Category: Class 5

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Pdf Term 2 Chapter 1 Food Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Food

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Food Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The biotic factor which spoils the food item is
a) drying
b) temperature
c) humidity
d) bacteria
Ans:
(d) bacteria

Question 2.
Grains are preserved by
a) drying
b) freezing
c) adding sugar
d) adding salt
Answer:
(a) drying

Question 3.
Anaemia is a disease which occurs due to lack of
a) Vitamin-A
b) Vitamin-B
c) Iron
d) Vìtamin-D
Answer:
(c) Iron

Question 4.
Storage of excess fat in the body is known as
a) obesity
b) headache
c) fever
d) stomach pain
Answer:
(a) obesity

Question 5.
Carbohydrates are rich in
a) ghee
b) fruits
c) rice
d) oil
Answer:
(c) rice

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Night blindness is caused by the lack of_________.
Answer:
Vitamin A

Question 2.
Marasmus is a __________ deficiency disease.
Answer:
protein

Question 3.
Bad smell from the food item is due to _________.
Answer:
Evaporation

Question 4.
Humidity in air is one of the _________ factor, which spoils food.
Answer:
Decompose

Question 5.
Using low-quality gas tubes in the gas stove may lead to _________ leakage.
Answer:
Gas

III. Match the following:

Answer:

IV. Say True or False:

Question 1.
Vinegar is added as a preservative for pickles.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Irradiation affects the taste of food materials.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
In case of gas leakage, we can continue to use electrical appliances.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Deficiency due to iodine is called beriberi.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Growing children need more proteins in their food.
Answer:
True

V. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Define deficiency disease.
Answer:
Deficiency in one or more of the nutrients causes various diseases. These are called deficiency diseases.

Question 2.
What is known as balanced diet?

Answer:
The food we normally eat in a day is our diet. For growth and maintenance of good health, our diet should have all the nutrients that our body needs, in right quantities. Such a diet is called a balanced diet.

Question 3.
How can we prevent obesity?
Answer:

1. Avoid fast foods, fried items and meat with more fat.
2. Eat fruits and vegetables, legumes, whole grains and nuts.
3. Do regular physical exercises.
4. Don’t play games in computer and mobile phones.
5. Have proper sleep time.

Question 4.
What should we do in case of minor burns?
Answer:
In case of minor burns, the burnt area should be held under cool running water for some time and proper medical treatment should be given.

Question 5.
Define spoilage of food.
Answer:
The change in the normal state of the food is called spoilage of food.

Question 6.

What is the purpose of food preservation?
Answer:

1. To retain the colour, taste and nutritive value of the food.
2. To make food available throughout the year.
3. To prevent the growth of micro-organisms like bacteria and fungi in the food items.
4. To reduce the wastage of food materials.
5. Preserving food not only protects our health but also makes food available to the people who need it.

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write about food preservation methods.
Answer:
Drying: It is the removal of water content from the food by drying it in the sunlight.
E.g. Grains.
Addition of salt: When salt is added to food, it removes the water from the food.
E.g. Fish, Pickles.
Addition of sugar: When sugar is added to food, it dissolves in the water content of the food and preserves the food items from spoilage.
E.g. Jam, Fruit juices.
Freezing: The microbial growth and the enzyme activity on the frozen food items can be prevented by this method. E.g. Fruits, Vegetables.
Boiling: It kills the micro-organisms present in the food materials.
E.g. Milk, Water.
Canning and bottling: In this method, food is packed in airtight cans so that germs do not grow on them.
E.g. Milk powder.
Addition of chemical preservatives: Chemical preservatives are added to stop the growth of micro-organisms in certain food materials.
E.g. Sodium benzoate is added with fruits, Sulphur dioxide is added with dry fruits, Vinegar is added with pickles.

Question 2.
Explain the different types of food.
Answer:
Different types of food

1. Grains
2. Vegetables
3. Fruits
4. Milk
5. Meat, Fish, Egg
6. Fat/Oil, Salt and Sugar
   Some major food items are given in the table below.

Question 3.
Write about kitchen safety.
Answer:
Kitchen is an important place in our homes. We prepare our food in the kitchen. We use gas cylinders for cooking. Some of us may use electric stoves. The equipment and the environment in the kitchen may be little dangerous. So we need to be cautious and careful.
The following table gives what should we do and what we shouldn’t do while handling gas cylinders.

VII. Higher order thinking questions:

Question 1.
Ram put water over a burning wood in the kitchen. The fire is put off. How the water was able to put out the fire?
Answer:
When Ram put water on fire it does two things. It displaces the free oxygen molecules (which have two atoms of oxygen) so that it is not available to participate in the burning process and it turns to steam, carrying heat away from the fire, cooling it to the point where it can no longer burn.

Activities:

Activity 1.
Classify the following into perishable and non-perishable food items. Salt, Sugar, Apple, Corn, Orange, Wheat, Pulses, Tomato, Papaya, Rice, Cucumber.
Answer:

Activity 2.
Look at the fruits and vegetables in your house. Is there any spoiled one? Find out the reason for that.
Answer:

Activity 3.
Find your B.M.I

Answer:
Activity to be done by students.

Activity 4.
Find out the common disease prevalent in your area. Find out the reason for them an discuss with your teacher how to get remedy for them.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Food Additional Questions and Answers

I.Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
Microorganisms present in spoiled foods may cause _________ diseases.
(a) foodborne
(b) Diabetes
(c) Colour blindness
(d) Cholera
Answer:
(a) foodborne

Question 2.
_______ disease is spread from one person to another.
(a) Heart disease
(b) Common cold
(c) Marasmus
(d) Diabetes
Answer:
(b) Common cold

Question 3.
Kwashiorkor is a _______ deficiency disease.
(a) Vitamin – A
(b) Iodine
(c) protein
(d) Iron
Answer:
(c) protein

Question 4.
Beri beri is a disease which occurs due to lack of _______.
(a) Vitamin-A
(b) Vitamin -B
(c) Iron
(d) Vitamin-D
Answer:
(b) Vitamin-B

Question 5.
Type of Fire Extinguisher for the fire caused by Liquid, Gaseous fuels is _________.
(a) Carbon dioxide
(c) Water
(b) Oxygen
(d) Dry chemical
Answer:
(a) Carbon dioxide

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
BMI=_____
Answer:
Weight In kg / Height In m2

Question 2.
Food is exposed to _________ rays or _________ rays.
Answer:
Gamma, ultra violet

Question 3.
Regular ________ can reduce obesity and overweight.
Answer:
physical activity

Question 4.
Infectious diseases are caused by _______.
Answer:
Micro-organisms

Question 5.
_______ are highly nutritive food materials.
Answer:
Spinach and Ponnanganni keerai.

III. Say True or False:

Question 1.
Spoiled foods are suitable to eat.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
People with BMIs between 18.5 and 25 have less chance of developing diseases like cancer.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Do not operate electrical appliances with wet hands.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Keep the inflammable materials near the gas stoves.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Use proper fire extinguishers to put out the fire.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:

1. e
2. c
3. d
4. b
5. a

Question 2.

Answer:

1. b
2. a
3. e
4. c
5. d

V. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Which food items are called Perishable foods?
Answer:
Food items like fruits, vegetables, milk and meat will be fresh for a very short time. These are called perishable foods.

Question 2.
What is meant by the preservation of food?
Answer:
The process of keeping the food materials for a long time without getting spoiled is called preservation of food.

Question 3
What is Irradiation?
Answer:
Irradiation is a modern method by which, food is exposed to gamma rays or ultraviolet rays to kill the bacteria and the mould.

Question 4.
What are the sources to be removed to avoid fire?
Answer:

1. Cut off the fuel.
2. Cut off the air supply.
3. Lower the temperature.

Question 5.
What is the Difference between Marasmus and Kwashiorkor?
Answer:
Marasmus:

1. Marasmus is a protein deficiency disease.
2. In marasmus, the child loses weight and it will appear as though bones are covered by skin.

Kwashiorkor:
In Kwashiorkor, the child develops an enlarged belly with swollen face and feet.

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What are the factors for food Spoilage?
Answer:
Food can be spoiled by factors like air and oxygen, moisture, light, micro-organisms, and temperature.
Air and Oxygen: When oxygen reacts with food contents, it produces changes in the colour and flavour of the food.
Moisture: Moisture keeps the food fresh. When the moisture is gone vegetables and fruits shrink. Due to evaporation, moisture loss occurs in foods like meat, fish and cheese. Enzymes: Enzymes break down the tissues and components of the food in different ways like oxidation, browning and ripening. So the food items decay.
Micro-organisms: Micro-organisms such as fungi, yeast and bacteria can grow well in low temperatures. They multiply in food and spoil them.
Light: Light produces colour changes and also vitamin loss.
Temperature: Sometimes the rise in temperature causes food spoilage.

Question 2.
Explain the different types of diseases.
Answer:
There are four main types of diseases. They are:

• Infectious diseases
• Hereditary diseases
• Physiological diseases
• Deficiency diseases.

a. Infectious diseases: Infectious diseases are caused by micro-organisms which invade our body and multiply inside them. These diseases are spread from one person to another. E.g. Common cold.
b. Hereditary diseases: Hereditary diseases are spread by abnormalities in the gene. These diseases are passed from parents to children. E.g. Heart disease.
c. Physiological diseases: Diseases which are caused due to malfunction of the body organs are called physiological diseases. E.g. Asthma.
d. Deficiency diseases: A diet which contains all essential nutrients in correct proportion is indispensable for maintaining good health. Deficiency in one or more of the nutrients causes various diseases. These are called deficiency diseases.

