Category: Class 12

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part -I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
A marketable document of title to a time deposit for a specified period may be referred to as a ……………
(a) Treasury Bill
(b) Certificate of Deposit
(c) Commercial Bill
(d) Government Securities
Answer:
(b) Certificate of Deposit

Question 2.
The rules and regulations of Stock exchange is framed by………….. guidelines.
(a) RBI
(b) Central Government
(c) SEBI
(d) BSE
Answer:
(c) SEBI

Question 3.
……….. was the first company to trade its shares in Demat form.
(a) Tata Industries
(b) Reliance Industries
(c) Infosys
(d) Birla Industries
Answer:
(b) Reliance Industries

Question 4.
The purpose of an application blank is to gather information about the
(a) Company
(b) Candidate
(c) Questionnaire or Interview Schedule
(d) Competitors
Answer:
(a) Company

Question 5.
Training methods can be classified into training.
(a) Job rotation and Job enrichment
(b) On the Job and Off the Job
(c) Job analysis and Job design
(d) Physical and mental
Answer:
(b) On the Job and Off the Job

Question 6.
Green Shelter concept was introduced by group:
(a) ACME
(b) Tata
(c) Reliance
(d) ICI
Answer:
(a) ACME

Question 7.
Any person who buys any goods or avails services for personal use, for consideration is called as …………..
(a) Customer
(b) Consumer
(c) Buyer
(d) User
Answer:
(b) Consumer

Question 8.
It is the responsibility of a consumer that he must obtain …………. as a proof for the purchase of goods.
(a) Cash receipt
(b) Warranty card
(c) Invoice
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Invoice

Question 9.
The International Organisation of Consumers Unions (IOCU) was first established in …………..
(a) 1960
(b) 1965
(c) 1967
(d) 1987
Answer:
(a) 1960

Question 10.
Unpaid seller can exercise his right of lien over the goods, where he is in possession of the goods as ……………
(a) Owner of goods
(b) Agent of buyer
(c) Bailee for buyer
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 11.
Which endorsement relieves the endorser from incurring liability in the event of dishonour?
(a) Restrictive
(b) Facultative
(c) Sans recourse
(d) Conditional
Answer:
(b) Facultative

Question 12
…………….. Entrepreneur Supply Services Unlike.
(a) Hoteliers
(b) Banking
(c) Airlines
(d) Livestock
Answer:
(d) Livestock

Question 13.
Who can issue stock? ‘
(a) Public
(b) Private
(c) One Person
(d) Small
Answer:
(a) Public

Question 14.
A Public Company having a paid up Share Capital of ₹ ……… or more may have a Director, elected by such small shareholders.
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) Seven
Answer:
(c) Five

Question 15.
Who is not entitled to speak at the annual general meeting of the company?
(a) Auditor
(b) Shareholder
(c) Proxy
(d) Directors
Answer:
(c) Proxy

Question 16.
Treasury Bills commands ………………
(a) High Liquidity
(b) Low Liquidity
(c) Medium Liquidity
(d) Limited Liquidity
Answer:
(a) High Liquidity

Question 17
………….. enables small investors to participate in the investment on share capital of large companies.
(a) Mutual Funds
(b) Shares
(c) Debentures
(d) Fixed deposits
Answer:
(a) Mutual Funds

Question 18.
……………… e-recruitment is possible only through facility.
(a) Computer
(b) internet
(c) Broadband
(d) 4G
Answer:
(b) internet

Question 19.
Identify the test that acts as an instrument to discover the inherent ability of a candidate.
(a) Aptitude Test
(b) Attitude Test
(c) Proficiency Test
(d) Physical Test
Answer:
(a) Aptitude Test

Question 20.
Case study method is type of trainee.
(a) Only theoretical training
(b) Both theory and practical training
(c) Hands on training
(d) Observation Training
Answer:
(b) Both theory and practical training

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What is meant by innovation?
Answer:
Innovation refers to the preparation of personnel and organisation to face the changes made in the business world. Continuous changes are being made in the business. Innovation includes developing new material, new products, new techniques in production, new package, new design of a product and cost reduction.

Question 22.
Bring out the meaning of MBE.
Answer:
Management By Exception is an important principle of managerial control suggested by the classical writers on management. It is based on the belief that an attempt to control everything results in controlling nothing. Management by exception is a style of business management that focuses on identifying and handling cases that deviate from the norm.

Question 23.
Who are the participants in a Capital Market?
Answer:
There are many players in the capital market. The participants of the capital market include individuals, corporate sectors, Govt., banks and other financial institutions.

Question 24.
Explain the two oldest money markets.
Answer:

• Treasury Bills- These are very popular and enjoy a higher degree of liquidity since they
  are issued by the Government.
• Commercial Bills- It is an instrument drawn by a seller of goods on a buyer of goods.

Question 25.
What is meant by Commodity Exchange?
Answer:
A commodity exchange is an exchange where commodities are purchased and sold. Commodities are listed here: Metals (e.g. gold, silver, copper); Energy (e.g. crude oil, natural gas); Agricultural (e.g. rice, wheat, cocoa); Livestock and meat.

Question 26.
What are the various ID proofs?
Answer:
Proof of identity: PAN card, voter’s ID, passport, driver’s license, bank attestation, IT returns, electricity bill, telephone bill, ID cards with applicant’s photo issued by the central or state government are the ID proofs.

Question 27.
State two features of HRM.
Answer:
Features of Human Resource Management:

• Universally relevant: Human Resource Management has universal relevance.
• Goal oriented: The accomplishment of organisational goals is made possible through best utilisation of human resource in an organisation.

Question 28.
What is promotion?
Answer:
Based on seniority and merits of the employees they are given opportunity to move up in the organisational hierarchy. This is called promotion.

Question 29.
What do you mean by test?
Answer:
Several tests are conducted in the selection process to ensure whether the candidate possesses the necessary qualification to fit into various positions in the organization.

Question 30.
State e-learning method.
Answer:
E-leaming is the use of technological process to access of a traditional classroom or office. It is also often referred to as online learning or web based training.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions. Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Explain the types of market on the basis of time.
Answer:

• Very Short Period Market: Markets which deal in perishable goods like, fruits, milk, vegetables, etc., are called as very short period market. There is no change in the supply of goods.
• Short Period Market: In certain goods, supply is adjusted to meet the demand. The demand is greater than supply. Such markets are known as Short Period Market.
• Long Period Market: This type of market deals in durable goods, where the goods and services are dealt for longer period usages.

Question 32.
What are the factors affecting Price of Product?
Answer:
Factors affecting Price of product/service:
(a) Internal Factors:

• Marketing Objectives
• Marketing Mix Strategy
• Organizational considerations
• Costs
• Organization Objectives

(b) External Factors:

• The market and demand
• Competition
• Customers
• Suppliers
• Legal factors
• Regulatory factors.

Question 33.
Elucidate how E-Commerce differs from E-Business.
Answer:
E-commerce simply refers to the buying and selling of products and services through online but E-business goes away beyond the simple buying and selling, of goods and service and much wider range of business processes, such as supply chain management, electronic order processing and customer relationship management.

Question 34.
Define “Consumer Rights”
Answer:
Consumer Right is interpreted as “the right to have information about the quality, potency, quantity, purity, price, and standard of goods or services”.

Question 35.
What is the Pecuniary Jurisdiction of the State Commission?
Answer:
The Jurisdiction of the State Commission is as follows:

• The State Commission can entertain complaints within the territory of entire state and the compensation, if any claimed exceed Rs. 20 lakhs and below Rupees One Crore.
• The State Commission also has the jurisdiction to entertain appeals against the orders of any District Forum within the State.

Question 36.
Write a note on future environment of business.
Answer:

• The future environment of business in this age of rapid technological advancement has been captured aptly.
• It is now important for every business to meet the challenges posed by the environment in order to remain competitive.
• The presence of complex variables impacting business should be understood and alternative measures for solving the issues should be developed.

Question 37.
State any three impacts of Globalization.
Answer:
Impacts of Globalization:

• Corporations got a competitive advantage from lower operating costs, and access to new raw materials and additional markets.
• Multinational corporations (MNCs) can manufacture, buy and sell goods worldwide.
• Globalization has led to a boom in consumer products market.

Question 38.
Discuss in detail the rights of an unpaid seller against the buyer personally.
Answer:
Where the Property in the Goods does not pass to the Buyer. Right of an Unpaid Seller against the Buyer Personally:

• Suit for price
• Suit for Damages for Non-acceptance .
• Suit for Cancellation of the Contract before the Due Date- Where the buyer cancels the contract before the date of delivery, the seller may either treat the contract as continuing or wait till the due date.
• Suit for Interest

Question 39.
Explain the commercial functions of entrepreneur.
Answer:
(i) Production or Manufacturing: Under production function, entrepreneur has to take decision relating to selection of factory site, design and layout, type of products to be manufactured, research and development, product design, etc.

(ii) Marketing: Entrepreneur has to carry out following functions pertaining to marketing
aspect namely consumer research, product planning and development, standardisation, packaging, pricing, warehousing, distribution, promotion, etc.

(iii) Accounting: Entrepreneur has to arrange to prepare trading and profit and loss account in order to know the profit or loss incurred out of operation of the business and prepare balance sheet to know the financial status of business at a particular day. Besides, cash flow and fund flow statements are prepared to ensure the adequacy of funds and cash for meeting various working capital needs of the business.

(iv) Finance: An entrepreneur has to take decisions like choosing the right type of financing, framing the best dividend policy, acquiring of funds, efficiently managing fixed and current assets, maximising shareholders wealth and investing of funds efficiently and effectively.

(v) Human Resource Management: Entrepreneur has to estimate the manpower needs of the enterprise and accordingly organise for recruitment procedure, selecting manpower, induction and training, determining compensation structure and incentives, designing motivation programmes, structuring wellbeing measures for employees, putting in place safety mechanism at workplace, performance evaluation and career advancement and structuring social security programmes.

Question 40.
Explain about the agricultural entrepreneur.
Answer:
Agricultural entrepreneurs are those entrepreneurs who raise farm products and market them. They use the various inputs like labour, fertilizer, insecticide, water technology, etc., to raise the products and market their products either directly or through co-operative entities or through brokers or through tie up with large retailers.

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41(a).
What are the duties of a director?
Answer:
Directors act as agents of the shareholders and act as trustees of shareholders. The following are the duties of directors:
Collective Duties of Directors: Directors as a part of Board perform certain duties collectively. The duties are as follows:

• Approval of annual accounts and authentication of annual accounts
• Appointment of First Auditors
• Passing of resolutions at board meetings
• Directors report to shareholders highlighting the performance of the company.

General duties of Directors:

• Delegating power to any committee
• Issuing instructions to employees for implementation of policy
• Appointing their subordinates like Managing director, Manager, Secretary and other employees
• Act in Good faith in order to promote the objectives of the company

[OR]

(b) How market information is helpful to invention of new product in the market?
Answer:
According to Clark and Clark, market information means “all the facts, estimates, opinions and other information used in marketing of goods”.
From the above definition the details about the market may be obtained from conducting market research and other inventory methods. Market research is solely concerned with the collection of information about the market.
The following information may be collected:

• Goods needed by the customers.
• Time and want of the goods
• Quality wanted
• Size of the market
• Means of transport

Use to Invent New product: Adequate and accurate information help in the formulation of policies. Based on the taste and preferences, demand and supply of the products, the company can introduce new product. Also the company has to increase the quality and number of products depending upon the information available.

Question 42.
(a) State the powers of the directors.
Answer:
Powers of Directors: The directors must have powers to carry on objectives of the company.
The powers may be of four types:

• Statutory Powers of Directors
• Managerial Powers of Directors
• Powers only with a resolution
• Other Powers

Statutory Powers: The following powers must be used in the Board meeting:

• Power to make calls on shareholders in respect of money unpaid on their shares
• Power to issue debentures
• Power to borrow money other than on debentures
• Power to invest the funds of the company
• Power to approve financial statement and Board report

Managerial Powers:

• Power to allot, forfeit or transfer shares of company
• Power to decide the terms and conditions to issue debentures
• Power to appoint Managing Director, Manager and Secretary of the company.

Powers only with a resolution:

• To sell or lease any asset of the company
• To issue bonus shares
• To allow time to the director for repayment of the loan

Other Powers:

• Power to fill casual vacancy
• Power to appoint the first auditor of the company
• Power to appoint alternative directors, additional directors
• Power to remove key managerial personnel

[OR]

(b) Write about the contribution of Drucker to management.
Answer:
“Management is a multipurpose organ that manages a business and manages manager, and manages worker and work.”— Peter F. Drucker: The Practice of Management.
Drucker stresses three jobs of management:

• Managing a business;
• Managing manager; and
• Managing workers and work.

Even if one is omitted, It would not have management anymore and it also would’not have a business enterprise or an industrial society. According to P. Drucker, the manager has to balance and integrate three major jobs of a business enterprise as mentioned above. Hence, a manager is a dynamic and life-giving element in every business. Without efficient management it cannot be possible to secure the best allocation and utilisation of human, material and financial resources.

Question 43.
(a) Distinguish between new issue market and secondary market.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Explain the functions of Stock Exchange. (Any 5)
Answer:

• Ready and Continuous Market: Stock exchange helps the investors to sell his securities easily. And also he can convert his cash into securities.
• Correct Evaluation of Securities: The prices at which securities are bought and sold are recorded and informed to the public. These prices are called “market quotations”.
• Protection to Investors: All dealings in a stock exchange are in accordance with well-defined rules and regulations. Any malpractice will be severely punished.
• Proper Channelisation of Capital: People like to invest in the shares of companies which yield good profits. Also people invest in the companies which are giving good dividends.
• Facilities for Speculation: Speculation is an integral part of stock exchange operations. As a result of speculation, demand for and supply of securities are equalized.

Question 44.
(a) Explain the different methods of recruitment.
Answer:
Recruitment means selecting the right person for the right job. There are basically two ways by which an organisation can recruit its employees – Internal and External sources. External sources can further be classified into Direct and Indirect sources.

Internal Sources:
Transfer, Upgrading, Promotion, Demotion, Recommendation by existing Employees, Job rotation, Retired employees, Dependants, Previous applicants, Acquisitions and Mergers.

External Sources:

• Direct – Advertisements, Unsolicited applicants, Walk-ins, Campus Recruitment, Recruitment at Factory gate, Rival firms, e-Recruitment.
• Indirect – Employee referral, Govemment/Public Employment Exchanges, Employment Agencies, Employment Consultancies, Professional Associations, Deputation, Word of mouth, Labour Contractors, Job Portals, Outsourcing, Poaching.

