Category: Class 6

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 1 Geography Chapter 2 Land and Oceans Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Land and Oceans

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Land and Oceans Text Book Back Questions and Answers

A. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which of the following is the smallest ocean on Earth?
(a) The Pacific Ocean
(b) The Indian Ocean
(c) The Atlantic Ocean
(d) The Arctic Ocean
Answer:
(d) The Arctic Ocean

Question 2.
The Malacca Strait connects
(a) The Pacific and Atlantic Oceans
(b) The Pacific and Southern Oceans
(c) The Pacific and Indian Oceans
(d) The Pacific and Arctic Oceans
Answer:
(c) The Pacific and Indian Oceans

Question 3.
Which of the following oceans is the busiest ocean?
(a) The Pacific Ocean
(b) The Atlantic Ocean
(c) The Indian Ocean
(d) The Arctic Ocean
Answer:
(b) The Atlantic Ocean

Question 4.
The frozen continent is
(a) North America
(b) Australia
(c) Antarctica
(d) Asia
Answer:
(c) Antarctica

Question 5.
A narrow strip of water that connects two large water bodies?
(a) A Strait
(b) An Isthmus
(c) An Island
(d) A Trench
Answer:

B. Fill in the blanks

1. The world’s largest continent is …………….
2. ……………. is the mineral-rich plateau in India.
3. The largest ocean is …………….
4. Deltas are ……………. order landforms ……………..
5. The Island continent is …………….

Answer:

1. Asia
2. Chotanagpur Plateau
3. The Pacific ocean
4. Third
5. Australia

C. Circle the odd one out

D. Match the following

Answer:
1. – b
2. – a
3. – d
4. – e
5. – c

E. (i) Consider the following statements

1. Plains are formed by rivers.
2. The ‘South Sandwich Trench’ is found in the Indian Ocean.
3. Plateaus have steep slopes.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only
Answer:
(a) 1 and 3

(ii) Consider the following statements

Statement I : Mountains are second order landforms.
Statement II : The Mariana Trench is the deepest trench in the world.
Which of the statement(s) is/are true?
(a) I is true; II is wrong
(b) I is wrong; II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Statements I and II are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are true

F. Answer in a word

Question 1.
Which is the highest plateau in the world?
Answer:
Tibetan Plateau.

Question 2.
Name a second-order landform.
Answer:
Mountains or Plateaus or Plains

Question 3.
Which ocean is named after a country?
Answer:
Indian Ocean.

Question 4.
Name the island located in the Arabian Sea.
Answer:
Lakshadweep islands

Question 5.
What is the deepest part of the ocean called?
Answer:
Trench

G. Answer in brief

Question 1.
What is a continent?
Answer:
The vast landmasses on Earth are called Continents.

Question 2.
Name the continents which surround the Atlantic Ocean.
Answer:
The Atlantic ocean is bounded by North America and South America in the West, and ( Europe and Africa in the East)

Question 3.
What are the oceans?
Answer:
Oceans are a vast expanse of water.

Question 4.
List out the names of continents according to their size
Answer:
From the largest to the smallest, they are Asia, Africa, North America, South America,  Antarctica, Europe, and Australia.

Question 5.
Name the oceans which surround North America and South America.
Answer:
North America: On the west by the Pacific Ocean, on the east by Atlantic ocean and on the north by Arctic ocean
South America: On the west by the Pacific Ocean, on the east by Atlantic ocean.

H. Distinguish between

Question 1.
A Mountain and a Plateau?
Answer:
Mountains

1. A landform that rises over 600 meters above its surroundings and has steep slopes is called a mountain.
2. Example: Himalayas

Plateaus

1. Plateaus are the elevated portions of the Earth that have flat surfaces bounded by steep slopes. The elevation of plateaus maybe a few hundred metres or several thousand metre.
2. Example: Chotanagpur Plateau

Question 2.
An ocean and a sea
Answer:

Ocean

1. Oceans are a vast expanse of water.
2. Eg. the Pacific Ocean

Sea

1. Seas are water bodies partially or fully enclosed by land.
2. Eg: Bay of Ben, Arabian Sea.

I. Answer the following questions in detail

Question 1.
Mention the classification of landforms.
Answer:
First-order landforms:

1. Continents and oceans are grouped as first-order landforms.
2. The vast landmasses on Earth are called Continents and huge water bodies are called Oceans.
3. There are seven continents in the world. They are Asia, Africa, North America, South America, Antarctica, Europe and Australia.
4. The five oceans are the Pacific, Atlantic, Indian, Southern, and Arctic Oceans.

Second-order landforms:

1. Mountains, Plateaus, and Plains are grouped as second-order landforms.
2. A landform that rises 600 meters above its surroundings and has steep slopes is called a mountain. Example:
3. The Himalayas, the Rocky Mountains, and the Andes.
4. Plateaus are the elevated portions of the Earth that have flat surfaces bounded by steep slopes. Example:
5. Tibetan plateau and Deccan plateau.
6. Plains are flat and relatively low-lying lands. These plains are used extensively for agriculture. Example: Indo – Gangetic plain.

Third-order landforms:

1. Third-order landforms are formed on mountains, plateaus, and plains mainly by erosional and depositional activities of rivers, glaciers, winds, and waves.
2. Example: Valleys, beaches, and sand dunes.

Question 2.
Write a note on plateaus.
Answer:
Ocean:

• An ocean is a vast expanse of water.
• Oceans are very deep.
• Example: The Pacific Ocean

Sea:

• A sea is a water body partially or fully enclosed by land.
• Seas are not so deep as oceans
• Example: The Arabian sea

Question 3.
Plains are highly populated. Give reasons.
Answer:

1. Plains are flat and relatively low-lying lands.
2. Plains are formed by rivers and their tributaries and distributaries.
3. Plains are used extensively for agriculture due to the availability of water and fertile soil.
4. Plains are most suitable for human inhabitation. Hence, they are highly populated.

Question 4.
Give the important features of the Pacific Ocean,
Answer:

1. The Pacific Ocean is the largest and deepest ocean on Earth.
2. It covers about one-third of the Earth’s total area.
3. It is bounded by Asia and Australia in its west and North America and South America in its east.
4. On its apex is the Bering Strait. It connects the Pacific Ocean with the Arctic Ocean.
5. The deepest point Mariana Trench is located in the Pacific Ocean.
6. A chain of volcanoes is located around the Pacific Ocean.

Question 5.
Write above the importance of oceans.
Answer:

1. Oceans are the first order landform.
2. 71% of the earth’s surface is covered with water.
3. Oceans influence man in various ways, from the climate he experiences to the food he eats.
4. Oceans are a major source of salt, valuable minerals, petroleum, pearls, and diamonds.
5. Ocean currents affect the climate of neighbouring areas.
6. Ocean trade plays an important role in the world economy.
7. Ocean currents can be converted into electricity.

J. Picture Study

Question 1.
Name the landform.
Answer:
Sand dune

Question 2.
What order of a landform is this?
Answer:
Third-order landform

Question 3.
By which activity of river is this landform formed?
Answer:
Deposition

K. (i) Activity (Activity to be done by students)

Trip to the nearby area to appreciate the physical features of any kind of landform.
Conduct a quiz on landforms and oceans.

(ii) Activity

Question 1.
Give examples for the following using an Atlas.
Answer:

1. Bay: Hudson Bay, Bay of Bengal, Bay of Biscay
2. Gulf: the Persian Gulf, Gulf of Kutch, Gulf of Mannar
3. Island: Srilanka, Australia, Maldives
4. Straits: Palk strait, Bering strait, Magellan strait

Question 2.
Map reading (with the help of an atlas)
Answer:

1. A sea in the east of India – Bay of Bengal
2. Continents in the west of Atlantic Ocean – North America, South America
3. Continents in the south of Arctic Ocean – Europe, Asia
4. A strait between India and Sri Lanka – Palk strait
5. Oceans which surround Australia – Indian ocean, Pacific ocean
6. Find out the Isthmusses – Isthmus of Panama, Isthmus of Avalon, Isthmus of La Dune

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Land and Oceans Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
International Mountain Day is ……………..
(a) June 15
(b) April 11
(c) November 11
(d) December 11
Answer:
(d) December 11

Question 2.
Andes mountain is located in
(a) North America
(b) South America
(c) Asia
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) South Amei leaf

Question 3.
The highest plateau in the world is …………….
(a) Ladakh plateau
(b) Tibetan plateau
(c) Deccan plateau
(d) Chotanagpur plateau
Answer:
(b) Tibetan plateau

Question 4.
The International Mountain Day is
(a) December 10th
(b) December 11th
(c) December 12th
(d) December 13th
Answer:
(b) December 11th

Question 5.
It connects the Pacific Ocean with the Arctic ocean.
(a) Bering strait
(b) Magellan strait
(c) Gibraltar strait
(d) Palk strait
Answer:
(a) Bering strait

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The sea around Pangea is called ……………….
2. The smallest continent is ……………….
3. The smallest ocean is ……………….
4. ………………. is called the Roof of the world
5. The deepest point in the Indian ocean is ……………….

Answer:

1. Panthalasa
2. Australia
3. Arctic ocean
4. Tibetan Plateau
5. Java trench

III. Answer in brief

Question 1.
What is an Isthmus?
Answer:
A narrow strip of land which connects two large landmasses or separates two large water bodies is called an Isthmus.

Question 2.
What are the Second-order landforms?
Answer:
The Second-order landforms are categorised as mountains, plateaus, and plains.

Question 3.
Bring out the importance of mountains.
Answer:

1. Mountains are the source of rivers.
2. They block the moisture-bearing winds and cause rainfall.
3. They provide shelter to flora and fauna.
4. They promote tourism.
5. During summer people go to mountain regions to enjoy the pleasing cool weather.
6. There are a number of hill stations in the mountains.

Question 4.
Mention some of the early civilizations.
Answer:
The Indus valley civilization, the Mesopotamian civilization, The Egyptian civilization, and the Chinese civilization. Where some of the early civilizations?

Question 5.
Write a few lines about The Indian Ocean.
Answer:

1. The Indian Ocean is the third largest ocean on the earth.
2. It is named after India.
3. It is triangular in shape.
4. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Maldives, Sri Lanka, and Mauritius are the islands located in the Indian Ocean.
5. Java Trench is the deepest point in this ocean.

IV. Mind Map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 1 History Chapter 4 Ancient Cities of Tamilagam Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 4 Ancient Cities of Tamilagam

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Ancient Cities of Tamilagam Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which of the following region has a city more than 6500 years old?
(a) Iraq
(b) Indus valley
(c) Tamilagam
(d) Thondaimandalam
Answer:
(a) Iraq

Question 2.
Which one of the following is a Tamil city?
(a) Iraq
(b) Harappa
(c) Mohenjo-Daro
(d) Kancheepuram
Answer:
(d) Kancheepuram

Question 3.
Which city is not related to the Bay of Bengal?
(a) Poompuhar
(b) Thondi
(c) Korkai
(d) Kancheepuram
Answer:
(b) Madurai

Question 4.
The water management system of Tamils are known from
a. Kallanai
b. Tanks in Kancheepuram
c. Prakirama Pandyan Tank
d. River Cauvery
(a) (a) is correct
(b) (b) is correct
(c) (c) is correct
(d) (a) and (b) are correct
Answer:
(d) (a) and (b) are correct

Question 5.
Which is not the oldest city among the following ones?
(a) Madurai
(b) Kancheepuram
(c) Poompuhar
(d) Chennai
Answer:
(a) Madurai

Question 6.
Which city is related to Keezhadi excavation?
(a) Madurai
(b) Kancheepuram
(c) Poompuhar
(d) Harappa
Answer:
(a) Madurai

II. Tick the appropriate answer. Match the statement with the reason

Question 1.
Statement: Goods were imported and exported from the city of Poompuhar.
Reason: the Bay of Bengal was suitable for trading with neighbouring countries.
(a) Statement is correct, but the reason is wrong.
(b) Statement and its reason are correct.
(c) Statement is wrong, but the reason is correct.
(d) Both are wrong.
Answer:
(b) Statement and its reason are correct.

Question 2.
(a) Thirunavukkarasar said “kalviyil karaiillatha”. This statement refers to the city of Kancheepuram.
(b) Hieun Tsang said, “Kancheepuram is one among the seven sacred places of  India”.
(c) Kalidasa said, “Kancheepuram is the best city among the cities”
(a) only a is correct (b) the only b is correct
(c) the only c is correct (d) All are correct
Answer:
(d) All are correct!

