Category: Class 10

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 12 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
5. Question numbers 13 to 22 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 23 to 32 in Part III are of four marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 33 to 35 in Part IV are of seven marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 75

Part – I

(i) Answer all the questions. [12 × 1 = 12]
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
In a myopic eye, the image of the object is formed ________.
(a) behind the retina
(b) on the retina
(c) infront of the retina
(d) on the blind spot
Answer:
(c) infront of the retina

Question 2.
Gas laws state the relationship between ______ properties of gas.
(a) pressure
(b) volume
(c) temperature and mass
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 3.
LED stands for ________.
(a) Light Enter Diode
(b) Liquid Emitting Diode
(c) Light Emitting Diode
(d) Liquid Enter Diode
Answer:
(c) Light Emitting Diode

Question 4.
Which of the following has the smallest mass?
(a) 6.023 x 10²³ atoms of He
(b) 1 atom of He
(c) 2 g of He
(d) 1 mole atoms of He
Answer:
(b) 1 atom of He

Question 5.
________ group contains the member of halogen family.
(a) 17^th
(b) 15^th
(c) 18^th
(d) 16^th
Answer:
(a) 17^th

Question 6.
A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite amount of solvent at a given temperature is called ______.
(a) Saturated solution
(b) Unsaturated solution
(c) Super saturated solution
(d) Dilute solution
Answer:
(a) Saturated solution

Question 7.
Water which is absorbed by roots is transported to aerial parts of the plant through ________.
(a) cortex
(b) epidermis
(c) xylem
(d) phloem
Answer:
(c) xylem

Question 8.
Which type of cancer affects lymphnodes and spleen?
(a) Carcinoma
(b) Sarcoma
(c) Leukemia
(d) Lymphoma
Answer:
(d) Lymphoma

Question 9.
The process of splitting glucose molecules into pyruvic acid is called ________.
(a) Glycolysis
(b) Kreb’s cycle
(c) Electron transport chain
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Glycolysis

Question 10.
The plant which propagates with the help of its leaves is ________.
(a) Onion
(b) Neem
(c) Ginger
(d) Bryophyllum
Answer:
(d) Bryophyllum

Question 11.
Which organ acts as both exocrine gland as well as endocrine gland
(a) Pancreas
(b) Kidney
(c) Liver
(d) Lungs
Answer:
(a) Pancreas

Question 12.
All files are stored in the ________.
(a) Box
(b) Folder
(c) pai
(d) Scanner
Answer:
(b) Folder

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. (Q.No: 22 is compulsory) [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 13.
Define inertia.
Answer:
The inherent property of a body to resist any change in its state of rest or the state of uniform motion, unless it is influenced upon by an external unbalanced force, is known as ‘inertia’.

Question 14.
State Charle’s law.
Answer:
When the pressure of gas is kept constant, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to absolute temperature of the gas.
(i.e) V ∝ T, \(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant

Question 15.
Differentiate stokes line and antistokes lines.
Answer:
Stokes lines:
The lines having frequencies lower than the incident frequency is called stokes lines

Anti-stokes lines:
The lines having frequencies higher than the incident frequency are called Antistokes lines.

Question 16.
What is aqueous solution:
Answer:
The solution in which water act as a solvent is called aqueous solution. In general, ionic compounds are soluble in water and form aqueous solutions more readily than covalent compounds. E.g. Common salt in water.

Question 17.
How is ethanoic acid prepared from ethanol? Give the chemical equation?
Answer:
Ethanoic acid can be prepared by oxidation of ethanol in the presence of alkaline potassium permanganate of acidified potassium dichromate.

Question 18.
How does the leech suck blood from the host?
Answer:
The leech makes a triradiate or Y shaped incision in the skin of the host by the jaws protruded through the mouth. The blood is sucked by muscular pharynx and the salivary secretion is poured.

Question 19.
Match the following.

Mass	Weight
(a) It is the quantity of matter contained in the body	(i) It is the gravitational force exerted on a body due to the Earth’s gravity along.
(b) Mass is a Scalar quantity	(ii) Weight is a Vector quantity
(c) It’s Unit is kg	(iii) Its Unit is N
(d) Mass of a body remains the same at any point on the earth	(iv) Weight of the body varies from one place to another place on the earth.
(e) Mass can be measured using a physical balance	(v) Weight can be measured using a spring balance

Answer:
(a) (ii)
(b) (iii)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i)

Question 20.
How can menstrual hygiene be maintained during menstrual days?
Answer:

• Sanitary pads should be changed regularly, to avoid infections.
• Use of warm water to clean genitals helps to get rid of menstrual cramps.
• Wearing loose clothing rather than airflow around the genitals and prevent sweating.

Question 21.
What are transgenic organisms?
Answer:
Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are known as transgenic organisms.

Question 22.
The potential difference between two conductors is 110 V. How much work is moving 10 C charge from one conductor to the other?
Answer:
Potential difference,V = 110 V
Charge, q = 10 C
Work done, W = ?
V = \(\frac{\mathrm{W}}{q} \) ∴ q × V = W
W = q × V
= 10 × 110 = 1100 J

Part – III

Answer any seven questions (Q.No: 32 is compulsory) [7 × 4 = 28]

Question 23.
(i) Differentiate mass and weight.
(ii) While catching a cricket ball the fielder lowers his hands backwards. Why?
Answer:
(i)
Mass:

• It is the quantity of matter contained in the body.
• Mass is a Scalar quantity.
• It’s Unit is kg.
• Mass of a body remains the same at any point on the earth.
• Mass can be measured using a physical balance.

Weight:

• It is the gravitational force exerted on a body due to the Earth’s gravity along.
• Weight is a Vector quantity.
• Its Unit is N.
• Weight of the body varies from one place to another place on the earth.
• Weight can be measured using a spring balance.

(ii) While catching a cricket ball the fielder lowers his hands backwards, so increase the time during which the velocity of the cricket ball decreases to zero. Therefore the impact of force on the palm of the fielder will be reduced.

Question 24.
(i) Explain the sign conventions of lenses.
Answer:

1. The object is always placed on the left side of the lens.
2. All the distances are measured from the optical centre of the lens.
3. The distances measured in the same direction as that of incident light are taken as positive.
4. The distances measured against the direction of incident light are taken as negative.
5. The distances measured upward and perpendicular to the principal axis is taken as positive.
6. The distances measured downward and perpendicular to the principal axis is taken as negative.

(ii) Define dispersion of light.
Answer:
When a beam of white light or composite light is refracted through any transparent media such as glass or water, it is split into its component colours. This phenomenon is called as ‘dispersion of light’.

Question 25.
(i) What is meant by electric current? Give its direction?
Answer:

• Electric current is often termed as ‘current’ and it is represented by the symbol ‘I’. It is defined as the rate of flow of charges in a conductor.
• The electric current represents the amount of charges flowing in any cross section of a conductor in unit time.

(ii) Name and define its unit.
Answer:
The SI unit of electric current is ampere (A). The current flowing through a conductor is said to be one ampere, when a charge of one coulomb flows across any cross-section of a conductor, in one second. Hence,
1 ampere = \(\frac{1 \text { coulomb }}{1 \text { second }}\)

(iii) Which instrument is used to measure the electric current? How should it be connected in a circuit?
Answer:

• Ammeter is used to measure the current.
• An Ammeter is connected in series with the circuit.
• The Ammeter is a low impedance device connecting it in parallel with the circuit would cause a short circuit, damaging the Ammeter or the circuit.

Question 26.
Explain how Avogadro hypothesis is used to derive the value of atomicity.
Answer:
(i) The Avogadro’s law states that “equal volumes of all gases under similar conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of molecules”.
(ii) Let us consider the reaction between hydrogen and chlorine to form hydrogen chloride gas.

(iii) According to Avogadro’s law, 1 volume of any gas is occupied by “n” number of molecules. “n” molecules + “n” molecules → “2n” molecules
If “n” = 1, then
1 molecule + 1 molecule → 2 molecules.
1/2 molecule + 1/2 molecule → 1 molecule
(iv) 1 molecule of hydrogen chloride gas is made up of 14 molecule of hydrogen and 14 molecule of chlorine.
(v) 1/2 molecule of hydrogen contains 1 atom.
So, 1 molecule of hydrogen contains 2 atoms.
So, hydrogen atomicity is 2. Similarly chlorine atomicity is also 2. So, H₂ and Cl₂ are diatomic molecules.

Question 27.
Explain the manufacture of soap.
Answer:
Manufacture of soap: KETTLE PROCESS:
This is the oldest method. But, it is still widely used in the small scale preparation of soap. There are mainly, two steps to be followed in this process.
(1) Saponification of oil:
The oil, which is used in this process, is taken in an iron tank (kettle). The alkaline solution (10%) is added into the kettle, a little in excess. The mixture is boiled by passing steam through it. The oil gets hydrolysed after several hours of boiling. This process is called Saponification.

(2) Salting out of soap:
Common salt is then added to the boiling mixture. Soap is finally precipitated in the tank. After several hours the soap rises to the top of the liquid as a ‘curdy mass’. The neat soap is taken off from the top. It is then allowed to cool down.

Question 28.
Distinguish between bipolar neuron an multipolar neuron.
Answer:

Bipolar Neurons	Multipolar Neuron
1. The cyton gives rise to two nerve processes, of which one acts as an axon, while another acts as a dendron.	1. The cyton gives rise to many dendroms and an axon.
2. It is found in retina of eye and olfactory epithelium of nasal chambers	2. It is found in cerebral cortex of brain

Question 29.
(i) What are okazaki segments?
(ii) Trace the pathway followed by water molecules from the time it enters a plant root to the time it escapes into the atmosphere from a leaf.
Answer:
(i) During the replication of a DNA molecule, the new strand is synthesized in short segments which are called okazaki fragments.

Question 30.
(i) Draw and label a Radial Vascular bundle.
(ii) What are the differences between dicot leaf and monocot leaf.
Answer:
(i)

(ii)

Dicot leaf	Monocot leaf
1. Dorsiventral leaf	1. Isobilateral leaf
2. Mesophyll is differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma	2. Mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma

Question 31.
(a) Expand the following abbraviations.
(i) CHD (ii) BMI (iii) AIDS (iv) IDDM
(b) Name the two types of stem cells.
Answer:
(a) 1. CHD – Coronary Heart Disease
2. BMI – Body Mass Index
3. AIDS – Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
4. IDDM – Insulin Dependant Diabetes Mellitus

(b) The two types of stem cells are

1. Embryonic stem cells
2. Adult or somatic stem cells

Question 32.
(i) With an illustration, explain the method of calculation for areal expansion of an object.
Answer:

If there is an increase in the area of a solid object due to heating, then the expansion is called superficial or areal expansion.

Superficial expansion is determined in terms of coefficient of superficial expansion. The ratio of increase in area of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit area is called as coefficient of superficial expansion. Coefficient of superficial expansion is different for different materials. The SI superficial expansion unit of Coefficient of superficial expansion is K^-1

The equation relating to the change in area and the change in temperature
\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{A}}{\mathrm{A}_{0}}\) = α_AΔT
ΔA – Change in area (Final arqa – Initial area)
A₀ – Original area
ΔT – Change in temperature (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
α_A – Coefficient of superficial expansion

(ii) What is gram atomic mass? Given example.
Answer:
If the atomic mass of an element is expressed in grams. It is known as gram atomic mass.
Eg. Gram atomic mass of hydrogen = 1 g
Gram atomic mass of oxygen = 16 g

Part – IV

(1) Answer all the questions. [3 × 7 = 21]
(2) Each question carries seven marks.
(3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.

Question 33.
(a) (i) What is mean by reflection of sound?
Answer:
When sound waves travel in a given medium and strike the surface of another medium, it can be bounced back into the first medium is called as reflection.

(ii) Explain the refraction at the boundary of a rarer and denser medium?
Answer:
(a) Reflection in rarer medium:

• Consider a wave travelling in a solid medium striking on the interface between the solid and the air.
• The compression exerts a force F on the surface of the rarer medium.
• As a rarer medium has smaller resistance for any deformation, the surface of separation is pushed backwards.
• As the particle of the rarer medium are free to move, a rarefaction is produced at the interface. Thus, a compression is reflected as a rarefaction and the rare faction travels from right to left.

(b) Reflection in denser medium:

• A longitudinal wave travels in a medium in the form of compressions and rare fractions.
• Suppose a compression travelling in air from left to right reaches a rigid wall.
• In turn, the wall exerts an equal and opposite I reaction R = – F on the air molecules. This results in a compression near the rigid wall.
• Thus, a compression travelling towards the rigid wall is reflected back as a compression. That is the direction of compression is reversed.

(OR)

(b) (i) At what height from the centre of the earth the acceleration due to gravity will be 1/4th its value as at the earth.
Answer:
Given: Height from the centre of the Earth, R’ = R + h
The acceleration due to gravity at that height, g’ = g/4 GM


or h = R
R’ = 2R
From the centre of the Earth, the object is placed at twice the radius of the earth.

(ii) How many electrons are passing per second in a circuit in which there is a current of 5A.
Answer:
Current I = 5 A
Time t = 1 second
Charge of electron (e) = 1.6 × 10^-19 C

n = 3.125 x 10¹⁹

Question 34.
(a) (i) Calculate the number of molecules in 10 mole of H₂.
Answer:
n = 10 mole; NA= 6.023 x 10²³
Number of molecules = 10 x 6.023 x 10²³
= 6.023 x 10²⁴ H₂ molecules

(ii) Calculate the number of moles in 1 kg of CaCO₃.
Answer:

W = 1 kg = 1000 g;
M = 100 g mol^-1; n = ?
n = \(\frac{\mathrm{W}}{\mathrm{M}}=\frac{1000}{100}\) = 10 mol

(iii) Calculate the volume of 14 g of N₂ gas.
Answer:
28 g (1 mole) of N₂ gas occupies 22.4 litres
14 g of N₂ gas occupies
\(\frac{22.4}{28}\) × 14 = \(\frac{22.4}{2}\)
= 11.2 litres

(OR)

(b) (i) Derive the relationship between Relative molecular mass and Vapour density.
(ii) A hot saturated solution of copper sulphate forms crystals as it cools. Why?
Answer:
(i) (a) The Relative Molecular Mass of a gas or vapour is the ratio between the mass of one molecule of the gas or vapour to mass of one atom of Hydrogen.
(b) Vapour density is the ratio of the mass of a certain volume of a gas or vapour, to the mass of an equal volume of hydrogen, measured under the same conditions of temperature and pressure.

(c) According to Avogadro’s law, equal volumes of all gases contain equal number of molecules.
Thus, let the number of molecules in one volume = n, then

(f) By comparing the definition of relative molecular mass and vapour density we can write as follows.

(g) By substituting the relative molecular mass value in vapour density definition, we get Vapour density (V.D.) = Relative molecular mass / 2
2 × vapour density = Relative molecular mass of a gas

(ii) The capability of a solution to maintain a certain concentration of solute is temperature dependent. When a saturated solution of copper sulphate at above room temperature is allowed to cool, the solution becomes super-saturated and in the absence of stirring or the return of the previous solution temperature, the solute starts to precipitate out. i.e., crystal formation occurs.

Question 35.
(a) (i) Where are estrogens produced? What is the role of estrogens in the human body?
(ii) What is Anemophily?
(iii) What are the consequences of deforestation?
Answer:
(i) Estrogen, the female sex hormone Is produced by the Graafian follicles of the ovary.
Role of estrogen:

• It brings about the changes that occur during puberty.
• It initiates the process of oogenesis.
• It stimulates the maturation of ovarian follicles in the ovary.
• It promotes the development of secondary sexual characters (breast development and high pitched voice, etc).

(ii) Pollination with the help of wind is known as Anemophily

(iii) Consequences of deforestation:
It gives rise to ecological problems like,

• Floods
• Soil erosion
• Extinction of species
• Loss of wild life
• Desertification
• Changes in climatic condition

[OR]

(b) (i) What is Fossilization?
(ii) Describe mutation breeding with an example.
Answer:
(i) The process of formation of fossil in the rocks is called fossilization.

(ii) Mutation is defined as the sudden heritable change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA in an organism. It is the process by which genetic variation are created which inturn brings about changes in the organisms. The organism which undergoes mutation is called a mutant.

The factor which induce mutations are known as mutagens. Mutagens are of two types:

1. Physical mutagens such as X rays, α, β, γ rays, UV rays, temperature etc.
2. Chemical mutagens such as mustard gas and nitrous acids.
   The utilisation of induced mutation in crop improvement is called mutation breeding.

Achievements of mutation breeding:

• Sharbati sonora, wheat produced from sonora – 64 by using gamma rays.
• Atomita 2 rice with saline tolerance and pest resistance.
• Groundnuts with thick shells.

Students can download 10th Science Chapter 5 Acoustics Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 5 Acoustics

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Acoustics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
When a sound wave travels through air, the air particles:
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion.
(b) vibrate but not in any fixed direction.
(c) vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion.
(d) do not vibrate.
Answer:
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion.

Question 2.
The velocity of sound in a gaseous medium is 330 ms^-1. If the pressure is increased by 4 times without causing a change in the temperature, the velocity of sound in the gas is _____.
(a) 330 ms^-1
(b) 660 ms^-1
(c) 156 ms^-1
(d) 990 ms^-1.
Answer:
(a) 330 ms^-1
Hint: Pressure has no effect on the velocity of sound in the gas. So velocity of sound remains unchanged.

Question 3.
The frequency, which is audible to the human ear is:
(a) 50 kHz
(b) 20 kHz
(c) 15000 kHz
(d) 10000 kHz
Answer:
(b) 20 kHz

Question 4.
The velocity of sound in air at a particular temperature is 330 ms^-1. What will be its value when the temperature is doubled and the pressure is halved?
(a) 330 ms^-1
(b) 165 ms^-1
(c) 330 × √2 ms^-1
(d) 320/√2 ms^-1.
Answer:
(c) 330 × √2 ms^-1
Hint: As there is no effect of change in pressure on the velocity of sound in air, and v ∝ √T therefore, when the temperature is doubled, so the velocity becomes 330√2 m/s.

Question 5.
If a sound wave travels with a frequency of 1.25 × 10⁴ Hz at 344 ms^-1, the wavelength will be:
(a) 27.52 m
(b) 275.2 m
(c) 0.02752 m
(d) 2.752 m
Answer:
(c) 0.02752 m

Question 6.
The sound waves are reflected from an obstacle into the same medium from which they were incident. Which of the following changes?
(a) speed
(b) frequency
(c) wavelength
(d) none of these
Answer:
(d) none of these

Question 7.
The velocity of sound in the atmosphere of a planet is 500 ms^-1. The minimum distance between the sources of sound and the obstacle to hearing the echo should be ______.
(a) 17 m
(b) 20 m
(c) 25 m
(d) 50 m.
Answer:
(c) 25 m
Hint: The minimum distance of the source of the sound and hear the echo,
\(d=\frac{v t}{2}\)
t = 0.1 s, \(d=\frac{500 \times 0.1}{2}\) = 25 m.

II. Fill up the blanks:

1. Rapid back and forth motion of a particle about its mean position is called …………
2. If the energy in a longitudinal wave travels from south to north, the particles of the medium would be vibrating in …………
3. A whistle giving out a sound of frequency 450 Hz, approaches a stationary observer at a speed of 33 ms^-1. The frequency heard by the observer is (speed of sound = 330 ms^-1) ………..
4. A source of sound is travelling with a velocity 40 km/h towards an observer and emits a sound of frequency 2000 Hz. If the velocity of sound is 1220 km/h, then the apparent frequency heard by the observer is …………

Answer:

1. Wave
2. South to north
3. 500 Hz
4. 2067-3 Hz

III. True or false: (If false give the reason)

1. Sound can travel through solids, gases, liquids and even vacuum.
2. Waves created by Earthquake are Infrasonic.
3. The velocity of sound is independent of temperature.
4. The Velocity of sound is high in gases than liquids.

Answer:

1. False – Sound cannot travel through vacuum.
2. True
3. False – The velocity of sound depends on temperature.
4. True

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (ii)
D. (i)

V. Assertion and Reason Questions.

Question 1.
Assertion : The change in air pressure affects the speed of sound.
Reason : The speed of sound in a gas is proportional to the square of the pressure.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 2.
Assertion : Sound travels faster in solids than in gases.
Reason : Solid posses a greater density than that of gases.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.

VI. Answer very briefly:

Question 1.
What is a longitudinal wave?
Answer:
In longitudinal wave, the particles of the medium vibrate along the direction of the wave.

Question 2.
What is the audible range of frequency?
Answer:
Audible waves: These are sound waves with a frequency ranging between 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz.

Question 3.
What is the minimum distance needed for an echo?
Answer:
The minimum distance needed for an echo is 17.2 metre.

Question 4.
What will be the frequency sound having 0.20 m as its wavelength when it travels with a speed of 331 ms^-1?
Answer:
Frequency of sound = \(\frac{\text { velocity of sound }}{\text { wavelength of sound }}\)
\(n=\frac{v}{\lambda}=\frac{331}{0.20}\)
n = 1655 Hz.

Question 5.
Name three animals, which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
Answer:
The animals are dogs, bats and dolphins.

VII. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Why does sound travel faster on a rainy day than on a dry day?
Answer:
When humidity increases, the speed of sound increases. Hence, sound travels faster on a rainy day than a dry day.

Question 2.
Why does an empty vessel produce more sound than a filled one?
Answer:
The intensity of sound is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude of vibration. I ∝ A² since, the amplitude of vibration of air molecules (empty vessel) is greater than liquid molecules (filled vessel), therefore empty vessel produces a louder sound than the filled vessel.

Question 3.
Air temperature in the Rajasthan desert can reach 46°C. What is the velocity of sound in air at that temperature? (V_o = 331 ms^-1)
Answer:
Velocity of sound at 0°C is V_o = 331 ms^-1
Let the sound at 46°C is be v_t
\(\frac{v_t}{v_o}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac{273+T}{273}}\)
where temperature is T = 46°C

= 1.080
v_t = 331 × 1.080 = 357.48 m/s.
∴ Velocity of sound in air at that temperature = 357.48 m/s.

Question 4.
Explain why the ceilings of concert halls are curved.
Answer:

1. These are basically curved surfaces (concave), which are used in auditoria and halls to improve the quality of sound. This board is placed such that the speaker is at the focus of the concave surface.
2. The sound of the speaker is reflected towards the audience thus improving the quality of sound heard by the audience.

Question 5.
Mention two cases in which there is no Doppler effect in sound?
Answer:

1. When source (S) and listener (L) both are at rest.
2. When S and L move in such a way that distance between them remains constant.

VIII. Problem Corner:

Question 1.
A sound wave has a frequency of 200 Hz and a speed of 400 ms-1 in a medium. Find the wavelength of the sound wave.
Answer:
Speed of sound wave v = 400 m/s
Frequency of sound wave n = 200 Hz
∴ Wavelength sound wave λ = \(\frac{v}{n}\)
= \(\frac{400}{200}\) = 2 m
∴ Wavelength = 2 m

Question 2.
The thunder of the cloud is heard 9.8 seconds later than the flash of lightning. If the speed of sound in air is 330 ms^-1, what will be the height of the cloud?
Solution:
The height of the cloud (distance) = speed of sound × time
d = v × t = 330 × 9.8 = 3234 m
The height of the cloud is 3234 m.

Question 3.
A person who is sitting at a distance of 400 m from a source of sound is listening to a sound of 600 Hz. Find the time period between successive compressions from the source?
Answer:
Distance of the observer = 400 m
Frequency of sound n = 600 Hz
Let velocity of sound be v = 330 \(\frac{m}{s}\)
Wavelength λ = \(\frac{v}{n}\) = \(\frac{330}{600}\)
= 55 × 10^-2 = 0.55 m
Distance between two successive compressions is \(\frac{λ}{2}\)
Time period successive compressions is = \(\frac{1}{\frac{λ}{2}}\)
= \(\frac{2}{λ}\) = \(\frac{2}{0.55}\)
T = \(\frac{2}{0.55}\) = 3.6363 second
Time period = 3.6363 second.

Question 4.
An ultrasonic wave is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is found that the time interval between the transmission and reception of the wave is 1.6 seconds. What is the depth of the sea, if the velocity of sound in the seawater is 1400 ms^-1?
Answer:
Time interval t = 1.6 s
Velocity of sound in water = 1400 m/s.
Depth of the sea = \(\frac{v×t}{2}\)
= \(\frac{1400×1.6}{2}\)
= 1120 m
Depth of the sea = 1120 m

Question 5.
A man is standing between two vertical walls 680 m apart. He claps his hands and hears two distinct echoes after 0.9 seconds and 1.1 second respectively. What is the speed of sound in the air?
Answer:
Distance between two walls λ = 680 m.
Time periods T₁ = 0.9 s
T₂ = 1.1 s
∴ Frequencies n₁ = \(\frac{1}{T_1}\) = \(\frac{1}{0.9}\) = \(\frac{10}{9}\)
= 1.11 Hz
n₂ = \(\frac{1}{T_2}\)
= \(\frac{1}{1.1}\) = \(\frac{10}{11}\)
= 0.9090 Hz.
Difference x₁ – x₂ = 1.11 – 0.9090
= 0.201 Hz
Speed of sound = (n₁ – n₂)λ
= 0.201 × 680 = 136.68

Question 6.
Two observers are stationed in two boats 4.5 km apart. A sound signal sent by one, underwater, reaches the other after 3 seconds. What is the speed of sound in the water?
Solution:
Distance between the two boats, d = 4.5 km
d = 4500 m
Time, t = 3 seconds
Speed of sound in the water = \(\frac{\text { Distance travelled by sound }}{\text { Time taken }}\) = \(\frac{4500}{3}\)
v = 1500 ms^-1.

