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Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not a branch of accounting?
(a) Financial accounting
(b) Management accounting
(c) Human resources accounting
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 2.
Financial position of a business is ascertained on the basis of ……………………….
(a) Journal
(b) Trial balance
(c) Balance sheet
(d) Ledger
Answer:
(c) Balance sheet

Question 3.
The profounder of double entry system of book – keeping?
(a) J.R. Batli boi
(b) Luca Pacioli
(c) Old Kesal
(d) Menhar
Answer:
(b) Luca Pacioli

Question 4.
The concept which assumes that a business will last indefinitely is ………………………..
(a) Business entity
(b) Going concern
(c) Periodicity
(d) Conservation
Answer:
(b) Going concern

Question 5.
A firm has assets of ₹1,00,000 and the external liabilities of ₹60,000. Its capital would be ………………………….
(a) ₹1,60,000
(b) ₹60,000
(c) ₹1,00,000
(d) ₹40,000
Answer:
(d) ₹40,000

Question 6.
The incorrect accounting equation is ………………………
(a) Assets = Liabilities + Capital
(b) Assets = Capital + Liabilities
(c) Liabilities = Assets + Capital
(d) Capital = Assets – Liabilities
Answer:
(c) Liabilities = Assets + Capital

Question 7.
J.F means ………………………….
(a) Ledger page number
(b) Journal page number
(c) Voucher number
(d) Order number
Answer:
(b) Journal page number

Question 8.
The process of finding the net amount from the totals of debit and credit columns in a ledger is known as ……………………….
(a) Casting
(b) Posting
(c) Journalising
(d) Balancing
Answer:
(d) Balancing

Question 9.
The trial balance contains the balances of ………………………..
(a) Only personal accounts
(b) Only real account
(c) Only nominal accounts
(d) All accounts
Answer:
(d) All accounts

Question 10.
Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of preparing trial balance?
(a) Serving as the summary of all the ledger accounts.
(b) Helping in the preparation of final accounts.
(c) Examining arithmetical accuracy of accounts.
(d) (a), (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) (a), (b) and (c)

Question 11.
Sales book is used to record ……………………..
(a) All sales of goods
(b) All credit sales of assets
(c) All credit sales of goods
(d) All sales of assets and goods
Answer:
(c) All credit sales of goods

Question 12.
The total of the sales book is posted periodically to the credit of ………………………
(a) Sales account
(b) Cash account
(c) Purchases account
(d) Journal proper
Answer:
(a) Sales account

Question 13.
When a firm maintains a simple cash book, it need not maintain ………………………..
(a) Sales a/c in the ledger
(b) Purchases a/c in the ledger
(c) Capital a/c in the ledger
(d) Cash a/c in the ledger
Answer:
(d) Cash a/c in the ledger

Question 14.
Debit balance in the bank column of the cash book means …………………………
(a) Credit balance as per bank statement
(b) Debit balance as per bank statement
(c) Overdraft as per cash book
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Credit balance as per bank statement

Question 15.
The difference in trial balance is taken to ……………………….
(a) The capital a/c
(b) The trading a/c
(c) The suspense a/c
(d) The Profit and loss a/c
Answer:
(c) The suspense a/c

Question 16.
Under the written down value method of depreciation, the amount of depreciation is …………………………
(a) Uniform in all the years
(b) Decreasing every year
(c) Increasing every year
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Decreasing every year

Question 17.
Interest on bank deposits is ………………………..
(a) Capital receipt
(b) Revenue receipt
(c) Capital expenditure
(d) Revenue expenditure
Answer:
(b) Revenue receipt

Question 18.
Net profit of the business increases the …………………………
(a) Drawings
(b) Receivables
(c) Debts
(d) Capital
Answer:
(d) Capital

Question 19.
Closing stock is valued at ………………………
(a) Cost price
(b) Market price
(c) Cost price or market price whichever is higher
(d) Cost price or net realisable value whichever is lower
Answer:
(d) Cost price or net realisable value whichever is lower

Question 20.
Which one is not a component of computer system?
(a) Input unit
(b) Output unit
(c) Data
(d) CPU
Answer:
(c) Data

PART – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 21 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Mention two objectives of Accounting?
Answer:

1. To keep a systematic record of financial transactions and events.
2. To ascertain the profit or loss of the business enterprise.

Question 22.
What is Compound entry?
Answer:
Compound entry is an entry in which more than two accounts are involved. Either more than one account is debited or more than one account is credited or both.

Question 23.
What is Balance method?
Answer:
In this method, the balance of every ledger account either debit or credit, as the case may be, is recorded in the trial balance against the respective accounts. The balance method is widely used, as it helps in the preparation of financial statements.

Question 24.
Who is drawee?
Answer:
The person who has to make the payment or who accepts to make the payment is called the drawee, i.e., a debtor.

Question 25.
What are the types of petty cash book?
Answer:

1. Simple petty cash book
2. Analytical petty cash book.

Question 26.
Write two examples for error of principle?
Answer:

1. Sale of old furniture on credit for ₹500 was entered in the sales book.
2. Wages of ₹600 paid for installation of a new machine is debited to wages account,

Question 27.
Write any two objectives of providing depreciation?
Answer:

1. To find out the true profit or loss.
2. To present the true and fair view of financial position.

Question 28.
Write any two examples of revenue receipt?
Answer:

1. Rent received
2. Proceeds from sale of goods.

Question 29.
What is outstanding expenses?
Answer:
Expenses which have been incurred in the accounting period but not paid till the end of the accounting period are called outstanding expenses.

Question 30.
Write any four features of computerised accounting system (CAS)?
Answer:

1. Simple and integrated
2. Speed
3. Accuracy
4. Reliability

PART – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 31 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Explain the meaning of accounting?
Answer:
Accounting is the systematic process of identifying, measuring, recording, classifying, summarising, interpreting and communicating financial information. Accounting gives information on;

1. The resources available
2. How the available resources have been employed, and
3. The results achieved by their use.

Question 32.
Show accounting equation from the following information:

1. Started business with cash ₹80,000.
2. Goods bought on credit from Raj ₹10,000.
3. Purchased furniture for cash ₹6,000.

Answer:

Question 33.
Enter the following transactions in a single column cash book of Pandeeswari for the month of June, 2017?

Answer:

Question 34.
Prepare a Sales Account from the following transactions?

Answer:

Question 35.
From the following balances of Arjun, prepare the Trial Balance as on 31^st March, 2018?
Answer:

Question 36.
From the following particulars of Siva and Company, prepare a bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st December, 2017?

1. Credit balance as per cash book ₹12,000.
2. A cheque of ₹1,200 issued and presented for payment to the bank, wrongly credited in the cash book as ₹2,100.
3. Debit side of bank statement was undercast by ₹100.

Answer:

Question 37.
The following errors was detected before preparation of trial balance. Rectify them?

1. The total of rent received account is carried forward ₹900 short.
2. The total of salary account is carried forward ₹1,100 short.
3. Sales returns book is over cast ₹800.

Answer:

1. Rent received account is to be credited with ₹900.
2. Salary account is to be debited with ₹1,100.
3. Sales returns account should be credited with ₹800.

Question 38.
Find out the rate of depreciation under straight line method from the following details: Original cost of the asset ₹10,000; Estimated life of the asset 10 years; Estimated scrap value at the end ₹2,000?
Answer:

Question 39.
State whether they are capital and revenue:

1. Construction of buildings ₹10,00,000.
2. Repairs to furniture ₹50,000.
3. White – washing the building ₹80,000.

Answer:

1. Capital expenditure
2. Revenue expenditure
3. Revenue expenditure

Question 40.
Pass adjusting entries for the following?

1. The Closing stock was valued at ₹5,000;
2. Outstanding salaries ₹150;
3. Insurance prepaid ₹450;

Answer:

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Bragathish is a trader dealing in electronic goods who commenced his business in 2015, for the following transactions took place in the month of March, 2018. Pass Journal entries?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) The following errors were located after the preparation of the trial balance. Assume that there exists a suspense account. Pass journal entries to rectify them?

1. The total of purchases book was undercast by ₹100.
2. The total of the discount column on the debit side of cash book ₹575 were not posted.
3. The total of one page of the sales book for ₹5,975 were carried forward to the next page as ₹5,795.
4. Salaries ₹1,800 were posted as ₹18,000.
5. Purchase of goods on credit from Mukilan for ₹150 have been posted to his account as ₹1,500.

Answer:

Question 42 (a).
Show the effect of following business transactions on the accounting equation:

1. Anbu started business with cash ₹20,000; goods ₹12,000 and machine ₹8,000.
2. Purchased goods from Ramani on credit ₹7,000.
3. Payment made to Ramani in full settlement ₹6,900.
4. Sold goods to Raj an on credit costing ₹5,400 for ₹6,000.
5. Received from Raj an ₹5,800 in full settlement of his account.

Answer:

(b) A furniture costing ₹5,000 was purchased on 01.01.2016, the installation charges being ₹1,000. The furniture is to be depreciated @ 10% p.a. on the diminishing balance method. Pass Journal entries for the first two years?
Answer:

Question 43 (a).
Journalise the following transactions and past them to the ledger?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Classify the following receipts into capital or revenue?

1. Sale proceeds of goods ₹75,000
2. Loan borrowed from hank ₹2,50,000
3. Sale of investment ₹1,20,000
4. Commission received ₹30,000
5. ₹1,400 wages paid in connection with the erection of new machinery

Answer:

1. Revenue
2. Capital
3. Capital
4. Revenue
5. Capital

Question 44 (a).
Prepare trail balance as on 31^st January, 2017?

Answer:

(b) From the following information, prepare Trading and Profit & Loss A/c of Abdul Rahuman for the year ending 31^st December, 2016 and Balance Sheet as on that date. The closing stock on 31^st December, 2016 was valued ₹2,000?

Answer:

Question 45 (a).
Prepare purchase book and Purchase returns book from the following of Robert Funiture Mart?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) The following trial balance was extracted from the books of Arun Traders as on 31^st March, 2018?

Adjustments:

1. Depreciate plant & machinery @ 20%.
2. Wages outstanding amounts to ₹750.
3. Half of repairs and maintenance paid is for the next year.
4. Closing stock was valued at ₹15,000.
   Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss A/c for the year ending 31^st March, 2018 and Balance sheet as on that date.

Answer:

Question 46 (a).
Prepare Three Column Cash book in the books of Thiru Durairaj?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Enter the following transactions in Ahamed’s Cash book discount and Cash columns?

Answer:

Question 47 (a).
From the following particulars of Raheem traders, prepare a bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st March, 2018?

1. Overdraft as per cash book ₹2,500.
2. Debit side of cash book was undercast by ₹700.
3. Amount received by bank through RTGS amounting ₹2,00,000 omitted in the cash book.
4. Two cheques issued for ₹1,800 and ₹2,000 on 29^th March 2018. Only the second cheque is presented for payment,
5. Insurance premium on car for ₹1,000 paid by the bank as per standing instructions not recorded in the cash book.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare an analytical petty cash book under imprest system?

Answer:

Students can Download 10th Tamil Chapter 1.5 எழுத்து சொல் Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Solutions Chapter 1.5 எழுத்து சொல்

கற்பவை கற்றபின்

Question 1.
தேன், நூல், பை, மலர், வா – இத் தனிமொழிகளுடன் சொற்களைச் சேர்த்துத் தொடர்மொழிகளாக்குக.
Answer:
தேன் – தேன் மருந்துப் பொருளாக பயன்படுகிறது.
நூல் – நூல் பல கல்.
பை – பை நிறைய பணம் இருந்தது.
மலர் – மலர் பறித்து வந்தேன்.
வா – விரைந்து வா.

Question 2.
வினை அடியை விகுதிகளுடன் இணைத்துத் தொழிற்பெயர்களை உருவாக்குக.
காண், சிரி, படி, தடு. எ.கா: காண் – காட்சி, காணுதல், காணல், காணாமை
Answer:
சிரி – சிரிப்பு, சிரித்தல், சிரிக்காமை
படி – படிப்பு, படித்தல், படிக்காமை
தடு – தடுப்பு, தடுத்தல், தடுக்காமை

Question 3.
தனிமொழி, தொடர்மொழி ஆகியவற்றைக் கொண்டு உரையாடலைத் தொடர்க.
அண்ணன் : எங்கே செல்கிறாய்? (தொடர்மொழி)
தம்பி :………………………….. (தனிமொழி)
அண்ணன் : ………………………….. வாங்குகிறாய்? (தொடர்மொழி)
தம்பி :………………………….. (தொடர்மொழி)
அண்ணன் : …………………………..(தனிமொழி)
தம்பி : ………………………….. (தொடர்மொழி)
அண்ணன் : …………………………..
தம்பி : …………………………..
Answer:
அண்ணன் : எங்கே செல்கிறாய்? (தொடர்மொழி)
தம்பி : கடைக்கு (தனிமொழி)
அண்ணன் : இப்பொழுது என்ன வாங்குகிறாய்? (தொடர்மொழி)
தம்பி :: பருப்பு வாங்குகிறேன். (தொடர்மொழி)
அண்ணன் : எதற்கு? (தனிமொழி)
தம்பி : பருப்பு சோறு செய்ய அம்மா வாங்கி வரச் சொன்னார்கள் (தொடர்மொழி)
அண்ணன் : இன்று பருப்பு சோறு வேண்டாமென்று அம்மாவிடம் சொல்வோம் (தொடர்மொழி)
தம்பி : சரி இன்று அம்மாவைப் பிரியாணி செய்து தரச்சொல்வோம். (தொடர்மொழி)

Question 4.
மலை என்னை அடிக்கடி அழைக்கும். மலை மீது ஏறுவேன்; ஓரிடத்தில் அமர்வேன்; மேலும் கீழும் பார்ப்பேன்; சுற்றுமுற்றும் பார்ப்பேன். மனம் அமைதி எய்தும்.
Answer:
இத்தொடர்களில் உள்ள வினைமுற்றுகளைத் தனியே எடுத்தெழுதித் தொழிற்பெயர்களாக மாற்றுக.

• அழைக்கும் – அழைத்தல்
• ஏறுவேன் – ஏறுதல்
• அமர்வேன் – அமர்தல்
• பார்ப்பேன் – பார்த்தல்
• எய்தும் – எய்தல்

Question 5.
கட்டு, சொட்டு, வழிபாடு, கேடு, கோறல் – இத்தொழிற்பெயர்களை வகைப்படுத்துக.
Answer:
கட்டு : முதனிலைத் தொழிற்பெயர்
சொட்டு : முதனிலைத் தொழிற்பெயர்
வழிபாடு : விகுதி பெற்ற தொழிற்பெயர்
கேடு : முதனிலை திரிந்த தொழிற்பெயர்
கோறல் : விகுதி பெற்ற தொழிற்பெயர்

மொழியை ஆள்வோம்

படித்துச் சுவைக்க.

பாடலில், மரம் என்னும் சொல், இடத்திற்கேற்ப பொருள் தருவதாய் 11 இடங்களில் இடம்பெற்றுள்ளது. பொருள்களைப் பொருத்திப் படித்து சுவைக்க.

Answer:
பாடலின் பொருள்:
“அரசன் குதிரையில் ஏறி
வேலைத் தோளில் வைத்து
அரசன் புலியைக் கண்டு
வேலினால் புலியைக் குத்தி
காட்டு வழியே சென்று
வளமனைக் கேட்கும் போது
அரசனைக் கண்ட மாதர்
ஆலமரமுடன் ஆரத்தி எடுத்தார்.”

பாடநூல் வினாக்கள்

பலவுள் தெரிக

Question 1.
‘கேட்டவர் மகிழப் பாடிய பாடல் இது’ – தொடரில் இடம்பெற்றுள்ள தொழிற்பெயரும் வினையாலணையும் பெயரும் முறையே அ) பாடிய; கேட்டவர்
ஆ) பாடல்; பாடிய
இ) கேட்டவர்; பாடிய
ஈ) பாடல்; கேட்டவர்
Answer:
ஈ) பாடல்; கேட்டவர்

குறுவினா

Question 1.
‘வேங்கை’ என்பதைத் தொடர்மொழியாகவும், பொதுமொழியாகவும் வேறுபடுத்திக் காட்டுக.
Answer:
வேங்கை : வேங்கை என்னும் மரத்தைக் குறிக்கும் (தனிமொழி)
வேம் + கை : வேகின்ற கை எனவும் பொருள் தருகிறது (தொடர்மொழி)

Question 2.
“உடுப்பதூஉம் உண்பதூஉம் காணின் பிறர்மேல்
வடுக்காண் வற்றாகும் கீழ்”
– இக்குறளில் அமைந்துள்ள அளபெடையின் வகையைச் சுட்டி, அதன் இலக்கணம் தருக.
Answer:

• உடுப்பதூஉம் உண்பதூஉம் : இன்னிசை அளபெடை வந்துள்ளது.
• செய்யுளில் ஓசை குறையாத இடத்தும் இனிய ஓசைக்காக அளபெடுப்பது இன்னிசை அளபெடையாகும்.

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
‘அறிந்தது, அறியாதது, புரிந்தது, புரியாதது, தெரிந்தது, தெரியாதது, பிறந்தது, பிறவாதது’
Answer:
இவை அனைத்தையும் யாம் அறிவோம். அதுபற்றி உமது அறிவுரை எமக்குத் தேவை இல்லை. எல்லாம் எமக்குத் தெரியும். இக்கூற்றில் வண்ண எழுத்துகளில் உள்ள வினைமுற்றுகளைத் தொழிற்பெயர்களாக மாற்றி எழுதுக.

கூடுதல் வினாக்கள்

பலவுள் தெரிக

Question 1.
குறுக்கங்கள் எத்தனை வகைப்படும்?
அ) மூன்று
ஆ) நான்கு
இ) ஐந்து
ஈ) இரண்டு
Answer:
ஆ) நான்கு

Question 2.
எஃஃகிலங்கிய, உரனசைஇ – இச்சொற்களில் உள்ள அளபெடைகள்
அ) ஒற்றளபெடை, சொல்லிசை அளபெடை
ஆ) இன்னிசை அளபெடை, சொல்லிசை அளபெடை
இ) சொல்லிசை அளபெடை, ஒற்றளபெடை
ஈ) ஒற்றளபெடை, இன்னிசை அளபெடை
Answer:
அ) ஒற்றளபெடை, சொல்லிசை அளபெடை

Question 3.
ஒற்றளபெடையில் அளபெடுக்கும் ஒற்றெழுத்துகளின் எண்ணிக்கை எத்தனை?
அ) 11)
ஆ) 13
இ) 15
ஈ) 12
Answer:
அ) 11

Question 4.
பொருத்துக.
i) ஓ ஒதல் வேண்டும் – 1. இன்னிசை அளபெடை
ii) கெடுப்பதூஉம் 2. செய்யுளிசை அளபெடை
iii) உரனசைஇ – 3. ஒற்றளபெடை
iv) எஃஃகிலங்கிய – 4. சொல்லிசை அளபெடை
அ) i.2 ii.1 ili.4 iv.3
ஆ) i.4 ii.3 ili.2 iv.1
இ) i.2 ii.3 iii.4 iv.1
ஈ) ii.4 iii.1 iv.2
Answer:
அ) i.2 ii.1 iii.4 iv.3

Question 5.
வேறுபட்ட ஒன்றினைத் தேர்வு செய்க.
அ) உறாஅர்
ஆ) கெடுப்பதூஉம்
இ) வரனசைஇ
ஈ) எஃஃகிலங்கிய
Answer:
ஈ) எஃஃகிலங்கிய

Question 6.
பொருத்தமற்ற ஒன்றினைத் தேர்வு செய்க.
அ) ஓஒதல்
ஆ) உறாஅர்க்கு
இ) படாஅபறை
ஈ) தம்பீஇ
Answer:
ஈ) தம்பீஇ

Question 7.
பொதுமொழிக்குரிய சான்றினைத் தேர்வு செய்க.
அ) படி
ஆ) வேங்கை
இ) கண்ண ன்
ஈ) கண்ணன் வந்தான்
Answer:
ஆ) வேங்கை

Question 8.
எட்டு = எள் + து எனப் பிரிந்து தரும் பொருள்
அ) எட்டு
ஆ) எள்ளை உண்
இ) வேகின்ற கை
ஈ) எள்ளை எடு
Answer:
ஆ) எள்ளை உண்

Question 9.
பொருத்துக.
1. நடத்தல் – அ) எதிர்மறைத் தொழிற்பெயர்
2. கொல்லாமை – ஆ) வினையாலணையும் பெயர்
3. கேடு – இ) தொழிற்பெயர்
4. வந்தவர் – ஈ) முதனிலைத் திரிந்த தொழிற்பெயர்
அ) 1.ஆ 2.அ 3.ஈ 4.இ
ஆ) 1.இ 2.அ 3.ஈ. 4.ஆ
இ) 1.இ 2.ஆ 3.ஈ. 4.அ
ஈ) 1.இ 2.அ 3.ஆ 4.ஈ
Answer:
ஆ) 1.இ 2.அ 3.ஈ. 4.ஆ

Question 10.
எதிர்மறைத் தொழிற்பெயர் சான்றினைத் தேர்ந்தெடுக்க.
அ) கொல்லாமை
ஆ) வாழ்க்கை
இ) நடத்தல்
ஈ) சூடு
Answer:
அ) கொல்லாமை

Question 11.
மொழியின் சிறப்புகளை அறிய துணை செய்வது
அ) கவிதை
ஆ) இலக்கணம்
இ) உரைநடை
ஈ) எதுவுமில்லை
Answer:
ஆ) இலக்கணம்

Question 12.
சார்பெழுத்துகளின் எண்ணிக்கை
அ) முப்பது
ஆ) பன்னிரண்டு
இ) பத்து
ஈ) ஒன்பது
Answer:
இ) பத்து

Question 13.
உயிரளபெடை எத்தனை வகைப்படும்?
அ) இரண்டு
ஆ) மூன்று
இ) ஐந்து
ஈ) ஆறு
Answer:
ஆ) மூன்று

Question 14.
நெட்டெழுத்து அளபெடுப்பது என்பது என்ன?
அ) செய்யுளிசை அளபெடை
ஆ) இன்னிசை அளபெடை
இ) சொல்லிசை அளபெடை
ஈ) எதுவுமில்லை
Answer:
அ) செய்யுளிசை அளபெடை

Question 15.
சொல் திரிந்து அளபெடுப்பது என்பது யாது?
அ) செய்யுளிசை அளபெடை
ஆ) சொல்லிசை அளபெடை
இ) இன்னிசை அளபெடை
ஈ) எதுவுமில்லை
Answer:
ஆ) சொல்லிசை அளபெடை

Question 16.
மொழி என்பது எத்தனை வகை?
அ) இரண்டு
ஆ) மூன்று
இ) ஐந்து
ஈ) ஆறு
Answer:
ஆ) மூன்று

Question 17.
“அந்தமான்” என்பது எவ்வகை மொழி?
அ) தொடர் மொழி
ஆ) தனி மொழி
இ) பொது மொழி
ஈ) எதுவுமில்லை
Answer:
இ) பொது மொழி

Question 18.
பொருத்திக் காட்டுக.
1. அந்தமான் – அ) தொடர்மொழி
2. கண் – ஆ) தொழிற்பெயர்
3. நடத்தை – இ) பொதுமொழி
4. கண்ணன் வந்தான் – ஈ) தனிமொழி
அ) 1.ஆ 2.ஈ 3.அ 4.இ
ஆ) 1.ஈ 2.அ 3.ஆ 4.இ
இ) 1.இ 2.ஈ 3.ஆ 4.அ
ஈ) 1.இ 2.ஆ 3.ஈ 4.அ
Answer:
இ) 1.இ 2.ஈ 3.ஆ 4.அ

Question 19.
உறாஅர்க்கு, வரனசைஇ – அளபெடை வகை
அ) சொல்லிசை, இன்னிசை
ஆ) ஒற்றளபெடை, சொல்லிசை
இ) செய்யுளிசை, சொல்லிசை
ஈ) இன்னிசை, சொல்லிசை
Answer:
இ) செய்யுளிசை, சொல்லிசை

Question 20.
தொழிலைச் செய்யும் கருத்தாவைக் குறிப்பது
அ) தொழிற்பெயர்
ஆ) முதனிலை திரிந்த தொழிற்பெயர்
இ) முதனிலைத் தொழிற்பெயர்
ஈ) வினையாலணையும் பெயர்
Answer:
ஈ) வினையாலணையும் பெயர்]

Question 21.
மூவிடத்திற்கும் உரியது ………….; படர்க்கைக்கே உரியது ………….
அ) தொழிற்பெயர், வினையாலணையும் பெயர்
ஆ) வினையாலணையும் பெயர், தொழிற்பெயர்
இ) உரிச்சொற்றொடர், வினையாலணையும் பெயர்
ஈ) இவற்றில் எதுவுமில்லை
Answer:
ஆ) வினையாலணையும் பெயர், தொழிற்பெயர்

Question 22.
‘நடத்தல்’ என்னும் சொல்லில் ‘நட’ என்பது
அ) வினையடி
ஆ) விகுதி
இ) தொழிற்பெயர்
ஈ) இடைநிலை
Answer:
அ) வினையடி

Question 23.
‘வேம் + கை’ என்பதன் பொருள்
அ) வேட்கை
ஆ) வேங்கை
இ) வேகின்ற கை
ஈ) வேகாத கை
Answer:
ஈ) வேகாத கை

Question 24.
‘வாழ்க்கை ‘ என்னும் சொல்லுக்குரிய விகுதியைக் குறிப்பிடுக.
அ) வாழ்
ஆ) க்
இ) கை
ஈ) ஐ
Answer:
இ) கை

Question 25.
அளபெடுத்தல் என்பதன் பொருள்
அ) நீண்டு ஒலித்தல்
ஆ) குறுகி ஒலித்தல்
இ) அளவாக ஒலித்தல்
ஈ) ஒலித்தல் இல்லை
Answer:
அ) நீண்டு ஒலித்தல்

Question 26.
‘நசைஇ’ என்பதன் பொருள்
அ) விருப்பம்
ஆ) விரும்பி
இ) துன்பம்
ஈ) கவனித்து
Answer:
ஆ) விரும்பி

குறுவினா

Question 1.
சார்பெழுத்துகள் எத்தனை வகைப்படும்? அவை யாவை?
Answer:
சார்பெழுத்துகள் பத்து வகைப்படும். அவை:

• உயிர்மெய்
• ஆய்தம்
• உயிரளபெடை
• ஒற்றளபெடை
• குற்றியலுகரம்
• ஆய்தக் குறுக்கம்
• ஐகாரக்குறுக்கம்
• ஒளகாரக்குறுக்கம்
• மகரக்குறுக்கம்
• குற்றியலிகரம்

Question 2.
குறுக்கங்கள் எத்தனை வகைப்படும்?
Answer:
குறுக்கங்கள் நான்கு வகைப்படும். அவை:

• ஐகாரக்குறுக்கம்
• மகரக்குறுக்கம்
• ஔகாரக் குறுக்கம்
• ஆய்தக் குறுக்கம்

Question 3.
அளபெடை எத்தனை வகைப்படும்? அவை யாவை?
Answer:
அளபெடை இரண்டு வகைப்படும். அவை: உயிரளபெடை, ஒற்றளபெடை.

