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Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Who said “imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?
(a) Lenin
(b) Marx
(c) Sun Yat-sen
(d) Mao Tsetung
Answer:
(a) Lenin

Question 2.
Who was the Commander-in-Chief responsible for the new military regulations in Vellore Fort?
(a) Col. Fancourt
(b) Major Armstrong
(c) Sir John Cradock
(d) Colonel Agnew
Answer:
(c) Sir John Cradock

Question 3.
Who was the first director of Whanpoa Military Academy?
(a) Sun Yat-Sen
(b) Chiang Kai-shek
(c) Michael Borodin
(d) Chou En Lai
Answer:
(b) Chiang Kai-shek

Question 4.
Who declared that “Land belongs to God” and collecting rent or tax on it was against divine law?
(a) Titu Mir
(b) Sidhu
(c) Dudu Mian
(d) Shariatullah
Answer:
(c) Dudu Mian

Question 5.
In which session of the Indian National Congress was Non-Cooperation approved?
(a) Bombay
(b) Madras
(c) Lucknow
(d) Nagpur
Answer:
(c) Lucknow

Question 6.
The Southern most point of India is …………………..
(a) Andaman
(b) Kanyakumari
(c) Indira point
(d) Kavaratti
Answer:
(c) Indira point

Question 7.
We wear cotton during …………………..
(a) Summer
(b) Winter
(c) Rainy
(d) Northeast monsoon
Answer:
(a) Summer

Question 8.
Which of the following organization has divided the Indian soils into 8 major groups?
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(b) Indian Meteorological Department
(c) Soil Survey of India
(d) Indian Institute of Soil Science
Answer:
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research

Question 9.
The longitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is …………………..
(a) 76°18’E to 80°20’E
(b) 76°18’Eto 80°20’W
(c) 86° 18’E to 10°20’E
(d) 86° 18’E to 10°20’W
Answer:
(a) 76°18’E to 80°20’E

Question 10.
The district with largest mangrove forest cover in Tamil Nadu is …………………..
(a) Ramanathapuram
(b) Nagapattinam
(c) Cuddalore
(d) Theni
Answer:
(c) Cuddalore

Question 11.
If the fundamental rights of Indian citizen are violated, they possess the right to have an access to …………………..
(a) The Parliament
(b) The Attorney General
(c) The President of India
(d) The Supreme Court of India
Answer:
(d) The Supreme Court of India

Question 12.
Non-military issues are …………………..
(a) Energy security
(b) Water security
(c) Pandemics
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 13.
Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme was started in …………………..
(a) 1980
(b) 1975
(c) 1955
(d) 1985
Answer:
(a) 1980

Question 14.
India is ………………….. large producer in agricultural product.
(a) 1st
(b) 3rd
(c) 4th
(d) 2nd
Answer:
(d) 2nd

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 x 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Discuss Mahadev Govind Ranade’s contribution to social reforms.
Answer:

• Mahadev Govind Ranade was a great social reformer. He advocated for inter-caste dining, inter-caste marriage, widow remarriage and improvement of women and depressed classes.
• He founded the Widow Marriage Association, the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha and Decean Education society.

Question 16.
Who were the three prominent dictators of the post World War I?
The three prominent dictators of the post-World War I were Mussolini (Italy), Hitler (Germany) and Franco (Spain).

Question 17.
Identify the Palayams based on the division of east and west.
Answer:
Among the 72 Palayakkarars, there were two blocks namely the eastern and the western Palayams. ‘

• The eastern Palayams were – Sattur, Nagalapuram, Ettayapuram and Panchalam Kurichi.
• The western Palayams were – Uttrumalai, Thalavankottai, Naduvakurichi, Singampatti and Seithur.

Question 18.
What was the conflict between the Swarajists and no-changers?
Answer:
1. In due course of time the Congress got divided into two groups—pro-changers (swarajists) and no-changers. Some of the Congressmen led by Motilal Nehru and C. R. Das wanted to contest the elections and enter the legislature.

2. They argued that the national interest could be promoted by working in the Legislative Councils under Dyarchy and weakening the colonial government from within. These Congressmen were called the pro-changers.

3. On the other hand, no-changers like Vallabhbhai Patel, C Rajagopalachari and other followers of Gandhi wanted to continue non-cooperation with the government.

Question 19.
Write a short note on ‘Monsoon Wind’.
Answer:

• The word ‘monsoon’ has been derived from the Arabic word ‘Mausim’ which means
  ‘season’.
• These winds appear to blow from southwest for six months and from northeast for another
  six months.
• In India it is used to refer to the winds which reverse their directions in summer and winter.

Question 20.
What is Multipurpose project?
Answer:
A comprehensive river valley project which serves a number of purposes simultaneously is called a “Multipurpose project”.

Question 21.
Define: Disaster Risk Reduction.
Answer:
The concept and practice of disaster risks through systematic efforts to analyse and manage the causal factors of disasters including thorough reduced exposure to hazards, lessened vulnerability of people and property, wise management of land and environment and improved preparedness for adverse events.

Question 22.
What is the importance of the Governor of a state?
Answer:

• The Governor is the Constitutional head of the State Executive. The administration of a State is carried on in the name of the Governor.
• He directly rules a State when there is the imposition of the President’s rule in the State. He is an integral part of the State legislative.

Question 23.
How do you assess the importance of Chabahar agreement?
Answer:

• A trilateral agreement called the Chabahar Agreement was signed between India, Afghanistan and Iran, which has led to the establishment of transit and transport corridor among three countries using Chabahar port.
• This port is seen as golden gateway for India to access landlocked markets of Afghanistan and Central Asia by passing Pakistan.

Question 24.
Write short note on TRIPs and TRIMs.
Answer:
1. TRIPs – Trade Related aspects of Intellectual Property Rights – is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World Trade Organisation (WTO). It sets down minimum standards for the regulation by national Governments of many forms of intellectual property as applied to nationals of other WTO member nations. TRIPs was negotiated at the end of the Uruguay Round of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) between 1989 and 1990 and is administered by the WTO.

2. TRIMS – Trade Related Investment Measures – The Uruguay Round Agreement on TRIMs referes to certain conditions or restrictions imposed by a Government in respect of foreign investment in the country in order to give adequate provisions for the home industries to develop.

Question 25.
Why should a developing economy diversify out of agriculture?
Answer:

• As an economy grows and incomes increase, consumers tend to spend a lesser share of their income on products from the agricultural sector.
• There are limits to the ability of agriculture to absorb labour due to the declining marginal productivity of land.
• Due to this, there is a need for an economy’s production and employment base to diversify away from agriculture.

Question 26.
During cyclone, how does the Meterological department warn the fishermen?
Answer:
1. During disturbed weather over the seas, the ports likely to be affected are warned by concerned ACWCs / CWCs by advising the port authorities through port warnings to hoist appropriate Storm Warning Signals. The Department also issue “Fleet forecast” for Indian Navy.

2. Coastal Bulletins for Indian coastal areas covering up to 75 km from the coast line and sea area bulletins for the sea areas beyond 75 km. The special warnings are issued for fishermen four times a day in normal weather and every three hourly in accordance with the four stage warning in case of disturbed weather.

3. The general public, the coastal residents and fishermen are warned through state government officials and broadcast of warnings through All India Radio and National Television telecast programmes in national and regional hook up.

4.  A sytem of warning dissemination for fishermen through World Space Digital Based radio receiver is being planned.

Question 27.
Mention any three industrial development agencies in Tamil Nadu and their role.
Answer:
SIPCOT: (State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu), 1971 : It was formed in the year 1971 to promote industrial growth in the state by setting up industrial estates.
TANSIDCO: (Tamil Nadu Small Industries Development corporation), 1970 :
TANSIDCO is a state-agency of the state of Tamil Nadu established in the year 1970 to promote small-scale industries in the state. It gives subsidies and provide technical assistance for new firms in the small scale sector.
TIDCO: (TamilNadu Industrial Development Corporation), 1965 :
TIDCO is another government agency to promote industries in the state and to establish industrial estates.

Question 28.
Write some name of the nutrition programmes in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Purachi Thalaivar M.G.R. Nutrition Meal Programme
• National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education
• General ICDS Projects and World Bank Assisted Integrated Child Development Services
• Pradhan Manthri Gramodaya Yojana Scheme (PMGYS)
• Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme
• Mid-Day Meal Programme

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 x 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks:
Answer:
(i) ………………was known as the “Father of modem China”.
(ii) ………………soil is suitable for the cultivation of tea and coffee plants.
(iii) Our tradition and national ethos is to practice………………
(iv) ………………play an important role in the supply of quality goods at responsible rates to common
people.
(v) ………………is the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.
Answers
(i) Dr. Sun-yat-sen
(ii) Laterite
(iii) Disarmament
(iv) Consumer co-operatives
(v) Chennai International Airport

Question 30.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 31.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) Agro based industry and Mineral based industry
(ii) Roadways and Railways
Answer:
(a) (i) Agro based industry and Mineral based industry:
Agro based industry :

1. Agro based industries use agricultural products as their basic raw materials
2. The major agro based industries of our country are cotton textile industry, Jute industry, sugar industry etc.
3. These industries are located near the areas of cultivation.

Mineral based industry :

1. Minerals based industries use both metallic minerals and Non-metallic minerals as their raw materials.
2. The major minerals based industry, of our country is the iron and steel industry.
3. These industries are located either near the coalfields or iron ore mines.

(ii) Roadways and Railways:
Roadways:

1. Roadways are cost efficient and the most popular dominant mode of transport.
2. They link different part of our country.
3. They are used by all sections of the people.
4. Construction of roads is less expensive.
5. The roads are classified into village roads, District Roads, State Highways, National Highways, Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways, Express Ways, Broad roads and International Highways.

Railways:

1. Indian Railways provide the principal mode of transport for freight and passengers.
2. It brings people from the farthest comers of our country.
3. They promote trade, tourism, education and national integrations.
4. Construction of railway is highly expensive.
5. Railway lines are classified into three categories namely, Broad gauge, Meter gauge and Narrow gauge.

(b) Give reason: Karur is called the Textile capital of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Karur is a well known industrial centre. The city is famous for cottage and handloom textiles.
It exports all kinds of textile items all over the world.

Question 33.
Describe the rise and growth of nationalist politics in South Africa.
Answer:

• There were two major political parties in South Africa – the unionist party which was mainly British, and the South Africa Party which had largely Afrikaners (Boers).
• The first Prime Minister, Botha belonged to the South Africa Party. He ruled in cooperation with the British. But a militant section of the South Africa Party formed the National Party under Herzog.
• Herzog wanted a twin policy of supremacy of whites over Blacks and Afrikaners over British.
• In the 1920 elections, the National Party gained forty-four seats. The South Africa Party, now led by
• Smuts, secured forty-one seats.
• The British dominated Unionist Party now merged with the South Africa Party. This gave Smuts a majority over the militant Afrikaner-controlled National Party.

Question 34.
Critically examine the Civil Disobedience Movement as the typical example of Gandhian movement.
Answer:
1. Programmes such as no-base campaigns caught the imagination of the peasants. Gandhi announced a no-tax campaign in Bardoli in February 1922. These movements greatly enhanced Gandhi’s reputation as a national leader, especially the peasants.

2. Gandhi made a nation-wide tour. Wherever he visited there was a bonfire of foreign clothes. Thousands left government jobs, students gave up their studies in large numbers and the lawyers gave up thriving practices.

3. Boycott of British goods and institutions were effective. The boycott of the Prince of Wales’ visit to India was successful. During this boycott trade unions and workers participated actively.

4. However, Gandhi suddenly withdrew the movement because of the Chauri Chaura incident. On 5 February 1922 a procession of the nationalists in Chauri Chaura, a village near Gorakhpur in present-day Uttar Pradesh provoked by the police turned violent.

5. The mob burnt the police station 22 policemen lost their lives. Gandhi immediately withdrew the movement. Gandhi was arrested and was released only in 1924.

Question 35.
What is urbanization? Explain its impacts.
Answer:
The process of society’s transformation from rural to urban is known as urbanization. The level of urbanization of a place is assessed based on the size of population of the towns and cities and the proportion of population engaged in non agricultural sectors. These two are closely linked to the process of industrialization and expansion of the secondary and tertiary sectors of economy.

Impacts of urbanization:

• Urbanization and population concentration go hand – in – hand and are closely related to
  each other. A rapid rate of urbanization in a society is taken as an indicator of its economic development. ‘
• Urbanization is increasing rapidly in the developing countries including India.
• Rural to urban migration leads to population explosion in urban areas. Metropolitan cities like Mumbai, Kolkatta and Delhi have more population than that can accommodate.

The following are the major problem of urbanization in India:

• It creates urban sprawl.
• It makes overcrowding in urban centres.
• It leads to shortage of houses in urban areas.
• It leads to the formation of slums.
• It increases traffic congestion in cities. ‘
• It creates water scarcity in cities. ,
• It creates drainage problems.
• It poses the problem of solid waste management.
• It increases the rate of crime.

Question 36.
Explain the characteristic features of summer and winter seasons of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

Summer Seasons:

• The apparent migration of the sun towards north during March, April and May results in the reception of vertical sun’s rays by South India. Thus there is a steady rise in temperature from the equator.
• Hence, Tamil Nadu located to the south of Tropic of Cancer, experiences high temperature. Generally the temperature varies from 30°C to more than 40°C.
• During this season particularly in the month of May, southern part of the state receives some rainfall from pre-monsoon showers (Mango/Blossom showers) and some parts experience convectional rainfall.

Winter Seasons:

• During January and F ebruary, the vertical ray s of the sun fal 1 between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Equator. Hence, Tamil Nadu and India on the whole receive slanting rays from the sun. So, the weather is slightly cooler during these months.
• The difference between summer and winter temperature is not very high. Winter temperature in Tamil Nadu varies from 15°C to 25°C. However, in the hill stations, the winter temperature drops below 5°C occasionally.
• Some valleys in the Nilgiris record even 0°C. This drop in temperature leads to the formation of thick mist and frost. This season is practically dry.

Question 37.
Explain the Jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
The Supreme Court is the guardian of the constitution. He performs the following functions.

1. Original Jurisdiction :- The cases which are brought directly in the first instance to the Supreme Court come under original jurisdiction. These may be – (a) dispute between the government of India and one or more States, (b) dispute between two or more States and (c) the cases involving fundamental rights come under the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

2. Appellate Jurisdiction :- The Supreme Court is the final appellate Court in the country. It hears appeals against the decisions of High Court in “civil, criminal and constitutional” cases with a certificate from the High Court that it is fit to appeal in the Supreme Court.

3. Advisory Jurisdiction :- The Constitution confers on the President the power to refer to the Supreme Court any question of law or fact which in his opinion is of public importance.

4. The Law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.

5. The Supreme Court also enjoys the power of judicial review.

Question 38.
Trace the reason for the formation of BR1CS and write its objectives.
Answer:
Reason for the formation of BRICS:

• To be an alternative to World Bank and IMF to challenge U.S. supremacy.
• To provide self-owned and self-managed organisations to carry out developmental and economical plans in its member nations.

Objectives of BRICS :

• To achieve regional development
• It acts as a bridge between developed and developing countries
• To contribute extensively to development of humanity
• To establish a more equitable and fair world
• Boost intra BRICS trade in their local currencies to increase trade cooperation and cope with the current international financial crisis.
• To promote the technological information exchange among the member states.
• To enhance inclusive economic growth that will lead to an increase in the creation of jobs, fight against poverty and accelerate the economic transformation of members.

Question 39.
Write about the composition of GDP in India.
Answer:
Indian economy is broadly divided into three sectors which contribute to the GDP –

• Primary Sector – It includes agriculture based allied activities, production of raw materials such as cattle farm, fishing, mining, forestry etc. It is also called agricultural sector.
• Secondary Sectqr – It includes industries that produce a finished, usable product or are involved in construction. This sector generally takes the output of the primary sector and manufactures finished goods. It is also called industrial sector.
• Tertiary Sector – It is known as service sector and includes transport, insurance, banking, trade, education, health care etc.

Question 40.
Elaborate the Public Distribution System.
Answer:

1. The increase in food grain production need not result in increase in access to food for all. Given the unequal distribution of income and the level of poverty that persists in Indian economy, the government took steps to distribute food grains at subsidised rates through the Public Distribution System (PDS).

2. The nature, scope and functioning of PDS varies from state to state. While Tamil Nadu has adopted an ‘Universal’ PDS, the rest of the states in India had a ‘Targeted’ PDS. Under universal PDS all the family ration card holders are entitled to the supplies from PDS.

3. In the targeted PDS, the beneficiaries are identified based on certain criteria and given their entitlements, leaving out the rest. Both the Union and the State governments subsidised the supplies distributed through PDS. The level and quantum of subsidy also varied across states.

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
Write any five important events between 1870-1907
Answer:

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i)Germany
(ii) Hungary
(iii) Romania
(iv) Bulgaria
(v) Italy
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) General Assembly and Security Council
(i) List the permanent member countries of the Security Council.
(ii) What is the Holocaust?
(iii) Who was the Chairperson of the UN Commission on Human Rights?
(iv) What is meant by veto?
Answer:
(a) General Assembly and Security Council:
(i) The United States, Britain, France, Russia and China.
(ii) The word ‘holocaust’ is used to describe the genocide of nearly six million Jews by the Germans during the Second World War.
(iii) The widow of US President Franklin Roosevelt was the chairperson of the UN Commission on Human Rights.
(iv) A veto is the power to unilaterally stop an official action, especially the enactment of legislation.

(b) Organs of the EU
(i) Which is the Legislative body of the EU?
(ii) Where is the seat of the Court of Justice?
(iii) What is the function of the European commission?
(iv) Who is responsible for the foreign exchange operation?
Answer:
(b) Organs of the EU
(i) The European Parliament
(ii) Luxemburg
(iii) It is responsible for initiating legislation and the day to day running of the EU.
It drafts proposals for New European laws and presents to the European parliament and the council.
(iv) The European central bank.

[OR]

(c) Dheeran Chinnamalai
(i) When was Dheeran Chinnamalai born?
(ii) How did he earn the title “Chinnamalai”?
(iii) Name the Diwan of Tipu Sultan.
(iv) Why and where was he hanged to death?
(c) Dheeran Chinnamalai
(i) Dheeran Chinnamalai was bom in 1756 in the Mandradiar royal family of Palayakottai.

(ii) Once when Tipu’s diwan Mohammed Ali was returning to Mysore with the tax money, Theerthagiri blocked his way and took back all the tax money. He let Mohammed Ali go by instructing him to tell his Sultan that ‘Chinnamalai; who is between Sivamalai and Chinnamalai, was the one who took away taxes. Thus, he gained the name ‘Dheeran Chennamalai’.

(iii) Mohammed Ali

(iv) He was hanged at the top of the Sankagiri Fort on 31 July 1805 because he refused to accept the rule of the British.

(d) Indian National Congress:
(i) What were the techniques adopted by the Congress to get its grievances redressed?
(ii) What do you know of Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate?
(iii) Where was the first session of Indian National Congress held?
(iv) How did the British respond to the Swadeshi Movement?
Answer:
(d) Indian National Congress:
(i)The techniques adopted by the Congress to get its grievances redressed included appeals, petition and delegation to Britain.
(ii) Lala Lajpat Rai of Punjab, Bal Gangadhar Tilak of Maharashtra and Bipin Chandra Pal of Bengal were three prominent leaders during the Swadeshi period. They are often referred to as Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate.
(iii) The first session of Indian National Congress was held at Bombay.
(iv) The British brutally crushed the Swadeshi movement by arresting prominent leaders and putting them into the prison.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Uttar Pradesh
(ii) North east monsoon
(iii) Agasthiyamalai bio-sphere reserve
(iv) Kolkata
(v) Tea growing area
(vi) Deccan plateau
(vii) Andaman and Nicobar
(viii) Cochin
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
(i) Palar
(ii) Tropical Evergreen forest area
(iii) Alluvial soil
(iv) Thanjavur
(v) Kanniyakumari
(vi) Cotton growing area
(vii) Limestone area
(viii) Pamban
Answer:

Map for Q. 42
(i) Germany
(ii) Hungary
(iii) Romania
(iv) Bulgaria
(v) Italy
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Uttar Pradesh
(ii) North east monsoon
(iii) Agasthiyamalai bio-sphere reserve
(iv) Kolkata
(v) Tea growing area
(vi) Deccan plateau
(vii) Andaman and Nicobar
(viii) Cochin
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Palar
(ii) Tropical Evergreen forest area
(iii) Alluvial soil
(iv) Thanjavur
(v) Kanniyakumari
(vi) Cotton growing area
(vii) Limestone area
(viii) Pamban
Answer:

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Paper 4 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Paper 4

நேரம்: 3.00 மணி 
மதிப்பெண்கள் : 100

(குறிப்புகள்:

• இவ்வினாத்தாள் ஐந்து பகுதிகளைக் கொண்டது. அனைத்து பகுதிகளுக்கும் விடையளிக்க – வேண்டும். தேவையான இடங்களில் உள் தேர்வு வினாக்கள் கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது. காக
• பகுதி I, II, III, IV மற்றும் Vல் உள்ள அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்குத் தனித்தனியே விடையளிக்க வேண்டும்.
• வினா எண். 1 முதல் 15 வரை பகுதி-1ல் தேர்வு செய்யும் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. ஒவ்வொரு வினாவிற்கும் ஒரு மதிப்பெண். சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து குறியீட்டுடன் எழுதவும்.
• வினா எண் 16 முதல் 28 வரை பகுதி-IIல் இரண்டு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன: ஏதேனும் 9 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 29 முதல் 37 வரை பகுதி-IIIல் மூன்று மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. –
  ஏதேனும் 6 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 38 முதல் 42 வரை பகுதி-IVல் ஐந்து மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. ஏதேனும் 5 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 43 முதல் 45 வரை பகுதி-Vல் எட்டு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. அனைத்து வினாவிற்கும் விடையளிக்கவும்.

பகுதி – 1 (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 15)

(i) அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
(ii) கொடுக்கப்பட்ட நான்கு விடைகளில் சரியான விடையினைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்துக் குறியீட்டுடன் விடையினையும் சேர்த்து எழுதுக. [15 × 1 = 15]

(குறிப்பு: விடைகள் தடித்த எழுத்தில் உள்ளன.)

Question 1.
‘வீட்டைத் துடைத்துச் சாயம் அடித்தல்’ இவ்வடி குறிப்பிடுவது ………………
(அ) காலம் மாறுவதை
(ஆ) வீட்டைத் துடைப்பதை
(இ) இடையறாது அறப்பணி செய்தலை
(ஈ) வண்ணம் பூசுவதை
Answer:
(இ) இடையறாது அறப்பணி செய்தலை

Question 2.
மலர்கள் தரையில் நழுவுதல், எப்போது?
(அ) அள்ளி முகர்ந்தால்
(ஆ) தளரப் பிணைத்தால்
(இ) இறுக்கி முடிச்சிட்டால்
(ஈ) காம்பு முறிந்தால்
Answer:
(ஆ) தளரப் பிணைத்தால்

Question 3.
“அருளைப் பெருக்கி அறிவைத் திருத்தி
மருளை அகற்றி மதிக்கும் தெருளை” – என்று இவ்வடிகளில் குறிப்பிடப்படுவது எது?
(அ) தமிழ்
(ஆ) அறிவியல்
(இ) கல்வி
(ஈ) இலக்கியம்
Answer:
(இ) கல்வி

Question 4.
தலைப்புக்கும் குறிப்புக்கும் பொருத்தமான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுக்க.
தலைப்பு: செயற்கை நுண்ணறிவு
குறிப்புகள்: கண்காணிப்புக் கருவி, அசைவு நிகழும் பக்கம் தன் பார்வையைத் திருப்புகிறது. திறன்பேசியில் உள்ள வரைபடம் போக்குவரத்திற்குச் சுருக்கமான வழியைக் காண்பிப்பது.
(அ) தலைப்புக்குப் பொருத்தமான குறிப்புகள் இடம்பெற்றுள்ளன.
(ஆ) குறிப்புகளுக்குத் தொடர்பில்லாத தலைப்பு கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ளன.
(இ) தலைப்புக்குத் தொடர்பில்லாத குறிப்புகள் அளிக்கப்பட்டுள்ளன.
(ஈ) குறிப்புகளுக்குப் பொருத்தமில்லாத தலைப்பு வழங்கப்பட்டுள்ளது.
Answer:
(அ) தலைப்புக்குப் பொருத்தமான குறிப்புகள் இடம்பெற்றுள்ளன.

Question 5.
அறிஞருக்கு நூல், அறிஞரது நூல் ஆகிய சொற்றொடர்களில் பொருளை வேறுபடுத்தக் காரணமாக அமைவது ………………
(அ) வேற்றுமை உருபு
(ஆ) எழுவாய்
(இ) உவம உருபு
(ஈ) உரிச்சொல்
Answer:
(அ) வேற்றுமை உருபு

Question 6.
“இவள் தலையில் எழுதியதோ
கற்காலம்தான் எப்போதும்…..” – இவ்வடிகளில் கற்காலம் என்பது ………………
(அ) தலைவிதி
ஆ) பழைய காலம்
(இ) ஏழ்மை
(ஈ) தலையில் கல் சுமப்பது
Answer:
(அ) தலைவிதி

Question 7.
வெண்பா, ஆசிரியப்பா, கலிப்பா, வஞ்சிப்பா என………. வகைப்பாக்கள் உள்ளன.
(அ) இரண்டு
(ஆ) நான்கு
(இ) மூன்று
(ஈ) ஐந்து
Answer:
(ஆ) நான்கு

Question 8.
கைக்கிளை என்பது………………..
(அ) அகப்பொருள்
(ஆ) பெருந்திணையை
(இ) புறப்பொருள்
(ஈ) ஒருதலைக்காமம்
Answer:
(ஈ) ஒருதலைக்காமம்

Question 9.
கரகாட்டத்தைக் கும்பாட்டம் என்றும் குடக்கூத்து என்றும் கூறுவர் – இத்தொடருக்கான வினா எது?
(அ) கரகாட்டம் என்றால் என்ன?
(ஆ) கரகாட்டம் எக்காலங்களில் நடைபெறும்?
(இ) கரகாட்டத்தின் வேறுவேறு வடிவங்கள் யாவை?
(ஈ) கரகாட்டத்தின் வேறு பெயர்கள் யாவை?
Answer:
(ஈ) கரகாட்டத்தின் வேறு பெயர்கள் யாவை?

Question 10.
‘கத்தும் குயிலோசை’ – என்பது ………………
(அ) பால் வழுவமைதி
(ஆ) மரபு வழுவமைதி
(இ) திணை வழுவமைதி
(ஈ) கால வழுவமைதி
Answer:
(ஆ) மரபு வழுவமைதி

Question 11.
‘உனதருளே பார்ப்பன் அடியேனே ‘ – யாரிடம் யார் கூறியது?
(அ) குலசேகராழ்வாரிடம் இறைவன்
(ஆ) இறைவனிடம் குலசேகராழ்வார்
(இ) மருத்துவரிடம் நோயாளி –
(ஈ) நோயாளியிடம் மருத்துவர்
Answer:
(ஆ) இறைவனிடம் குலசேகராழ்வார்

பாடலைப் படித்துப் பின்வரும் வினாக்களுக்கு (12, 13, 14, 15) விடை தருக.

நின்று காவல் நெறிபூண்டு நெறியல்லது நினையாது
தந்தையில்லோர் தந்தையாகியுந் தாயரில்லோர் தாயராகியும் மைந்தரில்லொரு மைந்தராகியும் மன்னுயிர் கட்குயிராகியும்
விழிபெற்ற பயனென்னவும் மெய்பெற்ற அருளென்னவும்

Question 12.
தந்தைக்குத் தந்தையாய் இருந்தவர் யார்?
(அ) இராசராசசோழன்
(ஆ) இராசேந்திர சோழன்
(இ) இரண்டாம் இராசராசசோழன்
(ஈ) முதலாம் இராசராச சோழன்
Answer:
(அ) இராசராசசோழன்

Question 13.
இப்பாடலில் இடம் பெற்ற உறவு முறை யாது?
(அ) மாமன், அத்தை
(ஆ) சித்தன், சித்தி
(இ) தந்தை , தாய், மகன்
(ஈ) பாட்டி, தாத்தா
Answer:
(இ) தந்தை , தாய், மகன்

Question 14.
மைந்தரில்லாத – பிரித்து எழுதுக.
(அ) மைந்தர் + இல்லாத
(ஆ) மைந்து – இல்லாத
(இ) மை + தரி + இல்லாத
(ஈ) மைந்தரி + இல்லாத
Answer:
(அ) மைந்தர் + இல்லாத

Question 15.
மேற்கண்ட பாடலில் எதுகைச் சொற்களை எழுதுக.
(அ) நின்ற, நினையாது
(ஆ) தந்தை, தாயாரில்லோர்
(இ) தந்தையில்லோர், மைந்தரில்லொரு
(ஈ) பாட்டி, தாத்தா
Answer:
(இ) தந்தையில்லோர், மைந்தரில்லொரு

பகுதி – II (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 18)

பிரிவு – 1

எவையேனும் நான்கு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் குறுகிய விடையளிக்க
21 ஆவது வினாவிற்குக் கட்டாயமாக விடையளிக்க வேண்டும். [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 16.
விடைக்கேற்ற வினா அமைக்க
(அ) வியாஸர் தர்மார்த்தங்களை உபதேசிக்கவே பாரதத்தை எழுதினார்.
(ஆ) நூலின் பயன், அறம், பொருள், இன்பம், வீடு என்ற நான்கு பயனுக்காக இருத்தல் வேண்டும்.
Answer:
விடை:
(அ) வியாஸர் பாரதத்தை எழுதிய நோக்கம் யாது?
(ஆ) நூலின் பயன் எத்தகையது?

Question 17.
சாந்தமானதொரு பிரபஞ்சத்தைச்
சுமக்கின்றன ஒல்லித் தண்டுகள் – இக்கவிதை அடிகள் உணர்த்தும் உள்ளழகை எழுதுக.
Answer:
மல்லிகைப் பூவானது மெல்லிய தண்டுகளை உடையது. ஆனால் அது ஆறு இதழ்களைச் சுமந்து தனது வேதனையும் மிக அழகாக மாற்றிக் கொள்ளும் தன்மை உடையது.

Question 18.
‘கொள்வோர் கொள்க; குரைப்போர் குரைக்க!
உள்வாய் வார்த்தை உடம்பு தொடாது’

(அ) அடியெதுகையை எடுத்தெழுதுக.
Answer:
கொள், உள்

(ஆ) இலக்கணக் குறிப்பு எழுதுக – கொள்க, குரைக்க
Answer:
வியங்கோள் வினைமுற்று

Question 19.
மின்னணுப் புரட்சி என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:
எந்த ஒரு புதிய தொழில்நுட்பமும் ஒரே நாளில் வந்துவிடுவதில்லை 1980களில் ஒவ்வொருவருக்குமான தனிநபர் கணினிகளின் வளர்ச்சியும் இணையப் பயன்பாட்டின் பிறப்பும் இன்றைய மின்னணுப் புரட்சிக்குக் காரணமாயின அவற்றுள் இவ்வுலகை மிகுதியாக ஆளக்கூடிய ஒரு தொழில்நுட்பம் செயற்கை நுண்ணறிவு.

Question 20.
‘இறடிப் பொம்மல் பெறுகுவிர்’ – இத்தொடர் உணர்த்தும் பொருளை எழுதுக.
Answer:
நெய்யில் வெந்த மாமிசத்தின் பொரியலையும் தினைச் சோற்றையும் உணவாகப் பெறுவீர்கள்.