Question 7.
A strong sound signal is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is received back after Is.What is the depth of sea given that the speed of sound in water 1450 ms^-1?
Answer:
Speed of sound in water v = 1450 m/s
Time taken t = 1 + 1 = 2 s.
Depth of the sea d = \(\frac{v}{t}\)
= \(\frac{1450}{2}\)
= 725 m
Depth of the sea = 725 m.

IX. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
What are the factors that affect the speed of sound in gases?
Answer:
Effect of density:
The velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of the density of the gas. Hence, the velocity decreases as the density of the gas increases.
\(v \propto \sqrt{\frac{1}{d}}\)

Effect of temperature:
(i) The velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its temperature.
(ii) The velocity of sound in gas increases with the increase in temperature,
v ∝ √T Velocity at temperature T is given by the following equation:
v_T = (v₀ + 0.61 T) ms^-1
Here, v₀ is the velocity of sound in the gas at 0° C. For air, v₀ = 331 ms^-1.
Hence, the velocity of sound changes by 0.61 ms^-1 when the temperature changes by one – degree celsius.

Effect of relative humidity: When humidity increases, the speed of sound increases. That is why we can hear sound from long distances clearly during rainy seasons.

Question 2.
What is mean by reflection of sound? Explain:
(a) Reflection at the boundary of a rarer medium.
(b) Reflection at the boundary of a denser medium.
(c) Reflection at curved surfaces.
Answer:
When sound waves travel in a given medium and strike the surface of another medium, they can be bounced back into the first medium. This phenomenon is known as reflection.
(a) Reflection at the boundary of a rarer medium :

Consider a wave travelling in a solid medium striking on the interface between the solid and the air. The compression exerts a force F on the surface of the rarer medium. As a rarer medium has smaller resistance for any defonnation, the surface of separation is pushed backwards. As the particles of the rarer medium are free to move, a rarefaction is produced at the interface. Thus, a compression is reflected as a rarefaction and a rarefaction travels from right to left.

(b) Reflection at the boundary of a denser medium :

A longitudinal wave travels in a medium in the form of compressions and rarefactions. Suppose a compression travelling in air from left to right reaches a rigid wall. The compression exerts a force F on the rigid wall. In turn, the wall exerts an equal and opposite reaction R = – F on the air molecules.

This results in a compression near the rigid wall. Thus, a compression travelling towards the rigid wall is reflected back as a compression. That is the direction of compression is reversed.

(c) Reflection at curved surfaces :
When the sound waves are reflected from the curved surfaces, the intensity of the reflected waves is changed. When reflected from a convex surface, the reflected waves are diverged out and the intensity is decreased. When sound is reflected from a concave surface, the reflected waves are converged and focused at a point. So the intensity of reflected waves is concentrated at a point.

Question 3.
(a) What do you understand by the term ‘ultrasonic vibration’?
(b) State three uses of ultrasonic vibrations.
(c) Name three animals which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
Answer:
(a) Ultrasonic Vibration: The vibrations whose frequencies are greater than 20000 Hz are called ultrasonic vibrations.

(b) (i) They are used in SONAR to measure the depth of the sea (or ocean) and to locate underwater objects.
(ii) It is used for scanning and imaging the position and growth of a foetus and presence of stones in the gall bladder and kidney.
(iii) It is used for homogenising milk in milk plants where fresh milk is agitated with the desired quantity of fat and powdered milk to obtain toned milk.

(c) Mosquito, Dogs and Bats are the three animals that can hear ultrasonic vibrations.

Question 4.
What is an echo?
Answer:
An echo is the sound reproduced due to the reflection of the original sound wave.

(a) State two conditions necessary for hearing an echo.
(b) What are the medical applications of echo?
(c) How can you calculate the speed of sound using echo?
Answer:
(a) (i) The persistence of hearing for human ears is 0.1 second. This means that you can hear two sound waves clearly, if the time interval between the two sounds is at least 0.1 s. Thus, the minimum time gap between the original sound and an echo must be 0.1 s.

(ii) The above criterion can be satisfied only when the distance between the source of sound and the reflecting surface would satisfy the following equation:

Since, t = 0.1 second, then
d = \(\frac{v×0.1}{2}\) = \(\frac{v}{20}\)
Thus the minimum distance required to hear an echo is 1/20^th part of the magnitude of the velocity of sound in air. If you consider the velocity of sound as 344 ms^-1, the minimum distance required to hear an echo is 17.2 m.

(b) The principle of echo is used in obstetric ultrasonography, which is used to create real-time visual images of the developing embryo or foetus in the mother’s uterus. This is a safe testing tool, as it does not use any harmful radiations.

(c) The sound pulse emitted by the source travels a total distance of 2d while travelling from the source to the wall and then back to the receiver. The time taken for this has been observed to be ‘t’. Hence, the speed of sound wave is given by:
Speed of sound

X. HOT Questions

Question 1.
Suppose that a sound wave and a light wave have the same frequency, then which one has a longer wavelength?
(a) Sound, (b) Light, (c) both a and b, (d) data not sufficient
Answer:
(b) Light: Since the velocity of light (C = 3 × 10⁸ m/s) is greater than the velocity of sound, light wave has a longer wavelength.

Question 2.
When sound is reflected from a distant object, an echo is produced. Let the distance between the reflecting surface and the source of sound remain the same. Do you hear an echo sound on a hotter day? Justify your answer.
Answer:
An echo can only be heard if it reaches the ear after 0.1 secs.
\(\text { Time taken }=\frac{\text { Totaldistance }}{\text { Velocity }}\)
As on a hotter day, the velocity of sound is more. So if the time taken by the echo is less than 0.1 sec than it won’t be heard.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Acoustics Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Sound waves are:
(a) Transverse waves
(b) Longitudinal waves
(c) Waves
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Longitudinal waves

Question 2.
The velocity of sound in air is ______.
(a) faster in dry air than in moist air
(b) directly proportional to temperature.
(c) directly proportional to pressure.
(d) Slower in dry air than in moist air.
Answer:
(b) directly proportional to temperature.
Hint: v ∝ √T

Question 3.
Which of the following does not affect the velocity of sound?
(a) mass of the gas
(b) density of the gas
(c) temperature of the gas
(d) pressure of the gas
Answer:
(d) pressure of the gas

Question 4.
The apparent frequency in Doppler’s effect does not depend upon.
(a) Speed of the listener.
(b) Distance between the listener and the source.
(c) Speed of the source.
(d) Frequency of the source.
Answer:
(b) Distance between the listener and the source.
Hint: Apparent frequency in Doppler’s effect depends on frequency of the source, direction and velocity of source and listener. It does not depend on the distance between the listener and the source.

Question 5.
Sound of frequency 256 Hz passes through a medium. The maximum displacement is 0.1 m. The maximum velocity is:
(a) 60π m/s
(b) 30π m/s
(c) 51.2π m/s
(d) 512π m/s
Answer:
(c) 51.2π m/s

Question 6.
The speed of a wave in a medium is 760 ms^-1. If 3600 waves the medium in 2 min, then its wavelength is ______.
(a) 13.8 m
(b) 41.5 m
(c) 25.3 m
(d) 57.2 m.
Answer:
(c) 25.3 m
Hint: Number of waves crossing a point per second.
\(\begin{array}{l}{n=\frac{3600}{2 \times 60}=30} \\ {\lambda=\frac{v}{n}=\frac{760}{30}=25.3 \mathrm{m}}\end{array}\).

Question 7.
Two waves are propagating with same amplitude and nearly same frequency in opposite they result in:
(a) longitudinal wave
(b) transverse wave
(c) stationary wave
(d) resonance wave
Answer:
(c) stationary wave

Question 8.
Of these properties of a sound wave, the one that is independent of others is its:
(a) speed
(b) frequency
(c) wavelength
(d) amplitude
Answer:
(d) amplitude

Question 9.
No echo will be heard if the distance between the reflecting obstacle and the source is:
(a) greater than 17.2 m
(b) less than 17.2 m
(c) less than 34.4 m
(d) greater than 34.4 m
Answer:
(b) less than 17.2 m

Question 10.
The velocity of sound in a gas is independent of:
(a) temperature
(b) density
(c) humidity
(d) pressure
Answer:
(d) pressure

Question 11.
The velocity of sound increases for every degree rise of temperature by:
(a) 1 ms^-1
(b) 330 m/s
(c) 0.61 ms^-1
(d) 6.1 m/s
Answer:
(c) 0.61 ms^-1

Question 12.
Longitudinal waves are characterised by:
(a) crest and troughs
(b) compressions and rarefactions
(c) nodes and antinodes
(d) wavelength and frequency
Answer:
(b) compressions and rarefactions

Question 13.
If the frequency of waves lies between 20 Hz and 20 KHz then, they are:
(a) infrasonic waves
(b) ultrasonic waves
(c) audible waves
(d) transverse waves
Answer:
(c) audible waves

Question 14.
The frequency of an infrasonic wave is:
(a) 20 Hz
(b) below 20 Hz
(c) above 20 Hz
(d) above 20 KHz
Answer:
(b) below 20 Hz

Question 15.
The sound waves having frequency greater than 20 KHz are known as:
(a) audible waves
(b) ultrasonic waves
(c) infrasonic waves
(d) mechanical waves
Answer:
(b) ultrasonic waves

Question 16.
Which of the following waves cannot be detected by human ear?
(a) audible wave
(b) infrasonic wave
(c) ultrasonic wave
(d) mechanical wave
Answer:
(c) ultrasonic wave

Question 17.
Which waves are generated by stretched strings?
(a) audible waves
(b) sound waves
(c) ultrasonic waves
(d) infrasonic waves
Answer:
(a) audible waves

Question 18.
The waves produced during earthquake, ocean waves are known as:
(a) audible waves
(b) infrasonic waves
(c) ultrasonic waves
(d) mechanical waves
Answer:
(b) infrasonic waves

Question 19.
Sound wave belong to:
(a) mechanical waves
(b) electromagnetic waves
(c) transverse waves
(d) waves
Answer:
(a) mechanical waves

Question 20.
The waves produced by bats are called:
(a) infrasonic waves
(b) ultrasonic waves
(c) electromagnetic waves
(d) mechanical waves
Answer:
(b) ultrasonic waves

Question 21.
At N.T.P speed of sound waves in air is about:
(a) 3 x 108 m/s
(b) 3 x 10″8 m/s
(c) 340 cm/s
(d) 340 m/s
Answer:
(d) 340 m/s

Question 22.
Sound waves are:
(a) mechanical waves
(b) longitudinal waves
(c) transverse waves
(d) waves
Answer:
(b) longitudinal waves

Question 23.
The velocity of sound is least in ………. medium.
(a) solid
(b) liquid
(c) gaseous
(d) water
Answer:
(c) gaseous

Question 24.
Velocity of sound ……… as the density of the solid increases.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) changes
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) decreases

Question 25.
Velocity of sound at a temperature T is given by:
(a) V_T = (V₀ + 0.61 T)
(b) V_T = \(\frac{V_0}{273}\)
(c) V_T = (V₀ – 0.61 T)
(d) V_T = V₀(0.61T)
Answer:
(a) V_T = (V₀ + 0.61 T)

Question 26.
In the case of reflection of sound waves angle of incidence is:
(a) less than angle of incidence
(b) equal to angle of incidence
(c) greater than angle of incidence
(d) greater than angle of refraction.
Answer:
(b) equal to angle of incidence

Question 27.
The direction of compression is reversed during:
(a) refraction
(b) reflection at the boundary of a denser medium
(c) reflection at the boundary of a rarer medium
(d) reflection at the boundary of a curved surface
Answer:
(b) reflection at the boundary of a denser medium

Question 28.
Which of the following property of sound waves is used in ultrasonography?
(a) Reflection of sound
(b) Refraction of sound
(c) Echo sound
(d) Doppler effect sound
Answer:
(c) Echo sound

Question 29.
Which of the following is application of reflection of sound?
(a) Mega phone
(b) Ear trumpet
(c) Sound board
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 30.
In Doppler effect when the source and listener move away from each other, the apparent frequency is given by:

Answer:
(a)

Question 31.
When a listener approaches a stationary source, the apparent frequency is given by:

Answer:
(b)

Question 32.
If a source and a listener move towards each other, then the apparent frequency is:

Answer:
(c)

Question 33.
When a source recedes from a stationary listener the apparent frequency is:

Answer:
(a)

Question 34.
When a source moves towards a stationary listener the ratio of apparent frequency to the original frequency is:

Answer:
(b)

Question 35.
When source and listener move one behind the other the apparent frequency is

Answer:
(c)

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The vibrating bodies produce waves in the form of ………
2. For the propagation of sound, a ………. is required.
3. The frequency range of audible waves is ………..
4. The frequency of infrasonic waves is …………
5. The sound waves with a frequency greater than 20 KHz are known as ………..
6. The wavelength of sound waves ranges from ………..
7. Sound waves are ……….
8. If wavelength of a wave is λ and its time period is T, then velocity of sound wave is ………..
9. If n is the frequency and λ is the wavelength of sound wave then is velocity of wave is given by …………
10. The ascending order of velocity of sound in solids, liquids and gases is given by …………
11. Velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the ………… of the medium.
12. Velocity of sound in solid is directly proportional to the square root of the ……….. of the medium.
13. Sound can be heard from long distances clearly during …………..
14. When the temperature of a gas changes by one degree Celsius, the velocity of sound changes by ………..
15. In the case of reflection of sound, angle of incidence is equal to ………….
16. When sound waves undergo reflection by convex surface, its intensity is ………..
17. ……….. are used when sound waves have to be focused at a point.
18. In ……….. surfaces, sound from one focus will always be reflected to the other focus.
19. The reproduction of sound due to the reflection of sound is known as …………
20. The minimum time gap between the original sound and an echo must be ………..
21. Echo is used to determine the velocity of ………… in any medium.
22. A horn-shaped device works on the principle of ………….
23. The phenomenon in which the frequency of sound heard by a listener is different from that of sound emitted by the source due to ……….. between a source and a listener is known as Doppler effect.
24. When the distance between the source and listener decreases, the apparent frequency is ………..
25. Apparent frequency in Doppler effect depends on the ……….. of the source and the listener.
26. When a listener moves away from a source at rest, the apparent frequency is n’ = ………..
27. When distance between source listener decreases, the apparent frequency is ………. than ……….. frequency.
28. If the medium moves with a velocity W in a direction opposite to the propagation of sound then, velocity of sound v becomes ………..
29. If the apparent frequency is n’ = (\(\frac{V}{V+V_{S}}\))n then source moves ………….. the ……….. listener.
30. If a listener moves towards the ………. source, the apparent frequency n’ = (\(\frac{V+V_{L}}{V}\))n.
Answer:
1. sound waves
2. medium
3. From 20 Hz to 20 KHz
4. below 20 Hz
5. ultrasonic waves
6. 1.65 cm to 1.65 m
7. longitudinal
8. V = \(\frac{λ}{T}\)
9. V = nλ
10. V_S > V_L > V_G
11. density
12. elastic modulus
13. rainy seasons
14. 0.61 m/s
15. the angle of reflection
16. decreased
17. parabolic surface
18. elliptical
19. echo
20. 0.1 second
21. sound waves
22. echo
23. relative motion
24. n’ = (\(\frac{V+V_{L}}{V-V_{S}}\))n
25. velocities
26. (\(\frac{V+V_{L}}{V}\))n
27. more, actual
29. [V – W]
29. away from, stationary
30. stationary

III. True/False Questions: (If false give the reason)

1. Sound waves are transverse waves by nature.
2. Longitudinal waves are characterised by compressions and rarefactions.
3. Medium is not required for the propagation of light.
4. Ultrasonic waves are the waves with a frequency about 20 KHz.
5. Velocity of sound is the greatest in gas.
6. Velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its temperature.
7. According to law of reflection of sound, angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection.
8. When sound waves are reflected from a plane surface, the intensity of the reflected wave is neither decreased nor increased.
9. Ear trumpet works on the principle of reflection of sound.
10. The principle of SONAR is Doppler effect.
Answer:
1. False – Sound waves are longitudinal waves by nature.
2. True
3. True
4. False – Ultrasonic waves are the waves with a frequency greater than 20 KHz.
5. False – Velocity of sound is the least in gas.
6. True
7. True
8. True
9. False – Ear trumpet works on the principle of reflection of sound.
10. True

IV. Match the following:

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (D)
(ii) – (E)
(iii) – (A)
(iv) – (B)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (D)
(ii) – (A)
(iii) – (B)
(iv) – (E)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (E)
(ii) – (F)
(iii) – (A)
(iv) – (C)

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
(i) – (C)
(ii) – (E)
(iii) – (A)
(iv) – (D)

V. Assertion and Reason Questions:

Question 1.
Assertion: Sound waves cannot be propagated through vacuum but light can be transmitted.
Reason: Sound waves cannot be polarised but light wave can be polarised.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: Ocean waves hitting a beach are always found to be nearly normal to the shore.
Reason: Ocean waves hitting a beach are assumed to be plane waves.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: Speed of a wave is the ratio between wavelength and time period of a wave.
Reason: Wavelength is the distance between two nearest particles in phase.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: When a people moves along the sand within few centimetres of a sand scorpion, the scorpion immediately turns towards the people and dashes towards it.
Reason: When a people disturbs the sand, it sends pulses along the sand’s surface. One set of pulses is longitudinal and other set is transverse.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 5.
Assertion: Light waves are transverse.
Reason: Light waves travel in air with a velocity of 3 × 10⁸ m/s .
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 6.
Assertion: Velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the density of a gas.
Reason: When humidity increases the velocity of sound increases.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 7.
Assertion: Echo is produced due to the reflection of sound from walls, mountains etc.
Reason: Echo is used in ultrasonography.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 8.
Assertion: Doppler effect is due to relative motion between the source and listener.
Reason: Echo is used in RADAR and SONAR.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

VI. Answers very briefly:

Question 1.
What is the nature of sound waves?
Answer:
Sound waves travel through any medium in the form of longitudinal waves.

Question 2.
How is the sound produced?
Answer:
By touching a ringing bell or a musical instrument while it is producing music, we conclude that sound is produced by vibrations.

Question 3.
A wave travelling in a medium has time period T and wavelength λ. How T and λ are related?
Answer:
Wave velocity v = \(\frac{λ}{T}\)
(or) λ = vT

Question 4.
Why don’t we hear sounds when our ears are closed?
Answer:

• We hear the sound even when we close our ears but its magnitude and frequency is very less due to the obstruction of our hands.
• It also depends upon the frequency and loudness of the sound.

Question 5.
What is the relation between frequency and wavelength?
Answer:
Wave velocity = Frequency × Wavelength
v = vλ

Question 6.
What do you understand by the term ‘infrasonic vibration’?
Answer:
Infrasonic waves: These are sound waves with a frequency below 20 Hz that cannot be heard by the human ear. E.g., waves produced during an earthquake, ocean waves, the sound produced by whales, etc.

Question 7.
What is the range of audible frequency?
Answer:
The audible range of frequency is from 20 Hz to 20 KHz.

VII. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
State the differences between sound and light.
Answer:

Question 2.
What is meant by particle velocity?
Answer:
The velocity with which the particles of the medium vibrate in order to transfer the energy in the form of a wave is called particle velocity.

Question 3.
What do you know about wave velocity?
Answer:
The velocity with which the wave travels through the medium is called wave velocity. In other words, the distance travelled by a sound wave in unit time is called the velocity of a sound wave.
∴ velocity = \(\frac{Distance}{Time taken}\)

Question 4.
Define wave velocity.
Answer:
Wave velocity is defined as the distance travelled per second by a sound wave. Since,
Frequency (n) = 1/T, V = \(\frac{λ}{T}\) can be written as V = nλ.

Question 5.
What is the effect of density of a gas on the velocity of sound?
Answer:
The velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of the density of the gas. Hence, the velocity decreases as the density of the gas increases.
V ∝\(\sqrt{\frac{1}{d}}\)

Question 6.
What is the effect of temperature of a gas on the velocity of sound?
Answer:
The velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its temperature. The velocity of sound in a gas increases with the increase in temperature.
V ∝ √T . Velocity at temperature T is given by the following equation:
V_T = (V₀ + 0.61T) ms²

Question 7.
What are the factors affect the speed of sound in gases?
Answer:

• Effect of density
• Effect of temperature
• Effect of humidity

Question 8.
What do you know about reflection of sound from a plane surface?
Answer:
When sound waves are reflected from a plane surface, the reflected waves travel in a direction, according to the law of reflection. The intensity of the reflected wave is neither decreased nor increased.

Question 9.
Write a note on whispering gallery.
Answer:
One of the famous whispering galleries is in St. Paul’s cathedral church in London. It is built with elliptically shaped walls. When a person is talking at one focus, his voice can be heard distinctly at the other focus. It is due to the multiple reflections of sound waves from the curved walls.

Question 10.
How is echo of sound produced?
Answer:
An echo is the sound reproduced due to the reflection of the original sound from various rigid surfaces such as walls, ceilings, surfaces of mountains, etc…

Question 11.
Write short notes about mega phone.
Answer:
A megaphone is a horn-shaped device used to address a small gathering of people. Its one end is wide and the other end is narrow. When a person speaks . at the narrow end, the sound of his speech is concentrated by the multiple reflections from the walls of the tube. Thus, his voice can be heard loudly over a long distance.

Question 12.
Define Doppler effect.
Answer:
When ever there is a relative motion between a source and a listener, the frequency of the sound heard by the listener is different from the original frequency of sound emitted by the source. This is known as “Doppler effect”.

Question 13.
How Doppler effect is used to measure the speed of an automobile?
Answer:
An electromagnetic wave is emitted by a source attached to a police car. The wave is reflected by a moving vehicle, which acts as a moving source. There is a shift in the frequency of the reflected wave. From the frequency shift, the speed of the car can be determined. This helps to track the over speeding vehicles.

Question 14.
How is Doppler effect utilised in tracking a satellite?
Answer:
The frequency of radio waves emitted by a satellite decreases as the satellite passes away from the Earth. By measuring the change in the frequency of the radio waves, the location of the satellites is studied.

Question 15.
How is the location of aircrafts found out?
Answer:
In RADAR, radio waves are sent, and the reflected waves are detected by the receiver of the RADAR station. From the frequency change, the speed and location of the aeroplanes and aircrafts are tracked.

Question 16.
How is the speed of submarine estimated?
Answer:
In SONAR, by measuring the change in the frequency between the sent signal and received signal, the speed of marine animals and submarines can be determined.

VIII. Numerical problems:

Question 1.
How far does the sound travel in air when a tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz makes 64 vibrations? Velocity of sound in air = 340 m/s².
Answer:
Velocity of sound in air v = 340 m/s
Frequency v = 256 Hz
Distance travelled by the wave in one vibration is equal to its wavelength. Wavelength λ = \(\frac{v}{V}\)
= \(\frac{340}{256}\) = 1.328 m
Distance travelled by the wave in 64 vibrations
= 1.328 × 64
= 84.992 m = 85 m

Question 2.
A train moving with velocity 30 ms^-1 blows a whistle of frequency 516 Hz. Find the pitch of the sound heard by a passenger ¡n another train approaching the first at a speed of 15 ms^-1, the velocity of sound = 330 ms^-1.
Solution:
It both the trains are approaching each other.
The apparent frequency, \(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v+v_{o}}{v-v_{\mathrm{s}}}\right) n\)
\(\begin{array}{l}{n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{330+15}{330-30}\right) \times 516} \\ {n=\frac{345}{300} \times 516=1.15 \times 516} \\ {n^{\prime}=593.4 \mathrm{Hz}}\end{array}\).

Question 3.
A body generates waves of 100 mm long through medium A and 0.25 m long in medium B. If the velocity of waves in medium A is 80 cm s^-1. Then, calculate the velocity of waves in medium B.
Answer:
In medium A wavelength λ_A = 100 mm
= 0.1 m
In medium A velocity v_A = 80 m/s
= 0.8 m/s
In medium B let velocity be v_B
In medium B, wavelength λ_B = 0.25 m
As the frequency of the wave remains same in the two media, so

= 2 m/s
∴ Velocity of waves in the medium B = 2 m/s

Question 4.
A radio station broadcasts its programme at 219.3 m wavelength. Determine the frequency of radio waves if velocity of radio waves 3 × 10⁸ m/s.
Answer:
Velocity of radio waves v = 3 × 10⁸ m/s
Wavelength of radio waves λ = 219.3 m
∴ Frequency of radio waves v = \(\frac{v}{λ}\)
v = \(\frac{3×10^8}{219.3}\)
= 0.013679 × 10⁸
= 13679 × 10² Hz
= 1.36 79 × 10³ Hz
Frequency v = 1.3679 KHz

Question 5.
The speed of a wave in a medium is 960 m/s. If 3600 waves are passing through a point in the medium in 1 minute, then calculate its wavelength.
Answer:
Speed of a wave v = 960 m/s
Frequency of the wave v = 3600 m^-1
\(\frac{3600}{60}\) = 60 s^-1
Wavelength λ = \(\frac{v}{V}\)
\(\frac{960}{60}\) = 16 m
Wavelength = 16 m

Question 6.
If a splash is heard 4.23 second after a stone is dropped into a well 78.4 m deep then calculate the speed of sound in air.
Answer:
For downward motion of the stone,
Initial velocity u = 0
Acceleration a = 9.8 m/s²
Distance S = 74.8 m.
Time t = ?
S = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at²
78.4 = 0 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9.8 t²
= 4.9 t²
∴ t² = \(\frac{78.4}{4.9}\) = 16
∴ t = 4 s
Let ‘t’ be the time taken by the splash of sound to reach the top of the well.
Then,
t + t’ = 4 +t’ = 4.23 s
∴ t = 4.23 – 4 = 0.23 s
∴ Speed of sound in air
\(\frac{distence}{Time}\)
= \(\frac{78.4}{0.23}\)
= 340.87 m/s

Question 7.
At what temperature will the speed of sound be double its value at 273 K?
Answer:
We know that velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to square root of its temperature

T₁ = 0°C = 0 + 273 = 273 K
v₁ = 2v₁ T₂ = ?

