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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 10 Ordinary Differential Equations Ex 10.7 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 10 Ordinary Differential Equations Ex 10.7

Question 1.
Solve the following Linear differential equations.
cos x \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) + y sin x = 1
Solution:
The given differential equation can be written as

This is the form \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) + py = Q
where P = tan x
Q = sec x
Thus, the given differential equation is linear.
I.F = e^{∫ pdx} = e^{∫ tan x dx} = e^{log (sec x)} = sec x
So, the required solution is given by
[y × I.F] = ∫ [Q × IF] dx + c
y × sec x = ∫ sec x × sec x dx + c
y sec x = ∫ sec² x dx + c
y sec x = tan x + c

= sin x + c cos x
y = sin x + c cos x is the required solution.

Question 2.
(1 – x²)\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) – xy = 1
Solution:
The given differential equation can be written as

Thus, the given differential equation is linear.

Which is a required solution.

Question 3.
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) + \(\frac { y }{ x }\) = sin x
Solution:
The given differential equation can be written as
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) + (\(\frac { 1 }{ x }\))y = sin x
This is of the form \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) + Py = Q
where P = \(\frac { 1 }{ x }\)
Q = sin x
Thus, the given differential equation is linear.
I.F= e^{∫ pdx} = e^{∫ \(\frac { 1 }{ x }\) dx} = e^{log x} = x
So, the required solution is given by
yx I.F = ∫ (Q × I.F) dx + c
yx = ∫ sin x × x dx + c
= x (-cos x) – (1) (-sin x) + c
yx = -x cos x + sin x + c
yx + x cos x = sin x + c
(y + cos x) x = sin x + c is a required solution.

Question 4.
(x² + 1)\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) + 2xy = \(\sqrt { x^2+4 }\)
Solution:
The given differential equation may be written as

Thus, the given differential equation is linear.
I.F= e^{∫ pdx} = e^{∫ \(\frac { 2x }{ x^+1 }\) dx} = e^{log (x² + 2)} = x² + 1
So, the required solution is given by

Is the required solution.

Question 5.
(2x – 10y³) dy + y dx = 0
Solution:
The given differential equation may be written as
y dx = -(2x – 10y³) dy

So, the required solution is
x × I.F = ∫ (Q × I.F)dy + c
xy² = ∫ 10 y² × y² dy + c
= ∫ 10 y⁴ dy + c
= \(\frac { 10y^5 }{ 5 }\) + c = 2y⁵ + c
xy² = 2y⁵ + c is a required solution.

Question 6.
x sin x \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) + (x cos x + sin x) y = sin x
Solution:
The given differential equation can be written as

Thus, the given differential equation is linear.
I.F = e^{∫ pdx} = e^{∫ (cot x + 1/x)dx} = e^{log sin x + log x}
= e^{log (x sin x)} = x sin x
So, the solution of the given differential equation is given by
y × I.F = ∫(Q × I.F) dx + c
y (x sin x) = ∫ \(\frac { 1 }{ x }\) x sin x dx + c
= ∫ sin x dx + c
y (x sin x) = -cos x + c
xy sin x + cos x = c is the required solution.

Question 7.
Solve (y – e^sin-1x) \(\frac { dx }{ dy }\) + \(\sqrt { 1-x^2 }\) = 0
Solution:

Thus, the given differential equation is Linear

Question 8.
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) + \(\frac { y }{ (1-x)√x }\) = 1 – √x
Solution:
The given linear differential equation is of the form
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) + py = Q

Question 9.
(1 + x + xy²) \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) + (y + y³) = 0
Solution:

So, the solution of the equation is given by

xy + tan^-1 y = c
Which is the required solution.

Question 10.
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) + \(\frac { y }{ x log x }\) = \(\frac { sin 2x }{ log x }\)
Solution:
The given differential equation may be written as
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) + \(\frac { 1 }{ x log x }\)y = \(\frac { sin 2x }{ log x }\)
This is of the form \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) + Py = Q
Where P = \(\frac { 1 }{ x log x }\); Q = \(\frac { sin 2x }{ log x }\)
Thus, the differential equation is linear.
I.F = e^∫pdx
= e^{∫ \(\frac { 1 }{ x log x }\) dx}
= e^{∫ \(\frac { 1 }{ t }\) dt}
= e^{log t}
= log x
So, the solution of the given differential equation is
y × I.F = ∫ (Q × I.F) dx + c
y × log x = ∫ \(\frac { sin 2x }{ log x }\) × log x dx + c
= ∫ sin 2x dx + c
y log x = \(\frac { -cos 2x }{ 2 }\) + c
y log x + \(\frac { cos 2x }{ 2 }\) = c is a required solution.

Question 11.
(x + a) \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) – 2y = (x + a)⁴
Solution:

= -2 log (x + a)
= log (x + a)^-2

Question 12.
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = \(\frac { sin^x }{ 1+x^3 }\) – \(\frac { 3x^2 }{ 1+x^3 }\)y
Solution:
The equation can be written as

Question 13.
x \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) + y = x log x
Solution:
The given differential equation may be written as

Thus, the given differential equation is linear.
I.F = e^∫pdx = e^{∫\(\frac { 1 }{ x }\) dx} = e^{log x} = x
So, the solution of the given differential equation is given by
y × I.F = ∫(Q × I.F)dx + c
yx = ∫ log x x dx + c
yx = ∫ x log x dx + c
u = log x ∫dv = ∫x dx

Multiply by 4
4yx = 2x² log x – x² + 4c
4xy = 2x² log x – x² + 4c is a required solution.

Question 14.
x \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) + 2y – x² log x = 0
Solution:
The given differential equation may be written as
\(\frac { x }{ x }\) \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) + \(\frac { 2y }{ x }\) = \(\frac { x log x }{ x }\)
This is of the form \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) + Py = Q
where P = \(\frac { 2 }{ x }\); Q = x log x
Thus, the given equation is linear.
I.F = e^∫pdx = e^{∫\(\frac { 2 }{ x }\) dx}
e^{log x} = e^{log x²} = x²
So the required solution is
y × I.F = ∫(Q × I.F) dx + c
yx² = ∫x log x x² dx + c
yx² = ∫x³ logx dx + c

Multiply by 16
16x²y = 4x⁴ log x – x⁴ + 16c is a required solution

Question 15.
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) + \(\frac { 3y }{ x }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ x^2 }\), given that y = 2 when x = 1
Solution:
The given differential equation can be written as

So, its solution is given by
y × I.F = ∫(Q × I.F) dx + c
yx³ = ∫ \(\frac { 1 }{ x^2 }\) + x³ dx + c
= ∫x dx + c
y x³ = \(\frac { x^2 }{ 2 }\) + c
2yx³ = x² + c
Given that y = 2 when x = 1
2 (2) (1)³ = 1 + c
4 – 1 = c
c = 3
∴ 2yx³ = x² + 3 is a required solution.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Guide Pdf Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life

12th Chemistry Guide Chemistry in Everyday Life Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – I Text Book Evaluation

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following is an analgesic?
a) Streptomycin
b) Chloromycetin
c) Asprin
d) Penicillin
Answer:
c) Asprin

Question 2.
Dettol is the mixture of
a) Chloroxylenol and bithionol
b) Chloroxylenol and a-terpineol
c) phenol and iodine
d) terpineol and bithionol
Answer:
b) Chloroxylenol and a-terpineol

Question 3.
Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent growth of microorganisms. Identify which of the following statement is not true.
a) dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen peroxide are strong antiseptics.
b) Disinfectants harm the living tissues.
c) A 0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while 1% solution acts as a disinfectant.
d) Chlorine and iodine are used as strong disinfectants.
Answer:
a) dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen peroxide are strong antiseptics.

Question 4.
Saccharin, an artificial sweetener is manufactured from
a) cellulose
b) toluene
c) cyclohexene
d) starch
Answer:
b) toluene

Question 5.
Drugs that bind to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called
a) antagonists
b) agonists
c) enzymes
d) molecular targets
Answer:
a) antagonists

Question 6.
Aspirin is a/an
a) acetylsalicylic acid
b) benzoyl salicylic acid
c) chlorobenzoic acid
d) anthranilic acid
Answer:
a) acetylsalicylic acid

Question 7.
Which one of the following structures represents nylon 6,6 polymer?

Answer:
d)

Question 8.
Natural rubber has
a) alternate cis- and trans-configuration
b) random cis- and trans-configuration
c) all cis-configuration
d) all trans-configuration
Answer:
c) all cis-configuration

Question 9.
Nylon is an example of
a) polyamide
b) polythene
c) polyester
d) poly saccharide
Answer:
a) polyamide

Question 10.
Terylene is an example of
a) polyamide
b) polythene
c) polyester
d) polysaccharide
Answer:
c) polyester

Question 11.
Which is the monomer of neoprene in the following?


Answer:

Question 12.
Which one of the following is a biodegradable polymer?
a) HDPE
b) PVC
c) Nylon 6
d) PHBV
Answer:
d) PHBV

Question 13.
Non stick cook wares generally have a coating of a polymer, whose monomer is
a) ethane
b) prop-2-enenitrile
c) chloroethene
d) 1,1,2,2-tetrafluoroethane
Answer:
d) 1,1,2,2-tetrafluoroethane

Question 14.
Assertion : 2-methyl-I ,3-butadiene is the monomer of natural rubber
Reason : Natural rubber is formed through anionic addition polymerisation.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) assertion is true but reason is false.
d) both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
c) assertion is true but reason is false.

Question 15.
An example of antifertility drug is
a) novestrol
b) seldane
c) salvarsan
d) Chioramphenicol
Answer:
a) novestrol

Question 16.
The drug used to induce sleep is
a) paracetamol
b) bithional
c) chloroquine
d) equanil
Answer:
d) equanil

Question 17.
Which of the following is a co-polymer?
a) Orlon
b) PVC
c) Teflon
d) PHBV
Answer:
d) PHBV

Question 18.
The polymer used in making blankets (artificial wool) is
a) polystyrene
b) PAN
c) polyester
d) polythene
Answer:
b) PAN

Question 19.
Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statement is incorrect? (NEET)
a) Examples are Bakelite and melamine
b) They are formed from bi and tri-functional monomers
c) They contain covalent bonds between various linear polymer chains
d) They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chain
Answer:
d) They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chain

Question 20.
A mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as (NEET)
a) antiseptic
b) antipyretic
c) antibiotic
d) analgesic
Answer:
a) antiseptic

II. Short Answer

Question 1.
Which chemical is responsible for the antiseptic properties of Dettol.
Answer:
1. Chloroxylenol and
2. Terpineol are the chemicals responsible for the antiseptic properties of Dettol. But among these two, chloroxylenol plays a more important role. Chloroxylenol is an antiseptic and disinfectant which is used for skin disinfection and cleaning surgical instruments.

Question 2.
What are antibiotics?
Answer:
Medicines that have the ability to kill pathogenic bacteria are called antibiotics
Ex.: amoxicillin, cefixime.

Question 3.
Name one substance which can act as both analgesic and antipyretic.
Answer:
Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) is a chemical substance which lowers body temperature (to normal) and also reduces body pain. Therefore it acts as both antipyretic and analgesic.

Question 4.
Write a note on synthetic detergents.
Answer:

• Synthetic detergents are formulated products containing either sodium salts of alkyl hydrogen sulphates or sodium salts of long chain alkyl benzene sulphonic acids.
• There are three types.
  
