Category: Class 9

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 6 Road Safety Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 6 Road Safety

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Road Safety Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following.

Question 1.
What are the benefits of wearing a helmet while driving?
Answer:
First of all, wearing a helmet helps to reduce traffic accidents. People will pay enough attention while they are driving their motors if they wear helmets. More over it helps us in protecting our eyes from the dust or terrible lights from other vehicles because we don’t need to use our hands or fingers to clean it while we are controlling our vehicles.

Question 2.
List out the factors of road accidents.
Answer:
Different factors to road accidents

1. Drivers
2. Pedestrians
3. Passengers
4. Vehicles
5. Road conditions
6. Weather conditions

Question 3.
Which colour in the signal means ‘stop?
Answer:
Red colour in the signal means ‘stop’

Question 4.
List out any three road safety rules:
Answer:

1. Know your signals
2. Stop, look and cross
3. Don’t run on roads

II. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the factors involved in road accidents.
Answer:
The different factors that contribute to road accident are,

1. Drivers: Over speeding, rash driving, violation of rules, failure to understand signs, fatigue, alcohol.
2. Pedestrians: Carelessness, illiteracy, crossing at wrong places, jaywalkers.
3. Passengers: Projecting their body parts outside vehicles, talking to drivers, alighting and boarding vehicles from the wrong side, traveling on foot boards, catching a running bus, etc.,
4. Vehicles : Failure of brakes or steering, tire burst, insufficient headlights, overloading.
5. Road Condition: Potholes, damaged roads, eroded roads merging of rural roads with highways, and illegal speed breakers.
6. Weather conditions: Fog, snow, heavy rainfall, wind storms, hail storms.

Question 2.
Explain in detail: The road safety rules.
Answer:
It is important for children to know about road safety rules and regulations. Here are a few basic

1. Know Your Signals
2. Stop, Look and Cross
3. Pay Attention – Listen
4. Don’t Run on Roads
5. Always Use Sidewalks
6. Never Stick Hands outside the Vehicle
7. Never cross Road at Bends
8. Don’t Rush.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Road Safety Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Answer in a word

1. This is required by law to drive _____________
2. A life saving _____________
3. They are ehere to key system safe _____________
4. A large vechicle to take precaution _____________ around
5. How the driver indicate which _____________ way they are turning
6. Something you should avoid while driving
7. Watch for there to even the road _____________
8. You apply this to stop your vechicle _____________
9. A pace by which you must abide by _____________
10. This indicates of how quickly you are travelling _____________
11. People, the driver is responsible for _____________
12. The part of your vehicle that meet the road _____________
13. An area where traffic fines double _____________
14. You should turn these on for safety _____________
15. A digital aid in navigating _____________

Answer:

1. licence
2. seat belt
3. Police
4. wide load
5. Blinker
6. Distractions
7. Pedestrian
8. Break
9. speed limit
10. speedo meter
11. Passengers
12. Tyre
13. work zone
14. Lights
15. GPS

II. Answer the following in brief.

Question 1.
Mention the direct consequences of accidents?
Answer:
The direct consequences of Accidents are:

1. Fatality (Death)
2. Injury
3. Damage to Property

Question 2.
What are the preventive measures for accidents?
Answer:
Preventive measures for accidents are,

1. Education and awareness about road safety.
2. Strict enforcement of law
3. Engineering:
   • Vehicle design
   • Road infrastructure.

Question 3.
Mention the major reasons for road accidents.
Answer:
The major reasons for road accident are

1. Negligence in driving
2. Drunk and drive
3. Overlooking the other vehicles
4. High speed
5. Improper driving training and
6. Non-stop long driving

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 5 Local Self Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Local Self Government

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Local Self Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which committee was appointed by the planning commission in 1985
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta
(b) Ashok Mehta
(c) G V K Rao
(d) L M Singhvi
Answer:
(c) G V K Rao

Question 2.
The Uthiramerur stone inscription show evidences of prevelant local self government during the period in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Chola
(b) Chera
(c) Pandiya
(d) Pallava
Answer:
(a) Chola

Question 3.
The 73rd and 74,h constitutional Amendment Acts, was enacted during the year in __________
(a) 1992
(b) 1995
(c) 1997
(d) 1990
Answer:
(a) 1992

Question 4.
act as the inspector of Village Panchayat.
(a) Commissioner
(b) District Collector
(c) Councillors
(d) Mayor
Answer:
(b) District Collector

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ______ was known as the “Father of Local Governments”.
2. Restoration of ______ has become an article of faith during our freedom struggle.
3. ______ was the name of the secret ballot method exercised to elect members to the village councils during the Chola period.
4. Local Government which are function in the villages are called ______
5. ______ will look after the administration of the Town Panchayat.

Answer:

1. Lord Ripon
2. Panchayats
3. Kuda Olai Murai
4. Village Panchayat
5. Executive Officer

III. Match the following

1. Zilla Parishad – (a) Villages
2. Gram Sabhas – (b) Mayor
3. Ward Committees – (c) Chairman
4. Panchayat Union – (d) District Collector
5. Corporation – (e) Municipalities

Answer:

1. – (d)
2. – (a)
3. – (e)
4. – (c)
5. – (b)

IV. Find out the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Panchayat Union is formed by grouping of Districts.
(ii) District Panchayat is constituted in each village.
(iii) The Municipal Commissioner will be a person from the Indian Administration Service (IAS)
(iv) In Village Panchayat the President and ward members are elected by the people.
Answer:
(iii) and (iv) are correct

V. Give a short note

Question 1.
Name the taxes levied by the Village Panchayat.
Answer:

• Property Tax
• Professional Tax
• House Tax
• Taxes for connection of drinking water
• Land Tax
• Taxes levied on shops

Question 2.
List out the salient features of Tamil Nadu Panchayat Raj Act 1994.
Answer:
The salient features of the Tamil Nadu Panchayat Raj Act of 1994.

1. A three-tier system
2. Gram Sabha
3. Establishment of Election Commission
4. Constitution of Finance Commission
5. Reservation of Seats for SS/ST’s proportionate to their population.
6. One-third reservation of seats for women and
7. Constitution of District Planning Committees.

Question 3.
Mention the important functions of the Village Panchayat.
Answer:
Functions of the Village Panchayat

• Supply of drinking water
• Maintenance of street lights
• Maintenance of roads.
• Maintenance of village libraries
• Maintenance of small bridges
• Granting permission to the housing plots
• Maintenance of drainage
• Construction of group houses
• Cleaning of streets
• Maintenance of burial grounds
• Maintenance of common lavatory facilities

Question 4.
Which are the voluntary functions of the local governments?
Answer:
Voluntary functions of the local governments are

1. Maintenance of street light in the villages
2. Maintenance of markets and fairs
3. Implantation of trees
4. Maintenance of playgrounds
5. Maintenance of parking vehicles, slaughterhouses, and Cattle shed
6. Control over places of exhibition

Question 5.
Name the Urban local governments.
Answer:

1. Urban local governments are Corporation, Municipality and Town Panchayat
2. The area where more than 10,000 people are living is called a Town Panchayat
3. Municipalities were constituted in India for the first time in Chennai in 1688
4. Municipal Corporation is established in big cities.

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Write in detail about the salient features of the 73rd & 74th Constitutional Amendment Act (1992).
Answer:
Salient features of the 73rd and 74lh Constitutional Amendment Act (1992)

1. Panchayats and Municipalities will be “Institutions of Self Government”.
2. Basic Units of Democratic System – Grama Sabhas (Villages) and Ward Committees (Municipalities) comprising all the adult members registered.
3. The three-tier system of panchayats at the village, intermediate block/taluk/Mandal, and district levels. Smaller states with a population below 2 million only two tiers.
4. Seats at all levels filled by direct election.
5. Seats reserved for SCs and STs at all levels in proportion to their population.
6. One-third of the total number of seats reserved for women. One-third of the seats reserved for SCs and STs also reserved for women. One-third of officers of Chairpersons at all levels reserved for women.
7. Uniform five-year term and election to constitute new bodies to be completed before the expiry of the term.
8. In the event of dissolution, elections compulsorily within six months.

Question 2.
Describe the major problems & challenges faced by the local self-government.
Answer:
Problems and challenges facing the local self-government.

1. Local self-governments are the crucial basis for our democracy.
2. The Constitutional status of local self-governments adds more significance to their functioning.
3. There are a few critical concerns in the working of local self-government in India.
4. Major problems and challenges may be mentioned as below.
   • Lack of clear demarcation of powers and functions of local bodies.
   • Allocation of funds and needs assessment are not matched.
   • Combined with accountability, the local self-governments demand for more autonomy and economic freedom may be addressed.
   • Role of caste, class, and religion in decision making at the local self-government.
   • Poor accountability of elected members and officials at the grassroots of democracy.

VII. Activity

Question 1.
Meet your Panchayat President / Municipal Chairman and discuss with him how the local self-government is being administered.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Local Self Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
In India local self government was introduced in 1882 by Lord __________
(a) Ripon
(b) Richard
(c) William
(d) Cornwallis
Answer:
(a) Ripon

Question 2.
James Munroe was the Governor of __________
(a) Calcutta
(b) Bombay
(c) Madras
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Madras

Question 3.
The Community Development Programme was introduced in the year __________
(a) 1950
(b) 1952
(c) 1953
(d) 1954
Answer:
(b) 1952

Question 4.
Panchayats are constituted wherever the population of the village is __________
(a) 2000
(b) 200
(c) 500
(d) 1000
Answer:
(c) 500

Question 5.
The Village Councils functioned very well under the __________
(b) Pallavas
(c) Cheras
(d) Cholas
Answer:
(d) Cholas

Question 6.
According to the GVK Rao Committee post of to be created acting as the Chief Executive Officer of the Zilla Parishad.
(a) District Development Commissioner
(b) Chairman of Panchayat Raj
(c) Grama Munisif
(d) Councillors
Answer:
(a) District Development Commissioner

Question 7.
government’s term the 73rd and 74th constitutional Amendment Acts, 1992 became a reality.
(a) Rajiv Gandhi
(b) Janata
(c) Narasimha Rav
(d) Indira Gandhi
Answer:
(c) Narasimha Rav

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Local bodies provide ___________ to the local Comunity.
2. After independence, the creation of Village Panchayats became a _________ movement.
3. In a Village Panchayat, the President and Ward members are _________ elected by the people.
4. In Tamil Nadu local government Act was passed in the year _________.
5. According to Mahatma Gandhi, ‘India’s soul lives in the _________.
6. E.V. Ramasamy Periyar was the _________ of the Erode Municipality.
7. Election to the local self government are conducted by the _________
8. The “Lanchashirse of the Eastern World” was _________
9. Under the permanent settlement the cultivators more at the mercy of _________
10. Malayans, Sahukars and bohras were _________
11. _________ was the Governor of Madras rejuvenated the Village Panchayat system in British India.

Answer:

1. Services
2. Social
3. directly
4. 1994
5. Village
6. Chairman
7. State Election Commission
8. Zamindars
9. Moneylenders
10. Thomas Munroe

III. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Gram Sabha – (i) Five years
2. Local Self Government – (ii) Three-tier system
3. Ashok Mehta – (iii) Planning Commission
4. Balwant Rai Mehta – (iv) Basic Limit
5. GVK Rao – (v) Two-Tier system

Answer:

1. – (iv)
2. – (i)
3. – (v)
4. – (ii)
5. – (iii)

IV. Find out the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Provincial Autonomy was introduced in India in 1942.
(ii) Munroe was all for administration in the local language.
(iii) The Community development programme and National Extention Service became a basis for “Great charts on Panchayat Raj” in 1957.
(iv) There are no problems and challenges facing the local self-government in India.
Answer:
(ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Village Panchayats have a variety of functions to be carried out.
Reason (R): Village Panchayats are empowered to levy taxes.
(a) (A) is wrong, (R) is correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) is correct, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(a) (A) is wrong, (R) is correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Ashok Mehta Committee was constituted by the Janata government.
Reason (R): The committee was formed at that time to study Panchayat Raj Institutional.
(a) A is wrong. R is correct.
(b) Both A & R are wrong
(c) A is correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Who was Balwant Rai Mehta?
Answer:

1. Balwant Rai Mehta was an Indian Politician.
2. He served as the Second Chief Minister of Gujarat.
3. He is considered as the “Architect of Panchayati Raj” due to his contribution towards democratic decentralization which finally came to be known as Panchayati Raj.

Question 2.
Mention the importance of the Ashok Mehta Committee.
Answer:

1. In December 1977, The Jana government appointed a committee on Panchayati Raj institutions under the Chairmanship of Ashok Mehta.
2. The main recommendation of the Committee was a Two-tier system with Zila Parishad at the district level and below it the Mandal Panchayat.
3. It also insisted that all political parties should participate at all levels in elections.

Question 3.
Write about GVK Rao Committee on Panchayat Raj Institutions.
Answer:
The GVK Rao Committee was appointed by the

1. Planning Commission in 1985 to look at various aspects of Panchayat Raj Institution.
2. It recommended that Panchayat Raj Institution should be activated and provided with all the required support to become an effective organisation.
3. Panchayati Raj at the district level and below should be assigned the work of Planning, Implementation, and Monitoring of rural development programmes.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Local Self Government?
Answer:

1. Local Self Governments are institutions that look after the administration of an area or a small community, such as a village, a town, or a city.
2. It operates at the lowest level of society.
3. It works at the grassroots level, close to the people.
4. It manages the local affairs by local bodies elected by the people.
5. These local bodies provide services to the local community.

Question 5.
What does Article 40 of the Indian Constitution
Answer:
Article 40 was incorporated in the Constitution, which read as: “the state should take steps to organise panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as the units of self-governments.”

Question 6.
Why are meetings conducted in Gram Sabha?
Answer:

1. In each and every village, the people living within its jurisdiction will be the members of Panchayat.
2. The President of the Panchayat will preside over its meetings.
3. In the meetings of the Gram Sabha, the income and expenditure and the beneficiary of the schemes in the village are discussed.

Question 7.
When are the meetings of the Gram Sabha conducted?
Answer:
The meetings of the Gram Sabha are conducted four times a year. They are given below:

1. January 26 – Republic Day
2. May 1 – Labourers Day
3. August 15 – Independence Day
4. October 2 – Gandhi Jayanthi

Question 8.
What are the functions of Panchayat Union?
Answer:
The functions of the Panchayat Union are :

1. Supply of drinking water
2. Maintenance of Village Health Centres
3. Maintenance of the roads
4. Establishment of Maternity Homes
5. Establishment of Public fair
6. Establishment of Veterinary hospitals
7. Maintenance of Social forest
8. Repairing of Primary School buildings

Question 9.
Who is empowered to supervise the developmental functions of the Panchayat Union?
Answer:

1. District Collector
2. Planning Officer
3. concerned Block development officers is empowered to supervise the developmental function of the Panchayat Union.

Question 10.
What are the functions of District Panchayat?
Answer:
The functions of the District Panchayat are :

1. Advising the government about the developmental schemes of the Village Panchayat and Panchayat Union.
2. Supervising the functions of District Planning Commission.

Question 11.
Explain the term Town Panchayat.
Answer:

1. The area where more than 10,000 people are living is called as Town Panchayat.
2. Members and President of the Town Panchayat are directly elected by the people.
3. There is one Executive Officer to look after the administration of the Town Panchayat and their term of office is five years.

Question 12.
What Is a Corporation?
Answer:

1. Municipal corporations are established in big cities where the population of the city is many lakhs.
2. The municipal commissioner is the Administrative Officer.
3. Mayor is the Chairman of the corporation.
4. The term of the Mayor and other members holds office for a period of five years.

Question 13.
Mention important functions of the Mayor.
Answer:

1. He is elected by the people.
2. He is a link between the members of the corporation and the government.
3. He presides over the meeting of the corporation council.
4. He receives dignitaries from foreign countries.

Question 14.
Mention the types of their Urban Panchayat.
Answer:
The types of other urban Panchayat are,

1. Notified area committee
2. Town area committee
3. Cantonment Board
4. Township
5. Port Trust and
6. Special Purpose Agency

Question 15.
How are the elections to the local government in Tamil Nadu conducted?
Answer:

1. The State Election Commission conducts the elections to the local government like general elections.
2. The electoral roll is prepared ward wise.
3. Seats are reserved for the SC and ST and also for the women in proportion to the population by rotation basis.

Question 16.
List out the 12 corporations in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu, there are 12 Corporations. They are:

1. Chennai
2. Kovai
3. Madurai
4. Trichy
5. Tirunelveli
6. Salem
7. Erode
8. Vellore
9. Tuticorin
10. Tirupur
11. Tanjore
12. Dindigul.

Question 17.
Give the two important recommendations of the L.M. Singhri Committee (1986).
Answer:

1. Rajiv Gandhi’s government in 1986 appointed a committee on “Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj institutions for Democracy and Development”.
2. It was under the Chairmanship of L.M. Singhri.
3. Its recommendations were
   • Constitutional recognition to the Panchayati Raj institutions.
   • a new chapter should be added to the constitution of India.
   • Nyaya Panchayats should be created for a cluster of villages.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Mention the Role of Ripon and Munroe in Madras Presidency.
Answer:
(a) Ripon

1. Lord Ripon was the one who introduced the Local Self Government in 1882.
2. He was advocating for the decentralization of administration.
3. He tried to remove obstacles in the sphere of Local Self government by his resolution of 1882.
4. Under him, a large number of tahsildars had quasi-judicial powers in their sub-districts, along with revenue collection.

(b) Munroe

1. He was all for administration in the local language.
2. He was against the practice of appointing administrative posts and the judiciary those who were not fluent with the-local lexicon (language).
3. He felt that Indians ought to be allowed to dispense justice by themselves.

Question 2.
Write about Gandhi’s Concept of Gram Swaraj.
Answer:

1. Gandhi really wanted ‘Swaraj’, The self-rule by the people of India who represent the rural mass.
2. He observed, “India’s soul lives in the village”.
3. He dreamt of village republics in term of Panchayat in free India.
4. Mahatma Gandhi advocated Panchayat Raj, a decentralized form of government where each village is responsible for its own affairs.
5. Gandhi’s ideal village should be basically self-reliant, making provision for all necessities of life, food clothing, clean water, sanitation, housing, education, and other requirements, including government and self-defense.
6. According to Gandhi Gram Swaraj should be a complete republic, independent of its neighbor.
7. Every village should be a democracy in which they will not depend even on neighbors for major needs.

Question 3.
Write a Note on Periyar.
Answer:

1. E.V. Ramasamy Periyar was the Chairman of the Erode Municipality for many years from 1917.
2. During his tenure in Erode Municipality, EVR worked effectively for drinking water supply and provision and Health facilities to the people.
3. He only provided the piped water supply first in India.
4. He was a member of the District Board and Secretary of the Water Works Committee and Plague Committee.
5. He gave a proposal to expand the municipality by adjoining Neighboring areas but it came into existence only in 1980.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 4 Forms of Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Forms of Government

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Forms of Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks

1. _________, __________ are a few examples for unitary form of government.
2. The parliamentary government is also known as __________
3. In the parliamentary fonn of government __________is the leader of the majority party.

Answer:

1. England, France
2. Cabinet government
3. Prime Minister

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.