[OR]

(b) State the advantages of warehousing.
Answer:

• Goods produced may be stored till the time of demand. Hence the goods are stored in warehouses.
• Also the goods are stored till the goods have good quality.
• Warehouses create time utility by storing the goods throughout the year and release them as and when they are needed.

Several types of warehouses are used for storing of goods.
They are as follows:

• Public warehouse
• Private warehouse
• Bonded warehouse

Question 45.
(a) Explain the duties of consumers.
Answer:
Apart from rights, there are certain duties imposed on the consumer. The following are the
duties of consumers:

• Buying Quality Products at Reasonable Price: It is the duty of a consumer to purchase a product after gaining a thorough knowledge of its price, quality and other terms and conditions.
• Ensure the Weights and Measurement before Purchase: The consumer should ensure that he/she is getting the product of exact weight and measure.
• Reading the Label Carefully: It is the duty of the consumer to read the label of the product thoroughly.
• Beware of False and Attractive Advertisements: It is the prime duty of the consumer about the genuineness of the advertisement, before purchasing the product.
• Ensuring the Receipt of Cash Bill: It is a legitimate duty of consumers to get the cash receipt and warranty card supplied along with the bill.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the role of macro environment of business.
Answer:
This is the general or overall environment in which the business operates. The success of a business is dependent on its ability to adapt to the macro environment.

Role of Macro-environment:

• The business is an integral part of the economic system prevalent in a nation.
• Business is a part of the society. Social environment refers to the sum total of factors of the society in which the business is located.
• The success of a business lies in its ability to adapt and sustain to political and legal changes. The legislative, executive and judiciary are the three political institutions which directs and influences a business.
• The natural, geographical and ecological factors have a bearing on the business.

Question 46.
(a) Distinguish between sale and agreement to sell.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Explain the different kinds of endorsements.
Answer:
When the person signs on the back of the instrument to transfer his interest, it is known as endorsement. The endorsements are of various types:

• Blank or general endorsement : When the endorser puts his mere signature on the back of an instrument without mentioning the name of the person to whom the endorsement is made, it is called Blank Endorsement
• Endorsement in full or special endorsement : If the endorser, in addition to his signature, mentions the name of the person to whom it is endorsed, is known as endorsement in full or special endorsement.
• Conditional endorsement : When the endorser of a negotiable instrument makes his liability dependent upon the happening of an event which may or may not happen, it is called conditional endorsement.
• Restrictive endorsement : When an endorsement restricts or prohibits further negotiability of the instrument, it is called Restrictive Endorsement.
• Partial Endorsement : Where the endorsement seeks to transfer only a part of the amount payable under the instrument, the endorsement is called Partial Endorsement.

Question 47.
(a) How do you classify entrepreneurs?
Answer:
Entrepreneurs are now broadly classified into three groups namely risk bearer, organiser and innovator.
(i) Entrepreneur as a risk bearer: Entrepreneurs acts as an agent combining all factors of production to produce a product or service in order to sell at uncertain price in future.

(ii) Entrepreneur as an organiser: Entrepreneur is one who brings together various factors of production and creates an entity to produce product or service and supervise and coordinates several functions in the process.

(iii) Entrepreneur as an innovator: According to Joseph A. Schumpeter in the year 1934 used innovation as a criterion to define an individual as entrepreneui.
According to him, entrepreneur is one who-

• Introduces a brand new product in the market.
• Institutes new technology to produce a new product.
• Discovers new course of supply of raw materials.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the nature of functional entrepreneurs.
Answer:
Nature of functional entrepreneurs:

• Innovative Entrepreneur: He is a person who introduces new project. They observe the environment regarding information to the new venture.
• Imitative Entrepreneur: He refers to the person who simply imitates existing knowledge or technology already in advance countries. Redesigning of products suited to the local conditions.
• Fabian Entrepreneur: These are said to be conservatives and sceptical about any changes in their organisation. They are of risk-averse.
• Drone Entrepreneur: Drone entrepreneurs are those who are totally opposed to changes in the environment. They used to operate in the niche market.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th English Model Question Paper 2

Time: 2 1/2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

General Instructions:

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
• Part II has got two sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 21 to 26 in Section I and Question numbers 27 to 30 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each.
• Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are of three marks each and have been divided in three sections. These are to be answered as directed.
• Question numbers 41 and 47 in Part IV are of five marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Part -1

I. Answer all the questions. [20 x 1 = 20]

Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 1.
I scraped the ice off the gauges.
(a) applied (b) saw (c) scratched (d) melted
Answer:
(c) scratched

Question 2.
We hoisted our oxygen gear on to our backs.
(a) dropped (b) swayed (c) hauled (d) hooked up
Answer:
(c) hauled

Question 3.
Liberty is a social contract.
(a) contact (b) confront (c) encounter (d) agreement
Answer:
(d) agreement

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 4.
There was a curious smothering noise from my friend.
(a) expressed (b) smoothened (c) smoothened (d) suffocated
Answer:
(a) expressed

Question 5.
The serenity was much admired.
(a) calmness (b) tranquillity (c) surrender (d) bustle
Answer:
(d) bustle

Question 6.
One can swallow considerable quantities without ill-effects.
(a) significant (b) sizeable (c) partly (d) large
Answer:
(c) partly

Question 7.
Choose the correct combination for the compound word ‘Tax payer’.
(a) Noun + Verb (b) Noun + Noun (c) Gerund + Noun (d) Preposition + Noun
Answer:
(b) Noun + Noun

Question 8.
Choose the correct expansion of IMP.
(a) Indian Maritime Department (b) India Meteorological Device (c) Indian Meteorological Department (d) India Meteorological Department
Answer:
(d) India Meteorological Department

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence:
At the meeting, the professors were schmoozing with the president of the club.
(a) talking in a friendly manner (b) brainstorming (c) gossiping (d) fighting
Answer:
(a) talking in a friendly manner

Question 10.
Choose the right combination for the blended word Interpol.
(a) Inter + Pol (b) India + Police (c) International + Police (d) Inter + Pal
Answer:
(c) International + Police

Question 11.
Choose die clipped word for gymnasium.
(a) gymum (b) gymna (c) gin (d) gym
Answer:
(d) gym

Question 12.
A strong desire to pen poetry is known as ……………….. .
(a) calligraphy (b) metromania (c) melodrama (d) decathlon
Answer:
(b) metromania

Question 13.
Form a derivative by adding the right prefix to the word ‘suspecting’.
(a) re- (b) im- (c) un- (d) mis-
Answer:
(c) un-

Question 14.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable relative pronoun.
It was Ausable …………………….. closed the door behind him.
(a) who (b) whose (c) whom (d) which
Answer:
(a) who

Question 15.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable preposition.
There was a delay before we went ………………………. the tunnel.
(a) across (b) above (c) into (d) through
Answer:
(d) through

Question 16.
Choose the correct question tag for the following statement. It’s not hot today ………………………..?
(a) is it (b) was it (c) will it (d) won’t it
Answer:
(a) is it

Question 17.
Choose the suitable meaning or idiom found in the following sentence.
Hari had a hard time comparing the iPhone to the Samsung phone because to him they were apples and oranges.
(a) similar (b) cannot be compared (c) comparing with fruits (d) was hungry
Answer:
(b) cannot be compared

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative. Surya was lazy.
(a) motivational (b) emotional (c) motivationally deficient (d) sensitive
Answer:
(c) motivationally deficient

Question 19.
Choose the correct sentence pattern for the following sentence. He smiled uncomfortably.
(a) SVO (b) SVIODO (c) SVCA (d) SVA
Answer:
(d) SVA

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable phrasal verb. The lorry was going slowly, blocking our way, but we managed to ……………………….
(a) pull ahead (b) pull through (c) pull towards (d) pull behind
Answer:
(a) pull ahead

Part II
Section – 1

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four from it. [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“Oh then our maze of tunneled stone ‘
Grew thin and treacherous as air”
(a) What is the figure of speech in the first line?
(b) Mention the poetic device employed in the second line.
Answer:
(a) The figure of speech in the first line is metaphor.
(b) Simile is the poetic device employed in the second line.

Question 22.
“One equal temper of heroic hearts,
Made weak by time and fate, but strong in will To strive, to seek, to find, and not to yield”
(а) Though made weak by time and fate, the hearts are heroic. Explain.
(b) Pick out the words in alliteration in the above lines.
Answer:
(a) Ulysses and his compatriots might have become old and may not have the same strength they had in youth. But they still share the thirst for travel and pursuit of knowledge in the unexplored world. Their bravery and spiritual strength are intact. .
(b) Strive, seek, heroic, hearts are the words that alliterate.

Question 23.
“Atfirst the infant,
Mewling and puking in the nurse’s arms.”
(а) What does man do in the first stage of life?
(b) Explain, ‘Mewling and pucking’.
Answer:
(a) In the first stage of life man plays the role of an infant. He is always crying and vomiting in the nurse’s arms.
(b) It means crying and vomiting.

Question 24.
“ What is that dirge-like murmur that I hear Like the sea breaking on a shingle-beach?
It is the tree’s lament, an eerie speech,”
(а) What do you mean by dirge?
(b) Why does the tree lament?
Answer:
(a) ‘Dirge’ means a lament for the dead.
(b) The tree laments the absence of the poet.

Question 25.
“The Chief’s eye flashed; his plans Soared up again like fire.”
(а) Who is described as the chief?
(b) Identify the figure of speech employed.
Answer:
(a) Napoleon Bonaparte is described as the chief.
(b) Simile.

Question 26.
“and guide him among sudden betrayals and tighten him for slack moments
(a) What could guide the son among unexpected betrayals?
(b) What could happen to the boy during slack moments?
Answer:
(a) Rock/steel-like would guide the son among betrayals.
(b) During slack moments, the boy may be betrayed by his trusted friends.

Section – 2

Answer any three of the following questions. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Answer:
Padma : Did you see the dentist last week?
Devi : No, I will be seeing the dentist next week.
Padma asked Devi if she had seen the dentist the previous week. Devi said that she had not and that she would be seeing the dentist the following week.

Question 28.
She must buy a ticket. Otherwise she will not be allowed to watch the programme, (combine using if)
Answer:
If she does not buy a ticket, she will not be allowed to watch the programme.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
If I had been there, this problem wouldn’t have happened.
Answer:
Had I been there, this problem wouldn’t have happened.

Question 30.
Though Andrew has an unconventional swing, he manages to drive the ball farther than some professional golfers. (Change the following into a compound sentence)
Answer:
Andrew has an unconventional swing but he manages to drive the ball farther than some professional golfers.

Part-III
Section -1

Explain any two of the following with reference to the context. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 31.
Our only enemy was gold
Answer:
Reference: This line is from Edwin Muir’s poem “The Castle”.

Context: The helpless soldier says this while being surprised by the enemies who bribed the wicked wicket gate keeper.

Explanation: The soldier was initially proud of their fortified castle, brave and loyal soldiers and pile of arms and the well-stocked granary to last a siege. There was vigil behind the turret wall. But he was not aware of the enemy within the human soul: the greed. Gold was their enemy for which they had no weapon. The wizened warder had let the enemy in through the wicket gate by taking “gold”. The weakness of the gatekeeper for gold made the strong castle weak.

Question 32.
How dull it is to pause, to make an end,
To rust unburnished, not to shine in use!
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Ulysses” written by Alfred Tennyson.

Context: The poet says these words while discussing the mental agony of Ulysses who is unable to settle down with his ageing wife Penelope and son Telemachus.

Explanation: Ulysses finds doling out justice to a savage people as ‘boring’. He does not want to settle down and die in Ithaca. He compares himself to a sword which may rust if left unused. He wants to lead an active and adventurous life till his death.

Question 33.
“‘I’m killed, Sire! ’And, his Chief beside,
Smiling, the boy fell dead.
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Incident of the French Camp” written by Robert Browning.

Contex: The poet says these words while explaining the hurt reaction of the boy-soldier.

Explanation: Instead of being carried away for first aid, he hurried on horse back to communicate the news of conquest of Ratisbon despite his chest being split into two. When emperor Napoleon expressed his grief on his wounded status, the boy soldier said, “Nay I’m killed sire.”

Section – 2

Answer any two of the following questions in about 30 words. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 34.
What made the boys join the resistance movement against the Germans?
Answer:
The boys hated the Germans who had destroyed their town and killed their father. So, they joined the resistance movement against the Germans.

Question 35.
Elucidate the author’s ideas about teapots.
Answer:
The teapot should be made of China or earthen ware. Silver or Britannia ware teapot produce inferior quality tea. Enamel pots are worse. Though curiously enough a pewter teapot, a rarity nowadays, is not so bad.

Question 36.
How were the achievers welcomed by fellow climbers?
Answer:
Two figures came towards them a couple of hundred feet about their camp. They were George Lowe and Wilfrid Noyce, and it was thoughtful of them because Hillary’s oxygen ran out just then.

Section – 3

Answer any three of the following questions in about 30 words. [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie chart given and answer the questions that follow. Expenditure in book Publishing
(a) For what does the publisher spend the maximum while publishing a book?
(b) How much expenditure is incurred on printing?
(c) How much percent royalty goes to the author?
Answer:
(a) A publisher spends the maximum in binding the books.
(b) Twenty five percent of the expenditure is incurred on printing.
(c) The royalty for the author is 15%.

Question 38.
Write a dialogue of minimum 3 exchanges between a Teacher and a student.
Answer:
Teacher : Why are you late today?
Student: I went to hospital with my mother.
Teacher : Who is sick?
Student: My mother is down with a viral infection.
Teacher : Couldn’t your father accompany her to the hospital?
Student: I am afraid that there wasn’t any alternative as my father was out of station.

Question 39.
Describe the process of making bricks.
Answer:

• In the first stage, the raw material clay is dug from the soil by a digger and lumps of clay are placed on a metal grid and broken into smaller pieces, which fall through a roller.
• They are later mixed with sand and water to make a uniform mixture.
• Brick-shaped pieces are subsequently formed either by using a mould or by cutting the clay mix with a wire cutter.
• The raw bricks are then hardened, stacked in a drying oven and left for one or two days. The dried bricks are finally heated in a kiln, first to a moderate temperature and then to a high temperature.
• They are finally transferred to a chamber to cool and harden slowly over two to three days before being transported to customers.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the word given below.
(a) When in Rome as Romans do. (do, act, behave)
(b) A leopard can’t change its (tail, nature, spots)
(c) A burnt child fire, (fears, dreads, hates)
Answer:
(a) do (b) spots (c) dreads

Part – IV

Answer the following questions: [7 x 5 = 35]
Answer in a paragraph in about 150 words.