Question 3.
Find out the correct statement
(a) Naalangadi – Night shop
(b) Allangdi – Day -time shop
(c) Ancient Roman coin factory was found at Poompuhar.
(d) Pearls were exported from Uvari near Korkai.
Answer:
(d) Pearls were exported from Uvari near Korkai

Question 4.
Find out the wrong statement.
(a) Megasthanese has mentioned Madurai in his account.
(b) Hien Tsang came to the Tamil city of Kancheepuram.
(c) Kovalan and Kannagi lived in Kancheepuram.
(d) Iraq is mentioned in Pattinapalai.
Answer:
(c) Kovalan and Kannagi lived in Kancheepuram.

Question 5.
Find out the correct pair
(a) Koodal Nagar – Poompuhar
(b) Thoonga Nagaram – Harappa
(c) City of Education – Madurai
(d) City of Temples – Kancheepuram
Answer:
(d) City of Temples – Kancheepuram

Question 6.
Find out the wrong pair
(a) Vadamalai – Gold
(c) Southern Sea – Pearls
(b) Western Ghats – Sandal
(d) Eastern Sea – Ahil
Answer:
(d) Eastern Sea – Ahil

III. Fill in the blanks

1. Kanchi Kailasanathar temple was built by ……………..
2. …………….. is known as the city of temples.
3. Masathuvan means ……………..

Answer:

1. Raja Simh
2. Kanchi
3. A big trader

IV. State True or False:

1. Cultural relationship with the outside world developed in Poompuhar because of its trade relationship with it.
2. Women also purchased from Allangadi of Madurai without fear.
3. Many rock-cut temples were made during the Pallava period.
4. Bodhi Dharma belonged to Kancheepuram.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True

V. Answer in one word

Question 1.
What do you know about the term ‘export’?
Answer:
Exports are goods and services produced in one country and purchased by the citizens of another country.

Question 2.
Mention the epic and the Sangam poem you read in this lesson.
Answer:

1. The epic is Silapthikaram (or) Manimegalai.
2. Sangam Literature is Pattinappaalai.

Question 3.
Which is the oldest city in Thondai Nadu?
Answer:
Kanchi is the oldest city in Thondai Nadu.

Question 4.
Point out anyone difference between a village and a city.
Answer:
A village will have a small group of settlements whereas a city will have a large group of settlements.

Question 5.
Which civilization is associated with the city Lothal?
Answer:
The Indus Valley Civilisation is associated with the city Lothal.

Question 6.
Name the oldest civilization of the world
Answer:
Mesopotamian civilization is the earliest civilization in the world.

VI. Answer the following

Question 1.
Write a brief note on ancient cities in India?
Answer:

1. Harappa and Mohenjodaro were prominent cities of ancient India.
2. They developed along the banks of the river Indus.
3. They were the symbol of urban civilization.
4. They had very good town planning, a well-constructed house, well-maintained drainage system.
5. They had very good civic sense.
6. They developed pottery, ornaments as well as a script which is yet to be deciphered.

Question 2.
Mention the ancient cities of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. In Tamizhagam the well-known cities were Madurai, Kanchi, and Poompuhar.
2. Poompuhar is one of the oldest towns in ancient Tamizhagam.
3. Madurai has been one of the oldest cities in India.
4. It is known as “Sangam Valartha Nagaram”
5. Kanchi is the oldest town in Thondai Nadu.
6. Scholars like Dharmabalar, Jothibalar, Sumathi, and Bodhi Dharma were born in Kanchi.

Question 3.
Discuss the sources available to know about Tamil cities?
Answer:

1. Tamil literature, accounts of foreign travellers, and archaeological finds provide information about the ancient towns of Tamizhagam.
2. Sangam Tamil Literature Pattinappaalai and Tamil epics Silappathikaram and Manimegalai have references about Poompuhar.
3. Madurai is proudly associated with three Sangams.
4. The fame of Madurai can be attested from the accounts of the Greek historian Megasthenes.
5. Chanakya mentions Madurai in his famous work Arthashastra.
6. The Chinese Traveller Hieun Tsang writes about the greatness of Kanchi.
7. Poet Kalidasa refers to Kanchi as the best of the towns.

Question 4.
Write about the kings who ruled Madurai.

1. Pandyas, the Cholas and later the Kalabras ruled Madurai in the ancient
2. During medieval times, later Cholas and later Pandyas followed by the Nayaks ruled this historic town.

Question 5.
Mention the other names of Madurai?
Answer:

1. Sangam Valartha Nagaram
2. Thoonga Nagaram (the city that never sleeps).
3. Koodal Nagar are the other names of Madurai

Question 6.
What is the difference between Naalaugadi and Allangadi?
Answer:
Naalangadi

1. It is Day Marget.
2. It works only in the day time.

Allangadi

1. It is the evening Market.
2. It works only in the Evening,

Question 7.
Name the scholars who were born at Kancheepuram
Answer:
Scholars like Dharmabalar, Jothibalar, Sumathi, and Bodhi Dharma were bom in Kanchi.

Question 8.
Which is known as the city of lakes? Why?
Answer:

1. Water management played an important role in the agrarian society of those times.
2. Hundreds of lakes were created for storing water around the town of Kanchi.
3. These lakes were well connected with canals.
4. During the later period, Kanchi came to be known as the district of lakes.

VII. HOTS

Question 1.
Write a short note on Iraq.
Answer:

1. Modem Iraq was called Mesopotamia in the ancient period. It was the birthplace of Sumerian civilization.
2. Iraq is watered by two rivers namely Euphrates and Tigris.
3. It is an important trading centre.
4. Pattinappaalai speaks about the trade relations of Iraq With other countries.

Question 2.
Write a paragraph about the city of Poompuhar with special reference to trade.
Answer:

1. Poompuhar was a port.
2. Big traders and sea traders had settled down there.
3. Numerous merchants from foreign countries such as Greece and Rome landed at Poompuhar.
4. Brisk seaborne trade took place in Puhar.
5. Foreign traders stayed on indefinitely at Puhar.
6. There is evidence of foreign settlements in the town.

Question 3.
Write about the accounts given by scholars about Kanchi.
Answer:

1. Poet Kalidasa says “Kanchi is the best of the towns”.
2. Poet Thirunavukarasar praises Kanchi as “Kalviyil Karaiillatha Kanchi.
3. Hieun Tsang has said,”Kanchi can be counted as one among the seven sacred places like Budh Gaya and Sanchi”.

Question 4.
City of temple Gives short notes.
Answer:

1. Kanchi is also known as the Temple city.
2. The famous Kailasanathar temple is at Kanchi.
3. There are a large number of cave temples in Kanchi. So Kanchi is known as the Temple city.

Question 5.
Kancheepuram was famous for education. Prove this statement
Answer:

1. Several schools were established in great numbers in Kanchi.
2. There were Jainpallis and Viharas.
3. The Chinese traveller Hieun Tsang visited Kanchi Kadigai to continue his studies
4. Tamil poet saint Thirunavukarasar praises Kanchi as’Kalviyil karaiillatha Kanchi’.

VIII. Student Activity

1. Make an album about Keezhadi excavations.
2. Poompuhar was famous for trading activities. Discuss.
3. Collect the pictures of Pallava temple architecture.
4. Prepare a Booklet describing the famous lakes of Tamilnadu.
5. Make a booklet about the famous cities of Tamilnadu.
6. Go to the library and find out the places of importance in your district.

IX. Answer Grid

Question 1.
Poompuhar was located on which riverbank?
Answer:
Cauvery

Question 2.
Name the ancient city which had Tamil Sangam.
Answer:
Madurai

Question 3.
Name a Sangam literary work.
Answer:
Pattinappaalai

Question 4.
Which Greek historian gave accounts about the Pandya kingdom?
Answer:
Megasthanese

Question 5.
To which the Tamil Kingdom did the southern districts of Tamil Nadu belong to during the Sangam Age?
Answer:
Pandyas.

Question 6.
Name the Chinese traveller who stayed and studied in Nalanda University.
Answer:
Hieun Tsang

Question 7.
Thirunavukarasar mentioned Kanchi as _______
Answer:
Kalviyil karaiillatha Kanchi

Question 8.
What is the name of the evening market during the Sangam Age?
Answer:
Allangadi

Question 9.
Name the temple built by Pallava king Rajasimha at Kanchi.
Answer:

1. Kailasanathar
2. Temple.

Question 10.
Which district is known as the district of lakes?
Answer:
Kanchi

Question 11.
What is trade?
Answer:
The act of buying and selling goods and services is called trade.

Question 12.
Name a port located on the shore of the Bay of Bengal
Answer:
Chennai.

X. Life Skill (For Students)

1. Make a handout that shows the importance of the place where you live.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Ancient Cities of Tamilagam Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The earliest civilization in the world is …………….
(a) Egyptian Civilization
(b) Chinese civilization
(c) Indus valley civilization
(d) Mesopotamian civilization
Answer:
(d) Mesopotamian civilization

Question 2.
Name the place related to the export of Sandal.
(a) the Western Ghats
(b) Southern Sea
(c) Eastern Sea
(d) Elam
Answer:
(a) the Western Ghats

Question 3.
Kailasanathar temple was built by …………….
(a) Mahendra varman
(b) Narasimha Varman
(c) Raja Simha
(d) Aparajitha
Answer:
(c) Raja Simha

Question 4.
Ahil was a
(a) Port
(b) Fragrant wood
(c) Educated centre
(d) Ornament
Answer:
(b) Fragrant wood

Question 5.
Puhar served as the port of ……………
(a) Chera kingdom
(b) Chola kingdom
(c) Pandya kingdom
(d) Kalabras
Answer:
(b) Chola kingdom

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Sea traders are known by the name ……………
2. Chanakya was Chandragupta’s ……………
3. The Buddhist monk Manimegalai spent the last part of her life at ……………

Answer:

1. Maanaigan
2. Minister
3. Kanchi

III. State True or False

1. The lead female character of Silappathikaram is Manimegalai
2. The present-day Thanjavur was once part of Chera Nadu
3. Poompuhar served as the port of the early Chola kingdom
4. Silappathikaram speaks about the greatness of Poompuhar
5. Many cave temples were built during the Pallava period

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. True

IV. Answer the following

Question 1.
How was Poompuhar different from other towns?
Answer:
Each social group had a separate settlement
Streets were broad and straight, dotted with well-designed houses.
There was also a dockyard

V. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 1 History Chapter 3 Indus Civilisation Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Indus Civilisation

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Indus Civilisation Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
What metals were known to the people of Indus Civilisation?
(a) Copper, bronze, silver, gold, but not iron
(b) Copper, silver, iron, but not bronze
(c) Copper, gold, iron, but not silver
(d) Copper, silver, iron, but not gold
Answer:
(a) Copper, bronze, silver, gold, but not iron

Question 2.
Indus Civilisation belonged to.
(a) Old Stone age
(b) Medieval stone age.
(c) New stone age
(d) Metal age
Answer:
(d) Metal age

Question 3.
River Valleys are said to be the cradle of civilisation because ………………..
(a) Soil is very fertile.
(b) They experience good climate.
(c) They are useful for transportation.
(d) Many civilizations flourished on river valleys.
Answer:
(d) Many civilizations flourished on river valleys.

II. Match the statement with the Reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Statement : Harappan civilisation is said to be an urban civilisation.
Reason : It has well planned cities with advanced drainage system.
(a) Statement and reason are correct.
(b) Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement is true, but the reason is wrong.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement and reason are correct

Question 2.
Statement : Harappan civilization belongs to BronzeAge.
Reason : Harappans did not know the use of iron.
(a) Statement and reason are correct.
(b) Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement is correct, but the reason is wrong.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement and reason are correct

Question 3.
Statement : The engineering skill of Harappans was remarkable.
Reason : Building of docks after a careful study of tides, waves and currents.
(a) Statement and reason are correct.
(b) Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement is correct, but the reason is wrong.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement and reason are correct.

Question 4.
Which of the following statement about mohanjadaro is correct?
(a) Gold ornaments were unknown.
(b) Houses were made of burnt bricks.
(c) Implements were made of iron.
(d) Great Bath was made water tight with the layers f natural bitumen.
Answer:
(b) Houses were made burnt brick.
(d) Greal Bath was made water tight with thc laye of natural bitnmen.

