
(c) Carbon dioxide = CO₂ (Triatomic molecule)
(d) Hydrogen = H₂ (Diatomic molecule)
So, (c) is the correct answer.

Question 3.
The volume occupied by 4.4 g of CO₂ at S.T.P:
(a) 22.4 litre
(b) 2.24 litre
(c) 0.24 litre
(d) 0.1 litre
Answer:
(b) 2.24 litre

Question 4.
Mass of 1 mole of Nitrogen atom is _____.
(a) 28 amu
(b) 14 amu
(c) 28 g
(d) 14 g.
Answer:
(b) 14 amu
Hint: Atomic mass of Nitrogen is 14.00674 grams. It is equal to 1 mole of Nitrogen atoms.
So, answer (b) is correct.

Question 5.
Which of the following represents 1 amu?
(a) Mass of a C – 12 atom
(b) Mass of a hydrogen atom
(c) 1/12 th of the mass of a C – 12 atom
(d) Mass of O – 16 atom
Answer:
(c) 1/12 th of the mass of a C – 12 atom

Question 6.
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) One gram of C – 12 contains Avogadro’s number of atoms.
(b) One mole of oxygen gas contains Avogadro’s number of molecules.
(c) One mole of hydrogen gas contains Avogadro’s number of atoms.
(d) One mole of electrons stands for 6.023 × 10²³ electrons.
Answer:
(a) One gram of C – 12 contains Avogadro’s number of atoms.
Hint: 12 g of Carbon contains 6.023 × 10²³ atoms,
1 g of Carbon contain \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{12}\) = 5.018 × 10²² atoms and its is not Avogadro’s number of atoms.
So (a) is the incorrect statement.

Question 7.
The volume occupied by 1 mole of a diatomic gas at S.T.P is:
(a) 11.2 litre
(b) 5.6 litre
(c) 22.4 litre
(d) 44.8 litre
Answer:
(c) 22.4 litre

Question 8.
In the nucleus of ₂₀Ca⁴⁰, there are
(a) 20 protons and 40 neutrons
(b) 20 protons and 20 neutrons
(c) 20 protons and 40 electrons
(d) 40 protons and 20 electrons
Answer:
(b) 20 protons and 20 neutrons

Question 9.
The gram molecular mass of oxygen molecule is_____.
(a) 16 g
(b) 18 g
(c) 32 g
(d) 17 g.
Answer:
(c) 32 g
Hint: By definition, the gram molecular mass of oxygen molecule O₂ is 32 g.
So the answer (c) is correct.

Question 10.
1 mole of any substance contains molecules.
(a) 6.023 × 10²³
(b) 6.023 × 10^-23
(c) 3.0115 × 10²³
(d) 12.046 × 10²³
Answer:
(a) 6.023 × 10²³

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Atoms of different elements having ……… mass number, but ………. atomic numbers are called isobars.
2. Atoms of different elements having same number of ………. are called isotones.
3. Atoms of one element can be transmuted into atoms of other element by ………….
4. The sum of the numbers of protons and neutrons of an atom is called its …………
5. Relative atomic mass is otherwise known as …………
6. The average atomic mass of hydrogen is ……….. amu.
7. If a molecule is made of similar kind of atoms, then it is called ……….. atomic molecule.
8. The number of atoms present in a molecule is called its ………….
9. One mole of any gas occupies ………… ml at S.T.P
10. Atomicity of phosphorous is …………
Answer:
1. same, different
2. neutrons
3. artificial transmutation
4. mass number
5. standard atomic weight
6. 1.008
7. homo
8. atomicity
9. 22, 400
10. four

III. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iii)
C. (v)
D. (i)
E. (iv)

IV. True or False: (If false give the correct statement)

1. Two elements sometimes can form more than one compound.
2. Nobel gases are diatomic.
3. The gram atomic mass of an element has no unit.
4. 1 mole of Gold and Silver contain same number of atoms.
5. Molar mass of CO₂ is 42 g.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – Noble gases are Monoatomic.
3. False – The unit of gram atomic mass of an element is gram.
4. True
5. False – Molar mass of CO₂ is 44 g.

V. Assertion and Reason:

Answer the following questions using the data given below:
Question 1.
Assertion: Atomic mass of aluminium is 27
Reason: An atom of aluminium is 27 times heavier than 1/12 th of the mass of the C-12 atom.
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.
(c) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
(d) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
Answer:
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: The Relative Molecular Mass of Chlorine is 35.5 a.m.u.
Reason: The natural abundance of Chlorine isotopes are not equal.
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.
(c) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
(d) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.

VI. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
Define: Relative atomic mass.
Answer:
Relative atomic mass of an element is the ratio between the average mass of its isotopes to \(\frac{1}{12^{th}}\)part of the mass of a carbon-12 atom. It is denoted as A_r.
[OR]

Question 2.
Write the different types of isotopes of oxygen and its percentage abundance.
Answer:
Oxygen has three stable isotopes. They are

Question 3.
Define Atomicity.
Answer:
The number of atoms present in the molecule is called its ‘Atomicity’.

Question 4.
Give any two examples for heteroatomic molecules.
Answer:
HI, HCl, CO, HBr, HF.

Question 5.
What is Molar volume of a gas?
Answer:
One mole of any gas occupies 22.4 litres.
(or)
22400 ml at S.T.R This volume is called as molar volume.

Question 6.
Find the percentage of nitrogen in ammonia.
Answer:
Molar mass of NH₃ = 1(14) + 3(1) = 17 g

VII. Long answer questions:

Question 1.
Calculate the number of water molecule present in one drop of water which weighs 0.18 g.
Answer:
The molecular mass of water (H₂O) is 18.
18 g of water molecule = 1 mole.
0. 18 g of water = \(\frac{1}{18} \times 0.18\) = 0.01 mole.
1 mole of water (Avogadro’s number) contains 6.023 × 10²³ water molecules.
0. 01 mole of water contain \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{1} \times 0.01\) = 6.023 × 10²¹ molecules.

Question 2.
N₂ + 3 H₂ → 2 NH₃
(The atomic mass of nitrogen is 14, and that of hydrogen is 1)
1 mole of nitrogen (……..g) +
3 moles of hydrogen (………g) →
2 moles of ammonia (………g)
Answer:
1 mole of nitrogen (28 g) +
3 moles of hydrogen (6 g) →
2 moles of ammonia (34 g)

Question 3.
Calculate the number of moles in
(i) 27 g of Al;
(ii) 1.51 × 10²³ molecules of NH₄Cl.
Answer:
(i) 27 g of Al
Given mass atomic mass = \(\frac{Given Mass}{Atomic Mass}\) = \(\frac{27}{27}\)
= 1 mole

(ii) 1.51 x 10²³ molecules of NH₄Cl
Number of moles

Question 4.
Give the salient features of “Modern atomic theory”.
Answer:
The salient features of “Modem atomic theory” are,

1. An atom is no longer indivisible.
2. Atoms of the same element may have different atomic mass.
3. Atoms of different elements may have the same atomic masses.
4. Atoms of one element can be transmuted into atoms of other elements. In other words, an atom is no longer indestructible.
5. Atoms may not always combine in a simple whole-number ratio.
6. Atom is the smallest particle that takes part in a chemical reaction.
7. The mass of an atom can be converted into energy [E = mc²].

Question 5.
Derive the relationship between Relative molecular mass and Vapour density.
Answer:
Relative molecular mass : The relative molecular mass of a gas or vapour is the ratio between the mass of one molecule of the gas or vapour to mass of one atom of hydrogen.
Vapour density : Vapour density is the ratio of the mass of certain volume of a gas or vapour, to the mass of an equal volume of hydrogen, measured under the same conditions of temperature and pressure.

According to Avogadro’s law equal volumes of all gases contain equal number of molecules.
Let the number of molecules in one volume = n, then

When cancelling ‘n’ which is common at STP, we get

Since hydrogen is diatomic,

2 × Vapour density = Relative Molecular mass of a gas
[OR]
Relative Molecular Mass = 2 × Vapour density

VIII. HOT Question:

Question 1.
Calcium carbonate is decomposed on heating in the following reaction
CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂

1. How many moles of Calcium carbonate is involved in this reaction?
2. Calculate the gram molecular mass of calcium carbonate involved in this reaction.
3. How many moles of CO₂ are there in this equation?

Answer:
CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂

1. 1 mole of CaCO₃ is involved in this reaction.
2. Gram molecular mass of calcium carbonate
   CaCO₃ = (40 + 12 + 3 × 16) = 52 + 48 = 100 g
3. 1 mole of CO₂ is in this equation.

IX. Solve the following problems:

Question 1.
How many grams are there in the following?
(i) 2 moles of a hydrogen molecule, H₂
(ii) 3 moles of chlorine molecule, Cl₂
(iii) 5 moles of sulphur molecule, S₈
(iv) 4 moles of a phosphorous molecule, P₄
Solution:
(i) 2 moles of a hydrogen molecule, H₂
Mass of 1 mole of hydrogen molecule = 2 g
Mass of 2 moles of hydrogen molecule = 2 × 2 = 4 g.

(ii) 3 moles of chlorine molecule, Cl₂
Mass of 1 mole of chlorine molecule = 71 g
Mass of 3 moles of chlorine molecules = 71 × 3 = 213 g.