∴ T₂ = 4 × 273 = 1092 K
Required temperature = 1092 K

Question 8.
A listener moves towards a stationary source of sound with a velocity one fifth of the velocity of sound. What is the percentage increase in the apparent frequency?
Answer:
Hence listener moves towards the source.
V_L = –\(\frac{V}{5}\), V_S = 0
V_L – Velocity of listener
V_S – Velocity of source
V – Velocity of sound
Apparent frequency = n’

The percentage increase in apparent frequency

= 20%

Question 9.
A siren is fitted on a car going towards a vertical wall at a speed of 36 Kmph. A person standing on the ground behind the car, listens to the siren sound coming directly from the source as well as that coming after reflection from the wall. Calculate the apparent frequency of the wave coming directly from the siren to the person.
Answer:
Velocity of source = 36 Kmph
V_S = 36 × \(\frac{5}{18}\) = 10 m/s
Velocity of sound v = 340 m/s
Frequency n = 500 Hz
For the sound coming directly from the siren to the listener, source (siren) is moving away from the listener so
V_S = -10 m/s V₂ = 0
Apparent frequency of the wave

= 485.7 Hz

Question 10.
The sirens of two fire engines have a frequency of 600 Hz each. A man hears the sirens from the two engines, one approaching him with a speed of 30 Kmph and the car going away from him at a speed of 54 Kmph. What is the difference in frequency of two sirens heard by the man?
Answer:
Velocity of sound be 340 m/s
Frequency n = 600 Hz
Velocity of sound
V = 340 m/s
Velocity of source
Vs = 36 Kmph
\(\frac{36×5}{18}\) = 10 m/s
Velocity listener
V_S = 0
For the engine approaching man

= 618.2 Hz
For the engine going away from the man
V_S = -54 Kmph
= -54 × \(\frac{5}{18}\) = -15 m/s
Velocity of listener V_L = 0
Apparent frequency

Difference in frequencies = n’ – n” = 618.2 – 574.6
= 43.6 Hz

IX. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
Explain the nature of sound waves.
Answer:
Sound waves are longitudinal waves that can travel through any medium (solids, liquids, gases) with a speed that depends on the properties of the medium. As sound travels through a medium, the particles of the medium vibrate along the direction of propagation of the wave. This displacement involves the longitudinal displacements of the individual molecules from their mean positions. This results in a series of high and low pressure regions called compressions and rarefactions.

Question 2.
Explain in the details of measuring the velocity of sound by the Echo method.
Answer:
Apparatus required:
A source of sound pulses, a measuring tape, a sound receiver, and a stopwatch.
Procedure:

• Measure the distance d between the source of sound pulse and the reflecting surface using the measuring tape.
• The receiver is also placed adjacent to the source. A sound pulse is emitted by the source.
• The stopwatch is used to note the time interval between the instant at which the sound pulse is sent and the instant at which the echo is received by the receiver. Note the time interval as ‘t’.
• Repeat the experiment for three or four times. The average time taken for the given number of pulses is calculated.

Calculation of speed of sound:

• The sound pulse emitted by the source travels a total distance of 2d while travelling from the source to the wall and then back to the receiver.
• The time taken for this has been observed to be ‘t’. Hence, the speed of the sound wave is given by:
  \(\text { Speed of sound }=\frac{\text { Distance travelled }}{\text { Time taken }}=\frac{2 d}{t}\)

Question 3.
Explain laws of reflection with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
The following two laws of reflection are applicable to sound waves as well.
(i) The incident wave, the normal to the reflecting surface and the reflected wave at the point of incidence lie in the same plane.
(ii) The angle of incidence ∠i is equal to the angle of reflection ∠r.
These laws can be observed from figure

In the above Figure, the sound waves that travel towards the reflecting surface are called the incident waves. The sound waves bouncing back from the reflecting surface are called reflected waves. For all practical purposes, the point of incidence and the point of reflection is the same point on the reflecting surface.

A perpendicular line drawn at the point of incidence is called the normal. The angle which the incident sound wave makes with the normal is called the angle of incidence, ‘i’. The angle which the reflected wave makes with the normal is called the angle of reflection, ‘r’.

Question 4.
Explain applications of echo.
Answer:
(i) Some animals communicate with each other over long distances and also locate objects by sending the sound signals and receiving the echo as reflected from the targets.

(ii) The principle of echo is used in obstetric ultrasonography, which is used to create real-time visual images of the developing embryo or fetus in the mother’s uterus. This is a safe testing tool, as it does not use any harmful radiations.

(iii) Echo is used to determine the velocity of sound waves in any medium.

Question 5.
Explain various applications of Doppler effect.
Answer:
1. To measure the speed of an automobile:
An electromagnetic wave is emitted by a source attached to a police car. The wave is reflected by a moving vehicle, which acts as a moving source. There is a shift in the frequency of the reflected wave. From the frequency shift, the speed of the car can be determined. This helps to track the over speeding vehicles.

2. Tracking a satellite:
The frequency of radio waves emitted by a satellite decreases as the satellite passes away from the Earth. By measuring the change in the frequency of the radio waves, the location of the satellites is studied.

3. RADAR (Radio Detection and Ranging):
In RADAR, radio waves are sent, and the reflected waves are detected by the receiver of the RADAR station. From the frequency change, the speed and location of the aeroplanes and aircraft are tracked.

4. SONAR:
In SONAR, by measuring the change in the frequency between the sent signal and received signal, the speed of marine animals and submarines can be determined.

Question 6.
Describe (i) Soundboard
(ii) Ear trumpet and
(iii) Megaphone.
Answer:
(i) Sound Board: These are basically curved surfaces (concave), which are used in auditoria and halls to improve the quality of sound. This board is placed such that the speaker is at the focus of the concave surface. The sound of the speaker is reflected towards the audience thus improving the quality of sound heard by the audience.

(ii) Ear trumpet: Ear trumpet is a hearing aid, which is useful by people who have difficulty in hearing. In this device, one end is wide and the other end is narrow. The sound from the sources fall into the wide end and are reflected by its walls into the narrow part of the device. This helps in concentrating the sound and the sound enters the eardrum with more intensity. This enables a person to hear the sound better.

(iii) MegaPhone: A megaphone is a horn-shaped device used to address a small gathering of people. Its one end is wide and the other end is narrow. When a person speaks at the narrow end, the sound of his speech is concentrated by the multiple reflections from the walls of the tube. Thus, his voice can be heard loudly over a long distance.

Question 7.
What is the Doppler effect? Explain it in several situations.
Answer:
Whenever there is a relative motion between a source and a listener, the frequency of the sound heard by the listener is different from the original frequency of sound emitted by the source. This is known as “Doppler effect”.

For simplicity of calculation, it is assumed that the medium is at rest, That is the velocity of the medium is zero. Let S and L be the source and the listener moving with velocities v_S and v_L respectively. Consider the case of source and listener moving towards each other. As the distance between them decreases, the apparent frequency will be more than the actual source frequency.

Let n and n’ be the frequency of the sound produced by the source and the sound observed by the listener respectively. Then, the expression for the apparent frequency n’ is
n’ = (\(\frac{V+V_L}{V-V_S}\))n
Here, v is the velocity of sound waves in the given medium. Let us consider different possibilities of motions of the source and the listener. In all such cases, the expression for the apparent frequency is given in table

Suppose the medium (say wind) is moving with a velocity W in the direction of the propagation of sound. For this case, the velocity of sound, ‘v’ should be replaced with (v + W). If the medium moves in a direction opposite to the propagation of sound, then ‘v’ should be replaced with (v – W).

Question 8.
Describe the applications of Doppler effect.
Answer:
(i) To measure the speed of an automobile : An electromagnetic wave is emitted by a source attached to a police car. The wave is reflected by a moving vehicle, which acts as a moving source. There is a shift in the frequency of the reflected wave. From the frequency shift, the speed of the car can be determined. This helps to track the over speeding vehicles.

(ii) Tracking a satellite : The frequency of radio waves emitted by a satellite decreases as the satellite passes away from the Earth. By measuring the change in the frequency of the radio waves, the location of the satellites is studied.

(iii) RADAR (RAdio Detection And Ranging) : In RADAR, radio waves are sent, and the reflected waves are detected by the receiver of the RADAR station. From the frequency change, the speed and location of the aeroplanes and aircrafts are tracked.

(iv) SONAR (SOund Navigation And Ranging) : In SONAR, by measuring the change in the frequency between the sent signal and received signal, the speed of marine animals and submarines can be determined.

Question 9.
Explain the conditions for no Doppler effect.
Answer:
Under the following circumstances, there will be no Doppler effect and the apparent frequency as heard by the listener will be the same as the source frequency.

1. When source (S) and listener (L) both are at rest.
2. When S and L move in such a way that distance between them remains constant.
3. When source S and L are moving in mutually perpendicular directions.
4. If the source is situated at the center of the circle along which the listener is moving.

IX. Hot questions:

Question 1.
Why is frequency the most fundamental property of a wave?
Answer:
When a waves travels from one medium to another, its velocity and wavelength may change. But the frequency does not change hence the frequency is the most fundamental property of a wave.

Question 2.
Which properties of solid are required for the propagation of sound?
Answer:
Elasticity and inertia are the properties of solid are required for the propagation of sound.

Question 3.
What does cause the rolling sound of thunder?
Answer:
The multiple reflections of sound of lightning produce the rolling sound of thunder.

Question 4.
On the surface of moon, two astronauts can not talk to each other. Give reason.
Answer:
Sound waves require material medium for their propagation. As there is no ‘ atmosphere, on the moon, hence the sound wave can not propagate on the moon.

Question 5.
If a person places his ear to one end of a long iron pipeline, he can distinctly hear two sound waves when a workman hammers the other end of the pipeline. How?
Answer:
Sound waves travel sixteen times faster in iron than in air. Hence the person hears two sounds, the first one travelling through the iron pipeline and the second travelling through air.

Question 6.
Sound waves travel faster in solids than in liquids and gases. Why?
Answer:
Sound waves travel faster in solids with greatest speed. Because the coefficient of elasticity of solids is much greater than coefficient of elasticity of liquids and gases.

Question 7.
If an explosion takes place at the bottom of a lake, will the shock waves in water be longitudinal or transverse?
Answer:
An explosion in a lake produces shock waves there by creating enormous increase in pressure in water.
A shock wave is thus a longitudinal wave travelling at a speed that is greater than that of a longitudinal wave of ordinary intensity.

Question 8.
Sound can be heard over longer distances on a rainy day. Give reason.
Answer:
On a rainy day, air contains a large amount of water vapour. This decreases the density of air. Hence, sound travels faster in air and can be heard over longer distances.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 3 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 3

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
He saw his older brother devour his first catch.
(a) consume
(b) devein
(c) divide
(d) smell
Answer:
(a) consume

Question 2.
A half-dozen policemen emerged out of the darkness.
(a) charged
(b) exit
(c) appeared
(d) jumped
Answer:
(c) appeared

Question 3.
Harvest was over.
(a) crop
(b) crab
(c) craze
(d) pests
Answer:
(a) crop

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
In fact, I’d say it was easier for us to collaborate and work together.
(a) difficult
(b) calmer
(c) tranquility
(d) quicker
Answer:
(a) difficult

Question 5.
Your entire energy management can be taken care by automating.
(a) complete
(b) partial
(c) perfect
(d) whole
Answer:
(b) partial

Question 6.
You will persuade him to come.
(a) urge
(b) dissuade
(c) disembark
(d) distract
Answer:
(b) dissuade

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘goose‘.
(a) goose
(b) gooses
(c) goosies
(d) geese
Answer:
(d) geese

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word- ‘lonely‘.
(a) ment
(b) al
(c) ity
(d) ness
Answer:
(d) ness

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation IPKF is ………………………
(a) Institute of Peace Keeping Federation
(b) Indian Piece Keeping Force
(c) Intelligent Peace Keeping Force
(d) Indian Peace Keeping Federation
Answer:
(b) Indian Piece Keeping Force

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
Shelton …………………………………. his jacket and went out.
(a) put on
(b) put down
(c) put off
(d) put aside
Answer:
(c) put off

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘bow‘ to form a compound word,
(a) tail
(b) high
(c) rain
(d) hand
Answer:
(c) rain

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
The crew started their voyage on ………………… 10 September 2017.
(a) from
(b) at
(c) on
(d) by
Answer:
(c) on

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
When we ………….. the Tasman Sea, we witnessed the brilliant Southern Lights from sea.
(a) will cross
(b) were crossing
(c) is cross
(d) will be crossed
Answer:
(b) were crossing

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
Raghu added salt ……………. sugar to the milk.
(a) else
(b) so
(c) instead of
(d) but
Answer:
(c) instead of

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section – I

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
Why did Holmes want Smith to treat him?
Answer:
Holmes believed Mr. Smith, a plantation man, had foreknowledge of the eastern disease. He alone could cure him. So, he wanted Smith to treat him.

Question 16.
Who is shot at by the grandfather? Why?
Answer:
The zither-cop was shot at by the grandfather because he was the first to go up the stairs when they heard the sound of a creaking in the attic caused by the grandfather turning in the bed.

Question 17.
What did they do when they witnessed something new in their journey?
Answer:
As they were not specialists, whenever they spotted something new in the sea, they googled and browsed information to learn more about the species.

Question 18.
When did Aditya and the narrator go to Bramhapur?
Answer:
Aditya and the narrator were returning from the site of their new factory at Deodarganj. While returning, in the month of Magha, that is January or February by the English calendar, sometime in the middle of winter, around 3.30 p.m. they went to Bramhapur.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“She’s today’s woman. Today’s woman dear.
Love her, respect her, keep her near…”
(а) Describe today’s woman according to the poet.
(b) How should a woman be treated?
Answer:
(a) Today’s woman is a woman bom with determination, ready to take risks in life and is strong in her faith and beliefs.
(b) A woman should be treated with love and respect.

Question 20.
“My heart was so light that I sang day and night,
For all nature looked gay. ” “For all nature looked gay”.
“You sang, Sir, you say?
Go then”, says the ant, “and dance the winter away”.”
(а) Explain the phrase, ‘dance winter away’.
(b) The ant tells the cricket to “dance the winter away.” Is the usage of the word . ‘dance’ appropriate here? If so, why?
Answer:
(a) The phrase ‘dance winter away’ means dancing all through the winter season.
(b) The word ‘dance’ here means ‘merry making and wasting time.’ It is appropriate here. The irresponsible cricket does not deserve any sympathy.

Question 21.
“But remember, please, the Law by which we live,
We are not built to comprehend a lie,
We can neither love nor pity nor forgive,
If you make a slip in handling us you die!”
(a) What do you understand by the word, ‘slip’?
(b) What is the Law by which a machine lives?
Answer:
(a) A slip is nothing but a mistake.
(b) The Law is the way in which the machine is designed and programmed to work when the command is given.

Question 22.
“Beneath all uniforms, a single body breathes Like ours: the land our brothers walk upon Is earth like this, in which we all shall lie.”
(a)’ Who is referred to as ‘our brothers’ in this stanza?
(b) What lesson can we learn from these lines?
Answer:
(a) The people who live in countries other than ours have been referred to as our brothers.
(b) These lines teach us the lesson of peace, universal brotherhood and harmony.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer:
The novel was read by Mom in one day.
Mom read the novel in one day.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
“How will they get here?” asked Kalyani.
Answer:
Kalyani asked me how they would get here.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
If you will sit down said Miranda I will carry your logs the while
“If you will sit down, said Miranda, “I will carry your logs the while

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
Answer:
Unless you work hard you cannot succeed.
You cannot succeed without working hard.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) her glory / sincere prayers / Kali heard / and appeared / in all / Rama’s / before him
(b) unexpectedly, / instead of / laugh uncontrollably / inspiring awe / made Rama / her form
Answer:
(a) Kali heard Rama’s sincere prayers and appeared before him in all her glory.
(b) Unexpectedly, instead of inspiring awe her form made Rama laugh uncontrollably.

Section – IV

Answer the following. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
A stranger asks you the way to go to Meenakshi Temple. Help the stranger to reach his/ her destination with the help of the given road-map and write down the steps.
Answer:

• Go straight on N.S.K. Salai and go past the crossroad connecting P.M. Salai.
• After the second left you will come to R.R. Road.
• You will find Meenakshi temple on the opposite side.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section-I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Was the young seagull same at the beginning and at the end of the lesson? Compare and contrast the two kinds of the same seagull in the lesson.
Answer:
No, the young seagull was not the same bird at the beginning and at the end of the lesson. In the beginning, the young seagull used to be all alone on his ledge. His two brothers and his sister had flown away the day before. He had been afraid of flying with them. Whenever he tried to flap his wings, he was seized with fear. He felt certain that his wings would never support him. His father and mother flew around calling to him shrilly.

They were constantly scolding and taunting him. They were threatening to let him starve on his ledge unless he flew away. However, the young seagull was more confident and sure of his success in the end. Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish. After trials and errors, his wings spread outwards. He was soaring gradually downwards forgetting all his hesitations and fears. He could float on the ocean now. His success was welcomed by his family. They were praising him now and their beaks were offering him their scraps of dog-fish.
“Positivity ,confidence and persistence are
key in life – so never give up in life.”

Question 30.
“Technology is a boon to the disabled”. Justify.
Answer:
The differently abled, Alisha and David’s life has been transformed because of Technology. It is a boon to the disabled. Assistive technology is designed to help people with disabilities. Typing was impossible, but now Dragon Dictate helps the disabled to speak for words to be printed on screen. Technology can control a computer screen even with Eye Gaze.

Technology is vital to be free and independent. For verbal communication, Liberator Communication Device, with eye movements to communicate verbally is used. It has a Bluetooth adaptor and took a couple of weeks to leam using it. Communicating with people was very difficult before. An ACTIV controller also in the headrest of a mobility chair is used to control TV, Blu-Ray and music players.

Augmentative and Alternative Communication is also the product of technological advancements and a boon to the disabled. EC02 linked to an interactive whiteboard is used to teach PE lessons. Technology also helps control the Play Station, MP3, electric wheelchair and ECO point Eye Gaze to communicate and access the computer. Thus, Technology is a boon to the disabled.
“Technology is not just a tool. It can give learners a voice
that they may not have had before.”

Question 31.
Highlight the factors responsible for the all-women Indian Navy crew to carry out their expedition.
Answer:
The support the crew members received was a major factor. When they knew that they were doing well and looked after themselves well, in spite of all apprehensions they were supportive. The crew members’ personal aim and target mattered a lot. Mostly they wanted to make sure that they complete the journey with ultimate honesty without the use of engines. Than the destination, the journey was important. So their contention was to make sure that they go by the rules of circumnavigation without any means of repulsion and anybody else’s assistance.

The presence of mind and common sense to make decisions and act quickly was an added factor. They had to quickly do an analysis of problem solving techniques. Ego should never come amidst them. Team work helped them to collaborate and work together. Mutual understanding was important too.

One would heat the water while the other would heat the gloves or even rested. Over all the confidence you had in each other than the trust and acceptance as every member of the crew to be a family was a must to carry out the expedition.
“It’s about women helping women and women doing things
together and supporting each other. ”

Question 32.
Give an account of the last day of M. Hamel in school.
Answer:
The story described what was just another ordinary day for Franz who started very late for school that morning. Franz, who played truant with French class, feared M. Hamel’s iron rod. He came to the school thinking he would be punished as he had not leamt his lesson on participles. In fact, he was reluctant to go to school. Initially, he thought of spending the bright warm day outdoors enjoying the chirping of birds and seeing the drilling of Prussian soldiers at the back of the sawmill. On the way, Franz passed the Town hall, where he saw a large crowd reading the bulletin board which had been a source of all bad news. Franz rushed to his classroom, overseeing it for the fear of being chided.

When Franz arrived at the school, his classmates were already seated and the teacher had already started teaching. The back benches were occupied by grim and solemn villagers including the Mayor, The Postmaster, Hauser and many others. To his surprise, M. Hamel was in his Sunday clothes. Franz found M. Hamel to be kinder than usual. Franz was shocked to know that it was the last French lesson and the German teacher would start classes the next day.

He was full of regret for not learning his mother tongue and felt a sudden love for French. He even started liking M. Hamel and forgot all about his ruler. When M. Hamel asked Franz to recite the rules of participle, he was petrified. M. Hamel didn’t scold him and remarked that the only problem with people of

Alsace was procrastinating learning. He blamed parents and himself for exploiting children. Hamel then talked of the French language, calling it the most beautiful language in the world. He said that when we were enslaved knowing our mother tongue was similar to having the key to prison. As the church clock bell struck twelve, M. Hamel with a choked throat wrote on the Blackboard Vive La France!, i.e. Long Live France and dismissed the class.
“Our memories of yesterday will last a lifetime.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question  33.
Give summary of the poem, ‘The Grumble Family’.
Answer:
There is a family that no one ever wants to meet on Complaining Street in ‘Never-are- Satisfied’ city where River Discontent also runs. They growl at everything and hence something goes wrong. Even if their station is high or humble, they are known by the name of Grumble. The weather is always at extreme conditions and they scold at each other at both seasons. Everything is topsy-turvey with people who live on the gloomy Complaining street.

Even when they are satisfied with everything, there isn’t a doubt that they would growl about not having anything to grumble about. The strangest thing is not a single person in the Grumble family can accept the family name because no Grumbler will accept that he is a grumbler nor associated with such qualities. They are so contagious that anyone who says with them for a bit too long become a grumbler himself. Hence, it is wise to keep our feet away from Complaining Street.

Therefore, let us learn to walk with a smile on our lips and a song in our mouth even when things go against our desires. One should never belong to the family of Grumble, even if the status changes drastically.
“Be grateful and you won’t grumble.
Grumble and you won’t be grateful.”

Question  34.
‘Some crickets have four legs and some have two’. Elucidate this statement from the poet’s point of view.
Answer:
The poet is comparing the lazy crickets to the two-legged creatures – the human beings. The poetic device Metaphor is perfectly used to fit into the situation. Everyone knows that crickets have four legs. But he says some have two to compare the silly cricket to the two¬legged human-beings who sometimes are as lazy and silly as the cricket in this poem.

The poet wants to suggest that this story is not entirely a fable; rather, it is related to the real world. Surely, some people are as careless and lazy as the cricket is. Likewise, some humans like the cricket also don’t plan out for the future or for the bad times. They just enjoy the present moment. The poet is thus calling such people as mindless as the cricket.
“God gave us the gift of life; it is up to us to give ourselves the gift of living well.”

Question  35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“If the dim past, nor holding back in fear
From what the future veils; but with a whole
And happy heart, that pays its toll
To Youth and Age, and travels on with cheer.”
(i) Mention the figure of speech in the third line.
(it) Pick out thexontrasting words in the above lines.
(iii) Pick out the rhyming words.
(iv) What is the rhyme scheme of the above lines?
Answer:
(i) Alliteration is the figure of speech in the third line.
(ii) The contrasting words are ‘youth’ and ‘age’
(iii) The rhyming words are fear and cheer; whole and toll.
(iv) The rhyme scheme is abba.

Question  36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
Beside the house sits a tree.
It never grows leaves,
Not in the winter, spring, summer or fall.
It just sits there, never getting small or ever growing tall,
How could this be?
Answer:
Next to the house, is a tree. The tree too is mysterious like thee house since it has no leaves in any of the seasons. The tree is barren during winter, spring, summer and autumn. The poetess says that the tree just stays there and never grows tall nor becomes short. She wonders how a tree could survive without any leaves or without any growth.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following: [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) This planet describes its orbit round the sun in 572 years, 194 days, 12 hours, 43 minutes, 9.8 seconds.
(if) One of the Earth Herald’s astronomers had just determined the elements of the new planet Gandini.
(iii) On the whole, Francis Bennett had reason to be satisfied.
(iv) Hurry up and tell the reportage service about it because the public has a passion for these astronomical questions.
(v) Francis Bennett was delighted with such precision.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (if), (i), (v), (iv)
(iii) On the whole, Francis Bennett had reason to be satisfied.
(ii) One of the Earth Herald’s astronomers had just determined the elements of the new planet Gandini.
(i) This planet describes its orbit round the sun in 572 years, 194 days, 12 hours, 43 minutes, 9.8 seconds.
(v) Francis Bennett was delighted with such precision.
(iv) Hurry up and tell the reportage service about it because the public has a passion for these astronomical questions.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

One afternoon in the early fall, when Peter was eight years old, his mother called him from his play. “Come, Peter,” she said. “I want you to go across the dike and take these cakes to your friend, the blind man. If you go quickly, and do not stop to play, you will be home again before dark.” The little boy was glad to go on such an errand, and started off with a light heart. He stayed with the poof blind man a little while to tell him about his walk along the dike and about the sun and the flowers and the ships far out at sea. Then he remembered his mother’s wish that he should return before dark and, bidding his friend goodbye, he set out for home.