Question 5.
Consider the following statements.
1. Uniformity in layout of town, streets, and brick sizes
2. An elaborate and well laid out drainage system
3. Granaries constituted an important part of Harappan cities Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1&2
(b) 1&3
(c) 2&3
(d) all the three
Answer:
(d) all the three

Question 6.
Circle the odd one.
Answer:

1. Oxen
2. Sheep
3. Buffaloes
4. Pigs
5. Horses

Question 7.
Find out the wrong pair.
(a) ASI – John Marshall
(b) Citadel – Granaries
(c) Lothal – dockvard
(d) Harappan Civilisation – River Cauvery
Answer:
(d) Harappan – River Cauvery

III. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………… is the oldest civilisation.
2. Archaeological Survey of India was founded by ………………
3. ……………… were used to store grains.
4. Group of people form ………………

Answer:

1. Mesopotamian civilisation.
2. Alexander Cunningham.
3. Granaries.
4. Community.

IV. State True or False

1. Mehergarh is a Neolithic site.
2. Archaeological survey of India is responsible for preservation of cultural monuments in the country.
3. Granaries were used to store grains.
4. The earliest form of writings was developed by the Chinese.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. False

V. Match the following

Answer:
1. – d
2. – c
3. – a
4. – b

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What are the uses of metal?
Answer:

1. Gold and Silver were used to make ornaments.
2. They used copper and bronze to make weapons and vessels.
3. Bronze was used to make statues. ( Example: Statue of a dancing girl.)

Question 2.
Make a list of baked and raw foods that we eat.
Answer:

1. Baked foods: Rice, wheat, vegetables, greens, roots, mutton, fish etc
2. Raw Foods: Fruits, some vegetables and nuts

Question 3.
Do we have the practice of worshipping animate and trees?
Answer:
Yes, people belonging to some religions worship animals and trees.

Question 4.
River valleys are cradles of civilization. Why?
Answer:

1. In the river valleys, the soil is fertile.
2. Freshwater is available for drinking, watering livestock, and irrigation.
3. Easy movement of people and goods is possible.

So people settled in the river valleys. Many civilizations flourished on river valleys. Florence river valleys are called cradles of civilization.

Question 5.
Just because a toy move doesn’t mean instead batteries?
Answer:
They used wheels.

Question 6.
Dog was the first animal to be tamed. Why?
Answer:

1. Dogs prevented the entry of dangerous animals by its sniffing skill.
2. Dogs helped the people in their hunting activities.

Question 7.
If you were an Archaeologist, what will you do?
Answer:
If I were an archaeologist I would go to Adichanallur which is located in our district and do excavation there.

Question 8.
Name any two Indus sites located on the Indian border
Answer:

1. Kalibangan
2. Lothal

Question 9.
In Indus civilization, which features you like the most? Why?
Answer:

1. I like the drainage system very much.
2. Most of the drains were covered with slabs or bricks. Even after nearly 5000 years many of the modern cities don’t have covered drains.
3. It is said that each house had its own soak pit, which collected all the sediments and allowed only the water to flow into the street drain. I like this system very much.

Question 10.
What instrument is used nowadays to weigh things?
Answer:
Electronic weighing machine.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
What method is used to explore buried buildings nowadays?
Answer:

1. To see under the ground, the archaeologists may uSe a magnetic scanner.
2. The presence and absence of archaeological remains can be detected by the Radar and Remote Sensing Method.

Question 2.
Why Indus Civilisation Is called Bronze Age civilization?
Answer:

1. Bronze is an alloy.
2. This period is characterized by the articles made of bronze?
3. So Indus Valley Civilization is also known as bronze age civilization.

Question 3.
Indus civilization is called urban civilization. Give reasons.
Answer:
The reasons are.

1. Well conceived town planning.
2. Astonishing masonry and architecture.
3. Priority for hygiene and public health.
4. Standardized weights and measures.
5. Solid agricultural and artisanal base.

Question 4.
Can you point out the special feature of their drainage system?
Answer:

1. They had well-covered drains. The drains were covered with slabs or bricks,
2. Each drain had a gentle slope, so that water could flow.
3. Manholes were provided at regular intervals to clear the drains.
4. House drains passed below many lanes before finally emptying into the drains.
5. Every house had its own soak pit, which collected all the sediments and allowed only the water to flow into the street drain.

Question 5.
What do you know about the Great Bath?
Answer:

1. The Great Bath is one of the earliest public tanks.
2. It is a waterproof structure.
3. The bath was lined with bricks.
4. It was made watertight using layers of natural bitumen.
5. There were rooms on three sides.
6. The water was drained after use.
7. There were steps on both sides of the pool.

Question 6.
How do you know that Indus people trade with other
Answer:

1. King Naram – the sin of the Akkadian empire has written about buying jewellery from the land of Melukha which is a region of the Indus valley.
2. The same types of seals found in Mesopotamia have been also found in the Indus area.
3. A naval dockyard has been discovered in Lothal in Gujarat. All these things show that the Indus people traded with other countries.

VIII. HOTS

Question 1.
Observe the following features of Indus civilization and compare that with the present day.
Answer:
(a) Lamp post:

1. In the Indus cities, street lights were an important feature. The lamp posts were made of stones.
2. Now we have iron lamp posts and cement lamp posts.

(b) Burnt bricks:

1. The houses were built using burnt brick. The bricks were of uniform size.
2. The bricks were burnt because burnt bricks are strong, hard, durable, resistant to fire, and will not dissolve in water.
3. The present-day buildings are also constructed with burnt bricks.

(c) Underground drainage system:

1. The Indus cities had an underground drainage system. They were covered with slabs or bricks. Holes were provided at regular intervals to clean the drains.
2. Even in some of the modern cities, there is no underground drainage system. This system is being introduced gradually now. In Tamil Nadu, there is an underground drainage system almost in all the corporations.

(d) Weights and measurements:

1. Standardized weights and measures were used by the Indus valley people. They used sticks with marks to measure length.
2. Now we have various types of weighing machines and scales.

(e) Dockyard:

1. Lothal was a port in Gujarat. There was a naval dockyard in Lothal. It shows the maritime activities of the Indus people.
2. Now, dockyards are found almost in all ports. Apart from loading, unloading and repairing of ships new ships are built in these yards.
3. Example: Mazagaon dock at Mumbai.

Question 2.
Agriculture was one of their occupations, How can you prove this? (with the findings)
Answer:

1. Agriculture might have been their main occupation since they settled near the Indus river bank.
2. We find the terracotta plough which might have been used for agriculture.
3. They used granaries to store food grain.
4. A granary with walls made of mud, bricks, which are still in good condition, has been discovered in Rakhigarhi, a village in Haryana belonging to the Mature Harappan phase.

Question 3.
Many potteries and their pieces have been discovered from Indus sites. What do you know from that?
Answer:

1. It shows that they know the art of making pottery.
2. The broken pieces of pottery have animal figures on them.
3. It shows that they reared various animals. It also shows their skill in painting.

Question 4.
A naval dockyard has been discovered In Lothal, What does it convey?
Answer:

1. The Dockyard at Lothal is considered as the first naval dockyard of the world,
2. It has favourable features in terms of height, width, and length compared to the modem dockyards of Mumbai and Visakhapatnam.
3. Boats of 60-75 tonnes capacity and 20-25 metres in length could enter Lothal DOCK.
4. It was designed in such a manner as to ensure berthing 20-30 boats, a fairly large size.
5. Large foreign and Indian ships could enter the harbour without any difficulty

Question 5.
Can you guess what happened to the Harappans?
Answer:
The Harappans might have disappeared due to the following reasons.

1. Repeated floods.
2. Ecological changes.
3. Invasions.
4. Natural calamity.
5. Climatic changes.
6. Deforestation.
7. An epidemic.

IX. Activity (For Students)

1. Prepare a scrapbook. (Containing more information about objects collected from Mohenjo – Daro, and Harappa.)

2. You are a young archaeologist working at a site that was once an Indus city. What will you collect?

3. Make flashcards.
(Take square cards and stick a picture in one card and the information for the same picture in another card. Circulate among the groups and tell them to match the picture with information.)

4. Draw your imaginary town planning in a chart.

5. Make a model of anyone structure of Indus Civilisation using clay, broken pieces of bangles, matchsticks, woollen thread, and ice cream sticks.

6. Can you imagine how toys have changed through the ages?
Collect toys made of Clay → stone → wood → metal → plastic → fur → electric → electronic → ???

7 . Crossword puzzle

Top to Bottom:

1. Director-General of ASI
2. Is older than Mohenjo – Daro
3. This is age civilization
4. Each house had a

Left to Right

5. Place used to store grains
6. A dockyard has been found
7. is unknown to Indus people
8. It is used to make watertight.

Right to Left

9. From this we can get a lot of information
10. This is responsible for research

X. Rapid Fire Quiz (Do it in groups)

Question 1.
Which crop did Indus people use to make clothes?
Answer:
Cotton.

Question 2.
Which was the first Indus city discovered?
Answer:
Harappa.

Question 3.
Where was the Indus civilization?
Answer:
The Indus valley.

Question 4.
Which animal was used to pull carts?
Answer:
Bullocks.

Question 5.
Which metal was unknown to the Indus people?
Answer:
Iron

Question 6.
What was used to make pots?
Answer:
Wheel.

Question 7.
Which is considered the largest civilization among four ancient civilizations of the world?
Answer:
The Indus valley civilization.

XI. Life skill

1. Making an animal or a pot out of clay.
2. Making terracotta toy with movable limbs.
3. Pot painting (with geometric pattern).
4. Make informational charts and posters.

X. Answer Grid

Question 1.
What did Charles Masson see?
Answer:
Some mysterious brick mounds

Question 2.
List three things people used which we use today?
Answer:

1. Toys
2. Carts
3. Jewels

Question 3.
What else has been found?
Answer:
Burnt bricks

Question 4.
Can you say three things unknown to Indus people?
Answer:

1. Gun.
2. Paper.
3. Ink.

Question 5.
Which metal was unknown to the Indus people?
Answer:
Iron.

Question 6.
Which is the oldest civilization in the world?
Answer:

1. Mesopotamian
2. Civilization

Question 7.
Why the dog was the first animal to be tamed?
Answer:
It helped them in hunting.

Question 8.
Who were the first people to grow cotton?
Answer:
Sumerians.

Question 9.
Which institution is responsible for archaeological research?
Answer:
The Archaeological Survey of India

Question 10.
Was there any river valley civilization found in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
No

Question 11.
Name any two Harappan sites which were found on the Indian border?
Answer:

1. Lothal
2. Kalibangan

Question 12.
Can we say the Indus cities as cities of children?
Answer:
Yes.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Indus Civilisation Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The headquarters of the Archaeological Survey of India is located in ……………
(a) Chennai
(b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(d) Delhi

Question 2.
The dancing girl statue was made out of
(a) gold
(b) silver
(c) bronze
(d) iron
Answer:
(c) bronze

Question 3.
The word ‘civilization’ comes from the ancient Latin word ‘civis’ which means ……………
(a) City
(b) Village
(c) People
(d) Govern
Answer:
(c) People

Question 4.
The first metal discovered and used by humans was ……………..
(a) Iron
(b) Copper
(c) Bronze
(d) Silver
Answer:
(b) Copper

II. Match the statement with the reason. Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Which of the following statements is true.
(a) Copper was the first metal used by humans.
(b) Horse was used by the Indus people to pull carts.
(c) Mohenjo – Daro was older than Harappa.
(d) Harappan civilization is a rural civilization.
Answer:
(a) Copper was the first metal used by humans.

Question 2.
Consider the following statements.
1. The streets of the Indus area have a grid pattern.
2. There is no evidence of the presence of palaces.
3. There are evidence of the presence of places of worship. Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All the three
Answer:
(a) 1 and 2

Question 3.
Circle the odd one:
Answer:

1. Harappa
2. Mohenjodaro
3. Lahore
4. Lothal
5. Kalibangan

III. Fill in the blanks

1. In 1924, the Director-General of ASI was ……………..
2. The Archaeological Survey of India was started in ……………..
3. The earliest form of writing was developed by the ……………..
4. The great pyramid of Giza was built by king ……………..
5. Granaries were used to store.

Answer:

1. Sir John Marshall
2. 1861
3. Sumerians
4. Khufu
5. Foodgrains

IV. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Why did people settle near rivers?
Answer:
People settled near rivers because

1. The soil is fertile.
2. Freshwater is available for drinking, watering livestock, and irrigation.
3. Easy movement of people and goods is possible.

Question 2.
Why do we say that the Indus people were the first to make cotton clothes?
Answer:

1. Cotton fabrics were in common use.
2. Clay spindles unearthed suggest that yam was spun.

Question 3.
Write about the occupations of the Indus people.
Answer:

1. Agriculture, handicrafts, pottery making, jewellery making, weaving, carpentry, and trading were practiced.
2. There were merchants, traders, and artisans.
3. They reared cattle and other animals.