Question 41.
Adversity brings out the best as well as the worst in people. Elucidate this statement with reference to the story, ‘Two Gentlemen of Verona’.
Answer:
Whenever confronted by an adversity, there is a psychological reaction among most of us. Either fight or flee from it. Even adults run away from crisis and seek asylum or support of others. We find hordes of people, when living becomes difficult, migrate to other places to survive. In the face of adversity, even educated people turn to evil ways. They worked hard from dawn to midnight. They did any job that came their way. They shined shoes, hawked newspapers, sold wild fruits and took the people round the city.

They spent very little on their food and clothes. Every week they cycled to Poleta and paid Lucia’s medical bill systematically. In this story, the nurse of the private hospital reveals the bitter truth about the economy of Verona. Jobs are scarce. There is inflation. It is difficult to buy food with limited money. When the hospital laid the condition that the little boys Nicola and Jacopo should pay the weekly medical bill for their sister Lucia’s treatment for tuberculosis, they did not back off or give up. Their best qualities came out during adversity. Like tea leaves, they gave their best while in hot waters.

[OR]

‘There is no height, no depth that the spirit of man, guided by higher Spirit cannot attain’. Discuss the above statement in the context of the achievement of Edmund Hillary and Tenzing.
Answer:
Man is naturally endowed with an indomitable spirit. Guided by powers above, man reaches great height. The grit and persistence of both Hillary and Tenzing stand testimony to the above maxim. The conditions were really overwhelming. Hillary slipped many times. Once he even sought the advisability of continuing the climb under such conditions. But Tenzing and Hillary resolved to persist and conquer the peak. As a reward to 400 feet climb near the south summit, they got two bottles of oxygen which in fact kept them alive almost up to their base camp.

Both pick up the pieces of hopes only when they come into contact with firmer rock-like ice as they moved up. Though they had to inch their way up clearing snow with the ice-axe and making a path to haul themselves up ridge after ridge in the elusive terrain, they did not give up. As Hillary’s ice-axe bit into the first steep slop of the ridge, his hopes were realized. The snow was crystalline and firm. With just two or three blows, Hillary could make a step large enough for their oversized high altitude boots.

They could create comfortable belays and trudge forward with confidence. As the humps were continuously seen, their original zest started declining. It was at this point Hillary saw a narrow ridge up to a snowy summit. With a few more whacks of the ice-axe in the form of snow, they reached the top.

Question 42.
Why did the narrator say that their “only enemy was gold”?
Answer:
The narrator was very proud of the awe-inspiring castle. The soldiers were least bothered about the enemy who was just half a mile away. They had a well -guarded, tall, smooth and insurmountable fort. They were led by a brave captain. The soldiers were loyal and ready to lay down their lives for protecting the castle and the trusting citizens of their country. There was constant vigil from the turret wall to shoot down the enemy at sight.

They were proud that only a bird could have the temerity to scale over the fortified castle. They were even prepared for a siege as they had well-stocked granaries. In the event of the outbreak of a war, allies were ready to rush with their assured forces in support of them. But the soldiers were unaware of the truth, “the strength of the strongest chain lies in its weakest link”. An aged warder of a wicked wicket gate had a cancerous growth of greed.

As the enemy was hidden within the soul of their own citizen, they had no weapon to fight it. Gold was ultimately their enemy. The wicked gate keeper betrayed his country for a bag full of gold. The great citadel fell without even a groan of protest and without shedding “a jot of blood.”

[OR]

Napoleon was a great source of inspiration to his army Justify.
Answer:
Napoleon was a powerful orator and was able to muster the support of young soldiers who could gladly throw away their lives for the glory of France and for fulfilling the ambitious plans of territorial expansion of Napoleon Bonaparte. He inspired unprecedented courage among the soldiers.

They never worried about the strength of the enemy army or their pile of armaments. They faced the battles with the single minded determination to ‘do or die’ or do and die. They kissed death for the glorification of France and for making Napoleon proud of their heroism, sacrifices and patriotism.

Question 43.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints:
Martha and John – grudge – underpaid two decades – punishment – condemned the bribe – abusive language – one hundred thousand dollars – changed attitude – testify – three words – corrupt practices.
Answer:
Martha and John cherished a grudge against Gresham for having underpaid Baldwin for about two decades. They openly said that he deserved punishment. Initially Gresham condemned the bribe claimed as a difference in salary paid. Had he been made a similar offer he claimed he would have asked him to go to the devil. Baldwin said that having been a friend he couldn’t use such an abusive language. Casually John asked how much he offered.

Baldwin said that it was one hundred thousand dollars. Suddenly Martha and John changed their attitude towards Gresham. John viewed a shame if Gresham got indicted because he shared his name. Martha also desperately tried to convince him not to testify against Gresham. John even suggested that he could say those three words “I don’t remember” as the depositor would not lose a cent. Baldwin felt miserable because the family members who he wanted to feel proud of his uprightness wanted him to crossover to the side of corrupt practices because of the generous offer made by Gresham.

[OR]

Atisable, private detective-automatic gun – Berlin – nice story – balcony – displeasure – hotel management – Ausable’s room – times of danger – pre-ordered drinks – blatant – lie – Max jumped – suicidal jump – outwitted the spy.
Answer:
Ausable was a shrewd private detective. He did not become panicky on seeing Max with an automatic gun in his room. Even if he were, he did not show it off. Instead, he expressed surprise that he expected him to be in Berlin. He cooked up a nice story that it was the second time someone had broken into his room through the balcony of the neighbouring apartment which reaches down under his window.

He expressed his displeasure that he would raise hell with the hotel management for not blocking that balcony. This gave a strong suggestion to Max, that he could have used the balcony instead of the pass key to enter Ausable’s room. Being a criminal or spy, a person always looks for various routes of escape in times of danger. Very rarely he starts direct encounter risking his life. When Henry, the waiter who arrived with the pre-ordered drinks, knocked, Mr. Ausable simply smiled.

When Max asked who it was, he told a blatant lie that it was the police who had come for his extra protection and wouldn’t hesitate to fire as the door wasn’t locked but just closed. Max, assuming that there is a balcony extending below Ausable’s window, jumped. He never knew that it was a suicidal jump from the sixth floor. Thus, Ausable outwitted the spy, Max.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Answer:
Residents of the Bhirung Raut Ki Gali, where Ustad Bishmillah Khan was bom on March 21,1916, were in a state of shock. His cousin, 94-year -old Mohd Idrish Khan had tears welled up in his eyes. Shubhan Khan, the care-taker of Bismillah’s land, recalled “Whenever in Dumaraon, he would give rupees two to the boys and rupees five to the girls of the locality”. He was very keen to play Shehnai again in the local Bihariji’s Temple where he had started playing Shehnai with his father, Bachai Khan, at the age of six.

His original name was Quamaruddin and became Bishmillah only after he became famous as a Shehnai player in Varanasi. His father Bachai Khan was the official Shehnai player of Keshav Prasad Singh, the Maharaja of the erstwhile Dumaraon estate, Bismillah used to accompany him. For Bismillah Khan, the connection to music began at a very early age. By his teens, he had already become a master of the Shehnai. On the day India got freedom, Bismillah Khan, then a sprightly young man of 31 years old, had the rare honour of playing from Red Fort.

But Bishmillah Khan won’t just be remembered for elevating the Shehnai from an installment heard only in weddings and Naubatkhanas to one that was appreciated in concert halls globally across the world. His life was a witness to the plurality that is India. A practicing Muslim, he would take a daily dip in River Ganges in his younger days after a bout of kusti in Benia Baga Akhada. Every morning, Bismillah Khan would do riyaaz at the Balaji temple on the banks of the river. Even during his final hours in a Varanasi hospital, music didn’t desert Bismillah Khan.

A few hours before he left this worldly home early on Monday, the Shehnai wizard hummed a thumri to show that he was feeling better. This was typical of a man for whom life revolved around music. Throughout his life, he abided by the principle that all religions are one and the same. What marked Bismillah Khan was his simplicity and disregard for the riches that come with musical fame. Till the very end, he used a cycle rickshaw to travel around Varanasi. But the pressure of providing for some 60 family members took its toll during his later years.

Summary

No. of words given in the original passage: 388
No. of words to be written in the summary: 388/3 = 129 ± 5

Rough Draft
Residents of the Bhirung Raut Ki Gali were shocked, where Ustad Bismillah Khan was born on March 21, 1916. Subhan Khan recalled that in Dumaraon, he would give Rs.2/- and 5/- to boys and girls respectively. He wanted to play Shehnai in Bihariji’s Temple to recall his childhood days withhls-Tather, Bachai Khan. His original name was Quamaruddin and became Bishmillah as a Shehnai player in varanasi. His father was the official Shehnai player of the Maharaja of Dumaraon estate. On the day India got freedom, 31 year old Bismillah, had the rare honour of playing from Red Fort.

He was appreciated globally. His life was a witness to the plurality that is India. A few hours before he died the Shehnai wizard hummed a thumri, typical of a man whose life revolved around music. Throughout his life, he abided by the principle that all religions are one and the same. His simplicity and disregard for the riches in spite of being famous was seen in his cycle rickshaw rides.

Fair Draft: Bismillah Khan – A Legend
Residents were shocked about Bishmillah Khan’s demise. Tears welled in an aged cousin. Shubhan recalled his generosity to children. Quamaruddin became Bishmillah as a Shehnai player and wanted to play in Bihariji’s Temple to recall his childhood days with his father, the official Shehnai player of Dumaraon. Bismillahmastered it during teenage. On the day of Independence, young Bismillah, played from Red Fort and appreciated globally.

He was a witness to the plurality in India. Being Muslim, he would dip in River Ganges and do riyaaz at the Balaji temple. During his final hours, the Shehnai wizard hummed a thumri, typical of a man whose life revolved around music. Throughout he believed that all religions were same. His disregard for riches was seen in his cycle rickshaw rides but providing for his family took its toll.

No. of words in the summary: 133

[OR]
Notes
Title: Bismillah Khan – A Legend
1. Shocked Death

• cousin Khan in tears
• caretaker of Dumaraon recalls
• Boys – Rs. 21- to boys ; Girls – Rs. 5/-

2. Early Years

• org. name Quamaruddin
• played shehnai with father at temp.
• got famous as Bismillah at Varanasi.

3. Music, a family heritage

• father: Dumarao’s court poet
• played Shehnai from 6 yrs.
• played Shehnai at Red Fort in 1947, age 31

4. Routine in Vans.

• dip in Ganges
• riyaz at Balaji Temp.
• Hummed thumri before his last breath.

5. Strong Belief in Secularism

• Bismillah bel. in secularism
• all religions are one and same
• a plurality of life, India
• Pract Islam

Abbreviations used: Rs – rupees; Org. – original; Temp. – temple; Yrs. – years; Fml. – family Mem. – member; Pract. – Practised; Bel. – believed.

Question 45.
You are Raja. You are upset about the bad influence of TY channels on the young children. Write a letter to the editor of a leading newspaper suggesting measures to upgrade the standard.
Answer:
20th Sept, 2020
From
XXX
YYY
zzz

To
The Mayor,
Municipal Corporation,
Chennai-600012.

Sir,
Sub: Provision for additional street lamps.
This is to bring to your notice that there is provision bf just one street light in every street on YYY Nagar in ZZZ locality. It is very scary to walk on the road as there are empty lands here and there with plants and bushes grown robustly. As a result, we have insects and snakes that come out of its shelter in search of food in the nights. There is also the problem of chain snatching. Additional lights will help us to walk safe in the locality.

We thereby request you to look into the matter, make provisions for additional lamp posts and also change the tube lights that aren’t working.

Thank you,

Yours faithfully,
XXX

Address on the envelope
To
The Mayor,
Municipal Corporation
Chennai- 600012

[OR]

Write a paragraph of 150 words on “Common Man’s Woes During Monsoon”.
Answer:
Common Man’s Woes During Monsoon

The much anticipated Monsoon brings relief from the sweltering heat. However Monsoon and madness visit us at the same time. Every year during the monsoons, pandemonium rules supreme. The roads are flooded; the sewage system falls; a huge loss of crops, fruits, life, and property is caused. Water logging and breeding of mosquitoes together becomes the reason for the rise of many diseases. Network connectivity gets weak.

Though we have benefitted from independence since 1947, the Indian Government has not been able to tackle the flood issues caused by monsoons. Recent floods have laid bare the emptiness of the claims of the civic authorities of their readiness. The poor had to bear the brunt of the problem.

One of the main causes behind this issue is the lack of stringent laws and accountability of the officials and the Ministries responsible for tackling the floods. The Government should formulate and pass strict laws regarding the projects launched to relieve people of their distress but there is hardly a sign of effective implementation of the scheme. There needs to be strict accountability.

When the Ministers will be accountable, they will ensure the officers, officials involved in the projects surely create better systems benefitting the public.

Question 46.
Spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly
(а) Mr. Johnson with his wife and children were present at the show.
(b) The quality of goods produced here are not upto the international standard.
(c) The prices quoted for this commodity at different shops is different.
(d) Either Sanjay or Raja are responsible for this crime.
(e) Bread and butter are his lunch.
Answer:
(a) Mr. Johnson along with his wife and children were present at the show.
(b) The quality of goods produced here is not up to the international standard.
(c) The price quoted for this commodity at different shops is different.
(d) Either Sanjay or Raja is responsible for this crime.
(e) Bread and butter is his lunch.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks correctly.
(a) Her baby is ………………. in December when the ………………. on the grass will be a rare sight to see. (dew/due)
(b) When I was young, I ………………. eat tons of ice cream! (use a modal verb)
(c) I ………………. drink coffee when I was young, (use a semi-modal)
(d) We ………………. (eat) the lasagna here, (use a proper tense)
Answer:
(a) due/dew
(b) could
(c) used to
(d) have eaten

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the field in the list given below, by understanding the word or words serving as the clue.
(a) Sometimes A-class facilities are extended to even those imprisoned.
(b) Did an asteroid hit south India millions of years ago?
(c) The investigations included megascopic and microscopic studies of rocks.
(d) Many foreigners come to watch Jallikatu at Madurai.
(e) The rapid depletion in indigenous aquatic plants would prove detrimental to wetlands.
[Astronomy; Law; Flora; Geology; Sports]
Answer:
(a) Law
(b) Astronomy
(c) Geology
(d) Sports
(e) Flora

[OR]

Read the following passage and answer the questions in your own words.
Answer:
The little boy of twelve will remember this day forever. It is not every day you get to see a world championship at Hyatt Regency on November 19, 20Question 13. The visit of the Children was the result of an initiative by the organizers of the tournament and the School education Department to get school Children by a part of the world championship. Many children from schools gathered to witness the ongoing world Championship and there was an overwhelming response.