  

Question 5.
How do antiseptics differ from disinfectants?
Answer:

Question 6.
What are food preservatives?
Answer:
Food preservatives are chemical substances are capable of inhibiting, regarding, or arresting the process of fermentation, acidification or other decomposition of food by growth of microorganisms.
Examples:

1. Acetic acid is used mainly as a preservative for the preparation of pickles.
2. Sodium meta suiphite is used as a preservative for fresh vegetables and fruits.
3. Sodium benzoate is used as a preservative for juices.

Question 7.
Why do soaps not work in hard water?
Answer:

• Hard water contains calcium and magnesium ions.
• When soaps are dissolved in hard water, calcium and magnesium ions displace sodium or potassium ion from soaps forming insoluble calcium or magnesium salts of fatty acids.
• These insoluble salts separate as scum.
• So soaps do not work in hard water.

Question 8.
What are drugs? How are they classified?
Answer:
A drug is a substance that is used to modify or explore physiological systems or pathological states for the benefits of the recipient. it is used for the purpose of diagnosis, prevention cure or relief of a disease.

Classification of drugs:
Drugs care classified based on their proportions such as chemical structure, pharmacological effect, target system, site of action etc.

1. Classification based on the chemical structure:
In this classification, drugs with a common chemical skelton are classified into a single group. For example, ampicillin, amoxicillin, methiceillin etc. all have similar structure and are classified into a single group called penicillin.

Similarly we have other group of drugs such as opiates, steroids, catecholamines etc. Compounds having similar chemical structure are expected to have similar chemical properties. However, their biological actions are not always similar.

2. Classification based on the pharmacological effect:

• In this classification, the drugs are grouped based on their biological effect that they produce on the recipient.
• For example, the medicines that have the ability to kill the pathogenic bacteria are grouped as antibiotics.
• This kind of grouping will provide the full range of drugs that can be used for a particular disease.

3. Classification based on the target system:

• In this classification, the drugs are grouped based on the biological system (or) process that they target in the recipient.
• This classification is more specific than the pharmacological classification.
• For example, the antibiotics streptomycin and erythromycin inhibit the protein synthesis (target) in bacteria and are classified in a same group. However their mode of action is different.
• Streptomycin inhibits the initiation of protein synthesis, while erythromycin prevents the incorporation of new aminoacids to the protein.

4. Classification based on the site of action:

1. The drug molecule interacts with biomolecules such as enzymes, receptors etc, which are referred as drug targets.
2. We can classify the drug based on the drug target with which it binds.
3. This classification is highly specific compared to the others. These compounds often have a common mechanism of action, as the target is the same.

Question 9.
How the tranquilizers work in body.
Answer:
They are neurologically active drugs tranquilizers act on the central nervous system by blocking the neurotransmitter dopamine in the brain.
Ex: Major tranquilizers : Haloperidol, Clozapine.
Mine tranquilizers : Diozepam (Valium), alprazolam.

Question 10.
Write the structural formula of aspirin. Structural formula of aspirin :
(Acetyl Salicylic Acid) C₉ H₈ O₄
Answer:

Question 11.
Explain the mechanism of cleansing action of soaps and detergents
Answer:

• An example for soap is sodium palmitate.
• The cleansing action of soap is directly related to the structure of carboxylate ions (palmitate ions) present in soap.
• The structure of palmitate exhibit dual polarity
  
• Hydrocarbon portion is non polar, hydrophobic and soluble in oils and greases but not in water.
• Carboxyl portion is polar, hydrophilic and soluble in water.
• Dirt in the cloth is due to the presence of dust particles intact or grease which stick.
• When soap is added to an oily or greasy part of the cloth, the hydrocarbon part of the soap dissolve in the grease, leaving the negatively charged carboxylate end exposed on the grease surface.
• At the same time the negatively charged carboxylate groups are strongly attracted by water, forming small droplets called micelles and grease is floated away from the solid object.
• When clothes are rinsed with water, the grease goes with it.
• As a result, the doth gets free from dirt and the droplets are washed away with water.
• The micelles do not combine into large drops because their surfaces are all negatively charged and repel each other.
• The cleansing action of soap depends upon its tendency to act as an emulsifying agent between water and water insoluble greases.
• The cleansing action of detergents are similar to the cleansing action of soaps.

Question 12.
Which sweetening agent are used to prepare sweets for a diabetic patient?
Answer:
Artificial sweetening agents such as saccharin, Alitame, Aspartame can be used in preparing sweets for diabetic patients.

Question 13.
What are narcotic and non – narcotic drugs. Give examples.
Answer:

Question 14.
What are anti-fertility drugs? Give examples.
Answer:
Artificially drugs are chemical substances which suppress the action of hormones that promote pregnancy. These drugs actually reduce the chances of pregnancy and act as a protection. Antifertility drugs are made up of derivatives of synthetic progesterone or a combination of derivatives of oestrogen and progesterone. Example : Ethynylestradiol, menstranol and norcthynodrel etc.

Question 15.
Write a note on copolymer
Answer:

• A polymer containing two or more kinds of monomer units is called a copolymer.
• Ex: SBR rubber (Buna-S). This contains styrene and butadiene monomer units.
• Co-polymers have properties quite different from homopolymers.
• Mixture of styrene and 1, 3 butadiene to form a copolymer (Buna-S).

Question 16.
What are biodegradable polymers? Give examples.
Answer:

1. The materials that are readily decomposed by microorganisms in the environment are called biodegradable.
2. Natural polymers degrade on their own after certain period of time but the synthetic polymers do not.
3. The biopolymers which disintergrates by themselves in biological systems during a
4. certain period of time by enzymatic hydrolysis and to some extent by oxidation are called biodegradable polymers.

Examples:

1. Polyhydroxy butyrate (PHB)
2. Polyhydroxy butyrate – co – hydroxyl valerate (PHBV)
3. Polylactic acid (PLA)

Question 17.
How is terylene prepared?
Answer:

•  Monomers – Ethylene glycol and terepathalic acid (or) dimethyl terephthalate.
• Catalyst – Zinc acetate / antimony trioxide.
• Temperature – 500K
• Product – Terylene

Question 18.
Write a note on vulcanization of rubber
Answer:

1. Natural rubber is very soft and brisky. it has high water absorption capacity and low tensile strength. Its properties can be improved by a process called vulcanization.
2. Natural rubber is mixed with 3 – 5% sulphur and heated at 100 – 150°C causes cross-linking of the cis – 1, 4 polyisoprene chains through disuiphide ( – S – S – ) bonds.
3. The physical properties of rubber can be altered by controlling the amount of sulphur that is used for vulcanization. When 3 to 10% sulphur is used the resultant rubber is somewhat harder but flexible.
4. Following properties of rubber CH₃

Question 19.
Classify the following as linear, branched or cross-linked polymers
a) Bakelite
b) Nylon
c) polythene
Answer:

Question 20.
Differentiate thermoplastic and thermosetting plastics.
Answer:

12th Chemistry Guide Chemistry in Everyday Life Additional Questions and Answers

Part – II – Additional Questions

I. Choose the best answer

Question 1.
An ideal drug is the one which is
(i) non-toxic
(ii) bio-compatible
(iii) bio-degradable
(iv) should not have any side effects .
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (i) & (iii)
c) (i), (ii) & (iv)
d) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
Answer:
d) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

Question 2.
A drag is safer when its therapeutic index is ………………..
a) lower
b) higher
c) one
d) zero
Answer:
b) higher

Question 3.
Which among the following belongs to the group penicillin?
a) Ampicillin
b) Amoxicillin
c) Methicillin
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 4.
Which among the following is an antibiotic?
a) Atenolol
b) Cefixime
c) Amlodipine
d) All the above
Answer:
b) Cefixime

Question 5.
Which among the following is an anti-hypertensive drug?
a) Ampicillin
b) Cefixime
c) Atenolol
d) Cefpodoxime
Answer:
c) Atenolol

Question 6.
Proteins which act as biological catalysts are called.
a) Antibiotics
b) Enzymes
c) Tranquilizers
d) Analgesics
Answer:
b) Enzymes

Question 7.
Penicillin is an example of
a) Analgesics
b) Antibiotic
c) Anaesthetic
d) Antacid
Answer:
b) Antibiotic

Question 8.
Drugs which act on the central nervous system by blocking the neurotransmitter dopamine in the brain are called.
a) Analgesics
b) Antacids
c) Tranquilizers
d) Antihistamines
Answer:
c) Tranquilizers

Question 9.
Diazepam is an example of ……………..
a) analgesics
b) antacids
c) tranquilizer
d) antihistamine
Answer:
c) tranquilizer

Question 10.
Which among the following is not a non-narcotic analgesic?
a) Aspirin
b) Ibuprofen
c) Acetaminophen
d) Morphine
Answer:
d) Morphine – A narcotic analgesic

Question 11.
Which among the following is an inhalational general anesthetics?
a) lidocaine
b) Isoflurane
c) Propofol
d) Procaine
Answer:
b) Isoflurane

Question 12.
Which among the following is used as an antacid?
a) Sodium hydroxide
b) Potassium hydroxide
c) Aluminium hydroxide
d) Calcium carbonate
Answer:
c) Aluminium hydroxide

Question 13.
The drugs which provide relief from allergic effects are called.
a) Antimicrobials
b) Antacids
c) Opioids
d) Antihistamines
Answer:
d) Antihistamines

Question 14.
Neomycin belongs to …………………
a) beta-lactams
b) aminoglycosides
c) tetracyclines
d) fluoroquinolones
Answer:
b) aminoglycosides

Question 15.
Benzalkonium chloride is used as an ………………………
a) disinfectant
b) antibiotic
c) antiseptic
d) antifertility drug
Answer:
c) antiseptic

Question 16.
Which drug suppresses ovulation/fertilisation?
a) Oxytetracycline
b) Terfenadine
c) Menstranol
d) Minocycline
Answer:
c) Menstranol

Question 17.
The drug which inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis is ……………….
a) macrolide
b) beta-lactams
c) fluoroquinolone
d) tetracycline
Answer:
b) beta-lactams

Question 18.
The drug which targets bacterial ribosomes and prevents protein production is …………………
a) macrolide
b) beta-lactam
c) fluoroquinolone
d) tetracycline
Answer:
a) macrolide

Question 19.
Which among the following are food additives?
(i) Food colours
(ii) Antioxidants
(iii) Stabilizers
(iv) Preservatives
a) (i), (ii) & (iv)
b) (i), (iii) & (iv)
c) (i), (ii) & (iii)
d) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
Answer:
d) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

Question 20.
The preservative used for the preparation of pickles is ………………..
a) benzoic acid
b) sorbic acid
c) acetic acid
d) hydroxybenzoic acid
Answer:
c) acetic acid

Question 21.
Which of the following not correctly matched


Answer:

Question 22.
Which among the following is used as an emulsifier?
a) Sodium metabisulphite
b) Alkyl ester of hydroxybenzoic acid
c) Sucrose ester with palmitic acid
d) All the above
Answer:
c) Sucrose ester with palmitic acid

Question 23.
Antioxidants are …………….
a) butyl hydroxy toluene
b) butylated hydroxy anisole
c) both (a) & (b)
d) none of the above
Answer:
c) both (a) & (b)

Question 24.
Sulphur dioxide acts as ……………….
a) antimicrobial agent
b) antioxidant
c) enzyme inhibitor
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above

Question 25.
Artificial sweetening agent is ……………….
a) Butyl hydroxytoluene
b) Butylated hydroxyanisole
c) alitame
d) all the above
Answer:
c) alitame

Question 26.
Softsoap is ……………..
a) Sodium palmitate
b) Potassium palmitate
c) Sodium methylbenzene sulphonate
d) Methyl hydrogen sulphate
Answer:
b) Potassium palmitate

