Prasanna

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2:30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
……………………….. is a special type of bond issued in the currency other than the home currency.
(a) Government bond
(b) Foreign currency convertible bond
(c) Corporate bond
(d) Investment bond
Answer:
(b) Foreign currency convertible bond

Question 2.
……………………. acts as connective link between the producer and the consumer.
(a) Trade
(b) Industry
(c) Commerce
(d) Business
Answer:
(a) Trade

Question 3.
From the following which is not a recent trend in transportation?
(a) Metro rail
(b) Pipeline transport
(c) Bullock carts
(d) Ropeway transport
Answer:
(c) Bullock carts

Question 4.
Minimum how much amount can be transferred through RTGS?
(a) Any amount
(b) Rs 50,000
(c) Rs 2 lakhs
(d) Rs 5 Lakhs
Answer:
(c) Rs 2 lakhs

Question 5.
Goods are imported for the purpose of exporting to another country is termed as ……………………….
(a) Import trade
(b) Export trade
(c) Entrepot trade
(d) Internal trade
Answer:
(c) Entrepot trade

Question 6.
Agriculture income earned in india is ………………………..
(a) Fully taxable
(b) Fully exempted
(c) Not considered for income
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Fully exempted

Question 7.
An …………………………. is a document prepared by the importer and sent to the exporter to buy the goods.
(a) Invoice
(b) Indent
(c) Enquiry
(d) Charter party
Answer:
(b) Indent

Question 8.
Which of the parties cannot demand performance of promise?
(a) Promisee
(b) Any of the joint promisees
(c) Death of a promisee, his legal representative
(d) Stranger to the contract
Answer:
(d) Stranger to the contract

Question 9.
The income paid to the (mercantile agent), broker is ………………………..
(a) Profit
(b) Brokerage
(c) Commission
(d) Salary
Answer:
(b) Brokerage

Question 10.
Ethics is important for ……………………….
(a) Top management
(b) Middle – level management
(c) Non – managerial employees
(d) All of them
Answer:
(d) All of them

Question 11.
……………………. is the oldest form of transport found in hilly areas, forest areas in remote places.
(a) Bullock carts
(b) Road transport
(c) Motor lorries
(d) Pathways transport
Answer:
(d) Pathways transport

Question 12.
The document which invites the public to buy the shares and debentures is known as …………………………
(a) Memorandum of Association
(b) Articles of Association
(c) Prospectus
(d) Partnership articles
Answer:
(c) Prospectus

Question 13.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Minimum two members – Partnership firm
(b) Minimum paid up capital Rs 100000 – Private company
(c) Voluntary Membership – Co – operatives
(d) 51% of paid up capital – Foreign company
Answer:
(d) 51% of paid up capital – Foreign company

Question 14.
ABC jointly promised to pay Rs. 50000 to D. Before performance of the contract, ‘C’ dies. Here the contract ………………………
(a) Becomes void on C’s death.
(b) Should be performed by A and B along with C’s legal representative.
(c) Should be performed by A and B alone.
(d) Should be renewed between A, B and D.
Answer:
(b) Should be performed by A and B along with C’s legal representative.

Question 15.
Airport Authority of India, is a public enterprise. Identify the form of organisation.
(a) Statutory corporations
(b) Departmental undertakings
(c) Multi – national corporations
(d) State – owned company
Answer:
(b) Departmental undertakings

Question 16.
Debenture holders are entitled to a fixed rate of ………………………
(a) Dividend
(b) Profits
(c) Interest
(d) Ratio
Answer:
(c) Interest

Question 17.
The State Bank of India came into being in ………………………
(a) 1995
(b) 1945
(c) 1955
(d) 1965
Answer:
(c) 1955

Question 18.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List – I	List – II
(i) Assembling industry	1. Sugar
(ii) Processing industry	2. Computer
(iii) Analytical industry	3. Fishery
(iv) Genetic industry	4. Oil industry

Answer:
Codes:

Question 19.
An ……………………… is a document prepared by the importer and sent to the exporter to buy the goods.
(a) Invoice
(b) Indent
(c) Enquiry
(d) Charter party
Answer:
(b) Indent

Question 20.
Point out the wrong statement from the following.
(a) Extractive industries extract products from natural resources.
(b) Genetic industries are engaged in breeding plants and animals for their use in further reproduction
(c) Manufacturing industries are engaged in producing goods through processing of raw material.
(d) Construction industries are involved in the successive stages for manufacturing sugar and paper, etc.
Answer:
(d) Construction industries are involved in the successive stages for manufacturing sugar and paper, etc.

PART – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
It is the oldest form of organisation in public enterprises. It is run by the particular department. What is the name of the organisation? How is it controlled?
Answer:
Departmental form of organisation of managing state enterprises is the oldest form of organisation. Under departmental form of organisation, a public enterprise is run as a separate full – fledged ministry or as a major sub-division of a department of the Government.

Question 22.
Banks which do not provide regular service, and are controlled by stock exchange, What is the name of the bank? Write a short note about the bank?
Answer:
The name of the bank is Merchant bank. A commercial bank or its subsidiary may offer services like project counselling, underwriting etc for starting a company. It is called merchant banking.

Question 23.
What is meant by chartered company?
Answer:
Chartered companies are established by the King or Queen of a country. Powers and privilege of chartered company are specified in the charter. Power to cancel the charter is vested with King/Queen.

Question 24.
Some co – operative societies are formed for providing short term finance to the members. It is useful to the farmers especially. What is the name of the society?
Answer:
Cooperative credit societies are societies formed for providing short-term financial help to their members. Agriculturists, artisans, industrial workers, salaried employees, etc., form these credit societies.

Question 25.
Give any two functions of warehouses?
Answer:

1. Storage
2. Price stabilization
3. Equalization of demand and supply

Question 26.
Define the term‘factoring’?
Answer:
The term ‘factoring’ is derived from a Latin term ‘facere’ which means ‘to make or do’. Factoring is an arrangement wherein the trade debts of a company are sold to a financial institution at a discount.

Question 27.
State the meaning of Mail order business?
Answer:
Mail order business means that the buying and selling is through mail. There is no personal contact between the buyers and sellers in this type of trading.

Question 28.
Explain the term – Credit card?
Answer:
Banks issue credit cards to customers and other eligible persons. With this card, the holder can purchase goods and services on credit at any shop in India.

Question 29.
What is meant by consumer co-operatives?
Answer:
Consumer co – operatives are organised by consumers. The aim of the consumers co-operative is to supply the quality goods at fair prices. They also supply essential commodities through Public Distribution System (PDS).

Question 30.
What is mutual funds?
Answer:
An individual investor who wants to invest in equities and bond with a balance of risk and return generally can invest in mutual funds. Nowadays people invest in stock markets through a mutual fund.

PART – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What are the advantages of company? Explain any three?
Answer:
1. Large Capital:
A company can secure large capital compared to a sole trader or partnership. Large amount of capital is necessary for conducting business on a large scale.

2. Limited Liability:
The liability of a shareholder is limited. The risk of loss is limited to the unpaid amount on the face value of shares held. In the case of a company limited by shares, the liability of a shareholder is restricted to the unpaid amount on the shares held by him.

3. Transferability of Shares:
Transaction of Shares between two individuals is easy. So there is liquidity of investment. Any shareholder can easily convert his shares into money by selling his shares.

Question 32.
What is the necessity for Entrepot trade?
Answer:
Entrepot is necessary because of the following reasons:

1. The country may not have any accessible trade routes connecting the importing country.
2. The goods imported may require further processing or finishing before exporting, and these facilities may be lacking in the exporting or importing country.
3. There may not have any bilateral trade agreement between both the countries.

Question 33.
This is a loan taken by depositing document of title to the property with the banker. What is the name of the loan? Also how the banker grants the loan to the customers?
Answer:
The name of the loan is ‘hypothecation’. In this type of loan, the customer has to deposit the document of title to the property with the banker. But the physical possession of the property is with the borrower. If the loan is not paid, the lender will sell the property and can receive the loan amount.

Question 34.
What are the objectives of GST?
Answer:

1. To create a common market with uniform tax rate in India. (One Nation, One Tax, One Market)
2. To eliminate the cascading effect of taxes, GST allows set – off of prior taxes for the same transactions as input tax credit.
3. To boost Indian exports, the GST already collected on the inputs will be refunded and thus there will be no tax on all exports.
4. To increase the tax base by bringing more number of tax payers and increase tax revenue.
5. To simplify tax return procedures through common forms and avoidance of visiting tax departments.
6. To provide online facilities for payment of taxes and submission of forms.

Question 35.
Cargo vessels which do not follow set routes and timetable?
What is the kind and name of the transport?
Answer:
The name of the transport is Tramps. They are a kind of ocean going ships. They are essentially cargo vessels. They have no set routes. They do not follow any timetable. They sail only when they get sufficient load.

Question 36.
What is Gross Total Income?
Answer:
Income from the five heads, namely – Salaries, House Property, Profits and Gains of Business or Profession, Capital Gains, and Other Sources – is computed separately according to the provisions given in the Act. Income computed under these heads shall be aggregated after adjusting past and present losses and the total so arrived at is known as ‘Gross Total Income’.

Question 37.
The retailers having permanent establishment and deal in large scale are called fixed shop large scale retailers. There are various types of large scale retailers. What is telemarketing? Explain the types?
Answer:
Purchasing and selling of goods through telephones are called Telemarketing. It is divided into two types.

1. Telephonic marketing:
Potential customers are contacted through mobile to provide information about the products. Willing customers visit the office and place orders.

2. Television marketing:
In this method, customers are attracted by providing all information of product or service through TV demonstrations. Customers can contact through phone or website to place order.

Question 38.
Distinguish between hire purchase system and installment system of selling?
Answer:

Question 39.
Explain any three features of Self Help Groups?
Answer:
Self Help Group is a small informal voluntary association created for the purpose of enabling members to reap economic benefit out of mutual help, solidarity, and joint responsibility. Features of Self Help Groups:

1. The motto of every group members should be “saving first – credit latter”.
2. Self Help Group is homogeneous in terms of economic status.
3. The groups need not be registered.

Question 40.
What are the objectives of GST?
Answer:

1. To create a common market with uniform tax rate in India. (One Nation, One Tax, One Market)
2. To eliminate the cascading effect of taxes, GST allows set-off of prior taxes for the same transactions as input tax credit.
3. To boost Indian exports, the GST already collected on the inputs will be refunded and thus there will be no tax on all exports.
4. To increase the tax base by bringing more number of tax payers and increase tax revenue.
5. To simplify tax return procedures through common forms and avoidance of visiting tax departments.
6. To provide online facilities for payment of taxes and submission of forms.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Write short notes on:

1. Owner’s funds
2. Borrowed funds

Answer:
1. Owner’s Funds:
Owner’s funds mean funds which are provided by the owner of the enterprises who may be an individual, or partners or shareholders of a company.

The profits reinvested in the business (ploughing back of profit or retained earnings) come under owner’s funds. These funds are not required to be refunded during the life time of business enterprise. It provides the owner the right to control the management of the enterprise.

2. Borrowed Funds:
The term ‘borrowed funds’ denotes the funds raised through loans or borrowings. For example debentures, loans from banks and financial institutions, public deposits, trade credit, lease financing, commercial papers, factoring, etc., represent borrowed funds.

1. These borrowed sources of funds provide specific period before which the fund is to be returned.
2. Borrower is under legal obligation to pay interest at given rate at regular intervals to the lender.
3. Generally borrowed funds are obtained on the security of certain assets like bonds, land, building, stock, vehicles, machinery, documents of title to the goods, and the like.

[OR]

(b) What are the advantages of sole trading?
Answer:

1. Easy Formation: No legal formalities are required to initiate a sole trading concern. Any person capable of entering into a contract can start it, provided he has the necessary resources for it.
2. Incentive to Work hard: There is a direct relationship between effort and reward. The fact that the entire profit can be taken by himself without sharing with anybody else induces him to work ceaselessly.
3. Small Capital: Small capital is an important as well as specific advantage of sole proprietorship. Sole proprietor can start business with small capital.
4. Credit Standing: Since his private properties are held liable for satisfying business debts, he can get more financial assistance from others.
5. Personal Contact with the Customers: Since sole proprietor knows each and every customer individually he can supply goods according to their taste and preferences. Thus he can cultivate personal relationship with the customers.
6. Flexibility: The sole trader can easily adjust himself to the changing requirements of his business.

Question 42 (a).
Explain the contents of Articles of Association?
Answer:
Contents of Articles of Association (AOA):

1. Amount of shares, capital, value and type of shares.
2. Rights of each class of shareholders regarding voting, dividend, return of capital
3. Rules regarding issue of shares and debentures
4. Procedures as well as regulations in respect of making calls on shares
5. Manner of transfer of shares
6. Declaration of dividends
7. Borrowing powers of the company
8. Rules regarding the appointment, remuneration, removal of directors
9. Procedure for conducting proxy, quorum, meetings, etc.
10. Procedures concerning keeping of books and audits
11. Seal of the company
12. Procedures regarding the winding up of the company.

[OR]

(b) What are the primary functions of commercial banks?
Answer:
The primary functions of a commercial bank are of three types. They are:

1. Accepting Deposits:
The basic deposit accounts offered by commercial banks are listed below:

A. Demand Deposits:
These deposits are repayable on demand on any day. These consist of –

• Savings Deposits: General public deposit their savings into this account. This account can be opened in one individual’s name or more than one name.
• Current Deposits: This account is suitable for business institutions. Individuals too can open this account. A higher minimum balance should be kept in this account.

B. Time Deposits:
These are repayable after a period. These include –

• Fixed Deposits (FD): Certain amount is deposited for a fixed period for a fixed rate of interest.
• Recurring Deposits (RD): Certain sum is deposited into the account every month for one year or five years or the agreed period. Interest rate is more than savings deposits and almost equal to fixed deposits.

2. Granting Loans and Advances:
Commercial banks lend money in order to earn interest.

A. Advances:

• Overdraft: It is a credit facility extended mostly to current account holding business community customers.
• Cash Credit: It is a secured credit facility given mostly to business institutions. Stock in hand, raw materials, other tangible assets, etc. are provided as collateral.
• Discounting of Bills: Business customers approach banks to discount the commercial bills of exchanges and provide money

B. Loans- Short term and medium term loans are provided by commercial banks against eligible collaterals to business concerns. Examples- housing loan, consumer loan, vehicle loan, educational Loan, jewel loan, etc.

3. Creation of Credit- Apart from the currency money issued by the RBI, the credit money in circulation created by commercial banks influence economic activities of a country to a large extent. Credit money of commercial banks is far greater in volume than the currency money.

Question 43 (a).
What are the disadvantages of MNC?
Answer:

1. Danger for Domestic Industries: MNCs, because of their vast economic power, pose a danger to domestic industries; which are still in the process of development. Domestic industries cannot face challenges posed by MNCs.
2. Transfer of Outdated Technology: Where MNCs transfer outdated technology to host nation, it serves no purpose.
3. No Benefit to Poor People: MNCs produce only those things, which are used by the rich. Therefore, poor people of host countries do not get, generally, any benefit, out of MNCs.
4. Danger to Independence: Initially MNCs help the Government of the host country, in a number of ways; and then gradually start interfering in the political affairs of the host country.
5. Deprivation of Job Opportunity of Local People: MNCs may not generate job opportunities to the people of home country.

[OR]

(b) Explain the organisational structure of RBI?
Answer:
The head office of the RBI is situated in Mumbai. This central office has 33 departments in 2017. It has four zonal offices in Mumbai, Delhi, Calcutta and Chennai functioning under local boards with deputy governors as their heads. It also has 19 regional offices and 11 sub-offices (2017).

The RBI is governed by a central board of directors. The 21 member board is appointed by the Government of India. It consists of:

1. One Governor and four deputy governors appointed for a period of four years,
2. Ten Directors from various fields
3. Two Government officials
4. Four Directors – one each from local boards.

Question 44 (a).
Distinguish between internal and international trade?
Answer:

[OR]

(b) State the features of departmental stores?
Answer:

1. Large Size: A department is a large scale retail showroom requiring a large capital investment by forming a joint stock company managed by a board of directors.
2. Wide Choice: It acts as a universal provider of a wide range of products from low priced to very expensive goods (Pin to Car) to satisfy all the expected human needs under one roof.
3. Departmentally organized: Goods offered for sale are classified into various departments.
4. Facilities provided: It provides a number of facilities and services to the customers such as restaurant, rest rooms, recreation, packing, free home delivery, parking, etc.
5. Centralised purchasing: All the purchases are made centrally and directly from the manufacturers and operate separate warehouses whereas sales are decentralised in different departments.

Question 45 (a).
What are the different types of transportation? Explain?
Answer:
Types of transportation:

(A) Land Transport:
Transport of people and goods by land vehicles is known as Land transport. It is also called as‘Surface Transport’.

• Pack Animals: Animals like horse, mule, donkey, camel, elephant etc., are used for carrying small loads in backward areas, hilly tracks, forest regions and deserts.
• Bullock Carts: It constitutes the predominant form of rural road transport in India for goods traffic and to some extent for passengers’ traffic.
• Road Transport: It is one of the most promising and potent means suitable for short and medium distances.
• Motor lorries and Buses: From the dawn of civilization, people have been endeavoring to form roads and use wheeled vehicles to facilitate transport of men and materials.
• Tramways: Tramways were initially horse drawn, later stearmpowered and now they are electrically operated.
• Railway Transport: The invention of steam engine by James Watt, revolutionized the mode of transport all over the world.
• Recent Trends in Transport: Metro Rail, Monorail, Bullet train, Pipeline Transport, Conveyor Transport, Ropeway transport and Hyper loop transport.

(B) Water Transport:

1. Inland Waterways: Inland Waterways comprise of rivers, canals and lakes. It is also known as internal water transport.
2. Ocean or Sea Transport: Ocean transport has been playing a significant role in development of economic, social and cultural relations among countries of the world.

• Coastal shipping
• Overseas shipping:
• Liner
• Tramps

(C) Air Transport:
Air transport is the fastest and the costliest mode of transport. Commercial air transport is now one of the most prominent modes of overseas transport. Domestic and International flights are the air travels.

[OR]

(b) Explain the principles of insurance?
Answer:
1. Utmost Good Faith:
According to this principle, both insurer and insured should enter into contract in good faith. Insured should provide all the information that impacts the subject matter. Insurer should provide all the details regarding insurance contract.

2. Insurable Interest:
The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance. Insurable interest means some pecuniary interest in the subject matter of the insurance contract.

3. Indemnity:
Indemnity means security or compensation against loss or damages. In insurance, the insured would be compensated with the amount equivalent to the actual loss and not the amount exceeding the loss.

This principle ensures that the insured does not make any profit out of the insurance. This principle of indemnity is applicable to property insurance alone.

4. Causa Proxima:
The word ‘Causa proxima’ means ‘nearest cause’. According to this principle, when the loss is the result of two or more cause, the proximate cause, i.e. the direct. The direct, the most dominant and most effective cause of loss should be taken into consideration. The insurance company is not liable for the remote cause.

5. Contribution:
The same subject matter may be insured with more than one insurer then it is known as ‘Double Insurance’. In such a case, the insurance claim to be paid to the insured must be shared on contributed by all insurers in proportion to the sum assured by each one of them.

6. Subrogation:
Subrogation means ‘stepping the shoes on others’. According to this principle, once the claim of the insured has been settled, the ownership right of the subject matter of insurance passes on to the insurer.

7. Mitigation: In case of a mishap, the insured must take off all possible steps to reduce or mitigate the loss or damage to the subject matter of insurance.

Question 46 (a).
Elucidate any five features of Income Tax?
Answer:
Features of Income Tax in India:
1. Levied as Per the Constitution Income tax is levied in India by virtue of entry No. 82 of list I (Union List) of Seventh Schedule to the Article 246 of the Constitution of India.

2. Levied by Central Government Income tax is charged by the Central Government on all incomes other than agricultural income. However, the power to charge income tax on agricultural income has been vested with the State Government as per entry 46 of list II, i.e., State List.

3. Direct Tax Income tax is direct tax. It is because the liability to deposit and ultimate burden are on same person. The person earning income is liable to pay income tax out of his own pocket and cannot pass on the burden of tax to another person.

4. Annual Tax Income tax is an annual tax because it is the income of a particular year which is chargeable to tax.

5. Tax on Person It is a tax on income earned by a person. The term ‘person’ has been defined under the Income tax Act. It includes individual, Hindu Undivided Family, Firm, Company, local authority, Association of person or body of Individual or any other artificial juridical persons. The persons who are covered under Income tax Act are called ‘assessees’.

[OR]

(b) Write down the functions of IMF?
Answer:

1. It acts as short term credit institution at the international level.
2. It provides machinery for ordinary adjustments of exchange rates.
3. It has a reservoir of currencies of the member countries from which a borrower can borrow currencies of other nations.
4. It promotes economic stability and global growth by encouraging countries adopt sound economic and financial policies.
5. It offers technical assistance and training to help member countries strengthen and implement effective policies. Technical assistance is offered in formulating banking, fiscal, monetary and exchange policies.
6. It helps member countries correct their imbalance in balance of payment.

Question 47 (a).
Describe the importance of international finance?
Answer:

1. International finance helps in calculating exchange rates of various currencies of nations and the relative worth of each and every nation in terms thereof.
2. It helps in comparing the inflation rates and getting an idea about investing in international debt securities.
3. It helps in ascertaining the economic status of the various countries and in judging the foreign market.
4. International Financial Reporting System (IFRS) facilitates comparison of financial statements made by various countries.
5. It helps in understanding the basics of international organisations and maintaining the balance among them.

[OR]

(b) What are the advantages of Railway transport?
Answer:

1. Railways are well suited for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances.
2. It provides long distance travel throughout the day and night service.
3. It can provide better production and safety to the goods than motor transport.
4. Though initial investment is large, in the long run the operating expenses will be very low in railways and it will prove a cheaper mode of transport.
5. It has regular schedule of timing and is available throughout the year.
6. It provides unaffected services whether rainy or sunny weather conditions.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Knitted garment production is concentrated in …………………..
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Tiruppur
(c) Erode
(d) Karur
Answer:
(b) Tiruppur

Question 2.
The recommendation of Narashimham Committee Report was admitted in the year ………………….
(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1995
(d) 2000
Answer:
(b) 1991

Question 3.
In literacy rate, TN ranks …………………
(a) Second
(b) Fourth
(c) Sixth
(d) Eighth
Answer:
(d) Eighth

Question 4.
The average revenue curve under monopolistic competition will be ………………….
(a) Perfectly inelastic
(b) Perfectly elastic
(c) Relatively
(d) Unitary elastic
Answer:
(c) Relatively

Question 5.
The main theme of the Twelfth Five Year Plan …………………..
(a) Faster and more inclusive growth
(b) Growth with social Justice
(c) Socialistic pattern of society
(d) Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth
Answer:
(d) Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth

Question 6.
The Oldest large scale industry in India …………………
(a) Cotton
(b) Jute
(c) Steel
(d) Cement
Answer:
(a) Cotton

Question 7.
The main gold mine region in kamataka is ………………..
(a) Kolar
(b) Ramgiri
(c) Anantpur
(d) Cochin
Answer:
(a) Kolar

Question 8.
The command Ctrl + M is applied for …………………..
(a) Saving
(b) Copying
(c) Getting new slide
(d) Deleting a slide
Answer:
(c) Getting new slide

Question 9.
Theory of distribution is popularly known as ………………………
(a) Theory of product pricing
(b) Theory of factor pricing
(c) Theory of wages
(d) Theory of Interest
Answer:
(b) Theory of factor pricing

Question 10.
Identify the formuld of estimating average cost ………………………
(a) AVC/Q
(b) TC/Q
(c) TVC/Q
(d) AFC/Q
Answer:
(b) TC/Q

Question 11.
The cost per unit of output is denoted by …………………. cost.
(a) Average
(b) Marginal
(c) Variable
(d) Total
Answer:
(a) Average

Question 12.
Revenue received from the sale of additional unit is turned as …………………. revenue.
(a) Profit
(b) Average
(c) Marginal
(d) Total
Answer:
(c) Marginal

Question 13.
The Headquarters of Southern Railway is at ……………………
(a) Tiruchirappalli
(b) Chennai
(c) Madurai
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(b) Chennai

Question 14.
Financial sector reforms mainly related to …………………….
(a) Insurance sector
(b) Banking sector
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Transport sector
Answer:
(c) Both (a) & (b)

Question 15.
Identify the cause for rural indebtedness in India.
(a) Poverty
(b) High population
(c) High productivity
(d) Full employment
Answer:
(a) Poverty

Question 16.
Differentiation of constant term gives …………………..
(a) One
(b) Zero
(c) Infinity
(d) Non – infinity
Answer:
(b) Zero

Question 17.
The recommended nutritional intake per person in rural areas …………………
(a) 2100 calories
(b) 2200 calories
(c) 2300 calories
(d) 2400 calories
Answer:
(d) 2400 calories

Question 18.
Perfect competition assumes …………………….
(a) Luxury goods
(b) Producer goods
(c) Differentiated goods
(d) Homogeneous goods
Answer:
(d) Homogeneous goods

Question 19.
The concept of ‘Quasi – Rent’ is associated with ……………………
(a) Ricardo
(b) J.M. Keynes
(c) Walker
(d) Marshall
Answer:
(d) Marshall

Question 20.
In Economics, distribution of income is among the ………………….
(a) Factors of production
(b) Individual
(c) Firms
(d) Traders
Answer:
(a) Factors of production

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
State the meaning of liquidity preference?
Answer:

1. Liquidity preference means the preference of the people to hold wealth in the form of liquid cash rather than in other non – liquid assets like bonds, securities, bills of exchange, land, building, gold etc.
2. “Liquidity Preference is the preference to have an equal amount of cash rather than of claims against other”.

Question 22.
State the various components of central sector schemes under post – harvest measures?
Answer:

1. Mega food parks, Integrated cold chain, Value Addition Preservation, Infrastructure and modernization of slaughter house.
2. Scheme for quality Assurance, Codex Standards, Research and Development and other promotional activities.

Question 23.
What are the nuclear power plants in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
The Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant and the Koodankulam Nuclear Power plant are the major nuclear energy plants for the energy grid.

Question 24.
Give the meaning of deductive method?
Answer:

1. Deductive method is also named as analytical or abstract method.
2. It consists in deriving conclusions from general truths,
3. It takes few general principles and applies them to draw conclusions.
4. The classical and neo – classical school of economists notably, Ricardo, JS Mill, Malthus Marshall, Pigou applied the deductive method in their economic investigations.

Question 25.
Give a short note on Sen’s ‘Choice of Technique’?
Answer:
Sen’s ‘Choice of Technique’ was a research work where he argued that in a labour surplus economy, generation of employment cannot be increased at the initial stage by the adaptation of capital – intensive technique.

Question 26.
Give the meaning of non – renewable energy?
Answer:
Non – renewable energy sources:

1. The sources of energy which cannot be renewed or re – used are called non – renewable energy sources.
2. Basically these are the energy sources which will get exhausted over a period of time.
3. Some of the examples of this kind of resources are coal, oil, gas etc.

Question 27.
Distinguish goods from services?
Answer:

Goods	Services
1. Free and Economic goods. Ex: air and sunshine	1. Intangible Ex: brand image 1 pen drive
2. Consumer goods. Ex: TV, Furniture, Automobile, etc.	2. Heterogeneous Ex: Music, Consulting physicians etc.
3. Capital goods also called producer goods. Ex: Machines	3. Inseparable from their makers Ex: Labour and Labourer
4. Perishable goods Ex: Fish, Fruits, Flower.	4. Perishable. Ex: A ticket for a cricket match once the match is over.
5. Durable Goods Ex: table, chair.	5.           –

Question 28.
Write the meaning of Economic Growth?
Answer:

1. Economic growth is usually measured by National Income, indicated by cross domestic product. [GDP].
2. The GDP is the total monetary value of the goods and services produced by that country over a specific period of time, usually one year.
3. On the basis of the level of economic development, nations are classified as developed and developing economies.

Question 29.
Name the basic approaches to consumer behaviour?
Answer:
There are two basic approaches, namely:

1. Utility approach

1. The utility approach involves the use of measurable (cardinal) utility to study consumer behaviour.
2. Marshall is the chief exponent of the utility approach to the theory of demand. It is known cardinal utility analysis or marginal utility analysis or marshallian utility analysis.