Question 3.
Write any 6 tips for fire protection and prevention.
Answer:

• Do not keep the inflammable materials like kerosene etc, near the gas stoves.
• In case of person’s clothes catching fire, cover the person with a thick blanket or carpet.
• If kerosene or oil catches fire, use sand to put out the fire.
• If solid materials like wood catch fire, use water to put out the fire.
• If an electrical appliance catches fire, unplug the appliances and disconnect the electricity.
• Use proper fire extinguishers to put out the fire.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Pdf Term 1 Chapter 4 Science In Everyday Life Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 4 Science In Everyday Life

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Science in Everyday Life Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
Blue appearance of the sky is due to ________ of light.
a) reflection
b) refraction
c) interference
d)scattering
Answer:
d) scattering

Question 2.
Who is known as Missile Man of India?
a) Sir CM. Raman
b) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
c) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
d)Ramanujan
Answer:
b) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

Question 3.
An example for reversible change is ________.
a) melting of ice
b) burst of balloon
c) burning paper
d) change of milk into curd
Answer:
a) Melting of ice

Question 4.
Chemical reactions are example for ________ .
a) reversible change
b) irreversible change
c) both of them
d) none of them
Answer:
b) Irreversible change

Question 5.
Which of the following is not an organic waste?
a) Flowers
b) Vegetables
c) Fruits
d) Battery
Answer:
d) Battery

II. Fill in the blanks:
Question 1.
The book Wings of fire was written by _______.
Answer:
Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

Question 2.
A stretched rubber band comes back to normal shape. It is an example for _______.
Answer:
Reversible changes

Question 3.
Most of the physical changes are _______ changes.
Answer:
Reversible changes

Question 4.
Newspaper is a _______ waste.
Answer:
Recyclable waste

Question 5.
Wastes from house and apartments are called _______ waste.
Answer:
Household

III. Match the following:

Answer:

1. e
2. d
3. a
4. b
5. c

IV.Circle the odd one:

Question 1.
a) Melting
b) Freezing
c) Boiling
d) Cooking
Answer:
d) Cooking

Question 2.
a) Boiling
b) Burning
c) Cooking
d) Rusting of Iron
Answer:
a) Boiling

Question 3.
a) Vegetables
b) Flowers
c) Fruits
d) Chemicals
Answer:
d) Chemicals

Question 4.
a) Paper
b) Glass
c) Metals
d) Paints
Answer:
a) Paper

V. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Sky appears blue in colour. Why?
Answer:
The sunlight is scattered by the gases and particles present in the air. The white light we see is composed of different colours such as violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red (VIBGYOR). Among. these colours, blue is scattered more. Because of this reason, sky appears blue most of the time.

Question 2.
What is reversible change?
Answer:
Changes which can be reversed are called reversible change.
Eg: melting of ice.

Question 3.
Differentiate reversible and irreversible changes.
Answer:

Question 4.
What are the different types of waste?
Answer:
Wastes are of two types, they are;

• Household wastes.
• Wastes from school.

Question 5.
Write a note on e-waste.
Answer:
e – wastes are electronic waste of computer parts, electronic materials, cell phone parts, CFL bulb. Every year 40 million tons of electronic waste is generated world wide, e-waste comprises 70% of our overall toxic waste. e-waste contains hundreds of substances, of which many are toxic.

Question 6.
Name the scientists from Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Dr M.S. Swaminathan.
• Venkataraman Radhakrishnan.
• Sir. C.V. Raman.
• Srinivasa Ramanujan.
• Dr. A.P.J. Adbul Kalam.

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write about different household wastes.
Answer:
Different types of household wastes are :
a) Organic waste: Kitchen wastes, vegetables, flowers, leaves, fruits.
b) Toxic wastes: Old medicines, paints, chemicals, bulbs, spray cans, fertilizers, pesticides, containers, batteries, shoe polish.
c) Recyclable wastes: Paper, glass, metals, plastics.
d) Solid wastes: Cloths soiled with blood and other body fluids.
e) e-wastes: Computer parts, electronic materials, cell phone parts, CFL bulbs.

Question 2.
Explain the need for waste disposal.
Answer:
Waste management is needed for the following reasons.

a) To control pollution: Various pollution like water pollution, air pollution and soil pollution can be avoided.

b) To conserve natural resources: Waste disposal is important for the conservation of our environmental resources like forest, minerals and water.

c) To control spread of diseases: Spread of infectious diseases can be controlled.

d) Recycle for further use: Wastes can be recycled to get products for further use.

Question 3.
How can you reduce waste in your school environment?
Answer:
The following practices will helpful to reduce wastes in school environment.

• Use reusable and recyclable bags and containers.
• Avoid one-time use items and use items which can be used permanently.
• Segregate wastes into bio-degradable and non-biodegradable items and hand over them to the municipal and corporation people who collect them.
• Do not throw away your wastes everywhere, put them in dustbins and dispose of them properly.
• Don’t waste food. Waste food in schools can be collected and used to feed cattle.
• Organic wastes can be converted into manures.

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Science In Everyday Life Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
Which among the following is the toxic waste?
a) Vegetable waste
b) Old medicines
c) Kitchen waste
d) Leaves waste
Answer:
b) Old medicines

Question 2.
Which is reversible change?
a) Raw egg to boiled egg
b) Ice cube to water
c) Burning paper
d) All the above
Answer:
b) Ice cube to water

Question 3.
Who is referred as the people’s president?
a) Sir C.V.Raman
b) Ram Nath Kovoind
c) A.P.J.Abdul Kalam
d) None of the above
Answer:
c) A.P.J.Abdul Kalam

Question 4.
Sir C.V.Raman won the Nobel prize for his work in _______.
a) Green revolution
b) Composite numbers
c) Structure of ribosome
d) Scattering of light
Answer:
d) Scattering of light

Question 5.
National Science Day is celebrated on _______.
a) 27th February
b) 28th February
c) 28th March
d) 27th March
Answer:
b) 28th February

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Water changes into ice on cooling is an example of ________.
Answer:
Reversible change

Question 2.
change is the _______ of a substance from one form to another.
Answer:
Transition

Question 3.
A.P.J Abdul Kalam was an _______.
Answer:
Aeronautical Scientist.

Question 4.
Changes which cannot be reversed are called _______.
Answer:
Irreversible changes

Question 5.
Most of the physical changes are _______ change.
Answer:
Reversible

Question 6.
Dissolving sugar in water is a _______ change.
Answer:
Reversible

Question 7.
Paper, LPG, CNG petrol etc, are _____ substances.
Answer:
Inflammable

Question 8.
Water on _______ changes to ice and on _______ comes back to water.
Answer:
cooling, heating

III. Pick out the odd one out:

Question 1.
a) Kitchen waste
b) Vegetables
c)Flowers
d)Fertilizers
Answer:
d) Fertilizers

Question 2.
a)Piece of bread
b)Polythene bag
c) Broken glass
d) Blades.
Answer:
a) Piece of bread

Question 3.
a) Reduce
b) Reuse
c) Recycle
d) Disposal
Answer:
d) Disposal

Question 4.
a) Milk to curd
b) Raw egg to boiled egg
c) Ice cube to water
d) Grain to flour.
Answer:
c) Ice cube to water

IV. Match the following:

Answer:

1. b
2. a
3. d
4. c

V. Say True or False:

Question 1.
Evaporation of water is a reversible change.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Burning of the paper is an irreversible change.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Rusting of iron is a reversible change.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Sky appears blue at sunrise.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Sunlight is scattered by the gases.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Blue has more scattered capacity.
Answer:
True

VI. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Why does the sky appear blue?
Answer:
Sunlight is scattered by the gases and particles present in the air. The white light we see is composed of different colours such as violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red (VIBGYOR). Among these colours, blue is scattered more. Because of this reason, sky appears blue most of the time.

Question 2.
Name the two types of changes.
Answer:
Changes can be classified as

1. Reversible
2. Irreversible changes.

Question 3.
What are reversible changes?
Answer:
Changes which can be reversed are called reversible changes.

Question 4.
What are irreversible changes?
Answer:
Irreversible changes are also known as permanent changes. Processes like heating, burning, mixing and powdering cause permanent changes.

Question 5.
What is meant by waste?
Answer:
Waste is any substance which is discarded after primary use. It is worthless, defective and of no use. They are unwanted and undesirable materials.

Question 6.
What are the 3R’s used to save the environment?
Answer:
The 3R’s are used to save the environment are Reduce, Recycle, and Reuse.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write the differences between reversible and irreversible changes.
Answer:
Differences between reversible and irreversible changes are:

Question 2.
What is household waste and write its classification?
Answer:
Wastes from home are known as household waste. Solid wastes disposed of home and apartments comprise of garbage and rubbish (bottles, cans, clothing, composts, disposable items, food packings, newspapers, magazines, and trimmings). We can classify the household wastes as below.

Organic wastes: Kitchen wastes, Vegetables, Flowers, Leaves, Fruits.

Toxic wastes: Old medicines, Paints, Chemicals, Bulbs, Spray cans, Fertilizers, Pesticide containers, Batteries, Shoe polish.

Recyclable wastes: Paper, &lass, Metals, Plastics.

Solid wastes: Cloths soiled with blood and other body fluids.

e-wastes: Computer parts, Electronic materials, Cell phone parts, CFL bulbs.

Question 3.
How can we protect our environment?
Answer:

• Use reusable and recyclable bags and containers.

• Avoid one-time use items and use items which can be used permanently.
• Segregate wastes into bio-degradable and non-biodegradable items and hand over them to the municipal and corporation people who collect them.
• Do not throw away your wastes everywhere. Put them in dustbins and dispose of them properly.
• Don’t waste food. Waste food in schools can be collected and used to feed cattle.
• Organic wastes can be converted into manures.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Pdf Term 1 Chapter 3 Energy Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Energy

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Energy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation
I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
When diesel is burnt chemical energy is converted into _______.
a) wind energy
b) heat energy
c) solar energy
d) sound energy
Answer:
b) heat energy

Question 2.
Running water possesses _______.
a) potential energy
b) chemical energy
c) kinetic energy
d) sound energy
Answer:
c) kinetic energy

Question 3.
Unit of energy is _______.
a) Kilogram
b) Newton
c) Kelvin
d) Joule
Answer:
d) Joule

Question 4.
Which one of the following requires wind energy?
a) Bicycle
b) Photosynthesis
c) Parachute
d) Automobiles
Answer:
c) Parachute

Question 5.
Cow dung possesses _______ .
a) kinetic energy
b) chemical energy
c) solar energy
d) heat energy
Answer:
b) chemical energy

II. Find out the energy conversion that takes place in the following:

Question 1.
Iron box: _______.
Answer:
Chemical energy to Heat energy

Question 2.
Electric Iron box: _______.
Answer:
Electric energy to Heat energy

Question 3.
Electric fan:
Answer:
Electric energy to Mechanical energy

Question 4.
Speaker:
Answer:
Electric energy to Sound energy

Question 5.
Generator: _______.
Answer:
Mechanical energy to Electrical energy

III. Find out form of energy possessed by the following things:

Question 1.
A rock on the top of a hill.
Answer:
Pontential Energy

Question 2.
A rolling ball.
Answer:
Kinetic Energy

Question 3.
Charcoal.
Answer:
Heat Energy

Question 4.
Water falls.
Answer:
Kinetic Energy

Question 5.
Battery.
Answer:
Chemical Energy

IV. Match the following:

Answer:

1. e
2. d
3. a
4. c
5. b

V. Say True or False:

Question 1.
An apple falling from a tree is an example for kinetic energy.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Electrical energy is used to run electric trains.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Heat energy cannot be produced by friction.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Potential energy and heat energy are the two forms of mechanical energy.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
The unit of energy is joule.
Answer:
True

VI. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What is energy?
Answer:
Energy is defined as capacity to do work. S.I unit of work is Joule.

Question 2.
What are the different forms of energy?
Answer:
There are different forms of energy like mechanical energy, heat energy, light energy, wind energy, solar energy, electrical energy, and chemical energy.