Question 27.
For a good soap, its TFM value should be ………………..
a) higher
b) lower
c) minimum
d) zero
Answer:
a) higher

Question 28.
As per BIS standards, grade -1 soaps should have a minimum TFM of
a) 60%
b) 70%
c) 76%
d) 50
Answer:
c) 76%

Question 29.
An example of anionic detergent is ………………..
a) n-hexadecyltrimethylammonium chloride
b) Sodium lauryl sulphate
c) Pentaerythrityl stearate
d) Sodium stearate
Answer:
b) Sodium lauryl sulphate

Question 30.
Which among the following is a natural polymer?
a) Cellulose diacetate
b) Cellulose
c) Polythene
d) Viscose rayon
Answer:
b) Cellulose

Question 31.
Which among the following is a synthetic polymer?
a) Cellulose diacetate
b) Cellulose
c) Polythene
d) Viscose rayon
Answer:
c) Polythene

Question 32.
Which among the following is a semi-synthetic polymer?
a) Cellulose diacetate
b) Cellulose
c) Polythene
d) Polyvinyl chloride
Answer:
a) Cellulose diacetate

Question 33.
Which among the following is a linear polymer?
a) LDPE
b) HDPE
c) Polypropylene
d) Bakelite
Answer:
b) HDPE

Question 34.
Which among the following is a branched polymer?
a) LDPE
b) HOPE
c) PVC
d) Bakelite
Answer:
a) LDPE

Question 35.
Which among the following is a cross-linked polymer?
a) LDPE
b) HDPE
c) PVC
d) Bakelite
Answer:
d) Bakelite

Question 36.
Which among the following is an elastomer?
a) Nylon 6,6
b) Polythene
c) Neoprene
d) Polystyrene
Answer:
c) Neoprene

Question 37.
Which among the following polymer belongs to fibers?
a) Nylon 6,6
b) Polythene
c) Neoprene
d) Polystyrene
Answer:
a) Nylon 6,6

Question 38.
Which among the following is a thermoplastic?
a) Nylon 6,6
b) Polythene
c) Neoprene
d) Buna-N
Answer:
b) Polythene

Question 39.
Which among the following is a thermosetting plastic?
a) Nylon 6,6
b) Polythene
c) Neoprene
d) Bakelite
Answer:
d) Bakelite

Question 40.
Which among the following is a condensation polymer?
a) PVC
b) Nylon 6,6
c) Polythene
d) Teflon
Answer:
b) Nylon 6,6

Question 41.
Which is used as a free radical initiator?
a) Benzyl acetate
b) Benzyl alcohol
c) Benzoyl peroxide
d) Benzyl nitrate
Answer:
c) Benzoyl peroxide

Question 42.
The catalyst used in the preparation of LDPE is …………………
a) Hydrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Zeigler-Natta catalyst
d) Wilkinson catalyst
Answer:
b) Oxygen

Question 43.
The catalyst used in the preparation of HDPE is ………………….
a) Hydrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Zeigler-Natta catalyst
d) Wilkinson catalyst
Answer:
c) Zeiglar-Natta catalyst

Question 44.
Zeiglar-Natta catalyst is ………………….
a) ZnCl₂+(C₂H₅)₃Al
b) TiCl₄+(C₂H₅)₃Al
c) AlCl₃+(C₂₅)₃Al
d) CuCl₂+(C₂H₅)₃Al
Answer:
b) TiCl₄+(C₂H₂)₃Al

Question 45.
The monomer used in the manufacture of Teflon is ………………..
a) Tetra fluoro methane
b) Tetra chloromethane
c) Tetra fluoro ethylene d) Vinyl cyanide
Answer:
c) Tetra fluoro ethylene

Question 46.
The chemical name of orlon is ……………….
a) Polyethylene terephthalate
b) Polyacrylonitrile
c) Poly hexamethylene adipamide
d) Poly tetrafluoroethylene
Answer:
b) Polyacrylonitrile

Question 47.
The monomer of nylon 6 is ………………
a) Hexan-l,6-dioic acid
b) Hexan-1, 6-diamine
c) Caprolactam
d) both (a) & (b)
Answer:
c) Caprolactam

Question 48.
The monomer of nylon 6,6 is …………………..
a) Hexan-1,6-dioic acid
b) Hexan-1, 6-diamine
c) Caprolactam
d) both (a) & (b)
Answer:
d) both (a) & (b)

Question 49.
Terylene is an example of ………………….
a) Poly amide
b) Polyester
c) Polyene
d) Poly acid
Answer:
b) Polyester

Question 50.
The polymer used to make unbreakable crockery is ………………
a) Novolac
b) Bakelite
c) Melamine formaldehyde
d) Urea formaldehyde
Answer:
c) Melamine formaldehyde

Question 51.
Natural rubber is a polymer of ………………..
a) Chloroprene
b) 2-methyl buta-1,3-diene
c) 2-chloro buta-1, 3-diene
d) acrylonitrile
Answer:
b) 2-methyl buta-1, 3-diene

Question 52.
Which is used in vulcanization of rubber?
a) Carbon
b) Nitrogen
c) Sulphur
d) Chlorine
Answer:
c) Sulphur

Question 53.
The polymer used in the manufacture of conveyer belts is ………………….
a) Buna – N
b) Buna – S
c) Neoprene
d) Chloroprene
Answer:
c) Neoprene

Question 54.
Which among the following is not a copolymer?
a) Neoprene
b) Buna – N
c) Buna – S
d) all the above
Answer:
a) Neoprene

Question 55.
Which among the following is a biodegradable polymer?
a) PCA
b) Nylon-6
c) PVC
d) HDPE
Answer:
a) PGA

II. Pick out the correct statements

Question 1.
(i) All drugs belonging to penicillin group have same biological action.
(ii) The drug molecule interacts with biomolecules such as enzymes, receptors etc., which are referred as drug targets.
(iii) In all living systems, the biochemical reactions are catalysed by hormones.
(iv) The substrate molecule binds to the active site of the enzymes by means of strong covalent bonding.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
a) (i) & (ii)
Correct Statements:
(iii) In all living systems, the biochemical reactions are catalysed by enzymes.
(iv) The substrate molecule binds to the active site of the enzymes by means of weak hydrogen bonding.

Question 2.
(i) Many drugs exert their physiological effects by binding to a specific molecule called a messenger.
(ii) Receptors bind to the active site of messengers.
(iii) Compounds that carry messages to cells are called chemical messengers.
(iv) Most receptors are chiral and hence different enantiomers of a drug can have different effect.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
c) (iii) & (iv)
Correct Statements:
(i) Many drugs exert their physiological effects by binding to a specific molecule called a receptor.
(ii) Messengers bind to the active site of receptors.

Question 3.
(i) Aspirin prevents platelet coagulation and hence useful in the prevention of heart attacks.
(ii) Lidocaine is used for major surgical procedures.
(iii) Procaine block pain perception that is transmitted via peripheral nerve fibres to the brain.
(iv) Fluoro quinolones increase the activity of bacterial enzyme DNA gyrase.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (i) & (iii)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
c) (i) & (iii)
Correct Statements:
(ii) Lidocaine is used for minor surgical procedures.
(iv) Fluoro quinolones inhibits the activity of bacterial enzyme DNA gyrase.

Question 4.
(i) In soap manufacture common salt is added to the reaction mixture to increase the solubility of soap which helps the precipitation of soap from the aqueous solution.
(ii) In soap the hydrocarbon portion is non-polar and the carboxyl portion is polar
(iii) In soap the hydrocarbon portion is water soluble and the carboxyl portion is soluble in oil or grease.
(iv) The cleansing ability of a soap depends upon its tendency to act as an emulsifying agent between water and water insoluble grease.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (ii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
c) (ii) & (iv)
Correct Statements:
(i) In soap manufacture common salt is added to the reaction mixture to decrease the solubility of soap which helps the precipitation of soap from the aqueous solution.
(iii) In soap the hydrocarbon portion is soluble in oil or grease and the carboxyl portion is water soluble.

III. Pick out the incorrect statements

Question 1.
(i) Natural polymers are obtained from plants or animals.
(ii) Natural polymers modified by chemical treatment are called synthetic polymers.
(iii) Addition polymers are formed by the polymerisation of monomers without the elimination of any by product.
(iv) Thermosetting plastics can be remoulded,
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (ii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iii)
Answer:
c) (ii) & (iv)
Correct Statements:
(ii) Natural polymers modified by chemical treatment are called semi-synthetic polymers
(iv) Thermo plastics can be remoulded (or) Thermosetting plastics cannot be remoulded.

Question 2.
(i) Polyethene is obtained by condensation polymerisation.
(ii) In the preparation of HDPE peroxides formed from oxygen acts as a free radical initiator.
(iii) The monomer of teflon is tetrafluoroethylene.
(iv) Orion is polyacrylonitrile.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
a) (i) & (ii)
Correct Statements:
(i) Polyethene is obtained by addition polymerisation.
(ii) In the preparation of LDPE peroxides formed from oxygen acts as a free radical initiator.

Question 3.
(i) Proteins which act as biological catalysts are called enzymes.
(ii) Proteins which are important for communication systems are called receptors.
(iii) Allosteric inhibitors do not change the active site geometry of enzymes.
(iv) When allosteric inhibitors bind to the allosteric site, the substrate can also bind to the enzyme.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
c) (iii) & (iv)
Correct Statements:
(iii) Allosteric inhibitors change the active site geometry of enzymes.
(iv) When allosteric inhibitors bind to the allosteric site, the substrate can not bind to the enzyme.

Question 4.
(i) For the treatment of stress, anxiety, depression tranquilizers are used.
(ii) Non-narcotic analgesics are mainly used for post operative pain, pain of terminal cancer.
(iii) In the treatment of peptic ulcer aminoglycosides are used.
(iv) Rabeprazole is used as an antacid,
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Answer:
b) (ii) & (iii)
Correct Statements:
(ii) Narcotic analgesics are mainly used for post operative pain, pain of terminal cancer.
(iii) In the treatment of peptic ulcer tetracyclines are used.

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion : The quality of soap is described in terms of total fatty matter (TFM value)
Reason : As per BIS Standards, Grade-I soaps should have 60% minimum TFM value.
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false
d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
c) Assertion is true but reason is false

Question 2.
Assertion : Paracetamol and aspirin are both antipyretics.
Reason : Both paracetamol and aspirin are controlled and reversible loss of concionsness by affecting central nervous system.
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation for assertion,
c) Assertion is true but reason is false
d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
c) Assertion is true but reason is false

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Soaps are superior to detergents.
Reason (R): Detergents can be used even in hard water,
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) explains (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
Answer:
d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct Correct Assertion (A): Detergents are superior to soaps.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Nylon 6,6 is a condensation polymer.
Reason (R): Addition polymers are formed by the polymerisation of monomers without the elimination of any product.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) explains (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
Answer:
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)

V. Match the following

Question 1.

Answer:
1. –  d. Procaine
2. –  c. Lidocaine
3. –  a. Propofol
4. – b. Isoflurane

Question 2.

Answers:
1. – d. Alprazolam
2. – f. Ibuprofen
3. – g. Codeine
4. – e. Cetirizine
5. – a. Erythromycin
6. – c. Benzalkonium chloride
7. – b. Menstranol

Question 3.

Answers:
1. – c. Buna-S
2. – d. PHBV
3. – e. PVC
4. – b. Buna-N
5. – a. Bakelite

VI. Two mark questions

Question 1.
What is called as medicine?
Answer:
The drug which interacts with macromolecular targets such as proteins to produce a therapeutic and useful biological response is called medicine.