Questions
(i) Which word indicates it’s the beginning of the season Autumn?
(ii) What did Peter’s mom want him to do?
(iii) Was the little boy happy to obey his mother’s instruction?
(iv) What was the conversation Peter had with his blind friend?
(v) What was the wish of Peter’s mom?
Answer:
(i) The word ‘fall’ indicates the beginning of the season Autumn.
(ii) Peter’s mother wanted Peter to go across the dike and take the cakes to his blind friend.
(iii) Yes, the boy was happy.
(iv) Peter stayed with the poor blind man a little while to tell him about his walk along the dike
and about the sun and the flowers and the ships far out at sea.
(v) Peter’s mom wanted Peter to return home before dark.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below. Fans and Air Conditioners – to fan away your sweat- to beat the heat.
Answer:

Question 40.
You are a librarian of Chennai Public School, Chennai. Write a letter to the store manager of a bookseller placing order for some story books in English for the school library.
Answer:
Rishabh Kumar
Chennai Public School
R.K. Puram Chennai
10th May, 2020
The Store Manager .
Indian Book House
Chennai Dear Sir
Sub: Order for stoiy books
I am the librarian of Chennai Public School, R.K. Puram. Please send me the following story books at the address given above. The books should be suitable for the age group of 10 to 14 years. All the books should be sent via VPP as early as possible:

• The Boy in the Dress by David Walliams 10 copies
• Fantastic Mr Fox by Roald Dahl 10 copies
• The Summer of the Swans by Betsy Byars 10 copies
• The Well: David’s Story by Mildred D. Taylor 10 copies

Thanking you
Yours sincerely
Rishabh Kumar Librarian

Address on the envelope
To
Chennai Public School
R.K. Puram
Chennai

Question 41.
You are Pradeep/Asha. As President of the Dramatic Club of your school you have organized an inter-school competition in one-act plays on the occasion of the Silver Jubilee celebrations of your school. Write a notice in about 50 words, informing the students of your school about this proposed event.
Answer:

Dramatic Club J S S Public School, Erode 16 Aug. 2020 Notice On the occasion of the Silver Jubilee celebrations of the school, the Dramatic Club has organized an inter-school competition in one-act plays as per details given below: Date : 30 Aug 20XX Time : 10 a.m. onwards Venue : Ashoka Auditorium Participants : Maximum 7 in a team Last Date for the receipt of Entry forms : 25 Aug. 20XX by 4.00 pm Pradeep/Asha President Dramatic Club,

Question 42.
Write an article in about 150 -200 words on ‘Disaster Management’.
Answer:
Disaster Management
Our country is prone to disasters like floods, drought, cyclones, or earthquakes. We do not . have any clear-cut policy of disaster management nor any force to tackle the situation. Adhoc measures are adopted to cope with every disaster. We wait and watch for others to join the fray. There are heated arguments over jurisdiction—centre or state liability, official assessment and surveys before any help is rushed out to the affected area.

The slow response results in the loss of precious human life and valuable property. We must have clear-cut, well defined guidelines for disaster management. A well-trained task-force having special equipment and trained personnel should be constituted. Its controlling officer should have the authority to  take decisions and ensure their speedy implementation.

Better transport and communication facilities will ensure better results. Bureaucratic set-up should not be allowed to interfere with the work of the disaster-management group.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
The distribution of forests among different districts of the state is very uneven. Concentration of forests is mostly in the hills of western districts and in the Javadi group of hills in Vellore district. Dense forests are also seen in Salem district. More than half of the area in the Nilgiris is under forest. Other districts hold 1% to 5% of area under forests.

Thanjavur being the alluvial plain is suitable for agriculture which has less than 1% of forest cover. The forests of Tamil Nadu have different types of trees. Most of the trees in the state shed their leaves in the dry season. Tamil Nadu has large areas of sandal wood plantations, about 5,88,000 hectares. Hard wood trees are available in the forests of Coimbatore, Nilgiris and Kanyakumari. Trees that are used as fuel are found in Madurai, Coimbatore and Thanjavur districts. Kanyakumari district has rubber plantations.
Notes
Title: Forests in Tamil Nadu
Answer:
Uneven distribution-concentration in western districts, Nilgiris, Javadi hills, Vellore and Salem-other districts have 1-5% forests. Thanjavur only 1% of land under forests.
Different kinds of trees.
Deciduous trees, Hardwood trees, Sandalwood trees and Ordinary trees for firewood available -5,88,000 hectares under sandalwood.
Spread
Hardwood trees-Kanyakumari, Coimbatore and Nilgiris Firewood-Madurai, Thanjavur and Coimbatore Rubber-Kanyakumari

Summary

Title: Forests in Tamil Nadu
Rough Draft
The distribution of forests among different districts of the state is very uneven. Forest cover is dense in šter ditticts, Javadi hills, Vellore, Nilgiris and Salem. Thanjavur has less than 1 % of forest cover. Tamil Nadu forests have hardwood, firewood and sandalwood trees. Sandalwood trees are found in and firewood are found in Kanyakumari, Coimbatore and Thanjavur. Nilgiris has goo oefarciwood, Kanyakumari has rubber plantations. Trees that are used as fuel are found in and Thanjavur districts. Kanyakumari district has rubber plantations.

Fair Draft:
Title: Forests in Tamil Nadu
Forest cover is dense in western districts, Javadi hills, Vellore, Nilgiris and Salem. Thanjavur has less than 1% of forest cover. Tamil Nadu forests have hardwood, firewood and sandalwood trees. Sandalwood trees are found in 5,88,000 hectares. Hardwood and firewood are found in Kanyakumari, Coimbatore and Thanjavur. Nilgiris has good cover of hardwood, Kanyakumari has rubber plantations.
No. of words in the Fair Draft: 57

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) The State of Karnataka, is unarguably the cradle of banking on the country.
(b) If tomorrow is declared a holiday we shall go to a one day trip.
(c) My grandfather used to go for walk every morning.
(d) Darleena and me are like sisters but from different parents.
(e) She said that she will mind if I refused her offer.
Answer:
(a) The State of Karnataka, is unarguably the cradle of banking in the country.
(b) If tomorrow is declared a holiday we shall go for a one day trip.
(c) My grandfather used to go for a walk every morning.
(d) Darleena and I are like sisters but from different parents.
(e) She said that she would mind if I refused her offer.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 45.
Remember, we who countries strange.
Answer:
Remember, we who take arms against each other
It is the human earth that we defile.
Our hells of fire and dust outrage the innocence
Of air that is everywhere our own,
Remember, no men are foreign, and no countries strange.

Part – IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 46.
(a) Prospero overthrown – teenage daughter – isolated island – marooned – companion Ariel, Caliban – appropriated by Antonio – King of Naples – Ferdinand, Antonio – wrecked in sea storm – Prospero’s orders – invisible and spy – Miranda sees Ferdinand – plan works – test Ferdinand’s loyalty – menial tasks – pleasant – propose marriage – shipwrecked crew’ grieve – magical delicious banquet – Ferdinand and Miranda marry.
Answer:
The plot in the play, The Tempest, revolves around Prospero enacting his revenge on various characters who have wronged him in different ways. There was an island in the sea, the only inhabitants of which were an old man, named Prospero, and his daughter Miranda, a very beautiful young lady. She came to this island so young. Prospero had released many good spirits from a witch called Sycorax who had them imprisoned in the bodies of large trees.

These gentle spirits were ever after obedient to the will of Prospero. He creates a sea storm and makes the vessel to toss and shipwreck the crew and sends Ariel to check on his brother and other inmates of the ship. Every member thinks that he is the only one saved. Meanwhile, Ferdinand is brought before Prospero. Miranda wonders what kind of a creature he was as she has not seen any other human beings on the island. Instantly they fall in love for each other. Prospero realises their love and tests Ferdinand’s love for his daughter giving him menial tasks.

Ferdinand is found worthy by Prospero. In the end Antonio finally meets Prospero, he feels remorse for his deeds and begs pardon from Prospero. Prospero forgives him and they all leave to Milan and the wedding of Miranda and Ferdinand commences with delicious banquets.

[OR]

(b) According to the list kept in the Bible, develop the given hints and say what you can infer of Uncle Philip’s collection of stones.
Toni’s fear – iron box explosion – found in his uncle’s Bible – list of the stones, cost – dated two years before uncle’s death – well known – enormous value – curious histories – Empress-Queen Maria Theresa – Blood ruby – murders – unequalled collection – black pearl – queer.

One fine day when Tom was already groping in fear that the iron box may explode with careless handling by someone, found between the leaves of his uncle’s Bible, a numbered list of the stones with their cost. It was dated two years before his uncle’s death. Many of the stones were well known, and their enormous value was also mentioned. Several of the rubies were described with care and curious histories of them were given in detail.

One was said to be the famous “Sunset ruby,” which had belonged to the Empress-Queen Maria Theresa. One was called the “Blood ruby,” not because of the colour but on account of the murders it had occasioned. The pearls were described with care as an unequalled collection. Concerning two of them, they seemed to have done much evil and some good. One, a black pearl, was mentioned in an old bill of sale which seemed queer.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Answer:
A long time ago there lived a monster called the sphinx. She had the head of a woman, the body of a lion and the wings of a big bird. Her eyes were so fierce that nobody dared to look at her face. The sphinx sat on a cliff outside the city of Thebes. When a man passed by her, she would ask him a riddle. The man had to give the right answer, or the sphinx would eat him up. The riddle was so difficult that no one could answer it. Many men lost their lives and people were afraid to come out of their houses. Then one day a clever man wanted to answer the sphinx.

His name was Oedipus and he was not afraid of the sphinx. The sphinx stopped and asked him a riddle “what walks on four legs in the morning, on two legs at noon and on three legs in the evening?”Oedipus said that it was easy. “You try and answer it!” roared the sphinx. Oedipus said, “The answer is man walks on four legs in his childhood, on two legs when grown up and on three legs during old age”. Hearing the right answer the sphinx was disappointed and very angry. She jumped off the cliff and ended her life.

Questions.
(a) How did the sphinx look like?
(b) What would the sphinx do if a man failed to give the right answer to her riddle?
(c) Why was the sphinx angry?
(d) What is the ‘third leg’ of man in his old age?
Answer:
(a) The sphinx looked like a monster with the head of a woman, the body of a lion and the wings of a big bird.
(b) The sphinx would eat up the man if he failed to give the right answer to her riddle.
(c) Hearing the right answer to her riddle from Oedipus, the sphinx was disappointed and very angry
(d) The third leg is invariably the walking stick the old man will be using in his old age.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
Mother India
Is there aught you need that my hands withhold.
Rich gifts of raiment or grain of gold?
Lo! I have clung to the East and West Priceless treasures tore from my breast.
And yielded the sons of my stricken womb To the drum – beats of duty, the sabres of doom.
Gathered like pearls in their alien graves Silent they sleep by the Persian waves,
Scattered like shells on Egyptian sands.
They lie with pale brows and brave, broken hands They are strewn like blossoms mown down by chance On the blood-brown meadows of Flanders and France.
Can ye measure the grief of the tears I weep Or compass the woe of the watch I keep?
Or the pride that trills thro’ my heart’s despair And the hope that comforts the anguish of prayer?
And the far and glorious vision I see Of the torn red banners of victory?
When the terror and tumult of hate shall cease And life be refashioned on anvils of peace,
And your love shall offer memorial thanks
To the comrades who fought in your dauntless ranks,
And your honour the deeds of the deathless ones,
Remember the blood of my martyred sons!

Questions.
(a) Why is Mother India proud?
(b) State Mother India’s vision of a new world.
(c) What does Mother India expect?
(d) Pick out words from the poem which is equivalent to
(i) commotion
(ii) friends.
Answer:
(a) Mother India is proud because of her sons’ supreme sacrifice that eternalizes them forever.
(b) Mother India envisions a new world based on peace, love and understanding.
(c) Mother India expects the world to remember the sacrifices made by her sons in the World War with gratitude.
(d) (i) Commotion – tumult
(ii) Friends – comrades

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 12 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
5. Question numbers 13 to 22 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 23 to 32 in Part III are of four marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 33 to 35 in Part IV are of seven marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 75

Part – I

(i) Answer all the questions. [12 × 1 = 12]
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
Newton’s III law is applicable ________ .
(a) for a body is at rest
(b) for a body in motion
(c) both a and b
(d) only for bodies with equal masses
Answer:
(c) both a and b

Question 2.
SI unit of resistance is ________.
(a) mho
(b) joule
(c) Ohm
(d) Ohm meter
Answer:
(c) Ohm

Question 3.
Which of the following is the heaviest one?
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Alpha
(c) Beta
(d) Gamma
Answer:
(b) Alpha

Question 4.
1 mole of any substance contains ________ molecules.
(a) 6.023 × 10²³
(b) 6.023 × 10^-23
(c) 3.0115 × 10²³
(d) 12.046 × 10²³
Answer:
(a) 6.023 × 10²³

Question 5.
In the alumino thermic process the role of Al is ________
(a) Oxidizing agent
(b) reducing agent
(c) hydrogeneration agent
(d) Sulphurising agent
Answer:
(b) reducing agent

Question 6.
Solubility is the amount of solid dissolved in ________ g of solvent.
(a) 10 g
(b) 50 g
(c) 100 g
(d) 1 g
Answer:
(c) 100 g

Question 7.
Heart of heart is called ________.
(a) SA node
(b) Purkinjee fibres
(c) AV node
(d) Bundle of His
Answer:
(a) SA node

Question 8.
Metastasis is associated with ________.
(a) Benign tumour
(b) Malignant tumour
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Crown gall tumour
Answer:
(b) Malignant tumour

Question 9.
Kreb’s cycle takes place in ________.
(a) Chloroplast
(b) Stomata
(c) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(d) Mitochondrial matrix
Answer:
(d) Mitochondrial matrix

Question 10.
The endarch condition is the characteristic feature of ________.
(a) root
(b) stem
(c) leaves
(d) flower
Answer:
(b) stem

Question 11.
Palaeontology deals with the study of ________.
(a) fossils
(b) genes
(c) petroleum
(d) homologous organ
Answer:
(a) fossils

Question 12.
Which software is used to create animation?
(a) Paint
(b) PDF
(c) MS word
(d) Scratch
Answer:
(d) Scratch

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. (Q.No: 22 is compulsory) [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 13.
State the principle of Moments.
Answer:
When a number of like or unlike parallel forces act on a rigid body and the body is in equilibrium, then the algebraic sum of the moments in the clockwise direction is equal to the algebraic sum of the moments in the anti-clockwise direction.

Question 14.
Why does the sky appear in blue colour?
Answer:
When sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the blue colour is scattered to a greater extent than the red colour. This scattering causes the sky to appear in blue colour.

Question 15.
What is the audible range of frequency?
Answer:
Audible waves – These are sound waves with a frequency ranging between 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.

Question 16.
What is meant by binary solution?
Answer:
A solution must at least be consisting of two components. Such solutions which are made of one solute and one solvent are called binary solutions, (e.g.) adding CuSO₄ crystals to water.

Question 17.
Differentiate reversible and irreversible reactions.
Answer:
Reversible Reaction:

• Reaction can be reversed.
• It proceeds in both directions.
• It attains equilibrium.
• It is relatively slow.

Irreversible Reaction:

• Reaction cannot be reversed.
• It is unidirectional.
• Equilibrium is not attained.
• It is fast.

Question 18.
What are viviparous animals?
Answer:
The animals which give birth to young ones are called viviparous animals.

Question 19.
Bring out any two physiological activities of abscisic acid (ABA).
Answer:

1. ABA promotes the process of abscission. (Separation of leaves, flowers and fruits from the branch)
2. During water stress and drought conditions ABA causes stomatal closure.

Question 20.
Define triple fusion.
Answer:
The fusion involving two polar nucleus and a sperm nucleus, that occurs in double fertilization in a seed plant and results in the formation of endosperm is called the triple fusion.

Question 21.
Why is Archaeopteryx considered to be connecting link?
Answer:
Archaeopteryx is the oldest known fossil bird. It is considered to be a connecting link between reptiles and birds. It had wings with feathers like a bird. It had long tail, clawed digits and conical teeth, like a reptile.

Question 22.
Calculate the resistance of a conductor through which a current of 5A passes, when the potential difference between its ends is 60V.
Answer:
Given, I = 5A
V = 60 V
From Ohm’s law: R = \(\frac{V}{I}=\frac{60}{5}\) =12 Ω
∴ R = 12 Ω

Part – III

Answer any seven questions (Q.No: 32 is compulsory) [7 × 4 = 28]

Question 23.
State the universal law of gravitation and derive its Mathematical expression.
Answer:

This law states that every particle of matter in this universe attracts every other particle with a force. This force is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the centres of there masses. The direction of the force acts along the line joining the masses.

Force between the masses is always attractive and it does not depend on the medium where they are placed. Let m₁ and m₂ be the masses of two bodies A and B placed r metre apart in space

Force, F ∝ m₁ × m₂, F ∝ \(\frac{1}{r^{2}}\)
On combining the above two expressions,
F ∝ \(\frac{m_{1} \times m_{2}}{r^{2}}\)
F = \(\frac{G m_{1} m_{2}}{r^{2}}\)
Where G is the universal gravitational constant. Its value in SI unit is 6.674 × 10^-11 N m² kg^-2.

Question 24.
(i) List any five properties of light.
Answer:

• Light is a form of energy.
• Light always travel along a straight line.
• Light does not need any medium for its propagation. It can even travel through vacuum.
• The speed of light in vacuum or air is C = 3 x 10⁸ ms^-1
• Different coloured light has different wavelength and frequency.

(ii) State Rayleigh’s law of scattering.
Answer:
Rayleigh’s scattering law states that “The amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength”.
Amount of scattering S ∝ \(\frac{1}{\lambda^{4}}\)

Question 25.
(i) A torch bulb is rated at 3V and 600 mA. calculate it’s (a) power (b) resistance (c) energy consumed if it is used for 4 hours.
Answer:
Given
V = 3V
I = 600 mA = 600 × 10^-3 A
(a) Power (P) = VI = 3 × 600 × 10^-3 = 1800 × 10^-3
P= 1.8 W (or) watt.

(b) Resistance (R) = \(\frac{V}{I}\)

R = 5 Ω

(c) Power (P) = 1.8 W and t = 4 hours
= 4 × 60 × 60 = 14400 second.
Energy consumed (E) = P × t
= 1.8 × 14400 = 25920 joules
E = 25.9 Wh

(ii) Why does sound travel faster on a rainy day than on a dry day?
Answer:
When humidity increases the speed of sound increases. That is why we can hear sound from long distances clearly during rainy season.

Question 26.
Give the salient features of “Modern atomic theory”.
Answer:
The Salient features of “Modern atomic theory” are:

• An atom is no longer indivisible.
• Atoms of the same element may have different atomic masses.
• Atoms of different elements may have same atomic masses.
• Atoms of one element can be transmuted into atom of other elements. In other words, atom is no longer indestructible.
• Atoms may not always combine in a simple whole number ratio.
• Atom is the smallest particle that takes part in a chemical reaction.
• The mass of an atom can be converted into energy E = mc².

Question 27.
How is Aluminium extracted from Bauxite?
Answer:
Bauxite is the chief ore of aluminium. The extraction of aluminium from bauxite involves two steps:
(1) Conversion of bauxite into alumina – Baeyer’s process.
The conversion of Bauxite into Alumina involves the following steps:
Bauxite ore is finely ground and heated under pressure with a solution of concentrated caustic soda at 150° C to obtain sodium meta aluminate.

On diluting sodium meta aluminate with water, a precipitate of aluminium hydroxide is formed. The precipitate is filtered, washed, dried and ignited at 1000°C to get alumina.

(2) Electrolytic reduction of alumina – Hall’s process.
Aluminium is produced by the electrolytic reduction of fused alumina (Al₂O₃) in the electrolytic cell.
Cathode: Iron tank linked with graphite
Anode: A bunch of graphite rods suspended in molten electrolyte.
Electrolyte:

Pure alumina + molten cryolite + fluorspar

Temperature: 900 – 950° C
Voltage used: 5 – 6 V
Overall reaction:
2 Al₂O₃ → 4 Al + 3 O₂ ↑

Question 28.
What are the structures involved in the protection of brain?
Answer:
The brain, controlling centre of all the body activities is covered by three connective tissue membrane (or) meninges.

• Duramater – is the outermost thick fibrous membrane.
• Arachnoid membrane – is the middle thin vascular membrane providing web-like cushion.
• Piamater – is the innermost thin delicate membrane richly supplied with blood. Meningeal membranes protect the brain from mechanical injury.

Question 29.
(a) Why did Mendel select pea plant for his experiment?
Answer:

• The pea plant is self pollinating and so it is very easy to raise pure breeding individuals.
• It has a short life span.
• It is easy to cross pollinate.
• It has deeply defined contrasting characters.
• The flowers are bisexual.

(b) What is the importance of valves in the heart?
Answer:
The valves are the muscular flaps, that regulate the flow of blood in a single direction and prevent backward flow of blood.

Question 30.
Differentiate the following:
(i) Light dependent reaction and Light independent reaction
Answer:
Light dependent reaction:

• It is called Hill reaction or Light reaction.
• The reaction is earned out in Thylakoid membranes of the chloroplast.
• It is carried out in the presence of light.
• Photosynthetic pigments absorb the light energy and convert it into chemical energy ATP and NADPH₂.

Light independent reaction:

• It is called Dark reaction or Biosynthetic pathway or Calvin cycle.
• This reaction is carried out in the stroma of the chloroplast.
• It is carried out in the absence of light.
• CO₂ is reduced into carbohydrates with the help of light generated ATP and NADPH₂.

(ii) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration
Answer:
Aerobic:

• Occur in the presence of oxygen.
• Carbon dioxide, water and ATP are produced.

Anaerobic:

• Occur in the absence of oxygen.
• Lactic acid, Ethanol and ATP are produced.

Question 31.
(a) What is metastasis?
Answer:
The cancerous cells migrate to distant parts of the body and affect new tissues and this process is called Metastasis.

(b) What are the effects of hybrid vigour in animals?
Answer:
The superiority of the hybrid, obtained by cross breeding is called heterosis or hybrid vigour.
Effects of hybrid vigour:

• Increased production of milk by cattles.
• Increased production of egg by poultry.
• High quality of milk is produced.
• Increased growth rate in domesticated animals.

Question 32.
(i) Explain Soddy and Fajan Radioactive displacement law.
Answer:
Alpha decay:
(a) Unstable parent nucleus emits an alpha particle to form stable daughter nucleus.
(b) ₉₂U²³⁸ → ₉₀Th²³⁴ + ₂He⁴ ( α – decay ).
(c) Mass number decreases by 4.
(d) Atomic number decreases by 2.

Beta decay:
(a) Unstable parent nucleus emits a beta particle to form stable daughter nucleus.
(b) ₁₅P³² → ₁₆S³² + _-1e⁰ (β – decay)
(c) Mass number – no change.
(d) Atomic number increased by 1.

Gamma decay:
(a) The atomic number and the mass number remain same.
(b) The energy level of the nucleus change. .

(ii) Calculate the pH of 0.05M H₂SO₄.
[H⁺] = Normality = Molarity × basicity
= 0.05 × 2 = 0.1
= 10^-1 = 1 × 10^-1
pH = -log₁₀ [H⁺]
pH = -log₁₀ 1 × 10^-1
pH = -log₁₀ 1 – log 10^-1
pH = 0 – (- 1 log₁₀ 10) = 1

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [3 × 7 = 21]

Question 33.
(a) (i) State the law of volume.
Answer:
When the pressure of gas is kept constant, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to the temperature of the gas.
(i.e.,) V ∝ T .
\(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant

(ii) Derive the ideal gas equation.
Answer:
The ideal gas equation is an equation, which relates all the properties of an ideal gas. An ideal gas obeys Boyle’s law, Charles’ law and Avagadro’s law,
According to Boyle’s law
PV = constant ……… (1)
According to Charles’s law,
\(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant …….(2)
According to Avagadro’s law,
\(\frac{V}{n}\) = constant ……(3)
After combining equations (1), (2) and (3)
\(\frac{P V}{n T}\) = constant ……..(4)

The above relation is called combined law of gases. If you consider a gas, which contains μ moles of the gas, the number of atoms contained will be equal to (i times the Avagadro’s number, NA
(i.e.,) n = μ N_A
using equation (5) equation (4) can be written as
PV / μ N_A T = constant

The value of the constant in the above equation is taken to be k_B, which is called as Boltzmann constant (1.38 × 10^-23 J K^-1). Hence, we have the following equation,
PV / μ N_A T = kB
PV = μ N_A k_B T
Here μ N_A k_B = R, which is termed as universal gas constant whose value is 8.31 Jmol^-1_1K^-1
PV = RT
Ideal gas equation is also called as equation of state because it gives the relation between the state variables and it is used to describe the state of any gas.