Question 21.
‘விடல்’ என முடியும் குறள் எழுதுக.
Answer:
பல்லார் பகைகொளலின் பத்தடுத்த தீமைத்தே நல்லார் தொடர்கை விடல்…

பிரிவு – 2

எவையேனும் ஐந்து வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் குறுகிய விடையளிக்க. [5 × 2 = 10]

Question 22.
சொற்களைப் பிரித்துப் பார்த்து பொருள் தருக.
வருந்தாமரை
Answer:
விடை:
வருந்தா மரை – வருந்தாத மான் (மரை)
வருந்தாமரை – வருகின்ற தாமரை

Question 23.
அரபு எண்ணை தமிழ் எண்ணாக மாற்றுக.
Answer:
(அ) 39 – ஙகூ
(ஆ) 148 – கசஅ
(இ) 260 – உகா
(ஈ) 357 – ஙருஎ

Question 24.
இரு சொற்களையும் ஒரே தொடரில் அமைக்கவும்.
மலை – மாலை
Answer:
விடை:
காலையில் மலை ஏறியவர் மாலையில் இறங்கினார்.

Question 25.
கலைச்சொற்கள் தருக.
(அ) Document
(ஆ) patent
Answer:
(அ) Document – ஆவணம்
(ஆ) patent – காப்புரிமை

Question 26.
மரபுப் பிழையை நீக்கி எழுதுக.
(அ) மயில் கூவும், குதிரை கத்தும்.
Answer:
மயில் அகவும், குதிரை கனைக்கும்.

(ஆ) மாந்தோட்டத்தில் குயில் பேசியது.
Answer:
மாந்தோப்பில் குயில் கூவியது.

Question 27.
பொருத்தமான நிறுத்தற் குறிகளை இடுக.
சேரர்களின் பட்டப் பெயர்களில் கொல்லி வெற்பன் மலையமான் போன்றவை குறிப்பிடத்தக்கவை கொல்லி மலையை வென்றவன் கொல்லி வெற்பன் எனவும் பிற மலைப்பகுதிகளை வென்றவர்கள் மலையமான் எனவும் பெயர் சூட்டிக்கொண்டனர் இதற்குச் சங்க இலக்கியத்தில் சான்றுகள் உள்ளன.
Answer:
சேரர்களின் பட்டப் பெயர்களில் கொல்லி, வெற்பன், மலையமான் போன்றவை குறிப்பிடத்தக்கவை. கொல்லி மலையை வென்றவன், கொல்லி வெற்பன் எனவும், பிற மலைப்பகுதிகளை வென்றவர்கள், மலையமான் எனவும் பெயர் சூட்டிக்கொண்டனர். இதற்குச் சங்க இலக்கியத்தில் சான்றுகள் உள்ளன.

Question 28.
பதிந்து – பகுபத உறுப்பிலக்கணம் தருக.
பதிந்து = பதி + த்(ந்) + த் + உ
Answer:
பதி – பகுதி
த் – சந்தி ‘ந்’ ஆனது விகாரம்
த் – இறந்த கால இடைநிலை
உ – வினையெச்ச விகுதி

பகுதி – III (மதிப்பெண்க ள்: 18)

பிரிவு – 1

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க. [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 29.
தாவரத்தின் அடிப்பகுதியைக் குறிப்பதற்கான சொற்களை எழுதுக.
Answer:
ஒரு தாவரத்தின் அடிப்பகுதியைக் குறிப்பதற்கான சொற்கள்.
நெல், கேழ்வரகு முதலியவற்றின் அடி : தாள்
கீரை, வாழை முதலியவற்றின் அடி : தண்டு
நெட்டி, மிளகாய்ச்செடி முதலியவற்றின் அடி : கோல்
குத்துச்செடி, புதர் முதலியவற்றின் அடி : தூறு
கம்பு, சோளம் முதலியவற்றின் அடி : தட்டு அல்லது தட்டை
கரும்பின் அடி : கழி
மூங்கிலின் அடி : கழை
புளி, வேம்பு முதலியவற்றின் அடி : அடி

Question 30.
நான்கு திசையிலும் வீசும் காற்றைப் பற்றி எழுதுக.
Answer:
கிழக்கு: கிழக்கு என்பதற்குக் குணக்கு என்னும் பெயருமுண்டு. கிழக்கிலிருந்து வீசும்காற்று கொண்டல் எனப்படுகிறது. கொண்டலாகக் காற்று குளிர்ச்சி தருகிறது; இன்பத்தைத் தருகிறது.

மேற்கு: மேற்கு என்பதற்குக் குடக்கு என்னும் பெயருமுண்டு. மேற்கிலிருந்து வீசும் காற்று கோடை – எனப்படுகிறது.

வடக்கு:
வடக்கு என்பதற்கு வாடை என்னும் பெயருமுண்டு. வடக்கிலிருந்து வீசும்காற்று வாடைக்காற்று எனப்படுகிறது.

தெற்கு:
தெற்கிலிருந்து வீசும்காற்று தென்றல் காற்று எனப்படுகிறது; மரம், செடி, கொடி, ஆறு, மலை, பள்ளத்தாக்கு எனப் பல தடைகளைத் தாண்டி வருவதால் வேகம் குறைந்து இதமான இயல்பு கொள்கிறது.

Question 31.
உரைப்பத்தியைப் படித்து வினாக்களுக்கு விடை தருக.
Answer:
மொழிபெயர்த்தல் என்ற தொடரைத் தொல்காப்பியர் மரபியலில் (98) குறிப்பிட்டுள்ளார். ‘மாபாரதம் தமிழ்ப்படுத்தும், மதுராபுரிச் சங்கம் வைத்தும்’ என்னும் சின்னமனூர்ச் செப்பேட்டுக் குறிப்பு, சங்ககாலத்திலேயே தமிழில் மொழிபெயர்ப்பு மேற்கொள்ளப்பட்டதைப் புலப்படுத்துகிறது. வடமொழியில் வழங்கி வந்த இராமாயண, மகாபாரதத் தொன்மச் செய்திகள் சங்க இலக்கியங்களில் பரவலாக இடம்பெற்றுள்ளன. இதுவும் பிறமொழிக் கருத்துகளை, கதைகளைத் தமிழ்ப்படுத்தியமையைப் புலப்படுத்துகிறது. பெருங்கதை, சீவகசிந்தாமணி, கம்பராமாயணம், வில்லிபாரதம் முதலிய சில காப்பியங்களும் வடமொழிக் கதைகளைத் தழுவிப் படைக்கப்பட்டவையே.

(அ) தொல்காப்பியர் மொழிப்பெயர்த்தல் பற்றிக் கூறிய இயல் எது?
Answer:
மரபியல்

(ஆ) சின்னமனூர்ச் செப்பேடு மொழிபெயர்ப்பு பற்றிக் கூறிய செய்தி யாது?
Answer:
“மாபாரதம் தமிழ்ப்படுத்தும் மதுராபுரிச் சங்கம் வைத்தும்”

(இ) வடமொழிக் கதைகளைத் தழுவி படைக்கப்பட்ட நூல் யாது?
Answer:
கம்பராமாயணம், வில்லிபாரதம், பெருங்கதை, சீவகசிந்தாமணி

பிரிவு – 2

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க.
34 ஆவது வினாவிற்குக் கட்டாயமாக விடையளிக்க வேண்டும். [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 32.
“சித்தாளின் மனச்சுமைகள்
செங்கற்கள் அறியாது” – இடஞ்சுட்டிப் பொருள் தருக.
Answer:
இடம்:
செய்யுள் வரிகள் கவிஞர் நாகூர் ரூமியால் எழுதப்பட்ட ‘சித்தாளு’ கவிதைப் பேழையில் காணப்படுகிறது.

விளக்கம்:
அடுக்குமாடி, அலுவலகம் எதுவாயினும் அடுத்தவர் கனவுக்காக அலுக்காமல் இவள் சுமக்கும் கற்களெல்லாம் அடுத்தவேளை உணவுக்காக மட்டுமே. இவள் செத்தாலும் சிறிதளவே சலனங்கள் ஏற்படுத்தும். சித்தாளின் மனச்சுமைகள் செங்கற்கள் அறியாது என்று ஏழையின் நிலையை எடுத்துக்காட்டுகிறார்.

Question 33.
மழைநின்றவுடன் புலப்படும் காட்சியை வருணித்து எழுதுக. (குறிப்பு: இலைகளில் சொட்டும் நீர் – உடலில் ஓடும் மெல்லிய குளிர் – தேங்கிய குட்டையில் ‘சளப் தளப்’ என்று குதிக்கும் குழந்தைகள் – ஓடும் நீரில் காகிதக் கப்பல்.
Answer:

• மழைநீரில் குளித்துவிட்டுத் தென்னந்தோப்பில் தலை உலர்த்தவரும் தென்றல் காற்று.
• அணில்களின் சடுகுடு விளையாட்டால் மரங்களின் இலைகளில் சொட்டும் நீர், ஆர்மோனியம் இல்லாமலேயே சுருதியோடு பாடும் குயில் மழலை மாறாத நதியோசை, தாழ்வாரங்களில் சொட்டும் நீர் போடும் தாளம்.
• உடலில் உரசும் மெல்லிய குளிர் காற்று தெருக்களில் தேங்கிய குட்டைகளில் சளப்தளப் என குதித்து விளையாடும் குழந்தைகள்.
• வண்டு இசைக்கும் சத்தத்துடன் காகித கப்பல் விட்டு மகிழும் சிறுவர்களின் கூச்சல் என
  இயற்கை, பூமி என்னும் பேரேட்டை எழுதியுள்ளது.

Question 34.
அடிபிறழாமல் எழுதுக.
(அ) “அன்னை மொழியே!” எனத் தொடங்கும் பாடல்.
Answer:
அன்னை மொழியே! அழ்கார்ந்த செந்தமிழே!
முன்னைக்கும் முன்னை முகிழ்த்த நறுங்கனியே!
கன்னிக் குமரிக் கடல்கொண்ட நாட்டிடையில்
மன்னி அரசிருந்த மண்ணுலகப் பேரரசே!
தென்னன் மகளே ! திருக்குறளின் மாண்புகழே!
இன்னறும் பாப்பத்தே ! எண்தொகையே! நற்கணக்கே!
மன்னுஞ் சிலம்பே! மணிமே கலைவடிவே!
முன்னும் நினைவால் முடிதாழ வாழ்த்துவமே! (- பாவலரேறு பெருஞ்சித்திரனார்)

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) “மாற்றம் எனது” எனத் தொடங்கும் காலக்கணிதம்’ பாடல்.
Answer:
மாற்றம் எனது மானிடத் தத்துவம்;
மாறும் உலகின் மகத்துவம் அறிவேன்!
எவ்வெவை தீமை எவ்வெவை நன்மை
என்ப தறிந்து ஏகுமென் சாலை!
தலைவர் மாறுவர்; தர்பார் மாறும்;
தத்துவம் மட்டுமே அட்சய பாத்திரம்!
கொள்வோர் கொள்க; குரைப்போர் குரைக்க!
உள்வாய் வார்த்தை உடம்பு தொடாது;
நானே தொடக்கம்; நானே முடிவு;
நானுரைப் பதுதான் நாட்டின் சட்டம் ! (- கண்ணதாசன் )

பிரிவு – 3

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க. [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 35.
தோட்டத்தில் மல்லிகைப்பூ பறித்த பூங்கொடி, வரும் வழியில் ஆடுமாடுகளுக்குத் தண்ணீர்த் தொட்டியில் குடிநீர் நிரப்பினாள். வீட்டினுள் வந்தவள் சுவர்க்கடிகாரத்தில் மணி பார்த்தாள்.
இப்பத்தியில் உள்ள தொகைச் சொற்களின் வகைகளைக் குறிப்பிட்டு, விரித்து எழுதுக.
Answer:

• மல்லிகைப்பூ – இருபெயரொட்டுப் பண்புத்தொகை
  மல்லிகை ஆகிய பூ
• பூங்கொடி – அன்மொழித்தொகை
  பூங்கொடி (பெண்ணைக் குறித்தது)
• ஆடுமாடு – உம்மைத்தொகை
  ஆடும் மாடும்
• குடிநீர் – வினைத்தொகை
  குடித்தநீர், குடிக்கின்ற நீர், குடிக்கும் நீர்
• தண்ணீர்த்தொட்டி – இரண்டாம் வேற்றுமை உருபும் பயனும் உடன் தொக்க தொகை தண்ணீரை உடைய தொட்டி

Question 36.
‘உலகத்தோடு ஒட்ட ஒழுகல் பலகற்றும் கல்லார் அறிவிலா தார்’ – இக்குறட்பாவினை அலகிட்டு வாய்பாடு தருக.
Answer:

Question 37.
கொண்டு கூட்டுப் பொருள்கோள் விளக்குக.
Answer:
ஒரு செய்யுளில் பல அடிகளில் சிதறிக்கிடக்கும் சொற்களைப் பொருளுக்கு ஏற்றவாறு ஒன்றோடொன்று கூட்டிப் பொருள் கொள்வது கொண்டு கூட்டுப் பொருள்கோளாகும்.

(எ.கா.) ஆலத்து மேல குவளை குளத்துள
வாலின் நெடிய குரங்கு – மயிலைநாதர் உரை

மேற்கண்ட பாடலில் ஆலத்து மேல் குவளை என்றும் குளத்தில் வாலின் நெடிய குரங்கு என்றும் பொருள் கொண்டால் பொருத்தமற்றதாகிவிடும். இதில் ஆலத்து மேல குரங்கு, குளத்துள குவளை – என்று கருத்தைக் கொண்டு அங்குமிங்கும் கொண்டு பொருள்கோள் அமைந்திருப்பதால் இது கொண்டு கூட்டுப் பொருள்கோள் எனப்படும்.

யாப்படி பலவினுங் கோப்புடை மொழிகளை
ஏற்புழி இசைப்பது கொண்டு கூட்டே

பகுதி – IV (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 25)

அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விடையளிக்க [5 × 5 = 25]

Question 38.
அவள்ளுவம், சிறந்த அமைச்சருக்குக் கூறிய இலக்கணங்கள் நமக்கும் பொருந்துவதைக் குறள்வழி விளக்குக.
Answer:
கருவியும் காலமும் செய்கையும் செய்யும்
அருவினையும் மாண்ட தமைச்சு

பொருள்: தொழில் செய்வதற்குத் தேவையான கருவி, அதற்கு ஏற்ற காலம், செயலின் தன்மை, செய்யும் முறை ஆகியவற்றை அறிந்து உரிய செயலைச் செய்பவரே அமைச்சர் ஆவார்.

வன்கண் குடிகாத்தல் கற்றறிதல் ஆள்வினையோ
டைந்துடன் மாண்ட தமைச்சு

பொருள்: மனவலிமை, குடிகளைக் காத்தல், ஆட்சி முறைகளைக் கற்றல் நூல்களைக் கற்றல், விடாமுயற்சி ஆகிய ஐந்தும் சிறப்பாக அமைந்தவரே அமைச்சராவார்.

மதிநுட்பம் நூலோ டுடையார்க் கதிநுட்பம்
யாவுள முன்நிற் பவை

பொருள்: இயற்கையான நுண்ணறிவும், நூலறிவும் உடைய அமைச்சர்களுக்கு முன், எந்த நுட்பமான சூழ்ச்சிகள் நிற்க முடியும்? (எந்தச் சூழ்ச்சியும் நிற்க இயலாது)

செயற்கை அறிந்துக் கடைத்தும் உலகத்
தியற்கை அறிந்து செயல்

பொருள். ஒரு செயலைச் செய்வதற்குரிய முறைகளை நூல்வழியாக அறிந்திருப்பினும், உலகியல் நடைமுறைகளை அறிந்து செயல்பட வேண்டும்.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) இறைவன், புலவர். இடைக்காடன் குரலுக்குச் செவிசாய்த்த நிகழ்வை நயத்துடன் எழுதுக.
Answer:
இடைக்காடனார் இறைவனை வணங்குதல்:

• இடைக்காடனார் இறைவன் திருமுன் விழுந்து வணங்கி எழுந்து, “தமிழறியும் பெருமானே! அடியார்க்கு நல்நிதி போன்றவனே! திருஆலவாயிலில் உறையும் இறைவனே ! அழகிய வேப்பமலர் மாலையை அணிந்த பாண்டியன், பொருட்செல்வத்தோடு கல்விச் செல்வமும் மிக உடையவன் எனக் கூறக்கேட்டு.
• அவன் முன் சொற்சுவை நிரம்பிய கவிதை பாடினேன். அவனோ சிறிதேனும் சுவைத்துத் தலை அசைக்காமல் புலமையை அவமதித்தான்” என்றார்.

இடைக்காடனாரின் சினம்:

• இடைக்காடனார் இறைவனிடம், “பாண்டியன் என்னை இகழவில்லை, சொல்லின் வடிவாக உன் இடப்புறம் வீற்றிருக்கும் பார்வதி தேவியையும், சொல்லின் பொருளாக விளங்கும் உன்னையுமே அவமதித்தான்” என்று சினத்துடன் கூறிச் சென்றார்.
• அவரது சொல் வேற்படைபோல் இறைவனின் திருச்செவியின் சென்று தைத்தது.

இறைவன் இலிங்க வடிவை மறைத்தல்:

• கோவிலை விட்டு வெளியேறிய இடைக்காடனாருக்கும் அவர் நண்பராகிய கபிலருக்கும் மனமகிழ்ச்சி உண்டாக்க நினைத்தார்.
• இறைவன் ஞானமயமாகிய தம்முடைய இலிங்க வடிவத்தை மறைத்து உமாதேவியாரோடும் திருக்கோவிலைவிட்டு வெளியேறி நேர் வடக்கே வையை ஆற்றின் தென் பக்கத்தே ஒரு திருக்கோவிலை ஆக்கி அங்கு சென்று இருந்தார்.

பாண்டிய மன்னனின் வேண்டுதல்:

• “இறைவனே, என்னால், என் படைகளால், என் பகைவரால், கள்வரால், காட்டில் உள்ள விலங்குகளால் இத்தமிழ்நாட்டில் தங்களுக்கு இடையூறு ஏற்பட்டதா? மறையவர் நல் ஒழுக்கத்தில் குறைந்தனரோ? தவமும் தருமமும் சுருங்கியதோ? இல்லறமும் துறவறமும் தத்தம் நெறியில் இருந்து தவறினவோ? எமது தந்தையே யான் அறியேன்” என்று வேண்டினான் பாண்டிய மன்னன்.
• இறைவன் மன்னனிடம், “சிறந்த குளிர்ந்த வயல்கள் சூழ்ந்த கடம்பவனத்தை விட்டு ஒருபோதும் நீங்கமாட்டோம்.
• இடைக்காடனார் பாடலை இகழ்ந்த குற்றம் தவிர வேறு குற்றம் உன்னிடம் இல்லை.
  இடைக்காடனார் மீது கொண்ட அன்பினால் இவ்வாறு இங்கு வந்தோம்” என்றார்.

Question 39.
(அ) வி.கே. எலக்ட்ரானிக் மென்பொருள் நிறுவனத்திடமிருந்து தவறுதலாக குறைபாடுள்ள கணினியை வாங்கிக் கொண்ட்தை தெரியப்படுத்தி அதற்கு மாற்றாக குறைபாடற்ற கணினியை மாற்றி தருமாறு கடிதம் வரைக.
Answer:
அனுப்புநர்
பூங்குழலி,
சென்னை – 600 013.

பெறுநர்
வி.கே. எலக்ட்ரானிக் நிறுவனம்
காமராஜ் நகர்,
சென்னை . – 600 009.

மதிப்பிற்குரிய ஐயா,

பொருள்: குறைபாடு உடைய கணினியை மாற்றுவது – தொடர்பாக

வணக்கம், நான் சென்ற வாரம் 03.04.2019 அன்று உங்கள் நிறுவனத்தில் கணினி ஒன்று வாங்கி இருந்தேன். அதை வீட்டிற்கு கொண்டு வந்து, இயக்கி பார்க்கும் போதுதான் தெரிகிறது அது குறைபாடு உடைய கணினி என்றும், நான் கேட்ட கணினி அது அல்ல என்பதும் அதனால் குறைபாடு உடைய கணினியை எடுத்துக் கொண்டு சரியான கணினியைத் தருமாறு கேட்டுக் கொள்கிறேன்.

நன்றி,

இடம் : சென்னை
தேதி : 10.04.19

இங்ஙனம்,
பூங்குழலி

குறிப்பு:

தாங்கள் கொடுத்த கணினியில் கீழ்க்கண்ட குறைகள் உள்ளன.

• நான் வாங்க விரும்பியது விண்டோ 8 ஏசர் கணினி. ஆனால் நீங்கள் அனுப்பியது விண்டோ 7, கணினி.
• கணினியில் திரை தரம் குறைந்ததாகவும் அளவு மிகச் சிறிதாகவும் உள்ளது.
• கணினியிலிருந்து வரும் ஒலி கேட்பதற்கு சற்று ஏதுவாக இல்லை.
• சுட்டெலி இயங்கவில்லை. உறைமேல் முகவரி

பெறுநர்
வி.கே. எலக்ட்ரானிக் நிறுவனம்
காமராஜ் நகர்,
சென்னை – 600 009.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) உன் பள்ளியில் நடைபெற்ற இலக்கிய மன்றத் தொடக்க விழா பற்றி நண்பனுக்குக் கடிதம்.
Answer:

தேனாம்பேட்டை,
சென்னை – 18.
11-05-2019

அன்புள்ள நண்பா,

நலம் நலமறிய ஆவல். சென்ற வாரம் எனது பள்ளியில் இலக்கிய மன்றத் தொடக்க விழா திரு. கே.ஏ. கிருஷ்ணசாமி அவர்கள் தலைமையில் சிறப்புற நடைபெற்றது. இறை வணக்கத்திற்குப் பின் தமிழாசிரியர் திரு.குமாரசுவாமி அவர்கள் இனிய வரவேற்புரை ஆற்றினார். தலைவர் அவர்கள் இலக்கியத்தின் பயன் பற்றி இனிய சொற்பொழிவு ஒன்று ஆற்றினார். மாணவர்கள் மிக அமைதியுடனும் ஒருமித்த மனத்துடனும் கேட்டனர்.

சிறப்புச் சொற்பொழிவாற்றிய சிலம்பொலி திரு. செல்லப்பன் அவர்கள் சர்க்கரைப் பந்தலில் தேன்மாரி பெய்தாற் போல கருத்து மழை பொழிந்தார். இலக்கியம் தரும் அறவாழ்வு, அனைவரின் மனத்திலும் பசுமரத்தாணிபோல் பதிந்தது. இராமாயணம், சிலப்பதிகாரம், மகாபாரதம் போன்ற பல காப்பியங்களிலிருந்து கவிதைக் காட்சிகளை மாணவர் கண்முன் கொணர்ந்து நிறுத்தினார். கடல் மடை திறந்த வெள்ளமென ஆற்றிய சொற்பொழிவிற்கிடையே நகைச்சுவை கலந்த மாட்சி மனத்திற்கினிமை தந்தது. இலக்கியத்தின்பால் அனைவருக்கும் ஓர் ஆர்வத்தைத் தூண்டுவதாக அமைந்தது.

பின்பு தலைவர் முடிவுரைக்குப் பின், மன்றச் செயலர் நன்றி நவில நாட்டுப் பண்ணுடன் விழா இனிது நிறைவேறியது.

இங்ஙனம்,
உன் அன்புள்ள நண்பன்,
நா. செழியன்.

உறைமேல் முகவரி

பெறுநர்
அ. அன்புமணி,
36, வ.உ.சி. தெரு,
தூத்துக்குடி – 1.

Question 40.
படம் உணர்த்தும் கருத்தை நயமுற ஐந்து தொடர்களில் எழுதுக…
Answer:
தான் பசியுடன் இருந்தாலும்
தனக்குக் கிடைத்த உணவு
குறைவா இருந்தாலும்
மற்றவர்களுக்குக் கொடுத்துவிட்டு
உண்ண வேண்டும் என்ற எண்ணம்
உள்ளவராக இருக்க வேண்டும்.

Question 41.
வங்கிக் கணக்கில் பணம் செலுத்தும் படிவம் நிரப்புதல்.

Answer:

Question 42.
(அ) இன்சொல் பேசுதலும், வன்சொல் பேசுதலையும் பட்டியலிடுக. Answer:
இன்சொல் வழி:

1. பிறர் மனம் மகிழும்
2. அறம் வளரும்
3. புகழ் பெருகும்
4. நல்ல நண்பர்கள் சேருவர்
5. அன்பு நிறையும்

தீய சொல் வழி :

1. பிறர் மனம் வாடும்
2. அறம் தேயும்
3. இகழ் பெருகும்
4. நல்ல நண்பர்கள் விலகுவர்
5. பகைமை நிறையும்

இதில் நீங்கள் செல்லும் வழி யாது? உங்கள் நண்பருக்குக் காட்டும் வழி யாது?
விடை :
நாங்கள் செல்லும் வழி. இன்சொல் வழி என் நண்பர்களுக்கும் அவ்வழியையே காட்டுவேன்.
அதனால் அவர் அறம், புகழ் போன்றவற்றில் சிறந்து நல்ல நண்பர்களுடன் அன்புடன் பழகுவார்.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) மொழிபெயர்க்க. Among the five geographical divisions of the Tamil country in Sangam literature, the Marutam region was the fit for cultivation, as it had the inost fertile lands. The properity of a farmer depended on getting the necessary sunlight, seasonal rains and the fertility of the soil. Among these elements of nature, sunlight was considered indispensible by the ancient Tamils.
Answer:
விடை :
சங்க இலக்கியங்களில் இடம் பெற்ற தமிழ்நாட்டின் 5 புவியியல் பாகுபாட்டின்படி, மருத நிலப் பகுதியே பயிரிடுவதற்குச் செழுமையான பகுதியாகக் கருதப்பட்டது. விவசாயியின் சொத்து அங்கு கிடைக்கும் வெயில், பருவ மழை மற்றும் நிலத்தின் செழுமையைச் சார்ந்திருந்தது. இயற்கையில் கிடைக்கும் மூலக்கூறுகளில் சூரிய ஒளியே இன்றியமையாததாகப் பழந்தமிழர்களால் கருதப்பட்டது.

பகுதி – V (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 24)

அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விரிவாக விடையளிக்க. [3 × 8 = 24)

Question 43.
(அ) நெகிழிப் பைகளின் தீமையைக் கூறும் பொம்மலாட்டம் உங்கள் பள்ளியின் ஆண்டு விழாவில் நிகழ்த்தப்படுகிறது. அதற்குப் பாராட்டுரை ஒன்றினை எழுதுக.
Answer:

• அனைவருக்கும் வணக்கம். பொம்மலாட்டம் என்பது மக்கள் விரும்பி பார்க்கும் ஒரு வகை கூத்துக் கலையாகும்.
• பார்ப்பவரின் கண்ணையும் கருத்தையும் மனதையும் ஒரே நேரத்தில் ஆட்கொள்ளக் கூடியதாக இருக்கிறது.
• நெகிழிப்பைகளின் வரவால் மக்கள் எவ்வாறு அவதிப்படுகின்றனர் என்பதை இந்த பொம்மலாட்டம் மூலம் மாணவர்களுக்குப் புரியும் வகையில் மிக எளிமையாக விளக்கினார்கள். பொம்மலாட்டத்தைத் தோற்பாவைக் கூத்து என்றும் அழைப்பர்.
• தோலில் செய்தவெட்டு வரைபடங்களை விளக்கின் ஒளி ஊடுருவும் திரைச்சீலையில் பொருத்தி, கதைக்கேற்ப மேலும் கீழும் பக்கவாட்டிலும் அசைத்துக்காட்டி உரையாடியும் ‘பாடியும் காட்டுவது தோற்பாவைக் கூத்து.
• தோலால் ஆன பாவையைக் கொண்டு நிகழ்த்தும் கலையாதலால் தோற்பாவை என்னும் பெயர் பெற்றது.
• இசை, ஓவியம், நடனம், நாடகம், பலகுரலில் பேசுதல் ஆகியவை இணைந்துள்ளன.
• கூத்து நிகழ்த்தும் திரைச் சீலையின் நீளம், அகலம் ஆகியன பாவையின் அமைப்பையும் எண்ணிக்கையையும் பொறுத்து வேறுபடுகின்றன.
• இந்நிகழ்ச்சியில் பாவையின் அசைவு உரையாடல் இசை ஆகியனவற்றோடு ஒளியும் முதன்மை பெறுகின்றது.
• பாவை குறித்த செய்திகள் சங்ககாலம் முதல் பதினெட்டாம் நூற்றாண்டுவரையான தமிழ் இலக்கியங்களில் காணப்படுகின்றன.
• திருக்குறளில் பரப்பாவையைப் பற்றி குறிப்பிடப்பட்டுள்ளது. திருவாசகத்திலும் பட்டினத்தார் பாடலிலும் தோற்பாவைக் கூத்து விளங்குகிறது.
• தோற்பாவைக் கூத்து கையுறைப் பாவைக் கூத்து. பொம்மலாட்டம் என்பனவாகவும் மாற்றம் பெற்றுள்ளது.
• நெகிழி அல்லது பிளாஸ்டிக் என்பது ஒரு பொருள்.
• ஏதாவது ஒரு நிலையில் இளகிய நிலையில் இருந்து பின்னர் இறுதி திட நிலையை அடைவதைக் குறிக்கும் சொல் ஆகும்.
• பொருள் மண்ணுக்குள் சென்றால் சீக்கிரம் மக்காமல் அப்படியே இருந்து விடுகிறது.
• அதனால் மரங்களில் வேர்களுக்கு ஆக்கிஜன் கிடைக்கக் கடினமாக இருக்கிறது.
• எந்த ஒரு பொருள் பூமியில் மக்கவில்லையோ அது மனித இனத்திற்கே பேராபத்து என்பதை இந்தப் பொம்மலாட்டம் மூலமாக மாணவர்களுக்கு மிக எளிதாகச் சென்று சேர்ந்தது.
• பொம்மலாட்டம் கலைஞர் அனைவருக்கும் பாராட்டுகளைத் தெரிவித்துக் கொள்கிறோம்.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) உங்கள் இல்லத்துக்கு வந்த உறவினருக்கு நீங்கள் செய்த விருந்தோம்பலை அழகுற விவரித்து எழுதுக.
Answer:

• எங்கள் இல்லத்திற்கு என் தந்தையின் நண்பர்கள் பொங்கல் திருநாளன்று வந்தனர்.
• நாங்கள் அவர்களை அன்போடு வரவேற்றோம். வந்தவர்களை வாருங்கள் என்று அழைத்து அவர்களுக்குக் குடிக்கத் தண்ணீர் கொடுத்தோம்.
• அவர்களை அமரவைத்து அவர்களிடம் நலம் விசாரித்தும் என் தாய், தந்தையர் பேசிக் கொண்டு இருந்தனர்.
• சிறிது நேரம் கழித்து அவர்கள் குடிக்கப் பழச்சாற்றினைக் கொடுத்தோம். •
• பிறகு அவர்கள் உணவருந்த சுவையான உணவு சமைத்து வைத்திருந்தோம்.
• வந்தவர்களை உணவருந்த அழைத்து வந்து வாழையிலை போட்டு கூட்டு, பொரியல் இனிப்பு, வடை, பாயசம் என்று அறுசுவை உணவைப் படைத்தோம். .
• அவர்கள் உண்டபின் அவர்களுக்கு வெற்றிலை பாக்கு கொடுத்து இளப்பாற வைத்தோம்.
• பின் அவர்கள் வீட்டிற்குச் சொல்லும் போது அவர்களுக்குப் பரிசுப்பொருள் கொடுத்து வீட்டின் வாசல் வரை சென்று வழி அனுப்பி வைத்தோம்.