Question 3.
What are the uses of mechanical energy?
Answer:

• In hydroelectric plants, kinetic energy of water is converted into electrical energy.
• Windmills convert kinetic energy of winds into electrical energy.
• Mechanical energy of the hammer is used to apply a force on a nail.
• Mechanical energy can bring a moving body to rest and make a body at rest to move.

Question 4.
State the Law of conservation of energy.
Answer:
Law of conservation of energy states that energy Can neither be created nor be destroyed. One form of energy is converted into another form of energy.

Question 5.
Give the uses of Light energy.
Answer:

• We are able to see objects with the help of light energy.
• Plants use light energy to synthesis their food.
• With the help of light energy, our skin is able to synthesis Vitamin D.
• Electricity can be produced with the help of light energy.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the types of Mechanical energy.
Answer:
Energy possessed by an object due its position is called mechanical energy.
Mechanical energy can be classified into two;

• Kinetic energy
• Potential energy

a) Kinetic energy: Energy possessed by a moving objectis known as kinetic energy. It is also known as energy of motion.
Eg: Moving car, cricket ball bowled by a player, bullet coming out of a gun.

b) Potential energy: Energy possessed by an object which is at rest is known as potential energy. It is also known as stores energy of position.
Eg: Object lifted above, stone in the stretched rubber, water in the dam.

Question 2.
Explain Conservation of energy.
Answer:
Energy cannot be created cannot be destroyed also. It is changed from one form to another form or transferred from one object to another object. Examples for conservation of energy in our daily life are :

1. Water dam :

• Water stored in water dams posseses potential energy.
• When water falls down, potential energy of water is converted, into kinetic energy.
• Kinetic energy of water rotates the turbines and electric energy is generated.

2. Electrical appliances:

• Electrical energy is used in many domestic appliances such as electric stove, iron box and fan.
• Electric energy flows into the coil in the devices.
• As current flows, it heats up the coil.
• With the help of this heat energy, we do many useful works.
• Thus, electrical energy is converted into heat energy.
• Electical energy is converted to mechanical energy in fan, light enrgy in bulb and sound energy in computer.

3. Driving a car:

• We use fuel in the form of petrol or diesel or gas to run vehicles.
• When this fuel burns in the engine, chemical energy is converted into heat energy.
• Burning fuel produces hot gases which pushes the piston in the engine to move the vehicle.
• Thus heat energy is converted into mechanical energy.

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Energy Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
___________ is the only form of energy visible to human eye.
a) Heat energy
b) Light energy
c) Electrical energy
d) Chemical energy
Answer:
b) Light energy

Question 2.
Light travels at a speed of _________.
a) 3,00,000 km/s
b) 4,00,000 km/s
c) 5,00,000 km/s
d) 6,00,000 km/s
Answer:
a) 3,00,000 km/s

Question 3.
Sunlight takes _________ to reach earth.
a) 5 minutes
b) 6 minutes
c) 7 minutes
d) 8 minutes
Answer:
a) 5 minutes

Question 4.
Which of the following device converts chemical energy into electrical energy?
a) Battery
b) Loud speaker
c) Solar cell
d) Electrical motor
Answer:
a) Battery

Question 5.
___________ stands first in generating electricity from wind mill.
a) Kerala
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Karnataka
d) Andhra pradesh
Answer:
b) Tamil Nadu

Question 6.
The energy, possessed by a object due to its position is called _______.
a) Kinetic energy
b) Potential energy
c) Mechanical energy
d) Electrical energy
Answer:
b) Potential energy

Question 7.
The energy possessed by a cricket ball bowled by a player is _______.
a) Potential energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Mechanical energy
d) Electrical energy.
Answer:
b) Mechanical energy

Question 8.
Electric eel is a _______.
a) fish
b) snake
c) frog
d) none of the above
Answer:
a) fish

Question 9.
Which of the following is the example potential energy?
a) Object lifted above
b) Bullet coming out of a sun
c) Moving car
d) Cricket ball bowled by a player
Answer:
c) Moving car

Question 10.
What energy is possessed by stretched rubber.
a) Nuclear
b) Potential
c) Kinetic
d) Thermal
Answer:
b) Potential

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
_______ is a measure of heat in a body.
Answer:
Temperature

Question 2.
________ use wind energy to generate electricity.
Answer:
Windmills

Question 3.
The form of energy that produces feeling of hotness is called as _______.
Answer:
heat

Question 4.
Light energy helps our skin to synthesis _________.
Answer:
vitamin – b

Question 5.
When stored water falls down, potential energy of water is converted into _______.
Answer:
Kinetic energy

Question 6.
Electric eel can generate _______.
Answer:
electricity

Question 7.
Law of conversation of energy given by _________.
Answer:
Julius Robert Mayar

III. Say True or False:

Question 1.
Light does not require any medium to travel.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Mechanical energy can be used for pumping water.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Heat energy is used to run vehicles.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Heat is measured in Joule.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Water stored in water dams possesses kinetic energy.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Photosynthesis changes solar energy into chemical energy.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Wind mills convert kinetic energy of winds into electrical energy.
Answer:
True

IV. Circle the odd one:

Question 1.
a) Proton
b) Dentron
c) Electron
d) Neutron
Answer:
b) Dentron

Question 2.
a) Nuclear power plants
b) Hydroelectric plants
c) Water heaters
d) Windmills
Answer:
c) Water heaters

V. Match the following:

Question 1:

Answer:

1. d
2. a
3. b
4. c

Question 2.

Answer:

1. d
2. c
3. b
4. a

VI. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
What is mechanical energy?
Answer:

• Energy possessed by an object due to its position is called mechanical energy.
• Mechanical energy can be classified into two.
  • • Kinetic energy
    • Potential energy

Question 2.
What is energy of motion? Give examples.
Answer:
Energy possessed by a moving object is known as kinetic energy. It is also known as energy of motion.
Examples: Moving car, Cricket ball bowled by a player, Bullet coming out of a gun.

Question 3.
Write any two uses to mechanical energy.
Answer:

• Windmills convert kinetic energy of winds into electrical energy.
• Mechanical energy of the hammer is used to apply a force on a Class nail.

Question 4.
What is wind energy and write its uses?
Answer:
Energy possessed by the wind is known as wind energy.
Uses of wind energy

• Wind mills use wind energy to generate electricity.
• Ships sail by the power of wind.
• Sports like wind surfing, sailing, kite surfing use wind energy.
• Wind energy can be used for pumping water.

Question 5.
Name the particles of atom?
Answer:
Atoms possess particles like protons, electrons, and neutrons.

Question 6.
What is electric energy?
Answer:
Movement of electron in the objects causes energy. This energy is called electric energy.

Question 7.
What are the different ways electricity can be generated?
Answer:
Electric energy is also generated from nuclear power plants, hydroelectric plants, and windmills. It is also generated from solar energy.

Question 8.
Write the uses of Electric energy.
Answer:

• Electric energy is needed for the working of fan, light, television, washing machine, refrigerator, etc.
• Electric iron box, electric stove, and electric water heater work by electrical energy.
• It is used to run cars and trains.
• It is used in factories to produce materials.

Question 9.
What is law of conservation of energy?
Answer:
Law of conservation of energy states that energy can neither be created nor be destroyed. One form of energy is converted into another form of energy. This law was given by Julius Robert Mayor.

Question 10.
What energy transfer happen in a car engine?
Answer:
When Petrol or diesel or gas burns in the engine, chemical energy is converted into heat energy. Burning fuel produces hot gases which pushes the piston in the engine to move the vehicle. Thus heat energy is converted into mechanical energy.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write the uses of heat energy and light energy.
Answer:
Uses of heat energy:

• Heat energy obtained from power stations is used to generate electricity.
• Heat energy obtained from petrol and diesel is used to run vehicles.
• We cook food with the help of heat. Heat energy renders the food material soft and easy to digest.
• Hard substances like iron are heated to mold them into different shapes.
• Heat is used to dry clothes and other wet substances.

Uses of light energy:

• We are able to see objects with the help of light energy.
• Plants use light energy to synthesis their food.
• With the help of light energy, our skin is able to synthesis Vitamin-D.
• Electricity can be produced with the help of light energy.

Question 2.
Explain about chemical energy and its uses.
Answer:
Chemical energy:
Chemical energy is stored in substances when atoms join together to form chemical compounds. When two or more chemical substances react with each other, this energy is released.

Uses of chemical energy:

• The food we eat contains chemical energy.
• Chemical energy in wood provides heat energy which helps us to cook food.
• Chemical energy in coal is used to generate electricity.
• Batteries we use in our daily life contain chemical energy.
• Fuels like petrol and diesel possess chemical energy which is used to run vehicles.

Question 3.
Draw the diagram to show how the electric energy generated from water.
Answer:

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Pdf Term 1 Chapter 2 Matter and Materials Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Matter and Materials

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Matter and Materials Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following are the states of matter?
a) Solid, Liquid, Water
b) Solid, Liquid, Gas
c) Solid, Liquid, Wood
d) Solid, Liquid, Sugar
Answer:
b) Solid, Liquid, Gas

Question 2.
Which of the following is a solid?
a) Kerosene
b) Air
c) Water
d) Apple
Answer:
d) Apple

Question 3.
Jute fibre is obtained from
a) leaf
b) stem
c) flower
d) root
Answer:
b) Stem

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
__________ soil is suitable for growing cotton.
Answer:
Black soil and alluvial soil

Question 2.
The process of making cotton yarn from cotton fibre is __________ .
Answer:
Spinning

Question 3.
Ginning is done to separate _______ from the seeds.
Answer:
Raw fibres

Question 4.
Synthetic fibre is also called _________ fibre.
Answer:
Artificial fibre

Question 5.
Woolen clothes are manufactured from _______.
Answer:
Plant / animals

III. Match the following:

Answer:

1. b
2. a
3. e
4. c
5. d

IV. Say True or False:

Question 1.
Coir is the outer covering of coconut.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Beans and peas are pulses.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Table is a household good.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Sweet corn is not a product of maize.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Cotton balls contain jute fibre.
Answer:
False

V. Complete the given analogy:

Question 1.
Solid: Table:: _______ : Water.
Answer:
Liquid

Question 2.
Cotton seed: _______ :: Lint: Spinning.
Answer:
Ginning

Question 3.
Coir fibre: _______ :: Cotton fibre: Cotton Plant.
Answer:
Coconut tree

Question 4.
Black Pepper: Spice:: Sweat corn: _______.
Answer:
Cereal

VI. Answer brief:

Question 1.
What is known as ginning?
Answer:
The raw fibres are separated from the seed by a process is known as ginning.

Question 2.
Give two examples of food products made from wheat.
Answer:
Wheat products are breads, cakes, pasta, wheat germ and cracked wheat.

Question 3.
What are synthetic fibres?
Answer:
The fibres made by human beings with the help of chemical process are called synthetic fibres or artificial fibres. These fibres are obtained from coal, petroleum and natural gas.
Eg: Rayon, nylon, polyester, Acrylic.