(iii) 5 moles of sulphur molecule, S₈
Mass of 1 mole of sulphur molecule = 32 g
Mass of 5 moles of sulphur molecules = 32 × 5 = 160 g.

(iv) 4 moles of the phosphorous molecule, P₄
Mass of 1 mole of phosphorous molecule = 30.97 g
Mass of 4 moles of phosphorous molecules = 30.97 × 4 = 123.88 g.

Question 2.
Calculate the % of each element in calcium carbonate. (Atomic mass: C – 12, O – 16, Ca – 40)
Answer:
Formula to find % of each element

Question 3.
Calculate the % of oxygen in Al₂(SO₄)₃.
(Atomic mass: Al – 27, O – 16, S – 32)
Answer:
Formula:

Molar mass of Al₂(SO₄)₃ = [2(Atomic mass of Al) + 3(Atomic mass of S) + 12(Atomic mass of O)]
= 2(27) + 3(32) + 12(16) = 342 g
% of Oxygen = \(\frac{12(16)}{342}\) × 100 = 56.14%.

Question 4.
Calculate the % relative abundance of B – 10 and B – 11, if its average atomic mass is 10.804 amu.
Answer:
% of relative abundance can be calculated by the formula.
Average atomic mass of the element
= Atomic mass of 1st isotope × abundance of 1st isotope + Atomic mass of 2nd isotope × abundance of 2nd isotope
∴ Average atomic mass of Boron
= Atomic mass of B – 0 × abundance of B -10 + Atomic mass of B – 11 × abundance of B – 11
Let the abundance of B – 10 be ‘x’ and B – 11 be (1 – x)
So, 10.804 = 10 × x + 11 (1 – x)
10.804 = 10x + 11 – 11x
x = 11 – 10.804
x = 0.196
1 -x = 1 – 0.196 = 0.804
Therefore % abundance of B – 10 is 19.6% and B – 11 is 80.4%
[OR]
Let the % of the isotope B – 10 = x
Then the % of the isotope B – 11 = 100 – x

1100 – x = 1080.4
x = 19.6
% abundance of B – 10 = 19.6%
% abundance of B – 11 = 80.4%

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Atoms and Molecules Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The first scientific theory of an atom was proposed by:
(a) Ruther Ford
(b) Newland
(c) John Dalton
(d) Neils Bohr
Answer:
(c) John Dalton

Question 2.
Identify the pair that indicates isobars among the following _____.
(a) \(_{1} \mathrm{H}^{2},_{1} \mathrm{H}^{3}\)
(b) \(_{17} \mathrm{Cl}^{35},_{17} \mathrm{Cl}^{37}\)
(c) \(\text { (c) }_{18} \mathrm{Ar}^{40},_{18} \mathrm{Ca}^{40}\)
(d) \(_{6} \mathrm{C}^{13},_{7} \mathrm{N}^{14}\).
Answer:
(c) \(\text { (c) }_{18} \mathrm{Ar}^{40},_{18} \mathrm{Ca}^{40}\)

Question 3.
Which one of the following represents 180 g of water?
(a) 5 moles of water
(b) 90 moles of water
(c) 6.023 × 10²⁴ molecules of water
(d) 6.023 × 10²² molecules of water
Answer:
(c) 6.023 × 10²⁴ molecules of water

Question 4.
The isotope of Carbon-12 contains _____.
(a) 6 protons and 7 electrons
(b) 6 protons and 6 neutrons
(c) 12 protons and no neutrons
(d) 12 neutrons and no protons.
Answer:
(b) 6 protons and 6 neutrons

Question 5.
Which contains the greatest number of moles of oxygen atoms?
(a) 1 mol of water
(b) 1 mole of NaOH
(c) 1 mole of Na₂CO₃
(d) 1 mole of CO
Answer:
(c) 1 mole of Na₂CO₃

Question 6.
The mass of proton or neutron is approximately _____.
(a) 1 amu
(b) 1.609 × 10^-19 g
(c) 1 g
(d) 6.023 × 10^-23 g.
Answer:
(a) 1 amu

Question 7.
The natural abundance of C-12 and C-13 are 98.90% and 1.10% respectively. The average atomic mass of carbon is:
(a) 12 amu
(b) 12.011 amu
(c) 14 amu
(d) 12.90 amu
Answer:
(b) 12.011 amu

Question 8.
The relative atomic mass of magnesium-based on C – 12 scale is _____.
(a) 24 g
(b) 24
(c) 24 amu
(d) 24 kg
Answer:
(b) 24

Question 9.
If 1.5 moles of oxygen combine with Al to form Al₂O₃, the mass of Al in g (atomic mass of Al = 27) used in the reaction is:
(a) 2.7
(b) 54
(c) 40.5
(d) 81
Answer:
(b) 54

Question 10.
The atomicity of methane is:
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 6
Answer:
(a) 5

Question 11.
Find the odd one out _____.
(a) \(_{8} \mathrm{O}^{16}\)
(b) \(_{8} \mathrm{O}^{17}\)
(c) \(_{6} \mathrm{O}^{12}\)
(d) \(_{8} \mathrm{O}^{18}\).
Answer:
(c) \(_{6} \mathrm{O}^{12}\)

Question 12.
The volume occupied by 3 moles of HCl gas at STP is:
(a) 22.4 L
(b) 44.8 L
(c) 2.24 L
(d) 67.2 L
Answer:
(d) 67.2 L

Question 13.
The mass percentage of hydrogen in ethane (C₂H₆) is:
(a) 25%
(b) 75%
(c) 80%
(d) 20%
Answer:
(d) 20%

Question 14.
Which one of the following is a homo diatomic molecule?
(a) H₂
(6) CO
(c) NO
(d) O₃.
Answer:
(a) H₂

Question 15.
The percentage of nitrogen in urea is about:
(a) 38.4
(b) 46.6
(c) 59.1
(d) 61.3
Answer:
(b) 46.6

Question 16.
Out of the following the largest number of atoms are contained in:
(a) 11 g of CO₂
(b) 4 g of H₂
(C) 5 g of NH₃
(d) 8 g of SO₂
Answer:
(b) 4 g of H₂

Question 17.
Which of the following is an example of a homo triatomic molecule?
(a) Phosphorous
(b) Sulphur
(c) Bromine
(d) Ozone.
Answer:
(d) Ozone.

Question 18.
For the reaction A + 2B → C, 5 moles of A and 8 moles of B will produce:
(a) 5 moles of C
(b) 4 moles of C
(c) 8 moles of C
(d) 13 moles of C
Answer:
(b) 4 moles of C

Question 19.
The vapour density of a gas is 32. Its relative molecular mass will be:
(a) 32
(b) 16
(c) 64
(d) 96
Answer:
(c) 64

Question 20.
Find the odd one out _____.
(a) Silver
(b) Potassium
(c) Iron
(d) Phosphorous.
Answer:
(d) Phosphorous.

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The volume occupied by 16 g of oxygen is ………..
2. One mole of a triatomic gas contains ………… atoms.
3. Equal volume of all gases under the same conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of …………
4. The mass of an atom can be converted into energy by using the formula …………
5. The percentage composition is useful to determine the ………… formula and ………… formula.

Answer:

1. 11.2 L
2. 3 × 6.023 × 10²³
3. molecules
4. E = me²
5. empirical, molecular

III. Match the following:

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (iii)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (iv)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (iv)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (iii)
E. (i)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (iii)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

IV. True or False: (If false give the correct statement)

1. Atoms always combine in a simple whole number ratio.
2. 2 × RMM = VD
3. The average atomic mass of Beryllium is 9.012 because of the presence of isotopes.
4. The noble gases are diatomic.
5. The number of atoms present in one mole of phosphorus(P₄) is 4 × 6.023 × 10²³

Answer:

1. False -Atoms may not combine always in a simple whole number ratio.
2. False – 2 × VD = RMM
3. True
4. False – The noble gases are mono atomic.
5. True

V. Assertion and Reason:

Answer the following questions using the data given below:
Question 1.
Assertion: The standard unit for expressing mass of atom is amu.
Reason: Atomic mass unit is one-twelth of the mass of a C-12 atom
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.
(c) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
(d) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
Answer:
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: The volume occupied by 44 g of CO₂ is 22.4 L
Reason: The volume occupied by one mole of any gas is 22.4 L
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.
(c) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
(d) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason doesn’t explains Assertion.
Answer:
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason explains the Assertion.

VI. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
Define vapour density.
Answer:
Vapour density is the ratio of the mass of certain volume of a gas or vapour, to the mass of an equal volume of hydrogen measured under the same condition of temperature and pressure.
[OR]

Question 2.
What are isobars? Give an example.
Answer:
Atoms of different elements that have same atomic masses but different atomic numbers are called isobars.
e.g., \(_{18} \mathrm{Ar}^{40}\), \(_{20} \mathrm{Ca}^{40}\).

Question 3.
Write the differences between an atom and a molecule.
Answer:

Question 4.
What is artificial transmutation?
Answer:
Atoms of one element can be transmuted into atoms of other elements. In other words, the atom is no longer indestructible. It is known as artificial transmutation.

Question 5.
Classify the following based on atomicity.
Answer:
(i) Bromine
2 – Diatomic

(ii) Argon
1 – Monoatomic

(iii) Ozone
3 – Triatomic

(iv) Sulphur
8 – Polyatomic

Question 6.
Define atomic mass unit.
Answer:
Atomic mass unit is one-twelfth of the mass of carbon – 12 atom, as an isotope of carbon which contains 6 protons and 6 neutrons. It is amu.