Question 4.
உயிரளபெடை எத்தனை வகைப்படும்? அவை யாவை?
Answer:
உயிரளபெடை மூன்று வகைப்படும்.
அவை: செய்யுளிசை அளபெடை, இன்னிசை அளபெடை, சொல்லிசை அளபெடை.

Question 5.
உயிரளபெடை என்றால் என்ன? சான்று தருக.
Answer:

• செய்யுளில் ஓசை குறையும் போது அந்த ஓசையை நிறைவு செய்ய உயிர் நெடில் எழுத்துகள் ஏழும் அளபெடுக்கும்.
• அளபெடுக்கும் போது அவற்றுக்கு இனமான குறில் எழுத்துகள் பக்கத்தில் வரும்.
• சான்று: உழாஅர்.

Question 6.
செய்யுளிசை அளபெடை / இசைநிறை அளபெடை என்றால் என்ன? சான்று தருக.
Answer:

• செய்யுளின் ஓசை குறையும் போது அதனை நிறைவு செய்ய நெட்டெழுத்துகள் அளபெடுக்கும். (ஈரசை கொண்ட சீர்களில் மட்டும் வரும்)
• சான்று: உழாஅர் (உழா/அர்)

Question 7.
செய்யுளிசை அளபெடைக்கு மூன்று சான்று தருக.
Answer:

• ஓஒதல் வேண்டும் – மொழி முதல்
• உறாஅர்க்கு உறுநோய் – மொழி இடை
• நல்ல படாஅ பறை – மொழி இறுதி

Question 8.
இன்னிசை அளபெடை என்றால் என்ன? சான்று தருக.
Answer:

• செய்யுளில் ஓசை குறையாத இடத்திலும் இனிய ஓசைக்காக அளபெடுப்பது இன்னிசை அளபெடை எனப்படும்.
• சான்று: கெடுப்பதூஉம் (கெடுப்/பதூ/உம்)
  (மூவசை கொண்ட சீர்களில் மட்டும் வரும் )

Question 9.
சொல்லிசை அளபெடை என்றால் என்ன? சான்று தருக.
Answer:

• செய்யுளில் ஒரு பெயர்ச்சொல் எச்சச்சொல்லாகத் திரிந்து அளபெடுப்பது சொல்லிசையளபெடை ஆகும்.
• சான்று: வரனசைஇ, உரனசைஇ.

Question 10.
ஒற்றளபெடை என்றால் என்ன? சான்று தருக.
Answer:

• செய்யுளில் ஓசை குறையும் போது அதனை நிறைவு செய்ய சில மெய்யெழுத்துகளும், ஆய்த எழுத்தும் அளபெடுப்பது ஒற்றளபெடையாகும்.
• சான்று: எஃஃகிலங்கிய, எங்ங்கிறைவன்.

Question 11.
ஒற்றளபெடையில் அளபெடுக்கும் மெய்யெழுத்துகள் மற்றும் ஆய்த எழுத்து ஆகியவற்றை எழுதுக.
Answer:

• மெய் எழுத்துகள் – ங், ஞ், ண், ந், ம், ன், வ், ய், ல், ள் (பத்து)
• ஆய்த எழுத்து – ஃ (ஒன்று)
• மொத்த எழுத்துகள் – 11

Question 12.
சொல் என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:
ஓர் எழுத்து தனித்தோ, பல எழுத்துகள் சேர்ந்தோ பொருள் தருமாயின் அது சொல் எனப்படும்.
(சொல்லின் வேறுபெயர்கள் – பதம், மொழி, கிளவி)

Question 13.
மொழி எத்தனை வகைப்படும்? அவை யாவை?
Answer:
மொழி மூன்று வகைப்படும்.
அவை: தனிமொழி, தொடர்மொழி, பொதுமொழி.

Question 14.
தனிமொழி என்றால் என்ன? சான்று தருக.
Answer:

• ஒரு சொல் தனித்து நின்று பொருள் தருவது தனிமொழி எனப்படும்.
• சான்று: கண், படி.

Question 15.
தொடர்மொழி என்றால் என்ன? சான்று தருக.
Answer:

• இரண்டு அல்லது அதற்கு மேற்பட்ட தனிமொழிகள் தொடர்ந்து வந்து பொருள் தருவது தொடர்மொழி ஆகும்.
• சான்று: கண்ணன் வந்தான்.

Question 16.
பொதுமொழி என்றால் என்ன? சான்று தருக.
Answer:

• ஒரு சொல் தனித்து நின்று ஒரு பொருளையும் அச்சொல்லே பிரிந்து நின்று வேறு பொருளையும் தருவது பொதுமொழி ஆகும்.
• தனிமொழிக்கும் தொடர்மொழிக்கும் பொதுவாய் அமையும்.
• சான்று: எட்டு.
  எட்டு – எண்ணைக் குறிக்கிறது. எள் + து – எள்ளை உண்.

Question 17.
தொழிற்பெயர் என்றால் என்ன? சான்று தருக.
Answer:

• ஒரு வினை அல்லது செயலைக் குறிக்கும் பெயரானது எண், இடம், பால், காலம் ஆகியவற்றைக் குறிப்பாகவோ வெளிப்படையாகவோ உணர்த்தாமல் வருவது தொழிற்பெயர் எனப்படும்.
• எ.கா: ஈதல், வாழ்க்கை .

Question 18.
விகுதி பெற்ற தொழிற்பெயர் என்றால் என்ன? சான்று தருக.
Answer:

• வினையடியுடன் விகுதி சேர்வதால் உருவாகும் தொழிற்பெயர் விகுதி பெற்ற தொழிற்பெயர் ஆகும்.
• சான்று: நடத்தல். நட – வினையடி, தல் – விகுதி.

Question 19.
எதிர்மறைத் தொழிற்பெயர் என்றால் என்ன? சான்று தருக.
Answer:

• எதிர்மறைப் பொருளில் வருவது எதிர்மறைத் தொழிற்பெயர் எனப்படும்.
• சான்று: நடவாமை, கொல்லாமை.

Question 20.
தொழிற்பெயர் எத்தனை வகைப்படும்? அவை யாவை?
Answer:
தொழிற்பெயர் இரண்டு வகைப்படும். அவை:

• முதனிலைத் தொழிற்பெயர்
• முதனிலை திரிந்த தொழிற்பெயர்

Question 21.
முதனிலைத் தொழிற்பெயர் என்றால் என்ன? சான்று தருக.
Answer:

• விகுதி பெறாமல் வினைப் பகுதியே தொழிற்பெயராதல் முதனிலைத் தொழிற் பெயராகும்.
• சான்று: தட்டு, உரை, அடி.
• இச்சொற்கள் முறையே தட்டுதல், உரைத்தல், அடித்தல் என்று பொருள்படும் போது முதனிலைத் தொழிற்பெயர்களாகின்றன.

Question 22.
முதனிலை திரிந்த தொழிற்பெயர் என்றால் என்ன? சான்று தருக.
Answer:

• முதனிலை திரிந்த தொழிற்பெயர் என்பது விகுதி பெறாமல் முதனிலை திரிந்து வருவது. முதனிலை திரிந்த தொழிற்பெயராகும்.
• சான்று: கெடு – கேடு, சுடு – சூடு.
  கேடு, சூடு (கெடு, சுடு என்னும் முதனிலைகள் கேடு, சூடு எனத் திரிந்து வந்துள்ளது)

Question 23.
வினையாலணையும் பெயர் என்றால் என்ன? சான்று தருக.
Answer:

• வினையைக் குறிக்காமல் வினை செய்தவரைக் குறிக்கும்.
• ஒரு வினைமுற்று பெயரின் தன்மையை அடைந்து வேற்றுமை உருபு ஏற்றும் ஏற்காமலும் வேறொரு பயனிலையைக் கொண்டு முடியும்.
• தன்மை, முன்னிலை, படர்க்கை ஆகிய மூவிடங்களிலும் வரும்.
• மூன்று காலங்களிலும் வரும்.
• சான்று: வந்தவர்.

Question 24.
தொழிற்பெயருக்கும் வினையாலணையும் பெயருக்கும் உள்ள வேறுபாடுகளைக் கூறு.
Answer:

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
மொழியின் வகைகளை எடுத்துக்காட்டுடன் விளக்குக.
Answer:
மொழிவகைகள்:
மூன்று வகைப்படும்.
அவை: தனிமொழி, தொடர்மொழி, பொதுமொழி என்பன.

தனிமொழி:

• ஒரு சொல் தனித்து நின்று பொருள் தருவது தனிமொழி எனப்படும்.
• எ.கா: கண், மரம்.

தொடர்மொழி:

• இரண்டு அல்லது அதற்கு மேற்பட்ட தனிமொழிகள் தொடர்ந்து வந்து பொருள் தருவது தொடர்மொழி ஆகும்.
• எ.கா: கண்ண ன் வந்தான்.

பொதுமொழி:

• ஒரு சொல் தனித்து நின்று ஒரு பொருளையும் அச்சொல்லே பிரிந்து நின்று வேறு பொருளையும் ! தருவது பொதுமொழி ஆகும்.
• தனிமொழிக்கும் தொடர்மொழிக்கும் பொதுவாய் அமையும்.
• சான்று: எட்டு
  எட்டு – எண்ணைக் குறிக்கிறது. எள் + து – எள்ளை உண்.

Question 2.
சொல்லின் செயல்களைக் குறிப்பிடுக.
Answer:

• இரு திணைகளையும் ஐந்து பால்களையும் குறிக்கும்.
• மூவகை இடங்களிலும் வரும்.
• உலக வழக்கிலும் செய்யுள் வழக்கிலும் வரும்.
• வெளிப்படையாகவும் குறிப்பாகவும் விளங்கும்.

மொழிபெயர்ப்பு:

Question 1.
If you talk to a man in a language he understands, that goes to his head. If you talk to him in his own
language that goes to his heart. – Nelson Mandela
Answer:
நீங்கள் ஒரு மனிதனிடம் ஏதாவது ஒரு மொழியில் பேசினால் அதை அவன் புரிந்து கொண்டு அவன் மூளைக்குச் செல்கிறது. ஆனால் அவனுடைய மொழியில் பேசினால் அது அவன் நெஞ்சத்தைத்
தொடும். – நெல்சன் மண்டேலா

Question 2.
Language is the road map of a culture. It tells you where its people come from and where they are going. Rita Mae Brown
Answer:
மொழியே கலாச்சாரத்தின் வழிகாட்டி. அதுவே மக்கள் எங்கிருந்து வந்தார்கள் மற்றும் எங்குப் போகிறார்கள் என்பதைச் சொல்லும். – ரிட்டா மே பிரவுண்

சந்தக் கவிதையில் வந்த பிழைகளைத் திருத்துக.

“தேணிலே ஊரிய செந்தமிழின் – சுவை
தேரும் சிலப்பதி காறமதை
ஊனிலே எம்முயிர் உல்லலவும் – நிதம்
ஓதி யுனர்ந்தின் புருவோமே” – கவிமணி தேசிக விநாயகனார்.
Answer:

திருத்தம்:

“தேனிலே ஊறிய செந்தமிழின் – சுவை
தேறும் சிலப்பதி காரமதை
ஊனிலே எம்முயிர் உள்ளளவும் – நிதம்
ஓதி யுணர்ந்தின் புறுவோமே”

கீழ்க்காணும் சொற்களின் கூட்டப்பெயர்களைக் கண்டுபிடித்து எழுதுக.
(குவியல், குலை, மந்தை, கட்டு)
Answer:

• கல் – குவியல் (கற்குவியல்)
• பழம் – குலை (பழக்குலை)
• புல் – கட்டு (புற்கட்டு)
• ஆடு – மந்தை (ஆட்டுமந்தை)

வினைமுற்றை வினையாலணையும் பெயராக மாற்றித் தொடர்களை இணைத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
கலையரங்கத்தில் எனக்காகக் காத்திருக்கிறார். அவரை அழைத்து வாருங்கள்.
Answer:
எ.கா: கலையரங்கத்தில் எனக்காகக் காத்திருக்கிறவரை அழைத்து வாருங்கள்.

Question 2.
ஊட்டமிகு உணவு உண்டார். அவர் நீண்ட வாழ்நாள் பெற்றார்.
Answer:
ஊட்டமிகு உணவு உண்டவர் நீண்ட வாழ்நாள் பெற்றார்.

Question 3.
நேற்று என்னைச் சந்தித்தார். அவர் என் நண்பர்.
Answer:
நேற்று என்னைச் சந்தித்தவர் என் நண்பர்.

Question 4.
பொது அறிவு நூல்களைத் தேடிப் படித்தார். போட்டித் தேர்வில் வென்றார்.
Answer:
பொது அறிவு நூல்களைத் தேடிப் படித்தவர் போட்டித் தேர்வில் வென்றார்.

தொடர்களில் உள்ள வண்ணச் சொற்களுக்குப் பதிலாக அதே பொருளுடைய வேறு சொற்களைப் பயன்படுத்தி தொடர்களை மீள எழுதுக.

Question 1.
உலகில் வாழும் மக்களில் சிலர் கனியிருக்கக் காய் புசித்தலைப்போல, இன்சொல் இருக்க வன்சொல் பேசி இன்னற்படுகின்றனர்.
Answer:
புவியில் வாழும் மானுடர்கள் சிலர் பழமிருக்கக் காய் உண்பதைப்போல இன்சொல் இருக்க வன்சொல் பேசி துன்பப்படுகின்றனர்.

Quesiton 2.
வள்ளல் குமணன் வறுமையால் வாடிவந்த புலவனுக்குத் தனது தலையைக் கொடுத்து மங்காப் புகழ் பெற்றான்.
Answer:
வள்ளல் குமணன் துன்பத்தால் வாடிவந்த அறிஞர்களுக்குத் தனது தலையை ஈந்து மங்காப் பெருமை பெற்றான்.

Question 3.
நளனும் அவனது துணைவியும் நிடதநாட்டுக்கு வந்ததைக் கண்டு, அந்நாட்டு மக்கள் மழைமுகில் கண்ட மஞ்ஞை போலக் களி கொண்டனர்.
Answer:
நளனும் அவனது மனைவியும் நிடதநாட்டுக்கு வந்ததைக் கண்டு, அந்நாட்டு மக்கள் மழைமேகம் கண்ட மயிலைப் போல மகிழ்ச்சி கொண்டனர்.

Question 4.
சோலையிற் பூத்த மணமலர்களில் சுரும்புகள் மொய்த்துப் பண்பாடி மதுவுண்டன.
Answer:
நந்தவனத்தில் பூத்த மணமலர்களில் வண்டுகள் மொய்த்துப் பண்பாடி தேனை உண்டன.

Question 5.
பசுப்போல் சாந்தமும் புலிபோல் தீரமும் யானை போல உழைப்பும் மனிதனுக்கு வேண்டும்.
Answer:
ஆப்போல் அமைதியும் வேங்கை போல் வீரமும் களிறு போல உழைப்பும் மனிதனுக்கு வேண்டும்.

கட்டுரை எழுதுக.

குமரிக் கடல்முனையையும் வேங்கட மலைமுகட்டையும் எல்லையாகக் கொண்ட தென்னவர் திருநாட்டிற்குப் புகழ் தேடித்தந்த பெருமை, தகைசால் தமிழன்னையைச் சாரும். எழில்சேர் கன்னியாய் என்றும் திகழும் அவ்வன்னைக்கு, பிள்ளைத் தமிழ் பேசி, சதகம் சமைத்து, பரணி பாடி, கலம்பகம் கண்டு, உலாவந்து, அந்தாதி கூறி, கோவை யாத்து, அணியாகப் பூட்டி அழகூட்டி அகம்மிக மகிழ்ந்தனர் செந்நாப் புலவர்கள்.

இக்கருத்தைக் கருவாகக் கொண்டு ‘சான்றோர் வளர்த்த தமிழ்’ என்னும் தலைப்பில் கட்டுரை எழுதுக.
Answer:


உலகில் மனித இனம் என்று தோன்றியதோ, அன்றே தமிழ் மொழியும் தோன்றியது. அன்று முதல் இன்று வரை தமிழ்மொழி இளமையாகவே இருந்துவருகின்றது. ஒவ்வொரு காலக்கட்டத்திலும் வாழ்ந்த சான்றோர்களால் தமிழ் சிறப்புற்று நிற்கின்றது.

சங்கத்தமிழ்:

‘தமிழ்’ என்ற சொல் தொல்காப்பியப் பாயிரத்தில் இடம்பெறுகின்றது. கிபி. 2 ஆம் நூற்றாண்டிற்கு முன் தோன்றிய இலக்கியங்கள் சங்க இலக்கியங்கள் ஆகும். அவையே சங்கத்தமிழ் தரும் களஞ்சியம் ஆகும். கபிலர், பரணர், ஒளவையார், நக்கீரர், நல்லந்துவனார் முதலிய எண்ண ற்றத் தமிழ்ச் சான்றோர்களால் பாட்டும் தொகையும் உருவாக்கப்பட்டு சங்கத்தமிழ் வளர்க்கப்பட்டது.

அறத்தமிழ்:

சங்ககாலத்திற்குப் பின் தோன்றிய காலத்தில் பொய்யும் குற்றமும் தோன்ற ஆரம்பித்தது. அதனைப் போக்க திருவள்ளுவர், சமண முனிவர்கள், விளம்பிநாகனார், கபிலர், கணிமேதாவியார் ஆகிய பல சான்றோர் பெருமக்கள் அறநூல்களைப் படைத்து, அறத்தமிழை வளர்த்தனர்.

காப்பியத்தமிழ்:

ஐம்பெருங்காப்பியங்களும், ஐஞ்சிறுகாப்பியங்களும் காப்பியத் தமிழை வளர்த்தன. இளங்கோவடிகள், சீத்தலைச்சாத்தனார், திருத்தக்கத்தேவர் ஆகிய சான்றோர்கள் காப்பியத் தமிழைத் தழைக்கச் செய்தனர்.

சிற்றிலக்கியம்:

(பரணி, சதகம், பிள்ளைத்தமிழ்) சிற்றிலக்கியங்கள் 96 வகைப்படும். அவை வழி சிற்றிலக்கிய வகைகள் பெருகி சிற்றிலக்கியத் தமிழை வளர்த்தனர். ஒருவரைக் குழந்தையாகப் பாவித்து, 10 பருவங்களில் வளாச்சி நிலையைப் பாடுவது பிள்ளைத்தமிழ் ஆகும். ஒட்டக்கூத்தர், குமரகுருபரர் ஆகியோர் பிள்ளைத்தமிழ் பாடி வளர்த்தனர். சதகம் (100) பாடல்களைக் கொண்டது சதகம். ஆத்மநாத தேசிகர், கார்மேகக் கவிஞர் ஆகியோர் சதகம் பாடினார். ஒட்டக்கூத்தர், செயங்கொண்டார் பரணி இலக்கியத்தை வளர்த்தனர்.

சமயத்தமிழ்:

சைவம், வைணவம், கிறித்தவம், இஸ்லாம், சமணம், பௌத்தம் ஆகியசமயங்களும் தமிழ்வளர்க்கும் பணியில் ஈடுபட்டு சமயத்தமிழை வளர்த்தனர். திருநாவுக்கரசர், வீரமாமுனிவர், உமறுப்புலவர் ஆகியோர் சமயத்தமிழை வளர்த்தனர். இதற்கு பன்னிரு திருமுறைகள், நாலாயிரத்திவ்வியப் பிரபந்தம், சீறாப்புராணம், தேம்பாவணி சான்றாகும்.

முடிவுரை:

காலந்தோறும் தமிழ், தன்னை வளர்ப்பவர்களால் தன்னைப் புதுப்பித்துக் கொண்டு வளர்ந்தும் சிறந்தும் வருகின்றது என்பதை இலக்கிய வரலாறுகள் நமக்கு உணர்த்துகின்றன.

நயம் பாராட்டுக.

தேனினும் இனியநற் செந்தமிழ் மொழியே
தென்னாடு விளங்குறத் திகழுந்தென் மொழியே
ஊனினும் ஒளிர்வுறும் ஒண்டமிழ் மொழியே
உணர்வினுக் குணர்வதாய் ஒளிர்தமிழ் மொழியே
வானினும் ஓங்கிய வண்டமிழ் மொழியே
மாந்தருக் கிருகணா வயங்குநன் மொழியே
தானனி சிறப்புறுந் தனித்தமிழ் மொழியே
தழைத்தினி தோங்குவாய் தண்டமிழ் மொழியே – கா. நமச்சிவாயர்

திரண்ட கருத்து:

‘வாழைக்கு அழகு குருத்து
செய்யுளுக்கு அழகு திரண்ட கருத்து’

“தேனினும் இனிமையான செம்மை பெற்ற மொழி தமிழ் மொழி. தென்னாட்டில் சிறந்து விளங்குகின்ற மொழி தமிழ்மொழி. ஒளி வீசி அறிவும், செறிவும் நுட்பமும் கொண்ட மொழி தமிழ்மொழி உணர்வோடு உணர்வான மொழி, வானினும் உயர்ந்த வளம்மிக்க மொழி தமிழ். தழைத்து ஓங்குவாய் குளிர்ச்சி தங்கிய தமிழ் மொழியே” என தமிழ்மொழியைச் சிறப்பித்துக் கூறியுள்ளார் க. நமச்சிவாயர்.

தொடை நயம்:

‘தொடையற்ற பாட்டு
நடையற்றுப் போகும்’

செய்யுளானது எதுகை, மோனை, இயைபு, முரண் முதலியவற்றால் தொகுக்கப்படுவது தொடை எனப்படும். இப்பாடலில் தொடை நயங்கள் சிறப்பாகக் கையாளப்பட்டுள்ளன.

‘மோனை நயம்:

‘மோனையற்ற பாட்டு
சேனையற்ற நாடு’

செய்யுளில் அடிதோறும் அல்லது சீர்தோறும் முதலாம் எழுத்து ஒன்றிவரத் தொடுப்பது மோனைத் தொடை.
ஒண்டமிழ், ஒளிர்தமிழ், ஒளிர்வுறும்,
தனித்தமிழ், தண்டமிழ் ஆகிய மோனைச் சொற்கள் பாடலில் சிறப்பாக அமைந்துள்ளது.