Question 44.
(அ) உங்களுடன் பயிலும் மாணவர் ஒருவர் பள்ளிப் படிப்பைப் பாதியில் நிறுத்தி
வேலைக்குச் செல்ல விரும்புகிறார். அவரிடம் கற்பதன் இன்றியமையாமையை எவ்வகையில் எடுத்துரைப்பீர்கள்?
Answer:

• கல்வி என்பது நம் வாழ்க்கையில் முன்னேறக் கூடிய ஒரு ஏணிப்படி அதைக் கற்றால் நம் வாழ்க்கையில் வெற்றி பெறலாம்.
• நம் தாய் தந்தை தான் படிக்கவில்லை நாம் படித்து அவர்களின் வாழ்க்கைத் தரத்தை உயர்த்த வேண்டும் எண்ணமும் செயலும் உயர்வாக இருந்தால், நாம் உயர்வாக இருக்க முடியும்.
• நம் பெற்றோர்களின் ஆசைகளை நாம் நிறைவேற்ற வேண்டும். கல்வி கற்பதன் மூலம் நாம்வாழ்க்கையில் எவ்வளவு சோதனைகள் வந்தாலும் அதைச் சமாளிக்க முடியும்.
• வாழ்க்கையில் எவ்வளவு தடைகள் வந்தாலும் அதைச் சமாளித்து இந்த வருடம் படிப்பை நீ முடித்து விடு.
• இந்த வருடப் படிப்பை முடித்து விட்டால் அடுத்த வருடம் வேலைக்குச் சென்று கொண்டே கூட நீ படித்து விடலாம்.
• எந்த சூழ்நிலை வந்தாலும் படிப்பை மட்டும் பாதியில் விட்டு விடக்கூடாது என்பதில் நீ உறுதியாக இருக்க வேண்டும்.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) ஒருவன் இருக்கிறான் கதையைச் சுருக்கி வரைக.
Answer:
முன்னுரை:
துணையின்றி வாழும் நிலை இரங்கத்தக்கது ! எப்படிப்பட்டவராக இருந்தாலும் பிறரது துணையைச் சார்ந்திருக்க வேண்டிய நிலை இருக்கிறது. எப்படிப் பட்டவருக்கும் ஒரு துணை இருக்கும் அந்தத் துணைதான் மனிதத்தின் வேருக்கு நீ’. அதில் மாதம் துளிர்க்கும்.

குப்புசாமியின் தோற்றம்:
வயது இருபத்தைந்து எலும்பும் தோலுமான உடம்பு. எண்ணெய் காணாத தலை, காடாக வளர்ந்து கிடந்தது. சட்டையும் வேஷ்டியும் ஒரே அழுக்கு. சட்டையில் ஒரு பொத்தான் கூட இல்லை கால்களைத் தொங்கப் போட்டுக்கொண்டு உட்கார்ந்திருந்த அவன் இடது கையால் அடிவயிற்றைப் பிடித்துக் கொண்டிருந்தான் காய்ந்து போன விழிகள் அவற்றில் ஒரு பயம் தன் நிலையை எண்ணிக் கூசும் ஓர் அவமானம்.

குப்புசாமியின் உறவு நிலை:
குப்புசாமிக்கு தாய், தகப்பன் கிடையாது அவனுக்கு இருந்த உறவு தங்கவேலுவின் மனைவியான அவனுடைய சித்தியும் காஞ்சிபுரத்திலேயே உள்ள தாய்மாமன் ஒருவனுந்தான்.

தங்கவேலுவின் மனநிலையும் செயலும்:
தங்கவேலுவுக்கு குப்புசாமி எதற்காக இங்கே வந்தான் என்று கேட்பது போலவும் அவன் வீட்டை விட்டு உடனே தொலைந்தால் நல்லது எனவும் நினைத்தான். ஆறாம் நாள் தங்கவேலு குப்புசாமியை சர்க்கார் ஆஸ்பத்திரியில் சேர்த்து விட கிளம்பினார். குப்புசாமிக்கு மருத்துவமணையில் ஆபரேஷனும் செய்யப்பட்டது.

வீரப்பனின் மனிதாபிமானம்:
குப்புசாமியின் நண்பன் வீரப்பன் ஒரு மேஸ்திரியிடம் சிப்பந்தியாக வேலை செய்பவன் சில நாட்கள் வருமானம் இல்லாமல் கஷ்டப்படுகிற குப்புசாமிக்கு கடன் வாங்கியாவது உதவியும் சாப்பாடும் போடுகின்ற இவன் உயிருக்கு மதிப்புக் கொடுக்கிற நல்ல ஆத்மா அவனுக்கு உதவ தன்னால் முடிந்த பணத்தையும் கடிதத்தையும் தன் ஊர்காரனிடம் கொடுத்து குப்புசாமிக்கு உதவ முயன்றுள்ளான்.

முடிவுரை:
குப்புசாமியின் உயிருக்குக் கொடுக்கும் மதிப்பைக் கண்டுதான் கொடுத்தானோ? என்று அழகிரிசாமியின் ‘ஒருவன் இருக்கிறான்’ சிறுகதையில் மனிதத்தை வெளிப்படுத்தும் கதை
மாந்தரான குப்புசாமியை ஆசிரியர் காட்டுகின்றார்.

Question 45.
(அ) குறிப்புகளைப் பயன்படுத்திக் கட்டுரை ஒன்று தருக.
முன்னுரை – பாரதத்தில் கணினியின் வளர்ச்சி – கணினியின் பயன்கள் – பிறதுறைகளில் கணினி – கல்வி நிலையிகளிலும் கணினி – முடிவுரை.
Answer:
இந்தியாவின் கணினிப் புரட்சி

முன்னுரை:
உலக நாடுகளிடையே இந்தியாவும் முன்னேற்ற மடைந்த வளர்ச்சியுற்ற நாடாக வேண்டும். இக்கனவு நனவாகுமா? இதற்குப் பாரதம் பல துறைகளிலும் நன்கு உழைக்க வேண்டும். அவற்றுள் ஒன்றுதான் கணினிப் புரட்சி. உலக நாடுகள் அனைத்தும் கணினித் துறையில் வளர்ந்த அளவிற்கு நாமும் உயர வேண்டும் என்ற எண்ணம் தான் 1984இல் கணினியைக் கொணர்ந்தோம். அன்றைய பிரதமர் திரு. ராஜீவ் காந்தி அவர்கள் கணினிக்கு முக்கியத்துவம் கொடுத்து முதலிடம் அளித்தார்.

பாரதத்தில் கணினியின் வளர்ச்சி:
முதன்முதலாக மும்பையிலுள்ள டாடா ஆய்வு மையம் தான் 1966இல் கணினியை செயல்படத் தொடங்கியது. நம் நாட்டிலுள்ள மின்னியல் கழகம் கணினிகளை வாணிக நோக்குடன் தயாரிக்கத் தொடங்கியது. மின்னியல் துறையில் ஒரு புரட்சி ஏற்பட்டது. அப்போதைய பிரதமர் திரு. ராஜீவ் காந்தி அவர்கள் இந்தியாவிற்கு நல்ல எதிர்காலம் நல்கும் என வலியுறுத்தினார். வேலையில்லாத் திண்டாட்டத்திற்கு முற்றுப் புள்ளி வைக்கும் அளவிற்கு மின்னியல் துறையை வளர்த்தார். தற்போது நல்ல அடிப்படையுடன் கணினித் துறை பல துறைகளிலும் நிலைபெற்று விட்டது.

கணினியின் பயன்கள்:
மக்கள் சபையிலும், மாநில சட்டமன்றங்களிலும் கூட கணினி பயன்படுகிறது. தேர்தல் முடிவுகளை உடனுக்குடன் அறிவிப்பதிலும், வானொலி, தொலைக்காட்சி நிகழ்ச்சிகளைத் தயாரிப்பதிலும் கணினித் தொழில் நுட்பம் அங்கம் வகிக்கிறது. எல்லா மாநிலத் தலைநகரங்களிலும், மாவட்டத் தலைநகரங்களிலும் கணினி மயமாக்கப்பட்டுவிட்டது. போர்க்கால அடிப்படையில் வங்கிகள் யாவும் கணினியை ஏற்றுக் கொண்டுவிட்டன. தேசிய மயமாக்கப்பட்ட வங்கிகளைக் கணினியைக் கொண்டு கண்காணிக்க உதவுகிறது. தேசிய காப்பீட்டுக் கழகம் பெரிய அளவில் கணினி மயமாக்கப்பட்டு விட்டது.

பிற துறைகளில் கணினி:
போக்குவரத்துத் துறையான விமான, இரயில் துறைகளில் இருக்கை முன்பதிவு செய்யவும், அவற்றைக் கட்டுப்பாட்டுக்குள் செயல்படவும் கணினி பயன்படுகிறது. குற்றவாளிகளைக் கண்டு பிடிக்கக் கூடிய முறைகள் கையாளப்படுகின்றன. மருத்துவத் துறையில் இரத்தப் பரிசோதனை, இருதய ஆய்வு, அறுவைச் சிகிச்சையிலும் கூட குறிப்பிடத்தக்க அளவில் பயன்படுத்தப்படுகிறது.

கல்வி நிலையங்களிளும் கணினி:
வணிகம், தொழில், தபால், தந்தி போன்ற பல துறைகளிலும் கணினிபுரட்சி ஏற்பட்டு விட்டது. கல்வி நிலையங்களில், பல்கலைக் கழகங்களில் கல்வி மேம்பாட்டுப் பணிகளைச் செய்து விடுகிறது. பலரும் கணினி பற்றிய கல்வி நிலையங்களைத் துவங்கி பட்டம். பட்டமேற்படிப்பு என வகைப்படுத்தி இந்தியாவில் அனைவருமே கணினி பற்றிய கல்வி நிலையங்களைத் துவங்கி பட்டம். பட்ட மேற்படிப்பு என வகைப்படுத்தி இந்தியாவில் அனைவருமே கணினி அறிவு பெற்றுத் திகழ வாய்ப்பினை ஏற்படுத்தி விட்டது. இதன்மூலம் நம்நாட்டு இளைஞர்கள் மேனாடுகளில் சென்று வேலைவாய்ப்பு பெற்று நிரம்பப் பொருளீட்டும் வாய்ப்பும் பெற்றுள்ளனர். கணினித் தொழில் நுட்பம் செய்திகளை அனுப்பவும், தொலை தூர நாடுகளிடையே தொடர்பு ஏற்படுத்தவும் பெரிதும் உதவுகிறது. கல்வி நிலையங்களில் கணினி ஒரு பாடத் திட்டமாக அமைந்துள்ளது. தற்கால இளைஞர்கள் கணினியை விரும்பிக் கற்று புரட்சி ஏற்படுத்துவதில் முனைந்துவிட்டனர்.

முடிவுரை:
கணினித்துறை, நம் நாட்டின் எதிர்காலத்தில் மிக விரைவாகவும், திறமையாகவும் செயல்படும் என்பதில் ஐயமில்லை. பாரதத்தின் தொழில் வளர்ச்சிக்கேற்ப கணினித் துறை பெருமளவில் வளர்ச்சி பெறுவது இயற்கை நியதிகளில் ஒன்றாகிவிடும்.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) குறிப்புகளைப் பயன்படுத்திக் கட்டுரை ஒன்று தருக. முன்னுரை- அயர்வு – குறைவு – தளர்வு – உயர்வு – நகர்வு – முடிவுரை.
Answer:
நூலகம் காட்டும் அறிவு
முன்னுரை:

“வாழ்க்கை என்றொரு புத்தகம்
பக்கங்கள் எத்தனை யார் அறிவார்?” – எனும்

வினாவால் வாழ்க்கையே புத்தகம்தான் என எடுத்தியம்பும் வல்லிக்கண்ணனின் பார்வை வீச்சு சிறப்புடையதாகும். வாழ்க்கையையே புத்தக நோக்கினில் பார்த்ததற்கும், வாழ்க்கையில் பள்ளிப் புத்தகம் தவிர வேறு புத்தகங்களைப் பார்த்ததேயில்லை என்பதற்கும் எத்தனை வேறுபாடு. இங்குதான் நூலகத்தை மறந்த நிலை என்பது வெளிப்படுகிறது.

அயர்வு:
அடுத்தவரைப் பற்றி பேசிப்பேசி நாட்களை ஓட்டியும், போட்டியும், வஞ்சமும் நிறைந்த உலகில் ஒரு நிமிடம் நூலகத்தை நோக்கிப் பயணத்தைத் திருப்புங்கள். அயர்வுகளைத் தீர்க்கும் அருமருந்து அங்குதான் உள்ளது. பல்வேறு அறிவியலறிஞர்களும், அறிஞர்களும் இங்கிருந்துதான் வெளிப்படுகின்றனர்.

எல்லா நூலையும் நாம் விலை கொடுத்து வாங்கிக் கற்க முடியாது. ஆனால் எல்லா நூல்களின் இருப்பிடமான நூல் நிலையம் சென்றால் அங்கிருந்து நாம் பல நூல்களைக் கற்கலாம் அல்லவா?

குறைவு:
நூலகத்தினை எவ்வாறெல்லாம் பயன்படுத்துகின்றனர் எனில், பத்திரிகை படிக்க வருபவர் சிலர்; விளையாட்டுச் செய்திகளை விருப்பமுடன் படிப்பவர் பலர்; இதழ்களில் அட்டைப் படங்களைக் காண வருபவர்கள் சிலர்; திரையுலகை தரிசிக்க வருபவர் பலர் என எண்ணற்ற முகங்களை வழி நடத்துவது இந்நூல் நிலையங்களாகும்.

நூல்களைக்கூட படித்திட வாங்கிச்சென்று, வேண்டிய பக்கங்களைக் கிழித்து எடுத்துத் திருப்பித் தருபவர் உண்டு. நூலினில் பல படங்களை வரைந்து வைத்தல், சில பெயர்களை எழுதுதல் என எண்ணற்ற சிறு செயல்கள் செய்து தமது சிறுமையை வெளிப்படுத்துபவர் உளர்.

தளர்வு:
பிறமொழி அறிவு வளர்ந்திட உதவும் நூல்கள் உதவியால், பிற மொழியாளரிடம் பேசும் அளவிற்கு தம்மை உயர்த்திக் கொண்டவர் உண்டு. மொழிகளைப் பற்றி நூல்கள் மட்டுமல்லாமல் அறிவியல், பழங்கால வரலாறுகள், கதைகள், நாவல்கள், கவிதை நூல்கள், கட்டுரைத் தொகுப்புகள், சிறு தொழில் கற்றிட உதவும் நூல்கள், சமையல் குறிப்புகள் எனப் பல்வேறு பிரிவுகளில் அமைந்து அறிவுக் களஞ்சியமாய்த் திகழ்கிறது.

உயர்வு:
நூலகங்கள் இல்லாத இடங்களில்லை. பள்ளிகள், கல்லூரிகள், பல்கலைக் கழகங்கள் முதலிய இடங்களில் உள்ளது. ஊர்கள் தோறும், மாவட்டங்கள் தோறும் நூலகங்கள் உண்டு. மாநிலத்தின் தலைமையிடத்திலும் நூலகம் உண்டு. சென்னையில் மாநில மைய நூலகமான ‘கன்னிமாரா நூலகம்’ அமைந்துள்ளது. தேவநேயப் பாவாணர் நூலகம், மறைமலையடிகள் நூலகம், சரஸ்வதி மஹால் நூலகம், தஞ்சை தமிழ் பல்கலைக்கழக நூலகம், சாது சேஷய்யா ஒரியண்டல் நூலகம், வ.உ.சி. நூலகம், கவிமணி நூலகம் என்பன போன்ற பல நூலகங்கள் மாவட்டங்கள் வாரியாக அமைக்கப்பட்டுள்ளன. தற்போது வள்ளுவரின் பெயரில் நூலகங்கள் ஏற்படுத்தப்பட்டு வருகின்றன.

நகர்வு:
நூலகங்களில் நூல்கள் பெற வேண்டுமானால், நூலக உறுப்பினராகிக் கொண்டு அதன் பிறகு நூலை எடுத்துக் கொள்ளலாம். மனிதன் அறிவுச் சுரங்கமாய் விளங்க நூலகமே முக்கியக் காரணம். பள்ளிகளில் மாணவர்கள் பேச்சுப் போட்டியில், கட்டுரைப் போட்டியில் பரிசுகளைப் பெற்றிட நூலகமும் ஒரு காரணமே.

எவரொருவர் அறிவின் பிறப்பிடமாகத் திகழ்கிறாரோ அவரைத் துன்பம் நெருங்குவதில்லை. அவரது அறிவுத் திறனால் துன்பம் வராமல் காக்கப்படுகிறது. இதையே வள்ளுவர்,

“எதிரதாக் காக்கும் அறிவினார்க்கு இல்லை
அதிர வருவதோர் நோய்” (- எனும் )

குறள் மூலம் அறிவுறுத்துகிறார். இவ்வாறு ஒருவர் அறிவின் சுடராய்த் திகழ நூலகம் மிக முக்கியமான வழிகாட்டியாகும்.

முடிவுரை:
இவ்வாறு நூலகமானது ஒரு மனிதனுக்கு அறிவு, சிந்திக்கும் ஆற்றல் வழங்குவதோடு தகுதியுடையவராய் எழச் செய்யும் அற்புத மருந்தாகும். மாணவப் பருவத்திலேயே நூலகத்தினைப் பயன்படுத்துதல் இன்றியமையாதது.

எங்கே கிளம்பி விட்டீர்கள், நூலக உறுப்பினர் ஆகத்தானே!

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 12 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
5. Question numbers 13 to 22 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 23 to 32 in Part III are of four marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 33 to 35 in Part IV are of seven marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 75

Part – I

(i) Answer all the questions. [12 × 1 = 12]
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
In a myopic eye, the image of the object is formed ________.
(a) behind the retina
(b) on the retina
(c) infront of the retina
(d) on the blind spot
Answer:
(c) infront of the retina

Question 2.
Gas laws state the relationship between ______ properties of gas.
(a) pressure
(b) volume
(c) temperature and mass
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 3.
LED stands for ________.
(a) Light Enter Diode
(b) Liquid Emitting Diode
(c) Light Emitting Diode
(d) Liquid Enter Diode
Answer:
(c) Light Emitting Diode

Question 4.
Which of the following has the smallest mass?
(a) 6.023 x 10²³ atoms of He
(b) 1 atom of He
(c) 2 g of He
(d) 1 mole atoms of He
Answer:
(b) 1 atom of He

Question 5.
________ group contains the member of halogen family.
(a) 17^th
(b) 15^th
(c) 18^th
(d) 16^th
Answer:
(a) 17^th

Question 6.
A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite amount of solvent at a given temperature is called ______.
(a) Saturated solution
(b) Unsaturated solution
(c) Super saturated solution
(d) Dilute solution
Answer:
(a) Saturated solution

Question 7.
Water which is absorbed by roots is transported to aerial parts of the plant through ________.
(a) cortex
(b) epidermis
(c) xylem
(d) phloem
Answer:
(c) xylem

Question 8.
Which type of cancer affects lymphnodes and spleen?
(a) Carcinoma
(b) Sarcoma
(c) Leukemia
(d) Lymphoma
Answer:
(d) Lymphoma

Question 9.
The process of splitting glucose molecules into pyruvic acid is called ________.
(a) Glycolysis
(b) Kreb’s cycle
(c) Electron transport chain
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Glycolysis

Question 10.
The plant which propagates with the help of its leaves is ________.
(a) Onion
(b) Neem
(c) Ginger
(d) Bryophyllum
Answer:
(d) Bryophyllum

Question 11.
Which organ acts as both exocrine gland as well as endocrine gland
(a) Pancreas
(b) Kidney
(c) Liver
(d) Lungs
Answer:
(a) Pancreas

Question 12.
All files are stored in the ________.
(a) Box
(b) Folder
(c) pai
(d) Scanner
Answer:
(b) Folder

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. (Q.No: 22 is compulsory) [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 13.
Define inertia.
Answer:
The inherent property of a body to resist any change in its state of rest or the state of uniform motion, unless it is influenced upon by an external unbalanced force, is known as ‘inertia’.

Question 14.
State Charle’s law.
Answer:
When the pressure of gas is kept constant, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to absolute temperature of the gas.
(i.e) V ∝ T, \(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant

Question 15.
Differentiate stokes line and antistokes lines.
Answer:
Stokes lines:
The lines having frequencies lower than the incident frequency is called stokes lines

Anti-stokes lines:
The lines having frequencies higher than the incident frequency are called Antistokes lines.

Question 16.
What is aqueous solution:
Answer:
The solution in which water act as a solvent is called aqueous solution. In general, ionic compounds are soluble in water and form aqueous solutions more readily than covalent compounds. E.g. Common salt in water.

Question 17.
How is ethanoic acid prepared from ethanol? Give the chemical equation?
Answer:
Ethanoic acid can be prepared by oxidation of ethanol in the presence of alkaline potassium permanganate of acidified potassium dichromate.

Question 18.
How does the leech suck blood from the host?
Answer:
The leech makes a triradiate or Y shaped incision in the skin of the host by the jaws protruded through the mouth. The blood is sucked by muscular pharynx and the salivary secretion is poured.

Question 19.
Match the following.

Answer:
(a) (ii)
(b) (iii)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i)

Question 20.
How can menstrual hygiene be maintained during menstrual days?
Answer:

• Sanitary pads should be changed regularly, to avoid infections.
• Use of warm water to clean genitals helps to get rid of menstrual cramps.
• Wearing loose clothing rather than airflow around the genitals and prevent sweating.

Question 21.
What are transgenic organisms?
Answer:
Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are known as transgenic organisms.

Question 22.
The potential difference between two conductors is 110 V. How much work is moving 10 C charge from one conductor to the other?
Answer:
Potential difference,V = 110 V
Charge, q = 10 C
Work done, W = ?
V = \(\frac{\mathrm{W}}{q} \) ∴ q × V = W
W = q × V
= 10 × 110 = 1100 J

Part – III

Answer any seven questions (Q.No: 32 is compulsory) [7 × 4 = 28]

Question 23.
(i) Differentiate mass and weight.
(ii) While catching a cricket ball the fielder lowers his hands backwards. Why?
Answer:
(i)
Mass:

• It is the quantity of matter contained in the body.
• Mass is a Scalar quantity.
• It’s Unit is kg.
• Mass of a body remains the same at any point on the earth.
• Mass can be measured using a physical balance.

Weight:

• It is the gravitational force exerted on a body due to the Earth’s gravity along.
• Weight is a Vector quantity.
• Its Unit is N.
• Weight of the body varies from one place to another place on the earth.
• Weight can be measured using a spring balance.

(ii) While catching a cricket ball the fielder lowers his hands backwards, so increase the time during which the velocity of the cricket ball decreases to zero. Therefore the impact of force on the palm of the fielder will be reduced.

Question 24.
(i) Explain the sign conventions of lenses.
Answer:

1. The object is always placed on the left side of the lens.
2. All the distances are measured from the optical centre of the lens.
3. The distances measured in the same direction as that of incident light are taken as positive.
4. The distances measured against the direction of incident light are taken as negative.
5. The distances measured upward and perpendicular to the principal axis is taken as positive.
6. The distances measured downward and perpendicular to the principal axis is taken as negative.

(ii) Define dispersion of light.
Answer:
When a beam of white light or composite light is refracted through any transparent media such as glass or water, it is split into its component colours. This phenomenon is called as ‘dispersion of light’.

Question 25.
(i) What is meant by electric current? Give its direction?
Answer:

• Electric current is often termed as ‘current’ and it is represented by the symbol ‘I’. It is defined as the rate of flow of charges in a conductor.
• The electric current represents the amount of charges flowing in any cross section of a conductor in unit time.

(ii) Name and define its unit.
Answer:
The SI unit of electric current is ampere (A). The current flowing through a conductor is said to be one ampere, when a charge of one coulomb flows across any cross-section of a conductor, in one second. Hence,
1 ampere = \(\frac{1 \text { coulomb }}{1 \text { second }}\)

(iii) Which instrument is used to measure the electric current? How should it be connected in a circuit?
Answer:

• Ammeter is used to measure the current.
• An Ammeter is connected in series with the circuit.
• The Ammeter is a low impedance device connecting it in parallel with the circuit would cause a short circuit, damaging the Ammeter or the circuit.

Question 26.
Explain how Avogadro hypothesis is used to derive the value of atomicity.
Answer:
(i) The Avogadro’s law states that “equal volumes of all gases under similar conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of molecules”.
(ii) Let us consider the reaction between hydrogen and chlorine to form hydrogen chloride gas.

(iii) According to Avogadro’s law, 1 volume of any gas is occupied by “n” number of molecules. “n” molecules + “n” molecules → “2n” molecules
If “n” = 1, then
1 molecule + 1 molecule → 2 molecules.
1/2 molecule + 1/2 molecule → 1 molecule
(iv) 1 molecule of hydrogen chloride gas is made up of 14 molecule of hydrogen and 14 molecule of chlorine.
(v) 1/2 molecule of hydrogen contains 1 atom.
So, 1 molecule of hydrogen contains 2 atoms.
So, hydrogen atomicity is 2. Similarly chlorine atomicity is also 2. So, H₂ and Cl₂ are diatomic molecules.

Question 27.
Explain the manufacture of soap.
Answer:
Manufacture of soap: KETTLE PROCESS:
This is the oldest method. But, it is still widely used in the small scale preparation of soap. There are mainly, two steps to be followed in this process.
(1) Saponification of oil:
The oil, which is used in this process, is taken in an iron tank (kettle). The alkaline solution (10%) is added into the kettle, a little in excess. The mixture is boiled by passing steam through it. The oil gets hydrolysed after several hours of boiling. This process is called Saponification.

(2) Salting out of soap:
Common salt is then added to the boiling mixture. Soap is finally precipitated in the tank. After several hours the soap rises to the top of the liquid as a ‘curdy mass’. The neat soap is taken off from the top. It is then allowed to cool down.

Question 28.
Distinguish between bipolar neuron an multipolar neuron.
Answer:

Question 29.
(i) What are okazaki segments?
(ii) Trace the pathway followed by water molecules from the time it enters a plant root to the time it escapes into the atmosphere from a leaf.
Answer:
(i) During the replication of a DNA molecule, the new strand is synthesized in short segments which are called okazaki fragments.

Question 30.
(i) Draw and label a Radial Vascular bundle.
(ii) What are the differences between dicot leaf and monocot leaf.
Answer:
(i)

(ii)

Question 31.
(a) Expand the following abbraviations.
(i) CHD (ii) BMI (iii) AIDS (iv) IDDM
(b) Name the two types of stem cells.
Answer:
(a) 1. CHD – Coronary Heart Disease
2. BMI – Body Mass Index
3. AIDS – Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
4. IDDM – Insulin Dependant Diabetes Mellitus

(b) The two types of stem cells are

1. Embryonic stem cells
2. Adult or somatic stem cells

Question 32.
(i) With an illustration, explain the method of calculation for areal expansion of an object.
Answer:

If there is an increase in the area of a solid object due to heating, then the expansion is called superficial or areal expansion.

Superficial expansion is determined in terms of coefficient of superficial expansion. The ratio of increase in area of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit area is called as coefficient of superficial expansion. Coefficient of superficial expansion is different for different materials. The SI superficial expansion unit of Coefficient of superficial expansion is K^-1

The equation relating to the change in area and the change in temperature
\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{A}}{\mathrm{A}_{0}}\) = α_AΔT
ΔA – Change in area (Final arqa – Initial area)
A₀ – Original area
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_A – Coefficient of superficial expansion

(ii) What is gram atomic mass? Given example.
Answer:
If the atomic mass of an element is expressed in grams. It is known as gram atomic mass.
Eg. Gram atomic mass of hydrogen = 1 g
Gram atomic mass of oxygen = 16 g

Part – IV

(1) Answer all the questions. [3 × 7 = 21]
(2) Each question carries seven marks.
(3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.

Question 33.
(a) (i) What is mean by reflection of sound?
Answer:
When sound waves travel in a given medium and strike the surface of another medium, it can be bounced back into the first medium is called as reflection.

(ii) Explain the refraction at the boundary of a rarer and denser medium?
Answer:
(a) Reflection in rarer medium:

• Consider a wave travelling in a solid medium striking on the interface between the solid and the air.
• The compression exerts a force F on the surface of the rarer medium.
• As a rarer medium has smaller resistance for any deformation, the surface of separation is pushed backwards.
• As the particle of the rarer medium are free to move, a rarefaction is produced at the interface. Thus, a compression is reflected as a rarefaction and the rare faction travels from right to left.

(b) Reflection in denser medium:

• A longitudinal wave travels in a medium in the form of compressions and rare fractions.
• Suppose a compression travelling in air from left to right reaches a rigid wall.
• In turn, the wall exerts an equal and opposite I reaction R = – F on the air molecules. This results in a compression near the rigid wall.
• Thus, a compression travelling towards the rigid wall is reflected back as a compression. That is the direction of compression is reversed.

(OR)

(b) (i) At what height from the centre of the earth the acceleration due to gravity will be 1/4th its value as at the earth.
Answer:
Given: Height from the centre of the Earth, R’ = R + h
The acceleration due to gravity at that height, g’ = g/4 GM


or h = R
R’ = 2R
From the centre of the Earth, the object is placed at twice the radius of the earth.

(ii) How many electrons are passing per second in a circuit in which there is a current of 5A.
Answer:
Current I = 5 A
Time t = 1 second
Charge of electron (e) = 1.6 × 10^-19 C

n = 3.125 x 10¹⁹

Question 34.
(a) (i) Calculate the number of molecules in 10 mole of H₂.
Answer:
n = 10 mole; NA= 6.023 x 10²³
Number of molecules = 10 x 6.023 x 10²³
= 6.023 x 10²⁴ H₂ molecules

(ii) Calculate the number of moles in 1 kg of CaCO₃.
Answer:

W = 1 kg = 1000 g;
M = 100 g mol^-1; n = ?
n = \(\frac{\mathrm{W}}{\mathrm{M}}=\frac{1000}{100}\) = 10 mol

(iii) Calculate the volume of 14 g of N₂ gas.
Answer:
28 g (1 mole) of N₂ gas occupies 22.4 litres
14 g of N₂ gas occupies
\(\frac{22.4}{28}\) × 14 = \(\frac{22.4}{2}\)
= 11.2 litres

(OR)

(b) (i) Derive the relationship between Relative molecular mass and Vapour density.
(ii) A hot saturated solution of copper sulphate forms crystals as it cools. Why?
Answer:
(i) (a) The Relative Molecular Mass of a gas or vapour is the ratio between the mass of one molecule of the gas or vapour to mass of one atom of Hydrogen.
(b) Vapour density is the ratio of the mass of a certain volume of a gas or vapour, to the mass of an equal volume of hydrogen, measured under the same conditions of temperature and pressure.

(c) According to Avogadro’s law, equal volumes of all gases contain equal number of molecules.
Thus, let the number of molecules in one volume = n, then

(f) By comparing the definition of relative molecular mass and vapour density we can write as follows.

(g) By substituting the relative molecular mass value in vapour density definition, we get Vapour density (V.D.) = Relative molecular mass / 2
2 × vapour density = Relative molecular mass of a gas

(ii) The capability of a solution to maintain a certain concentration of solute is temperature dependent. When a saturated solution of copper sulphate at above room temperature is allowed to cool, the solution becomes super-saturated and in the absence of stirring or the return of the previous solution temperature, the solute starts to precipitate out. i.e., crystal formation occurs.

Question 35.
(a) (i) Where are estrogens produced? What is the role of estrogens in the human body?
(ii) What is Anemophily?
(iii) What are the consequences of deforestation?
Answer:
(i) Estrogen, the female sex hormone Is produced by the Graafian follicles of the ovary.
Role of estrogen:

• It brings about the changes that occur during puberty.
• It initiates the process of oogenesis.
• It stimulates the maturation of ovarian follicles in the ovary.
• It promotes the development of secondary sexual characters (breast development and high pitched voice, etc).