[OR]

(b) (i) A man is standing between two vertical walls 680 m apart. He claps his hands and hears two distinct echoes after 0.9 seconds and 1.1 seconds respectively. What is the speed of sound in the air?
Answer:

(ii) A door is pushed, at a point whose distance from the hinges is 90 cm, with a force of 40 N. Calculate the moment of the force about the hinges.
Answer:
The moment of a force M = F × d
F = 40 N
d = 90 cm = 0.9 m
Hence, moment of the force = 40 × 0.9 = 36 Nm

Question 34.
(a) (i) Calculate the mass of 2.5 mole of oxygen atom.
Answer:
Number of moles = \(\frac{\text { Mass }}{\text { Atomic mass }}\)
∴ Mass = Number of moles × Atomic mass
= 0.5 × 16 = 8 g

(ii) Calculate the number of molecules in 11g of CO₂.
Answer:
Gram Molecular of CO₂ = 44 g.
number of molecules in 44 g of CO₂ = 6.023 × 10²³
number of molecules in 11 g of CO₂ = \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{44}\) × 11
= 1.53 × 10²³ molecules

(iii) Calculate the number of moles in 81g of aluminium.
Answer:
Number of moles = \(\frac{\text { Mass }}{\text { Atomic mass }}\)
= \(\frac{81}{27}\) = 3 moles

[OR]

(b) How is ethanol manufactured from sugar-cane?
Answer:
Molasses is a dark coloured syrupy liquid left after the crystallization of sugar from the concentrated sugarcane juice. It contains 30 % of Sucrose, which cannot be separated by crystallization.

(i) Dilution of Molasses:
Molasses is first diluted with water,to bring down the concentration of sugar to about 8 to 10 percent.

(ii) Addition of Nitrogen Source:
Molasses contains enough nitrogenous matter to act as food for yeast during the fermentation process. If the nitrogenous matter is poor, ammonium sulphate or ammonium phosphate is added.

(iii) Addition of yeast:
This solution kept in large fermentation tank and yeast is added to it kept at about 303K for a few days. During this period, the enzymes invertase and Zymase present in yeast, convert sucrose into ethanol.

The fermented liquid is technically called wash.

(iv) Distillation of wash:
This wash containing 15 to 18% alcohol, is now subjected to fractional distillation. The main fraction drawn is an aqueous solution of ethanol which contains 95.5% of ethanol and 4.5% of water. This is called rectified spirit. This mixture is then refluxed over quicklime for about 5 to 6 hour and then allowed to stand for 12 hours. On distillation of mixture pure alcohol (100%) is obtained. This is called absolute alcohol.

Question 35.
(a) (i) Which hormone requires iodine for its formation? What will happen if intake of iodine in our diet is low?
Answer:
The formation of Thyroxine (T₄) and Triiodothyronine requires iodine. If there is an inadequate supply of iodine in our diet it leads to enlargement of thyroid gland called goitre.

(ii) What is the importance of rainwater harvesting?
Answer:
The importance of rainwater harvesting is as follows:

• Overcome the rapid depletion of ground water level.
• To meet the increased demand of water.
• Reduces flood and soil erosion.
• Water stored in ground is not contaminated by human and animal wastes and hence can be used for drinking purposes.

(iii) What is colostrum? How is milk production hormonally regulated?
Answer:
The first fluid which is produced from the mammary gland after child birth is called colostrum. Milk production from alveoli of mammary gland is stimulated by prolactin secreted from anterior pituitary.

[OR]

(b) (i) How does locomotion take place in leech?
Answer:
Locomotion in leech takes place by:

• Looping or crawling movement: Crawling movement is brought about by the contraction and relaxation of muscles. The two suckers serve for attachment during movement.
• Swimming movement: Leeches swim very actively and perform undulating movement in water.

(ii) How does Fossilization occur in plants?
Answer:
Fossilization in plants: The process of formation of fossil in the rocks is called fossilization.
The common methods of fossilization includes:

1. Petrifiction: Minerals like silica slowly penetrate in and replace the original organic tissue. This method can preserve hard and soft parts, (e.g.) wood fossils.

2. Mold and Cast: A replica of a plant or animal is preserved in sedimentary rocks. When the organism get buried in sediment it is dissolved by underground water leaving a hollow depression called Mold. It shows only the original shape and not the internal structure. Minerals or sediments fill the hollow depression and forms a cast.

3. Preservation: The entire plant may be preserved to protect from the organism from decay. Ice or amber (tree sap) can be used for preservation.

4. Compression: When the organism dies, the hard parts settle at the bottom of the sea bed and are covered by sediment. The process goes on continuously and the fossils are formed.

5. Infiltration: The precipitation of minerals takes place which later on infiltrate the cell wall. The process is brought about by several mineral element such as silica, calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Which country was expelled from the League of Nations for attacking Finland?
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Italy
(d) France
Answer:
(b) Russia

Question 2.
Who was the first Indian judge of the Madras High Court?
(a) T. Muthu Swamy
(b) P. S. Sivasamy
(c) V. S. Srinivasa Sastri
(d) G. A. Natesan
Answer:
(a) T. Muthu Swamy

Question 3.
Which American President followed the policy of containment of communism?
(a) Woodrow Wilson
(b) Truman
(c) Theodore Roosevelt
(d) Franklin Roosevelt
Answer:
(b) Truman

Question 4.
Which one of the following was launched by Haji Shariatullah in 1818 in East Bengal?
(a) Wahhabi Rebellion
(b) Farazi Movement
(c) Tribal uprising
(d) Kol Revolt
Answer:
(b) Farazi Movement

Question 5.
Who was arrested during the anti-Rowlatt protests in Amirtsar?
(a) Motilal Nehru
(b) Shaifuddin Kitchlew
(c) MohamedAli
(d) Raj Kumar Shukla
Answer:
(b) Shaifuddin Kitchlew

Question 6.
The North-South extend of India is ………………..
(a) 2,500 km
(b) 2,933 km
(c) 3,214 km
(d) 2,814 km
Answer:
(c) 3,214 km

Question 7.
Meteorology is the science of………………..
(a) Weather
(b) Social
(c) Political
(d) Human
Answer:
(a) Weather

Question 8.
The Soil which is rich in iron oxides is ………………..
(a) Alluvial
(b) Black
(c) Red
(d) Alkaline
Answer:
(c) Red

Question 9.
The latitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is………………..
(a) 8°4’N to 13°35’N
(b) 8°5’S to 13°35’S
(c) 8°0’N to 13°5’N
(d) 8°0’S to 13°05’S
Answer:
(a) 8°4’N to 13°35’N

Question 10.
Pick out the odd one………………..
(a) Inundational canals
(b) Perennial canals
(c) Tanks
(d) Canals
Answer:
(c) Tanks

Question 11.
Under which article financial emergency can be proclaimed?
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 368
Answer:
(c) Article 360

Question 12.
Which Minister plays a vital role in molding foreign policy of our country?
(a) Defense Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) External Affairs Minister
(d) Home Minister
Answer:
(c) External Affairs Minister

Question 13.
…………….. is the only state in India to adopt universal PDS
(a) Kerala
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 14.
GNP equals………………..
(a) NNP adjusted for inflation
(b) GDP adjusted for inflation
(c) GDP plus net property income from abroad
(d) NNP plus net property income or abroad
Answer:
(c) GDP plus net property income from abroad

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Mention the four articles of faith laid down by Maharishi Debendranath Tagore?
Answer:
Maharashi Debendranath Tagore laid down the following four articles of faith –

• In the beginning, there was nothing. The one Supreme Being alone existed who created the Universe.
• He alone is the Good of truth, Infinite Wisdom, Goodness and Power, eternal, omnipresent, the One without second.
• Our salvation depends on belief in him and in his worship in this world and the next.
• Belief consists in loving him and doing his will.

Question 16.
Mention the important clauses of the Treaty of Versailles relating to Germany.
Answer:
Here are the important clauses of the Treaty of Versailles relating to Germany:

• Germany was forced to give up territories to the west, north and east of the German border.
• Germany had to disarm and was allowed to retain a very restricted armed force (army, navy and air force);
• As reparations for the War, Germany was expected to pay for the military and civilian cost of the War to the Allied nations. .

Question 17.
What were the duties of a Palayakkarars?
Answer:
The Palayakkarars carried on the following duties:

• They collected revenue, administered the territory control, settled disputes and maintained law and order.
• On many occasions the Palayakkarars helped the Nayak rulers to restore the kingdom to them.

Question 18.
Write a note on Bhagat Singh.
Answer:
1. Bhagat Singh was an Indian socialist revolutionary whose two acts of dramatic violence against the British in India and the execution at the age of 23 made him a folk hero of the Indian Independence Movement.

2. Bhagat Singh along with B. K. Dutt threw a smoke bomb inside the Central Legislative Assembly in 1929. It was not intended to hurt anyone. They threw pamphlets and shouted Tnquilab Zindabad’ and ‘Long Live the Proletariat’.

3. He along with Rajguru was arrested and sentenced to death. Bhagat Singh’s daring act fired the imagination of the youth across India and he became popular.

Question 19.
Name the distinct seasons of India.
Answer:

• Winter or cold weather season (Jan-Feb)
• Pre Monsoon or Summer (March-May)
• Southwest Monsoon or rainy season (June-September)
• Northeast Monsoon season (October-December)

Question 20.
Define Agriculture.
Answer:
Agriculture is the process of producing food for people, fodder for cattle, fiber and many other desired products by the cultivation of certain plants and the raising of domesticated animals.

Question 21.
Name the different types of coal with their carbon content.
Answer:

1. Anthracite : contains 80 to 90% Carbon
2. Bituminous : contains 60 to 80% Carbon
3. Lignite : 40 to 90% Carbon
4. Peat : contains less than 40% Carbon

Question 22.
List out the air ports and sea ports of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Airports:

• Chennai International Airport
• Coimbatore International Airport
• Madurai International Airport
• Tiruchirapalli International Airport

Domestic Airports:
Tuticorin and Salem

Sea Port: Major Sea Ports are:

• Chennai
• Ennore
• Tuticorin

Intermediate port at Nagapattinam and 15 minor ports.

Question 23.
List out any five global groupings in which India is a member.
Answer:
India is a member of formal groupings like UNO, NAM, S AARC, G20 and the Commonwealth.

Question 24.
List out any two special powers of the Attorney General of India?
Answer:
1.  The Attorney General of India has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named as a member, but without a right to vote.

2. In the performance of his official duties, Attorney General of India has the right of audience in all Courts in the territory of India.

Question 25.
What are the qualifications for the appointment of Governor?
Answer:
Qualifications of the Governor is given below

• He should be a citizen of India.
• He must have completed 35 years of age.
• He should not be a member of Parliament or any State legislature.
• He should not hold any other profitable occupation.

Question 26.
Write the name of economic policies of India.
Answer:
Name of economic policies in India are:

• Agriculture Policy
• Industrial Policy
• New Economic Policy
• Trade Policy
• Employment Policy
• Currency and Banking Policy
• Fiscal and Monetary Policy
• Wage Policy
• Population Policy

Question 27.
What is meant by black money?
Answer:
Black money is funds earned on the black market on which income and other taxes have not been paid. The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called black money.

Question 28.
Name any five biosphere reserves in India.
Answer:

1. Agasthyamalai
2. Dibru Saikhowa
3. Dihang Dibang
4. Great Nicobar
5. Gulf of Mannar
6. The Nilgiris
7. Sundarbans

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks
(i) In 1918, the society for the study of Marxism was fortned in ………………..University.
(ii) ………………..is the Tamil Nadu state animal.
(iii) ………………..is a small Himalyan Kingdom.
(iv) ………………..is the value of currency expressed in terms of the amount of goods and services
that one unit of money can buy.
(v) The difference between the value of exports and imports is called ………………..
Answers
(i) Peking
(ii) Nilgiri Thar
(iii) Bhutan
(iv) Purchasing power
(v) Balance of trade

Question 30.
Match the following

Answers:

Question 31.
Match the following

Answers:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) Jute industry and Sugar industry.
(ii) Internal Trade and International Trade.
Answer:
(a) (i) Jute industry and Sugar industry:
Jute industry :

1. The Jute industry is concerned mainly with the production of gunny bags, canvas, pack sheets, jute web, carpets, cordage, hessian and twines.
2. West Bengal, Titagarh, Jagatdat, Budge- budge, Haora and Bhadreshwar are the chief centres of jute industry.

Sugar industry :

1. Sugar can be produced from sugarcane, sugar-beets, or any other crop which have sugar content.
2. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Bihar, Punjab, Gujarat, Haryana and Madhya Pradesh.

(ii) Internal Trade and International Trade:
Internal Trade

1. Internal trade is also known as local trade. It is carried on within the domestic territory of a country.
2. Land transport plays a major role in the movement of goods.
3. This trade is mostly fixed on the nation’s currency.
4. This internal trade helps to promote balanced regional growth in the country. This trade leads to rapid economic progress of a country.

International Tirade :

1. International trade is also known as External trade. It is a trade carried on between two or more countries.
2. Ocean transport plays major role in the movement of goods.
3. This trade is carried on foreign currency.
4. This trade leads to rapid economic progress of a country.

(b) Give reason: Cities are densely populated than the villages.
Answer:
Agriculture, job opportunities and industrial development are the main causes of population density in the cities then the villages.

Question 33.
Assess the structure and the activities of the UN.
Answer:
The United Nations came into existence in the year 1945 to achieve lasting peace among all nations which were inter-dependent. It functions like any government, through its principal organs which are similar to the legislative, executive and judicial wings of a state.

• The General Assembly is the body in which each member state is represented. It meets once a year and issues of interest and points of conflict are discussed in the Assembly.
• The Security Council has fifteen members, five of them (the USA, Britain, France, Russia and China) are permanent members. The other ten temporary members are elected in .rotation from different parts of the world. Each of the permanent members has the right to veto any decision by the other members of the Security Council.
• The UN Secretariat is headed by the Secretary General, who is elected by the General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council.
• The International Court of Justice is the Judicial wing of the United Nations. Its headquarter is at The Hague.
• The fifth organ of the UN is the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). It is responsible for coordinating all the economic and social work of the United Nations.

Activities of the United Nations:
Human rights, the problems of refugees, climate change, gender equality are all within the ambit of the activities of the United Nations. The UN Peace-keeping force has acted in many areas of conflict all over the world.

Question 34.
Discuss the response to Swadeshi Movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
1. During the Swadeshi movement, public meetings were organised in various parts of Tamil Nadu, and they were attended by thousands of people. Tamil was used for the first time to mobilise people.

2. Many journals came into existence to spread Swadeshi ideals. Students and youth participated widely in the movement. Some lectures were delivered by Bipin Chandra Pal, while Subramania Bharati’s patriotic songs stirred patriotic emotions in people.

Question 35.
Explain the importances of satellite communication in India.
Answer:

1. Satellite images are used for weather forecasting, monitory of natural calamities, surveillance of border areas etc. The communication through satellites emerged as a new era in communication in our country after the establishment of Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) in 1969.

2. Satellite systems in India can be grouped into two on the basis of two satellites namely
“Indian National Satellite” (INSAT) and “Indian Remote Sensing Satellite” (IRS). These satellites collect data in several spectral band and transmit there to ground stations for various uses.

3. The communication and remote sensing satellites INSAT and IRS have revolutionized India’s communication system. Metrological studies and natural resource management. The National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA) at Hyderabad provides facilities for acquisition of data and its processing.

4. There is no doubt that India has irrefatably arrived as a space power in the world. The INSAT series are used for relaying signals to television, telephone, radio, mobile phone.

5. It is also useful in weather detection, internet. The INSAT series GSAT series, GSAT series KALPANA -1, HAMS AT, EDUSAT are the major communication satellite used for communication purpose. GSAT – 7A is the recent launch for communication programs. INSAT – IB launched on 30th August, 1983 is the first communication satellite in INSAT series.

Question 36.
Bring out the types and distribution of soils in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Types of Soils Distribution of Soil in Tamil Nadu
Alluvial Soil :  It is found in river valley regions and coastal plains. Thanjavur, Tiruvarur, Nagapattinam, Villupuram, Cuddalore, Tirunelveli and Kanniyakumari
Black Soil : Coimbatore, Madurai, Virudhunagar, Tirunelveli and Thoothukudi
Red Soil : Sivagangai and Ramanathapuram
Laterite Soil : Kancheepuram, Tiruvallur and Thanjavur districts and source patches over the mountain region in the Nilgiris
Saline Soil : Saline soils in Tamil Nadu are confined to the Coromandel coast and Vedaranyam

Question 37.
Mention OPEC missions and how does it help other countries?
Answer:
OPEC’s mission:

• To coordinate oil policies in its member countries
• Help stabilise oil markets
• To secure fair and stable income to petroleum producers
• An efficient, economic and regular supply of oil to consuming nations
• A fair return on capital to those investing in the petroleum industry

How does OPEC help other countries:
The OPEC Fund for International Development (OPID) is an institution that helps finance projects with low interest loans. It also provides grants to social and humanitarian projects. OPEC has an Information Centre with over 20,000 volumes including books, reports, maps and conference proceedings related to petroleum, energy and the oil market. The Information Centre is open to the public and is often used by researchers and students. ,

Question 38.
Write the differences between the growth and development.
Answer:
Differences between the Economic growth and Economic development:
Economic Growth :

1. It is the positive quantitative change in the output of an economy in a particular time period
2. Economic growth is the ‘narrower’ concept.
3. Quantitative in nature.
4. Rise in parameters like, GDP, GNP, FDI, FII etc.
5. Short term in nature.
6. It is applicable in developed nations.
7. It is measured by increase in national income.
8. It occurs in a certain period of time.

Economic Development :

1. It consider the rise in the output in an economy along with the advancement of HDI index which considers a rise in living standards, advancement in technology and overall happiness index of a nation.
2. Economic development is the ‘broader’ concept.
3. Qualitative in nature.
4. Rise in life expectancy rate, infant, improvement in literacy rate, infant mortality rate and poverty rate etc.
5. Long-term in nature.
6. It is applicable in developing co countries.
7. It is measured by increase in real national income, i.e., per capita income.
8. It is a continuous process.

Question 39.
Write the challenges of Globalization.
Answer:
The following are the challenges of globalization.

• To ensure that the benefits of globalization extent to all countries. That will certainly not happen automatically.
• To deal with the fear that globalization leads to stability, which is particularly marked in the developing world. .
• To address the very real fear in the industrial world that increased global competition will lead memorably to a race to the bottom in wages, labour rights, employment practices, and the environment.
• Globalization and all of the complicated problems related to it must not be used as excuses to avoid searching for new ways to cooperate in the over all interest of countries and people.
• People have started consuming more junk foods. This has badly affected their health.

Question 40.
Name some industrial development agencies and explain them.
Answer:
The following are some agencies that have played a key role in industrialization in the state.

SIPCOT: (State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu), 1971:
It was formed in the year 1971 to promote industrial growth in the state by setting up industrial estates.

TANSIDCO: (Tamil Nadu Small Industries Development corporation), 1970:
TANSIDCO is a state-agency of the state of TN established in the year 1970 to promote smallscale industries in the state. It gives subsidies and provide technical assistance for new firms in the small scale sector.

TIDCO (Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation), 1965:
TIDCO is another government agency to promote industries in the state and to establish industrial estates.

TIIC (Tamil Nadu Industrial Investment Corporation Ltd.), 1949:
TIIC is intended to provide low-cost financial support for both setting up new units and also for expansion of existing units. Though it is meant to meet the requirements of all types of firms, 90% of support goes to micro, small and medium enterprises.

TANSI (Tamil Nadu Small Industries Corporation Ltd.), 1965:
TANSI was formed in 1965 to take over the small scale-units that were set up and run by the Department of Industries and Commerce. It is supposed to be the first industrial corporation operating in the domain for small enterprises.

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
Write any five important events between 1920-1940
Year  – Events
1920  – Non Co-operation Movement
1921 – Ahmedabad Congress Session
1922 – Chauri Chaura incident / Suspension of Non Co-operation movement
1923 – Birth of Swaraj Party
1924 – Formation of Hindustan Republican Army
1925 – Death of C.R. Das / Swaraj Party dissolved
1927 – Formation of Simon Commission
1928 – Arrival of Simon Commission to India / The Nehru Report
1929 – Lahore Congress
1930 – Salt Satyagraha / Civil Disobedience Movement / Dandi. March / First Round Table Conference
1931 – Gandhi Irwin Pact / Second Round Table Conference
1932 – Poona Pact / The Communal Award / Third Round Table Conference
1935 – Government of India Act
1937 – Provincial Elections
1939 Second World War started
1940 – Jinnah’s demand for separate nation – Pakistan / August offer

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) Norway
(ii) Sweden
(iii) Finland
(iv) Bulgaria
(v) Turkey
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43. (a) Anti-Colonial Struggle in Indo-China (*) Define the concept of decolonisation.
(if) What were the three States that formed Indo-China.
(iii) How did Communist ideas help in developing the spirit of anti-colonialism.
(iv) Which was the mainstream political party in Indo-China?
Answer:
(a) Anti-Colonial Struggle in Indo-China
(i) Decolonisation is a process through which colonial powers transferred institutional and legal control over their colonies to indigenous nationalist government.
(if). Cambodia, Laos and Vietnam.
(iii) Communist ideas from mainland China helped in developing the spirit of anti-colonalism in Indo-China. Many became convinced that the considerable wealth of Indo-China was benefiting only the colonial power. This aroused the feeling of nationalism which resulted in violence. In 1916 there was a major anti-colonial revolt which was crushed brutally. There were also guerrilla activities in Tongking.
(iv) The mainstream political party in Indo-China was the Vietnam Nationalist Party. It was composed of the wealthy and middle class sections of the population.

(b) Vellore Revolt
(i) When did Vellore Revolt break out?
(ii) Who introduced new military regulation?
(iii) Who was the first victim of the revolt?
(iv) Who was proclaimed by the rebels as their new rules?
Answer:
(b) Vellore Revolt
(i)10th July 1806 .
(ii) Commander in Chief Sir John Cradock.
(iii) Colonel Fancourt
(iv) Fateh Hyder

[OR]

(c) Velunachiyar
(i) Who was the military chief of Velunachiyar?
(ii) What were the martial arts in which she was trained?
(iii) Whom did she marry?
(iv) What was the name of her daughter?
(c) Velunachiyar
(i) Gopala Nayaker
(ii) The martial arts in which she was trained were valari, stick fighting and to wield weapons.
(iii) She was married to Muthu Vadugar, the Raja of Sivagangai.
(iv) Her Daughter’s name was Vellachinachiar.

(d) Self Respect Movement
(i) Who started the Self Respect Movement? ’
(ii) Why did he start?
(iii) When was it started?
(iv) Name the laws passed by the government due to the constant struggle of Self Respect Movement.
Answer:
(d) Self Respect Movement
(i) E.V. Ramaswamy Periyar started the self respect movement.
(ii) He started it in order to spread and execute his ideas and policies.
(iii) It was started in 1925.
(iv) Widow Remarriage Act, Women’s Right to property Act and abolition of Devadasi Act.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Aravalli
(ii) Brahmaputra
(iii) Chotanagpur plateau
(iv) West Bengal
(v) Desert soil region
(vi) Coffee growing area
(vii) Machillipatnam
(viii) National Highway NH-7
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu.
(i) International airport
(ii) Madurai
(iii) Paddy growing area
(iv) Atomic power station
(v) Bauxite area
(vi) Pulicat lake
(vii) Papanasam
(viii) Ennore
Answer:

Map for Q. 42
(i) Norway
(ii) Sweden
(iii) Finland
(iv) Bulgaria
(v) Turkey
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Aravalli Range
(ii) River Brahmaputra
(iii) Chotanagpur plateau
(iv) West Bengal
(v) Desert soil region
(vi) Coffee growing area
(vii) Machillipatnam
(viii) National Highway NH-7
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) International airport
(ii) Madurai
(iii) Paddy growing area
(iv) Atomic power station
(v) Bauxite area
(vi) Pulicat lake
(vii) Papanasam
(viii) Ennore
Answer:

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
His parents circled around raising a proud cackle.
(a) babble
(b) screech
(c) walk
(d) tackle
Answer:
(a) babble

Question 2.
A reporter, a thin-faced, wispy man, came up to me.
(a) considerable
(b) significant
(c) substantial
(d) frail
Answer:
(d) frail

Question 3.
Nagen uncle’s tea shop stood next to a grocery shop.
(a) erected
(b) erased
(c) expunged
(d) severed
Answer:
(a) erected

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
It is about a hurricane force of wind on land.
(a) farce
(b) vigour
(c) weakness
(d) potency
Answer:
(c) weakness

Question 5.
Unlike the developed world, India’s disabled are deprived by attitudinal barriers.
(a) developing
(b) industrialized
(c) established
(d) settled
Answer:
(a) developing

Question 6.
He was a frail man.
(a) weak
(b) feeble
(c) thin
(d) strong
Answer:
(d) strong

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘Rhino’.
(a) rhinos
(b) rhinoes
(c) rhinoses
(d) rhinosses
Answer:
(b) rhinoes

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – ‘flame’.
(a) ity
(b) graphy
(c) able
(d) er
Answer:
(c) able

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation BCCI.
(a) Board of Chess Control in India
(b) Board of Cricket Collector in India
(c) Board of Cricket Control Institute
(d) Board of Control for Cricket in India
Answer:
(d) Board of Control for Cricket in India

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
The advocate …………….. the case cleverly.
(a) dealt in
(b) dealt with
(c) dealt out
(d) dealt on
Answer:
(b) dealt with

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘mail to form a compound word.
(a) send
(b) box
(c) drop
(d) it
Answer:
(b) box

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
He seized ………….. the opportunity to construct a solar panel for the school.
(a) seized with
(b) seized over
(c) upon
(d) seized on
Answer:
(c) upon

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form’of the verb given below:
Aditya’s father ……………….. the ancestral home and moved to Kolkata, where he had set up
his own business.
(a) has left
(b) had left
(c) is leaving
(d) were left
Answer:
(b) had left

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
Promise me that you will phone me …………… reach home.
(a) before
(b) as soon as
(c) in case
(d) so that
Answer:
(b) as soon as

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]

Section – I

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
How did the bird try to reach its parents without having to fly?
Answer:
The young bird trotted back and forth from one end of the ledge to the other with his long grey legs stepping daintily, trying to find some means of reaching his parents without having to fly.