Question 4.
What is known as upthrust?
Answer:
When an object is immersed into a liquid, the liquid exerts an upward force on the object. It is known as upthrust.

Question 5.
Name the list of whole grains.
Answer:
Wheat, maize, rice, beans, peas, barley, and millets are some of the whole grains.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Discuss briefly about three states of matter.
Answer:
Matter is anything that has mass and occupies space. Matter can exist in three states: Solid, liquid and gas.
a) Solid: In solids, molecules are very closely packed, solids are incompressible. They have a definite shape, size and volume.
Eg: Table, Book, Metals.

b) Liquid: In liquids, molecules are loosely packed. Hence, liquids are ineligibly compressible. They have a definite volume but no definite shape and size.
Eg: Water, Milk, Petrol

c) Gas: In gases, molecules are very loosely poked. Hence gases are highly compressible.
Eg: Air, LPG, Oxygen.

Question 2.
Draw a flow chart to indicate the process of making fabrics from cotton ball.
Answer:

VIII. Give Reason:

Question 1.
Why umbrellas are made up of synthetic clothes?
Answer:
Umbrellas are made up of synthetic clothes because synthetic fibres are more hydrophobic than natural fibres. Nylon and polyester, the two fabrics most commonly used in umbrellas. Synthetic are not naturally absorb water like natural fibres. (Cotton, wool).

Question 2.
What determines whether an object floats or sinks in a fluid?
Answer:
Whether an object floats or sinks is determined by its density. When an object is immersed into a liquid, the liquid exerts an upward force on the object. It is known as upthrust. If the weight is greater than the upthrust, it sinks. But it is less on the empty water bottle and so it floats.

Book Activities:

Activity 1.
Look at your surroundings. Give some examples of solid, liquid, and gases.

Answer:

Activity 2.
Classify the following Natural Fibres:
Polyster, Jute, Silk, Nylon, Cotton, Wool, Acrylic, Rayon.
Answer:

Activity 3.
Take water in a bucket and drop the following items in the water.
Apple, Scissors, Silver fork, Marbles, Plastic ball.

Fill the table with your observation.

Activity 4.
Collect some samples of solid substances such as salt, sugar, chalk powder, sand and saw dust.
Take five beakers filled with water and add. a small amount of sugar to the first beaker, salt to the second and similarly, add small amounts of other substances in other beakers. Stir the content with a glass rod. Wait for few minutes. What happens to the substances added? Note your observation.

Answer:

Activity 5.
Collect samples of coconut oil, kerosene, mustard oil, lemon juice, and vinegar. Take five test tubes, fill them up to half with water. Add a spoon full of one liquid to this and stir it well. Keep it in a test tube stand and wait for few minutes. Observe whether the liquid mixes with water. Repeat the experiment with other liquids and tabulate your observation.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Organ System Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which of these is a synthetic fibre.
a) Cotton
b) Jute
c) Rayon
d) Hemp
Answer:
c) Rayon

Question 2.
The natural fibre obtained from animal is ___________.
a) Rayon
b) Nylon
c) Silk
d) Jute
Answer:
c) Silk

Question 3.
__________ is used for making dhotis and sarees.
a) Cotton
b) Jute
c) Coir
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Cotton

Question 4.
A cotton plant is a bushy plant of __________ feet hight.
a) 4-5
b) 5-6
c) 6-7
d) 7-8
Answer:
b)5-6

Question 5.
Which state of matter has a definite shape.
a) liquid
b) solid
c) gas
d) all the above
Answer:
b) solid

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
_______ is an important process for making fabric from the yarn.
Answer:
knitting

Question 2.
Impurities of the cotton fibre can be removed by the process _______.
Answer:
combing

Question 3.
The world’s most valuable fibre is __________.
Answer:
Vicuna

Question 4.
__________ is used as a sweetener instead of sugar.
Answer:
Corn syrup

Question 5.
The process of making yarn from lint is called _____________.
Answer:
spinning

Question 6.
The artificial fibres are also known as _______.
Answer:
synthetic

III. Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:

1. b
2. a
3. d
4. c

Question 2.

Answer:

1. b
2. a
3. d
4. c

Question 3.

Answer:

1. b
2. a
3. d
4. c

IV. Say True or False:

Question 1.
Solids are compressible.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Dacron is an example of artificial fibres.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The fibrous material left after separating cotton seeds is called lint.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Barley and maize are grains.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Maize is also known as rice.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
White rice contains essential nutrients.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Coir fibre is obtained from the Jute.
Answer:
False

Question 8.
White rice is usually considered much healthier than Brown rice.
Answer:
False

V. Complete the Analogy:

Question 1.
Solids: incompressible:: Gas: _______
Answer:
Compressible

Question 2. Hemp: _______ :: Wool
Answer:
Animal fibre Plant fibre

Question 3.
Maize product: Tortilla chips:: _______ : Pasta
Answer:
Wheat products

Question 4.
_______ : Films:: Nylon: Fishing nets.
Answer:
Polyester

VI. Circle the odd one:

Question 1.
a) Ginning
b) Spinning
c) Filling
d) Weaving
Answer:
Filling

Question 2.
a) Sweet corn
b) Tortilla chips
c) Pasta
d) Taco
Answer:
Pasta

Question 3.
a) Chalk powder
b) Sand
c) Sugar
d) Sawdust
Answer:
Sugar

Question 4.
a) Vinegar
b) Mustard oil
c) Kerosene
d) Coconut oil
Answer:
Vinegar

Question 5.
a) Wool
b)Nylon
c) Rayon
d) Acrylic
Answer:
Wool

VII. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
What is material?
Answer:
A material is a mixture of substances that constitute an object. They can be pure or impure, natural or man-made.

Question 2.
What kind of soil needed for growing cotton?
Answer:
Cotton grows well in black soil and alluvial šoil.

Question 3.
What is cotton balls?
Answer:
The cotton plant bears a large number of small green pods called cotton balls.

Question 4.
What is Ginning?
Answer:
The raw fibres are separated from the seeds by a process known as Ginning.

Question 5.
Mention the two uses of cotton?
Answer:
Uses of cotton

• It is used to manufacture cotton textiles and garments.
• It is used as fillers in pillows and mattresses.
• It used for making surgical bandages.

Question 6.
Why jute fibre is called as Golden fibre?
Answer:
It is also referred to as the golden fibre due to its colour and cost effectiveness.

Question 7.
Write the uses of Jute?
Answer:
Uses of Jute

• It is used for making bags, carpets, curtains and ropes.
• It is used for making clothes for wrapping bales of raw cotton and to make socks for storing grains.
• It is used for making wall hangings for decoration.

Question 8.
What do you mean by synthetic fibre?
Answer:
These fibres are made by human beings with the help of chemical process. Hence, they are called synthetic fibres or manmade fibres.

Question 9.
Give an example of food products made from rice?
Answer:
Rice, idly, Idiappam and Rice aval (Flattened rice) are the food items made from rice.

Question 10.
Will eating millets reduce weight?
Answer:
Yes. It helps in weight loss. It is rich in fibre.

Question 11.
What are household goods?
Answer:

• These are the products that we use in our house.
• The goods that are found in a house permanently are called household goods.
• Household goods are:
  • Furniture
  • Kitchenware,
  • Cloths, Towels,
  • Beddings
  • Boots
  • Electronic goods.

Question 12.
What insoluble substance? Give examples.
Answer:
Substances which do not dissolve in water are said to be insoluble Substance.
Eg. chalk powder, sand, sawdust.

VIII.Answer in Detail :

Question 1.
Write a note on fibres.
Answer:

• Fibre is a thin thread of natural or artificial substances.
• It is used to make clothes with the help of power looms or weaving machines.
• The fibres we get from plants and animals are called natural fibres. Cotton, jute, coir, flax, hemp are examples for plant fibres.

• Wool and silk are examples for animal fibres
• Fibres made by humans by chemical synthesis are called synthetic fibres or artificial fibres.
• Rayon, nylon, acrylic and dacron are examples for artificial fibres.
• These fibres are obtained from petroleum by complex chemical processes.

Question 2.
Write the uses of synthetic fibres.
Answer:

• Rayon is used to make rope, cloth, cap, tyre cords and carpets.
• Nylon is used to make fishing nets/ropes, parachutes, fabrics and bristles for brushes.
• Polyester is used to make fabric for suits and shirts, hoses, conveyer belts, films, PET bottles and wires.
• Acrylic is used to make sweaters, shawls and blankets.

Question 3.
Explain about the solubility of solids in water with examples.
Answer:

• Some substances completely dissolve in water. We say that these substances are soluble in water.
• Other substances do not dissolve in water even after we stir for a long time. These substances are insoluble in water.
• Examples: Salt, Sugar, Chalk powder, Sand, Sawdust

• Wool and silk are examples for animal fibres.
• Fibres made by humans by chemical synthesis are called synthetic fibres or artificial fibres.
• Rayon, nylon, acrylic and dacron are examples for artificial fibres.
• These fibres are obtained from petroleum by complex chemical processes.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Pdf Term 1 Chapter 1 Organ System Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Organ System

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Organ System Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
What is the length of the alimentary canal?
a) 3-5 m
b) 5-6 m
c) 9-11 m
d) 6-9 m
Answer:
d) 6-9 m

Question 2.
Which organ is involved in respiration?
a) Kidney
b) Lungs
c) Heart
d) Brain
Answer:
b) Lungs

Question 3.
How many kidneys do we have?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) 4
Answer:
a) 2

Question 4.
Functional unit of brain is
a) Neuron
b) Nephron
c) Brain stem
d) Nerves
Answer:
a) Neuron

Question 5.
Blood is bumped by
a) Lungs
b) Heart
c) Kidneys
d) Bones
Answer:
b) Heart

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
A group of organs together make up an _______ system.
Answer:
organ system

Question 2.
The process by which the body removes waste is called _______.
Answer:
Excretion

Question 3.
The number of chambers in human heart is _______.
Answer:
Four

Question 4.
The functional unit of kidney is _______.
Answer:
Nephron

Question 5.
The human nervous system is divided into _______ parts.
Answer:
Two

III. Say True or False:

Question 1.
The circulatory system is made up of the heart, blood, and blood vessels.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Important function of the heart is to transport blood with nutrients, oxygen, waste, and hormones.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The brain is protected by the rib cage.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The functional unit of kidney is neuron.
Answer:
False

IV. Circle the odd one:

Question 1:

Answer:

V. Match the following:

Answer:

1. C
2. e
3. d
4. a
5. b

VI. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Name the salivary glands in our mouth?
Answer:
The three parts of salivary glands in our mouth are parotid, sublingual and submandibular glands.

Question 2.
What is respiration?
Answer:
The process of providing oxygen to the tissues of the body and removing carbon dioxide from the tissues is called respiration.