எதுகை நயம்:

‘வீரத்துக்கு அழகு வேங்கை
செய்யுளுக்கு அழகு எதுகை’

செய்யுளில் அடிதோறும் அல்லது சீர்தோறும் இரண்டாம் எழுத்து ஒன்றி வரத் தொடுப்பது எதுகைத் தொடை.
தேனினும், ஊனினும், வானினும் ஆகிய எதுகைச் சொற்கள் பாடலில் சிறப்பாக அமைந்துள்ளது.

இயைபு நயம்:

‘பாடலின் இயைபு
படிப்போர்க்கு வியப்பு’

செய்யுளில் கடைசி எழுத்தோ சீரோ அசையோ ஒன்றிவரத் தொடுப்பது இயைபுத் தொடை ஆகும். ‘மொழியே’ என்னும் சொல் அடிதோறும் வந்து இயைபாக அமைந்துள்ளது. அடிதோறும் மூன்றாம் சீரில் செந்தமிழ், ஒண்டமிழ், ஒளிர்தமிழ், வண்டமிழ், தனித்தமிழ், தண்டமிழ் என்னும் சொற்கள் வந்து பாடலுக்கு இயைபாக அமைந்துள்ளன.

அணி நயம்:

‘கோவிலுக்கு அழகு மணி
செய்யுளுக்கு அழகு அணி’

இப்பாடலில் ‘மொழி’ என்ற சொல் ஒரே பொருளில் பலமுறை வந்து சொற்பொருட் பின்வரு நிலையணியைக் கொண்டுள்ளது.
பாவகை : எண்சீர் கழிநெடிலடி ஆசிரிய விருத்தம்.

மொழியோடு விளையாடு

சொற்களை இணைத்துப் புதிய சொற்களை உருவாக்குக.

தேன் , விளக்கு, மழை, விண், மணி, விலங்கு, செய், மேகலை, வான், பொன், பூ. எ.கா: பூமணி
Answer:
புதிய சொற்கள்:

குறிப்புகளைக் கொண்டு வினாவிலேயே விடை இருப்பது போன்று வினாத்தொடர்கள் அமைக்க.

குறளின்பம், சுவைக்காத இளநீர், காப்பியச் சுவை, மனிதகுல மேன்மை, விடுமுறைநாள்
Answer:
எ.கா: குறளின்பத்தில் திளைக்காத தமிழன் உண்டா ?
சுவைக்காத இளநீர் : மன்னன் சுவைக்காத இளநீர் உண்டோ ?
காப்பியச் சுவை : கம்பர் காலத்தில் காப்பியச் சுவை உச்சநிலையில் இருந்ததோ?
மனிதகுல மேன்மை : இந்நூற்றாண்டில் மனிதகுல மேன்மை சிறப்புற்று விளங்குகிறதோ?
விடுமுறைநாள் : தேரோட்டம் அன்று விடுமுறை நாள் என அறிவிக்கப்படுமா?

எண்ணுப்பெயர்களைக் கண்டு, தமிழ் எண்களில் எழுதுக.

Answer:

அகராதியில் காண்க.
அடவி, அவல், சுவல், செறு, பழனம், புறவு.
Answer:
அடவி – காடு, திரள், தொகுதி, சோலை
அவல் – பள்ளம், விளைநிலம், குளம், நெல் இடியல்
சுவல் – பிடரி, முதுகு, மேடு, தொல்லை
செறு – வயல், குளம், பாத்தி, கோபம்
பழனம் – வயல், மருதநிலம், பொய்கை
புறவு – புறா, சிறுகாடு, முல்லைக்கொடி, பயிரிடும் நிலம்

காட்சியைக் கண்டு கவினுற எழுதுக.

Answer:

நிற்க அதற்குத் தக

இதில் நீங்கள் செல்லும் வழி யாது? உங்கள் நண்பருக்குக் காட்டும் வழி யாது?
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Answer:
நாங்கள் இன்சொல் வழியையே பின்பற்றுவோம். எங்கள் நண்பருக்கும் அவ்வழியையே காட்டி அவர்களையும் அவ்வழியின் படி நடக்கச் செய்வோம்.

கலைச்சொல் அறிவோம்

• Vowel – உயிரெழுத்து
• Consonant – மெய்யெழுத்து
• Homograph – ஒப்பெழுத்து
• Monolingual – ஒரு மொழி
• Conversation – உரையாடல்
• Discussion – கலந்துரையாடல்

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Two or more business units forming a single entity is known as ……………………….
(a) Joint
(b) Merger
(c) Link
(d) Compound
Answer:
(b) Merger

Question 2.
……………………… is irrecoverable debts.
(a) Debtors
(b) Creditors
(c) Bad debts
(d) Loan
Answer:
(c) Bad debts

Question 3.
The word convention refers ………………………
(a) Traditions
(b) Trade
(c) Business
(d) Accounting
Answer:
(a) Traditions

Question 4.
Outsider’s equity is otherwise called as ………………………
(a) Capital
(b) Liabilities
(c) Debtors
(d) Assets
Answer:
(b) Liabilities

Question 5.
Owner’s equity is otherwise called as ………………………..
(a) Capital
(b) Creditors
(c) Debtors
(d) Assets
Answer:
(a) Capital

Question 6.
Net position of an account can be ascertained from ……………………….
(a) Journal
(b) Ledger
(c) Trial balance
(d) Balance sheet
Answer:
(b) Ledger

Question 7.
Total of credit > total of debit = ……………………….
(a) Debit balance
(b) Credit balance
(c) Nil balance
(d) Trial balance
Answer:
(b) Credit balance

Question 8.
Which one of the following account would usually have a debit balance?
(a) Account payable
(b) Cash
(c) Owner equity
(d) Bank loan
Answer:
(b) Cash

Question 9.
Which of the following will be placed in the credit column of the trial balance?
(a) Purchases
(b) Accounts payable
(c) Salaries payable
(d) None
Answer:
(d) None

Question 10.
Suspense account in the trial balance is entered in the …………………….
(a) Trading A/c
(b) Profit & loss A/c
(c) Balance sheet
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Balance sheet

Question 11.
Goods are returned by customers are recorded in ……………………….
(a) Sales book
(b) Sales returns book
(c) Journal proper
(d) Purchase book
Answer:
(b) Sales returns book

Question 12.
If a cheque sent for collection is dishonoured, the debit is given to ……………………….
(a) Suppliers A/c
(b) Bank A/c
(c) Customers A/c
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Customers A/c

Question 13.
A bank pass book is a copy of ……………………….
(a) The cash column of a customer’s cash book
(b) The bank column of a customer’s cash book
(c) The customer’s account in the bank’s ledger
(d) None
Answer:
(c) The customer’s account in the bank’s ledger

Question 14.
Generally, one – sided errors are revealed by ………………………
(a) Credit balance
(b) Debit balance
(c) Trial balance
(d) Balance sheet
Answer:
(c) Trial balance

Question 15.
When a transaction is incorrectly recorded, it is known as ……………………….
(a) Error of principle
(b) Error of commission
(c) Error of omission
(d) Compensating error
Answer:
(b) Error of commission

Question 16.
Straight line method otherwise called ………………………..
(a) Original cost method
(b) Written down value method
(c) Annuity method
(d) Depletion method
Answer:
(a) Original cost method

Question 17.
Which one is matched correctly?
(a) Land purchased – capital expenditure
(b) Goods purchased – capital expenditure
(c) Issue of debentures – revenue receipts
(d) Rent received – Capital receipts
Answer:
(a) Land purchased – capital expenditure

Question 18.
Which one is not matched correctly?
(a) Trading account – wages
(b) Profit and loss account salaries
(c) Capital – asset
(d) Creditors liabilities
Answer:
(c) Capital – asset

Question 19.
Interest on capital is to be debited in ………………………
(a) Profit and loss A/c
(b) Capital A/c
(c) Balance sheet
(d) Trading A/c
Answer:
(a) Profit and loss A/c

Question 20.
There are three components namely input unit, CPU and ……………………….
(a) Data
(b) Secondary storage
(c) Output unit
(d) Primary storage
Answer:
(c) Output unit

PART – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory: [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
List any two functions of accounting?
Answer:

1. Measurement and
2. Forecasting

Question 22.
Define book – keeping?
Answer:
“Book-keeping is an art of recording business dealings in a set of books”. – J.R. Batli boi.

Question 23.
What is meant by journalising?
Answer:
Record of business transactions in the journal is known as Journal entry. The process of recording the transactions in journal is called as journalising.

Question 24.
Complete the accounting equation?

1. Assets = Capital + liabilities; ₹1,00,000 = ₹80,000 + ?
2. Assets = Capital + liabilities; ₹2,00,000 = ? + ₹40,000

Answer:
Assets = Capital + liabilities

1. ₹1,00,000 = ₹80,000 + ₹20,000
2. ₹2,00,000 = ₹1,60,000 + ₹40,000.

Question 25.
Prepare furniture account from the following transactions?

Answer:

Question 26.
What is trade discount?
Answer:
Trade discount is a deduction given by the supplier to the buyer on the list price or catalogue price of the goods.

Question 27.
What is meant by rectification of errors?
Answer:
Depending on the stage at which errors are located, they are subsequently rectified at the respective stage itself.

Question 28.
A firm purchased a plant for ₹40,000. Erection charges amounted to ₹2,000. Effective life of the plant is 5 years. Calculate the amount of depreciation per year under straight line method?
Answer:
Amount of depreciation =
= Cost of plant + erection charges
= ₹40,000 + 2,000
= ₹42,000
= \(\frac{42,000-0}{5 years}\)
= ₹8,400

Question 29.
What is Capital receipt?
Answer:
Receipt which is not revenue in nature is called capital receipt. It is non-recurring in nature.

Question 30.
What are wasting assets?
Answer:
These are the assets which get exhausted gradually in the process of excavation.
Example: mines and quarries.

PART – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What are the methods of codification?
Answer:

1. Sequential codes
2. Block codes
3. Mnemonic codes

Question 32.
The trial balance on March 31, 2016 shows the following:
Sundry debtors ₹30,000; Bad debts ₹1,200. It is found that 3% of sundry debtors is doubtful of recovery andis to be provided for Pass adjusting entry and show it how will be appeared in final accounts?
Answer:

Question 33.
Find out the amount of sales from the following information:
Opening stock ₹30,000; Purchases less returns ₹2,00,000; Closing stock ₹20,000; Gross profit margin (oh sales) 30%?
Answer:
Cost of goods sold = opening stock + net purchases – closing stock
= 30,000 + 2,00,000 – 20,000 = 2,10,000

Therefore, percentage of gross profit on cost of goods sold is 30/70 × 100 = 42.85%.
Gross profit = ₹2,10,000 × 30/70
= ₹90,000.
Sales = Cost of goods sold + Gross profit = 2,10,000 + 90,000 = 3,00,000.

Question 34.
A company has purchased a machinery for ₹1,80,000 and spent ₹10,000 for its installation. The estimated life of the machinery is 5 years with a residual value of ₹15,000. Find out the amount of depreciation to be provided every year?
Answer:
Amount of depreciation =  = \(\frac{1,90,00-15,000}{5}\)
= \(\frac{1,75,00}{5}\)
= ₹35,000 per year.

Question 35.
State the account/s affected in each of the following errors:

1. Goods sold to Vasu on credit for ₹1,000 was not recorded in the sales book.
2. The total of sales book ₹2,500 was posted twice.

Answer:

1. Sales account should be credited with ₹1,000.
2. Sales account should be debited with ₹2,500.

Question 36.
Classify the following into personal, real and nominal accounts,

1. Capital
2. Buildings
3. Carriage inwards
4. Cash
5. Commission received
6. Bank

Answer:

1. Capital – Personal account
2. Buildings – Real account
3. Carriage inwards – Nominal account
4. Cash – Real account
5. Commission received – Nominal account
6. Bank – Personal account

Question 37.
Prepare Machinery A/c from the following transactions:

Answer:

Question 38.
State which account should be debited and which account should be credited?

1. Carriage outwards
2. Carriage inwards
3. Sales
4. Purchases
5. Bad debts
6. Interest paid

Answer:

1. Carriage outwards – debited
2. Carriage inwards – debited
3. Sales – credited
4. Purchases – debited
5. Bad debts – debited
6. Interest paid – debited

Question 39.
Mention the subsidiary books in which the following transactions are recorded?

1. Sale of goods for cash
2. Sale of goods on credit
3. Asset purchased on credit

Answer:

1. Sale of goods for cash – cash book
2. Sale of goods on credit – sales book
3. Asset purchased on credit – j oumal proper

Question 40.
From the following particulars of Veera traders, prepare a bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st December, 2017?

1. Credit balance as per bank statement ₹6,000.
2. Amount received by,bank through NEFT for ₹3,500 entered twice in the cash book.
3. Cheque dishonoured amounting to ₹2,500, not entered in cash book.

Answer:

PART – IV

Answer all the questions: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Write any five objectives of Accounting?
Answer:

1. To keep a systematic record of financial transactions and events.
2. To ascertain the profit or loss of the business enterprise.
3. To ascertain the financial position or status of the enterprise.
4. To provide information to various stakeholders for their requirements.
5. To protect the properties of an enterprise.

[OR]
(b) What are the differences between Book-keeping and Accounting?
Answer:

Question 42 (a).
Journalise the following transactions in the books of Ramesh who is dealing in computers:

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Show the accounting equation on the basis of the following transactions for Rani, who is dealing in automobiles.

1. Started business with cash ₹80,000.
2. Goods bought on credit from Ramesh ₹10,000.
3. Purchased furniture for cash ₹6,000.
4. Paid creditors by cash ₹8,000.
5. Paid rent by cash ₹500.

Answer:

Question 43 (a).
Prepare direct ledgers from the following transactions?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare Trial Balance of Murali as on 31.03.2017 from the following information?

Answer:

Question 44 (a).
From the following transactions write up the Sales Day Book of Kamala Stores, a furniture shop?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Enter the following transactions in a simple cash book of Kunal:

Answer:

Question 45 (a).
From the following information, prepare Bank Reconciliation Statement to find out balance as per bank statement as on 31^st March, 2017?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Rectify the following errors:

1. Sales book is undercast by ₹100.
2. Sales book is overcast by ₹200.
3. Purchase book is undercast by ₹300.
4. Purchase book is overcast by ₹400.
5. Purchase return boojt is undercast by ₹100.

Answer:

1. Sales account should be credited with ₹100,
2. Sales account should be debited with ₹200.
3. Purchase account should be debited with ₹300.
4. Purchase account should be credited with ₹400.
5. Purchase return account should be credited with ₹100.

Question 46 (a).
A firm purchased a machine for ₹1,00,000 on 01.07.2015. Depreciation is written off at 20% on reducing balance method. The firm closes its books on 31st December each year. Show the Machinery account upto 31.12.2017?
Workings:

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss account for the year ended 31^st March, 2016 and the Balance Sheet as on that date from the following informations?

Adjustments:

1. Closing Stock on 31st March, 2016 ₹2,100.
2. Commission received in advance ₹400.
3. Advertisement paid in advance ₹150.
4. Wages outstanding ₹2,000.

Answer:

Question 47 (a).
Enter the following transactions in the three column cash book of Chozhan?

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare Analytical Petty Cash Book from the following particulars under Imprest system?

Answer:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.5

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The curved surface area of a right circular cone of height 15 cm and base diameter 16 cm is
(1) 60π cm²
(2) 68π cm²
(3) 120π cm²
(4) 136π cm²
Solution:
(4) 13671 cm²
Hint:
Here, h = 15 cm, r = 8 cm

C.S.A of a cone = πrl sq. units. = π × 8 × 17 = 136π cm³

Question 2.
If two solid hemispheres of same base radius r units are joined together along with their bases, then the curved surface area of this new solid is
(1) 4πr² sq. units
(2) 6πr² sq. units
(3) 3πr² sq. units
(4) 8πr² sq. units
Answer:
(1) 4πr² sq. units
Hint:
When you joined two hemispheres together, the solid sphere is formed
C.S.A of the new solid = C.S.A of a sphere = 4πr² sq. units.

Question 3.
The height of a right circular cone whose radius is 5 cm and slant height is 13 cm will be
(1) 12 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 13 cm
(4) 5 cm
Solution:
(1) 12 cm
Hint:
Here r = 5 cm and l = 13 cm

Question 4.
If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is halved keeping the same height, then the ratio of the volume of the cylinder thus obtained to the volume of original cylinder is _________
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 6
(4) 1 : 8
Answer:
(2) 1 : 4
Hint:
Let the radius of the cylinder be “r” and the height be “h”
Radius of the new cylinder = \(\frac{r}{2}\) (Height will be same)
Volume of the new cylinder : Volume of the original cylinder
= \(\pi r_{1}^{2} h: \pi r_{2}^{2} h\) (πh is same)
= \(r_{1}^{2}: r_{2}^{2}\)
= \(\left(\frac{r}{2}\right)^{2}: r^{2}\)
= \(\frac{r^{2}}{4}: r^{2}=\frac{1}{4}: 1\)
= 1 : 4

Question 5.
The total surface area of a cylinder whose radius is \(\frac{1}{3}\) of its height is _______
(1) \(\frac{9 \pi h^{2}}{8}\) sq. units
(2) 24πh² sq.units
(3) \(\frac{8 \pi h^{2}}{8}\) sq.units
(4) \(\frac{56 \pi h^{2}}{8}\) sq.units
Answer:
(3) \(\frac{8 \pi h^{2}}{8}\) sq.units
Hint:
Let the height of the cylinder be “h”
Radius of the cylinder = \(\frac{1}{3}\) h
T.S.A of the cylinder = 2πr(h + r)

Question 6.
In a hollow cylinder, the sum of the external and internal radii is 14 cm and the width is 4 cm. If its height is 20 cm, the volume of the material in it is
(1) 5600π cm³
(2) 11200π cm³
(3) 56π cm³
(4) 3600π cm³
Solution:
(2) 112007π cm³
Hint:
Here, let the external radius be “R” and the internal radius be “r”
R + r = 14 ……(1)
Width (R – r) = 4 ……(2)
Height of the hollow cylinder = 20 cm
Volume of the hollow cylinder = πh × (R² – r²)
= πh(R + r) (R – r)
= π × 20 (14) × 4
= π × 1120
= 1120π cm³

Question 7.
If the radius of the base of a cone is tripled and the height is doubled then the volume is ______
(1) made 6 times
(2) made 18 times
(3) made 12 times
(4) unchanged
Answer:
(2) made 18 times
Hint:
Radius of a cone = r
Height of a cone = h
Volume of the cone = \(\frac{1}{3}\) πr²h cu. units
When the radius is increased three-time (tripled) and the height is doubled
Radius is 3r and the height is 2h
Volume of the new cone

Volume is increased 18 times.

Question 8.
The total surface area of a hemisphere is how many times the square of its radius.
(1) π
(2) 4π
(3) 3π
(4) 2π
Solution:
(3) 3π
Hint:
T.S.A of the hemisphere = 3πr²
The square of the radius is 3π times.

Question 9.
A solid sphere of radius x cm is melted and cast into a shape of a solid cone of the same radius. The height of the cone is _______
(1) 3x cm
(2) x cm
(3) 4x cm
(4) 2x cm
Answer:
(3) 4x cm
Hint:
Radius of a sphere = Radius of a cone = x cm
Volume of a cone = Volume of a sphere

Question 10.
A frustum of a right circular cone is of height 16cm with radii of its ends as 8cm and 20cm. Then, the volume of the frustum is
(1) 3328π cm³
(2) 3228π cm³
(3) 3240πcm³
(4) 3340π cm³
Solution:
(1) 3328π cm³
Hint:
Here, h = 16 cm, r = 8 cm, R = 20 cm
Volume of the frustum

Question 11.
A shuttlecock used for playing badminton has the shape of the combination of ______
(1) a cylinder and a sphere
(2) a hemisphere and a cone
(3) a sphere and a cone
(4) frustum of a cone and a hemisphere
Answer:
(4) frustum of a cone and a hemisphere
Hint:

Question 12.
A spherical ball of radius r₁ units is melted to make 8 new identical balls each of radius r₂ units. Then r₁ : r₂ is _______
(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4
Answer:
(1) 2 : 1
Hint:
Volume of the first sphere : Volume of second sphere = 8 : 1

Question 13.
The volume (in cm³) of the greatest sphere that can be cut off from a cylindrical log of wood of base radius 1 cm and height 5 cm is ________
(1) \(\frac{4}{3} \pi\)
(2) \(\frac{10}{3} \pi\)
(3) 5π
(4) \(\frac{20}{3} \pi\)
Answer:
(1) \(\frac{4}{3} \pi\)
Hint:
Radius of the sphere = 1 cm
Volume of the Sphere = \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr³ cu. units
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) × π × 1 × 1 × 1 cm³
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) π cm³

Question 14.
The height and radius of the cone of which the frustum is a part are h₁ units and r₁ units respectively. Height of the frustum is h₂ units and the radius of the smaller base is r₂ units. If h₂ : h₁ = 1 : 2 then r₂ : r₁ is ______
(1) 1 : 3
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 3 : 1
Answer:
(2) 1 : 2
Hint:
h₂ : h₁ = 1 : 2
h₁ : h₂ = 2 : 1
Ratio of their volumes

Volume is 2 : 1 the ratio of their radius also 2 : 1
r₁ : r₂ = 2 : 1 But r₂ : r₁ = 1 : 2

Question 15.
The ratio of the volumes of a cylinder, a cone and a sphere, if each has the same diameter and same height is
(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 2 : 1 : 3
(3) 1 : 3 : 2
(4) 3 : 1 : 2
Solution:
(4) 3 : 1 : 2
Hint:
Volume of (cylinder : cone : sphere)

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TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. 1. The question paper comprises of four parts. Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
   2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
   3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
   4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
   5. Question numbers 9 to 14 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
   6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
   7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio – Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
The term bacterium was coined by ………………………
(a) Stanley
(b) Ehrenberg
(c) Gram
(d) Koch
Answer:
(b) Ehrenberg

Question 2.
Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell?
(a) Cell wall
(b) Nuclear membrane
(c) Plasma membrane
(d) Glycocalyx
Answer:
(d) Glycocalyx

Question 3.
Number of floral parts per whorl is called ……………………
(a) Curosity
(b) Atrocity
(c) Merosity
(d) Porosity
Answer:
(c) Merosity

Question 4.
“The evolution and classification of flowering plants” – book was written by ………………..
(a) Engler & Prantl
(b) Bentham & Hooker
(c) Cronquist
(d) Theophrasthus
Answer:
(c) Cronquist

Question 5.
Lainpbrush chromosomes occur at ………………….. stage of meiotic Prophase I.
(a) Leptotene
(b) Diplotene
(c) Zygotene
(d) Pachytene
Answer:
(b) Diplotene

Question 6.
Who is called as father of plant physiology?
(a) J.C. Bose
(b) Stephen Hales
(c) Dixon
(d) Unger
Answer:
(b) Stephen Hales

Question 7.
Pitcher plant is the common name for ……………………..
(a) Drosera
(b) Nepenthes
(c) Utricularia
(d) Dionaea
Answer:
(b) Nepenthes

Question 8.
Chemiosmotic theory was proposed by ………………………
(a) Mitchell
(b) Hatch & Slack
(c) Calvin
(d) Priestley
Answer:
(a) Mitchell

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What is mycorrhiza?
Answer:
The symbiotic association between fungal mycelium and roots of plants is called as mycorrhiza.

Question 10.
Why do roots modify their structure? Name the types of root modification?
Answer:
Roots modify their structure to perform secondary functions. The two types of root modification are tap root modification and fibrous root modification.

Question 11.
Name any 4 sub classes of Liliopsida?
Answer:

1. Alismatidae
2. Arecidae
3. Commelinidae
4. Zingiberidae

Question 12.
How vacuoles helps to maintain the structure of a plant cell?
Answer:
The major function of plant vacuole is to maintain water pressure known as turgor pressure, which maintains the plant structure.

Question 13.
Compare Active transport with Passive transport?
Answer:

Question 14.
How will you define Quantasomes?
Answer:
Quantasomes are the morphological expression of physiological photosynthetic units, located on the inner membrane of thylakoid lamellae.

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Classify lichens based on morphology?
Answer:

1. Leprose – Absence of distinct fungal layer
2. Crustose – Crust – like
3. Foliose – Leaf – like
4. Fruticose – Branched pendulous shrub – like

Question 16.
“Roots perform photosynthesis”-Justify with example?
Answer:
Roots of some climbing or epiphytic plants develop chlorophyll and turn green which help in photosynthesis. These roots are called as photosynthetic roots, e.g,,Tinospora.