VII. Long answer questions:

Question 1.
Explain how Avogadro hypothesis is used to derive the value of atomicity.
Answer:
(i) The Avogadro’s law states that “equal volumes of all gases under similar conditions of temperature and pressure contain the equal number of molecules”.

(ii) Let us consider the reaction between hydrogen and chlorine to form hydrogen chloride gas.
H_{2 (g)} + Cl_{2 (g)} → 2HCl _(g)
⇒ 1 volume + 1 volume → 2 volumes.

(iii) According to Avogadro’s law, 1 volume of any gas is occupied by “n” number of molecules,
“n” molecules + “n” molecules → “2n” molecules
If “n” = 1, then
1 molecule + 1 molecule → 2 molecules.
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) molecule + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) molecule → 1 molecule.

(iv) 1 molecule of hydrogen chloride gas is made up of \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) molecule of hydrogen and \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) molecule of chlorine.

(v) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) molecule of hydrogen contains 1 atom.
So, 1 molecule of hydrogen contains 2 atoms.
So, hydrogen atomicity is 2. Similarly, chlorine atomicity is also 2.
So, H₂ and Cl₂ are diatomic molecules.

Question 2.
Write a note on the following,
(i) Isotopeos
(ii) Isobars
(iii) Relative atomic mass.
Answer:
(i) Isotopes : Atoms of same element with different mass number. Eg: ₁₇Cl³⁵, ₁₇Cl³⁷.
(ii) Isobars : Atoms of different elements with same mass number. Eg: ₁₈Ar⁴⁰, ₂₀Ca⁴⁰
(iii) Relative Atomic Mass (RAM) :

Question 3.
Sodim bicarbonate breaks down on heating as follows:
2NaHCO₃ → Na₂CO₃ + H₂O + CO₂
(Atomic mass of Na = 23, H = 1, C = 12, O = 16)
(i) How many moles of NaHCO₃ are there in the equation?
Answer:
2 moles.

(ii) What is the mass of CO₂ produced in the equation?
Answer:
44 g

(iii) How many moles of water molecules are produced in the equation?
Answer:
1 mole.

(iv) What is the mass of NaHCO₃ used in this equation?
Answer:
= 2[23 + 1 + 12 + 3(16)]
= 2[84]
= 168 g

(v) What is the volume occupied by CO₂ in this equation?
Answer:
22.4 lit.

VIII. Hot Questions

Question 1.
Why do we take an atomic mass of Carbon – 12 as standard?
Answer:
Carbon – 12 is the standard while measuring the atomic masses. Because no other nuclides other than C – 12 have exactly whole-number masses in this scale. This is due to the different mass of neutrons and protons acting to change the total mass in nuclides with proton/neutron ratio other than 1 : 1 ratio of carbon – 12.

Question 2.
The cost of common salt (NaCl) is Rs 18 per kg. Calculate the cost of the salt per mole.
Answer:
Gram molar mass of NaCl = 23 + 35.5
= 58.5 g
1000 g of NaCl costs = Rs 18
∴ 58.5 g of NaCl costs = \(\frac{18}{1000}\) × 58.5
= Rs 1.053
The cost of one mole of NaCl = Rs 1.053

Question 3.
What will be the mass of one \(^{12} \mathbf{C}\) atom in g?
Answer:
1 mol of \(^{12} \mathbf{C}\) atoms = 6.022 × 10²³ atoms = 12 g
Thus, 6.022 × 10²³ atoms of \(^{12} \mathbf{C}\) have mass = 12 g
∴ 1 atom of \(^{12} \mathbf{C}\) will have mass = \(\frac{12}{6.022 \times 10^{23}}\) g = 1.9927 × 10^-23 g.

IX. Solve the following problems:

Question 1.
Calculate the average atomic mass of carbon, if the natural abundance of C – 12 and C – 13 are 98.90% and 1.10% respectively.
Solution:
Average atomic mass of carbon
\(=\left(12 \times \frac{98.9}{100}\right)+\left(13 \times \frac{1.1}{100}\right)\)
= (12 × 0.989) +(13 × 0.011)
= 11.868 + 0.143
= 12.011 amu.

Question 2.
Find how many moles are there in
(a) 98 g of H₂SO₄
Answer:
(a) 98 g of H₂SO₄
GMM of H₂SO₄ = 2(1) + 32 + 4(16)
= 98 g
Number of moles = \(\frac{Given Mass}{Mol. Mass}\)
= \(\frac{98}{98}\)
= 1 mole

(b) 18.069 × 10²³ atoms of calcium
Answer:
Number of moles

= 3 moles

(c) 4.48 L of CO₂
Answer:
Number of moles

Question 3.
Calculate the number of moles in
(i) 12.046 × 10²³ atoms of copper
(ii) 27.95 g of iron
(iii) 1.51 × 10²³ molecules of CO₂
Answer:
(i) 12.046 × 10²³ atoms of copper
6.023 × 10²³ atoms of copper = 1 mole
12.046 × 10²³ atoms of copper = \(\frac{1 \times 12.046 \times 10^{23}}{6.023 \times 10^{23}}\) = 2 moles of copper

(ii) 27.95 g of iron
55.9 g of iron = 1 mole
27.95 g of iron = \(\frac{1}{55.9}\) × 27.95 = 0.5 mole of iron.

(iii) 1.51 × 10²³ molecules of CO₂
No of moles = \(\frac{\text { No. of molecules }}{\text { Avogadro number }}\)
= \(\frac{1.51 \times 10^{23}}{6.023 \times 10^{23}}\)
= 0.25 mole of CO₂

Question 4.
Calculate the number of atoms of mercury present in 1 kg of Mercury. [Atomic mass of Hg = 200.6]
Answer:
200.6 g of Hg contains 6.023 × 10²³ Hg atoms
∴ 1 Kg of Hg will contain = \(\frac{6.023×10^{23}}{200.6}\) × 1000
= 30.02 × 10²³ Hg atoms

Question 5.
How many molecules are present in 7 × 10^-3 m³ of NH₃ at STP?
Answer:
Molar volume = 22.4 dm³ = 2.24 × 10^-2 m³
2.24 × 10^-2 m³ of NH₃ at STP contains 6.023 × 10²³ NH₃ molecules.
:. 7 × 10^-3 m³ of NH₃ will contain
= \(\frac{6.023×10^{23}}{2.24×10^{-2}}\) × 7 × 10^-3
18.82 × 10²² NH₃ molecule

Question 6.
What is the mass in grams of the following?
(a) 3 moles of NaOH
(b) 6.023 × 10²² atoms of Ca
(c) 224 L of CO₂
Answer:
Formula:

(a) 3 moles of NaOH
Mass of 3 moles of NaOH = 3 × mol. mass of NaOH
GMM of NaOH = 23 + 16 + 1 = 40 g
Mass of 3 moles of NaOH = 3 × 40 = 120 g

(b) 6.023 × 10²² atoms of Ca = n × atomic mass of ca

= 4 g

(c) 224 L of CO₂
Mass of 224 L of CO₂

= 10 × 44
= 440 g

Question 7.
How many grams are therein:
(i) 5 moles of water
(ii) 2 moles of Ammonia
(iii) 2 moles of Glucose
Solution:
(i) 5 moles of water.
Mass of 1 mole of water (H₂O) = 18 g (2 + 16)
Mass of 5 moles of H₂O = 18 × 5 = 90 g.

(ii) 2 moles of ammonia.
Mass of 1 mole of ammonia (NH₃) = 17 g (14 + 3)
Mass of 2 moles of ammonia = 17 × 2 = 34 g.

(iii) 2 moles of glucose.
Mass of 1 mole of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) = 180 g (72 + 12 + 96)
Mass of 2 moles of glucose = 180 × 2 = 360 g.

Question 8.
Calculate tbe molar mass of the following compounds.
(a) Urea (NH₂CONH₂)
(b) Ethanol(C₂H₅OH);
(c) Boric acid (H₃BO₃)
[Atomic mass of N – 14, H – 1, C – 12, B – 11, O – 16]
Answer:
(a) Urea (NH₂CONH₂) = 2(14) + 4(1) + 1(16) + 1(12)
= 28 + 4 + 16 + 12
= 60 g

(b) Ethanol(C₂H₅OH) = 2(12) + 6(1) + 1(16)
= 24 + 6 + 16 = 46 g

(c) Boric acid (H₂BO₃) = 3(1) + 1(11) + 3(16)
= 3 + 11 + 48
= 62 g

Question 9.
Mass of one atom of an element is 6.645 × 10^-23 g. How many moles of element are there in 0.320 kg.
Answer:
Mass of one atom of an element = 6.645 × 10^-23 g
∴ Mass of 1 mol of atom = 6.645 × 10^-23 × 6.023 × 10²³ = 40 g
Number of moles =

Students can download 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Climate and Natural Vegetation of India Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Climate and Natural Vegetation of India

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Climate and Natural Vegetation of India Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Meteorology is the science of:
(a) Weather
(b) Social
(c) Political
(d) Human
Answer:
(a) Weather

Question 2.
We wear cotton during ……….
(a) Summer
(b) Winter
(c) Rainy
(d) Northeast monsoon
Answer:
(a) Summer