Question 4.
Who built the Pyramid of Giza?
Answer:

1. The Pyramid of Giza was built by King Khufu in 2500 BCE.
2. It was built with limestone (15 tons each)

V. Mind Map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 2 Civics Chapter 2 The Constitution of India Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 The Constitution of India

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Constitution of India Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer

Question 1.
The Constitution Day is celebrated on ……………..
(a) January 26
(b) August 15
(c) November 26
(d) December 9
Answer:
(c) November 26

Question 2.
The Constituent Assembly accepted the Constitution of India in the year
(a) 1946
(b) 1950
(c) 1947
(d) 1949
Answer:
(d) 1950

Question 3.
There are …………….. amendments made in the Constitution of India till 2016.
(a) 101
(b) 100
(c) 78
(d) 46
Answer:
(a) 101

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a fundamental right?
(a) Right to freedom
(b) Right to equality
(c) Right to vote
(d) Right to education
Answer:
(c) Right to vote

Question 5.
An Indian citizen has the right to vote at ……………..
(a) 14 years
(b) 18 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 21 years
Answer:
(b) 18 years

II. Fill in the blanks

1. …………….. was selected as the chairman of the Constituent Assembly.
2. The farther of the Constitution of India is ……………..
3. …………….. protects our fundamental rights.
4. The Constitution of India came into existence on ……………..

Answer:

1. Mr. Rajendra Prasad
2. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
3. Law of the country
4. 26th January 1950

III. Match the following

Answer:
b) c d a b

IV. Answer the question given under the caption (Constituent Assembly)

Question 1.
In which year was the Constituent Assembly formed?
Answer:
Constituent Assembly was formed in the year 1946.

Question 2.
How many members were in the Drafting Committee?
Answer:
There are eight members in the Drafting Committee.

Question 3.
How many women were part of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
There were fifteen women participants in the constituent Assembly.

Question 4.
When was the Constitution of India completed?
Answer:
The Constitution of India was completed on 26th November 1949.

V. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Why was January 26 adopted as Republic day?
Answer:

1. When the Congress met at Lahore in 1929, the members of the Congress unofficially declared the same day as the Day of Pooma Swaraj or the Day of complete self-governance.
2. The next year, 26th January 1930 was celebrated as Independence Day. That day has been observed as our Republic Day.

Question 2.
What is the Constitution of India?
Answer:

1. The constitution of India is the ultimate law.
2. We have to abide by it.
3. It explains the fundamental concepts of structure, methods, powers, and duties of Government bodies.
4. It also lists the fundamental rights and duties of the citizens.
5. Directive Principles are also mentioned in the constitution.
6. So it is holistic in nature.

Question 3.
List out the special features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:

1. The preface of the constitution is the Preamble.
2. According to it, India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular democratic republic.
3. The constitution has granted people the right to rule. Sovereignty refers to the ultimate power of the country.
4. The term secular refers to the freedom of worship.
5. The Constitution provides a Parliamentary form of Government, both at the center

Question 4.
What are the fundamental rights?
Answer:
Fundamental rights are the basic human rights of all citizens. They are

• Right to Equality
• Right to Freedom
• Right against exploitation
• Right to freedom of Religion
• Cultural and Educational Rights
• Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Question 5.
List out the fundamental duties that you would like to fulfill.
Answer:

1. Respecting the National flag and National Anthem.
2. Respect and protect the Constitution.
3. Readiness to serve our country if the need arises.
4. Treating everyone as brothers and sister
5. Avoid violence.
6. Protect government property etc.

Question 6.
What is Preamble?
Answer:

1. The Preamble of our constitution stresses justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity.
2. The preface of the constitution is the preamble. According to it, India is a sovereign, socialists, secular democratic republic.

Question 7.
What do you understand by Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity?
Answer:

1. The preamble of the Indian constitution clearly says that
2. To achieve Justice-social, economic and political
3. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship.
4. Equality of status and opportunity.
5. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation.

Question 8.
Define: Sovereign
Answer:

1. The Constitution of India has granted the people the right to vote.
2. The members of the Parliament and the Legislative Assembly are elected by the people.
3. The right to decide is only in the hands of the representatives.
4. Sovereignty refers to the ultimate power of the country.
5. Sovereignty refers to India as an independent country.
6. India is not subject to any external power of influence.

VI. Projects and Activities

Question 1.
Let the students work individually or in a group to prepare rules for their class. From them discuss and form a list of rules and regulations for their class.
Answer:

1. Listen to the teacher
2. Respect each other
3. Respect other people’s property
4. Listen to others
5. Take care of our equipment

Question 2.
List your duties at
(a) School
(b) Home and
(c) Society
Answer:
(a) At School:

1. Participate in learning opportunities
2. Attend school regularly on time

(b) at Home:

1. Honour your father and mother
2. Simple hygiene – brush teeth, wash and dry hands, and brush hair.

c) At Society:

1. Teach the illiterate to read and write.
2. Take an active role in literacy campaigns

Question 3.
Discuss these topics:

1. Equality
2. Child labour
3. Right to Education

Answer:

1. Equality means equal rights for all the people and the abolition of all special rights and privileges.
2. Child labour refers to the employment of children in any work that deprives the children of their childhood.
3. The right to education is a fundamental human right. Every individual irrespective of race, gender, social origin, religion, or age are entitled to free elementary education.

Question 4.
Kailash Satyarti (India) and Malala Yusufsai (Pakistan) have been awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace (2014) Find out the reason why?
Answer:
“For their struggle against the suppression of children and young people and for the right of all children to education.

VII. Life Skill

Question 1.
Which of the fundamental rights do you like the most? Why?
Answer:
Fundamental rights and duties are guaranteed by the constitution. Look at the picture and share your opinions. Right against Exploitation. Traffic in Human beings and all forms of forced labour are prohibited.

Question 2.
Fundamental rights and duties are guaranteed by the constitution. Look at the picture and share your opinions. (For Students)
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Constitution of India Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks Answer

1. The Constitutions of nearly …………….. countries have been adopted by our Constitution.
2. …………….. refers to the ultimate power of the country.
3. …………….. is collectively responsible to the legislature.
4. The chief architect of the Drafting Committee was
5. The Constitution of India provides a …………….. form of government both at the centre and the state.

Answer:

1. 60
2. Sovereignty
3. Executive
4. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
5. Parliamentary

II. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
What is the Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
Universal Adult Franchise is every Indian citizen’s right to vote when they attain 18 years of age.

Question 2.
What are the Directive Principles?
Answer:
Directive Principles are certain guidelines to be followed while the government frame law.

Question 3.
What is Democracy?
Answer:
Democracy is a type of government in which representatives are elected by the people of that country.

Question 4.
What is Secular?
Answer:
Secular is a state which does not discriminate against anyone on a religious ground.

III. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 2 Civics Chapter 1 National Symbols Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 National Symbols

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science National Symbols Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer

Question 1.
The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by …………….
(a) Pingali Venkayya
(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(d) Gandhiji
Answer:
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

Question 2.
Which is the National Anthem of India?
(a) Jana Gana Mana
(c) Amar Sonar Bangla
(b) Vande Mataram
(d) Neerarum kaduluduththa
Answer:
(a) Jana Gana Manal

Question 3.
Who wrote the most famous novel Anand Math?
(a) Akbar
(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

Question 4.
_______ birthday is celebrated as the International Day of non violence.
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Subash Chandra Bose
(c) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(a) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 5.
The colour of the Asoka chakra found in our National flag is ……………..
(a) sky blue
(b) navy blue
(c) blue
(d) green
Answer:
(b) navy blue

Question 6.
The first flag ever flown after the Independence is stored in _______
(a) Chennai fort Museum
(c) Saranath Museum
(b) Delhi Museum
(d) Kolkata Museum
Answer:
(a) Chennai fort Museum

Question 7.
The National Anthem was written by ……………..
(a) Devandranath Tagore
(b) Bharathiyar
(c) Rabindranath Tagore
(d) Bala Gangadhar Tilak
Answer:
(c) Rabindranath Tagore

Question 8.
The time taken to play the National Anthem is _______
(a) 50 seconds
(c) 52 seconds
(b) 52 minutes
(d) 20 seconds
Answer:
(c) 52 seconds

Question 9.
“Vande Mataram” was first sung by at the 1896 session of the National Congress.
(a) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Sarojini Naidu
Answer:
(b) Rabindranath Tagore

Question 10.
_______ hoists the flag on Independence day in Delhi
(a) The Prime Minister
(c) Vice President
(b) The President
(d) Any Political leader
Answer:
(a) The Prime Minister

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The National emblem was adopted from the Ashoka pillar of ……………..
2. The National fruit of India is ……………..
3. The National Bird of India is ……………..
4. Our National tree is the ……………..
5. The flag which was flown in 1947 Independence day was weaved in ……………..
6. The Indian National Flag was designed by ……………..
7. …………….. Started the Saka Era.
8. The longest river in India is ……………..
9. The Indian Rupee symbol was designed by ……………..
10. The Chakra of the National Flag has …………….. spokes.

Answer:

1. Sarnath
2. Mango
3. Peacock
4. Banyan tree
5. Gudiyatham
6. Pinglivenkayya
7. Kanishka
8. The Ganges
9. D. Udhaya Kumar
10. 24

III. Choose the Correct Answer

1. The Lion Capital is now in the _______ museum (Kolkata / Sarnath)
2. The National Anthem was adopted in _______ (1950 / 1947)
3. _______ is declared as our National Microorganism (Lactobacillus / Rhizobium)

Answer:

1. Sarnath
2. 1950
3. Lactobacillus

IV. Fill in the blanks

1. Saffron – Courage; White – ……………..
2. Horse – Energy; Bull – ……………..
3. 1947 – Independence day; 1950 – ……………..

Answer:

1. Honestly
2. Hard work
3. Republic day

V. Choose the Correct Option

Answer:
c) d a b c

VI. Match and Choose the Wrong pair

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – b

VII. Choose the wrong sentence

Question 1.
The ratio of our National Flags length and breadth is 3:2
e. The Chakra has 24 spokes
f. The Chakra is Sky Blue in colour
Answer:
f. The Chakra is Sky Blue in colour

Question 2.
The National Flag was designed by pingali Venkayya
g. The First ever flown Flag after the Independence is stored in Kolkata Museum.
h. The First National Flag was weaved in Gudiyattam.
Answer:
g. The First ever flown Flag after the Independence is stored in Kolkata Museum.

VII. Choose the Correct sentence

(a) August 15 is celebrated as the Independence day.
(b) November 26 is celebrated as the Republic day
(c) October 12 is celebrated as Gandhi Jayanti.
Answer:
(a) August 15 is celebrated as the Independence day

IX. Answer the following

Question 1.
What do the colours in our National Flag represent?
Answer:

1. The saffron at the top represents valour and sacrifice.
2. The green at the bottom represents fertility and prosperity.
3. The white band in between represents honesty, peace, and purity.
4. The Ashoka Chakra or the wheel in navy blue represents truth and peace.

Question 2.
What are the parts of our National emblem?
Answer:

1. The four lions on top of the Ashoka Pillar at Samath was chosen to be our National emblem.
2. ‘Satyameva Jayate” has been inscribed at its bottom. It means truth alone triumphs.
3. The National emblem consists of two parts the upper and lower parts.
4. The upper part has four lions facing the North, South, East and West. This is on a circular pedestal. One can see only three lions at a time.
5. The lower part has an elephant, a horse, a bull and a lion. The ‘Wheel of righteousness’ is placed between them.

Question 3.
What are the salient features of the National Anthem?
Answer:

1. ‘Jana Gana Mana’ is our National anthem.
2. It symbolizes the sovereignty and integrity of our Nation.
3. This anthem was written by Rabindranath Tagore in Bengali.

Question 4.
Draw and define the Indian Rupee symbol.
Answer:

1. The Indian currency is the Indian rupees.
2. The symbol of rupees is ?.
3. This was designed by D. Udhayakumar from Tamil Nadu in the year 2010

Question 5.
Where do we use our National emblem?
Answer:
The National emblem is found at the top of the Government Communication, Indian Currency and passport.

Question 6.
Who wrote the National pledge?
Answer:

1. “India is my country. All Indians are my brothers and sisters” is our national pledge.
2. The pledge was written by Pydimarri Venkata Subba Rao in Telugu.

Question 7.
What are the animals found at the bottom of the emblem?
Answer:
At the bottom of the emblem, we see an elephant, a horse, a bull, and a lion.

Question 8.
What are the natural national symbols?
Answer:
Tiger, Elephant, River dolphin of Ganges, Peacock, King cobra, Banyan tree, Mango, The Ganges, and Lotus are the natural national symbols.