Question 17.
Differentiate Apocarpous and Syncarpous ovary?
Answer:

1. Apocarpous: A pistil contains two or more distinct carpels. Example: Annona
2. Syncarpous: A pistil contains two or more carpels which are connate. Example: Citrus and Tomato

Question 18.
Draw & label the ground plan of T.S. of Dicot root?
Answer:

Question 19.
What do you mean by Respiratory substrate? Give example?
Answer:
Respiration is a biological process in which oxidation of various food substances like carbohydrates, proteins and fats take place and as a result of this, energy is produced where O₂ is taken in and CO₂ is liberated. The organic substances which are oxidised during respiration are called respiratory substrates.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Define phyllotaxy. Explain its type?
Answer:
The mode of arrangement of leaves on the stem is known as phyllotaxy (Greek. Phyllon = leaf; taxis = arrangement). Phyllotaxy is to avoid over crowding of leaves and expose the leaves maximum to the sunlight for photosynthesis. The four main types of phyllotaxy are:

1. Alternate
2. Opposite
3. Temate and
4. Whorled.

1. Alternate phyllotaxy:
In this type there is only one leaf per node and the leaves on the successive nodes are arranged alternate to each other. Spiral arrangement of leaves show vertical rows are called orthostichies. They are two types:

• Alternate spiral: In which the leaves are arranged alternatively in a spiral manner. e.g., Hibiscus and Ficus.
• Alternate distichous or Bifarious: In which the leaves are organized alternatively in two rows on either side of the stem, e.g., Monoon longifolium (.Polyalthia longifolia).

2. Opposite phyllotaxy:
In this type each node possess two leaves opposite to each other. They are organized in two different types:

(I) Opposite superposed:
The pair of leaves arranged in succession are in the same direction, that is two opposite leaves at a node lie exactly above those at the lower node, e.g., Psidium (Guava), Eugenia jambolana (Jamun) and Quisqualis (Rangoon creeper).

(II) Opposite decussate:
In this type of phyllotaxy one pair of leaves is placed at right angles to the next upper or lower pair of leaves, e.g., Calotropis, Zinnia and Ocimum

3. Ternate phyllotaxy:
In this type there are three leaves attached at each node, e.g., Nerium.

4. Whorled (verticillate) type of phyllotaxy:
In this type more than three leaves are present in a whorl at each node forming a circle or whorl, e.g., Allamanda and Alstonia scholaris.

[OR]

Distinguish between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
Answer:

Question 21.
Explain the insectivorous mode of nutrition in angiosperms?
Answer:
Insectivorous mode of nutrition:
Plants which are growing in nitrogen deficient areas develop insectivorous habit to resolve nitrogen deficiency.

1. Nepenthes (Pitcher plant):
Pitcher is a modified leaf and contains digestive enzymes. Rim of the pitcher is provided with nectar glands and acts as an attractive lid. When insect is trapped, proteolytic enzymes will digest the insect.

2. Drosera (Sundew):
It consists of long club shaped tentacles which secrete sticky digestive fluid which looks like a sundew.

3. Utricularia (Bladder wort):
Submerged plant in which leaf is modified into a bladder to collect insect in water.

4. Dionaea (Venus fly trap):
Leaf of this plant modified into a colourful trap. Two folds of lamina consist of sensitive trigger hairs and when insects touch the hairs it will close.

[OR]

List out the physiological effects of Abscissic acid?
Answer:

1. It helps in reducing transpiration rate by closing stomata. It inhibits K⁺ uptake by guard cells and promotes the leakage of malic acid. It results in closure of stomata.
2. It spoils chlorophylls, proteins and nucleic acids of leaves making them yellow.
3. Inhibition of cell division and cell elongation.
4. ABA is a powerful growth inhibitor. It causes 50% inhibition of growth in Oat coleoptile.
5. It induces bud and seed dormancy.
6. It promotes the abscission of leaves, flowers and fruits by forming abscission layers.
7. ABA plays an important role in plants during water stress and during drought conditions. It results in loss of turgor and closure of stomata.
8. It has anti – auxin and anti – gibberellin property.
9. Abscisic acid promotes senescence in leaves by causing loss of chlorophyll pigment decreasing the rate of photosynthesis and changing the rate of proteins and nucleic acid synthesis.

Bio – Zoology [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Cladogram consists the following characters …………………….
(a) Physiological and Biochemical
(b) Evolutionary and Phylogenetic
(c) Taxonomic and systematic
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Evolutionary and Phylogenetic

Question 2.
The limbless amphibian is ………………………
(a) Hyla
(b) Rana
(c) Icthyophis
(d) Salamander
Answer:
(c) Icthyophis

Question 3.
ECG stands for …………………….
(a) Electro Cardiogram
(b) Electro Caplaris gram
(c) Electro Carrying gram
(d) Electro ensephalo gram
Answer:
(a) Electro Cardiogram

Question 4.
Match the List – I and List – II

(a) 1 – (i), 2 – (ii), 3 – (iii), 4 – (iv)
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)
(c) 1 – (ii), 2 – (iv), 3 – (i), 4 – (iii)
(d) 1 – (iv), 2 – (iii), 3 – (i), 4 – (ii)
Answer:
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)

Question 5.
Which of the following is correct statement?
(a) All the reptiles have a three chambered heart.
(b) All mammals are viviparous.
(c) All cyclostomes do not posses jaws and paired fin.
(d) All pisces have gills covered by a operculum.
Answer:
(c) All cyclostomes do not posses jaws and paired fin.

Question 6.
Which of the following is incorrect statement with regard to peripheral neural system ?
(a) Its pathways innervate skeletal muscles.
(b) Its pathways are usually voluntary.
(c) Its pathways always involve four neurons.
(d) Some of its pathways are referred to as reflex arcs.
Answer:
(c) Its pathways always involve four neurons.

Question 7.
Centers for sense of smell are located …………………..
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Midbrain
(c) Olfactory lobes
(d) Cerebrum
Answer:
(c) Olfactory lobes

Question 8.
Excess secretion of cortisol leads to ………………………
(a) Addison’s disease
(b) Grave’s disease
(c) Cushing’s syndrome
(d) Gull’s disease
Answer:
(c) Cushing’s syndrome

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Write about the classification of Lampito maurittii?
Answer:
Classification:

1. Phylum: Annelida
2. Class: Oligochaeta
3. Order: Haplotaxida
4. Genus: Lampito
5. Species: mauritii

Question 10.
Define indigestion?
Answer:
Indigestion is the digestive disorder in which the food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness of stomach.

Question 11.
Write about muscle fatigue?
Answer:
Muscle fatigue is the inability of a muscle to contract after repeated muscle contractions. This is due to lack of ATP ancl accumulation of lactic acid by anaerobic breakdown of glucose.

Question 12.
Difference between neutrophils and esinophils?
Answer:

Question 13.
Draw and label the parts of LS of kidney?
Answer:

Question 14.
What are the functions of glucagon?
Answer:
Glucagon is a polypeptide hormone. It is a potent hyperglycaemic hormone that acts on the liver and promotes the breakdown of glycogen to glucose (Glycogenolysis), synthesis of glucose from lactic acid and from non-carbohydrate molecules (gluconeogenesis).

Releases glucose from the liver cells, increasing the blood glucose levels. Since glucagon reduces the cellular uptake and utilisation of glucose it is called a hyperglycemic hormone. Prolonged hyperglycemia leads to the disorder called diabetes mellitus.

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Bioluminence is advantageous to ctenophores?
Answer:
Ctenophores are exclusively marine. They emit light. It helps the animals in finding food, mate and excape from the predators.

Question 16.
How do earthworms breathe?
Answer:
In earthworms, respiration takes place through the body wall by the moist skin diffusion, oxygen diffuses through the skin into the blood while carbon dioxide from the blood diffuse out.

Question 17.
What is Vermicompost?
Answer:
Vermicompost is the compost produced by the action of earthworms in association with all other organisms in the compost unit.

Question 18.
Differentiate between elastic fibres and elastic connective tissue?
Answer:

Question 19.
Draw the graph of a normal ECG?
Answer:

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Distinguish between chordates and non – chordates?
Answer:

[OR]

Write an essay on digestion of food and role of digestive enzymes?
Answer:
The process of digestion converts the solid food into absorbable and assimilable forms. This is accomplished by mechanical and chemical processes.

Digestion in the buccal cavity:
The smell, sight and taste as well as the mechanical stimulation of food in the mouth, triggers a reflex action which results in the secretion of saliva. The mecnanical digestion starts in the mouth by grinding and chewing of food.

It is called mastication. The saliva contain water, electrolytes (Na⁺, K⁺, Cl^– , HCO₂), salivary amylase (ptyalin), antibacterial agent lysozyme and a lubricating agent mucus (a glycoprotein).

The mucus in saliva prepares the food for swallowing by moistening, softening, lubricating and adhering the masticated food into a bolus. About 30 percent of polysaccharide, starch is hydrolyzed by the salivary amylase enzyme into disaccharides (maltose).

The bolus is then passed into the pharynx and then into the oesophagus by swallowing or deglutition. The bolus further passes down through the oesophagus to the stomach by successive Waves of muscular contraction called peristalsis. The gastro oesphageal sphincter controls the passage of food into the stomach.

Digestion in the stomach:
Food remains in the stomach for 4 to 5 hours, the rhythmic peristaltic movement churns and mixes the food with gastric juice and make it into a creamy liquid called chyme. The gastric secretion is partly controlled by autonomic reflexes. The secretion of gastric juice begins when the food is in the mouth.

The gastric juice contains HCl and proefizymes. The proenzyme pepsinogen, on exposure to HCl gets converted into the active enzyme pepsin which converts proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides). The HCl provides an acidic medium (pH 1.8) which is optimum for pepsin, kills bacteria and other harmful organisms and avoids putrifaction.

The mucus and bicarbonates present in the gastric juice play an important role in lubrication and protection of the mucosal epithelium from the eroding nature of the highly acidic HCl. Another proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of infants is rennin helps in the digestion of milk protein, caseinogen to casein in the presence of calcium ions.

This enzyme secretion gradually reduces with aging. Digestion in the small intestine: The bile, pancreatic juice and intestinal juice are the secretions released into the small intestine. Movements generated by the muscularis layer of the small intestine helps in the thorough mixing of the food with various secretions in the intestine and thereby facilitate digestion.

The pancreatic juice contains enzymes such as trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, carboxypeptidases, pancreatic amalyses, pancreatic lipases and nucleases. Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin, which in turn activates the enzyme chymotrypsinogen in the pancreatic juice.

The hile contains bile pigments (bilirubin and biliverdin) as the break down products of hemoglobin of dead RBCs, bile salts, cholesterol and phospholipids but has no enzymes. Bile helps in emulsification of fats. Bile salts reduce the surface tension of fat droplets and break them into small globules. Bile also activates lipases to digest lipids.

Proteins and partially digested proteins in the chyme on reaching the intestine are acted upon by the proteolytic enzymes of pancreatic juice. Trypsin hydrolyses proteins into polypeptides and peptones, while chymotrypsin hydrolyses peptide bonds associated with specific amino acids.

The pancreatic amylase converts glycogen and starch into maltose. Lipase acts on emulsified fat (triglycerides) and hydrolyses them into free fatty acid and monoglycerides. Monoglycerides are further hydrolysed to fatty acid and glycerol. Nucleases in the pancreatic juice break the nucleic acid into nucleotides and nucleosides.

The secretions of the Brunner’s gland along with the secretions of the intestinal glands constitute the intestinal juice or succus entericus. The enzymes in the intestinal juice such as maltase, lactase, sucrase (invertase), dipeptidases, lipases, nucleosidases act on the breakdown products of bile and pancreatic digestion.

The mucus along with the bicarbonate ions from the pancreas provides an alkaline medium (pH 7.8) for the enzymatic action. As a result of digestion, all macromolecules of food are converted into their corresponding monomeric units.

• Carbohydrates → monosaccharides
  (glucose, fructose, galactose)
• Proteins → amino acids
• Lipids → fatty acids and glycerol

The simple substances thus formed are absorbed in the jejunum and ileum region of the small intestine. The undigested and unabsorbed substances are propelled into the large intestine.

The activities of the gastro – intestinal tract are carried out by the neural and hormonal control for proper coordination of different parts. Gastric and intestinal secretions are stimulated by neural signals. Hormonal control of the secretion of digestive juices is carried out by local hormones produced by the gastric and intestinal mucosa.

Question 21.
Explain the types of movement?
Answer:
The different types of movements that occur in the cells of our body are amoeboid, ciliary, flagellar and muscular movement.

Amoeboid movement:
Cells such as macrophages exhibit amoeboid movement for engulfing pathogens by pseudopodia formed by the streaming movement of the cytoplasm. Ciliary movement – This type of movement occurs in the respiratory passages and genital tracts which are lined by ciliated epithelial cells.

Flagellar movement:
This type of movement occurs in the cells which are having flagella or whip – like motile organelle. The sperm cells show flagellar movement.

Muscular movement:
The movement of hands, legs, jaws, tongue are caused by the contraction and relaxation of the muscle which is termed as the muscular movement.

[OR]

What are the major hypothalamic hormones and also explain their functions?
Answer:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
In the first five year plan, the top priority was given to ………………. sector?
(a) Service
(b) Industrial
(c) Agriculture
(d) Bank
Answer:
(b) Industrial

Question 2.
Which union Territory has the highest sex ratio?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Pondicherry
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) Andaman & Nicobar
Answer:
(b) Pondicherry

Question 3.
Data processing is done by ………………..
(a) PC alone
(b) Calculator alone
(c) Both PC and Calculator
(d) Pen drive
Answer:
(c) Both PC and Calculator

Question 4.
In India’s total cement production, Tamil Nadu ranks …………………
(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) First
(d) Second
Answer:
(a) Third

Question 5.
Wage is an example for …………. cost of the production.
(a) Fixed
(b) Variable
(c) Marginal
(d) Opportunity
Answer:
(b) Variable

Question 6.
Innovation Theory of profit was given by ………………
(a) Hawley
(b) Schumpeter
(c) Keynes
(d) Knight
Answer:
(b) Schumpeter

Question 7.
Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Gateway of Tamil Nadu – Thoothukudi
(b) Home textile city – Erode
(c) Steel city – Salem
(d) Pump city – Coimbatore
Answer:
(b) Home textile city – Erode

Question 8.
VKRV Rao was a student of ……………
(a) JM Keynes
(b) Colin Clark
(c) Adam Smith
(d) Alfred Marshal
Answer:
(a) JM Keynes

Question 9.
Group equilibrium is analysed in ………………….
(a) Monopolistic competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Duopoly
(d) Pure competition
Answer:
(a) Monopolistic competition

Question 10.
………………… have exchange value and their ownership rights can be established and exchanged.
(a) Goods
(b) Services
(c) Markets
(d) Revenue
Answer:
(a) Goods

Question 11.
Which feature is identified with mral areas?
(a) Low population density
(b) High population density
(c) Low natural resources
(d) Low human resources
Answer:
(a) Low population density

Question 12.
The number of births per thousand population is called as ………….
(a) Crude death rate
(b) Mortality rate
(c) Morbidity rate
(d) Crude Birth Rate
Answer:
(d) Crude Birth Rate

Question 13.
“Wages as a sum of money are paid under contract by an employer to a worker for services rendered.” Who said this?
(a) Benham
(b) Marshall
(c) Walker
(d) J. S. Mill
Answer:
(a) Benham

Question 14.
Identify the formula of estimating average variable cost ……………
(a) TC/Q
(b) TVC/Q
(c) TFC/Q
(d) TAC/Q
Answer:
(b) TVC/Q

Question 15.
Data processing is done by …………..
(a) Pc alone
(b) Calculator alone
(c) Both pc and calculator
(d) Penen drive
Answer:
(c) Both pc and calculator

Question 16.
HDI was constructed based on …………..
(a) Life expectancy index
(b) Education index
(c) GDP per capita
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 17.
The command Ctrl + M is applied for ……………….
(a) Saving
(b) Copying
(c) Getting new slide
(d) Deleting a slide
Answer:
(c) Getting new slide

Question 18.
Ryotwari System was initially introduced in ……………….
(a) Kerala
(b) Bengal
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Maharashtra
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 19.
Loanable funds theory of interest is called ………….
(a) Classical theory
(b) Modern theory
(c) Traditional theory
(d) Neo – classical theory
Answer:
(d) Neo – classical theory

Question 20.
The main theme of the Twelth Five year plan ………………..
(a) Faster and more inclusive, growth
(b) Growth with social justice
(c) Socialistic pattern of society
(d) Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth
Answer:
(d) Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Define disinvestment?
Answer:
Disinvestment means selling of government securities of Public Sector Undertakings [PSUs] to other PSUs or Private Sectors or banks. This process has not been fully implemented.

Question 22.
Give the definition for “Real cost”?
Answer:
Real Cost refers to the payment made to compensate the efforts and sacrifices of all factor owners for their services in production. Real Cost includes the efforts and sacrifices of landlords in the use of land, capitalists to save and invest, and workers in foregoing leisure. Real cost are considered pains and sacrifices of labour as real cost of production.

Question 23.
Define Labour?
Answer:

1. Labour is the active factor of production.
2. In common parlance, labour means manual labour or unskilled work. But in Economics the term ‘labour’ has a wider meaning.
3. It refers to any work undertaken for securing an income or reward. Such work may be manual or intellectual. For example, the work done by an agricultural worker or a cook dr rickshaw puller or a mason is manual.
4. The work of a doctor or teacher or an engineer is intellectual.
5. In short, labour in economics refers to any type of work performed by a labourer for earning an income.

Question 24.
What is the difference between HDI and PQLI?
Answer:

Question 25.
Classify the factors of production?
Answer:

1. Land
2. Labour
3. Capital and
4. Organisation

1. Land:
In Economics, land means all gifts of Nature owned and controlled by human beings which yield an income.

2. Labour:
Labour means manual labour or unskilled work.

3. Capital:
“Capital consists of all kinds of wealth other than free gifts of nature, which yield income”. Bohm – Bawerk defines it as ‘a produced means of production’.

4. Organisation:
The man behind organizing the business is called as ‘Organizer’ or ‘Entrepreneur’.

Question 26.
State the meaning of Indifference curves?
Answer:

1. The Consumer is rational and his aim is to derive maximum satisfaction.
2. Utility cannot be cardinally measured, but can be ranked or compared or ordered by ordinal number. Such as I, II, III and so on.
3. Indifference curve approach is based on the concept “Diminishing Marginal Rate of Substitution”.
4. The consumer is consistent this assumption is called as the assumption of transitivity.

Question 27.
Define micro economics?
Answer:

1. Micro economics is the study of the economic actions of individual units say households, firms or industries.
2. It studies how business firms operate under different market conditions.
3. The combined actions of buyers and sellers determine prices.
4. Micro economics covers:
   • Value theory [product pricing and factor pricing]
   • Theory of economic welfare.

Question 28.
Define Rent?
Answer:
Rent is the price or reward given for the use of land or house or a machine to the owner. But, in Economics, “Rent” or “Economic Rent” refers to that part of payment made by a tenant to his land lords for the use of land only.

Question 29.
What are the characteristics of land?
Answer:

1. Land is a primary factor of production
2. Land is a passive factor of production
3. Land is the free gift of nature
4. Land has no cost of production
5. Land is fixed in supply. It is inelastic in supply
6. Land is permanent
7. Land is immovable
8. Land is heterogeneous as it differs in fertility
9. Land has alternative uses
10. Land is subject to Law of Diminishing Returns.

Question 30.
Give the meaning of deductive method?
Answer:

1. Deductive method is also named as analytical or abstract method.
2. It consists in deriving conclusions from general truths.
3. It takes few general principles and applies them to draw conclusions.
4. The classical and neo – classical school of economists notably, Ricardo, JS Mill, Malthus Marshall, Pigou applied the deductive method in their economic investigations

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What are the features of a market?
Answer:
A market has the following characteristic features:

1. Buyers and sellers of a commodity or a service.
2. A commodity to be bought and sold.
3. Price agreeable to buyer and seller.
4. Direct or indirect exchange.

Question 32.
Write a note on Mineral resources in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Mineral Resources in Tamil Nadu:

1. Tamil Nadu has a few mining projects based on Titanium, Lignite, Magnesite, Graphite, Limestone, Granite and Bauxite.
2. The first one is the Neyveli Lignite Corporation that has led development of large industrial complex around Neyveli in Cuddalore district with Thermal Power Plants, Fertilizer and Carbonisation plants.
3. Magnesite mining is at Salem from which mining of Bauxite ores are carried out at Yercaud, and this region is also rich in iron ore at Kanjamalai.
4. Molybdenum is found in Dharmapuri, and is the only source in the country.

Question 33.
State the features of duopoly?
Answer:

1. Each seller is fully aware of his rival’s motive and actions.
2. Both sellers may collude, (they agree on all matters regarding the sale of the commodity).
3. They may enter into cut – throat competition.
4. There is no perfect differentiation.
5. They fix the price for their product with a view to maximising their profit.

Question 34.
Mention the relationship between marginal utility and total utility?
Answer:

Question 35.
Explain different types of economic activities?
Answer:
The seven types of economic activities are:

1. Micro Economics:
Micro Economics is the study of the economic actions of individuals . say households, firms or industries.

Micro economics covers:

1. Value theory [product pricing and factor pricing]
2. Theory of economic welfare.

2. Macro – Economics:

1. Macro economics is the obverse of micro economics.
2. The general theory of employment, Interest and money published by Keynes is the basis of modem macro economics.

3. International Economics:

1. In the modem world, no country can grow in isolation.
2. Every country is having links with the other countries through foreign capital, investment [foreign direct investment] and international trade.

4. Public Economics:

1. Public finance is concerned with the income or revenue raising and expenditure incurring activities.
2. The scope of public finance covers public expenditure, public revenue, public debt and financial administration.

5. Developmental Economics:
The development economics deals with features of developed nations, obstacles for development, economic and non- economic factors influencing development, various growth models and strategies.

6. Health Economics:

1. Health economics is an area of applied economics.
2. It covers health indicators , preventive and curative measures, medical research and education, rural health mission, drug price control, neo -natal care, maternity and child health, budgetary allocation for health.

7. Environmental Economics:

1. Depletion of natural resources stock and pollution result from rapid economic development.
2. Environmental economics is a study of inter disciplinary tools for the problems of ecology, economy and environment.

Question 36.
Discuss the long run cost curves with suitable diagram?
Answer:
1. In the long run all factors of production become variable. The existing size of the firm can be increased in the case of long run. There are neither fixed inputs nor fixed costs in the long run.

2. LAC is given in diagram.

3. Long run average cost (LAC) is equal to long run total costs divided by the level of output.
LAC = LTC/Q

4. where, LAC denotes Long – Run Average Cost, LTC denotes Long – run Total Cost and Q denotes the quantity of output. The LAC curve is derived from short – run average cost curves. It is the locus of points denoting the least cost curve of producing the corresponding output. The LAC curve is called as ‘Plant Curve’ or ‘Boat shape Curve’ or ‘Planning Curve’ or ‘Envelop Curve’.

Question 37.
Elucidate different features of services?
Answer:
Along with goods, services, are produced and consumed. They are generally, possess the following:

(I) Intangible:

1. Intangible things are not physical obj ects but exist in connection to other things for example, brand image, good will etc.
2. The intangible things are converted and stored into tangible items such as recording a music piece into a pen – drive.

(II) Heterogeneous:

1. Services vary across regions or cultural backgrounds.
2. A single type service yields multiple experiences, e.g., music, consulting physicians etc.

(III) Inseparable from their makers:
Services are inextricably connected to their makes. For example, labour and labourers are inseparable.

(IV) Perishable:

1. Services cannot be stored as inventories like assets.
2. For example it is useless to possess a ticket for a cricket match once the match is over.
3. It cannot be stored and it has no value in exchange.

Question 38.
State the Dynamic Theory of Profit?
Answer:
Dynamic Theory of Profit:

1. This theory was propounded by the American economist J.B.Clark in 1900.
2. Profit is the reward for dynamic changes in society.
3. Static society is one where everything is stationary or stagnant and there is no change at all.
4. There is no role for an entrepreneur in a static society.
5. According to Clark, the following five main changes are taking place in a dynamic society.
   • Population is increasing
   •  Volume of Capital is increasing
   • Methods of production are improving
   • Forms of industrial organization are changing
   • The wants of consumer are multiplying

Question 39.
State the reasons for nationalization of commercial banks?
Answer:

1. After Independence, the Government of India adopted planned economic development.
2. Five year plans came into existence since 1951.
3. The main objective of the economic planning aimed at social welfare.
4. Before Independence commercial banks were in the private sector.
5. These commercial banks failed in helping the Government to achieve social objectives of planning.
6. Therefore, the government decided to nationalize 14 major commercial banks on 19 July 1969.
7. In 1980, again the government took over another 6 commercial banks.