2. Indifference curve approach
The indifference curve approach was the idea of comparable utility [ordinal utility] J.R. Hicks and R.G.D. Allen introduced the indifference curve approach.

Question 30.
What do you mean by fixed cost?
Answer:

1. Fixed Cost does not change with the change in the quality of output.
2. Fixed Cost is also called as “Supplementary Cost “or Overhead Cost”.
3. All payments for the fixed factors of production are known as Total Fixed Cost.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Write the formula of consumers surplus?
Answer:
Consumer’s Surplus = Total utility [Actual price × Units of commodity]
= TU – [P × Q]
20 – [2 × 5] = 20 – 10 =10
Total utility = 20
Actual price = 2
Quantity = 5

Question 32.
Mention any two type of price discrimination?
Answer:

1. Personal: Different prices are charged for different individuals. For example, the railways give tickets at concessional rate to the ‘Senior citizens’ for the same journey.
2. Geographical: Different prices are charged at different places for the same product. For example, a book sold within India at a price is sold in a foreign countiy at lower price.

Question 33.
Explain different types of economic activities?
Answer:
The seven types of economic activities are:

1. Micro Economics: Micro Economics is the study of the economic actions of individuals say households, firms or industries.
Micro economics covers:-

1. Value theory [product pricing and factor pricing]
2. Theory of economic welfare.

2. Macro – Economics:

1. Macro economics is the obverse of micro economics.
2. The general theory of employment, Interest and money published by Keynes is the basis of modem macro economics.

3. International Economics:

1. In the modem world, no country can grow in isolation.
2. Every country is having links with the other countries through foreign capital, investment [foreign direct investment] and international trade.

4. Public Economics:

1. Public finance is concerned with the income or revenue raising and expenditure incurring activities.
2. The scope of public finance covers public expenditure, public revenue, public debt and financial administration.

5. Developmental Economics:
The development economics, deals with features of developed nations, obstacles for development, .economic and non- economic factors influencing development, various growth models and strategies.

6. Health Economics:

1. Health economics is an area of applied economics.
2. It covers health indicators , preventive and curative measures medical research and education, rural health mission, drug price control, neo – natal care, maternity and child health, budgetary allocation for health.

7. Environmental Economics:

1. Depletion of natural resources stock and pollution result from rapid economic development.
2. Environmental economics is a study of inter disciplinary tools for the problems of ecology, economy and environment.

Question 34.
Write a note on Risk – bearing theory of profit?
Answer:

1. Risk bearing theory of profit was propounded by the American economist F.B. Hawley in 1907.
2. According to him, profit is the reward of risk taking in business.
3. Risk taking is an essential function of the entrepreneur and is the basis of profits.
4. It is a well know fact that every business involves some risks.
5. Since the entrepreneur undertakes the risks, he receives profit.
6. If the entrepreneur does not receive the reward, he will not be prepared to undertake the risks.
7. Every entrepreneur products goods in anticipation of demand.
8. It is the profit that induces the entrepreneurs to undertake such risks.

Question 35.
Distinguish between Fixed cost and Variable cost?
Answer:

Fixed Cost	Variable Cost
1. Fixed cost does not change with the change in the quantity of output.	1. Variable cost vary with the level of output.
2. Fixed cost is also called as “Supplementary Cost” or “over head cost”.	2. Variable cost is also called as “ Prime cost”, “Special cost” or Direct cost.
3. For example: Watchman’s wages, Permanent worker’s Salary, machines Insurance Premium deposite for power Licence fee, etc.	3. For example: Temporary workers, cost of raw materials, fuel cost, electricity charges, etc.

Question 36.
What are the characteristics of land?
Answer:

1. Land is a primary factor of production
2. Land is a passive factor of production
3. Land is the free gift of nature
4. Land has no cost of production
5. Land is fixed in supply. It is inelastic in supply
6. Land is permanent
7. Land is immovable
8. Land is heterogeneous as it differs in fertility
9. Land has alternative uses
10. Land is subject to Law of Diminishing Returns.

Question 37.
What are the factors governing elasticity of supply?
Answer:
1. Nature of the commodity:
Durable goods can be stored for a long time. So, the producers can wait until they get a high price. Once they get higher price, larger supply is possible. The elasticity of supply of durable goods is high. But perishables are to be sold immediately. So perishables have low elasticity of supply.

2. Cost of production:
When production is subject to either constant or increasing returns, additional production and therefore increased supply is possible. So elasticity of supply is greater. Under diminishing returns, increase in output leads to high cost. So elasticity of supply is less.

3. Technical condition:
In large scale production with huge capital investment, supply cannot be adjusted easily. So elasticity of supply is lesser. Where capital equipment is less and technology simple, the supply is more elastic.

4. Time factor:
During very short period when supply cannot be adjusted, elasticity of demand is very low. In short period, variable factors can be added and so supply can be adjusted to some extent. So elasticity of supply is more. In long period, even the fixed factors can be added and hence supply is highly elastic.

Question 38.
Mention the similarities between perfect competition and monopolistic competition?
Answer:

Perfect Competition	Monopolistic Competition
1. Large number of buyers and sellers	1. Large number of buyers and many sellers
2. Homogeneous product & uniform price	2. Close substitute commodity
3. Free Entry and exit	3. Free Entry and exit
4. Very small size of market for each firm	4. Small size of market
5. It has no monopoly power	5. Limited power
6. Uniform power (or) low price	6. Moderate power
7. Price policy price taker	7. Low control elasticity of demand
8. Price elasticity – infinite	8. Some control over price depending on consumers brand loyalty

Question 39.
Write any three objectives of Industrial Policy 1991?
Answer:

1. Economic development of a country particularly depends on the process of Industrialisation.
2. At the time of Independence, India inherited a weak and shallow Industrial base.
3. Therefore dining the post-Independence period, the Government of India took special emphasis on the development of a solid Industrial base.

Question 40.
Enumerate the remedial measures to rural poverty?
Answer:
Remedial measures:

1. Since rural unemployment and rural poverty are interrelated, creation of employment opportunities would support elimination of poverty.
2. Poverty alleviation schemes and programmes have been implemented, modified, consolidated, expanded and improved over time.
3. However, unemployment, begging, rag-picking and slumming continues.
4. Unless employment is given to all the people poverty cannot be eliminated.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Explain the objectives of nationalization of commercial banks?
Answer:
The Government of India nationalized the commercial banks to achieve the following objectives:

1. The main objective of nationalization was to attain Social Welfare. Sectors such as agriculture, small and village industries were in need of funds for their expansion and further economic development.
2. Nationalisation of banks helped to curb private monopolies in order to ensure a smooth supply of credit to socially desirable sections.
3. In India, nearly 70% of population lived in rural areas. Therefore it was needed to encourage the banking habit among the rural population.
4. Nationalisation of banks was required to reduce the regional imbalances where the banking facilities were not available.
5. Before Independence, the numbers of banks were certainly inadequate. After nationalization, new bank branches were opened in both rural and urban areas.
6. Banks created credit facilities mainly to the agriculture sector and its allied activities after nationalization.
   After New Economic Policy 1991, the Indian banking Industry has been facing the new horizons of competitions, efficiency and productivity.

[OR]

(b) Describe the Salient features of EXIM policy [2015 – 2020]?
Answer:
The new EXIM policy has been formulated focusing on increasing in exports Scenario, boosting production and supporting the concepts like Make in India and Digital India.
Salient Features:

1. Reduce export obligations by 25% and give boost to domestic manufacturing supporting the “Make in India” concept.
2. As a step to Digital India concept, online procedure to upload digitally signed document by CA /CS / Cost Accountant are developed and further mobile app for filing tax, stamp duty has been developed.
3. Repeated submission of physical copies of documents available on Exporter Importer Profile is not required.
4. Export obligation period for export items related to defence, military store, aerospace and nuclear energy to be 24 months.
5. EXIM policy 2015 – 2020 is expected to double the share of India in World Trade from present level of 3% by the year 2020. This appears to be too ambitions.

Question 42 (a).
Describe the wastes of monopolistic competition?
Answer:
Wastes of Monopolistic Competition:
Generally there are five kinds of wastages under monopolistic competition.

(I) Idle capacity:

1. Un – utilized capacity is the difference between the optimum output that can be produced and the actual output produced by the firm.
2. In the long run, a monopolistic firm produces delibourately output which is less than the optimum output that is the output corresponding to the minimum average cost.
3. This leads to excess capacity which is actually as waste in monopolistic competition.

(II) Unemployment:

1. Under monopolistic competition, the firms produce less than optimum output.
2. As a result, the productive capacity is not used to the fullest extent.
3. This will lead to unemployment of human resources also.

(III) Advertisement:

1. There is a lot of waste in competitive advertisements under monopolistic competition.
2. The wasteful and competitive advertisements lead to high cost to consumers.

(IV) Too many varieties of Goods:

• The goods differ in size, shape, style and colour. A reasonable number of varieties would be sufficient.

(v) Inefficient firms:
Under monopolistic competition, inefficient firms charge prices higher than their marginal cost. Efficient firms cannot drive out the inefficient firms.

[OR]

(b) Illustrate the Ricardian Theory of Rent?
Answer:

1. The Classical theory of Rent is called “ Ricardian Theory of Rent.”
2. “ Rent is that portion of the produce of the earth which is paid to the landlord for the use of the original and indestructible powers of the soil” – David Ricardo

Ricardian theory of rent assumes the following:

1. Land differs in fertility.
2. The law of diminishing returns operates in agriculture.
3. Rent depends upon fertility and location of land.
4. Theory assumes perfect competition.
5. It is based on the assumption of long period.
6. There is existence of marginal land or no – rent land.
7. Land has certain “Original and indestructible powers”.
8. Land is used for cultivation only.
9. Most fertile lands are cultivated first.

Question 43 (a).
State the differences between money cost and real cost?
Answer:

Money cost	Real cost
1. Production cost expressed in money terms is called as money cost.	1. Real cost refers to the payment made to compensate the efforts and sacrifices of all factor owners for their services in production.
2. Money cost includes the expenditures such as cost of raw materials, payment of wages and salaries, payment of rent, Interest on capital, expenses on fuel and power, expenses on transportation and other types of production related costs.	2. Real cost includes the efforts and sacrifices of landlords in the use of. land, capitalists to save and invest, and workers, in foregoing leisure.
3. Money costs are considered as out of pocket expenses.	3. Real cost are considered pains and sacrifices of labour as real cost of production.

[OR]

(b) Explain the Keynesian Theory of Interest?
Answer:

1. Keynes Liquidity Preference Theory of Interest or The monetary Theory of Interest
2. Keynes propounded the Liquidity Preference Theory of Interest in his famous book,
   “ The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money “ in 1936.
3. According to Keynes, interest is purely a monetary phenomenon because the rate of interest is calculated in terms of money.
4. “Interest is the reward for parting with liquidity for a specified period of time”.

Meaning of Liquidity Preference:

1. Liquidity preference means the preference of the people to hold wealth in the form of liquid cash rather than in other non – liquid assets like bonds, securities, bills of exchange, land, building, gold etc.
2. “ Liquidity Preference is the preference to have an amount of cash rather than of claims against others” – Meyer.

Motives of Demand for Money:
According to Keynes, there are three motives for liquidity preferences. They are:

1. The Transaction Motive:
The transaction motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash for the current transactions [ or-day-to-day expenses ] M( = f(y)

2. The Precautionary Motive:

1. The precautionary motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash to meet unexpected or unforeseen expenditures such as sickness, accidents, fire and theft.
2. The amount saved for this motive also depends on the level of Income Mp = f(y)..

3. The Speculative Motive:

1. The speculative motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash in order to take
   advantage of market movements regarding the future changes in the price of bonds and securities in the capital market. M – f(i)
2. There is inverse relation between liquidity preference and rate of interest.

Question 44 (a).
Illustrate price and output determination under monopoly?
Answer:
Price & output Determination under Monopoly:
A monopoly is a one firm – industry. Therefore, a firm under monopoly faces a downward sloping demand curve (or AR curve). Since, under monopoly AR falls, as more units of output are sold, the MR lies below the AR curve (MR < AR). The monopolist will continue to sell his product as long as his MR > MC. He attains equilibrium at the level of output when its MC is equal to MR. Beyond this point, the producer will experience loss and hence will stop selling. Let us take the following hypothetical example of Total Revenue Function and Total cost function.

TR = 100Q – 4Q² and
TC = Q³ – 18Q² + 91Q + 12
Therefore AR = 100 – 4Q;
MR = 100 – XQ;
AC = Q² – 18Q + 91 + 12/Q;
MC = 3Q² – 36Q + 91;
When Q = 3,
AR = 100 – 4(3) = 88,
AC = 3² – 8(3) + 91 + 12/3
9 – 54 + 91 + 4 = 50;
MR = 100 – 8(3) = 76;
MC = 3(3)² – 36(3) + 91
= 27 – 108 + 91 = 10

From this diagram, till he sells 3 units output, MR is greater than MC, and when he exceeds this output level, MR is less than MC. The monopoly firm will be in equilibrium at the level of output where MR is equal to MC. The price is 88.

To checkup how much profit the monopolist is making at the equilibrium output, the average revenue curves and the average cost curves are used. At equilibrium level of output is 3; the average revenue is 88 and the average cost is 50. Therefore (88 – 50 = 38) is the profit per unit.
Total profit = (Average Revenue – Average Cost) Total output = (88 – 50) × 3
= 38 × 3 = 114

[OR]

(b) Write a note on Risk – bearing theory of profit?
Answer:

1. Risk bearing theory of profit was propounded by the American economist F.B. Hawley in 1907.
2. According to him, profit is the reward of risk taking in business.
3. Risk taking is an essential function of the entrepreneur and is the basis of profits.
4. It is a well know fact that every business involves some risks.
5. Since the entrepreneur undertakes the risks, he receives profit.
6. If the entrepreneur does not receive the reward, he will not be prepared to undertake the risks.
7. Every entrepreneur products goods in anticipation of demand.
8. It is the profit that induces the entrepreneurs to undertake such risks.

Question 45 (a).
What are the ideas of information and communication technology used in economics? Introduction: Information and communication Technology [ICT] is the infrastructure that enables computing faster and accurate?
Answer:
The following table gives an idea of range of technologies that fall under the category of ICT

Information	Technologies
1. Creation	Personal computers, Digital Camera, Scanner, Smart Phone
2. Processing	Calculator, PC – Personal Computer, Smart Phone
3. Storage	CD, DVD, Pen Drive, Microchip, Cloud
4. Display	PC – Personal computer, TV – Television, Projector, Smart Phone
5. Transmission	Internet, Teleconference, Video, Conferencing, Mobile, Technology, Radio
6. Exchange	E – mail, Cell Phone

The evaluation of ICT has five phases:
They are evaluation in:

1. Computer
2. PC – Personal Computer
3. Micro Processor
4. Internet
5. Wireless links

In Economics, the uses of mathematical and statistical tools need the support of ICT for:

1. Data Compiling
2. Editing
3. Manipulating
4. Presenting the results

[OR]

(b) Raja purchased 6 pens and 5 pencils spending ?49, Rani purchased 3 pens and 4 pencils spending ₹42. What is the price of a pen and pencil?
Answer:
\(\begin{bmatrix} 6 & 5 \\ 3 & 4 \end{bmatrix}\) \([\begin{matrix} x_{ 1 } \\ x_{ 2 } \end{matrix}]\) = \([\begin{matrix} 49 \\ 32 \end{matrix}]\) = \(\begin{vmatrix} 6 & 5 \\ 3 & 4 \end{vmatrix}\)
= 24 – 15 = 9
x = \(\begin{vmatrix} 49 & 5 \\ 32 & 4 \end{vmatrix}\) = 196 – 160 = 36
y = \(\begin{vmatrix} 6 & 49 \\ 3 & 32 \end{vmatrix}\) = 192 – 47 = 45
x = \(\frac{36}{9}\) = 4
y = \(\frac{45}{9}\) = 5
The cost of pen = ₹4
The cost of pencil = ₹5

Question 46 (a).
Explain the weakness of Indian Economy?
Answer:
(I) Large Population:

1. India stands second in terms of size of population next to China and our country is likely to overtake China in near future.
2. Population growth rate of India is very high and this is always a hurdle to growth rate.

(II) Inequality and poverty:

1. There exists a huge economic disparity in the Indian economy.
2. The proportion of income and assets owned by top 10% of Indians goes on increasing.
3. Increase in the poverty level in the society and still Below Poverty Line [BPL] a higher percentage of individuals are living.
4. As a result of unequal distribution of the rich becomes richer and poor becomes poorer.

(III) Increasing Prices of Essential Goods:

1. Even though there has been a constant growth in the GDP and growth opportunities in the Indian economy, there have been steady increase in the prices of essential goods.
2. The continuous rise in prices erodes the purchasing power and adversely affects the poor people, whose income is not protected.

(IV) Weak Infrastructure:

1. A gradual improvement in the infrastructural development.
2. There is still a scarcity of the basic infrastructure like power, transport, storage etc.

(V) Inadequate Employment generation:

1. Growing youth population, there is a huge need of the employment opportunities.
2. The growth in production is not accompanied by creation of job.
3. The Indian economy is characterized by “ Jobless growth”.

(VI) Outdated technology:
The level of technology in agriculture and small scale Industries is still outdated and obsolete.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the problems of Rural Economy?
Answer:
Rural areas are facing number of problems relating to,

1. People
2. Agriculture
3. Infrastructure
4. Economy
5. Society and Culture
6. Leadership and
7. Administration.

(I) People Related Problems:
The problems related to individuals and their standard of living consist of illiteracy, lack of technical know how, low level of confidence, dependence on sentiments and beliefs etc.

(II) Agriculture Related Problems:
The problems related to agriculture include as follows,

1. Lack of expected awareness, knowledge, skill and attitude.
2. Unavailability of inputs.
3. Poor marketing facility.

(III) Infrastructural Related problems:
Poor infrastructure facilities like, water, electricity, transport, educational institutions, communication, health, employment, storage facility, banking and insurance are found in rural areas.

(IV) Economics related problems:
The economic problems related to rural areas are,

1. Inability to adopt high cost technology.
2. High cost of inputs.
3. Under privileged rural industries.
4. Low income
5. Indebtedness
6. Existence of inequality in land holdings and assets.

(V) Leadership Related Problems:
The Specific leadership related problems found in rural areas are,

1. Leadership among the hands of inactive and incompetent people
2. Self – interest of leaders
3. Biased political will
4. Less bargaining power
5. Negation skills and dominance of political leaders

(VI) Administrative Problems:
The rural administrative problems are,

1. Political interference
2. Lack of motivation and interest
3. Low wages in villages
4. Improper utilization of budget
5. Absence of monitoring
6. Implementation of rural development programme.

Question 47 (a).
Explain the role of SSIs in Economic development?
Answer:
1. Provide Employment

1. SSIs use labour intensive techniques. Hence, they provide employment opportunities to a large number of people. Thus, they reduce the unemployment problem to a great extent.
2. SSIs provide employment to artisans, technically qualified persons and professionals, people engaged in traditional arts, people in villages and unorganized sectors.
3. The employment-capital ratio is high for the SSIs.

2. Bring Balanced Regional Development

1. SSIs promote decentralized development of industries as most of the SSIs are set up in backward and rural areas.
2. They remove regional disparities by industrializing rural and backward areas and bring balanced regional development.
3. They help to reduce the problems of congestion, slums, sanitation and pollution in cities. They are mostly found in outside city limits.
4. They help in improving the standard of living of people residing in suburban and rural areas in India.
5. The entrepreneurial talent is tapped in different regions and the income is also distributed instead of being concentrated in the hands of a few individuals or business families.

[OR]

(b) Explain the objectives and characteristics of SEZs?
Answer:

1. The Special Economic Zones [SEZs] Policy was announced in April 2000.
2. The Special Economic Zones Act of 2005, the government has so far notified about 400 such zones in the country.

Major objectives of SEZs:

1. To enhance foreign investment, especially to attract foreign direct investment [FDI] and thereby increasing GDP.
2. To increase shares in Global Export. (International Business)
3. To generate additional economic activity.
4. To create employment opportunities.
5. To develop infrastructure facilities.
6. To exchange technology in the global market.

Main Characteristics of SEZ:

1. Geographically demarked area with physical security.
2. Administrated by single body authority.
3. Streamlined procedures.
4. Having separate custom area.
5. Governed by more liberal economic laws.
6. Greater freedom to the firms located in SEZs.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
In the first five year plan, the top priority was given to ………………. sector?
(a) Service
(b) Industrial
(c) Agriculture
(d) Bank
Answer:
(b) Industrial

Question 2.
Which union Territory has the highest sex ratio?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Pondicherry
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) Andaman & Nicobar
Answer:
(b) Pondicherry

Question 3.
Data processing is done by ………………..
(a) PC alone
(b) Calculator alone
(c) Both PC and Calculator
(d) Pen drive
Answer:
(c) Both PC and Calculator

Question 4.
In India’s total cement production, Tamil Nadu ranks …………………
(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) First
(d) Second
Answer:
(a) Third

Question 5.
Wage is an example for …………. cost of the production.
(a) Fixed
(b) Variable
(c) Marginal
(d) Opportunity
Answer:
(b) Variable

Question 6.
Innovation Theory of profit was given by ………………
(a) Hawley
(b) Schumpeter
(c) Keynes
(d) Knight
Answer:
(b) Schumpeter

Question 7.
Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Gateway of Tamil Nadu – Thoothukudi
(b) Home textile city – Erode
(c) Steel city – Salem
(d) Pump city – Coimbatore
Answer:
(b) Home textile city – Erode

Question 8.
VKRV Rao was a student of ……………
(a) JM Keynes
(b) Colin Clark
(c) Adam Smith
(d) Alfred Marshal
Answer:
(a) JM Keynes

Question 9.
Group equilibrium is analysed in ………………….
(a) Monopolistic competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Duopoly
(d) Pure competition
Answer:
(a) Monopolistic competition

Question 10.
………………… have exchange value and their ownership rights can be established and exchanged.
(a) Goods
(b) Services
(c) Markets
(d) Revenue
Answer:
(a) Goods

Question 11.
Which feature is identified with mral areas?
(a) Low population density
(b) High population density
(c) Low natural resources
(d) Low human resources
Answer:
(a) Low population density

Question 12.
The number of births per thousand population is called as ………….
(a) Crude death rate
(b) Mortality rate
(c) Morbidity rate
(d) Crude Birth Rate
Answer:
(d) Crude Birth Rate

Question 13.
“Wages as a sum of money are paid under contract by an employer to a worker for services rendered.” Who said this?
(a) Benham
(b) Marshall
(c) Walker
(d) J. S. Mill
Answer:
(a) Benham

Question 14.
Identify the formula of estimating average variable cost ……………
(a) TC/Q
(b) TVC/Q
(c) TFC/Q
(d) TAC/Q
Answer:
(b) TVC/Q

Question 15.
Data processing is done by …………..
(a) Pc alone
(b) Calculator alone
(c) Both pc and calculator
(d) Penen drive
Answer:
(c) Both pc and calculator

Question 16.
HDI was constructed based on …………..
(a) Life expectancy index
(b) Education index
(c) GDP per capita
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 17.
The command Ctrl + M is applied for ……………….
(a) Saving
(b) Copying
(c) Getting new slide
(d) Deleting a slide
Answer:
(c) Getting new slide

Question 18.
Ryotwari System was initially introduced in ……………….
(a) Kerala
(b) Bengal
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Maharashtra
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 19.
Loanable funds theory of interest is called ………….
(a) Classical theory
(b) Modern theory
(c) Traditional theory
(d) Neo – classical theory
Answer:
(d) Neo – classical theory

Question 20.
The main theme of the Twelth Five year plan ………………..
(a) Faster and more inclusive, growth
(b) Growth with social justice
(c) Socialistic pattern of society
(d) Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth
Answer:
(d) Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Define disinvestment?
Answer:
Disinvestment means selling of government securities of Public Sector Undertakings [PSUs] to other PSUs or Private Sectors or banks. This process has not been fully implemented.

Question 22.
Give the definition for “Real cost”?
Answer:
Real Cost refers to the payment made to compensate the efforts and sacrifices of all factor owners for their services in production. Real Cost includes the efforts and sacrifices of landlords in the use of land, capitalists to save and invest, and workers in foregoing leisure. Real cost are considered pains and sacrifices of labour as real cost of production.

Question 23.
Define Labour?
Answer:

1. Labour is the active factor of production.
2. In common parlance, labour means manual labour or unskilled work. But in Economics the term ‘labour’ has a wider meaning.
3. It refers to any work undertaken for securing an income or reward. Such work may be manual or intellectual. For example, the work done by an agricultural worker or a cook dr rickshaw puller or a mason is manual.
4. The work of a doctor or teacher or an engineer is intellectual.
5. In short, labour in economics refers to any type of work performed by a labourer for earning an income.

Question 24.
What is the difference between HDI and PQLI?
Answer:

HDI	PQLI
1. The Inclusion of Income.	1. The exclusion of Income.
2. Both Physical and financial attributes of development	2. Only the physical aspects of life.

Question 25.
Classify the factors of production?
Answer:

1. Land
2. Labour
3. Capital and
4. Organisation

1. Land:
In Economics, land means all gifts of Nature owned and controlled by human beings which yield an income.

2. Labour:
Labour means manual labour or unskilled work.

3. Capital:
“Capital consists of all kinds of wealth other than free gifts of nature, which yield income”. Bohm – Bawerk defines it as ‘a produced means of production’.

4. Organisation:
The man behind organizing the business is called as ‘Organizer’ or ‘Entrepreneur’.

Question 26.
State the meaning of Indifference curves?
Answer:

1. The Consumer is rational and his aim is to derive maximum satisfaction.
2. Utility cannot be cardinally measured, but can be ranked or compared or ordered by ordinal number. Such as I, II, III and so on.
3. Indifference curve approach is based on the concept “Diminishing Marginal Rate of Substitution”.
4. The consumer is consistent this assumption is called as the assumption of transitivity.

Question 27.
Define micro economics?
Answer:

1. Micro economics is the study of the economic actions of individual units say households, firms or industries.
2. It studies how business firms operate under different market conditions.
3. The combined actions of buyers and sellers determine prices.
4. Micro economics covers:
   • Value theory [product pricing and factor pricing]
   • Theory of economic welfare.

Question 28.
Define Rent?
Answer:
Rent is the price or reward given for the use of land or house or a machine to the owner. But, in Economics, “Rent” or “Economic Rent” refers to that part of payment made by a tenant to his land lords for the use of land only.

Question 29.
What are the characteristics of land?
Answer:

1. Land is a primary factor of production
2. Land is a passive factor of production
3. Land is the free gift of nature
4. Land has no cost of production
5. Land is fixed in supply. It is inelastic in supply
6. Land is permanent
7. Land is immovable
8. Land is heterogeneous as it differs in fertility
9. Land has alternative uses
10. Land is subject to Law of Diminishing Returns.

Question 30.
Give the meaning of deductive method?
Answer:

1. Deductive method is also named as analytical or abstract method.
2. It consists in deriving conclusions from general truths.
3. It takes few general principles and applies them to draw conclusions.
4. The classical and neo – classical school of economists notably, Ricardo, JS Mill, Malthus Marshall, Pigou applied the deductive method in their economic investigations

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What are the features of a market?
Answer:
A market has the following characteristic features:

1. Buyers and sellers of a commodity or a service.
2. A commodity to be bought and sold.
3. Price agreeable to buyer and seller.
4. Direct or indirect exchange.

Question 32.
Write a note on Mineral resources in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Mineral Resources in Tamil Nadu:

1. Tamil Nadu has a few mining projects based on Titanium, Lignite, Magnesite, Graphite, Limestone, Granite and Bauxite.
2. The first one is the Neyveli Lignite Corporation that has led development of large industrial complex around Neyveli in Cuddalore district with Thermal Power Plants, Fertilizer and Carbonisation plants.
3. Magnesite mining is at Salem from which mining of Bauxite ores are carried out at Yercaud, and this region is also rich in iron ore at Kanjamalai.
4. Molybdenum is found in Dharmapuri, and is the only source in the country.