Question 2.
What are the characteristics of an ideal drug?
Answer:
Characteristics of an ideal drug:

• Non-toxic > Bio-compatible .
• Bio-degradable
• Should not have any side effects
• Bio-compatible .

Question 3.
What is therapeutic index? How is it related to the safety of the drug.
Answer:

• Therapeutic index is defined as the ratio between the maximum tolerated dose of a drug (above which it become toxic) and the minimum curative dose (below which the drug is ineffective).
• Therapeutic index = \(\frac {Maximum tolerated dose of the drug}{Minimum curative dose of the drug}\)
• Higher the value of therapeutic index, safer is the drug.

Question 4.
What are competitive inhibitors?
Answer:

• When a drug molecule that has a similar shape as the substrate is administered, it can also bind to the enzyme and inhibit its activity.
• In other words, the drug acts as an inhibitor to the enzyme catalyst.
• These type of inhibitors are called competitive inhibitors.

Question 5.
Write the mode of action and uses of antacids. Give example.
Answer:

• Substances which neutralize the acid in the stomach that causes acidity are called antacids.
• Uses: To relieve symptoms such as burning sensation in the chest/throat area (heartburns) caused by acid reflux.
• Ex.: Milk of Magnesia, Aluminium hydroxide

Question 6.
What are antihistamines? Give example.
Answer:
Drugs which block histamine release from histamine-1-receptors.

Question 7.
What are food additives?
Answer:
The substances which are not naturally a part of the food and added to improve the quality of food are called food additives.

Question 8.
Write the important categories of food additives.
Answer:

• Aroma compounds
• Preservatives
• Artificial Sweeteners
• Buffering substances
• Vitamins and minerals

Question 9.
What are the advantages of food additives?
Answer:

• Preservatives reduce the product  spoilage and extend the shelf-life of food.
• Vitamins and minerals reduce the mall nutrient.
• Flavouring agents enhance the aroma of the food.
• Antioxidants prevent the formation of potentially toxic oxidation products of lipids and other food constituents.

Question 10.
What are sugar substituents? Give example.
Answer:

• Compounds that are used like sugars for sweetening, but are metabolised without the influence of insulin are called sugar substituents.
• Ex.: Sorbitol, Xylitol, Mannitol

Question 11.
What are artificial sweetening agents? Give example.
Answer:

• Synthetic compounds which imprint a sweet sensation and possess no or negligible nutritional value are called artificial sweeteners.
• Ex.: Saccharin, Aspartame, sucralose, alitame

Question 12.
Define soap and detergent.
Answer:

• Soap is the sodium or potassium salt of higher fatty acids.
• Detergent is the sodium salt of alkyl hydrogen sulphates or alkyl benzene sulphonic acids.

Question 13.
How is teflon prepared? Mention its use.
Answer:

• Reaction : Addition polymerisation
• Monomer: Tetrafluroethylene
• Catalyst: Oxygen (or) ammonium persulphate
• Polymer : Teflon
• Use : Coating non-stick utensils.

Question 14.
How is orlon prepared? Mention its use.
Answer:

• Reaction : Addition polymerisation
• Monomer : Vinylcyanide (acrylonitrile)
• Catalyst: Peroxide initiator
• Polymer : Polyacrylonitrile – PAN (Orlon)
• Use : Substitute of wool for making blankets, sweaters etc…

Question 15.
Differentiate addition polymerisation and condensation polymerisation.
Answer:

Question 16.
What are Antiseptics ? Give an example.
Answer:

• Chemicals that stop or slowdown the growth of microorganisms are called antiseptics.
• They are applied to living tissues.
• Ex.: Hydrogen peroxide, povidone – iodine, benzalkonium chloride.

VII. Three mark questions

Question 1.
Write notes on antagonists and agonists.
Answer:

• Many drugs exert their physiological effects by binding to a specific molecule called a receptor.
• Drugs which bind to the receptor site inhibiting its natural functions are called antagonists.
• Drugs which mimic the natural messenger by switching on the receptor are called agonists. Agonists are used when there is lack of chemical messenger.
• Ex .: when adenosine binds to the adenosine receptors, it induces sleepiness. But the antagonist drug caffeine binds to the adenosine receptor making it inactive. This results in reduced sleepiness.
• The agonist drug, morphine used as a pain killer, binds to the opioid receptors activating them. This suppresses the neurotransmitters that cause pain.

Question 2.
Write about antioxidants.
Answer:

• Antioxidants are substances which retard the oxidative deteriorations of food.
• Food containing fats and oils is easily oxidized and turn rancid.
• To prevent the oxidation of the fats and oils, BHT (butylhydroxytoluene), BHA (Butylated hydroxyanisole) are added as food additives.
• They are generally called antioxidants.
• These materials readily undergo oxidation by reacting with free radicals generated by the oxidation of oils, thereby stop the chain reaction of oxidation of food.
• Sulphur dioxide and sulphites are also used as food additives.
• They act as anti-microbial agents, antioxidants and enzyme inhibitors

Question 3.
Write about the preparation of soaps.
Answer:

• Animal fats or vegetable oils contain glyceryl esters of long-chain fatty acids.
• When the glycerides are heated with sodium hydroxide or potassium hydroxide soap (sodium or potassium salt of fatty acids) and glycerol are obtained.
• This is known as saponification.
• Common salt is added to the reaction mixture to decrease the solubility of soap and it helps to precipitate out soap from the aqueous solution.
• Soap is then mixed with desired colours, perfumes and chemicals of medicinal importance.

Question 4.
Write a note on total fatty matter (TFM) of soap
Answer:

• The quality of a soap is described in terms of total fatty matter (TFM value).
• It is defined as the total amount of fatty matter that can be separated from a sample after splitting with mineral acids.
• Higher the TFM value of the soap better is its quality.
• As per BIS standards, minimum TFM value of Grade-1 soaps is 76% , Grade-2 soap is 70%, Grade-3 soap is 60%.

Question 5.
Write the preparation of LDPE and HDPE.
Answer:

Question 6.
How is nylon 6,6 prepared? Mention its use.
Answer:

• Reaction : Condensation polymerisation
• Monomers : Equimolar adipic acid and hexamethylene – diamine
• Intermediate : Nylon salt which on heating eliminate a water molecule.
• Polymer : Poly hexamethylene adipamide (Nylon 6,6)
•  Uses : Textiles, manufacture of cards

Question 7.
How is nylon 6 prepared? Mention its use. Nylon -6
Answer:

• Capro lactam (monomer) on heating at 533K in an inert atmosphere with traces of water gives ∈ amino carproic acid which polymerises to give nylon – 6

• it is used in the manufacture of tyrecards fabrics etc…

Question 8.
How is bakelite prepared? Mention its use.
Answer:

• Reaction: Condensation polymerization
• Monomers: Phenol and formaldehyde
• Catalyst : acid or base
• Intermediate: Ortho or para hydroxy methyl phenol which on reaction with phenol gives linear polymer novolac.
  Novalac on heating with formaldehyde undergo cross linkages to form bakelite.
• Polymer: Bakelite
• Uses : Navolac – in paints. Soft bakelites – making glue for binding laminated wooden planks, in varinishes Hard bakelites – combs, pens etc..
  

Question 9.
How is melamine formaldehyde prepared? Mention its use.
Answer:

• Reaction : Condensation polymerization
• Monomers : Melamine and formaldehyde
• Polymer : Melamine formaldehyde
• Uses : Making unbreakable crockery
  

Question 10.
How is urea formaldehyde polymer is prepared?
Answer:

• Reaction : Condensation polymerization
• Monomers : Urea and formaldehyde
• Polymer: Urea formaldehyde polymer
  

Question 11.
Differentiate natural rubber and synthetic rubber.
Answer:

Question 12.
Write about Neoprene preparation? Mention its use.
Answer:

• Reaction : Free radical polymeristion
• Monomer : 2-chloro buta-1, 3-diene (chloroprene)
• Polymer : Neoprene (Superior to rubber and resistant to chemical action)
• Uses : Manufacture of chemical containers, conveyer belts.
  

Question 13.
What is PHBV? How is it prepared? Mention its use.
Answer:

• PHBV is Poly- β -hydroxy butyrate-co- β -hydroxy valerate
• It is a co polymer.
• Monomers : 3-hydroxy butanoic acid and 3-hydroxy pentanoic acid
• Monomer units are joined by ester linkages.
• Uses : in ortho paedic devices, in controlled release of drugs.
  

Question 14.
How is Nylon-2-Nylon-6 prepared?
Answer:

• It is a co polymer.
• Obtained by condensation polymerisation.
• Monomers – glycine and E – amino caproic acid.

VIII. Five mark questions

Question 1.
How polymers are classified on the basis of structure and molecular formula and molecular
forces gives example one.
Answer:
(A) Classification based on structure of polymers
(i) Linear polymers:
The monomers in these are linked together to form along chain. Eg: HDPE, PVC
(ii) Branch chain polymers:
One main chain with small chains as branches. Eg: polypropylene, LDPE
(iii) Crosslinked or Network polymers:
Monomers are linked together to form a three-dimensional network. The monomers contain strong
covalent bonds as they are composed of bi-functional and tri-functional in nature. These polymers are brittle and hard.
Ex: Bakelite (used in electrical insulators), Melamine formaldehyde etc.,

(B) Classification Based on Molecular Forces
Intra molecular forces are the forces that hold atoms together within a molecule. In Polymers, strong covalent bonds join atoms to each other in individual polymer molecules. Intermolecular forces (between the molecules) attract polymer molecules towards each other. Polymers can be classified into 4 types :

i) Elastomers : (soft and stretched)
Elastomers are rubber like solid polymers, that are elastic in nature. The polymer chains are hold by the weakest intermolecular forces, hence allowing the polymer to be stretched. But as you notice removing that stress also results in the rubber band taking up its original form.
Eg: Buna-S, Buna-N neoprene.

ii) Thermoplastics : They become soft on heating and hard cooling they can be remolded . Eg: Polythene, PVC, Polystyrene

iii) Thermosetting : Do not become soft on heating but set to an infusible mass upon heating.
Eg: Bakelite, melamine formaldehyde.

iv) Fibre : They have strong inter molecules forces between the chains giving them less elasticity and high tensile strength. The intermolecular force may be hydrogen bonds or dipole-dipole interaction Eg: Nylon-6,6, Terylene.

Question 2.
Explain various types of anaesthetics.
Answer:
Drugs which produce loss of sensation are called anaesthetics.
Local anaesthetics:

• They cause loss of sensation, in the area in which they are applied without losing consciousness.
• They block pain perception that is transmitted via peripheral nerve fibres to the brain.
• Often used during minor surgical procedures.
• Ex.: Ester-linked local anaesthetic – Procaine, Amide-linked local anaesthetic – Lidocaine

General anaesthetics:

• Cause a controlled and reversible loss of consciousness by affecting central nervous system.
• They are often used for major surgical procedures.
• Ex.: Intravenous general anaesthetics: Propofol
• Inhalational general anaesthetics: Isoflurane

Question 3.
Explain about antimicrobials.
Answer:
Beta-Lactams:

• Inhibits bacterial cell wall biosynthesis.
• Used to treat skin infections, dental infections, ear infections, respiratory tract infections, pneumonia, urinary tract infections, and gonorrhoea.
• Ex.: Penicillins, ampicillin, cephalosporins.