Question 40.
Write a short note on Welfare Economics given by Amartya Sen?
Answer:

1. Amartya Kumar Sen. has included the concept of entitlement items like nutrition, food, medical and health care, employment, security of food supply in times of famine etc.
2. He considered famine as arising out of the failure of establishing a system of entitlements.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Briefly explain the subsistence theory of wages?
Answer:
The subsistence theory of wages:

1. Subsistence theory of wages is one of the oldest theories of wages.
2. According to this theory, wage must be equal to the subsistence level of the labourer and his family.
3. Subsistence means the minimum amount of food, clothing and shelter which workers and their family require for existence.
4. If workers are paid higher wages than the subsistence level, the workers would be better off and they will have large families.
5. Hence, the population would increase.
6. When the population increases, the supply of labourer would increase and therefore, wages will come down.
7. If wages are lower than the subsistence level, there would be a reduction in population and thereby the supply of labour falls and wages increase to the subsistence level.

[OR]

(b) Elucidate the loanable funds theory of Interest?
Answer:

1. The Loanable Funds Theory, also known as the “Neo – Classical Theory,” was developed by Swedish economists like Wicksell, Bertil, Ohlin,.Viner, Gunnar Myrdal and others.
2. According to this theory, interest is the price paid for the use of loanable funds.
3. The rate of interest is determined by the equilibrium between demand for and supply of loanable funds in the credit market.

Demand for loanable funds:
The demand for loanable funds depends upon the following:

(I) Demand for Investment [I]

1. The most important factor responsible for the loanable funds is the demand for investment.
2. Bulk of the demand for loanable funds comes from business firms which borrow money for purchasing capital goods.

(II) Demand for consumption [C]
The demand for loanable funds comes from individuals who borrow money for consumption purposes also.

(III) Demand for Hoarding [H]

1. The next demand for loanable funds comes from hoarders. Demand for hoarding money arises because of people’s preference for liquidity, idle cash balances and so on.
2. The demand for C, I and H varies inversely with interest rate.

Supply of Loanable funds:
The supply of loanable funds depends upon the following four sources:

1. Savings [S]:
Loanable funds comes from savings. According to this theory, savings may be of two types, namely,

1. Savings planned by individuals are called “ex – ante – savings
2. The unplanned savings are called ‘ex-post savings”.

2. Bank Credit [BC]:
The bank credit is another source of loanable funds. Commercial banks create credit and supply loanable funds to the investors.

3. Dishoarding [DH]:
Dishoarding means bringing out the hoarded money into use and thus it constitutes a source of supply of loanable funds.

4. Disinvestment [DI]:
Disinvestment is the opposite of investment. Disinvestment means not providing sufficient funds for depreciation of equipment.

It gives rise to the supply of loanable funds. All the four sources of supply of loanable funds vary directly with the interest rate.

Question 42 (a).
Illustrate the uncertainty Bearing Theory of profit?
Answer:
Uncertainty theory was propounded by the American economist Frank H.Knight. Profit is the reward for “ uncertainty bearing”. He distinguishes between “ Insurable” and “non – insurable” risks.

Insurable Risks:

1. Certain risks are measurable or calculable.
2. Some of the examples of these risks are the risk of fire, theft and natural disasters.
3. Such risks are compensated by the Insurance companies.

Non – Insurable Risks:

1. There are some risks which are immeasurable or incalculable.
2. The examples of these risks are competition, market condition, technology change and public policy.
3. No Insurance Company can undertake these risks.
4. The term “risks” covers the first type of events (measurable – insurable)
5. The term “uncertainty” covers the second type of events (unforeseeable or incalculable or not measurable or non-insurable).
6. According to Knight, profit does not arise.
7. On account of risk-taking, because the entrepreneur can guard himself against a risk by taking a suitable insurance policy.
8. Uncertain events cannot be guarded against in that way.
9. An entrepreneur takes himself the burden of facing an uncertain event, he secures remuneration.
10. That remuneration is “profit”.

[OR]

(b) Write a brief note on the Gandhian economic ideas?
Answer:
Gandhian Economics is based on ethical foundations. Gandhi wrote “ Economics that hurts the moral well-being of an individual or a nation is immoral, and therefore , Sinful”. Gandhi repeated the same belief “ that economy is untrue which ignores or disregards moral values”.

Salient features of Gandhian Economic Thought:

(I) Village Republics:

1. India lives in villages.
2. He was interested in developing the villages as self – sufficient units.
3. He opposed extensive use of machinery, urbanization and industrialization.

(II) On Machinery:

1. Gandhi described machinery as ‘Great sin’. He said that “Books could be written to demonstrate its evils”.
2. It is necessary to realize that machinery is bad.
3. Instead of welcoming machinery as a boon, we should look upon it as an evil.
4. It would ultimately cease.

(III) Industrialism:

1. Gandhi considered industrialism as a curse on mankind.
2. He thought industrialism depended entirely on a country’s capacity to exploit.

(IV) Decentralization:
Gandhi advocated a decentralized economy i.e., production at a large number of places on a small scale or production in the people’s homes.

(V) Village Sarvodaya:

1. According to Gandhi, “Real India was to be found in villages and not in towns or cities”.
2. He suggested, self – dependent villages.

(VI) Bread Labour:

1. Gandhi realized the dignity of human labour.
2. He believed that God created man to eat his bread by the sweat of his brow.
3. Bread labour or body labour was the expression that Gandhi used to mean manual labour.

(VII) The Doctrine of Trusteeship:
Trusteeship provides a means of transforming the present capitalist order of society into an egalitarian one.

(VIII) On the Food Problem:

1. Gandhi was against any sort of food controls.
2. Once India was begging for food grain, but now India tops the world with very large production of food grains, fruits, vegetables, milk, egg, meat etc.

(IX) On Population:

1. Gandhi opposed the method of population control through contraceptives.
2. He was, however, in favour of birth control through Brahmacharya or self – control.
3. He considered self – control as a sovereign remedy to the problem of over population,

(X) On Prohibition:

1. Gandhi regarded the use of liquor as a disease rather than a vice.
2. He felt that it was better for India to be poor than to have thousands of drunkards.
3. Many states depend on revenue from liquor sales.

Question 43 (a).
Explain the various sources of energy in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu tops in power generation among the Southern States as seen in the table.

Tamil Nadu 26,865 MW in 1^st Rank in the energy level. Tamil Nadu is in the forefront of all other Indian States in installed capacity. Muppandal wind farm is a renewable energy source, supplying the villagers with electricity for work.

Wind farms were built in Nagercoil and Tuticorin apart from already existing ones around Coimbatore, Pollachi, Dharapuram and Udumalaipettai. These areas generate about half of India’s 2,000 megawatts of wind energy or two percent of the total power output of India.

Nuclear Energy:
The Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant and the Koodankulam Nuclear Power Plant are the major nuclear energy plants for the energy grid.

Thermal power:

1. In Tamil Nadu the share of thermal power in total energy sources is very high and the thermal power plants are at Athippattu (North Chennai) Ennore, Mettur, Neyveli and Thoothukudi.
2. The generation of power under various sources is given below.

Hydel Energy:

1. There are about 20 hydro – electric units in Tamil Nadu.
2. The prominent units are Hundah, Mettur, Periyar, Maravakaiidy, Parson Valley etc.

Solar Energy:

1. Tamil Nadu tops in solar power generation in India as’seen in following table
2. Southern Tamil Nadu is considered as one of the most suitable regions in the country for developing solar power projects.

Wind Energy:

1. Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India.
2. The State has very high quality of offshore wind energy potential off the Tirunelveli coast and southern Thoothukudi and Rameswaram coast.

[OR]

(b) A firm has the revenue function. R = 600 q – 0.03 q² and the cost function is C = 150 q + 60,000, where q is the number of units produced, find AR, AC, MR and MC?
Answer:
(I) Average Revenue = \(\frac{R}{q}\)
\(\frac { 600q-0.03{ q }^{ 2 } }{ q } \) = \(\frac{600q}{q}\) – \(\frac { 0.03{ q }^{ 2 } }{ q } \)
AR = 600 – 0.03q

(II) Average cost = \(\frac{C}{q}\)
= \(\frac{150q+60000}{q}\)
= \(\frac{150q}{q}\) + \(\frac{60000}{q}\)
AC = 150 + \(\frac{60000}{q}\)

(III) Marginal Revenue = \(\frac{dR}{dq}\)
R = 600q – 0.03q²
\(\frac{dR}{dq}\) = 600 – (0.03)(2q)
MR = 600 – 0.06q

(IV) Marginal Cost = \(\frac{dC}{dq}\)
C = 150q + 60000
MC = 150

Question 44 (a).
Explain the causes for Rural Backwardness?
Answer:

1. The evils of brain – drain and rural – urban migration can be reduced if rural areas are developed.
2. In order to better utilise the unused and under – utilised resources there is a need to develop the rural economy.
3. Rural Development should minimise the gap between rural and. urban areas in terms of the provision of infrastructural facilities. It was called as PURA by former President Abdul Kalam.
4. In order to improve the nation’s status in the global arena in terms of the economic indicators like,
   • Human Development Index [HDI]
   • Woman Empowerment Index [WEI]
   • Gender Disparity Index [GDI]
   • Physical Quality of Life Index [PQLI] and
   • Gross National Happiness Index [GNHI] should be given due attention.

[OR]

(b) The features of Rural Economy are peculiar. Argue?
Answer:
Features of Rural Economy:

(I) Village is an Institution:
The village is a Primary Institution and it satisfies almost all the needs of the rural community. The rural people have a feeling of belongingness and a sense of unity towards each other.

(II) Dependence on Agriculture:
The rural economy depends much on nature and agricultural activities. Agriculture and allied activities are the main occupation in rural areas.

(III) Life of Rural people:
Lifestyles in villages are very simple. Public services like education, housing, health and sanitation, transport and communication, banking, roads and markets are limited and unavailable. The standards of living of majority of rural people are poor and pitiable. In terms of methods of production, social organization and political mobilization, rural sector is extremely backward and weak.

(IV) Population Density:
Population density, measured by number of persons living per sq.km is very low and houses are scattered in the entire villages.

(V) Employment:
There exists unemployment, seasonal unemployment and under employment in rural areas.

(VI) Poverty:
Poverty is a condition where the basic needs of the people like food, clothing and shelter are not being met.

(VII) Indebtedness:
People in rural areas are highly indebted owing to poverty and underemployment, lack of farm and non – farm employment opportunities, low wage employment, seasonality in production, poor marketing network etc.

(VIII) Rural Income:
The Income of the rural people is constrained as the rural economy is not sufficiently vibrant to provide them.

(IX) Dependency:
Rural households are largely dependent on social grants and remittances from family members working in urban areas and cities.

(X) Dualism:
Dualism means the co – existence of two extremely different features like developed and under developed. These characteristics are very common in rural areas.

(XI) Inequality:
The distributions of income, wealth and assets are highly skewed among rural people. Land, livestock and other assets are owned by a few people.

(XII) Migration:
Rural people are forced to migrate from villages to urban areas in order to seek gainful employment for their livelihood.

Question 45 (a).
Compare productivity of any two food crops between Tamil Nadu and India?
Answer:
Productivity position of Tamil Nadu and India

1. The Government of Tamil Nadu lays emphasis on agricultural production and productivity.
2. Tamil Nadu tops in productivity, in food crops as well as non-food crops among the states in India.

Productivity position of Tamil Nadu in India

1. Tamil Nadu ranks first in maize, cumbu, groundnut, oil seeds and cotton.
2. Tamil Nadu ranks second in rice and coconut.
3. Tamil Nadu ranks third in sugarcane, sunflower and Jowar.

[OR]

(b) Describe the “MSMES”?
Answer:

• The Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises are defined under the MSMED Act 2006.
• The enterprises are classified as Manufacturing and Service enterprises based on the investment in plant and machinery and equipment (excluding land and building).
• Tamil Nadu accounts of 15.07% Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in the country (the highest among all States) with 6.89 lakhs registered MSMEs.
• Producing over 8000 varieties of product for a total investment of more than ₹32,008 crore.
• MSMEs produce a wide variety of products in almost all sectors.
• The prominent among them are the engineering, electrical, chemicals, plastics, steel paper, matches, textiles, hosiery and garments sector.
• Around 15.61 lakh entrepreneurs have registered, providing employment opportunities to about 99.7 lakhs persons with total investment of Rs. 1,68,331 crore.

Question 46 (a).
Write a short note on Marginal Revenue?
Answer:

1. Marginal Revenue [MR] is the addition to the total revenue by the sale of an additional unit of a commodity.
2. MR can be found out by dividing change in total revenue by the change in quantity sold out.
3. MR = ∆TR/AQ where MR denotes Marginal Revenue, ∆TR denotes change in Total Revenue and ∆Q denotes change in total quantity.
4. The other method of estimating MR is:

MR = TR_n – TR_n – 1 (or) TR_n+1 – TR_n
Where, MR denotes Marginal Revenue,
TR denotes total revenue of n^th item,
TR_n-1 denotes Total Revenue of n – 1^th item and
TR_n+1 denotes Total Revenue of n + 1^th item.
If TR = PQ , MR = dTR/dQ = P, which is equal to AR.

[OR]

(b) Describe the degrees of price discrimination?
Answer:
Degrees of Price Discrimination:
Price discrimination has become widespread in almost all monopoly markets. According to A.C.Pigou, there are three degrees of price discrimination.

(I) First degree price discrimination:
A monopolist charges the maximum price that a buyer is willing to pay. This is called as perfect price discrimination. This price wipes out the entire consumer’s surplus. This is maximum exploitation of consumers. Joan Robinson named it as “Perfect Discriminating Monopoly”.

(II) Second degree price discrimination:
Under this degree, buyers are charged prices in such a way that a part of their consumer’s surplus is taken away by the sellers. This is called as imperfect price discrimination. Joan Robinson named it as “Imperfect Discriminating Monopoly”.

Under this degree, buyers are divided into different groups and a different price is charged for each group. For example, in cinema theatres, prices are charged for same film show from viewers of different classes. In a theatre the difference between the first row of first class and the last row in the second class is smaller as compared to the differences in charges..

(III) Third degree price discrimination:
The monopolist splits the entire market into a few sub – market and charges different price in each sub – market. The groups are divided on the basis of age, sex and location. For example, railways charge lower fares from senior citizens. Students get discounts in museums, and exhibitions.

Question 47 (a).
Elaborate the nature and scope of Economics?
Answer:
Economics nature:

1. The nature of a subject refers to its contents and how and why they find a place in the subject.
2. This nature is understood by studying the various definitions given by the notable economists.
3. The existence of multiplicity of the definitions makes some scholars comment that a search for a clear definition of economics is an exercise in futility.
4. “Political economy is said to have strangled itself with definitions.”
5. Their presence makes studying a subject interesting, exciting, enjoyable or worthwhile.
6. In fact their presence in a social science subject is a clear sign of the growth of the science.
7. It indicates that there exists freedom for people associated with such as science to formulate fresh definitions.

Scope of economics:

1. The scope of the subject of economics refers to on the subject matter of economics.
2. It throws light on whether it is an art or science and if science, whether it is a positive science or a normative science.

Economics subject matter:

1. Economics focuses on the behaviour and interactions among economic agents, individuals and group belonging to an economic system.
2. Economics studies the ways in which people use the available resources to satisfy their multiplicity of wants.
3. The activities of rational or normal human beings are the subject-matter of economics.

[OR]

(b) Explain the Internal and external economics of scale?
Answer:
Internal Economics of Scale:

1. Internal Economies of scale refers to the advantages enjoyed by the production unit which causes a reduction in the cost of production of the commodity.
2. For example, a firm enjoying the advantage of an application of most modem machinery, generation of internal capital, an improvement in managerial skill etc. are sure to reduce the cost of production. They are of various types:

(a) Technical Economies:

1. When the size of the firm is large, large amount of capital can be used.
2. There is a possibility to introduce up – to – date technologies this improves productivity of the firm.
3. Research and development strategies can be applied easily.

(b) Financial Economies:
Big firms can float shares in the market for capital expansion, while small firms cannot easily float shares in the market.

(c) Managerial Economies:
Large scale production facilitates specialization and delegation.

(d) Labour Economies:

1. Large scale production implies greater and minute division of labour.
2. This leads to specialization which enhances the quality.
3. This increases the productivity of the firm.

(e) Marketing Economies:

1. In the context of large scale production, the producers can both buy raw-materials in bulk at cheaper cost and can take the products to distant markets.
2. They enjoy a huge bargaining power.

(f) Economies of survival:

1. Product diversification is possible when there is large scale production.
2. This reduces the risk in production.
3. Even if the market for one product collapses, market for other commodities offsets it.

External Economies of Scale:

1. External Economies of Scale refer to changes in any factor outside the firm causing an improvement in the production process.
2. This can take place in the case of industry also.
3. These are the advantages enjoyed by all the firms in industry due to the structural growth.
4. Important external economies of scale are listed below :
   • Increased transport facilities
   • Banking facilities
   • Development of townships
   • Development of information and communication.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. 1. The question paper comprises of four parts. Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
   2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
   3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
   4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
   5. Question numbers 9 to 14 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
   6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
   7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio – Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – 1

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Syphilis is caused by …………………..
(a) Mycococcus candisans
(b) Treponema pallidum
(c) Yersinia pestis
(d) Mycobacterium leprae
Answer:
(b) Treponema pallidum

Question 2.
Who is called as the Father of Indian Phycology?
(a) M.O. Parthasarathy
(b) Y. Bharadwaja
(c) V.S. Sundaralingam
(d) V. Desikachary
Answer:
(a) M.O. Parthasarathy

Question 3.
Which of the following plant possess sessile leaves?
(a) Hibiscus
(b) Mangifera
(c) Psidium
(d) Gloriosa
Answer:
(d) Gloriosa

Question 4.
Histone proteins are seen in the DNA of …………………..
(a) Pseudokaryotes
(b) Prokaryotes
(c) Mesokaryotes
(d) Eukaryotes
Answer:
(d) Eukaryotes

Question 5.
Number of fatty acids in triglyceride is ……………………
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 6.
Principle behind the desalination of sea water is ……………………
(a) Endosmosis
(b) Diffusion
(c) Reverse osmosis
(d) Deplasmolysis
Answer:
(c) Reverse osmosis

Question 7.
In Emerson’s first effect, the photosynthetic yield was dropped in the region above ……………………
(a) 720 nm
(b) 620 nm
(c) 680 nm
(d) 600 nm
Answer:
(d) 600 nm

Question 8.
Which of the following plant hormone functions against auxin?
(a) Gibberellin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Ethylene
(d) Abscissic acid
Answer:
(d) Abscissic acid

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What is Porin? How it helps the bacteria?
Answer:
Porin is an abundant polypeptide present in bacterial cell walls. It helps in the diffusion of solutes.

Question 10.
Mention various types of stem seen in angiosperms?
Answer:
Majority of angiosperm possess upright, vertically growing erect stem. They are

1. Excurrent
2. Decurrent
3. Caudex and
4. Culm.

Question 11.
How will you define inflorescence?
Answer:
An inflorescence is a group of flowers arising from a branched or unbranched axis with a definite pattern.

Question 12.
List out the disadvantages of Amitosis?
Answer:

1. Causes unequal distribution of chromosomes.
2. Can lead to abnormalities in metabolism and reproduction.

Question 13.
State Relay Pump theory?
Relay pump theory of Godlewski (1884)
Answer:
Periodic changes in osmotic pressure of living cells of the xylem parenchyma and medullary ray act as a pump for the movement of water.

Question 14.
Define anaerobic photosynthesis?
Answer:
In some bacteria, oxygen is not evolved and is called as non-oxygenic and anaerobic photosynthesis. Examples: Green sulphur, Purple sulphur and green filamentous bacteria.

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Who is called as founder of modern bacteriology? Mention his contribution?
Answer:
Robert Heinrich Hermann Koch is considered as the founder of modem bacteriology. He identified the causal organism for Anthrax, Cholera and Tuberculosis. He proved experimental evidence for the concept of infection (Koch’s postulates).

Question 16.
List down the key difference between roots and shoots?
Answer:

Question 17.
Differentiate between Taxonomy & Systematics?
Answer:

Question 18.
What do you mean by Phloem loading?
Answer:
The movement of photosynthates (products of photosynthesis) from mesophyll cells to phloem sieve elements of mature leaves is known as phloem loading.

Question 19.
Define Dark Reaction?
Answer:
Fixation and reduction of CO₂ into carbohydrates with the help of assimilatory power produced during light reaction. This reaction does not require light and is not directly light driven. Hence, it is called as Dark reaction or Calvin-Benson cycle.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
List out the salient features of Basidiomycetes?
Answer:

• Basidiomycetes include puffballs, toad stools, Bird nest’s fungi, Bracket fungi, stink horns, rusts and smuts.
• The members are terrestrial and lead a saprophytic and parasitic mode of life.
• The mycelium is well developed, septate with dolipore septum (bracket like). Three types of mycelium namely primary (Monokaryotic), secondary (Dikaryotic) and tertiary are found.
• Clamp connections are formed to maintain dikaryotic condition.
• Asexual reproduction is by means of conidia, oidia or budding.
• Sexual reproduction is present but sex organs are absent. Somatogamy or spermatisation results in plasmogamy. Karyogamy is delayed and – dikaryotic phase is prolonged. Karyogamy takes place in basidium and it is immediately followed by meiotic division.
• The four nuclei thus formed are transformed into basidiospores which are borne on sterigmata outside the basidium (Exogenous). The basidium is club shaped with four basidiospores, thus this group of fungi is popularly called “Club fungi”. The fruit body formed is called Basidiocarp.

[OR]

List out the general characters of Pteridophytes?
Answer:
General characteristic features of Pteridophytes:

1. Plant body is sporophyte (2n) and it is the dominant phase. It is differentiated into root, stem and leaves.
2. Roots are adventitious.
3. Stem shows monopodial or dichotomous branching.
4. Leaves may be microphyllous or megaphyllous.
5. Stele is protostele but in some forms siphonostele is present (Marsilea)
6. Tracheids are the major water conducting elements but in Selaginella vessels are found.
7. Sporangia, spore bearing bag like structures are borne on special leaves called sporophyll. The sporophylls gets organized to form cone or strobilus. e.g., Selaginella and Equisetum.
8. They may be homosporous (produce one type of spores – Lycopodium) or Heterosporous (produce two types of spores -Selaginella). Heterospory is the origin for seed habit.
9. Development of sporangia may be eusporangiate (development of sporangium from group of initials) or leptosporangiate (development of sporangium from single initial).
10. Spore mother cells undergo meiosis and produce spores (n).
11. Spore germinates to produce haploid, multicellular green, cordate shaped independent gametophytes called prothallus.
12. Fragmentation, resting buds, root tubers and adventitious buds help in vegetative reproduction.
13. Sexual reproduction is Oogamous. Sex organs, namely antheridium and archegonium are produced on the prothallus.
14. Antheridium produces spirally coiled and multiflagellate antherozoids.
15. Archegonium is flask shaped with broad venter and elongated narrow neck. The venter possesses egg or ovum and neck contain neck canal cells.
16. Water is essential for fertilization. After fertilization a diploid zygote is formed and undergoes mitotic division to form embryo.
17. Pteridophytes show apogamy and apospory.

Question 21.
Draw a flow chart of Kreb’s cycle?
Answer:

[OR]

Give a detailed account on geometric growth rate?
Answer:
This growth occurs in many higher plants and plant organs and is measured in size or weight. In plant growth, geometric cell division results if all cells of an organism or tissue are active mitotically. Example: Round three in the given figure 15.5, produces 8 cells as 23 58 and after round 20 there are 220 5 1,048,576 cells.

The large plant or animal parts are produced this way. In fact, it is common in animals but rare in plants except when they are young and small. Exponential growth curve can be expressed as,

W₁ = W₀e^rt
W₁ = Final size at the beginning of the period
W₀ = Initial size at the beginning of the period
r = Growth rate
t = Time of growth
e = Base of the natural logarithms

Here ‘r’ is the relative rate and also a measure of the ability of the plant to produce new plant material, reffered to as efficiency index. Hence, the final size of W₁ depends on the initial size W₀.

Bio – Zoology [Maximum marks: 35]

PART – 1

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Which class of protozoa is totally parasitic …………………….
(a) Sporozoa
(b) Mastigophora
(c) Ciliate
(d) Sarcodina
Answer:
(a) Sporozoa

Question 2.
Medusa is the Reproductive organs of ……………………..
(a) Hydra
(b) Aurelia
(c) Obelia
(d) Sea anemone
Answer:
(b) Aurelia

Question 3.
Match the List I and List II.

(a) 1 – (i), 2 – (ii), 3 – (iii), 4 – (iv)
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)
(c) 1 – (iv), 2 – (iii), 3 – (i), (4) – (ii)
(d) 1 – (iii), 2 – (iv), 3 – (ii), 4 – (i)
Answer:
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)

Question 4.
LH – stands for ………………………
(a) Luteinising hormone
(b) Langerhans hormome
(c) Low secretion hormone
(d) Luteotrophic hormone
Answer:
(a) Luteinising hormone

Question 5.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Calcitonin and thymosin are thyroid hormones.
(b) Pepsin and prolactin are selected in stomach.
(c) Secretin and rhodopsin are polypeptide hormones.
(d) Cortisol and aldosterone are steroid hormones.
Answer:
(d) Cortisol and aldosterone are steroid hormones.