Question 16.
What were the various things that tempted Franz to spend his day outdoors?
Answer:
The various things that tempted Franz to spend his day outdoors was simply because it was warm and bright outside. The birds were chirping at the edge of the woods and the Prussian soldiers were drilling in the open field, behind the sawmill. It was all much more tempting than the rule for participles.

Question 17.
What were the problems they faced during their training voyage? How was it a tutorial to them?
Answer:
As the boat was old, it had minor leaks and repairs. They also ran out of water and food soon. The trip was a tutorial for them on how to manage food, water and even electricity during the big voyage.

Question 18.
From the jeweller’s shop where did Aditya and his friend go? Why?
Answer:
From the jeweller’s shop Aditya went straight to Jogesh Kabiraj’s house where Mr. Sasanka Sanyal whom he met at Nagen uncle’s tea shop lived. Aditya wanted to meet Sasanka Sanyal.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“In the dim past, nor holding back in fear
From what the future veils; but with a whole
And happy heart, that pays its toll
To Youth and Age, and travels on with cheer.’’
(a) What does the poet mean by the phrase ‘in the dim past’?
(b) Is the poet afraid of future?
Answer:
(a) The poet means that the past was very dull and glum.
(b) No, the poet isn’t afraid of the future.

Question 20.
‘‘The worst thing is that if anyone stays Among them too long, he will learn their ways;”
(a) What is the worst thing that can happen if anyone stays with them?
(b) What are the ways of the Grumble family?
Answer:
(a) The worst thing that can happen if anyone stays with them is that they too will start complaining and become one with them.
(b) The ‘Grumble Family’ growl at anything and everything so much that they sometimes growl that they have nothing to grumble about.

Question 21.
“Not a crumb to be found On the snow-covered ground
(a) What couldn’t he find on the ground?
(b) Why was the ground covered with snow?
Answer:
(a) He couldn’t find even a single piece of bread on the ground.
(b) The ground was covered with snow because of the onset of winter season.

Question 22.
“ We were taken from the ore-bed and the mine,
We were melted in the furnace and the pit
We were cast and wrought and hammered to design,
We were cut and filed and tooled and gauged to fit”
(a) What metals are obtained from ores and mines?
(b) Mention a few machines which are hammered to design.
Answer:
(a) The metals obtained from ores are iron ores and minerals from mines.
(b) Pulley – Power lift, The Cutting Wedge, The Wheel and Axle are a few machines which are hammered to design.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Cathy is not driving a car.
Answer:
A car is not being driven by Cathy.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
She asked me, “Could you help me with my luggage?”
Answer:
She asked me if I could help her with her luggage.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
i dont know what wed do without her we’d lose out on so many opportunities
Answer:
I don’t know what we’d do without her we’d lose out on so many opportunities.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
He must work hard otherwise, he will be suspended.
Answer:
He must work hard to avoid suspension.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) Sports / building / physical strength / necessary / are / for
(b) They / sportsmanship / cooperation / include / and
Answer:
(a) Sports are necessary for building physical strength.
(b) They include sportsmanship and cooperation.

Section – IV

Answer of the following. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
Guide an old lady from the bus stand to the nearby Government Hospital (GH). Here you find the road map. Write three instructions by way of helping her.
Answer:

• Go straight and take the first left cut.
• Walk a little distance, you will come across a pharmacy on to your right.
• Walk a little further, you’ll find the Government Hospital on the same side.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]

Section -I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Bring out the character of the grandfather and the mother in the lesson, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’.
Answer:
The narrator’s grandfather is an oldtimer of the Union army of the Civil War, which terminated about fifty-two years ago. His bedroom is in the attic. When the police come to the house to search for the burglar, the grandfather thinks that they are militaries who are abandoning because they are losing to the South. The grandfather calls them “cowardly dog” and “lily- livered cattle” and then fetches a policeman’s holster and shoots a man with his own gun.

The police retreat, terrified of the irrational old man but at the breakfast table the next morning, Grandfather seems impeccably conscious of the previous night’s situation, asking why so many police had been “tarryhootin” around the house. On the contraryj the narrator’s mother, Mrs Thurber is a highly excitable woman, scatter brained yet practical at times. Hearing a sound in her house and suspecting a burglar, she thinks of the clever plan of alerting Mrs and Mr.

Bodwell the neighbours by throwing a shoe through his closed window. After he goes to alert the police, she considers throwing the matching shoe, a thrill and fanciful act. She is surprised to hear that Grandfather has shot a policeman, not because of the courageous ferocity of the act, but because the cop was such a nice-looking young man.
“Great powers don’t get angry
Nor do they act in haste”

Question 30.
How do we use technology in our day to day lives?
Answer:
Technology is growing day after day and we all depend on technology. Today we have various developing technologies that impact our lives in different ways. As the world keeps on developing, technology will change. Keeping oneself updated is very important in this modem world. It has totally transformed the life of an individual.

A Refrigerator is programmed to replenish food when the vegetables or milk or eggs are over. Ink cartridges too self-order replacements when it is empty. Technology helps one to manage entertainment and home appliances by voice commands or swapping the finger. When you are bored watching a programme on TV, you can just inform your smart TV your desire to view your social feed. Technology helps you to watch programmes understanding your mood swings.

When caught in traffic, technology permits your kettle to prepare tea for you to sip it hot the moment you reach home. Technology also automates all water and energy management systems. Therefore, accepting it and learning how to use technology in whatever we do is highly important and recommended.
“We are changing the world with Technology.”

Question 31.
Give a brief character sketch of Sasanka Sanyal.
Answer:
Sasanka Sanyal was a wise and intelligent student. Perhaps luck never favoured him. He may have been a book-worm. However, he was overpowered by his friends because of his innocence. Hence, Aditya Narayan Chowdhury exploits him and takes away his Silver medal that he had received for Poetry Recitation. He had a wonderful memory power and could recall every single incident of his past. He remembered Aditya when he saw him in Nagen’s Tea Cabin and confirmed his memory seeing his mole on the right cheek.

He was rude in his behaviour towards Aditya as he did not want to suppress his feelings and vented out his anger on him. He was remorse after the death of his family members. He whiled away his time at Nagen’s shop yet never gave up his self-respect and paid for the cup of coffee and biscuits if in case he had. Financially, he wasn’t comfortable since he couldn’t afford even a spectacle because of his partial deformity in his eye-sight.
“Self-respect permeates every aspect of your life.”

Question 32.
How was the last lesson different from earlier lessons?
Answer:
The last lesson was different from earlier lessons in numerous ways. It revealed the love and respect of the teacher and students for their mother tongue. Even the teacher was unusually kind and did not scold children. M. Hamel taught very patiently, with utmost dedication and sincerity. It seemed as if he wanted to give all that he knew before going away.

He was dressed at his best and his ‘iron ruler’ was not used even to rap it on the desk. The last lesson was attended by villagers with deep remorse to show their love and respect for their mother tongue and also to M. Hamel. The students listened very carefully and everybody was absolutely quiet. Franz regretted for not learning his lesson. The last lesson was indeed emotional. It stirred patriotic feelings and awakened the villagers to the importance of their mother tongue.
“The bird of love flies on two wings-
Faith and Dedicated Service.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
In what way do we dispossess, betray and condemn ourselves by hating our brothers and taking up arms against them?
Answer:
By hating our brothers and taking up arms against them, we ‘dispossess’ ourselves as we rob ourselves of their love. When we hate them, they too react destructively and stop loving us. Mutually, we deprive each other of the noble emotion of love. We deceive ourselves as our hatred leads to wars, and wars cause widespread death and devastation.

This leads to the piling up of waste that pollutes our own mother earth. The dust and smoke from war obstruct the air that we breathe. So, hatred of fellow beings, in fact, leads to betrayal of our own selves. Further, this earns us condemnation as we disrupt the purity of the elements of nature. We threaten our own existence by ruining the systems that sustain us. Hence, hating our brothers and taking up arms against them does more damage to us.
“The universal brotherhood of man is our most precious possession.”

Question 34.
What qualities have made women powerful?
Answer:
The woman is made powerful due to her multifaceted personality. Today’s women are empowered, brave, strong and resolute. They love to explore and venture into new horizons. They are persistent and work tirelessly to prove what they are capable of. Her inner beauty, her supremacy and strength makes her all-powerful. She exhibits her power by showcasing her fearless nature. She is the symbol of strength as she is strong in her faith and beliefs.

She is seen as all-powerful because of her determined nature. She may sigh, cry and moan but is strong in her hope and firm in her trust. She is a lioness, brave and daring and one dare not muddle with her. If anyone is a mischief maker, she will not spare them. The woman should be feared cautiously since she would thaw or saw you for your deeds against her.
“A Woman believes in being strong, even when things seem to go wrong.”

Question 35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“The weather is always too hot or cold;
Summer and winter alike they scold.
Nothing goes right with the folks you meet Down on that gloomy Complaining Street. ”
(i) Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines?
(li) Write the rhyme scheme of the poem.
(iii) Give another rhyming word for cold and street.
(iv) Name the poem and the poet.
Answer:
(i) The rhyming words are ‘cold and scold’ as well as ‘meet and street’.
(ii) The rhyme scheme for the above are, ‘aabb’ pattern. .
(iii) COLD – bold; STREET – treat
(iv) The Grumble family by Lucy Maud Montgomery is the name of the poem and the poet respectively.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
It is the human earth that we defile.
Our hells of fire and dust outrage the innocence
Of air that is everywhere our own,
Remember, no men are foreign, and no countries strange.
Answer:
The poet again retells us in that people are contaminating this earth by their deeds. The fatal weapons emit fire and ashes that spread all over and pollute the environment. War is futile as it spoils the very earth for which we take up arms against each other. We should protect our atmosphere and keep in mind that this universe is the creation of God and we all are one. It is, therefore, imperative not to consider any human being as foreign and any country as strange.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following: [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) The moon is six hundred times nearer than Mars, and yet our correspondence service is in regular operation with Mars.
(ii) ‘Aren’t you getting some result from the moon, at any rate?’
(iii) As soon as he awoke, Francis Bennett switched on his phonotelephote.
(iv) He questioned one of the ten astronomical reporters.
(v) Later, he went on into the reporters’ room.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (v), (iv), (ii), (i)
(iii) As soon as he awoke, Francis Bennett switched on his phonotelephote.
(v) Later, he went on into the reporters’ room. .
(iv) He questioned one of the ten astronomical reporters.
(ii) ‘Aren’t you getting some result from the moon, at any rate?’
(i) The moon is six hundred times nearer than Mars, and yet our correspondence service is in regular operation with Mars.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Answer:
I was just thirty-seven when my Uncle Philip died. A week before that event he sent for me; and here let me say that I had never set eyes on him. He hated my mother, but I do not know why. She told me long before his last illness that I need expect nothing from my father’s brother. He was an inventor, an able and ingenious mechanical engineer, and had much money by his improvement in turbine-wheels.

He was a bachelor; lived alone, cooked his own meals, and collected precious stones, especially rubies and pearls. From the time he made his first money he had this mania. As he grew richer, the desire to possess rare and costly gems became stronger. When he bought a new stone, he carried it in his pocket for a month and now and then took it out and looked at it. Then it was added to the collection in his safe at the trust company.

Questions.
(i) How old was the narrator when his uncle died?
(ii) What did the narrator’s mother tell him about his uncle?
(iii) What was Uncle Philip’s mania?
(iv) When did Uncle Philip call for his nephew to meet him?
(v) What was the profession of Uncle Philip?
Answer:
(i) The narrator was 37 years old when his uncle died.
(ii) The narrator’s mother told that he need expect nothing from his uncle.
(iii) Uncle Philip had the mania of collecting precious stones, especially rubies and pearls.
(iv) Uncle Philip called the narrator one week before he died.
(v) Uncle Philip was a ingenious mechanical engineer.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Singapore and Australia tours – free travel for child or discount.
Answer:

Question 40.
You are Kirubakaran / Suganthi. You are interested in doing a short term course in Computer Programming during your summer vacation. Write a letter to the Director, Computer World, Sector-22, Kanchipuram, enquiring about the duration of such a course and the terms and conditions for admission.
Answer:
Kirubakaran / Suganthi
119, 2nd main road
Kanchipuram
10 May 20XX
The Director
Computer World
Sector-22
Kanchipuram
Sir,
Sub: Short term Course in Computer Programming
Kindly refer to your advertisement in Daily Thanthi dated 8th May 20XX regarding the above mentioned course. I have just passed the A.I. CBSE examination of XII Class with science stream. I am interested in doing a short term course in computer programming during my summer vacation. However, before joining the course, I would like to know the following
details:
(a) Duration of the course and fees
(b) Mode of payment: lump sum/installments
(c) Whether a diploma/certificate is issued
(d) Recognition and its validity
(e) Timings of classes and other relevant information
(f) Individual time on computer

In case you have-some printed material for information kindly send it to me. A self addressed and duly stamped envelope is enclosed for the purpose. An early response will enable me to join your course immediately.

Yours faithfully
Kirubakaran / Suganthi

Address on the envelope
To
The Director
Computer World
Sector-22
Kanchipuram

Question 41.
Write a notice for the school notice-board inviting volunteers for an N.S.S. Camp. You are Sashilatha/Sashikumar the Group leader of S.D. Sr. Sec. School, Vellore.
Answer:

S.D. SR. SEC. School, Vellore 2 July 2020 Notice N.S.S. CAMP An N.S.S. camp of our unit will be held from 15th Aug. to 30th Aug. at village Vallimalai. Projects include Adult Literacy, Tree Plantation, Cleanliness Campaign and Health Awareness. Volunteers should give their names to the undersigned by 7th July 2020 Sashilatha/Sashikumar Group Leader N.S.S.

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.

Answer:
Civic sense is not common. A motorist should not cross the dividing concrete wall. He jeopardizes his own life and those who are likely to drive or walk on the road. If each motorist follows rules as per his convenience, there will be total chaos on the road. Let us respect road rules. Let us cross roads only in places where it is allowed.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Economics has become one of the important branches of social sciences. It is of great practical value in our daily life. In pure sciences, we study the subject to arrive at the truth. But an economist is a social scientist. He studies the subject not only to know the truth for its own sake, but to find out a way for many economic and social problems of the society. “Knowledge for knowledge’s sake” is not the goal of an economist.

Economics must be fruit bearing. Of course, an economist has no ready made answer for immediate problems. But he can help the government in making broad economic policies. According to J.M. Keynes, “the theory of economics does not furnish a body of settled conclusions immediately applicable to policy. It is a method, rather than doctrine, an apparatus of the mind, a technique of thinking, which helps its possessor to draw correct conclusions”.

Most of the problem of the modern state are economic in nature. So economists play an important role in the affairs of the state. During World War II, the German economy was damaged heavily. There was inflation, shortage of goods and mass unemployment. But the German economy recovered quickly by following the advice of an economist Ludwig Erhard. The German recovery is considered an economic miracle. Similarly, J.M. Keynes had great influence on the economic policies of the American government when it was in great economic trouble during the 1930s. In economics, we study about things like prices, rent, wages, interest, profits and taxation. All these affect every person in one way or the other. It has been rightly said, “you cannot be in any real sense a citizen, unless you are also in some degree an economist.”

Notes
Title: Importance of Economics

• one of the important branches of social sciences – economics
• Economist find out a way for many economical and social problems
• helps the government in making broad economic policies.
• During World War II heavy damage to German economy
• recovered by the economist Ludwig Erhard, – considered a miracle.
• American economic trouble – economist J.M. Keynes.
• we study things like prices, rent, wages, interest, profits and taxatidn
• Economic affects every individual

Summary

Title: Importance of Economics
Rough Draft

Economics one of the important branches of social sciences. An economist not only studies, but find out a way for more many economic and social problems of the society. He can help the government in making broad-ecopomic policies. During World War II, the heavy damage of German economy was recovered by the economist Ludwig Erhard, which is considered a miracle. Similarly in 1930, American government economic trouble was set right by the economist J.M. Keynes. In economics, we study about thmgsTiko-pirices, rent, wages,interest, profits and taxation.

Fair Draft:
Title: Importance of Economics

Economics is one of the important branches of social sciences. An economist find out solutions for many economic and social problems of the society. He can help the government in making broad economic policies. During World War II, the heavy damage of German economy was recovered by the economist Ludwig Erhard, which is considered a miracle. In 1930, American government’s economic trouble was set right by the economist J.M. Keynes. A citizen must be an economist to some degree.
No. of words: 79

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) The workers formed an union for their welfare.
(b) He did not listen to his father’s advises.
(c) Mohan is one of the best student in his class.
(d) Though his mother tongue is Tamil but he always speaks in English.
(e) If he had known of your arrival, he would come to receive you.
Answer:
(a) The workers formed a union for their welfare.
(b) He did not listen to his father’s advice.
(c) Mohan is one of the best students in his class.
(id) Though his mother tongue is Tamil, he always speaks in English.
(.e) If he had known of your arrival, he would have come to receive you.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 45.
Not hurrying …………… that pays its toll.
Answer:
Not hurrying to, nor turning from the goal;
Not mourning for the things that disappear
In the dim past, nor holding back in fear
From what the future veils; but with a whole
And happy heart, that pays its toll

Part – IV

Question 46.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]

(a) Men and Women created equal – man differentiates jobs – Mulan takes a stand – takes a stand – frail father – comfort and pride – responsibilities – martial art, Kung Fu inborn traits head of the family – times of crisis – rises to situations – powers of a woman – knowledge, experience – gender equality far and wide.
Answer:
The Story of Mulan portrays the legendary Chinese warrior Hua Mulan. This old Chinese folktale is about the story of the young Chinese maiden who learns that her wizened, old and frail father is to be called up into the army in order to fight the invading Huns by the Chinese Emperor. When the Huns invade China, one man from every family is called to arms. She hears of the order that every family must send one man to the army while washing clothes. Mulan’s father, who is frail and aged decides to fight for his country though it is clear that he will not survive an enemy encounter.

He decides to go to war but is prevented by her daughter with her outrageous decision. Knowing her father’s frail state, she decides to disguise herself and join in his place without second thoughts. In the army, Mulan proves to be a brave soldier who is later put in charge of other soldiers. Her battles goes so well that more soldiers are added. After a few years, Mulan becomes the General of the entire army. Suddenly, bad fever swept through the army. Many soldiers including Mulan become a prey. The arrival of the doctor brings to light the hidden truth.

Many soldiers disprove such a thought, though some soldiers see the winning chances. Just then a soldier announces the surprise attack by the enemies. With no time to debate, the soldiers spring to action at the command of the General who hears this from inside her tent. She gets dressed and though not strong, she stands tall. She instructs the soldiers to attack knowing very well her strategic planning that all her soldiers acknowledge and win the battle. It was such a big victory that the enemy gave up, at last. The war was over, and China was saved! The Emperor forgives Mulan and was glad that Mulan had ended the long war.

He wanted Mulan to stay with him in the palace and be an advisor but as She chose to go to her family, the emperor gave her six horses and six fine swords so that her people will know that he thinks of her.

[OR]

(b) Elucidate, ‘With the crown, there cometh wisdom’ by developing the following hints. Saying – the crown of snow – elders – shapes our society – age – experiences to be intelligent – Theoretical knowledge – superficial – impact – wisdom-incomparable – learns from mistakes – elders optimistic – different challenges – survivors.
Answer:
In the saying “With the crown of snow, there cometh wisdom” – the crown of snow is pertaining to the eiders. It underlines the importance of the elders in shaping our society. The word, “there cometh wisdom” explains that as we get old our everyday experiences makes us to be intelligent. Theoretical knowledge is always superficial.

The impact is made only by experienced persons. The wisdom one gets from experience can never be compared to one who is learned theoretically. A person learns from Mistakes. Elders are generally optimistic and are ready to learn from their mistakes. They also remember it for their lifetime and never repeat them. The elders who have faced different challenges in life and had survived them braving all storm serve as our guiding path because their varied experiences teach us to become wise. They are wise enough to know what is right from wrong.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Environmentalist are worried at the speed with which fossil fuel is burnt and also at the disappearance of forests. The trees cut are not replaced. This changes the temperature pattern of the atmosphere. In a way much heat is released in the atmosphere, the larger part of that being Carbon Dioxide. ‘The green house effect’ occurs. This is the initial stages of global warming.

The ill effects of accumulated Carbon Dioxide can be minimized by trees and ample vegetation as they absorb it by photosynthesis and make Carbohydrates. Therefore, a well stocked ecosystem exercises. Considerable beneficial effects on human environment by moderating the climate, regulating the water supplies, purifying the air and helping in abating noise.

The most important environmental factors are micro – climate soil characteristics, moisture availability and interaction of animals and insects. Micro – climate is governed by solar radiation, rainfall, wind, humidity and air on the soil temperature. Soil temperature is also influenced by the forests.

Questions.
(a) What are the two reasons which make the environmentalists worried?
(b) How does “green house effect” occur?
(c) How can trees counter the ill effects of carbon dioxide?
(d) What are the factors that govern the micro – climate?
Answer:
(a) The two reasons which make the environmentalists worried are the speed with which fossil fuel is burnt and the disappearance of forests as a result.
(b) ‘The green house effect’ occurs because the trees cut are not replaced. This changes the temperature pattern of the atmosphere releasing much heat in the atmosphere.
(c) The ill effects of accumulated Carbon dioxide can be minimized by trees through their absorbing it by photosynthesis and making Carbohydrates.
(d) The factors that govern the micro – climate are solar radiation, rainfall, wind, humidity and air on the soil temperature which is also influenced by the forests.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
Bigot
The bigot insults his own religion When he slays a man of another faith.
Conduct the judges, not in the light of reason;
In the temple, he raises the blood-stained banner And worships the devil in the name of God.
All that is shameful and barbarous through the Ages,
Has found a shelter in their temples—
Those they turn into prisons;
O’ I hear the trumpet call of Destruction!
The time comes with her great broom Sweeping all refuse away.
That which should make man free,
They turn into fetters;
That which should unite, they turn into a sword;
That which should bring love From the fountain of the Eternal,
They turn into a prison
And with its waves, they flood the world.
They try to cross the river In a bark riddled with holes;
And yet, in their anguish, whom do they blame Oh Lord, breaking false religion,
Save the blind!
Break, O break
The altar that is drowned in blood.
Let your thunder strike Into the prison of false religion,
And bring to this unhappy land The light of knowledge

Questions.
(a) Who is a bigot?
(b) What does the word ‘Refuse’ refer to?
(c) What do the followers of false religion do?
(d) What is meant by the phrase ‘the fountain of the Eternal’?
Answer:
(a) A bigot is a human being who is narrow-minded in his religious views. In general he is an extremist.
(b) The word ‘Refuse’ refers to all the infirmities such a dirt and filth found in false religions.
(c) The followers of false religion turn religion into prison, fetters and swords to destroy one another.
(d) The phrase ‘the fountain of the Eternal’ means God Almighty who is everlasting.

Students can download 10th Social Science History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Solutions History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which one of the following was launched by Haji Shariatullah in 1818 in East Bengal?
(a) Wahhabi Rebellion
(b) Farazi Movement
(c) Tribal uprising
(d) Kol Revolt
Answer:
(b) Farazi Movement

Question 2.
‘Who declared that “Land belongs to God” and collecting rent or tax on it was against divine law?
(a) Titu Mir
(b) Sidhu
(c) Dudu Mian
(d) Shariatullah
Answer:
(c) Dudu Mian

Question 3.
Who were driven out of their homeland during the process of creation of Zamins under Permanent Settlement?
(a) Santhals
(b) Titu Mir
(c) Munda
(d) Kol
Answer:
(a) Santhals

Question 4.
Find out the militant nationalist from the following.
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Justice Govind Ranade
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal
(d) Romesh Chandra
Answer:
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal

Question 5.
When did the Partition of Bengal come into effect?
(a) 19 June 1905
(b) 18 July 1906
(c) 19 August 1907
(d) 16 October 1905
Answer:
(a) 19 June 1905

Question 6.
What was the context in which the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act was passed?
(a) Kol Revolt
(b) Indigo Revolt
(c) Munda Rebellion
(d) Deccan Riots
Answer:
(c) Munda Rebellion

Question 7.
Who set up the first Home Rule League in April 1916?
(a) Annie Basant
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Tilak
Answer:
(d) Tilak

Question 8.
Who drew the attention of the British to the suffering of Indigo cultivation through his play Nil darpanl
(a) Dina Bandhu Mitra
(b) Romesh Chandra Dutt
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) Birsa Munda
Answer:
(a) Dina Bandhu Mitra

II. Fill in the blanks

1. In 1757, Robert Clive was financially supported by ……………….. the moneylenders of Bengal.
2. ……………….. was an anti-imperial and anti-landlord movement which originated in and around 1827.
3. The major tribal revolt which took place in Chotanagpur region was ………………..
4. The ……………….. Act, restricted the entry of non-tribal people into the tribal land.
5. Around 1854 activities of social banditry were led by ………………..
6. The British Commander of Kanpur killed by the rebels during the 1857 Rebellion was ………………..
7. Chota Nagpur Act was passed in the year ………………..
8. W.C. Bannerjee was elected the president of Indian National Congress in the year ………………..