S.No	Country	Name of the parliament
1.	USA	…………………………..
2.	Norway	…………………………..
3.	……………………………	Folketing

Answer:

S.No	Country	Name of the parliament
1.	USA	Congress
2.	Norway	Storting
3.	Denmark	Folketing

III. Distinguish Between

Question 1.
Unitary and federal forms of government. Ans
Answer:
Unitary form of government:

1. Only one level of government or sub units
2. Subunits cannot operate independently
3. E.g. England, France, Japan, Srilanka

Federal form of government:

1. Two levels of government
2. Federal units are answerable to central government
3. E.g.U.S, Australia, Canada.

Question 2.
Parliamentary and presidential forms of government.
Answer:
Parliamentary form of government:

1. Prime Minister is the leader of the majority party.
2. Central Legislature is supreme E.g.Canada, India, Japan

Presidential form of government:

1. President is directly selected by the people.
2. President is supreme E.g. Rassia, Brazil, U.S.A

IV. Give a short note on

Question 1.
Unitary form of government
Answer:
A unitary system of government or unitary state is a sovereign state governed as a single entity. The central government is supreme and the administrative divisions exercise only powers that the central government has delegated to them. England, France, Japan and Sri Lanka are examples of the Unitary Form of government. In a Unitary form of government, all the authority and power is vested in a single-center, whereas in a federal form of government authority and power is distributed between the center and the constituent units. Even in a Unitary form of Government, there might be a lot of decentralization of authority, but we cannot claim it as a federal system.

V. Answer the following

Question 1.
List out the types of constitution.
Answer:
Types of Constitution

Question 2.
What are the merits of a federal government?
Answer:
The merits of the federal government are

1. Reconciliation of local autonomy with national unity.
2. Division power between centre and states leads to administrative efficiency.
3. It gives rise to big states.
4. Distribution powers check the despotism of central government.
5. More suitable for bigger countries
6. It is good for economic and cultural progress.

Question 3.
Write down the differences between the unitary form of government and the federal form of government.
Answer:
Unitary form of government:

1. Only one Level of Government or subunits
2. Mostly Single Citizenship
3. Sub Units cannot operate Independently
4. No Division of Power
5. Centralization of Power

The federal form of government:

1. Two Levels of Government
2. Dual Citizenship
3. Federal Units are answerable to Central Government
4. Division of Power
5. Decentralization of Power

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write about the merits of a unitary form of government
Answer:
Merits of a unitary form of government

• Suitable for small countries.
• There is no conflict between authority and responsibility.
• A unitary government will make prompt decisions and take speedy action.
• A unitary government is less expensive.
• Amendments to the constitution are easy.
• There is unity, uniformity of law, policy, and administration.

Question 2.
Write about the presidential form of government and what is the difference between presidential and parliamentary forms of government.
Answer:
Presidential form of government:

1. The American President is both the head of the state and the head of government. As the head of state, he occupies a ceremonial position.
2. The president is elected by an electoral college for a fixed tenure of four years.
3. He governs with the help of a cabinet or a smaller body called ‘Kitchen Cabinet’. It is only an advisory body.
4. The President and his secretaries are not responsible to Congress for their acts.
5. The legislative, executive and judicial powers of the government are separated.
6. It is also known as the non-responsible or non-parliamentary or fixed executive system of government.

Difference between Presidential and Parliamentary form of government Presidential Form of Government:

1. President is directly elected by the people.
2. President is supreme
3. Separation of Powers
4. Independent branches
5. President-head of the Government
6. Separation of Powers
7. Independent branches
8. Individual Leadership
9. President is not accountable to Congress

Parliamentary form of Government:

1. Prime Minister is the leader of the majority party.
2. Central Legislature is supreme
3. Absence of Separation Powers Centralisatiion
4. Independent branches with Overlapping functions
5. Prime Minister-head of the Government
6. Centralisation
7. Independent branches with Overlapping functions
8. Collective leadership
9. Collective and Individual Responsibility.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Forms of Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks.

1. The government in the main ______ of the state.
2. There are ______ organs in a Government.
3. Sri Lanka is an example of ______ form of government.
4. Unitary form of government suitable ______ for Countres.
5. U.S. represents form, ______ of government.
6. The constitution is the ______ of the land.
7. The Name of the Parliament in Israel in ______
8. In India we have ______ form government.
9. Brazil has ______ form of governments.
10.  In Bhutan king Jigme is a ______ monarch.
11. The Gross National Happiness (GNH) was first mentioned in the constitution of ______
12. The term GNH was coined by ______

Answer:

1. Agency
2. Three
3. unitary
4. small
5. Federal
6. Supreme law
7. Knesset
8. Parliamentary
9. Presidential
10. Constitutional
11. Bhutan
12. Jigme Singye Wangchuck – King of Bhutan

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.

S.No	Country	Name of the Parliment
1.	Israel	…………………………
2.	Germany	…………………………

Answer:

S.No	Country	Name of the Parliment
1.	Israel	…………………………
2.	Germany	…………………………

III. Distinguish Between

Question 1.
Dictatorship and Monarality
Dictatorship

1. Dictatorship is an office that has been taken through force.
2. A Dictatorship is termed as a government rule by one person or commands who is know as the Dictator. E.g. Uganda, Zimbawe

Monarchy

1. Monarchy is resigned that passed from one generation to another.
2. Monarchy is the rule of the king or green as an emperor. E.g. Britain, Australia.

Question 2.
Democracy and Communism
Answer:
Democracy:

1. Democracy is based on the principle of equality and Freedom.
2. Private ownership is allowed citizens; have certain legislature and freedom which are protected by the constitution, E.g. India.

Communism:

1. Communism is based on common ownership mainly concerned with equality and fairness.
2. Here the government has complete control over the production and distribution of goods and all the resources shared equally in the society. E.g. China, North Korea.

IV. Give a short note on

Question 1.
Historic Transition in Bhutan.
Answer:

1. The fourth king of Bhutan Jigme Singye Wangchuck travelled to all the 20 districts of the tiny kingdom.
2. The purpose of the travel is to explain the importance of the historic transition to the people of Bhutan.
3. The transition from the hereditary monarchy to the Parliamentary Democracy.
4. In 2006 the king abdicated the throne 34 years after ascending it. Now Bhutan is a Parliamentary Democracy and King Jigme a constitutional monarch.

Question 2.
What are the characteristics of good governance?
Answer:
Characteristics of Good governance

1. Participation
2. Rule of Law
3. Transparency
4. Responsiveness
5. Consensus Orientation
6. Equity
7. Effectiveness And Efficiency
8. Accountability

V. Answer the following

Question 1.
What are the demerits of federal form government?
Answer:
De-merits of the federal form of government are,

1. Federal government is weaker when compared to the unitary government.
2. Federal government is more expensive.
3. Provincial tendencies are very common
4. Lack of uniformity in Administration
5. Threat to national unity
6. Distribution powers between centre and states lead to conflict
7. Double Citizenship
8. Rigid constitution cannot be amended easily for the changing needs.
9. The state governments sometimes place hindrances in foreign policy.

Question 2.
Mention about the Unitary features of Indian constitution
Answer:
Unitary features of Indian constitution are

1. Strong Centre
2. Central Government’s control over state territory
3. Single Constitution
4. The flexibility of the Constitution
5. Unequal representation of states
6. Emergency Provisions
7. Single citizenship
8. Single Integrated Judiciary
9. All India Services
10. Appointment of Governor by the central government.

Question 3.
What are the Federal features of the Indian constitution?
Answer:
Federal features of the Indian constitution are

1. Dual Government
2. Written constitution
3. Division of Powers
4. The supremacy of the Constitution
5. the constitution is the supreme law of the land.
6. The laws enacted by the Centre and the states must conform to its provisions.
7. Rigid Constitution
8. Independent Judiciary
9. Bicameralism

Question 4.
Write about the demerits of a unitary form of government
Answer:
De-merits of a unitary form of government

1. It is not suitable for big countries.
2. The central government will have to tackle so many complex problems that lead to administrative delays.
3. The central government will not concentrate on local problems, local interest and initiative.
4. The concentration of powers .may pave way for the despotism of the central government.

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write note the Parliamentary form of Government
Answer:
Parliamentary form of Government:

1. The parliamentary system of government is the one in which the executive is responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts.
2. It is also known as cabinet government or responsible government or Westminister model of government and is prevalent in Britain, Japan, Canada, India among others.

Features of Parliamentary form of government:

1. Nominal and Real Executives.
2. Majority Party Rule
3. Collective Responsibility
4. Double Membership
5. The leadership of the Prime Minister

Merits of the parliamentary form of government:

1. Harmony between Legislature and Executive.
2. Responsible Government
3. Prevents Dictatorship.
4. Wide Representation.

Demerits of the parliamentary form of government:

1. Unstable Government.
2. No Continuity of Policies.
3. The dictatorship of the Cabinet.
4. Against Separation of Powers.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 3 Human Rights Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 3 Human Rights

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Human Rights Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Apartheid’was followed by ____________
(a) South Sudan
(b) South Africa
(c) Nigeria
(d) Egypt
Answer:
(b) South Africa

Question 2.
____________ right exercises in the formation and administration of a government.
(a) Social
(b) Economic
(c) Political
(d) Cultural
Answer:
(c) Political

Question 3.
A 10 year old boy is working in a shop. Which right can you use to recover him?
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Right against child labour exploitation
(d) Right to freedom of Religion
Answer:
(c) Right against child labour exploitation

Question 4.
What is the time limit to get the information from RTI Act 2005?
(a) 20 days
(b) 25 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 35 days
Answer:
(c) 30 days

Question 5.
Which of the following statements are true?
(i) The state Human Rights commission was established in 1993.
(ii) It has the power of a civil court.
(iii) It’s power extend beyond the state.
(iv) It can also recommend compensation to victims.
(a) i and ii are true
(b) i and iii are true
(c) i, ii and iii are true
(d) ii, iii and iv are true
Answer:
(ii), (ii) and (iv) are true

Question 6.
Consider the following statements.
Assertions (A): Rights and duties are the two sides of the same coin.
Reason (R): We have a right to freedom of religions. We have to promote harmony and
the spirit of the people of other religions.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A

Question 7.
According to the UNO, a child is a person who has not completed the age of ________ years
(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) 18
Answer:
(d) 18

Question 8.
Kailasta Satyarthi and Malala have been awarded Nobel Prize for ____________
(a) Literature
(b) Peace
(c) Physics
(d) Economics
Answer:
(b) Peace

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights Contains ____________ articles.
2. The fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution by ____________ Amendment Act.
3. The National Human Rights commission was established on ____________
4. Indian state to implement women ancestral property Act in 1989 was ____________

Answer:

1. 30
2. 42nd
3. 12th October 1993
4. Tamil Nadu

III. Match the following

1. Right to Vote – (i) Cultural Rights
2. Right to form union – (ii) Right against exploitation
3. Right to preserve tradition – (iii) Political Rights
4. The Hindu Succession Act – (iv) Right to freedom
5. Child labour – (v) 2005

Answer:

1. – (iii)
2. – (iv)
3. – (i)
4. – (v)
5. – (ii)

IV. Give short answers

Question 1.
What is Human Right?
Answer:
The U.N.O defines Human rights as “The right inherent to all human beings, regardless of race, gender, nationality, ethnicity, language, religion or any other status. Everyone is entitled to these rights without discrimination”.

Question 2.
What are the fundamental rights?
Answer:
The fundamental rights are :

1. Right to Equality
2. Right to Freedom
3. Right against Exploitation
4. Right to Freedom of Conscience and Religion
5. Cultural and Educational Rights for minorities
6. Right to Constitutional Remedies

Question 3.
What are the Child Rights defined by the UNO?
Answer:

• Right to life
• Right to the family environment
• Right to Education
• Right to benefit from Social security
• Right against sexual exploitation
• Right against sale or trafficking
• Right against other forms of exploitation like Child labour.

Question 4.
Write a short note on the Right to Constitutional Remedies,
Answer:

1. Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Constitution.
2. By this right, a person can adopt Constitutional means and approach a court if he is denied the Fundamental Rights.
3. The court then issues orders which are called ‘Writs’ to the government to restore the rights to the citizen.
4. The Constitutional Remedies put to right anything which may be wrong in terms of the Constitution.
5. This right, therefore, protects and safeguards all other rights.

Question 5.
Define: POCSO
Answer:

1. The state should protect children from sexual exploitation and abuse when they are forced or persuaded to take part in sexual activities physically or mentally.
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012.
3. Regards the best interest of the child as being of paramount importance at every stage.

Question 6.
Why do children need special attention?
Answer:

1. Children are the future citizens of a nation.
2. They should grow with warmth and interest.
3. It helps the child feel secure and valued.
4. From birth children need experiences and relationships that show them they are valued, capable human beings, who bring pleasure to others.
5. Due special attention, the child’s image builds up overtime in a positive manner.

Question 7.
What are the contributions to labourers by B.R, Ambedkar?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s contribution to labourers.

• Reduction in Factory Working Hours (8 hours a day)
• Compulsory Recognition of Trade Unions
• Employment Exchange in India
• Employees State Insurance (ESI)
• Minimum Wages
• Coal and Mica Mines Provident Fund

Question 8.
‘All are equal before law’. But we have enacted a separate law for women – Justify
Answer:

1. We have enacted a separate law for women to review the constitutional and legal safeguards for woman.
2. It recommends remedial measures.
3. Advises the government on all matters of policy affecting the welfare and development of women in the country.
4. Women’s rights under the Constitution of India mainly include equality, dignity and freedom from discrimination.

Question 9.
Write about the Right against exploitation.
Answer:
It is against the law to employ children below 14 years of age in mines, factories, or other occupations. Neither contractor nor an employer can force a worker to do a job against their will.

Question 10.
Differentiate Fundamental Rights and Human Rights.
Answers:
Fundamental Rights:

1. The elemental rights of the citizens of a country, which are listed in the constitution and enforceable under the law is known as fundamental rights.
2. Fundamental rights include only those rights which are basic to a normal life.
3. Fundamental rights are guaranteed under the constitution of the country.

Human Rights:

1. The rights that a human being deserves to survive with respect and freedoms.
2. Human rights include those rights which are basic to real life and are absolute, i.e. it cannot be taken away.
3. Human rights are recognised at the international level.

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
A paragraph about UDHR.
Answer:

1. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights is a milestone document in the history of human rights.
2. The Declaration was proclaimed by the United Nations General Assembly in Paris on 10th December 1948.
3. The first time it sets out the fundamental human rights to be universally protected and the UDHR has been translated into many languages.
4. There are 30 articles in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and it guarantees freedom of expression as well as civil, political, social, economic and cultural rights. These rights apply to all people, irrespective of their race, gender and nationality, as all people are born free and equal.

Question 2.
What are the fundamental duties? How would you follow these in your school premises?
Answer:
The Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976. The Constitution states eleven Fundamental Duties. They are,

1. Respect for the Constitution and its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. To follow and cherish the noble ideals which inspired our National Struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
5. To promote harmony and spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India, transcending religious, linguistic, regional or sectional diversities, to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
6. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
7. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and have compassion on living creatures.
8. To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
9. To safeguard public property and to abjure from violence.
10. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity, so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievements.
11. To provide opportunities for education by the parent and guardian to their child or ward upto the age of 14 years.
12. I would follow the relevant fundamental duties with determination and discipline.

Question 3.
How does the National Human Rights Commission protect our rights?
Answer:

• To inquire into the violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation by a public servant
• To intervene in court proceedings relating to human rights
• To undertake and promote research in the field of human rights
• To engage in human rights education among various sections of society
• To encourage the effects of NGOs and institutions working in the field of human rights.

Question 4.
What are the benefits for workers provided by labour law?
Answer:
(a) Due to Labour law, workers enjoy the following benefits,

1. Reduction in Factory Working Hours (8 hours a day)
2. Compulsory Recognition of Trade Unions
3. Employment Exchange in India
4. Employees State Insurance (ESI)
5. Minimum Wages
6. Coal and Mica Mines Provident Fund

(b) Women workers benefit the following,

1. Mines Maternity Benefit Act
2. Women Labour Welfare Fund
3. Women and Child Labour Protection Act
4. Maternity Benefit for Women Labour
5. Restoration of Ban on Employment of Women on Underground Work in Coal Mines.

Question 5.
How do you enjoy the fundamental rights in your life?
Answer:
Right to Equality before the law and equal protection of the law. Prohibition of discrimination on the grounds of religion, caste, race, gender, or place of birth is offensive and one can seek justice from the court.
Right to Freedom: Six different types of freedom are mentioned in the Constitution. They are

• Freedom of speech and expression.
• Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms.
• Freedom to form associations and unions.
• Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India.
• Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.
• Freedom to practice any profession and carry on any occupation, trade, or business.

Right against Exploitation:
It is against the law to employ children below 14 years of age in mines, factories, or other occupations. Neither contractor nor an employer can force a worker to do a job against their will.

VI. Project and Activity

Question 1.
How do you protect yourself from child abuse / sexual exploitation and trafficking.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Question 2.
Write an article titled “My country, My Rights”.
Answer:
My Country, My Rights
Our country is a democratic country. We live independently with self-respect. We have lots of rights and responsibilities of our country. Rights and responsibilities are two sides of a coin and both go side by side. If we have rights we must have their corresponding responsibilities too. The rights and duties of each citizen are very valuable and inter-related.

Fundamental rights are given to each and every citizen for the basic and essential conditions of good life for the citizens’ welfare. Without such rights, no Indian citizen can develop his/her personality and confidence. These fundamental rights are preserved in the Indian Constitution.

There are six fundamental rights of the Indian citizens without which no one can live in the democratic manner. It means that democracy in the country can work only if its citizens have rights. Such rights prevent the government from being dictatorial and cruel. Fundamental rights help people in their moral, material and personality development. In case of rights violations of someone, courts can protect and safeguard the citizens.

Our country provides to all our citizens the necessary fundamental civil rights such as Right to Equality, Right to Freedom, Right against Exploitation, Right to Freedom of Conscience and Religion, Cultural and Educational Rights for minorities, Right to Constitutional Remedies. As being the citizen of the country, our responsibilities and duties are:

We must respect the National Flag and National Anthem.

We should respect and obey the laws of our country.

We should enjoy rights and freedom under the limit without interfering with freedom and rights of others.

We should be ready to protect our country whenever required.

We should respect and protect national property and public property (such as railways, post offices, bridges, roadways, schools, colleges, historical buildings, places, forests, etc).

We should pay our taxes with honesty in the stipulated time.

We should not waste electricity, water, natural resources, public property, etc.

So, we have to perform our duties sincerely to be a honest citizen, which is necessary for the development of our country.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Human Rights Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
UDHR played a crucial role in promoting ___________
(a) Individual Rights
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Human Rights
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Human Rights

Question 2.
The life of people became meaningful through ___________
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Civics Rights
(c) Political Rights
(d) Cultural Rights
Answer:
(a) Fundamental Rights

Question 3.
Fundamental duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution in the year ___________
(a) 1980
(b) 1975
(c) 1976
(d) 1950
Answer:
(c) 1976

Question 4.
Childline in India is ___________
(a) 100
(b) 108
(c) 1098
(d) 1028
Answer:
(c) 1098

Question 5.
NCW was constituted to safeguard ___________
(a) Children
(b) Labourers
(c) Students
(d) Women
Answer:
(d) Women

Question 6.
Which of the following statements are true?
(i) The general explanations of Human Rights by UDHR is not a legally binding document.
(ii) UDHR has political and moral importance.
(a) (i) is correct (ii) is wrong
(b) (i) is wrong (ii) is correct
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
Answer:
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 7.
Consider the following statements-
Assertion (A): Child marriages should be avoided.
Reason (R) : When girls get married early, they lose many privileges thereby affecting the society as a whole.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Gandhi was evicted from a first class compartment on the night of ___________
2. UNO was established in the year ___________
3. UNO was formed after ___________
4. In 1994 ___________ became the President of South Africa.
5. The milestone document in the history of human rights is ___________
6. Political rights are given to the citizens by ___________
7. The written order from the court or other legal authority is called a ___________
8. Protection and promotion of human rights is India in the responsibility of ___________
9. Malala shared the Nobel Peace prize with ___________
10. One of the RTI activists is ___________

Answer:

1. 7th June 1893
2. 1945
3. Second world war
4. Nelson Mandela
5. the Universal Declaration of Human rights
6. Law
7. Writ
8. NHRC
9. Kailash Satyatarathi
10. Aruna Roy / Nikil Dey

III. Match the following

Question 1.