Children got a chance to see Viswanathan Anand, Garry Kasparov, Magnus Carlsen and Vijayalakshmi. The entry being free, Children found it a rare and unforgettable opportunity. Student visitors were given a chance to spend an hour in the chess puzzles contest. No wonder the visitors would be hailed heroes in their schools after their visit to the spot. Children enthusiastically tried to move the big chess pieces at the hotel lobby, thereby founding that the city of Chennai would produce many masters of chess dazzling with intelligence and talent.

Questions:
a. What made the day memorable for children?
b. Name any two celebrities mentioned in the passage.
c. Mention the purpose for which the visit of the children had been organized.
d. Which places were the student visitors permitted in to?
e. How did the children try to prove their powers and interest in the game?
Answers:
(a) World Championship at Hyatt made the day memorable for children.
(b) Children got a chance to see Viswanathan Anand and Garry Kasparov.
(c) The children from many schools were brought to witness the ongoing world Championship in Chess.
(d) The children were permitted into the Hyatt Regency lobby.
(e) Children enthusiastically tried to move the big chess pieces at the hotel lobby. Student visitors were also given a chance to spend an hour in the chess puzzles contest.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Paper 1 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th English Model Question Paper 1

Time: 2 1/2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

General Instructions:

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
• Part II has got two sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 21 to 26 in Section I and Question numbers 27 to 30 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each.
• Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are of three marks each and have been divided in three sections. These are to be answered as directed.
• Question numbers 41 and 47 in Part IV are of five marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Part -1

I. Answer all the questions. [20 x 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 1.
We may choose to be wise or ridiculous.
(a) funny (b) earnest (c) critical (d) serious
Answer:
(a) funny

Question 2.
Tenzing kicked steps in a long traverse.
(a) vertical movement (b) diving (c) jumping (d) crisscross
Answer:
(d) crisscross

Question 3.
Suffering ennobles you.
(a) destroys (b) dignifies (c) distresses (d) encourages
Answer:
(b) dignifies

Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the options given:

Question 4.
Liberties of everybody must be curtailed.
(a) restricted (b) reduced (c) constrained (d) increased
Answer:
(d) increased

Question 5.
With effort I could muster my arms and shoulder.
(a) collect (b) give (c) lose (d) gather
Answer:
(c) lose

Question 6.
He was a walking horror.
(a) delight (b) shock (c) disgust (d) fear
Answer:
(a) delight

Question 7.
Choose the correct combination for the compound word ‘merciless’.
(a) Noun + Verb (b) Noun + Adjective (c) Gerund + Noun (d) Preposition + Noun
Answer:
(b) Noun + Adjective

Question 8.
Choose the correct expansion of VAT.
(a) Value Added Task (b) Value Added Time, (c) Value Addictive Task (d) Value Added Tax
Answer:
(d) Value Added Tax

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence:
The guerrilla fighters took control of the capital of the country, which gave them control of the government.
(a) civil war (b) monkey war (c) little war (d) giant war
Answer:
(c) little war

Question 10.
Choose the right combination for the blended word adflation.
(a) ad + flation (b) advertisement + inflation (c) advt + elation (d) advt + flation
Answer:
(a) ad + flation

Question 11.
Choose the clipped word for influenza.
(a) flu (b) influ (c) inf (d) fluenz
Answer:
(a) flu

Question 12.
The craze for collecting postage stamps is known as ………………………
(a) Melomania (b) parricide (c) pragmatist (d) stampomania
Answer:
(d) stampomania

Question 13.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word ‘reconcile’.
(a) -ment (b) -ion (c) -able (d) -ly
Answer:
(a) -ment

Question 14.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable relative pronoun.
The management is the one …………………….. promised to block it off.
(a) which (b) where (c) who (d) whose
Answer:
(a) which

Question 15.
Fill in the blanks with a suitable preposition.
I got ………………………. the horse.
(a) above (b) by (c) onto (d) from
Answer:
(c) onto

Question 16.
Choose the correct question tag for the following statement.
You met Seth yesterday, ………………………….?
(a) won’t you (b) didn’t you (c) will you (d) don’t you
Answer:
(b) didn’t you

Question 17.
Choose the suitable meaning for the idiom found in the following sentence.
Sasidharan was accusing us of stealing his phone until he found it, and now he’s trying to sweep it under the rug.
(a) hiding under the rug (b) pretend that the incident never happened (c) sweeping the floor (d) make up for his mistake
Answer:
(b) pretend that the incident never happened

Question 18.
Replace the underlined word with a euphemistic expression.
The Government bans ethnic cleansing of the disabled.
(a) infanticide (b) matricide (c) regicide (d) genocide
Answer:
(d) genocide

Question 19.
Choose the correct sentence pattern for the following sentence.
Their selfless action gave a promise for human society.
(a) SVIODO (b) SVOA (c) SVOC (d) SVO
Answer:
(b) SVOA

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable phrasal verb.
The burglars had to ……………………… all the jewels and money that had gone missing.
(a) account to (b) account in (c) account for (d) account towards
Answer:
(c) account for

Part II
Section – 1

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four from it. [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“All through the summer at ease we lay,
And daily from the turret wall
We watched the mowers in the hay’”
(a) Who does ‘we’ refer to?
(b) How did the soldiers spend the summer days?
Answer:
(a) “We” refers to the brave and loyal soldiers in the castle.
(b) They spent the summer days gazing out of the castle. They were ready to shoot the enemy at sight who were at half-a kilometer distance. But none came near. So, they were relaxed.

Question 22.
“ Thro ’ scudding drifts the rainy Hyades Vext the dim sea: I am become a name;”
(a) What is the figure of speech employed in the above lines?
(b) What is Hyades?
Answer:
(a) Personification is the figure of speech employed in the above lines.
(b) Hyades is a group of stars in the constellation Taurus often associated with rain.

Question 23.
“Full-galloping: nor bridle drew Until he reached the mound.”
(a) Why was the rider in a hurry?
(b) Where did the soldier stop? Why?
Answer:
(a) The rider was carrying an urgent message to Napoleon Bonaparte.
(b) The soldier stopped at the mound. Napoleon Bonaparte was expecting news about the outcome of the battle at Ratisbon.

Question 24.
“Mine inner vision rose a form sublime,
Thy form, O Tree, as in my happy prime
I saw thee, in my own loved native clime.”
(a) What rose in the mind of the poet?
(b) What was found in the sublime inner vision?
Answer:
(a) A glorious inner vision rose in the mind of the poet.
(b) The tree’s youthful and handsome figure was found in the inner vision of the poet.

Question 25.
“Brutes have been gentled where lashes failed.”
(a) When does the Government or law use lashes?
(b) What can transform brutes?
Answer:
(a) When a brute has committed a crime, the law uses lashes to punish him.
(b) Gentleness can transform brutes.

Question 26.
“Then a soldier.
Full of strange oaths, and bearded like the pard,
Jealous in honour, sudden and quick in quarrel,”
(a) Describe the two traits of a soldier.
(b) What is the poetic device used in : ‘bearded like the pard’?
Answer:
(a) A soldier is always ready to swear and is full of oaths. He is ever ready to compete for honour and glory.
(b) The poet uses a simile for comparison.

Section – 2

Answer any three of the following questions. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Answer:
Annette : I want to order a big pineapple cake for my husband’s birthday.
Confectioner : When is his birthday and at what time do you want it to be delivered?
Annette told the Confectioner that she wanted to order a big pineapple cake for her husband’s birthday. The confectioner asked Annette when his birthday was and at what time she wanted it to be delivered.

Question 28.
You must read the clause carefully. Otherwise you will not understand it. (combine using if)
Answer:
If you do not read the clause carefully, you will not understand it.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
If they had arrived sooner, they could have prevented this tragedy!
Answer:
Had they arrived sooner, they could have prevented this tragedy!

Question 30.
Even though he suffered from arthritis, he studied hard because he wanted to go to medical school. (Change the following into a simple sentence)
Answer:
In spite of him suffering from arthritis, he studied hard because he wanted to go to medical school.
Or
Despite suffering from arthritis, he studied hard because he wanted to go to medical school.

Part-III
Section -1

III. Answer any two of the following with reference to the context. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 31.
Sung darkling from our tree, while men repose.
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Our Casuarina Tree” written by Torn Dutt.

Context: The poet says this while describing Casuarina and its inhabitants at night.

Explanation: The Casuarina Tree allows the birds and animals to abide in it. At night, the garden overflows with endless melodious song sung by the dark king from the Casuarina Tree. It is a kind of a lullaby to sleeping humans.

Question 32.
They have their exits and their entrances;
And one man in his time plays many parts,
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘All the world’s a stage’ written by William Shakespeare.

Context: The poet says this while hinting at the beginning and the end of life.

Explanation: The poet divides man’s life into seven stages. The first stage symbolises birth and the last stage death. So, he uses the words “entrances and exits”.

Question 33.
To see your flag-birdflap his vans Where I, to heart’s desire, Perched him!
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Incident of the French Camp” written by Robert Browning.

Context: The narrator says these through the boy-soldier while explaining his role in the final stages of storming of Ratisbon.

Explanation: The boy soldier flung himself in the midst of battle and risked his life. He did not bother about his death. He doggedly carried out the mission of hoisting French national flag. After announcing that the battle was won he proudly says that he himself hoisted French Flag to his heart’s content at the Market place in Ratisbon.

Section – 2

Answer any two of the following questions in about 30 words. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 34.
How does George Orwell explode the myth about the harmfulness of tea leaves?
Answer:
In some countries, tea pots are fitted with little dangling baskets under the spout to catch the stray leaves which are supposed to be harmful. The author asserts that one can swallow tea leaves in considerable quantities without ill-effect. He claims that if the tea is not loose in the pot it never infuses properly with the hot beverage (i.e.) tea.

Question 35.
What did Tenzing and Edmund Hillary gift to the God of lofty Summit? How did they do it?
Answer:
A hole was made in the ice where Tenzing placed reverentially a bar of chocolate, a packet of biscuits, and a handfull of lollies. As Hillary remembered that his team head Col. Hunt had requested to place a crucifix after reaching the peak. So, he also made a hole in the snow and placed the crucifix beside Tenzing’s gift to the Gods. Devout Buddhists believed that at least a small token of gift should be left with Gods who have their homes in that lofty Everest.

Question 36.
What is ‘liberty’ according to the old lady?
Answer:
According to the Russian old lady, liberty is the right to walk in the middle of the road. She is liberty-drunk. She wasn’t aware that if the pedestrian chooses to walk down the middle of the road, then the end of such liberty would be a universal chaos.

Section – 3

Answer any three of the following questions in about 30 words. [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie chart given and answer the questions that follow.

(a) What is the mode of transport preferred by most of the students?
(b) How many students prefer bus?
(c) What does the remaining students prefer?
Answer:
(a) Bicycle is preferred by most of the students.
(b) Thirty percent of students prefer to come by bus.
(c) The remaining students prefer to come by car or by walk to school.

Write a dialogue of minimum 3 exchanges between a fresher and a company manager.
Answer:
Manager : Good Morning Vikram. please take your seat.
Vikram : Good morning Sir. Thank you.
Manager : I understand that you are a First class Engineering graduate. Tell us about yourself.
Vikram : Well, I hail from a village in Iddayangudi and my parents are fanners.
Manager : If given an opportunity, can you handle project presentations on your own?
Vikram : Yes certainly Sir as I am well versed in Computer and have done various presentations during my course of study.

Question 39.
Describe the process of how to knot a bow tie.
Answer:
Place the tie around the neck, with one end slightly longer than the other.
Then place the longer end over the other and pass it upwards and behind the point where the two ends cross.
Next, take the other end of the tie and bend it twice to form an ‘S’ shape.
Bring the longer end down and in front, so that it holds the ‘S’ curve in place.
Now comes the trickiest part of the process when you have to take the long end of the tie and form a similar ‘S’ shape before passing it through the narrow gap behind the other end.
This creates a knot and the bow should now be held securely in place.
Finally, adjust both sides of the bow to make it symmetrical.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the word given below.
(a) A bad ……………………….. makes a bad ending, (plan, beginning, plot)
(b) All roads lead to ……………………….. (Paris, London, Rome)
(c) ……………………….. have ears. (Walls, Floors, Windows)
Answer:
(a) beginning (b) Rome (c) Walls

Part – IV

Answer the following questions: [7 x 5 = 35]
Answer in a paragraph in about 150 words.

Question 41.
Summarise George Orwell’s distinctive ideas in “A Nice Cup of Tea”.
Answer:
Tea is one of the mainstays of civilizations of UK, New Zealand, Australia and Eire. But, it is not found in the recipes of cookeiy books. The nicest manner in which tea must be prepared has become a subject matter of violent disputes among tea loving persons even within a family. Indian tea fits in with the author’s description of “nicest cup of tea” as it rejuvenates the drinker with wisdom, stimulation, bravery and optimism. One cup of strong tea is equal to twenty weak ones.

Best tea is prepared by boiling tea leaves first and then adding milk to taste. Milk first schools and tea first schools still fight. Tea prepared in earthen pot or china ware is good. The real flavour of tea should never be imprisoned by strainers. Consuming tea leaves will not harm one’s health. Adding sugar to tea will naturally ruin its real flavour and taste.

The author advises misguided people who drink sweet tea to desist from the practice for a fortnight. He guarantees them that they would like the natural taste of tea and would never again add sugar to tea. Tea should be taken in a cylindrical or breakfast cup to enjoy it. Shallow and flat cups don’t retain wannth and taste for a long time.

Or

Life is unjust and cruel to certain people. Do they all resign themselves to their fate? Can you think of some who have fought their disabilities heroically and remained a stellar example for others? (for e.g. the astrophysicist Stephen Hawking, a paraplegic). Give an account of one such person and his/her struggle to live a fruitful life.