Question 3.
Western disturbances cause rainfall in:
(a) Tamilnadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Punjab
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Punjab

Question 4.
………. helps in quick ripening of mangoes along the coast of Kerala and Karnataka.
(a) Loo
(b) Norwester
(c) Mango showers
(d) Jet stream
Answer:
(c) Mango showers

Question 5.
……………. is a line joining the places of equal rainfall.
(a) Isohyets
(b) Isobar
(c) Isotherm
(d) Latitudes
Answer:
(a) Isohyets

Question 6.
The climate of India is labelled as ………
(a) Tropical humid
(b) Equatorial Climate
(c) Tropical Monsoon Climate
(d) Temperate Climate
Answer:
(c) Tropical Monsoon Climate

Question 7.
The monsoon forests are otherwise called as
(a) Tropical evergreen forest
(b) Deciduous forest
(c) Mangrove forest
(d) Mountain forest
Answer:
(b) Deciduous forest

Question 8.
……. forests are found above 2400 m Himalayas.
(a) Deciduous forests
(b) Alpine forests
(c) Mangrove forests
(d) Tidal forests
Answer:
(b) Alpine forests

Question 9.
Sesahachalam hills, a Biosphere reserve is situated in
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(b) Andhra Pradesh

Question 10.
………… is a part of the world network biosphere reserves of UNESCO .
(a) Nilgiri
(b) Agasthiyamalai
(c) Great Nicobar
(d) Kachch
Answer:
(a) Nilgiri

II. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iv)
B. (v)
C. (ii)
D. (i)
E. (iii)

III. Consider the given statements and choose the correct option from the given below ones.

Question 1.
Assertion(A): Monsoons are a complex meteorological phenomenon. Reason(R): Meteorologists have developed a number of concepts about the origin of monsoons.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A.
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A

Question 2.
Assertion(A): The Himalayas acts as a climatic barrier.
Reason(R): The Himalayas prevents cold winds from central Asia and keep the Indian Sub-continent warm.(Give option for this questions)
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A.
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A

IV. Choose the inappropriate answer

Question 1.
Tidal forests are found in and around ……..
(a) Desert
(b) The deltas of Ganga and Brahmaputra
(c) The delta of Godavari
(d) The delta of Mahanadhi
Answer:
(a) Desert

Question 2.
Climate of India is affected by:
(a) Latitudinal extent
(b) Altitude
(c) Distance from the sea
(d) Soil
Answer:
(d) Soil

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Define ‘Meteorology’.
Answer:
The branch of science concerned with the processes and phenomena of the atmosphere, especially as a means of forecasting the weather.

Question 2.
What is meant by ‘normal lapse rate’?
Answer:
Temperature decreases when the altitude increases .Normal Lapse rate is a phenomenon in which temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5°C for every 1000mts of ascent. Hence places in the mountains are cooler than the places on the plain.

Question 3.
What are ‘jet streams’?
Answer:
In the upper layers of the atmosphere, there are strong westerly winds concentrated in a relatively narrow and shallow stream known as “Jet streams” They cause heavy rainfall in North-west India.

Question 4.
Write a short note on ‘Monsoon wind’.
Answer:

1. The Word ‘Monsoon’ is derived from the Arabic word “Mausim” which means season.
2. Monsoons are a complex meteorological phenomenon .
3. These winds originates due to the seasonal migration of planetary winds and pressure belts following the position of the sun.
4. During summer they blow from South west to North east ( South West monsoon) June-September and from the North east to South west (North East monsoon) October and November.

Question 5.
Name the four distinct seasons of India.
Answer:

1. Winter or cold weather season (Jan-Feb)
2. Pre Monsoon or Summer (March-May)
3. Southwest Monsoon or rainy season (June-September)
4. Northeast Monsoon season (October-December)

Question 6.
What is ‘burst of monsoon’?
Answer:

1. Prior to the onset of the Southwest monsoon the temperature in North India reaches up to 46°C.
2. The sudden approach of monsoon wind over South India with lightning and thunder is termed as the “break or burst of monsoon”.

Question 7.
Name the areas which receive heavy rainfall.
Answer:

1. Middle Ganga Valley
2. Western Ghats
3. Eastern Maharashtra
4. Madhya Pradesh and Odisha

Question 8.
State places of mangrove forest in India.
Answer:

1. Mangrove forests occur in and around the deltas, estuaries and creeks prone to tidal influences.
2. In India they are found in deltas of Ganga, Brahmaputra (largest), the deltas of Mahanadi, Godavari and Krishna rivers.

Question 9.
Name the trees of tropical evergreen forest.
Answer:
The most important trees are rubber, mahogany, ebony, rosewood, coconut, bamboo, cinchona, candes, palm, iron wood and cedar.

Question 10.
Write any five Biosphere Reserves in India.
Answer:

1. Biosphere Reserves are the protected areas of land coastal environments where in people are an integral component of the system.
2. The Indian Government has established 18 Biosphere Reserves. Gulf of Mannar Nilgiris, Agasthiamalai, Kanjanjunga, Great Nicobar etc.

Question 11.
What is ‘Project Tiger’?
Answer:
Project Tiger was launched in April 1973 with the aim to conserve tiger population in specifically constituted “Tiger Reserves” in India. This project is benefited tremendously, with an increase of over 60% – the 1979 consensus put the population at 3,015.

VI. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Weather and Climate.
Answer:
Weather:

1. State of the atmosphere of a place at a given point of time.
2. Weather changes occur daily.
3. Temperature, wind pressure, humidity duration of sunlight and rainfall decides the weather.

Climate:

1. Accumulation of daily and seasonal weather events of a given location over a period of time.
2. It is an average of weather condition over a period of 30-35 years.
3. Climate of a place is determined by Latitude, altitude, distance from the seas, relief features etc.

Question 2.
Tropical Evergreen Forest and Deciduous Forest.
Answer:
Tropical Evergreen forest:

1. These forests are found in the areas where the annual rainfall is 200 cm and more.
2. The tress of these forests do not shed their leaves.
3. Rubber, iron wood, Mahogony are some of the main trees.

Deciduous Forest:

1. These forests are found in the areas with 100 to 200cm annual rainfall.
2. The trees of these forests shed their leaves in spring and early summer.
3. Sandalwood, teak, sal, padak are some of the main trees.

Question 3.
North East Monsoon and South West Monsoon.
Answer:
North East Monsoon:

1. These monsoon winds blow from North-east to South west.
2. They blow during the month of October-November.
3. TamilNadu and Andhra Pradesh gets rainfall from this monsoon.

South West Monsoon:

1. These monsoon winds blow from South west towards North east.
2. They blow during the month of June-September.
3. 75% of India’s rainfall is from this monsoon winds.

VII. Give reasons for the following topics

Question 1.
Western Coastal plain is narrow.
Answer:
It lies between the Western Ghats and Arabian Sea.
It is a narrow plain, which stretches from Gujarat to Kerala with an average width of 50 – 80 km. It is mainly characterised by sandy beaches, coastal sand, dunes, mud flats, lagoons, estuary, laterite platforms and residual hills.

Question 2.
India has a tropical monsoon climate.
Answer:
Latitudinally India lies between 8°4′ N and 37°6’N latitudes. Tropic of Cancer (23° 30’N) divides the country into two equal halves . Most parts of the country’ lie in the Tropical Zone and receives rainfall from monsoon winds which is the dominating climatic factor. Hence India has Tropical monsoon climate.

Question 3.
Mountains are cooler than the plains.
Answer:
When the altitude increases, the temperature decreases. Temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5°C for every 1000 metres of ascent. Hence, places in the mountains are cooler than the places on the plains. That is why the places located at higher altitudes even in South India have cool climate. Ooty and several other hill stations of South India and of the Himalayan ranges like Mussoorie, Shimla, etc., are much cooler than the places located on the Great Plains.

VIII. Write in detail

Question 1.
Write about South West Monsoon.
Answer:

1. Southwest monsoon season is also known as the rainy season in India.
2. The onset of Southwest monsoon season takes place over the southern tip of the country’ by the first week of June, advances along the Konkon coast in early June and covers the whole country by 15th July.
3. Jet stream and ELNino are the two factors that determine the occurrence of Southwest monsoon.
4. Due to the high temperature over north India creates a low-pressure trough which draws the moisture-laden winds from the Indian Ocean towards the Indian landmass.
5. The sudden approach of monsoon wind over south India with ‘ lightning and the thunder indicates the onset of south-west monsoon.
   This is also known as “break or burst of monsoon”.
6. The monsoon winds strike against the southern tip of the Indian landmass and get divided into two branches.
   • (a) Arabian sea branch (of Southwest monsoon)
   • (b) The Bay of Bengal branch (of Southwest monsoon)

(a) Arabian sea branch of South west monsoon:

• The Arabian sea branch of south west monsoon gives heavy rainfall to the west coast of India as it is located in the wind wards side of the Western Ghats.
• The other part which advances towards north strikes against the Himalayan mountains results in heavy rainfall in north.

As Aravalli mountains lie parallel to the wind direction. Rajasthan and the western parts do not get much rainfall.