Question 33.
State the features of duopoly?
Answer:

1. Each seller is fully aware of his rival’s motive and actions.
2. Both sellers may collude, (they agree on all matters regarding the sale of the commodity).
3. They may enter into cut – throat competition.
4. There is no perfect differentiation.
5. They fix the price for their product with a view to maximising their profit.

Question 34.
Mention the relationship between marginal utility and total utility?
Answer:

Marginal utility	Total utility
1. Marginal utility goes on diminishing.	1. Total utility goes on Increasing.
2. Marginal utility becomes zero’	2. Total utility maximum.
3. Marginal utility becomes negative.	3. Total utility diminishes.

Question 35.
Explain different types of economic activities?
Answer:
The seven types of economic activities are:

1. Micro Economics:
Micro Economics is the study of the economic actions of individuals . say households, firms or industries.

Micro economics covers:

1. Value theory [product pricing and factor pricing]
2. Theory of economic welfare.

2. Macro – Economics:

1. Macro economics is the obverse of micro economics.
2. The general theory of employment, Interest and money published by Keynes is the basis of modem macro economics.

3. International Economics:

1. In the modem world, no country can grow in isolation.
2. Every country is having links with the other countries through foreign capital, investment [foreign direct investment] and international trade.

4. Public Economics:

1. Public finance is concerned with the income or revenue raising and expenditure incurring activities.
2. The scope of public finance covers public expenditure, public revenue, public debt and financial administration.

5. Developmental Economics:
The development economics deals with features of developed nations, obstacles for development, economic and non- economic factors influencing development, various growth models and strategies.

6. Health Economics:

1. Health economics is an area of applied economics.
2. It covers health indicators , preventive and curative measures, medical research and education, rural health mission, drug price control, neo -natal care, maternity and child health, budgetary allocation for health.

7. Environmental Economics:

1. Depletion of natural resources stock and pollution result from rapid economic development.
2. Environmental economics is a study of inter disciplinary tools for the problems of ecology, economy and environment.

Question 36.
Discuss the long run cost curves with suitable diagram?
Answer:
1. In the long run all factors of production become variable. The existing size of the firm can be increased in the case of long run. There are neither fixed inputs nor fixed costs in the long run.

2. LAC is given in diagram.

3. Long run average cost (LAC) is equal to long run total costs divided by the level of output.
LAC = LTC/Q

4. where, LAC denotes Long – Run Average Cost, LTC denotes Long – run Total Cost and Q denotes the quantity of output. The LAC curve is derived from short – run average cost curves. It is the locus of points denoting the least cost curve of producing the corresponding output. The LAC curve is called as ‘Plant Curve’ or ‘Boat shape Curve’ or ‘Planning Curve’ or ‘Envelop Curve’.

Question 37.
Elucidate different features of services?
Answer:
Along with goods, services, are produced and consumed. They are generally, possess the following:

(I) Intangible:

1. Intangible things are not physical obj ects but exist in connection to other things for example, brand image, good will etc.
2. The intangible things are converted and stored into tangible items such as recording a music piece into a pen – drive.

(II) Heterogeneous:

1. Services vary across regions or cultural backgrounds.
2. A single type service yields multiple experiences, e.g., music, consulting physicians etc.

(III) Inseparable from their makers:
Services are inextricably connected to their makes. For example, labour and labourers are inseparable.

(IV) Perishable:

1. Services cannot be stored as inventories like assets.
2. For example it is useless to possess a ticket for a cricket match once the match is over.
3. It cannot be stored and it has no value in exchange.

Question 38.
State the Dynamic Theory of Profit?
Answer:
Dynamic Theory of Profit:

1. This theory was propounded by the American economist J.B.Clark in 1900.
2. Profit is the reward for dynamic changes in society.
3. Static society is one where everything is stationary or stagnant and there is no change at all.
4. There is no role for an entrepreneur in a static society.
5. According to Clark, the following five main changes are taking place in a dynamic society.
   • Population is increasing
   •  Volume of Capital is increasing
   • Methods of production are improving
   • Forms of industrial organization are changing
   • The wants of consumer are multiplying

Question 39.
State the reasons for nationalization of commercial banks?
Answer:

1. After Independence, the Government of India adopted planned economic development.
2. Five year plans came into existence since 1951.
3. The main objective of the economic planning aimed at social welfare.
4. Before Independence commercial banks were in the private sector.
5. These commercial banks failed in helping the Government to achieve social objectives of planning.
6. Therefore, the government decided to nationalize 14 major commercial banks on 19 July 1969.
7. In 1980, again the government took over another 6 commercial banks.

Question 40.
Write a short note on Welfare Economics given by Amartya Sen?
Answer:

1. Amartya Kumar Sen. has included the concept of entitlement items like nutrition, food, medical and health care, employment, security of food supply in times of famine etc.
2. He considered famine as arising out of the failure of establishing a system of entitlements.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Briefly explain the subsistence theory of wages?
Answer:
The subsistence theory of wages:

1. Subsistence theory of wages is one of the oldest theories of wages.
2. According to this theory, wage must be equal to the subsistence level of the labourer and his family.
3. Subsistence means the minimum amount of food, clothing and shelter which workers and their family require for existence.
4. If workers are paid higher wages than the subsistence level, the workers would be better off and they will have large families.
5. Hence, the population would increase.
6. When the population increases, the supply of labourer would increase and therefore, wages will come down.
7. If wages are lower than the subsistence level, there would be a reduction in population and thereby the supply of labour falls and wages increase to the subsistence level.

[OR]

(b) Elucidate the loanable funds theory of Interest?
Answer:

1. The Loanable Funds Theory, also known as the “Neo – Classical Theory,” was developed by Swedish economists like Wicksell, Bertil, Ohlin,.Viner, Gunnar Myrdal and others.
2. According to this theory, interest is the price paid for the use of loanable funds.
3. The rate of interest is determined by the equilibrium between demand for and supply of loanable funds in the credit market.

Demand for loanable funds:
The demand for loanable funds depends upon the following:

(I) Demand for Investment [I]

1. The most important factor responsible for the loanable funds is the demand for investment.
2. Bulk of the demand for loanable funds comes from business firms which borrow money for purchasing capital goods.

(II) Demand for consumption [C]
The demand for loanable funds comes from individuals who borrow money for consumption purposes also.

(III) Demand for Hoarding [H]

1. The next demand for loanable funds comes from hoarders. Demand for hoarding money arises because of people’s preference for liquidity, idle cash balances and so on.
2. The demand for C, I and H varies inversely with interest rate.

Supply of Loanable funds:
The supply of loanable funds depends upon the following four sources:

1. Savings [S]:
Loanable funds comes from savings. According to this theory, savings may be of two types, namely,

1. Savings planned by individuals are called “ex – ante – savings
2. The unplanned savings are called ‘ex-post savings”.

2. Bank Credit [BC]:
The bank credit is another source of loanable funds. Commercial banks create credit and supply loanable funds to the investors.

3. Dishoarding [DH]:
Dishoarding means bringing out the hoarded money into use and thus it constitutes a source of supply of loanable funds.

4. Disinvestment [DI]:
Disinvestment is the opposite of investment. Disinvestment means not providing sufficient funds for depreciation of equipment.

It gives rise to the supply of loanable funds. All the four sources of supply of loanable funds vary directly with the interest rate.

Question 42 (a).
Illustrate the uncertainty Bearing Theory of profit?
Answer:
Uncertainty theory was propounded by the American economist Frank H.Knight. Profit is the reward for “ uncertainty bearing”. He distinguishes between “ Insurable” and “non – insurable” risks.

Insurable Risks:

1. Certain risks are measurable or calculable.
2. Some of the examples of these risks are the risk of fire, theft and natural disasters.
3. Such risks are compensated by the Insurance companies.

Non – Insurable Risks:

1. There are some risks which are immeasurable or incalculable.
2. The examples of these risks are competition, market condition, technology change and public policy.
3. No Insurance Company can undertake these risks.
4. The term “risks” covers the first type of events (measurable – insurable)
5. The term “uncertainty” covers the second type of events (unforeseeable or incalculable or not measurable or non-insurable).
6. According to Knight, profit does not arise.
7. On account of risk-taking, because the entrepreneur can guard himself against a risk by taking a suitable insurance policy.
8. Uncertain events cannot be guarded against in that way.
9. An entrepreneur takes himself the burden of facing an uncertain event, he secures remuneration.
10. That remuneration is “profit”.

[OR]

(b) Write a brief note on the Gandhian economic ideas?
Answer:
Gandhian Economics is based on ethical foundations. Gandhi wrote “ Economics that hurts the moral well-being of an individual or a nation is immoral, and therefore , Sinful”. Gandhi repeated the same belief “ that economy is untrue which ignores or disregards moral values”.

Salient features of Gandhian Economic Thought:

(I) Village Republics:

1. India lives in villages.
2. He was interested in developing the villages as self – sufficient units.
3. He opposed extensive use of machinery, urbanization and industrialization.

(II) On Machinery:

1. Gandhi described machinery as ‘Great sin’. He said that “Books could be written to demonstrate its evils”.
2. It is necessary to realize that machinery is bad.
3. Instead of welcoming machinery as a boon, we should look upon it as an evil.
4. It would ultimately cease.

(III) Industrialism:

1. Gandhi considered industrialism as a curse on mankind.
2. He thought industrialism depended entirely on a country’s capacity to exploit.

(IV) Decentralization:
Gandhi advocated a decentralized economy i.e., production at a large number of places on a small scale or production in the people’s homes.

(V) Village Sarvodaya:

1. According to Gandhi, “Real India was to be found in villages and not in towns or cities”.
2. He suggested, self – dependent villages.

(VI) Bread Labour:

1. Gandhi realized the dignity of human labour.
2. He believed that God created man to eat his bread by the sweat of his brow.
3. Bread labour or body labour was the expression that Gandhi used to mean manual labour.

(VII) The Doctrine of Trusteeship:
Trusteeship provides a means of transforming the present capitalist order of society into an egalitarian one.

(VIII) On the Food Problem:

1. Gandhi was against any sort of food controls.
2. Once India was begging for food grain, but now India tops the world with very large production of food grains, fruits, vegetables, milk, egg, meat etc.

(IX) On Population:

1. Gandhi opposed the method of population control through contraceptives.
2. He was, however, in favour of birth control through Brahmacharya or self – control.
3. He considered self – control as a sovereign remedy to the problem of over population,

(X) On Prohibition:

1. Gandhi regarded the use of liquor as a disease rather than a vice.
2. He felt that it was better for India to be poor than to have thousands of drunkards.
3. Many states depend on revenue from liquor sales.

Question 43 (a).
Explain the various sources of energy in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu tops in power generation among the Southern States as seen in the table.

Tamil Nadu 26,865 MW in 1^st Rank in the energy level. Tamil Nadu is in the forefront of all other Indian States in installed capacity. Muppandal wind farm is a renewable energy source, supplying the villagers with electricity for work.

Wind farms were built in Nagercoil and Tuticorin apart from already existing ones around Coimbatore, Pollachi, Dharapuram and Udumalaipettai. These areas generate about half of India’s 2,000 megawatts of wind energy or two percent of the total power output of India.

Nuclear Energy:
The Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant and the Koodankulam Nuclear Power Plant are the major nuclear energy plants for the energy grid.

Thermal power:

1. In Tamil Nadu the share of thermal power in total energy sources is very high and the thermal power plants are at Athippattu (North Chennai) Ennore, Mettur, Neyveli and Thoothukudi.
2. The generation of power under various sources is given below.

Hydel Energy:

1. There are about 20 hydro – electric units in Tamil Nadu.
2. The prominent units are Hundah, Mettur, Periyar, Maravakaiidy, Parson Valley etc.

Solar Energy:

1. Tamil Nadu tops in solar power generation in India as’seen in following table
2. Southern Tamil Nadu is considered as one of the most suitable regions in the country for developing solar power projects.

Wind Energy:

1. Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India.
2. The State has very high quality of offshore wind energy potential off the Tirunelveli coast and southern Thoothukudi and Rameswaram coast.

[OR]

(b) A firm has the revenue function. R = 600 q – 0.03 q² and the cost function is C = 150 q + 60,000, where q is the number of units produced, find AR, AC, MR and MC?
Answer:
(I) Average Revenue = \(\frac{R}{q}\)
\(\frac { 600q-0.03{ q }^{ 2 } }{ q } \) = \(\frac{600q}{q}\) – \(\frac { 0.03{ q }^{ 2 } }{ q } \)
AR = 600 – 0.03q

(II) Average cost = \(\frac{C}{q}\)
= \(\frac{150q+60000}{q}\)
= \(\frac{150q}{q}\) + \(\frac{60000}{q}\)
AC = 150 + \(\frac{60000}{q}\)

(III) Marginal Revenue = \(\frac{dR}{dq}\)
R = 600q – 0.03q²
\(\frac{dR}{dq}\) = 600 – (0.03)(2q)
MR = 600 – 0.06q

(IV) Marginal Cost = \(\frac{dC}{dq}\)
C = 150q + 60000
MC = 150

Question 44 (a).
Explain the causes for Rural Backwardness?
Answer:

1. The evils of brain – drain and rural – urban migration can be reduced if rural areas are developed.
2. In order to better utilise the unused and under – utilised resources there is a need to develop the rural economy.
3. Rural Development should minimise the gap between rural and. urban areas in terms of the provision of infrastructural facilities. It was called as PURA by former President Abdul Kalam.
4. In order to improve the nation’s status in the global arena in terms of the economic indicators like,
   • Human Development Index [HDI]
   • Woman Empowerment Index [WEI]
   • Gender Disparity Index [GDI]
   • Physical Quality of Life Index [PQLI] and
   • Gross National Happiness Index [GNHI] should be given due attention.

[OR]

(b) The features of Rural Economy are peculiar. Argue?
Answer:
Features of Rural Economy:

(I) Village is an Institution:
The village is a Primary Institution and it satisfies almost all the needs of the rural community. The rural people have a feeling of belongingness and a sense of unity towards each other.

(II) Dependence on Agriculture:
The rural economy depends much on nature and agricultural activities. Agriculture and allied activities are the main occupation in rural areas.

(III) Life of Rural people:
Lifestyles in villages are very simple. Public services like education, housing, health and sanitation, transport and communication, banking, roads and markets are limited and unavailable. The standards of living of majority of rural people are poor and pitiable. In terms of methods of production, social organization and political mobilization, rural sector is extremely backward and weak.

(IV) Population Density:
Population density, measured by number of persons living per sq.km is very low and houses are scattered in the entire villages.

(V) Employment:
There exists unemployment, seasonal unemployment and under employment in rural areas.

(VI) Poverty:
Poverty is a condition where the basic needs of the people like food, clothing and shelter are not being met.

(VII) Indebtedness:
People in rural areas are highly indebted owing to poverty and underemployment, lack of farm and non – farm employment opportunities, low wage employment, seasonality in production, poor marketing network etc.

(VIII) Rural Income:
The Income of the rural people is constrained as the rural economy is not sufficiently vibrant to provide them.

(IX) Dependency:
Rural households are largely dependent on social grants and remittances from family members working in urban areas and cities.

(X) Dualism:
Dualism means the co – existence of two extremely different features like developed and under developed. These characteristics are very common in rural areas.

(XI) Inequality:
The distributions of income, wealth and assets are highly skewed among rural people. Land, livestock and other assets are owned by a few people.

(XII) Migration:
Rural people are forced to migrate from villages to urban areas in order to seek gainful employment for their livelihood.

Question 45 (a).
Compare productivity of any two food crops between Tamil Nadu and India?
Answer:
Productivity position of Tamil Nadu and India

1. The Government of Tamil Nadu lays emphasis on agricultural production and productivity.
2. Tamil Nadu tops in productivity, in food crops as well as non-food crops among the states in India.

Productivity position of Tamil Nadu in India

1. Tamil Nadu ranks first in maize, cumbu, groundnut, oil seeds and cotton.
2. Tamil Nadu ranks second in rice and coconut.
3. Tamil Nadu ranks third in sugarcane, sunflower and Jowar.

[OR]

(b) Describe the “MSMES”?
Answer:

• The Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises are defined under the MSMED Act 2006.
• The enterprises are classified as Manufacturing and Service enterprises based on the investment in plant and machinery and equipment (excluding land and building).
• Tamil Nadu accounts of 15.07% Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in the country (the highest among all States) with 6.89 lakhs registered MSMEs.
• Producing over 8000 varieties of product for a total investment of more than ₹32,008 crore.
• MSMEs produce a wide variety of products in almost all sectors.
• The prominent among them are the engineering, electrical, chemicals, plastics, steel paper, matches, textiles, hosiery and garments sector.
• Around 15.61 lakh entrepreneurs have registered, providing employment opportunities to about 99.7 lakhs persons with total investment of Rs. 1,68,331 crore.

Question 46 (a).
Write a short note on Marginal Revenue?
Answer:

1. Marginal Revenue [MR] is the addition to the total revenue by the sale of an additional unit of a commodity.
2. MR can be found out by dividing change in total revenue by the change in quantity sold out.
3. MR = ∆TR/AQ where MR denotes Marginal Revenue, ∆TR denotes change in Total Revenue and ∆Q denotes change in total quantity.
4. The other method of estimating MR is:

MR = TR_n – TR_n – 1 (or) TR_n+1 – TR_n
Where, MR denotes Marginal Revenue,
TR denotes total revenue of n^th item,
TR_n-1 denotes Total Revenue of n – 1^th item and
TR_n+1 denotes Total Revenue of n + 1^th item.
If TR = PQ , MR = dTR/dQ = P, which is equal to AR.

[OR]

(b) Describe the degrees of price discrimination?
Answer:
Degrees of Price Discrimination:
Price discrimination has become widespread in almost all monopoly markets. According to A.C.Pigou, there are three degrees of price discrimination.

(I) First degree price discrimination:
A monopolist charges the maximum price that a buyer is willing to pay. This is called as perfect price discrimination. This price wipes out the entire consumer’s surplus. This is maximum exploitation of consumers. Joan Robinson named it as “Perfect Discriminating Monopoly”.

(II) Second degree price discrimination:
Under this degree, buyers are charged prices in such a way that a part of their consumer’s surplus is taken away by the sellers. This is called as imperfect price discrimination. Joan Robinson named it as “Imperfect Discriminating Monopoly”.

Under this degree, buyers are divided into different groups and a different price is charged for each group. For example, in cinema theatres, prices are charged for same film show from viewers of different classes. In a theatre the difference between the first row of first class and the last row in the second class is smaller as compared to the differences in charges..

(III) Third degree price discrimination:
The monopolist splits the entire market into a few sub – market and charges different price in each sub – market. The groups are divided on the basis of age, sex and location. For example, railways charge lower fares from senior citizens. Students get discounts in museums, and exhibitions.

Question 47 (a).
Elaborate the nature and scope of Economics?
Answer:
Economics nature:

1. The nature of a subject refers to its contents and how and why they find a place in the subject.
2. This nature is understood by studying the various definitions given by the notable economists.
3. The existence of multiplicity of the definitions makes some scholars comment that a search for a clear definition of economics is an exercise in futility.
4. “Political economy is said to have strangled itself with definitions.”
5. Their presence makes studying a subject interesting, exciting, enjoyable or worthwhile.
6. In fact their presence in a social science subject is a clear sign of the growth of the science.
7. It indicates that there exists freedom for people associated with such as science to formulate fresh definitions.

Scope of economics:

1. The scope of the subject of economics refers to on the subject matter of economics.
2. It throws light on whether it is an art or science and if science, whether it is a positive science or a normative science.

Economics subject matter:

1. Economics focuses on the behaviour and interactions among economic agents, individuals and group belonging to an economic system.
2. Economics studies the ways in which people use the available resources to satisfy their multiplicity of wants.
3. The activities of rational or normal human beings are the subject-matter of economics.

[OR]

(b) Explain the Internal and external economics of scale?
Answer:
Internal Economics of Scale:

1. Internal Economies of scale refers to the advantages enjoyed by the production unit which causes a reduction in the cost of production of the commodity.
2. For example, a firm enjoying the advantage of an application of most modem machinery, generation of internal capital, an improvement in managerial skill etc. are sure to reduce the cost of production. They are of various types:

(a) Technical Economies:

1. When the size of the firm is large, large amount of capital can be used.
2. There is a possibility to introduce up – to – date technologies this improves productivity of the firm.
3. Research and development strategies can be applied easily.

(b) Financial Economies:
Big firms can float shares in the market for capital expansion, while small firms cannot easily float shares in the market.

(c) Managerial Economies:
Large scale production facilitates specialization and delegation.

(d) Labour Economies:

1. Large scale production implies greater and minute division of labour.
2. This leads to specialization which enhances the quality.
3. This increases the productivity of the firm.

(e) Marketing Economies:

1. In the context of large scale production, the producers can both buy raw-materials in bulk at cheaper cost and can take the products to distant markets.
2. They enjoy a huge bargaining power.

(f) Economies of survival:

1. Product diversification is possible when there is large scale production.
2. This reduces the risk in production.
3. Even if the market for one product collapses, market for other commodities offsets it.

External Economies of Scale:

1. External Economies of Scale refer to changes in any factor outside the firm causing an improvement in the production process.
2. This can take place in the case of industry also.
3. These are the advantages enjoyed by all the firms in industry due to the structural growth.
4. Important external economies of scale are listed below :
   • Increased transport facilities
   • Banking facilities
   • Development of townships
   • Development of information and communication.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The construction of demand line or supply line is the result of using ………………………
(a) Matrices
(b) Calculus
(c) Algebra
(d) Analytical geometry
Answer:
(d) Analytical geometry

Question 2.
“Economics is the study of mankind in the ordinary business of life”. It is the statement of ………………………….
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Lionel Robbins
(c) Alfred Marshall
(d) Samuelson
Answer:
(c) Alfred Marshall

Question 3.
The Industry which was de – reserved in 1993?
(a) Railways
(b) Mining of copper and zinc
(c) Atomic energy
(d) Atomic minerals
Answer:
(b) Mining of copper and zinc

Question 4.
A production function measures the relation between ……………………….
(a) Input prices and output prices
(b) Input prices and the quantity of output
(c) The quantity of inputs and the quantity of output
(d) The quantity of inputs and input prices
Answer:
(c) The quantity of inputs and the quantity of output

Question 5.
Mathematical Economics is the integration of ………………………..
(a) Mathematics and Economics
(b) Economics and Statistics
(c) Economics and Equations
(d) Graphs and Economics
Answer:
(a) Mathematics and Economics

Question 6.
Mixed economy means ……………………………..
(a) Private sectors and banks
(b) Co – existence of public and private sectors
(c) Public sectors and banks
(d) Public sectors only
Answer:
(b) Co-existence of public and private sectors

Question 7.
Who is the Father of Economics?
(a) Max Muller
(b) Adam Smith
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Paul A Samuelson
Answer:
(b) Adam Smith

Question 8.
Annual plans formed in the year ………………………….
(a) 1989 – 1991
(b) 1990 – 1992
(c) 2000 – 2001
(d) 1981 – 1983
Answer:
(b) 1990 – 1992

Question 9.
In investment proposals filed by MSMEs, TN ranks ………………………..
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer:
(b) II

Question 10.
Which of the following is the way of Privatisation?
(a) Disinvestment
(b) Denationalization
(c) Franchising
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Disinvestment

Question 11.
Cost refer to ………………………..
(a) Price
(b) Value
(c) Fixed cost
(d) Cost of production
Answer:
(d) Cost of production

Question 12.
Petrol and gold is the example of ………………………. market.
(a) Local
(b) Provincial
(c) National
(d) International
Answer:
(d) International

Question 13.
Money cost is also known as …………………………. cost.
(a) Explicit
(b) Implicit
(c) Social
(d) Real
Answer:
(a) Explicit

Question 14.
Which of the following involves maximum exploitation of consumers?
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Monopolistic competition
(d) Oligopoly
Answer:
(b) Monopoly

Question 15.
How do you term people employed in excess over and above the requirements?
(a) Unemployment
(b) Under employment (or) Disguised unemployment
(c) Full employment
(d) Self employment
Answer:
(b) Under employment (or) Disguised unemployment

Question 16.
The main objective of nationalisation of banks was ……………………….
(a) Private Social welfare
(b) Social Welfare
(c) To earn
(d) Industries monopoly
Answer:
(b) Social Welfare

Question 17.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of land?
(a) Its limited supply
(b) It is mobile
(c) Heterogeneous
(d) Gift of Nature
Answer:
(b) It is mobile

Question 18.
Quasi – rent arises in ………………………..
(a) Man – made appliances
(b) Home made items
(c) Imported items
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Man – made appliances

Question 19.
The recommended nutritiofaal intake per person in rural areas.
(a) 2100 calories
(b) 2200 calories
(c) 2300 calories
(d) 2400 calories
Answer:
(d) 2400 calories

Question 20.
The highest rate of tax under GST is ……………………….. (as on July 1,2017).
(a) 18%
(b) 24%
(c) 28%
(d) 32%
Answer:
(c) 28%

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What is meant by distribution?
Answer:
Distribution means division of income among the four factors of production in terms of rent to landlords, wage to labourer, interest to capital and profit to entrepreneurs. The theory of functional distribution deals with how the relative prices of these factors of production are determined. The theory of factor prices is popularly known as the theory of distribution.

Question 22.
State the reasons for implementing LPG?
Answer:
Liberalization:

1. Liberalization refers to removal of relaxation of governmental restrictions in all stages of industry.
2. De-licensing, decontrol, deregulation, subsidies (incentives) and greater role for financial institutions are the various facets of liberalization.

Privatization:

1. Privatization means transfer of ownership and management of enterprises from public sector to private sector.
2. Denationalization, disinvestment and opening exclusive public sector enterprises to private sector are the gateways to privatization.

Globalization:
Globalization refers to the integration of the domestic (Indian) economy with the rest of the world. Import liberalization through reduction of tariff and non – tariffbarriers, opening the doors to Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) are some of the measures towards globalization.

Question 23.
Why was structural reform implemented in Indian Economy?
Answer:

1. Indian Economy responded to the crisis by introducing a set of policies known as Structural Reforms.
2. These policies were aimed at correcting the weaknesses and rigidities in the various sectors of the economy such as industry, trade, fiscal and agriculture.

Question 24.
What is selling costs?
Answer:

1. Selling Cost is the discussion of “ Product differentiation”.
2. We can infer that the producer under monopolistic competition has to incur expenses to popularize his brand.
3. This involved in selling the product is called selling cost.
4. According to Prof. Chamberlin, selling cost is “ The cost incurred in order to alter the position or shape of the demand curve for a product”.

Question 25.
What are major ports in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu has three major ports; one each at Chennai, Ennore, and Thoothkudi as well as one intermediate port in Nagpattinam, and 23 minor ports.
2. All the minor portsare managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai Port.
3. Ennore port was recently converted from an intermediate port to a major port and handles all the coal and ore traffic in Tamil Nadu.

Question 26.
Mention any four food crops which are favourable to Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Rice: Tamil Nadu is the India’s second biggest producer of rice.
2. Banana and Coconut: Tamil Nadu ranks first in production of Banana and coconut.
3. Cashewnut: Tamil Nadu ranks second in production of cashewnut.
4. Pepper: Tamil Nadu ranks third in production of pepper.
5. Sugarcane: Tamil Nadu ranks fourth in production of Sugarcane.

Question 27.
What is Selling cost?
Answer:

1. Selling Cost is the discussion of “ Product differentiation”.
2. We can infer that the producer under monopolistic competition has to incur expenses to popularize his brand.
3. This involved in selling the product is called selling cost.
4. According to Prof. Chamberlin, selling cost is “The cost incurred in order to alter the position or shape of the demand curve for a product”.

Question 28.
What do you mean by Rural Development?
Answer:

1. Rural Development is defined as an overall improvement in the economies and social well being of villagers and the institutional and physical environments in which they live.
2. According to the World Bank “Rural Development is a strategy designed to improve the economic and social life of a specific group of people – rural poor.
3. Rural Development is a process of improving the rural areas, rural people and rural living.

Question 29.
Define Rural economy?
Answer:

1. Rural areas are geographical areas located outside towns and cities.
2. Rural Economy refers to villages and rural community refers to people living in villages.