Alexis Leon lives in Kakkanad, Kerala. He passed B.Tech from the university of Kerala with first rank. Then he did his M.Tech. He met with an accident in 1993 which left him paralysed from chest down and confined him to a wheel chair for the rest of his life. After a brief spell of dejection owing to a suspended marriage, he made up his mind to write books. He has written 50 books for Engineering graduates.

His notable work is ‘Internet for Everyone’ and ‘A Guide to Software Configuration Management’. He is also a mentor at International Mentoring Network Association. He offers software consultancy to international IT companies. He travels across the world and delivers lectures to graduates and Corporates. His indomitable will has made him strong. He has become a light house for many aspirants in the software industry.

Question 42.
Shakespeare has skilfully brought out the parallels between the life of man and actors on stage. Elaborate this statement with reference to the poem.
Answer:
Shakespeare has beautifully compared the growth of humans by stages with his emergent role during that stage. In the first stage man plays the role of an infant. As an infant, he does represent characterisation of mewling and puking. In the second Act, he does the role of a school boy with the characteristics of unwillingness to go to schools and innocence shining in his face. In the third Act, he performs the role of a lover head over heels in love with a beautiful lady. He composes woeful romantic ballads and sings serenades to impress his love. In the fourth act, he plays the impressive role of a short-tempered, honour pursuing soldier.

He is ready to put his mouth in the Cannon’s mouth for conquering the bubble like honour in order to defend the territory of his countiy. In the fifth Act, he performs the role of a mature and fair judge criticising the ways of the world often spicing up his conversations with wise remarks and wit. His pot belly and well-cut beard shows the social status he enjoys in life. In the sixth act, he is old. He performs the role of a thin old man wearing ill-fitting loose garments with a changed treble in his voice.

He is bespectacled and slow in walking. In the final act, he becomes a total invalid losing all senses of hearing, taste and sight. Then the performer leaves the stage (i.e.) the lonely planet.

[OR]

How according to the poet is it possible for his son to bring changes into a world that resents change?
The poet advises his son to introspect often and not feel ashamed of being called a fool especially when he pursues knowledge. He can examine himself and remove his follies. He must enjoy the advantages of solitude. Solitude would help him to be creative. He would invariably learn that final decisions are always taken in silent rooms. Being alone, he can identify his innate potential and talents. His free imagination will bring about changes even if the world resents them. The zest to bring about changes will elevate him to the level of Shakespeare, Pasteur, Wright Brothers, Pavlov and Michael Faraday. Thus he will be remembered as one of the great men who changed the world.

Question 43.
Develop the hints into a paragraph.
Aksionov, meek – fellow prisoners respect – prison authorities – old man unjustly punished – speaks truth – prison shelf dug – newcomer Semyonich – could be the culprit – suspicion – all prisoners summoned – denied – some quiet – betray – Governor – enormous trust in Aksionov – stayed quiet.
Answer:

Aksionov was a merchant who was condemned for a murder he had not committed. He waits for God’s justice. Meanwhile in prison he learnt to make boots and earned a little money. Aksionov was meek. Fellow prisoners, having realized that he was innocent, respected him and called him grandfather. The prison authorities also believed that the religious old man must have been unjustly punished. They knew Aksionov never told lies. The prison authorities found out that someone had been digging the prison shelf to escape. They doubted that newcomer Semyonich could be the culprit. But they could not nail him on the grounds of suspicion alone. All the prisoners were summoned and enquired including Semyonich. All denied any knowledge of it. Those who knew kept quiet because they knew Semyonich will get flogged if someone betrayed him. As no one was ready to tell the truth, the Governor, who had enormous trust in the nobility and honesty of Aksionov asked him to tell the truth. But Aksionov preferred to stay quiet.

[OR]

Richard Parker calmed Pi – irony of life – peace, purpose and wholeness – same boat – Pi’s personality – Parker’s presence – realized danger and peace – innate strength – tiger – less tormenting – loneliness and despair – chances of survival – middle of Pacific Ocean – optimistic, balanced and stoical – thanks to the presence of Parker.
Answer:
Pi was alone and orphaned. He was drifting in the middle of pacific ocean hanging on to the oar. The elements of nature which threatened his survival the previous night had calmed down. The life boat did not sink. It was Richard Parker who calmed down Pi. The irony of life is that the animal that scared him witless to start with was the same who brought him peace, purpose and even wholeness. They were literally and figuratively in the same boat. They had to live together.

A part of Pi’s personality was glad about Parker’s presence, who gave him the will to hang on to life under the toughest conditions. He realized danger and peace can co-exist when one is aware of one’s innate strength. He realizes the fact that staying with a tiger is less tormenting than living alone with despair. Loneliness and despair can easily kill a person.

He decided to focus on the chances of survival and shut off the tragic circumstances he was placed in a lonely boat in the middle of Pacific Ocean. In short, he became optimistic, balanced and stoical in his attitude to life. Thanks to the presence of Richard Parker.

Question 44.
Write a summary or make notes of the following passage.
Answer:
There is an enemy beneath our feet – an enemy more deadly for his complete neutrality. He recognizes no national frontiers, no political parties. Everyone in the world is endangered by him. The enemy is the earth itself. When an earthquake strikes, the world trembles. The power of a quake is greater than anything man himself can produce.

But today scientists are directing a great deal of their effort into finding some way of battling earthquakes, and it is possible that at some time in the near future mankind will discover a means of protecting itself from earthquakes. An earthquake strikes without warning.

When it does, its power is immense. If it strikes a modem city, the damage is very immense. When gas cylinders burst, explosions are caused and fires start. Underground railways are wrecked. Buildings collapse, bridges fall, dams burst, and gaping crevices appear in busy streets. If the quake strikes at sea, huge tidal waves sweep inland. If it strikes in mountain regions, avalanches roar down into the valley.

Consider the terrifying statistics from the past 1755: Lisbon, capital of Portugal – the city destroyed entirely and 450 were killed. 1970: Peru: 50,000 were killed. In 1968 an earthquake struck Alaska. As this is a relatively depopulated part, only a few people were killed. But it is likely that this was one of the most powerful quakes ever to have hit the world.

Geologists estimate that during the tremors, the whole of the state moved over 80 feet farther west into the Pacific Ocean. Imagine the power of something that can move an entire subcontinent!

This is the problem that the scientists face. They are dealing with forces so immense that man cannot hope to resist them. All that can be done is to try to pinpoint just where the earthquake will strike and work from there. At least some protective measures can then be taken to save lives and some of the property.

Summary

No. of words given in the original passage: 326
No. of words to be written in the summary: 326/3 = 108 ± 5

Rough Draft
The enemy, Earth more deadly for neutrality, recognizes no national frontiers, no political parties Everyone is endangered by him. When an earthquake strikes, the world trembles and is powerful. Today-scientists are finding ways of battling earthquakes which strikes without warning. In a modem city the damage is immense.

When gas cylinders burst, explosions trigger fires and damages occur. If the quake strikes at sea, huge tidal waves sweep inland. Iin mountain regions, avalanches roar down the valley. Once Alaska escaped because it is thinly populated unlike other countries. Geologists estimate-fiiat the state moved over 80 feet farther west into the Pacific Ocean.

This is the problem that the scientists face. They are dealing with forces soAmnjense. We should try to pinpoint just where the earthquake will strike for some protective measured

Fair draft:
The enemy, Earth more deadly for neutrality, recognizes none and endangers all. When an earthquake strikes, the world trembles. Scientists find ways to battle powerful earthquakes which strikes without warning. In modem cities, the damage is immense. When gas cylinders burst, explosions trigger fire. If the quake strikes at sea, huge tidal waves sweep inland.

In mountain regions, avalanches roar down the valley. Once Alaska escaped because it is depopulated unlike others. Geologists estimate that the state moved over 80 feet farther west into the Pacific Ocean.

Scientists face such problems with forces so immense. We should try to pinpoint just where the earthquake will strike for some protective measures.

No. of words in the summary: 110
[OR]

Notes
Title : Earthquake – the deadly enemy of mankind.
Deadly Enemy of Mankind

• strikes all without a distn. – national boundary/political affiliation
• Power greater than man-made weap.
• Scientists finding means to combat eq.; they will find ways to protect themselves from eq.

Damage Cause by an Earthquake in General

• Strikes without warning.
• Modem city when struck red. to a primitive village.

Damage Caused by an Earthquake in Particular

• strikes plains, seas, mnts. – all round destm.
• In 1755, Lisbon destyd, 450 killed.
• In 1970, Peru struck, 50,000 killed.
• In 1968, Alaska hit, subcontinent moved 80 feet into the Pacific Ocean.

Problems Scientists Face

• cannot resist powerful eq.
• can predict the place of origin
• precaution can be taken to save man & property.

Abbreviations used: eq. – earthquakes; distn. – distinction; weap. – weapon; red. – reduced; mnts. -mountains; destm. -destruction; destyd.-destroyed;

Question 45.
Write a letter to the editor of the newspaper on the mindless felling of trees on the road side.
Answer:
12.11.2020
From
XXX
YYY

To
The Editor
The Hindu Anna Salai
Chennai-600 002.

Sir,
Sub: Frequent felling of Trees

I am the Secretary of the YYY Colony Association. Our locality was surely a haven to us in the past few years. The fruits of labour that we had sown about ten years ago is well nurtured and utilised.

Most of the roads in our locality was filled with greenery because of the Flame of the Forest trees that we had planted and taken care of. The roads had enough shade and was filled with beautiful flowers.

In the recent past, we have encountered the mindless felling of trees by the Corporation staff for various reasons. We kindly request you to publish the same in the newspapers to bring to notice the mindless felling of trees to the public and the authorities concerned.

We hope that such a scenario doesn’t take place in our locality again and looking forward to a positive change in this situation.

Thank you,

Yours sincerely,
XXX

Address on the envelope
To
The Editor The Hindu Anna Salai
Chennai-600 002

[OR]

Write a paragraph of 150 words on “India-A Tourist’s Paradise”.
Answer:

India-A Tourist’s Paradise

India is a huge country with varied cultures and races. It is a land with primordial traditional heritage and rich history. India is the only country which has all the four seasons viz summer, autumn, winter and spring. It has beauty in all its places whether they are mountains, deserts, plains, seas or rivers. All these and the modem cities like Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Hyderabad and Bangalore as well as the places of pilgrimage make it one of the most sought-after tourist destinations in the world.

India is blessed with places that have natural beauty like Kashmir, Darjeeling, Matheran, Goa, Puri, Kerala, Valparai Ooty, Kodaikanal etc. All such beautiful places are often visited by people who try to combine spirituality with pleasure. India has a variety of beautiful locations to visit which makes it a tourist’s paradise.

Question 46.
Spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) He spoke the English perfectly.
(b) I and she have booked tickets for the latest Harry Potter movie.
(c) My little sister is afraid for cockroaches.
(d) You can type quickly, won’t you?
(e) Though I had a cup of coffee yet I feel tired.
Answer:
(a) He spoke English perfectly.
(b) She and I have booked tickets for the latest Harry Potter movie.
(c) My little sister is afraid of cockroaches.
(d) You can type quickly, can’t you?
(e) Though I had a cup of coffee, I feel tired.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks correctly.
(a) When I was walking ……………………. foot outside my farm house, I saw a ……………………. under the grape vine, (bear/bare)
(b) I ……………………. arrive home late this evening. (Use a modal in the given blank.)
(c) He ……………………. buy a new car. (Use a semi-modal)
(d) ……………………. you ……………………. (see) my wallet and keys recently? (use proper tense)
Answer:
(a) bare/bear
(b) shall
(c) ought to
(d) Have, seen

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below:
(a) The deliberate suppression of texts by organisations shrouds the subject.
(b) The study of stars and stellar evolution is fundamental to our understanding of the universe.
(c) This shift to farming may have occurred because of climate change.
(d) Sovereign power may be vested on an individual or it may be vested on a group.
(e) Some medicines may not be safe during pregnancy.
[Astronomy; Medicine; Politics; Literature; Agriculture]
Answer:
(a) Literature
(b) Astronomy
(c) Agriculture
(d) Politics
(e) Health

[OR]

Read the following passage and answer in your own words.
Answer:
The earth is losing its forests. Presently, trees cover about 30 percent of the earth’s surface, but they are being destroyed at an alarming rate, especially in the tropics. Timber harvesting is a major reason for the destruction of the forests. Trees are used for building houses, making furniture, and providing pulp for paper products, such as newspapers and magazines. At least 40 hectares of rainforest are being felled every minute, mostly in order to extract the valuable timber.

Another way that man is destroying the world’s forests is by burning them down. In the Amazon, for example, rainforests are being burnt down at a rate of 20 hectares a minute. The main reason of burning down the rainforests is to clear the land for farming. Farmers in rainforest countries are often poor and cannot afford to buy land. Instead, these farmers clear rainforest land to raise their animals or grow their crops.

Because tropical rainforest soil is so poor in nutrients, farmers cannot reuse the same land year after year. In the following years, farmers just clear more land, destroying the forest piece by piece. Already more than 30 tropical countries have reached a critical level of forest destruction and one-time exporters of timber such as Nigeria and Thailand now have to import timber for their domestic needs.