(b) Bay of Bengal branch of south west monsoon:

• The Wind from Bay of Bengal moves towards north east India and Myanmar.
• This wind is trapped by Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills and gives the heaviest rainfall to Meghalaya (at Mawsynram).
• This wind gets deflected towards west.
• When the wind moves from east to west rainfall decreases as it looses its moisture.
• Tamil Nadu receives only a meager rainfall as the state is located on the leeward side.

About 75% of India’s rainfall is from the south west monsoon.

Question 2.
Describe the forests of India.
Answer:
Natural Vegetation refers to a plant community which has grown naturally without human aid
and has been left undisturbed by human for a long time.

Tropical Evergreen Forest:
These forests are found in areas with 200 cm or more annual rainfall.The annual temperature is about more than 22°C and the average annual humidity exceeds 70 percent in this region. Western Ghats in Maharashtra, Karnataka, Kerala, Andaman-Nicobar Islands, Assam, West Bengal, Nagaland, Tripura, Mizoram, Manipur and Meghalaya states have this type of forests. The most important trees are rubber, mahogany, ebony, rosewood, coconut, bamboo, cinchona, candes, palm, iron wood and cedar.

Tropical Deciduous Forest:
It covers a large area of the Peninsula and northern India, where the rainfall is from 100 to 200 m. These trees of the forests shed their leaves for a few weeks in early summer. The main trees are teak, Sandalwood, deodars, sisam, sal and redwood.

Tropical Dry Forest:
These are found in the areas with 50 to 100 cm. annual rainfall.They represent a transitional type of forests. These are found in east Rajasthan, Haryana, Punjab, Western Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Eastern Maharashtra, Telangana, West Karnataka and East Tamilnadu. The important species are mahua, banyan, amaltas, palas, haldu, kikar, bamboo, babool, khair etc.,

Mountain or Montane Forest:
These forests are classified on the basis of altitude and amount of rainfall. Accordingly two different types of forests namely Eastern Himalayas Forests and Western Himalayas Forests. Eastern Himalayan Forest: These are found on the slopes of the mountains in north-east states. They receive rainfall of more than 200 cm. The vegetation is of evergreen type. Sal, oak, laurel, amura, chestnut, cinnamon are the main trees from 1200 to 2400 m altitude oak, birch, silver, fir, fine, spruce and juniper are the major trees from 2400 to 3600 m height. Western Himalayan Forest: The rainfall of this region is moderate. They are found n the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. In altitude from 900 to 1800 m, chir tree is the most common tree. The other important trees of this region are sal, semal, dhak, jamun and jujube.

Alpine Forest:
It occurs all along the Himalayas with above 2400 m altitude. These are purely having coniferous trees. Oak, silver fir, pine and juniper are the main trees of these forests. The eastern parts of Himalayas has large extent of these forests.

Tidel Forest:
These forests occur in and around the deltas, estuaries and creeks prone to tidal influences and as such are also known as delta or swamp forests. The delta of the Ganga-Brahmaputra has the largest tidal forest. The deltas of Mahanadi, Godavari and Krishna rivers are also known for tidal forests. These are also known as mangrove forest.

Coastal Forest:
These are littoral forests. Generally, coastal areas have these types of forests. Casurina, palm and coconut are the dominant trees. Both the eastern and western coasts have this type of forests.

Riverine Forest:
These forests are found along the rivers on Khadar areas. These are known for tamarisk and tamarind trees. The rivers of Great Plains are more prominent for this type of natural vegetation.

Question 3.
Write the names of biosphere reserves and their location in India.
Answer:
The Indian Government has established 18 Biosphere Reserves which protect larger areas of natural habitat and often include one or more national parks along with the buffer zones that are open to some economic uses.

IX. Map

Mark the following on the outline map of India.

Question 1.
Direction of South West Monsoon wind.
Answer:

Question 2.
Direction of North East Monsoon wind.
Answer:

Question 3.
Areas of heavy rainfall.
Answer:

Question 4.
Mountain forests.
Answer:

Question 5.
Panna biosphere reserve
Answer:

Question 6.
Agasthiyamalai biosphere reserve
Answer:

TB. PNo: 99
Find Out

Question 1.
Find out the temperature of Ooty (2240m). If it is 35°C in Chennai (6.7 m).
Answer:
For every 1000 mt altitude temperature decreases by 6.5°C . So the temperature of Ooty is nearly 15°C.

TB. PNo: 102
HOTS

Question 1.
Why is Mawsynram, the wettest place in the world?
Answer:
Mawsynram in Meghalaya receives the highest rainfall (1141 cm) in the world. Almost daily it rains. Thus make this place a swampy and the wettest due to very dense vegetation.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Climate and Natural Vegetation of India Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The most dominant factor which affects the climate of India is:
(a) Relief
(b) Monsoon winds
(c) Temperature
(d) Soil
Answer:
(b) Monsoon winds

Question 2.
The Local storms in the north eastern part of India during the weather seasons are called
(a) Loo
(b) Norwesters
(c) Mangoshowers
Answer:
(a) Loo

Question 3.
Seventy-five percentage of Indian rainfall is from this wind:
(a) Western Disturbance
(b) North East monsoon
(c) Norwesters
(d) South West monsoon
Answer:
(d) South West monsoon

Question 4.
The mountain which stands parallel to the direction of the south-west monsoon wind ….
(a) Vindhya
(b) Aravalli
(c) Satpura
Answer:
(b) Aravalli

Question 5.
The ……………. forests are found in the region where the rainfall is 200 cm and above.
(a) Tropical evergreen
(b) Tidal
(c) Tropical deciduous
(d) Alpine
Answer:
(a) Tropical evergreen

Question 6.
……… experience continental climate.
(a) Chennai
(b) Mumbai
(c) Delhi
Answer:
(c) Delhi

Question 7.
The term ……………. includes animals of any habitat in nature.
(a) Mammals
(b) Forests
(c) Insects
(d) Wild life
Answer:
(d) Wild life

Question 8.
In India, 85% of the rain is received from the ……….
(a) North-east
(b) South-west
(c) South-east
Answer:
(b) South-west

Question 9.
In the year ……………. United nations Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) recognizes the sovereign rights of the states to use their own Biological Resources.
(a) 1992
(b) 1982
(c) 1979
(d) 1929
Answer:
(a) 1992

Question 10.
The ……… prevents the cold polar winds blowing from Central Asia.
(a) Aravalli Hills
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) Himalayas
Answer:
(c) Himalayas

Question 11.
The highest rainfall region in India is located in this state:
(a) Assam
(b) Bihar
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Manipur
Answer:
(c) Meghalaya

Question 12.
There is a peculiar uniformity in the climate of India due to its unique ……..
(a) Geography
(b) Physiography
(c) Demography
Answer:
(b) Physiography

II. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (i)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (vi)
B. (iii)
C. (v)
D. (ii)
E. (iv)
F. (i)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (v)
B. (i)
C. (ii)
D. (vi)
E. (iv)
F. (iii)

III. Consider the given statements and choose the correct option from the given below ones

Question 1.
Assertion(A): Peninsular India enjoys equable climate.
Reason(R): The peninsular region is surrounded by the seas on three sides, not very far from the sea.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false

Question 2.
Assertion(A): Two different types-of mountain forests are in India namely Eastern Himalayan forests and Western Himalayan forests.
Reason(R): Mountain forests are classified on the basis of altitude and amount of Rainfall.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A

Question 3.
Assertion(A): Systematic change in the direction of planetary winds is known as monsoons.
Reason(R): Monsoon winds originates due to the seasonal migration of planetary winds and pressure belts following the position of the Sun.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false

Question 4.
Assertion(A): Rajasthan remains as desert.
Reason(R): As Aravalli mountain is located parallel to the Arabian Sea branch South west Monsoon winds the western part (Rajasthan) do not receive much rainfall. To the Bay of Bengal Branch of South west Monsoon wind it is located on the leeward side.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A

IV. Choose the inappropriate answer

Question 1.
The pre-monsoon showers are known as mango showers in:
(a) Kerala and Karnataka
(b) Punjab and Haryana
(c) Hot weather season
(d) Helps quick ripening of mangoes
Answer:
(b) Punjab and Haryana

Question 2.
Tropical deciduous forests trees are of economic importance:
(a) Have valuable trees like teak, sal.
(b) To make fragnant oil, varnish, perfumes.
(c) Do not shed their leaves.
(d) Found in rainfall areas of 100 to 200 cm.
Answer:
(c) Do not shed their leaves.

Question 3.
Tidal forests are also known as swamp or delta forests.
(a) These forests are not prone to tidal waves.
(b) Known as mangrove forests.
(c) Occur in and around deltas, estuaries.
(d) Prone to tidal influences.
Answer:
(a) These forests are not prone to tidal waves.

Question 4.
Biosphere Reserves are protected areas of coastal and land environment.
(a) Indian Government has established 18 Biosphere Reserves.
(b) Do not protect areas of natural habitat.
(c) People are an integral component of the system.
(d) One or more National parks preserves along with buffer zone.
Answer:
(b) Do not protect areas of natural habitat.

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Name the classification of Natural vegetation.
Answer:
Natural Vegetation can be classified as:

1. Tropical Evergreen forests
2. Tropical deciduous forests
3. Tropical dry forests
4. Desert and semi-desert
5. Mountain forests
6. Alpine forests and
7. Tidal forests

Question 2.
Name the factors affecting the climate of India.
Answer:
Climate of India is affected by the factors of latitude, distance from the seas, Monsoon wind, relief features and jet stream.