1. F. W. de Klerk – (i) Fundamental duty
2. To defend the country – (ii) Fundamental Right
3. Freedom of Speech – (iii) SHRC
4. Recommend compensation to victims – (iv) Child Right
5. Family Environment – (v) President

Answer:

1. – (v)
2. – (i)
3. – (ii)
4. – (iii)
5. – (iv)

IV. Give short answers

Question 1.
What are Extended rights?
Answer:
The Child rights, SC and ST rights, Women rights, Right to Information Act (RTI) and Labour laws come under Extended rights.

Question 2.
What is Apartheid?
Answer:
Apartheid means social discrimination. Apartheid was the highest form of discrimination that existed in South Africa. Places of residences were determined by racial classification. It was the governing policy in the country by the minority whites over the majority non-whites. The people of South Africa protested against racial discrimination.

Question 3.
What is Apartheid?
Answer:

1. Apartheid means social discrimination.
2. Apartheid was the highest form of discrimination that existed in South Africa.
3. Places of residences were determined by racial classification.
4. It was the governing policy in the country by the minority whites over the majority non-whites.
5. The people of South Africa .protested against racial discrimination.

Question 4.
Write a note on Nelson Mandela.
Answer:

1. Nelson Mandela raised his voice against Apartheid.
2. When he organised defiant campaigns against the government, he was imprisoned.
3. He was released in 1990 by President F.W. de Klerk.
4. The efforts taken by Mandela and de Klerk put an end to apartheid.
5. In 1994, a general election was held and Nelson Mandela, the leader of the African National Congress, became President.

Question 5.
What do the 30 articles of UDHR guarantee?
Answer:

1. There are 30 articles in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
2. It guarantees freedom of expression as well as Civil, Political, Social, Economic and Cultural Rights.
3. These rights apply to all people, irrespective of their race, gender and nationality, as all people are bom free and equal.

Question 6.
What are the social and economic rights assured by UDHR?
Answer:

1. Social rights are necessary for full participation in society.
2. Economic rights guarantee every person to have conditions under which they are able to meet their needs.
3. They are a part of a range of legal principles through which economic equality and freedom are preserved in a State.

Question 7.
What are the cultural rights assured by UDHR?
Answer:
Cultural rights are human rights that aim at assuring the enjoyment of culture and its components in conditions of equality, human dignity and non-discrimination.

Question 8.
What does the term Civil rights refer to?
Answer:

1. The term ‘Civil rights’ refers to the basic rights afforded by laws of the government.
2. It is guaranteed to every person regardless of race, nationality, colour, gender, age, religion etc.

Question 9.
What Is meant by political rights?
Answer:

1. Political rights exercised in the formation and administration of a government.
2. They are given to the citizens by law.
3. These rights give power to the citizens to participate either directly or indirectly in the administration.

Question 10.
Write a note on the Right to Equality.
Answer:

1. Right to Equality refers to equality before the law and equal protection of the law.
2. Prohibition or discrimination on the grounds of religion, caste, races, gender or place of birth is offensive.
3. One can seek justice from the court if such a situation does arise.

Question 11.
Explain the Right against exploitation.
Answer:

1. It is against the law to employ children below 14 years of age in mines, factories, or other occupations.
2. Neither contractor nor an employer can force a worker to do a job against their will.

Question 12.
How are people assure of freedom of religion?
Answer:

1. The right to freedom of conscience and religion gives the citizens freedom to follow and practice a religion of their choice.
2. All citizens have the freedom of conscience or ideas.
3. The citizens also have the freedom to follow their own ways of practicing any religion.

Question 13.
What is a Writ?
Answer:
Writ is a written order from the court or other legal authority ordering to do an act or not to do it.

Question 14.
How are senior citizens legally protected?
Answer:

1. Senior citizens Act was passed in 2007 by the Government of India to maintain the welfare of parents.
2. This Act is a legal obligation for children and heirs to provide maintenance to senior citizens and parents.

Question 15.
What is NHRC?
Answer:

1. The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is an autonomous body constituted on 12th October 1993 under the protection of the Human Rights Act, 1993.
2. It consists of a chairman and a few other members.
3. NHRC is responsible for the protection and promotion of human rights in India.
4. The Act defines the right relating to life, liberty, equality, and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the international covenants.

Question 16.
What is SHRC?
Answer:

1. SHRC refers to State Human Rights Commission.
2. Every state in India has a State Human Rights Commission established in accordance with the power conferred on the state under section 21 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
3. The protection and promotion of human rights constitute the principal concern of the Commission.

Question 17.
When were the Rights of the child accepted by the UNO?
Answer:

1. A child is a person who has not completed the age of 18 years i.e. a minor as per UNO.
2. This principle is exhibited in Articles 25 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
3. Based on these principles, the declaration of the Rights of the child was accepted and adopted in the UN General Assembly on 20th November, 1989.

Question 18.
What is Childline?
Answer:

1. Child line (1098) is India’s first 24 hours free emergency phone service for. children in need of assistance.
2. Special care is given for vulnerable children like those affected by child labour, child marriage and children affected by any abuse.

Question 19.
Where do we find Child Rights in the Indian constitution?
Answer:

1. Article 24 – No child below the age of 14 must be employed in hazardous employment.
2. Article 45- Free and compulsory education for all children until they attain the age of 14 years.

Question 20.
Children are the foundation of any nation.
Answer:

1. Children are the foundation of any nation
2. When girls get married early, they lose many privileges like childhood happiness, availing education and a healthy life.
3. The society in turn gets affected by child marriage.
4. Thus child marriage should be avoided at any cost.

Question 21.
Why is the National Commission for Women a council?
Answer:

1.  The National Commission for Women (NCW) is constituted in India to review the Constitutional and legal safeguards for women.
2. It recommends remedial measures and advises the government on all matters of policy affecting the welfare and development of women in the country.

Question 22.
What are Women’s Rights?
Answer:

1. Women’s Rights are under the Indian Constitution mainly includes equality, dignity and freedom from discrimination.
2. Additionally, India has various statutes governing the right of women.

Question 23.
Mention about Women Labourers’ Welfare and Dr. B.R.Ambedkar.
Answer:

1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar framed many laws for women workers in India.
2. They are
   • ‘Mines Maternity Benefit Act’,
   • ‘Women Labour Welfare Fund’,
   • ‘Women and Child Labour Protection Act’,
   • ‘Maternity Benefit for Women Labour’,
   • ‘Restoration of Ban on Employment of Women on Underground Work in Coal Mines’.

Question 24.
What are SC and ST Rights?
Answer:

1. In order to ensure the dignity and security of Adi Dravidars (mostly referred as Scheduled Castes in other States) their rights are ensured.
2. They remove all forms of exclusion, marginalization, untouchability and discrimination
3. The Government formulate policies, plans, budgets, schemes and programmes.
4. This is done to ensure their right to social equity, access to entitlements and right to dignity.
5. These rights facilitate the betterment of their socio-economic conditions as well as conferring democratic and political rights.

Question 25.
What is RTI?
Answer:

1. RTI refers to the Right to Information Act.
2. It is a revolutionary act that aims to promote transparency in the government institutions in India.
3. This act was enacted in October 2005.
4. A common man can demand any government organization to provide information.
5. The information must be provided within thirty days.
6. If not, a fee will be collected as a penalty from the concerned official.

Question 26.
What are Labour Rights?
Answer:

1. The Constitution ensures right to equality, equality of opportunity in public employment, right to form associations and unions, right to livelihood.
2. It prohibits trafficking, forced labour and child labour.
3. Article 39(d) ensures equal wages to male and female workers for equal work.

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
What are the functions of SHRC?
Answer:
The functions of SHRC are

1. The SHRC shall enquire into violation of human rights in respect of matters specified in the state and concurrent lists.
2. Its objectives and duties are the same as NHRC, but confined only to the state. It has a chairman and two members.
3. It has the power of a civil court and can take cognizance of cases if received.
4. It can also recommend compensation to victims.

Question 2.
Democracy, Development and Fundamental Rights can you establish a positive link among these three factors.
Answer:

1. Democracy has an important role to play in promoting sustainable development.
2. Free and fair elections, independent media, accountable government as well as other basic democratic principles are all critical components of an environment and conducive to growth.
3. In a direct democracy, the people decide on the policy initiatives directly.
4. Democracy is very much responsible and important for the development of a nation.
5. In a democratic country the citizens are force to express their views and opinions on decisions taken by government.
6. This makes the government take more responsible decisions and they go with majority people.
7. All these actions can be carried on with the help of the fundamental rights generated by the constitution of India with legal background.

Question 3.
Explain Child Rights.
Child Rights are,
(a) Right to life:

1. A child has the right to survive even before its birth.
2. The right to survival also includes the right to be bom, the right to basic needs of food, shelter and clothing and a dignified living.

(b) Right to the Family environment:

1. A child has the right to live a normal childhood in a family environment.
2. Children who have been left destitute, abandoned or orphaned also have the right to live.
3. These children can be given for adoption to caring families.

(c) Right to benefit from Social security:

1. Children should get financial support from the country when their parents or guardians are unable to provide them with a good standard of living by themselves, due to any illness, disability or old age.

(d) Right to Education:

1. Right to Education Act is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted in 2009 for free and compulsory education for children from 6 to 14 years of age as under Article 21A of the Constitution.

(e) Right against sale or trafficking:

1. Children should be treated as individuals with fundamental human rights.
2. They are subj ected to sale or trafficking for various reasons like economic exploitation, sexual exploitation, sexual abuse, drug trafficking and child labour.

(f) Right against sexual exploitation:

1. The state should protect children from sexual exploitation and abuse.
2. This is done through POCSO Act – Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act in 2012.

(g) Right against other forms of exploitation like Child labour:

1. Children are often employed in several industries.
2. These children are deprived of their childhood, health, and education.

Question 4.
Explain the Right to Information Act (RTI).
Answer:

1.  The Right to Information Act is a revolutionary act that aims to promote transparency in the government institutions in India.
2. This act was enacted in October 2005.
3. A common man can demand any government organization to provide information.
4. The information must be provided within thirty days.
5. If not, a fee will be collected as penality from the concerned official
   It is one of the most powerful laws of the country.
6. This act is people-friendly; even an illiterate person can ask any Public Information Officer to write it down for him.
7. All government agencies like Municipal Corporations, Government departments, Government Schools, Road Authorities, etc., come under this Act.

Life Skills

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 2 Election, Political Parties and Pressure Groups Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Question, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Election, Political Parties and Pressure Groups

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Election, Political Parties and Pressure Groups Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
India has adapted the electoral system followed in the ___________
(a) USA
(b) United Kingdom
(c) Canada
(d) Russia
Answer:
(b) United Kingdom

Question 2.
The Election Commission of India is a / an ___________
(a) Independent body
(b) Statutory body
(c) Private body
(d) Public corporation
Answer:
(a) Independent body

Question 3.
Which Article of the Constitution provides for an Election Commission?
(a) Article 280
(b) Article 315
(c) Article 324
(d) Article 325
Answer:
(c) Article 324

Question 4.
Which part of the constitution of India says about the election commission?
(a) Part III
(b) Part XV
(c) Part XX
(d) Part XXII
Answer:
(b) Part XV

Question 5.
Who accords recognition to various political parties as national or regional parties?
(a) The President
(b) The Election Commission
(c) The Parliament
(d) The President in consultation with the Election Commission
Answer:
(b) The Election Commission

Question 6.
Assertion (A): Indian Constitution provides for an independent Election Commission
Reason (R): To ensure free and fair elections in the country.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 7.
NOTA was introduced in the year ___________
(a) 2012
(b) 2013
(c) 2014
(d) 2015
Answer:
(c) 2014

Question 8.
The term pressure group original in _______
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) USSR
(d) India
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 9.
Assertion (A): A large number of pressure groups exist in Tndia.
Reason (R): Pressure Groups are not developed in India to the same extent as in the USA
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The Election Commission of India is a body of ______ members.
2. National Voters day has been celebrated on _______
3. In India, the _____ party system is followed.
4. In 2017, there were _____ recognised national parties.
5. Narmada Bachao Andolan is a ______

Answer:

1. Three
2. 25th January
3. Multi
4. Seven
5. Pressure Group

III. Match the following

1. National party – a. Trade union
2. Single-party system – b. USA
3. Two-party system – c. China
4. Pressure groups – d. Seven

Answer:

1. – (d)
2. – (c)
3. – (b)
4. – (a)

IV. Give short answers

Question 1.
Explain the electoral system in India.
Answer:

1. The electoral system in India has been adapted from the system followed in the United Kingdom.
2. India is a socialist, secular, democratic, republic, and the largest democracy in the world.
3. The modem Indian nation-state came into existence on 15th August 1947.

Question 2.
Give the meaning of a political party.
Answer:

1. A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government.
2. A political party has three components: a leader, an active member, and followers.

Question 3.
Distinguish between the two-party system and the multi-party system.
Answer:
Bi Party system:

1. The two-party system in which two major parties exist.
2. Eg. USA, UK

Multi-party system:

1. The multi-party system in which there are more than two political parties
2. Eg. India, Sri Lanka, France, Italy.

Question 4.
What is a pressure group?
Answer:

1. A pressure group is a group of people who are organised activities for promoting and defending their common interest. It is so-called as it attempts to bring a change in the public policy by exerting pressure on the government.
2. The pressure groups are also called ‘interest groups’ or vested groups.
3. They are different from the political parties in that they neither contest elections nor try to capture political power.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the merits and demerits of direct elections.
Answer:
Merits:

1. As the voters elect their representatives directly, direct elections are considered to be a more democratic method of election.
2. It educates people regarding government activities and helps in choosing the appropriate candidates. Also, it encourages people to play an active role in politics.
3. It empowers people and makes the rulers accountable for their actions.

Demerits:

1. Direct elections are very expensive.
2. Illiterate voters sometimes get misguided by false propaganda and sometimes campaigning based on caste, religion and various other sectarian considerations spose serious challenges.
3. Since conducting direct elections is a massive exercise, ensuring free and fair elections at every polling station is a major challenge to the Election Commission.
4. There are instances of some political candidates influencing the voters through payments in the form of cash, goods, or services.
5. Election campaigns sometimes result in violence, tension, law and order problems and affect the day-to-day life of people.

Question 2.
What are the functions of political parties?
Answer:

1. Parties contest elections. In most democracies, elections are fought mainly among the candidates put up by political parties.
2. Parties put forward different policies and programmes and the voters choose from them.
3. Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country. Formally, laws are debated and passed in the legislature.
4. Parties form and run the governments.
5. Those parties that lose in the elections play the role of opposition to the parties in power, by voicing different views and criticising the government for its failures and wrong policies. Parties shape public opinion. They raise and highlight issues.
6. Parties function as a useful link between people and the government machinery.

Question 3.
What is the function of Pressure groups in India?
Answer:
Pressure groups are the interest groups that work to secure certain interests by influencing public policy. They are non-aligned with any political party and work as an indirect yet powerful group to influence the policy decisions. Pressure groups carry out a range of functions including representation, political participation, education, policy formulation, and policy implementation.

Political Participation: Pressure groups can be called the informal face of politics. They exert influence precisely by mobilising popular support through activities such as petitions, marches, demonstrations, and other forms of political protest. Such forms of political participation have been particularly attractive to young people.

Education: Many pressure groups devote significant resources by carrying out research, maintaining websites, commenting on government policy, and using high-profile academics, scientists, and even celebrities to get their views across, with an emphasis to cultivate expert authority.

Policy Formulation: Though the pressure groups themselves are not policy-makers, yet it does not prevent many of them from participating in the policy-making process. Many pressure groups are vital sources of information and render advice to the government and therefore they are regularly consulted in the process of policy formulation.

VI. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Compare the policies, programmes, and achievements of a national party and a state party.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

VII. HOTS

Question 1.
“Elections are considered essential for any representative democracy”. Why?
Answer:

1. Democracy is defined as a government of the people, for the people, and by the people.
2. India which is the largest democracy in the world in terms of vastness and population government both at the centre and in the constituent states are elected for five-year terms.
3. The electorate of so many crores of people in this sub continent participate in the election, held on the basis of universal adult franchise.
4. They send their representatives to both the Parliament and the State Legislative expecting that these representatives will safeguard their interests.
5. And they believe that these representatives will work to attain the goal of progress, prosperity, unity, and integrity of India.
6. When people exercise their franchise, constitute the real source of power in the elections as they make their choice and elect only those in whom they have faith.

Question 2.
What is the principle of the universal adult franchise? What is its importance?
Answer:

1. Universal adult franchise means that the right to vote should be given to all adult citizens (18 years and above) without discrimination of caste, class, colours, religion, or gender. It is based on equality, which is the basic principle of democracy.
2. Under this system, a government is elected that is accountable to the people it governs.
3. Because every vote counts, issues in society receive their appropriate weight in terms of importance and urgency.
4. Indian Constitution Article 326″ mentions about the Elections to the House of the people and to the Legislative Assemblies of States to be on the basis of adult suffrage.

Question 3.
Discuss the merits and demerits of democracy.
Answer:
Merits of democracy:

1. The chief merit of democracy is t&at it safeguards the intersects of the people. The real power lies in the hands of people.
2. Democracy is based on the principle of equality. All members of the state are equal in the eyes of law.
3. Democracy is known for its stability, firmness, and efficiency. The administration is conducted with a sense of responsibility.
4. Democracy serves as a training school for citizens. People get important to take part in the affairs of the state.
5. Since democracy is based on public will, there is no chance of public revolt.
6. It is more stable than other forms of government.
7. Democracy creates a proper environment for the development of personality and cultivating good habits.
8. Democracy is based on public opinion.

Demerits of democracy:

1. It is not based on quality but on quantity. The majority party holds the reigns of government inefficiently and corrupt persons get themselves elected.
2. Democracies are run by incompetent persons. A few are intelligent. But universal Adult Franchise grants the right to vote to everybody.
3. The concept of Equality is enshrined in democracy. It is against the law of nature. Individual’s talents differ.
4. Voters do not cast their votes in a spirit of duty as democracy requires them to be.
5. In order to win the elections, the candidates employ underhand practices and unethical ways are adopted.
6. Modem democracy in the role of capitalists. The rich candidates purchase votes.
7. Democracy is a huge waste of time and resources. A lot of money is spent during elections.
8. When no party gets an absolute majority, a coalition government is formed. In case of a clash of interests among the parties in the coalition government, the government crumbles down.

Question 4.
Discuss the multi-party system.
Answer:

1. A multi-party system is a system in which multiple political parties across the political ’ spectrum run for a national election. All have the capacity to gain control of government
   offices, separately or in a coalition.
2. Multi-party systems tend to be more common in parliamentary systems and presidential systems. Here the representation is proportional.
3. In a multi-party system, there may be greater voter participation in elections because people can usually identify with at best one political party that shares their views and goals.
4. In India, the multi-party system suits to express the views of people in the decision-making process.
5. It offers a greater as well as a better choice to people among the candidates.
6. At the same time, this system makes Indian politics unstable and weak.
7. The best is to have a multiple-party system consisting of a central party, a left-wing party, and a right-wing party to prevent the formation of the coalition, which is against the nation’s interest.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Election, Political Parties and Pressure Groups Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer

Question 1.
Kudavolai was the system of voting followed during the time of __________
(a) Cheras
(b) Cholas
(c) Pandyas
(d) Pallavas
Answer:
(b) Cholas

Question 2.
The National Voters Day is _________
(a) December 31st
(b) January 25th
(c) November 23rd
(d) April 10th
Answer:
(b) January 25th

Question 3.
Bi Party system exists in _________
(a) Italy
(b) USA
(c) Cuba
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Italy

Question 4.
The leader of the ________ occupies a prominent place in a democracy
(a) Multi party
(b) Bi party
(c) Opposition party
(d) National party
Answer:
(c) Opposition party

Question 5.
The Pressure groups are also called ________ groups.
(a) business
(b) linguistic
(c) professional
(d) interest
Answer:
(d) interest

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The constitution provides for an independent _____ to ensure free and fair elections in the country
2. The National Voters Day started from ______
3. NOTA was introduced in the General Election in
4. Direct elections are very _____
5. Indirect elections are more suited to _____ Countries.
6. State parties are otherwise known as ______ parties
7. Political parties shape _____

Answer:

1. Election Commission
2. January 25th, 2011
3. 2014
4. Expensive
5. Large
6. Regional
7. Public opinion

II. Match the following

Question 1.