Questions:
a. What is the major reason for the destruction of forests?
b. Mention any two uses of trees.
c. Why do some people burn down the rainforests?
d. How many tropical countries have reached a critical level of forest destruction?
e. From where do Nigeria and Thailand get timber for their domestic needs?
Answers:
(a) Timber harvest is the major reason for the destruction of forests.
(b) Trees are cut and their logs are used for making furniture and building houses.
(c) Some people bum down rain forests to clear the land for farming.
(d) More than 30 tropical countries have reached a critical level of forest destruction.
(e) Nigeria and Thailand get their timber from foreign countries.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.2 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.2

Question 1.
Evaluate the following if z = 5 – 2i and w = -1 + 3i
(i) z + w
Solution:
z = 5 – 2i, w = -1 + 3i
z + w = (5 – 2i) + (-1 + 3i)
= (5 – 1) + (-2i + 3i)
= 4 + i

(ii) z – iw
Solution:
z – iw = (5 – 2i) – i (-1 + 3i)
= 5 – 2i + i + 3
= (5 + 3) + (-2i + i)
= 8 – i

(iii) 2z + 3w
Solution:
2z + 3w = 2(5 – 2i) + 3 (-1 +3i)
= 10 – 4i – 3 + 9i
= 7 + 5 i

(iv) zw
Solution:
zw = (5 – 2i) (-1 + 3i)
= -5 + 15i + 2i – 6i²
= -5 + 17i + 6
= 1 + 17i

(v) z² + 2zw + w²
Solution:
= (z + w)² [from (i)]
= (4 + i)²
= 16 – 1 + 8i
= 15 + 8i

(vi) (z + w)²
Solution:
(vi) (z + w)² = 15 + 8z [from (v)]

Question 2.
Given the complex number z = 2 + 3i, represent the complex numbers in the Argand diagram.
(i) z = 2 + 3i
iz = i(2 + 3i)
= (2i – 3)
= -3 + 2i
z + iz = (2 + 3i) + (-3 + 2i)
= -1 + 5i

(ii) z, – iz and z – iz
z = 2 + 3i
-iz = -i (2 + 3i)
= -2i – 3i² = -2i + 3
= 3 – 2i
z- iz= 2 + 3i -3 + 2i
= 5 + i

Question 3.
Find the values of the real numbers x and y. if the complex numbers
(3 – i)x – (2 – i) y + 2i + 5 and 2x + (-1 + 2i)y + 3 + 2i are equal.
Solution:
(3 – i) x – (2 – i) y + 2i + 5 = 2x + (-1 + 2i) y + 3 + 2i
⇒ 3x – ix – 2y + iy + 2i + 5 = 2x – y + 2yi + 3 + 2i
⇒ (3x – 2y + 5) + 1 (-x + y + 2) = (2x – y + 3) + i (2y + 2)
Equate real parts on both sides
3x – 2y + 5 = 2x – y + 3
x – y = -2 ……. (1)
Equate imaginary parts on both sides
-x + y + 2 = 2y + 2
-x – y = 0
x + y = 0 ……. (2)
(1) + (2) ⇒ 2x = -2
x = -1
Substituting x = -1 in (2)
-1 + y = 0
⇒ y = 1
∴ x = -1, y = 1

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.8

Choose the Most Suitable Answer.

Question 1.
If |adj(adj A) |=| A|⁹, then the order of the square matrix A is:
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 5
Solution:
(b) 4
Hint:
Since |adj(adj A)| = |A|^{(n – 1)2}
(n – 1)² = 9 = 3²
n – 1 = 3
n = 4

Question 2.
If A is a 3 × 3 non-singular matrix such that AA^T = A^T A and B = A^-1A^T, then BB^T =
(a) A
(b) B
(C) I₃
(d) B^T
Solution:
(C) I
Hint:
AA^T = A^TA and B = A^-1A^T
B^T = (A^-1)^T(A^T)^T = (A^-1)^T A
BB^-1 = (A^-1 A^T) (A^-1)^T A = A^-1 (AA^-1)^T A
= A^-1 (I)^T A = A^-1 A = I₃

Question 3.
If A = \(\begin{bmatrix} 3 & 5 \\ 1 & 2 \end{bmatrix}\) B = adj A and C = 3A, then \(\frac{|adj B|}{|C|}\) =
(a) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
(C) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
(d) 1
Solution:
(a) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Hint:

Question 4.
If A \(\begin{bmatrix} 1 & -2 \\ 1 & 4 \end{bmatrix}\) = \(\begin{bmatrix} 6 & 0 \\ 0 & 6 \end{bmatrix}\), then A:

Solution:
(c) \(\begin{bmatrix} 4 & 2 \\ -1 & 1 \end{bmatrix}\)
Hint:

Solve the equations we get
a = 4, b = 2, c = -1, d = 1
A = \(\begin{bmatrix} 4 & 2 \\ -1 & 1 \end{bmatrix}\)

Question 5.
If A = \(\begin{bmatrix} 7 & 3 \\ 4 & 2 \end{bmatrix}\) then 9I₂ – A =
(a) A^-1
(b) \(\frac{A^{-1}}{2}\)
(c) 3A^-1
(d) 2A^-1
Solution:
(d) 2A^-1
Hint:
|A| = 14 – 12 = 2

Question 6.
If A = \(\begin{bmatrix} 2 & 0 \\ 1 & 5 \end{bmatrix}\) and B = \(\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 4 \\ 2 & 0 \end{bmatrix}\) then |adj (AB)| =
(a) -40
(b) -80
(c) -60
(d) -20
Solution:
(b) -80
Hint:

∴ |adj (AB)| = 8 – 88 = -80

Question 7.
If P = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & x & 0 \\ 1 & 3 & 0 \\ 2 & 4 & -2 \end{matrix} \right] \) is the adjoint of 3 × 3 matrix A and |A| = 4, then x is
(a) 15
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 11
Solution:
(d) 11
Hint:
Since |adj A| = |A|^{n – 1} (n = 3)
1(-6 + 0) – x(-2) = 4²
-6 + 2x = 16
2x = 16 + 6 = 22
x = 11

Question 8.

(a) 0
(b) -2
(c) -3
(d) -1
Solution:
(d) -1
Hint:

Question 9.
If A, B and C are invertible matrices of some order, then which one of the following is not true?
(a) adj A = |A|A^-1
(b) adj (AB) = (adj A)(adj B)
(c) det A^-1 = (det A)^-1
(d) (ABC)^-1 = C^-1B^-1A^-1
Solution:
(b) adj (AB) = (adj A)(adj B)
Hint:
adj (AB) ≠ (adj A)(adj B)

Question 10.

Solution:
(a) \(\begin{bmatrix} 2 & -5 \\ -3 & 8 \end{bmatrix}\)
Hint:
(AB)^-1 = B^-1 A^-1
(AB)^-1 A = B^-1 [A^-1]A
(AB)^-1 A = B^-1
(A^-1)^-1 = A
|A^-1| = 3 – 2 = 1

Question 11.
If A^TA^-1 is symmetric, then A² =
(a) A^-1
(b) (A^T)²
(c) A^T
(d) (A^-1)²
Solution:
(b) (A^T)²
Hint:
(A^T A^-1)^T = A^T A^-1
(A^-1)^T (A^T)^T = A^T A^-1
(A^-1)^T A = A^T A^-1
A^T (A^-1)^T AA = (A^T) A^T A^-1 A
(pre and post multiply by A^T and A)
A² = (A^T)²

Question 12.
If A is a non-singular matrix such that A^-1 = \(\begin{bmatrix} 5 & 3 \\ -2 & -1 \end{bmatrix}\), then (AT)^-1 =

Solution:
(d) \(\begin{bmatrix} 5 & -2 \\ 3 & -1 \end{bmatrix}\)
Hint:
A^-1 = \(\begin{bmatrix} 5 & 3 \\ -2 & -1 \end{bmatrix}\)
Since (A^T)^-1 = (A^-1)^T = \(\begin{bmatrix} 5 & -2 \\ 3 & -1 \end{bmatrix}\)

Question 13.

(a) \(\frac{-4}{5}\)
(b) \(\frac{-3}{5}\)
(c) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
(d) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
Solution:
(a) \(\frac{-4}{5}\)
Hint:
Since A^T = A^-1
AA^T =  I

Question 14.

(a) (cos² \(\frac{θ}{2}\))A
(b) (cos² \(\frac{θ}{2}\))A^T
(c) (cos²θ)I
(d) (sin² \(\frac{θ}{2}\))A
Solution:
(b) (cos² \(\frac{θ}{2}\))A^T
Hint:

Question 15.

(a) 0
(b) sin θ
(c) cos θ
(d) 1
Solution:
(d) 1
Hint:

cos² θ + sin² θ = k
Hence k = 1

Question 16.
If A = \(\begin{bmatrix} 2 & 3 \\ 5 & -2 \end{bmatrix}\) be such that λA^-1 = A, then λ is:
(a) 17
(b) 14
(c) 19
(d) 21
Solution:
(c) 19
Hint:
λA^-1 = A

⇒ λ = 19

Question 17.
If adj A = \(\begin{bmatrix} 2 & 3 \\ 4 & 1 \end{bmatrix}\) and adj B = \(\begin{bmatrix} 1 & -2 \\ -3 & 1 \end{bmatrix}\) then adj (AB) is:

Solution:
(b) \(\begin{bmatrix} -6 & 5 \\ -2 & -10 \end{bmatrix}\)
Hint:
adj (AB) = (adj B) (adj A)

Question 18.

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 4
Solution:
(a) 1
Hint:

∴ Number of non zero row = 1
ρ(A) = 1

Question 19.

(a) \(e^{(Δ_{2}/Δ_{1})}\), \(e^{(Δ_{3}/Δ_{1})}\)
(b) log(Δ₁/Δ₃), log(Δ₂/Δ₃)
(c) log(Δ₂/Δ₁), log(Δ₃/Δ₁)
(d) \(e^{(Δ_{1}/Δ_{3})}\), \(e^{(Δ_{2}/Δ_{3})}\)
Solution:
(d) \(e^{(Δ_{1}/Δ_{3})}\), \(e^{(Δ_{2}/Δ_{3})}\)
Hint:
x^ay^b = e^m
a log x + b log y = m
x^cy^d = eⁿ
c log x + d log y = n

Question 20.
Which of the following is/are correct?
(i) Adjoint of a symmetric matrix is also a symmetric matrix.
(ii) Adjoint of a diagonal matrix is also a diagonal matrix.
(iii) If A is a square matrix of order n and λ is a scalar, then adj(λA) = λⁿ adj (A).
(iv) A(adj A) = (adj A)A = |A|I
(a) Only (i)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Solution:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Question 21.
If ρ(A) ρ([A | B]), then the system AX = B of linear equations is:
(a) consistent and has a unique solution
(b) consistent
(c) consistent and has infinitely many solutions
(d) inconsistent
Solution:
(b) consistent
Hint:
If ρ(A) = ρ[A|B] = no. of unknowns
We say consistent an unique solutions
Hence ρ(A) = ρ[A|B] ← given

Question 22.
If 0 ≤ θ ≤ π and the system of equations x + (sin θ)y – (cos θ)z = 0, (cos θ) x – y + z = 0, (sin θ) x + y + z = 0 has a non-trivial solution then θ is:
(a) \(\frac{2π}{3}\)
(b) \(\frac{3π}{4}\)
(c) \(\frac{5π}{6}\)
(d) \(\frac{π}{4}\)
Solution:
(d) \(\frac{π}{4}\)
Hint:
If AX = 0 has non  trivial solution if |A| = 0

⇒ 1(1 – 1) – sinθ (-cosθ – sinθ) – cosθ (cosθ + sinθ) = 0
⇒ + sinθ cosθ + sin²θ – cos²θ – sinθ cosθ = 0
⇒ sin²θ – cos²θ = 0
⇒ sinθ = cosθ
θ =\(\frac{π}{4}\)

Question 23.

(a) λ = 7, µ ≠ -5
(b) λ = -7, µ = 5
(c) λ ≠ 7, µ ≠ -5
(d) λ = 7, µ = -5
Solution:
(d) λ = 7, µ = -5
Hint:
ρ(A) = ρ[A | B] = 2
λ – 7 = 0 and µ + 5 = 0
λ = 7, µ = -5

Question 24.

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 1
Solution:
(b) 4
Hint:
B = A^-1

Question 25.

Solution:
(a) \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
3 & -3 & 4 \\
2 & -3 & 4 \\
0 & -1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
Hint:
adj (adj A) = |A|^n-2 A = |A|² A
|A|= 3(-3 + 4) + 3(2) + 4 (-2)
= 3 + 6 – 8
= 1

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.3 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.3

Question 1.
If z₁ = 1 – 3i, z₂ = -4i, and z₃ = 5, show that
(i) (z₁ + z₂) + z₃ = z₁ + (z₂ + z₃)
Solution:
z₁ = 1 – 3i, z₂ = -4i, z₃ = 5
(z₁ + z₂) + z₃
= (1 – 3i – 4i) + 5
= (1 – 7i) + 5
= 6 – 7i …… (1)
z₁ + (z₂ + z₃)
= (1 – 3i) + (-4i + 5)
= 6 – 7i ……. (2)
from (1) & (2) we get
∴ (z₁ + z₂) + z₃ = z₁ + (z₂ + z₃)

(ii) (z₁ z₂)z₃ = z₁(z₂ z₃)
Solution:
(z₁ z₂) z₃ = [(1 – 3i) (-4i]5
= [-4i + 12 i²]5
= [-12 – 4i] 5
= -60 – 20i ……. (1)
z₁ (z₂ z₃) = (1 – 3i)[(-4i)(5)]
= (-20i + 60 i²)
= -20i – 60 ……. (2)
from (1) & (2) we get
∴ (z₁ z₂)(z₃) = z₁ (z₂ z₃)

Question 2.
If z₁ = 3, z₂ = 7i, and z₃ = 5 + 4i, show that
(i) z₁(z₂ + z₃) = z₁ z₂ + z₁ z₃
Solution:
z₁ = 3, z₂ = 7i, z₃ = 5 + 4i
z₂ + z₃ = -7i + 5 + 4i
= 5 – 3i
z₁ (z₂ + z₃) = 3 (5 – 3i) + 15 – 9i …………. (1)
z₁ z₂ = 3(-7i) = -21i
z₁ z₃ = 3(5 + 4i) = 15 + 12i
z₁ z₂ + z₁ z₃ = -21i + 15 + 12i
= 15 – 9i ……… (2)
∴ from 1 and 2
z₁(z₂ + z₃) = z₁ z₂ + z₁ z₃
Hence proved.

(ii) (z₁ + z₂)z₃ = z₁ z₃ + z₂ z₃
Solution:
z₁ + z₂ = 3 – 7i
(z₁ + z₂)z₃ = (3 – 7i) (5 + 4i)
= 15 + 12i – 35i + 28i²
= 15 + 12i – 35i + 28i
= 43 – 23i ………… (1)
z₁ z₃ = 3(5 + 4i) = 15 + 12i
z₂ z₃ = – 7i(5 + 4i) = -35i – 28i²
= – 35i + 28
z₁ z₃ + z₂ z₃ = (15 + 12i) + (-35i + 28)
= 15 + 12i – 35i + 28
= 43 – 23i …………. (2)
∴ from 1 and 2
(z₁ + z₂)z₃ = z₁ z₃ + z₂ z₃
Hence proved.