Answers:

1. Jagat Seth
2. The Wahhabi rebellion
3. Kol revolt
4. Chota Nagpur Tenancy
5. Birsingh
6. Major General Hugh Wheeler
7. 1908
8. 1885

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The Company received ₹ 22.5 million from Mir Jafar and invested it to propel the industrial revolution in Britain.
(ii) Kols organized an insurrection in 1831-1832, which was directed against government officers and moneylenders.
(iii) In 1855, two Santhal brothers, Sidhu and Kanu, ledtheSanthal Rebellion.
(iv) In 1879, an Act was passed to regulate the territories occupied by the Santhals.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Dudu Mian laid emphasis on the egalitarian nature of Islam and declared that “Land belongs to God”.
(ii) According to the Doctrine of Lapse, new territories under the corrupt Indian rulers were to be annexed.
(iii) The British officials after the suppression of 1857 Revolt were given power to judge and take the lives of Indians without due process of law.
(iv) One of the causes of the failure of the Revolt of 1857 was many of the Indjan princes and zamindars remained loyal to the British.
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii) and are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (iii) and are correct

Question 3.
(i) One of the most significant contributions of the early Indian Nationalists was the formulation of an economic critique of colonialism.
(ii) The early Congress leaders stated that religious exploitation in India was the primary reason for the growing poverty.
(iii) One of the goals of the moderate Congress leaders was to achieve Swaraj or self-rule.
(iv) The objective of the Partition of Bengal was to curtail the Bengali influence and weaken the nationalist movement.
(a) (i) and (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Under colonial rule, for the first time in Indian history, government claimed a direct proprietary right over forests.
Reason (R): Planters used intimidation and violence to compel farmers to grow indigo.
(a) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) A is wrong and R is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are wrong

Question 5.
Assertion (A): The Revolt of 1857 was brutally suppressed by the British army.
Reason (R): The failure of the rebellion was due to the absence of Central authority.
(a) Both A and R are wrong
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

IV. Match the following

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (i)
D. (v)
E. (ii)

V. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
How are the peasant uprisings in British India classified?
Answer:
There were nearly a hundred peasant uprisings during British rule. They can be classified into the following categories –

• Restorative rebellions
• Religious movements
• Social Banditry
• Mass insurrection

Question 2.
Write about the Kanpur Massacre of 1857.
Answer:

1. The seige of Kanpur was an important episode in the 1857 Rebellion.
2. The rebel forces under Nana Sahib besieged the Company forces and civilians in Kanpur.
3. They were unprepared for the extended besiege.
4. It forced them to surrender to the rebel forces under Nana Sahib, in return for a safe passage to Allahabad.
5. The boats in which they were proceeding were burned and most of them were killed including Major General Hugh Wheeler the British Commander of Kanpur.

Question 3.
Name the territories annexed by the British under the Doctrine of Lapse.
Answer:
Satara, Sambalpur, parts of Punjab, Jhansi and Nagpur.

Question 4.
What do you mean by drain of wealth?
Answer:
India was economically subjugated and transformed into a supplier of raw materials. It became a market to dump English manufactures and for the investment of British Capital. So the colonial economy was a continuous transfer of resources from India to Britain without any favourable returns back to India. This is referred as “the drain of wealth”.

Question 5.
Explain the concept of constructive swadeshi?
Answer:
Under Constructive Swadeshi, the self-defeating modest approach of moderates was rejected and self-help was focused on through swadeshi industries, national schools, arbitration courts and constructive programmes in the village. It was totally non-political in nature.

Question 6.
Highlight the objectives of Home Rule Movement.
Answer:
Objectives of the Home Rule Movement:

1. To attain self Government within the British empire by constitutional means.
2. To obtain the status of dominion a political position.
3. To use non-violence constitutional methods to achieve their goals.

Question 7.
Summarise the essence of Lucknow Pact.
Answer:
In the Lucknow Pact that took place in 1916, the Congress Party and the Muslim League agreed that there should be self-government in India as soon as possible. In return of this gesture from the Muslim League, the congress leadership accepted the concept of separate electorate for Muslims. This created a new sense of enthusiasm among the people.

VI. Answer all the questions under each caption

Question 1.
Deccan riots

(a) When and where did the first recorded incident of rioting against the moneylenders in the Deccan appear?
Answer:
In May 1875 in Supa, a village near Poona the first recorded incident of rioting against the moneylenders in the Deccan appeared.

(b) What was the right given to moneylenders under a new law of the British?
Answer:
Under the new law of the British the moneylenders were given the right to attach the mortgaged land of the defaulters auction it off.

(c) What did it result in?
Answer:
It resulted in the transfer of land from the cultivators to the non-cultivating classes.

(d) Against whom was the violence directed in the Deccan riots.
Answer:
In the Deccan riots violence was directed against the Gujarat money lenders.

Question 2.
The Revolt of 1857
(a) Who assaulted his officer, an incident that led to the outbreak of 1857 Revolt?
Answer:
Mangal Pandey assaulted his officer.

(b) Who was proclaimed the Shahenshah-e-Hindustan in Delhi?
Answer:
The Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah II was proclaimed the Shahenshah-e-Hindustan in Delhi.

(c) Who was the correspondent of London Times to report on the brutality of the 1857 revolt?
Answer:
The correspondent’s name was William Howard Russell.

(d) What did the Queen’s proclamation say on matters relating to religion?
Answer:
The Queen proclaimed to the Indian people that the British government would not interfere in traditional institutions and religious matters.

Question 3.
Indian National Congress

(a) What were the techniques adopted by the Congress to get its grievances redressed ?
Answer:
The congress to get its grievances redressed adopted the techniques by way of appeals petitions and delegations.

(b) What do you know of Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate?
Answer:
Lala Lajpat Rai of Punjab, Bal Gangadara Tilak of Maharashtra and Bipin Chandra Pal of Bengal called as Lai – Bal – Pal.
Lai – Bal – Pal triumvirate were the prominent Congress leaders of militiant nationalists.

(c) Where was the first session of Indian National Congress held?
Answer:
The first session of Indian National Congress was held at Bombay.

(d) How did the British respond to the Swadeshi Movement?
Answer:
The British brutally crushed the Swadeshi Movement. Revolutionaries were hanged. Press was crushed and prominent leaders were arrested and imprisoned for long terms.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Discuss the causes and consequences of the Revolt of 1857?
Answer:
The Great Rebellion of 1857 is a unique example of resistance to the British authorities, in India. There were several reasons that triggered the Revolt:
(i) The annexation policy of British India created dissatisfaction among the native rulers. The British claimed themselves as paramount, exercising supreme authority. New territories were annexed on the grounds that the native rulers were corrupt, and inept.

(ii) The British annexed several territories such as Satara, Sambalpur, parts of Punjab, Jhansi and Nagpur through the Doctrine of Lapse. This also angered many Indian rulers.

(iii) Indian sepoys were upset with discrimination in salary’ and promotion. They were paid much less than their European counterparts. They felt humiliated and racially abused by their seniors.

Consequences:
(i) India was pronounced as one of the many crown colonies to be directly governed by the Parliament. This resulted in the transfer of power from the East India company to the British crown.

(ii) Queen Victoria proclaimed to the Indian people that the British government would not interfere in traditional institutions and religious matters. It was promised that Indians would be absorbed in government services.

(iii) There came significant changes in the Indian army. The number of Indians was reduced.
Indians were restrained from holding important ranks and position.

(iv) It was also decided that instead of recruiting soldiers from Rajputs, Brahmins and North Indian Muslims, more soldiers would be recruited from the Gorkhas, Sikhs and Pathans.

Question 2.
How did the people of Bengal respond to the Partition of Bengal (1905)?
Answer:

1. In 1899 Lord Curzon was appointed as the Viceroy of India.
2. Curzon resorted to repressive measures to undermine the idea of local Government, autonomy of higher educational Institutions and gag the press.
3. The idea of partition was planned to suppress the political activities against the British rule in Bengal by creating a Hindu-Muslim divide.
4. It was openly stated that the main notion of partition was to curtail Bengali mfluence and to weaken the nationalist movement.
5. Bengal was Partitioned into two units Bengali Hindus (West Bengal) and Muslims (East Bengal).
6. Partition of Bengal in 1905 led to widespread protests all across India, starting a new phase of the Indian National movement.
7. The partition instead of dividing, united the people of Bengal.
8. People marched on the streets of Calcutta in thousands singing Bande mataram.
9. The partition led to the Boycott of the British goods and Swadeshi movement.

Question 3.
Attempt a narrative account of how Tilak and Annie Besant by launching Home Rule Movement sustained the Indian freedom struggle after 1916?
Answer:
(i) The Indian National Movement was revived and also radicalised during the Home Rule , League Movement that lasted from 1915 to 1918. It was led by Lokamanya Tilak and Annie Besant.

(ii) The objective of the Home Rule Movement was to attain self-government within the British Empire.

(iii) Tilak set up the first Home Rule League in April 1916. In September 1916, after repeated demands of her followers, Annie Besant decided to start the Home Rule League without the support of the Congress. Both the Leagues worked independently.

(iv) The Home Rule Leagues were utilised to carry extensive propaganda through press, speeches, public meetings, lectures, discussions and touring in favour of self government.

(v) Both the leagues succeeded in enrolling young people in large numbers and extending the movement to the rural areas.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Identify the Acts passed in British India from 1858 to 1919, with a brief note on each.
Answer:
Government of India Act (1858):

1. It was passed to end the rule of the East India Company and transfer the power to the British Crown.
2. The British Governor General Post was designated as viceroy of India, who became the representative of the British Monarch.

Indian Council Act – 1892:

1. The British Parliament introduced various amendments to the composition and functions of legislative council, increased the number of additional members to be represented both in central and provinces.
2. The members were given the right to ask questions on budget.
3. This Act laid the foundation of parliamentary system in India.
4. It is a landmark in the constitutional development.

Indian Council Act of 1909:

1. Popularly known as Minto – Morley Reforms.
2. This Act directly introduced the elective principle to membership in the imperial and local legislative councils.
3. It increased the involvement of Indians limitedly in the British Governance.

Montagu – Chelmsford Reform (1919):

1. The British Parliament passed this Act to expand participation of Indians in the division of executive branch of each provincial Government in to authoritarian and popularly responsible section for the provinces of British India.
2. Embodied reforms recommended in the report of the secretary of state of India.
3. This Act promised gradual progress of India towards self – Government.

Dy Archy (1919):

1. This Act introduced dual Government for the provinces of British India. One is accountable and the other one non accountable.
2. It marked the 1st introduction of democratic principle into the executive branch of British administration.
3. It was the association of Indians with the legislation work.
4. Introduced Port – folio system.

Question 2.
Mark the important centres of 1857 Revolt on an outline map.
Answer:

Question 3.
Prepare an album with pictures of frontline leaders of all the anti-colonial struggles launched against the British.
Answer:
Pictures of Moderates

Tribal Rebellion and other movement

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Nawab of Bengal ……………….. was defeated by the East India company at the Battle of Plassey.
(a) Shuja-ud-daullah
(b) Siraj-ud-daullah
(c) Mirjafar
(d) Mir Kasim
Answer:
(b) Siraj-ud-daullah

Question 2.
Indian Historians describes the revolt of 1857 as ……………….
(a) Sepoy mutiny
(b) First war of Indian Independence
(c) Military revolt
Answer:
(b) First war of Indian Independence

Question 3.
The collective farming of the tribals of Ranchi was known as:
(a) Jhum
(b) Bethbegari
(c) Khunkatti
(d) Ryotwari
Answer:
(c) Khunkatti

Question 4.
The peasants had to pay heavy …………….
(a) land taxes
(b) tariffs
(c) service taxes
Answer:
(a) land taxes

Question 5.
The ……………….. had leased out to moneylenders the job of revenue collection.
(a) Raja of Chota Nagpur
(b) European officers
(c) Nawab of Bengal
(d) Birsaite Raj
Answer:
(a) Raja of Chota Nagpur

Question 6.
The sepoys broke into open revolt at …………..
(a) Meerut
(b) Kanpur
(c) Barrackpore
Answer:
(a) Meerut

Question 7.
On ……………….. a band of sepoys from Meerut marched to the Red Fort in Delhi.
(a) 1^st May 1858
(b) 11^th May 1852
(c) 11^th May 1857
(d) 19^th September 1916
Answer:
(c) 11^th May 1857

Question 8.
After the  1857 revolt the Governor-General of India was designated as …………….
(a) Viceroy of India
(b) Ruler of India
(c) Minister of India
Answer:
(a) Viceroy of India

Question 9.
……………….. led the Revolt at Bareilly.
(a) Bahadur Shah – II
(b) Khan Bahadur
(c) Nana Sahib
(d) Kunwar Singh
Answer:
(b) Khan Bahadur

Question 10.
Rani Lakshmi Bai led the revolt at …………….
(a) Kanpur
(b) Central India
(c) Lucknow
Answer:
(b) Central India

Question 11.
The play “Nil Darpan” by ……………….. did much to draw attention in India and Europe to the plight of the indigo growers.
(a) Dina Bandhu mitra
(b) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(c) Lockmanya Tilak
(d) Ranajit Guha
Answer:
(a) Dina Bandhu mitra

Question 12.
In 1858, the Royal Durbar was held at …………..
(a) Meerut
(b) Allahabad
(c) Delhi
Answer:
(b) Allahabad

Question 13.
The Madras Native Association was formed in the year:
(a) 1806
(b) 1852
(c) 1884
(d) 1852
Answer:
(b) 1852

Question 14.
Which one was not a trading company?
(a) The Portuguese
(b) The French
(c) The Japanese
Answer:
(c) The Japanese

Question 15.
……………….. lent his services to facilitate the formation of Indian National Congress.
(a) A.O.Hume
(b) W.C.Baneijee
(c) Mrs. Annie Besant
(d) V.O.Chidambarampillai
Answer:
(a) A.O.Hume

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The ………………….. helped to unite the Congress party after the Surat split.
2. The ………………….. movement enhanced to participation of masses in Nationalist Politics.
3. The British mainly responded to political activities of nationalists by repression and …………………..
4. The Indian National Movement was revived and ………………….. during the Home Rule movement.
5. ………………….. launched the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company in Tuticorin.
6. One of the common goals of the extremist leaders was to achieve …………………..
7. For ………………….. Swaraj was the attainment of complete autonomy and total freedom from foreign rule.
8. ………………….. decided to started the Home Rule League without the support of the Congress.
9. The Home Rule Movement in India borrowed much of its principles from the …………………..
10. In the ………………….. session of Indian National Congress (1916) decided to admit the militant faction in to the party.
11. Pherozeshah Metha and Gokhale two main voices of opposition against militant faction had died in …………………..
12. Bengal was officially partitioned on ………………….. by Lord Curzon.
13. The official declaration of partition of Bengal was observed as a day of …………………..
14. In a divided Bengal Curzen made the Bengali speaking people to a …………………..
15. In the year 1899 ………………….. was appointed as the viceroy of India.
16. Early Indian Nationalists advocated …………………..
17. The formation of the ………………….. in 1885 was intended to establish an All India Organisation.
18. The early leaders felt that ………………….. was the main obstacle to the India’s Economic Development.
19. One of the key demand of the Indian National Congress was creation of ………………….. at provincial and central level.
20. ………………….. played a significant role in propagating the ideas of Nationalism.
21. Under British rule peasants were forced to pay revenue directly to the …………………..
22. Vicious cycle of debt forced the peasants to abandon ………………….. in 1875.
23. The British planters forced the cultivators to grow ………………….. rather than food crops.
24. ………………….. was appointed by the British Parliament to look into the Indian affairs after 1857 revolt.
25. In November 1858 the power to govern India was transferred from ………………….. to the British Crown.
26. The ………………….. was an important episode in the rebellion of 1857.
27. The Kingdom of Jhansi was annexed under …………………..
28. De throning of many Indian rulers affected the livelihood of ………………….. due to lose of patronage.
29. ………………….. of the people against the British took the form of a people’s revolt.
30. Thousands of weavers were thrown out of employment due to the dumping of …………………..
31. By the beginning of June 1857 except ………………….. and ………………….. British Rule in North India had disappeared because of the mutineers.
32. The precursor to the revolt was the introduction of new ………………….. of the Enfiled Rifles.
33. The ………………….. claimed themselves as paramount power.
34. The ………………….. was the first major revolt of armed forces accompanied by civilian rebellion.
35. In the 1890’s ………………….. offered resistance against the alienation of tribal people from their land.
36. The ………………….. prompted the British to formulate a policy on Tribal land.
37. The Munda people were forcefully recruited as ………………….. to work on plantations.
38. The Munda rebellion movement received an impetus when ………………….. declared himself as the messenger of God.
39. The disillusionment with ………………….. aggravated the miseries of Munda people.
40. One of the prominent tribal rebellion in Ranchi was known as …………………..
41. After the battle of ………………….. the British adopted a policy of territorial expansion.
42. The British ………………….. was rapidly mechanized with the money received by the company from Mir Jafar.
43. India was led to the path of because of Britsh manufactured goods.
44. ………………….. was forced to create a market for the products from Britain.
45. The plunder of India by the ………………….. continued for nearly 190 years.
46. There were nearly a hundred ………………….. during the British rule.
47. The leaders of ………………….. movements were looked upon by their people as heroes of their cause.
48. The ………………….. are usually leaderless and spontaneous uprising.
49. The subletting of land by the zamindars increased the ………………….. on the peasants.
50. Wahhabi Rebellion originated in 1827 in and around ………………….. of Bengal.

Answer:

1. Home Ruler Movement
2. Swadeshi
3. Reconciliation
4. Radicaliszed
5. V.O.Chidambaranar
6. Swaraj or Self Rule
7. Tilak
8. Mrs. Annie Besant
9. Irish Home Rule Movement
10. Lucknow session
11. 1915
12. 16^th October 1905
13. Mourning
14. Linguistic minority
15. Lord Curzon
16. Industrialisation
17. Indian National Congress
18. Colonialism
19. Legislative councils
20. Print media
21. Government
22. agriculture
23. Indigo plant
24. Secretary of State
25. English East India Company
26. Seige of Kanpur
27. Doctrine of Lapse
28. Artisans and handicrafts persons
29. Collective anger
30. British manufacture
31. Punjab and Bengal
32. greased cartridges
33. British
34. Great Rebellion of 1857
35. Tribal chiefs
36. Munda rebellion
37. Indentured labourers
38. Birsa Munda
39. Christian missionaries
40. Ulugalan rebellion
41. Plassey
42. Textile industry
43. De. industrialisation
44. India
45. East India company
46. Peasant uprisings
47. Social banditry
48. Mass insurrection
49. Tax burden
50. Barasat

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) The urban elite of India was busy responding to the western ideas through socio – religious reform movements.
(ii) The traditional elite and peasantry wanted to restore pre – colonial order by revolts.
(iii) The practice of letting out and subletting of land complicated the industrial relations.
(iv) Changes introduced in the land tenures significantly altered the agrarian relations.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The commercialisation of forest led to the disintegration of the traditional tribal system.
(ii) The usury and forcible eviction of tribals from their land led to the resentment of kols.
(iii) The pushed out santhals were forced to rely on the moneylenders for their subsistence.
(iv) Santhals felt secured under the British.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii)-and(iii) are correct
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii)-and(iii) are correct

Question 3.
(i) The British annexed more territories through two major policies.
(ii) Indian sepoys accepted the new dress code and overseas service.
(iii) Before loading into Enfiled Rifle the cartridges had to be bitten off.
(iv) The Indian Sepoys felt humiliated and racially abused by their seniors.
(a) (i) and (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The mutiny was equally supported by an aggrieved rural society of North India.
Reason (R): Sepoys working in British army were infact peasants in uniform.
(a) Both A and R are wrong.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is the not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion (A): India extended its support to the British in world war I. Reason (R): Hoping for the attainment of self – Government after the war.
(a) A is correct R is wrong.
(b) Both A and R are wrong.
(c) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (iii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answer:
A. (ii)
B. (v)
C. (i)
D. (iii)
E. (vi)
F. (vii)

V. Answer the following question briefly

Question 1.
What caused huge loss of revenue in Bengal?
Answer:
Aurangzeb’s farman had granted the company only the right to trade duty free. But the officials of the company, who were carrying on private trade on side also stopped paying duty. This caused a huge loss of revenue for Bengal.

Question 2.
Mention some of the issues of peasants that added to the sense of resentment against the British.
Answer:

1. The concept of private property rights in land.
2. Rigorous collection of land revenue.
3. Encroachment of tribal land by non-tribal people.
4. Interference of Christian Missionaries in the socio – religious life of the local people.

Were some of the issues of resentment against the British.

Question 3.
Why did the Battle of Plassey become famous?
Answer:
It was the first major victory the company won in India.

Question 4.
What were the reasons for Tribal upraising?
Answer:

1. Under colonial rule the Government claimed a direct proprietary right over forests.
2. The commercialisation of forests led to the disintegration of the traditional tribal system.
3. It encouraged the incursion of tribal areas by non-tribal people such as contractors, moneylenders traders, land grabbers.
4. This led to the wide spread loss of adivasi land and their displacement from their traditional habitats. So Tribal resistance arose.

Question 5.
What were the grievances of the company regarding the Nawabs of Bengal?
Answer:
The company declared that the unjust demands of the local officials were ruining the trade of the company. Trade could flourish only if the duties were removed. It was also convinced to expand trade, it had to enlarge its settlements, buy up villages and rebuild its forts.

Question 6.
Name the early leaders who criticized about colonial economy.
Answer:
Dadabhai Naoroji, Justice Ranade and Romesh Chandra Dutt strongly criticised about the colonial economy.

They clearly stated that the prosperity of the British lay in the economic and political subjugation of India.

They concluded that the colonialism was the main obstacle to the India’s economic development.

Question 7.
Which battle did Robert Clive fight in 1757 and against whom?
Answer:
In 1757, he fought the Battle of Plassey against Siraj-ud-daulah.

VI. Answer all the questions under each caption

Question 1.
Political causes for the Revolt of 1857.

(a) Who introduced subsidiary Alliance?
Answer:
Lord Wellesley introduced subsidiary Alliance.

(b) Name the policy introduced by Lord Balhousie.
Answer:
Lord Dalhousie introduced the policy of “Doctrine of Lapse”.

(c) What was the order issued by the British against the Mughal emperor?
Answer:
The British Government had ordered that the Mughal emperor had to give up their ancestral palace and Red fort.

(d) Why did Nana Saheb develop a grudge against the British.
Answer:
The British stopped the pension to Nana Saheb. So he developed a grudge against the British.

Question 2.
Great Rebellion of 1857

(a) What was the biggest challenge witnessed by the British in 1857?
Answer:
The Great Rebellion by the Sepoys and the civilians.

(b) What was witnessed by both sides during the revolt?
Answer:
Unprecedented violence

(c) What were the causes of the revolt?
Answer:

1. Annexation policy of the British in India.
2. Insensitivity of the British to Indian cultural sentiments.

(d) What was the people’s opinion on the new regulations of the British.
Answer:
There was always a suspicion among the people regarding British new regulations intention.

Question 3.
Wahhabi Rebellion in Barasat

(a) Who led the Wahhabi Rebellion? Write a few lines about him.
Answer:
Titu Mir, an Islamic preacher led this rebellion. He was deeply influenced by the Wahhabi teachings. He became an important figure among the predominantly Muslim peasantry oppressed under the zamindari system.

(b) How did this movement acquire an anti-Hindu complexion?
Answer:
The majority of zamindars were Hindus. Thus, the movement acquired an anti-Hindu complexion.

(c) what happened on 6 November 1831?
Answer:
On 6 November 1831, the first major attack was made in the town of Pumea. Titu Mir immediately declared freedom from British Rule.

(d) How did the British respond to this rebellion?
Answer:
The British sent a large number of Troops to Narkelberia. Titu Mir along with his soldiers were killed in the staiggle.

Question 4.
Peasant and Tribal Resistance

(a) What was the nature of the resistance against the British rule emerged in rural India?
Answer:
More aggressive response emerged in rural India.

(b) Who revolted against the British in rural areas?
Answer:
Traditional elite and peasants along with tribals revolted.

(c) What did they seek for?
Answer:
They sought for the restoration of the Pre-colonial order and not the removal of the British.