Question 30.
Give the definition for ‘Real Cost’ ?
Answer:
Real Cost refers to the payment made to compensate the efforts and sacrifices of all factor owners for their services in production. Real Cost includes the efforts and sacrifices of landlords in the use of land, capitalists to save and invest, and workers in foregoing, leisure. Real cost are considered pains and sacrifices of labour as real cost of production.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Enumerate the remedial measures to Rural poverty?
Answer:
Remedial measures:

1. Since rural unemployment and rural poverty are interrelated, creation of employment opportunities would support elimination of poverty.
2. Poverty alleviation schemes and programmes have been implemented, modified, consolidated, expanded and improved over time.
3. However, unemployment, begging, rag-picking and slumming continues.
4. Unless employment is given to all the people poverty cannot be eliminated.

Question 32.
Write a short note on Marginal Revenue?
Answer:
1. Marginal Revenue [MR] is the addition to the total revenue by the sale of an additional unit of a commodity.

2. MR can be found out by dividing change in total revenue by the change in quantity sold out.

3. MR = ∆TR/∆Q where MR denotes Marginal Revenue, ∆TR denotes change in Total Revenue and ∆Q denotes change in total quantity.

4. The other method of estimating MR is:

MR = TR_n – TR_n-1 (or) TR_n+1 – TR_n
Where, MR denotes Marginal Revenue,
TR_n denotes total revenue of n^th item,
TR_n-1, denotes Total Revenue of n – 1^th item and
TR_n+1 denotes Total Revenue of n + 1^th item.
If TR = PQ , MR = dTR/dQ = P, which is equal to AR.

Question 33.
Define opportunity cost and provide an example?
Answer:

1. Opportunity cost refers to the cost of next best alternative use. In other words, it is the value of the next best alternative foregone.
2. For example, a farmer can cultivate both paddy and sugarcane in a farm land.
3. If he cultivates paddy, the opportunity cost of paddy output is the amount of sugarcane output given up.
4. Opportunity Cost is also called as “Alternative Cost” or Transfer cost.

Question 34.
Explain the theory of “consumer’s surplus”?
Answer:
Alfred Marshall defines consumer’s surplus as “the excess of price which a person would be willing to pay a thing rather than go without the thing, over that which he actually does pay is the economic measure of this surplus satisfaction. This may be called consumers surplus”.

Question 35.
List out the objectives of MUDRA Bank?
Answer:

1. Regulate the lender and the borrower of microfinance and bring stability to the microfinance system.
2. Extend finance and credit support to Micro Finance Institutions [MFI] and agencies that lend money to small businesses, retailers, self-help groups and individuals.
3. Register all MFIs and introduce a system of performance rating and accreditation for the first time.
4. Offer a Credit Guarantee scheme for providing guarantees to loans being offered to micro businesses.
5. Introduce appropriate technologies to assist in the process of efficient lending, borrowing and monitoring of distributed capital.

Question 36.
Explain about the period of Merchant capital?
Answer:
Period of Merchant Capital:

1. The period of merchant capital was from 1757 to 1813.
2. The only aim of the East India Company was to earn profit by establishing monopoly trade in the goods with India and the East India’s.
3. During this period, India had been considered as the best hunting ground for capital by the East Indian company to develop industrial capitalism is Britain.
4. When Bengal and South India came under political shake of the East India company in 1750s and 1760s, the objective of monopoly trade was fulfilled.
5. The company administration succeeded in generating huge surpluses which were repatriated . to England, and the Indian leaders linked this problem of land revenue with that of the drain.
6. Above all, the officers of the company were unscrupulous and corrupt.

Question 37.
Distinguish between rent and quasi – rent?
Answer:

Rent	Quasi – Rent
1. Rent accrues to land.	1. Quasi – rent accrues to man – made appliance.
2. The supply of land is fixed forever.	2. The supply of man made appliances is fixed for a short period only.
3. It enters into price.	3. It does not enter into price.

Question 38.
Explain the causes for Rural backwardness?

1. The evils of brain-drain and rural-urban migration can be reduced if rural areas are developed.
2. In order to better utilise the unused and under – utilised resources there is a need to develop the rural economy.
3. Rural Development should minimise the gap between rural and urban areas in terms of the provision of infrastructural facilities. It was called as PURA by former President Abdul Kalam.
4. In order to improve the nation’s status in the global arena in terms of the economic indicators like,
   • Human Development Index [HDI]
   • Woman Empowerment Index [WEI]
   • Gender Disparity Index [GDI]
   • Physical Quality of Life Index [PQLI] and
   • Gross National Happiness Index [GNHI] should be given due attention.

Question 39.
Discuss the long run cost curves with suitable diagram?
Answer:

1. In the long run all factors of production become variable. The existing size of the firm can be increased in the case of long run. There are neither fixed inputs nor fixed costs in the long run.

2. LAG is given in diagram.

3. Long run average cost (LAC) is equal to long run total costs divided by the level of output.

LAC = LTC/Q

4. where, LAC denotes Long-Run Average Cost, LTC denotes Long-run Total Cost and Q denotes the quantity of output. The LAC curve is derived from short-run average cost curves. It is the locus of points denoting the least cost curve of producing the corresponding output. The LAC curve is called as ‘Plant Curve’ or ‘Boat shape Curve’ or ‘Planning Curve’ or ‘Envelop Curve’.

Question 40.
State the importance of Rural Development?
Answer:
1. A major share of population lives in rural areas, and their development and contributions are very much supportive for the nation building activities. India cannot be developed by retaining rural as backward.

2. The rural economy Supports the urban sectors by way of supplying drinking water, milk, food and raw materials. Hence, the backwardness of the rural sector would be a major impediment to the overall progress of the economy.

3. Improvements in education, health and sanitation in villages can help avoid many urban problems namely, begging, rag-picking and road side slumming.

4. Development of agriculture and allied activities are necessary for providing gainful employment in rural areas and improving overall food production.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Bring out Jawaharlal Nehru’s contribution to the idea of economic development?
Answer:

1. Jawaharlal Nehru, one of the chief builders of Modem India, was the first Prime Minister of Independent India.
2. He was a great patriot, thinker and statesman.

(I) Democracy and Secularism:

1. Jawaharlal Nehru was a firm believer in democracy.
2. He believed in free speech civil liberty, adult franchise and the Rule of Law and Parliamentary democracy.
3. Secularism, is another signal contribution of Nehru to India.

(II) Planning:

1. Jawaharlal Nehru was responsible for the introduction of planning in our country.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru, the Plan was essentially an integrated approach for development.
3. Nehru Spoke on the theme of planning.
4. He said “the essence of planning is to find the best way to utilize all resources of manpower, of money and so on”.
5. “Planning for Nehru was essentially linked up with Industrialization and eventual self¬reliance for the country’s economic growth on an self – accelerating growth.
6. Nehru carried through this basis strategy of planned development.
7. Nehru’s contribution to the advancement of science, research, technology and industrial development cannot be forgotten.
8. It was dining is period, many IITs and Research Institutions were established.
9. Nehru always in insited on “ scientific temper”.

[OR]

(b) Describe the Salient features of EXIM policy [2015 – 2020]
Answer:
The new EXIM policy has been formulated focusing on increasing in exports Scenario, boosting production and supporting the concepts like Make in India and Digital India.

Salient Features:

1. Reduce export obligations by 25% and give boost to domestic manufacturing supporting the “Make in India” concept.
2. As a step to Digital India concept, online procedure to upload digitally signed document by CA /CS / Cost Accountant are developed and further mobile app for filing tax, stamp duty has been developed.
3. Repeated submission of physical copies of documents available on Exporter Importer Profile is not required.
4. Export obligation period for export items related to defence, military store, aerospace and nuclear energy to be 24 months.
5. EXIM policy 2015 – 2020 is expected to double the share of India in World Trade from present level of 3% by the year 2020. This appears to be too ambitions.

Question 42 (a).
Explain basic problems of the economy with the help of production possibility curve?
Answer:
1. The problem of choice between relatively scarce commodities due to limited productive resources with the society can be illustrated with the help of a geometric device, is known as production possibility curve.

Production possibility curve shows the menu of choice along which a society can choose to substitute one good for another, assuming a given , state of technology and given total resources.

2. The explanation and analysis of production possibility curve is based upon certain assumptions, some of them are following:

1. The time period does not change. It remains the same throughout the curve.
2. Techniques of production are fixed.
3. There is full employment in the economy.
4. Only two goods can be produced from the given resources.
5. Resources of production are fully mobile.
6. The factors of production are given in quantity and quality.
7. The low of diminishing returns operates in production.
8. Every production possibility curve is based upon these assumptions. If some of these assumptions changes or negelected, then it affects the nature of production possibility curve.
9. To draw this curve we take the help of production possibilities schedule, as shown below.

Production possibilities schedule:
1. The schedule suggests that if all resources are thrown into the production of food, a maximum of 500 tons of food can be produced, given the existing technology. If on the other hand, all resources are instead used for producing cars, 25 cars can be produced. In between these two extreme possibilities exist. If we are willing to give up some food, we can have some cars.

2. We can obtain a production possibility curve by drawing production possibilities schedule graphically. The quantity of food is shown on x – axis and the number of cars is shown on y – axis, the different six production possibilities are. being shown as point P₁ P₂ P₃ P₄ P₅ & P₆.

Problems of the economy:

1. The problem of choice:
The problem of choice arise because of the given limited resources and unlimited wants, may relate to the allocation of resources between the goods for the higher income group and the lower income group and the goods for the defense and the civilians. Since PPC is the locus of the combination of the goods the problem of choice will not arises when we choose any point on PPC.

2. Solution of central problems:
The central problems of an economy can be explained with the help of PPC. The solution of problem of what to produce involves the decision regarding the choice of location on the production possibility carves. A production combination represented by any point inside the PPC indicates that the economy is using inefficient methods of production and inefficient combination of resources.

[OR]

(b) Elucidate the law of diminishing marginal utility with diagram?
Answer:
Introduction:
H.H.Gossen, an Austrian Economist was the first to formulate this law in Economics in 1854. Therefore Jevons called this law as “ Gossen’s First Law of Consumption”. But credit goes to Marshall, because he perfected this law on the basis of Cardinal Analysis. This law is based on the characteristics of human wants, i.e. wants are satiable.

Definition:
Marshall states the law as “ the additional benefit which a person derives from a given increase of his stock of a thing, diminishes with every increase in the stock that he already has”.

Assumptions:

1. Utility can be measured by cardinal numbers such as 1, 2, 3 and so on.
2. The marginal utility of money of the consumer remains constant.
3. The consumer should be a rational consumer and his aim is to attain maximum satisfaction with minimum expenditure.
4. The units of the commodity consumed must be reasonable in size.
5. The commodity consumed should be homogeneous or uniform in charcter like weight, quality, taste, colour etc.
6. The consumption of goods must take place continuously at a given period of time.
7. There should be no change in the taste, habits preferences, fashions, income and character of the consumer during the process of consumption.

Explanation:
The Law of Diminishing Marginal utility states that if a consumer continues to consume more and more units of the same commodity, its marginal utility diminishes. This means that the more we have of a thing, the less is the satisfaction or utility that we derive from the additional unit of it.

The Law of Diminishing Marginal utility:

1. In this table, we find that the total utility goes on increasing but at a diminishing rate.
2. The law can be explained with a simple illustration.
3. Consumer wants to consume 7 apples one after another.
4. The utility from the first apple is 20.
5. But the utility from the second apple will be less than that of the first [say 15].
6. The third less than that of the second [say 10] and so on.
7. Finally, the utility from the fifth apple becomes zero and the utilities from sixth and seventh apples are negative for disutility or disliking.
8. This tendency is called the “ The Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility”.
9. In this table we find on the other hand, marginal utility goes on diminishing.
10. When marginal utility becomes zero, the total utility is maximum and when marginal utility becomes negative, the total utility diminishes.

X – axis represents number of apples consumed
Y – axis represents total utility and marginal utility
TU – represents total utility
MU- represents marginal utility

Criticisms:

1. Utility cannot be measured numerically, because utility is subjective.
2. This law is based on the unrealistic assumptions.
3. This law is not applicable to indivisible commodities.

Question 43 (a).
Explain the objectives of nationalization of commercial bank?
Answer:
The Government of India nationalized the commercial banks to achieve the following objectives:

1. The main objective of nationalization was to attain Social Welfare. Sectors such as agriculture, small and village industries were in need of funds for their expansion and further economic development.
2. Nationalisation of banks helped to curb private monopolies in order to ensure a smooth supply of credit to socially desirable sections.
3. In India, nearly 70% of population lived in rural areas. Therefore it was needed to encourage the banking habit among the rural population.
4. Nationalisation of banks was required to reduce the regional imbalances where the banking facilities were not available.
5. Before Independence, the numbers of banks were certainly inadequate. After nationalization, new bank branches were opened in both rural and urban areas.
6. Banks created credit facilities mainly to the agriculture sector and its allied activities after nationalization.
   After New Economic Policy 1991, the Indian banking Industry has been facing the new horizons of competitions, efficiency and productivity.

[OR]

(b) Explain the Agrarian crisis after reforms?
Answer:
(I) High input costs:

1. The biggest input for farmers is seeds.
2. Before liberalisation, farmers across the country had access to seeds from state government institutions.
3. The institutions produced own seeds and were responsible for their quality and price.
4. India’s seed market was opened up to global agri-businesses.
5. The deregulation of many state government institutions were closed down in 2003.
6. Seed prices shot up and fake seeds made an appearance in a big way.

(II) Cutback in agricultural subsidies:

1. Farmers were encouraged to shift from growing a mixture of traditional crops to export oriented “cash crops” like chilli, cotton and tobacco.
2. Liberalisation policies reduced the subsides on pesticide and fertilizer and elasticity.
3. As a result prices have increased by 300%.

(III) Reduction of import duties:

1. With a view to open India’s markets, the liberalization reforms also withdrew tariffs and duties on imports.
2. By 2001, India completely removed restrictions on imports of almost 1500 items including food.

(IV) Paucity of credit facilities:

1. The lending pattern of commercial banks, including nationalised bank, drastically changed. As a result, loan was not easily adequate.
2. This has forced the farmers to. rely on moneylenders who charge exorbitant rate of interest.

Question 44 (a).
Explain strong features of Indian economy?
Answer:
Strengths of Indian Economy:

1. India has a mixed economy:

1. Indian economy is a typical example of mixed economy.
2. This means both private and public sectors co-exist and function smoothly.
3. The fundamental and heavy industrial units are being operated under the public sector.
4. The liberalization of the economy, the private sector has gained importance.
5. This makes it a perfect model for public – private partnership.

2. Agriculture plays the key role:

1. Agriculture being the maximum pursued occupation in India.
2. It plays an important role in its economy as well.
3. Around 60% of the people in India depend upon agriculture for their livelihood.
4. In fact, about 17% of our GDP today is contributed by the agriculture sector.
5. Green revolution, ever green revolution and inventions is bio technology have made agriculture self sufficient and also surplus production.
6. The export of agriculture products such as fruits, vegetables, spices, vegetable oils, tobacco, animal skin, etc. also add to forex earning through international trading.

3. An emerging market:

1. Indian has emerged as vibrant economy sustaining stable GDP growth rate even in the midst of global downtrend.
2. This has attracted significant foreign capital through FDI and FII.
3. India has a high potential for prospective growth.
4. This also makes it an emerging market for the world.

4. Emerging Economy:

1. Emerging as a top economic giant among the world economy.
2. India bags the seventh position in terms of nominal Gross Domestic Product [GDP] and third in terms of Purchasing Power Parity [PPP].
3. As a result of rapid economic growth,. Indian economy has a place among the G20 countries.

5. Fat Growing Economy:

1. Indias economy is well known for high and sustained growth.
2. The world’s fastest growing economy in the year 2016-17 with the growth rate of 7.1% in GDP.

6. Fast Growing Service Sector:

1. The service sector, contributes a lion’s share of the GDP in India.
2. There has been a high rise growth in the technical sectors like information technology.

7. Large Domestic Consumption:

1. With the faster growth rate in the economy the standard of living has improved a lot.
2. The standard of living has considerably improved and life style has changed.

8. Rapid Growth of Urban Areas:

1. Urbanization is a key ingredient of the growth of any economy.
2. Improved connectivity is transport and communication, education and health have speeded up the pace of urbanization.

9. Stable Macro Economy:

1. The Indian economy has been projected and considered as one of the most stable economies of the world.
2. The current year’s Economic survey represents the Indian economy to be a “heaven of macroeconomic stability, resilience and optimism”.

10. Demographic dividend:

1. This means that India is a pride owner of the maximum percentage of youth.
2. The young population is not only motivated but skilled and trained enough to maximize the growth.
3. Thus human capital plays a key role in maximizing the growth prospects is the country.
4. This has invited foreign investments to the country and outsourcing opportunities too.

[OR]

(b) Explain the role of SSIs in economic development?
Answer:
1. Provide Employment:

1. SSI’s use labour intensive techniques. Hence, they provide employment opportunities to a large number of people. Thus, they reduce the unemployment problem to a great extent.
2. SSI’s provide employment to artisans, technically qualified persons and professionals, people engaged in traditional arts, people in villages and unorganized sectors.
3. The employment-capital ratio is high for the SSI’s.

2. Bring Balanced Regional Development:

1. SSI’s promote decentralized development of industries as most of the SSI’s are set up in backward and rural areas.
2. They remove regional disparities by industrializing rural and backward areas and bring balanced regional development.
3. They help to reduce the problems of congestion, slums, sanitation and pollution in cities. They are mostly found in outside city limits.
4. They help in improving the standard of living of people residing in suburban and rural areas in India.
5. The entrepreneurial talent is tapped in different regions and the income is also distributed instead of being concentrated in the hands of a few individuals or business families.

3. Help in Mobilization of Local Resources:

1. SSI’s help to mobilize and utilize local resources like small savings, entrepreneurial talent etc., of the entrepreneurs, which might otherwise remain idle and unutilized.
2. They pave way for promoting traditional family skills and handicrafts. There is a great demand for handicraft goods in developed countries.
3. They help to improve the growth of local entrepreneurs and self-employed professionals in small towns and villages in India

4. Pave for Optimisation of Capital:

1. SSI’s require less capital per unit of output. They provide quick return on investment due to shorter gestation period. The payback period is quite short in SSI’s.
2. SSI’s function as a stabilizing force by providing high output – capital ratio as well as high employment – capital ratio.
3. They encourage the people living in rural areas and small towns to mobilize savings and channelize them into industrial activities.

5. Promote Exports:

1. SSIs do not require sophisticated machinery. Hence, import the machines from abroad is not necessary. On the other hand, there is a great demand for goods produced by SSIs. Thus they reduce the pressure on the country’s balance of payments. However, with recent past large scale industries are able to borrow large funds with low interest rate and spend large sums on advertisements. Hence SSSs are gradually vanishing.

2. SSI’s earn valuable foreign exchange through exports from India.

6. Complement Large Scale Industries:

1. SSI’s play a complementary role to large scale sector and support the large scale industries.
2. SSI’s provide parts, components, accessories to large scale industries and meet the requirements of large scale industries through setting up units near the large scale units.
3. SSI’s serve as ancillaries to large scale units.

7. Meet Consumer Demands:

1. SSI’s produce wide range of products required by consumers in India.
2. Hence, they serves as an anti-inflationary force by providing goods of daily use.

8. Develop Entrepreneurship:

1. SSI’s help to develop a class of entrepreneurs in the society. They help the job seekers to become job givers.
2. They promote self-employment and spirit of self-reliance in the society.
3. SSI’s help to increase the per capita income of India in various ways.
4. They facilitate development of backward areas and weaker sections of the society.
5. SSI’s are adept in distributing national income in more efficient and equitable manner among the various participants of the society.

Question 45 (a).
Elucidate the Laws of Returns to scale. Illustrate?
Answer:
Laws of Returns To Scale:
In the long – run, there is no fixed factor; all factors are variable. The laws of returns to scale explain the relationship between output and the scale of inputs in the long – run when all the inputs are increased in the same proportion.

Assumptions:
Laws of Returns to Scale are based on the following assumptions.

1. All the factors of production, [such as land, labour and capital] are variable but organization is fixed.
2. There is no change in technology.
3. There is perfect competition in the market.
4. Outputs or returns are measured in physical quantities.

Three Phases of Returns to Scale:

1. Increasing Returns to Scale: In this case if all inputs are increased by one percent, output increase by more than one percent.
2. Constant Returns to Scale: In this case if all inputs are increased by one percent, output increases exactly by one percent.
3. Diminishing Returns to Scale: In this case if all inputs are increased by one percent, output increases by less than one percent.

The three laws of returns to scale can be explained with the help of the diagram below.

Diagramatic Illustration:

In the figure, the movement from point a to point b represents increasing returns to scale. Because, between these two points output has doubled, but output has tripled. The law of constant returns to scale is implied by the movement from the point b to point c.

Because, between these two points inputs have doubled and output also has doubled. Decreasing returns to scale are denoted by the movement from the point c to point d since doubling the factors from 4 units to 8 units product less than the increase in inputs, that is by 33.33%.

[OR]

(b) Explain the internal and external economies of scale?
Answer:
Internal Economics of Scale:

1. Internal Economies of scale refers to the advantages enjoyed by the production unit which causes a reduction in the cost of production of the commodity.
2. For example, a firm enjoying the advantage of an application of most modem machinery, generation of internal capital, an improvement in managerial skill etc. are sure to reduce the cost of production. They are of various types:

(a) Technical Economies:

1. When the size of the firm is large, large amount of capital can be used.
2. There is a possibility to introduce up – to – date technologies; this improves productivity of the firm.
3. Research and development strategies can be applied easily.

(b) Financial Economies:
Big firms can float shares in the market for capital expansion, while small firms cannot easily float shares in the market.

(c) Managerial Economies:
Large scale production facilitates specialization and delegation.

(d) Labour Economies:

1. Large scale production implies greater and minute division of labour.
2. This leads to specialization which enhances the quality.
3. This increases the productivity of the firm.

(e) Marketing Economies:

1. In the context of large scale production, the producers can both buy raw – materials in bulk at cheaper cost and can take the products to distant markets.
2. They enjoy a huge bargaining power.

(f) Economies of survival:

1. Product diversification is possible when there is large scale production.
2. This reduces the risk in production.
3. Even if the market for one product collapses, market for other commodities offsets it.

External Economies of Scale:

1. External Economies of Scale refer to changes in any factor outside the firm causing an improvement in the production process.
2. This can take place in the case of industry also.
3. These are the advantages enjoyed by all the firms in industry due to the structural growth.
4. Important external economies of scale are listed below :
   • Increased transport facilities
   • Banking facilities
   • Development of townships
   • Development of information and communication.

Question 46 (a).
Explain the Rail Transport System in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu has a well – developed rail network as part of Southern Railway, Headquartered at Chennai.
2. The present Southern Railway network extends over a large area of India’s Southern Peninsula, covering the States of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Puducherry, minor portions of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
3. Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length of 6,693 km and there are 690 railway stations in the State. The system connects it with most major cities in India.
4. Main rail junctions in the State include Chennai, Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Salem, Tiruchirapalli and Tirunelveli.
5. Chennai has a well – established Suburban Railway network, a Mass Rapid Transport System and is currently developing a Metro system, with its first underground stretch operational since May 2017.

[OR]

(b) Illustrate the uses of Mathematical Methods in Economics?
Answer:
Uses of Mathematical Methods in Economics:

1. Mathematical Methods help to present the economic problems in a more precise form.
2. Mathematical Methods help to explain economic concepts.
3. Mathematical Methods help to use a largl number of variables in economic analyses.
4. Mathematical Methods help to quantity the impact or effect of any economic activity implemented by Government or anybody. There are of course many other uses.

Question 47 (a).
If TC = 2.5q³ – 13q² + 50q + 12 derive the MC function and AC function?

\(\frac{dc}{dq}\) = MC
AC = \(\frac{TC}{q}\)
\(\frac{dc}{dq}\) = 2.5(3)q² – [13 × 2]q + 50
MC = 7.5 q² – 26q + 50
AC = \(\frac { 2.5q^{ 3 }-13q^{ 2 }+50q+12 }{ q } \)
∴ AC = 2.5q³ – 13q + 50 + \(\frac{12}{q}\)

[OR]

(b) What are the ideas of information and communication technology used in Economics?
Answer:
Information and communication Technology [ICT] is the infrastructure that enables computing faster and accurate.
The following table gives an idea of range of technologies that fall under the category of ICT

The evaluation of ICT has five phases:
They are evaluation in:

1. Computer
2. PC – Personal Computer
3. Micro Processor
4. Internet
5. Wireless links

In Economics, the uses of mathematical and statistical tools need the support of ICT for:

1. 1. Data Compiling
   2. Editing
   3. Manipulating
   4. Presenting the results

Question 48 (a).
Discuss the important initiatives taken by the Government of India towards Industrial Policy?
Answer:
Important initiatives by the Government towards Industrial Policy:
The policy has brought changes in the following aspects of industrial regulation.

1. Industrial de – licensing.
2. De – reservation of the Industrial Sector.
3. Public sector policy, (de – reservation and reform of PSE_S)
4. Abolition of MRTP Act.
5. Foreign Investment policy and foreign technology policy.

Industrial delicensing policy:

1. The most important part of the new Industrial policy of 1991 was the end of the Industrial licensing or the license raj or red tapism.
2. The Industrial licensing policies, private sector firms had to secure licenses to start an Industry.

De – reservation of the Industrial Sector:

1. The public sector was given reservation especially in the capital goods and key Industries.
2. Industrial deregulation, most of the Industrial Sectors were opened to the private sector as well.
3. The new Industrial policy, only three sectors atomic energy, mining and railways will continue as reserved for public sector.

Reforms related to the Public Sector enterprises:

1. Reforms in the public sector were aimed at enhancing efficiency and competitiveness of the sector.
2. The government identified strategic and priority areas for the public sector concentrate.

Abolition of MRTP Act:

1. The New Industrial Policy of 1991 has abolished the Monopoly and Restrictive Trade Practices Act 1969.
2. In 2010, the Competition Commission has emerged as the watch dog in monitoring competitive practices in the economy.

Eoreign Investment Policy:

1. Foreign investment including FDI and FPI were allowed.
2. In 1991, the government announced a specified list of high technology and high investment priority Industries.
3. Foreign direct investment upto 51 percent foreign equity.
4. Foreign Investment Promotion Board has been set up to negotiate with International firms and approve direct Foreign Investment.

[OR]

(b) Analyse the causes for Rural Indebtedness?
Answer:
The Causes for Rural Indebtedness:

(I) Poverty of Farmers:

1. The vicious circle of poverty forces the farmers to borrow for consumption and cultivation.
2. Thus poverty, debt and high rates of interest hold the farmer in the grip of money lenders.

(II) Failure of Monsoon:

1. Frequent failure of monsoon is a curse to the farmers and they have to suffer due to the failure of nature.
2. Farmers find it difficult to identify good years to repay their debts.

(III) Litigation:

1. Due to land disputes litigation in the court compels them to borrow heavily.
2. Being uneducated and ignorant they are caught in the litigation process and dry away . their savings and resources.

(IV) Money Lenders and High Rate of Interest:
The rate of interest charged by the local money lenders is very high and the compounding of interest leads to perpetuate indebtedness of the farmer.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. 1. The question paper comprises of four parts. Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
   2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
   3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
   4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
   5. Question numbers 9 to 14 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
   6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
   7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio – Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
The term bacterium was coined by ………………………
(a) Stanley
(b) Ehrenberg
(c) Gram
(d) Koch
Answer:
(b) Ehrenberg

Question 2.
Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell?
(a) Cell wall
(b) Nuclear membrane
(c) Plasma membrane
(d) Glycocalyx
Answer:
(d) Glycocalyx

Question 3.
Number of floral parts per whorl is called ……………………
(a) Curosity
(b) Atrocity
(c) Merosity
(d) Porosity
Answer:
(c) Merosity

Question 4.
“The evolution and classification of flowering plants” – book was written by ………………..
(a) Engler & Prantl
(b) Bentham & Hooker
(c) Cronquist
(d) Theophrasthus
Answer:
(c) Cronquist

Question 5.
Lainpbrush chromosomes occur at ………………….. stage of meiotic Prophase I.
(a) Leptotene
(b) Diplotene
(c) Zygotene
(d) Pachytene
Answer:
(b) Diplotene

Question 6.
Who is called as father of plant physiology?
(a) J.C. Bose
(b) Stephen Hales
(c) Dixon
(d) Unger
Answer:
(b) Stephen Hales

Question 7.
Pitcher plant is the common name for ……………………..
(a) Drosera
(b) Nepenthes
(c) Utricularia
(d) Dionaea
Answer:
(b) Nepenthes

Question 8.
Chemiosmotic theory was proposed by ………………………
(a) Mitchell
(b) Hatch & Slack
(c) Calvin
(d) Priestley
Answer:
(a) Mitchell

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What is mycorrhiza?
Answer:
The symbiotic association between fungal mycelium and roots of plants is called as mycorrhiza.