Macrolides:

• Targets bacterial ribosomes and prevent protein production.
• Used to treat respiratory tract infections, genital, gastrointestinal tract and skin infections.
• Ex.: Erythromycin, azithromycin

Fluoroquinolones:

• Inhibits bacterial enzyme DNA gyrase.
• Used to treat urinary tract infections, skin infections, respiratory infections (sinusitis, pneumonia, bronchitis), pulmonary infections in cystic fibrosis.
• Ex.: Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin

Tetracyclines:

• Inhibit the bacterial protein synthesis via interaction with the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome.
• Used to treat peptic ulcer, respiratory tract infections, cholera, acne vulgaris.
• Ex.: Doxycycline, minocycline, oxytetracycline

Aminoglycosides:

• Bind to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome, thus stopping bacteria from making proteins.
• Used to treat infections caused by gram-negative bacteria
• Ex.: Kanamycin, gentamycin, neomycin

Question 4.
Explain the steps involved in free radical polymerisation.
Answer:
When alkenes are heated with free radical initiator such as benzoyl peroxide, they undergo addition polymerisation through free radical mechanism.
1. Initiation – formation of free radical

2. Propagation step

Chain growth will continue with the successive addition of several thousands of monomer units.

Termination:
The above chain reaction can be stopped by stopping the supply of monomer or by coupling of two chains or reaction with an impurity such as oxygen.

Question 5.
Write about buna rubbers.
Answer:
Buna-N:

• It is a co-polymer.
• Monomers : acrylonitrile, buta-1, 3-diene.
• Catalyst: Sodium
• Uses : Manufacture of hoses and tank linings.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 7 Stock Exchange Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 7 Stock Exchange

12th Commerce Guide Stock Exchange Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer.

Question 1.
…………. is the oldest stock exchange in the world.
a) London Stock Exchange
b) Bombay Stock Exchange
c) National Stock Exchange
d) Amsterdam Stock Exchange
Answer :
d) Amsterdam Stock Exchange

Question 2.
There are ………………. stock exchanges in the country.
a) 21
b) 24
c) 20
d) 25
Answer :
a) 21

Question 3.
Stock exchanges deal in
a) Goods
b) Serves
c) Financial Securities
d) Country’s Currency
Answer:
c) Financial Securities

Question 4.
Stock exchange allow trading in
a) All types of Shares of any Company
b) Bonds issued by the Govt.
c) Listed Securities
d) Unlisted Securities
Answer:
c) Listed Securities

Question 5.
Jobbers transact in a stock exchange
a) For their Clients
b) For their Own Transactions
c) For other Brokers
d) For other Members
Answer:
b) For their Own Transaction

Question 6.
A pessimistic speculator is
a) Stag
b) Bear
c) Bull
d) Lame Duck
Answer:
b) Bear

Question 7.
An optimistic speculator is
a) Bull
b) Bear
c) Stag
d) Lame Duck
Answer:
a) Bull

Question 8.
A bull operator believes in
a) Increase in Prices
b) Decrease in Prices
c) Stability in Prices
d) No change in Prices
Answer:
a) Increase in Prices

Question 9.
…………………… means the price at which securities are bought and sold are recorded and made public.
a) Market Quotations
b) Trade Quotations
c) Business Quotations
d) Buyers Quotations
Answer:
a) Market Quotations

Question 10.
The rules and regulations of Stock exchange is framed by ……………………. guide lines.
a) RBI
b) Central Government
c) SEBI
d) BSE
Answer:
c) SEBI

II. Very Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is meant by Stock Exchange?
Answer:
Stock Exchange is an organized market for the purchase and sale of industrial and financial security. It is also called the stock market or share market.

Question 2.
Define Stock Exchange.
Answer:
Stock Exchange:

• “An association, organization or a body of individuals, whether incorporated or not, established for the purpose of assisting, regulating and controlling business in buying, selling and dealing in securities.
•  Indian securities contracts [Regulation] Act of 1956.

Question 3.
Write any 5 Stock Exchanges in India.
Answer:

1. The Bombay Stock Exchange
2. Bangalore Stock Exchange Ltd
3. The Madras Stock Exchange Ltd
4. The Hyderabad Stock Exchange Ltd
5. The Cochin Stock Exchange Ltd

Question 4.
What is meant by Remisier?
Answer:

• He acts as an Agent of a member of a Stock Exchange.
• He obtains business for his principal.
• For that service, he gets a commission.

Question 5.
Who is called a Broker?
Answer:
The broker is a commission agent. He acts as an intermediary between buyers and sellers of securities. He charges a commission for his services from both parties.

Question 6.
What are the types of Speculator?
Answer:

• Bull – Tejiwala
• Bear – Mandiwala
• Stag – Premium hunter
• Lame Duck

Question 7.
Mention the Recent Development in Stock Exchange?
Answer:
A commodity exchange is an exchange where commodities are purchased and sold. Commodities are listed here: Metals, agricultural products.

III. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What are the limitations of Stock exchange? AL FAN
Answer:

•  Absence of restriction on the membership of Stock Exchange.
•  Lack of uniformity and control of Stock Exchanges.
•  Failure to control unhealthy speculation.
•  Allowing more than one exchange in a place.
•  No proper regulation on the listing of securities.

Question 2.
Explain Bull and Bear.
Answer:
Speculators in a stock market are of different types based on animal behaviour.
They are:

1. Bull: A Bull or Tejiwala is an operator who expects a rise in prices of securities in the future. He purchases the securities expecting the price of rise in future.
2. Bear: A bear or Mandiwala speculator expects prices to fall in future and sells securities at present with a view to purchase them at lower price.

Question 3.
Explain Stag and Lame Duck.
Answer:
Stag: [Premium Hunter]

• He is a Cautious Speculator.
• He applies for shares in new companies and expects to sell them at a premium.
• If he gets an allotment, he sells the shares before being called to pay the allotment money.

Lame Duck:

• When a Bear finds it difficult to fulfill his commitment, he is said to be struggling like a lame duck.
• Bear contracts to sell securities at a later date.
• At the appointed time he is not able to get the securities as the holders are not willing to part with them.
• In such situations, he feels concerned.

Question 4.
Explain National Stock Market System. (NSMS)
Answer:
The national stock market system was advocated by the High Powered Group. It is headed by Shri. Pherwani (popularly known as Pherwani Committee). At present the National Stock Market comprises the following:

1. National Stock Exchange of India Limited (NSE)
2. Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited (SHCIL)
3. Securities Trading Corporation of India (STCI)

Question 5.
Explain National Stock Exchange (NSE)
Answer:
National Stock Exchanges:

• NSE was incorporated in November 1992.
• It is a Countrywide, Screen-based, Online, and order-driven trading system.
• It uses a satellite link to spread trading throughout the country thereby connecting members scattered all over India.
• NSE has two segments Debt and Capital Segments.
• It has revolutionized stock trading in India.
• Through a computer network, member’s orders for buying and selling within prescribed prices are matched by the central computers with each other and instantly communicate to the trading member.

IV. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Explain the functions of the stock Exchange.
Answer:

1. Ready and Continuous Market: Stock exchange helps investors to sell their securities easily. And also he can convert his cash into securities.
2. Correct Evaluation of Securities: The prices at which securities are bought and sold are recorded and informed to the public. These prices are called “market quotations”
3. Protection to Investors: All dealings in stock exchange are in accordance with well- defined rules and regulations. Any malpractice will be severely punished.
4. Proper Channelisation of Capital: People like to invest in the shares of companies which yield good profits. Also, people invest in the companies which are giving good dividends.
5. Facilities for Speculation: Speculation is an integral part of stock exchange operations. As a result of speculation, demand for and supply of securities are equalized.

Question 2.
Explain the features of the Stock Exchange.
Answer:
Features:
Market for Securities:
Stock Exchange is a market, where securities of corporate, bodies Government and Semi-Government bodies are bought and sold.

Association of Persons:
It is an association of persons or body of individuals whether incorporated or not.

Deals in second-hand securities:
In the secondary market (Stock Exchange) Shares, Debentures, Bonds already issued by the companies are (re-sale) traded.

Regulates Trade in Securities :
It regulates the trade activities so as to ensure free and fair trade.

Allow dealings only in Listed Securities:

•  It maintains the list of companies (securities) that could be bought and sold on its floor.
•  Unlisted Securities can’t be traded in the stock exchange.

Specific location:

• Stock exchange is a particular place where authorized brokers come together daily (on working days – working hours) on the floor of market.

Question 3.
Explain the Benefits of Stock Exchange.
Answer:
The benefits of the Stock Exchange are classified into benefits to the Community, Company, and Investors.
Benefits to the Community:

1. Economic Development: It increases economic development by ensuring a steady flow of savings for production.
2. Fund Raising Platform: It enables well-managed companies to raise funds by issue of shares.

Benefits to the Company:

1. Enhances Goodwill or Reputation: Companies whose shares are quoted on a stock exchange enjoy greater goodwill and credit standing.
2. Raises huge funds: Stock exchange helps the companies to raise huge funds by issue of shares and debentures.

Benefits to Investors:

1. Liquidity: Stock exchange helps to convert his shares into cash quickly.
2. Investor protection: The stock exchange safeguards, investor’s interests by following strict rules and regulations.

Question 3.
Benefits to the Investors [MLA].
Answer:

• The mechanism to trade security – It provides a mechanism by which listed securities can be bought and sold within few minutes.
• Liquidity – An investor can convert his. securities into cash and cash into securities quickly and easily.
  Adding collateral value -It is good collateral security for obtaining loans from banks.

Question 4.
Distinguish between Stock Exchange and Commodity Exchange. MP SOFA
Answer:

12th Commerce Guide Stock Exchange Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
A cautious speculator is……….
a) Bull
b) Bear
c) Stag
d) Lame Duck
Answer:
c) Stag

Question 2.
A Bear operator believes in ………….
a) Increase in Price
b) Decrease in Price
c) Stability in Price
d) No Change in Price
Answer:
b) Decrease in Price

Question 3.
Which is not a foreign Stock exchange?
(a) London Stock Exchange
(b) Bombay Stock Exchange
(c) Tokyo Stock Exchange
(d) New York Stock Exchange
Answer:
(b) Bombay Stock Exchange

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
a) Jobbers – India pendent operators
b) Brokers – Intermediaries
c) Authorised clerks – Employee
d) Bull – Mandiwala
Answer:
d) Bull – Mandiwala

Question 5.
Pick the odd one out:
a) Bull
b) Bear
c) Stag
d) Swan
Answer:
d) Swan

Question 6.
Pick the odd one out:
a) Khazimar Street
b) Dalai Street
c) Wall Street
d) Lombard Street
Answer:
a) Khazimar Street

Question 7.
Choose the correct statement.
i) Future market is an Auction Market
ii) Right to sell a security is called “Put Option”
iii) Right to buy a security is called “Call Option”
a) (i) is correct
b) (ii) is correct
c) (iii) is correct
d) All (i) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
d) All (i) (ii) and (iii) are correct

II. Match the following

1. Match List I with List – II

Answer:
a) (i) 4, (ii) 3, (iii) 2, (iv) 1

Question 2.

Answer:
a) (i) 2, (ii) 3. (iii) 4, (iv) 1

III. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Bear or Mandiwala speculator expects prices to fall in future and sells the securities at present with a view to purchase them at lower prices.
Reason (R): A Bear usually presses its viction down to down to the ground. Similarly, the Bear speculator tends to force down prices of securities,
a) (A) is True (R) is False
b) (A) is False (R) is True
c) Both (A) and (R) are False
d) Both (A) and (R) are True
Answer:
c) Both (A) and (R) are True

IV. Very Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is Future Market?
Answer:

• A “Future Market” is an auction market in which participants Buy and Sell commodities and future contracts for delivery on a Specified Future Date.
• (e.g) York Mercantile Exchange.

Question 2.
What is Options Market?
Answer:
An “Option” is a type of Security that can be Bought and Sold as a specified price within a specified period of time in exchange for a non-refundable upfront deposit.