(ii) Pollination with the help of wind is known as Anemophily

(iii) Consequences of deforestation:
It gives rise to ecological problems like,

• Floods
• Soil erosion
• Extinction of species
• Loss of wild life
• Desertification
• Changes in climatic condition

[OR]

(b) (i) What is Fossilization?
(ii) Describe mutation breeding with an example.
Answer:
(i) The process of formation of fossil in the rocks is called fossilization.

(ii) Mutation is defined as the sudden heritable change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA in an organism. It is the process by which genetic variation are created which inturn brings about changes in the organisms. The organism which undergoes mutation is called a mutant.

The factor which induce mutations are known as mutagens. Mutagens are of two types:

1. Physical mutagens such as X rays, α, β, γ rays, UV rays, temperature etc.
2. Chemical mutagens such as mustard gas and nitrous acids.
   The utilisation of induced mutation in crop improvement is called mutation breeding.

Achievements of mutation breeding:

• Sharbati sonora, wheat produced from sonora – 64 by using gamma rays.
• Atomita 2 rice with saline tolerance and pest resistance.
• Groundnuts with thick shells.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf History Term 3 Chapter 1 New Religious Ideas and Movements Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions History Term 3 Chapter 1 New Religious Ideas and Movements

7th Social Science Guide New Religious Ideas and Movements Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Who of the following composed songs on Krishna putting himself in the place of mother Yashoda?
a) Poigaiazhwar
b) Periyazhwar
c) Nammazhwar
d) Andal
Answer:
b) Periyazhwar

Question 2.
Who preached the Advaita philosophy?
a) Ramanujar
b) Ramananda
c) Nammazhwar
d) Adi Shankara
Answer:
d) Adi Shankara

Question 3.
Who spread the Bhakthi
a) Vallabhacharya
b) Ramanujar
c) Ramananda
d) Surdas
Answer:
c) Ramananda

Question 4.
Who made Chishti order popular in India?
a) Moinuddin Chishti
b) Suhrawardi
c) Amir Khusru
d) Nizamuddin Auliya
Answer:
a) Moinuddin Chishti

Question 5.
Who is considered their first guru by the Sikhs?
a)Lehna
b) Guru Amir Singh
c) Guru Nanak
d) Guru Gobind Singh
Answer:
c) Guru Nanak

II. Fill in the Blanks:

1. Periyazhwar was earlier known as ……………………
Answer:
Vishnu Chittar

2. ……………………is the holy book of the Sikhs.
Answer:
Guru Granth Sahib

3. Meerabai was the disciple of ……………………
Answer:
Ravidas

4. ……………………philosophy is known as vishistadvaita.
Answer: Ramanuja

5. Gurudwara Darbar Sahib is situated at. ……………………. in Pakistan.
Answer:
Kartarpur

III. Match the following:

Answer:

IV. Find out the right pair/pairs:

Question 1.
1. Andal – Srivilliputhur
2. Tukaram – Bengal
3. Chaitanyadeva – Maharashtra
4. Brahma-sutra – Vallabacharya
5. Gurudwaras – Sikhs
Answer:
1. Andal – Srivilliputhur
5. Gurudwaras – Sikhs

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : After Guru Gohind Singh, the holy book Guru Granth Sahib came to be considered the guru.
Reason (R) : Guru Gobind Singh was the compiler of Guru Granth Sahib,
a) R is not the correct explanation of A
b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct but R is wrong
d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
c) A is correct but R is wrong

Question 3.
Find the odd person out.
Poigai Azhwar, Bhoothathu Azhwar, Periazhwar, Andal, Nammazhwar.
Answer:

V. State true or false:

1. Sufism was responsible for the spread of Islamic culture.
Answer:
False

2. The best known Sufi sage of the early medieval period was Nizamuddin Auliya of the Chishti order.
Answer:
True

3. Guru Nanak is considered the first guru of Sikhs.
Answer:
True

4. Sufis believed that realization of God can be achieved only through passionate devotion to God and intense meditation.
Answer:
True

5. The basic Tamil Saivite sacred canon consists of 12 books.
Answer:
True

VI. Give short answers:

Question 1.
What do you know about Thirumurai?
Answer:

• It is the basic Tamil Saivite sacred canon.
• It consists of 12 books, and 11 of them were assembled by Nambi.
• The 12th book is Sekkizhar’s Periyapuranam.

Question 2.
How many Nayanmars were there and who were prominent among them?
Answer:

• There are 63 legendary Nayanmars.
• Among them, Gnanasampandar, Appar, and Sundarar (often called “the trio”) are worshipped as saints through their images in South Indian temples.

Question 3.
How did Gurunanak help to found Sikhism?
Answer:

• Guru Nanak nominated his disciple Lehna to succeed him as the guru.
• Following this precedent, the successors are named by the incumbent Sikh Guru.

Question 4.
What had Tukaram to do with the Vitthoba temple of Pantharpur?
Answer:

• Tukaram, a 17th-century saint-poet of Maharashtra. .
• It is devoted to Vitthoba, an avatar of Krishna.
• There is a Vitthoba/Panduranga temple at Pantharpur or Pandaripuram in the Sholapur district, Maharashtra.
• What is Chaitanya deva to Bengal is Tukaram to Maharashtra.

Question 5.
Highlight the spiritual ideas of Kabir that appealed to lower classes.
Answer:

1. As a Muslim, Kabir came under the influence of Varanasi – based Saint Ramananda.
2. He accepted some Hindu ideas and tried to reconcile Hinduism and Islam.
3. He opposed discrimination on the basis of religion, caste, and wealth.
4. Kabir believed that God is one with different names and forms.

VII. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Give an account of the contributions of exponents of the Bhakti Movement in the southern as well as northern parts of India.
Answer:
Vaishnavite Saints (12Azhwars):
Eg: Poigai Azhwar, Bhoothathu Azhwar, and Pei Azhwar.

Saivite Saints (63 Nayanmars):
There are 63 legendary Nayanmars. Among them, Gnanasampandar, Appar, and Sundarar (often called “the trio”) are worshipped as saints through their images in South Indian temples.

Adi Shankara:

• He preached the Advaita philosophy.
• Shankara enthusiastically endeavoured to restore the orthodox Vedic tradition.

Ramanuja:

• Ramanuja, a Vaishnava saint, was the most influential thinker of Vaishnavism.
• In the 16th and 17th centuries, Vaishnavism spread across India.
• He established centres to spread his doctrine of devotion, Srivaishnavism, to God Vishnu and his consort Lakshmi.

MeeraBai:
Meera Bai, the wife of the crown prince of Mewar, was an ardent devotee of Lord Krishna.

Chaitanyadeva:
Chaitanya deva popularised Krishna worship through ecstatic songs.

Tulsidas:
He is retelling of the story of Rama in Hindi.

Question 2.
What is Sufism? How did it find its footing in India?
Answer:
Sufism:

• The word Sufi takes its origin from suf, meaning wool.
• The Sufis wore coarse garments made of wool and hence they were called Sufis.

Sufism in India:

• The advent of Suf is to India dates back to the Arab conquest of Sind.
• It gained prominence in the 10th and 11th centuries during the reign of the Delhi Sultans.
• Sufism adopted many native Indian concepts such as yogic postures, music and dance.
• Sufism found adherents among both Muslims and Hindus.
• Sufis in medieval India were divided into three major orders.
• They were Chisti, suhrawardi, and Firdausi.
• Moinuddin Chishti made Chisti order popular in India.
• His resting place is in the Ajmer Sharif Dargah in Ajmer, Rajasthan.

Question 3.
What impact did the Bhakti movement make on Indian society?
Answer:
Impact of the Religious / Bhakti Movement:

• Vedic Hinduism was regenerated and thus saved from the onslaught of Islam.
• The Islamic tenets – unity of God and universal brotherhood – emphasised by the saints promoted harmony and peace.
• Bhakti was a movement of the common people; it used the language of the common people for its devotional literature.
• Bhakti movement opened up space for Indian languages to grow.
• It stimulated literary activity in regional languages.
• What sustained Sanskrit,despite its decline during this period, was the support extended by the rulers of Hindu kingdoms.
• Tamil was the only ancient Indian language remained vibrant during this period.
  Caste system and social disparities came to be criticised.

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
Examine the statement that the Bhakti movement saved Vedic Hinduism from the onslaught of Islam.
Answer:

1. The Bhakthi movement emphasize the mutual emotional attachment and love of a devotee towards a personal God and of God for the devotee.
2. The Nayanmars and the Azhwars composed devotional Lymns in the Tamil Language.
3. These poet-saints criticize caste-based social status and advocate gender equality.
4. In the religious movements of the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries in Northern India, one has to keep in mind the two very different attitudes towards Islam.

7th Social Science Guide New Religious Ideas and Movements Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
The ………….. proposed that the path of bhakti marga is superior to the two other religions.
a) Ramayanam
b) Thirukkural
c) Bhagavad Gita
d) Nanneri
Answer:
c) Bhagavad Gita

Question 2.
The Bhakti movement started in Tamil Nadu around …………. century A.D.
a) Krishna
b) Vishnu
c) Sivan
d) Bhrama
Answer:
a) Krishna

Question 3.
……………. songs were composed in Tamil and other South Indian languages such as Kannada and telugu
a) Krishna
b) Vishnu
c) Sivan
d) Bhrama
Answer:
a) Krishna

Question 4.
……………. was one and only female Azhwar.
a) Koshalai
b) Nachiyar
c) Thirumozhi
d) Andal
Answer:
d) Andal

Question 5.
There are …………… legendary Nayanmars.
a) 63
b) 73
c) 60
d) 62
Answer:
a) 63

Question 6.
Among the 12 books of Tirumurai, the book is Sekkizhar’s Periyapuranam.
a) 10th
b) 12th
c) 11th
d) 9th
Answer:
b) 12th

Question 7.
Adi Shankara masterpiece is the commentary on the
a) Bhrama thegam
b) Brahma Vishnu
c) Bhrama Sutra
d) Athavaitham
Answer:
c) Bhrama Sutra

Question 8.
………….was a popular centre for Sanskrit learning.
a) Sri rangam
b) Kanchipuram
c) Thirupathi
d) Ariyakudi
Answer:
b) Kanchipuram

Question 9.
…………..gained popularity through her bhajans.
a) Chaitanya
b) Meera Bai
c) Pandaribai
d) Surthas
Answer:
b) Meera Bai

Question 10.
Meera Bai, wife of the crown prince of
a) Thakkanam
b) Kuvaliyar
c) Mewar
d) Kaligam
Answer:
c) Mewar

II. Fill in the Blanks:

1. …………….. were of the view that this type of meditation would enable the devotee to understand the true nature of God.
Answer:
Sufis

2. …………….is based on Vishnu’s avatars, particularly Krishna and Rama.
Answer:
Vishnu-bhakti

3. Nammazhwar’s fame lies in his……………..stanza Thiruvaimozhi.
Answer:
1,102

4. The Thiruppavai and the Nachiyar Thirumozhiare are …………….. celebrated works.
Answer:
A war

5. ……………..is said to have compiled the songs of all of the Nayanmars.
Answer:
Nambi Andar Nambi

6. ……………..is a fundamental text of the Vedanta school.
Answer:
Brahma-sutra

7. …………….. center of learning were Badrinath, Puri, Dwarka, and Sringeri.
Answer:
Adi Shankara

8. …………….., Ramanajun was the most influential thinker.
Answer:
Vaishnava saint

9. Thenkalai Vaishnavism centred on ……………..
Answer:
Srirangam

10. In Tulsidas’s Hindi retelling of the story of Rama in the……………..
Answer:
Ramcharitmanas

11. Chisti, Suhrawardi, and Firdausi were the three important order of ……………..
Answer:
Sufis

12. ……………..tried to reconcile Hinduism and Islam.
Answer:
Kabir

13. The ……………..and the ……………..were collections of Kabir’s verses.
Answer:
Granthavali, Bijak

14. He visited many holy places and finally settled in ……………..near Lahore.
Answer:
Kartarpur

15. Guru Nanak preached that ……………..
Answer:
God is without form

III. Match the following:

Answer:

IV. Find out the right pair/pairs:

Question 1.
Find out the right pair/pairs.
1. Nayanmars – Vaishnava – Bhakthi
2. Azhwars – Vaishnava – Bhakthi
3. Thulasithassar – Maharastra
Answer:
1. Nayanmars – Vaishnava – Bhakthi

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Sufism: The word Sufi takes its origin from suf, meaning wool.
Reason (R): The Sufis wore course garments made of wool and hence they were called Sufis.
a) R is not the correct explanation of A
b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct but R is wrong
d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer: b) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Find the odd person out.
Vallabhacharya, Surdas, Meera Bai, Chaitanya Deva, Adi Shankarar , Nammazhwar.
Answer:

V. State true or false:

1. Kabir had trusted that Hindu and Islam are a brotherhood.
Answer:
True

2. Poigai Azhwar, Bhoothathu Azhwar, and Pei Azhwar are the three different Azhwars.
Answer:
True

3. There was no Statue Prayer in South India.
Answer:
False

4. North Indians give importance to Divya Prabhatham.
Answer:
False

5. Chaitanyadeva popularised Krishna worship.
Answer:
True

VI. Give short answers:

Question 1.
Write short notes on Andal.
Answer:

• Andal, the only female Azhwar, is another.
• Periyazhwar, who was earlier known as Vishnu Chittar, made lots of songs on Krishna putting himself in the place of mother Yashoda.
• She grew up in the temple town of Srivilliputhur and became known as Andal-she who ruled.

Question 2.
Write a note on Thenkalai and Vadakaiai.
Answer:

• Thenkalai Vaishnavism centred on Srirangam.
• Vadakaiai sect focused on Vedic literature, which is written in Sanskrit.
• The Thenkalai gave importance to Divya Prabandhams, written in Tamil.

Question 3.
Write short notes on Meera Bhai.
Answer:

• Meera Bai, the wife of the crown prince of Mewar, was an ardent devotee of Lord Krishna.
• She was a disciple of Ravidas. Meera Bai gained popularity through her bhajans.

VII. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the teaching of Guru Nanak’s
Answer:

• Guru Nanak preached that God is without form and wanted his followers to practice meditation upon the name of God for peace and ultimate salvation.
• Guru Nanak had great contempt for Vedic rituals and caste discrimination. The teachings of Guru Nanak formed the basis of Sikhism, a new religious order, founded in the late 15th century.
• His and his successors’ teachings are collected in the Guru Granth Sahib, which is the holy book of the Sikhs.
• Guru Nanak’s teachings were spread through the group singing of hymns, called kirtan.
• The devotees gathered in Dharamshala’s (rest houses), which became gurudwaras in course of time.

శ్రీ శివస్తోత్రమ్

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Guide Pdf Chapter 1 Basic Concepts of Chemistry and Chemical Calculations Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 Basic Concepts of Chemistry and Chemical Calculations

11th Chemistry Guide Basic Concepts of Chemistry and Chemical Calculations Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Textual Questions:

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
40 ml of methane is completely burnt using 80 ml of oxygen at room temperature. The volume of gas left after cooling to room temperature
(a) 40 ml CO₂
(b) 40 ml CO₂ gas and 80 ml H₂o gas
(c) 60 ml CO₂ gas and 60 ml H₂o gas
(d) 120 ml CO₂ gas
Answer:
(a) 40 ml CO₂
Solution:
CH₄(g) + 2O₂ → CO₂(g) + 2H₂O (1)

Since the product was cooled to room temperature, water exists mostly as liquid. Hence, option (a) is correct.

Question 2.
An element X has the following isotopic composition ²⁰⁰X = 90%, ¹⁹⁹X = 8% and ²⁰²X = 2%. The weighted average atomic mass of the element X is closest to
(a) 201 u
(b) 202 u
(c) 199 u
(d) 200 u
Answer:
(d) 200 u
Solution:
X = \(\frac{(200 \times 90)+(199 \times 8)+(202 \times 2)}{100}\) = 199.96 = 200 u

Question 3.
Assertion:
Two mole of glucose contains 12.044 × 10²³ molecules of glucose
Reason:
Total number of entities present in one mole of any substance is equal to 6.02 × 10²²
(a) both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d) both assertion and reason are false
Answer:
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
Solution:
Correct reason:
Total number of entities present in one mole of any substance is equal to 6.022 × 10²³.

Question 4.
Carbon forms two oxides, namely carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide. The equivalent mass of which element remains constant?
(a) Carbon
(b) Oxygen
(c) both carbon and oxygen
(d) neither carbon nor oxygen
Answer:
(b) Oxygen
Solution:
Reaction 1:
2C + O₂ → 2CO
2 × 12g carbon combines with 32g of oxygen. Hence, Equivalent mass of carbon
\(\frac{2 \times 12}{32}\) × 8 = 6
Reaction 2:
C + O₂ → CO₂
12 g carbon combines with 32 g of oxygen. Hence, Equivalent mass of carbon
= \(\frac{12}{32}\) × 8 = 6

Question 5.
The equivalent mass of a trivalent metal element is 9 g eq^-1 the molar mass of its anhydrous oxide is
(a) 102 g
(b) 27 g
(c) 270 g
(d) 78 g
Answer:
(a) 102 g
Solution:
Let the trivalent metal be M³
Equivalent mass = mass of the metal / 3 eq
9 g eq^-1 = mass of the metal / 3 eq
Mass of the metal = 27 g
Oxide formed M₂O₃ ;
Mass of the oxide = (2 × 27) + (3 × 16) = 102 g

Question 6.
The number of water molecules in a drop of water weighing 0.018 g is
(a) 6.022 × 10²⁶
(b) 6.022 × 10²³
(c) 6.022 × 10²⁰
(d) 9.9 × 10²²
Answer:
(c) 6.022 × 10²⁰
Solution:
Weight of the water drop 0.018 g
No. of moles of water in the drop = Mass of water / molar mass = 0.018/18 = 10^-3 mole
No of water molecules present in 1 mole of water = 6.022 × 10²³
No. water molecules in one drop of water(10^-3 mole)
= 6.022 × 10²³ × 10^-3
= 6.022 × 10²⁰

Question 7.
1 g of an impure sample of magnesium carbonate (containing no thermally decomposable impurities) on complete thermal decomposition gave 0.44 g of carbon dioxide gas. The percentage of impurity in the sample is
(a) 0 %
(b) 4.4 %
(c) 16 %
(d) 8.4 %
Answer:
(c) 16 %
Solution:
MgCO₃ → MgO + CO₂↑
MgCO₃:
(1 × 24) + (1 × 12) + (3 × 16) = 84 g
CO₂: (1 × 12) + (2 × 16) = 44g
100 % pure 84 g MgCO₃ on heating gives 44 g CO₂
Given that 1 g of MgCO₃ on heating gives 44 g of CO₂
Therefore, 84 g MgCO₃ sample on heating gives 36.96 g CO₂
Percentage of purity of the sample = \(\frac{100 \%}{44 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{CO}_{2}}\) × 36.96 g of CO₂ = 84 %
Percentage of impurity = 16 %

Question Question 8.
When 6.3 g of sodium bicarbonate is added to 30 g of acetic acid solution, the residual solution is found to weigh 33 g. The number of moles of carbon dioxide released in the reaction is
(a) 3
(b) 0.75
(c) 0.075
(d) 0.3
Answer:
(c) 0.075
solution:
NaHCO₃ + CH₃COOH → CH₃OONa + H₂O + CO₂
6.3 g + 30 g → 33 g + x
The amount of CO₂ released, x = 3.3 g
No. of moles of CO₂ released = 3.3/44 = 0.075 mol.

Question 9.
When 22.4 litres of H₂ (g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl₂ (g), each at 273 K at 1 atm the moles of HCl (g), formed is equal to
(a) 2 moles of HCl (g)
(b) 0.5 moles of HCl (g)
(c) 1.5 moles of HCl (g)
(d) 1 moles of HCl (g)
Answer:
(d) 1 moles of HCl (g)
Solution:
H_2(g) + Cl_2(g) → 2HCl_(g)

Amount of HCl formed = 1 mol

Question 10.
Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately strong oxidising agent. Which of the following reactions does not show oxidising behaviour?
(a) Cu + 2H₂ → CuSO₄ + SO₂ +2 H₂O
(b) C + 2 H₂SO₄ → CO₂ + 2 SO₂ +2 H₂O
(c) BaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + 2HCl
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) BaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + 2HCl
Solution:

Question 11.
Choose the disproportionation reaction among the following redox reactions.
(a) 3Mg_(s) + N_2(g) → Mg₃N_2(s)
(b) P_4(s) + 3NaOH + 3H₂O → PH_3(g) + 3NaH₂PO_2(aq)
(c) Cl_2(g) + 2KI_(aq) → 2KCl_(aq) + I_2(s)
(d) Cr₂O_3(s) + 2Al_(s) → Al₂O_3(s) + 2Cr_(s)
Answer:
b) P_4(s) + 3NaOH + 3H₂O → PH_3(g) + 3NaH₂PO_2(aq)
Solution:

Question 12.
The equivalent mass of potassium permanganate in an alkaline medium is
MnO₄ + 2H₂O + 3e → MnO₂ + 4OH^–
(a) 31.6
(b) 52.7
(c) 79
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) 52.7
Solution:
The reduction reaction of the oxidising agent (Mn0₄) involves the gain of 3 electrons.
Hence the equivalent mass = (Molar mass of KMnO₄)/3 = 158.1/3 = 52.7

Question 13.
Which one of the following represents 180g of water?
(a) 5 Moles of water
(b) 90 moles of water
(c) \(\frac{6.022 \times 10^{23}}{180}\)

(d) \(\frac{6.022 \times 10^{23}}{1.7}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{6.022 \times 10^{23}}{1.7}\)
Solution:
No. of moles of water present in 180 g = Mass of water / Molar mass of water = 180 g/18 gmol^-1 = 10 moles
One mole of water contains = 6.022 × 10²³ water molecules
10 mole of water contains = 6.022 × 10²³ × 10 × 6.022 × 10²⁴ water molecules

Question 14.
7.5 g of a gas occupies a volume of 5.6 litres at 0° C and 1 atm pressure. The gas is
(a) NO
(b ) N₂O
(c) CO
(d) CO₂
Answer:
(a) NO
Solution:
7.5 g of gas occupies a volume of 5.6 liters at 273 K and 1 atm pressure Therefore, the mass of gas that occupies a volume of 22.4 liters
= \(\frac{7.5 g}{5.61}\) × 22.41 = 30 g
Molar mass of NO (14 + 16) = 30 g

Question 15.
Total number of electrons present in 1.7 g of ammonia is
(a) 6.022 × 10²³
(b) \(\frac{6.022 \times 10^{22}}{1.7}\)
(c) \(\frac{6.022 \times 10^{24}}{1.7}\)
(d) \(\frac{6.022 \times 10^{23}}{1.7}\)
Answer:
(a) 6.022 × 10²³
Solution:
No. of electrons present in one ammonia (NH₃) molecule (7 + 3) = 10
No. of moles of ammonia = \(\frac{\text { Mass }}{\text { Molar mass }}\)
= \(\frac{1.7 \mathrm{~g}}{17 \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}}\) = 0.1 mol
= 0.1 × 6.022 × 10²³ = 6.022 × 10²²
= No. of electrons present in 0.1 mol of ammonia

Question 16.
The correct increasing order of the oxidation state of sulphur in the anions
SO₄^2-, SO₃^2-, S₂O₄^2-, S₂O₆^2- is

(a) SO₃^2- < SO₄^2- < S₂O₄^2- < S₂O₆^2-

(b) SO₄^2- < S₂O₄^2- < S₂O₆^2- < SO₃^2-

(c) S₂O₄^2- < SO₃^2- < S₂O₆^2- < SO₄^2-

(d) S₂O₆^2- < S₂O₄^2- < SO₄^2- < SO₃^2-
Answer:
(c) S₂O₄^2- < SO₃^2- < S₂O₆^2- < SO₄^2-
Solution:

Question 17.
The equivalent mass of ferrous oxalate is
(a) \(\frac{\text { molar mass of ferrous oxalate }}{1}\)

(b) \(\frac{\text { molar mass of ferrous oxalate }}{2}\)

(c) \(\frac{\text { molar mass of ferrous oxalate }}{3}\)
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{\text { molar mass of ferrous oxalate }}{3}\)
Solution:

Question 18.
If Avogadro number were changed from 6.022 × 10²³ to 6.022 × 10²⁰, this would change
(a) the ratio of chemical species to each other in a balanced equation
(b) the ratio of elements to each other in a compound
(c) the definition of mass in units of grams
(d) the mass of one mole of carbon
Answer:
(d) the mass of one mole of carbon

Question 19.
Two 22.4 liter containers A and B contains 8 g of O₂ and 8 g of SO₂ respectively at 273 K and 1 atm pressure, then
(a) Number of molecules in A and B are the same
(b) Number of molecules in B is more than that in A.
(c) The ratio between the number of molecules in A to number of molecules in B is 2 : 1
(d) Number of molecules in B is three times greater than the number of molecules in A.
Answer:
(c) The ratio between the number of molecules in A to number of molecules in B is 2 : 1
Solution:
No. of moles of oxygen = 8 g/32 g = 0.25 moles of oxygen
No. of moles of sulphur dioxide = 8 g/64 g
= 0.125 moles of sulphur dioxide
Ratio between the no. of molecules = 0.25 : 0.125 = 2 : 1

Question 20.
What is the mass of precipitate formed when 50 ml of 8.5 % solution of AgNO₃ is mixed with 100 ml of 1.865 % potassium chloride solution?
(a) 3.59 g
(b) 7 g
(c) 14 g
(d) 28 g
Answer:
(a) 3.59 g
Solution:
AgNO₃ + KCl → KNO₃ + AgCl
50 mL of 8.5 % solution contains 4.25 g of AgNO₃
No. of moles of AgNO₃ present in 50 mL of 8.5 % AgNO₃ solution
= Mass / Molar mass = 4.25 / 170 = 0.025 moles
Similarly, No of moles of KCl present in 100 mL of 1.865 % KCl solution = 1.865 / 74.5 = 0.025 moles
So total amount of AgCl formed is 0.025 moles (based on the stoichiometry)
Amount of AgCl present in 0.025 moles of AgCl
= No. of moles × molar mass = 0.025 × 143.5 = 3.59 g

Question 21.
The mass of a gas that occupies a volume of 612.5 ml at room temperature and pressure (25°C and 1 atm pressure) is 1.1 g. The molar mass of the gas is
(a) 66.25 g mol^-1
(b) 44 g mol^-1
(c) 24.5 g mol^-1
(d) 662.5 g mol^-1
Answer:
(b) 44 g mol^-1
Solution:
No. of moles of a gas that occupies a volume of 612.5 mL at room temperature and pressure (25° C and 1 atm pressure)
= 612.5 × 10^-3 L/24.5 L mol^-1
= 0.025 moles
We know that,
Molar mass = Mass / no. of moles
= 1.1 g / 0.025 mol
= 44 g mol^-1

Question 22.
Which of the following contain the same number of carbon atoms as in 6 g of carbon -12.
(a) 7.5 g ethane
(b) 8 g methane
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)
Solution:
No. of moles of carbon present in 6 g of C – 12 = Mass/Molar mass
= 6/12 = 0.5 moles
= 0.5 × 6.022 × 10²³ carbon atoms.
No. of moles in 8 g of methane
= 8/16 = 0.5 moles
= 0.5 × 6.022 × 10²³ carbon atoms.
No. of moles in 7.5 g of ethane = 7.5 / 16 = 0.25 moles
= 2 × 0.25 × 6.022 × 10²³ carbon atoms.

Question 23.
Which of the following compound(s) has/have a percentage of carbon same as that in ethylene (C₂H₄)
(a) Propene
(b) ethyne
(c) benzene
(d) ethane
Answer:
(a) Propene
Solution:
Percentage of carbon in ethylene (C₂H₄) = \(\frac{\text { mass of carbon }}{\times 100 \text { Molar mass }}\)
= \(\frac{24}{28}\) × 100 = 85.71 %
Percentage of carbon in propene (C₃H₆) = \(\frac{24}{28}\) × 100 = 85.71 %

Question 24.
Which of the following is/are true with respect to carbon -12.
(a) relative atomic mass is 12 u
(b) oxidation number of carbon is +4 in all its compounds.
(c) 1 mole of carbon-12 contains 6.022 × 10²² carbon atoms.
(d) all of these
Answer:
(a) relative atomic mass is 12 u

Question 25.
Which one of the following is used as a standard for atomic mass.
(a) ₆C¹²
(b) ₇C¹²
(c) ₆C¹³
(d) ₆C¹⁴
Answer:
(a) ₆C¹²

II. Write brief answer to the following questions:

Question 26.
Define relative atomic mass.
Answer:
Relative atomic mass is defined as the ratio of the average atomic mass factor to the unified atomic mass unit.
Relative atomic mass (A_r) = \(\frac{\text { Average mass of the atom }}{\text { Unified atomic mass }}\)

Question 27.
What do you understand by the term mole?
Answer:
The mole is defined as the amount of a substance which contains 6.023 x 10²³ particles such as atoms, molecules, or ions. It is represented by the symbol.

Question 28.
Define equivalent mass.
Answer:
Gram equivalent mass of an element, compound or ion is the mass that combines or displaces 1.008 g hydrogen or 8 g oxygen or 35.5 g chlorine. Equivalent mass has no unit but gram equivalent mass has the unit g eq-1.
Gram equivalent mass = \(\frac{\text { Molar mass }\left(\mathrm{g} \mathrm{mol}^{-1}\right)}{\text {Equivalence factor }\left(\mathrm{eq} \mathrm{mol}^{-1}\right)}\)

Question 29.
Distinguish between oxidation and reduction.
Answer:

Question 30.
What do you understand by the term oxidation number.
Answer:
Oxidation:
According to the classical concept, oxidation is a process of addition of oxygen or removal of hydrogen.
Removal of hydrogen
2H₂S + O₂ → H₂O + 2S
Addition of oxygen
C + O₂ → CO₂
According to the electronic concept, loss of electrons is called oxidation reaction.
Ca → Ca²⁺ + 2e^–
During oxidation, oxidation number increases.
Dining oxidation, reducing agent gets oxidised.

Reduction:
Reduction is a process of removal of oxygen or addition of hydrogen.
Addition of hydrogen
Ca + H₂ → CaH₂
Removal of oxygen
Zn O + C → Zn + CO
According to the electronic concept, gain of electrons is called a reduction reaction.
Zn²⁺ + 2e^– → Zn
During reduction, oxidation number decreases.
During reduction, oxidising agent gets reduced.

Question 31.
Calculate the molar mass of the following compounds.
Answer:
(i) urea [CO(NH₂)₂]:
Molar mass of urea = (4 × Atomic mass of hydrogen) + ( 1 × Atomic mass of carbon) + ( 2 × Atomic mass of nitrogen) + ( 1 × Atomic mass of oxygen)
= (4 × 1.008) +(1 × 12) + (2 × 14)+ ( 1 × 16)
= 4.032 + 12 + 28 + 16 = 60.032 g mol^-1

(ii) acetone[CH₃COCH₃]
Molar mass of Acetone = (6 × Atomic mass of hydrogen) + ( 3 × Atomic mass of carbon) + (1 × Atomic mass of oxygen) = (6 × 1.008) + (3 × 12) + ( 1 × 16)
= 6.048 + 36 + 16 = 52.024 g mol^-1.

(iii) boric acid [H₃BO₃]:
Molar mass of Boric acid = (3 × Atomic mass of hydrogen) + ( 1 × Atomic mass of boron) + ( 3 × Atomic mass of oxygen)
= (3 × 1.008) + (3 × 11) + ( 1 × 16)
= 3.024 + 33 + 16 = 52.024 g mol^-1.