Question 10.
Why do roots modify their structure? Name the types of root modification?
Answer:
Roots modify their structure to perform secondary functions. The two types of root modification are tap root modification and fibrous root modification.

Question 11.
Name any 4 sub classes of Liliopsida?
Answer:

1. Alismatidae
2. Arecidae
3. Commelinidae
4. Zingiberidae

Question 12.
How vacuoles helps to maintain the structure of a plant cell?
Answer:
The major function of plant vacuole is to maintain water pressure known as turgor pressure, which maintains the plant structure.

Question 13.
Compare Active transport with Passive transport?
Answer:

Question 14.
How will you define Quantasomes?
Answer:
Quantasomes are the morphological expression of physiological photosynthetic units, located on the inner membrane of thylakoid lamellae.

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Classify lichens based on morphology?
Answer:

1. Leprose – Absence of distinct fungal layer
2. Crustose – Crust – like
3. Foliose – Leaf – like
4. Fruticose – Branched pendulous shrub – like

Question 16.
“Roots perform photosynthesis”-Justify with example?
Answer:
Roots of some climbing or epiphytic plants develop chlorophyll and turn green which help in photosynthesis. These roots are called as photosynthetic roots, e.g,,Tinospora.

Question 17.
Differentiate Apocarpous and Syncarpous ovary?
Answer:

1. Apocarpous: A pistil contains two or more distinct carpels. Example: Annona
2. Syncarpous: A pistil contains two or more carpels which are connate. Example: Citrus and Tomato

Question 18.
Draw & label the ground plan of T.S. of Dicot root?
Answer:

Question 19.
What do you mean by Respiratory substrate? Give example?
Answer:
Respiration is a biological process in which oxidation of various food substances like carbohydrates, proteins and fats take place and as a result of this, energy is produced where O₂ is taken in and CO₂ is liberated. The organic substances which are oxidised during respiration are called respiratory substrates.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Define phyllotaxy. Explain its type?
Answer:
The mode of arrangement of leaves on the stem is known as phyllotaxy (Greek. Phyllon = leaf; taxis = arrangement). Phyllotaxy is to avoid over crowding of leaves and expose the leaves maximum to the sunlight for photosynthesis. The four main types of phyllotaxy are:

1. Alternate
2. Opposite
3. Temate and
4. Whorled.

1. Alternate phyllotaxy:
In this type there is only one leaf per node and the leaves on the successive nodes are arranged alternate to each other. Spiral arrangement of leaves show vertical rows are called orthostichies. They are two types:

• Alternate spiral: In which the leaves are arranged alternatively in a spiral manner. e.g., Hibiscus and Ficus.
• Alternate distichous or Bifarious: In which the leaves are organized alternatively in two rows on either side of the stem, e.g., Monoon longifolium (.Polyalthia longifolia).

2. Opposite phyllotaxy:
In this type each node possess two leaves opposite to each other. They are organized in two different types:

(I) Opposite superposed:
The pair of leaves arranged in succession are in the same direction, that is two opposite leaves at a node lie exactly above those at the lower node, e.g., Psidium (Guava), Eugenia jambolana (Jamun) and Quisqualis (Rangoon creeper).

(II) Opposite decussate:
In this type of phyllotaxy one pair of leaves is placed at right angles to the next upper or lower pair of leaves, e.g., Calotropis, Zinnia and Ocimum

3. Ternate phyllotaxy:
In this type there are three leaves attached at each node, e.g., Nerium.

4. Whorled (verticillate) type of phyllotaxy:
In this type more than three leaves are present in a whorl at each node forming a circle or whorl, e.g., Allamanda and Alstonia scholaris.

[OR]

Distinguish between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
Answer:

Question 21.
Explain the insectivorous mode of nutrition in angiosperms?
Answer:
Insectivorous mode of nutrition:
Plants which are growing in nitrogen deficient areas develop insectivorous habit to resolve nitrogen deficiency.

1. Nepenthes (Pitcher plant):
Pitcher is a modified leaf and contains digestive enzymes. Rim of the pitcher is provided with nectar glands and acts as an attractive lid. When insect is trapped, proteolytic enzymes will digest the insect.

2. Drosera (Sundew):
It consists of long club shaped tentacles which secrete sticky digestive fluid which looks like a sundew.

3. Utricularia (Bladder wort):
Submerged plant in which leaf is modified into a bladder to collect insect in water.

4. Dionaea (Venus fly trap):
Leaf of this plant modified into a colourful trap. Two folds of lamina consist of sensitive trigger hairs and when insects touch the hairs it will close.

[OR]

List out the physiological effects of Abscissic acid?
Answer:

1. It helps in reducing transpiration rate by closing stomata. It inhibits K⁺ uptake by guard cells and promotes the leakage of malic acid. It results in closure of stomata.
2. It spoils chlorophylls, proteins and nucleic acids of leaves making them yellow.
3. Inhibition of cell division and cell elongation.
4. ABA is a powerful growth inhibitor. It causes 50% inhibition of growth in Oat coleoptile.
5. It induces bud and seed dormancy.
6. It promotes the abscission of leaves, flowers and fruits by forming abscission layers.
7. ABA plays an important role in plants during water stress and during drought conditions. It results in loss of turgor and closure of stomata.
8. It has anti – auxin and anti – gibberellin property.
9. Abscisic acid promotes senescence in leaves by causing loss of chlorophyll pigment decreasing the rate of photosynthesis and changing the rate of proteins and nucleic acid synthesis.

Bio – Zoology [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Cladogram consists the following characters …………………….
(a) Physiological and Biochemical
(b) Evolutionary and Phylogenetic
(c) Taxonomic and systematic
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Evolutionary and Phylogenetic

Question 2.
The limbless amphibian is ………………………
(a) Hyla
(b) Rana
(c) Icthyophis
(d) Salamander
Answer:
(c) Icthyophis

Question 3.
ECG stands for …………………….
(a) Electro Cardiogram
(b) Electro Caplaris gram
(c) Electro Carrying gram
(d) Electro ensephalo gram
Answer:
(a) Electro Cardiogram

Question 4.
Match the List – I and List – II

List – I	List – II
1. Tidal Volume	(i) 1100 to 1200 ml
2. Residual Volume	(ii) 500 ml
3. Expiratory reserve Volume	(iii) 2500 to 3000 ml
4. Inspiratory reserve Volume	(iv) 1000 to 1100 ml

(a) 1 – (i), 2 – (ii), 3 – (iii), 4 – (iv)
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)
(c) 1 – (ii), 2 – (iv), 3 – (i), 4 – (iii)
(d) 1 – (iv), 2 – (iii), 3 – (i), 4 – (ii)
Answer:
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)

Question 5.
Which of the following is correct statement?
(a) All the reptiles have a three chambered heart.
(b) All mammals are viviparous.
(c) All cyclostomes do not posses jaws and paired fin.
(d) All pisces have gills covered by a operculum.
Answer:
(c) All cyclostomes do not posses jaws and paired fin.

Question 6.
Which of the following is incorrect statement with regard to peripheral neural system ?
(a) Its pathways innervate skeletal muscles.
(b) Its pathways are usually voluntary.
(c) Its pathways always involve four neurons.
(d) Some of its pathways are referred to as reflex arcs.
Answer:
(c) Its pathways always involve four neurons.

Question 7.
Centers for sense of smell are located …………………..
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Midbrain
(c) Olfactory lobes
(d) Cerebrum
Answer:
(c) Olfactory lobes

Question 8.
Excess secretion of cortisol leads to ………………………
(a) Addison’s disease
(b) Grave’s disease
(c) Cushing’s syndrome
(d) Gull’s disease
Answer:
(c) Cushing’s syndrome

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Write about the classification of Lampito maurittii?
Answer:
Classification:

1. Phylum: Annelida
2. Class: Oligochaeta
3. Order: Haplotaxida
4. Genus: Lampito
5. Species: mauritii

Question 10.
Define indigestion?
Answer:
Indigestion is the digestive disorder in which the food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness of stomach.

Question 11.
Write about muscle fatigue?
Answer:
Muscle fatigue is the inability of a muscle to contract after repeated muscle contractions. This is due to lack of ATP ancl accumulation of lactic acid by anaerobic breakdown of glucose.

Question 12.
Difference between neutrophils and esinophils?
Answer:

Neutrophils	Eosinophils
1. Neutrophils are polymorphonuclear cells with 3-4 lobes of nucleus connected with delicate threads.	1. Eosinophils have distinctly bilobed nucleus and the lobes are joined by thin strands.
2. Neutrophils constitute about 60%-65% of the total WBCs.	2. Eosinophils constitute about 2-3% of the total WBCs.

Question 13.
Draw and label the parts of LS of kidney?
Answer:

Question 14.
What are the functions of glucagon?
Answer:
Glucagon is a polypeptide hormone. It is a potent hyperglycaemic hormone that acts on the liver and promotes the breakdown of glycogen to glucose (Glycogenolysis), synthesis of glucose from lactic acid and from non-carbohydrate molecules (gluconeogenesis).

Releases glucose from the liver cells, increasing the blood glucose levels. Since glucagon reduces the cellular uptake and utilisation of glucose it is called a hyperglycemic hormone. Prolonged hyperglycemia leads to the disorder called diabetes mellitus.

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Bioluminence is advantageous to ctenophores?
Answer:
Ctenophores are exclusively marine. They emit light. It helps the animals in finding food, mate and excape from the predators.

Question 16.
How do earthworms breathe?
Answer:
In earthworms, respiration takes place through the body wall by the moist skin diffusion, oxygen diffuses through the skin into the blood while carbon dioxide from the blood diffuse out.

Question 17.
What is Vermicompost?
Answer:
Vermicompost is the compost produced by the action of earthworms in association with all other organisms in the compost unit.

Question 18.
Differentiate between elastic fibres and elastic connective tissue?
Answer:

S.No	Elastic fibres	Elastic connective tissue
1.	It contains elastin and other proteins and glycoproteins.	It contains high proportion of elastic fibres.
2.	It attaches muscles and bones and one bone to another bone.	It is found in the walls of large arteries, ligaments associated with vertebral column and within the walls of the bronchial tubes.
3.	It withstands tensile stress when pulling force is applied in one direction or in many direction.	It allows recoil of tissues after stretching.

Question 19.
Draw the graph of a normal ECG?
Answer:

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Distinguish between chordates and non – chordates?
Answer:

Chordates	Non – chordates
1. Notochord is present	1. Absence of notochord
2. Dorsal, hollow and single nerve cord	2. Double ventral solid nerve cord
3. Pharynx perforated by gill slits	3. Gill slits absent
4. Heart is ventrally placed .	4. Heart is dorsal or laterally placed or absent
5. A post anal tail is present	5. Post anal tail is absent
6. Alimentary canal placed ventral to the nerve cord	6. Alimentary canal is placed dorsal to the nerve cord

[OR]

Write an essay on digestion of food and role of digestive enzymes?
Answer:
The process of digestion converts the solid food into absorbable and assimilable forms. This is accomplished by mechanical and chemical processes.

Digestion in the buccal cavity:
The smell, sight and taste as well as the mechanical stimulation of food in the mouth, triggers a reflex action which results in the secretion of saliva. The mecnanical digestion starts in the mouth by grinding and chewing of food.

It is called mastication. The saliva contain water, electrolytes (Na⁺, K⁺, Cl^– , HCO₂), salivary amylase (ptyalin), antibacterial agent lysozyme and a lubricating agent mucus (a glycoprotein).

The mucus in saliva prepares the food for swallowing by moistening, softening, lubricating and adhering the masticated food into a bolus. About 30 percent of polysaccharide, starch is hydrolyzed by the salivary amylase enzyme into disaccharides (maltose).

The bolus is then passed into the pharynx and then into the oesophagus by swallowing or deglutition. The bolus further passes down through the oesophagus to the stomach by successive Waves of muscular contraction called peristalsis. The gastro oesphageal sphincter controls the passage of food into the stomach.

Digestion in the stomach:
Food remains in the stomach for 4 to 5 hours, the rhythmic peristaltic movement churns and mixes the food with gastric juice and make it into a creamy liquid called chyme. The gastric secretion is partly controlled by autonomic reflexes. The secretion of gastric juice begins when the food is in the mouth.

The gastric juice contains HCl and proefizymes. The proenzyme pepsinogen, on exposure to HCl gets converted into the active enzyme pepsin which converts proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides). The HCl provides an acidic medium (pH 1.8) which is optimum for pepsin, kills bacteria and other harmful organisms and avoids putrifaction.

The mucus and bicarbonates present in the gastric juice play an important role in lubrication and protection of the mucosal epithelium from the eroding nature of the highly acidic HCl. Another proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of infants is rennin helps in the digestion of milk protein, caseinogen to casein in the presence of calcium ions.

This enzyme secretion gradually reduces with aging. Digestion in the small intestine: The bile, pancreatic juice and intestinal juice are the secretions released into the small intestine. Movements generated by the muscularis layer of the small intestine helps in the thorough mixing of the food with various secretions in the intestine and thereby facilitate digestion.

The pancreatic juice contains enzymes such as trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, carboxypeptidases, pancreatic amalyses, pancreatic lipases and nucleases. Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin, which in turn activates the enzyme chymotrypsinogen in the pancreatic juice.

The hile contains bile pigments (bilirubin and biliverdin) as the break down products of hemoglobin of dead RBCs, bile salts, cholesterol and phospholipids but has no enzymes. Bile helps in emulsification of fats. Bile salts reduce the surface tension of fat droplets and break them into small globules. Bile also activates lipases to digest lipids.

Proteins and partially digested proteins in the chyme on reaching the intestine are acted upon by the proteolytic enzymes of pancreatic juice. Trypsin hydrolyses proteins into polypeptides and peptones, while chymotrypsin hydrolyses peptide bonds associated with specific amino acids.

The pancreatic amylase converts glycogen and starch into maltose. Lipase acts on emulsified fat (triglycerides) and hydrolyses them into free fatty acid and monoglycerides. Monoglycerides are further hydrolysed to fatty acid and glycerol. Nucleases in the pancreatic juice break the nucleic acid into nucleotides and nucleosides.

The secretions of the Brunner’s gland along with the secretions of the intestinal glands constitute the intestinal juice or succus entericus. The enzymes in the intestinal juice such as maltase, lactase, sucrase (invertase), dipeptidases, lipases, nucleosidases act on the breakdown products of bile and pancreatic digestion.

The mucus along with the bicarbonate ions from the pancreas provides an alkaline medium (pH 7.8) for the enzymatic action. As a result of digestion, all macromolecules of food are converted into their corresponding monomeric units.

• Carbohydrates → monosaccharides
  (glucose, fructose, galactose)
• Proteins → amino acids
• Lipids → fatty acids and glycerol

The simple substances thus formed are absorbed in the jejunum and ileum region of the small intestine. The undigested and unabsorbed substances are propelled into the large intestine.

The activities of the gastro – intestinal tract are carried out by the neural and hormonal control for proper coordination of different parts. Gastric and intestinal secretions are stimulated by neural signals. Hormonal control of the secretion of digestive juices is carried out by local hormones produced by the gastric and intestinal mucosa.

Question 21.
Explain the types of movement?
Answer:
The different types of movements that occur in the cells of our body are amoeboid, ciliary, flagellar and muscular movement.

Amoeboid movement:
Cells such as macrophages exhibit amoeboid movement for engulfing pathogens by pseudopodia formed by the streaming movement of the cytoplasm. Ciliary movement – This type of movement occurs in the respiratory passages and genital tracts which are lined by ciliated epithelial cells.

Flagellar movement:
This type of movement occurs in the cells which are having flagella or whip – like motile organelle. The sperm cells show flagellar movement.

Muscular movement:
The movement of hands, legs, jaws, tongue are caused by the contraction and relaxation of the muscle which is termed as the muscular movement.

[OR]

What are the major hypothalamic hormones and also explain their functions?
Answer:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. 1. The question paper comprises of four parts. Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
   2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
   3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
   4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
   5. Question numbers 9 to 14 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
   6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
   7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio – Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Number of domains of life are there according to Carl Woese
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 2.
Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres?
(a) Polio virus
(b) Tobacco mosaic virus
(c) Measles virus
(d) Retrovirus
Answer:
(b) Tobacco mosaic virus

Question 3.
Talipot palm, Bamboo and Agave are examples of …………………….
(a) Polycarpic geophytes
(b) Therophytes
(c) Monocarpic geophytes
(d) Biennial
Answer:
(c) Monocarpic geophytes

Question 4.
The type of inflorescence seen in Caesalpinia is ………………………
(a) Corymb
(b) Compound corymb
(c) Capitulum
(d) Umbel
Answer:
(a) Corymb

Question 5.
Which one of the following organism is correctly matched with its three characteristics?
(a) Pea: C₃ pathway, Endospermic seed,Vexillary aestivation
(b) Tomato: Twisted aestivation, Axile placentation, Berry
(c) Onion: Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile placentation
(d) Maize: C₃ pathway, Closed vascular bundles, scutellum
Answer:
(c) Onion: Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile placentation

Question 6.
Protoplasm is made of ……………………. water.
(a) 80 – 90%
(b) 85 – 90%
(c) 60 – 80%
(d) 75 – 85%
Answer:
(c) 60 – 80%

Question 7.
The term soilless culture refers to …………………….
(a) Aeroponics
(b) Aqua culture
(c) Hydroponics
(d) Drip irrigation
Answer:
(c) Hydroponics

Question 8.
Which of the following statement is NOT true regarding cyclic photophosphorylation?
(a) The primary electron acceptor is FRS
(b) It produces only ATP molecules
(c) It produces only NADPH + H⁺ molecules
(d) Electrons ejected from PSI again cycled back to PSI
Answer:
(c) It produces only NADPH + H⁺ molecules

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Name few plant disease caused by mycoplasma?
Answer:
Little leaf of brinjal, witches broom of legumes, phyllody of cloves and sandal spike are some plant diseases caused by mycoplasma.

Question 10.
Which leaf part acts a bridge between leaf & stem? Define?
Answer:
Petiole is the bridge between leaf and stem. Petiole or leaf stalk is a cylindrical or subcylindrical or flattened structure of a leaf which joins the lamina with the stem.

Question 11.
Mention any two morphological differences between Dicot & Monocots?
Answer:

S.No	Dicot	Monocots
1.	Leaves show reticulate venation	Leaves show parallel venation
2.	Flowers are tetramerous or pentamerous	Flowers are trimerous

Question 12.
What is the cell wall composition of the following organism?

1. Fungi
2. Bacteria
3. Algae

Answer:

1. Fungi – Chitin and fungal cellulose
2. Bacteria – Peptidoglycan
3. Algae – Cellulose, mannan and galactan

Question 13.
How imbibition is important for plants?
Significance of imbibition:
Answer:

1. During germination of seeds, imbibition increases the volume of seed enormously and leads to bursting of the seed coat.
2. It helps in the absorption of water by roots at the initial level.

Question 14.
How does nitrogen fixation occurs non – biologically?
Non – Biological nitrogen fixation:
Answer:

1. Nitrogen fixation by chemical process in industry.
2. Natural electrical discharge during lightening fixes atmospheric nitrogen.

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Name few fungal diseases in Humans?
Answer:

Question 16.
List out any 3 significances of seed?
Answer:

1. The seed encloses and protects the embryo for next generation.
2. Seeds of various plants are used as food, both for animals and human.
3. Seeds are the products of sexual reproduction so they provide genetic variations and recombination in a plant.

Question 17.
Write a note on endosymbiont theory?
Answer:
Two eukaryotic organelles believed to be the descendants of the endosymbiotic prokaryotes. The ancestors of the eukaryotic cell engulfed a bacterium and the bacteria continued to function inside the host cell.

Question 18.
What are sieve tubes? Explain?
Answer:
Sieve Elements:
Sieve elements are the conducting elements of the phloem. They are of two types, namely sieve cells and sieve tubes.

Sieve Cells:
These are primitive type of conducting elements found in Pteridophytes and Gymnosperms. Sieve cdlls have sieve areas on their lateral walls only. They are not associated with companion cells.

Sieve Tubes:
Sieve tubes are long tube like conducting elements in the phloem. These are formed from a series of cells called sieve tube elements. The sieve tube elements are arranged one above the other and form vertical sieve tube.

The end wall contains a number of pores and it looks like a sieve. So it is called as sieve plate. The sieve elements show nacreous thickenings on their lateral walls.

They may possess simple or compound sieve plates. The function of sieve tubes are believed to be controlled by campanion cells. In mature sieve tube, Nucleus is absent. It contains a lining layer of cytoplasm.

A special protein (P. Protein = Phloem Protein) called slime body is seen in it. In mature sieve tubes, the pores in the sieve plate arc blocked by a substance called callosc (callose plug).

The conduction of food material takes place Different types of phloem elements through cytoplasmic strands. Sieve tubes occur only in Angiosperms.

Question 19.
Draw and label the structure of lentical?
Answer:

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
List out the salient features of cyanobacteria?
Answer:

• The members of this group are prokaryotes and lack motile reproductive structures.
• The thallus is unicellular in Chroococcus, colonial in Gloeocapsa and filamentous trichome in Nostoc.
• Gliding movement is noticed in some species (Oscillatorid).
• The protoplasm is differentiated into central region called centroplasm and peripheral region bearing chromatophore called chromoplasm.
• The photosynthetic pigments include c – phydcyanin and c – phycoerythrin along with myxoxanthin and myxoxanthophyll.
• The reserve food material is cyanophycean starch.
• In some forms a large colourless cell is found in the terminal or intercalary position called heterocysts. They are involved in nitrogen fixation.
• They reproduce only through vegetative methods and produce akinetes (thick wall dormant cell formed from vegetative cell), hormogonia (a portion of filament get detached and reproduce by cell division), fission and endospores.
• The presence of mucilage around the thallus is characteristic feature of this group. Therefore, this group is also called Myxophyceae.
• Sexual reproduction is absent.
• Microcystis aeruginosa and Anabaena flos – aquae cause water blooms and release toxins and affect the aquatic organism. Most of them fix atmospheric nitrogen and are used as biofertilizers (Example: Nostoc and Anabaena). Spirulina is rich in protein hence it is used as single cell protein.

[OR]

Differentiate between Mitosis and Meiosis?
Answer:

Mitosis	Meiosis
1. One division	1. Two divisions
2. Number of chromosomes remains the same	2. Number of chromosomes is halved
3. Homologous chromosomes line up separately on the metaphase plate	3. Homologous chromosomes line up in pairs at the metaphase plate
4. Homologous chromosome do not pair up	4. Homologous chromosome pairup to form bivalent
5. Chiasmata do not form and crossing over never occurs	5. Chiasmata form and crossingover occurs
6. Daughter cells are genetically identical	6. Daughter cells are genetically different from the parent cells
7. Two daughter cells are formed	7. Four daughter cells are formed

Question 21.
Write in detail about Passive Absorption of minerals salts?
Answer:
Ion-Exchange:
Ions of external soil solution were exchanged with same charged (anion for anion or cation for cation) ions of the root cells. There are two theories explaining this process of ion exchange namely:

1. Contact exchange and
2. Carbonic acid exchange.

1. Contact Exchange Theory:
According to this theory, the ions adsorbed on the surface of root cells and clay particles (or clay micelles) are not held tightly but oscillate within a small volume of space called oscillation volume. Due to small space, both ions overlap each other’s oscillation volume and exchange takes place.

2. Carbonic Acid Exchange Theory:
According to this theory, soil solution plays an important role by acting as a medium for ion exchange. The CO₂ released during respiration of root cells combines with water to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃).

Carbonic acid dissociates into H⁺ and HCO_32^– in the soil solution. These H⁺ ions exchange with cations adsorbed on clay particles and the catipns from micelles get released into soil solution and gets adsorbed on root cells.

[OR]

Give an detail account on different types of senescence?
Answer:
1. Overall senescence:
This kind of senescence occurs in annual plants when entire plant gets affected and dies.
Example: Wheat and Soybean. It also occurs in few perennials also. Example: Agave and Bamboo.

2. Top senescence:
It occurs in aerial parts of plants. It is common in perennials, underground and root system remains viable.
Example: Banana and Gladiolus.

3. Deciduous senescence:
It is common in deciduous plants and occurs only in leaves of plants, bulk of the stem and root system remains alive.
Example: Elm and Maple.

4. Progressive senescence:
This kind of senescence is gradual. First it occurs in old leaves followed by new leaves then stem and finally root system. It is common in annuals.

Bio – Zoology [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
True species are …………………….
(a) Inter breeding
(b) Sharing the same niche
(c) Reproductively isolated
(d) Feeding on the same food
Answer:
(c) Reproductively isolated

Question 2.
Collar cells are found in ……………………
(a) Aschelminthes
(b) Sponges
(c) Cnidaria
(d) Arthropoda
Answer:
(b) Sponges

Question 3.
Match the List – I and List – II.

List –  I	List – II
1. Adenohypopysis	(i) Epinephrine
2. Adrenal medulla	(ii) Somatotropin
3. Parathyroid gland	(iii) Thymosin
4. Thymus gland	(iv) Calcitonin

Answer:
(a) 1 – (i), 2 – (ii), 3 – (iii), 4 – (iv)
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)
(c) 1 – (iii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (ii)
(d) 1 – (iv), 2 – (iii), 3 – (ii), 4 – (i)

Question 4.
BMR stands for ……………………….
(a) Body matabolic rate
(b) Basal matabolic rate
(c) Body mass rate
(d) Basal mass rate
Answer:
(b) Basal matabolic rate

Question 5.
Which of the following statement is correct ………………………….
(a) Testosterone is produced by leyding cells under the influence Luteinizing hormone.
(b) Progesterorie is secreted by corpus luteum.
(c) Oestrogen is secreted by Sertolic cells.
(d) Progesterone produced by Corpus Luteum is biologically different from the one produced by placenta.
Answer:
(a) Testosterone is produced by leyding cells under the influence Luteinizing hormone.

Question 6.
Which of the following pair statement is incorrect?
(a) Humans – ureotelic
(b) Birds – uricotelic
(c) Lizards – uricotelic
(d) Whale – Ammonotelic
Answer:
(d) Whale – Ammonotelic

Question 7.
Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals is called as ………………………..
(a) Myasthenia gravis
(b) Gout
(c) Osteoporosis
(d) Osteomalacia
Answer:
(b) Gout

Question 8.
The olfactory umpulses are transmitted to the ………………………. lobe of brain.
(a) Parietal
(b) Temporal
(c) Occipital
(d) Frontal
Answer:
(d) Frontal

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What is Regeneration?
Answer:
The ability to regrow the lost parts is called regeneration eg. planaria.

Question 10.
What are the functions of Tapetum lucidum?
Answer:
A reflective layer of tissue called tapetum lucidum, enhances night time vision in most of the animals like cat.

Question 11.
Give an example for longest species of earthworm?
Answer:
Microchaetus rappi is an African giant earthworm, can reach a length of 6.7 meter (22 feet). Drawida nilamburansis is a south Indian (Kerala) species of earthworm and can reach a maximum length up to f meter (3 feet).

Question 12.
Differences between frog and toad?
Answer:

Question 13.
Brief notes on spinal nerves?
Answer:
Spinal nerves:
31 pairs of spinal nerves emerge out from the spinal cord through spaces called the intervertebral foramina found between the adjacent vertebrae. The spinal nerves are named according to the region of vertebral column from which they originate

1. Cervical nerves (8 pairs)
2. Thoracic nerves (12 pairs)
3. Lumbar nerves (5 pairs)
4. Sacral nerves (5 pairs)
5. Coccygeal nerves (1 pair)

Each spinal nerve is a mixed nerve containing both afferent (sensory) and efferent (motor) fibres. It originates as two roots:

1. A posterior dorsal root with a ganglion outside the spinal cord and
2. An anterior ventral root with no external ganglion.