Question 3.
What is leverage?
Answer:

•  Options help you profit from changes in share prices without puffing down the full price of the share.
•  You get control over the shares without buying them outright.

Question 4.
What is hedging?
Answer:

•  They can also be used to protect yourself from fluctuations in the price of a share.
•  Letting you buy or sell the shares at a pre-determined price for a specified period of time.

Question 5.
What is Sensex?
Answer:

• Sensex in an Index of the Stocks in BSE.
• It has a list of 30 stocks.
• BSE decides the stocks that are to be listed on sensex.
• The criteria for picking a stock to be listed on Sensex is volume of the trade of that stock and the total volume of stock in BSE.

Question 6.
What is NIFTY?
Answer:

•  NIFTY derived from two words. “National” and “Fifty”.
•  It means the index of the 50 most actively traded stocks from across all sectors.

Question 7.
What is meant by Commodity Exchange?
Answer:
Commodity Exchange is an Exchange where Commodities are traded.

Question 8.
What is the stock trading time in India?
Answer:
Equity Market:

•  Normal Trading Time – 9.15 a.m to 3.30 p.m [Monday to Friday]
•  Closed on – All Saturday Sunday and National Holidays.

Commodity Market:

•  Normal Trading Time – 10.00 a.m to 11.30 a.m [Monday to Friday]
• Closed on – All Saturdays and Sundays and National Holidays.

Question 9.
Explain Dalai Street.
Answer:

•  DalaI Street is an area in down town Mumbai, India that houses the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).
•  The largest Stock Exchange of India.
•  It received the name Dalai Street after the BSE moved to the area in 1874.

V. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Explain Lombard street and Wall street.
Answer:
Lombard Street:

• Lombard street in London is notable for its connections with the city of London’s Merchant, Banking, Insurance Industries stretching back to medieval times.
• From Bank Junction,where NINE streets coverage by the Bank of England.
• It runs south east for a short distance before bearing left into a most easterly direction and terminates at a junction with Grace church Street and Fenchruch Street.

Wall Street:

•  Wall Street in New York is a street in Lower Manhattan that is the original home of New York Stock Exchange.
• The Historic Head Quarters of the largest US brokerages and investment Banks.
• It is the collective name for the financial and Investment community which includes stock exchanges and – banks, Brokerages, Securities and underwriting firms and big Businesses.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Guide Pdf Chapter 6 Solid State Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6 Solid State

12th Chemistry Guide Solid State Text Book Questions and Answers

Part – I Text Book Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Graphite and diamond are ………..
(a) Covalent and molecular crystals
(b) ionic and covalent
(c) both covalent crystals
(d) both molecular crystals
Answer:
(c) both covalent crystals

Question 2.
An ionic compound Ax By crystallizes in fee type crystal structure with B ions at the centre of each face and A ion occupying centre of the cube, the correct formula of A B is ………..
(a) AB
(b) AB₃
(c) A₃B
(d) A₈B₆
Answer:
(b) AB₃

Question 3.
The rano of close packed atoms to tetrahedral hole in cubic packing is ………..
(a) 1:1
(b) 1:2
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:4
Answer:
(b) 1:2

Question 4.
Solid CO₂ is an example of ………..
(a) Covalent solid
(b) metallic solid
(c) molecular solid
(d) ionic solid
Answer:
(c) molecular solid

Question 5.
Assertion: monoclinic sulphur is an example of monoclinic crystal system.
Reason: for a monoclinic system, a \(\neq\) b \(\neq\) c and α = γ = 90° , β \(\neq\) 90°.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

Question 6.
In calcium fluoride, having the flurite structure the coordination number of Ca²⁺ ion and F Ion are ………..
(a) 4 and 2
(b) 6 and 6
(c) 8 and 4
(d) 4 and 8
Answer:
(c) 8 and 4

Question 7.
The number of unit cells in 8gm of an element X (atomic mass 40) which crystallizes in bcc pattern is (NA is the Avogadro number)
(a) 6.023 × 10²³
(b) 6.023 × 10²²
(c) 60.23 × 10²³
(d) \(\left( \frac { 6.023\times { 10 }^{ 23 } }{ 8\times 40 } \right)\)
Answer:
(b) 6.023 × 10²²

Question 8.
In a solid atom M occupies ccp lattice and \(\left( \frac { 1 }{ 3 } \right)\) of tetrahedral voids are occupied by atom N. Find the formula of solid formed by M and N.
(a) MN
(b) M₃N
(C) MN₃
(d) M₃N₂
Answer:
(d) M₃N₂

Question 9
The ionic radii of A+ and B- are 0.98 × 10^-10 m and 1.81 × 10^-10 m , the coordination number of each ion in AB is ………..
(a) 8
(b) 2
(c) 6
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 6

Question 10.
CsCl has bcc arrangement, its unit cell edge length is 400pm, its inter atomic distance is ………..
(a) 400pm
(b) 800pm
(c) \(g\sqrt { 3 } \) × 100pm
(d) \(\left( \frac { \sqrt { 3 } }{ 2 } \right)\) × 400 pm
Answer:
(d) \(\left( \frac { \sqrt { 3 } }{ 2 } \right)\) × 400 pm

Quesiton 11.
A solid compound XY has NaCl structure, if the radius of the cation is 100pm , the radius of the anion will be ………..
(a) \(\left( \frac { 100 }{ 0.414 } \right)\)
(b) \(\left( \frac { 0.732 }{ 100 } \right)\)
(c) 100 × 0.414
(d) \(\left( \frac { 0.414 }{ 100 } \right)\)
Answer:
(a) \(\left( \frac { 100 }{ 0.414 } \right)\)

Question 12.
The vacant space in bcc lattice unit cell is ………..
(a) 48%
(b) 23%
(c) 32%
(d) 26%
Answer:
(c) 32%

Question 13.
The radius of an atom is 300pm, if it crystallizes in a face centered cubic lattice, the length of the edge of the unit cell is ………..
(a) 488.5pm
(b) 848.5pm
(c) 884.5pm
(d) 484.5pm
Answer:
(b) 848.5pm

Question 14.
The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms in a simple cubic is ………..
(a) \(\left( \frac { \pi }{ 4\sqrt { 2 } } \right)\)
(b) \(\left( \frac { \pi }{ 6 } \right)\)
(c) \(\left( \frac { \pi }{ 4 } \right)\)
(d) \(\left( \frac { \pi }{ 3\sqrt { 2 } } \right)\)
Answer:
(b) \(\left( \frac { \pi }{ 6 } \right)\)

Question 15.
The yellow colour in NaCl crystal is due to ………..
(a) excitation of electrons in F centers
(b) reflection of light from Cl- ion on the surface
(c) refraction of light from Na+ ion
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(a) excitation of electrons in F centers

Question 16.
If ’a’ stands for the edge length of the cubic system; sc ,bcc, and fcc. Then the ratio of radii of spheres in these systems wilL be respectively.

Answer:
\(\left(\frac{1}{2} a: \frac{\sqrt{3}}{4} a: \frac{1}{2 \sqrt{2}} a\right)\)

Question 17.
If a is the length of the side of the cube, the distance between the body centered atom and one comer atom in the cube will be ………..
(a) \(\left( \frac { 2 }{ \sqrt { 3 } } \right) a\)
(b) \(\left( \frac { 4 }{ \sqrt { 3 } } \right) a\)
(c) \(\left( \frac { \sqrt { 3 } }{ 4 } \right) a\)
(d) \(\left( \frac { \sqrt { 3 } }{ 2 } \right) a\)
Answer:
(d) \(\left( \frac { \sqrt { 3 } }{ 2 } \right) a\)

Question 18.
Potassium has a bcc structure with nearest neighbor distance 4.52 A. its atomic weight is 39. Its density will be ………..
(a) 915 kg m^-3
(b) 2142 kg m^-3
(c) 452 kg m^-3
(d) 390 kg m^-3
Answer:
(a) 915 kg m^-3

Question 19.
Schottky defect in a crystal is observed when ………..
(a) unequal number of anions and anions are missing from the lattice
(b) equal number of anions and anions are missing from the lattice
(e) an ion leaves its normal site and occupies an interstitial site
(d) no ion is missing from its lattice.
Answer:
(b) equal number of anions and anions are missing from the lattice

Question 20.
The cation leaves its normal position in the crystal and moves to some interstitial position, the defect in the crystal is known as ………..
(a) Schottky defect
(b) F center
(c) Frenkel defect
(d) non-stoichiometric defect
Answer:
(c) Frenkel defect

Question 21.
Assertion – due to Frenkel defect, density of the crystalline solid decreases.
Reason – in Frenkel defect cation and anion leaves the crystal.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason are false

Question 22.
The crystal with a metal deficiency defect is ………..
(a) NaCI
(b) FeO
(c) ZnO
(a) KCI
Answer:
(b) FeO

Question 23.
A two dimensional solid pattern formed by two different atoms X and Y is shown below. The black and white squares represent atoms X and Y respectively. The simplest formula for the compound based on the unit cell from the pattern is ………..

(a) XY₈
(b) X₄Y₉
(c) XY₂
(d) XY₄
Answer:
(a) XY₈

II. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Define unit cell.
Answer:
A basic repeating structural unit of a crystalline solid is called a unit ccli.

Question 2.
Give any three characteristics of ionic crystals.
Answer:

1. Ionic solids have high melting points.
2. These solids do not conduct electricity, because the ions are fixed in their lattice positions.
3. They do conduct electricity in a molten state (or) when dissolved in water because the ions are free to move in the molten state or solution.

Question 3.
Differentiate crystalline solids and amorphous solids.
Answer:
Crystalline solids:

1. A long-range orderly arrangement of constituents
2. Definite shape
3. Generally, crystalline solids are anisotropic in nature
4. They are true solids
5. Definite Heat of fusion
6. They have sharp melting points.
7. Examples: NaCl, diamond etc.,

Amorphous solids:

1. The short-range, random arrangement of constituents
2. Irregular shape
3. They are isotropic like liquids
4. They are considered as pseudo solids (or) supercooled liquids
5. Heat of fusion is not definite
6. Gradually soften over a range of temperatures and so can be moulded.
7. Examples: Rubber, plastics, glass etc

Question 4.
Classify the following solids.
a) P₄
b) Brass
c) Diamond
d) NaCI
e) iodine
Answer:
P₄ – Molecular solid
Brass – Metallic solid
Diamond –
NaCl – Ionic solid
Iodine – Molecular solid

Question 5.
Explain briefly seven types of unit cell.
Answer:
Seven types of unit cell:

Cubic – NaCl
Tetragonal – TiO₂
Orthorhombic – BaSO₄
Hexagonal – ZnO
Monoclinic – PbCrO₄
Triclinic – H₃BO₃
Rhombohedral – Cinnabar Cubic

They differ in the arrangements of their crystallographic axes and angles. Corresponding to the above seven, Bravis defined 14 possible crystal system as shown in the figure.