(iv) sulphuric acid [H₂SO₄] = (2 × Atomic mass of hydrogen) + ( 1 × Atomic mass of sulphur) + ( 4 × Atomic mass of oxygen)
= (2 × 1.008) +(1 × 32) + (4 × 16)
= 2.016 + 32 +64 = 98.016 g mol^-1.

Question 32.
The density of carbon dioxide is equal to 1.965 kgm^-3 at 273 K and 1 atm pressure. Calculate the molar mass of CO₂.
Answer:
Given:
The density of C0₂ at 273 K and 1 atm pressure = 1.965 kgm^-3
Molar mass of CO₂ =?
At 273 K and 1 atm pressure, 1 mole of CO₂ occupies a volume of 22.4 L
Mass of 1 mole of CO₂ = \(\frac{1.965 \mathrm{Kg}}{1 \mathrm{~m}^{3}}\) × 22.4 L
= \(\frac{1.965 \times 10^{3} \mathrm{~g} \times 22.4 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~m}^{3}}{1 \mathrm{~m}^{3}}\)
= 44.01 g
Molar mass of CO₂ = 44 gmol^-1

Question 33.
Which contains the greatest number of moles of oxygen atoms.
1 mol of ethanol
1 mol of formic acid
1 mol of H₂O
Answer:

Answer: Formic acid

Question 34.
Calculate the average atomic mass of naturally occurring magnesium using the following data:

Answer:
Average atomic mass
= \(\frac{(78.9923 .99)(1024.99)(11.0125 .98)}{100}\)
= \(\frac{2430.9}{100}\)
= 24.31 u

Question 35.
In a reaction x + y + xyz. identify the Limiting reagent if any, in the following reaction mixtures.
(a) 200 atoms of x + 200 atoms of y + 50 molecules of z₂.
(b) 1 mol of x + 1 mol ofy + 3 mol of z₂.
(c) 50 atoms of x + 25 atoms of y + 50 molecules of z₂.
(d) 2.5 mol ofx + 5 mol ofy + 5 mol of z₂.
Reaction:
x + y + z₂ → xyz₂

(a) 200 atoms of x + 200 atoms of y + 50 molecules of z₂ According to the reaction, 1 atom of x reacts with one atom of y and one molecule of z to give product. In the case (a) 200 atoms of x, 200 atoms of y react with 50 molecules of z₂ (4 part) i.e. 50 molecules of z₂ react with 50 atoms of x and 50 atoms of y. Hence z is the limiting reagent.

(b) 1 mol of x + 1 mol of y + 3 mol of z₂
According to the equation 1 mole of z₂ only react with one mole of x and one mole of y. If 3 moles of z₂ are there, z is limiting reagent.

(c) 50 atoms of x + 25 atoms of y + 50 molecules of z₂
25 atoms of y react with 25 atoms of x and 25 molecules of z₂. So y is the limiting reagent.

(d) 2.5 mol of x + 5 mol of y + 5 mol of z₂
2.5 mol of x react with 2.5 mole of y and 2.5 mole of z₂. So x is the limiting reagent.

Question 36.
Mass of one atom of an element is 6.645 × 10²³ g How many moles of element are there in 0.320 kg.
Answer:

there in 0.320 kg
Given:
mass of 1 atom = 6.645 × 10^-23 g
∴ mass of 1 mole of atom = 6.645 × 10^-2323 g × 6.022 × 10²³ = 40 g
∴ Number of moles of element in 0.320 kg = \(\frac{1 \mathrm{~mol}}{40 \mathrm{~g}}\) × 0.320 kg
= \(\frac{1 \mathrm{~mol} \times 320 \mathrm{~g}}{40 \mathrm{~g}}\) = 8 mol

Question 37.
What is the difference between molecular mass and molar mass? Calculate the molecular mass and molar mass for carbon monoxide.
Answer:
Molecular mass:

• Relative molecular mass is defined as the ratio of the mass of the molecule to the unified atomic mass unit.
•  It can be calculated by adding the relative atomic masses of its constituent atoms.
• For carbon monoxide (CO) Molecular mass = Atomic mass of carbon + Atomic mass of oxygen 12 + 16 = 28 u.

Molar mass:

• It is defined as the mass of one mole of a substance.
• The molar mass of a compound is equal to the sum of the relative atomic masses of its constituent expressed in g mol-¹.
• For carbon monoxide (CO) 12 + 16 = 28 g mol^-1 Both molecular mass and molar mass are numerically the same but the units are different.

Question 38.
What is the empirical formula of the following?
(i) Fructose (C₆H₁₂O₆) found in honey
(ii) Caffeine (C₈H₁₀N₄O₂ )a substance found in tea and coffee.
Answer:

Question 39.
The reaction between aluminium and ferric oxide can generate temperatures up to 3273 K and is used in welding metals. (Atomic mass of AC = 27 u Atomic mass of O = 16 u)
2Al + Fe₂O₃ → Al₂O₃ + 2Fe; If, in this process, 324 g of aluminium is allowed to react with 1.12 kg of ferric oxide
(i) Calculate the mass of Al₂O₃ formed.
(ii) How much of the excess reagent is left at the end of the reaction?
Answer:
Given:
2Al + Fe₂O₃ → Al₂O₃ + 2Fe

Molar mass of Al₂O₃ formed = 6mol × 102 g mol^-1 = 612 g
[Al₂O₃ = (2 × 27) + (3 × 16) = 54 + 48 = 102]
Excess reagent = Fe₂O₃.
Amount of excess reagent left at the end of the reaction = 1 mol × 160 g mol^-1 = 160 g
[Fe₂O₃ = (2 × 56) + (3 × 16) = 112 + 48 = 160 g] = 160 g

Question 40.
How many moles of ethane is requircd to produce 44 g of CO₂ (g) after combustion. Balanced equation for the combustion of ethane.
Answer:
C₂H₆ + \(\frac{7}{2}\)O₂ → 2CO₂ + 3H₂O
⇒ 2C₂H₆ + 7O₂ → 4CO₂ + 6H₂O
∴ To produce 4 moles of CO₂, 2 moles of ethane is required
To produce 1 mole (44g) of CO₂ required number of moles of ethane
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) mole of ethane
= 0.5 mole of ethane

Question 41.
Hydrogen peroxide is an oxidising agent. It oxidises ferrous ion to ferric ion and reduced itself to water. Write a balanced equation.
Answer:

Question 42.
Calculate the empirical and molecular formula of a compound containing 76.6% carbon, 6.38 % hydrogen and rest oxygen its vapour density is 47.
Answer:

Empirical formula = C₆H₆O
η = Molar mass / Calculated empirical formula mass = \(\frac{2 \times \text { vapour density }}{94}\)
= \(\frac{2 \times 47}{94}\) = 1
∴ Molecular formula(C₆H₆O) × 1 = C₆H₆O

Question 43.
A Compound on analysis gave Na = 14.31% S = 9.97% H= 6.22% and 0= 69.5% calculate the molecular formula of the compound if all the hydrogen in the compound is present in combination with oxygen as water of crystallization, (molecular mass of the compound is 322).
Answer:

∴ Empirical formula = Na₂SH₂₀O₁₄
η = Molar mass / Calculated empirical formula mass
= \(\frac{322}{322}\) = 1
[Na₂SH₂₀O₁₄ = (2 × 23) + (1 × 32) + (20 × 1) + (14 × 16)
= 46 + 32 + 20 + 224 = 322]
Molecular formula = Na₂SH₂₀O₁₄
Since all the hydrogen in the compound present as water
∴ Molecular formula is Na₂SH₂₀O₁₄

Question 44.
Balance the following equations by oxidation number method
(i) K₂Cr₂O₇ + KI + H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + Cr₂(SO₄)₃ + I₂ + H₂O
Answer:

K₂Cr₂O₇ + 6KI + H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + Cr₂(SO₄)₃ + I₂ + H₂O
K₂Cr₂O₇ + 6KI + H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + Cr₂(SO₄)₃ + 3I₂ + H₂O
K₂Cr₂O₇ + 6KI + 7H₂SO₄ → 4K₂SO₄ + Cr₂(SO₄) + I₂ + 7H₂O

(ii) KMnO₄ + Na₂SO₃ → MnO₂ + Na₂SO₄ + KOH
Answer:

⇒ 2KMnO₄ + 3Na₂SO₃ → MnO₂ + Na₂SO₄ + KOH
⇒ 2KMnO₄ + 3Na₂SO₃ → 2MnO₂ + 3Na₂SO₄ + KOH
⇒ 2KMnO₄ + 3Na₂SO₃ → MnO₂ + Na₂SO₄ + 2KOH

(iii) Cu + HNO₃ → Cu(NO₃)₂ + NO₂ + H₂O
Answer:

Cu + 2HNO₃ → Cu(NO₃)₂ + NO₂ + H₂O
Cu + 2HNO₃ + 2HNO₃ → Cu(NO₃)₂ + 2NO₂ + 2H₂O
Cu + 4HNO₃ → Cu(NO₃)₂ + 2NO₂ + 2H₂O

(iv) KMnO₄ + H₂C₂O₄ + H₂SO₄ → K₂SO + MnSO₄ + CO₂ + H₂O
Answer:

KMnO₄ + 5H₂C₂O₄ + H₂SO₄ → K₂SO + MnSO₄ + CO₂ + H₂O
2KMnO₄ + 5H₂C₂O₄ + H₂SO₄ → 2MnSO₄ + 10CO₂ + H₂O
2KMnO₄ + 5H₂C₂O₄ + 3H₂SO₄ → K₂SO + 2MnSO₄ + 10CO₂ + 8H₂O

Question 45.
Balance the following equations by ion electron method.
(i) KMnO₄ + SnCl₂ + HCl → MnCl₂ SnCl₄ + H₂O + KCl
Answer:

(ii) C₂O₄^2- + Cr₂O₇^2- →
Cr³⁺ + CO₂ (in acid medium)
Answer:

(iii) Na₂S₂O₃ + I₂ → Na₂S₄O₆ + NaI ₂ (in acid medium)
Answer:
S₂O₃^2- → S₄O₆^2- ………….(1)
Half reaction ⇒ I₂ → I_– …………….(2)

(iv) Zn + NO₃^– → Zn⁺² + NO
Half reactions are

11th Chemistry Guide Basic Concepts of Chemistry and Chemical Calculations Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
_____ consists of more than one chemical entity present without any chemical interactions.
(a) Mixtures
(b) Pure substances
(c) Compounds
(d) Elements
Answer:
(a) Mixtures

Question 2.
_______ are made up of molecules which contain two or more atoms of different elements.
(a) Mixtures
(b) Compounds
(c) Pure substances
(d) Elements
Answer:
(b) Compounds

Question 3.
Match the correct pair:

(a) A – ii, B – i, C – iii
(b) A – i, B – ii, C – iii
(c) A – ii, B – iii, C – i
(d) A – iii, B – ii, C – i
Answer:
(c) A – ii, B – iii, C – i

Question 4.
_______ atom is considered as standard by the IUPAC for calculating atomic masses.
(a) C – 13
(b) C – 15
(c) C – 14
(d) C – 12
Answer:
(d) C – 12

Question 5.
The value of unified mass is equal to
(a) 1.6605 × 10^-27 kg
(b) 1.6736 × 10^-27 kg
(c) 1.6605 × 10²⁷ kg
(d) 1.6736 × 10^-29 kg
Answer:
(a) 1.6605 × 10^-27 kg

Question 6.
Chlorine consists of two naturally occurring isotopes ₁₇Cl³⁵ and ₁₇Cl³⁷ in the ratio 77 : 23. The average relative atomic mass of chlorine is
(a) 36.45 u
(b) 35.56 u
(c) 35.46 u
(d) 35.65 u
Answer:
(c) 35.46 u

Question 7.
The relative atomic masses of hydrogen, oxygen, and carbon are 1.008 u, 16 u, and 12 u respectively. The relative molecular mass of glucose (C₆ H₁₂ O₆ ) is
(a) 170.096 u
(b) 189.096 u
(c) 180.096 u
(d) 190.086 u
Answer:
(c) 180.096 u

Question 8.
The specific amount of a substance is represented in SI unit is
(a) amu
(b) mole
(c) atomic mass
(d) equivalent mass
Answer:
(b) mole

Question 9.
Commonly used medicines for treating heart bum and acidity are called
(a) antipyretics
(b) analgesics
(c) antiseptics
(d) antacids
Answer:
(d) antacids

Question 10.
The typical concentration of hydrochloric acid in gastric acid is
(a) 0.1 M
(b) 0.01 M
(c) 0.082 M
(d) 0.82 M
Answer:
(c) 0.082 M

Question 11.
Antacids used to treat acidity contain mostly
(a) Al(OH)₃
(b) Mg(OH)₂
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) Ca(OH)₂
Answer:
(c) (a) or (b)

Question 12.
The value of Avogadro number is
(a) 6.022 × 10²³
(b) 6.022 × 10²²
(e) 6.022 × 10^-25
(d) 6.022 × 10^-23
Answer:
(a) 6.022 × 10²³

Question 13.
The volume occupied by one mole of any substance in the gaseous state st 273 K and 1 atm pressure is _______ (in litres)
(a) 24.5
(b) 22.4
(e) 22.71
(d) 21.18
Answer:
(b) 22.4

Question 14.
The equivalent mass of KMnO₄(Molar mass 158 g mol ^-1 based on the equation
MnO₄ + 8H⁺ + 5e → Mn²⁺ + 4H₂O
(a) 158
(b) 52.66
(c) 31.6
(d) 40
Answer:
(c) 31.6

Question 15.
The molecular formula of acetic acid is C₂H₄O₂ Its empirical formula is
(a) C₂H₄O₂
(b) C₂H₂O
(c) CH₂O₂
(d) CH₂O
Answer:
(d) CH₂O

Question 16.
The number of moles of hydrogen required to produce 20 moles of ammonia is
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 30
(d) 20
Answer:
(c) 30

Question 17.
Which of the following is/are redox reactions?
(i) 4Fe + 3O₂ → 2Fe₂O₃
(ii) H₂S + Cl₂ → 2HCl + S
(iii) CuO + C → Cu + CO
(iv) S +H₂ → H₂S
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Question 18.
The oxidation number of sulphur on H₂SO₄ is
(a) -2
(b) -6
(c) +2
(d) +6
Answer:
(d) +6

Question 19.
Choose the correct pair:

(a) A – i, B – iv, C- iii, D – ii
(b) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii
(c) A – i, B – ii, C – iv, D – iii
(d) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii
Answer:
(b) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii

Question 20.
The change in the oxidation number of Manganese in the following reaction 2 KMnO₄ + 10 FeSO₄ + 8 H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + 5 Fe₂(SO₄)₃ + 8 H₂O
(a) +2 to +7
(b) +2 to +5
(c) +7 to +2
(d) +5 to +2
Answer:
(c) +7 to +2

Question 21.
Which of the following statements are correct about oxidation?
(i) Removal of oxygen
(ii) Addition of hydrogen
(iii) Loss of electron
(iv) Gain of electron
(v) Addition of oxygen
(vi) Removal of hydrogen
(a) i, ii, iv
(b) iii, v, vi
(c) i, iii, v
(d) iii, iv, v
Answer:
(b) iii, v, vi

Question 22.
Choose the correct oxidation number of oxygen in the following compounds.

(a) A -iii, B- iv, C – i, D – ii.
(b) A – iv, B – i, C – iii, D – ii
(c) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii
(d) A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D – ii
Answer:
(c) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii

Question 23.
The correct order of electron releasing tendency of the following elements is
(a) Zn > Cu > Ag
(b) Cu > Zn > Ag
(c) Ag > Zn > Cu
(d) Ag > Cu > Zn
Answer:
(a) Zn > Cu > Ag

Question 24.
H₂O₂ → 2 H₂O + O₂ is a
(a) Displacement reaction
(b) Combinationreaction
(c) Decomposition reaction
(d) Disproportionate reaction
Answer:
(d) Disproportionate reaction

Question 25.
The molar mass and empirical formula mass of a compound are 78 and 13 respectively. The molecular formula of the compound is (Empirical formula is CH)
(a) C₂H₂O₂
(b) C₂H₄
(c) C₆H₆
(d) C₃H₈
Answer:
(c) C₆H₆

II. Very Short Question and Answers (2 Marks):

Question 1.
State Avogadro’s Hypothesis.
Answer:
It states that ‘Equal volume of all gases under the same conditions of temperature and pressure contain the same number of molecules’.

Question 2.
How is matter classified physically?
Answer:
Matter can be classified as solids, liquids, and gases based on their physical state. The physical state of matter can be converted into one another by modifying the temperature and pressure suitably.

Question 3.
How is matter classified chemically?
Answer:
Matter can be classified into mixtures and pure substances based on chemical compositions.

Question 4.
Calculate a number of moles of carbon atoms ¡n three moles of ethane.
Answer:
Ethane – Molecular formula = C₂H₆
1 mole of ethane contains 2 atoms of carbon (6.023 x 10²³ C)
∴ 3 moles of ethane contains 6 atoms of Carbon.
∴ No. of moles of Carbon atoms = 3 x 6.023 x 10²³ Carbon atoms.
= 18.069 x 10²³ Carbon atoms.

Question 5.
What are pure substances? How are they classified?
Answer:
Pure substances are composed of simple atoms or molecules. They are further classified as elements and compounds.

Question 6.
Mass of one atom of an element ¡s 6.66 x 10²³ g. How many moles of the element are there in 0.320 kg?
Answer:
Mass of one atom of an element = 6.66 x 10²³g
No. of moles = \(\frac {Mass}{Molecular mass}\) 3
Molecular mass = Mass of 1 atom x Avogadro number
6.66 x 10²³ x 6.023 x 10²³
= 6.66 x 6.023 = 40.11318
Number of moles = \(\frac {Mass}{Molecular mass}\) = \(\frac{0.320 \mathrm{kg} \times 10^{3}}{40}\) = 8 moles.

Question 7.
What are compounds? Give examples.
Answer:
Compounds are made up of molecules which contain two or more atoms of different elements.
Example: Carbon dioxide (CO₂), Sodium Chloride (NaCl).

Question 8.
Calculate the weight of 0.2 moles of sodium carbonate.
Answer:
Sodium carbonate = Na₂CO₃
Molecular mass of Na₂CO₃ = (23 x 2)+(12 x 1)+(16 x 3)
= 46 + 12 + 48 = 106 g
Mass of 1 mole of Na₂CO₃ = \(\frac{106 \times 0.2}{1}\) = 21.2 g

Question 9.
Define relative atomic mass.
Answer:
The relative atomic mass is defined as the ratio of the average atomic mass factor to the unified atomic mass unit.
Relative atomic mass
(A_r) = Average mass of the atom / Unified atomic mass

Question 10.
What is the average atomic mass?
Answer:
Average atomic mass is defined as the average of the atomic masses of all atoms in their naturally occurring isotopes.

Question 11.
Calculate the equivalent mass of barium hydroxide.
Answer:
Barium hydroxide = Ba(OH)₂
Molecular mass of Ba(OH)₂ = 137 + (16 x 2) + (1 x 2) = 171.0 g / mol.
Acidity = 2
Equivalent mass of Ba(OH)₂ = \(\frac {17 1.0}{2}\) = 85.5

Question 12.
What is a mole?
Answer:
One mole is the amount of substance of a system, which contains as many elementary particles as there are atoms in 12 g of carbon – 12 isotope. The elementary particles can be molecules, atoms, ions, electrons or any other specified particles.

Question 13.
What do you understand by the terms empirical formula and molecular formula?
Answer:
Empirical Formula:

• It is the simplest formula.
• It shows the ratio of the number of atoms of different elements in one molecule of the compound.

Molecular Formula:

• It is the actual formula.
• It shows the actual number of different types of atoms present in one molecule of the compound.

Question 14.
What is Avogadro’s number?
Answer:
The total number of entities present in one mole of any substance is equal to 6.022 × 10²³. This number is called the Avogadro number.

Question 15.
State Avogadro hypothesis.
Answer:
Equal volume of all gases under the same conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of molecules.

Question 16.
Calculate the mass of sodium (in kg) present in 95 kg of a crude sample of sodium nitrate whose percentage purity is 70%.
Answer:
Sodium Nitrate = NaNO₃
Molecular mass of Sodium Nitrate = 23 + 14 + 48 = 85
100% pure 85 g of NaNO₃ contains 23 g of Sodium.
100% pure 95 x 103 g of NaNO₃ will contains \(\frac {23}{85}\) x 95 x 10³
= 25.70 x 10³ g of Sodium.
100% pure NaNO₃  contains 25.70 x 10³ g of Sodium.
∴ 70% pure NaNO₃  will contains = 17990 g (or) 17.99 Kg of Na.

Question 17.
Define molar volume.
Answer:
The volume occupied by one mole of any substance in the gaseous state at a given temperature and pressure is called molar volume.

Question 18.
What is gram equivalent mass?
Answer:
Gram equivalent mass of an element, compound or ion is the mass that combines or displaces 1.008 g hydrogen or 8 g oxygen or 35.5 g chlorine.
Gram equivalent mass = (Molar mass(g mol^-1)) / Equivalence factor (eq mol^-1)

Question 19.
What is meant by Plasma state? Give an example.
Answer:
The gaseous state of matter at a very high temperature containing gaseous ions and free-electron is referred to as the Plasma state. e.g. Lightning.

Question 20.
What is the acidity of a base? Give an example.
Answer:
The acidity of a base is the number of moles of ionizable OH- ions present in 1 mole of the base. The acidity of potassium hydroxide (KOH) is 1.

Question 21.
What is empirical formula ola compound?
Answer:
The empirical formula of a compound is the formula written with the simplest ratio of the number of different atoms present in one molecule of the compound as a subscript to the atomic symbol.

Question 22.
Chlorine has a fractional average atomic mass. Justify this statement.
Answer:
Chlorine molecule has two isotopes as in ₁₇Cl³⁵, ₁₇ Cl³⁷ in the ratio of 77 : 23, so when we are calculating the average atomic mass, it becomes fractional.
The average relative atomic mass of Chlorine = \(\frac {(35 x 77) + (37 x 23)}{100}\) = 35.46 amu

Question 23.
What is meant by Stoichiometry?
Answer:
Stoichiometry is the quantitative relationship between reactants and products in a balanced chemical equation in moles. The quantity of reactants and products can be expressed in moles or in terms of mass unit or as volume.

Question 24.
What are limiting and excess reagents?
Answer:
When a reaction is carried out using non-stoichiometric quantifies of the reactants, the product yield will be determined by the reactant that is completely consumed and is called the limiting reagent. It limits the further reaction to take place. The other reagent which is in excess is called the excess reagent.

Question 25.
Define Avogadro Number.
Answer:
Avogadro number is the number of atoms present in one mole of an element or number of molecules present in one mole of a compound. The value of Avogadro number (N) = 6.023 x 10²³

Question 26.
Define oxidation number.
Answer:
The oxidation number is defined as the imaginary charge left on the atom when all other atoms of the compound have been removed in their usual oxidation states that are assigned according to a set of rules.

Question 27.
Calculate the equivalent mass of Copper. (Atomic mass of copper = 63.5)
Answer:
Equivalent mass = \(\frac {Atomic mass}{Valency}\)
Equivalent mass of Copper = \(\frac {63.5}{2}\) = 31.75 g eq^-1.

Question 28.
Mention the types of redox reactions?
Answer:
The types of redox reactions are combination reaction, decomposition reaction, displacement reaction, disproportionate reaction and competitive electron transfer reactions.

III. Short Question and Answers (3 Marks):

Question 1.
Describe the chemical classification of matter.
Answer:
Matter can be classified into mixtures and pure substances based on chemical compositions. Mixtures consists of more than one chemical entity present without any chemical interactions. They can be further classified as homogeneous or heterogeneous mixtures based on their physical appearance. Pure substances are composed of simple atoms or molecules. They are further classified as elements and compounds.

Question 2.
Distinguish between element and compound.
Answer:
An element consists of only one type of atom. Element can exists as monoatomic or polyatomic units. The polyatomic elements are called molecules.
Example: Monoatomic unit – Gold (Au), Copper (Cu);
Polyatomic unit: Hydrogen (H₂), Phosphorous (P₄).

Compounds are made up of molecules which contain two or more atoms of different elements.
Example: Carbon dioxide (CO₂), Glucose (C₆ H₁₂ O₆)

Properties of compounds are different from those of their constituent elements. For example, sodium is a shiny metal, and chlorine is an irritating gas. But the compound formed from these two elements, sodium chloride shows different characteristics as it is crystalline solid, vital for biological functions.

Question 3.
What is average atomic mass? How is average atomic mass of chlorine calculated?
Answer:
Average atomic mass is defined as the average of the atomic masses of all atoms in their naturally occurring isotopes. Chlorine consists of two naturally occurring isotopes ₁₇Cl³⁷ and ₁₇Cl³⁵ in the ratio 77 : 23, the average relative atomic mass of chlorine is
= ((35 × 77) + (37 × 23)) / 100
= 35.46 u

Question 4.
What will be the mass of one ¹²C atom in g?
Answer:
Molar mass of ¹²C = 12.00 g mol^-1.
∴ Mass of 6.023 x 10²³ carbon atom = 12.0 g
∴ Mass of 1 carbon atom = \(\frac{12}{6.023 \times 10^{23}}\) = 1.992 x 10 g.

Question 5.
Discuss the role of antacids.
Answer:
Gastric acid is a digestive fluid formed in the stomach and it contains hydrochloric acid. The typical concentration of the acid in gastric acid is 0.082 M. When the concentration exceeds 0.1M it causes heartburn and acidity. Antacids used to treat acidity contain mostly magnesium hydroxide or aluminium hydroxide that neutralizes the excess acid. The chemical reactions are as follows.

3 HCl + Al(OH)₃ → AlCl₃ + 3H₂O
2HCl + Mg(OH)₂ → MgCl₂ + 2H₂O.

From the above reactions, we know that 1 mole of aluminium hydroxide neutralizes 3 moles of HCl while 1 mole of magnesium hydroxide neutralizes 2 moles of HCl.

Question 6.
Explain gram equivalent mass.
Answer:
Gram equivalent mass of an element, compound, or ion is the mass that combines or displaces 1.008 g hydrogen or 8 g oxygen or 35.5 g chlorine.
Consider the following reaction:
Zn + H₂ SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂
In this reaction, 1 mole of zinc (65.38 g) displaces one mole of hydrogen molecule (2.016 g). Mass of zinc required to displace 1.008 g hydrogen is
= \(\frac{65.38}{2.016}\) × 1.008
= \(\frac{65.38}{2}\)
= 32.69
The equivalent mass of zinc = 32.69
The gram equivalent mass of zinc = 32.69 g eq^-1.
The expression used to calculate gram equivalent mass is
Gram equivalent mass = Molar mass(g mol^-1) / Equivalence factor (eq mol^-1)

Question 7.
Calculate the gram equivalent mass of sulphuric acid.
Answer:
Basicity of sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄) = 2eq mol^-1
Molar mass of H₂SO₄ = (2 × 1) +(1 × 32) +(4 × 16) = 56 g mol^-1
Gram equivalent mass of H₂SO₄ = \(\frac{98}{2}\)
= 49 g eq^-1

Question 8.
Calculate the gram equivalent mass of potassium hydroxide.
Answer:
Acidity of potassium hydroxide (KOH) = 1 eq mol^-1
Molar mass of KOH = (1 × 39) + (1 × 16) + (1 × 1) = 56 g mol^-1
Gram equivalent mass of KOH = \(\frac{56}{1}\) = 56 g eq^-1.

Question 9.
Calculate the gram equivalent mass of Potassium permanganate.
Answer:
Potassium permanganate is an oxidizing agent. Molar mass of
KMnO₄ = (1 × 39)+ (1 × 55)+ (4 × 16)
= 158 g mol^-1

In an acidic medium, permanganate is reduced during oxidation and is given by the following equation,
MnO₄^– + 8H⁺ + 5e → Mn² + 4H₂O
Therefore, n = 5.
Gram equivalent mass of KMnO₄ = \(\frac{158}{5}\) = 31.6 g mol^-1

Question 10.
An acid found in tamarind on analysis shows the following percentage composition: 32 % Carbon; 4 % Hydrogen; 64 % Oxygen. Find the empirical formula of the compound.
Answer:

The ratio of C : H : O is 2 : 3 : 3 and hence, the empirical formula of the compound is CH₂O

Question 11.
An organic compound present in vinegar has 40 % Carbon, 6.6 % Hydrogen: and 53.4 % Oxygen. Find the empirical formula of the compound.
Answer:

The ratio of C: H : O is 1 : 2 : 1 and hence, the empirical formula of the compound is CH₂O.

Question 12.
How much copper can be obtained from 100 g of anhydrous copper sulphate?
Answer:
Anhydrous copper sulphate = CuSO₄
Molecular mass of CuSO₄ = 63.5 + 32 + (16 x 4)
= 63.5 + 32 + 64
= 159.5 g
159.5 g of CuSO₄ contains 63.5 g of copper.
∴ 100 g of CuSO₄ contains \(\frac{6.35}{159.5}\) x 100 = 0.39811 x 100 = 39.81 g of Copper.

Question 13.
Explain the classical concept of oxidation and reduction.
Answer:
According to classical concept, the addition of oxygen or removal of hydrogen is called oxidation.
Consider the following reactions,
4Fe + 3O₂ → 2Fe₂O₃
H₂S +Cl₂ → 2 HCl + S

In the first reaction, which is responsible for the rusting of iron, the oxygen adds on to the metal, iron. In the second reaction, hydrogen is removed from Hydrogen sulphide.
According to classical concept, addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen is called reduction.
Consider the following reactions,
CuO + C → Cu + CO
S + H₂ → H₂S
In the first reaction, oxygen is removed from cupric oxide and in the second reaction, hydrogen is added to sulphur.

Question 14.
Describe the electron concept of oxidation and reduction.
Answer:
The reaction involving loss of electron is termed as oxidation and gain of electron is termed as reduction.
Fe²⁺ → Fe³⁺ + e^– (loss of electron – oxidation)
Cu²⁺ + 2e^– → Cu ( gain of electron – reduction)

Question 15.
Describe the oxidation number concept of oxidation and reduction.
Answer:
During redox reactions, the oxidation number of elements changes. A reaction in which oxidation number of the element increases is called oxidation whereas the oxidation number of the element 3 decreases is called reduction.

In this reaction, manganese in potassium permanganate favours the oxidation of ferrous sulphate into ferric sulphate by gets reduced.

Question 16.
Write notes on displacement reaction.
Answer:
Redox reactions in which an ion or an atom in a compound is replaced by an ion or an atom of another element are called displacement reactions. They are further classified into
(i) metal displacement reactions
(ii) non-metal displacement reactions.

(i) Metal displacement reactions:
Place a zinc metal strip in an aqueous copper sulfate solution taken in a beaker. The intensity of blue colour of the solution slowly reduced and finally disappeared. The zinc metal strip became coated with brownish metallic copper. This is due to the following metal displacement reaction.
CuSO₄(aq)+ Zn(s) → Cu + ZnSO₄.

(ii) Non-metal displacement reaction:
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂

IV. Long Question and Answers:

Question 1.
What is a matter? Explain its classification.
Answer:
Matter is defined as anything that has mass and occupies space. All matter is composed of atoms.

Physical Classification:
Matter can be classified as solids, liquids and gases based on their physical state. The physical state of matter can be converted into one another by modifying the temperature and pressure suitably.

Chemical Classification:

Classification of Matter

Matter can be classified into mixtures and pure substances based on chemical compositions. Mixtures consists of more than one chemical entity present without any chemical interactions. They can be further classified as homogeneous or heterogeneous mixtures based on their physical appearance. Pure substances are composed of simple atoms or molecules. They are further classified as elements and compounds.