Question 3.
What is the function of pericardial fluid?
Answer:
The space between the membranes is filled with pericardial fluid. This fluid protects the heart from shock.

Question 4.
Name the chambers in human heart?
Answer:
The heart is divided into four chambers. Two upper chambers are called atria or auricles. Two lower thicker chambers are called ventricles. The upper and lower chambers are separated by a muscular wall or tissue known as auriculo-ventricular septum of the heart.

Question 5.
Arrange the excretory system in correct sequence.
(Urinary bladder, Ureter, Kidney, Urethra).
Answer:
Kidney, Ureter, Urinary bladder, Urethra.

Question 6.
What are the two parts of peripheral nervous system?
Answer:
Peripheral nervous system consists of nerves extending from spinal cord to all parts of the body. It is made up of 2 parts.

• Somatic nervous system
• Autonomous nervous system.

Question 7.
What are the functions of blood?
Answer:

• Blood transports nutrients, oxygen, wastes, and hormones.
• It regulates the water level and body temperature.
• It takes oxygen to tissues and cells finally reaches the lungs to take oxygen again.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
List out the functions of the digestive system.

Answer:

• The process of conversion of complex food molecules into simpler molecules is called digestion.
• Saliva moistens food.
• Salivary enzymes which break down complex starch into simple carbohydrate molecules.
• Digestive enzymes are used for digesting fats, proteins, and carbohydrates.

Question 2.
Explain the main parts of the circulatory system.
Answer:

• In circulatory system, Blood is circulated to transport oxygen and nutrients to every part of the body through circulatory system.
• Circulatory system consists of the
  1. Heart
  2. Blood
  3. Blood Vessels

1. Heart:

• The heart is a hollow, muscular organ conical in shape.
• It is covered by a double walled pericardium membrane, filled with pericardial fluid.
• This fluid protects the heart from shock.
• Heart is placed inside the rib cage between the two lungs.
• Heart has 4 chambers, the two upper chambers called auricles.
• The two lower thicker chambers called ventricles.
• The upper and lower chambers of the heart are separated by muscular wall known as auriculo-ventricular septum.
• The right side of the heart receives de-oxygenated blood from various parts of body and pumped to the lungs for oxygenation.
• The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps to different parts of the body.

2. Blood:

• It transports nutrients’ oxygen, wastes and hormones.
• It regulates the water level and body temperature.
• Blood pumped through out the body by the heart.
• It takes oxygen to the tissues and cells from the lungs.

3. Blood vessels:
Blood vessels consists of arteries and veins. Arteries carry oxygenated blood except pulmonary arteries which carries deoxygenated blood from the heart vein carries deoxygenated blood except pulmonary veins which carries oxygenated blood to heart.

Question 3.
Explain three major parts of human brain.
Answer:
Human brain is divided into 3 major parts.

1. Fore Brain (Cerebrum)
2. Mid Brain (Cerebellum)
3. Hind Brain (Medulla Oblongata)

1. Fore Brain – Cerebrum
The fore brain consists of cerebrum, thalamus and hypothalamus.

• It is the largest part of the brain.
• It is the centre of human memory.
• It is responsible for intelligence, imagination and reasoning.

2. Mid Brain – Cerebellum

• It lies behind the cerebrum.
• It co-ordinates the movements of the muscules of body.
• It helps to maintain the balance of the body.

3. Hind Brain – Medulla Oblongata

• The hind brain comprises of pons and medulla oblongata.
• It is also called the brain stem.
• It controls breathing, heartbeat, and other involuntary muscles, so it is called “Vital Knot”.
• It connects the brain to the spinal cord.

Question 4.
Label the diagram given below.

Answer:

VIII. Questions based on higher order thinking (HOT):

Question 1. Why It is important to wear helmet while riding a bike?
Answer:
Wearing helmet helps to protect your life and protect your head from danger. The head and brain is the most vulnerable to injury in a motorcycle accident. Drivers and passengers wearing helmets increase their chances of survival over non-helmet wearers. Riders who do not wear helmets are at risk of suffering a traumatic brain injury, if they are in accident. Brain trauma often results in spinal cord injuries and disability that requires extended care and physical therapy. The damaged brain may deteriorate after hospitalization and die days to weeks after the injury due to secondary injury.

Question 2.
Eating fast-food and junk food affects our health. Justify.
Answer:

• Fast food is usually higher in fat, calories cholesterol, and sodium in comparison to homemade meals.
• Eating too much fast food can increase the risk for health problems such as high blood pressure, heart disease, and obesity.
• Eating a poor quality diet high in junk food is linked to a higher risk of obesity, depression, digestive issues, heart diseases and stroke, type 2 diabetes, cancer, and early death.

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Organ System Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
The brain is kept in a bony case called
a) Cranium
b) Cerebellum
c) Cerebrum
d) Medulla Oblongata
Answer:
a) Cranium

Question 2.
The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from
a) Lung
b) Heart
c) Liver
d) Kidney
Answer:
a) Lung

Question 3.
Name the functional unit of brain
a) Neurons
b) Nephrons
c) Fibrous membrane
d) Capsule
Answer:
a) Hind Brain

Question 4.
The brain loses the ability to function when it does not get oxygen for more than.
a) 2 minutes
b) 3 minutes
c) 4 minutes
d) 5 minutes
Answer:
4 minutes

Question 5.
The volume of blood in human adults is _______.
a) 4-5 litres
b) 5-6 litres
c) 3-5 litres
d) 4-8 litres
Answer:
a) 4-5 litres

Question 6.
The volume of blood in human adults is _______.
a) 4-5 litres
b) 5-6 litres
c) 3-5 litres
d) 4-8 litres
Answer:

a) 4-5 litres

Question 7.
Heart ¡s covered with double walled membrane called
a) cerebrum
b) Cerebellum
c) pericardium
d) rib cage
Answer:
c) pericardium

Question 8.
____________ carries sensation’s from the organs to the brain.
a) Somatic nervous system
b) Autonomous nervous system
c) Central nervous system
d) Spinal cord
Answer:
Somatic nervous system

Question 9.
____________ is the largest part of the brain.
a) Fore Brain
b) Mid Brain
c) Hind Brain
d) Centre Brain
Answer:
a) Fore Brain

Question 10.
Medulla oblongata is called as
a) pia meter
b) durameter
c) vital knot
d) pons verolli
Answer:
c) vital knot

Question 11.
Which of the following statement is correct about cerebellum?
a) It is the largest part of the brain
b) It co-ordinates the movements of the muscles of the body.
c) It controls involuntary action
d) It lies behind the cerebrum
Answer:
Both (b) and (d)

II. Fill in the blanks:
Question 1.
Salivary glands secrete _______.
Answer:
saliva

Question 2.
Name the organism which lives in the digestive system of human _______.
Answer:
Tapeworm

Question 3.
Liver produces for the digestion of fat.
Answer:
Bile

Question 4.
________ is sac – like in shape.
Answer:
Urinary bladder

Question 5.
Kidneys receive approximately ________ litres of blood.
Answer:
250 liter

Question 6.
The kidneys are made up of millions of excretory units called _______.
Answer:
Nephrons

III. Say True or False:

Question 1.
Liver transport nutrients, oxygen, wastes, and hormones.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Blood vessels consist of arteries and veins.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Crab has blue blood.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Autonomous nervous system carries sensation from the organs_______ to the brain.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Average weight of human brain ¡s 2.3 kg.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Brain is made up of eight immovable bones.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Fore brain lies behind the cerebrum.
Answer:
False

Question 8.
Fore brain is the centre of human memory.
Answer:
True

IV. Circle the odd one out:

Question 1.
(a) Heart
(b) Blood vessels
(c) Airway
(d) Pancreatic juice
Answer:
(d) Pancreatic juice

Question 2.
(a) Air way
(b) Lungs
(c) Liver
(d) Muscles of respiration
Answer:
(c) Liver

Question 3.
(a) pancreatic juice
(b) Bile
(c) Digestive enzymes
(d) paracardial fluid
Answer:
(d) paracardial fluid

Question 4.
(a) Nasal cavity
(b) Pharynx
(c) Nostrils
(d) Pancreas
Answer:
(d) Pancreas

Question 5.
(a) Dura mater
(b) Cranium
(c) Arachnoid membrane
(d) Pia meter
Answer:
(b) Cranium

Question 6.
(a) Pharynx
(b) Larynx
(c) bronchi
(d) Arteries
Answer:
(d) Arteries

V. Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:

1. d
2. a
3. b
4. c

Question 2.

Answer:

1. b
2. a
3. d
4. c

VI. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
What is digestion?
Answer:
The process of conversion of complex food molecules into simpler molecules is called digestion.

Question 2.
What are the compounds present in the food?
Answer:
The food contain complex compounds like carbohydrates, proteins and fats.

Question 3.
Mention the 3 important digestive glands in the process of digestion?
Answer:
Three important digestive glands in the process of digestion are:

• Salivary glands
• Pancreas
• Liver.

Question 4.
Why do we eat?
Answer:
Food contains sources of energy that the body needs to stay alive and to repair itself.

Question 5.
What happens when we swallow our food?
Answer:

• Our tongue squeezes off a portion and pushes down into your throat to the top of the esophagus.
• When we swallow muscular waves push the food along the digestive tract from the mouth down the esophagus to the stomach.
•  From the stomach, it moves on to the small and large intestine.

Question 6.
What are the most important toxic gases in smoke?
Answer:
Smoke contains many toxic gases. The most common is carbon monoxide.

Question 7.
What is the primary organ of the respiratory system?
Answer:
The lungs are the primary organs of the respiratory system. They are paired cone-shaped organs. They are located near the backbone on both sides of the heart.