Question 6.
Distinguish between hexagonal close packing and cubic close packing.
Answer:
Hexagonal close-packing

1. aba arrangement
2. In this case, the spheres of the third layer are exactly aligned with those of the first layer
3. In HCP, tetrahedral voids of the second layer may be covered by the spheres of the third layer

Cubic close packing:

1. abc arrangement
2. In this case, the spheres of the third layer are not aligned with those of the first layer or second layer. Only when the fourth layer is placed, its spheres are aligned with the first layer.
3. In cep third layer may be placed above the second layer in a manner such that its sphere covers the octahedral voids

Question 7.
Distinguish tetrahedral and octahedral voids.
Answer:
Tetrahedral void

1. A single triangular void in a crystal is surrounded by four (4) spheres and is called a tetrahedral void
2. A sphere of second layer is above the void of the first layer, a tetrahedral void is formed
3. This constitutes four spheres, three in the lower and one in upper layer. When the centres of these four spheres are joined a tetrahedron is formed
4. The radius of the sphere which can be accommodated in an octahedral hole without disturbing the structure should not exceed 0.414 times that of the structure forming sphere
5. Radius of an tetrahedral void \(\frac { r }{ R }\) = 0.225

Octahedral void

1. A double triangular void like c is surrounded by six(6) spheres and is called an octahedral void
2. The voids in the first layer are partially covered by the spheres of layer now such a void is called a octahedral void
3. This constitutes six spheres, three in the lower layer and three in the upper layer. When the centers of these six spheres are joined an octahedron is formed
4. The sphere which can be placed in a tetrahedral hole without disturbing the close-packed structure should not have a radius larger than 0.225 times the radius of the sphere-forming the structure
5. Radius of a octahedral void \(\frac { r }{ R } \) = 0.414

Question 8.
What are point defects?
Answer:
If the deviation occurs due to missing atoms, displaced atoms or extra atoms the imperfection is named as a point defect. Such defects arise due to imperfect packing during the original crystallisation or they may arise from thermal vibrations of atoms at elevated temperatures.

Question 9.
Explain Schottky defect.
Answer:
Schottky defect arises due to the missing of equal number of cations and anions from the crystal lattice. This effect does not change the stoichiometry of the crystal.Ionic solids in which the cation and anion are of almost of similar size show schottky defect.
Example: NaCl.

Presence of large number of schottky defects in a crystal, lowers its density. For example, the theoretical density of vanadium monoxide (VO) calculated using the edge length of the unit cell is 6.5 g cm-3 but the actual experimental density is 5.6 gcm3. It indicates that there is approximately 14% Schottky defect in VO crystal. Presence of Schottky defect in the crystal provides a simple way by which atoms or ions can move within the crystal lattice.

Question 10.
Write short note on metal excess and metal deficiency defect with an example. Metal excess defect.
Answer:
Metal excess defect arises due to the presence of more number of metal ions as compared to anions.Alkali metal halides NaCl, KCl show this type of defect.The electrical neutrality of the crystal can be maintained by the presence of anionic vacancies equal to the excess metal ions (or) by the presence of extra cation and electron present in interstitial position.

For example, when NaCl crystals are heated in the presence of sodium vapour, Na⁺ ions are formed and are deposited on the surface of the crystal. Chloride ions (Cl^–) diffuse to the surface from the lattice point and combines with Na⁺ ion.

The electron lost by the sodium vapour diffuse into the crystal lattice and occupies the vacancy created by the Cl^– ions. Such anionic vacancies which are occupied by unpaired electrons are called F centers. Hence, the formula of NaCl which contains excess Na+ ions can be written as Na_1+xCl.

Metal deficiency defect:
Metal deficiency defect arises due to the presence of less number of cations than the anions. This defect is observed in a crystal in which, the cations have variable oxidation states. For example, in FeO crystal, some of the Fe²⁺ ions are missing from the crystal lattice.

To maintain the electrical neutrality, twice the number of other Fe²⁺ ions in the crystal is oxidized to Fe³⁺ ions. In such cases, overall number of Fe2²⁺ and Fe³⁺ ions is less than the O^2- ions. It was experimentally found that the general formula of ferrous oxide is FexO, where x ranges from 0.93 to 0.98.

Question 11.
Calculate the number of atoms in a fee unit cell.
Answer:
Number of atoms in a fee unit cell,
= \(\frac { { N }_{ c } }{ 8 }\) + \(\frac { { N }_{ f } }{ 2 }\)
= \(\frac { 8 }{ 8 } \) + \(\frac { 6 }{ 2 } \) = 1 + 3 = 4

Question 12.
Explain AAAA and ABABA and ABCABC type of three dimensional packing with the help of neat diagram.
Answer:
1. AAAA type of three dimensional packing
This type of three dimensional packing arrangements can be obtained by repeating the AAAA type two dimensional arrangements in three dimensions, i.e., spheres in one layer sitting directly on the top of those in the previous layer so that all layers are identical.

All spheres of different layers of crystal are perfectly aligned horizontally and also vertically, so that any unit cell of such arrangement as simple cubic structure as shown in fig.

In simple cubic packing, each sphere is in contact with 6 neighbouring spheres – Four in its own layer, one above and one below and hence the coordination number of the sphere in simple cubic arrangement is 6.

2. ABABA type of three dimensional packing:
In this arrangement, the spheres in the first layer (A type) are slightly separated and the second layer is formed by arranging the spheres in the depressions between the spheres in layer A as shown in figure.

The third layer is a repeat of the first. This pattern ABABAB is repeated throughout the crystal. In this arrangement, each sphere has a coordination number of 8, four neighbors in the layer above and four in the layer below.

3. ABCABC type of three dimensional packing:
In this arrangement (FCC) second layer spheres are arranged at the dips of first layer. Third layer spheres are arranged in a manner such that it cover the octahedral void. Then no longer third layer is similar to first or second layer.

Third layer gives different arrangement. Fourth layer spheres are similar to first layer. If the first, second and third layer are represented as A,B,C then this type of packing gives the arrangement of layers as ABCABC… (i.e.,), the first three layers do not resemble first, second and third layers respectively and the sequence is repeated.

with the addition of more layers. In this arrangement atoms occupy 74% of the available space and thus has 26% vacant space. The coordination number is 12. Voids – The empty spaces between the three dimensional layers are known as voids. There are two types of common voids possible. They are tetrahedral and octahedral voids.

Tetrahedral void – A void formed by three spheres of a layer in contact with each other and also with a sphere on the top or bottom layer is a hole between four spheres. The spheres are arranged at the vertices of a regular tetrahedron such a hole or void is called tetrahedral void.

Octahedral void:
A hole or void formed by three spheres of a hexagonal layer and another three spheres of the adjacent layer is a hole between six spheres. The spheres are arranged at the vertices of a regular octahedron. Such a hole or void is abc arrangement – ccp structure called octahedral void.

Question 13.
Why ionic crystals are hard and brittle?
Answer:
The ionic compounds are very hard and brittle. In ionic compounds, the ions are rigidly held in a lattice because the positive and negative ions are strongly attracted to each other and difficult to separate. But the brittleness of a compound is now easy to shift the position of atoms or ions in a lattice.

If we apply pressure on the ionic compounds the layers shifts slightly. The same charged ions in the lattice come closer. A repulsive force arises between same charged ions, due to this repulsion the lattice structure breaks down chemical bonding.

Question 14.
Calculate the percentage efficiency of packing in case of a body-centered cubic crystal. Packing efficiency.
Answer:
In the body-centered cubic arrangement, the spheres are touching along the leading diagonal of the cube as shown in the In ∆ABC,
AC2 = AB² + BC²
AC = \(g\sqrt { { AB }^{ 2 }+{ BC }^{ 2 } }\)
AC = \(g\sqrt { { a }^{ 2 }+{ a }^{ 2 } }\) = a²

In ∆ACG,
AG² = AC² + CG²
AG =\(g\sqrt { { AC }^{ 2 }+{ CG }^{ 2 } }\)
AG = \(\sqrt { { \left( \sqrt { 2 } a \right) }^{ 2 }+{ a }^{ 2 } }\)
AG = \(g\sqrt { { 2a }^{ 2 }+a^{ 2 } }\) = \(g\sqrt { 3a^{ 2 } } \) = \(\sqrt { 3 } a\)
i.e., \(g\sqrt { 3 } \)a = 4r
r = \(\frac { \sqrt { 3 } }{ 4 } a\)
∴ Volume of the sphere with radius ‘r’
= \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 } \) πr²
= \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 } \) π \(\left( \frac { \sqrt { 3 } }{ 4 } a \right)\)
= \(\frac { \sqrt { 3 } }{ 6 }\) πa²
Number of spheres belong to a unit cell in bee arrangement is equal to two and hence the total volume of all spheres

i.e., 68% of the available volume is occupied.The available space is used more efficiently than in simple cubic packing

Question 15.
What is the two-dimensional coordination number of a molecule in square close-packed layer?
Answer:
Square close packing – When the spheres of the second row are placed exactly above those of the first row. This way the spheres are aligned horizontally as well as vertically. The arrangement is AAA type. Coordination number is 4.

Question 16.
What is meant by the term “coordination number”? What is the coordination number of atoms in a bcc structure?
Answer:

• Coordination number – The number of nearest neighbours that surrounding a particle in a crystal is called the coordination number of that particle.
• Coordination number of atoms in a bcc structure is 8

Question 17.
An element has bcc structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. the density of the element is 7.2 gcm-3. How many atoms are present in 208g of the element.
Answer:
An elemeñt has bec structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The density of the element is 7.2 gcm^-3. For the Bec structure, n = 2

No. of atoms = No. of moles × Avagadro number
=n × N_A
=4 × 6.023 × 10²³
= 2.4092 × 10²⁴ number of atoms

Question 18.
Aluminium crystallizes in a cubic close-packed structure. Its metallic radius is 125pm. Calculate the edge length of the unit cell.
Answer:
Cubic close packing is based on face centred cubic unit cell.
For fcc structure r = \(\frac{a \sqrt{2}}{4}\)
Given, Radius (r) = 125 pm
Edge length of unit cell (a) = ?

Question 19.
If NaCI is doped with 10^-2 mol percentage of strontium chloride, what is the concentration of cation vacancy?
Answer:
We know that two Na+ ions are replaced by each of the Sr²⁺ ions while SrCl₂, is doped with NaCI. But in this case, only one lattice point is occupied by each of the Sr²⁺ ions and produce one cation vacancy.

Here 10^-2 mole of SrCl₂, is doped with 100 moles of NaCI. Thus, cation vacancies produced by NaCi = 10^-2  mol. Since, 100 moles of NaCl produces cation vacancies after doping = 10^-2 mol. Therefore, I mole of NaCl will produce cation vacancies after doping

= \(\frac { { 10 }^{ -2 } }{ 100 }\)= 10^-4mol
:. Total cationic vacancies,
= 10^-4 × Avogadro’s number
= 10 × 6.023 × 10²³
= 6.023 × 10¹⁹ vacancies

Question 20.
KF crystallizes in fcc structure like sodium chloride, calculate the distance between K⁺  and F^– in KF. (given : density of KF is 2.48 g cm^-3)
Answer:
For fcc structure n = 4
p = 2.48 gcm^-3
For KFM= 39+19= 58g mol^-1
NA = 6.O23 × 10²³; a = ?

a³= 0.1553 × 10^-21 cm³
a= 0.5375 × 10^-7 cm
a = 5375 × 10^-8 cm
Distance between K⁺ and F^– =
1/2 × edge length = 1/2 × a
= 1/2 × 5375 × 10^-8
= 2.6875 × 10^-8 cm
= 2.6875 × 10^-10 m
= 268.75 × 10^-12 m
= 268.75 pm

Question 21.
An atom crystallizes ¡n fcc crystal lattice and has a density of 10 gcm^-3 with unit cell edge length of 100pm. calculate the number of atoms present in 1 g of crystal.
Answer:
ρ = 10cm^-3
N_A = 6.023 × 10²³
a = 100 Pm = 100 × 10¹²m
= 100 × 10¹⁰cm = 1.00 × 10⁸cm
For fcc n = 4 M = ? w = 1g
\(\rho=\frac{n M}{a^{3} N_{A}}\)
\(M=\frac{\rho a^{3} N_{A}}{n}\)
\(\frac{10 \times\left(1.00 \times 10^{-8}\right)^{3} \times 6.023 \times 10^{23}}{4}\)
Molar mass M = 1.51g mol^-1
Numberof moles n = \(\frac{W}{M}=\frac{1}{1.51}\) = 0.6623moles
Number of atoms present inn moles = n x N_A
Number of atoms. present in 0.6623 moles
=0.6623 × 6.023 × 10²³
= 3.989 × 10²³ number of atoms

Question 22.
Atoms X and Y form bcc crystalline structure. Atom X is present at the corners of the cube and Y is at the centre of the cube. What is the formula of the compound?
Answer:
Y – body centre atom 1 × 1/1 = 1
∴ The formula is X₁Y₁ or XY.