Question 3.
If z₁ = 2 + 5i, z₂ = – 3 – 4i, and z₃ = 1 + i, find the additive and multiplicative inverse of z₁, z₂ and z₃.
Solution:
(i) z₁ = 2 + 5i
additive inverse z₁ is -z₁
⇒ -(2 + 5i) = -2 – 5i
Multiplicative inverse z₁ is (z₁)^-1
We know
z₁ z₁^-1 = 1
⇒ (2 + 5i) (u + iv) = 1 [∵ z^-1 = u + iv]
2u + 2iv + 5iu – 5v = 1
(2u – 5v) + i (5u + 2v) = 1 + i 0
Equating real and imaginary parts
2u – 5v = 1
5u + 2v = 0
Solving them, we get

(ii) z₂ = – 3 – 4i
Additive inverse z₂ is -z₂
⇒ -(3 – 4i) = 3 + 4i
Multiplicative inverse z₂ is (z₂)^-1
We know
z₂ z₂^-1 = 1
⇒ (-3 – 4i) (u + iv) = 1 [∵ z₂^-1 = u + iv]
-3u – 3iv – 4iu + 4v = 1
(-3u + 4v) + i (-4u – 3v) = 1 + i 0
we get -3u + 4v = 1
-4u – 3v = 0

(iii) z₃ = 1 + i
(а) Additive inverse of z₃ = -z₃ = -(1 + i) = -1 – i
(b) Multiplicative inverse of
\(z_{3}=\frac{1}{z_{3}} \frac{1}{1+i} \times \frac{1-i}{1-i}=\frac{1-i}{2}\)

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.1 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Complex Numbers Ex 2.1

Question 1.
i¹⁹⁴⁷ + i¹⁹⁵⁰
Solution:
i¹⁹⁴⁷ + i¹⁹⁵⁰ = (i⁴)⁴⁸⁶ i³ + (i⁴)⁴⁸⁷ i²
[∵ i² = -1; i³ = i; i⁴ = 1]
= (1)⁴⁸⁶ (-i) + (1)⁴⁸⁷ (-1)
= – i – 1 = -(1 + i)

Question 2.
i¹⁹⁴⁸ – i^-1869
Solution:
= (i⁴)⁴⁸⁷ – [(i⁴)⁴⁶⁷ i¹]^-1
= (1)⁴⁸⁷ – (i)^-1 = 1 – \(\frac{1}{i}\) = 1 + i

Question 3.
\(\sum_{n=1}^{12} i^{n}\)
Solution:
= i¹ + i² + i³ + i⁴ + …. + i¹²
= (i – 1 – i + 1) + (i – 1 – i + 1) + (i – 1 – i + 1)
= 0

Question 4.
i⁵⁹ + \(\frac{1}{i^{59}}\)
Solution:
(-i) + \(\frac{1}{(-i)}\)
[∵ i⁵⁹ = i⁵⁶ i³ = (i⁴)¹⁴ (-i) = 1(-i) = -i]
= -i + i = 0

Question 5.
i i² i³ …… i²⁰⁰⁰
Solution:
= i^1+2+3+2000
[∵ 1 + 2 + 3 + …….. n = \(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\)]
= i^{(\(\frac{2000×2001}{2}\))}
= i^(1000×2001)
= [i¹⁰⁰⁰]²⁰⁰¹
= i^2001000
= 1

Question 6.
\(\sum_{n=1}^{10} i^{n+50}\)
solution:
= i⁵¹ + i⁵² + i⁵³ + ……. + i⁶⁰
= i³ + i⁴ +i + i² + ……. + i⁴
= -i + 1 + i – 1 – i + 1 + i – 1 – i + 1
= 1 – i

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.1 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.1

Question 1.
Find the adjoint of the following:

Solution:

Question 2.
Find the inverse (if it exists) of the following.

Solution:
\(\begin{bmatrix} -2 & 4 \\ 1 & -3 \end{bmatrix}\)
|A| = 6 – 4 = 2 ≠ 0
∴ A^-1 exists. A is non singular.


|A| = 2(8-7)-3(6-3)+1(21-12)
= 2 – 9 + 9 = 2 ≠ 0. A^-1 exists.

Question 3.

Solution:
\(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
\cos \alpha & 0 & \sin \alpha \\
0 & 1 & 0 \\
-\sin \alpha & 0 & \cos \alpha
\end{array}\right]\)
|F(α)| = cos α(cos α – 0) – 0 + sin α(0 + sin α)
= cos²α + sin²α = 1
|f(α)| = 1 ≠ 0. [F(α)]^-1 exists.


[∵ cos (-θ) = cos θ ; sin(-θ) = -sin θ]
from (1) and (2) we have
[F(α)]^-1 = F(-α)

Question 4.
If A = \(\begin{bmatrix} 5 & 3 \\ -1 & -2 \end{bmatrix}\), show that A² – 3A – 7I₂ = O₂. hence find A^-1
Solution:

∴ A² -3A – 7I₂ = O₂
Post multiply this equation by A^-1
A²A^-1 – 3A A^-1 – 7I₂ A^-1 = 0
A – 3I – 7A^-1 = 0
A – 3I = 7 A^-1
A^-1 = \(\frac {1}{7}\) (A – 3I)

Question 5.

Solution:

Question 6.
If A = \(\begin{bmatrix} 8 & -4 \\ -5 & 3 \end{bmatrix}\) verify that A(adj A) = (adj A) A = \(\left| A \right|\)I₂.
Solution:

(1), (2) and (3) ⇒ A (adj A) = (adj A)A = |A| I₂.

Question 7.

Solution:

Question 8.

Solution:

|adj (A)| = 2 (24 – 0) + 4 (- 6 – 14) + 2(0 + 24)
= 48 – 80 + 48 = 16

Question 9.

Solution:

|adj A| = 0 + 2(36 – 18) + 0 = 2(18) = 36

Question 10.

Solution:

Question 11.

Solution:


Hence proved

Question 12.

Solution:

Question 13.

Solution:
Given A × B × C
⇒ A^-1 A × B B^-1 = A^-1 C B^-1
I × I = A^-1 C B^-1
⇒ X = A^-1 CB^-1
let us find A^-1 and B^-1

Question 14.

Solution:


Hence proved.

Question 15.
Decrypt the received encoded message [2 -3] [20 4] with the encryption matrix \(\begin{bmatrix} -1 & -1 \\ 2 & 1 \end{bmatrix}\) and the decryption matrix as its inverse, where the system of codes are described by the numbers 1 – 26 to the letters A – Z respectively, and the number 0 to a blank space.
Solution:

So the sequence of decoded row matrics is [8 5] [12 16]
The receiver reads the message as “HELP”.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Chemistry Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus, helps students complete homework assignments and to score high marks in board exams.

TN State Board 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the parts An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about one or two sentences
6. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences
7. Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark Questions These are to answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary

Part – 1

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [15 × 1 = 15]

Question 1.
Blistered copper is .
(a) 98% pure copper
(b) 96% pure copper
(c) 97% pure copper
(d) 88% pure copper
Answer:
(a) 98% pure copper

Question 2.
Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Beryl is a cyclic silicate
(b) Mg₂SiO₄ is an orthosilicate
(c) SiO₄ is the basic structural unit of silicates
(d) Feldspar is not aluminosilicate
Answer:
(d) Feldspar is not aluminosilicate

Question 3.
Consider the following statements.
(i) phosphine is the most important hydride of phosphorous
(ii) phosphine is a poisonous gas with rotten egg smell.
(iii) phosphine is a powerful reducing agent
Which of the above statement(s) is / are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) only
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii)

Question 4.
The correct order of increasing oxidizing power in the series


Answer:

Hint: VO₂⁺ < Cr₂O₇^2- < MnO₄^– greater the oxidation state, higher is the oxidising power.

Question 5.
The geometry possible in [Fe F₆]^4- and [COF₊₆]^4- is ……………
(a) Trigonal bipyramidal
(b) Square planar
(c) Octahedral
(d) Tetrahedral
Answer:
(c) Octahedral

Question 6.
The number of carbon atoms per unit cell of diamond is
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 1
(d) 4
Answer:
(a) 8

Hint: In diamond carbon forming fee. Carbon occupies comers and face centres and also occupying half of the tetrahedral voids.

Question 7.
In a homogeneous reaction
A → B + C + D, the initial pressure was P₀ and after time t it was P. Expression for rate constant in terms of P₀ , P and t will be ……..

Answer:

Solution:

Question 8.
The solubility of an aqueous solution of Mg(OH)₂ be x then its K_sp is
(a) 4x³
(b) 108x⁵
(c) 27x⁴
(d) 9x
Answer:
(a) 4x³
Solution:
Mg(OH)₂ Mg²⁺(x) + 2OH^– ((2x)²)
K_sp = 4x³

Question 9.
During electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the time required to produce 0. lmol of chlorine gas using a current of 3 A is ……………..
(a) 55 minutes
(b) 107.2 minutes
(c) 220 minutes
(d) 330 minutes
Hint: m = ZIt (mass of 1 mole of Cl₂ gas = 71)
Answer:
(b) 107.2 minutes

Question 10:
The coagulation values in millimoles per litre of the electrolytes used for the coagulation of AS₂S₃ are given below
(I) (NaCl) = 52
(II) (BaCl) = 0.69
(III) (MgSO₄) = 0.22
The correct order of their coagulating power is
(a) III > II > I
(b) I > II > III
(c) I > III > II
(d) II > III> I
coagulating power ± \(\frac{1}{\text { coagulation value }}\)
Answer:
(a) III > II > I

Question 10.
Assertion : Coagulation power of Al³⁺ is more than Na⁺ .
Reason : greater the valency of the flocculating ion added, greater is its power to cause precipitation
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (Hardy-Sechulze rule)
(b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d) both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (Hardy-Sechulze rule)

Question 11.


Answer:
(a) A- 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 1

Question 12.
Which of the following represents the correct order of acidity in the given compounds (
(a) FCH₂COOH > CH₃COOH > BrCH₂COOH > ClCH₃COOH
(b) FCH₂COOH > ClCH2COOH > BrCH COOH > CH COOH
(c) CH₃COOH > ClCH₂COOH > FCH₂COOH > Br – CH₂COOH
(d) Cl CH₂COOH > CH₃COOH > BrCH₂COOH > ICH₂COOH
Hint. -I effect increases the acidity. If electronegativity is high, -I effect is also high.
Answer:
(b) FCH₂COOH > ClCH2COOH > BrCH COOH > CH COOH

Question 13.
1 -nitrobutane and 2-methyl-1 -nitropropane are belong to
(a) position isomerism
(b) functional isomerism
(c) Tautomerism
(d) chain isomerism
Answer:
(d) chain isomerism

Question 14.
Haemoglobin is
(a) an enzyme
(b) a globular protein
(c) a vitamin
(d) carbohydrate
Answer:
(b) a globular protein

Question 15.
An example of antifertility drug is
(a) novestrol
(b) seldane
(c) salvarsan
(d) Chloramphenicol
Answer:
(a) novestrol

Part – II

Answer any six questions. Question No. 20 is compulsory. [6 x 2 = 12]

Question 16.
Name the method used for the refining of (i) Nickel (ii) Zirconium
Answer:
(i) Mond’s process
(ii) Van Arkel’s method

Question 17.
Complete the following reactions:
(a) B(OH)₃ + NH₃ →
(b) Na₂B₄O₇ + H₂SO₄ + H₂O
Answer:

Question 18.
KMnO₄ does not act as oxidising agent in the presence of HC1. Why?
Answer:
HCl cannot be used for making acidified KMnO₄ as oxidising agent, since it reacts with KMnO₄ as follows.
2MnO₄^– + 10 Cl^– + 16H⁺ → 2Mn²⁺ + 5Cl₂ + 8H₂O

Question 19.
A reaction is first order in A and second order in B.
(i) Write the differential rate equation.
(ii) How is the rate affected on increasing the concentration of B three times?
(iii) How is the rate affected when the concentrations of both A and B are doubled? ,
Answer:
(i) \(\frac{d x}{d t}=k[\mathrm{A}]^{1}[\mathrm{B}]^{2}\)
(ii) If concentration of ‘B ’ is tripled, then the rate will become 9 times.
(iii) When concentration of both A and B are doubled, then the rate will become 8 times.

Question 20.
Calculate the pH of 0.04 M HNO₃ Solution.
Answer:
Concentration of HNO₃ = 0.04M
[H₃O⁺] = 0.04 mol dm^-3
pH = -log[H₃O⁺]
= – log(0.04)
= – log(4 x 10^-2)
= 2 -log 4 = 2-0.6021
= 1.3979= 1.40

Question 21.
Write a note about Helmoholtz double layer.
Answer:
The surface of a colloidal particle adsorbs one type of ion due to preferential adsorption. This layer attracts the oppositely charged ions in the medium and hence the boundary separating the two electrical double layers are set up. This is called Helmholtz electrical double layer. As the particles nearby are having similar charges, they cannot come close and condense. Hence this helps to explain the stability of the colloid.

Question 22.
Why HCOOH does not give Hell-Volhard Zelinsky reaction but CH₃3COOH does?
Answer:
CH₃COOH contains α – hydrogen atom and hence gives HVZ reaction but HCOOH does not contain an α – hydrogen atom and hence does not give HVZ reaction.

Question 23.
What happens when
Oxidation of acetoneoxime with trifluoroperoxy acetic acid.
Answer:
Oxidation of acetoneoxime with trifluoroperoxy acetic acid gives 2-nitropropane.

Question 24.
What are food preservatives?
Answer:
Food preservatives are chemical substances are capable of inhibiting, retarding or arresting the process of fermentation, acidification or other decomposition of food by growth of micro organisms.
Examples:

• Acetic acid is used mainly as a preservative for preparation of pickles.
• Sodium meta sulphite is used as preservative for fresh vegetables and fruits.
• Sodium benzoate is used as preservative for juices.

Part – III

Answer any six questions. Question No. 31 is compulsory. [6 x 3 = 18]

Question 25.
Explain the principle of electrolytic refining with an example.
Answer:
The crude metal is refined by electrolysis. It is carried out in an electrolytic cell containing aqueous solution of the salts of the metal of interest. The rods of impure metal are used as anode and thin strips of pure metal are used as cathode. The metal of interest dissolves from the anode, pass into the solution while the same amount of metal ions from the solution will be deposited at the cathode. During electrolysis, the less electropositive impurities in the anode, settle down at the bottom and are removed as anode mud.
Let us understand this process by considering electrolytic refining of silver as an example.
Cathode: Pure silver
Anode: Impure silver rods

Electrolyte: Acidified aqueous solution of silver nitrate.
When a current is passed through the electrodes the following reactions will take place
Reaction at anode: 2Ag(s) → Ag⁺ (aq) + le^–
Reaction at cathode: Ag⁺(aq)+ le^– → Ag (s)

During electrolysis, at the anode the silver atoms lose electrons and enter the solution. The positively charged silver cations migrate towards the cathode and get discharged by gaining electrons and deposited on the cathode. Other metals such as copper, zinc etc.,can also be refined by this process in a similar manner.