1. LokSabha – (i) MLA
2. Legislative Assembly – (ii) Corporation
3. Local governing Body – (iii) Delhi
4. National Capital Territory – (iv) MP

Answer:

1. – (iv)
2. – (i)
3. – (ii)
4. – (iii)

Question 2.

1. Pressure groups – (i) 2006
2. Polio – (ii) Animal welfare
3. Six National Parties – (iii) Vested groups
4. Blue cross – (iv) Immunization

Answer:

1. – (iii)
2. – (iv)
3. – (i)
4. – (ii)

IV. Give short answers

Question 1.
What is NOTA?
Answer:

1. If the people in a democratic country are not willing to elect any candidate, they can vote for the option called NOTA (None of the Above)
2. Rule 49 – O in the conduct of election Rules, 1961 of India describes this procedure.
3. NOTA was introduced in the General Elections in 2014
4. India is the 14th country to introduce NOTA

Question 2.
What is VVPAT?
Answer:

1. VVPAT – Voters Verified Paper Audit Trail is the way forward to enhance credibility and transparency of the election process.
2. This system was first introduced in the 2014 General Election

Question 3.
Bring out the merits and demerits of indirect elections.
Answer:
(a) Merits

1. Indirect elections are less expensive.
2. It is more suited to elections in large countries. .

(b) Demerits

1. If the number of Voters is very small, there exists a possibility of corruption, bribery, horse-trading, etc.
2. It is less democratic because people do not have the direct opportunity to elect, but they instead do it through their representatives.
3. So, this may not reflect the true will of the people.

Question 4.
How is the President of India elected?
Answer:
The President of India is elected by the member of an Electoral college consisting of a) the elected members of both houses of parliament and b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states.

Question 5.
What are the National Parties?
Answer:

1. A party which is recognized as a state party in at least four states is recognized as a National Party.
2. Every party in the country has to register with the Election Commission while the commission treats all parties equally it offers some special facilities to State and National parties.
3. These parties are given a unique symbol
4. Only the official candidate of the party can use that election symbol
5. In 2016, there were seven nationally recognized parties.

Question 6.
Explain the types of Political parties with the help of a diagram.
Answer:

Question 7.
What are State parties?
Answer:

1. Most of the major parties of the country are classified by the Election Commission as State Parties.
2. These are commonly referred to as regional parties.
3. A party is recognised as a state party by the Election commission of India based on certain percentage of votes secured or a certain number of seats won with Assembly or Lok Sabha Elections

Question 8.
How are the parties recognised at National level?
Answer:
For getting recognition as ‘National Party’, a party has to fulfill any one of the following criteria.

1. At least 6% votes in at least four states and members to the Lok Sabha.
2. In the election of Lok Sabha at least 2% members from at least 3 states are elected to Lok Sabha.
3. Recognition as state party at least four states.

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
What is the role of opposition parties in a Democratic government.
Answer:

1. In a democracy there may be a two party system like in USA or Multiparty system like in India and France.
2. The Ruling party may have received the mandate of the majority people, the opposition party represent the remaining people.
3. The leader of the opposition party occupies a prominent place in all democratic form of government.
4. He enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister.
5. He opposes the wrong policy of the Ruling party which affects the general public.
6. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee questions the functioning of the government and examines the public money used for the well being of the people.
7. Similarly he plays an important role to select the Chairman and members of the CVC, Chairperson and members of the Information Commission.
8. The Opposition Parties reflect genuine demands/concem of the people to play in constructive role in democracy.

Question 2.
Discuss the various pressure groups in India.
Answer:

1. A large member of pressure groups exist in India Types of Actions
2. But they are not developed to the same extent as in USA or the Western countries like Britain, France, Germany and so on
3. The pressure groups in India can be broadly classified into the following categories
4. These groups are
   • Business groups
   • Trade Unions
   • Agrarian groups
   • Professional associations
   • Student organisations
   • Religious organisations
   • Tribal organisations
   • Linguistic groups
   • Ideology based groups and
   • Environmental Protection groups.

Question 3.
Explain the term mobilization in a democratic country.
Answer:

1. It is essential in any country to get people’s support and co – operation for collective action.
2. This is especially time in developing countries engaged in developing new systems of administration and modes of economic and political action.
3. Mobilizing people towards socially productive activities that lead to the overall betterment of people’s lives in essential,
4. Sometimes earthquakes, Tsunamis, floods and other such natural disasters on a massive scale occur and people’s immediate mobilisation for evacuation and emergency relief becomes most essential.

VI. HOTS

Question 1.
Do you feel democracy is successful in India? Give reasons.
Answer:
Working of democracy in India can be analysed on two forms: (a) institutional and (b) substantive

(a) institutional:

1. India forms well on the institutional front of democracy.
2. There have been a peaceful transfer of power after elections,
3. Elections have been held in a free and fair manner and reforms are introduced from time to time.

(b) substantive

1. On the substantive front of democracy, the result has been mixed
2. India has been able to lift a considerable quantum of the rising population out of poverty, lower social evils, improve employment rates, improve maternal mortality, in fast mortality rates.
3. Yet India continues to face caste-based discrimination, unrest, militancy in Kashmir and North east, poor access to health care, formal jobs, higher education etc.

(c) Sentence

1. Thus it can be said that while Indian democracy is largely a success, grave challenges need to be tackled in a fast and effective manner.

VII. Re arrange the Jumbled words

Question 1.

1. AICNPMGA
2. OERLCETLA
3. NTSOCUONITTI
4. INOTPSOIPO
5. GOLENRAI

Answer:

1. CAMPAIGN
2. ELECTORAL
3. CONSTITUTION
4. OPPOSITION
5. REGIONAL

Question 2.

1. CPLOITLAI
2. TPYRA
3. EPRNTENTEOISAR
4. OENLCISET
5. MSLOYB

Answer:

1. POLITICAL
2. PARTY
3. REPRESENTATION
4. ELECTIONS
5. SYMBOL

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Chapter 1 Forms of Government and Democracy Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 1 Forms of Government and Democracy

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Forms of Government and Democracy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
A system of government in which one person reigns supreme, usually a king or queen, is called __________
(a) autocracy
(b) monarchy
(c) democracy
(d) republic
Answer:
(b) monarchy

Question 2.
A system of government with absolute power __________
(a) Aristocracy
(b) Theocracy
(c) Democracy
(d) Autocracy
Answer:
(d) Autocracy

Question 3.
Former Soviet Union is an example for __________
(a) aristocracy
(b) theocracy
(c) oligarchy
(d) republic
Answer:
(c) oligarchy

Question 4.
Select the odd one __________
(a) India
(b) USA
(c) France
(d) Vatican
Answer:
(d) Vatican

Question 6.
Kudavolai system was followed by __________
(a) Cheras
(b) Pandyas
(c) cholas
(d) Kalabhras
Answer:
(c) cholas

Question 7.
Direct Democracy in olden times existed
(a) In the republics of ancient India
(b) Among the USA (d) Among the UK
(c) In the city-state of ancient Greece
(d) Among the UK
Answer:
(c) In the city-state of ancient Greece

Question 8.
From which language was the term “Democracy” derived?
(a) Greek
(b) Latin
(c) Persian
(d) Arabic
Answer:
(a) Greek

Question 9.
In democracy the final authority’ rests with __________
(a) The Parliament
(b) The People
(c) The council of Ministers
(d) The President
Answer:
(b) The People

Question 10.
Which one of the country has the Presidential form of government
(a) India
(b) Britain
(c) Canada
(d) the USA
Answer:
(d) the USA

Question 11.
The largest democratic country in the world is __________
(a) Canada
(b) India
(c) USA
(d) China
Answer:
(b) India

Question 12.
Assertion (A): Direct democracy is practised in Switzerland.
Reason (R): People directly participates in decision making.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 13.
Assertion (A): India has a parliamentary form of democracy.
Reason (R): Indian Parliament comprises two houses.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 14.
The meaning of Franchise is __________
(a) Right to elect
(b) Right to vote for the poor
(c) Right to vote
(d) Right to vote for the rich
Answer:
(c) Right to vote

Question 15.
The grant of universal franchise creates __________
(a) Social equality
(b) Economic equality
(c) Political equality
(d) Legal equality
Answer:
(c) Political equality

Question 16.
Prime Minister of India is appointed by __________
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Speaker
(d) President
Answer:
(d) President

Question 17.
The President of India can nominate __________
(a) 12 members to Lok Sabha
(b) 2 members of Rajya Sabha
(c) 12 members to Rajya Sabha
(d) 14 members of Rajya Sabha
Answer:
(c) 12 members to Rajya Sabha

Question 18.
The First general elections after independence in India were held in __________
(a) 1948-49
(b) 1951 – 52
(c) 1957- 58
(d) 1947-48
Answer:
(b) 1951 – 52

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The Constitution of India was finally adopted on __________
2. The two types of democracy are __________ and __________
3. example for direct democracy is __________
4. India has a __________ form of democracy.
5.  __________ was the first Prime Minister of independent India.
6. The first general elections were held in British India in the year __________
7. The Parliament House in India was designed by _____ and _____

Answer:

1. 26th November
2. Direct and Indirect
3. Switzerland
4. Indirect/representative
5. Jawaharlal Nehru
6. 1920
7. Edwin Lutyens and Herbert

III. Match the following

1. Autocracy – (i) 18
2. Right to vote – (ii) Arthashastra
3. Chanakya – (iii) Vatican
4. Theocracy -(iv) North Korea

Answer:

1. – (iv)
2. – (i)
3. – (ii)
4. – (iii)

IV. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
Give Abraham Lincoln’s definition of democracy.
Answer:
Abraham Lincoln defines democracy as a government of the people, by the people and for the people.

Question 2.
Mention the forms of democracy.
Answer:
There are two types of democracy. They are

1. Direct democracy
2. Indirect (Representative) democracy

Question 3.
Distinguish between direct and indirect democracy.
Answer:
Direct Democracy: Direct participation of the people
Example: Ancient Greek city-states, Switzerland

Indirect/ Representative Democracy: Indirect participation of the people
Example: India, USA, UK

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
What are the challenges to Indian democracy? Explain.
Answer:
Democracy is the dominant form of government in the contemporary world. It has not faced a serious challenge or a rival so far. In the last hundred years, there has been an expansion of democracy all over the world. The various aspects of democracy and its challenges are:

1. Illiteracy
2. Poverty
3. Gender discrimination
4. Regionalism
5. Casteism, communalism, and religious fundamentalism
6. Corruption
7. Criminalisation of politics.
8. Political violence

Question 2.
Explain the conditions necessary for the success of democracy in India.
Answer:
There are certain conditions that are necessary for the success of democracy in India. They are:

1. Empowerment of the poor and illiterates to enjoy the goodness of democracy.
2. Willingness among the elected people not to misuse their powerful position and public wealth.
3. Eradication of social evils and dangers from which democracy suffers
4. An impartial and efficient press to form public opinion
5. Presence of strong public opinion
6. The feeling of tolerance and communal harmony among the people
7. Awareness among the people of the fundamental rights that they are entitled to enjoy
8. Conscious check and vigilance on the working of the elected representatives
9. Powerful and responsible opposition

Question 3.
What is your opinion about democracy in India?
Answer:
India has a parliamentary form of democracy. The Indian Parliament comprises the elected representatives of the people and makes the laws for the Country. The participation of people in the decision making and the consent of citizens are the two important elements of the parliamentary form of government in India.

India is the largest democratic country in the world. Democracy in India works on five basic principles. These are sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic.

Every person who is a citizen of India and who is not less than 18 years of age can exercise their right to vote in India, based on universal adult suffrage. There is no discrimination based on a person’s caste, creed, religion, region, gender, and education when it comes to providing the right to vote.

VI. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Discuss in the class what is universal adult franchise? Why is it important?
Answer:

1. Students can form different groups with the help of charts. They can bring out the salient features of the adult franchise and how it is implemented in real practice.
2. Based on universal adult franchise, every person, who is a citizen of India and who is not less than eighteen years of age, can exercise their right to vote in India.
3. There is no discrimination based on a person’s caste, creed, Religion, Gender, and Education when it comes to providing the right to vote.

Question 2.
“Democracy is the power of the majority which respects minority.” Discuss.
Answer:

1. Democracy requires minority rights equally as it does majority rule the minority’s rights must be protected.
2. The Indian constitution ensures justice, social, economic, and political, to all citizens.
3. India declares herself a secular state
4. Article 29 gives the religious and linguistic minorities the right to establish and manage educational institutions of their own.
5. No discrimination on grounds of race, religion, caste, language
6. Article 30 is vital to the protection and preservation of rights of the minorities
7. Article 16 guarantees that in matters of public employment, no discrimination shall be made on the grounds of race, religion, caste or language
8. Article 25 of the Indian constitution guarantees freedom of religion to every individual.
9. On the whole, minorities of all kinds have very secure rights in India

Question 3.
Conduct a mock election in your class.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Question 4.
A group discussion on the merits and demerits of democracy of India in the classroom.

Country Name	Type of Government	Characteristics of the country’s government

Answer:
(a) Merits

1. Responsible and accountable government
2. Equality and Fraternity
3. Sense of responsibility among common people
4. Local self-government
5. Development and prosperity for all
6. Popular sovereignty
7. Sense of Co-Operation and fraternal feeling.

(b) Demerits:

1. Indirect or representative nature of democracy
2. Lack of educated and experienced voters
3. Equal voting right to both wise, average and innocent person
4. Freedom to all shades of opinion.
5. Delay in decision-making process

VII. HOTS

Question 1.
Will you have the right to equality under a dictatorship? What would be the attitude regarding public opinion in such a country?
Answer:

No; well, a dictatorship is when a country is run by a minority of people and the citizens of that country don’t have a choice of who runs it. If one person has to make all the decisions for a country, they might use their power badly because they have too much responsibility.

Question 2.
How does democracy lead to a peaceful and harmonious life among the citizens? Explain
Answer:

1. In a democracy, fundamental rights are safeguarded as basic human freedoms which every Indian citizen has the right to enjoy for proper and harmonious development of personality,
2. Democracies usually develop a procedure to conduct their competition.
3. This reduces the possibility of tensions becoming explosives or violent.
4. The ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts with a better manner is a
   democratic regime.

VIII. Life Skills

Select a group of countries. Research each country and tell what type of government it has: Aristocracy, Monarchy, Autocracy, Oligarchy, Theocracy, Democracy, Republic. Then, provide characteristics of this country that helped you determine the type of government.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Forms of Government and Democracy Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
A system of government in which power is held by the nobility is called
(a) Monarchy
(b) Oligarchy
(c) Aristocracy
(d) Theocracy
Answer:
(c) Aristocracy

Question 2.
We find a system of government in which priests rule in the name of God or himself as a God in
(a) North Korea
(b) Vatican
(c) India
(d) Saudi Arabia
Answer:
(b) Vatican

Question 3.
“True Democracy cannot be worked by twenty men sitting at the centre. It has to be worked from below by the people of every village” – This statement was stated by
(a) Prof. Seeley
(b) Lowell
(c) Mahatma
(d) Dicey
Answer:
(c) Mahatma

Question 4.
General Elections were held in British India in
(a) 1910
(b) 1920
(c) 1930
(d) 1940
Answer:
(b) 1920

Question 5.
Freedom to practice any religion or reject all is expressed by the term
(a) Secular
(b) Socialist
(c) Republic
(d) Sovereign
Answer:
(a) Secular

Question 6.
Assertion (A): Indian President is selected indirectly
Reason (R): India is a Republic.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)]

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Lok sabha is called council of states.
Reason (R): People elect representatives to Lok Sabha.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Answer:
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true

II. Fill in the blanks

1. According to _________ the Democracy is a government in which everyone has a share
2. When people themselves directly express their will on public affairs, the type of government is called _________
3. The largest democracy in the world is _________
4. The general elections are conducted by the _________ of India

Answer:

1. Prof. Seeley
2. Direct democracy
3. India
4. Election Commission

III. Match the following

1. Aristocracy – (i) Oman
2. Oligarchy – (ii) USA
3. Monarchy – (iii) China
4. Democracy – (iv) Britain’s Royal family

Answer:

1. – (iv)
2. – (iii)
3. – (i)
4. – (ii)

Question 2.

1. Demos – (i) Power
2. ratia – (ii) Upper House
3. (c) Panchayat – (iii) People
4. (d) Rajya Sabha – (iv) Local government

Answer:

1. (a) – (iii)
2. (b) – (i)
3. (c) – (iv)
4. (d) – (ii)

IV. Give short answers

Question 1.
What is government?
Answer:

1. Government is a group of people that governs a community or unit.
2. Forms of Government are

(a) Aristocracy
(b) Monarchy
(c) Autocracy
(d) Oligarchy
(e) Theocracy
(f) Democracy
(g) Republic

Question 2.
What is meant by the Parliamentary form of Government?
Answer:

1. India has a parliamentary form of government.
2. The Indian parliament comprises the elected representatives of people who make laws for the country.
3. The participation of people in the decision making and the consent of citizens are the two important elements of the parliamentary form of government in India.

Question 3.
What is democracy?
Answer:

1. Democracy is a form of government that allows people to choose their rulers.
2. Only leaders elected by the people should rule the country.
3. People have the freedom to express views, freedom to organize and freedom to protest

Question 4.
Mention the features of Democracy.
Answer:

1. Elected representatives of people and final decision-making power to the representatives.
2. Free and fair elections.
3. Universal adult franchise with each vote having equal value.
4. Fundamental rights and protection of individual freedom.

Question 5.
State the importance of the Sixty-first Constitutional Amendment Act.
Answer:

1. On 28th March 1989 – the voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 by the sixty-first Constitutional Amendment Act.
2. It was passed during the time of Rajiv Gandhi, the late Prime Minister of India

Question 6.
When were the first General elections held in Independent India?
Answer:

1. General elections to the first Lok Sabha since independence were held in India between 25th October 1951 and 21st February 1952
2. The Indian National Congress (INC) emerged victorious into power by winning 364 of the 489 seats
3. Jawaharlal Nehru became the first democratically elected Prime Minister of the country

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write about elections in India
Answer:

1. India has a Quasi-federal government, with elected representatives at the federal, state and local levels.
2. The general elections are conducted by the Election Commission of India.
3. At the National level, the head of the government, the President of India appoints the Prime Minister, who enjoys majority in the Lok Sabha.
4. All members of the Lok Sabha, (except two Anglo Indians, who can be nominated by the President of India) are directly elected through the general election
5. In India, the general elections take place every five years in normal circumstances.
6. Members of the Rajya Sabha, the Upper House of the Indian Parliament, are elected by an Electoral college consisting of elected members of the legislative assemblies of the States and for the Union Territories of India.
7. The first – general elections in free india to the first Lok Sabha took place between 25th Oct, 1951 and 21st February 1952

VI. Hots

Question 1.
Is multi party system beneficial for India? Discuss.
Answer:

1. In general, a multi party political system ensures that there will never be a single majority.
2. The multi party system satisfies the goal of democracy of people being able to influence the decisions.
3. India is a huge country. It needs parties that actually have political ideologies.
4. Multi party system can be good for countries where development parametric are already very high.
5. Constructive criticism by a strong apposition is absolutely essential for parliamentary democracy.
6. India is a vast – country with social and geographical diversities. So here the multiparty system allows a variety of interests and opinion to enjoy political representation.
7. If people use their voting right in proper manner, definitely multiparty system will help to have multiple ideas to improve the nation.