An element consists of only one type of atom. Element can exists as monoatomic or polyatomic units. The polyatomic elements are called molecules.
Example: Monoatomic unit – Gold (Au), Copper (Cu);
Polyatomic unit: Hydrogen (H₂), Phosphorous (P₄).

Compounds are made up of molecules which contain two or more atoms of different elements.
Example: Carbon dioxide (CO₂), Glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆)
Properties of compounds are different from those of their constituent elements. For example, sodium is a shiny metal, and chlorine is an irritating gas. But the compound formed from these two elements, sodium chloride shows different characteristics as it is a crystalline solid, vital for biological function.

Question 2.
How is empirical formula of a compound determined from the elemental analysis?
Answer:
The empirical formula of a compound determined from the elemental analysis by the following steps.
(i) Since the composition is expressed in percentage, we can consider the total mass of the compound as 100 g and the percentage values of individual elements as a mass in grams.
(ii) Divide the mass of each element by its atomic mass. This gives the relative number of moles of various elements in the compound.
(iii) Divide the value of a relative number of moles obtained in the step – (ii) by the smallest number of them to get the simplest ratio.
(iv) In case the simplest ratios obtained in step – (iii) are not whole numbers then they may be converted into the whole numbers by multiplying a suitable smallest number.

Question 3.
An organic compound present in vinegar has 40% carbon, 6.6 % hydrogen, and 53.4 % oxygen, Find the empirical formula and molecular formula of the compound. (Given, Molar mass: 60 g mol^-1).
Answer:

The ratio of C: H : O is 1 : 2 : 1 and hence, the empirical formula of the compound is CH₂O.
Empirical Formula mass = (1 × 12 + 1 × 2 + 1 × 16) = 12 + 2 + 16 = 30.
Whole number η =  Molar mass / Empirical formula mas = \(\frac{60}{30}\) = 2
Therefore, Molecular formula = (CH₂O)₂ = C₂H₄O₂

Question 4.
An organic compound present in vinegar has 40% carbon, 6.6 % hydrogen, and 53.4 % oxygen, Find the empirical formula and molecular formula of the compound. (Given, Molar mass: 90 g mol^-1).
Answer:

The ratio of C : H : O is 1 : 2 : 1 and hence, the empirical formula of the compound is CH₂O.
Empirical Formula mass = (1 × 12 + 1 × 2 × 16) = 12 + 2 + 16 = 30.
Whole number, n = \(\frac{\text { Molar mass }}{\text { Empirical formula mass }}\)
= \(\frac{90}{30}\) = 3
Therefore, Molecular formula = (CH₂O)₃ = C₃H₆O₃

Question 5.
What is a redox reaction? Explain the different concepts of redox reaction.
Answer:
The reaction involving loss of electron is oxidation and gain of electron is reduction. Both these reactions take place simultaneously and are called as redox reactions.

Classical concept of oxidation and reduction:
According to classical concept, addition of oxygen or removal of hydrogen is called oxidation.
Consider the following reactions,

4Fe + 3O₂ → 2Fe₂O₃
H₂S + Cl₂ → 2HCl + S

In the first reaction, which is responsible for the rusting of iron, the oxygen adds on to the metal, iron. In the second reaction, hydrogen is removed from Hydrogen sulphide.
According to classical concept, addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen is called reduction.
Consider the following reactions,
CuO + C → Cu + CO
S + H₂ → H₂S

In the first reaction, oxygen is removed from cupric oxide, and in the second reaction, hydrogen is added to sulphur.

Electron concept of oxidation and reduction.
The reaction involving loss of electron is termed as oxidation and gain of an electron is termed as reduction.
Fe²⁺ → Fe³⁺ + e^– (loss of electron – oxidation)
Cu²⁺ + 2e^– → Cu (gain of electron – reduction)

Oxidation number concept of oxidation and reduction:
During redox reactions, the oxidation number of elements changes. A reaction in which oxidation number of the element increases is called oxidation whereas the oxidation number of the element decreases is called reduction.

In this reaction, manganese in potassium permanganate favours the oxidation of ferrous sulphate into ferric sulphate by gets reduced.

Question 6.
What is an oxidation number? State the rules to find the oxidation number.
Answer:
Oxidation number is defined as the imaginary charge left on the atom when all other atoms of the compound have been removed in their usual oxidation states that are assigned according to set of rules. A term that is often used interchangeably with oxidation number is oxidation state.

1. The oxidation state of a free element (i.e., uncombined state) is zero.
   Example: H₂ Cl₂, Na, and S8 have the oxidation number of zero.
2. For a monoatomic ion, the oxidation state is equal to the net charge on the ion.
   Example: The oxidation number of sodium in Na⁺ is +1.
   The oxidation number of chlorine in Cl^– is -1.
3. The algebraic sum of oxidation states of all atoms in a molecule is equal to zero, while in ions, it is equal to the net charge on the ion.
   Example: In H₂SO₄, 2 × (oxidation number of hydrogen) + 1 × (oxidation number of sulphur) + 4 × (oxidation number of oxygen) = 0.
4. Hydrogen has an oxidation number of +1 in all its compounds except in metal hydrides where it has -1 value.
   Example: Oxidation number of hydrogen in hydrogen chloride (HCl) is + 1.
   Oxidation number of hydrogen in sodium hydride (NaH) is -1.
5. Fluorine has an oxidation state of -1 in all its compounds.
6. The oxidation state of oxygen in most compounds is -2. Exceptions are peroxides, superoxides, and compounds with fluorine.
   Example: Oxidation number of oxygen
   (i) in water is -2,
   (ii) in hydrogen peroxide is -1,
   (iii) in superoxides such as KO₂ is 4, and
   (iv) in oxygen difluoride (OF₂) is +2.
7. Alkali metals have an oxidation state of +1 and alkaline earth metals have an oxidation state of +2 in all their compounds.

Question 7.
Balance the following chemical equation by oxidation number method.
KMnO₄ + FeSO₄ + H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + Fe(SO₄)₃ + 8H₂O
Answer:
Using oxidation number concept, the reactants which undergoes oxidation and reduction are as follows:

The oxidation number of Mn in KMnO₄ changes from +7 to +2 by gaining five electrons and the oxidation number of Fe FeSO₄ changes from +2 to +3 by loosing one electron.
Since the total number of electrons lost is equal to the total number of electrons gained, the number of electrons, by cross multiplication of the respective formula with suitable integers on reactant side.

Based on the reactant side, the products are balanced.

2KMnO₄ + 10 FeSO₄ + H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + MnSO₄ + Fe( SO₄)₃ + H₂O

Balance the other elements except H and O atoms. K and S are balanced as follows

2KMnO₄ + 10 FeSO₄ + H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + MnSO₄ + Fe( SO₄)₃ + H₂O
The difference of 8 – S atoms in reactant side, has to be balanced by multiplying H₂SO₄ by ‘8’. The equation now becomes,

2KMnO₄ + 10 FeSO₄ + 8 H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + MnSO₄ + Fe( SO₄)₃ + H₂O

‘H’ and ‘O’ atoms are balanced by multiplying H₂O molecules in the product side by ‘8’.

2KMnO₄ + 10 FeSO₄ + 8 H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + 2 MnSO₄ + 5 Fe( SO₄)₃ + 8 H₂O
The above equation is a balanced equation.

Question 8.
How is the following equation ¡s balanced by Ion electron method?
MnO₄^– + Fe²⁺ + H⁺ → Mn²⁺ + Fe³⁺ + H₂O.
Answer:
Using the oxidation number concept, the reactants which undergoes oxidation and reduction are as follows;

The two half reactions are,
Fe²⁺ → Fe³⁺ + 1e ……….(1)
MnO₄^– + 5e + 8H⁺ → Mn²⁺ + 4H₂O ……….(2)
Balancing the atoms and charges on both sides of the half reactions.
There is no change in the equation (1) whereas in equation (2), there are four ‘O’ atoms on the reractant side .
Therefore, four H₂ is added on the product side, to balance ‘H’ – add, 8 H+ in the reactant side.
MnO₄^– + 5e + 8H⁺ → Mn²⁺ + 4H₂O ………..(3)
The two half reactions are equated in such a way that the number of electrons lost is equal to number of electrons gained.
Adding the two half reactions as follows:
(1) × 5 5 Fe²⁺ → 5 Fe³⁺ + 5e ……………(4)
(3) × 1 MnO₄^– + 5e + 8H⁺ → Mn²⁺ + 4H₂O ………(5)

(4) + (5)
MnO₄^– + 5Fe²⁺ + 8H⁺ → Mn²⁺ + 5 Fe³⁺ + 4H₂O ………..(6)
The equation (6) is a balanced equation.

Question 9.
Calculate the percentage composition of the elements present in lead nitrate. How many Kg of 02 can be obtained from 50 kg of 70% pure lead nitrate?
Answer:
Lead nitrate = Pb (NO₃)₂
Molecular mass of lead nitrate = 207 + (14 x 2) + (16 x 6)
= 207 + 28 + 96 = 331 g / mol.
331 g of lead nitrate contains 96 g of oxygen.
∴ 50 x 10³ g of lead nitrate will contain \(\frac {96}{331}\) x 50 x 10³
= 14501.5 g
= 14.501 Kg of oxygen.
100 % pure lead nitrate contains 14.501 Kg of oxygen.
70 % pure lead nitrate will contain = \(\frac {14.501}{100}\) x 70 = 10.15 Kg of oxygen.
.’. 70 % pure lead nitrate will contain 10.15 Kg of oxygen.

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Market Structure and Pricing Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
In which of the following is not a type of market structure Price will be very high?
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Duopoly
(d) Oligopoly
Answer:
(b) Monopoly

Question 2.
Equilibrium condition of a firm is ______
(a) MC = MR
(b) MC > MR
(c) MC < MR
(d) MR = Price
Answer:
(a) MC = MR

Question 3.
Which of the following is a feature of monopolistic competition?
(a) One seller
(b) Few sellers
(c) Product differentiation
(d) No entry
Answer:
(c) Product differentiation

Question 4.
A firm under monopoly can earn ______ in the short run.
(a) Normal profit
(b) Loss
(c) Supernormal profit
(d) More loss
Answer:
(c) Supernormal profit

Question 5.
There is no excess capacity under ……………………..
(a) Monopoly
(b) Monopolistic competition
(c) Oligopoly
(d) Perfect competition
Answer:
(d) Perfect competition

Question 6.
Profit of a firm is obtained when ______
(a) TR < TC
(b) TR – MC
(c) TR >TC
(d) TR = TC
Answer:
(c) TR > TC

Question 7.
Another name of the price is …………………..
(a) Average Revenue
(b) Marginal Revenue
(c) Total Revenue
(d) Average Cost
Answer:
(a) Average Revenue

Question 8.
In which type of market, AR and MR are equal ______
(a) Duopoly
(b) Perfect competition
(c) Monopolistic competition
(d) Oligopoly
Answer:
(b) Perfect competition

Question 9.
In a monopoly, the MR curve lies below …………………….
(a) TR
(b) MC
(c) AR
(d) AC
Answer:
(c) AR

Question 10.
Perfect competition assumes ______
(a) Luxury goods
(b) Producer goods
(c) Differentiated goods
(d) Homogeneous goods
Answer:
(d) Homogeneous goods

Question 11.
Group equilibrium is analysed in ……………………
(a) Monopolistic competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Duopoly
(d) Pure competition
Answer:
(a) Monopolistic competition

Question 12.
In monopolistic competition, the essential feature is ______
(a) Same product
(b) selling cost
(c) Single seller
(d) Single buyer
Answer:
(b) selling cost

Question 13.
Monopolistic competition is a form of ……………………
(a) Oligopoly
(b) Duopoly
(c) Imperfect competition
(d) Monopoly
Answer:
(c) Imperfect competition

Question 14.
Price leadership is the attribute of ______
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Oligopoly
(d) Monopolistic competition
Answer:
(c) Oligopoly

Question 15.
Price discrimination will always lead to ……………………
(a) Increase in output
(b) Increase in profit
(c) Different prices
(d) (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) (b) and (c)

Question 16.
curve under monopolistic competition will be ______
(a) Perfectly inelastic
(b) Perfectly elastic
(c) Relaively elastic
(d) Unitary elastic
Answer:
(c) Relaively elastic

Question 17.
Under perfect competition, the shape of demand curve of firm is …………………
(a) Vertical
(b) Horizontal
(c) Negatively sloped
(d) Positively sloped
Answer:
(b) Horizontal

Question 18.
In which market form, does absence of competition prevail?
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Duopoly
(d) Oligopoly
Answer:
(b) Monopoly

Question 19.
Which of the following involves maximum exploitation of consumers?
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Monopolistic competition
(d) Oligopoly
Answer:
(b) Monopoly

Question 20.
An example of selling cost is ______
(a) Raw material cost
(b) Transport cost
(c) Advertisement cost
(d) Purchasing cost
Answer:
(c) Advertisement cost

Part – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 21.
Define market?
Answer:
In economics, the term ‘Market’ refers to a system of exchange between the buyers and the sellers of a commodity. The exchange may be direct or indirect.

Question 22.
Who is the price-taker?
Answer:
A firm under perfect competition is a price-taker. Both buyer and seller accept the price fixed in the industry.

Question 23.
Point out the essential features of pure competition?
Answer:

1. The absence of any monopoly element.
2. There are large buyers and sellers.
3. Homogenous product and uniform price.
4. Free entry and exit.

Question 24.
What is the selling cost?
Answer:
Under monopolistic competition, as the products are differentiated, the producer has to incur expenses to make his brand popular. The expenditure involved in selling the product is called “selling cost’ Eg. Cost for advertisements.

Question 25.
Draw demand curve of a firm for the following:
Answer:
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly

(a) Perfect competition:
The average revenue of the firm is greater than its average cost.
The firm is earning supernormal profit.

Explanation:
In the figure, output is measured along the x-axis and price, revenue, and cost along the y-axis. OP is the prevailing price in the market. PL is the demand curve or average and the marginal
revenue curve. The firm is in equilibrium at point ‘E’ where MR = MC and MC cuts the MR curve from below at the point of equilibrium.

(b) Monopoly:
A monopoly is a market structure characterized by a single seller, selling the unique product with the restriction for a new firm to enter the market. A monopoly is a form of market where there is a single seller selling a particular commodity for which there are no close substitutes.

Question 26.
Mention any two types of price discrimination.
Answer:

1. Personal: Different prices are charged for different individuals. For example, the railways give tickets at a concessional rate to the ‘Senior citizens’ for the same journey.
2. Geographical: Different prices are charged at different places for the same product. For example, a book sold within India at a price is sold in a foreign country at a lower price.

Question 27.
Define “Excess capacity”?
Answer:
Excess capacity is the difference between the optimum output that can be produced and the actual output produced by the firm.

Part – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 28.
What are the features of a market?
Answer:

1. Buyers and sellers of a commodity or a service.
2. A commodity to be bought and sold.
3. Price agreeable to buyer and seller.
4. Direct or indirect exchange.

Question 29.
Specify the nature of entry of competitors in perfect competition and monopoly?
Answer:
Perfect competition:
Under perfect competition, there is the possibility of free entry and exit of the firm. In the short run, if an efficient producer produces supernormal profits, it attracts new firms to enter the industry. When a large number of firms enter, the supply would increase, resulting in lower prices. An inefficient producer, disturbed by the loss, quit the market. It results in a decrease in supply so the price will go up.

Monopoly:
In a monopoly, there is a strict barrier for entry of any new firm.

Question 30.
Describe the degrees of price discrimination.
Answer:
Price discrimination has become widespread in almost all monopoly markets. According to A.C. Pigou, there are three degrees of price discrimination.

1. First-degree price discrimination :
A monopolist charges the maximum price that a buyer is willing to pay. This is called perfect price discrimination. Joan Robinson named it as “Perfect discriminating monopoly.”

2. Second-degree price discrimination :
Under this degree, buyers are charged prices in such a way that a part of their consumer’s surplus is taken away by the sellers. This is called imperfect price discrimination. Joan Robinson named it as “Imperfect discriminating monopoly”. Under this degree, buyers are divided into different groups and a different price is charged for each group. (E.g) Ticket prices in cinema theatres.

3. Third-degree price discrimination :
The monopolist splits the entire market into a few sub-market and charges different prices in each submarket. The groups are divided on the basis of age, sex, and location. (E.g) Railways charge lower fares from senior citizens.

Question 31.
State the meaning of selling cost with an example?
Answer:
Under monopolistic competition as the products are differentiated, the producer has to incur expenses to make his brand popular. The expenditure involved in selling the product is called “selling cost”.

According to Prof.Chamberlin, selling cost is the cost incurred in order to alter the position or shape of the demand curve for a product.
Under perfect competition and monopoly there is soiling COM.
(Eg.) Advertisements, Free services, Home delivery etc.,

Question 32.
Mention the similarities between perfect competition and monopolistic competition?
Answer:

Question 33.
Differentiate between “firm” and Industry?
Answer:

Question 34.
State the features of duopoly?
Answer:

1. Each seller is fully aware of his rival’s motive and actions.
2. Both sellers may collude (they agree on all matters regarding the sale of a commodity)
3. They may enter into cut-throat competition.
4. There is no product differentiation.
5. They fix the price for their product with a view to maximizing their profit.

Part – D

Answer the following questions in about a page.

Question 35.
Bring out the features of perfect competition?
Answer:
According to Joan Robinson, “Perfect competition prevails when the demand for the output of each producer is perfectly elastic. It is an ideal but imaginary market. 100% of perfect competition cannot be seen.
Features of the perfect competition :

(a) a Large number of buyers and sellers :
Each individual buyer buys a very very small quantum of a product as compared to that found in the market. This means that he has no power to fix the price of the product. He is only a price-taker and not a price-maker. As the number of sellers is large the seller is also a price-taker.

(b) Homogenous product and uniform price :
The. products are homogenous in nature and are perfectly substitutable. All the units of the product are identical. Therefore a uniform price prevails in the market.

(c) Free entry and exit:
In the short run, if the very efficient producer earns supernormal profits, new firms enter the industry. When a large number of firms enter, the supply would increase, resulting in lower prices. If a inefficient producer incurs a loss, the loss incurring firms quit the market. So the existing firms could earn more profit as supply decreases.

(d) Absence of transport cost:
The prevalence of the uniform price is also due to the absence of the transport cost. . e) Perfect mobility of factors of production :
As there is perfect mobility of the factors of production, uniform price exists. As they enjoy perfect freedom of mobility the price gets adjusted.

(f) Perfect knowledge of the market:
All buyers and sellers have a thorough knowledge of the quality of the product, prevailing price, etc.

(g) No government intervention:
There is no government regulation on the supply of raw materials and in the determination of price etc.

Question 36.
How price and output are determined under the perfect competition?
Answer:
Perfect Competition: Firm’s Equilibrium in the Short Run

1. In the short run, at least a few factors of production are fixed. The firms under Perfect Competition take the price (10) from the industry and start adjusting their quantities produced. For example Q_d = 100 – 5P and Q_s = 5P.
2.  At equilibrium Q_d = Q_s
3. Therefore 100 – 5P = 5P

100 = 10P; 100/10 = P; Q_d = demand
P = 10 ; P = Price
Q_d = 100 – 5(10); Q_s = Supply
100 – 50 = 50
Q_s = 5 (10) = 50
Therefore 50 = 50

This diagram consists of three panels. The equilibrium of an industry is explained in the first panel. The demand and supply forces of all the firms interact and the price is fixed as 10. The equilibrium of an industry is obtained at 50 units of output.

In the second part of the diagram, AC curve is lower than the price line. The equilibrium condition is achieved where MC = MR. Its equilibrium quantity sold is 50. With the prevailing price, ₹10 it experiences supernormal profit. AC = ₹8, AR = ₹10.

Its total revenue is 50 × 10 = 500. Its total cost is 50 × 8 = 400.
Therefore, its total profit is 500 – 400 = 100.

In the third part of the diagram, the firm’s cost curve is above the price line. The equilibrium condition is achieved at the point where MR = MC. Its quantity sold is 50. With the prevailing price, it experiences loss. (AC > AR)

Its total revenue is 50 × 10 = 500. Its total cost is 50 × 12 = 600.
Therefore, its total loss is 600 – 500 = 100.

As profit prevails in the market, new firms will enter the industry, thus increasing the supply of the product. This means a decline in the price of the product and an increase in the cost of production. Thus, the abnormal profit will be wiped out; the loss will be incurred.

When loss prevails in the market, the existing loss-making firms will exit the industry, thus decreasing the supply of the product. This means a rise in the price of the product and a reduction in the cost of production. So the loss will vanish; Profit will emerge. Consequent to the entry and exit of new firms into the industry, firms always earn ‘normal profit’ in the long run as shown in the diagram.

Question 37.
Describe the features of oligopoly?
Answer:
Features of oligopoly:
1. Few large firms :
Very few big firms own the major control of the whole market by producing a major portion of the market demand.

2. Interdependence among firms :
The price and quality decisions of a particular firm are dependent on the price and quality decisions of the rival firms.

3. Group behaviour :
The firms under oligopoly realise the importance of mutual co-operation.

4. Advertisement cost :
The oligopolist could raise sales either by advertising or improving the quality of the product.

5. Nature of the product:
Perfect oligopoly means homogeneous products and imperfect oligopoly deals with heterogeneous products.

6. Price rigidity :
It implies that prices are difficult to be changed. The oligopolist firms do not change their prices due to the fear of rival’s reaction.

Question 38.
Illustrate price and output determination under Monopoly?
Answer:
Price and Output Determination under Monopoly:
A monopoly is a one firm-industry. Therefore, a firm under a monopoly faces a downward-sloping demand curve (or AR curve). Since, under monopoly AR falls, as more units of output are sold, the MR lies below the AR curve (MR < AR). The monopolist will continue to sell his product as long as his MR > MC.

He attains equilibrium at the level of output when its MC is equal to MR. Beyond this point, the producer will experience loss and hence will stop selling. Let us take the following hypothetical example of Total Revenue Function and Total cost function.

TR = 100Q – 4Q² and
TC = Q³ – 18Q² + 91Q + 12.
Therefore AR = 100 – 4Q;
MR = 100 – 8Q;
AC = Q² – 18Q + 91 + 12/Q;
= 3Q² – 36Q + 91;
When Q = 3,
AR = 100 – 4(3) = 88,
= (3)² – 18(3) + 91 + 12/3 = 9 – 54 + 91 + 4 = 50;
MR = 100 – 8(3) = 76;
= 3(3)² – 36(3) + 91 = 27 – 108 + 91 = 10
From this diagram, till he sells 3 units output, MR is greater than MC, and when he exceeds this output level, MR is less than MC. The monopoly firm will be in equilibrium at the level of output where MR is equal to MC. The price is 88.

To checkup how much profit the monopolist is making at the equilibrium output, the average revenue curves and the average cost curves are used. At the equilibrium level of output is 3; the average revenue is 88 and the average cost is 50. Therefore (88 – 50 =38) is the profit per unit.
Total profit = (Average. Revenue – Average Cost) × Total output = (88 – 50) × 3 = 38 × 3 = 114.

Question 39.
Explain price and output determined under monopolistic competition with help of the diagram?
Answer:
Price and Output Determination under Monopolistic competition:
The firm under monopolistic competition achieves its equilibrium when it’s MC = MR, and when its MC curve cuts its MR curve from below. If MC is less than MR, the sellers will find it profitable to expand their output.

Under Monopolistic Competition:

1. The demand curve is downwards sloping.
2. There are close substitutes.
3. The demand curve is fairly elastic.

Under monopolistic competition, different firms produce different varieties of the product and sell them at different prices. Each firm under monopolistic competition seeks to achieve equilibrium as regards.

1. Price and output
2. Product adjustment
3. Selling cost adjustment.

Short-run equilibrium:
The profit maximisation is achieved when MC = MR.

‘OM’ is the equilibrium output. ‘OP’ is the equilibrium price. The total revenue is ‘OMQP’. And the total cost is ‘OMRS’. Therefore, total profit is ‘PQRS’. This is super normal profit under short-run.

But under differing revenue and cost conditions, the monopolistically competitive firms may incur a loss.

As shown in the diagram, the AR and MR curves are fairly elastic. The equilibrium situation occurs at point ‘E’, where MC = MR and MC cuts MR from below.

The equilibrium output is OM and the equilibrium price is OP. The total revenue of the firm is ‘OMQP’ and the total cost of the firm is ‘OMLK’ and thus the total loss is ‘PQLK’. This firm incurs a loss in the short run.

Long-Run Equilibrium of the Firm and the Group Equilibrium:
In the short run, a firm under monopolistic competition may earn a supernormal profit or incur loss. But in the long run, the entry of the new firms in the industry will wipe out the supernormal profit earned by the existing firms. The entry of new firms and the exit of loss-making firms will result in normal profit for the firms in the industry.

In the long run, AR curve is more elastic or flatter because plenty of substitutes are available. Hence, the firms will earn an only normal profit.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Market Structure and Pricing Additional Important Questions and Answers

Part – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The supply curve in the very short period is _______
(a) Horizontal
(b) Vertical
(c) Slopes downward
(d) Slopes upward
Answer:
(b) Vertical

Question 2.
Who was propounded by the concept of imperfect competition?
(a) Philip Kotler
(b) Joan Robinson
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Joan Robinson

Question 3.
Second condition for equilibrium of the firm _______
(a) MC curve should cut MR curve from below
(b) MC curve should cut MR curve from above
(c) MC curve coincides with MR curve
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) MC curve should cut MR curve from below

Question 4.
Price discrimination is called ………………………. monopoly.
(a) Increasing
(b) Decreasing
(c) Equalization
(d) Discriminating
Answer:
(d) Discriminating

Question 5.
In which type of market the seller is a price taker?
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Monopolistic competition
(d) Duopoly
Answer:
(a) Perfect competition

Question 6.
The perfect competitive firms are ……………………..
(a) Price maker
(b) Price in charge
(c) Price given
(d) Price taker
Answer:
(d) Price taker

Question 7.
There is a barrier for entry of new firm in _______
(a) Monopoly
(b) Monopolistic competition
(c) Perfect competition
(d) Duopoly
Answer:
(a) Monopoly

Question 8.
The most important form of selling cost is ………………………..
(a) Advertisement
(b) Sales
(c) Homogeneous product
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Advertisement

Question 9.
Supply curve in long run _______
(a) Perfectly elastic
(b) Perfectly inelastic
(c) Less elastic
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Perfectly elastic

Question 10.
_______ classified market based on time.
(a) Marshall
(b) Adamsmith
(c) Chamberlin
(d) Hicks
Answer:
(a) Marshall

Part – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Define Dumping?
Answer:

1. Dumping refers to the practice of the monopolist charging a higher prices for his product in the local market and lower price in the foreign market.
2. Through dumping, a country expands its command over other countries for its product. This is also called as “ International Price Discrimination”. For example, India’s electronic market is flooded with China’s products.

Question 2.
Classify market-based on the area?
Answer:

1. Local market
2. Provincial market
3. National market
4. International market

Question 3.
What is the classification of markets?
Answer:
Markets are classified
1. On the Basis of Area

• Local market
• Provincial market
• National market
• International market

2. On the Basis of Time:

• Very short period market (or) Market period
• Short period market
• Long-period market
• Very long period market (or) A secular period market

3. On the Basis of Quality of the Commodity:

• Wholesale market
• Retail market

4. On the Basis of Competition:

• Perfect competition market
• Imperfect competition market

Part – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 1.
State the sources of monopoly power?
Answer:
1. Natural Monopoly:
Ownership of the natural raw materials [E.g. Gold mines – Africa, Coal mines, Nickel – Canada, etc]

2. State Monopoly:
Single supplier of some special services [E.g – Railways in India], (ill) Legal Monopoly: A Monopoly firm can get its monopoly power by getting patent rights, a trademark from the government.

Question 2.
Explain Long-Run Equilibrium of the Firm and the Group Equilibrium?
Answer:
In the short run, a firm under monopolistic competition may earn a supernormal profit or incur a loss. But in the long run, the entry of the new firms in the industry will wipe out the supernormal profit earned by the existing firms. The entry of new firms and the exit of loss-making firms will result in normal profit for the firms in the industry. In the long run, the AR curve is more elastic or flatter because plenty of substitutes are available. Hence, the firms will earn an only normal profit.

Question 3.
Classify markets based on time.
Answer:
Alfred Marshall classified the market on the basis of time.
1. Very short period or Market period :
If occurs when with the available time the quantum supplied of a product cannot be changed. The supply curve is vertical; it is inelastic. Demand plays a major role in price determination. (Eg.) During floods the price of food products raises.

2. Short period market:
Here the quantum supplied of a product can be changed to some extent. Supply curve is little more elastic to meet an increased demand.

3. Long-period market:
Here the quantum supplied of a product can be changed to a larger extent. The supply curve is very much elastic. All the factors are variable and the price of the product is moderate.

4. Very long period market (or a secular period market) :
It occurs when the entire economy undergoes a drastic change. Newer technologies are introduced and most modem products are produced.
(Eg.) The entry of pen-drive has driven out compact disc (CD)

Part – D

Answer the following questions in about a page.

Question 1.
Explain the wastes of monopolistic competition.
Answer:
1. Idle capacity :
Unutilized capacity is the difference between the optimum output and the actual output. In the long run, a monopolistic firm produces the output corresponding to the minimum average cost, which is less than the optimum output. It creates artificial scarcity. This leads to excess capacity which is actually a waste in monopolistic competition.

2. Unemployment:
As the firm produce less than optimum output, the productive capacity is not used to the fullest extent. This will lead to unemployment of human resources also.

3. Advertisement:
There is a lot of waste in competitive advertisements which leads to high cost to the consumers. It is also claimed that advertisements cheat consumers by giving false information about the product.

4. Too many varieties of goods :
Introducing too many varieties of a good is another waste here. The goods differ in size, shape, style and colour. A reasonable number of varieties would be sufficient. Cost per unit can also be reduced if only a few varieties are produced in larger quantity instead of larger varieties with small quantities.

5. Inefficient firms :
Inefficient firms charge prices higher than their marginal cost. These firms can be kept out of the industry. But the buyer’s preference for such products are large they continue to exist. Efficient firms cannot drive out the inefficient firms because the efficient firms cannot spend for an advertisement to attract buyers. In reality, consumers are mostly emotional rather than rational.

ACTIVITY

Question 1.
Divide the class into five groups. Assign each group a market structure; for first group perfect competition, second group monopoly, third group oligopoly, fourth group Duopoly and for fifth group monopolistic competition. Now each student is to identify a business or organization or seller that orperate in that market structure. Ask each student to prepare a brief description of the following?
Answer:

1. Name of the market structure
2. Business name
3. Industry
4. Identify the conditions of market structure
5. What are prices of a particular product, whether same price or different price?.
6. Is there non-price competition?