Question 8.
Name the muscles of respiration?
Answer:
Muscles of respiration include diaphram and intercostal muscles.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Draw a flow chart to explain the function of digestive system in human being.
Answer:

Question 2.
Draw and label the parts for the structure of kidney.
Answer:

Question 3.
Explain the structure of heart.
Answer:

• The heart ¡s a hollow, muscular organ. It ¡s conical ¡n shape.
• It ¡s covered with double walled membrane called pericardiurn.
• The space between themembranes is filled with pericardial fluid. .
• The pericardial fluid protects the heart from shock.
• Heart ¡s placed inside the thoracic chamber (rib cage) ¡n between the two lungs.
• The heart ¡s divided into four chambers.
• Two upper chambers are called atrio or auricles.
• Two lower thicker chambers are called ventricles.
• The upper and lower chambers of the heart are separated by a muscular wall or tissue known as the auriculo-ventricular septum of the heart.
• The right side of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from various parts of the body and pumps it to the lungs for
  oxygenation.
• The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it into different parts of the body.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Pdf Term 3 Chapter 3 Educational Rights Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Educational Rights

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Educational Rights Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
________ is the first step for a child’s development.
a) Education
b) Exploration
c) Excavation
Answer:
a) Education

Question 2.
Education is more than ________.
a) Numeracy
b) Literacy
c) all of the above
Answer:
b) Literacy

Question 3.
“Education is the manifestation of the perfection already in man” is the famous quote of ________.
a) Mahatma Sandhi
b) Dr. Radhakrishnan
c) Swami Vivekananda
Answer:
c) Swami Vivekananda

Question 4.
________ describes the importance of free and compulsory education for children.
a) The Right to Literacy Act
b) The Right to Education Act
c) The Right to School Act
Answer:
b) The Right to Education Act

Question 5.
The Government of India has framed the ________ to promote education.
a) National Education Policy
b) National Policy on Elementary Education
c) National Policy on Literacy
Answer:
a) National Education Policy

II. Match the following:

Answer:

III. True or False:

Question 1.
Every child has the right to have free and compulsory education.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Education helps in increasing awareness of surroundings, social and political issues.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Right to School Act describes the importance of free and compulsory education for children.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Numeracy is the first step towards making one educated.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
The former Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu, K.Kamaraj was implemented Free mid-day meal programme.
Answer:
True

IV. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Write about the importance of education.
Answer:
Education doesn’t mean that one should be literate. It is more than literacy. Education helps to

• analyse the reason.
• build skills to live.
• know what is right and wrong.
• lead a moral life.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Educational Rights.
Answer:

• Every child has right to have free and compulsory education.
• The Right to Education Act (RTE) specifies different responsibilities to the local authorities and government to ensure free and compulsory education.

Question 3.
What is the role of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan?
Answer:

• The Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), the Right to Education Act (RTE) Act have improved the educational performance.
• Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) (Education for All) was launched in the year 2001.

Question 4.
Give a short note on National Education Policy.
Answer:

• In 2019, the Government of India has framed the National Education Policy (NEP) to promote education among the people of India.
• The NPE covers all educational systems from primary to college level.

Question 5.
Write any two features of Samagra Shiksha.
Answer:

• Providing quality education and improving learning outcomes of students.
• Focusing on girl education.
• Focusing on digital education.

V. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write about the Indian education system.
Answer:

• In ancient time India has the Gurukula system of education in which anyone who visited to study went to a teacher’s house and requested to be taught.
• The modern school was brought to India, including the English language, originally by Lord Thomas Babington Macaulay in the
• Education in India is provided by public school (controlled and funded by three levels: central, state and local) and private schools.
• Under various articles of the Indian Constitution, free and compulsory education is provided as a fundamental right to children between the ages of 6 and 14.

Question 2.
Write about the Right to Education Act in detail.
Answer:

• Right to Education Act (2009) describes the importance of free and compulsory education for children between 6 to 14 years of age.
• Education should be affordable to the common people. There should be no discrimination in education.
• The child should be at the centre of an education system.
  Important features of RTE
• Until the completion of elementary education, no student is stopped from school.
• Improvement in the quality of education.
• School infrastructure should be improved every three years.

Question 3.
Write about Samagra Shiksha in detail.
Answer:

• Samagra Shiksha is an integrated scheme for school education from pre-school to senior secondary levels.
• The scheme has been prepared with the broader goal of improving school effectiveness measured in terms of equal opportunities for schooling and equitable learning outcomes.
• The scheme is an integration of three already existing schemes – Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SAA), Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) and Teacher Education (TE).

Activity:

Solve the Puzzles:

Question 1.
I am white when I am dirty and black when I am clean. Who am I?
Answer:
Black Board

Question 2.
I am tall when I am young and I am short when I am old. Who am I?
Answer:
Pencil

Question 3.
I am wet when I am drying. Who am I?
Answer:
Towel

Question 4.
I have a neck but no head. Who am I?
Answer:
A bottle

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Educational Rights Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
________ is important for people as well as the nation.
a) Education
b) Exploration
c) Excavation
Answer:
a)Education

Question 2.
Education develops ________.
a) ability
b) power
c) wisdom
Answer:
c) wisdom

Question 3.
________ is best known for his speech which began with the words.
a) Dr. Radha Krishnan
b) Swami Vivekananda
c) Mahatma Sandhi
Answer:
b) Swami Vivekananda

Question 4.
The legislative section is divided into ________ lists.
a) two
b) three
c) four
Answer:
b) three

Question 5.
Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan was launched in ________.
a) 1968
b) 2000
c) 2009
Answer:
c) 2009

Question 6.
________ birth anniversary is celebrated as Educational Development Day.
a) K. Kamaraj’s
b) Gandhi’s
c) Swami Vivekananda
Answer:
a) K. Kamaraj’s

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
________ also helps in overall development of a country.
Answer:
Education

Question 2.
Education removes superstitious ________.
Answer:

beliefs

Question 3.
________ is the system of education that was practised in ancient India.
Answer:
Gurukulam

Question 4.
The first National Education Policy was implemented in ________.
Answer:
1968

Question 5.
________ was launched in the year 2001.
Answer:
Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan

III. Write True or False:

Question 1.
Education is more than literacy.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
The youth should be at the centre of an education system.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
The NPE covers all educational systems from primary to college level.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Child labour is allowed in our country.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Samagra Shiksha scheme improves the quality of education and the learning of students.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the Following:

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

V. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Write a short note on education given by Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer:

• Literacy in itself is no education.
• Literacy is not the end of education.
• Real education consists in drawing the best out of yourself.

Question 2.
Write the classifications of Indian educational system.
Answer:
Indian educational system is mainly divided into four stages. They are:

• Lower primary
• Upper primary
• Secondary
• Higher secondary.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan.
Answer:

• Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) was launched in 2009.
• The aim of this programme – Raising the minimum level of education to class X.

VI. Answer in detail:
Question 1.
What are the objectives of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan?.
Answer:
Objectives of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan

• Increasing the enrolment in primary schools
• Getting access to free and compulsory education for children up to age 14.
• Improving the quality of education.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Pdf Term 3 Chapter 2 Agriculture Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Agriculture

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Agriculture Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.

_______ is the cultivation of crops.
a) Irrigation
b) Agriculture
c) Excavation
Answer:
b) Agriculture

Question 2.
A _______ is a person who is engaged in agriculture.
a)doctor
b)teacher
c) farmer
Answer:
c) farmer

Question 3.
_______ farming refers to the raising of animals along with the crops.
a) Commercial
b) Mixed
c) Subsistence
Answer:
b) Mixed

Question 4.
_______ monitors the level and nature of groundwater.
a) Central Ground Water Board
b) Metro Water Board
c) Sewage Water Board
Answer:
a) Central Ground Water Board

Question 5.
_______ is the largest cotton producing district in Tamil Nadu.
a) Coimbatore
b) Chennai
c) Cuddalore
Answer:
a) Coimbatore

II. Match the Following:

Answer:

III. True or False:

Question 1.
Rice is the leading food crop in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Tamil Nadu has two soil types.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Drip irrigation is a type of micro-irrigation system.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Jackfruit is an example of plantation crop.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Mango is the leading fruit crop of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
True

IV. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is agriculture?
Answer:

• Agriculture is the art and science of preparing the soil for cultivation, growing crops and raising livestock,
• Agriculture led to the development of human civilisation.

Question 2.
Write about farmers.
Answer:

• A farmer is a person who cultivates crops and rears animals (poultry and other livestock). India is a land of farmers.
• It is called so because majority of Indians are directly or indirectly involved in agricultural activities.

Question 3.
Name the different types of farming.
Answer:
There are several types of farming.

• Subsistence farming
• Commercial farming
• Plantation farming
• Mixed farming

Question 4.
What is well irrigation?
Answer:
Well irrigation has been practiced in Tamil Nadu for many generations. It is a less expensive type of irrigation.

Question 5.
What is well irrigation?
Answer:

• Well irrigation has been practiced in Tamil Nadu for many generations. It is a less expensive type of irrigation.
• Government of India is the National Apex Agency entrusted with the responsibilities of providing scientific inputs for management, exploration, monitoring, assessment, augmentation and regulation of groundwater resources of the country.
• CGWB monitors the level and nature of groundwater.

V. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write about mixed and plantation farming.
Answer:

• Mixed Farming: Mixed Farming refers to the rearing of animals along with the cultivation. This type of farming is economical.
• Plantation Farming: Plantation Farming is done in an estate where a single cash crop is cultivated on a large scale.
  Examples: Tea, Coffee and Rubber.

Question 2.
Explain any two types of irrigation.
Answer:

• Well Irrigation: Well Irrigation has been practiced in Tamil Nadu for many generations. It is a less expensive type of irrigation.
• Canal Irrigation: Canal Irrigation is the most important form of irrigation in India. Most of the North Indian canals are perennial. The main canal irrigated areas are in the northern plains of India such as Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Bihar.

Question 3.
Write about the important crops of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Tamil Nadu is suitable for the production of fruits, vegetables, spices, plantation crops, flowers, medicinal and aromatic plants.
• Horticulture is the fastest growing sector within agriculture in Tamil Nadu.
• Paddy is grown in large areas because rice is the main staple food of the state.
  iv) The principal food crops are rice, maize, jowar (cholam), bajra (Kambu), ragi, and pulses (Bengal gram,
  red gram, green gram, black gram, and horse gram).

Activity:

Find out the Following.
Question 1.
One who produces food for us _______.
Answer:
Farmer

Question 2.
It is used for ploughing _______.
Answer:
Tractor

Question 3.
It is used for separating grain from hay _______.
Answer:
Winnower

Think Zone:

Question 1.
Which state is known as the Rice bowl of India?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh is known as the Rice bowl of India.

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Agriculture Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
_______ of our national’s income comes from agriculture.
a) One-third
b) Two-third
c) One-forth
Answer:
a) One-third

Question 2.
_______ is a land of farmers.
a) Europe
b) India
c) Japan
Answer:
b) India

Question 3.
_______ method of farming is done by using modern tools and techniques.
a) Plantation farming
b) Subsistence farming
c) Commercial farming
Answer:
c) Commercial farming

Question 4.
_______ is the most important form of irrigation in India.
a) Well irrigation
b) Canal irrigation
c) Sprinkler irrigation
Answer:
a)Well irrigation

Question 5.
_______ is known as the Rice bowl of Tamil Nadu.
a) Thanjavur
b) Chennai
c) Madurai
Answer:
a) Thanjavur

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
_______ is the branch of agriculture.
Answer:
Animal husbandry

Question 2.
_______ has become a necessity for humans.
Answer:
Agriculture

Question 3.
Agricultural development contributes to the _______ of our country.
Answer:
Economy

Question 4.
_______ type of farming is economical.
Answer:
Mixed farming

Question 5.
Tamil Nadu depends on _______ and monsoon.
Answer:
Northeast, South west

Question 6.
_______ has been practised in Tamil Nadu for many generations.
Answer:
Well Irrigation

Question 7.
Water is sprayed through pipes in the air through _______.
Answer:
Sprinklers

III. True or False:

Question 1.
Agriculture led to the development of human civilisation.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Agriculture is the backbone of our economy.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
In commercial farming, crops, are cultivated and used only for own family consumption.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Canal irrigation is the most important form of irrigation in India.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Sprinkler irrigation is a type of micro-irrigation system that saves water and soil nutrients.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Chennai is known as the Manchester of South India
Answer:
False

IV. Match the Following:

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

V. Answer the following:
Question 1.
Define micro farmers.
Answer:
Farmers who cultivate in an area less than 1 hectare are called micro farmers.