Question 2.
Conduct a study on General elections in India
Answer:

1. India has a Quasi – federal government with elected representatives at the federal, state and local levels.
2. The General elections are conducted by the Election Commission of India
3. At the National level, the head of the government, the President of India appoints the Prime Minister.
4. All members of Lok Sabha (except two Anglo Indians, who can be nominated by the President of India) are directly elected through General elections.
5. It takes place every 5 yrs, in normal circumstances
6. Members of the Rajya Sabha, the Upper House of the Indian Parliament, are elected by an Electoral college consisting of elected members of the legislative assemblies of the States and for the Union Territories of India.

VII. Rearrange the jumbled words.

Question 1.

1. EDUEFMR
2. EINRSVOEG
3. NTRYIAFTRE
4. OPTCNOREIAO
5. WSRAESNEA

Answer:

1. FREEDOM
2. SOVEREIGN
3. FRATERNITY
4. CO-OPERATION
5. AWARENESS

Question 2.

1. UIPCBL
2. IOMSALCIS
3. EITNCIZS
4. OICDSEIN

Answer:

1. PUBLIC
2. SOCIALISM
3. CITIZENS
4. DECISION

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Chapter 8 Disaster Management: Responding to Disasters Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 8 Disaster Management: Responding to Disasters

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Disaster Management: Responding to Disasters Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer

Question 1.
One among the following is not the first responder in case of a disaster.
(a) police officers
(b) firefighters
(c) insurance agents
(d) emergency medical technicians
Answer:
(c) insurance agents

Question 2.
‘Drop, Cover, Hold’ is a mock drill a vowal for
(a) Fire
(b) Earthquake
(c) Tsunami.
(d) Riot
Answer:
(b) Earthquake

Question 3.
When you happen to see a fire break out. You will make a call to
(a) 114
(b) 112
(c) 115
(d) 118
Answer:
(b) 112

Question 4.
Which of the following statements is untrue?
(a) ‘Stop, Drop, Roll’ is for fire.
(b) ‘Drop, Cover, Hold’ is for an earthquake.
(c) ‘If sea water recedes back, run to higher places’ is for flood.
(d) ‘If gunshots are heard, drop to the ground and cover the head with hand’ is for riot.
Answer:
(c) ‘If sea water recedes back, run to higher places’ is for flood.

Question 5.
Which of the following statements belongs to responding to earthquake?
(a) Avoid any place where police or security forces action is in progress.
(b) Know the height of your street above sea level and the distance of your street from the coast.
(c) Stay away from glass, windows, outside doors and walls, and anything that could fall.
(d) Before opening a door, feel it with the back of your hand.
Answer:
(c) Stay away from glass, windows, outside doors and walls, and anything that could fall.

II. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Who are the community’s first responders to disaster?
Answer:
On a daily basis, police officers, firefighters, and emergency medical technicians are our community’s first responders, whether during fire, flood or acts of terrorism.

Question 2.
What are the four phases of the Disaster Management Cycle?
Answer:
The four phases of the disaster management cycle.

1. Mitigation
2. Preparedness
3. Response
4. Recovery

Question 3.
Though Japan has the densest seismic network, Indonesia has the most number of earthquakes. Why?
Answer:
Japan is in a very active seismic area and it has the densest seismic network in the world.
Indonesia is in a very active seismic zone, but because it is larger than Japan, it has more earthquakes.

Question 4.
How many males and females die per day due to fire in India?

1. On average, in India, every year, about 25,000 persons die due to fires and related causes.
2. Female accounts for about 66% of those killed in fire accidents.
3. It is estimated that about 42 females and 21 males die every day in India due to fire.

Question 5.
What should you do after a Tsunami?
Answer:

1. You should continue using a weather radio or staying tuned to a Coast Guard emergency frequency station or a local radio or television station for updated emergency information.
2. Check yourself for injuries and get first aid if necessary, before helping injured or trapped persons.
3. If someone needs to be rescued, call professionals with the right equipment to help.
4. Help people who require special assistance, like Infants, elderly people, those without transportation, large families who may need additional help in an emergency situation, people with disabilities, and the people who care for them.
5. Stay out of a building if water remains around it. Tsunami water, like floodwater, can undermine foundations, causing buildings to sink, floors to crack, or walls to collapse.
6. Check for gas leaks. If you smell gas or hear a blowing or hissing noise, open a window and get everyone outside quickly.

III. Answer in Paragraph.

Question 1.
Write a short note on Tsunami.
Answer:
A tsunami can kill or injure people and damage or destroy buildings and infrastructure as waves come forth and recede. A tsunami is a series of enormous ocean waves caused by earthquakes, underwater landslides, volcanic eruptions or asteroids. Tsunamis can travel 700-800 km per hour, with waves 10-30 meters high. It causes flooding and disrupts transportation, power, communications, and water supply.

Question 2.
What do you do if you are indoors during an earthquake?
Answer:
During an earthquake, if you are indoor:

1. DROP to the ground; take COVER by getting under a sturdy table or another piece of furniture and HOLD ON until the shaking stops. If there is no table or desk near you, cover your face and head with your arms and crouch in an inside comer of the building.
2. Protect yourself by staying under the lintel of an inner door, in the comer of a room, under a table, or even under a bed.
3. Stay away from glass windows outside doors and walls, and anything that could fall, (such as lighting fixtures or furniture).
4. Stay inside until the shaking stops and afterward it is safe to go outside.

Question 3.
How do you respond to Tsunami?
Answer:

1. You should find out if your home, school, workplace or other frequently visited locations are in tsunami hazard areas along the sea-shore.
2. Plan evacuation routes from your home, school, workplace, or any other place you could be, where tsunamis poses a risk.
3. Use a weather radio or stay tuned to a local radio or television station to keep informed of local watches and warnings.
4. Discuss tsunamis with your family. Everyone should be aware of what to do when a tsunami strikes. Discussing tsunamis ahead of time will help reduce fear and save precious time in an emergency. Review flood safety and precautionary measures with your family.

Question 4.
Write three sentences about what to do during a fire.
Answer:

1. Evacuate calmly and quickly whenever a fire alarm or carbon monoxide alarm sounds.
2. Before opening the door, feel it with the back of your hand. If the door is hot, do not open it.
3. If you encounter smoke during your evacuation, stay low to the floor.
4. Know the locations of fire extinguishers, fire alarm pull stations, and exits.

Intext Hots

Question 1.
Why should you cut off all the branches of trees below 3 meters of height standing near your house?
Answer:

1. Large trees, up to 70 feet or more should be planted at least 20 feet from the home, medium-sized trees up to 70 feet tall, 15 feet from the home, and small trees 30 feet tall or less, 8 to 10 feet from the home.
2. If the branches and limbs extend part the propriety line trimming and cutting up to the property line allowed.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Disaster Management: Responding to Disasters Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer

Question 1.
Find out the correct statements.
(a) The place on the earth’s surface above the focus is epicenter.
(b) During an earthquake, be chosen to building
(c) Stay inside until the shaking stops.
(d) Fire causes injuring to people and animals.
Answer:
(c) Stay inside until the shaking stops and d. Fire causes injuring to people and animals.

Question 2.
Match the following:

1. Firefighters – (i) 10 – 30 mt high
2. Seismograph – (ii) Respiratory hazard
3. Tsunami – (iii) Forests
4. Smoke – (iv) First responder
5. Wild Fire – (v) Earthquake

Answer:

1. – (iv)
2. – (v)
3. – (i)
4. – (ii)
5. – (iii)

II. Very short answer

Question 1.
What is a disaster?
Answer:
A disaster is “a catastrophe that causes great damage or loss of life and property”.

Question 2.
What is meant by stop, drop, and roll?
Answer:

1. To escape a fire, stop, drop, and roll.
2. In case your clothes bum, stop running, drop on the floor, and roll to stop fire from spreading.

III. Short answer

Question 1.
What do you mean by Disaster Response?
Answer:
Disaster response entails restoring physical facilities, rehabilitation of affected population, restoration of lost livelihoods and reconstruction efforts to restore the infrastructure lost or damaged. The Response Phase focuses primarily on emergency relief: saving lives, providing first aid, restoring damaged systems (communications and transportation), meeting the basic life requirements of those impacted by disaster (food, water and shelter) and providing mental health and spiritual support and care.

Question 2.
How is the Earthquake caused?
Answer:

1. Earthquake is a sudden vibration of the part of the earth caused by plate movements.
2. It occurs along the plate boundaries.
3. The place inside the earth where an earthquake originates is the focus.
4. The point on the earth’s surface above the focus is epicenter.
5. The damage caused by the earthquake is the highest near the epicenter.
6. The earthquake is measured by an instrument is called Seismograph.
7. It is recorded on the Richter scale.

Question 3.
What is to be done after a Tsunami?
Answer:

1. You should continue using a Weather Radio or staying tuned to a Coast Guard emergency frequency station or a local radio or television station for updated emergency information.
2. Check yourself for injuries and get first aid if necessary before helping the injured or trapped.
3. If someone needs to be rescued, call professionals with the right equipment to help.
4. Help people who require special assistance Infants, elderly people, those without transportation, large families who may need additional help in an emergency situation, people with disabilities, and the people who care for them.
5. Stay out of a building if water remains around it. Tsunami water, like floodwater, can undermine foundations, causing buildings to sink, floors to crack, or walls to collapse.
6. Check for gas leaks. If you smell gas or hear a blowing or hissing noise, open a window and get everyone outside quickly.

Question 4.
Write about Fire Safety Do’s and Don’ts.
Answer:
Fire Safety Do’s and Don’ts

1. Know your building’s evacuation plan.
2. Evacuate calmly and quickly, whenever a fire alarm or carbon monoxide alarm sounds.
3. Before opening a door, feel it with the back of your hand. If the door is hot, do not open it.
4. If you encounter smoke during your evacuation, stay low to the floor.
5. Know the outside rally point for your building.
6. Know the locations of fire extinguishers, fire alarm pull stations, and exits.

Question 5.
What should be done during a fire?
Answer:

1. Stay calm.
2. Pull the nearest fire alarm or call 112.
3. Give your name and the location of the fire. Do not hang up until the police dispatcher tells you to do so.
4. Leave the building immediately.
5. Inform others as you pass them to leave the building immediately.
6. Walk – don’t run – to the nearest exit.
7. Never use elevators – an elevator may become a trap.

IV. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Why do you think you should cover your head with one hand and hold the table with the other hands during an earthquake?
Answer:
it is mainly to protect the head and neck from gently damaged.

Question 2.
During an earthquake, why should we exit through the staircase and not use elevators?
Answer:
Because the earthquake likely to knock out electrical power, the elevator machinery will not work.

Question 3.
Suppose you are in a room of a strong building without any furniture when an earthquake occurs. What would you do to protect yourself from the earthquake?
Answer:
if doors are opened, stand under a doorway or in a comer inside the room. Cover your face and head with your arms.

Question 4.
Reason out why should you stay away from buildings with glass panes during an earthquake.
Answer:
At jolting of the earthquake bursting and breaking of the wall, glass panes may happen. So it is better to be away from it.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Chapter 7 Mapping Skills Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 7 Mapping Skills

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Mapping Skills Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
The new phase in topographical surveying in the 20’h century is __________
(a) toposheets
(b) aerial photography
(c) maps
(d) satellite imagery
Answer:
(d) satellite imagery

Question 2.
indicates the purpose or theme of the map.
(a) Title
(b) Scale
(c) Direction
(d) Legend
Answer:
(a) Title

Question 3.
Standard symbols that are used in maps to convey a definite meaning are called __________
(a) conventional signs and symbols
(b) coordinates
(c) grid references
(d) directions
Answer:
(a) conventional signs and symbols

Question 4.
Which one of the following maps show us a very large area with less details?
(a) Large scale
(b) Thematic
(c) Physical
(d) Small scale
Answer:
(d) Small scale

Question 5.
GPS consists of a constellation of satellites.
(a) 7
(b) 24
(c) 32
(d) 64
Answer:
b) 24

II. Match the following

1. The art and science of mapping – (a) USA
2. Thematic mapping – (b) Geoid
3. Actual shape of the earth – (c) Inmarsat
4. A satellite – (d) Political map
5. NAVSTAR – (e) Cartography

Answer:

1. – (e)
2. – (d)
3. – (b)
4. – (c)
5. – (a)

III. Consider the given statements and choose the right option given below

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The points at which the vertical and horizontal lines of the grid intersect are called coordinates.
Reason (R): The lines that run horizontally and vertically are called Northings and Eastings respectively.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true ; (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true ; (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct; (R) is false
(d) (A) is false ; (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true ; (R) explains (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The legend of a map does not help us to understand the information in a map.
Reason (R): It is usually placed at the left or right corner at the bottom of the map.
(a) (A) is false ; (R) is true
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true ; (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct; (R) is false
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true ; (R) explains (A)
Answer:
(a) (A) is false ; (R) is true

IV. Answer in Brief.

Question 1.
Name the different methods to represent the Earth.
Answer:
The three methods in widest use are as follows:

1. Projection on the surface of a cylinder
2. Projection on to the surface of a cone
3. Projection directly onto a flat plane called planar or zenithal or azimuthal projection.

Question 2.
What is a map?
Answer:

1. A map is the basic tool of a geographer.
2. It illustrates the earth’s surface clearly and effectively through a combination of drawings, words and symbols.
3. Thus, maps form an integral part of teaching geography.
4. A map is a location guide.

Question 3.
What are the three components of a map?
Answer:
Title, scale, and directions are the three components of a map.

Question 4.
The distance between the two cities A and B is 5 km. It is represented by a line of 5 cm on the map. Calculate the distance and give the answer in RF.
Answer:
Representative Fraction (R.F.) = \(\frac { Distance on the map }{ Distance on the ground }\) = \(\frac { 5 Cm }{ 5 km }\) = 1:1,00,000

Question 5.
Mention a few surveying instruments.
Answer:
Chain, Prismatic compass, Plane table, Dumpy level, Abney level, Clinometer, Theodolite, Total Station, and GNSS are some of the surveying instruments.

Question 6.
Define remote sensing.
Answer:

1. Remote Sensing refers to the observation and measurement of earthly objects without touching them.
2. ‘Remote’ means far away and ‘Sensing’ means observing or collecting information.

Question 7.
What are the components of remote sensing?
Answer:
Components of remote sensing are:

• Energy source
• Transmission path
• Target
• Sensor

V. Give Reasons.

Question 1.
Satellite imageries stimulate map making.
Answer:

1. Cartographic object extraction from digital imagery is a fundamental operation for GIS updates.
2. Remote sensing is a multidisciplinary technique of electronic and analog image acquisition and exploitation which includes aerial photography.
3. The images thus acquired by remote sensing are further processed to extract the different features.

Question 2.
A map is the basic tool of a geographer.
Answer:

1. It illustrates the earth’s surface clearly and effectively through a combination of drawings, words and symbols.
2. Thus, maps form an integral part of teaching geography. A map is a location guide.

Question 3.
Grid references are essential to finding the exact location of places on a map.
Answer:
The location of a place can be simply defined by its latitude and longitude. In normal practice, the latitude is stated first, and then comes the longitude. The latitude and longitude of a place can be expressed in units of degree, minutes, and seconds.

A grid is a set of lines with alphanumeric codes for defining a location on a map in many topographical sheets. The lines that run horizontally from left to right of the map are known as northings, whereas, the lines that run vertically from the top to the bottom of the map are called eastings. The points at which the vertical and horizontal lines of the grid intersect are called coordinates which are identified by numbers or letters.

VI. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Globe and Map.
Answer:
Map:

1. Gives a two-dimensional presentation of a region.
2. It is easy to use and portable.
3. The region can be easily identified.
4. It presents a distributed view as it is flat.

Globe:

1. Gives a three-dimensional presentation of the entire world.
2. It is not that easy to carry.
3. It is called duplicate earth.
4. It is more accurate.

Question 2.
Large scale map and small scale map.
Answer:
Large Scale Map

1. It shows only small area.
2. But it shows in great detail.

Small Scale Map

1. It shows a large area.
2. But it shows in less detail.

Question 3.
Aerial photographs and Satellite imageries
Aerial photographs:

1. Surveying can be planned and executed in a shorter time economically.
2. It covers a small area and needs permission from authorities.

Satellite imageries:

1. High cost of satellite systems. Takes at least 10 years to plan, construct test and launch.
2. It allows a global coverage and does not require permission.

Question 4.
GIS and GPS
Answer:
GIS:

1. The Geographic Information System is a computer program that process data linked to certain places or locations.
2. GIS finds its strongest use in resources management, telecommunications and urban and regional planning.

GPS:

1. The Global Position System is a network that locates certain places here on earth.
2. Weather forecasting, earthquake monitoring and environmental protection can be done effectively by using GPS.

VII. Answer in paragraph

Question 1.
What do you mean by the term ‘scale of the map’? Explain its classification.
Answer:
Scale makes it possible to reduce the size of the whole earth to show it on a piece of paper. A scale is a ratio between the actual distance on the map to the actual distance on the ground. Scales can be represented in three methods. They are the Statement, Representative Fraction (R.F) and Linear or Graphical scale methods.

Statement scale
The statement scale describes the relationship of map distance to ground distance in words, such as one centimetre to ten kilometres. It is expressed as 1cm =10 km.

The Representative Fraction (R.F)
It describes the proportion or ratio of the map distance to ground distance. It is usually abbreviated as R.F. It is stated as 1/100000 (or) 1:100000. This means that one unit on the map represents 100,000 of the same unit on the ground. This unit may be an inch or a centimetre or any other linear measurement unit. Thus, Representative Fraction (R.F.) = Distance on the map/ Distance on the ground.

Question 2.
Write a note on directions with a relevant diagram.
Answer:

1. Maps are drawn normally with north orientation.
2. North direction in a map is always towards the North Pole of the earth.
3. If you position yourself looking at the North Pole, on your right will be the east; your left will be the west; at your back will be south.
4. These four main directions are called the cardinal directions.
5. Direction is usually indicated on a map by a North-South line, with the North direction represented by an arrow head.

Question 3.
Explain the major uses of GPS? Explain about anyone.
Answer:
The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a U.S. owned utility that provides users with positioning, navigation, and timing services (PNT). This system consists of three segments: the space segment, the control segment, and the user segment.

Space Segment: This is formed by a Satellite Constellation with enough satellites to ensure that the users will have at least 4 simultaneous satellites in view from any point at the Earth Surface at any time.

Question 4.
Bhuvan has tremendous uses for scientists, policymakers, and the general public. Justify
Answer:

1. Bhuvan (Sanskrit for Earth) is a free internet-based computer application launched by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) on August 12th, 2009.
2. It enables visualization of Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) images taken over a year ago, by ISRO’s seven satellites, including CartoSat-1 and CartoSat-2.
3. Using Bhuvan connected to the Internet, one can explore places of interest, scenes of events in the news, or parts around the world they may never visit in person, by either entering the names of places or coordinates (latitudes and longitudes).
4. Bhuvan has tremendous uses for scientists, academicians, policymakers, or the general public.

VIII. Map Exercise

Question 1.
With the help of an atlas, mark the following on the outline map of Tamil Nadu.
(a) The latitude and longitude of Chennai.
(b) Mark the city located at 10° N, 78°E.
(c) Locate the city approximately on 11°N and 76°E.
(d) Find the latitude and longitude of Kanyakumari and mark it.

IX. HOTS

Question 1.
Can you imagine a world without satellites?
Answer:
No, we cannot imagine a world without satellites.

1. Our lives would change in so many ways. Millions of people would be affected as they can’t speak through mobile phones or send messages, TV shows would be missed, important information cannot be passed on quickly, and so on.
2. Scientific studies would be greatly restricted.
3. Army people would face difficulty in coordinating for international operations.
4. Spying would be impossible.
5. There will be navigation issues, communication issues, etc.