Question 14.
Draw the structure of Nephron?
Answer:

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
What is phylogenetic classification or cladistics?
Answer:
The classification of organisms based on evolutionary and genetic relationship among them is known as phylogenetic classification.

Question 16.
Compare Schizocoelom with Enterocoelom?
Answer:

Schizocoelom	Enterocoelom
1. The coelom which is formed by splitting of mesoderm is called Schizocoelom.	1. The coelom which is formed from the mesodermal pouches of archenteron is called entercoelom.
2. It is found in lower vertebrates like annelids, arthopods, molluscs.	2. It is found in echinodermis, hemichordates and chordates.

Question 17.
Head of cockroach is called hypognathous. why?
Answer:
The mouth parts of cockroach are directed downwards. The head is small, triangular lies at right angle to the longitudinal body axis. Hence it is called hypognatus.

Question 18.
Draw the diagram and label the parts of micro villi?
Answer:

Question 19.
What are the advantages of artificial insemination?
Answer:

1. It increases the rate of conception
2. It avoids genital diseases
3. Semen can be collected from injured bulls which have desirable traits
4. Superior animals located apart can be bred successfully

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Write brief notes on Diploblastic and Triploblastic organisation with example?
Answer:
During embryonic development, the tissues and organs of animals originate from two or three embryonic germ layers. On the basis of the origin and development, animals are classified into two categories: Diploblastic and Triploblastic.

Animals in which the cells are arranged in two embryonic layers, the external ectoderm, and internal endoderm are called diploblastic animals. In these animals the ectoderm gives rise to the epidermis (the outer layer of the body wall) and endoderm gives rise to gastrodermis (tissue lining the gut cavity). An undifferentiated layer present between the ectoderm and endoderm is the mesoglea. (Corals, Jellyfish, Sea anemone)

Animals in which the developing embryo has three germinal layers are called triploblastic animals and consists of outer ectoderm (skin, hair, neuron, nail, teeth, etc), inner endoderm (gut, lung, liver) and middle mesoderm (muscle, bone, heart). Most of the triploblastic animals show organ system level of organisation (Flat worms to Chordates).

[OR]

Explain the reproductive system of frog?
Answer:
Reproductive system:
The male frog has a pair of testes which are attached to the kidney and the dorsal body wall by folds of peritonium called mesorchium. Vasa efferentia arise from each testis. They enter the kidneys on both side and open into the bladder canal. Finally, it communicates with the urinogenital duct that comes out of kidneys and opens into the cloaca.

Female reproductive system consists of paired ovaries, attached to the kidneys, and dorsal body wall by folds of peritoneum called mesovarium. There is a pair of coiled oviducts lying on the sides of the kidney. Each oviduct opens into the body-cavity at the anterior end by a funnel like opening called ostia.

Unlike the male frog, the female frog has separate genital ducts distinct from ureters. Posteriorly the oviducts dilated to form ovisacs before they open into cloaca. Ovisacs store the eggs temporarily before they are sent out through the cloaca. Fertilization is external.

Within few days of fertilization, the eggs hatch into tadpoles. A newly hatched tadpole lives off the yolk stored in its body. It gradually grows larger and develops three pairs of gills.

The tadpole grows and metamorphosis into an air – breathing carnivorous adult frog. Legs grow from the body, and the tail and gills disappear. The mouth broadens, developing teeth and jaws, and the lungs become functional.

Question 21.
What are the disorders related to the excretory system?
Answer:
Urinary tract infection:
Female’s urethra is very short and its external opening is close to the anal opening, hence improper toilet habits can easily carry faecal bacteria into the urethra. The urethral mucosa is continuous with the urinary tract and the inflammation of the urethra (urethritis) can ascend the tract to cause bladder inflammation (cystitis) or even renal inflammation (pyelitis or pyelonephritis).

Symptoms include dysuria (painful urination), urinary urgency, fever and sometimes cloudy or blood tinged urine. When the kidneys are inflammed, back pain and severe headache often occur. Most urinary tract infections can be treated by antibiotics.

Renal Failure (Kidney Failure):
Failure of the kidneys to excrete wastes may lead to accumulation of urea with marked reduction in the urine output. Renal failure are of two types, Acute and chronic renal failure.

In acute renal failure the kidney stops its function abruptly, but there are chances for recovery of kidney functions. In chronic renal failure there is a progressive loss of function of the nephrons which gradually decreases the function of kidneys.

Uremia:
Uremia is characterized by increase in urea and other non – protein nitrogenous substances like uric acid and creatinine in blood. Normal urea level in human blood is about 17 – 30mg/100mL of blood. The urea concentration rises as 10 times of normal levels during chronic renal failure.

Renal calculi:
Renal calculi, also called renal stone or kidney stone or nephrolithiasis, is the formation of hard stone like masses in the renal tubules of renal pelvis.

It is mainly due to the accumulation of soluble crystals of salts of sodium oxalates and certain phosphates. This result in severe pain called “renal colic pain” and can cause scars in the kidneys. Renal stones can be removed by techniques like pyleothotomy or lithotripsy.

Glomerulonephritis:
It is also called Bright’s disease and is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli of both kidneys and is usually due to post-streptococcal infection that occurs in children. Symptoms are haematuria, proteinuria, salt and water retention, oligouria, hypertension and pulmonary oedema.

[OR]

Describe the life cycle of Bombyx mori?
Answer:
Life cycle of Bombyx mori:
The adult of Bombyx mori is about 2.5 cm in length and pale creamy white in colour. Due to heavy body and feeble wings, flight is not possible by the female moth.

This moth is unisexual in nature and does not feed during its very short life period of 2 – 3 days. Just after emergence, male moth copulates with female for about 2 – 3 hours and if not separated, they may die after few hours of copulating with female.

Just after copulation, female starts egg laying which is completed in 1-24 hours. A single female moth lays 400 to 500 eggs depending upon the climatic conditions.

Two types of eggs are generally found namely diapause type and non-diapause type. The diapause type is laid by silkworms inhabiting the temperate regions, whereas silkworms belonging to subtropical regions like India lay non – diapause type of eggs.

The eggs after ten days of incubation hatch into larva called as caterpillar. The newly hatched caterpillar is about 3 mm in length and is pale, yellowish-white in colour. The caterpillars are provided with well developed mandibulate type of mouth-parts adapted to feed easily on the mulberry leaves.

After 1^st, 2^2nd, 3^rd and 4^th moultings caterpillars get transformed into 2^nd, 3^rd, 4^th and 5^th instars respectively. It takes about 21 to 25 days after hatching. The fully grown caterpillar is 7.5 cm in length. It develops salivary glands, stops feeding and undergoes pupation.

The caterpillars stop feeding and move towards the comer among the leaves and secretes a sticky fluid through their silk gland. The secreted fluid comes out through spinneret (a narrow pore situated on the hypopharynx) and takes the form of long fine thread of silk which hardens on exposure to air and is wrapped around the body of caterpillar in the forms of a covering called as cocoon.

It is the white coloured bed of the pupa whose outer threads are irregular while the inner threads are regular. The length of continuous thread secreted by a caterpillar for the formation of cocoon is about 1000 – 1200 metres which requires 3 days to complete. The pupal period lasts for 10 to 12 days and the pupae cut through the cocoon and emerge into adult moth.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. 1. The question paper comprises of four parts. Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
   2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
   3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
   4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
   5. Question numbers 9 to 14 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
   6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
   7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio – Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – 1

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Identify the correct sequence regarding lytic cycle of viruses.
(i) Penetration
(ii) Adsorption
(iii) Assembly
(iv) Synthesis
(a) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(b) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
(d) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
Answer:
(a) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

Question 2.
Zygote meiosis is characterisitic of ………………………
(a) Marchantia
(b) Fucus
(c) Funaria
(d) Chlamydomonas
Answer:
(d) Chlamydomonas

Question 3.
Pinus roots are in symbiotic relationship with ……………………
(a) Blue green algae
(b) Mycorrhiza
(c) Euglena
(d) Rhizobium
Answer:
(b) Mycorrhiza

Question 4.
Climbers are also called as ……………………
(a) Herbs
(b) Trees
(c) Vines
(d) Shrubs
Answer:
(c) Vines

Question 5.
Arrangement of sepals and petals in flower bud is called ………………………
(a) Adhesion
(b) Aestivation
(c) Placentation
(d) Cohesion
Answer:
(b) Aestivation

Question 6.
Cell cycle was discovered by ………………………
(a) Singer & Nicholson
(b) Prevost & Dumans
(c) Schleider & Schwann
(d) Boveri
Answer:
(b) Prevost & Dumans

Question 7.
Parenchyma storing calcium carbonate crystals are called ……………………
(a) Leucoplasts
(b) Elaioplasts
(c) Idioblasts
(d) Chromoplasts
Answer:
(c) Idioblasts

Question 8.
Which of the following is a free – living bacterium?
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Clostridium
(c) Escherichia
(d) Cyanobacteria
Answer:
(b) Clostridium

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Distinguish between deoxyviruses and riboviruses?
Answer:

Deoxyviruses	Riboviruses
1. Viruses having DNA are called deoxyviruses. E.g. Animal viruses except HIV	1. Viruses having RNA are called riboviruses. E.g: Plant viruses except cauliflower mosaic virus (CMV)

Question 10.
What is plant morphology?
Answer:
Plant morphology also known as external morphology deals with the study of shape, size and structure of plants and their parts like (roots, stems, leaves, flowers, fruits and seeds).

Question 11.
Differentiate Regional Flora from continental flora?
Answer:

Regional Flora	Continental Flora
1. Flora covering a large geographical area or a botanical region Eg: flora of Madras Presidency.	1. Flora covering the entire continent. Eg: flora of Europaea.

Question 12.
Define C – Value?
Answer:
C-Value is the amount in picograms of DNA contained within a haploid nucleus.

Question 13.
Expand and Define TP?
Answer:
TP stands for Turgor pressure. When a plant cell is placed in pure water (hypotonie solution) the diffusion of water into the cell takes place by endosmosis. It creates a positive hydrostatic pressure on the rigid cell wall by the cell membrane.

Hence forth the pressure exerted by the ccli membrane towards the cell wall is Turgor Pressure (TP).

Question 14.
Mention the events of Photochernical phase of light reaction?
Answer:
Photocheinical Phase:

1. Photolysis of water and oxygen evolution
2. Electron transport and synthesis of assimilatory power.

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Name few fossil sites of India?
Answer:

Question 16.
What is a liana? Mention its importance?
Answer:
Liana is a vine that is perennial and woody. Lianas are major components in the tree canopy layer of some tropical forests. e.g., Ventilago.

Question 17.
Enumerate the steps ino1ed in herbarium preparation?
Answer:
Preparation of herbarium specimen includes the following steps.

1. Plant Collection
2. Documentation of field site data
3. Preparation of plant specimen
4. Mounting herbarium specimen
5. Herbarium labels
6. Protection of herbarium sheets against mold and insects

Question 18.
Draw and label the open vascular bundle?
Answer:

Question 19.
When does an essential mineral is considered as a “toxic”?
Answer:
Increase of mineral nutrients more than the normal concentration causes toxicity. A concentration, at which 10 % of the dry weight of tissue is reduced, is considered as toxic.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Tabulate the economic importance of algae?
Answer:

[OR]

Explain Datura metal in botanical terms. Draw floral diagram?
Answer:
1. Habit:
Large, erect and stout herb.

2. Root:
Branched tap root system.

3. Stem:
Stem is hollow, green and herbaceous with strong odour.

4. Leaf:
Simple, alternate, petiolate, entire or deeply lobed, glabrous exstipulate showing unicostate reticulate venation.

5. Inflorescence:
Solitary and axillary cyme.

6. Flower:
Flowers are large, greenish white, bracteate, ebracteolate, pedicellate, complete, heterochlamydeous, pentamerous, regular actinomorphic, bisexual and hypogyncas.

7. Calyx:
Sepals 5, green synsepalous showing valvate aestivation. Calyx is mostly persistant, odd sepal is posterior in position.

8. Corolla:
Petals 5, greenish white, sympetalous, plicate (folded like a fan) showing twisted aestivation, funnel shaped with wide mouth and 10 lobed.

9. Androecium:
Stamens 5, free from one another, epipetalous, altemipefalous and are inserted in the middle of the corolla tube. Anthers are basifixed, dithecous, with long filament, introse and longitudinally dehiscent.

10. Gynoecium:
Ovary bicarpellary, syncarpous superior ovary, basically biloculear but tetralocular due to the formation of false septum. Carpels are obliquely placed and ovules on swollen axile placentation. Style simple long and filiform, stigma two lobed.

11. Fruit:
Spinescent capsule opening by four special valves with persistent calyx.

12. Seed:
Endospermous

13. Floral Formula:

Question 21.
Describe the types of transpiration in plants?
Answer:
Types of Transpiration: Transpiration is of following three types:

1. Stomatal transpiration:
Stomata are microscopic structures present in high number on the lower epidermis of leaves. This is the most dominant form of transpiration and being responsible for most of the water loss (90 – 95%) in plants.

2. Lenticular transpiration:
In stems of woody plants and trees, the epidermis is replaced by periderm because of secondary growth. In order to provide gaseous exchange between the living cells and outer atmosphere, some pores which looks like lens – shaped raised spots are present on the surface of the stem called Lenticels. The loss of water from lenticels is very insignificant as it amounts to only 0.1% of the total.

3. Cuticular transpiration:
The cuticle is a waxy or resinous layer of cutin, a fatty substance covering the epidermis of leaves and other plant parts. Loss of water through cuticle is relatively small and it is only about 5 to 10 % of the total transpiration. The thickness of cuticle increases in xerophytes and transpiration is very much reduced or totally absent.

[OR]

Describe the concept of Phytochrome?
Answer:
Phytochrome is a bluish biliprotein pigment responsible for the perception of light in photo physiological process. But at (1959) named this pigment and it exists in two interconvertible forms:

(I) Red light absorbing pigment which is designated as P_r and

(II) Far red light absorbing pigment which is designated as P_fr. The P_fr form absorbs red light in 660 nm and changes to P_fr. The P_fr form absorbs far red light in 730 nm and changes to P_r.

The P_r form is biologically inactive and it is stable whereas Pfr form is biologically active and it is very unstable. In short day plants, P_r promotes flowering and P_fr inhibits the flowering whereas in long day plants flowering is promoted by P_fr and inhibited by P_r form.

P_fr is always associated with hydrophobic area of membrane systems while P_r is found in diffused state in the cytoplasm. The interconversion of the two forms of phytochrome is mainly involved in flower induction and also additionally plays a role in seed germination and changes in membrane conformation.

Bio – Zoology [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Entomology is concerned with the study of ……………………..
(a) Formation and properties of soil
(b) Agricultural practices
(c) Various aspects of human life
(d) Various aspects of insect
Answer:
(d) Various aspects of insect

Question 2.
Which is the site of production of blood cells?
(a) Cartilage
(b) Bone marrow
(c) Blood
(d) Plasma
Answer:
(b) Bone marrow

Question 3.
Match the List – I and List – II.

List – I	List – II
1. Lipase	(i) Protein
2. Pepsin	(ii) Lipid
3. Renin	(iii) Starch
4. Ptyalin	(iv) Cassein

(a) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)
(b) 1 – (i), 2 – (ii), 3 – (iii), 4 – (iv)
(c) 1 – (iv), 2 – (iii), 3 – (i), 4 – (ii)
(d) 1 – (iii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (ii)
Answer:
(a) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)

Question 4.
ESV stands for ……………………..
(a) Endocard Systolic Volume
(b) End Systolic Volume
(c) Endocard Sound Volume
(d) Endocard Sinoatrial Volume
Answer:
(b) End Systolic Volume

Question 5.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water
(b) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water
(c) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water
(d) The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes
Answer:
(c) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water

Question 6.
Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(a) Basal epithelial cells are sensitive portions of the taste
(b) Basal epithelial cells are stem cells which divide and differentiate into new gustatory cells
(c) Gustatory hairs project form the tip of the gustatory cells
(d) Gustatory cells are sensory portion of the taste
Answer:
(a) Basal epithelial cells are sensitive portions of the taste

Question 7.
Serum Calcium level is regulated by …………………….
(a) Thyroxine
(b) FSH
(c) Pancreas Assertion is true, but reason is false
(d) Thyroid and Parathyroid
Answer:
(d) Thyroid and Parathyroid

Question 8.
Ca⁺ metabolism is regulated by …………………..
(a) ACTH
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Parathormone
(d) Epinephrine
Answer:
(a) ACTH

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What is Phylogenetic tree?
Answer:
A phylogenetic tree or evolutionary tree is a branching diagram or “tree”, showing the inferred evolutionary relationships upon similarities and differences in their physical or genetic characteristics.

Question 10.
Write about Marbled cone snail?
Answer:
Marbled Cone Snail (Conus marmoreus):
This cone – shaped snail can deliver dangerous venom which may result in vision loss, respiratory failure, muscle paralysis and eventually death. There is no anti – venom available.

Question 11.
Differences between male and female cockroach?
Answer:

Question 12.
Define Floating ribs?
Answer:
The last 11^th and 12^th pairs of ribs are not connected ventrally. Therefore, they are called as ‘floating ribs’ or vertebral ribs.

Question 13.
Write a note on Tetany?
Answer:
Tetany is caused due to the hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH). Due to hyposecretion of PTH serum calcium level decreases (Hypocalcemia), as a result serum phosphate level increases.

Calcium and phosphate excretion level decreses. Generalized convulsion, locking of jaws increased heart beat rate, increases body temperature, muscular spasm are the major symptoms of tetany.

Question 14.
Draw the diagram of large intestine?
Answer:

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
What is the need for classification?
Answer:
The basic need for classification are:

1. To identify and differentiate closely related species.
2. To know the variation among the species.
3. To understand the evolution of the species.
4. To create a phylogenetic tree among the different groups.

Question 16.
Distinguish between Diploblastic and Triploblastic animals?
Answer:

S.No	Diploblastic animals	Triploblastic animals
1.	The animals in which the cells are arranged in two embryonic layers, the ectoderm and endoderm are called diploblastic animals.	The animals in which the cells are arranged in three embryonic layers, the ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm are called triploblastic animals.
2.	These are lower organisms, eg. Cnidaria, Ctenophora	These are higher organisms, eg. Platyhelminthes to mammalia.

Question 17.
Write a short note on connective tissue?
Answer:

1. Connective tissue develops from the mesoderm.
2. Connective tissue proper, Cartilage, bones and blood are the four main classes of connective tissues.
3. Binding, support, protection, insulation and transportation of substances are the major functions of connective tissue.

Question 18.
Draw the diagram of Lamnito mauritii?
Answer:

Question 19.
Define cross breedin?
Answer:
Breeding between a superior male of one breed with a superior female of another breed is known as cross breeding.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Who proposed the five kingdom classification? Represent the Five kingdom Classification in a tabular format?
Answer:
R.H. Whittaker (1969) proposed the Five kingdom Classification, the Kingdoms defined by him were Monera, Prgtista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia based on the cell structure, mode of nutrition, mode of reproduction and phylogenetic relationships. The table below gives a, comparative account of different characteristics of the five kingdoms.

[OR]

Explain the mechanism of breathing?
Answer:
The movement of air between the atmosphere and the lungs is known as ventilation or breathing. Inspiration and expiration are the two phases of breathing. Inspiration is the movement of atmospheric air into the lungs and expiration is the movement of alveolar air that diffuse out of the lungs.

Lungs do not contain muscle fibres but expands and contracts by the movement of the ribs and diaphragm. The diaphragm is a sheet of tissue which separates the thorax from the abdomen. In a relaxed state, the diaphragm is domed shaped.

Ribs are moved by the intercostal muscles. External and internal intercostal muscles found between the ribs and the diaphragm helps in creating pressure gradients.

Inspiration occurs if the pressure inside the lungs (intrapulmonary pressure) is less than the atmospheric pressure likewise expiration takes place when the pressure within the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure.

Inspiraton is initiated by the contraction of the diaphragm muscles and external intercostal muscles, which pulls the ribs and sternum upwards and outwards and increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso – ventral axis, forcing the lungs to expand the pulmonary volume.

The increase in pulmonary volume and decrease in the intrapulmonary pressure forces the fresh air from outside to enter the air passages into the lungs to equalize the pressure. This process is called inspiration.

Relaxation of the diaphragm allows the diaphragm and sternum to return to its dome shape and the internal intercostal muscles contract, pulling the ribs downward reducing the thoracic volume and pulmonary volume.

This results in an increase in the intrapulmonary pressure slightly above the atmospheric pressure causing the expulsion of air from the lungs. This process is called expiration.

Question 21.
What are the benefits of regular exercise?
Answer:
Regular exercises can produce the following beneficial physiological changes:

1. The muscles used in exercise grow larger and strongcr
2. More enzymes are synthesized in the muscle fibre
3. Ligaments and tendons become stronger
4. Influences hormonal &tivity
5. Prcvcnts Obesity
6. Aesthetically bettcr with good physique
7. Over all well-bcing with good quality of life
8. Prevents depression, stress and anxiety
9. The resting heart rate goes down
10. Joints become more flexible
11. Protection from hcart attack
12. Improves cognitive functions
13. Promotes confidence, esteem

During muscular exercise, there is an increase in metabolism. The O₂ need of the muscles is increased. This requirement is met with more oxygen rich RBCs available to the active sites. There is an increase in heart rate and cardiac output. Along with balanced diet, physical activity plays a significant role in strengthening the muscles and bones.

[OR]

What are the types of chicken breeds in Poultry Farming?
Answer:
There are more than 100 breeds. The commonly farmed chicken breeds are categorized into five based on the purpose for which it is farmed. They are egg layers, broiler type, dual type, games and ornamental types.

1. Egg layers: These are farmed mainly for the production of egg.

Leghorn:
This is the most popular commercial breed in India and originated from Italy. They are small, compact with a single comb and wattles with white, brown or black colour.

They mature early and begin to lay eggs at the age of 5 or 6 months. Hence these are preferred in commercial farms. They can also thrive well in dry areas.

Chittagong:
It is the breed chiefly found in West Bengal. They are golden or light yellow coloured. The beak is long and yellow in colour. Ear lobes and wattles are small and red in colour. They are good egg layers and are delicious.

2. Broiler type: These are well known for fast growth and soft quality meat.

White Plymouth rock:
They have white plumage throughout the body. It is commonly used in broiler production. This is an American breed. It is a fast growing breed and well suitable for growing intensively in confined farms.

3. Dual purpose breeds: These are for both meat and egg production purpose.

Brahma:
It is a breed popularly known for its massive body having heavy bones, well feathered and proportionate body. Pea comb is one of the important breed characters. It has two common varieties namely, Light Brahma and Dark Brahma.

4. Game breeds: Since ancient times, special breed of roosters have been used for the sport of cockfighting.

Aseel:
This breed is white or black in colour. The hens are not good egg layers but are good in incubation of eggs. It is found in all states of India. Aseel is noted for its pugnacity, high stamina, and majestic gait and dogged fighting qualities. Although poor in productivity, this breed is well-known for their meat qualities.

5. Ornamental breeds: Ornamental chicken are reared as pets in addition to their use for egg production and meat.

Silkie:
It is a breed of chicken has a typical fluffy plumage, which is said to feel like silk and satin. The breed has numerous additional special characters, such as black skin and bones, blue earlobes, and five toes on each foot, while the majority chickens only have four.

They are exhibited in poultry shows, and come out in various colours. Silkies are well recognized for their calm, friendly temperament. Silkie chicken is especially simple to maintain as pets.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. 1. The question paper comprises of four parts. Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
   2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
   3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
   4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
   5. Question numbers 9 to 14 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
   6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
   7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio – Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Red sea is red colour due to ……………………
(a) Dermacarpa sps
(b) Trichodesmium sps
(c) Scytonema sps
(d) Gloeocapsa sps.
Answer:
(b) Trichodesmium sps

Question 2.
Sago is obtained from …………………..
(a) Cycas revoluta
(b) Pinus roxburghil
(c) Pinus insularis
(d) Cedrus deodara
Answer:
(a) Cycas revoluta

Question 3.
Plants growing on the water surface are called as …………………… type of aquatic plants.
(a) Emergent
(b) Submerged
(c) Free floating
(d) Mangroves
Answer:
(c) Free floating

Question 4.
Synapsis occur between
(a) mRNA and ribosomes
(b) Spindle fibres and centromeres
(c) Two homologous chromosomes
(d) A male and a female gamete
Answer:
(c) Two homologous chromosomes

Question 5.
An example of feedback inhibition is ………………………
(a) Cyanide action on cytochrome
(b) Sulpha drug on folic acid synthesiser bacteria
(c) Allosteric inhibition of hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
(d) The inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate
Answer:
(c) Allosteric inhibition of hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate

Question 6.
Rubber is a …………………..
(a) Latex
(b) Resin
(c) Alkaloid
(d) Drug
Answer:
(a) Latex

Question 7.
Identify the correct statement:
(I) Sulphur is essential for amino acids Cystine and Methionine
(II) Low level of N, K, S and Mo affect the cell division
(III) Non-leguminous plant Aims which contain bacterium Frankia
(IV) Denitrification carried out by Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter
(a) (I), (II) are correct
(b) (I), (II), (III) are correct
(c) (I) only correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(b) (I), (II), (III) are correct

Question 8.
Which step is irrelevant with respect to aerobic respiration?
(a) Glycolysis
(b) Pyruvate oxidate
(c) Fermentation
(d) TCA cycle
Answer:
(c) Fermentation

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
How milk is changed into curd, if a few drops of curd is added to it? What is the reason for its sourness?
Answer:
The change is brought by Lactobacillus lactis, a bacterium present in the curd. The sourness is due to the formation of lactic acid.

Question 10.
What are pyrenoids? Mention its role?
Answer:
Pyrenoids are proteinaceous bodies found in chromatophores of algae and assist in the synthesis and storage of starch.

Question 11.
From which type of flowers does the aggregate fruit develops?
Answer:
Aggregate fruits develop from a single flower having an apocarpous pistil. Each of the free carpel is develops into a simple fruitlet. A collection of simple fruitlets makes an aggregate fruit.

Question 12.
Define magnification. How will you calculate it?
Answer:
The optical increase in the size of an image is called magnification. It is calculated by the following formula;
Magnification =

Question 13.
Define Diffusion Pressure Deficit (DPD)?
Answer:
The difference between the diffusion pressure of the solution and its solvent at a particular . temperature and atmospheric pressure is called as Diffusion Pressure Deficit (DPD).

Question 14.
Name the two forms of phycobilins and also give an example?
Answer:
Phycobilins exists in two form. They are:

1. Phycocyanin found in Cyanobacteria.
2. Phycoerythrin found in red algae.

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Do you think shape of chloroplast is unique for algae? Justify your answer?
Answer:
Variation among the shape of the chloroplast is found in members of algae. It is Cup shaped (Chlartiydomonas), Discoid (Chara), Girdle shaped (Ulothrix), reticulate (Oedogonium), spiral (Spirogyra), stellate (Zygnema) and plate like (Mougeoutia).

Question 16.
Name few molecular markers used in molecular taxonomy?
Answer:
Allozymes, mitochondrial DNA, micro satellites, RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism), RAPD (Random amplified polymorphic DNA), AFLPs (Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism), Single nucleotide Polymorphism – SNP, microchips or arrays.

Question 17.
List out the criteria for being as essential minerals?
Answer:
Amon and Stout (1939) gave criteria required for essential minerals:

1. Elements necessary for growth and development.
2. They should have direct role in the metabolism of the plant.
3. It cannot be replaced by other elements.
4. Deficiency makes the plants impossible to complete their vegetative and reproductive phase.

Question 18.
Draw a simplified diagram showing the various regions of root?
Answer:

Question 19.
What do you mean by the term – Basipetal transport and Acropetal transport?
Answer:
Basipetal means transport through phloem from shoot to root and acropetal means transport through xylem from root to shoot.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Describe in detail about the lytic cycle of phages with diagram?
Answer:
Lytic cycle:
During lytic cycle of phage, disintegration of host bacterial cell occurs and the progeny virions are released. The steps involved in the lytic cycle are as follows:

(I) Adsorption:
Phage (T₄) particles interact with cell wall of host (E coli). The phage tail makes contact between the two, and tail fibres recognize the specific receptor sites present on bacterial cell surface. The lipopolysaccharides of tail fibres act as receptor in phages.