Question 9.
Where is the peacock sanctuary located in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
There is a peacock sanctuary at Viralimalai in the district of Pudukottai (Tamil Nadu).

X. Activities

Question 1.
Draw the natural National symbols as scenery / Frame a story. (For Students)

Question 2.
Prepare a logo for your class/school of your own. (For Students)

Question 3.
What should we do to protect endangered plants and animals? Discuss?
Answer:

1. Educate your family about endangered plants and animals in your area.
2. Recycle and buy sustainable products.
3. Reduce water consumption.
4. Do not buy plastic products.

Question 4.
Celebrate the national events in your school and prepare a news item for a local newspaper.
Answer:
A feast for the eyes:

1. Marchpastl drills and entertainment programme were part of the Independence day celebration held in
2. Angel public school R. T. Nagar.
3. Dances were choreographed to spread the message of unity in diversity and peace.

XI. Life Skill Activity

Question 1.
Why are certain organisms adopted as natural National symbols? Analyse.
Answer:

1. To cultivate a deep sense of pride in the hearts of Indian citizens.
2. To represent a quality unique to India and its citizens.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science National Symbols Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks Answer

1. Our government has released a postal stamp of Tirupur Kumaran to remember his ……………… and Sacrifice and dedication ……………… to the nation.
2. The first Indian flag was hoisted by ……………… on 15th August 1947 at Red fort (Delhi)
3. The currency released by Shershahsur in the sixteenth century was ………………
4. ……………… is known for its digestive quality and cooling capacity.
5. From August 1947 to 26th January 1950, the ……………… was the honorary head ot India.
6. ……………… a variety of mango was cultivated during the Mughal reign for the royal family.

Answer:

1. Sacrifice and dedication
2. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Rupiya
4. Curd
5. Queen of Britain
6. Imam pasand

II. Answer the following

Question 1.
What are the rules to be observed while singing the Anthem?
Answer:

1. Everyone should stand erect while singing the national anthem.
2. One should understand the meaning while singing.

Question 2.
List out Tamil Nadu’s Natural symbols.
Answer:

1. Animal – Nilgiritahr Bird
2. Flower – Gloriosa Superba Tree

Question 3.
Who has been given the right to manufacture the National flag?
Answer:
As of 2009, the Karnataka Khadi Gramodyoga Samyukta Sangha has been the sole manufacturer of the flag.

III. Mind map

Students can download 6th Social Science Term 1 Geography Chapter 1 The Universe and Solar System Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 The Universe and Solar System

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Universe and Solar System Text Book Back Questions and Answers

A. Fill in the blanks

1. The Universe was formed after ……………. explosion.
2. …………….. is the unit used to measure the distance between two celestial bodies.
3. …………….. is the centre of the solar system.
4. The word planet means ………………
5. ………………planet has many natural satellites.
6. India’s first ever mission to the moon is ………………
7. Earth is inclined by ……………… degrees.
8. The Equator faces the Sun directly on ………………
9. At the time of Perihelion, the Earth is ………………
10. The line which divides day and night on the Earth’s surface is ……………….

Answer:

1. Big Bang
2. Light year
3. The Sun
4. wanderer
5. Jupiter
6. Chandrayaan
7. 23 1/2
8. 21st March, 23rd Sep to the Sim.
9. Closest
10. Terminator line

B. Choose the best answer

Question 1.
The movement of the Earth on its axis is called _______
(a) Revolution
(b) Seasons
(c) Rotation
(d) Circulation
Answer:
(c) Rotation

Question 2.
The Tropic of Capricorn faces the Sun directly on
(a) March 21
(b) June 21
(c) September 23
(d) December 22
Answer:
(c) September 23

Question 3.
The galaxy in which our solar system is found is _______
(a) Andromeda
(b) Magellanic clouds
(c) Milky way
(d) Starburst
Answer:
(c) Milky way

Question 4.
The only celestial body where man has successfully landed
(a) Mars
(b) Moon
(c) Mercury
(d) Venus
Answer:
(b) Moon

Question 5.
Which of the following planets can float On water?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Saturn
(c) Uranus
(d) Neptune
Answer:
(b) Saturn

C. Circle the odd one out

D. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – e
5. – b

E. (i) Consider the following statements

1. Venus rotates from east to west.
2. The Tropic of Cancer faces the Sun on June 21.
3. Mars has rings around it.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only
Answer:
(a) 1 and 2

(ii) Consider the following statements

Statement I : Earth is called a watery planet.
Statement II. : The rotation of the Earth causes seasons.
Which of the statement(s) is/are true?
(a) I is true; II is wrong
(b) I is wrong; II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Statements I and II are wrong.
Answer:
(a) I is true; II is wrong

F. Name the following

Question 1.
Cluster of stars.
Answer:
Galaxy

Question 2.
The nearest galaxy to the solar system.
Answer:
Andromeda

Question 3.
The brightest planet.
Answer:
Venus

Question 4.
The living sphere.
Answer:
Biosphere

Question 5.
The year which has 366 days.
Answer:
Leap year

G. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Name the inner planets.
Answer:
The inner planets are Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars.

Question 2.
Pluto is no longer a planet, Reason out,

1. In August 2006, the International Astronomical Union (IAU) down-graded the status of Pluto to that of dwarf planet.
2. The three criteria of the IAU for a full sized planet are
   • It is in orbit around the Sun.
   • It has sufficient Mass to assume nearly a round shape.
   • It has cleared the neighbourhood around its orbit.
3. Since Pluto is able to meet only the first two of the criteria, it in no more a planet.

Question 3.
What is perihelion?
Answer:
Perihelion is the Earth’s closest position to the Sun.

Question 4.
How many times in a year would you find the Sun overhead if you lived on 20 N Latitude?
Answer:
Two times. It would be on the 21st March and 23rd September.

Question 5.
Which celestial body shares its orbit with others? Give an example.
Answer:

1. The dwarf planets share their orbits with others.
2. The five dwarf planets of the solar system are Pluto, Ceres, Eris, Makemake, and Haumea.

H. Give reasons

Question 1.
Why is Uranus called the somersaulting planet?
Answer:
It’s axis is tilted so much, that it appears to orbit the Sun on its sides like a rolling ball. So it is called the somersaulting planet.

Question 2.
The surface of the moon has many craters.
Answer:
The craters are formed due to the meteorites which fall on the moon’s surface.

Question 3.
The velocity of Earth’s rotation is zero at poles.
Answer:
It is due to the shape and inclination of the earth.

I. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Distinguish between inner and outer planets.
Answer:
Inner or Terrestrial Planets

1. Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars.
2. They are comparatively smaller in size.
3. They are composed of rocks. The surface of the inner planets has mountains, volcanoes and craters.
4. None of the inner planets have rings orbiting them

Outer Planets or Jovian Planets, or Gaseous Giants

1. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune.
2. They are huge in size.
3. Most of them are made of gas.
4. All of the outer planets have rings orbiting them.

Question 2.
What are the effects of rotation and revolution?
Answer:
Effects of Rotation:

1. It is the spinning movement of the Earth on its axis
2. The time taken by the Earth to complete one rotation is called a day.
3. The rotation of the Earth causes day and night, As the Earth is spherical in shape, only one half of it is illuminated by the Sun at a time.
4. The other half remains dark.
5. The illuminated portion of the Earth experiences day, whereas the darkened part of the Earth experiences night.

Effects of Revolution:

1. It is the movement of the Earth around the Sun on its elliptical path.
2. The Earth takes 36514 days to complete one revolution.
3. It revolves around the Sun at a speed of 30 km per second.
4. The remaining quarter day is added once in every four years in the month of February.
5. The inclination of the Earth on its axis and its revolution around the Sun cause different seasons.

Question 3.
Explain the characteristics of the various spheres of the Earth.
Answer:
Earth is the most suitable planet to support life. It has three major components that we call the realms of the Earth lithosphere, hydrosphere, and atmosphere.

(i) Lithosphere: The word lithosphere is derived from the Greek word Lithos, which means rocky. The Lithosphere is the land on which we live.

(ii) Hydrosphere: The word Hydro means water in Greek. The hydrosphere consists of water bodies such as oceans, seas, rivers, lakes, ice caps on mountains, and water vapour in the atmosphere.

(iii) Atmosphere: The word Atmo means the air in Greek. The atmosphere is the envelope of air that surrounds the Earth. Different types of gases make up the atmosphere. The major gases are Nitrogen (78%) and Oxygen (21%).

(iv) Biosphere: The narrow belt of interaction among the lithosphere, the hydrosphere, and the atmosphere, where life exists is known as Biosphere. Bio means life in Greek. It consists of distinct zones.

J. Picture Study

Question 1.
Study the picture and answer the given questions.

Question a.
Which is the closest planet to the Sun?
Answer:
Mercury

Question b.
Which is the largest planet?
Answer:
Jupiter

Question c.
Which is the farthest planet from the Sun?
Answer:
Neptune

Question d.
Which is the second smallest planet?
Answer:
Mars

Question 2.
Look at the picture and answer the questions given below.

Question a.
Identify the planet
Answer:
Uranus

Question b.
What is the colour of the planet?
Answer:
Green

Question c.
Why is it of this colour?
Answer:
Due to the presence of Methane

STUDENT ACTIVITY
K. Solve the puzzle

Across:

2. A dwarf planet.
3. Equal days and nights.
7. I am a gas found in the Sun.
8. I appear once in 76 years.

Down:

1. I am the morning star.
2. India’s first moon mission.
4. I have two natural satellites.
5. I am the farthest planet.
6. An imaginary line passing through the centre of the Earth.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Universe and Solar System Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks

1. The study of the universe is called ………………
2. A cluster of stars is known as ………………
3. The Roman word ‘Sol’ means ………………
4. The ……………… is at the centre of the solar system.
5. The elliptical path in which the planets move around the Sun is ………………

Answer:

1. Cosmology
2. Galaxy
3. Sun God
4. Sun
5. Orbit

II. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The closest planet to the Sun is _______
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Uranus
(d) Saturn
Answer:
(a) Mercury

Question 2.
The solar system is believed to have formed about _______billion years ago.
(a) 3
(b) 4.5
(c) 3.5
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 4.5

Question 3.
The ringed planet is _______
(a) Mars
(b) Venus
(c) Saturn
(d) Mercury
Answer:
(c) Saturn

Question 4.
The Outer Planets are _______
(a) Jupiter and Mercury
(b) Venus and Earth
(c) Saturn and Mars
(d) Uranus and Neptune
Answer:
(d) Uranus and Neptune

Question 5.
The Tropic of Cancer faces the Sun directly on _______
(a) March 21
(b) June 21
(c) September 23
(d) December 22
Answer:
(b) June 21

III. (i) Consider the following statements

1. The earth is the third planet in the solar system
2. The Sun is made up of hot gases like Hydrogen and Nitrogen
3. Mercury has no natural satellites
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only
Answer:
(c) 1 and 3

(ii) Consider the following statements

1. The sun revolves around the earth.
2. Mars is named after the Roman God of war.
3. Uranus appears green
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

(iii) Consider the following statements

Question 1.
Statement I: Jupiter is the fastest spinning planet in the solar system.
Statement II: Neptune is the coldest planet Which of the statement (s) is/are true?
(a) I is true, II is wrong
(b) I is wrong, II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Both statements are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are true

(iv) Consider the following statements

Question 1.
Statement I : The earth is inclined at 32 1/2°angle.
Statement II : The specific gravity of Saturn is more than that of water.
Which of the statement (s) is/are true
(a) I is true, II is wrong
(b) I is wrong, II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Both the statement are wrong
Answer:
(d) Both the Statement are wrong

IV. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
What is meant by light year?
Answer:
A light-year is a distance traversed by light in a year at a velocity of 30,000 km per second.