Question 2.
Imagine you are a cartographer. Draw the map of your area.
Hints:

1. Cartographers spend most of their time collecting and verily data used in creating maps.
2. A Cartographer will also collect and analyze geographical data, such as population density, demographic characteristics, and animal precipitation patterns.
3. As a cartographer, I will be involved with the scientific, technological, and artistic aspects of developing and producing maps.
4. It will present complex information as diagrams, charts, and spreadsheets as well as in the form of conventional maps.
5. A map of the area is to be drawn by the student.

Intext Activity

Question 1.
Imagine you are standing in India facing north, find in which direction are the following located using the map given below
Answer:

1. Saudi Arabia West
2. Myanmar East
3. China North
4. Indian ocean South
5. Kazakhstan North
6. Sumatra South East
7. Afghanistan West

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Mapping Skills Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer

Question 1.
The foundation for map-making in Indian war laid during the period ______
(a) Aryan
(b) Vedic
(c) Gupta
(d) Chola
Answer:
(b) Vedic

Question 2.
International boundaries are marked in ______ colour codes.
(a) Brown
(b) Blue
(c) Red
(d) Pink
Answer:
(d) Pink

Question 3.
A synoptic chart means
(a) Weather map
(b) Travelogue
(c) Thematic map
(d) General maps
Answer:
(a) Weather map

Question 4.
Aerial photographs were taken by Felix Nadar in __________
(a) 1850
(b) 1852
(c) 1858
(d) 1860
Answer:
(c) 1858

Question 5.
GPS technology has tremendous applications in __________
(a) Mobile phones
(b) Watches
(c) ATMs
(d) All the these
Answer:
(d) All the these

II. Consider the given statements and choose the right option given below.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): GNSS promotes the safety and convenience of transport.
Reason (R): GNSS applications are used in tracking or mapping vehicles, ships, and aircraft.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true; (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true; (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct; (R) is False
(d) (A) is false; (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true; (R) explains (A)

Question 2.
Statement (I): Surveying is done to measure the angle, direction, area, height and distance of an object.
Statement (II): A topographical map is the technique of meteorologists to display all the weather data.
(a) Statement (I) is true; (II) is false
(b) Statement (II) is true; (I) is false
(c) Statement (I) and (II) correct
(d) Statement (I) and (II) Wrong
Answer:
(a) Statement (I) is true; (II) is false

III. Match the following

1. Azimuthal – (a) Water towers
2. Light Blue – (b) Rope – stretchers
3. Travelogue – (c) Journalist
4. Egypt – (d) Polar projection
5. Felix Nadar – (e) Tourist map

Answer:

1. – (d)
2. – (a)
3. – (e)
4. – (b)
5. – (c)

IV. Answer in Brief.

Question 1.
Give a short account of ‘Imago Mundi’ the Babylonian Map of the World.
Answer:
More commonly known as the Babylonian Map of the World, the Imago Mundi is considered the oldest surviving world map. It is currently on display at the British Museum in London. It dates back to between 700 and 500 BC(BCE) and was found in a town called Sippar in Iraq.

The carved map depicts Babylon at the centre. Nearby are places like Assyria and Elam, all surrounded by a “Salt Sea” forming a ring around the cities. Outside the ring, eight islands or regions are carved onto the tablet. The map is accompanied by a cuneiform text describing Babylonian mythology in the regions depicted on the stone.

Question 2.
Who is a cartographer?
Answer:
A cartographer is one who measures, analyzes and interprets geographical information to create ‘ maps and charts for political, cultural and educational purposes.

Question 3.
Mention the three types of map symbols.
Answer:

1. Point Symbols – Buildings, dipping tanks, trigonometrical beacons
2. Line Symbols – Railways, roads, power lines, telephone lines
3. Area Symbols – Cultivated lands, ponds, orchards and vineyards

Question 4.
What is a travelogue?
Answer:
A travelogue includes all the information required by a tourist like communication, transportation, hotels, tourist spots, health centres, ATMs, petrol stations etc.

Question 5.
Name the three types of Map Symbols.
Answer:
There are three types of map symbols;

1. Point Symbols – buildings, dipping tanks, trigonometrical beacons
2. Line Symbols – railways, roads, power lines, telephone lines
3. Area Symbols – Cultivated lands, ponds, orchards, and vineyards

Question 6.
Mention the disadvantages of Remote sensing.
Answer:

1. It is difficult to prepare large scale maps from obtained satellite data.
2. The technique is very expensive for small areas requiring one-time analysis.

Question 7.
Mention the advantages of GIS.
Answer:
The advantages of GIS are

1. Maps produced by GIS analysis can be used to pinpoint problem areas.
2. GIS finds its strongest use in resources management, telecommunications, and urban and regional planning.
3. GIS helps in planning the land-use requirements. The local government uses GIS for taxation and planning.

Question 8.
Write about the hardware and software functions of a GIS.
Answer:
The hardware and software functions of a GIS are,

1. Data input and verification
2. Compilation
3. Storage
4. Updating and changing
5. Management and exchange
6. Manipulation
7. Retrieval and presentation
8. Analysis and combination

Question 9.
What is meant by cybercartography?
Answer:
Cyber cartography is a term that is used to define all the aspects of the current state of Web and virtual mapping.

Question 10.
What is a survey?
Answer:
Surveying is done to measure the angle, direction, area, height and distance of an object or place on the surface of the earth using instruments. Surveying techniques are used to obtain the field data and to prepare maps. Knowledge of surveying helps one in map-making, particularly in the preparation of physical maps.

Question 11.
What are the advantages of Bhuvan?
Answer:

1. Bhuvan, due to 3D rendering, gives the impression of moving through real space through the entire globe.
2. Students can use Bhuvan to understand subjects ranging from Sciences to History of places.
3. It provides information on natural resources and timely information on disasters.
4. Administrators use it for monitoring various developmental schemes.

V. Give Reasons

Question 1.
“It is not possible to show all the data of an area on a map”.
Answer:
The details that are to be shown may vary according to requirement. Therefore, it is essential to consider the scale and purpose while preparing maps.

Question 2.
Surveys help to prepare physical maps.
Answer:

1. Surveying is done to measure the angle, direction, area, height and distance of an object or place on the surface of the earth using instruments.
2. Surveying techniques are used to obtain the field data and to prepare maps.
3. Hence knowledge of surveying helps to prepare physical maps.

VI. Answer in paragraph

Question 1.
Write a note on Grid reference.
Answer:

1. The location of a place can be simply defined by its latitude and longitude.
2. In normal practice, latitude is stated first and then comes the longitude.
3. The latitude and longitude of a place can be expressed in units of degree, minutes and seconds.
4. A grid is a set of lines with alphanumeric codes for defining a location on a map in many topographical sheets.
5. The lines that run horizontally from left to right of the map are known as northings.
6. The lines that run vertically from the top to the bottom of the map are called eastings.
7. The points at which the vertical and horizontal lines of the grid intersect are called coordinates which are identified by numbers or letters.

Question 2.
What are the colour codes used with map symbols?
Answer:

1. Brown: land or earth features – contour lines, eroded areas, prominent rock outcrops, sand areas and dunes, secondary or gravel roads
2. Light Blue: water features – canals, coastlines, dams, lakes, marshes, swamps and levees, ponds, rivers and water towers.
3. Dark Blue: national waterways
4. Green: vegetation features – cultivated fields, golf courses, nature and game reserve boundaries, orchards and vineyards, recreation grounds, woodland
5. Black: construction features – roads, tracks, railways, buildings, bridges, cemeteries, communication towers, dam walls, excavations and mine dumps, telelphone lines, power lines, windpumps, boundaries
6. Red: construction features – national, arterial and main roads, lighthouses and marine lights
7. Pink: international boundaries

Question 3.
Explain the types of maps.
Answer:
(a) On the basis of scale, maps can be classified into:

1. Large scale maps: Large amount of detail; can only show a small area.
2. Small scale map: Small amount of detail; can show a large area,

(b) On the basis of utility and purpose, they are classified as:

1. General maps / Topographic Maps (physical and political maps)
2. Thematic map (spatial variations of single phenomena)
3. Special purpose maps (Braille maps for blind people, maps for neo literates, military maps, navigational charts, etc).

Question 4.
Write a short note on
(a) Topographical Maps and
(b) Weather Maps
Answer:
(a) Topographical Maps

1. Topographical maps show main features like landforms, water features, forests, settlements, agricultural fields, other land use, transportation and communication networks.
2. These maps are general purpose maps and are drawn at quite large scales.
3. The Survey of India prepares the topographical maps in India for the entire country.

(b) Weather Maps

1. A weather map is the technique of meteorologists to display all the weather data recorded at various stations of a country at a particular point of time into a compact outline map using symbols and isolines.
2. A weather map, otherwise called a synoptic chart, helps in weather analysis and weather forecast of the country/region for the next two to three days.

Question 5.
Explain the process of remote sensing.
Answer:
Remote Sensing

1. The EMR (Electro-Magnetic Radiation) or solar radiation is the primary source of energy for remote sensing.
2. Sunlight travels from the sun through the atmosphere, before it reaches the earth’s surface. In the atmosphere, the sun’s rays are not obstructed by any object.
3. When solar radiation falls on the earth’s surface, some of its energy is absorbed. While some is transmitted through the surface, the rest is reflected. Surfaces naturally emit radiation in the form of heat.
4. Sensors in the satellite record the reflected and emitted radiation. Each surface/object possesses a characteristic spectral signature, a unique pattern of reflecting sunlight.
5. The energy recorded by the sensor has to be transmitted to a ground station where the data are processed into an image.
6. The processed image is interpreted either visually by human interpreters or by computer-aided techniques called digital image processing to identify and distinguish between the different spectral signatures to get information about objects/places.
7. Finally, we understand and apply the extracted information in mapping the area or assist in solving a particular problem.

Question 6.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of Remote Sensing?
Answer:
(a) Advantages of Remote sensing:

1. It is the only practical way to obtain data from inaccessible regions, e.g. Antarctica, Amazon forest.
2. It helps in constructing cheap base maps in the absence of detailed land surveys.
3. It detects the spread of natural calamities such as floods, forest fires, and volcanic eruptions so that immediate rescue operations and planning can be carried out.

(b) Disadvantages of Remote sensing:

1. It is difficult to prepare large scale maps from obtained satellite data.
2. The technique is very expensive for small areas requiring one-time analysis.

Question 7.
How is remote sensing useful in disaster management?
Answer:

1. Remote sensing technology is highly used in disaster management to study the effects of earthquakes, tsunamis, cyclones, volcanic eruption, floods, and wildfires.
2. The preliminary data is retrieved from satellites like LANDSAT, CARTOSAT, OCEANSAT, etc.
3. Fire and flood details can be extracted and delivered to relevant authorities within two hours of satellite image capture.
4. E.g. major earthquakes in China and New Zealand, bushfire in Victoria, and floods in Kerala.
5. Dynamic phenomena such as floods, movement of wild animals, shoreline changes, finding lost ships, and planes.
6. Researchers use satellite imageries for these.

Question 8.
Explain the Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS).
Answer:

1. In the 21st century, GNSS has become a part of our lives to promote the safety and convenience of transport.
2. Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) is a satellite system connected with a small electronic receiver or tracker to locate, monitor and track a user’s vehicle wherever in the world.
3. It can also set up instant alerts when a driver of a vehicle speeds or deviates from a particular area.
4. GNSS applications are used in tracking or mapping vehicles, ships and aircraft.
5. group of satellites (Space Segment) working with a network of ground stations (Control Segment) provide location data.
6. The receiver (User Segment) converts satellite signals into location, speed and time data
7. Examples of GNSS:
   • Europe’s Galileo
   • USA’s NAVSTAR Global Positioning System (GPS)
   • Russia’s Global’naya Navigatsionnaya Sputnikovaya Sistema (GLONASS)
   • China’s BeiDou Navigation Satellite System
   • India’s NAVIC satellite system

Question 9.
Explain the Geographical Information System (GIS).
Answer:

1. Geographic Information System is a computer-based tool for managing a large amount of data collected for a given geographic region through remote sensing, GPS, and other sources.
2. The Geographic Information’System is a combination of computer hardware, software, geographic data, and personnel.
3. G – Geographic – A particular area; I – Information – facts in order; S – System – arrangement
4. GIS was first recognised in the late 1950s by Waldo Tobler and Roger Tomlinson (Canada).
5. Prime examples of importing GIS for public welfare are Google Maps, Yahoo Maps, and Google Earth.
6. The key ingredient is the location. We must have a coordinate, an address, or a distance from a known point that helps us to link the information to a location on a map.
7. Each type of data of an area is stored as a separate ‘layer’ of the map.
8. In GIS, layers may be used some times and removed according to need.
9. Examples are hospitals, schools, water bodies, parks, and ATMs.
10. The computers can create maps showing any combination of data.

Question 10.
Write a note on Google Earth.
Answer:

1. Google Earth is a web-based computer application.
2. Google Earth is a virtual globe that renders a 3D representation of the Earth.
3. It combines the power of Google Search with maps, satellite imageries, aerial photographs, GIS data, and 3D buildings to visualize the world.
4. Google Earth allows users to see cities and buildings looking perpendicularly down or at a tilted angle.
5. Google Earth allows users to search for addresses of some countries, enter coordinates, or simply use the mouse to browse a location.
6. Google Earth also has a Digital Elevation Model (DEM) data for many major cities.
7. This means one can view Mount Everest or buildings in three dimensions, instead of 2D.

Question 11.
Distinguish between Airborne remote sensing and spaceborne remote sensing.
Answer:
Airborne remote sensing:

1. In airborne remote sensing, downward or sideward looking sensors are mounted on an aircraft to obtain images of the earth’s surface.
2. An advantage of airborne remote sensing is the capability of offering very high spatial resolution images (20 cm or less)

Spaceborne remote sensing:

1. In space-borne remote sensing, sensors are mounted on board a spacecraft (space shuttle or satellite) orbiting the earth.
2. At present their one several remote sensing satellites proving imagery for research and operational applications.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Chapter 6 Man and Environment Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Man and Environment

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Man and Environment Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
All externa Influences and factors that affect the growth and development of living organisms is __________
(a) Environment
(b) Ecosystem
(c) Biotic factors
(d) Abiotic factors
Answer:
(a) Environment

Question 2.
The ‘World Population Day’ is observed on __________ every year.
(a) August 11th
(b) September 11th
(c) July 11th
(d) January 11th
Answer:
(c) July 11th

Question 3.
The statistical study of human population is __________
(a) Demography
(b) Morphology
(c) Etymology
(d) Seismography
Answer:
(a) Demography

Question 4.
The extraction of valuable minerals and other geological minerals from the mines, is __________
(a) Fishing
(b) Lumbering
(c) Mining
(d) Agriculture
Answer:
(c) Mining

Question 5.
The Secondary sector of the economy produces __________ from raw materials.
(a) Semi finished goods
(b) Finished goods
(c) Economic goods
(d) raw materials
Answer:
(b) Finished goods

Question 6.
Gradual increase of the earth’s temperature by the Green house gases in the atmosphere is called __________
(a) Acid rain
(b) thermal pollution
(c) Global warming
(d) Deforestation
Answer:
(c) Global warming

II. Mitch the following

1. Loudspeaker – (a) Push factor
2. Rio de Janeiro, Brazil – (b) Pull factor
3. Cruciform settlement – (c) noice pollution
4. Natural disaster – (d) T- shaped settlement
5. Better living conditions – (e) Earth Summit, 1992

Answer:

1. – (c)
2. – (e)
3. – (d)
4. – (a)
5. – (b)

III. Consider the given statements and choose the right option given below

Question 1.
Assertion(A): Ozone layer in the stratosphere is considered as a protective shield.
Reason(R): It prevents the UV radiation from reaching the earth’s surface.
(a) A and R are correct and A explains R
(b) A and R are correct, but A does not explain R
(c) A is incorrect but R is correct
(d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
(a) A and R are correct and A explains R

Question 2.
Assertion(A): In tertiary activities, instead of producing goods by themselves, they are in the process of production.
Reason(R): People in Tertiary activities are purely eco friendly.
(a) Both A and R are incorrect
(b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect
(d) A and R are correct and A explains R
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect

IV. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
What do you mean by the term ‘density’ of population’?
Answer:
Density of population refers to the number of people living per square kilometre. An area is said to be sparsely populated when it has a large area with less number of people. Similarly, smaller the area with a large number of people, it is said to be densely populated.

Question 2.
What is ‘black death’?
Answer:

1. The Black death is estimated to have killed 30 – 60 percent of Europe’s total population during the 14th century.
2. The dominant explanation for black death is attributed to the outbreak of plague.

Question 3.
Where do we have high and low densities of population?
Answer:
Areas of high density (above 50 people per sq.km) – East Asia, South Asia, northwest Europe & Eastern North America.
Areas of low density (less than 10 people per sq.km) – Central Africa, Western Australia, Northern Russia, Canada, etc.

Question 4.
Write any two ways of how the locals and the government restored Palk Bay.
Answer:

1. Saplings of native species of plants and trees are being grown planet and cared for
2. Live colonies of coral from the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve are being transplanted to Palk Bay. The existing mangroves and the region are being mapped and the way land is used around the mangrove is being studied.
3. Along with awareness programmes, the communities are also being provided with livelihood training, so they can earn an income in more ways than just fishing.

Question 5.
Define.

1. Population growth
2. Infant Mortality Rate
3. Census
4. Sustainable Development.

Answer:

1. Population growth refers to an increase in the number of people who reside in a particular area during a particular period.
2. The number of deaths under one year of age for every 1000 live births in a year is known as Infant Mortality Rate
3. Census is an official enumeration of population carried out periodically. It records information about the characteristics of population such as age, sex, literacy and occupation.
4. “Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generation to meet their own needs”.

V. Give reasons for the following.

Question 1.
Deforestation is encouraged throughout the world.
Answer:
Deforestation results in many effects like floods and droughts, loss of soil fertility, air pollution, extinction of species, global warming, spread of deserts, depletion of water resource, melting of ice caps and glaciers, rise in sea level and depletion of ozone layer. Therefore, reforestation is encouraged throughout the world in order to conserve our mother Earth.

Question 2.
Acid rain destroys the ecosystem.
Answer:

1. Acid rain has many ecological effect, but none is greater than its impact on lakes, streams, wetlands and other aquatic environments.
2. Acid-rain makes water acidic, and causes them to absorb the aluminium that makes its way from soil into lakes and streams.
3. It limits the nutrients available to the plants and expose them to toxic substances that are released from soil.

Question 3.
The economy of the quaternary sector is called the knowledge economy.
Answer:
The quaternary sector deals with the activities related to Research and Development, as well as knowledge. For e g. Services like consultation, education, and banking. Hence, it is called a knowledge economy.

Question 4.
Population growth has to be brought under control.
Answer:

1. Urgent steps need to be taken to stabilise the population for sustainable development goals to be achieved.
2. Through education awareness of the problems faced due to population explosion like pollution, scarcity of resources, conflict low standard of living and disruption in the ecological balance.

Question 5.
Sustainable development growth has been set to protect the planet.
Answer:
The excessive usage of natural and manmade resources deplete its availability for the future generation. Hence conservation and awareness are the two important terms that can bring sustainability to our living: When we use the word sustainability to mean maintain, it means to maintain it forever. This is because our actions have a lasting effect on the environment and we should protect it for our future generations.

VI. Distinguish the following

Question 1.
Birth Rate and Death Rate.
Answer:
Birth rate:
The number of live birth per 1000 children in a country during a year.

Death Rate:
The number of death per 1000 people in a country during a year.

Question 2.
Rural settlement and urban settlement
Answer:
Rural settlement:

1. An area located in the outskirts, is known as rural.
2. Villages and hamlets constitute ‘rural areas.

Urban settlement:

1. A settlement where the population is very high and has the features of a built environment, is known as urban.
2. Cities and towns constitute urban areas.

Question 3.
Primary activities and Secondary activities
Answer:
Primary Activities:

1. Primary activities pertain to the extraction of raw materials from the earth’s surface.
2. For example: Food gathering, hunting, lumbering, fishing, cattle rearing, mining and agriculture.