Question 3.
The climate and weather conditions in India are governed by the three-atmosphere conditions. Name them.
Answer:

1. The Pressure and Surface winds.
2. Upper air Circulation
3. Western cyclonic disturbances and tropical conditions

Question 4.
What is ElNino? How does it affect the climate of India?
Answer:
ElNino is a complex global phenomena of weather that appears once eveiy five to ten years. It is a cause for the delay of onset of the southwest monsoon in India.

Question 5.
What is the Characteristic features of monsoon rains in India?
Answer:

1. The Monsoon rains are pulsating in nature
2. They can cause heavy rainfall in one part and drought in the other.
3. They are known for their uncertainties.

Question 6.
What is the role of Jet stream regarding the climate of India?
Answer:

1. The arrival and departure of monsoon winds is determined by Jet stream.
2. Cause tropical depressions both during South west monsoon and North east monsoon.
3. Plays a vital role in bringing western disturbances to India there by helping winter wheat cultivation.

Question 7.
What values are associated with the monsoon in India?
Answer:

• Monsoon acts as unifying bond for India.
• The unifying influence of the monsoon on the Indian Subcontinent is quite perceptible.
• The Seasonal alteration of the wind systems and the associated weather conditions provide a rhythmic cycle of seasons.
• The Indian landscape, its animal and plant life, its entire agricultural calender and the life of the people, including their festivities, revolve around this phenomenon.
• Year after year, people of India from North to South and from east to west, eagerly await the arrival of the monsoon. These monsoon winds binds the whole country by providing water to set the agricultural activities in motion.
• The rivers valleys which carry this water also unite as a single river valley unit.

Question 8.
Give a brief note on the Indian Board for Wild life:
Answer:

1. The Indian Board for wild life was constituted in 1952 to suggest means of protection, conservation and management of wild life to the Government of India.
2. The Government of India enacted wild life (protection) Act in 1972 with the objective of effectively protecting the wild life.

Question 9.
Explain the steps taken to conserve wildlife.
Answer:
The Wild Life Act Of India protects and conserves this grest heritage of nation. The first weak of October is observed as Wild life Week Of India.

Question 10.
Give the Full form of these abbreviations.

1. IBWL
2. CBD
3. ITCZ

Answer:

1. IBWL : Indian Board for Wild Life.
2. CBD: Convention on Biological Diversity.
3. ITCZ : Inter Tropical Convergence Zone.

Question 11.
Why does the coromandal coast face frequent cyclones?
Answer:
The north east monsoon winds by crossing the Bay of Bengal absorbs moisture and gives heavy rain to the coromandal coast. These are frequent cyclones formed in the Bay of Bengal and they cause heavy damage to life and property along the coromandal coast.

Question 12.
Give a brief description of the Mangrove forests.
Answer:

• The mangrove tidal forests are found in the areas of coasts influenced by tides. Hence, mangroves are the common varities with roots of the plants submerged under water. The deltas of the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the Krishna, the Godavari and the Kaveri are covered by such vegetation. In the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta sundari trees are found which provides durable hard timber.
• Palm, coconut, Keora agar also grow in some parts of the delta.
• Royal Bengal Tiger is the famous animal in these forests. Turtles, crocodiles, gharials and snakes are also found in these forests.

VI. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Winter/Cold weather and Summer/Hot weather season.
Solution:
Winter or Cold weather season:

1. In India,winter weather period is January-February.
2. The mean temperature increases from North to South.
3. Western Disturbances occurs in this season.
4. Generally fine weather and low tempertaure.

Summer or Hot weather season:

1. The summer season is from March- May.
2. The mean tempertaure increases from South to North.
3. Mango showers, Norwesters or Kalbaisakhi occurs in this season.
4. Generally hot and dry weather.

Question 2.
Heavy rainfall and less/low rainfall region.
Answer:
Heavy rainfall region:

1. These areas get annual rainfall of 200 cms and above.
2. Western coast, Assam, South Meghalaya are heavy rainfall areas.

Less or low rainfall region:

1. These areas get annual rainfall less than 100 cms.
2. Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana, Western and South western parts of Uttar Pradesh, plateau region gets less rainfall.

Question 3.
Windward side and Leeward side.
Answer:
Windward side:

1. The slope of the mountain that lie on the path of rain bearing winds.
2. The windward side gets more rainfall.
3. Western slopes of Western Ghats – West coastal plains.

Leeward side:

1. The slope of the mountain that do not face the rain bearing winds.
2. The Leeward side gets less or no rainfall.
3. Eastern slopes of Western Ghats – Deccan Plateau.

Question 4.
Eastern and Western Himalayan forests.
Answer:
Eastern Himalayan forests:

1. The vegetation of this forest is’ evergreen as these forests receive more than 200cm rainfall.
2. Pine, Sal Fir, Oak, Laurel are some of the main trees of these forests.
3. These forests are found in the North Eastern states.

Western Himlayan forests:

1. The rainfall of this region is moderate and have varied vegetation regards to altitude.
2. Upto 900m altitude semi desert vegetation from 900m – 1800m chir tree and sal, at 1800m conifer trees.
3. These forests are found in the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and UttaraKhand.

VII. Give reasons for the following topics

Question 1.
Kolkatta receives more rainfall than Bikaner in Rajasthan.
Answer:
Air near the coast has more moisture and greater potential to produce precipitation. Due to this fact Kolkatta near the coast receives more rainfall (119cm) than Bikaner (24cm) which is located in the interior part.

Question 2.
In India Conservation and management of Biodiversity is necessary why?
Answer:
Hunting, Poaching, deforestation and encroachments in the natural habitats have caused extinction of some species and many are in the danger of extinction. The role of wild life in maintaining the ecological balance made it necessary for conservation and management of Biodiversity.

Question 3.
Relief of India has a great bearing on climate.
Answer:
The elements of climate such as temperature, atmospheric pressure, direction of winds and the amount of rainfall are affected by the presence of relief features as they act as a climatic barrier like the Himalayas and Western Ghats.

VIII. Write in detail

Question 1.
What are the major determinants of climate of a place? Explain them.
Answer:
The major determinants of climate of a place are,

1. Latitude
2. Altitude
3. Distance from the seas
4. Monsoon winds
5. Relief features (Mountains)
6. Jet Streams

1. Latitude:
Latitudinally, India lies between 8°4’N and 37°6’N latitudes. The Tropic of cancer divides the country into two equal halves. The area located to the south of Tropic of cancer experiences high temperature and no severe cold season throughout the year whereas, the areas to the north of this parallel enjoys subtropical climate. Here, summer temperature may rise above 40°C and it is close to freezing point during winter.

2. Altitude:
As one goes from the surface of the earth to higher altitudes, the atmosphere becomes less dense and temperature decreases. The hills are therefore cooler during summer.

3. Distance from the seas:
Distance from the sea does not cause only temperature and pressure variations but also affects the amount of rainfall. As the distance from the sea increased its moderating influence decreases and the people experience extreme weather conditions. This condition is known as continentality.(i.e.) Very hot during summers and very cold during winter.

4. Monsoon winds:
The most dominant factor which affects the climate of India is the monsoon winds. These are seasonal reversal winds and India remains in the influence of these winds for a considerable part of a year. Though, the sun’s rays are vertical over the central part of India during the mid-June, the summer season ends in India by the end of May. It is because the onset of southwest monsoon brings down the temperature of the entire India and causes moderate to heavy rainfall in many parts of the country. Similarly, the climate of southeast India is also influenced by northeast monsoon.

5. Relief features (Mountains):
Relief of India has a great bearing on major elements of climate such as temperature, atmospheric pressure, direction of winds and the amount of rainfall. High mountains act as barriers for cold or hot winds; they may also cause precipitation if they are high enough and lie in the path of rain-bearing winds. The leeward side of mountains remains dry.

6. Jet Streams:
Jet streams are the fast moving winds blowing in a narrow zone in the upper atmosphere. According to the Jet stream theory, the onset of southwest monsoon is driven by the shift of the sub tropical westerly jet from the plains of India towards the Tibetan plateau. The easterly jet streams cause tropical depressions both during southwest monsoon and retreating monsoon.

Question 2.
Write about the factors that affect the climate of India.
Answer:
Climate of India is affected by the factors of latitude, altitude, distance from the seas, monsoon winds and jet streams.

Latitude:

1. Latitudinally India is located in the Tropical belt between 8°4’N and 37°6’N latitudes.
2. The tropic of cancer divides the country into two equal halves.
3. This enables the places south of Tropic of cancer (23°30’N) to experience high temperature and no severe cold.
4. The places north of Tropic of cancer enjoy sub tropical climate.

Altitude:

1. When the altitude increases, temperature decreases as per the phenomena. “Normal Lapse rate”. For every 1000 mts of ascent the temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5°C.
2. Hence the places in the mountains are cooler than the places on the plains.
3. Even in South India places at higher altitude have cool climate.

Distance from the sea:

1. Distance from the sea not only causes temperature and pressure variations but also affects the amount of rainfall.
2. The entire area of peninsular region as it is surrounded by seas on three sides having the temperature equable throughout the year.
3. Areas of central and north India experiences much seasonal variation in temperature due to the absence of seas.