Question 2.
Write a short note on subsistence farming.
Answer:
In subsistence farming, crops are cultivated and used only for own family consumption. Such type of farming is adopted by small and marginal farmers on fragmented land holdings. The cultivated crops are usually food crops.

Question 3.
Write about FCI.
Answer:
The Government has set up agencies like the Food Corporation of India to purchase the farm products directly from the farmers at reasonable rates.

Question 4.
What is Green revolution?.
Answer:
Green revolution is a process which brought an increase in crop production by using new varieties of seeds, pesticides and new agricultural techniques.

Question 5.
Who is the father of Green revolution in India?
Answer:
Dr. M.S. Swaminathan of Tamil Nadu is known as the Father of Green Revolution in India.

Question 6.
What is animal husbandry?
Answer:
Animal husbandry is the branch of agriculture. It is to raise animals for meat, fur, milk, eggs and other products.

Question 7.
What is Horticulture?
Answer:
Horticulture is the science or art of cultivating fruits, vegetables, flowers or ornamental plants.

Question 8.
Name some important cropping seasons in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Navarai
• Sornavari
• Kar
• Kuruvai
• Samba
• Thaladi.

VI. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
What is Irrigation? and types of Irrigation.

Answer:
Irrigation is the supply of water to land or crops for the purpose of agricultural production.
Types of Irrigation

• Well Irrigation
• Canal Irrigation
• Sprinkler Irrigation
• Drip Irrigation.

Question 2.
Write about sprinkler and Drip Irrigation.
Answer:

• Sprinkler irrigation: Sprinkler irrigation is similar to natural rainfall. Water is sprayed through pipes in the air through sprinklers.
• Drip Irrigation: Drip Irrigation is a type of micro-irrigation system that saves water and soil nutrients. In this system water drips slowly into the roots of plants through pipes. Pipes can be either above the soil surface or buried below the surface. The water directly reaches the roots and minimises evaporation.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Pdf Term 3 Chapter 1 Forts and Palaces Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Forts and Palaces

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Forts and Palaces Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
_______ fort was built by Kings of Vijayanagar.
a) Udayagiri
b) Vellore
c) Gingee
Answer:
b) Vellore

Question 2.
Thirumalai Nayakkar Palace is situated in _______.
a) Salem
b) Thirumalai
c) Madurai
Answer:
c) Madurai

Question 3.
_______ Mahal is considered as one of the oldest historical libraries in India.
a) Saraswathi
b) Lakshmi
c) Durga
Answer:
a) Saraswathi

Question 4.
Padmanabhapuram Palace is in _______.
a) Ooty
b) Kanyakumari
c) Chennai
Answer:
b) Kanyakumari

Question 5.
_______ fort is locally called Danish fort.
a) Dindigul
b) Gingee
c) Tharangambadi
Answer:
c) Tharangambadi

II. Match the following:

Answer:

III. True or False:

Question 1
Tamil Nadu has been ruled by many Rulers. Especially by the Chera, Chola, Pandya, and Pallava rulers.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Vellore Fort has five mahals.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Dindigul Fort was built by the Nayaks of Madurai.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Oomayan Kottai is the other name for Gingee fort.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
The Padmanabhapuram Palace was built by the ruler of Travancore.
Answer:
True

IV. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What are the prime attractions of Tamil Nadu tourism?
Answer:
palaces and forts are the prime attractions of Tamil Nadu tourism.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Tharangambadi fort.
Answer:

• Tharangambadi fort is locally called Danish fort. It is located on the shores of Bay of Bengal in Tharangambadi (Tranquebar), Tamil Nadu.
• The fort is trapezoidal in shape with three rooms in the left wing.
• The central pillar of the hall holds the entire weight of the domes.

Question 3.
Name some of the tourist attractions of Gingee fort.
Answer:
Gingee Fort is a huge fort with many attractions like Kalyan Mahal, temples, Aanaikulam pond, granaries and a watchtower.

Question 4.
Give a short note on Thirumalai Nayakkar Palace.
Answer:

• Thirumalai Nayakkar Palace is a 17th-century architecture of Nayakkar dynasty. It is one of the most popular palaces in South India.
• Thirumalai Nayakkar Palace is located in the city of Madurai. This is one of the tourist spots of Tamil Nadu.

Question 5.
Who built the Thanjavur Maratha Palace? Write some of its tourist attractions.
Answer:

• Thanjavur Maratha palace was originally constructed by the rulers of Thanjavur Nayakkar kingdom.
• Thanjavur Palace Complex is a tourist attraction which houses three separate venues: the palace, the art gallery, and a manuscript library (Saraswathi Mahal).

V. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Describe the structure of the Vellore fort.
Answer:

• Vellore Fort is a 16th-century fort situated in Vellore, Tamil Nadu. It was built by the Kings of Vijayanagara.
• Among the forts in Tamil Nadu, Vellore fort is considered to be one of the most invincible forts.
• It is surrounded by a deep and wide moat.
• The water of this moat was home to thousands of crocodiles.
• It was feared by many raiders of the fort. This fort is a good example of military architecture.

Question 2.
Write about Dindigul fort.
Answer:

• Dindigul Fort is a 17th-century hill fort situated in Dindigul, Tamil Nadu. It is also called Dindigul Malai Kottai.
• Dindigul Fort was built by the Nayakkars of Madurai, in order to defend their region from the invading Mysore army.
• Presently, the fort is maintained by the Archaeological Survey of India.
• The fort was cemented with double walls to withstand heavy artillery.

Question 3.
Describe the architecture and various sections of Padmanabhapuram Palace.
Answer:

• Padmanabhapuram Palace is a beautiful historical monument that is situated at Padmanabhapuram, Kanyakumari District. It is also known as Kalkulam Palace.
• Padmanabhapuram Palace is a wooden palace which is built in Kerala style of architecture.
• The Padmanabhapuram Palace was built by the ruler of Travancore. The palace has various sections like Queen Mother QJ Palace, Council Chamber, Southern Palace, and so on.
• 

Activity:

Question 1.

Answer:

Prince

King

Princess

Queen

Question 2.

Connect the following objects with their names.
(Bow and Arrow, Sword, Throne, Shield, Crown)

Answer:

Throne

Crown

Shield

Bow and Arrow

Sword

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Forts and Palaces Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
_______ are the prime attractions for tourists in Tamil Nadu.
a) Historical Places
b) Police Station
c) Hospital
Answer:
a) Historical Places

Question 2.
Vellore fort is a _______ century fort situated in Vellore.
a) 15th
b) 16th
c) 17th
Answer:
b) 16th

Question 3.
_______ fort is also called Dindigul Malai kottai.
a) Vellore
b) Gingee
c) Dindigul
Answer:
e) Dindigul

Question 4.
Thirumayam Fort is located in _______.
a) Madurai
b) Pudukottai
c) Chennai
Answer:
b) Pudukottai

Question 5.
Gingee fort is built across _______ is hills.
a) three
b) four
c) five
Answer:
a) Three

Question 6.
_______ is also known as kalkulam palace.
a) Thanjavur Maratha palace
b) Padmanabhapuram palace
c) Saraswathi mahal palace
Answer:
b) Padmanabhapuram palace

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
_______ is surrounded by a deep and wide moat.
Answer:
Vellore fort

Question 2.
Dindigul fort was cemented with double walls to withstand heavy _______.
Answer:
Artillery

Question 3.
_______ is functioning inside the George fort.
Answer:
State Secretariat

Question 4.
_______ is popular for its large rock inscriptions.
Answer:
Thirumayam fort

Question 5.
Thirumalai Nayakkar palace has an _______ museum.
Answer:
Archaeological

Question 6.
Thanjavur Maratha palace is popularly called _______.
Answer:
Thanjavur Aranmanai

III. Match the following:

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

IV. Write True or False:

Question 1.
Cholas, Pandyas, and Nayakkars constructed magnificent forts and palaces in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Gingee fort is a good example of military architecture.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Fort St. George is the first fort built by the British in India.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Thirumayam Fort is famous for its artistic work and architectural brilliance.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Sadras Fort is located in Madurai.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Padmanabhapuram palace is a wooden palace which is built in kerala style of architecture.
Answer:
True

V. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What are the inside that Vellore fort?
Answer:
Inside the Vellore fort, there is a well-known temple called Jalakanteswarar temple, a church, a mosque, a museum and several government offices.

Question 2.
Name the important Mahals in Vellore fort.
Answer:
Vellore fort has five important Mahals. They are

• Hyder Mahal
• Tippu Mahal
• Begam Mahal
• Candy Mahal
• Badhusha Mahal

Question 3.
Write a short note on Fort 5t.George.
Answer:
Fort St. George is the first fort built by the British in India. Fort St. George is located in Chennai. State Secretariat is functioning inside the fort.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Tamukkarn Palace.
Answer:
Tamukkarn Palace was the summer residence.  Of the Queen Rani Mangammal of Nayak dynasty. It is located in Madurai.

Question 5.
What the major attraction of Thirumalai Nayakkar Palace?
Answer:
The major attraction of Thirumalai Nayakkar Palace is the courtyard and the dancing hall.

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Describe the structure of Thirumayam fort.
Answer:

• Thirumayam Fort is famous for its artistic work and architectural brilliance.
• It is located in Pudukottai, Tamil Nadu.
• Thirumayam Fort is popular for its large rock inscriptions.
• It is also known as Oomayan Kottai.

Question 2.
Write about Saraswathi Mahal.
Answer:

• Saraswathi Mahal is considered as one of the oldest historical libraries in India.
• Saraswathi Mahal also has a museum.
• The library has more than a million manuscripts in languages like Tamil, Sanskrit, Marathi, Telugu, and Manipravalam.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Pdf Term 2 Chapter 3 Continents of the World Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Continents of the World

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Continents of the World Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
There are _______ continents in the world.
a) Five
b) Seven
c) Nine
Answer:
b) Seven

Question 2.
The largest continent is _______.
a) Africa
b) Asia
c) North America
Answer:
b) Asia

Question 3.
_______ is the longest river in the world.
a) Kaveri
b) Sanga
c) Nile
Answer:
c) Nile

Question 4.
Lake Superior is located in _______.
a) North America
b) Australia
c) Europe
Answer:
a) North America

Question 5.
Penguins are found in _______.
a) Asia
b) Antarctica
c) Africa
Answer:
b) Antarctica

II. Match the Following:

Answer:

III. True or False:

Question 1.
Asia is the third largest continent.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
India has one of the eight wonders of the world.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Brazil is one of the largest coffee producers in the world.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The great barrier reef is in India.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Antarctica has half year of light.
Answer:
True

IV. Answer the following Questions:

Question 1.
Name the continents.
Answer:

• Asia
• Africa
• North America
• South America
• Antarctica
• Europe and
• Australia.