Question 6.
Which of the following statement is incorrect regard to species …………………….
(a) They have similar morphological
(b) They are reproductively isolated
(c) They produce viable young ones
(d) They have similar anatomical features
Answer:
(b) They are reproductively isolated

Question 7.
The kidney of adult mammals is ……………………
(a) Opisthonephron
(b) Pronephros
(c) Mesonephros
(d) Metanephros
Answer:
(d) Metanephros

Question 8.
Deficiency of calciferol causes ………………………
(a) Scurvy
(b) Leucopenia
(c) Leukaemia
(d) Rickets
Answer:
(d) Rickets

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Why mule is sterile in nature?
Answer:
Mule gets one set of chromosomes (32) from male parent, horse and one set of chromosomes (31) from female parent, donkey. These two sets of chromosomes do not match with each other and cannot produce gametes by meiosis. Hence mule is sterile in nature.

Question 10.
Define macrophages?
Answer:
Macrophages are Immune cells derived from monocytes; engaged in phagocytosis of microbes and debris.

Question 11.
Differentiate between peristomium and prostomium in earthworm?
Answer:

Question 12.
Draw the diagram of structure of alveoil?
Answer:

Question 13.
How is urea formed in the human body?
Answer:
More toxic ammonia produced as a result of breakdown of amino acids is converted into less toxic urea in the liver by a cyclic process called Ornithine cycle.

Question 14.
Write the symptoms of cretinism?
Answer:
Cretinism is caused due to hypothyroidism in infants. A cretin child shows the following symptoms

1. Retarded skeletal growth
2. Absence of sexual maturity
3. Retarded mental ability
4. Thick and short limbs
5. Thick wrinkled skin
6. Bloated face
7. Protruded enlarged tongue
8. Low BMR, slow pulse rate, subnormal body temperature and elevated blood cholesterol levels

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
What is Canal system?
Answer:
The water transport system in sponges through which water enters through minute pores and goes out through the large opening called osculum. It helps is nutrition, circulation, respiration and excretion.

Question 16.
Draw the diagram of structure of the heart?
Answer:

Question 17.
What are spinal nerves?
Answer:
The 31 pairs of nerves which emerge out from the spinal cord through spaces called the intevertebral foramina found between the adjacent vertebrae are the spinal nerves.

Question 18.
Classify organisms on the basis of seven kingdom system?
Answer:

Question 19.
Distinguish between exocrine glands and endocrine glands?
Answer:

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Explain the conditions which creates problems in oxygen transport?
Answer:
When a person travels quickly from sea level to elevations above 8000 ft, where the atmospheric pressure and partial pressure of oxygen are lowered, the individual responds with symptoms of acute mountain sickness (AMS)- headache, shortness of breath, nausea and dizziness due to poor binding of O₂ with haemoglobin.

When the person moves on a long – term basis to mountains from sea level is body begins to make respiratory and haematopoietic adjustments. To overcome this situation kidneys accelerate production of the hormone erythropoietin, which stimulates the bone marrow to produce more RBCs.

When a person descends deep into the sea, the pressure in the surrounding water increases which causes the lungs to decrease in volume.

This decrease in volume increases the partial pressure of the gases within the lungs. This effect can be beneficial, because it tends to drive additional oxygen into the circulation, but this benefit also has a risk, the increased pressure can also drive nitrogen gas into the circulation.

This increase in blood nitrogen content can lead to a condition called nitrogen narcosis. When the diver ascends to the surface too quickly a condition called ‘bends’ or decompression sickness occurs and nitrogen comes out of solution while still in the blood forming bubbles.

Small bubbles in the blood are not harmful, but large bubbles can lodge in small capillaries, blocking blood flow or can press on nerve endings. Decompression sickness is associated with pain in joints and muscles and neurological problems including stroke. The risk of nitrogen narcosis and bends is common in scuba divers.

During carbon-dioxide poisoning, the demand for oxygen increases. As the O₂ level in the blood decreases it leads to suffocation and the skin turns bluish black.

[OR]

What is an epithelium? Enumerate the characteristic features of different epithelia?
Answer:
Simple epithelium is a simple layered sheet of cells that covers the body surface or lines the body cavity.
Types:

1. Squamous epithelium: It is made of flattened cells with irregular boundaries. It is found in glomeruli, air sacs of lungs, lining of heart, blood vessels.
2. Cuboidal epithelium: It is made of cube like cells. It is found in kidney tubules, ducts and glands. It is important for secretion and absorption.
3. Columnar epithelium: It is made of column like cells. It lines the digestive tract. It is important for secretion and absorption.
4. Ciliated epithelium: It has cilia at the free end. It is found in bronchi, uterine tubes. It is helpful in propelling materials.
5. Glandular epithelium: Cuboidal or columnar epithelium specialized for secretion is called glandular epithelium. E.g., goblet cells and salivary gland.

Compound epithelium:

1. Compound epithelium is made up of multilayered cells.
2. These protect organs against chemical and mechanical stresses.
3. These cover the dry surface of the skin, moist surface of the buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of ducts of salivary glands and pancreatic ducts.

Classification of Compound epithelium:

Question 21.
Write a detailed account of gastro intestinal tract hormones?
Answer:
Group of specialized endocrine cells present in gastro – intestinal tract secretes hormones such as gastrin, cholecystokinin (CCK), secretin and gastric inhibitory peptides (GIP). Gastrin acts on the gastric glands and stimulates the secretion of HCl and pepsinogen. Cholecystokinin (CCK) is secreted by duodenum in response to the presence of fat and acid in the diet.

It acts on the gall bladder to release bile into duodenum and stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and its discharge. Secretin acts on acini cells of pancreas to secrete bicarbonate ions and water to neutralize the acidity. Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) inhibits gastric secretion and motility.

[OR]

Discuss the various techniques adopted in cattle breeding?
Answer:
Methods of Animal breeding:
There are two methods of animal breeding, namely inbreeding and outbreeding

1. Inbreeding:
Breeding between animals of the same breed for 4-6 generations is called inbreeding. Inbreeding increases homozygosity and exposes the harmful recessive genes. Continuous inbreeding reduces fertility and even productivity, resulting in “inbreeding depression”.

This can be avoided by breeding selected animals of the breeding population and they should be mated with superior animals of the same breed but unrelated to the breeding population. It helps to restore fertility and yield.

2. Outbreeding:
The breeding between unrelated animals is called outbreeding. Individuals produced do not have common ancestors for 4-6 generations.

Outbreeding helps to produce new and favourable traits, to produce hybrids with superior qualities and helps to create new breeds. New and favourable genes can be introduced into a population through outbreeding.

(I) Out crossing:
It is the breeding between unrelated animals of the same breed but having no common ancestry. The offspring of such a cross is called outcross. This method is suitable for breeding animals that are below average in productivity.

(II) Cross breeding:
Breeding between a superior male of one breed with a superior female of another breed. The cross bred progeny has superior traits (hybrid vigour or heterosis.)

(III) Interspecific hybridization:
In this method of breeding mating is between male and female of two different species. The progeny obtained from such crosses are different from their parents, and may possess the desirable traits of the parents. Mule was produced by the process of interspecific hybridization between a male donkey and a female horse.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. 1. The question paper comprises of four parts. Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
   2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
   3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
   4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
   5. Question numbers 9 to 14 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
   6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
   7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio – Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Number of domains of life are there according to Carl Woese
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 2.
Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres?
(a) Polio virus
(b) Tobacco mosaic virus
(c) Measles virus
(d) Retrovirus
Answer:
(b) Tobacco mosaic virus

Question 3.
Talipot palm, Bamboo and Agave are examples of …………………….
(a) Polycarpic geophytes
(b) Therophytes
(c) Monocarpic geophytes
(d) Biennial
Answer:
(c) Monocarpic geophytes

Question 4.
The type of inflorescence seen in Caesalpinia is ………………………
(a) Corymb
(b) Compound corymb
(c) Capitulum
(d) Umbel
Answer:
(a) Corymb

Question 5.
Which one of the following organism is correctly matched with its three characteristics?
(a) Pea: C₃ pathway, Endospermic seed,Vexillary aestivation
(b) Tomato: Twisted aestivation, Axile placentation, Berry
(c) Onion: Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile placentation
(d) Maize: C₃ pathway, Closed vascular bundles, scutellum
Answer:
(c) Onion: Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile placentation

Question 6.
Protoplasm is made of ……………………. water.
(a) 80 – 90%
(b) 85 – 90%
(c) 60 – 80%
(d) 75 – 85%
Answer:
(c) 60 – 80%

Question 7.
The term soilless culture refers to …………………….
(a) Aeroponics
(b) Aqua culture
(c) Hydroponics
(d) Drip irrigation
Answer:
(c) Hydroponics

Question 8.
Which of the following statement is NOT true regarding cyclic photophosphorylation?
(a) The primary electron acceptor is FRS
(b) It produces only ATP molecules
(c) It produces only NADPH + H⁺ molecules
(d) Electrons ejected from PSI again cycled back to PSI
Answer:
(c) It produces only NADPH + H⁺ molecules

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Name few plant disease caused by mycoplasma?
Answer:
Little leaf of brinjal, witches broom of legumes, phyllody of cloves and sandal spike are some plant diseases caused by mycoplasma.

Question 10.
Which leaf part acts a bridge between leaf & stem? Define?
Answer:
Petiole is the bridge between leaf and stem. Petiole or leaf stalk is a cylindrical or subcylindrical or flattened structure of a leaf which joins the lamina with the stem.

Question 11.
Mention any two morphological differences between Dicot & Monocots?
Answer:

Question 12.
What is the cell wall composition of the following organism?

1. Fungi
2. Bacteria
3. Algae

Answer:

1. Fungi – Chitin and fungal cellulose
2. Bacteria – Peptidoglycan
3. Algae – Cellulose, mannan and galactan

Question 13.
How imbibition is important for plants?
Significance of imbibition:
Answer:

1. During germination of seeds, imbibition increases the volume of seed enormously and leads to bursting of the seed coat.
2. It helps in the absorption of water by roots at the initial level.

Question 14.
How does nitrogen fixation occurs non – biologically?
Non – Biological nitrogen fixation:
Answer:

1. Nitrogen fixation by chemical process in industry.
2. Natural electrical discharge during lightening fixes atmospheric nitrogen.

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Name few fungal diseases in Humans?
Answer:

Question 16.
List out any 3 significances of seed?
Answer:

1. The seed encloses and protects the embryo for next generation.
2. Seeds of various plants are used as food, both for animals and human.
3. Seeds are the products of sexual reproduction so they provide genetic variations and recombination in a plant.

Question 17.
Write a note on endosymbiont theory?
Answer:
Two eukaryotic organelles believed to be the descendants of the endosymbiotic prokaryotes. The ancestors of the eukaryotic cell engulfed a bacterium and the bacteria continued to function inside the host cell.

Question 18.
What are sieve tubes? Explain?
Answer:
Sieve Elements:
Sieve elements are the conducting elements of the phloem. They are of two types, namely sieve cells and sieve tubes.

Sieve Cells:
These are primitive type of conducting elements found in Pteridophytes and Gymnosperms. Sieve cdlls have sieve areas on their lateral walls only. They are not associated with companion cells.

Sieve Tubes:
Sieve tubes are long tube like conducting elements in the phloem. These are formed from a series of cells called sieve tube elements. The sieve tube elements are arranged one above the other and form vertical sieve tube.

The end wall contains a number of pores and it looks like a sieve. So it is called as sieve plate. The sieve elements show nacreous thickenings on their lateral walls.

They may possess simple or compound sieve plates. The function of sieve tubes are believed to be controlled by campanion cells. In mature sieve tube, Nucleus is absent. It contains a lining layer of cytoplasm.

A special protein (P. Protein = Phloem Protein) called slime body is seen in it. In mature sieve tubes, the pores in the sieve plate arc blocked by a substance called callosc (callose plug).

The conduction of food material takes place Different types of phloem elements through cytoplasmic strands. Sieve tubes occur only in Angiosperms.

Question 19.
Draw and label the structure of lentical?
Answer:

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
List out the salient features of cyanobacteria?
Answer:

• The members of this group are prokaryotes and lack motile reproductive structures.
• The thallus is unicellular in Chroococcus, colonial in Gloeocapsa and filamentous trichome in Nostoc.
• Gliding movement is noticed in some species (Oscillatorid).
• The protoplasm is differentiated into central region called centroplasm and peripheral region bearing chromatophore called chromoplasm.
• The photosynthetic pigments include c – phydcyanin and c – phycoerythrin along with myxoxanthin and myxoxanthophyll.
• The reserve food material is cyanophycean starch.
• In some forms a large colourless cell is found in the terminal or intercalary position called heterocysts. They are involved in nitrogen fixation.
• They reproduce only through vegetative methods and produce akinetes (thick wall dormant cell formed from vegetative cell), hormogonia (a portion of filament get detached and reproduce by cell division), fission and endospores.
• The presence of mucilage around the thallus is characteristic feature of this group. Therefore, this group is also called Myxophyceae.
• Sexual reproduction is absent.
• Microcystis aeruginosa and Anabaena flos – aquae cause water blooms and release toxins and affect the aquatic organism. Most of them fix atmospheric nitrogen and are used as biofertilizers (Example: Nostoc and Anabaena). Spirulina is rich in protein hence it is used as single cell protein.

[OR]

Differentiate between Mitosis and Meiosis?
Answer:

Question 21.
Write in detail about Passive Absorption of minerals salts?
Answer:
Ion-Exchange:
Ions of external soil solution were exchanged with same charged (anion for anion or cation for cation) ions of the root cells. There are two theories explaining this process of ion exchange namely:

1. Contact exchange and
2. Carbonic acid exchange.

1. Contact Exchange Theory:
According to this theory, the ions adsorbed on the surface of root cells and clay particles (or clay micelles) are not held tightly but oscillate within a small volume of space called oscillation volume. Due to small space, both ions overlap each other’s oscillation volume and exchange takes place.

2. Carbonic Acid Exchange Theory:
According to this theory, soil solution plays an important role by acting as a medium for ion exchange. The CO₂ released during respiration of root cells combines with water to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃).

Carbonic acid dissociates into H⁺ and HCO_32^– in the soil solution. These H⁺ ions exchange with cations adsorbed on clay particles and the catipns from micelles get released into soil solution and gets adsorbed on root cells.

[OR]

Give an detail account on different types of senescence?
Answer:
1. Overall senescence:
This kind of senescence occurs in annual plants when entire plant gets affected and dies.
Example: Wheat and Soybean. It also occurs in few perennials also. Example: Agave and Bamboo.

2. Top senescence:
It occurs in aerial parts of plants. It is common in perennials, underground and root system remains viable.
Example: Banana and Gladiolus.

3. Deciduous senescence:
It is common in deciduous plants and occurs only in leaves of plants, bulk of the stem and root system remains alive.
Example: Elm and Maple.

4. Progressive senescence:
This kind of senescence is gradual. First it occurs in old leaves followed by new leaves then stem and finally root system. It is common in annuals.

Bio – Zoology [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
True species are …………………….
(a) Inter breeding
(b) Sharing the same niche
(c) Reproductively isolated
(d) Feeding on the same food
Answer:
(c) Reproductively isolated

Question 2.
Collar cells are found in ……………………
(a) Aschelminthes
(b) Sponges
(c) Cnidaria
(d) Arthropoda
Answer:
(b) Sponges

Question 3.
Match the List – I and List – II.

Answer:
(a) 1 – (i), 2 – (ii), 3 – (iii), 4 – (iv)
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)
(c) 1 – (iii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (ii)
(d) 1 – (iv), 2 – (iii), 3 – (ii), 4 – (i)

Question 4.
BMR stands for ……………………….
(a) Body matabolic rate
(b) Basal matabolic rate
(c) Body mass rate
(d) Basal mass rate
Answer:
(b) Basal matabolic rate

Question 5.
Which of the following statement is correct ………………………….
(a) Testosterone is produced by leyding cells under the influence Luteinizing hormone.
(b) Progesterorie is secreted by corpus luteum.
(c) Oestrogen is secreted by Sertolic cells.
(d) Progesterone produced by Corpus Luteum is biologically different from the one produced by placenta.
Answer:
(a) Testosterone is produced by leyding cells under the influence Luteinizing hormone.

Question 6.
Which of the following pair statement is incorrect?
(a) Humans – ureotelic
(b) Birds – uricotelic
(c) Lizards – uricotelic
(d) Whale – Ammonotelic
Answer:
(d) Whale – Ammonotelic

Question 7.
Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals is called as ………………………..
(a) Myasthenia gravis
(b) Gout
(c) Osteoporosis
(d) Osteomalacia
Answer:
(b) Gout

Question 8.
The olfactory umpulses are transmitted to the ………………………. lobe of brain.
(a) Parietal
(b) Temporal
(c) Occipital
(d) Frontal
Answer:
(d) Frontal

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What is Regeneration?
Answer:
The ability to regrow the lost parts is called regeneration eg. planaria.

Question 10.
What are the functions of Tapetum lucidum?
Answer:
A reflective layer of tissue called tapetum lucidum, enhances night time vision in most of the animals like cat.

Question 11.
Give an example for longest species of earthworm?
Answer:
Microchaetus rappi is an African giant earthworm, can reach a length of 6.7 meter (22 feet). Drawida nilamburansis is a south Indian (Kerala) species of earthworm and can reach a maximum length up to f meter (3 feet).

Question 12.
Differences between frog and toad?
Answer:

Question 13.
Brief notes on spinal nerves?
Answer:
Spinal nerves:
31 pairs of spinal nerves emerge out from the spinal cord through spaces called the intervertebral foramina found between the adjacent vertebrae. The spinal nerves are named according to the region of vertebral column from which they originate

1. Cervical nerves (8 pairs)
2. Thoracic nerves (12 pairs)
3. Lumbar nerves (5 pairs)
4. Sacral nerves (5 pairs)
5. Coccygeal nerves (1 pair)

Each spinal nerve is a mixed nerve containing both afferent (sensory) and efferent (motor) fibres. It originates as two roots:

1. A posterior dorsal root with a ganglion outside the spinal cord and
2. An anterior ventral root with no external ganglion.

Question 14.
Draw the structure of Nephron?
Answer:

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
What is phylogenetic classification or cladistics?
Answer:
The classification of organisms based on evolutionary and genetic relationship among them is known as phylogenetic classification.

Question 16.
Compare Schizocoelom with Enterocoelom?
Answer:

Question 17.
Head of cockroach is called hypognathous. why?
Answer:
The mouth parts of cockroach are directed downwards. The head is small, triangular lies at right angle to the longitudinal body axis. Hence it is called hypognatus.

Question 18.
Draw the diagram and label the parts of micro villi?
Answer:

Question 19.
What are the advantages of artificial insemination?
Answer:

1. It increases the rate of conception
2. It avoids genital diseases
3. Semen can be collected from injured bulls which have desirable traits
4. Superior animals located apart can be bred successfully

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Write brief notes on Diploblastic and Triploblastic organisation with example?
Answer:
During embryonic development, the tissues and organs of animals originate from two or three embryonic germ layers. On the basis of the origin and development, animals are classified into two categories: Diploblastic and Triploblastic.

Animals in which the cells are arranged in two embryonic layers, the external ectoderm, and internal endoderm are called diploblastic animals. In these animals the ectoderm gives rise to the epidermis (the outer layer of the body wall) and endoderm gives rise to gastrodermis (tissue lining the gut cavity). An undifferentiated layer present between the ectoderm and endoderm is the mesoglea. (Corals, Jellyfish, Sea anemone)

Animals in which the developing embryo has three germinal layers are called triploblastic animals and consists of outer ectoderm (skin, hair, neuron, nail, teeth, etc), inner endoderm (gut, lung, liver) and middle mesoderm (muscle, bone, heart). Most of the triploblastic animals show organ system level of organisation (Flat worms to Chordates).

[OR]

Explain the reproductive system of frog?
Answer:
Reproductive system:
The male frog has a pair of testes which are attached to the kidney and the dorsal body wall by folds of peritonium called mesorchium. Vasa efferentia arise from each testis. They enter the kidneys on both side and open into the bladder canal. Finally, it communicates with the urinogenital duct that comes out of kidneys and opens into the cloaca.

Female reproductive system consists of paired ovaries, attached to the kidneys, and dorsal body wall by folds of peritoneum called mesovarium. There is a pair of coiled oviducts lying on the sides of the kidney. Each oviduct opens into the body-cavity at the anterior end by a funnel like opening called ostia.

Unlike the male frog, the female frog has separate genital ducts distinct from ureters. Posteriorly the oviducts dilated to form ovisacs before they open into cloaca. Ovisacs store the eggs temporarily before they are sent out through the cloaca. Fertilization is external.

Within few days of fertilization, the eggs hatch into tadpoles. A newly hatched tadpole lives off the yolk stored in its body. It gradually grows larger and develops three pairs of gills.

The tadpole grows and metamorphosis into an air – breathing carnivorous adult frog. Legs grow from the body, and the tail and gills disappear. The mouth broadens, developing teeth and jaws, and the lungs become functional.

Question 21.
What are the disorders related to the excretory system?
Answer:
Urinary tract infection:
Female’s urethra is very short and its external opening is close to the anal opening, hence improper toilet habits can easily carry faecal bacteria into the urethra. The urethral mucosa is continuous with the urinary tract and the inflammation of the urethra (urethritis) can ascend the tract to cause bladder inflammation (cystitis) or even renal inflammation (pyelitis or pyelonephritis).

Symptoms include dysuria (painful urination), urinary urgency, fever and sometimes cloudy or blood tinged urine. When the kidneys are inflammed, back pain and severe headache often occur. Most urinary tract infections can be treated by antibiotics.

Renal Failure (Kidney Failure):
Failure of the kidneys to excrete wastes may lead to accumulation of urea with marked reduction in the urine output. Renal failure are of two types, Acute and chronic renal failure.

In acute renal failure the kidney stops its function abruptly, but there are chances for recovery of kidney functions. In chronic renal failure there is a progressive loss of function of the nephrons which gradually decreases the function of kidneys.

Uremia:
Uremia is characterized by increase in urea and other non – protein nitrogenous substances like uric acid and creatinine in blood. Normal urea level in human blood is about 17 – 30mg/100mL of blood. The urea concentration rises as 10 times of normal levels during chronic renal failure.

Renal calculi:
Renal calculi, also called renal stone or kidney stone or nephrolithiasis, is the formation of hard stone like masses in the renal tubules of renal pelvis.

It is mainly due to the accumulation of soluble crystals of salts of sodium oxalates and certain phosphates. This result in severe pain called “renal colic pain” and can cause scars in the kidneys. Renal stones can be removed by techniques like pyleothotomy or lithotripsy.

Glomerulonephritis:
It is also called Bright’s disease and is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli of both kidneys and is usually due to post-streptococcal infection that occurs in children. Symptoms are haematuria, proteinuria, salt and water retention, oligouria, hypertension and pulmonary oedema.

[OR]

Describe the life cycle of Bombyx mori?
Answer:
Life cycle of Bombyx mori:
The adult of Bombyx mori is about 2.5 cm in length and pale creamy white in colour. Due to heavy body and feeble wings, flight is not possible by the female moth.

This moth is unisexual in nature and does not feed during its very short life period of 2 – 3 days. Just after emergence, male moth copulates with female for about 2 – 3 hours and if not separated, they may die after few hours of copulating with female.

Just after copulation, female starts egg laying which is completed in 1-24 hours. A single female moth lays 400 to 500 eggs depending upon the climatic conditions.

Two types of eggs are generally found namely diapause type and non-diapause type. The diapause type is laid by silkworms inhabiting the temperate regions, whereas silkworms belonging to subtropical regions like India lay non – diapause type of eggs.

The eggs after ten days of incubation hatch into larva called as caterpillar. The newly hatched caterpillar is about 3 mm in length and is pale, yellowish-white in colour. The caterpillars are provided with well developed mandibulate type of mouth-parts adapted to feed easily on the mulberry leaves.

After 1^st, 2^2nd, 3^rd and 4^th moultings caterpillars get transformed into 2^nd, 3^rd, 4^th and 5^th instars respectively. It takes about 21 to 25 days after hatching. The fully grown caterpillar is 7.5 cm in length. It develops salivary glands, stops feeding and undergoes pupation.

The caterpillars stop feeding and move towards the comer among the leaves and secretes a sticky fluid through their silk gland. The secreted fluid comes out through spinneret (a narrow pore situated on the hypopharynx) and takes the form of long fine thread of silk which hardens on exposure to air and is wrapped around the body of caterpillar in the forms of a covering called as cocoon.