Monsoon winds:

1. The most dominant factor which affects the climate of India is the. monsoon winds.
2. India is influenced by the South west monsoon and North east monsoon from June to September and October, November respectively.
3. Indian agriculture is at the mercy of monsoons.
4. India experiences Tropical monsoon climate.

Relief:

1. Relief of India has a great bearing on major elements of climate such as temperature, atmospheric pressure direction of wind and amount of rainfall.
2. The mighty Himalayas in the north act as a climatic barrier preventing the freezing cold winds from central Asia away from India.
3. The Western ghats act as the barrier for south west monsoon winds causing rainfall to the western slopes, and the eastern slopes remain as rain shadow region.

Jet Stream:

1. Jet streams are the fast moving winds blowing in the narrow zone of upper layers of atmosphere.
2. These air currents play a dominant role in bringing the onset of South west monsoon and withdrawal of monsoon winds.
3. More over they are the main reason in bringing the Western Disturbances to the North Western part of Punjab and Haryana causing rainfall and enable the cultivation of winter wheat.
4. It causes snow fall in Jammu and Kashmir region.

Thus the Tropical monsoon = climate of India revolve around these factors

IX. Map Work

Mark the following on the outline map of India.

Question 1.
Areas of low rainfall
Answer:

Question 2.
Any 4 Biosphere Reserve
Answer:

Question 3.
Any 5 National parks
Answer:

Question 4.
Any 3 Wild animal sanctuary
Answer:

Question 5.
Any 2 Bird Sanctuary
Answer:

Question 6.
Top 5 states having maximum forest cover
Answer:

Question 7.
Top 5 states where forest cover is decreased
Answer:

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 12 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
5. Question numbers 13 to 22 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 23 to 32 in Part III are of four marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 33 to 35 in Part IV are of seven marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 75

Part – I

(i) Answer all the questions. [12 × 1 = 12]
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
To produce a displacement _______ is required.
(a) Acceleration
(b) Force
(c) velocity
(d) Momentum
Answer:
(b) Force

Question 2.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Rate of change of charge is electrical power
(b) Rate of change of charge is current
(c) Rate of change of energy is current
(d) Rate of change of current is charge
Answer:
(b) Rate of change of charge is current

Question 3.
_______ aprons are used to protect us from gamma radiations.
(a) Lead oxide
(b) Iron
(c) Lead
(d) Aluminium
Answer:
(c) Lead

Question 4.
The gram molecular mass of oxygen molecule is _______.
(a) 16 g
(b) 18 g
(c) 32 g
(d) 17 g
Answer:
(d) 17 g

Question 5.
When pressure is increased at constant temperature the solubility of gases in liquid _______.
(a) No change
(b) increases
(c) Decreases
(d) No reaction
Answer:
(b) increases

Question 6.
The normal pH of human blood is _______.
(a) 7.4
(b) 0.74
(c) 7.04
(d) 70.4
answer:
(a) 7.4

Question 7.
Active transport involves _______.
(a) movement of molecules from lower to higher concentration
(b) expenditure of energy
(c) it is an uphill task
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 8.
Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenalin. The component causing this could be _______.
(a) Nicotine
(b) Tannic acid
(c) Curcumin
(d) Leptin
Answer:
(a) Nicotine

Question 9.
The segments of leech are known as _______.
(a) Metameres
(b) Proglottids
(c) Strobila
(d) Ganglion
Answer:
(a) Metameres

Question 10.
Vomiting centre is located in _______.
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Medulla oblongata
(d) Hypothalamus
Answer:
(c) Medulla oblongata

Question 11.
Which one of the following organ in man is not Vestigeal?
(a) Vermiform appendix
(b) Epiglottis
(c) Nictitating membrane
(d) Ear muscles
Answer:
(b) Epiglottis

Question 12.
Pusa Komal is a disease resistant variety of _______.
(a) Cow pea
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Rice
(d) Maize
Answer:
(a) Cow pea

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. (Q.No: 22 is compulsory) [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 13.
Define Raman Scattering.
Answer:
Raman Scattering is defined as “The interaction of light ray with the particles of pure liquids or transparent solids, which leads to a change in wavelength or frequency”.

Question 14.
How does an astronaut float in a space shuttle?
Answer:
An astronaut float in a space shuttle because both are in the state of weightlessness. Both are – experiencing equal acceleration towards earth as free fall bodies. Astronauts are not floating but falling freely.

Question 15.
Differentiate convex lens and concave lens.
Answer:
Convex lens:

1. The lens which is thicker at the centre that at the edges.
2. It is called as converging lens.

Concave Lens:

1. The lens which is thinner at the centre than at the edges.
2. It is called as diverging lens.

Question 16.
State two condition necessary for rusting of iron.
Answer:

1. The presence of water and oxygen is essential for the rusting of iron.
2. Impurities in the iron, the presence of water vapour, acids, salts and carbon dioxide hastens rusting.

Question 17.
Define combination reaction.
Answer:
A chemical reaction in which 2 or more reactants combine to form a single product, the reaction is known as combination reaction.

Question 18.
Which hormone is known as stress hormone in plants ? Why?
Answer:
Abscisic acid (ABA) is a growth inhibitor which regulate abscission and dormancy. It increases tolerance of plants to various kind of stress. Hence, it is called as stress hormone. It is found in the chloroplast of plants.

Question 19.
Distinguish between,
(а) Somatic gene therapy and germ line gene therapy.
(b) Undifferentiated cells and differentiated cells.
Answer:
(a)
Somatic gene therapy:
Somatic gene therapy is the replacement of defective gene in somatic cells.

Germ line gene therapy:
Germ line gene therapy is the replacement of defective gene in germ cell (egg and sperm).

(b)
Undifferentiated cells:
The cells which have not become specialized are called undifferentiated cells.
Eg. Cells in early embryos

Differentiated cells:
The cells which have become specialised for doing certain job.
Eg. Nerve cell

Question 20.
What is Natural selection?
Answer:
During the struggle for existence, the organisms which can overcome the challenging situation, survive and adapt to the surrounding environment. Organism which are unable to face the challenges are unfit to survive and disappear. The process of selection of organisms with favourable variation is called as Natural selection.

Question 21.
What is Heparin?
Answer:
Heparin is an anticoagulating substance produced in leech by its salivary gland.

Question 22.
The refractive index of glass is 1.50, and the speed of light in air is 3 x 10⁸ ms^-1. Calculate the speed of light in glass.
Answer:

Part – III

Answer any seven questions (Q.No: 32 is compulsory) [7 × 4 = 28]

Question 23.
State the universal law of gravitation and derive its Mathematical expression.
Answer:

This law states that every other particle of matter in this universe attracts every other particle with a force. This force is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the centres of there masses. The direction of the force acts along the line joining the masses.

Derivation: Let m₁ and m₂ be the masses of two bodies A and B placed at r metre apart in space.
Force, F ∝ m₁ x m₂, F ∝ \(\frac{1}{r^{2}}\)
On combining the above two expressions,

Where G is the universal gravitational constant. Its value is SI unit is 6.674 × 10^-11 Nm² kg^-2.

Question 24.
(i) What are the causes of ‘Myopia’?
Answer:

• Myopia, also known as short sightedness, occurs due to the lengthening of eye ball.
• Nearby objects can be seen clearly but distant objects Cannot be seen clearly.
• The focal length of the eye lens is reduced or the distance between eye lens and retina increases.
• Due to this, the image of distant objects are formed before the retina.

(ii) Draw a ray diagram, a ray is passing parallel to the optic axis of convex lens.
Answer:

Question 25.
(i) State Joule’s law of heating:
Answer:
H = I²RT
Joule’s law of heating states that the heat produces in any resistor is:

• Directly proportional to the square of the current passing through the resistor.
• Directly proportional to the resistance of he resistor.
• Directly proportional to the lime for which the current is passing through the resistor.

(ii) An alloy of nickel and chromium is used as the heating element. Why?
Answer:

• It has high resistivity
• It has a high melting point
• It is not easily oxidized.

(iii) What happens to the resistance, as the conductor is made thicker?
Answer:
The resistance decreases as the conductor is made thicker.
Reason: Resistance is inversely proportional to area of cross section A.
(i.e) R ∝ 1/A – here, A = πr²
Where, r is the radius which determines the thickness.

Question 26.
(i) (a) Identify the bond between H and F in HF molecule.
Answer:
The nature of bond in HF molecule is ionic.

(b) What property forms the basis of identification?
Answer:
Electronegativity

(c) How does the property vary in periods and in groups?
Answer:
Along the period, from left to right in the periodic table the electronegativity increases because of the increase in the nuclear charge which in turn attracts the electrons more strongly. On moving down a group, the electronegativity of the elements decreases because of the increased number of energy level.

(d) Name the acid that renders aluminium passive. Why?
Answer:
Dilute or concentrated nitric acid (HNO₃) renders aluminium passive. Because nitric acid does not attack aluminium but it renders aluminium passive due to the formation of an oxide film on its surface.

Question 27.
What are the methods preventing corrosion?
Answer:
(i) Alloying: The metals can be alloyed to prevent the process of corrosion. E.g: Stainless Steel.

(ii) Surface Coating: It involves application of a protective coating over the metal. It is the following types:

• Galvanization: It is the process of coating zinc on iron sheets by using electric current.
• Electroplating: It is the method of coating one metal over another metal by passing electric current.
• Anodizing: It is an electrochemical process that converts the metal surface into a decorative, durable and corrosion resistant. Aluminium is widely used for anodizing process.
• Cathodic Protection: It is the method of controlling corrosion of a metal surface protected is coated with the metal which is easily corrodible. The easily corrodible metal is called Sacrificial metal to act as anode ensuring cathodic protection.