Question 2.
Mention the hierarchy of the universe.
Answer:

1. Universe
2. Galaxy
3. Solar system
4. Planets
5. Satellites

Question 3.
How many planets are there in the solar family? Name them.
Answer:
There are eight planets in the solar family. They are

1. Mercury
2. Venus
3. Earth
4. Mars
5. Jupiter
6. Saturn
7. Uranus and
8. Neptune.

V. Mind map

Students can download 6th Science Term 2 Chapter 5 The Cell Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 5 The Cell

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Cell Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The unit of measurement used for expressing dimension (size) of cell is
(a) centimeter
(b) millimeter
(c) micrometer
(d) meter
Answer:
(c) micrometer

Question 2.
Under the microscope, Priya observes a cell that has a cell wall and a distinct nucleus. The cell that she observed is
(a) a plant cell
(b) an animal cell
(c) a nerve cell
(d) a bacteria cell
Answer:
(d) a bacteria cell

Question 3.
A ‘control centre’ of the eukaryotic cell is
(a) Cell wall
(b) Nucleus
(c) Vacuoles
(d) Chloroplast
Answer:
(b) Nucleus

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not a unicellular organism?
(a) Yeast
(b) Amoeba
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Bacteria
Answer:
(c) Spirogyra

Question 5.
Most organelles in a eukaryotic cell are found in the
(a) Cell wall
(b) cytoplasm
(c) nucleus
(d) Vacuole
Answer:
(b) cytoplasm

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The instrument used to observe the cell is ………..
2. I control the food production of a cell. Who am I? ………..
3. I am like a policeman. Who am I ………?
4. The Term “cell” was coined by ………..
5. The egg of an Ostrich is the ……….. single cell.

Answer:

1. Microscope
2. Chloroplast
3. Cell membrane
4. Robert Hooke
5. Largest

III. True or False. If False, give the correct answer.

1. A cell is the smallest unit of life.
2. Nerve cell is the longest cell
3. Prokaryotes were the first form of life on earth.
4. The organelles of both plants and animals are made up of cells. (Organelles – Found inside the cell)
5. New cells are produced from existing cells.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – d
3. – e
4. – a
5. – b

V. Arrange in a correct sequence

Question 1.
Elephant, Cow, Bacteria, Mango, Rose plant.
Answer:
Bacteria, Mango, Rose plant, Cow, Elephant.

Question 2.
Hen Egg, Ostrich egg, Insect egg.
Answer:
Insect egg, Hen egg, Ostrich egg

VI. Analogy

1. Prokaryote : Bacteria :: Eukaryote : ………..
2. Spirogyra : Plant cell :: Amoeba : ………….
3. Food producer : Chloroplasts :: Power house : …………

Answer:

1. Plants, Animals
2. Animal cell
3. Mitochondria

VII. Give a Very short answer:

Question 1.
Who discovered the cell in 1665?
Answer:
The English scientist Robert Hooke discovered the cell in 1665 from cork slices kept under a microscope.

Question 2.
What type of cells do we have?
Answer:
We have a Eukaryotic type of cells.

Question 3.
What are the essential components of a cell?
Answer:
A typical cell consists of three major parts.

1. An outer cell membrane
2. A liquid cytoplasm
3. Nucleus

Question 4.
What are the organelles found only in plant cells?
Answer:

1. Cell wall
2. Chloroplast

Question 5.
Give any three examples of eukaryotic cells.
Answer:

1. Plant cells
2. Animal cells
3. Most of fungi and Algae

Question 6.
Which one is called as “Area of movement”?
Answer:
The cytoplasm is a watery, gel-like material in which cell parts move. So it is known as an “Area of movement”.

Question 7.
Shiva said, “Bigger onion has larger cells when compared to the cells of the smaller onion”! Do you agree with his statement or not? Explain why?
Answer:
No, the big onion and small onion both of them have plant cell and the size of every cell remains the same whether it is of a small onion or big one. The shape is larger means that the number of cells is more in bigger onion.

VIII. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
Why cells are called building blocks of life?
Answer:
A brick is a basic building block of a wall, likewise, the cells are the basic structural and functional unit of every living organism. So the cells are called as building blocks of life.

Question 2.
Identify any four parts of the plant cell?

Answer:
A – Cell Wall,
B – Cytoplasm,
C – Nucleus,
D – Mitochondria

Question 3.
Distinguish between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
Answer:

Question 4.
Make sketches of animal and plant cells which you observe under the microscope.
Answer:

Cell Wall & Chloroplasts – Absent in Animal Cells
Centrioles – Absent in Plant Cells

Question 5.
Write about the contribution of Robert Hooke in cell biology
Answer:
Robert Hooke was a scientist and inventor. He improved the microscope and built a compound microscope. One day he made thin sections of the cork and observed many small identical chambers through his microscope. They were hexagonal in shape. Based on these observations Hooke published a book named Micrographia in the year 1665, where he first used the term Cell. He describes the structure of tissue using the term cell.

IX. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Tabulate any five cell organelles and their function.
Answer:

Question 2.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of a prokaryotic cell.
Answer:

X. Project (For Students)

Question 1.
Use your imagination and create a 3-D model of a plant cell?

Question 2.
You can use numerous food materials such as jelly and some cake to make a cell body. Cell organelles can be made using nuts and dry fruits. You can display the model in your classroom and invite teachers or students from other classes to rise questions on the project and try to give answers.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Cell Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
The first cell formed in the earth
(a) Eukaryotic cell
(b) Algal cell
(c) Fungal cell
(d) Prokaryotic cell
Answer:
(d) Prokaryotic cell

Question 2.
Robert Hooke published a book named ______ in the year 1665.
(a) Cellula
(b) Micrographia
(c) Cell biology
(d) Organelles
Answer:
(b) Micrographia

Question 3.
The pigment present in leaf to absorb light is
(a) chlorophyll
(b) chloroplast
(c) chromoplast
(d) leucoplast
Answer:
(a) chlorophyll

Question 4.
The largest cell is the egg of an ______ with 170-millimeter width.
(a) Ostrich
(b) viper
(c) tortoise
(d) Hen
Answer:
(a) Ostrich

II. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Chloroplast is a cell organelle
Reason (R) : An organelle is a distinct part of the cell which has a particular structure and Function.
(a) Assertion (A) and Reason R – True and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R – true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A True but R False
(d) A False but R True
Answer:
(a) Assertion (A) and Reason R – True and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Mitochondria is an important organ cell of the cell
Reason (R) : Mitochondria is involved in food preparation
(a) Assertion (A) and Reason R – True and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R – true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A True but R False
(d) A False but R True
Answer:
(c) A True but R False

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – B
2. – D
3. – E
4. – C

IV. Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Arrange the following cells in the order of their size.
(a) Bacteria cell
(b) Frogs egg
(c) Hen’s egg
(d) Human egg.
Answer:
(a) Bacterial cell
(b) Human egg
(c) Frogs egg
(d) Hen’s egg

Question 2.
How do you distinguish between living and dead cells?
Answer:
Living cells have a nucleus (Eg.) Onion peel cells.
Non-Living cells don’t have a nucleus (Eg.) Cork ceils.

Question 3.
Name the largest Angiosperm cell
Answer:
The largest Angiosperm cell is citrus reticulata (clearly visible in orange pulp) & citrus maxima.

Question 4.
Name the organelle without membrane.
Answer:
Ribosomes are the cell organelle in which the membrane is absent.

Question 5.
Identify the following diagram and label A, B, C, D

Answer:
The diagram is the structure of the chloroplast
A – outer membrane
B – inner membrane
C – Thylakoid
D – stroma

Question 6.
Identify the following diagram and label A, B, C

Answer:
A – Outer Membrane
B – Cristae
C – Matrix

Question 7.
Identify the following diagram and label A, B, C

Answer:
Structure of Nucleus
A – Nuclear membrane
B – Nuclear pore
C – Nucleolus
D – Chromatin reticulum

Students can download 6th Science Term 2 Chapter 2 Electricity Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Electricity

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Electricity Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The device which converts chemical energy into electrical energy is
(a) fan
(b) solar cell
(c) cell
(d) television
Answer:
(c) cell

Question 2.
Electricity is produced in
(a) transformer
(b) power station
(c) electric wire
(d) television
Answer:
(b) power station

Question 3.
Choose the symbol for battery

Answer:

Question 4.
In which among the following circuits does the bulb glow?

Answer:

Question 5.
_______ is a good conductor
(a) silver
(c) rubber
(b) wood
(d) plastic
Answer:
(a) silver

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ………. are the materials which allow electric current to pass through them.
2. Flow of electricity through a closed circuit is …………
3. ……… is the device used to close or open an electric circuit.
4. The long perpendicular line in the electrical symbol represents its ………… terminal.
5. The combination of two or more cells is called a ………..

Answer:

1. Conductors
2. electric current
3. Key
4. positive
5. battery

III. True or False. If False, give the correct answer.

1. In a parallel circuit, the electricity has more than one path.
2. To make a battery of two cells, the negative terminal of one cell is connected to the negative terminal of the other cell.
3. The switch is used to close or open an electric circuit.
4. Pure water is a good conductor of electricity.
5. Secondary cell can be used only once.

Answer:

1. True
2. False – The negative terminal of one cell is connected to positive terminal of other cell.
3. True
4. False – Pure water is an insulator.
5. False – Secondary cells can be used many times.

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – Battery
2. – Bulb does not glow
3. – Open key
4. – Bulb glows
5. – Cell

V. Arrange in Sequence

Answer:
A DEVICE THAT CONVERTS CHEMICAL ENERGY INTO ELECTRICAL ENERGY IS CALLED A CELL.

VI. Give Very Short Answers

Question 1.
In the given circuit diagram, which of the given switches) should be closed. So that only the bulb A glows.

Answer:
K₁ and K₂ should be connected to glow bulb A in the circuit

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : It is very easy for our body to receive electric shock.
Reason (R) : Human body is a good conductor of electricity.
a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A.
b. A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation for A.
c. A is wrong but R is correct.
d. Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation for A.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A.

Question 3.
Can you produce electricity from a lemon?
Answer:

1. We can produce electricity from the lemon.
2. Take lemon as an electrolyte, copper plate as positive terminal, and small hairpin as the negative terminal. This setup will work as a cell.
3. If we connect the electric bulb with it bulb will glow.

Question 4.
Identify the conductor from the following figures.

Answer:
Metallic chain is a conductor.

Question 5.
What type of circuit is there in a torchlight?
Answer:
Simple circuit system is used in a torchlight.

Question 6.
Circle the odd one out. Give a reason for your choice.
Answer:
Switch, Bulb, Battery, Generator.
Generator is the source of electricity. Others are parts of a circuit.

VII. Give Short Answers:

Question 1.
Draw the circuit diagram for the series connection.
Answer:

Question 2.
Can the cell used in the clock give us an electric shock? Justify your answer.
Answer:

1. The cell used in the clock will not give us an electric shock because the voltage of that cell is very low nearly 1.5 v.
2. So it will not affect our body.

Question 3.
Silver is a good conductor but it is not preferred for making electric wires. Why?
Answer:

1. Silver is a costly metal.
2. So economically we can not use it in electric wires.

VIII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What is the source of electricity? Explain the various power stations in India.
Answer:

1. In thermal power stations, thermal energy is generated by burning coal, diesel, or gas to produce steam.
2. Steam is used to rotate the turbine to generate electricity.
3. Here heat energy is converted into electric energy.

Hydel power stations:

1. In hydel power stations, the turbine is made to rotate by the flow of water from dams.
2. Here kinetic energy is converted into electric energy.

Atomic power station:

1. Here nuclear energy is used to boil water
2. The steam thus produced is used to rotate the turbine, as a result, electricity is produced.
3. Here nuclear energy is converted into mechanical energy.

Windmills:

1. In windmills, wind energy is used to rotate turbines to produce electricity.
2. Here kinetic energy is converted into electrical energy.

Question 2.
Tabulate the different components of an electric circuit and their respective symbols.
Answer:

Question 3.
Write short notes on conductors and insulators.
Answer:
Conductors:
The rate of flow of electric charges in a circuit is called electric current. The materials which allow electric charges to pass through them are called conductors.
Examples: Copper, iron, aluminum, impure water, earth, etc.,

Iniulaton (Non-Conductors):
The materials which do not allow electric charges to pass through them are called insulators or non-conductors.
Examples: plastic, glass, wood, rubber, china clay, ebonite, etc.

IX. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
Rahul wants to make an electric circuit. He has a bulb, two wires, a safety pin, and a piece of copper. He does not have any electric cell or battery. Suddenly he gets some idea. He uses lemon instead of a battery and makes a circuit. Will the bulb glow?
Answer:
1. Yes, the bulb will glow.
2. Insert a piece of copper on one side of lemon, safety pin on another side. This system will work as a battery.
3. Copper rod – Positive terminal
Safety pin – Negative terminal, Lemon – Electrolyte
4. Connect the connecting wire in both the terminals and finally connect to the bulb.
5. The current produced is passed through the circuit and the bulb will glow.