(d) What was the outlook of the tribals on British?
Answer:
The tribal people started looking at the British as invaders and encroachers.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Enumerate the cause for the failure of the Great Revolt of 1857.
Answer:
Administrative changes:

1. Disunity among the Indians was the first and the foremost cause.
2. A large number of rulers of the Indian states and the big zamindars did not join the movement,
3. The rulers of the Indian states, who did not support the movement, remained neutral.
4. The educated Indians did not support the movement.
5. The telegraph and postal communication proved very helpful to the British for proper military actions and sending their reinforcements at the earliest time.
6. The rebellious soldiers were short of modem weapons and other materials of war.
7. The rebellious soldiers had to fight with traditional weapons which were no match to modem weapons possessed by the British forces.
8. The revolt was not extended beyond North.
9. The Indian leaders like Nana Saheb, Tantia Tope, Rani Lakshmi Bai where no match to the British generals.
10. The revolt broke out prematurely and the preparations for the revolt remained incomplete.
11. The organization and the planning of the rebels was very poor.
12. The Indian leaders were brave and selfless but they lacked unity of command and discipline.
13. The revolutionaries had no common idea.
14. The Muslims wanted to revive Mughal rule and the Hindus wanted to receive the Peshwa Raj.
15. The British diplomacy of Divide and Rule prevented most of the Indian mlers to join together for a common cause.

Question 2.
What was the objective of the partition of Bengal (1905) and what was its result?
Answer:

1. The main objective of partition of Bengal was to divide the Hindu – Muslim unity and to influence and weaken the nationalist movement.
2. Bengal was partitioned into two administrative units.
3. Reduced the Bengali – speaking people to a linguistic minority in a divided Bengal.
4. Curzon assured Muslims that in the new province of East Bengal Muslim would enjoy a unity.

Result:

1. Curzon thought the partition would divide the Bengali people on religious line.
2. Instead the partition united the people of Bengal.
3. The growth of the vernacular newspapers played a vital role in building a sense of proud Bengali identity.
4. The day Bengal was officially partitioned (16th Oct 1905) was declared as a day of mourning.
5. Thousands of people took bath in Ganga and marched on the streets of Calcutta singing Bande Mataram.

Question 3.
Throw light on the Farazi Movement.
OR
Highlight the different phases of the Farazi Movement under Haji Shariatullah and his son Dudu Mia.
Answer:
Farazi Movement under Haji Shariatullah:
The Farazi Movement was launched by Haji Shariatullah in 1818, in the parts of eastern Bengal. The movement advocated the participants to keep themselves away from conflict with the zamindars and subsequently with the British, who favoured the zamindars to suppress the peasant uprising.

Farazi Movement under Dudu Mian:
After the death of Shariatullah in 1839, the movement was led by his son Dudu Mian. He called upon the peasant not to pay tax. The movement became popular on a simple doctrine that land and all wealth should be equally enjoyed by the common mass. Dudu Mian laid emphasis on the egalitarian nature of religion and declared that “Land belongs to God’’ and collecting rent or levying taxes on it was therefore against the divine law. The movement spread far and wide and was joined by a huge number of peasants. There were violent crashes throughout 1840s and 1850s with the zamidars and planters. The movement continued to resist even after the death of Dudu Mian in 1862.

Question 4.
What were the main objectives and key demands of Indian National Congress?
Answer:
The main objectives of Indian National Congress were to develop and consolidate the sentiments of national unity and loyalty to Britain.

Some of the key demands were:

1. Creation of legislative councils at provincial and central level.
2. Reducing military expenditure.
3. Holding civil services exams in India as well as in England.
4. Promotion of Indian industries and an end to unfair tariffs and an end to unfair tariffs and excise duties.
5. Extension of trial by jury.
6. Increasing the number of elected members in the legislative council.
7. Police reforms
8. Reduction of Home charges.
9. Reconsideration of forest laws.
10. Separating Judicial and executive functions.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Who said “imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?
(a) Lenin
(b) Marx
(c) Sun Yat-sen
(d) Mao Tsetung
Answer:
(a) Lenin

Question 2.
Who was the Commander-in-Chief responsible for the new military regulations in Vellore Fort?
(a) Col. Fancourt
(b) Major Armstrong
(c) Sir John Cradock
(d) Colonel Agnew
Answer:
(c) Sir John Cradock

Question 3.
Who was the first director of Whanpoa Military Academy?
(a) Sun Yat-Sen
(b) Chiang Kai-shek
(c) Michael Borodin
(d) Chou En Lai
Answer:
(b) Chiang Kai-shek

Question 4.
Who declared that “Land belongs to God” and collecting rent or tax on it was against divine law?
(a) Titu Mir
(b) Sidhu
(c) Dudu Mian
(d) Shariatullah
Answer:
(c) Dudu Mian

Question 5.
In which session of the Indian National Congress was Non-Cooperation approved?
(a) Bombay
(b) Madras
(c) Lucknow
(d) Nagpur
Answer:
(c) Lucknow

Question 6.
The Southern most point of India is …………………..
(a) Andaman
(b) Kanyakumari
(c) Indira point
(d) Kavaratti
Answer:
(c) Indira point

Question 7.
We wear cotton during …………………..
(a) Summer
(b) Winter
(c) Rainy
(d) Northeast monsoon
Answer:
(a) Summer

Question 8.
Which of the following organization has divided the Indian soils into 8 major groups?
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(b) Indian Meteorological Department
(c) Soil Survey of India
(d) Indian Institute of Soil Science
Answer:
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research

Question 9.
The longitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is …………………..
(a) 76°18’E to 80°20’E
(b) 76°18’Eto 80°20’W
(c) 86° 18’E to 10°20’E
(d) 86° 18’E to 10°20’W
Answer:
(a) 76°18’E to 80°20’E

Question 10.
The district with largest mangrove forest cover in Tamil Nadu is …………………..
(a) Ramanathapuram
(b) Nagapattinam
(c) Cuddalore
(d) Theni
Answer:
(c) Cuddalore

Question 11.
If the fundamental rights of Indian citizen are violated, they possess the right to have an access to …………………..
(a) The Parliament
(b) The Attorney General
(c) The President of India
(d) The Supreme Court of India
Answer:
(d) The Supreme Court of India

Question 12.
Non-military issues are …………………..
(a) Energy security
(b) Water security
(c) Pandemics
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 13.
Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme was started in …………………..
(a) 1980
(b) 1975
(c) 1955
(d) 1985
Answer:
(a) 1980

Question 14.
India is ………………….. large producer in agricultural product.
(a) 1st
(b) 3rd
(c) 4th
(d) 2nd
Answer:
(d) 2nd

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 x 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Discuss Mahadev Govind Ranade’s contribution to social reforms.
Answer:

• Mahadev Govind Ranade was a great social reformer. He advocated for inter-caste dining, inter-caste marriage, widow remarriage and improvement of women and depressed classes.
• He founded the Widow Marriage Association, the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha and Decean Education society.

Question 16.
Who were the three prominent dictators of the post World War I?
The three prominent dictators of the post-World War I were Mussolini (Italy), Hitler (Germany) and Franco (Spain).

Question 17.
Identify the Palayams based on the division of east and west.
Answer:
Among the 72 Palayakkarars, there were two blocks namely the eastern and the western Palayams. ‘

• The eastern Palayams were – Sattur, Nagalapuram, Ettayapuram and Panchalam Kurichi.
• The western Palayams were – Uttrumalai, Thalavankottai, Naduvakurichi, Singampatti and Seithur.

Question 18.
What was the conflict between the Swarajists and no-changers?
Answer:
1. In due course of time the Congress got divided into two groups—pro-changers (swarajists) and no-changers. Some of the Congressmen led by Motilal Nehru and C. R. Das wanted to contest the elections and enter the legislature.

2. They argued that the national interest could be promoted by working in the Legislative Councils under Dyarchy and weakening the colonial government from within. These Congressmen were called the pro-changers.

3. On the other hand, no-changers like Vallabhbhai Patel, C Rajagopalachari and other followers of Gandhi wanted to continue non-cooperation with the government.

Question 19.
Write a short note on ‘Monsoon Wind’.
Answer:

• The word ‘monsoon’ has been derived from the Arabic word ‘Mausim’ which means
  ‘season’.
• These winds appear to blow from southwest for six months and from northeast for another
  six months.
• In India it is used to refer to the winds which reverse their directions in summer and winter.

Question 20.
What is Multipurpose project?
Answer:
A comprehensive river valley project which serves a number of purposes simultaneously is called a “Multipurpose project”.

Question 21.
Define: Disaster Risk Reduction.
Answer:
The concept and practice of disaster risks through systematic efforts to analyse and manage the causal factors of disasters including thorough reduced exposure to hazards, lessened vulnerability of people and property, wise management of land and environment and improved preparedness for adverse events.

Question 22.
What is the importance of the Governor of a state?
Answer:

• The Governor is the Constitutional head of the State Executive. The administration of a State is carried on in the name of the Governor.
• He directly rules a State when there is the imposition of the President’s rule in the State. He is an integral part of the State legislative.

Question 23.
How do you assess the importance of Chabahar agreement?
Answer:

• A trilateral agreement called the Chabahar Agreement was signed between India, Afghanistan and Iran, which has led to the establishment of transit and transport corridor among three countries using Chabahar port.
• This port is seen as golden gateway for India to access landlocked markets of Afghanistan and Central Asia by passing Pakistan.

Question 24.
Write short note on TRIPs and TRIMs.
Answer:
1. TRIPs – Trade Related aspects of Intellectual Property Rights – is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World Trade Organisation (WTO). It sets down minimum standards for the regulation by national Governments of many forms of intellectual property as applied to nationals of other WTO member nations. TRIPs was negotiated at the end of the Uruguay Round of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) between 1989 and 1990 and is administered by the WTO.

2. TRIMS – Trade Related Investment Measures – The Uruguay Round Agreement on TRIMs referes to certain conditions or restrictions imposed by a Government in respect of foreign investment in the country in order to give adequate provisions for the home industries to develop.

Question 25.
Why should a developing economy diversify out of agriculture?
Answer:

• As an economy grows and incomes increase, consumers tend to spend a lesser share of their income on products from the agricultural sector.
• There are limits to the ability of agriculture to absorb labour due to the declining marginal productivity of land.
• Due to this, there is a need for an economy’s production and employment base to diversify away from agriculture.

Question 26.
During cyclone, how does the Meterological department warn the fishermen?
Answer:
1. During disturbed weather over the seas, the ports likely to be affected are warned by concerned ACWCs / CWCs by advising the port authorities through port warnings to hoist appropriate Storm Warning Signals. The Department also issue “Fleet forecast” for Indian Navy.

2. Coastal Bulletins for Indian coastal areas covering up to 75 km from the coast line and sea area bulletins for the sea areas beyond 75 km. The special warnings are issued for fishermen four times a day in normal weather and every three hourly in accordance with the four stage warning in case of disturbed weather.

3. The general public, the coastal residents and fishermen are warned through state government officials and broadcast of warnings through All India Radio and National Television telecast programmes in national and regional hook up.

4.  A sytem of warning dissemination for fishermen through World Space Digital Based radio receiver is being planned.

Question 27.
Mention any three industrial development agencies in Tamil Nadu and their role.
Answer:
SIPCOT: (State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu), 1971 : It was formed in the year 1971 to promote industrial growth in the state by setting up industrial estates.
TANSIDCO: (Tamil Nadu Small Industries Development corporation), 1970 :
TANSIDCO is a state-agency of the state of Tamil Nadu established in the year 1970 to promote small-scale industries in the state. It gives subsidies and provide technical assistance for new firms in the small scale sector.
TIDCO: (TamilNadu Industrial Development Corporation), 1965 :
TIDCO is another government agency to promote industries in the state and to establish industrial estates.

Question 28.
Write some name of the nutrition programmes in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Purachi Thalaivar M.G.R. Nutrition Meal Programme
• National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education
• General ICDS Projects and World Bank Assisted Integrated Child Development Services
• Pradhan Manthri Gramodaya Yojana Scheme (PMGYS)
• Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme
• Mid-Day Meal Programme

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 x 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks:
Answer:
(i) ………………was known as the “Father of modem China”.
(ii) ………………soil is suitable for the cultivation of tea and coffee plants.
(iii) Our tradition and national ethos is to practice………………
(iv) ………………play an important role in the supply of quality goods at responsible rates to common
people.
(v) ………………is the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.
Answers
(i) Dr. Sun-yat-sen
(ii) Laterite
(iii) Disarmament
(iv) Consumer co-operatives
(v) Chennai International Airport

Question 30.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 31.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) Agro based industry and Mineral based industry
(ii) Roadways and Railways
Answer:
(a) (i) Agro based industry and Mineral based industry:
Agro based industry :

1. Agro based industries use agricultural products as their basic raw materials
2. The major agro based industries of our country are cotton textile industry, Jute industry, sugar industry etc.
3. These industries are located near the areas of cultivation.

Mineral based industry :

1. Minerals based industries use both metallic minerals and Non-metallic minerals as their raw materials.
2. The major minerals based industry, of our country is the iron and steel industry.
3. These industries are located either near the coalfields or iron ore mines.

(ii) Roadways and Railways:
Roadways:

1. Roadways are cost efficient and the most popular dominant mode of transport.
2. They link different part of our country.
3. They are used by all sections of the people.
4. Construction of roads is less expensive.
5. The roads are classified into village roads, District Roads, State Highways, National Highways, Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways, Express Ways, Broad roads and International Highways.

Railways:

1. Indian Railways provide the principal mode of transport for freight and passengers.
2. It brings people from the farthest comers of our country.
3. They promote trade, tourism, education and national integrations.
4. Construction of railway is highly expensive.
5. Railway lines are classified into three categories namely, Broad gauge, Meter gauge and Narrow gauge.

(b) Give reason: Karur is called the Textile capital of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Karur is a well known industrial centre. The city is famous for cottage and handloom textiles.
It exports all kinds of textile items all over the world.

Question 33.
Describe the rise and growth of nationalist politics in South Africa.
Answer:

• There were two major political parties in South Africa – the unionist party which was mainly British, and the South Africa Party which had largely Afrikaners (Boers).
• The first Prime Minister, Botha belonged to the South Africa Party. He ruled in cooperation with the British. But a militant section of the South Africa Party formed the National Party under Herzog.
• Herzog wanted a twin policy of supremacy of whites over Blacks and Afrikaners over British.
• In the 1920 elections, the National Party gained forty-four seats. The South Africa Party, now led by
• Smuts, secured forty-one seats.
• The British dominated Unionist Party now merged with the South Africa Party. This gave Smuts a majority over the militant Afrikaner-controlled National Party.

Question 34.
Critically examine the Civil Disobedience Movement as the typical example of Gandhian movement.
Answer:
1. Programmes such as no-base campaigns caught the imagination of the peasants. Gandhi announced a no-tax campaign in Bardoli in February 1922. These movements greatly enhanced Gandhi’s reputation as a national leader, especially the peasants.

2. Gandhi made a nation-wide tour. Wherever he visited there was a bonfire of foreign clothes. Thousands left government jobs, students gave up their studies in large numbers and the lawyers gave up thriving practices.

3. Boycott of British goods and institutions were effective. The boycott of the Prince of Wales’ visit to India was successful. During this boycott trade unions and workers participated actively.

4. However, Gandhi suddenly withdrew the movement because of the Chauri Chaura incident. On 5 February 1922 a procession of the nationalists in Chauri Chaura, a village near Gorakhpur in present-day Uttar Pradesh provoked by the police turned violent.

5. The mob burnt the police station 22 policemen lost their lives. Gandhi immediately withdrew the movement. Gandhi was arrested and was released only in 1924.

Question 35.
What is urbanization? Explain its impacts.
Answer:
The process of society’s transformation from rural to urban is known as urbanization. The level of urbanization of a place is assessed based on the size of population of the towns and cities and the proportion of population engaged in non agricultural sectors. These two are closely linked to the process of industrialization and expansion of the secondary and tertiary sectors of economy.

Impacts of urbanization:

• Urbanization and population concentration go hand – in – hand and are closely related to
  each other. A rapid rate of urbanization in a society is taken as an indicator of its economic development. ‘
• Urbanization is increasing rapidly in the developing countries including India.
• Rural to urban migration leads to population explosion in urban areas. Metropolitan cities like Mumbai, Kolkatta and Delhi have more population than that can accommodate.

The following are the major problem of urbanization in India:

• It creates urban sprawl.
• It makes overcrowding in urban centres.
• It leads to shortage of houses in urban areas.
• It leads to the formation of slums.
• It increases traffic congestion in cities. ‘
• It creates water scarcity in cities. ,
• It creates drainage problems.
• It poses the problem of solid waste management.
• It increases the rate of crime.

Question 36.
Explain the characteristic features of summer and winter seasons of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

Summer Seasons:

• The apparent migration of the sun towards north during March, April and May results in the reception of vertical sun’s rays by South India. Thus there is a steady rise in temperature from the equator.
• Hence, Tamil Nadu located to the south of Tropic of Cancer, experiences high temperature. Generally the temperature varies from 30°C to more than 40°C.
• During this season particularly in the month of May, southern part of the state receives some rainfall from pre-monsoon showers (Mango/Blossom showers) and some parts experience convectional rainfall.

Winter Seasons:

• During January and F ebruary, the vertical ray s of the sun fal 1 between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Equator. Hence, Tamil Nadu and India on the whole receive slanting rays from the sun. So, the weather is slightly cooler during these months.
• The difference between summer and winter temperature is not very high. Winter temperature in Tamil Nadu varies from 15°C to 25°C. However, in the hill stations, the winter temperature drops below 5°C occasionally.
• Some valleys in the Nilgiris record even 0°C. This drop in temperature leads to the formation of thick mist and frost. This season is practically dry.

Question 37.
Explain the Jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
The Supreme Court is the guardian of the constitution. He performs the following functions.

1. Original Jurisdiction :- The cases which are brought directly in the first instance to the Supreme Court come under original jurisdiction. These may be – (a) dispute between the government of India and one or more States, (b) dispute between two or more States and (c) the cases involving fundamental rights come under the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

2. Appellate Jurisdiction :- The Supreme Court is the final appellate Court in the country. It hears appeals against the decisions of High Court in “civil, criminal and constitutional” cases with a certificate from the High Court that it is fit to appeal in the Supreme Court.

3. Advisory Jurisdiction :- The Constitution confers on the President the power to refer to the Supreme Court any question of law or fact which in his opinion is of public importance.

4. The Law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.

5. The Supreme Court also enjoys the power of judicial review.

Question 38.
Trace the reason for the formation of BR1CS and write its objectives.
Answer:
Reason for the formation of BRICS:

• To be an alternative to World Bank and IMF to challenge U.S. supremacy.
• To provide self-owned and self-managed organisations to carry out developmental and economical plans in its member nations.

Objectives of BRICS :

• To achieve regional development
• It acts as a bridge between developed and developing countries
• To contribute extensively to development of humanity
• To establish a more equitable and fair world
• Boost intra BRICS trade in their local currencies to increase trade cooperation and cope with the current international financial crisis.
• To promote the technological information exchange among the member states.
• To enhance inclusive economic growth that will lead to an increase in the creation of jobs, fight against poverty and accelerate the economic transformation of members.

Question 39.
Write about the composition of GDP in India.
Answer:
Indian economy is broadly divided into three sectors which contribute to the GDP –

• Primary Sector – It includes agriculture based allied activities, production of raw materials such as cattle farm, fishing, mining, forestry etc. It is also called agricultural sector.
• Secondary Sectqr – It includes industries that produce a finished, usable product or are involved in construction. This sector generally takes the output of the primary sector and manufactures finished goods. It is also called industrial sector.
• Tertiary Sector – It is known as service sector and includes transport, insurance, banking, trade, education, health care etc.

Question 40.
Elaborate the Public Distribution System.
Answer:

1. The increase in food grain production need not result in increase in access to food for all. Given the unequal distribution of income and the level of poverty that persists in Indian economy, the government took steps to distribute food grains at subsidised rates through the Public Distribution System (PDS).

2. The nature, scope and functioning of PDS varies from state to state. While Tamil Nadu has adopted an ‘Universal’ PDS, the rest of the states in India had a ‘Targeted’ PDS. Under universal PDS all the family ration card holders are entitled to the supplies from PDS.

3. In the targeted PDS, the beneficiaries are identified based on certain criteria and given their entitlements, leaving out the rest. Both the Union and the State governments subsidised the supplies distributed through PDS. The level and quantum of subsidy also varied across states.

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
Write any five important events between 1870-1907
Answer:

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i)Germany
(ii) Hungary
(iii) Romania
(iv) Bulgaria
(v) Italy
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) General Assembly and Security Council
(i) List the permanent member countries of the Security Council.
(ii) What is the Holocaust?
(iii) Who was the Chairperson of the UN Commission on Human Rights?
(iv) What is meant by veto?
Answer:
(a) General Assembly and Security Council:
(i) The United States, Britain, France, Russia and China.
(ii) The word ‘holocaust’ is used to describe the genocide of nearly six million Jews by the Germans during the Second World War.
(iii) The widow of US President Franklin Roosevelt was the chairperson of the UN Commission on Human Rights.
(iv) A veto is the power to unilaterally stop an official action, especially the enactment of legislation.

(b) Organs of the EU
(i) Which is the Legislative body of the EU?
(ii) Where is the seat of the Court of Justice?
(iii) What is the function of the European commission?
(iv) Who is responsible for the foreign exchange operation?
Answer:
(b) Organs of the EU
(i) The European Parliament
(ii) Luxemburg
(iii) It is responsible for initiating legislation and the day to day running of the EU.
It drafts proposals for New European laws and presents to the European parliament and the council.
(iv) The European central bank.

[OR]

(c) Dheeran Chinnamalai
(i) When was Dheeran Chinnamalai born?
(ii) How did he earn the title “Chinnamalai”?
(iii) Name the Diwan of Tipu Sultan.
(iv) Why and where was he hanged to death?
(c) Dheeran Chinnamalai
(i) Dheeran Chinnamalai was bom in 1756 in the Mandradiar royal family of Palayakottai.

(ii) Once when Tipu’s diwan Mohammed Ali was returning to Mysore with the tax money, Theerthagiri blocked his way and took back all the tax money. He let Mohammed Ali go by instructing him to tell his Sultan that ‘Chinnamalai; who is between Sivamalai and Chinnamalai, was the one who took away taxes. Thus, he gained the name ‘Dheeran Chennamalai’.

(iii) Mohammed Ali

(iv) He was hanged at the top of the Sankagiri Fort on 31 July 1805 because he refused to accept the rule of the British.

(d) Indian National Congress:
(i) What were the techniques adopted by the Congress to get its grievances redressed?
(ii) What do you know of Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate?
(iii) Where was the first session of Indian National Congress held?
(iv) How did the British respond to the Swadeshi Movement?
Answer:
(d) Indian National Congress:
(i)The techniques adopted by the Congress to get its grievances redressed included appeals, petition and delegation to Britain.
(ii) Lala Lajpat Rai of Punjab, Bal Gangadhar Tilak of Maharashtra and Bipin Chandra Pal of Bengal were three prominent leaders during the Swadeshi period. They are often referred to as Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate.
(iii) The first session of Indian National Congress was held at Bombay.
(iv) The British brutally crushed the Swadeshi movement by arresting prominent leaders and putting them into the prison.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Uttar Pradesh
(ii) North east monsoon
(iii) Agasthiyamalai bio-sphere reserve
(iv) Kolkata
(v) Tea growing area
(vi) Deccan plateau
(vii) Andaman and Nicobar
(viii) Cochin
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
(i) Palar
(ii) Tropical Evergreen forest area
(iii) Alluvial soil
(iv) Thanjavur
(v) Kanniyakumari
(vi) Cotton growing area
(vii) Limestone area
(viii) Pamban
Answer:

Map for Q. 42
(i) Germany
(ii) Hungary
(iii) Romania
(iv) Bulgaria
(v) Italy
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Uttar Pradesh
(ii) North east monsoon
(iii) Agasthiyamalai bio-sphere reserve
(iv) Kolkata
(v) Tea growing area
(vi) Deccan plateau
(vii) Andaman and Nicobar
(viii) Cochin
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Palar
(ii) Tropical Evergreen forest area
(iii) Alluvial soil
(iv) Thanjavur
(v) Kanniyakumari
(vi) Cotton growing area
(vii) Limestone area
(viii) Pamban
Answer:

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Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Papers 2020 2021

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Papers with Answers 2021 Tamil Nadu

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Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Paper Design 2020-2021 Tamil Nadu

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Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers 2020 2021 Tamil English Medium

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers English Medium

• Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 1
• Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 2
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Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers Tamil Medium

• Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 1
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• Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 4
• Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 5

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper Design 2020-2021 Tamil Nadu

Types of Questions	Marks	No. of Questions to be Answered	Total Marks
Part-I Multiple Choice Questions	1	12	12
Part-II (Totally 9 questions will be given. Answer any Seven. Any one question should be answered compulsorily)	2	7	14
Part-Ill (Totally 9 questions will be given. Answer any Seven. Any one question should be answered compulsorily)	4	7	28
Part-IV	7	3	21
Total Marks			75

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper Weightage of Marks

Purpose	Weightage
1. Knowledge	30%
2. Understanding	40%
3. Application	20%
4. Skill/Creativity	10%

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