Question 28.
What are the functions of the following?
(a) Thalamus (b) Hypothalamus (c) Cerebellum (d) Pons
Answer:
(a) Thalamus – acts as relay station
(b) Hypothalamus – Temperature control, thirst, hunger, urination, important link between nervous system and endocrine system.
(c) Cerebellum – Maintenance of posture and balance, co-ordinate voluntary, muscle activity
(d) Pons – Role in sleep – awake cycle

Question 29.
(a) Why is euploidy considered to be advantageous to both plants and animals?
Answer:
In euploidy condition, the individual bears more than the usual number of diploid chromosomes.

1. Triploid plants (3n) and animals are typically sterile.
2. The tetraploid plants, (4n), often result in increased fruit and flower size.

(b) How are arteries and veins structurally different from one another?
Answer:
Artery:

1. Distributing vessel.
2. Arteries carry oxygenated blood except pulmonary artery.
3. Arteries are made up of thick walls.
4. Deep location.

Vein:

1. Collecting vessel.
2. Veins carries deoxygenated blood except pulmonary vein.
3. Veins are made up of thin walls.
4. Superficial in location.

Question 30.
Write a short note on mesophyll.
answer:
The tissue present between the upper and lower epidermis is called mesophyll. It is differentiated into:
(a) Palisade Parenchyma: It is found just below the upper epidermis. The cells are elongated. These cells have more number of chloroplasts. The cells do not have intercellular spaces and they take part in photosynthesis.

(b) Spongy Parenchyma: It is found below the palisade parenchyma tissue. Cells are almost spherical or oval and are irregularly arranged. Cells have intercellular spaces. It helps in gaseous exchange.

Question 31.
(a) Mention the diseases caused by tobacco smoke.
Answer:
Lung cancer, bronchitis, pulmonary tuberculosis, emphysema and hypoxia are some of the diseases caused by tobacco smoke.

(b) Name two make hybrids rich in amino acid lysine.
Answer:
Protina, Shakti and Rathna are lysine rich maize hybrids which are developed in India.

Question 32.
(i) Write the application of echo.
Answer:

1. Some animals communicate with each other over long distance and also locate object by sending the sound signals and receiving the echo as reflected from targets.
2. The principle of echo is used in obstetric ultrasonography, which is used to create real-time visual images of the developing embryo or fetus in the mother’s uterus. This is a safe testing tool, as it does not use any harmful radiations.
3. Echo is used to determine the velocity of sound waves in any medium.

(ii) Write the characteristics of hydrocarbons.
Answer:

• Lower hydrocarbons are gases at room temperature.
• Alkanes are least reactive where alkynes are most reactive due to presence triple bond.
• Alkanes are saturated whereas alkenes and alkynes are unsaturated.
• They are insoluble in water.

Part – IV

(1) Answer all the questions. [3 × 7 = 21]
(2) Each question carries seven marks.
(3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.

Question 33.
(i) Explain the construction of simple microscope and derive its magnification power.
Answer:
Simple Microscope: Simple microscope is a convex lens of short focal length. It is held near the eye to get enlarged image of small B’ objects.

Let an object (AB) of height ‘h’ is placed at a point within the principal focus (u < f ) of the convex lens and the observer’s eye is placed just behind the lens. As per this position the convex lens produces an erect, virtual and enlarged image (A’B’). The image formed in the same side of the object and the distance equal to the least distance of distinct vision (D).

Magnification power (M): Ratio of the height of the image produced by the microscope (h₂) to the original height of the object (h₁) is called Magnification.

Magnification can also be defined as the ratio of the distance of image (v) to the distance of object (u).

Since the image is virtual and erect; the magnification (M) is taken as positive,
In simple microscope,
When the image is formed at the near point
M = 1 + \(\frac{D}{f}\)
When the image is formed at infinity
M= \(\frac{D}{f}\)

(ii) Write the uses of simple microscope.
Answer:

• By watch repairers and jewellers.
• To read small letters clearly.
• TO observe parts of flower, insects etc.
• To observe finger prints in the field of forensic science.

[OR]

(b) Find the final temperature of a copper rod. Whose area of cross section changes from 10 m² to 11 m² due to heating. The copper rod is initially kept at 90 K. (Coefficient of superficial expansion is 0.0021 K)
Answer:
Given:
Area of copper rod, A = 10 m²
After expansion A₂ = 11 m²
Initial temperature T₁ = 90K
Coefficient of superficial expansion α_A= 0.0021/K
Final temperature, T₂ = ?

T₂ = \(\frac{1}{0.021}\) + 90 = 47.6 + 90
Final temperature, T₂ = 137.6 K

(ii) Calculate the energy consumed by 120 W toaster in 4 hours.
Answer:
Given:
Power of toaster P = 120 W
Time t =4 h
Energy consumed by toaster E = P × t
= 120 × 4
E = 480 Wh

Question 34.
(a) (i) Calculate the number of water molecule present in one drop of water which weighs 0.18 g.
Answer:
Mass of water = 0.18 g

Number of molecules = Number of moles × Avogadro number
= 0.01 × 6.023 × 10²³
= 0.06023 × 10²³
= 6.023 × 10²¹ molecules

(ii) Calculate the number of moles in 1.51 × 10²³ molecules of NH₄Cl.
Answer:

= 0.25 mole

(iii) Calculate the gram of 5 moles of sulphur molecule, S₈.
Answer:
5 moles of sulphur molecule S₈
Molecular mass of sulphur molecule = 32 × 8 = 256
Mass = No of moles × molecular mass
= 5 × 256
= 1280 g

[OR]

(b) (i) Explain the classification based on the direction of the reaction.
Answer:
Reversible reaction : A reversible reaction is a reaction that can be reversed, i.e., the products can be converted back to the reactants.

A reversible reaction is represented by a double arrow with their heads in the direction opposite to each other. Thus a reversible reaction can be represent

Explanation:
The compound ‘AB’ undergoes decomposition to form the products ‘A’ and ‘B’. It is the forward reaction. As soon as the products are formed, they combine together to form ‘AB’. It is the backward reaction.
PCl_5(g) ⇌ PCl_3(g) + Cl_2(g)

Irreversible Reactions:
The reaction that cannot be reversed is called irreversible reaction. Consider the combustion of coal into carbon-di-oxide and water.

In this reaction, solid coal bums with oxygen and gets converted into carbon dioxide gas and water. As the product is a gas, as soon as it is formed it escapes out of the reaction container. It is hard to decompose a gas into a solid. Thus, the backward reaction is not possible in this case. So, it is an irreversible reaction.

(ii) What happens during a chemical change?
Answer:

• In a chemical reaction, the atoms of the reacting molecules or elements are rearranged to form new molecules.
• Old chemical bonds between atoms are broken and new chemical bonds are formed.
• Bond breaking absorbs energy where as bond formation releases energy.

Question 35.
(a) (i) What are the hormones secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland? Mention the tissues on which they exert their effect.
Answer:
Vasopressin and Oxytocin are the hormones secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland.
In kidney tubules, the vasopressin hormone increases the reabsorption of water. Its deficiency caused Diabetes insipidus.

Oxytocin helps in the contraction of the smooth muscles of uterus at the time of child birth and milk ejection from the mammary gland after child birth.

(ii) How are e-wastes generated?
Answer:
E-wastes are generally called as electronic wastes, includes the spoiled, outdated, non-repairable electrical and electronic devices.

(iii) Define fertilization?
Answer:
The process of Fusion of male gamete (sperm) and female gamete (ovum) is known as fertilization. It results in the formation of Zyote.

[OR]

(b) (i) Why are leucocytes classified as granulocytes and agranulocytes? Name each cell and mention its functions.
Answer:
White blood corpuscles or Leucocytes:
Based on the presence of granules in the cytoplasm of leucocytes it is classified into two categories,
(i) Granulocytes
(ii) Agranulocytes.

(i) Granulocytes: They contain granules in their cytoplasm. Their nucleus is irregular or lobed. They are classified into three types,

1. Neutrophils
2. Eosinophils
3. Basophils

(1) Neutrophils: Their numbers are increased during infection and inflammation.
(2) Eosinophils: Their number increases during conditions of allergy and parasitic infections. It also brings about detoxification of toxins.
(3) Basophils: They release chemicals during the process of inflammation.

(ii) Agranulocytes: Granules are not found in the cytoplasm of these cells. The agranulocytes are of two types: (a) Lymphocytes (b) Monocytes
(a) Lymphocytes: They produce antibodies during bacterial and viral infections.
(b) Monocytes: They are phagocytic and can engulf bacteria.

(ii) Biofortification may help in removing hidden hunger. How?
Answer:
Biofortification is the scientific process of developing crop plants enriched with high levels of desirable nutrients like vitamins, proteins and minerals.
Example:

1. Protina, Shakti and Rathna are lysine rich maize hybrids
2. Atlas 66, a protein rich wheat variety.
3. Iron rich fortified rice variety.
4. Vitamin A enriched carrots, pumpkin and spinach.
5. By this way, Biofortification may help in removing hidden hunger.