It is the white coloured bed of the pupa whose outer threads are irregular while the inner threads are regular. The length of continuous thread secreted by a caterpillar for the formation of cocoon is about 1000 – 1200 metres which requires 3 days to complete. The pupal period lasts for 10 to 12 days and the pupae cut through the cocoon and emerge into adult moth.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. 1. The question paper comprises of four parts. Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
   2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
   3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
   4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
   5. Question numbers 9 to 14 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
   6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
   7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio – Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – 1

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Identify the correct sequence regarding lytic cycle of viruses.
(i) Penetration
(ii) Adsorption
(iii) Assembly
(iv) Synthesis
(a) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(b) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
(d) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
Answer:
(a) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

Question 2.
Zygote meiosis is characterisitic of ………………………
(a) Marchantia
(b) Fucus
(c) Funaria
(d) Chlamydomonas
Answer:
(d) Chlamydomonas

Question 3.
Pinus roots are in symbiotic relationship with ……………………
(a) Blue green algae
(b) Mycorrhiza
(c) Euglena
(d) Rhizobium
Answer:
(b) Mycorrhiza

Question 4.
Climbers are also called as ……………………
(a) Herbs
(b) Trees
(c) Vines
(d) Shrubs
Answer:
(c) Vines

Question 5.
Arrangement of sepals and petals in flower bud is called ………………………
(a) Adhesion
(b) Aestivation
(c) Placentation
(d) Cohesion
Answer:
(b) Aestivation

Question 6.
Cell cycle was discovered by ………………………
(a) Singer & Nicholson
(b) Prevost & Dumans
(c) Schleider & Schwann
(d) Boveri
Answer:
(b) Prevost & Dumans

Question 7.
Parenchyma storing calcium carbonate crystals are called ……………………
(a) Leucoplasts
(b) Elaioplasts
(c) Idioblasts
(d) Chromoplasts
Answer:
(c) Idioblasts

Question 8.
Which of the following is a free – living bacterium?
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Clostridium
(c) Escherichia
(d) Cyanobacteria
Answer:
(b) Clostridium

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Distinguish between deoxyviruses and riboviruses?
Answer:

Question 10.
What is plant morphology?
Answer:
Plant morphology also known as external morphology deals with the study of shape, size and structure of plants and their parts like (roots, stems, leaves, flowers, fruits and seeds).

Question 11.
Differentiate Regional Flora from continental flora?
Answer:

Question 12.
Define C – Value?
Answer:
C-Value is the amount in picograms of DNA contained within a haploid nucleus.

Question 13.
Expand and Define TP?
Answer:
TP stands for Turgor pressure. When a plant cell is placed in pure water (hypotonie solution) the diffusion of water into the cell takes place by endosmosis. It creates a positive hydrostatic pressure on the rigid cell wall by the cell membrane.

Hence forth the pressure exerted by the ccli membrane towards the cell wall is Turgor Pressure (TP).

Question 14.
Mention the events of Photochernical phase of light reaction?
Answer:
Photocheinical Phase:

1. Photolysis of water and oxygen evolution
2. Electron transport and synthesis of assimilatory power.

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Name few fossil sites of India?
Answer:

Question 16.
What is a liana? Mention its importance?
Answer:
Liana is a vine that is perennial and woody. Lianas are major components in the tree canopy layer of some tropical forests. e.g., Ventilago.

Question 17.
Enumerate the steps ino1ed in herbarium preparation?
Answer:
Preparation of herbarium specimen includes the following steps.

1. Plant Collection
2. Documentation of field site data
3. Preparation of plant specimen
4. Mounting herbarium specimen
5. Herbarium labels
6. Protection of herbarium sheets against mold and insects

Question 18.
Draw and label the open vascular bundle?
Answer:

Question 19.
When does an essential mineral is considered as a “toxic”?
Answer:
Increase of mineral nutrients more than the normal concentration causes toxicity. A concentration, at which 10 % of the dry weight of tissue is reduced, is considered as toxic.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Tabulate the economic importance of algae?
Answer:

[OR]

Explain Datura metal in botanical terms. Draw floral diagram?
Answer:
1. Habit:
Large, erect and stout herb.

2. Root:
Branched tap root system.

3. Stem:
Stem is hollow, green and herbaceous with strong odour.

4. Leaf:
Simple, alternate, petiolate, entire or deeply lobed, glabrous exstipulate showing unicostate reticulate venation.

5. Inflorescence:
Solitary and axillary cyme.

6. Flower:
Flowers are large, greenish white, bracteate, ebracteolate, pedicellate, complete, heterochlamydeous, pentamerous, regular actinomorphic, bisexual and hypogyncas.

7. Calyx:
Sepals 5, green synsepalous showing valvate aestivation. Calyx is mostly persistant, odd sepal is posterior in position.

8. Corolla:
Petals 5, greenish white, sympetalous, plicate (folded like a fan) showing twisted aestivation, funnel shaped with wide mouth and 10 lobed.

9. Androecium:
Stamens 5, free from one another, epipetalous, altemipefalous and are inserted in the middle of the corolla tube. Anthers are basifixed, dithecous, with long filament, introse and longitudinally dehiscent.

10. Gynoecium:
Ovary bicarpellary, syncarpous superior ovary, basically biloculear but tetralocular due to the formation of false septum. Carpels are obliquely placed and ovules on swollen axile placentation. Style simple long and filiform, stigma two lobed.

11. Fruit:
Spinescent capsule opening by four special valves with persistent calyx.

12. Seed:
Endospermous

13. Floral Formula:

Question 21.
Describe the types of transpiration in plants?
Answer:
Types of Transpiration: Transpiration is of following three types:

1. Stomatal transpiration:
Stomata are microscopic structures present in high number on the lower epidermis of leaves. This is the most dominant form of transpiration and being responsible for most of the water loss (90 – 95%) in plants.

2. Lenticular transpiration:
In stems of woody plants and trees, the epidermis is replaced by periderm because of secondary growth. In order to provide gaseous exchange between the living cells and outer atmosphere, some pores which looks like lens – shaped raised spots are present on the surface of the stem called Lenticels. The loss of water from lenticels is very insignificant as it amounts to only 0.1% of the total.

3. Cuticular transpiration:
The cuticle is a waxy or resinous layer of cutin, a fatty substance covering the epidermis of leaves and other plant parts. Loss of water through cuticle is relatively small and it is only about 5 to 10 % of the total transpiration. The thickness of cuticle increases in xerophytes and transpiration is very much reduced or totally absent.

[OR]

Describe the concept of Phytochrome?
Answer:
Phytochrome is a bluish biliprotein pigment responsible for the perception of light in photo physiological process. But at (1959) named this pigment and it exists in two interconvertible forms:

(I) Red light absorbing pigment which is designated as P_r and

(II) Far red light absorbing pigment which is designated as P_fr. The P_fr form absorbs red light in 660 nm and changes to P_fr. The P_fr form absorbs far red light in 730 nm and changes to P_r.

The P_r form is biologically inactive and it is stable whereas Pfr form is biologically active and it is very unstable. In short day plants, P_r promotes flowering and P_fr inhibits the flowering whereas in long day plants flowering is promoted by P_fr and inhibited by P_r form.

P_fr is always associated with hydrophobic area of membrane systems while P_r is found in diffused state in the cytoplasm. The interconversion of the two forms of phytochrome is mainly involved in flower induction and also additionally plays a role in seed germination and changes in membrane conformation.

Bio – Zoology [Maximum Marks: 35]

PART – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Entomology is concerned with the study of ……………………..
(a) Formation and properties of soil
(b) Agricultural practices
(c) Various aspects of human life
(d) Various aspects of insect
Answer:
(d) Various aspects of insect

Question 2.
Which is the site of production of blood cells?
(a) Cartilage
(b) Bone marrow
(c) Blood
(d) Plasma
Answer:
(b) Bone marrow

Question 3.
Match the List – I and List – II.

(a) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)
(b) 1 – (i), 2 – (ii), 3 – (iii), 4 – (iv)
(c) 1 – (iv), 2 – (iii), 3 – (i), 4 – (ii)
(d) 1 – (iii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (ii)
Answer:
(a) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)

Question 4.
ESV stands for ……………………..
(a) Endocard Systolic Volume
(b) End Systolic Volume
(c) Endocard Sound Volume
(d) Endocard Sinoatrial Volume
Answer:
(b) End Systolic Volume

Question 5.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water
(b) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water
(c) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water
(d) The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes
Answer:
(c) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water

Question 6.
Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(a) Basal epithelial cells are sensitive portions of the taste
(b) Basal epithelial cells are stem cells which divide and differentiate into new gustatory cells
(c) Gustatory hairs project form the tip of the gustatory cells
(d) Gustatory cells are sensory portion of the taste
Answer:
(a) Basal epithelial cells are sensitive portions of the taste

Question 7.
Serum Calcium level is regulated by …………………….
(a) Thyroxine
(b) FSH
(c) Pancreas Assertion is true, but reason is false
(d) Thyroid and Parathyroid
Answer:
(d) Thyroid and Parathyroid

Question 8.
Ca⁺ metabolism is regulated by …………………..
(a) ACTH
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Parathormone
(d) Epinephrine
Answer:
(a) ACTH

PART – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What is Phylogenetic tree?
Answer:
A phylogenetic tree or evolutionary tree is a branching diagram or “tree”, showing the inferred evolutionary relationships upon similarities and differences in their physical or genetic characteristics.

Question 10.
Write about Marbled cone snail?
Answer:
Marbled Cone Snail (Conus marmoreus):
This cone – shaped snail can deliver dangerous venom which may result in vision loss, respiratory failure, muscle paralysis and eventually death. There is no anti – venom available.

Question 11.
Differences between male and female cockroach?
Answer:

Question 12.
Define Floating ribs?
Answer:
The last 11^th and 12^th pairs of ribs are not connected ventrally. Therefore, they are called as ‘floating ribs’ or vertebral ribs.

Question 13.
Write a note on Tetany?
Answer:
Tetany is caused due to the hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH). Due to hyposecretion of PTH serum calcium level decreases (Hypocalcemia), as a result serum phosphate level increases.

Calcium and phosphate excretion level decreses. Generalized convulsion, locking of jaws increased heart beat rate, increases body temperature, muscular spasm are the major symptoms of tetany.

Question 14.
Draw the diagram of large intestine?
Answer:

PART – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
What is the need for classification?
Answer:
The basic need for classification are:

1. To identify and differentiate closely related species.
2. To know the variation among the species.
3. To understand the evolution of the species.
4. To create a phylogenetic tree among the different groups.

Question 16.
Distinguish between Diploblastic and Triploblastic animals?
Answer:

Question 17.
Write a short note on connective tissue?
Answer:

1. Connective tissue develops from the mesoderm.
2. Connective tissue proper, Cartilage, bones and blood are the four main classes of connective tissues.
3. Binding, support, protection, insulation and transportation of substances are the major functions of connective tissue.

Question 18.
Draw the diagram of Lamnito mauritii?
Answer:

Question 19.
Define cross breedin?
Answer:
Breeding between a superior male of one breed with a superior female of another breed is known as cross breeding.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Who proposed the five kingdom classification? Represent the Five kingdom Classification in a tabular format?
Answer:
R.H. Whittaker (1969) proposed the Five kingdom Classification, the Kingdoms defined by him were Monera, Prgtista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia based on the cell structure, mode of nutrition, mode of reproduction and phylogenetic relationships. The table below gives a, comparative account of different characteristics of the five kingdoms.

[OR]

Explain the mechanism of breathing?
Answer:
The movement of air between the atmosphere and the lungs is known as ventilation or breathing. Inspiration and expiration are the two phases of breathing. Inspiration is the movement of atmospheric air into the lungs and expiration is the movement of alveolar air that diffuse out of the lungs.

Lungs do not contain muscle fibres but expands and contracts by the movement of the ribs and diaphragm. The diaphragm is a sheet of tissue which separates the thorax from the abdomen. In a relaxed state, the diaphragm is domed shaped.

Ribs are moved by the intercostal muscles. External and internal intercostal muscles found between the ribs and the diaphragm helps in creating pressure gradients.

Inspiration occurs if the pressure inside the lungs (intrapulmonary pressure) is less than the atmospheric pressure likewise expiration takes place when the pressure within the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure.

Inspiraton is initiated by the contraction of the diaphragm muscles and external intercostal muscles, which pulls the ribs and sternum upwards and outwards and increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso – ventral axis, forcing the lungs to expand the pulmonary volume.

The increase in pulmonary volume and decrease in the intrapulmonary pressure forces the fresh air from outside to enter the air passages into the lungs to equalize the pressure. This process is called inspiration.

Relaxation of the diaphragm allows the diaphragm and sternum to return to its dome shape and the internal intercostal muscles contract, pulling the ribs downward reducing the thoracic volume and pulmonary volume.

This results in an increase in the intrapulmonary pressure slightly above the atmospheric pressure causing the expulsion of air from the lungs. This process is called expiration.

Question 21.
What are the benefits of regular exercise?
Answer:
Regular exercises can produce the following beneficial physiological changes:

1. The muscles used in exercise grow larger and strongcr
2. More enzymes are synthesized in the muscle fibre
3. Ligaments and tendons become stronger
4. Influences hormonal &tivity
5. Prcvcnts Obesity
6. Aesthetically bettcr with good physique
7. Over all well-bcing with good quality of life
8. Prevents depression, stress and anxiety
9. The resting heart rate goes down
10. Joints become more flexible
11. Protection from hcart attack
12. Improves cognitive functions
13. Promotes confidence, esteem

During muscular exercise, there is an increase in metabolism. The O₂ need of the muscles is increased. This requirement is met with more oxygen rich RBCs available to the active sites. There is an increase in heart rate and cardiac output. Along with balanced diet, physical activity plays a significant role in strengthening the muscles and bones.

[OR]

What are the types of chicken breeds in Poultry Farming?
Answer:
There are more than 100 breeds. The commonly farmed chicken breeds are categorized into five based on the purpose for which it is farmed. They are egg layers, broiler type, dual type, games and ornamental types.

1. Egg layers: These are farmed mainly for the production of egg.

Leghorn:
This is the most popular commercial breed in India and originated from Italy. They are small, compact with a single comb and wattles with white, brown or black colour.

They mature early and begin to lay eggs at the age of 5 or 6 months. Hence these are preferred in commercial farms. They can also thrive well in dry areas.

Chittagong:
It is the breed chiefly found in West Bengal. They are golden or light yellow coloured. The beak is long and yellow in colour. Ear lobes and wattles are small and red in colour. They are good egg layers and are delicious.

2. Broiler type: These are well known for fast growth and soft quality meat.

White Plymouth rock:
They have white plumage throughout the body. It is commonly used in broiler production. This is an American breed. It is a fast growing breed and well suitable for growing intensively in confined farms.

3. Dual purpose breeds: These are for both meat and egg production purpose.

Brahma:
It is a breed popularly known for its massive body having heavy bones, well feathered and proportionate body. Pea comb is one of the important breed characters. It has two common varieties namely, Light Brahma and Dark Brahma.

4. Game breeds: Since ancient times, special breed of roosters have been used for the sport of cockfighting.

Aseel:
This breed is white or black in colour. The hens are not good egg layers but are good in incubation of eggs. It is found in all states of India. Aseel is noted for its pugnacity, high stamina, and majestic gait and dogged fighting qualities. Although poor in productivity, this breed is well-known for their meat qualities.

5. Ornamental breeds: Ornamental chicken are reared as pets in addition to their use for egg production and meat.

Silkie:
It is a breed of chicken has a typical fluffy plumage, which is said to feel like silk and satin. The breed has numerous additional special characters, such as black skin and bones, blue earlobes, and five toes on each foot, while the majority chickens only have four.

They are exhibited in poultry shows, and come out in various colours. Silkies are well recognized for their calm, friendly temperament. Silkie chicken is especially simple to maintain as pets.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

Choose the correct answer: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The construction of demand line or supply line is the result of using ………………………
(a) Matrices
(b) Calculus
(c) Algebra
(d) Analytical geometry
Answer:
(d) Analytical geometry

Question 2.
“Economics is the study of mankind in the ordinary business of life”. It is the statement of ………………………….
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Lionel Robbins
(c) Alfred Marshall
(d) Samuelson
Answer:
(c) Alfred Marshall

Question 3.
The Industry which was de – reserved in 1993?
(a) Railways
(b) Mining of copper and zinc
(c) Atomic energy
(d) Atomic minerals
Answer:
(b) Mining of copper and zinc

Question 4.
A production function measures the relation between ……………………….
(a) Input prices and output prices
(b) Input prices and the quantity of output
(c) The quantity of inputs and the quantity of output
(d) The quantity of inputs and input prices
Answer:
(c) The quantity of inputs and the quantity of output

Question 5.
Mathematical Economics is the integration of ………………………..
(a) Mathematics and Economics
(b) Economics and Statistics
(c) Economics and Equations
(d) Graphs and Economics
Answer:
(a) Mathematics and Economics

Question 6.
Mixed economy means ……………………………..
(a) Private sectors and banks
(b) Co – existence of public and private sectors
(c) Public sectors and banks
(d) Public sectors only
Answer:
(b) Co-existence of public and private sectors

Question 7.
Who is the Father of Economics?
(a) Max Muller
(b) Adam Smith
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Paul A Samuelson
Answer:
(b) Adam Smith

Question 8.
Annual plans formed in the year ………………………….
(a) 1989 – 1991
(b) 1990 – 1992
(c) 2000 – 2001
(d) 1981 – 1983
Answer:
(b) 1990 – 1992

Question 9.
In investment proposals filed by MSMEs, TN ranks ………………………..
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer:
(b) II

Question 10.
Which of the following is the way of Privatisation?
(a) Disinvestment
(b) Denationalization
(c) Franchising
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Disinvestment

Question 11.
Cost refer to ………………………..
(a) Price
(b) Value
(c) Fixed cost
(d) Cost of production
Answer:
(d) Cost of production

Question 12.
Petrol and gold is the example of ………………………. market.
(a) Local
(b) Provincial
(c) National
(d) International
Answer:
(d) International

Question 13.
Money cost is also known as …………………………. cost.
(a) Explicit
(b) Implicit
(c) Social
(d) Real
Answer:
(a) Explicit

Question 14.
Which of the following involves maximum exploitation of consumers?
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Monopolistic competition
(d) Oligopoly
Answer:
(b) Monopoly

Question 15.
How do you term people employed in excess over and above the requirements?
(a) Unemployment
(b) Under employment (or) Disguised unemployment
(c) Full employment
(d) Self employment
Answer:
(b) Under employment (or) Disguised unemployment

Question 16.
The main objective of nationalisation of banks was ……………………….
(a) Private Social welfare
(b) Social Welfare
(c) To earn
(d) Industries monopoly
Answer:
(b) Social Welfare

Question 17.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of land?
(a) Its limited supply
(b) It is mobile
(c) Heterogeneous
(d) Gift of Nature
Answer:
(b) It is mobile

Question 18.
Quasi – rent arises in ………………………..
(a) Man – made appliances
(b) Home made items
(c) Imported items
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Man – made appliances

Question 19.
The recommended nutritiofaal intake per person in rural areas.
(a) 2100 calories
(b) 2200 calories
(c) 2300 calories
(d) 2400 calories
Answer:
(d) 2400 calories

Question 20.
The highest rate of tax under GST is ……………………….. (as on July 1,2017).
(a) 18%
(b) 24%
(c) 28%
(d) 32%
Answer:
(c) 28%

PART – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What is meant by distribution?
Answer:
Distribution means division of income among the four factors of production in terms of rent to landlords, wage to labourer, interest to capital and profit to entrepreneurs. The theory of functional distribution deals with how the relative prices of these factors of production are determined. The theory of factor prices is popularly known as the theory of distribution.

Question 22.
State the reasons for implementing LPG?
Answer:
Liberalization:

1. Liberalization refers to removal of relaxation of governmental restrictions in all stages of industry.
2. De-licensing, decontrol, deregulation, subsidies (incentives) and greater role for financial institutions are the various facets of liberalization.

Privatization:

1. Privatization means transfer of ownership and management of enterprises from public sector to private sector.
2. Denationalization, disinvestment and opening exclusive public sector enterprises to private sector are the gateways to privatization.

Globalization:
Globalization refers to the integration of the domestic (Indian) economy with the rest of the world. Import liberalization through reduction of tariff and non – tariffbarriers, opening the doors to Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) are some of the measures towards globalization.

Question 23.
Why was structural reform implemented in Indian Economy?
Answer:

1. Indian Economy responded to the crisis by introducing a set of policies known as Structural Reforms.
2. These policies were aimed at correcting the weaknesses and rigidities in the various sectors of the economy such as industry, trade, fiscal and agriculture.

Question 24.
What is selling costs?
Answer:

1. Selling Cost is the discussion of “ Product differentiation”.
2. We can infer that the producer under monopolistic competition has to incur expenses to popularize his brand.
3. This involved in selling the product is called selling cost.
4. According to Prof. Chamberlin, selling cost is “ The cost incurred in order to alter the position or shape of the demand curve for a product”.

Question 25.
What are major ports in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu has three major ports; one each at Chennai, Ennore, and Thoothkudi as well as one intermediate port in Nagpattinam, and 23 minor ports.
2. All the minor portsare managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai Port.
3. Ennore port was recently converted from an intermediate port to a major port and handles all the coal and ore traffic in Tamil Nadu.

Question 26.
Mention any four food crops which are favourable to Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Rice: Tamil Nadu is the India’s second biggest producer of rice.
2. Banana and Coconut: Tamil Nadu ranks first in production of Banana and coconut.
3. Cashewnut: Tamil Nadu ranks second in production of cashewnut.
4. Pepper: Tamil Nadu ranks third in production of pepper.
5. Sugarcane: Tamil Nadu ranks fourth in production of Sugarcane.

Question 27.
What is Selling cost?
Answer:

1. Selling Cost is the discussion of “ Product differentiation”.
2. We can infer that the producer under monopolistic competition has to incur expenses to popularize his brand.
3. This involved in selling the product is called selling cost.
4. According to Prof. Chamberlin, selling cost is “The cost incurred in order to alter the position or shape of the demand curve for a product”.

Question 28.
What do you mean by Rural Development?
Answer:

1. Rural Development is defined as an overall improvement in the economies and social well being of villagers and the institutional and physical environments in which they live.
2. According to the World Bank “Rural Development is a strategy designed to improve the economic and social life of a specific group of people – rural poor.
3. Rural Development is a process of improving the rural areas, rural people and rural living.

Question 29.
Define Rural economy?
Answer:

1. Rural areas are geographical areas located outside towns and cities.
2. Rural Economy refers to villages and rural community refers to people living in villages.

Question 30.
Give the definition for ‘Real Cost’ ?
Answer:
Real Cost refers to the payment made to compensate the efforts and sacrifices of all factor owners for their services in production. Real Cost includes the efforts and sacrifices of landlords in the use of land, capitalists to save and invest, and workers in foregoing, leisure. Real cost are considered pains and sacrifices of labour as real cost of production.

PART – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Enumerate the remedial measures to Rural poverty?
Answer:
Remedial measures:

1. Since rural unemployment and rural poverty are interrelated, creation of employment opportunities would support elimination of poverty.
2. Poverty alleviation schemes and programmes have been implemented, modified, consolidated, expanded and improved over time.
3. However, unemployment, begging, rag-picking and slumming continues.
4. Unless employment is given to all the people poverty cannot be eliminated.

Question 32.
Write a short note on Marginal Revenue?
Answer:
1. Marginal Revenue [MR] is the addition to the total revenue by the sale of an additional unit of a commodity.

2. MR can be found out by dividing change in total revenue by the change in quantity sold out.

3. MR = ∆TR/∆Q where MR denotes Marginal Revenue, ∆TR denotes change in Total Revenue and ∆Q denotes change in total quantity.

4. The other method of estimating MR is:

MR = TR_n – TR_n-1 (or) TR_n+1 – TR_n
Where, MR denotes Marginal Revenue,
TR_n denotes total revenue of n^th item,
TR_n-1, denotes Total Revenue of n – 1^th item and
TR_n+1 denotes Total Revenue of n + 1^th item.
If TR = PQ , MR = dTR/dQ = P, which is equal to AR.

Question 33.
Define opportunity cost and provide an example?
Answer:

1. Opportunity cost refers to the cost of next best alternative use. In other words, it is the value of the next best alternative foregone.
2. For example, a farmer can cultivate both paddy and sugarcane in a farm land.
3. If he cultivates paddy, the opportunity cost of paddy output is the amount of sugarcane output given up.
4. Opportunity Cost is also called as “Alternative Cost” or Transfer cost.

Question 34.
Explain the theory of “consumer’s surplus”?
Answer:
Alfred Marshall defines consumer’s surplus as “the excess of price which a person would be willing to pay a thing rather than go without the thing, over that which he actually does pay is the economic measure of this surplus satisfaction. This may be called consumers surplus”.