X. Search ten words in the given word grid and classify them as conductors and insulators

Question 1.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Electricity Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
Here heat energy is converted into electric energy
(a) Thermal power station
(b) Atomic power station
(c) Hydel power station
(d) Windmills
Answer:
(a) Thermal power station

Question 2.
In atomic power station, ________ is used to rotate the turbine.
(a) water
(b) steam
(c) Air
(d) diesel
Answer:
(b) steam

Question 3.
Which one of the following is using secondary using cells?
(a) Hand watch
(b) Robo toy
(c) Laptop
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Laptop

Question 4.
If two or more ________ are connected in series in a circuit, then it is called a series circuit.
(a) keys
(b) cells
(c) connecting wires
(d) bulbs
Answer:
(d) bulbs

Question 5.
……….. fish is able to produce an electric current.
(a) Goldfish
(b) Electric Eel
(c) Katla
(d) Salamon fish
Answer:
(b) Electric Eel

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Any device from which electricity is produced is called ………..
2. The place in Kanyakumari district that has more windmills is ………..
3. ……….. have long economic lives and low operating cost.
4. A chemical solution that produces positive and negative ions is used as ………….
5. ……….. invented the electric bulb.

Answer:

1. Source of electricity
2. Aralvaimozhi
3. Hydel power stations
4. electrolyte
5. Thomas Alva Edison

III. Say True of False.

1. Atomic power stations convert nuclear energy into electric energy.
2. The cell can be used only once is called secondary cells.
3. We can produce electricity from potatoes.
4. An ammeter is connected in parallel in circuits.
5. The voltage of the torchlight battery is 1.5 v.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. 3. True
4. False
5. True

IV. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – iii
2. – i
3. – iv
4. – ii
5. – v

V. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Experiments with electricity should only be performed with torch or radio batteries.
Reason (R) : Household electric supply will have high voltage and dangerous
a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A.
b. A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation for A.
c. A is wrong but R is correct.
d. Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation
Answer:
a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Primary cells can not be recharged, they can be used only once.
Reason (R) : In vehicles, we use primary cells.
a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
b. A is true but R is not correct.
c. Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct reason for A
d. A is not correct but R is correct
Answer:
b. A is true but R is not correct

VI. Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are the places in which atomic power stations located in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Kalpakkam, Kanchipuram district.
2. Koodankulam, Tirunelveli district.

Question 2.
List out the parts required to make an electric circuit
Answer:
A key, connecting wires, dry cell or battery, and electric bulb.

Question 3.
How to connect the cells in torchlight to glow bulbs?
Answer:
1. Connect the positive terminal of one cell with the negative terminal of another cell.
2. The bulb will glow.

Question 4.
How electric current is produced in Thermal power stations?
Answer:
The thermal energy generated by burning coal is used to produced steam. The steam thus produced is used to rotate the turbine. While the turbine rotates, the coil of wire kept between the electromagnet rotates. Due to electromagnetic induction, electricity is produced.

Question 5.
What is meant by a battery or collection of cells?
Answer:
Two or more cells are combined together to make a battery or collection of cells.

VII. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What is a cell? Explain the types of cells.
Answer:
A device that converts chemical energy into electrical energy is called a cell. Cells are classified, in two types. They are-

1. Primary cells,
2. Secondary cells.

1. Primary cells:

• They can not be recharged.
• They can be used only once.
• They are small in size.
• Eg. Cells used in clocks, watches, and toys, etc.

2. Secondary cells:

• A cell that can be recharged many times is called secondary cells.
• Depending upon usage size may vary.
• Eg. Secondary cells are used in mobile phones, laptops, emergency lamps, and vehicle batteries.

Question 2.
What are the safety measures to safeguard a person from electric shock?
Answer:
Safety measures to safeguard a person from electric shock:

1. Switch off the power supply.
2. Remove the connection from the switch.
3. Push him away using non-conducting materials.
4. Give him first aid and take him to the nearest health centre.

Students can download 6th Science Term 3 Chapter 2 Water Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Water

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Water Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
Around 97% of water available on earth is water.
a. fresh
b. pure
c. salty
d. polluted
Answer:
c. salty

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a part of the water cycle?
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation
(c) rain
(d) distillation
Answer:
(d) distillation

Question 3.
Which of the following processes add water vapour to the atmosphere?
i. Transpiration
ii. Precipitation
iii. Condensation
iv. Evaporation
a. ii and iii
b. ii and iv
c. i and iv
d. i and ii
Answer:
c. i and iv

Question 4.
About 30% of the freshwater is found in?
(a) glaciers
(b) groundwater
(c) other sources of water
(d) 0.3%
Answer:
(b) groundwater

Question 5.
Using R.O. plant at home eliminates lot of non-potable water. The best way to effectively use the expelled water of R.O. plant is ……….
a. make the expelled water go and seep near the bore well
b. use it for watering plants
c. to drink the expelled water after boiling and cooling
d. to use for cooking as the water is full of many nutrients
Answer:
b. use it for watering plants

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Only ……… percent of natural water is available for human consumption.
2. The process of changing water into its vapour is called ………..
3. ……….. is built on rivers to regulate water flow and distribute water.
4. Water levels in rivers increase greatly during …………
5. Water cycle is also called as ………..

Answer:

1. 3%
2. Evaporation
3. Dam
4. Rainy days
5. hydrological cycle

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

1. Water present in rivers, lakes and ponds is unfit for use by human beings.
2. Seas are formed when the water table meets the land surface.
3. The evaporation of water takes place only in sunlight.
4. Condensation results in the formation of dew on grass.
5. Seawater can be used for irrigation as such.

Answer:

1. False – Water present in rivers, lakes and ponds is fit for use by human beings.
2. True
3. False – The evaporation of water takes place in any source of heat.
4. True
5. False – Sea water can not be used for irrigation as such.

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – e
2. – a
3. – b
4. – c
5. – d

V. Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence

1. These vapours condense to form tiny droplets of water.
2. The water droplets come together to form large water droplets.
3. The heat of the sun causes evaporation of water from the surface of the earth, oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies.
4. The large water droplets become heavy and the air cannot hold them, therefore, they fall as rains.
5. Water vapour is also continuously added to the atmosphere through transpiration from the surface of the leaves of trees.
6. Warm air carrying clouds rises up.
7. Higher up in the atmosphere, the air is cool.
8. These droplets floating in the air along with the dust particles form clouds.

Answer:

1. The heat of the sun causes evaporation of water from the surface of the earth, oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies.
2. Water vapour is also continuously added to the atmosphere through transpiration from the surface of the leaves of trees.
3. These droplets floating in the air along with the dust particles form clouds.
4. Warm air carrying clouds rises up.
5. Higher up in the atmosphere, the air is cool.
6. These vapours condense to form tiny droplets of water.
7. The water droplets come together to form large water droplets.
8. The large water droplets become heavy and the air cannot hold them, therefore, they fall as rains.

VI. Analogy:

Question 1.
Population explosion : Water scarcity : : Recycle : ………..
Answer:
Water management

Question 2.
Groundwater : ……….. : : Surface-water : Lakes
Answer:
Wells

VII. Give Very Short Answer

Question 1.
Name four different sources of water.
Answer:
Rivers, wells, lakes, glaciers, ponds, etc.

Question 2.
How do people in cities and rural areas get water for various purposes?
Answer:
People get water from wells, canals, tanks, ponds, rivers, water tanks, hand pipes for various purposes.

Question 3.
Take out of cooled bottle of water from refrigerator and keep it on a table. After some time you notice a puddle of water around it. Why?
Answer:
The cooled surface of the bottle cools the air around it and the water vapour of the air condenses. So after some time, a puddle of water can be noticed around the bottle.

Question 4.
We could see clouds almost every day. Why doesn’t it rain daily?
Answer:
When the air around the clouds is cool the clouds then only rain comes. That is the reason why we can’t get rain daily.

Question 5.
Name the places where water is found as ice.
Answer:
Polar ice-caps, Ice sheets, and glaciers in Artie region arid Antarctica.

Question 6.
How do aquatic animals manage to live in Arctic and Antarctic Circle?
Answer:
Floating layer of ice acts as a protective coat and does not permit heat to escape from water. So aquatic animals manage to live in Arctic and Antarctic circle.

Question 7.
What are the types of rainwater harvesting?
Answer:
There are two types of rainwater harvesting.

1. Collecting water from where it falls.
2. Collecting rainwater by constructing bunds.

VIII. Give Short Answer

Question 1.
Differentiate between surface water and groundwater.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write a few slogans of your own on the topic “Save Water”.
Answer:

1. “To a thirsty man, a drop of water is worth more than a sack of gold”.
2. “Water covers 2/3 of the surface of the earth. But only 0.002% is drinkable. Save water”
3. “Save water to secure your future”
4. “Don’t make nature cry, keep your water clean”
5. “Store water for dry days”.

Question 3.
About 71% of earth’s surface is covered with water, then why do we face scarcity of water?
Answer:
71% of the earth’s surface is covered with water. The freshwater will be only 3%. It remains the same. But the water useful for plants, animals, and men is increasing day by day. So we face water scarcity.

Question 4.
Give reason for the following statement – Sewage should not be disposed of in rivers or oceans before treatment.
Answer:
Sewage contains harmful and toxic chemicals. They can disturb the ecosystem of the living animals, in the rivers or oceans. So it should be treated effectually before disposing into rivers or oceans.

Question 5.
The freshwater available on earth is only 3%. We cannot increase the amount of water. In that case, how can sustain the water level?
Answer:

1. The sewage water treatment is to be adopted.
2. Decrease the usage of pesticides, insecticides, and fertilizers in agriculture.
3. Protect forest and trees.
4. Adopt drip irrigation and sprinkler irrigation in agriculture.
5. Rainwater harvesting should be implemented in every building.
6. Create awareness about the impact of throwing wastes into the water bodies.

IX. Answer in detail

Question 1.
What is potable water? List down its characteristics.
Answer:
The water which is fit for drinking by human beings is called potable water, characteristics

1. It is transparent.
2. It is odourless and colourless.
3. It is harmless or free from disease-causing bacteria.

Question 2.
Who is known as waterman of India? Browse the net and find the details about the award, the waterman received for water management. State the findings by drafting a report.
Answer:
The ‘Waterman of India’ is Dr. Rajendra Singh. He is a well-known water conservationist and environmentalist from Alwar district, Rajasthan.

Awards:

1. He gets the Ramon Magsaysay award for community leadership in 2001.
2. In 2005, he got the Jamnalal Bajaj Award for Science and Technology for rural development.
3. In 2008, The Guardian named him amongst its list of 50 people who could save the planet.
4. In 2015, he won the Stockholm Water Prize. He runs an NGO called ‘Tarun Bharat Sangh’ (TBS), which was founded in 1975.
5. In 2016, he was bestowed with Ahimsa Award by the Institute of Jainology based in UK.

Question 3.
What is rainwater harvesting? Explain in a few sentences how it can be used in houses.
Answer:
Rainwater harvesting:
Direct collection and use of rainwater are called rainwater harvesting.

There are two types of rainwater harvesting.

(a) Collecting water from where it falls.
Example: Collecting water from the rooftops of the houses or buildings (Roof water harvesting).

(b) Collecting flowing rainwater.
Example: Collecting rainwater by constructing ponds with bund.

X. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills.

Question 1.
When there is no pond or lake in an area, will there be the formation of clouds possible in that area?
Answer:
When there is no pond or lake in an area formation of clouds will be possible. Transpiration from the aerial parts of all plants and trees will evaporate water and it will form clouds.

Question 2.
To clean the spectacles, people often breathe out on glasses to make them wet. Explain why do the glasses become wet.
Answer:
When we breathe out, the hot air comes out from our mouth which gets condensed and changed into tiny water droplets, and glasses become wet.

XI. Crossword

Down:
1. A method of water conservation.
2. Process of getting water vapour from seawater.
6. Water stored in dams is used for the generation of ………..

Across:
3. ………. is a large body of non -potable water found in nature.
4. In summer, the body loses water as ……..
5. Plants undergo ………….. and contribute to the water cycle.

Answer:

XII. Observe the given graph carefully and answer the questions.

Question 1.

1. What percentage of water is seen in fish?
2. Name the food item that has the maximum amount of water in its content.
3. Name the food item that has a minimum amount of water in its content.
4. The human body consists of about ………. percentage of water.
5. Specify the food item that can be consumed by a person when he / she is suffering from dehydration.