The process involving the recognition of phage to bacterium is called landing. Once the contact is established between tail fibres of phage and bacterial cell, tail fibres bend to anchor the pins and base plate to the cell surface. This step is called pinning.

(II) Penetration:
The penetration process involves mechanical and enzymatic digestion of the cell wall of the host. At the recognition site phage digests certain cell wall structure by viral enzyme (lysozyme). After pinning the tail sheath contracts (using ATP) and appears shorter and thicker.

After contraction of the base plate enlarges through which DNA is injected into the cell wall without using metabolic energy. The step involving injection of DNA particle alone into the bacterial cell is called Transfection. The empty protein coat leaving outside the cell is known as ‘ghost’.

(III) Synthesis:
This step involves the degradation of bacterial chromosome, protein synthesis and DNA replication. The phage nucleic acid takes over the host biosynthetic machinery. Host DNA gets inactivated and breaks down.

Phage DNA suppresses the synthesis of bacterial protein and directs the metabolism of the cell to synthesis the proteins of the phage particles and simultaneously replication of phage DNA also takes place.

(IV) Assembly and Maturation:
The DNA of the phage and protein coat are synthesized separately and are assembled to form phage particles. The process of assembling the phage particles is known as maturation. After 20 minutes of infection about 300 new phages are assembled.

(V) Release:
The phage particle gets accumulated inside the host cell and are released by the lysis of the host cell wall.

[OR]

Draw a flow chart depicting the Bentham and Hooker Classification?
Answer:

Question 21.
With the help of diagram explain the possible route of water across root cells?
Answer:
There are three possible routes of water.
They are:-

1. Apoplast
2. Symplast and
3. Transmembrane route.

1. Apoplast:
The apoplast (Greek: apo = away; plast = cell) consists of everything external to the plasma membrane of the living cell. The apoplast includes cell walls, extra cellular spaces and the interior of dead cells such as vessel elements and tracheids.

In the apoplast pathway, water moves exclusively through the cell wall or the non-living part of the plant without crossing any membrane. The apoplast is a continuous system.

2. Symplast:
The symplast (Greek: sym = within; plast = cell) consists of the entire mass of cytosol of all the living cells in a plant, as well as the plasmodesmata, the cytoplasmic channel that interconnects them.

In the symplastic route, water has to cross plasma membrane to enter the cytoplasm of outer root cell; then it will move within adjoining cytoplasm through plasmodesmata around the vacuoles without the necessity to cross more membrane, till it reaches xylem.

3. Transmembrane route:
In transmembrane pathway water sequentially enters a cell on one side and exits from the cell on the other side. In this pathway, water crosses at least two membranes for each cell. Transport across the tonoplast is also involved.

Mechanism of Water Absorption Kramer (1949) recognized two distinct mechanisms which independently operate in the absorption of water in plants. They are,

1. Active absorption
2. Passive absorption.

[OR]

Explain the types of parasitic mode of nutrition in angiosperms?
Parasitic mode of nutrition in angiosperms:
Answer:
Organisms deriving their nutrient from another organism (host) and causing disease to the host are called parasites.

a. Obligate or Total parasite – Completely depends on host for their survival and produces haustoria.

(I) Total stem parasite:
The leafless stem twine around the host and produce haustoria. Example: Cuscuta (Dodder), a rootless plant growing on Zizyphns, Citrus and so on.

(II) Total root parasite:
They do not have stem axis and grow in the roots of host plants produce haustoria. Example: Rajflesia, Orobanche and Balanophora.

b. Partial parasite – Plants of this group contain chlorophyll and synthesize carbohydrates. Water and mineral requirements are dependent on host plant.

(I) Partial Stem Parasite:
Example: Loranthus and Viscum (Mistletoe) Loranthus grows on fig and mango trees and absorb water and minerals from xylem.

(II) Partial root parasite:
Example: Santalum album (Sandal wood tree) in its juvenile stage produces haustoria which grows on roots of many plants.

Bio – Zoology [Maximum marks: 35]

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Which is not a unit of taxonomic category?
(a) Series
(b) Glumaceae
(c) Class
(d) Phylum
Answer:
(b) Glumaceae

Question 2.
Study of ticks and mites is ……………………
(a) Acarology
(b) Entomology
(c) Malacology
(d) Carcinology
Answer:
(a) Acarology

Question 3.
Match the List – I and List – II.

List – I	List – II
1. Silver fish	(i) Book lung
2. Scorphion	(ii) Pharyngeal gills
3. Sea squirt	(iii) Lungs
4. Dolphin	(iv) Trachea

Answer:
(a) 1 – (iv), 2 – (i), 3 – (iii), 4 – (ii)
(b) 1 – (iv), 2 – (i), 3 – (ii), 4 – (iii)
(c) 1 – (i), 2 – (iii), 3 – (iv), 4 – (ii)
(d) 1 – (i), 2 – (iv), 3 – (iii), 4 – (ii)

Question 4.
MSH stands for ……………………
(a) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
(b) Malic stimulating hormone
(c) Myosin stimulating hormone
(d) Metabolic stimulating hormone
Answer:
(a) Melanocyte stimulating hormone

Question 5.
Which of the following is an correct statement?
(a) Ehler’s – Danlos syndrome – Affects collagen and results in facial abnormalities.
(b) Rhabdomyosarconca – Life threatening soft tissue tumour of head, neck and urinogenital tract.
(c) Rheumatoid arthritis – Progressive inability to secrete saliva and tears.
(d) Alzheiner’s disease – A degenerative disorder of the nervous system that affects movement often including tremors.
Answer:
(b) Rhabdomyosarconca – Life threatening soft tissue tumour of head, neck and urinogenital tract.

Question 6.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) The functions of frontal region are Behaviour, intelligence, memory and movement.
(b) The functions of parietal region is intelligence and memory.
(c) The functions of temporal region are speech, hearing and memory.
(d) The functions of occipital region is visual processing.
Answer:
(b) The functions of parietal region is intelligence and memory.

Question 7.
Synovial fluid is present in …………………….
(a) Spinal cavity
(b) Cranial activity
(c) Freely movable joints
(d) Fixed joints
Answer:
(c) Freely movable joints

Question 8.
Glands responsible for secreting tears are ………………………….
(a) Glands of moll
(b) Lacrimal glands
(c) Meibomian glands
(d) Glands of Zeis
Answer:
(b) Lacrimal glands

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Why are spongin and spicules important to a sponge?
Answer:
Spongin and spicules provide support and supports the soft body parts of the sponges. The spicules give the sponges rigidity and form to the sponges.

Question 10.
What is water vascular system?
Answer:
The system which helps in nutrition and respiration in echinoderms is called water vascular system. Water enters into the body through special organs.

Question 11.
Difference between chordates and non-chordates?
Answer:

S.No	Chordates	Non-Chordates
1.	Notochord is present.	Absence of notochord.
2.	Pharynx perforated by gill slits.	Gill slits absent.
3.	A post anal tail is present.	Post anal tail is absent.

Question 12.
Draw the diagram of head region of Periplaneta americana?
Answer:

Question 13.
Name the different types of movement?
Answer:

1. Amoeboid movement.
2. Ciliary movement.
3. Flagellar movement.
4. Muscular movement.

Question 14.
What is endomysium?
Answer:
The connective tissue surrounding the muscle fibre is called the endomysium.

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
What are the classical taxonomical tools?
Answer:
Taxonomical tools are the tools for the study of classification of organisms.
They include:-

Taxonomical keys:
Keys are based on comparative analysis of the similarities and dissimilarities of organisms. There are separate keys for different taxonomic categories.

Museum:
Biological Museums have collection of preserved plants and animals for study and ready reference. Specimens of both extinct and living organisms can be studied.

Zoological parks:
These are places where wild animals are kept in protected environments under human care. It enables us to study their food habits and behavior.

Marine parks:
Marine organisms are maintained in protected environments.

Printed taxonomical tools:
It consist of identification cards, description, field guides and manuals.

Question 16.
Differentiate Ehler’s – Danlos syndrome and stickler syndrome?
Answer:
Ehler’s – Danlos syndrome is the defect in the synthesis of collagen in the joints, heart valves, organ walls and arterial walls:
Stickler syndrome is a group of hereditary conditions affecting collagen and results in facial abnormalities.

Question 17.
Define Purkinje fibres?
Answer:
Two special cardiac muscle fibres originate from the auriculo ventricular node and are called the bundle of his which runs down into the interventricular septum and the fibres spread into the ventricles. These fibres are called the Purkinje fibres.

Question 18.
Draw the diagram of pelvic girdle with lower limb?
Answer:

Question 19.
What are the symptoms of acromegaly?
Answer:
Acromegaly is caused due to excessive secretion of growth hormone in adults. The symptoms of acromegaly are:

1. Overgrowth of hand bones, feet bones, jaw bones.
2. Malfunctioning of gonads.
3. Enlargement of viscera, tongue, lungs, heart, liver, splean and endocrine glands like thyroid, or adrenal glands.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Describe the digestive system of Lamipto mauritii?
Answer:
The digestive system of the earthworm consists of the alimentary canal and the digestive glands. The alimentary canal runs as a straight tube throughout the length of the body from the mouth to anus.

The mouth opens into the buccal cavity which occupies the 1s^stand 2^2nd segments. The buccal cavity leads into a thick muscular pharynx,which occupies the 3^rd and 4^th segments and is surrounded by the pharyngeal glands.

A small narrow tube, oesophagus lies in the 5^th segment and continues into a muscular gizzard in the 6^th segment. The gizzard helps in the grinding of soil particles and decaying leaves. Intestine starts from the 7^th segment and continues till the last segment.

The dorsal wall of the intestine is folded into the cavity as the typhlosole. This fold contains blood vessels and increases the absorptive area of the intestine. The imier epithelium consists of columnar cells and glandular cells. The alimentary canal opens to the exterior through the anus.

The ingested organic rich soil passes through the digestive tract where digestive enzymes breakdown complex food into smaller absorbable units. The simpler molecules are absorbed through the intestinal membrane and are utilized.

The undigested particles along with earth are passed out through the anus, as worm castings or vermicasts. The pharyngeal or salivary gland cells and the glandular cells of the intestine are supposed to be the digestive glands which secrete digestive enzymes for digestion of food.

[OR]

What are the effects of smoking?
Answer:
Today due to curiosity, excitement or adventure youngsters start to smoke and later get addicted to smoking. Research says about 80% of the lung cancer is due to cigarette smoking. Smoking is inhaling the smoke from burning tobacco. There are thousands of known chemicals which includes nicotine, tar, carbon monoxide, ammonia, sulphur-dioxide and even small quantities of arsenic.

Carbon monoxide and nicotine damage the cardiovascular system and tar damages the gaseous exchange system. Nicotine is the chemical that causes addiction and is a stimulant which makes the heart beat faster and the narrowing of blood vessels results in raised blood pressure and coronary heart diseases.

Presence of carbon monoxide reduces oxygen supply. Lung cancer, mouth cancer and larynx is more common in smokers than non – smokers. Smoking also causes cancer of the stomach, pancreas and bladder and lowers sperm count in men.

Smoking can cause lunb diseases by damaging the airways and alveoli and results in emphysema and chronic bronchitis. These two diseases along with asthma are often referred as Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD).

When a person smokes, nearly 85% of the smoke released is inhaled by the smoker himself and others in the vicinity, called passive smokers, are also affected. Guidance or counselling should be done in such users to withdraw this habit.

Question 21.
Explain the structure of spinal cord?
Answer:
The spinal cord is a long, slender, cylindrical nervous tissue. It is protected by the vertebral column and surrounded by the three membranes as in the brain. The spinal cord that extends from the brain stem into the vertebral canal of the vertebral column up to the level of 1^st or 2^2nd lumbar vertebra.

So the nerve roots of the remaining nerves are greatly elongated to exit the vertebral column at their appropriate space. The thick bundle of elongated nerve . roots within the lower vertebral canal is called the cauda equina (horse’s tail) because of its appearance.

In the cross section of spinal cord, there are two indentations: the posterior median sulcus and the anterior median fissure. Although there might be slight variations, the cross section of spinal cord is generally the same throughout its length. In contrast to the brain, the grey matter in the spinal cord forms an inner butterfly shaped region surrounded by the outer white matter.

The grey matter consists of neuronal cell bodies and their dendrites, intemeurons and glial cells. White matter consists of bundles of nerve fibres. In the center of the grey matter there is a central canal which is filled with CSF. Each half of the grey matter is divided into a dorsal horn, a ventral hom and a lateral horn.

The dorsal horn contains cell bodies of interneurons on which afferent neurons terminate. The ventral hom contains cell bodies of the efferent motor neurons supplying the skeletal muscle. Autonomic nerve fibres, supplying cardiac and smooth muscles and exocrine glands, originate from the cell bodies found in the lateral horn.

In the white matter, the bundles of nerve fibres form two types of tracts namely ascending tracts which carry’ sensory impulses to the brain and descending tracts which carry motor impulses from the brain to the spinal nerves at various levels of the spinal cord. The spinal cord shows two enlargements,one in the cervical region and another one in the lumbosacral region. The cervical enlargement serves the upper limb and lumbar enlargement serves the lower limbs.

[OR]

What are the stages involved in rearing of chicken?
Answer:
Stages involved in rearing:
There are some steps involved in rearing of chicken.

1. Selection of the best layer:
An active intelligent looking bird, with a bright comb, not obese should be selected.

2. Selection of eggs for hatching:
Eggs should be selected very carefully. Eggs should be fertile, medium sized, dark brown shelled and freshly laid eggs are preferred for rearing. Eggs should be washed, cleaned and dried.

3. Incubation and hatching:
The maintenance of newly laid eggs in optimum condition till hatching is called incubation. The fully developed chick emerges out of egg after an incubation period of 21 – 22 days.

There are two types of incubation namely natural incubation and artificial incubation. In the natural incubation method, only a limited number of eggs can be incubated by a mother hen. In artificial incubation, more number of eggs can be incubated in a chamber (Incubator).

4. Brooding:
Caring and management of young chicks for 4 – 6 weeks immediately after hatching is called brooding. It can also be categorized into two types namely natural and artificial brooding.

5. Housing of Poultry:
To protect the poultry from sun, rain and predators it is necessary to provide housing to poultry. Poultry house should be moisture proof, rat proof and it should be easily cleanable and durable.

6. Poultry feeding:
The diet of chicks should contain adequate amount of water,carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins and minerals.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. 1. The question paper comprises of four parts. Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
   2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
   3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
   4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
   5. Question numbers 9 to 14 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
   6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
   7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio – Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – 1

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Syphilis is caused by …………………..
(a) Mycococcus candisans
(b) Treponema pallidum
(c) Yersinia pestis
(d) Mycobacterium leprae
Answer:
(b) Treponema pallidum

Question 2.
Who is called as the Father of Indian Phycology?
(a) M.O. Parthasarathy
(b) Y. Bharadwaja
(c) V.S. Sundaralingam
(d) V. Desikachary
Answer:
(a) M.O. Parthasarathy

Question 3.
Which of the following plant possess sessile leaves?
(a) Hibiscus
(b) Mangifera
(c) Psidium
(d) Gloriosa
Answer:
(d) Gloriosa

Question 4.
Histone proteins are seen in the DNA of …………………..
(a) Pseudokaryotes
(b) Prokaryotes
(c) Mesokaryotes
(d) Eukaryotes
Answer:
(d) Eukaryotes

Question 5.
Number of fatty acids in triglyceride is ……………………
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 6.
Principle behind the desalination of sea water is ……………………
(a) Endosmosis
(b) Diffusion
(c) Reverse osmosis
(d) Deplasmolysis
Answer:
(c) Reverse osmosis

Question 7.
In Emerson’s first effect, the photosynthetic yield was dropped in the region above ……………………
(a) 720 nm
(b) 620 nm
(c) 680 nm
(d) 600 nm
Answer:
(d) 600 nm

Question 8.
Which of the following plant hormone functions against auxin?
(a) Gibberellin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Ethylene
(d) Abscissic acid
Answer:
(d) Abscissic acid

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What is Porin? How it helps the bacteria?
Answer:
Porin is an abundant polypeptide present in bacterial cell walls. It helps in the diffusion of solutes.

Question 10.
Mention various types of stem seen in angiosperms?
Answer:
Majority of angiosperm possess upright, vertically growing erect stem. They are

1. Excurrent
2. Decurrent
3. Caudex and
4. Culm.

Question 11.
How will you define inflorescence?
Answer:
An inflorescence is a group of flowers arising from a branched or unbranched axis with a definite pattern.

Question 12.
List out the disadvantages of Amitosis?
Answer:

1. Causes unequal distribution of chromosomes.
2. Can lead to abnormalities in metabolism and reproduction.

Question 13.
State Relay Pump theory?
Relay pump theory of Godlewski (1884)
Answer:
Periodic changes in osmotic pressure of living cells of the xylem parenchyma and medullary ray act as a pump for the movement of water.

Question 14.
Define anaerobic photosynthesis?
Answer:
In some bacteria, oxygen is not evolved and is called as non-oxygenic and anaerobic photosynthesis. Examples: Green sulphur, Purple sulphur and green filamentous bacteria.

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Who is called as founder of modern bacteriology? Mention his contribution?
Answer:
Robert Heinrich Hermann Koch is considered as the founder of modem bacteriology. He identified the causal organism for Anthrax, Cholera and Tuberculosis. He proved experimental evidence for the concept of infection (Koch’s postulates).

Question 16.
List down the key difference between roots and shoots?
Answer:

Roots	Shoots
1. Positively geotropic	1. Negatively geotropic
2. Negatively phototropic	2. Positively phototropic
3. Non-green in colour	3. Green in colour
4. Nodes, intemodes and buds are absent.	4. Nodes, intemodes and buds are present

Question 17.
Differentiate between Taxonomy & Systematics?
Answer:

Taxonomy	Systematics
1. Discipline of classifying organisms into taxa.	1. Broad field of biology that studies the diversification of species.
2. Governs the practices of naming, describing, identifying and specimen preservation.	2. Governs the evolutionary history and phylogenetic relationship in addition to taxonomy
3. Classification + Nomenclature = Taxonomy	3. Taxonomy + Phylogeny = Systematics

Question 18.
What do you mean by Phloem loading?
Answer:
The movement of photosynthates (products of photosynthesis) from mesophyll cells to phloem sieve elements of mature leaves is known as phloem loading.

Question 19.
Define Dark Reaction?
Answer:
Fixation and reduction of CO₂ into carbohydrates with the help of assimilatory power produced during light reaction. This reaction does not require light and is not directly light driven. Hence, it is called as Dark reaction or Calvin-Benson cycle.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
List out the salient features of Basidiomycetes?
Answer:

• Basidiomycetes include puffballs, toad stools, Bird nest’s fungi, Bracket fungi, stink horns, rusts and smuts.
• The members are terrestrial and lead a saprophytic and parasitic mode of life.
• The mycelium is well developed, septate with dolipore septum (bracket like). Three types of mycelium namely primary (Monokaryotic), secondary (Dikaryotic) and tertiary are found.
• Clamp connections are formed to maintain dikaryotic condition.
• Asexual reproduction is by means of conidia, oidia or budding.
• Sexual reproduction is present but sex organs are absent. Somatogamy or spermatisation results in plasmogamy. Karyogamy is delayed and – dikaryotic phase is prolonged. Karyogamy takes place in basidium and it is immediately followed by meiotic division.
• The four nuclei thus formed are transformed into basidiospores which are borne on sterigmata outside the basidium (Exogenous). The basidium is club shaped with four basidiospores, thus this group of fungi is popularly called “Club fungi”. The fruit body formed is called Basidiocarp.

[OR]

List out the general characters of Pteridophytes?
Answer:
General characteristic features of Pteridophytes:

1. Plant body is sporophyte (2n) and it is the dominant phase. It is differentiated into root, stem and leaves.
2. Roots are adventitious.
3. Stem shows monopodial or dichotomous branching.
4. Leaves may be microphyllous or megaphyllous.
5. Stele is protostele but in some forms siphonostele is present (Marsilea)
6. Tracheids are the major water conducting elements but in Selaginella vessels are found.
7. Sporangia, spore bearing bag like structures are borne on special leaves called sporophyll. The sporophylls gets organized to form cone or strobilus. e.g., Selaginella and Equisetum.
8. They may be homosporous (produce one type of spores – Lycopodium) or Heterosporous (produce two types of spores -Selaginella). Heterospory is the origin for seed habit.
9. Development of sporangia may be eusporangiate (development of sporangium from group of initials) or leptosporangiate (development of sporangium from single initial).
10. Spore mother cells undergo meiosis and produce spores (n).
11. Spore germinates to produce haploid, multicellular green, cordate shaped independent gametophytes called prothallus.
12. Fragmentation, resting buds, root tubers and adventitious buds help in vegetative reproduction.
13. Sexual reproduction is Oogamous. Sex organs, namely antheridium and archegonium are produced on the prothallus.
14. Antheridium produces spirally coiled and multiflagellate antherozoids.
15. Archegonium is flask shaped with broad venter and elongated narrow neck. The venter possesses egg or ovum and neck contain neck canal cells.
16. Water is essential for fertilization. After fertilization a diploid zygote is formed and undergoes mitotic division to form embryo.
17. Pteridophytes show apogamy and apospory.

Question 21.
Draw a flow chart of Kreb’s cycle?
Answer:

[OR]

Give a detailed account on geometric growth rate?
Answer:
This growth occurs in many higher plants and plant organs and is measured in size or weight. In plant growth, geometric cell division results if all cells of an organism or tissue are active mitotically. Example: Round three in the given figure 15.5, produces 8 cells as 23 58 and after round 20 there are 220 5 1,048,576 cells.

The large plant or animal parts are produced this way. In fact, it is common in animals but rare in plants except when they are young and small. Exponential growth curve can be expressed as,

W₁ = W₀e^rt
W₁ = Final size at the beginning of the period
W₀ = Initial size at the beginning of the period
r = Growth rate
t = Time of growth
e = Base of the natural logarithms

Here ‘r’ is the relative rate and also a measure of the ability of the plant to produce new plant material, reffered to as efficiency index. Hence, the final size of W₁ depends on the initial size W₀.

Bio – Zoology [Maximum marks: 35]

PART – 1

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Which class of protozoa is totally parasitic …………………….
(a) Sporozoa
(b) Mastigophora
(c) Ciliate
(d) Sarcodina
Answer:
(a) Sporozoa

Question 2.
Medusa is the Reproductive organs of ……………………..
(a) Hydra
(b) Aurelia
(c) Obelia
(d) Sea anemone
Answer:
(b) Aurelia

Question 3.
Match the List I and List II.

List I	List II
1. Ball and socket	(i) Knee
2. Hinge	(ii) Humerous and pectoral of girdle
3. Pivot	(iii) Carpal and metacarpal of thumb
4. Saddle	(iv) Atlas and axis

(a) 1 – (i), 2 – (ii), 3 – (iii), 4 – (iv)
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)
(c) 1 – (iv), 2 – (iii), 3 – (i), (4) – (ii)
(d) 1 – (iii), 2 – (iv), 3 – (ii), 4 – (i)
Answer:
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)

Question 4.
LH – stands for ………………………
(a) Luteinising hormone
(b) Langerhans hormome
(c) Low secretion hormone
(d) Luteotrophic hormone
Answer:
(a) Luteinising hormone

Question 5.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Calcitonin and thymosin are thyroid hormones.
(b) Pepsin and prolactin are selected in stomach.
(c) Secretin and rhodopsin are polypeptide hormones.
(d) Cortisol and aldosterone are steroid hormones.
Answer:
(d) Cortisol and aldosterone are steroid hormones.

Question 6.
Which of the following statement is incorrect regard to species …………………….
(a) They have similar morphological
(b) They are reproductively isolated
(c) They produce viable young ones
(d) They have similar anatomical features
Answer:
(b) They are reproductively isolated

Question 7.
The kidney of adult mammals is ……………………
(a) Opisthonephron
(b) Pronephros
(c) Mesonephros
(d) Metanephros
Answer:
(d) Metanephros

Question 8.
Deficiency of calciferol causes ………………………
(a) Scurvy
(b) Leucopenia
(c) Leukaemia
(d) Rickets
Answer:
(d) Rickets

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Why mule is sterile in nature?
Answer:
Mule gets one set of chromosomes (32) from male parent, horse and one set of chromosomes (31) from female parent, donkey. These two sets of chromosomes do not match with each other and cannot produce gametes by meiosis. Hence mule is sterile in nature.

Question 10.
Define macrophages?
Answer:
Macrophages are Immune cells derived from monocytes; engaged in phagocytosis of microbes and debris.

Question 11.
Differentiate between peristomium and prostomium in earthworm?
Answer:

Peristomium	Prostomium
1. The first segment of the body of earthworm is called peristomium.	1. A small flap overhanging the mouth is called prostomium or upper lip.

Question 12.
Draw the diagram of structure of alveoil?
Answer:

Question 13.
How is urea formed in the human body?
Answer:
More toxic ammonia produced as a result of breakdown of amino acids is converted into less toxic urea in the liver by a cyclic process called Ornithine cycle.

Question 14.
Write the symptoms of cretinism?
Answer:
Cretinism is caused due to hypothyroidism in infants. A cretin child shows the following symptoms

1. Retarded skeletal growth
2. Absence of sexual maturity
3. Retarded mental ability
4. Thick and short limbs
5. Thick wrinkled skin
6. Bloated face
7. Protruded enlarged tongue
8. Low BMR, slow pulse rate, subnormal body temperature and elevated blood cholesterol levels

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
What is Canal system?
Answer:
The water transport system in sponges through which water enters through minute pores and goes out through the large opening called osculum. It helps is nutrition, circulation, respiration and excretion.

Question 16.
Draw the diagram of structure of the heart?
Answer:

Question 17.
What are spinal nerves?
Answer:
The 31 pairs of nerves which emerge out from the spinal cord through spaces called the intevertebral foramina found between the adjacent vertebrae are the spinal nerves.

Question 18.
Classify organisms on the basis of seven kingdom system?
Answer:

Question 19.
Distinguish between exocrine glands and endocrine glands?
Answer:

Exocrine glands	Endocrine glands
1. These glands release their products through ducts.	1. These are ductless gland and their secretions are released directly into the blood,
2. These secrete mucous, saliva, ear wax, oil, milk, digestive enzyme etc. e.g. Salivary glands.	2. These secrete hormones, e.g. Pituitary gland.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Explain the conditions which creates problems in oxygen transport?
Answer:
When a person travels quickly from sea level to elevations above 8000 ft, where the atmospheric pressure and partial pressure of oxygen are lowered, the individual responds with symptoms of acute mountain sickness (AMS)- headache, shortness of breath, nausea and dizziness due to poor binding of O₂ with haemoglobin.

When the person moves on a long – term basis to mountains from sea level is body begins to make respiratory and haematopoietic adjustments. To overcome this situation kidneys accelerate production of the hormone erythropoietin, which stimulates the bone marrow to produce more RBCs.

When a person descends deep into the sea, the pressure in the surrounding water increases which causes the lungs to decrease in volume.

This decrease in volume increases the partial pressure of the gases within the lungs. This effect can be beneficial, because it tends to drive additional oxygen into the circulation, but this benefit also has a risk, the increased pressure can also drive nitrogen gas into the circulation.

This increase in blood nitrogen content can lead to a condition called nitrogen narcosis. When the diver ascends to the surface too quickly a condition called ‘bends’ or decompression sickness occurs and nitrogen comes out of solution while still in the blood forming bubbles.

Small bubbles in the blood are not harmful, but large bubbles can lodge in small capillaries, blocking blood flow or can press on nerve endings. Decompression sickness is associated with pain in joints and muscles and neurological problems including stroke. The risk of nitrogen narcosis and bends is common in scuba divers.

During carbon-dioxide poisoning, the demand for oxygen increases. As the O₂ level in the blood decreases it leads to suffocation and the skin turns bluish black.