Activity to be done by the students in the classroom under the guidance of the teacher. (Group Activity)

Question 2.
Find out the number of firms in Tamil Nadu or India which are producing/selling TV and Mobile phones?
Answer:
Producing / selling of Television firms:

1. Samsung
2. L.G
3. Croma
4. Panasonic
5. Philips
6. Sharp
7. Mitsubishi
8. Sony
9. Red mi
10. Apple TV
11. Akai

Producing / Selling / of Mobile Phones Firms:

1. Samsung
2. Apple
3. Red mi
4. Oppo
5. Gionee
6. Infocus
7. Nokia
8. L.G
9. Mi
10. Lave
11. Micro max
12. Black bei
13. Moto
14. Letv

Students can download 11th Economics Chapter 4 Cost and Revenue Analysis Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 4 Cost and Revenue Analysis

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Cost and Revenue Analysis Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Cost refers to ……………………..
(a) Price
(b) Value
(c) Fixed cost
(d) Cost of production
Answer:
(d) Cost of production

Question 2.
Cost functions are also known _______ function.
(a) production
(b) investment
(c) demand
(d) consumption
Answer:
(a) production

Question 3.
Money cost is also known as …………………….. cost.
(a) Explicit
(b) Implicit
(c) Social
(d) Real
Answer:
(a) Explicit

Question 4.
Explicit cost plus implicit cost denote _______ cost.
(a) social
(b) economic
(c) money
(d) fixed
Answer:
(b) economic

Question 5.
Explicit costs are termed as ………………………
(a) Out of pocket expenses
(b) Real cost
(c) Social cost
(d) Sunk cost
Answer:
(a) Out of pocket expenses

Question 6.
The costs of self-owned resources are termed as _______ cost.
(a) real
(b) explicit
(c) money
(d) implicit
Answer:
(d) implicit

Question 7.
The cost that remains constant at all levels of output is ………………….. cost.
(a) Fixed
(b) Variable
(c) Real
(d) Social
Answer:
(a) Fixed

Question 8.
Identify the formula of estimating average variable _______ cost.
(a) TC/Q
(b) TVC/Q
(c) TFC/Q
(d) TAC/Q
Answer:
(b) TVC/Q

Question 9.
The cost incurred by producing one more unit of output is ……………… cost.
(a) Variable
(b) Fixed
(c) Marginal
(d) Total
Answer:
(c) Marginal

Question 10.
The cost that varies with the level of output is termed as _______ cost.
(a) money
(b) variable cost
(c) total cost
(d) fixed cost
Answer:
(b) variable cost

Question 11.
Wage is an example of………………….. cost of the production.
(a) Fixed
(b) Variable
(c) Marginal
(d) Opportunity
Answer:
(b) Variable

Question 12.
The cost per unit of output is denoted by _______ cost.
(a) average
(b) marginal
(c) variable
(d) total
Answer:
(a) average

Question 13.
Identify the formula for estimating average cost.
(a) AVC/Q
(b) TC/Q
(c) TVC/Q
(d) AFC/Q
Answer:
(b) TC/Q

Question 14.
Find total cost where TFC = 100 and TVC = 125.
(a) 125
(b) 175
(c) 225
(d) 325
Answer:
(c) 225

Question 15.
Long-run average cost curve is also called a………………….. curve.
(a) Demand
(b) Planning
(c) Production
(d) Sales
Answer:
(b) Planning

Question 16.
Revenue received from the sale of products is known as _______ revenue.
(a) profit
(b) total revenue
(c) average
(d) marginal
Answer:
(b) total revenue

Question 17.
Revenue received from the sale of an additional unit is termed as ……………………. revenue.
(a) Profit
(b) Average
(c) Marginal
(d) Total
Answer:
(c) Marginal

Question 18.
Marginal revenue is the addition made to the
(a) total sales
(b) total revenue
(c) total production
(d) total cost
Answer:
(b) total revenue

Question 19.
When price remains constant, AR will be …………………… MR.
(a) Equal to
(b) Greater than
(c) Less than
(d) Not related to
Answer:
(a) Equal to

Question 20.
A bookseller sold 40 books with a price of Rs.10 each. The total revenue of the seller is Rs. _______
(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 300
(d) 400
Answer:
(d) 400

Part – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 21.
Define cost?
Answer:
Cost refers to the total expenses incurred in the production of a commodity.

Question 22.
Define cost function.
Answer:
The functional relationship between cost and output is expressed as ‘Cost function’.
C= f (Q).

Question 23.
What do you mean by fixed cost?
Answer:
Fixed cost does not change with the change in the quantity of output. The expenses on fixed factors remain unchanged irrespective of the level of output and these expenses are called fixed costs.

Question 24.
Define Revenue.
Answer:
The amount of money that a producer receives in exchange for the sale of goods is known as revenue. Revenue means sales revenue.

Question 25.
Explicit Cost – Define?
Answer:
Explicit cost refers to the actual expenditures of the firm to purchase or hire the inputs.

Question 26.
Give the definition for ‘Real Cost’.
Answer:
Adam Smith regarded pains and sacrifices of labour as real costs of production.

Question 27.
What is meant by Sunk Cost?
Answer:
A cost incurred in the past and cannot be recovered in the future is called a sunk cost.

Part – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 28.
Distinguish between Fixed Cost and Variable Cost?
Answer:

Question 29.
State the difference between money cost and real cost?
Answer:

Question 30.
Distinguish between Explicit Cost and Implicit Cost?
Answer:

Question 31.
Define opportunity cost and provide an example.
Answer:

1. Opportunity cost refers to the cost of the next best alternative use. In other words, it is the value of the next best alternative foregone.
2. For example, a farmer can cultivate both paddy and sugarcane in farmland.
3. If he cultivates paddy, the opportunity cost of paddy output is the amount of sugarcane output given up.
4. Opportunity Cost is also called “Alternative Cost” or Transfer cost.

Question 32.
State the relationship between AC and MC?
Answer:
There is a unique relationship between the AC and MC curves as shown in the diagram.

1. When AC is falling, MC lies below AC.
2. When AC becomes constant, MC also becomes equal to it.
3. When AC starts increasing, MC lies above the AC.
4. MC curve always cuts AC at its minimum point from below.

Question 33.
Write a short note on Marginal Revenue.
Answer:

1. Marginal Revenue [MR] is the addition to the total revenue by the sale of an additional unit of a commodity.
2. MR can be found out by dividing change in total revenue by the change in quantity sold out.
3. MR = ∆TR/∆Q where MR denotes Marginal Revenue, ∆TR denotes a change in Total Revenue and ∆Q denotes a change in total quantity.
4. The other method of estimating MR is:

MR = TR_n – TR_n-1, (or) TR_n+1 – TR_n
Where MR denotes Marginal Revenue,
TR_n denotes total revenue of n^th item,
TR_n-1 denotes Total Revenue of n – 1^th item and
TR_n+1 denotes Total Revenue of n + 1^th item.
If TR = PQ,
MR = dTR/dQ = P, which is equal to AR.

Question 34.
Discuss the Long run cost curves with a suitable diagram?
Answer:

1. In the long run, all factors of production become variable. The existing size of the firm can be increased in the case of the long run. There are neither fixed inputs nor fixed costs in the long run.
2. LAC is given in the diagram.
3. Long-run average cost (LAC) is equal to long-run total costs divided by the level of output.

LAC = LTC/Q where LAC denotes Long-Run Average Cost, LTC denotes Long-run Total Cost and Q denotes the quantity of output.

The LAC curve is derived from short-run average cost curves. It is the locus of points denoting the least cost curve of producing the corresponding output. The LAC curve is called a ‘Plant Curve’ or ‘Boat shape Curve’ or ‘Planning Curve’ or ‘Envelop Curve’.

Part – D

Answer the following questions in about a page.

Question 35.
If total cost = 10 + Q³, find out AC, AVC, TFC, AFC when Q = 5?
Answer:
TC = 10 + Q³
AC = \(\frac { TC }{ Q } \)
AC = \(\frac{10+Q^{3}}{Q}\)
If Q=5, Q = 5 × 5 × 5 = 125
AC = \(\frac { 10 + 125 }{ 5 } \) = \(\frac { 135 }{ 5 } \) = 27

AVC:
TC = 10 + Q³
TC = TFC + TVC
TVC = Q³
AVC = \(\frac { TVC }{ Q } \)
= \(\frac{Q^{3}}{Q} = Q\)²
If Q = 5, then AVC = 5²
AVC = 25

TFC:
TC = 10 + Q³
TC = TFC + TVC
TFC = 10

AFC:
AFC = \(\frac { TFC }{ Q } \)
= \(\frac { 10 }{ 5 } \)
AFC = 2

Question 36.
Discuss the short-run cost curves with a suitable diagram?
Short-run Cost Curves:
Total Fixed Cost (TFC):
All payments for the fixed factors of production are known as Total Fixed Cost. A hypothetical TFC is shown in the below table and the diagram.
Answer:

For instance if TC = Q³ – 18Q² + 91Q + 12. the fixed cost here is 12. That means, if Q is zero, the total cost will be 12, hence fixed cost.
It could be observed that TFC does not change with output. Even when the output is zero, the fixed cost is ₹1000. TFC is a horizontal straight line, parallel to X-axis.

Total Variable Cost (TVC):
All payments to the variable factors of production are called Total Variable Cost. Hypothetical TVC is shown in the below table and diagram.

In the diagram, the TVC is zero when nothing is produced. As output increases, TVC also increases. TVC curve slopes upward from left to right.

For instance in TC = Q³ – 18 Q² + 91Q + 12, variable cost, TVC = Q³ – 18Q² + 91Q

Total Cost Curves:
Total Cost means the sum total of all payments made in the production. It is also called as Total Cost of Production. Total cost is the summation of Total Fixed Cost (TFC) and Total Variable Cost (TVC). It is written symbolically as TC = TFC + TVC.

For example, when the total fixed cost is ₹1000 and the total variable cost is ₹200 then the Total cost is = ₹1200 (₹1000 + ₹200).
If TFC = 12 and
TVC = Q³ – 18Q² + 91Q
TC = 12 + Q³ – 18Q² + 91Q

Average Fixed Cost (AFC):
Average Fixed Cost refers to the fixed cost per unit of output. It is obtained by dividing the total fixed cost by the quantity of output. AFC = TFC / Q where AFC denotes average fixed cost, TFC denotes total fixed cost and Q denotes the quantity of output. For example, if TFC is 1000 and the quantity of output is 10, the AFC is ₹100, obtained by dividing ₹1000 by 10. TVC is shown in the below table and diagram?

It is to be noted that-

1. AFC declines as output increases, as fixed cost remains constant.
2. AFC curve is downward sloping throughout its length, never touching the X and Y-axis. It is asymptotic to both axes.
3. The shape of the AFC curve is a rectangular hyperbola.

Average Variable Cost (AVC):
Average Variable Cost refers to the total variable cost per unit of output. It is obtained by dividing total variable cost (TVC) by the quantity of output (Q). AVC = TVC / Q where, AVC denotes Average Variable cost, TVC denotes total variable cost and Q denotes the quantity of output. For example, When the TVC is ₹300 and the quantity produced is 2, the AVC is ₹150,
(AVC = 300/2 = 150) AVC is shown in the below table and diagram.

Average Total Cost (ATC) or Average Cost (AC):
Average Total Cost refers to the total cost per unit of output.

It can be obtained in two ways.

1. By dividing the firm’s total cost (TC) by the quantity of output (Q). ATC = TC / Q.
For example, if TC is ₹1600 and the quantity of output is Q = 4, the Average Total Cost is ₹400. (ATC = 1600/4 = 400)
If ATC is Q³ – 18Q² + 91Q + 12, then AC = Q² – 18Q + 91 + 12/Q

2. By ATC is derived by adding together Average Fixed Cost (AFC) and Average Variable Cost (AVC) at each level of output. ATC = AFC + AVC.
For example, when Q = 2, TFC = 1000, TVC = 300; AFC = 500; AVC = 150; ATC = 650. ATC or AC is shown in the below table and diagram.

Marginal Cost (MC):
Marginal Cost is the cost of the last single unit produced. It is defined as the change in total costs resulting from producing one extra unit of output. In other words, it is the addition made to the total cost by producing one extra unit of output.

Marginal cost is important for deciding whether any additional output can be produced or not. MC = ∆TC/∆Q where MC denotes Marginal Cost, ∆TC denotes a change in total cost and ∆Q denotes a change in total quantity.

For example, a firm produces 4 units of output and the Total cost is ₹1600. When the firm produces one more unit (4 + 1 = 5 units) of output at the total cost of ₹1900, the marginal cost is ₹300.
MC = 1900 – 1600 = ₹300

Question 37.
Bring out the relationship between AR and MR curves under various price conditions?
Answer:
Relationship between AR and MR Curves:
If a firm is able to sell additional units at the same price then AR and MR will be constant and equal. If the firm is able to sell additional units only by reducing the price, then both AR and MR will fall and be different.

Constant AR and MR (at Fixed Price):
When price remains constant or fixed, the MR will be also constant and will coincide with AR. Under perfect competition as the price is uniform and fixed, AR is equal to MR and their shape will be a straight line horizontal to X-axis. The AR and MR Schedule under constant price is given in the below table and in the diagram.

Declining AR and MR (at Declining Price):
When a firm sells large quantities at lower prices both AR and MR will fall but the fall in MR will be steeper than the fall in the AR.

It is to be noted that MR will be lower than AR. Both AR and MR will be sloping downwards straight from left to right. The MR curve divides the distance between AR Curve and Y-axis into two equal parts. The decline in AR need not be a straight line or linear. If the prices are declining with the increase in quantity sold, the AR can be non-linear, taking a shape of concave or convex to the origin.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Cost and Revenue Analysis Additional Important Questions and Answers

Part – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Real cost is _______
(a) Pain and sacrifice
(b) Subjective
(c) Efforts and sacrifice
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 2.
Social Cost is those costs ………………………
(a) Not borne by the firms
(b) Incurred by the society
(c) Health hazards
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 3.
Economic profit is ______
(a) TR-TC
(b) TC-TR
(c) AC-MC
(d) None
Answer:
(a) TR-TC

Question 4.
Profit is the difference between Total Revenue and ………………………
(a) Total Cost
(b) Total Variable
(c) Total Fixed Cost
(d) Total Marginal Cost
Answer:
(a) Total Cost

Question 5.
How can you calculate the average cost?
(a) TVC + TFC
(b) TC – AC
(c) TC / Q
(d) AC / Q
Answer:
(c) TC / Q

Question 6.
What is an envelope curve?
(a) Planning curve
(b) Long-run cost curve
(c) U – shape curve
(d) V – shape curve
Answer:
(a) Planning curve

Question 7.
Social cost is _______
(a) Not borne by the firm
(b) Borne by the society
(c) Air pollution by the firm
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 8.
Implicit cost is also known as ……………………….
(a) Explicit Cost
(b) Economic Cost
(c) Social Cost
(d) Imputed Cost
Answer:
(d) Imputed Cost

Question 9.
Long-run average cost curve can also be called as _______
(a) Planning curve
(b) Envelope curve
(c) Boat-shaped curve
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 10.
How will you calculate AR?
(a) AR = \(\frac{TR}{Q}\)
(b) AR = \(\frac{TVR}{Q}\)
(c) AR = \(\frac{TFR}{Q}\)
(d) AR = \(\frac{TAR}{Q}\)
Answer:
(a) AR = \(\frac{TR}{Q}\)

Part – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
What does money cost?
Answer:
Production cost expressed in money terms is called money cost.
(OR)
The total money expenses incurred by a firm in producing a commodity.

Question 2.
Define Floating Cost?
Answer:
Floating cost refers to all expenses that are directly associated with business activities but not with asset creation. It does not include the purchase of raw material as it is part of current assets. It includes payments like wages to workers, transportation charges, fees for power, and administration. Floating cost is necessary to run the day-to-day business of a firm.

Question 3.
What is the social cost?
Answer:
Social cost refers to the total cost borne by society due to the production of a commodity. (OR) Alfred Marshall defined the term social cost to represent the efforts and sacrifices undergone by the various members of the society in producing a commodity.

Part – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 1.
Bring out the distinction between short-run and long Run?
Answer:

Question 2.
How is the average variable cost be calculated?
Answer:
It refers to the total variable cost per unit of output. It is obtained by dividing the total variable cost by the quantity of output.
AVC = \(\frac { TVC }{ Q } \)
(Eg.) If TFC is 300;
Q = 2 Find AVC
= \(\frac { 300 }{ 2 } \)
AVC = 150.

Question 3.
What is meant by Social Cost for example?
Answer:

1. Social cost refers to the total cost borne by the society due to the production of a commodity.
2. Alfred Marshall defined the term social cost to represent the efforts and sacrifices undergone by the various members of the society in producing a commodity.
3. Social Cost is the cost that is not borne by the firm but incurred by others in the society.
4. For example, large business firms cause air pollution, water pollution, and other damages ‘ in a particular area that involve a cost to society.
5. These costs are treated as social costs. It is also called External Cost.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Average Revenue?
Answer:
Average revenue is the revenue per unit of the commodity sold. It is calculated by dividing the Total Revenue (TR) by the number of units sold (Q)
AR = TR /Q ; if TR = PQ, AR = PQ/Q = P
AR denotes Average Revenue, TR denotes Total Revenue and Q denotes Quantity of unit sold.
For example, if the Total Revenue from the sale of 5 units is ₹30, the Average Revenue is ₹6. (AR = 30/5 = 6) It is to be noted that AR is equal to Price.
AR = TR/Q
= PQ/Q
= P

Part – D

Answer the following question in about a page.

Question 1.
Write a short note on Total Revenue?
Answer:
Total revenue is the amount of income received by the firm from the sale of its products. It is obtained by multiplying the price of the commodity by the number of units sold.

TR = P × Q
where TR denotes Total Revenue, P denotes Price, and Q denotes Quantity sold.
For example, a cell – phone company sold 100 cell – phones at the price of ₹500 each.
TR is ₹50,000. (TR = 500 × 100 = 50,000).
When the price is constant, the behaviour of TR is shown in the above table and diagram, assuming P = 5.
When P = 5; TR = PQ
When the price is declining with an increase in quantity sold. (Eg. Imperfect Competition on the goods market) the behaviour of TR is shown in the table and diagram. TR can be obtained from the Demand function: If Q = 11 – P,

When P = 1, Q = 10

TR = PQ = 1 × 10 = 10
When P = 3, Q = 8, TR = 24 When P = 0, Q = 1, TR = 10

Question 2.
Bring out the relationship between TR, AR, MR, and Elasticity of demand?
Answer:
The relationship among TR, AR, and MR Curves:
When marginal revenue is positive, total revenue rises, when MR is zero the total revenue becomes maximum. When marginal revenue becomes negative total revenue starts falling. When AR and MR both are falling, then MR falls at a faster rate than AR.

TR, AR, MR, and Elasticity of demand:
The relationship among AR, MR, and elasticity of demand (e) is stated as follows.
MR = AR (e – 1/e)

The relationship between the AR curve and MR curve depends upon the elasticity of the AR curve [AR = DD = Price]

1. When the price elasticity of demand is greater than one, MR is positive and TR is increasing.
2. When the price elasticity of demand is less than one, MR is negative and TR is decreasing.
3. When price elasticity of demand is equal to one, MR is equal to zero and TR is maximum and constant.

It is to be noted that, the output range of 1 to 5 units, the price elasticity of demand is greater than one according to the total outlay method. Hence, TR is increasing and MR is positive.

1. At the output range of 5 to 6 units, the price elasticity of demand is equal to one. Hence, TR is maximum and MR is equaled to zero.
2. At the output range of 6 units to 10 units, the price elasticity of demand is less than unity. Hence, TR is decreasing and MR is negative.

Students can download 11th Economics Chapter 11 Tamil Nadu Economy Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Tamil Nadu Economy

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Tamil Nadu Economy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
In health index, Tamil Nadu is ahead of ……………………
(a) Kerala
(b) Punjab
(c) Gujarat
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Gujarat

Question 2.
In sex ratio, Tamil Nadu ranks …………………….
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer:
(c) Third

Question 3.
Tamil Nadu is rich in ………………………
(a) Forest resource
(b) Human resource
(c) Mineral resource
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Human resource

Question 4.
The main source of irrigation in Tamil Nadu is ………………………..
(a) River
(b) Tank
(c) Well
(d) Canals
Answer:
(c) Well

Question 5.
Knitted gannent production is concentrated in ………………………..
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Tiruppur
(c) Erode
(d) Karur
Answer:
(b) Tiruppur

Question 6.
Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Gateway of Tamil Nadu – Thoothukudi
(b) Home textile city – Erode
(c) Steel city – Salem
(d) Pump city – Coimbatore
Answer:
(b) Home textile city – Erode

Question 7.
Which of the following cities does not have international airport?
(a) Madurai
(b) Tiruchirappalli
(c) Paramakudi
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(c) Paramakudi

Question 8.
TN tops in the production of the following crops except ……………………..
(a) Banana
(b) Coconut
(c) Plantation crops
(d) Cardamom
Answer:
(d) Cardamom

Question 9.
Largest area of land is used in the cultivation of …………………….
(a) Paddy
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Groundnut
(d) Coconut
Answer:
(a) Paddy

Question 10.
In literacy rate, TN ranks …………………………..
(a) Second
(b) Fourth
(c) Sixth
(d) Eighth
Answer:
(d) Eighth

Question 11.
In investment proposals filed by MSMEs, TN ranks …………………………
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer:
(a) I

Question 12.
Which district in TN has the highest sex ratio?
(a) Nagapattinam
(b) Nilgiris
(c) Tiruchirappalli
(d) Thanjavur
Answer:
(b) Nilgiris

Question 13.
Which district has the lowest child sex ratio?
(a) Madurai
(b) Theni
(c) Ariyalur
(d) Cuddalore
Answer:
(c) Ariyalur

Question 14.
Which Union Territory has the highest sex ratio?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Pondicherry
(c) Lakshadeep
(d) Andaman Nicobar
Answer:
(b) Pondicherry

Question 15.
The largest contribution to GSDP in Tamil Nadu comes from …………………………
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) Mining
(d) Services
Answer:
(d) Services

Question 16.
In human development index, TN is ranked …………………………
(a) Second
(b) Fourth
(c) Sixth
(d) Seventh
Answer:
(d) Seventh

Question 17.
SPIC is located in ……………………
(a) Chennai
(b) Madurai
(c) Tuticorin
(d) Pudukkottai
Answer:
(c) Tuticorin

Question 18.
The TICEL park is ……………………..
(a) Rubber Park
(b) Textile park
(c) Food park
(d) Bio park
Answer:
(d) Bio park

Question 19.
In India’s total cement production, Tamil Nadu ranks ………………………..
(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) First
(d) Second
Answer:
(a) Third

Question 20.
The Headquarters of Southern Railway is a ………………………
(a) Tiruchirappalli
(b) Chennai
(c) Madurai
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(b) Chennai

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 21.
State any two districts with favourable sex ratio. Indicate the ratios?
Answer:
Population Growth in Tamil Nadu: At a glance (2011 census)

1. Sex Ratio (per 1000 males) District with highest:
The Nilgiris (1041 females) Thanjavur (1031 females) Nagapattinam (1025 females)

2. Sex Ratio (per 1000 males) District with Lowest:
Theni (900 females) Dharmapuri (946 females)

Question 22.
Define GSDP?
Answer:

1. The Gross State Domestic Product refers to the total money value of all the goods and services produced annually in the state.
2. Tamil Nadu is the second-largest economy in India with a GSDP of $ 207.8 billion in 2016 – 2017 according to the Directorate of Economics and Statistics, Tamil Nadu.

Question 23.
Mention any four food crops which are favourable to Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Rice: Tamil Nadu is India’s second-biggest producer of rice.
2. Banana and Coconut: Tamil Nadu ranks first in the production of Banana and coconut.
3. Cashewnut: Tamil Nadu ranks second in the production of cashew nut.
4. Pepper: Tamil Nadu ranks third in the production of pepper.
5. Sugarcane: Tamil Nadu ranks fourth in the production of Sugarcane.

Question 24.
What are the major ports in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu has three major ports; one each at Chennai, Ennore, and Tuticorin as well as one intermediate port in Nagapattinam, and 23 minor ports.
2. All the minor ports are managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai Port.
3. Ennore port was recently converted from an intermediate port to a major port and handles all the coal and ore traffic in Tamil Nadu.

Question 25.
What is heritage tourism?
Answer:
Heritage tourism is travelling to experience the places and activities that authentically represent the stories and people of the past.

Question 26.
What are the nuclear power plants in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
The Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant and the Koodankulam Nuclear Power Plant are the major nuclear energy plants for the energy grid.

Question 27.
Define Micro industry?
Answer:
The enterprises with a capital investment not exceeding 25 lakhs.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 28.
Write a note on mineral resources in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Mineral Resources in Tamil Nadu:

1. Tamil Nadu has a few mining projects based on Titanium, Lignite, Magnesite, Graphite, Limestone, Granite, and Bauxite.
2. The first one is the Neyveli Lignite Corporation that has led the development of large industrial complex around Neyveli in the Cuddalore district with Thermal Power Plants, fertilizers, and Carbonisation plants.
3. Magnesite mining is at Salem from which mining of Bauxite ores are carried out at Yercaud, and this region is also rich in Iron Ore at Kanjamalai.
4. Molybdenum is found in Dharmapuri and is the only source in the country.

Question 29.
Explain GSDP in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
GSDP in Tamil Nadu:

1. GSDP refers to the total money value of all the goods and services produced annually in the state.
2. According to Tamil Nadu’s Directorate of Economics and Statistics, Tamil Nadu is the second-largest economy in India with a GSDP of $207.8 billion in 2016 -17
3. The GSDP of Tamil Nadu is equal to the GDP of Kuwait on nominal terms and the GDP of UAE on PPP terms.
4. Sectoral contribution of GSDP of Tamil Nadu
   • Tertiary sector – 63. 70%
   • Secondary sector – 28.5%
   • Primary sector – 7.76%

Question 30.
Describe the development of the textile industry in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Textile industry in Tamil Nadu:

1. Tamil Nadu is the largest textile hub of India.
2. Tamil Nadu is known as the “Yam Bowl” of the country accounting for 41% of India’s cotton yam production.
3. The textile industry plays a significant role in the Indian economy by providing direct employment to an estimated 35 million people and thereby contributing 4% of GDP and. 35% of gross export earnings.
4. The textile sector contributes to 14% of the manufacturing sector.
5. From spinning to garment manufacturing, entire textile production chain facilities are in Tamil Nadu.
6. About half of India’s total spinning mill capacity is in Tamil Nadu.
7. The western part of Tamil Nadu comprising Coimbatore, Tirupur, Erode, Dindigul, and Karur has the majority of spinning mills manufacturing cotton, polyester, blended yam, and silk yam used by garment units in Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, etc.,
8. Yam is also exported to China, Bangladesh, etc.
9. Tirupur is known as “knitting city” is the exporter of garments worth USD (United States Dollar) 3 billion.
10. Karur is the major home for textile manufacturing (curtain cloth, bed linens, kitchen linens, toilet linens, table linens, wall hangings, etc.,) and export hub in India.
11. Erode is the main cloth market in South India for both retail and wholesale ready-mades.

Question 31.
Compare productivity of any two food crops between Tamil Nadu and India?
Answer:
Productivity position of Tamil Nadu and India:

1. The Government of Tamil Nadu lays emphasis on agricultural production and productivity.
2. Tamil Nadu tops in productivity, in food crops as well as non-food crops among the States in India.

Productivity position of Tamil Nadu:

1. Tamil Nadu ranks first in maize, cumbu, groundnut, oilseeds, and cotton.
2. Tamil Nadu ranks second in rice and coconut.
3. Tamil Nadu ranks third in sugarcane, sunflower, and jowar.

Question 32.
Explain the prospect for the development of Tourism?
Answer:
Prospect for development of tourism:

1. Tamil Nadu has emerged as one of the leading tourist destinations for both domestic and foreign tourists.
2. Tourism in Tamil Nadu is promoted by Tamil Nadu Tourism Development Corporation (TTDC), a Government of Tamil Nadu undertaking.
3. The state currently ranks the highest among Indian states with about 25 crore arrivals.
4. The annual growth rate of this industry stood at 16 percent.
5. Approximately 28 lakh foreign and 11 crore domestic tourists visit the state.

Question 33.
What are the renewable sources of power in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Energy:

1. Tamil Nadu tops in power generation among the southern States as seen in the following table.
2.  Installed capacity of power utilities in States in the southern region.
3. Tamil Nadu is at the forefront of all other Indian States in installed capacity.
4. Muppandal wind farm is a renewable energy source, supplying the villagers with electricity for work.
5. Wind farms were built in Nagercoil and Tuticorin apart from already existing ones around Coimbatore, Pollachi, Dharapuram, and Udumalaipettai.
6. These areas generate about half of India’s 2,000 megawatts of wind energy or two percent of the total power output of India.

Thermal Power:

• In Tamil Nadu, the share of thermal power in total energy sources is very high and the thermal power plants are at Athippattu [North Chennai] Ennore, Mettur, Neyveli, and Thoothukudi.
• The generation of power under various sources is given below.

Hydel Energy:

• There are about 20 hydro-electric units in Tamil Nadu.
• The prominent units are Hundah, Mettur, Periyar, Maravakandy, Parson Valley, etc.

Solar Energy:

• Tamil Nadu tops in solar power generation in India as seen in the following table:
• Southern Tamil Nadu is considered as one of the most suitable regions in the country for developing solar power projects.

Wind Energy:

• Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India.
• The State has a very high quality offshore wind energy potential of the Tirunelveli coast and southern Thoothukudi and Rameswaram coast.

Question 34.
Describe the performance of Tamil Nadu Economy in health?
Answer:
Health:

1. Tamil Nadu has a three-tier health infrastructure comprising hospitals, primary health centres, health units, community health centres, and sub-centers.
2. As of March 2015, the State had 34 district hospitals, 229 sub-divisional hospitals, 1,254 primary health centres, 7,555 sub-centers, and 313 community health centres.

PART – D

Answer the following questions in about a page.

Question 35.
Describe the qualitative aspects of the population?
Answer:

1. Population: Tamil Nadu stands sixth in population with 7.21 crore.
2. Density: Tamil Nadu ranks 12th in density with 555 people per sq. km.
3. Urban population: Tamil Nadu is one of the most urbanized states with 48.4% of the urban population.
4. Sex ratio: Balanced sex ratio implies improvement in the quality of life of the female population. The sex ratio of Tamil Nadu is nearing balance with 995 which stands third next to Kerala and Puducherry.
5. Infant mortality rate: According to NITI AAYOG, the IMR is 17 for Tamil Nadu which is just half of the national average of 34 as of 2016.
6. Maternal mortality rate: Tamil Nadu has a good record of controlling MMR, ranking third with 79 against the national average of 159.
7. Literacy:
   • The literacy rate of Tamil Nadu is higher than in many states.
   • Tamil Nadu has the highest Gross Enrollment Ratio in higher education.

Question 36.
Explain the various sources of energy in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu tops in power generation among the Southern States as seen in the table.
Tamil Nadu 26,865 MW is the 1^st Rank in the energy level. Tamil Nadu is at the forefront of all other Indian States in installed capacity. Muppandal wind farm is a renewable energy source, supplying the villagers with electricity for work.

Wind farms were built in Nagercoil and Tuticorin apart from already existing ones around Coimbatore, Pollachi, Dharapuram, and Udumalaipettai. These areas generate about half of India’s 2,000 megawatts of wind energy or two percent of the total power output of India.

Nuclear Energy:
The Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant and the Koodankulam Nuclear Power Plant are the major nuclear energy plants for the energy grid.

Thermal power:

• In Tamil Nadu, the share of thermal power in total energy sources is very high and the thermal power plants are at Athippattu (North Chennai) Ennore, Mettur, Neyveli, and Thoothukudi.
• The generation of power under various sources is given below.

Hydel Energy:

• There are about 20 hydro-electric units in Tamil Nadu.
• The prominent units are Hundah, Mettur, Periyar, Maravakandy, Parson Valley, etc.,

Solar Energy:

• Tamil Nadu tops in solar power generation in India as seen in the following table
• Southern Tamil Nadu is considered one of the most suitable regions in the country for developing solar power projects.

Wind Energy:

• Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India.
• The State has a very high-quality offshore wind energy potential off the Tirunelveli coast and southern Thoothukudi and Rameswaram coast.

Question 37.
Explain the public transport system in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu has a well-established transportation system that connects all parts of the state. This is partly responsible for the investment in the state.

Road transport:

• There are 28 national highways in the state, covering a total distance of 5,036 km.
• The state has a total road length of 1,67,000 km.
• It ranks second in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects.