Secondary Activities:

1. Secondary activities transform raw materials into finished goods.
2. For example: Iron and steel industries, automobile manufacturing etc.,

VII. Answer in a paragraph

Question 1.
Explain the factors affecting the distribution of the population.
Answer:
The world population is not uniformly distributed, owing to the following factors.

• Physical Factors: Physical factors include temperature, rainfall, soil, relief, water, natural vegetation, distribution of minerals and availability of energy resources.
• Historical Factors: Regions with historical importance (river valley civilizations), war and constant invasions fall under historical factors responsible for population distribution.
• Economic Factors: Educational institutions, employment opportunities, manufacturing industries, luxurious amenities, trade and commerce and other facilities encourage dense population in an area.

Question 2.
Describe the patterns of rural settlement with neat diagrams.
Answer:

VIII. Map Skill

Question A.
On the outline map of the world mark the following.

1. An area of high density of population in Europe.
2. An area of low density of population in Australia.
3. PalkBay.
4. A fracking banned country.
5. England – A country affected by ‘black death’
6. Denmark – First country where the modem census was conducted.
7. River Hwang Ho.

Answer:

Question B.
On the outline map of Tamil Nadu mark the following.

1. A metropolitan city
2. A district with 7857 people per sq. km.
3. Gulf of Mannar
4. Palk Strait

Answer:

IX. Hots

Question 1.
Study your area and write down its settlement pattern.
Answer:

1. A settlement pattern refers to the way that buildings and houses are distributed in a rural settlement.
2. Settlement patterns are of interest to geographers, historians and anthropologists for the insight they offer in how a community has developed over time.

Linear:
In a linear settlement pattern, the buildings are arranged in lines. These lines often follow the route of a road or body of water.

Dispersed:
In a dispersed settlement pattern, the buildings are scattered over a wide area. Dispersed settlement patterns are often associated with agricultural activity and are frequently surrounded by farmland.

Nucleated:
In a nucleated settlement pattern, the buildings are grouped around a central core. Nucleated settlement patterns are usually associated with patterns of agriculture in which the settlement is surrounded two or three fields, and each field divided into strips that were formed b individual farmers.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Man and Environment Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The percentage of people in a given population who can read and write a language refer to ______
(a) Infant mortality
(b) Literacy rate
(c) Sex ratio
(d) Populationdensity
Answer:
(b) Literacyrate

Question 2.
In India the first census was carried out in the year ________
(a) 1800
(b) 1821
(c) 1872
(d) 1880
Answer:
(c) 1872

Question 3.
At the Confluence of river this pattern is developed ________
(a) Starlike
(b) Triangular
(c) Nebular
(d) Circular
Answer:
(b) Triangular

Question 4.
Automobile manufacturing comes under this economic activity
(a) Primary
(b) Tertiary
(c) Secondary
(d) Quaternary
Answer:
(c) Secondary

Question 5.
Van Mahotsav week celebrated during
(a) 1st July to 7th July
(b) 1st June to 7th June
(c) 1st January to 7th January
(d) 1st December to 7th December
Answer:
(a) 1st July to 7th July

Question 6.
News paper and Cardboard belong to
a) Wet waste
(b) Dry waste
(c) Rejected waste
(d) e – waste
Answer:
(b) Dry waste

Question 7.
Palk Bay is the home of
(a) Coconut trees
(b) Dry waste
(c) Mangrove trees
(d) e – waste
Answer:
(c) Mangrove trees

Consider the given statement and choose the right option given below.

Question 8.
Assertion(A): Deforestation results in floods and drought.
Reason(R): Under deforestation trees are cut down clearing the forests.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) Bpth A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R does not explain A
(d) A and R are correct and A explains R
Answer:
(d) A and R are correct and A explains R

Question 9.
Assertion(A): Urbanisation is one of the environmental issues.
Reason(R) : As the town expands, it mounts more pressure on transport system, water supplies leading to air pollution, water pollution etc.
(a) (A) and (R) are correct, (R) explain (A)
(b) (A) and (R) are correct, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
Answer:
(a) (A) and (R) are correct, (R) explain (A)

II. Match the following

1. Monuments – (i) Low density
2. Denmark – (ii) Rectangular Pattern
3. Northern Russia – (iii) Madurai
4. Plain Areas – (iv) Man – Made
5. Metropolitan – (v) Census

Answer:

1. – (iv)
2. – (v)
3. – (i)
4. – (ii)
5. – (iii)

III. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
Classify the Environment.
Answer:
Environment can be classified as

1. Natural Environment
2. Human Environment and
3. Man Made Environment

Question 2.
What is demography?
Answer:

1. In ancient Greek, ‘demos’ means people and ‘graphis’ means study of measurement.
2. So ‘Demography’ is the statistical study of human population.

Question 3.
What is National Increase of population?
Answer:
National increase of population is the difference between the birth rate and death rate.

Question 4.
What is population change?
Answer:
Population change refers to an increase or decrease in the population of an area influenced by the number of births, deaths and migration.

Question 5.
Why do we observe the The World Population Day?
Answer:

1. The World Population Day is observed on 11th July every year.
2. It seeks to raise awareness of global population issues.
3. The United Nations Development Programme started celebrating this event from the year 1989.

Question 6.
Mention about the official population policy implemented in 1952.
Answer:

1. India has an official population policy implemented in 1952.
2. India was the first country to announce such a policy.
3. The main objective of this policy was to slow down the rate of population growth, through . promotion of various birth control measures.

Question 7.
Explain the Quinary Activities.
Answer:

1. The activities that focus on the creation, rearrangement, and interpretation of new and existing ideas are called quinary activities.
2. It includes the highest levels of decision making in a society or economy.
3. Eg. Senior business executives, scientists and policymakers in the Government.

Question 8.
Explain the term afforestation.
Answer:

1. Afforestation is the process of planting trees or sowing seeds on barren land devoid of any trees to create a forest.
2. Therefore afforestation is the creation of a new forest.

Question 9.
What is forest management?
Answer:

1. Forest Management seeks to achieve a balance between the society’s increasing demands for forest products, its benefits and the preservation of forest health and diversity too.
2. This balance is critical to the survival of forests and to the prosperity of forest dependent communities.

Question 10.
What are natural pollutants?
Answer:
The natural pollutants are volcanic eruptions, wind erosion, pollen disposal, evaporation of organic compounds and radioactive elements etc.,

Question 11.
What are man made pollutants?
Answer:
Man made pollutants refer to vehicular emission, industrial wastes, smoke from thermal power plants and refineries badly affects the environment.

Question 12.
Mention any three ways to conserve Water.
Answer:

1. To conserve water do not dump in or around rivers. Clean up rivers that have a lot of trash in and around them.
2. Never dispose of cooking fats and oils by proving them down the sink.
3. Turn off water while brushing teeth, washing, gardening and sharing.

Question 13.
Mention the preventive measures of land pollution.
Answer:

1. Things used for domestic purposes can be reused and recycled.
2. Organic waste matter should be disposed off far away from the settlements.
3. Inorganic wastes can be separated, reclaimed and recycled.

Question 14.
What is Smog?
Answer:

1. Smog is a mixture of smoke, gases and chemicals.
2. It causes a smoky dark atmosphere, especially over cities.
3. It decreases visibility and creates haze throughout the area.

Question 15.
Mention the problems of Urbanisation.
Answer:

1. As the town expands, it mounts more pressure on transport system, water supplies, sewage and profuse disposal.
2. The overall development creates problems like air pollution, water pollution, traffic congestion and noise pollution etc.
3. This disturbed environment affects the human beings as mental illness, heart troubles, breathing problems etc.

Question 16.
Why is Sustainability important?
Answer:

1. The excessive usage of natural and manmade resources deplete its availability for the future generation.
2. We need to look after our planet, our resources and our people to ensure that we can hand over our planet to our children to live in true sustainability.
3. Hence conservation and awareness are the two important terms that can bring sustainability to our living.
4. When we use the word sustainability to mean maintain, it means to maintain it forever.
5. This is because our actions have a lasting effect on the environment and we should protect it for our future generations.

IV. Distinguish the following

Question 1.
Internal Migration and International Migration.
Answer:
Internal Migration:

1. The movement of people within a country i.e. between states, districts, villages, etc is called as Internal migration.

International Migration:

1. The movement of people from one country to another, across international borders is called as International migration.

Question 2.
Land Pollution and Noise Pollution.
Answer:
Land Pollution:

1. Land pollution is contaminating the land surface of the earth through dumping of urban waste matter.
2. It arises from the breakage of underground storage tanks, application of pesticides and percolation of contaminated surface water, oil and fuel dumping.
3. One of the preventive measures. Inorganic wastes can be separated, reclaimed and recycled.

Noise Pollution:

1. Noise pollution is basically a problem of urban areas, industrial areas, transport areas due to bombardment, traffic etc.
2. It has an impact on the habitat of animals migration and health of inhabitants.
3. One of the control measures planting trees along the compound walls to protect houses.

Question 3.
Push factors and pull factors
Answer:
Push Factors:

1. In sufficient jobs and few opportunities.
2. Primitive conditions
3. Pollution
4. Poor infrastructural facilities

Pull factors:

1. Better job opportunities.
2. Better living conditions
3. Clean environment
4. Better infrastructural facilities

V. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Fracking’affect the environment.
Answer:

1. Fracking not only pollutes water and air but also pollutes the soil.
2. The oil spills during fracking can harm the soil and the surrounding vegetation.
3. The use of high pressure at the time of soil extraction and the storage of waste water on site may cause earthquakes.

Question 2.
Segregate bio degrable
Answer:

1. We should segregate biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes so that we can easily notice and separate all biodegradable which can be used as a fertilizer. While nonbiodegradable can be recycled.
2. Segregate of wastes in important for properly disposing of the huge amount of garbage in an environmentally conscious manner.

VI. Answer in a paragraph.

Question 1.
Explain the classification of the Environment.
Answer:
(a) Natural Environment
(b) Human Environment
(c) Man made Environment

(a) Natural Environment : Natural components of environment such as Lithosphere, atmosphere, hydrosphere and biosphere.

(b) Human Environment : This is the interaction between man as an individual, with his family, occupation and society. It is also related to various cultural aspects such as education, religion, economics and politics.

(c) Man made Environment :

1. This has been created by man himself for the purpose of fulfilling his needs and to make his life more convenient and easy.
2. For example, building, transport, park, industries, monument, etc.
3. To bring an equilibrium between man and the environment, man has to study the distribution of population, availability of resources, development in technology etc.

Question 2.
Explain the term density of population.
Answer:

1. Density of population refers to the number of people living per sq. km. An area is said to be sparsely populated when it has a large area with less number of people. Similarly, smaller the area with a large number of people, it is said to be densely populated.
2. Population Density = \(\frac { Total Population }{ Total land area }\)

The world’s population density is divided into three main groups.
(a) Areas of high density (above 50 people per sq.km) – East Asia, South Asia, North West Europe & Eastern North America.

(b) Areas of moderate density (10 to 50 people per sq.km) – The sub tropical regions like Angola, Congo, Nigeria and Zambia in Africa.

(c) Areas of low density (less than 10 people per sq.km) – Central Africa, Western Australia, Northern Russia, Canada, etc…

Question 3.
What is ‘Migration’? and explain its types.
Answer:

1. Migration is defined as the permanent or semi-permanent change of home of an individual or a group of people over a significant distance from their place of birth.
2. The causes of migration may be physical (climate, drought, flood, earthquake, volcanic eruption, epidemics etc.), social inequalities, economic opportunities, technology, education, cultural clashes, war or political issues.
3. There are two types of migration:

(a) Internal Migration – The movement of people.within a country i.e. between states, districts, villages, etc is called as Internal migration.

(b) International Migration – The movement of people from one country to another, across international borders is called as International migration.

Question 4.
What are Urban Settlements? apd explain its types.
Answer:

1. Urban is the term related to cities and towns where people are primarily engaged in non-agricultural activities.
2. The factors responsible for urbanization are better employment opportunities, suitable conditions for business, education, transport, etc.
3. Urban centres are classified as towns, cities, metropolitan cities, mega cities, conurbation, etc., depending on the size and services available and functions rendered to it.

(a) Town : A town is generally larger than a village, but smaller than a city. It has a population of less than 1 lakh. E.g.: Arakkonam.

(b) City : Cities are much larger than towns and have a greater number of economic
functions. The population in cities are estimated to be more than 1 lakh. E.g.: Coimbatore

(c) Metropolitan Cities : Cities accommodating population between 10 lakhs and 50 lakhs are metropolitan cities. E.g.: Madurai

(d) Mega cities : Cities with more than 50 lakh population are called Megacities. E.g.: Chennai

(e) Conurbation : A conurbation is a region comprising of a number of cities, large towns and other urban areas. E.g.: Delhi

Question 5.
What are the effects of Deforestation?
Answer:

1. Deforestation results in many effects like floods and droughts, loss of soil fertility, air pollution, extinction of species, global warming, spread of deserts, depletion of water resource, melting of ice caps and glaciers, rise in sea level and depletion of ozone layer
2. The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) by name Earth Summit Conference held at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, on June 1992 concluded that all member countries should reduce their emission of carbon dioxide, methane and other green house gases thought to be responsible for global warming.

Question 6.
How can we conserve forests?
Answer:

1. Conservation of forests can be done through the regulation of cutting of trees.
2. Control over forest fire: Through regular monitoring and controlling the movement of the people forest fire can be prevented.
3. Reforestation and afforestation: Reforestation involves the replanting or regeneration of areas of forest which have previously been damaged or destroyed.
   Sometimes forests are able to regenerate naturally. Afforestation is the process of planting trees or sowing seeds on barren land devoid of any trees to create a forest.
4. Proper use of forest products: We depend on forests for our survival from the air we breathe, to the wood we use.
   Besides providing habitats for animals and livelihoods for humans, forest products are one of the most essential things in our day to day life. Therefore we must use forest products properly.
5. Sustainable forest management: The use of forest and forest lands in a way and at a rate, that maintains their biodiversity, productivity, regeneration capacity, vitality and their potential to fulfill the global levels should not cause damage to other eco systems.

Question 7.
Write short note on
(a) Green House Effect
(b) Add Rain
Answer:
(a) Green house :

1. Global warming is caused by the increase of green house gases such as carbondioxide, methane, water vapour and Chloro Fluoro Carbons(CFC), carbon monoxide, photo chemical oxidants and hydrocarbons.
2. They are responsible for the heat retention ability of the atmosphere.
3. Global warming causes climatic change, ozone layer depletion, rise in sea level and drowning of coastal inhabited land, melting of ice, etc.,
4. They are posing an even greater threat to human existence and so, man must start thinking of protecting the environment from pollution.

(b) Acid Rain :

1. When pollutants combine with water vapour in the presence of sunlight and oxygen, they form dilute sulphuric and nitric acids in the atmosphere.
2. When this mixture precipitates from the atmosphere, 0 is called acid rain.
3. The gases that cause acid rain are sulphur-di-oxide, nitrogen oxides, carbon-di-oxide and other minute bio-products, caused by the burning of fossil fuels.

Question 8.
W rite a note on Ozone layer.
Answer:

1. Ozone is a poisonous gas made up of molecules consisting of three oxygen atoms (03).
   This gas is extremely rare in the atmosphere, representing just three out of every 10 million molecules.
2. The ozone layer is not really a layer at all, but has become known as such because most ozone particles are scattered between 19 and 30 kilometre up in the earth’s atmosphere, in a region called the stratosphere.
3. Ozone layer in the atmosphere absorbs most of the harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
4. It also screens out the deadly UV-C radiation the ozone shield is this essential to protect life.

Question 9.
Explain the term Fracking.
Answer:

1. The modem technology applied to extract oil and gas while fracturing the rocks artificially with the use of pressurized liquid is called fracking.
2. Fracking fluid is a mixture of water, sand and thickening agents.
3. The first successful implementation of the process was done in 1950.
4. Methane is one of the most important chemicals used in fracking process.
5. It is estimated that four percent of methane escapes into the atmosphere during extraction.
6. Methane is 25 times stronger than carbon di-oxide in terms of trapping heat.
7. The spills of this gas is detrimental to the air quality of the surrounding fracking sites
8. Pollutants decrease the availability of clean air for workers and local residents.

Question 10.
How to dispose a Waste?
Answers:

1. Do not litter your surroundings. Use a proper waste bin to store your wastes.
2. People should practise to segregate degradable and non-degradable wastes and should dispose
   them in proper coloured bins. Wastage is generally classified into three types. They are

(a) Wet Waste: It comes from the kitchen/cooking/food, etc.

(b) Dry Recyclable Waste : Such as newspapers, cardboard, packing plastics, bottles, cans, etc., should go to a different bin.

(c) Rejected Waste: which does not belong to the above two categories, including bio waste like diapers and bandages, etc.

(d) Sewage: sewage slude is produced by waste water treatment processes. Due to rapid urbanization, there has been an increase in municipal waste water.

Electronic Waste (e-waste):

1. It can be defined as any electrical goods, devices or components that you no longer want or have already thrown away. For example, computers, televisions, mobiles and fax machines.
2. This waste can take many years to break down.
3. It can contain toxic chemicals such as mercury, lead and lithium that leach into the ground and cause illness.
4. Instead of sending e-waste to the dump, components from electronics can be reused to make new products.

Question 11.
Explain the term sustainable development. Why should we balance the economic, social and environmental factors of sustainability in equal harmony?
Answer:

1. “Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generation to meet their own needs”.
2. For sustainable development tp be achieved, it is crucial to harmonize three core elements: economic growth, social aspects and environmental protection.
3. These elements are interconnected and are crucial for the well-being of individuals and societies.
4. To achieve true sustainability, we need to balance the economic ,social and environmental factors of sustainability in equal harmony.

Social Sustainability :

1. The ability of a social system such as a country, family or organization to function at a defined level of social well being and harmony is called social sustainability.
2. The balancing capacity of a government in maintaining peaceful existence towards other countries and at the same time providing the requirements of its citizens without affecting the environment creates social sustainability.

Economic Sustainability :

1. The economic sustainability is successfully implemented through strong Public Distrubution System.
2. Economic sustainability ensures that our economic growth maintains a healthy balance with our ecosystem.

Environmental Sustainability :

1. It is the ability of the environment to support a defined level of environmental quality and natural resource extraction rates forever to mankind.
2. Unnecessary disturbances to the environment should be avoided whenever possible.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Chapter 5 Biosphere Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Important Questions, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Biosphere

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Biosphere Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The coldest biome on Earth is __________
(a) Tundra
(b) Taiga
(c) Desert
(d) Oceans
Answer:
(a) Tundra

Question 2.
This is the smallest unit of biosphere __________
(a) Ecosystems
(b) Biome
(c) Environment
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) Ecosystems

Question 3.
Nutrients are recycled in the atmosphere with the help of certain micro organisms, referred to as __________
(a) Producers
(b) Decomposers
(c) Consumers
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 4.
To which climatic conditions are Xerophytic plants specifically adapted to?
(a) Saline and sandy
(b) Limited moisture availability
(c) Cold temperature
(d) Humid
Answer:
(a) Saline and sandy

Question 5.
Why is the usage of rainforest biomes for large scale agriculture unsustainable?
a) because it is too wet.
b) because the temperature is too warm,
c) because the soil is too thin.
d) because the soil is poor.
Answer:
d) because the soil is poor

Questions 6-8 are assertion type questions. Directions :
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason(R) are true; R explains A
(b) Both assertion(A) and reason(R) are true; R does not explain A
(c) A is true; R is false
(d) Both A and R are false

Question 6.
A: Heterotrophs do not produce their own food.
R : They depend on autotrophs for their nourishment.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason(R) are true; R explains A

Question 7.
A : Hotspots are the regions characterised by numerous endemic plants and animal species
living in a vulnerable environment.
R : To manage and focus on conservation work more effectively, researchers identified hotspots.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason(R) are true; R explains A

Question 8.
A: The number of gorillas in Africa has plummeted by 60% in the past twenty years.
R : Non intervention of human beings in the forest areas.
Answer:
(c) A is true; R is false

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. An area where animals, plants and micro organisms live and interact with one another is known _____
2. __________ are also called Heterotrophs.
3. __________ is a system of interlocking and independent food chains,
4. __________ is an extensive large ecosystem.
5. The vegetative type commonly found in desert biomes is called __________
6. __________ is an aquatic biome that is found where freshh water and salt water mix

Answer:

1. Eco System
2. consumers
3. Food web
4. A Biome
5. Xerophytes
6. Estuary

III. Answer the following in brief

Question 1.
What is Biosphere?
Answer:
The biosphere is a life-supporting layer that exists on the earth’s surface. This layer on earth encompasses the Lithosphere, Hydrosphere, and Atmosphere. It includes flora and fauna that thrive on or near the earth’s surface.