Question 26.
How will you prepare phosphine and explain the purification of phosphine?
Phosphine’is prepared by action of sodium hydroxide with white phosphorous in an inert atmosphere of carbon dioxide or hydrogen.

Phosphine is freed from phosphine dihydride (P2H4) by passing through a freezing mixture. The dihydride condenses while phosphine does not.
Phosphine can also prepared by the hydrolysis of metallic phosphides with water or dilute mineral acids.

Phosphine is prepared in pure form by heating phosphorous acid.

A pure sample of phosphine is prepared by heating phosphonium iodide with caustic soda S0lution.

Question 27.
Justify the position of lanthanides and actinides in the periodic table.
Answer:
(i) In sixth period after lanthanum, the electrons are preferentially filled in inner 4f sub shell and these 14 elements following lanthanum show similar chemical properties. Therefore these elements are grouped together and placed at the bottom of the periodic table. This position can be justified as follows.
(a) Lanthanoids have general electronic configuration [Xe] 4f2 14 5d° 1 6s2
(b) The common oxidation state of lanthanoids is +3
(c) All these elements have similar physical and chemical properties.

(ii) Similarly the fourteen elements following actinium resemble in their physical and chemical properties.

(iii) If we place these elements after Lanthanum in the periodic table below 4d series and actinides below 5d series, the properties of the elements belongs to a group would be different and it would affect the proper structure of the periodic table.

(iv) Hence a separate position is provided to the inner transition elements at the bottom of the periodic table.

Question 28.
Distinguish between isotropy and anisotropy?
Answer:
Isotropy:

1. Isotropy means uniformity in all directions.
2. Isotropy means having identical values of physical properties such as refractive index, electrical conductance in all directions.
3. Isotropy is the property of amorphous solids.

Anisotropy :

1. Anisotropy means non-uniformity in all directions.
2. Anisotropy is the property which depends on the direction of measurement. They show different values of physical properties when measured along different directions.
3. Anisotropy is the properly of crystalline solids.

Question 29.
What are the merits and limitations of the intermediate compound theory?
Answer:
Merits:
(i) The specificity of a catalyst
(ii) The increase in the rate of the reaction with increase in the concentration of catalyst.

Limitations:
(i) This theory fails to explain the action of catalytic poison and promoters. .
(ii) This theory is unable to explain the mechanism of heterogeneous catalysed reactions.

Question 30.
Write a note on sacrificial protection.
Answer:
In this method, the metallic structure to be protected is made cathode by connecting it with more active metal (anodic metal). So that all the corrosion will concentrate only on the active metal. The artificially made anode thus gradually gets corroded protecting the original metallic structure. Hence this process is otherwise known as sacrificial anodic protection.
Al, Zn and Mg are used as sacrificial anodes.

Question 31.
1mole of Hlis allowed to react with t-butyl methylether. Identify the product and write down the mechanism of the reaction.
Answer:

Question 32.
How will you prove the presence of aldehyde group in glucose?
Answer:
(i) Glucose is oxidised to gluconic acid with ammoniacal silver nitrate (Tollen’s reagent) and alkaline copper sulphate (Fehling’s solution). Tollen’s reagent is reduced to metallic silver and Fehling’s solution to cuprous oxide (red precipitate). These reactions confirm the presence of an aldehye group in glucose.

Question 33.
Explain about anaesthetics with their types.
(i) Local anaesthetics: It causes loss of sensation in the area in which it is applied without losing consciousness. They block pain perception that is transmitted via peripheral nerve fibres to the brain.
Example: Procaine, Li do caine.
They are often used during minor surgical procedures.

(ii) General anaesthetics: They cause a controlled and reversible loss of consciousness by affecting central nervous system.
Example: Propofol, Isoflurane.
They are often used for major surgical procedures.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 x 5 = 25]

Question 34.
(a) (i) CO is more stable at higher temperature. Why? (2)
(ii) How will you prepare potash alum? (3)
[OR]
(b) (i) Give the balanced equation for the reaction between chlorine with cold NaOH. (3)
(ii) Nitrogen exists as diatomic molecule and Phosphrus as P₄ Why? (2)
Answer:
(a) (i) In the Ellingham diagram, the formation of carbon monoxide is a straight line with negative slope. In this case AS is positive as 2 moles of CO gas is formed by the consumption of one mole of oxygen. Hence, CO is more stable at higher temperature.

(ii) The alunite the alum stone is the naturally occurring form and it is K₂SO₄ . Al₂(S0₄)₃.4Al(0H)₃. When alum stone is treated with excess of sulphuric acid, the aluminium hydroxide is converted to aluminium sulphate. A calculated quality of – potassium sulphate is added and the solution is crystallised to generate potash alum. It is purified by recrystallisation.
(2)

(b)(i) Reaction between chlorine with cold NaoH

Chlorine reacts with cold NaOH to give sodium chloride and sodium hypochlorite.

(ii) Nitrogen has a triple bond between its two atoms because of its small size and high electronegativity. Phosphorus P₄ has single bond, that is why it is tetra-atomic.

Question 35.
(a) (i) Discuss the ortho and pyro silicates. (2)
(ii) Compare lanthanides and actinides. (3)
[OR]
(b) (i) Ni²⁺ is identified using alcoholic solution of dimethyl glyoxime. Write the structural formula for the rosy red precipitate of a complex formed in the reaction. (3)
Cu⁺, Zn²⁺, Sc³⁺, Ti⁴⁺ are colourless. Prove this statement. (2)
Answer:
Ortho silicates: The simplest silicates which contain discrete [SiO₄]^4- tetrahedral units are called ortho silicates or neso silicates.

Examples: Phenacite – Be₂SiO₄(Be²⁺ ions are tetrahedrally surrounded by O^2- ions), Olivine – (Fe/Mg)₂ SiO₄ (‘Fe²⁺ and Mg²⁺ cations are octahedrally surrounded by O

Pyro silicates: Silicates which contain [Si₂O₇]^6- ions are called pyro silicates (or) Soro silicates. They are formed by joining two [SiO₄]^4-

tetrahedral units by sharing one oxygen atom at one comer, (one oxygen is removed while joining). Example: Thortveitite – Sc₂Si₂O₇

(ii)
Lanthanoids

1. Differentiating electron enters in 4f orbital
2. Binding energy of 4f orbitals are higher
3. They show less tendency to form complexes
4. Most of the lanthanoids are colourless
5. They do not form oxo cations
6. Besides +3 oxidation states lanthanoids show +2 and +4 oxidation states in few cases.

Actinoids

1. Differentiating electron enters in 5f orbital
2. Binding energy of 5f orbitals are lower
3. They show greater tendency to form complexes
4. Most of the actinoids are coloured.
5. E.g : U³⁺ (red), U⁴⁺ (green), UO₂²⁺ (yellow)
6. They do form oxo cations such as UO₂²⁺ NpO₂²⁺ etc.
7. Besides +3 oxidation states actinoids show higher oxidation states such as +4, +5, +6 and +7.

[OR]

(b) (i) Ni²⁺ ions present in Nickel chloride solution is estimated accurately for forming an insoluble complex called [Ni(DMG)₂]
Nickel ion reacts with alcoholic solution of DMG in the presence of ammonical medium, to give rosy red precipitate of [Ni(DMG)₂] complex.

(ii) 1. Cu⁺, Zn²⁺ have d10 configuration and Sc³⁺, Ti⁴⁺have d¹ configuration.
2. d-d transition is not possible in the above complexes. So they are colourless.

Question 36.
(a) i)0 What is meant by the term “coordination number”? What is the coordination number of atoms in a bcc structure? (2)
(ii) Rate constant k of a reaction varies with temperature T according to the following Arrhenius equation
\(\log \mathbf{k}=\log \mathbf{A} \frac{\mathbf{E}_{\mathbf{a}}}{2.303 \mathbf{R}}\left(\frac{1}{\mathbf{T}}\right)\)

Where E_a is the activation energy. When a graph is plotted for logk Vs \(\frac{1}{T}\) a straight line
with a slope of- 4000K Is obtained. Calculate the activation energy. (3)

(OR)

(b) (i) Explain about the hydrolysis of salt of strong base and weak acid. Derive the value of K_h for that reaction. (3)
(ii) Identify the Lewis acid and the Lewis base in the following reactions. (2)

Answer:
(a) (i) 1. Let us consider the reaction between sodium hydroxide and acetic acid to give sodium acetate and water

NaOH_(aq) + CH₃COOH_(aq) ⇌ CH₃COONa_(aq) + H₂O

2. Coordination number of atoms in a bcc structure is 8

(ii) logk = logA – \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{a}}}{2.303 \mathrm{R}}\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{T}}\right)\)
y = c + mx
m = \(-\frac{E_{a}}{2.303 R}\)
E_a =—2.303Rm
E_a = – 2.303 x 8.314 J K^-1 mol^-1 x (— 4000 K)
E_a = 76,589 J mol^-1
E_a =76589kJmol^-1

[OR]

(b) (i) 1. Coordination number: The number of nearest neighbours that surrounding a particle in a crystal is called the coordination number of that particle.
2. In aqueous solution, CH₃COONa is completely dissociated as follows.
CH₃COONa_(aq), →  CH₃COO^–_(aq) + Na⁺_(aq)

3. CH₃COO^– is a conjugate base of the weak acid CHCOOH and it has a tendency to react with H⁺ from water to produce unionised acid. But there is no such tendency
for Na⁺ to react with OH^–

4.

such cases, the solution is basic due to the hydrolysis and pH is greater than 7.

5. Relationship between equilibrium constant, hydrolysis constant and the dissociation constant of acid is derived as follows:

K_h value in terms of degree of hydrolysis (h) and the concentration of salt (c) for the equilibrium can be obtained as in the case of Ostwald’s dilution law K_h = h²C and \(\left[\mathrm{OH}^{-}\right]=\sqrt{\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{h}} \cdot \mathrm{c}}\)

Question 37.
(a) (i) What are lyophilic and lyophobic sols? Give one example of each type. Why are
Answer:
(a) (i) Lyophilic Sols: Colloidal sols directly formed by mixing substances like gums, gelatin, starch, rubber, etc. with a suitable liquid (The dispersion medium) are lyophilic sols.
An important characteristic of these sols is that if the dispersion medium is separated from the dispersed phase (say by evaporation) the sol can be reconstituted by simply remixing with the dispersion medium. That is why these sols are also called reversible sols. These sols are quite stable and cannot be easily coagulated.

Lyophobic sols: These colloidal sols can only be prepared by some special methods. These sols are readily precipitated on the addition of small amount of electrolytes, by heating or by shaking and hence are not stable.
Hydrophobic sols are water hating. They are formed by indirect method. These sols are irreversible sols. These sols are readily precipitated by the addition of small amount of electrolytes, by heating or by shaking and hence are not stable.

(ii) 1. The substances when added to a catalysed reaction decreases or completely destroys the activity of a catalyst are often known as catalytic poisons.
2. In the reaction 2SO₂ + O₂ → 2SO₃ with Pt catalyst, the catalyst poison is AS₂O₃

[OR]

(b) (i) 1. Substances like AgCl, PbS04 are sparingly soluble in water. The solubility product can be determined using conductivity experiments.
2. Let us consider AgCl as an example
Agci_(s)) ⇌ Ag⁺ + Cl^–
K_Sp = [Ag ⁺] [Cl^–]

3. Let the concentration of [Ag⁺] be ‘C’ mol L^-1
If [Ag⁺] = C, then [Cl^–] is also equal to C mol L^-1.
.’. K_sp = C.C
K_sp = C²

4. The relationship between molar conductance and equivalent conductance is

(ii) 1. Formic acid contains both an aldehyde as well as an acid group. Hence, like other aldehydes, formic acid can easily be oxidised and therefore acts as a strong reducing agent.

2. Formic acid reduces Tollen’s reagent (ammonical silver nitrate solution) to metallic silver.

3. Formic acid reduces Fehling’s solution. It reduces blue coloured cupric ions to red coloured cuprous ions.

Question 38.
(a) (i) What are the uses of nitrobenzene? (2)
(ii) Write a note on formation of -helix. (3)
[OR]
(b) (i) Define TFM value. (2)
(ii) Differentiate thermoplastic and thermosetting. (3)
Answer:
(a) (i) 1. Nitro benzene is used to produce lubricating oils in motors and machinery.
2. It is used in the manufacture of dyes, drugs, pesticides, synthelic rubber, aniline and explosives like TNT, TNB.
(ii) 1. In the a-helix sub-structure, the aminoacids are arranged in a right handed helical (spiral) structure and are stabilised by the hydrogen bond between the carbonyl oxygen one aminoacid (nth residue) with amino hydrogen of the fifth residue (n+4th residue).

2. The side chains of the residues protrude outside of the helix. Each turn of an a-helix contains about 3.6 residues and is about 5.4 A long.

3. The amino acid pro line produces a line in the helical structure and often called as a helical breaker due to its rigid cyclic structure.

4. Many fibrous proteins such as a-Keratin in hair, nails, wool, skin and myosin in muscles have a-helix structure. Stretching property of human hair is due to the helical structure of a-keratin in hair.

5. Structure of α – helix

[OR]

(b) (i) 1. The quality of a soap is described in terms of total fatty matter (TFM value). It is defined as the total amount of fatty matter that can be separated from a sample after spliting with mineral acids. Higher the TFM value in the soap, better is its quality.
2. As per BIS standards, Grade I soaps should have 76% minimum TFM value (ii) Difference between thermoplastic and thermosetting:

Thermoplastic :

1. They soften on heating and harden on cooling, and they can be remoulded.
2. They consists of linear long chain polymers and low molecular weights polymers.
3. All the polymer chains are held together by weak Vanderwaals forces.
4. They are weak, soft and less brittle.
5. They are formed by addition polymerisation.
6. They are soluble in organic solvents.
7.  Example: PVC, polythene, polystrene etc.

Thermosetting

1. They do not soften on heating and they cannot be remoulded.
2. The consist of three dimensional network structure and high molecular weight polymers.
3. All the polymer chains are linked by strong covalent.
4. They are strong, hard and more brittle.
5. They are formed by condensation polymerisation.
6. They are insoluble in organic solvents.
7. Example: Bakelite, melamine etc.

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