Rail transport:

• Tamil Nadu has a well-developed rail network as part of Southern Railway, headquartered in Chennai.
• Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length of 6,693 KM and there are 690 railway stations in the state.
• The system connects it with most major cities in India.
• Chennai developed a metro system, which came into operation in May 2017.

Air transport:

• Tamil Nadu has four major international airports.
• Chennai, Coimbatore, Tiruchirapalli, and Madurai International airports.
• It also has domestic airports at Tuticorin, Salem, and Madurai.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Tamil Nadu Economy Additional Important Questions and Answers

PART – A

Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
Tamil Nadu is the geographically largest state of India.
(a) 5^th
(b) 7^th
(c) 9^th
(d) 11^th
Answer:
(d) 11^th

Question 2.
Tamil Nadu lies in the part of India.
(a) North East
(b) South West
(c) South East
(d) northwest
Answer:
(c) South East

Question 3.
TNPL is the ……………………. largest eco-friendly paper mill.
(a) Asia’s
(b) America’s
(c) Europe’s
(d) Australia’s
Answer:
(a) Asia’s

Question 4.
………………………. known as “knitting city” is the exporter of garments.
(a) Tiruppur
(b) Thirunelveli
(c) Erode
(d) Karur
Answer:
(a) Tiruppur

Question 5.
……………………….. nicknamed as “The Detroit of Asia” is home to a large number of auto component industries.
(a) Thiruvallur
(b) Kancheepuram
(c) Thoothukudi
(d) Chennai
Answer:
(d) Chennai

Question 6.
SAIL has a steel plant in ……………………
(a) Salem
(b) Karur
(c) Ariyalur
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(a) Salem

Question 7.
The Kalpakkam nuclear power plant and the Kudankulam nuclear power plant are the major …………………. plants for the energy grid.
(a) Nuclear energy
(b) Hydel energy
(c) Solar energy
(d) Wind energy
Answer:
(a) Nuclear energy

Question 8.
The district which has the lowest density of population is ……………………….
(a) Sivagangai
(b) Nilgiris
(c) Kanyakumari
(d) Thiruvallur
Answer:
(a) Sivagangai

Question 9.
Tamil Nadu Newsprint Paper Limited (TNPL) is a ……………………….. Industry in Tamil Nadu
(a) Joint sector
(b) Private sector
(c) Public sector
(d) Co-operative sector
Answer:
(c) Public sector

Question 10.
SPIC is the largest producer of …………………….. in India.
(a) Chemical
(b) Fertilizers
(c) Petrol
(d) Fisheries
Answer:
(b) Fertilizers

PART – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Write a note on “water resources”?
Answer:

1. There are 17 river basins in Tamil Nadu.
2. The main rivers are Palar, Cheyyar, Ponnaiyar, Cauvery, Bhavani, Vaigai, Chittar, Tamiraparani, Vellar, Noyyal, Siruvani, Gundar, Vaipar, Valparai, etc.
3. North-East monsoon is the major source of rainfall followed by the southwest monsoon.
4. Wells are the largest source of irrigation in Tamil Nadu (56%).

Question 2.
Write a note on “Urbanisation in Tamil Nadu”?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu is the most urbanized state with 48.4% of the urban population against 31.5% for India as a whole. The State accounts for 9.61% of total urbanites in India against a 6% share of the total population.

Question 3.
Explain Per capita income in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. The Per capita GSDP (Gross State Domestic Product) of Tamil Nadu also ($ 2,200) which is higher than that of many other States in India.
2. Per capita, the GSDP of Tamil Nadu is nearly 1.75 times higher than the national average, as per 2018 data.
3. In terms of rupees, the per capita income in Tamil Nadu was ₹1,03,600 in 2010 – 2011 and it has increased to ₹1,88, 492 in 2017 – 2018 as per the Budget.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 1.
Write a note on “Educational Loans”?
Answer:

1. Educational loans disbursed by Public Sector Banks under priority sector are concerned, 20.8% of the total amount was disbursed in Tamil Nadu between 2013-14 and 2015-16.
2. Andhra Pradesh was second with 11.2% of the total loan amount followed by Maharashtra [10.2%]
3. The total amount of educational loans disbursed by Private Banks during the same period, Kerala accounted for 37.8% followed by Tamil Nadu with 24.8%.

Question 2.
Describe the “Unemployment and Poverty”?
Answer:

1. The national average unemployment rate stands at 50 and Tamil Nadu ranks 22nd with an unemployment rate of 42 per 1000.
2. There are different kinds of unemployment with different economic implications.
3. All those aspects need to be studied to fully understand the employment situation.
4. Tamil Nadu is one of India’s richest states since 1994, the state has seen a steady decline in poverty.
5. Tamil Nadu has lower levels of poverty than most other states in the country.
6. After 2005, Tamil Nadu was among India’s fastest-growing states, with growth being driven mainly by services.

PART – D

Answer the following questions in about a page.

Question 1.
Explain the highlights of the Tamil Nadu Economy?
Answer:
Highlights of Tamil Nadu Economy:

1. The growth of SGDP in Tamil Nadu has been among the fastest in India since 2005.
2. Poverty reduction in Tamil Nadu has been faster than that in many other States.
3. Tamil Nadu ranks 3^rd in terms of invested capital (₹ 2.92 lakh crore) and the value of total industrial output (₹ 6.19 lakh crore).
4. Tamil Nadu ranks first among the states in terms of the number of factories with 17% share and industrial workers (16% share) of the country.
5. Tamil Nadu is placed third in the health index as per the NITIAAYOG report.
6. Tamil Nadu has the highest Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education.
7. Tamil Nadu has the largest number of engineering colleges.
8. Tamil Nadu has emerged as a major hub for renewable energy.
9. Tamil Nadu has the highest credit Deposit Ratio in commercial and cooperative banks.
10. Tamil Nadu has the highest ranks first on investment proposals filed by MSMEs.

Question 2.
Describe the “MSMEs”?
Answer:

1. The Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises are defined under the MSMED Act 2006.
2. The enterprises are classified as Manufacturing and Service enterprises based on the investment in plant and machinery and equipment (excluding land and building).
3. Tamil Nadu accounts for 15.07% of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in the country (the highest among all States) with 6.89 lakhs registered MSMEs.
4. Producing over 8000 varieties of products for a total investment of more than ₹32,008 crores.
5. MSMEs produce a wide variety of products in almost all sectors.
6. The prominent among them are the engineering, electrical, chemicals, plastics, steel paper, matches, textiles, hosiery, and garments sector.
7. Around 15.61 lakh entrepreneurs have registered, providing employment opportunities to about 99.7 lakhs persons with a total investment of Rs. 1,68,331 crore.

ACTIVITY

Question 1.
Visit your nearby village and make an on-the-spot study about crops production, source of irrigation, and living conditions of farmers?
Answer:
Crop Production:

1. Crop Production includes all the feed sources that are required to maintain the dairy herd and the resource inputs used to produce the crops.
2. The type of feed depends on animal management. System – conventional or organic.
3. Feeds may include mainly corn-silage, corn – grain, alfalfa – hay and alfalfa-silage, soybeans, soybean meal, wheat, oats, distiller’s grains solids, with grasses, forage, and hay and dietary supplements such as minerals.
4. The inventory would include the production of all feed crops raised on the farm, purchased from a vendor or other farm, or sold to another farm.
5. In the United States, larger farms purchase feed while smaller farms grow their own feed. [USDA ECONOMIC RESEARCH SERVICE, 2007] USDA – United States Development Association.
6. A separate analysis would be conducted for the feed milling operations to account for its resource inputs such as fuel used in transportation and electricity.
7. Inputs in crop production include fuel for tractors and other equipment, water, machinery, fertilizer, pesticides.
8. Manure nutrients are a resource input if used in crop production.

Important sources of irrigation available in Indian villages are as follows:
There are three major sources of irrigation in India.
They are:-

1. Canals
2. Wells and Tube – wells
3. Tanks
   • Wells and Tube wells are the major sources of irrigation.
   • Canals rank second.
   • Tanks rank third.

Canal irrigation: Canal irrigation has its maximum development in the Great Plains and in the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna deltas in the eastern coastal plains.

Wells and Tube – wells: Wells and Tube – wells are popular in the alluvial plains.
The living condition of farmers:

1. Smallholder farmers already face numerous risks to agricultural production.
2. Climate change is expected to disproportionately affect smallholder farmers and make their livelihoods even more precarious.
3. Farmers crop with risks and explore what strategies are needed to help them adapt to climate change.
4. Agricultural system owing to their high dependence on agriculture for their livelihood, chronic food insecurity, physical, isolation and lack of access to formal safety nets.
5. Farmers are frequently exposed to pest and disease outbreaks and extreme weather events particularly cyclones.
6. Farmers use a variety of risk cropping strategies.
7. To prevent them from remaining food insecure.
8. Few farmers have adjusted their farming strategies in response to climate change, owing to limited resources and capacity.
9. Technical, Financial, and Institutional support is needed to improve agricultural production and food security.
10. Farmers and make their livelihoods resilient to climate change.

Students can download 11th Economics Chapter 3 Production Analysis Questions and Answers, Notes, Samcheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 3 Production Analysis

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Production Analysis Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The primary factors of production are ………………………..
(a) Labour and Organisation
(b) Labour and Capital
(c) Land and Capital
(d) Land and Labour
Answer:
(d) Land and Labour

Question 2.
The man-made physical goods used to produce other goods and services are referred to as.
(a) Land
(b) Labour
(c) Capital
(d) Organization.
Answer:
(c) Capital

Question 3.
The formula for calculating AP is ………………………
(a) ∆TP/N
(b) ∆TP/∆N
(c) TP/MP
(d) TP/N
Answer:
(d) TP/N

Question 4.
Which factor is called the changing agent of the Society
(a) Labourer
(b) Land
(c) Organizer
(d) Capital
Answer:
(c) Organizer

Question 5.
Who said, that one of the keys of an entrepreneur is “uncertainty – bearing”?
(a) JB Clark
(b) Schumpeter
(c) Knight
(d) Adam Smith
Answer:
(c) Knight

Question 6.
The functional relationship between “inputs” and “outputs” is called as
(a) Consumption Function
(b) Production Function
(c) Savings Function
(d) Investment Function
Answer:
(b) Production Function

Question 7.
In a firm 5 units of factors produce 24 units of the product. When the number of factor increases by one, the production increases to 30 units. Calculate the Average Product.
(a) 30
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 24
Answer:
(c) 5

Question 8.
The short-run production is studied through
(a) The Laws of Returns to Scale
(b) The Law of Variable Proportions
(c) Iso-quants
(d) Law of Demand
Answer:
(b) The Law of Variable Proportions

Question 9.
The long-run production function is explained by ………………………
(a) Law of Demand
(b) Law of Supply
(c) Returns to Scale
(d) Law of Variable Proportions
Answer:
(c) Returns to Scale

Question 10.
An Iso-quant curve is also known as
(a) Inelastic Supply Curve
(b) Inelastic Demand Curve
(c) Equi-marginal Utility
(d) Equal Product Curve
Answer:
(d) Equal Product Curve

Question 11.
Mention the economies reaped from inside the firm.
(a) Financial
(b) Technical
(c) Managerial
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 12.
Cobb-Douglas production function assumes
(a) Increasing returns to scale
(b) Diminishing returns to scale
(c) Constant returns to scale
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Constant returns to scale

Question 13.
Name the returns to scale when the output increases by more than 5%, for a 5% increase in the inputs.
(a) Increasing returns to scale
(b) Decreasing returns to scale
(c) Constant returns to scale
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Increasing returns to scale

Question 14.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of land?
(a) It’s a limited supply
(b) It is mobile
(c) Heterogeneous
(d) Gift of Nature
Answer:
(b) It is mobile

Question 15.
The product obtained from additional factors of production is termed as ……………………….
(a) Marginal product
(b) Total product
(c) Average product
(d) Annual product
Answer:
(a) Marginal product

Question 16.
Modern economists have propounded the law of
(a) Increasing returns
(b) Decreasing returns
(c) Constant returns
(d) Variable proportions.
Answer:
(a) Increasing returns

Question 17.
Producer’s equilibrium is achieved at the point where ……………………….
(a) Marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS) is greater the price ratio
(b) MRTS is lesser than the price ratio
(c) MRTS and price ratio are equal to each other
(d) The slopes of isoquant and isocost lines are different.
Answer:
(c) MRTS and price ratio are equal to each other

Question 18.
The relationship between the price of a commodity and the supply of a commodity is
(a) Negative
(b) Positive
(c) Zero
(d) Increase
Answer:
(b) Positive

Question 19.
If the average product is decreasing, then marginal product ……………………….
(a) Must be greater the average product
(b) Must be less than the average product
(c) Must be increasing
(d) Both a and c
Answer:
(b) Must be less than average product

Question 20.
A production function measures the relation between
(a) Input prices and output prices
(b) Input prices and the quantity of output
(c) The number of inputs and the quantity of output.
(d) The number of inputs and input prices.
Answer:
(c) The number of inputs and the quantity of output.

Part – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 21.
Classify the factors of production?
Answer:
Factors of production are classified as land, labor, capital, and organization.

1. Land and Labour – Primary factors
2. Capital and organization – Secondary factors.

Question 22.
Define Labour.
Answer:
According to Marshall, labour represents services provided by the factor labour, which helps in yielding an income to the owner of the labor-power.

Question 23.
State the production function?
Answer:
The production function is the relationship between inputs of productive services and outputs of product per unit of time.

Question 24.
Define the Marginal Product of a factor.
Answer:
Marginal product is the addition made to the total product when one more unit of the variable input is employed.
MP = TP (n)-TP (n- 1)
(OR)
Marginal product is the ratio of the change in the total product to the change in the units of input.
MP = ∆TP / ∆N

Question 25.
What is the Iso – cost line?
Answer:
An Iso-cost line represents different combinations of inputs which show the same amount of cost.

Question 26.
What are the conditions for the producer’s equilibrium?
Answer:
The Conditions For Producer’S Equilibrium:

1. The Iso-cost line must be tangent to the Iso-quant curve.
2. At the point of tangency, the Iso-quant curve must be convex to the origin or MRTSLK must be declining.

Question 27.
What are the reasons for the upward-sloping supply curve?
Answer:
As the price of the commodity increases the quantum supplied also increases. So the supply curve has a positive slope.
The quantum supplied of commodity x is represented on X-axis. And the price of the commodity is represented on the Y-axis. The points such as a, b, c, d, and e on the supply curve SS’, represent various quantities at different prices.

PART – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 28.
What are the characteristics of land?
Answer:
The Characteristics of Land:

1. Land is a primary factor of production.
2. Land is a passive factor of production.
3. Land is the free gift of nature.
4. Land has no cost of production.
5. Land is inelastic in supply.
6. Land is permanent and immovable.
7. Land is heterogeneous and has alternative uses.
8. Land is subject to law of diminishing returns.

Question 29.
What are the factors governing the elasticity of supply?
Answer:
1. Nature of the commodity: The elasticity of supply of durable goods is high but perishables have a low elasticity of supply.

2. Cost of production: Under constant or increasing returns the elasticity of supply is greater, under diminishing returns elasticity is less.

3. Technical condition: In large-scale production, supply cannot be adjusted easily. So elasticity of supply is lesser and vice versa.

4. Time factor: During a very short period, supply cannot be adjusted. In a short period, variable factors can be changed so elasticity is more and in a long period, supply is highly elastic.

Question 30.
What are the functions of entrepreneurs?
Answer:

1. An organizer is the initiator of the business.
2. A successful entrepreneur is always an innovator.
3. An organizer co-ordinates the factors of production to start and run the business or production.
4. An organizer controls and directs the factors to get better results and he supervises for the efficient functioning of all.
5. There are risk-taking and uncertainty bearing obstacles.

Question 31.
State and explain the elasticity of supply?
Answer:
The elasticity of supply may be defined as the degree of responsiveness of change in supply to change in price on the part of sellers.
It is Mathematically expressed as,
Elasticity of supply = Proportionate change in supply / Proportionate change in price
e_s = \(\frac { \Delta Q_{ S } }{ Q_{ S } } \) / \(\frac { \Delta P }{ P } \)
e_s = \(\frac { \Delta Q_{ S } }{ \Delta P } \) × \(\frac{P}{Qs}\)
Where Q_s represents the supply, P represents price, ∆denotes a change.

Question 32.
Bring out the Relationship among Total, Average and Marginal Products?
Answer:

Question 33.
Illustrate the concept of producer’s Equilibrium?
Answer:
Producer equilibrium implies the situation where the producer maximizes his output. It is also known as the optimum combination of the factors of production. In short, the producer manufactures a given amount of output with the ‘least-cost combination of factors’, with his given budget.

Optimum Combination of Factors implies either there is output maximization for given inputs or there is cost minimization for the given output.

Conditions for Producer Equilibrium
The two conditions that are to be fulfilled for the attainment of producer equilibrium are:

1. The isocost line must be tangent to the iso-quant curve.
2. At the point of tangency, the iso-quant curve must be convex to the origin or MRTSLk must be declining.

Question 34.
State the Cobb-Douglas Production Function.
Answer:
The Cobb-Douglas production function was developed by Charles W.Cobb and Paul H. Douglas.
Cobb-Douglas production function describes how much output can be made with capital and labour inputs.
Q = AL^α K^βα
Q – output, A – positive constant, K – capital, L – Labour
α and β – Elasticity coefficients of outputs for the inputs,
α + β = 1 denotes constant returns to scale.

PART – D

Answer the following questions in about a page.

Question 35.
Examine the Law of Variable Proportions with the help of a diagram?
Answer:
The law states that if all other factors are fixed and one input is varied in the short run, the total output will increase at an increasing rate at first instance, be constant at a point and then eventually decrease. The marginal product will become negative at last.

According to G.Stigler, “As equal increments of one input are added, the inputs of other productive services being held constant, beyond a certain point, the resulting increments of the product will decrease, i.e., the marginal product will diminish”.

Assumptions:
The Law of Variable Proportions is based on the following assumptions.

1. Only one factor is variable while others are held constant.
2. All units of the variable factor are homogeneous.
3. The product is measured in physical units.
4. There is no change in the state of technology.
5. There is no change in the price of the product.

Total Product (TP):
Total product refers to the total amount of commodity produced by the combination of all inputs in a given period of time. Summation of marginal products, i.e. TP = LMP where, TP = Total Product, MP = Marginal Product

Average Product (TP):
Average Product is the result of the total product divided by the total units of the input employed. In other words, it refers to the output per unit of the input. Mathematically, AP = TP/N Where, AP = Average Product TP = Total Product N = Total units of inputs employed Marginal Product (MP)

Marginal Product is the addition or the increment made to the total product when one more unit of the variable input is employed. In other words, it is the ratio of the change in the total product to the change in the units of the input. It is expressed as MP = ∆TP/∆N

where MP = Marginal Product
TP(n) = Change in total product
∆N = Change in units of input

It is also expressed as
MP = TP (n) – TP (n – 1)
Where MP = Marginal Product
TP(n – 1) = Total product of employing nA unit of a factor
TP(n – 1) = Total product of employing the previous unit of a factor, that is, (n – 1)^th unit of a factor.
The Law of Variable Proportions is explained with the help of the following schedule and diagram:

In the above table, units of variable factor (labour) are employed along with other fixed factors of production. The table illustrates that there are three stages of production. Though total product increases steadily at the first instant, constant at the maximum point, and then diminishes, it is always positive forever.

While total product increases, the marginal product increases up to a point and then decreases. The total product increases up to the point where the marginal product is zero. When total product tends to diminish marginal product becomes negative.

In the diagram, the number of workers is measured on X-axis while TP_L, AP_L, and MP_L are denoted on Y-axis. The diagram explains the three stages of production as given in the above table.

Stage – I
In the first stage, MP_L increases up to the third labourer and it is higher than the average product so the total product is increasing at an increasing rate. The tendency of total production to increase at an increasing rate stops at point A and it begins to increase at a decreasing rate. This point is known as ‘Point of Inflexion’.

Stage – II
In the second stage, MP_L decreases up to the sixth unit of labor where the MP_L curve intersects the X-axis. At the fourth unit of labor MP_L = AP_L. After this, the MP_L curve is lower than the AP_L. TP_L increases at a decreasing rate.

Stage – III
The third stage of production shows that the sixth unit of labour is marked by negative MP_L, the AP_L continues to fall but remains positive. After the sixth unit, TP_L declines with the employment of more units of the variable factor, labour.

Question 36.
List out the properties of isoquants with the help of diagrams?
Answer:
Properties of Iso – quant Curve:

1. The isoquant curve has negative slope:
It slopes downwards from left to right indicating that the factors are substitutable. If more of one factor is used, less of the other factor is needed for producing the same level of output.

In the diagram combination, A refers to more capital K₅ and less labour L₂ As the producer moves to B, C, and D, more labour and less capital are used.

2. Convex to the origin.
This explains the concept of Diminishing Marginal Rate of Technical Substitution (MRTS_LK). For example, the capital substituted by 1 unit of labour goes on decreasing when moved from top to bottom. If so, it is called diminishing MRTS. Constant MRTS (straight line) and increasing MRTS (concave) are also possible. It depends on the nature of the isoquant curve.

This means that factors of production are substitutable to each other. The capital substituted per unit of labour goes on decreasing when the isoquant is convex to the origin.

3. Nonintersection of Iso – quant curves:
For instance, point A lies on the isoquants IQ₁ and IQ₂. But the point C shows a higher output and the point B shows a lower level of output IQ₁
If C = A, B = A, then C = B. But C > B which is illogical.

4. An upper isoquant curve represents a higher level of output:
Higher IQ_S show higher outputs and lower IQ_S show lower outputs, for the upper isoquant curve implies the use of more factors than the lower isoquant curve.
The arrow in the figure shows an increase in the output with a right and upward shift of an isoquant curve.

5. Isoquant curve does not touch either X-axis or Y-axis:
No isoquant curve touches the X-axis or Y-axis because in IQ₁ only capital is used, and in IQ₂ only labour is used.

Question 37.
Elucidate the Laws of Returns to scale. Illustrate?
Answer:

In the long-run all factors are variable. The laws of returns to scale explain the relationship between output and the scale of inputs in the long-run when all the inputs are increased in the same proportion.
Assumptions :

1. All the factors are variable except the organization.
2. There is no change in technology.
3. There is perfect competition in the market.
4. Outputs or returns are increased in physical quantities.

Three phases of returns to scale:
1. Increasing returns to scale:
If all inputs are increased by one percent, output increase by more than one percent.

2. Constant returns to scale:
In this case, if all inputs are increased by one percent, output increases by one percent.
Diagrammatic Illustration:

The three laws of returns to scale can be explained with the help of the diagram below.

In the figure, the movement from point a to point b represents increasing returns to scale. Because, between these two points output has doubled, but output has tripled. The law of constant returns to scale is implied by the movement from point b to point c.

Because between these two points inputs have doubled and output also has doubled. Decreasing returns to scale are denoted by the movement from the point c to point d since doubling the factors from 4 units to 8 units product less than the increase in inputs, that is by 33.33%.

Question 38.
Explain the internal and external economies of scale?
Answer:
Internal Economies of Scale:

1. Internal Economies of scale refer to the advantages enjoyed by the production unit which causes a reduction in the cost of production of the commodity.
2. For example, a firm enjoying the advantage of an application of most modem machinery, generation of internal capital, and improvement in managerial skill, etc. are sure to reduce the cost of production. They are of various types:

1. Technical Economies:

• When the size of the firm is large, a large amount of capital can be used.
• There is a possibility to introduce up-to-date technologies; this improves the productivity of the firm.
• Research and development strategies can be applied easily.

2. Financial Economies:

• Big firms can float shares in the market for capital expansion, while small firms cannot easily float shares in the market.

3. Managerial Economies:

• Large scale production facilitates specialization and delegation.

4. Labour Economies:

• Large scale production implies greater and minute division of labour.
• This leads to specialization which enhances the quality.
• This increases the productivity of the firm.

5. Marketing Economies:

• In the context of large-scale production, the producers can both buy raw-materials in bulk at a cheaper cost and can take the products to distant markets.
• They enjoy a huge bargaining power.

6. Economies of survival:

• Product diversification is possible when there is large scale production.
• This reduces the risk in production.
• Even if the market for one product collapses, the market for other commodities offsets it.

External Economies of Scale:

1. External Economies of Scale refer to changes in any factor outside the firm causing an improvement in the production process.
2. This can take place in the case of the industry also.
3. These are the advantages enjoyed by all the firms in the industry due to the structural growth.
4. Important external economies of scale are listed below:
   • Increased transport facilities
   • Banking facilities
   • Development of townships
   • Development of information and communication.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Production Analysis Additional Important Questions and Answers

Part – A

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The labour exercised without expecting income is _______
(a) Service
(b) Physical labour
(c) Mental labour
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Service

Question 2.
Land and Labour are called ……………………. factors.
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Territory
(d) Service
Answer:
(a) Primary

Question 3.
Investment in an advertisement, expenses on capital. training programme are examples of _______ capital
(a) Tangible
(b) Intangible
(c) Visible
(d) Financial
Answer:
(c) Visible

Question 4.
Reward Paid to capital is ……………………….
(a) Interest
(b) Profit
(c) Wages
(d) Rent
Answer:
(a) Interest

Question 5.
Marginal product is
(a) MP = ∆TP / ∆N
(b) MP = ∆AP / ∆N
(c) MP = TP / N
(d) MP = ∆P / N
Answer:
(a) MP = ∆TP / ∆N

Question 6.
What does a successful entrepreneur will always be made?
(a) Organization
(b) Investment
(c) Capital
(d) Innovation
Answer:
(d) Innovation

Question 7.
_______ is the exertion of body or mind in the production process.
(a) Labour
(b) Capital
(c) Land
(d) Financial capital
Answer:
(a) Labour

Question 8.
Gifts of Nature is called ………………………
(a) Land
(b) Labour
(c) Capital
(d) Production
Answer:
(a) Land

Question 9.
_______ is the gift of nature.
(a) Labour
(b) Capital
(c) Land
(d) Organization
Answer:
(c) Land

Question 10.
Labour cannot be separated from ……………………….
(a) Capital
(b) Labourer
(c) Profit
(d) Organisation
Answer:
(b) Labourer

Part – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
What is production?
Answer:
Production is the process of using various factors of production (inputs)to make output for consumption.

Question 2.
Classify the factors determining supply?
Answer:

1. Price of the commodity
2. Price of other commodities
3. Price of factors
4. Price expectations
5. Technology
6. Natural factors
7. Discovery of new raw materials
8. Taxes and subsidies
9. The objective of the firm

Question 3.
What is capital?
Answer:
Capital is a produced means of production. – Bohm – Bawerk

Part – C

Answer the following questions in one paragraph.

Question 1.
Explain the difference between internal and external economies?
Answer:

Question 2.
What is financial capital?
Answer:
Financial capital means the assets needed by a firm to provide goods and services measured in terms of monetary value. It is normally raised through debt and equity issues. The prime aim of it is to mass wealth in terms of profit.

Question 3.
What are the Supply Function and its assumptions?
Answer:
The supply of a commodity depends on factors such as the price of the commodity, price of labour, price of capital, the state of technology, number of firms, prices of related goods, and future price expectations, and so on. Mathematically the supply function is Q_S = f(P_x, P_r, P_f, T, O, E)

Where Q_S = Quantity supplied of x commodity
P_x = Price of x Commodity
P_r = Price of related goods
P_f = Price of factors of production
T = Technology
O = Objective of the producer
E = Expected Price of the commodity.

Assumptions:
Law of Supply is based on the following assumptions.

1. There is no change in the prices of factors of production
2. There is no change in the price of capital goods
3. Natural resources and their availability remain the same
4. Prices of substitutes are constant
5. There is no change in technology
6. Climate remains unchanged
7. Political situations remain unchanged
8. There is no change in tax policy

Part – D

Answer the following questions in about a page?

Question 1.
What are the diseconomies of scale? Mention its types.
Answer:
The diseconomies of the scale are a disadvantage to a firm or an industry or an organization. It increases the cost of production. These diseconomies are of two types.

1. Internal diseconomies:
When the scale of production increases beyond the optimum limit, its efficiency may come down.

2. External diseconomies:
It refers to the threat or disturbance to a firm or an industry from factor lying outside it.
For example, a bus strike prevents the easy and correct entry of the workers into the firm. Similarly, the rent of a firm increases very much if new economic units are established in the locality.

Question 2.
What are the types of elasticity of supply?
Answer:
There are five types of elasticity of supply

1. Relatively Elastic Supply:
The coefficient of elastic supply is greater than 1 [E_S >1]. One percent change in the price of a commodity causes more than one percent change in the quantity supplied of the commodity.

2. Unitary Elastic Supply.
The coefficient of elastic supply is equal to 1 [E_S = 1]. One percent change in the price of a commodity causes an equal [one percent ] change in the quantity supplied of the commodity.

3. Relatively Inelastic Supply:
The coefficient of elasticity is less than one [E_S < 1], One percent change in the price of a commodity causes a less than one percent change in the quantity supplied of the commodity.

4. Perfectly Inelastic Supply:
The coefficient of elasticity is equal to zero [E_S = 0], One percent change in the price of a commodity causes no change in the quantity supplied of the commodity.

5. Perfectly Elastic Supply:
The coefficient of elasticity of supply is infinity [E_S – α]. One percent change in the price of a commodity causes an infinite change in the quantity supplied of the commodity.

ACTIVITY

Question 1.
Visit a market and write a report on the factors that influence the quantity of supply of a commodity of your locality?
Answer:
Things that cause changes in supply are also called influences of supply.
The influences on supply are:

1. Inputs
2. Productivity
3. Technology
4. Taxes
5. Subsidises
6. Government regulation
7. Number of sellers
8. Political conflict

Supply and Demand Balance:

1. It supply is more price goes down. Demand is more price goes up.
2. Commodity movement get these number [PIS]

P = Production
I = Import
S = Stock

These three represent supply of any commodity = [E × C]
E = Export;
C = Consumption

1. These two represent demand.
2. PIS is more than E × C., then that commodity price goes down.
3. E × C is more than PIS that commodity price goes up.
4. Prediction of any commodity price, you will predict it before that supply-demand imbalance.
5. That means today’s wheat or rice prices are reflections of what will happen to its supply-demand in the next few months rather than its current balance.
6. India’s largest commodity exchange currently working as a trader in Agricultural commodities.
7. The supply is interfered with by legal or illegal cartels.
8. The price is also inflated by opportunistic government charges.
9. A price ceiling prevents a price from rising above the ceiling.
10. Wheat has a price ceiling of 2400 per metric tonne, $400 is the highest amount supplier can charge.

Question 2.
Visit a factory and show how the four factors of production are effectively employed to produce the product in your locality?
Answer:

1. A Factory is considered capital in the factor of production.
2. Capital is any good that was used to create other goods.
3. A natural resource can’t be land, since it’s not the actual workers within the factory it can’t labor, so it has to be capital.

Factors affecting the location of Industries are as follows:

1. Raw Materials
2. Capital
3. Transport
4. Market
5. Water
6. Power
7. Land
8. Labour
9. Communication

The main factors affecting the location of Industries are as follows:

1. Land
2. Labour
3. Capital
4. Entrepreneurship
   • Factors of production refer to the inputs of the production process.
   • Factors of production are resources that produce goods and services.

These are four categories of factors of production:

Land:
Natural resources that we use to produce goods and services.

Example:
Oil, gas and goal, water, etc.

Labour:
The work time and work effort that people devote to producing goods and services. This includes human capital which is the quality of the labour forming from knowledge and skills of the person obtained from education, on-the-job training, and work experience.

Capital:

1. The tools, instruments, machine, buildings, and other items that are used to produce goods and services.
2. This includes machinery, hammers, etc.

Entrepreneurship:
The human resource that organizes labour, land, and capital. This includes the idea, plan, etc. about how and what to produce.