[OR]

What is an epithelium? Enumerate the characteristic features of different epithelia?
Answer:
Simple epithelium is a simple layered sheet of cells that covers the body surface or lines the body cavity.
Types:

1. Squamous epithelium: It is made of flattened cells with irregular boundaries. It is found in glomeruli, air sacs of lungs, lining of heart, blood vessels.
2. Cuboidal epithelium: It is made of cube like cells. It is found in kidney tubules, ducts and glands. It is important for secretion and absorption.
3. Columnar epithelium: It is made of column like cells. It lines the digestive tract. It is important for secretion and absorption.
4. Ciliated epithelium: It has cilia at the free end. It is found in bronchi, uterine tubes. It is helpful in propelling materials.
5. Glandular epithelium: Cuboidal or columnar epithelium specialized for secretion is called glandular epithelium. E.g., goblet cells and salivary gland.

Compound epithelium:

1. Compound epithelium is made up of multilayered cells.
2. These protect organs against chemical and mechanical stresses.
3. These cover the dry surface of the skin, moist surface of the buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of ducts of salivary glands and pancreatic ducts.

Classification of Compound epithelium:

Question 21.
Write a detailed account of gastro intestinal tract hormones?
Answer:
Group of specialized endocrine cells present in gastro – intestinal tract secretes hormones such as gastrin, cholecystokinin (CCK), secretin and gastric inhibitory peptides (GIP). Gastrin acts on the gastric glands and stimulates the secretion of HCl and pepsinogen. Cholecystokinin (CCK) is secreted by duodenum in response to the presence of fat and acid in the diet.

It acts on the gall bladder to release bile into duodenum and stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and its discharge. Secretin acts on acini cells of pancreas to secrete bicarbonate ions and water to neutralize the acidity. Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) inhibits gastric secretion and motility.

[OR]

Discuss the various techniques adopted in cattle breeding?
Answer:
Methods of Animal breeding:
There are two methods of animal breeding, namely inbreeding and outbreeding

1. Inbreeding:
Breeding between animals of the same breed for 4-6 generations is called inbreeding. Inbreeding increases homozygosity and exposes the harmful recessive genes. Continuous inbreeding reduces fertility and even productivity, resulting in “inbreeding depression”.

This can be avoided by breeding selected animals of the breeding population and they should be mated with superior animals of the same breed but unrelated to the breeding population. It helps to restore fertility and yield.

2. Outbreeding:
The breeding between unrelated animals is called outbreeding. Individuals produced do not have common ancestors for 4-6 generations.

Outbreeding helps to produce new and favourable traits, to produce hybrids with superior qualities and helps to create new breeds. New and favourable genes can be introduced into a population through outbreeding.

(I) Out crossing:
It is the breeding between unrelated animals of the same breed but having no common ancestry. The offspring of such a cross is called outcross. This method is suitable for breeding animals that are below average in productivity.

(II) Cross breeding:
Breeding between a superior male of one breed with a superior female of another breed. The cross bred progeny has superior traits (hybrid vigour or heterosis.)

(III) Interspecific hybridization:
In this method of breeding mating is between male and female of two different species. The progeny obtained from such crosses are different from their parents, and may possess the desirable traits of the parents. Mule was produced by the process of interspecific hybridization between a male donkey and a female horse.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2:30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

PART – 1

Answer all the Questions: [15 × 1 = 15]
Choose the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives.

Question 1.
The equivalent mass of ferrous oxalate is …………………….
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) None of these
Solution:

n = 1 + 2(1) = 3
Answer:
(c)

Question 2.
Time independent Schnodinger wave equation is ………………….
(a) \(\widehat{\mathrm{H}} \psi=\mathrm{E} \psi\)
(b) \(\nabla^{2} \psi+\frac{8 \pi^{2} m}{h^{2}}(E+V) \psi=0\)
(c) \(\frac{\partial^{2} \Psi}{\partial x^{2}}+\frac{\partial^{2} \Psi}{\partial y^{2}}+\frac{\partial^{2} \Psi}{\partial z^{2}}+\frac{2 m}{h^{2}}(E-V) \psi=0\)
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) \(\widehat{\mathrm{H}} \psi=\mathrm{E} \psi\)

Question 3.
Choose the incorrect statement.
(а) The chemical symbol of nickel is Ni.
(b) An element is a material made up of different kind of atoms.
(c) The physical state of bromine is liquid.
(d) The physical and chemical properties of the elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers.
Answer:
(b) An element is a material made up of different kind of atoms.

Question 4.
Assertion: Permanent hardness of water is removed by treatment with washing soda.
Reason: Washing soda reacts with soluble calcium and magnesium chlorides and sulphates in hard water to form insoluble carbonates.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
(d) Both assertion and reason are false
Solution:
Ca²⁺ + Na₂CO₃ → CaCO₃↓+ 2Na⁺
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 5.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 6.
Compressibility factor for CO₂ at 400 K and 71.0 bar is 0.8697. The molar volume of CO₂under these conditions is …………………………
(a) 22.04 dm³
(b) 2.24 dm³
(c) 0.41 dm³
(d) 19.5 dm³
Solution:
Compressibility factor (z) = \(\frac{PV}{nRT}\)
V = \(\frac{z × nRT}{p}\) = \(\frac{0.8697 \times 1 \times 8.314 \times 10^{-2} \mathrm{bar} \mathrm{dm}^{3} \mathrm{K}^{-1} \mathrm{mol}^{-1} \times 400 \mathrm{K}}{71 \mathrm{bar}}\)
V = 0.41 dm³
Answer:
(c) 0.41 dm³

Question 7.
Thermodynamics is applicable to …………………….
(a) Macroscopic system only
(b) Microscopic system only
(c) Homogenous system only
(d) Heterogeneous system only
Answer:
(a) Macroscopic system only

Question 8.
In the reaction, Fe(OH)₃ (s) ⇄ Fe³⁺ (aq) + 3OH^–(aq), if the concentration of OH^– ions is decreased by \(\frac{1}{4}\) times, then the equilibrium concentration of Fe³⁺ will …………………….
(a) Not changed
(b) Also decreased by \(\frac{1}{4}\) times
(c) Increase by 4 times
(d) Increase by 64 times
Solution:

When concentration of OH^– ions declared by \(\frac{1}{4}\) times, then

To maintain K_C as constant, concentration of Fe³⁺ will increase by 64 times.
Answer:
(d) Increase by 64 times

Question 9.
The degree of dissociation a is equal to ……………………
(a) \(\frac{i-1}{n-1}\)
(b) \(\frac{(1-i)n}{n-1}\)
(c) \(\frac{i+1}{n+1}\)
(d) \(\frac{(1+i)n}{n+1}\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{i-1}{n-1}\)

Question 10.
The molecules having same hybridisation, shape and number of lone pair of electrons are ………………………..
(a) SeF₄, XeO₂F₂
(b) SF₄, XeF₂
(c) XeOF₄, TeF₄
(d) SeCl₄, XeF₄
Solution:
SeF₄, XeO₂F₂ – sp³d hybridisation
T-shaped, one lone pair on central atom.
Answer:
(a) SeF₄, XeO₂F₂

Question 11.
Connect pair of compounds which give blue colouration/precipitate and white precipitate respectively, when their Lassaigne’s test is separately done.
(a) NH₂NH₂HCl and ClCH₂ – CHO
(b) NH₂CS NH₂ and CH₃ – CH₂Cl
(c) NH₂CH₂ COOH and NH₂ CONH₂
(d) C₆H₅NH₂ and ClCH₂ – CHO
Answer:
(d) C₆H₅NH₂ and ClCH₂ – CHO

Question 12.
4-hydroxy phenol oxidised in the presence of K₂Cr₂O₇?H⁺ to give, …………………….
(a) Quinol
(b) Quinone
(c) Diol
(d) Alkane
Answer:
(b) Quinone

Question 13.
Methane gas is also called as ……………………
(a) Marsh gas
(b) Mass gas
(c) Molecular gas
(d) Model gas
Answer:
(a) Marsh gas

Question 14.
The catalyst used in Darzen halogenation of alcohol is ……………………..
(a) CCl₄
(b) Acetone
(c) Pyridine
(d) Ethene
Answer:
(c) Pyridine

Question 15.
Identify the wrong statement in the following.
(a) The clean water would have a BOD value of more than 5 ppm
(b) Greenhouse effect is also called as Global warming
(c) Minute solid particles in air is known as particulate pollutants
(d) Biosphere is the protective blanket of gases surrounding the earth
Answer:
(a) The clean water would have a BOD value of more than 5 ppm

PART – II

Answer any six questions in which question No. 20 is compulsory. [6 × 2 = 12]

Question 16.
First ionization potential of C-atom is greater than that of B-atom, where as the reverse is true for second ionization potential?
Answer:
G (Z = 6) 1s² 2s² 2p_x‘ 2p_y‘. The electron removal from p orbital is very difficult. So carbon has highest first ionization potential.
B (Z = 5) 1s² 2s² 2p¹. In boron nuclear charge is less than that of carbon, so boron has lowest first ionization potential.
I.E₁ C > I.E₁B

But it is reverse in the case of second ionization energy. Because in case of B⁺ the electronic configuration is 1s² 2s², which is completely filled and it has high ionization energy. But in C⁺ the electronic configuration is 1s² 2s² 2p¹, one electron removal is easy so it has low ionization energy.

Question 17.
Why H₂O₂ is used as mild antiseptic?
Answer:
The oxidising property of hydrogen peroxide and harmless nature of its products such as water and oxygen, leads to oxidation of pollutants in water and act as a mild antiseptic.

Question 18.
An alkali metal (x) forms a hydrated sulphate, X₂SO₄.10H₂O. Is the metal more likely to be sodium (or) potassium?
Answer:
X forms X₂SO₄. 10H₂O. The metal is more likely be sodium. So X is Na₂SO₄. 10H₂O. It is otherwise called as Glauber’s salt.

Question 19.
Define Zeroth law of thermodynamics (or) Law of thermal equilibrium?
Answer:
Zeroth law of thermodynamics states that ‘If two systems at different temperatures are separately in thermal equilibrium with a third one, then they tend to be in thermal equilibrium with themselves’.

Question 20.
2.82 g of glucose is dissolved in 30 g of water. Calculate the mole fraction of glucose and water?
Solution:
Mass of glucose = 2.82 g
No. of moles of glucose = \(\frac{2.82}{180}\) = 0.016
Mass of water = 30g = \(\frac{20}{18}\) = 1.67
x_H2O = \(\frac{1.67}{1.67+0.016}\) = \(\frac{1.67}{1.686}\) = 0.99
∴x_H2O + xx_glucose = 1
0.99 + x_glucose = 1
x_glucose = 1 – 0.99 = 0.01

Question 21.
Considering x-axis as molecular axis, which out of the following will form a sigma bond.

1. 1s and 2p_y
2. 2p_x and 2p_x
3. 2p_x and 2p_y
4. 1s and 2p_z

Answer:
Along X-axis as molecular axis, only 2p_x and 2p_y can form a sigma bond

2p_x + 2p_y and 1s and 2p₂ also cannot form σ bond.

Question 22.
What happen when nitrile undergoes acid hydrolysis?
Answer:
When alkyl nitrile undergoes acid hydrolysis to give amide, which on further hydrolysis to give carboxylic acid.

Question 23.
How ozone reacts with 2-methyl propene?
Answer:

Question 24.
What are Freons? Discuss their uses and environmental effects?
Answer:
Freons are the chlorofluoro derivatives of methane and ethane.
Freon is represented as Freon – cba
Where, c – number of carbon atoms, b = number of hydrogen atoms,
a = total number of fluorine atoms.

Uses of Freons:

1. Freons are used as refrigerants in refrigerators and air conditioners.
2. It is used as a propellant for aerosols and foams.
3. It is used as propellant for foams, to spray out deodorants, shaving creams and insecticides.

Environmental effects of Freons:

1. Freon gas is a very powerful greenhouse gas which means that it traps the heat normally radiated from the earth out into the space. This causes the earth’s temperature to increase, resulting in rising sea levels, droughts, stronger storms, flash floods and a host of other very unpleasant effect. ,

2. As freon moves throughout the air, its chemical ingredients causes depletion of ozone layer. Depletion of ozone increases the amount of ultraviolet radiations that reaches the earths surface, resulting in serious risk to human health. High levels of ozone, in turn, causes respiratory problems and can also kill plants.

PART – III

Answer any six questions in which question No. 26 is compulsory. [6 × 3 = 18]

Question 25.
The first ionisation energy (IE₁) and second ionisation energy (IE₂) of elements X, Y and Z are given below.

Which one of the above elements is the most reactive metal, the least reactive metal and a noble gas?
Answer:
Noble gases: Ioniation energy ranging from 2372 KJ mol^-1 to 1037 kJ mol^-1.
For element X, the IE₁, value is in the range of noble gas, moreover for this element both IE₁ and IE₂ are higher and hence X is the noble gas.

For Y, the first ionisation energy is low and second ionisation energy is very high and hence Y is most reactive metal.
For Z, both IE₁ and IE₂ are higher and hence it is least reactive.

Question 26.
An isotope of hydrogen (A) reacts with diatomic molecule of element which occupies group number 16 and period number 2 to give compound (B) is used as a modulator in nuclear reaction. (A) adds on to a compound (C), which has the molecular formula C₃H₆ to give (D). Identify A, B, C and D?
Answer:
(I) An isotope of hydrogen Deuterium (A) reacts with diatomic molecule of element belongs to group number 16 and period number 2 oxygen O₂ to give a compound (B) which is heavy water D₂O. D₂O is used as a moderator in nuclear reaction:

(II) Deuterium reacts with C₃H₆ propane (C) to give Deutero propane C₂D₆ (D).

Question 27.
Give the uses of gypsum?
Answer:

1. The Alabaster variety qf gypsum was used by the sculptors.
2. Gypsum is used in making drywalls or plaster boards.
3. Gypsum is used in the production of Plaster of Paris, which is used as a sculpting material.
4. Gypsum is used in making surgical and orthopedic casts.
5. It plays an important role in agriculture as a soil additive, conditioner and fertilizer.
6. Gypsum is used in toothpaste, shampoo and hair products.
7. Calcium sulphate acts as a coagulator in making tofu.
8. It is also used in baking as a dough conditioner.
9. Gypsum is a component of Portland cement, where it acts as a hardening retarder to control the speed at which concrete sets.
10. Gypsum is used to give colour to cosmetics and drugs.
11. Gypsum plays a very important role in wine making.

Question 28.
Define inversion temperature?
Answer:
The temperature below which a gas obey Joule-Thomson effect is called inversion temperature (T_i).
T_i = \(\frac{2a}{2Rb}\)

Question 29.
The vapour pressure of pure benzene (C₆H₆) at a given temperature is 640 mm Hg. 2.2g , of non-volatile solute is added to 40 g of benzene. The vapour pressure of the solution is 600 mm Hg. Calculate the molar mass of the solute?
Answer:

Question 30.
In CH₄, NH₃ and H₂O, the central atom undergoes sp³ hybridisation-yet their bond angles are different, why?
Answer:

1. In CH₄, NH₃ and H₂O the central atom undergoes sp³ hybridisation. But their bond angles are different due to .the presence of lone pair of electrons.
2. It can be explained by VSEPR theory. According to this theory, even though the hybridisation is same, the repulsive force between the bond pairs and lone pairs are not same.
3. Bond pair – Bond pair < Bond pair – Lone pair < Lone pair -Lone pair
   So due to the varying repulsive force the bond pairs and lone pairs are distorted from regular geometry and organise themselves in such a way that repulsion will be minimum and stability will be maximum.
4. In case of CH₄, there are 4 bond pairs and no lone pair of electrons. So it remains in its regular geometry, i.e., tetrahedral with bond angle = 109° 28’.
5. H₂O has 2 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs. There is large repulsion between lp – lp. Again repulsion between lp – bp is more than that of 2 bond pairs. So 2 bonds are more restricted to form inverted V shape (eg;) bent shape molecule with a bond angle of 104° 35.
6. NH₃ has 3 bond pairs and 1 lone pair. There is repulsion between lp – bp. So 3 bonds are. more restricted to form pyramidal shape with bond angle equal to 107° 18’.

Question 31.
How does hyper conjugation effect explain the stability of alkenes?
Answer:

1. The relative stability of various classes of carbonium ions may be explained by the number of no bond resonance structures that can be written for them.
2. Such structures are arrived by shifting the bonding electrons from an adjacent C – H bond to the electron deficient carbon.
3. In this way, the positive charge originally on carbon is dispersed to the hydrogen. This manner of electron release by assuming no bond character in the adjacent C – H bond is called hyper conjugation or Baker – Nathan effect.
4. The greater the hyper conjugation, the greater will be the stability of the compound.
   The increasing order of stability can be shown as:

5. Alkyl group increases in the C = C double bond carbon, hyper conjugation increases and stability of that organic compound also increases.

Question 32.
What is BHC? How will you prepare BHC? Mention its uses?
Answer:

1. BHC is Benzene hexachloride.

2. Benzene reacts with three molecule of Cl₂ in the presence of sunlight or UV light to yield BHC. This is also called as gammaxane or Lindane.

3. BHC is a powerful insecticide.

Question 33.
Write a chemical reaction useful to prepare the following:

1. Freon-12 from carbon tetrachloride.
2. Carbon tetrachloride from carbon disulphide.

Answer:
1. Freon – 12 from carbon tetrachloride:
Freon – 12 is prepared by the action of hydrogen fluoride on carbon tetrachloride in the presence of catalytic amount of antimony pentachloride. This reaction is called “Swarts reaction.”

2. Carbon tetrachloride from carbon disulphide:
Carbon disulphide reacts with chlorine gas in the presence of anhydrous AlCl₃ as catalyst to give carbon tetrachloride.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 × 5 = 25]

Question 34 (a).
(I) What is the difference between molecular mass and molar mass? Calculate the molecular mass and molar mass for carbon monoxide.
(II) What are competitive electron transfer reaction? Give example.

[OR]

(b) (I) State the trends in the variation of electronegativity in period and group.
(II) The electron gain enthalpy of chlorine is 348 kJ mol^-1. How much energy in kJ is released when 17.5 g of chlorine is completely converted into Cl^– ions in the gaseous state?
Answer:
(a) (I) Molecular mass:

1. Relative molecular mass is defined as the ratio of the mass of the molecule to the unified atomic mass unit.
2. It can be calculated by adding the relative atomic masses of its constituent atoms.
3. For carbon monoxide (CO)

Molecular mass = Atomic mass of carbon + Atomic mass of oxygen 12 + 16 = 28 u.

Molar mass:

1. It is defined as the mass of one mole of a substance.
2. The molar mass of a compound is equal to the sum of the relative atomic masses of its constituent expressed in g mol^-1.
3. For carbon monoxide (CO)

12 + 16 = 28 g mol^-1.

Both molecular mass and molar mass are numerically same but the units are different.

(II) These are the reactions in which redox reactions take place in different vessels and it is an indirect redox reaction. There is a competition for the release of electrons among different metals.

Example:
Zn releases electrons to Cu and Cu releases electrons to Silver and so on.
Zn_(s) + Cu²⁺ → Zn²⁺_(aq) + Cu_(s) (Here Zn – oxidised; Cu²⁺ – reduced)
Cu_(s) + 2Ag⁺ → Cu²⁺_(aq) + 2Ag_(s) (Here Cu – oxidised; Ag⁺ – reduced)

[OR]

(b)
(I) Variation of electronegativity in a period:
The electronegativity increases across a period from left to right. Since the atomic radius decreases in a period, the attraction between the valence electron and the nucleus increases. Hence the tendency to attract shared pair of electrons increases, ‘therefore, electronegativity increases in a period.

(II) Water is amphoteric in nature and it behaves both as an acid as well as base. With acids stronger than itself (e.g., H₂S) it behaves as a base and with bases stronger than itself (e.g., NH, ) it acts as an acid.

Question 35 (a).
(I) Discuss the three types of Covalent hydrides?
(II) Write the chemical reactions to show the amphoteric nature of water?

[OR]

(b)
(I) Lithium forms monoxide with oxygen whereas sodium forms peroxide with oxygen. Why?
(II) Write about the uses of strontium?
Answer:
(a) (I)

1. They are the compounds in which hydrogen is attached to another element by sharing of electrons.
2. The most common examples of covalent hydrides are methane, ammonia, waterand hydrogen chloride.
3. Molecular hydrides of hydrogen are further classified into three categories as,
   • Electron precise (CH₄, C₂H₆, SiH₄, GeH₄)
   • Electron-deficient (B₂H₆) and
   • Electron-rich hydrides (NH₃, H₂O)
4. Since most of the covalent hydrides consist of discrete, small molecules that have relatively weak intermolecular forces, they are generally gases or volatile liquids.

(II) Water is amphotenc in nature and it behaves both as an acid as well as base. With acids stronger than itself (e.g., H₂S) it behaves as a base and with bases stronger than itself
(e.g., NH₃) it acts as an acid.

1. As a base: H₂O_(l) + H₂S_(aq) → H₃O_(aq) – HS^–_(aq)
2. As a acid: H₂O_(l) + NH_3(aq) → OH^–_(aq) + NH⁺_(aq)

[OR]

(b) (I)

1. The fact that a small cation can stabilize a small anion and a large cation can stabilize a large anion explains the formation and stability of the oxides.
2. The size of Li⁺ ion is very small and it has a strong positive field around it. It can combine . with only small anion, O^2- ion, resulting in the formation of monoxide Li₂O.
3. The Na⁺ ion is a larger cation and has a weak positive field around it and can stabilize a bigger peroxide ion, \(\mathrm{O}_{2}^{2-} \text { or }[-\mathrm{O}-\mathrm{O}-]^{2-}\) resulting in the formation of peroxide Na₂O₂.

(II)

1. 90Sr is used in cancer therapy.
2. \(^{87} \mathrm{Sr} /^{86} \mathrm{Sr}\) ratio is used in marine investigators as well as in teeth, tracking animal migrations or in criminal forensics.
3. Dating of rocks.
4. Strontium is used as a radioactive tracer in determining the ‘source of archaeological materials ’ such as timbers and coins.

Question 36 (a).
(I) When the driver of an automobile applies brake, the passengers are pushed toward the front of the car but a helium balloon is pushed toward back of the car. Upon forward acceleration the passengers are pushed toward the front of the car. Why?
(II) Critical temperature of H₂O, NH₃ and CO₂ are 647.4, 405.5 and 304.2 K, respectively. When we start cooling from a temperature of 700 K which will liquefy first and which will liquefy finally?

[OR]

(b)
(I) The following water gas shift reaction is an important industrial process for the production of hydrogen gas.
C0(g) + H₂O(g) ⇄ CO₂(g) + H₂(g)
At a given temperature K_p = 2.7. If 0.13 mol of CO, 0.56 mol of water, 0.78 mol of CO₂ and 0.28 mol of H₂ are introduced into a 2L flask, find out in which direction must the reaction proceed to reach equilibrium.

(II)
2H₂O(g) ⇄ 2H₂(g) + O₂(g) K_C = 4.1 × 10^-48 At 599 K
N₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇄ 2NO(g) K_C = 1 × 10^-30 at 1000 K
Predict the extent of the above two reactions.
Answer:
(a) (I)
1. When the driver of an automobile applies brake, the passengers are pushed toward the front of the car due to inertia of the body, but a helium balloon pushed toward back of the car. Helium balloon responds to the air around it. Helium molecules are lighter than air of our atmosphere, and so they move toward back by gravity as a result of the accelerating frame.

2. Upon forward acceleration, the passengers are pushed toward the front of the car,because the body in motion tends to stay in motion until acted upon by an outside force. Helium balloon is going to move opposite to this pseudo gravitational force.

(II) Critical temperature of a gas is defined as the temperature above which it cannot be liquefied even at high pressures.
∴ When cooling starts from 700 K, H₂O will liquefied first, then followed by ammonia and finally carbon dioxide will liquefied.

[OR]

(b) (I)
CO(g) + H₂O(g) ⇄ CO₂(g) + H₂(g)
Give K_P = 2.7
[CO] = 0.13 mol, [H₂O] = 0.56 mol
[CO₂] = 0.78 mol; [H₂] = 0.28 mol
V = 2L
K_P = K_C (RT)^∆ng
2.7 = K_C (RT)⁰
K_C = 2.7
_QC = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{CO}_{2}\right]\left[\mathrm{H}_{2}\right]}{[\mathrm{CO}]\left[\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\right]}\) = \(\frac{\left(\frac{0.78}{2}\right)\left(\frac{0.28}{2}\right)}{\left(\frac{0.13}{2}\right)\left(\frac{0.56}{2}\right)}\)
Q = 3
Q > K_C, Hence the reaction proceed in the reverse direction.

(II) In the reactions, decomposition of water at 500 K and oxidation of nitrogen at 1000 K, the value of K_C is very less K_C < 10^-3. So reverse reaction is favoured.
∴ Products << reactants

Question 37 (a).
(I) CuCl is more covalent than NaCl. Give reason?
(II) Draw and explain the molecular orbital diagram of Boron molecule?

[OR]

(b)
(I) 0.30 g of a substance gives 0.88 g of carbon dioxide and 0.54 g of water.
Calculate the percentage of carbon and hydrogen in it.

(II) Draw the fisher projection formula for tartaric acid.
Answer:
(a) (I)
1. Cations having ns² np⁶ nd¹⁰ configuration show greater polarising power than the cations with ns² np⁶ configuration. Hence they show greater covalent character.
2. CuCl is more covalent than NaCl. As compared to Na⁺ (1.13\(\overset { \circ }{ A } \)), Cu⁺ (0.6\(\overset { \circ }{ A } \)) is small and has 3s23p63d10 configuration.
3. Electronic configuration of Cu⁺: [Ar] 3s²3p⁶3d¹⁰
Electronic configuration of Na+: [He] 2s²2p⁶
So CuCl is more covalent than NaCl.

(II)

1. Electronic configuration of B = 1s² 2s² 2p³
2. Electronic configuration of B₂ = \(\sigma 1 s^{2} \sigma^{*} 1 s^{2} \sigma 2 s^{2} \sigma^{*} 2 s^{2} \pi 2 p_{x}^{1} \pi 2 p_{z}^{1}\)
3. Bond order = \(\frac { N_{ b }-N_{ a } }{ 2 } \) = \(\frac{6-4}{2}\) = 1
4. B₂ molecule has two unpaired electrons hence it is paramagnetic.

[OR]

(b) (I) Weight of organic compound = 0.30 g
Weight of carbon-dioxide = 0.88 g
Weight of water = 0.54 g

Percentage of hydrogen:
18 g of water contains 2 g of hydrogen
∴ 0.54 g of water contain = \(\frac{2}{18}\) × 0.54g of hydrogen
∴% of hydrogen = \(\frac{2}{18}\) × \(\frac{0.54}{0.30}\) × 100 = \(\frac{2}{18}\) × \(\frac{54}{0.3}\)
% of H = 0.111 × 180 = 19.888 ~ 20%

Percentage of carbon:
44 g of water contains 12 g of hydrogen
0.88 g of water contain CO₂ contains = \(\frac{12}{44}\) × 0.88g of hydrogen
∴ % of carbon = \(\frac{12}{44}\) × \(\frac{0.88}{0.30}\) × 100 = \(\frac{12}{44}\) × \(\frac{88}{0.3}\) = \(\frac{24}{0.3}\)
% of carbon = 80%

(II)

Question 38 (a).
An organic compound (A) of a molecular formula C₆H₆ which is a simple aromatic hydrocarbon. A undergoes hydrogenation to give a cyclic compound (B). A reacts with chlorine in the presence of UV – light to give C which is used as insecticide. Identify A, B and C. Explain the reactions with equation.

[OR]

(b) An organic compound (A) of molecular formula CH₂ reacts with methyl magnesium iodide followed by acid hydrolysis to give (B) of molecular formula C₂H₆O. (B) on reaction with PCl gives (C).(C) on reaction with alcoholic KOH gives (D) an alkene as the product. Identify (A), (B), (C), (D) and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:

1. Simple aromatic hydrocarbon, C₆H₆ is benzene.
2. Benzene (A) reacts with H₂ in the presence of Pt to give cyclohexane (B).

3. Benzene (A) reacts with Cl₂ in presence of UV-light to give benzene hexachloride (C).

[OR]

(b) (I)
1. (A) Of molecular formula CH₂O is identified as HCHO, formaldehyde.
2. Formaldehyde reacts with CH₃MgI followed by hydrolysis to give ethanol, CH₃-CH₂OH B as the product.