Answer:

1. Fish – 70%
2. Watermelon
3. Fish
4. 60%
5. watermelon, pineapple

Question 2.
Look at the map of Tamilnadu showing annual rainfall and answer the questions given below

a. Identify the districts that get only low annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
Answer:
northwest zone (Coimbatore, Erode, Namakkal, Karur)

b. Identify the districts that get a medium annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
Answer:
Pudhukottai, Virthunagar, Sivagangai, Salem, Dindigul, Theni, Vellore.

c. State the districts that enjoy high annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
Answer:
Tirunelveli, Kanyakumari, Chennai, Vizhupuram, Thiruvallur, Kadalur, Nagapattinam

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Water Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best Answer:

Question 1.
If the total water on earth be 100% the percentage of freshwater is ………..
(a) 97%
(b) 93%
(c) 3%
(d) 0.3%
Answer:
(c) 3%

Question 2.
_______ is a transparent, tasteless, odourless, chemical substance.
(a) Petrol
(b) Wax
(c) Water
(d) Kerosene
Ans:
(c) Water

Question 3.
Which one is not an example of groundwater?
(a) hand pump
(b) borewell
(c) wetland water
(d) well
Answer:
(c) wetland water

Question 4.
Water from oceans, lakes, ponds, and rivers evaporates due to the heat of _______
(a) Sun
(b) Pressure
(c) Atmosphere
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Sun

Question 5.
………. are wetlands where water bodies meet the sea.
(a) lake
(b) well
(c) estuary
(d) glacier
Answer:
(c) estuary

II. True or False.

1. Maximum surface water is stored in lakes.
2. The oceanic volcanoes add salts to the sea.
3. Water is a non-transparent chemical.
4. Transpiration takes place in rivers and lakes.
5. Nitrogen is used for the treatment of drinking water.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. False

III. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. – v.
2. – iv.
3. – i.
4. – ii.
5. – iii.

IV. Analogy:

1. Low rainfall: Water scarcity : : Recycling Water : ………..
2. Frozen Water : Glaciers : : Surface Water : ………..
3. Evaporation : Sea : : …………. : Trees
4. Filtering : Sand : : ………….. : Ammonia
5. Solid State : ………… : : Gaseous State : Vapour

Answer:

1. Water Management
2. River
3. Transpiration
4. Disinfection
5. Ice

V. Very Short Answer

Question 1.
What is the composition of water?
Answer:

1. Water is composed of two atoms of hydrogen combining with one atom of oxygen gas.
2. The molecular formula of water is H₂O.

Question 2.
What is water?
Answer:
Water is a transparent, tasteless, odourless and nearly colourless chemical substance.

Question 3.
What is saltwater?
Answer:
Water which has more than 3% salt is called saltwater. We can not drink and use this water.

Question 4.
What are the three stages in the water cycle?
Answer:
Evaporation, condensation and precipitation.

Question 5.
What is transpiration?
Answer:
It is the process of loss of water from the aerial parts of a plant in vapour form is called transpiration.

VI. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain the three stages of the water cycle.
Answer:

1. Water cycle is a continuous process.
2. It is also called the hydrological cycle.
3. The stages are

1. Evaporation :
Water from oceans, lakes, ponds and rivers evaporates due to the heat of the Sun.

2. Condensation:
Water vapour which enters into the atmosphere by evaporation moves upward with air, gets cooled and changes into tiny water droplets that form clouds in the sky.

3. Precipitation:
Millions of tiny droplets collide with each other to form large droplets. The air around the clouds is cool these drops of a waterfall in the form of snow or rain.

Question 2.
How water is conserved by water management method?
Answer:
Water management consists of the following factors:

1. Bringing awareness about the bad effects of throwing wastes into the water bodies.
2. Recycling of water by separating pollutants.
3. Minimizing the use of chemical fertilizers in agriculture. It reduces the pollution of underground water.
4. Controlling deforestation.
5. Adopting drip irrigation and sprinkler irrigation in agriculture. In this way, a lesser amount of water can be used for irrigation.

Students can download 6th Science Term 2 Chapter 4 Air Questions and Answers, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Air

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Air Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
……… is the percentage of nitrogen in the air.
(a) 78%
(b) 21%
(c) 0.03%
(d) l%
Answer:
(a) 78%

Question 2.
Gas exchange takes place in plants using _______
(a) Stomata
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) Leaves
(d) Flowers
Answer:
(a) Stomata

Question 3.
The constituent of air that supports combustion is ……….
(a) Nitrogen
(b) carbon-di-oxide
(c) Oxygen
(d) water vapour
Answer:
(c) Oxygen

Question 4.
Nitrogen is used in the food packaging industry because it _______
(a) provides colour to the food
(b) provides oxygen to the food
(c) adds proteins and minerals to the food
(d) keeps the food fresh
Answer:
(d) keeps the food fresh

Question 5.
……… and ………… are the two gases, which when taken together, make up about 99 percentage of air.
I. Nitrogen
II. carbon-di-oxide
III. Noble gases
IV. Oxygen
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and IV
(d) I and IV
Answer:
(d) I and IV

II. Fill in the blanks

1. …………. is the active component of air.
2. The gas given out during photosynthesis is ………..
3. ………. gas is given to the patients having breathing problems.
4. ………. can be seen moving in a beam of sunlight in a dark room.
5. …………. gas turns lime water milky.

Answer:

1. Oxygen(O₂)
2. Oxygen(O₂)
3. Oxygen (O₂)
4. Tiny dust particles
5. Carbon dioxide (CO₂)

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement

1. Inhaled air contains a large amount of carbon-di-oxide
2. Planting trees help in decreasing global warming
3. The composition of air is always exactly the same.
4. Whales come up to the water surface to breathe in oxygen.
5. The balance of oxygen in the atmosphere is maintained through photosynthesis in animals and respiration in plants.

Answer:

1. False – (Inhaled air contains a large amount of oxygen)
2. True
3. False – (The composition of air changes slightly from place to place & also from season to season)
4. True
5. False – (The balance of oxygen in the atmosphere is maintained through Photosynthesis in plants & respiration in animals)

IV. Match the following

Answer:
1. – c
2. – b
3. – d
4. – e
5. – a

V. Arrange the following statements in correct sequence

1. Plants manufacture food by a process called photosynthesis.
2. Plants require energy for their growth.
3. Plants take in oxygen and release carbon-di-oxide just as animals.
4. Plants take carbon-di-oxide from the atmosphere, use chlorophyll in the presence of sunlight and prepare food.
5. Such oxygen is available to animals and human beings for breathing.
6. During this process, oxygen is released by plants.
Answer:
2. Plants require energy for their growth.
1. Plants manufacture food by a process called photosynthesis.
6. During this process, oxygen is released by plants.
3. Plants take in oxygen and release carbon-di-oxide just as animals.
5. Such oxygen is available to animals and human beings for breathing.
4. Plants take carbon-di-oxide from the atmosphere, use chlorophyll in the presence of sunlight and prepare food.

VI. Analogy

Question 1.
Photosynthesis: ……….. ::
Respiration : Oxygen
Answer:
CO₂

Question 2.
78% of air : Does not support combustion ::
……… : Supports combustion
Answer:
21% of air

VII. Observe the given figure carefully and answer the questions.

Question 1.
What will happen if we remove plants from the aquarium?
Answer:

1. The production of O₂ and absorption of CO₂ and NH₃ will you reduced.
2. Plants provide shelter to fish, so, they feel insecure.
3. Algae growth will increase.

Question 2.
What will happen if we remove the fish from the aquarium and keep it (with green plants) in a dark place?

Answer:

1. Most of the fishes require both periods of light and darkness.
2. In a dark place, they will loose their sight and pigmentation.

VIII. Give a very short Answer

Question 1.
What is the atmosphere? Name the five layers of the atmosphere.
Answer:
Our earth is surrounded by a huge envelope of air called the atmosphere.
The atmosphere is made of five different layers – the Troposphere, the Stratosphere, the Mesosphere, the Ionosphere, and the Exosphere.

Question 2.
How do the roots of land plants get oxygen for breathing?
Answer:
Oxygen is present in the air spaces of soil. This O₂ is taken by root hairs through diffusion to the rest of the plant.

Question 3.
What should be done if the clothes of a person catch fire accidentally? Why?
Answer:

1. Cover the person in a rug or blanket and Roll him on the floor.
2. This will cut off the air and put out the flames.
3. A suitable fire extinguisher can also be chosen.

Question 4.
What will happen if you breathe through your mouth?
Answer:
Several health conditions and risk factors can lead to mouth breathing.

1. Snoring
2. dry mouth
3. daytime tired
4. Poor dental health

IX. Give a short answer

Question 1.
Biscuits kept open on a plate during monsoon days lose their crispness. Why?
Answer:
During monsoon days, Water vapour from the atmosphere is absorbed in the biscuits. So the biscuits lose its crispness.

Question 2.
Why do traffic assistants wear a mask on duty?
Answer:
Traffic assistants are continually exposed to smoke emitted out from the vehicles. Inhaling the pollutants in the smoke may cause breathing and lung problems. So they wear a mask on duty.

X. Answer in detail

Question 1.
How do plants and animals maintain the balance of oxygen and carbon-di¬oxide in air?
Answer:

1. plants in forests release oxygen through the process of photosynthesis and help in providing oxygen to animals for respiration.
2. Plants consume carbon dioxide released by the animals. In this way, plants help in maintaining a balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

Question 2.
Why is the atmosphere essential for life on earth?
Answer:

The atmosphere is essential for life because it maintains an appropriate climate for the maintenance of life by carrying out the following activities:

1. The atmosphere keeps the average temperature of the Earth fairly constant during the day time.
2. It prevents a sudden increase in temperature during the day time.
3. It also slows down the escape of heat from the surface of the Earth into outer space during the night time.

XI. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills.

Question 1.
Can you guess why fire extinguishers throw a stream of carbon-di-oxide while putting – off fire?
Answer:
It is because carbon-di-oxide (CO₂) does not support combustion. When sprayed on burning object it stops the supply of oxygen and controls the fire.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Air Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the appropriate answer

Question 1.
A layer consisted of water vapour which is responsible for making clouds is.
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) Exosphere
Answer:
(c) Troposphere

Question 2.
_______ is responsible for making clouds.
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Water vapour
(d) Carbon-di-oxide
Answer:
(c) Water vapour

Question 3.
A process without emitting flame is called as …………
(a) Combustion
(b) Burning
(c) Cherring
(d) Melting
Answer:
(a) Combustion

Question 4.
_______ was able to identify highly reactive gas called oxygen.
(a) Lavoisier
(b) Ingenhousz
(c) Rutherford
(d) Joseph Priestley
Answer:
(d) Joseph Priestley

Question 5.
Which is used in refrigerating meat and fish?
(a) Liquid Ammonia
(b) Liquid Nitrogen
(c) Solid CO₂
(d) Helium
Answer:
(c) solid CO₂

II. True or False. If False, give the correct statement

1. Oxygen is used for the synthesis of protein and fertilizers.
2. CO₂ turns calcium hydroxide solution to a milky white solution.
3. The air in coastal areas have more oxygen.
4. The role of chlorophyll is to absorb light from the sun.
5. When cooled to -57°C, gaseous carbon-di-oxide becomes a liquid.

Answer:

1. False – (Nitrogen is used for the synthesis of protein and fertilizers)
2. True
3. False – (The air in coastal areas have more water vapour)
4. True
5. False – (When cooled to -57°C, gaseous carbon-di-oxide becomes a solid)

III. Match the following

Answer:
i. – c
ii. – d
iii. – a
iv. – b

IV. Give very short answer

Question 1.
Where does Ozone layer lie?
Answer:
Ozone layer is present in stratosphere lies above the troposphere.

Question 2.
“Air is not an elementary substance, but a composition”. Why?
Answer:
Air is a composite mixture of many gases like N₂, O₂, CO₂ and others.

Question 3.
Mention the percentage composition of Air.
Answer:

Question 4.
What is Burning?
Answer:
The process of firing of a substance in the presence of O₂ and releasing a large amount of light and heat.

Question 5.
Define – Combustion. Give an example.
Answer:
The process of firing which does not emit flame is called combustion (fire without flame). Ex: Rocket propellants (fuel with oxygen).

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Briefly explain the process of ‘Photo Synthesis’.
Answer:

1. Plants manufacture their food by ‘Photo Synthesis’.
2. CO₂ from the air and water from the solid react in the presence of sunlight to produce food.
   
3. Chlorophyll absorbs light from the sun.
4. The liberated O₂ during photosynthesis is much more than the O₂ consumed by the plants for respiration.

Question 2.
Mention the uses of Air.
Answer:

1. For breathing by plants and Animals.
2. For burning fuels like wood, coal, kerosene, LPG etc.,.
3. Compressed air is used to fill tyres of vehicles.
4. Maintaining the water cycle in nature. Because this air did not have O₂ and CO₂.
5. O₂ gas is used by patients in Hospitals, Climbers in mountains, Divers in Deepsea.