Question 2.
What is an ecosystem?
Answer:

1. An ecosystem is a community, where all living organisms live and interact with one another and also with their non-living environment such as land, soil, air, water etc.
2. Ecosystems range in size from the smallest units (Eg: bark of a tree) that can sustain life to the global ecosystem or ecosphere. (Eg: Cropland, Pond ecosystem, Forest ecosystem, Desert ecosystem etc.).
3. Biosphere harbours all ecosystems on the earth and sustains life forms including mankind.

Question 3.
What does the term ‘biodiversity’’ mean?
Answer:
Biodiversity or biological diversity refers to a wide variety of living organisms (plants, animals and other microorganisms) which live in a habitat. It is highly influenced by topography, climate as well as human activities.

Question 4.
What is meant by loss of bio diversity?
Answer:

1. The extinction of species (flora and fauna) due to human and natural influences is called loss of biodiversity.
2. The biodiversity loss has a great impact on mankind and also affects land, water, air etc.
3. Habitat destruction due to deforestation, population explosion, pollution and global warming are the major cause for loss of biodiversity.
4. Sometimes, habitat loss is so severe or happens so quickly that it results in a species being eliminated from the planet.

Question 5.
Mention the various terrestrial biomes.
Answer:
The major terrestrial biomes of the world are:

1. Tropical Forest Biomes
2. Tropical Savanna Biomes
3. Desert Biomes
4. Temperate Grassland Biomes
5. Tundra Biomes

IV. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Producers are also called autotrophs.
Answer:
Producers are self-nourishing components of the ecosystem. Hence they are called Autotrophs. They are found both on land and water, e.g. Plants, Algae, Bacteria, etc.

Question 2.
Biosphere provides a stable ecosystem.
Answer:

1. Ecosystems range in size from the smallest units that can sustain life to the global ecosystem or ecosphere.
2. The biosphere harbours all ecosystems on the earth and sustains life forms including mankind. Therefore Biosphere provides a stable ecosystem.

V. Distinguish between the following.

Question 1.
Producers and Decomposers.
Answer:
Producers:

1. Producers are self-nourishing components of the ecosystem.
2. Hence they are called Autotrophs.
3. They are found both on land and in water. Eg. Plants, Algae, Bacteria etc.

Decomposers:

1. Decomposers are some organisms that are incapable of preparing its own food.
2. They live on dead and decaying plants and animals.
3. Hence they are called Saprotrophs. Eg. Fungus, mushrooms etc.

Question 2.
Terrestrial biomes and Aquatic biomes.
Answer:
Terrestrial biomes:

1. Terrestrial biomes is a group of living organisms that live and interact with one another on land. They are
2. mainly determined by temperature and rainfall.
3. Some of the major terrestrial biomes of the world are:
   • Tropical Forest Biomes
   • Tropical Savanna Biomes
   • Desert Biomes
   • Temperate Grassland Biomes
   • Tundra Biomes

Aquatic biomes:

1. Aquatic biome is a group of living organisms that live and interact with one. another and its aquatic environment for nutrients and shelter.
2. Like terrestrial biomes, aquatic biomes are influenced by a series of abiotic factors.
3. It is broadly classified as:
   1. fresh water biomes and
   2. marine biomes.

Question 3.
Tropical vegetation and Desert vegetation.
Answer:
Tropical vegetation:

1. Tropical forests have the highest biodiversity and primary productivity of any of the terrestrial biomes.
2. These regions have very dense forests.
3. The chief trees found here are rubber, bamboo, ebony, etc.

Desert vegetation:

1. Due to the lack of rainfall and arid conditions, these regions do not possess any vegetation but have a special vegetation type called Xerophytes.
2. As the soil is sandy and saline, deserts remain agriculturally unproductive.
3. Drought resistant thorny scrubs and bushes, palms are found here.

Question 4.
Savannas and Tundra.
Answer:
Savannas:

1. Tropical Savannas are generally found between tropical forests and deserts.
2. Tropical Savanna biomes are found between 10° to 20° North and South latitudes.
3. This biome is generally hot and dry and experiences moderate to low rainfall.
4. The grass which grow here are tall and sharp.

Tundra:

1. 1. Tundra low lands are found where the ground remains frozen.
2. 2. Greenland, Arctic and Antarctic region and Northern parts of Asia, Canada, Europe fall in this Biome.
3. 3. These regions are also called Barren lands.
4. This biome experiences long severe winter and short cool summer.

VI. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
Explain the various components of the ecosystem.
Answer:
An ecosystem is a community, where all living organisms live and interact with one another and also with their non-living environment such as land, soil, air, water etc. Ecosystems range in size from the smallest units (e.g. bark of a tree) that can sustain life to the global ecosystem or ecosphere. (e.g. Cropland, Pond ecosystem, Forest ecosystem, Desert ecosystem etc.). Biosphere harbours all ecosystems on the earth and sustains life forms including mankind.
Components of the ecosystem:
An ecosystem consists of three basic components, namely
(A) Abiotic components
(B) Biotic components and
(C) Energy component

A) Abiotic Components: Abiotic components include the non-living, inorganic, physical and chemical factors in the environment, e.g. Land, Air, Water, Calcium, Iron etc.

B) Biotic Components: Biotic components include plants, animals and microorganisms. Biotic components can be classified into three categories:

• Producers are self-nourishing components of the ecosystem. Hence they are called Autotrophs. They are found both on land and water, e.g. Plants, Algae, Bacteria etc.
• Consumers are those that depend on producers, directly or indirectly. Hence they are called Heterotrophs.

C) Energy Components: All organisms in the biosphere use energy to work and convert one form of energy into another. The Sun is the ultimate source of energy for the biosphere as a whole. The solar energy gets transformed into other forms of energy through the various components in the ecosystem. The producers, consumers and decomposers contribute a lot to the energy flow in an ecosystem.

Question 2.
Write a paragraph on the functions of an ecosystem.
Answer:

1. The living organisms form an interacting set of flora and fauna which are organized into trophic levels, food chains and food webs.
2. The functioning of an ecosystem depends on the pattern of the energy flow, as it helps in the distribution and circulation of the organic and inorganic matter within an ecosystem.
3. Energy flow generally takes place in a hierarchical order in an ecosystem through various levels.
4. These levels are called trophic levels.
5. The chain of transformation of energy from one group of organisms to another, through various trophic levels is called a food chain.
6. A system of interlocking and interdependent food chains is called a food web.

Question 3.
Explain about the aquatic biomes on Earth.
Answer:
An aquatic biome is a group of living organisms that live and interact with one another and its aquatic environment for nutrients and shelter. Like terrestrial biomes, aquatic biomes are influenced by a series of abiotic factors. It is broadly classified as freshwater biomes and marine biomes.

A. Freshwater Biomes: It comprises lakes, ponds, rivers, streams, wetlands etc. It is influenced by various abiotic components such as the volume of water, water flow, the composition of oxygen, temperature, etc. Humans rely on freshwater biomes for drinking water, crop irrigation, sanitation and industry. Water lily, lotus, duckweeds etc. are the common plants found here. Trout, salmon, turtles, crocodiles etc. are the animals found here.

B. Marine Biomes: They are the largest aquatic biomes on earth. They are continuous bodies of saltwater and provide a wide range of habitats for marine plants and animals. Coral reefs are the second kind of marine biomes within the ocean. Estuaries, coastal areas where salt water and fresh water mix, form a third unique marine biome. As water provides maximum mobility to marine organisms, nutrients are circulated more quickly and efficiently here than the terrestrial biomes. Apart from animals, plants such as kelp, algae, phytoplankton etc. also grow in water. Aquatic biomes are not only important for plants and animals, but also for humans. Humans use aquatic biomes for water, food and leisure activities. Some of the threats and issues to aquatic biomes are overfishing, pollution and a rise in sea level.

VII. Find out the dates for the following

Question 1.

1. World Wild Life Day – _______
2. International Day of Forest – _______
3. World Water Day – _______
4. Earth Day – _______
5. World Environment Day – _______
6. World Oceans Day – _______

Answer:

1. 3rd March
2. 21st March
3. 22nd March
4. 22nd April
5. June 5th
6. 8th June

VIII. Map Study

Question 1.
Locate the following on the world outline map.

1. Prairies
2. Downs
3. Tundra Biomes
4. Equatorial Biomes

IX. Picture Study

Question 1.
Narrate the given web of Arctic Thundra in your own words

Answer:

1. Sun → Lichen → Lemming → Wolf
2. Sun → Lichen → Caribou → Wolf
3. Sun → Grasses → Arctic Hare → Hawk
4. Sun → Grasses → Arctic Hare → Polar Bear
5. Sun → Grasses → Arctic Hare → Wolf
6. Sun → Grasses → Lemming → Hawk
7. Sun → Grasses → Lemming → Wolf
8. Sun → Grasses → Musk Ox
9. Sun → Artie Wildflower → Leming → Hawk
10. Sun → Artie Wildflower → Leming → Wolf
11. Sun → Artie Wildflower → Caribou → Polar Bear
12. Sun → Artie Wildflower → Caribou → Wolf

Intext Activity

Question 1.
Narrate the forest ecosystem in your own words.
Answer:

1. A forest ecosystem is a large area of land that’s covered in trees and other woody plants and filled with living animals. There are three main types of forests: tropical rain forests, deciduous forests, and coniferous forests.
2. Tropical rain forests are found near the equator (the center of Earth), where they are warm all year round. It usually rains in rain forests every day, and there are many different species of animals that live in the different levels of the rain forest.
3. Deciduous forests are made up of trees that shed their leaves in autumn. Worms, snails, and spiders enjoy their rich soil, and they have warm summers and cold winters. In the winter, animals that live in deciduous forests hibernate, or sleep through the winter, and birds migrate to warmer areas in the world. Raccoons, rabbits, and squirrels are common animals found in deciduous forests.
4. Coniferous forests have vegetation composed primarily of cone-bearing needle-leaved or scale-leaved evergreen trees, found in areas that have long winters and moderate to high annual precipitation.

Question 2.
Find the etymology of Herbivores, carnivores, omnivores and scavengers using dictionary
Answer:
Etymology

1. Herbivores Meaning – Plant Eating
2. Herba Meaning – Plant / Vorare – Swallow
3. Carnivores Meaning – Flesh Eating
4. Cami Meaning – Flesh / Vorare – Swallow
5. Omnivores Meaning – feeding on a variety of food of both plant and animal origin
6. Omni Meaning – All / Vorare – Swallow
7. Scavengers Meaning – an animal that feeds on carrion, dead plant material or refuse.
8. Scavage Meaning – search or inspect through rubbish things

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Biosphere Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks

1. All living things large or small are grouped into _________
2. The area in which an animal, plant or micro organisms lives is called its _________
3. The chain of transformation of energy from one group of organisms to another through various trophic levels is called a _________
4. The Extinction of spices is called _________
5. In Temperate Grass Lands Biome higher precipitation leads to _________ grass.
6. In Temperate Grassland Biomes lower precipitation leads to _________ grass.
7. Tundra Biomes are also called _________
8. Lakes, ponds, rivers, streams, wetlands together known as _________ biomes.
9. In aquatic ecosystem, there is abundant water with limited _________ supply.
10. Terrestrial animals use only 1 – 2% of energy to obtain _________
11. The wide variety of living organisms that are found on the planet is called _________
12. The study about freshwater ecosystem is called _________
13. The study of the sources, development and history of a word is called _________
14. There are _________ Biosphere Reserves in India.

Answer:

1. Species
2. habitat
3. Food chain
4. Loss of Biodiversity
5. tall and soft
6. short and soft
7. Barren Lands
8. Fresh water
9. oxygen
10. oxygen
11. biodiversity
12. Limnology
13. Etymology
14. 18

II. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The life-supporting layer is known as ________
(a) Atmosphere
(b) Hydrosphere
(c) Lithosphere
(d) Biosphere
Answer:
(d) Biosphere

Question 2.
The branch of science that deals with an ecosystem are called ________
(a) Etymology
(b) Geology
(c) Limnology
(d) Ecology
Answer:
(d) Ecology

Question 3.
Abiotic components include ________
(a) Non-living things
(b) Living things
(c) only plants
(d) only animals
Answer:
(a) Non-living things

Question 4.
Zebra and goat come under ______ consumers.
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Primary

Question 5.
A healthy ecosystem provides _________
a) clean water
b) enriched soil
c) raw materials
d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Questions 6-8 are assertion type questions:
Directions
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true; R explains A
(b) Both assertion(A) and reason (R) are true; R does not explain A
(c) A is true; R is false
(d) Both A and R are false

Question 6.
Assertion (A): A stable biosphere has to be conserved.
Reason (R): The loss of biodiversity affects land, water, air etc.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true; R explains A

Question 7.
Assertion (A): In temperate grassland biomes pastoral industry becomes the main occupation.
Reason (R): Apart from wheat cultivation, tall and short soft grass are grown in the
temperate grassland biomes.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true; R explains A

Question 8.
Assertion (A): Biosphere Reserves are established in India.
Reason (R): Today’s loss of biodiversity is habitat alteration caused by human activities.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason(R) are true; R explains A

III. Match the following

1. World wild life day – (i) 8th June
2. International day of forest – (ii) 22nd April
3. World water day – (iii) 3rd March
4. Earth day – (iv) 22nd March
5. (e) World oceans day – (v) 21st March

Answer:

1. – (iii)
2. – (v)
3. – (iv)
4. – (ii)
5. – (i)

IV. Give short answers

Question 1.
What is considered a hotspot?
Answer:
An ecological region that has lost more than 70% of its original habitat is considered a hot spot.

Question 2.
In India where do we find hot spots?
Answer:
Hotspots in India are the Himalayas, Western Ghats, Indo Burma Region and Sundaland.

Question 3.
Mention the human settlement in the Tropical Forest Biomes.
Answer:

1. The Tropical Forest Biomes have very dense forests.
2. So human settlements are found scattered here,
3. They sustain their livelihood through food gathering, fishing, lumbering and shifting cultivation.

Question 4.
What threat is posed by the savanna grasslands?
Answer:

1. Of late, parts of the savanna grasslands are being converted into farmlands.
2. This poses a great threat to a wide range of fauna.
3. For Eg. The population of the big cats like cheetah, lion etc. are dwindling drastically.

Question 5.
What has been identified by the U.S. National Cancer Institute?
Answer:

1. The U.S. National Cancer Institute has identified about 70% of the plants used for treating cancer.
2. There are found only in rain forests.

Question 6.
Name the common animals found in the Tropical Savanna Biomes.
Answer:

1. In the Tropical Savanna biomes the lion, leopard, tiger, deer, zebra, giraffe etc. are the common animals found.
2. Flora such as Rhodes grass, red oats grass, lemon grass etc. are found in this biome.

Question 7.
Write about Oasis.
Answer:

1. An oasis is a fertile fresh water source found in deserts and semi-arid regions.
2. Oases are fed by springs.
3. Crops like date palms, figs, citrus fruits, maize etc. are cultivated near these oases.

Question 8.
Mention the different names of the Temperate grass lands.
Answer:

1. Temperate grass lands are called differently in different parts of the world.
2. They are Prairies – North America, Steppes – Eurasia Pampas – Argentina and Uruguay Downs – Australia and Newzealand

Question 9.
What is a Biosphere Reserve?
Answer:
A Biosphere Reserve is a special ecosystem or specialised environment with flora and fauna that require protection and nurturing. There are 18 Bioshpere Reserves in India.

Question 10.
Explain the following terms
(a) Herbivorous
(b) Carnivorus
(c) Ommivorous
(d) Scavengers
Answer:
(a) Herbivorous: A herbivores is an animal that gets its energy from eating plants and only plants. Many herbivores have special digestive systems that let them digest all kinds of plants including grasses. Eg.-, deer, rabbits, cows, sheep, goats, elephants, giraffes, horses and pandas.

(b) Carnivores: A Carnivore is an animal that gets food from killing and eating other animals. Or they scavenge their dead flesh. Eg., Hyenas, Wolves, Mountains lions, Polar Bears.

(c) Omnivores: An omnivore is a kind of animal that eats either other animals or plants Eg. Raccoons, pigs, rats, chickens, crows etc.

(d) Scavengers: Scavengers feed partly or wholly on the bodies of dead animals. Eg., Jackals, Leopards, Lions, Vulture etc.

V. Distinguish the following

Question 1.
Tropical Grasslands and Temperate grassland.
Answer:
Tropical grasslands:

1. Tropical grasslands are generally found between tropical forests and desserts.
2. This biome is generally hot and dry and experiences moderate to low rainfall.
3. The grass which grow here are tall and sharp.

Temperate grasslands:

1. Temperate grasslands are usually found in the interior of the continents and are characterized by large seasonal temperature variations, with warm summer and cold winter.
2. The type of grassland in these regions strongly depends upon precipitation.
3. Higher precipitation leads to tall and soft grass and lower precipitation leads to short and soft grass.

VI. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
In tropical savannas the chief occupation is herding.
Answer:
The tropical savannas biomes are generally hot and dry and experience moderate to low rainfall. Tall and sharp grass is grown. Hence the chief occupation of the people here is herding.

Question 2.
Tropical Forest Biomes have economic importance.
Answer:

1. The Amazon basin, Congo basin and Indonesian islands, under this biomie, have very dense forests and so have great economic importance.
2. The chief trees found here are rubber, bamboo, ebony etc.

Question 3.
Why do people in Tundra region shift their settlement frequently?
Answer:
The harsh environment makes people change their settlement frequently. People are nomadic, depending on hunting and fishing. The population here is very sparse.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Write a note on Biodiversity.
Answer:
(a) Biodiversity :

1. Biodiversity or biological diversity refers to a wide variety of living organisms (plants, animals and other micro organisms) which live in a habitat.
2. It is highly influenced by topography climate as well as human activities.
3. It represents the strength of the biological resources of a place on earth.
4. In biodiversity, each species, no matter how big or small, has an important role to play in the ecosystem.
5. It maintains the ecological balance and facilitates social benefits such as tourism, education, research etc. over an area.

(b) Loss of biodiversity:

1. The extinction of species (flora and fauna) due to human and natural influences is called loss of biodiversity.
2. The biodiversity loss has a great impact on mankind and also affects land, water, air etc.
3. Habitat destruction due to deforestation, population explosion, pollution and global warming are the major cause for loss of biodiversity.
4. Sometimes, habitat loss is so severe or happens so quickly that it results in a species being eliminated from the planet.
5. Scientists are still trying to decide what caused the mass extinction of dinosaurs.

Question 2.
Explain the need for conservation.
Answer:

1. The biosphere extends from the deep ocean trenches to lush rain forests.
2. People play an important role in maintaining the flow of energy in the biosphere.
3. At the same time, the primary cause of today’s loss of biodiversity is habitat alteration caused by human activities.
4. The ever increasing population results in over exploitation of biological resources.
5. This has an adverse impact on flora and fauna on earth.
6. There are places on earth that are both biologically rich and deeply threatened.
7. Hence it is man’s duty to conserve and care for the earth and make it a better place to live in.