Question 35.
List out the objectives of MUDRA Bank?
Answer:

1. Regulate the lender and the borrower of microfinance and bring stability to the microfinance system.
2. Extend finance and credit support to Micro Finance Institutions [MFI] and agencies that lend money to small businesses, retailers, self-help groups and individuals.
3. Register all MFIs and introduce a system of performance rating and accreditation for the first time.
4. Offer a Credit Guarantee scheme for providing guarantees to loans being offered to micro businesses.
5. Introduce appropriate technologies to assist in the process of efficient lending, borrowing and monitoring of distributed capital.

Question 36.
Explain about the period of Merchant capital?
Answer:
Period of Merchant Capital:

1. The period of merchant capital was from 1757 to 1813.
2. The only aim of the East India Company was to earn profit by establishing monopoly trade in the goods with India and the East India’s.
3. During this period, India had been considered as the best hunting ground for capital by the East Indian company to develop industrial capitalism is Britain.
4. When Bengal and South India came under political shake of the East India company in 1750s and 1760s, the objective of monopoly trade was fulfilled.
5. The company administration succeeded in generating huge surpluses which were repatriated . to England, and the Indian leaders linked this problem of land revenue with that of the drain.
6. Above all, the officers of the company were unscrupulous and corrupt.

Question 37.
Distinguish between rent and quasi – rent?
Answer:

Question 38.
Explain the causes for Rural backwardness?

1. The evils of brain-drain and rural-urban migration can be reduced if rural areas are developed.
2. In order to better utilise the unused and under – utilised resources there is a need to develop the rural economy.
3. Rural Development should minimise the gap between rural and urban areas in terms of the provision of infrastructural facilities. It was called as PURA by former President Abdul Kalam.
4. In order to improve the nation’s status in the global arena in terms of the economic indicators like,
   • Human Development Index [HDI]
   • Woman Empowerment Index [WEI]
   • Gender Disparity Index [GDI]
   • Physical Quality of Life Index [PQLI] and
   • Gross National Happiness Index [GNHI] should be given due attention.

Question 39.
Discuss the long run cost curves with suitable diagram?
Answer:

1. In the long run all factors of production become variable. The existing size of the firm can be increased in the case of long run. There are neither fixed inputs nor fixed costs in the long run.

2. LAG is given in diagram.

3. Long run average cost (LAC) is equal to long run total costs divided by the level of output.

LAC = LTC/Q

4. where, LAC denotes Long-Run Average Cost, LTC denotes Long-run Total Cost and Q denotes the quantity of output. The LAC curve is derived from short-run average cost curves. It is the locus of points denoting the least cost curve of producing the corresponding output. The LAC curve is called as ‘Plant Curve’ or ‘Boat shape Curve’ or ‘Planning Curve’ or ‘Envelop Curve’.

Question 40.
State the importance of Rural Development?
Answer:
1. A major share of population lives in rural areas, and their development and contributions are very much supportive for the nation building activities. India cannot be developed by retaining rural as backward.

2. The rural economy Supports the urban sectors by way of supplying drinking water, milk, food and raw materials. Hence, the backwardness of the rural sector would be a major impediment to the overall progress of the economy.

3. Improvements in education, health and sanitation in villages can help avoid many urban problems namely, begging, rag-picking and road side slumming.

4. Development of agriculture and allied activities are necessary for providing gainful employment in rural areas and improving overall food production.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Bring out Jawaharlal Nehru’s contribution to the idea of economic development?
Answer:

1. Jawaharlal Nehru, one of the chief builders of Modem India, was the first Prime Minister of Independent India.
2. He was a great patriot, thinker and statesman.

(I) Democracy and Secularism:

1. Jawaharlal Nehru was a firm believer in democracy.
2. He believed in free speech civil liberty, adult franchise and the Rule of Law and Parliamentary democracy.
3. Secularism, is another signal contribution of Nehru to India.

(II) Planning:

1. Jawaharlal Nehru was responsible for the introduction of planning in our country.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru, the Plan was essentially an integrated approach for development.
3. Nehru Spoke on the theme of planning.
4. He said “the essence of planning is to find the best way to utilize all resources of manpower, of money and so on”.
5. “Planning for Nehru was essentially linked up with Industrialization and eventual self¬reliance for the country’s economic growth on an self – accelerating growth.
6. Nehru carried through this basis strategy of planned development.
7. Nehru’s contribution to the advancement of science, research, technology and industrial development cannot be forgotten.
8. It was dining is period, many IITs and Research Institutions were established.
9. Nehru always in insited on “ scientific temper”.

[OR]

(b) Describe the Salient features of EXIM policy [2015 – 2020]
Answer:
The new EXIM policy has been formulated focusing on increasing in exports Scenario, boosting production and supporting the concepts like Make in India and Digital India.

Salient Features:

1. Reduce export obligations by 25% and give boost to domestic manufacturing supporting the “Make in India” concept.
2. As a step to Digital India concept, online procedure to upload digitally signed document by CA /CS / Cost Accountant are developed and further mobile app for filing tax, stamp duty has been developed.
3. Repeated submission of physical copies of documents available on Exporter Importer Profile is not required.
4. Export obligation period for export items related to defence, military store, aerospace and nuclear energy to be 24 months.
5. EXIM policy 2015 – 2020 is expected to double the share of India in World Trade from present level of 3% by the year 2020. This appears to be too ambitions.

Question 42 (a).
Explain basic problems of the economy with the help of production possibility curve?
Answer:
1. The problem of choice between relatively scarce commodities due to limited productive resources with the society can be illustrated with the help of a geometric device, is known as production possibility curve.

Production possibility curve shows the menu of choice along which a society can choose to substitute one good for another, assuming a given , state of technology and given total resources.

2. The explanation and analysis of production possibility curve is based upon certain assumptions, some of them are following:

1. The time period does not change. It remains the same throughout the curve.
2. Techniques of production are fixed.
3. There is full employment in the economy.
4. Only two goods can be produced from the given resources.
5. Resources of production are fully mobile.
6. The factors of production are given in quantity and quality.
7. The low of diminishing returns operates in production.
8. Every production possibility curve is based upon these assumptions. If some of these assumptions changes or negelected, then it affects the nature of production possibility curve.
9. To draw this curve we take the help of production possibilities schedule, as shown below.

Production possibilities schedule:
1. The schedule suggests that if all resources are thrown into the production of food, a maximum of 500 tons of food can be produced, given the existing technology. If on the other hand, all resources are instead used for producing cars, 25 cars can be produced. In between these two extreme possibilities exist. If we are willing to give up some food, we can have some cars.

2. We can obtain a production possibility curve by drawing production possibilities schedule graphically. The quantity of food is shown on x – axis and the number of cars is shown on y – axis, the different six production possibilities are. being shown as point P₁ P₂ P₃ P₄ P₅ & P₆.

Problems of the economy:

1. The problem of choice:
The problem of choice arise because of the given limited resources and unlimited wants, may relate to the allocation of resources between the goods for the higher income group and the lower income group and the goods for the defense and the civilians. Since PPC is the locus of the combination of the goods the problem of choice will not arises when we choose any point on PPC.

2. Solution of central problems:
The central problems of an economy can be explained with the help of PPC. The solution of problem of what to produce involves the decision regarding the choice of location on the production possibility carves. A production combination represented by any point inside the PPC indicates that the economy is using inefficient methods of production and inefficient combination of resources.

[OR]

(b) Elucidate the law of diminishing marginal utility with diagram?
Answer:
Introduction:
H.H.Gossen, an Austrian Economist was the first to formulate this law in Economics in 1854. Therefore Jevons called this law as “ Gossen’s First Law of Consumption”. But credit goes to Marshall, because he perfected this law on the basis of Cardinal Analysis. This law is based on the characteristics of human wants, i.e. wants are satiable.

Definition:
Marshall states the law as “ the additional benefit which a person derives from a given increase of his stock of a thing, diminishes with every increase in the stock that he already has”.

Assumptions:

1. Utility can be measured by cardinal numbers such as 1, 2, 3 and so on.
2. The marginal utility of money of the consumer remains constant.
3. The consumer should be a rational consumer and his aim is to attain maximum satisfaction with minimum expenditure.
4. The units of the commodity consumed must be reasonable in size.
5. The commodity consumed should be homogeneous or uniform in charcter like weight, quality, taste, colour etc.
6. The consumption of goods must take place continuously at a given period of time.
7. There should be no change in the taste, habits preferences, fashions, income and character of the consumer during the process of consumption.

Explanation:
The Law of Diminishing Marginal utility states that if a consumer continues to consume more and more units of the same commodity, its marginal utility diminishes. This means that the more we have of a thing, the less is the satisfaction or utility that we derive from the additional unit of it.

The Law of Diminishing Marginal utility:

1. In this table, we find that the total utility goes on increasing but at a diminishing rate.
2. The law can be explained with a simple illustration.
3. Consumer wants to consume 7 apples one after another.
4. The utility from the first apple is 20.
5. But the utility from the second apple will be less than that of the first [say 15].
6. The third less than that of the second [say 10] and so on.
7. Finally, the utility from the fifth apple becomes zero and the utilities from sixth and seventh apples are negative for disutility or disliking.
8. This tendency is called the “ The Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility”.
9. In this table we find on the other hand, marginal utility goes on diminishing.
10. When marginal utility becomes zero, the total utility is maximum and when marginal utility becomes negative, the total utility diminishes.

X – axis represents number of apples consumed
Y – axis represents total utility and marginal utility
TU – represents total utility
MU- represents marginal utility

Criticisms:

1. Utility cannot be measured numerically, because utility is subjective.
2. This law is based on the unrealistic assumptions.
3. This law is not applicable to indivisible commodities.

Question 43 (a).
Explain the objectives of nationalization of commercial bank?
Answer:
The Government of India nationalized the commercial banks to achieve the following objectives:

1. The main objective of nationalization was to attain Social Welfare. Sectors such as agriculture, small and village industries were in need of funds for their expansion and further economic development.
2. Nationalisation of banks helped to curb private monopolies in order to ensure a smooth supply of credit to socially desirable sections.
3. In India, nearly 70% of population lived in rural areas. Therefore it was needed to encourage the banking habit among the rural population.
4. Nationalisation of banks was required to reduce the regional imbalances where the banking facilities were not available.
5. Before Independence, the numbers of banks were certainly inadequate. After nationalization, new bank branches were opened in both rural and urban areas.
6. Banks created credit facilities mainly to the agriculture sector and its allied activities after nationalization.
   After New Economic Policy 1991, the Indian banking Industry has been facing the new horizons of competitions, efficiency and productivity.

[OR]

(b) Explain the Agrarian crisis after reforms?
Answer:
(I) High input costs:

1. The biggest input for farmers is seeds.
2. Before liberalisation, farmers across the country had access to seeds from state government institutions.
3. The institutions produced own seeds and were responsible for their quality and price.
4. India’s seed market was opened up to global agri-businesses.
5. The deregulation of many state government institutions were closed down in 2003.
6. Seed prices shot up and fake seeds made an appearance in a big way.

(II) Cutback in agricultural subsidies:

1. Farmers were encouraged to shift from growing a mixture of traditional crops to export oriented “cash crops” like chilli, cotton and tobacco.
2. Liberalisation policies reduced the subsides on pesticide and fertilizer and elasticity.
3. As a result prices have increased by 300%.

(III) Reduction of import duties:

1. With a view to open India’s markets, the liberalization reforms also withdrew tariffs and duties on imports.
2. By 2001, India completely removed restrictions on imports of almost 1500 items including food.

(IV) Paucity of credit facilities:

1. The lending pattern of commercial banks, including nationalised bank, drastically changed. As a result, loan was not easily adequate.
2. This has forced the farmers to. rely on moneylenders who charge exorbitant rate of interest.

Question 44 (a).
Explain strong features of Indian economy?
Answer:
Strengths of Indian Economy:

1. India has a mixed economy:

1. Indian economy is a typical example of mixed economy.
2. This means both private and public sectors co-exist and function smoothly.
3. The fundamental and heavy industrial units are being operated under the public sector.
4. The liberalization of the economy, the private sector has gained importance.
5. This makes it a perfect model for public – private partnership.

2. Agriculture plays the key role:

1. Agriculture being the maximum pursued occupation in India.
2. It plays an important role in its economy as well.
3. Around 60% of the people in India depend upon agriculture for their livelihood.
4. In fact, about 17% of our GDP today is contributed by the agriculture sector.
5. Green revolution, ever green revolution and inventions is bio technology have made agriculture self sufficient and also surplus production.
6. The export of agriculture products such as fruits, vegetables, spices, vegetable oils, tobacco, animal skin, etc. also add to forex earning through international trading.

3. An emerging market:

1. Indian has emerged as vibrant economy sustaining stable GDP growth rate even in the midst of global downtrend.
2. This has attracted significant foreign capital through FDI and FII.
3. India has a high potential for prospective growth.
4. This also makes it an emerging market for the world.

4. Emerging Economy:

1. Emerging as a top economic giant among the world economy.
2. India bags the seventh position in terms of nominal Gross Domestic Product [GDP] and third in terms of Purchasing Power Parity [PPP].
3. As a result of rapid economic growth,. Indian economy has a place among the G20 countries.

5. Fat Growing Economy:

1. Indias economy is well known for high and sustained growth.
2. The world’s fastest growing economy in the year 2016-17 with the growth rate of 7.1% in GDP.

6. Fast Growing Service Sector:

1. The service sector, contributes a lion’s share of the GDP in India.
2. There has been a high rise growth in the technical sectors like information technology.

7. Large Domestic Consumption:

1. With the faster growth rate in the economy the standard of living has improved a lot.
2. The standard of living has considerably improved and life style has changed.

8. Rapid Growth of Urban Areas:

1. Urbanization is a key ingredient of the growth of any economy.
2. Improved connectivity is transport and communication, education and health have speeded up the pace of urbanization.

9. Stable Macro Economy:

1. The Indian economy has been projected and considered as one of the most stable economies of the world.
2. The current year’s Economic survey represents the Indian economy to be a “heaven of macroeconomic stability, resilience and optimism”.

10. Demographic dividend:

1. This means that India is a pride owner of the maximum percentage of youth.
2. The young population is not only motivated but skilled and trained enough to maximize the growth.
3. Thus human capital plays a key role in maximizing the growth prospects is the country.
4. This has invited foreign investments to the country and outsourcing opportunities too.

[OR]

(b) Explain the role of SSIs in economic development?
Answer:
1. Provide Employment:

1. SSI’s use labour intensive techniques. Hence, they provide employment opportunities to a large number of people. Thus, they reduce the unemployment problem to a great extent.
2. SSI’s provide employment to artisans, technically qualified persons and professionals, people engaged in traditional arts, people in villages and unorganized sectors.
3. The employment-capital ratio is high for the SSI’s.

2. Bring Balanced Regional Development:

1. SSI’s promote decentralized development of industries as most of the SSI’s are set up in backward and rural areas.
2. They remove regional disparities by industrializing rural and backward areas and bring balanced regional development.
3. They help to reduce the problems of congestion, slums, sanitation and pollution in cities. They are mostly found in outside city limits.
4. They help in improving the standard of living of people residing in suburban and rural areas in India.
5. The entrepreneurial talent is tapped in different regions and the income is also distributed instead of being concentrated in the hands of a few individuals or business families.

3. Help in Mobilization of Local Resources:

1. SSI’s help to mobilize and utilize local resources like small savings, entrepreneurial talent etc., of the entrepreneurs, which might otherwise remain idle and unutilized.
2. They pave way for promoting traditional family skills and handicrafts. There is a great demand for handicraft goods in developed countries.
3. They help to improve the growth of local entrepreneurs and self-employed professionals in small towns and villages in India

4. Pave for Optimisation of Capital:

1. SSI’s require less capital per unit of output. They provide quick return on investment due to shorter gestation period. The payback period is quite short in SSI’s.
2. SSI’s function as a stabilizing force by providing high output – capital ratio as well as high employment – capital ratio.
3. They encourage the people living in rural areas and small towns to mobilize savings and channelize them into industrial activities.

5. Promote Exports:

1. SSIs do not require sophisticated machinery. Hence, import the machines from abroad is not necessary. On the other hand, there is a great demand for goods produced by SSIs. Thus they reduce the pressure on the country’s balance of payments. However, with recent past large scale industries are able to borrow large funds with low interest rate and spend large sums on advertisements. Hence SSSs are gradually vanishing.

2. SSI’s earn valuable foreign exchange through exports from India.

6. Complement Large Scale Industries:

1. SSI’s play a complementary role to large scale sector and support the large scale industries.
2. SSI’s provide parts, components, accessories to large scale industries and meet the requirements of large scale industries through setting up units near the large scale units.
3. SSI’s serve as ancillaries to large scale units.

7. Meet Consumer Demands:

1. SSI’s produce wide range of products required by consumers in India.
2. Hence, they serves as an anti-inflationary force by providing goods of daily use.

8. Develop Entrepreneurship:

1. SSI’s help to develop a class of entrepreneurs in the society. They help the job seekers to become job givers.
2. They promote self-employment and spirit of self-reliance in the society.
3. SSI’s help to increase the per capita income of India in various ways.
4. They facilitate development of backward areas and weaker sections of the society.
5. SSI’s are adept in distributing national income in more efficient and equitable manner among the various participants of the society.

Question 45 (a).
Elucidate the Laws of Returns to scale. Illustrate?
Answer:
Laws of Returns To Scale:
In the long – run, there is no fixed factor; all factors are variable. The laws of returns to scale explain the relationship between output and the scale of inputs in the long – run when all the inputs are increased in the same proportion.

Assumptions:
Laws of Returns to Scale are based on the following assumptions.

1. All the factors of production, [such as land, labour and capital] are variable but organization is fixed.
2. There is no change in technology.
3. There is perfect competition in the market.
4. Outputs or returns are measured in physical quantities.

Three Phases of Returns to Scale:

1. Increasing Returns to Scale: In this case if all inputs are increased by one percent, output increase by more than one percent.
2. Constant Returns to Scale: In this case if all inputs are increased by one percent, output increases exactly by one percent.
3. Diminishing Returns to Scale: In this case if all inputs are increased by one percent, output increases by less than one percent.

The three laws of returns to scale can be explained with the help of the diagram below.

Diagramatic Illustration:

In the figure, the movement from point a to point b represents increasing returns to scale. Because, between these two points output has doubled, but output has tripled. The law of constant returns to scale is implied by the movement from the point b to point c.

Because, between these two points inputs have doubled and output also has doubled. Decreasing returns to scale are denoted by the movement from the point c to point d since doubling the factors from 4 units to 8 units product less than the increase in inputs, that is by 33.33%.

[OR]

(b) Explain the internal and external economies of scale?
Answer:
Internal Economics of Scale:

1. Internal Economies of scale refers to the advantages enjoyed by the production unit which causes a reduction in the cost of production of the commodity.
2. For example, a firm enjoying the advantage of an application of most modem machinery, generation of internal capital, an improvement in managerial skill etc. are sure to reduce the cost of production. They are of various types:

(a) Technical Economies:

1. When the size of the firm is large, large amount of capital can be used.
2. There is a possibility to introduce up – to – date technologies; this improves productivity of the firm.
3. Research and development strategies can be applied easily.

(b) Financial Economies:
Big firms can float shares in the market for capital expansion, while small firms cannot easily float shares in the market.

(c) Managerial Economies:
Large scale production facilitates specialization and delegation.

(d) Labour Economies:

1. Large scale production implies greater and minute division of labour.
2. This leads to specialization which enhances the quality.
3. This increases the productivity of the firm.

(e) Marketing Economies:

1. In the context of large scale production, the producers can both buy raw – materials in bulk at cheaper cost and can take the products to distant markets.
2. They enjoy a huge bargaining power.

(f) Economies of survival:

1. Product diversification is possible when there is large scale production.
2. This reduces the risk in production.
3. Even if the market for one product collapses, market for other commodities offsets it.

External Economies of Scale:

1. External Economies of Scale refer to changes in any factor outside the firm causing an improvement in the production process.
2. This can take place in the case of industry also.
3. These are the advantages enjoyed by all the firms in industry due to the structural growth.
4. Important external economies of scale are listed below :
   • Increased transport facilities
   • Banking facilities
   • Development of townships
   • Development of information and communication.

Question 46 (a).
Explain the Rail Transport System in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu has a well – developed rail network as part of Southern Railway, Headquartered at Chennai.
2. The present Southern Railway network extends over a large area of India’s Southern Peninsula, covering the States of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Puducherry, minor portions of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
3. Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length of 6,693 km and there are 690 railway stations in the State. The system connects it with most major cities in India.
4. Main rail junctions in the State include Chennai, Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Salem, Tiruchirapalli and Tirunelveli.
5. Chennai has a well – established Suburban Railway network, a Mass Rapid Transport System and is currently developing a Metro system, with its first underground stretch operational since May 2017.

[OR]

(b) Illustrate the uses of Mathematical Methods in Economics?
Answer:
Uses of Mathematical Methods in Economics:

1. Mathematical Methods help to present the economic problems in a more precise form.
2. Mathematical Methods help to explain economic concepts.
3. Mathematical Methods help to use a largl number of variables in economic analyses.
4. Mathematical Methods help to quantity the impact or effect of any economic activity implemented by Government or anybody. There are of course many other uses.

Question 47 (a).
If TC = 2.5q³ – 13q² + 50q + 12 derive the MC function and AC function?

\(\frac{dc}{dq}\) = MC
AC = \(\frac{TC}{q}\)
\(\frac{dc}{dq}\) = 2.5(3)q² – [13 × 2]q + 50
MC = 7.5 q² – 26q + 50
AC = \(\frac { 2.5q^{ 3 }-13q^{ 2 }+50q+12 }{ q } \)
∴ AC = 2.5q³ – 13q + 50 + \(\frac{12}{q}\)

[OR]

(b) What are the ideas of information and communication technology used in Economics?
Answer:
Information and communication Technology [ICT] is the infrastructure that enables computing faster and accurate.
The following table gives an idea of range of technologies that fall under the category of ICT

The evaluation of ICT has five phases:
They are evaluation in:

1. Computer
2. PC – Personal Computer
3. Micro Processor
4. Internet
5. Wireless links

In Economics, the uses of mathematical and statistical tools need the support of ICT for:

1. 1. Data Compiling
   2. Editing
   3. Manipulating
   4. Presenting the results

Question 48 (a).
Discuss the important initiatives taken by the Government of India towards Industrial Policy?
Answer:
Important initiatives by the Government towards Industrial Policy:
The policy has brought changes in the following aspects of industrial regulation.

1. Industrial de – licensing.
2. De – reservation of the Industrial Sector.
3. Public sector policy, (de – reservation and reform of PSE_S)
4. Abolition of MRTP Act.
5. Foreign Investment policy and foreign technology policy.

Industrial delicensing policy:

1. The most important part of the new Industrial policy of 1991 was the end of the Industrial licensing or the license raj or red tapism.
2. The Industrial licensing policies, private sector firms had to secure licenses to start an Industry.

De – reservation of the Industrial Sector:

1. The public sector was given reservation especially in the capital goods and key Industries.
2. Industrial deregulation, most of the Industrial Sectors were opened to the private sector as well.
3. The new Industrial policy, only three sectors atomic energy, mining and railways will continue as reserved for public sector.

Reforms related to the Public Sector enterprises:

1. Reforms in the public sector were aimed at enhancing efficiency and competitiveness of the sector.
2. The government identified strategic and priority areas for the public sector concentrate.

Abolition of MRTP Act:

1. The New Industrial Policy of 1991 has abolished the Monopoly and Restrictive Trade Practices Act 1969.
2. In 2010, the Competition Commission has emerged as the watch dog in monitoring competitive practices in the economy.

Eoreign Investment Policy:

1. Foreign investment including FDI and FPI were allowed.
2. In 1991, the government announced a specified list of high technology and high investment priority Industries.
3. Foreign direct investment upto 51 percent foreign equity.
4. Foreign Investment Promotion Board has been set up to negotiate with International firms and approve direct Foreign Investment.

[OR]

(b) Analyse the causes for Rural Indebtedness?
Answer:
The Causes for Rural Indebtedness:

(I) Poverty of Farmers:

1. The vicious circle of poverty forces the farmers to borrow for consumption and cultivation.
2. Thus poverty, debt and high rates of interest hold the farmer in the grip of money lenders.

(II) Failure of Monsoon:

1. Frequent failure of monsoon is a curse to the farmers and they have to suffer due to the failure of nature.
2. Farmers find it difficult to identify good years to repay their debts.

(III) Litigation:

1. Due to land disputes litigation in the court compels them to borrow heavily.
2. Being uneducated and ignorant they are caught in the litigation process and dry away . their savings and resources.

(IV) Money Lenders and High Rate of Interest:
The rate of interest charged by the local money lenders is very high and the compounding of interest leads to perpetuate indebtedness of the farmer.