Question 2.
Where is the Taj Mahal is located?
Answer:
Taj Mahal is situated in Agra on the banks of river Yamuna.

Question 3.
Describe North America’s important features.
Answer:

• North America is the third largest continent by area, following Asia and Africa.
• The largest fresh water lake, Lake Superior is located in this continent.
• The world’s third longest river the Mississippi, is located in North America.
• The United States of America (USA) is a part of North America.

Question 4.
Where is the Great Barrier Reef located?
Answer:
The Great Barrier Reef is located in Australia.

Question 5.
Which continent is called the Frozen continent?
Answer:
Antarctica continent is called the Frozen continent.

V. Answer the following in detail:

Questions 1.
Write a short note on any two continents.
Answer:

• Asia – Asia is the world’s largest continent in size and population.
• Asia has the highest point on earth, the peak of Mount Everest which is in the Himalayas. Asia is the birth of great ancient civilisations: Harappan civilisation, Chinese civilisation, and Mesopotamian civilisation.
• Africa – Africa is the second largest continent of the world.
• The world’s longest river: the Nile and the world’s largest desert: the Sahara, both are home in Africa. More than 50% of the world’s gold and diamonds come from the mineral rich continent of Africa. Ethiopia in Africa is the hottest place.

Question 2.
Write a note on the monuments of India.
Answer:

• India has several historical monuments. Taj Mahal is one such monument.
• Taj Mahal is built completely using white marble stone. This most beautiful monument is recognised as one of the seven wonders of the world.
• Other historic monuments in India include India gate and Qutub Minor in Delhi, Gateway of India in Mumbai, Charminar in Hyderabad, Brihadeeshwara Temple, and GangaiKonda Cholapuram in Tamil Nadu.

Question 3.
Give a detail study of Australia.
Answer:

• Australia is the Island continent covered by a single country with unique landscapes and natural wonders.
• The Great Barrier Reef, the pride and joy of Australia are made up of nearly 2,500 individual reefs and visible from space.
• Australia includes the islands of Tasmania and numerous small islands.

Activity:

Question 1.
Write the name of the country and its continent in the table below.
Answer:

Think Zone:

Question 1.
Is it correct to pollute our rivers?
Answer:
No, it is not correct to pollute our rivers.

Question 2.
Which state is called the Bread Basket of India?
Answer:
The punjab and Haryana regions are considered the bread baskets of India.

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Continents of the World Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
_______ is the world’s largest continent in size and population.
a) Asia
b) India
c) Africa
Answer:
a) Asia

Question 2.
_______ is the capital of India.
a) Calcutta
b) Bombay
c) Delhi
Answer:
c) Delhi

Question 3.
The world’s third longest river the Mississippi is located in _______ .
a) North America
b) South America
c) Asia
Answer:
a) North America

Question 4.
_______ is the highest peak in the Andes.
a) Mt. Cotopaxi
b) Mt. Aconcagua
c) Mt. Everest
Answer:
b) Mt. Aconcagua

II. Match the Following:

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (b)
5. (c)

III. True or False:

Question 1.
Asia is the birth of great ancient civilisations.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Europe is also called the Frozen continent.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
The world’s smallest country, the Vatican city, is in Europe.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Antarctica is the hottest continent on Earth.
Answer:
Flase

IV. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is Pangaea?
Answer:
Billions of years ago, the seven continents of the world were joined together as a single huge landmass called Pangaea.

Question 2.
Why do we say India has unity in diversity?
Answer:
India is called “Land of unity in diversity” because India consists of; various religion people and all of them live together happily in the land of India. India has different forms of language, dresses, food but still our Indian live unite.

Question 3.
What is Dark Continent?
Answer:
The continent was uninhabitable(Not fit for habitation) and remained unknown for thousands of years, earning it the name of ‘Dark Continent’.

Question 4.
What is called the land of Lakes?
Answer:
Finland, in Europe, is called the ‘Land of Lakes’ because melting ice sheets have created a lot of lakes here.

Question 5.
Why Europe is called the Bread of Basket?
Answer:
Ukraine’s Steppe region is called the Bread Basket of Europe because it produces a large amount of wheat.

V. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Describe South America’s important features.
Answer:

• South America is a subcontinent, mostly in the Southern Hemisphere, with a relatively small portion in
• the Northern Hemisphere.
• The world’s largest river which is also the second longest is the Amazon river in South America. Brazil a country in South America is one of the largest coffee producers in the world.
• The Andes form the highest mountain range in South America.
• Mt. Aconcagua is the highest peak in the Andes.
• One of the highest volcanoes of the world, Mt. Cotopaxi is found on this continent.
• The Amazon rainforest is a moist, broadleaf forest.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Pdf Term 2 Chapter 2 Hydrosphere Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Hydrosphere

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Hydrosphere Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Hydrosphere is the total amount of _______ present on earth.
a) Air
b) Water
c) Land
d) Plants
Answer:
b) Water

Question 2.
Select the odd one out.
a) Arabian
b) Indian
c) Arctic
d) Pacific
Answer:
a) Arabian

Question 3.
Water body that is surrounded by land on all sides is called _______.
a) River
b) Gulf
c) Lake
d) Bay
Answer:
c) Lake

Question 4.
Evaporation is the _______ stage of the water cycle.
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
Answer:
a) First

Question 5.
Water body that is partially enclosed by land and has wide opening to the sea is called _______.
a) Sea
b) Strait
c) Bay
d) Pond
Answer:
c) Bay

II. Match the Following:

Answer:

III. True or False:

Question 1.
About 97.5% of water on the earth is salt water.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Water is not necessary for our basic needs.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Water in the sea is sweet.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
We should keep the tap open throughout while washing utensils.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
We should save water.
Answer:
True

IV. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Define hydrosphere.
Answer:
Hydrosphere is the total amount of water present on a planet. The hydrosphere includes water that is present on the surface of the planet, underground, and in the air.

Question 2.
Why is the hydrosphere important?
Answer:
We need water to carry out many activities in our daily lives. We need water to drink, take bath, cook food, etc. Animals and plants also need water for their survival. If there is no water, it cannot evaporate and form clouds. So there will not be any rain.

Question 3.
Name the different types of water bodies.
Answer:
Oceans, Seas, Rivers, Lakes, Gulf. Bay, Lagoon, Strait, Waterfall.

V. Answer the following in detail :
Question 1.
What are the different stages of water cycle?
Answer:
Stage I : Evaporation – The heat of the sun falls on the water bodies like Ocean, Sea, Lakes, Rivers, etc. The water slowly evaporates as vapours into the air.

Stage II: Condensation – As the vapours rise high, the cooler temperatures make them cool down and turn back into liquid. This is called condensation. Wind and air move the liquid around, leading to the formation of clouds.

Stage III: Precipitation – Wind movements cause the clouds particles to collide. They become rain-bearing clouds and fall back on to the earth’s surface by the process known as precipitation. This may occur in the form of rain, hail, snow, or sleet depending upon the temperature conditions.

Stage IV: Runoff and Infiltration – The water either runs off into oceans, rivers and ground surface or is absorbed into the soil (infiltration). This cycle continues.

Question 2.
Give few steps to save water.
Answer:

• Check your toilet for leaks.
• Take shorter showers.
• Turn off the water while brushing your teeth.
• Check faucets and pipes for leaks.
• Use your automatic dishwater for full loads only.
• Water during the cool parts of the day.

Activity:

Question 1.
List out the uses of water in our daily life.
Answer:

• Domestic purpose: cooking, drinking, bathing, washing.
• Agricultural purpose: Farming, gardening, fishing.
• Industrial purposes: Manufacturing.
• Recreation: Swimming, rafting, boating.
• Hydropower: generation.

Think Zone:

Question 1.
What other water sources can be a part of the Hydrosphere?
Answer:
The hydrosphere includes water storage areas such as Oceans, Lakes, Ponds, Rivers, seas.

Question 2.
Name some water bodies in your locality.
Answer:
Oceans, Seas, Rivers, Ponds, Waterfalls.

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Social Science Guide Ancient Excavation Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.
Question 1.
_______ is the total amount of water present on a planet.
a) Hydrosphere
b) Lithosphere
c) Atmosphere
d) Biosphere
Answer:
a) Hydrosphere

Question 2.
_______ are vast water bodies that usually separate continents from one another.
a) Oceans
b) Seas
c) Rivers
d) Ponds
Answer:
a) Oceans

Question 3.
A _______ is a large area of an ocean or a sea that is surrounded by land.
a) Rivers
b) Lakes
c) Gulf
d) Bay
Answer:
c) GuIf

Question 4.
Wind movements cause the clouds particles to collide is _______.
a) Evaporation
b) Condensation
c) Precipitation
d) Infiltration
Answer:
c) Precipitation

II. Match the Following:

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

III. True or False:

Question 1.
Hydrosphere covers about 97% of the planet Earth.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Animals and plants also need water for their survival.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Sea water is salty in nature.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
A lake is a body of water, which is partially enclosed by land.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Do not put plastic garbage when you go near beaches.
Answer:
True

IV. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is Lagoon?
Answer:
A lagoon is a lake separated from the open sea by sand or rocks. Lake Chilika in Odisha, India is an example of a lagoon.

Question 2.
What is strait? Give example.
Answer:
A strait is a narrow stretch of water which joins two larger water bodies. Example: Palk Strait joining the Bay of Bengal and the Indian Ocean.

Question 3.
What is waterfall? Give example.
Answer:
Water falling when a river flows over an edge of hard rocks from a great height is called waterfall.

Example: Courtallam Waterfall.

V. Answer the following in detail:
Question 1
Describe any five types of water bodies.
Answer:
Seas: Seas are also vast water bodies but smaller than oceans in size. They are partly closed by land and opens up to the Ocean. Sea water is salty in nature.
Example: Arabian Sea.

Rivers: Rivers are large streams that flow over the land. Rivers are fresh water bodies which generally begin at mountainous areas. They usually drain in oceans or seas.

Lakes: A lake is a water body surrounded by land on all sides. Lakes can have salt or fresh water. Example: Dal Lake.

Gulf: A gulf is a large area of an ocean or a sea that is surrounded by land.
Example: Gulf of kutch.

Bay: A bay is a body of water, which is partially enclosed by land. It has a wide-mouthed opening of land and is joined to the sea or other large water bodies.
Example: Bay of Bengal