Question 23.
Sodium metal crystallizes in bcc structure with the edge length of the unit cell 4.3 × 10^-8 cm. Calculate the radius of sodium atom.
Answer:
Edge length of the unit cell (a) = 4.3 × 10^-8cm
Radius of sodium atom (r) = ?
For bcc structure, r = \(\frac { \sqrt { 3 } }{ 4 } a\)
= \(\frac { \sqrt { 3 } }{ 4 } a\) (4.3 × 10^-8cm)
\(\frac { 1.732\times 4.3\times { 10 }^{ -8 } }{ 4 }\)
= \(\frac { 1.732 }{ 4 } \times { 10 }^{ -8 }cm\)
= 1.86 × 10^-8 cm

Question 24.
Write a note on Frenkel defect.
Answer:
This arises due to the dislocation of ions from its crystal lattice.

• The ion missing from the lattice point occupies an interstitial position.
• This is shown by ionic solids in which cation and anion differ in size.
• This does not affect the density of the crystal eg. Ag Br
• Small Ag+ ion leaves its normal site and occupies an interstitial position.

III. Evaluate Yourself

Question 1.
An element has a face centered cubic unit cell with a length of 352.4 pm along an edge. The density of the element is 8.9 gcm^-3. How many atoms are present in loo g of an element?
Answer:
a = 352.4 pm 352. 4 × 10^-12 m
= 352. 4 × 10^-12 × 10² cm
= 352.4 × 10^-10 cm
= 3.524 × 10^-8cm
p = 8.9 gcm^-3; NA 6.023 × 10²³
Forfccn=4w= 100g ; M=?

Molar mass M = 58.65 g mol^-1
Number of moles
\(\mathrm{n}=\frac{\mathrm{w}}{\mathrm{m}}=\frac{100}{58.65}\)
= 1.705 moles
No of atoms present in n moles n. NA
No. of atoms present in 1.705 moles
= 1.705 × 6.023 × 10²³
= 10.269 × 10²⁴ number of atoms

Question 2.
Determine the density of CsCl which crystallizes in a bcc type structure with an edge length 412.1 pm.
Answer:
Molar mass of cscl = 168.5 g /mol
Number atoms present in per unit cell for bcc (cscl)
n = 1
Edge length (a) = 412.1 pm
Density (ρ) = ?
ρ = \(\frac { nM }{ { a }^{ 3 }{ N }_{ A } }\)

Question 3.
A face centered cubic solid of an element (atomic mass 60) has a cube edge of 4 Å. Calculate its density.
Answer:
For FCC unit cell n = 4
Edge length (a) = 4Å = 4 × 10^-8cm
Mass (M) = 60 g mol^-1
Density (p) = ?

12th Chemistry Guide Solid State Additional Questions and Answers

Part – II – Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
In a crystalline solid the arrangement of its constituents is such that the potential energy of the system is
a) maximum
b) minimum
c) Zero
d) infinity
Answer:
b) minimum

Question 2.
The property of having identical values of physical properties in all directions is called as
a) isotropy
b) anisotropy
c) allotropy
d) isomerism
Answer:
a) isotropy

Question 3.
The property of having different values of physical properties along different directions is called as
a) isotropy
b) anisotropy
c) allotropy
d) isomerism
Answer:
b) anisotropy

Question 4.
The radius of Na+ ion is 95pm and Cl” ion 181
pm. The co-ordination of Na+is f3Z9E3
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 3
Answer:
b) 6

Question 5.
Amorphous solids show
a) isotropy
b) anisotropy
c) isomerism
d) tautomerism
Answer:
a) isotropy

Question 6.
Amorphous solids are
a) anisotropic
b) true solids
c) pseudo solids
d) orderly arranged
Answer:
c) pseudo solids

Question 7.
Crystalline solids are
a) isotropic
b) true solids
c) pseudo solids
d) super cooled liquids
Answer:
b) true solids

Question 8.
In ionic solids, cations and anions are held together by
a) weak vander waals force
b) strong electrostatic force
c) hydrogen bond
d) covalent bond
Answer:
b) strong electrostatic force

Question 9.
Ionic solids conduct electricity in
a) crystalline state
b) solid state
c) amorphous state
d) molten state
Answer:
d) molten state

Question 10.
In covalent solids, the constituents are
a) ions
b) atoms
c) molecules
d) metals
Answer:
b) atoms

Question 11.
Which among the following is a covalent solid?
a) Naphthalene
b) Urea
c) Diamond
d) Glucose
Answer:
c) Diamond

Question 12.
The crystal with a metal deficiency defect is
a) NaCl
b) KCl
c) ZnO
d) FeO
Answer:
d) FeO

Question 13.
In molecular solids the constituents are held together by
a) weak vander waals force
b) strong electrostatic force
c) hydrogen bond
d) covalent bond
Answer:
a) weak vander waals force

Question 14.
In non polar molecular solids the constituents are held together by
a) strong electrostatic force
b) Polar covalent bonds
c) London forces
d) hydrogen bonds
Answer:
c) London forces

Question 15.
In polar molecular solids the constituents are held together by
a) strong electrostatic force
b) Polar covalent bonds
c) London forces
d) hydrogen bonds
Answer:
b) Polar covalent bonds

Question 16.
Solid CO₂ is a
a) Non polar molecular solid
b) Polar molecular solid
c) Hydrogen bonded molecular solid
d) Metallic solid
Answer:
b) Polar molecular solid

Question 17.
Naphthalene is a
a) Non polar molecular solid
b) Polar molecular solid
c) Hydrogen bonded molecular solid
d) Metallic solid
Answer:
a) Non polar molecular solid

Question 18.
The number of close packed spheres is ‘n’. The number of tetrahedral voids generated is equal to ………
a) n
b) 2n
c) 2n2
d) 3n
Answer:
b) 2n

Question 19.
In metallic solids, the lattice points are occupied by
a) anions
b) protons
c) atoms
d) metal ions
Answer:
d) metal ioris

Question 20.
The melting point of metallic solids is
a) low
b)high
c) zero
d) negative
Answer:
b) high

Question 21.
For a rhombohedral crystal which of the following is correct?
a) α = β = γ = 90°
b) α = β = γ ≠ 90°
c) α = β = 90°; γ = 12090°
d) α = γ = 90°; β ≠ 90°
Answer:
b) α = β = γ ≠ 90°

Question 22.
Each atom in the corner of a cubic unit cell is shared by …………….. neighbouring unit cells
a) 6
b) 8
c) 4
d) 2
Answer:
b) 8

Question 23.
The body centred atom in a bcc unit cell is shared by …………….. unit cells
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8
Answer:
a) 1

Question 24.
The face centred atom in a fee unit cell is shared by ………….. unit cells
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8
Answer:
b) 2

Question 25.
In FCC unit cell of the edge length is 8√2 pm. The radius of the metal atom is.
a) 0.04
b) 0.02
c) 8 × 10^-2
d) 8/√2
Answer:
a) 0.04

Question 26.
In fee, the face centre has a share of…….. of an atom

Answer:
1/2

Question 27.
Total number of atoms present in a simple cubic unit cell is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
Answer:
a) 1

Question 28.
Total number of atoms present in a bcc unit cell is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
Answer:
b) 2

Question 29.
Total number of atoms present in a fee unit cell is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
Answer:
c) 4

Question 30.
of all the metals in the periodic table only …………… crystallizes in simple cubic pattern.
a) Uranium
b) Polonium
c) Titanium
d) Radium
Answer:
b) Polonium

Question 31.
Which of the following is amorphous?
a) Poly Styrene
b) Table salt
c) Silica
d) Diamond
Answer:
a) Poly Styrene

Question 32.
The arrangement of crystallographic axes and angles respectively in hexagonal crystal system is
a) a ≠ b ≠ c α = β = γ = 90°
b) a = b ≠  c α = β = γ = 90°
c) a = b ≠  c α = β = 90°; γ = 120°
d) a = b = c α ≠ β ≠ γ = 90°;
Answer:
c) a = b ≠  c α = β = 90°; γ = 120°

Question 33.
For tetrahedral coordination number, the radius ratio  is
a) 0.732 -1.000
b) 0.414 – 0.732
c) 0.225 – 0.414
d) 0.155 – 0.225
Answer:
c) 0.225 – 0.414

Question 34.
If ‘a’ stands for the edge length of the cubic systems, SC, bcc, fee then the ratio of radii of the spheres in these systems will be respectively

Answer:
c

Question 35.
The arrangement ABC ABC ABC ……….. is referred as
a) Tetergonal close packing
b) hexagonal close packing
c) Octahderal close packing
d) Cubic close packing
Answer:
d) Cubic close packing

Question 36.
Hexagonal close packed arrangement of ions is described as
a) ABC ABA
b) ABC ABC….
c) AB AB
d) ABB ABB ….
Answer:
c) AB AB

Question 37.
An ionic compound has a unit cell consisting of A ions at the corners of a cube and B ions on the centres of the faces of the cube. The empirical formula of this compound would be
a) AB
b) A₂B
c) AB₃
d) A₃B
Answer:
c) AB₃

Corner atom A \(8 \times \frac{1}{8}=1\)
Face centre atoms B \(6 \times \frac{1}{2}\) = 3
∴ Formula is A₁B₃

Question 38.
In a fee lattice A type atoms are present at the corners while B type atoms are at face centres. If in each unit cell, one of the A type atom is missing from the corner what is the simplest formula of the compound
a) AB₃
b) A₃B
c) A₇B₂₄
d) A₂₄B₇
Ans:
c) A₇B₂₄
Corner atom A (one missing) = 7 x 1/8 = 7/8
Face centre atom B = 6 x 1/2 = 3
∴ Formula is A_7/8 , B₃ (or) A₇ B₂₄

Question 39.
In a face centred cubic lattice, atoms A occupies the corner and B occupies the face centre. If one atom of B is missing from one of the face centred position, What is the formula of the compound?
a) A₂B
b) AB₂
c) A₂B₃
d) A₂B₅
Answer:
d) A₂B₅
Corner atom A 8 × 1/8 = 1
Face centre atom B (one missing) 5 × 1/2 = 5/2
∴ Formulais A₁B_5/2 g, (or)A₂B₅

Question 40.
In Bragg’s equation, n represents
a) number of moles
b) Principal quantum number
c) Avogadro’s number
d) Order of reflection
Answer:
d) Order of reflection

II. Match the following

Question 1.

Answer:
i. Graphite
ii. Dry ice
iii. NaCl
iv. Copper

Question 2.

Answer:
i. One
ii. Two
iii. Four

Question 3.

Answer:
i. 52.31%
ii. 68%
iii. 74%

Question 4.

Answer:
1. NaCl
2. AgBr
3. NaCl in sodium vapour AgBr
4. FeO

III. Tick the odd man out

1. a) Plastics
b) Rubber
c) NaCl
d) Glass
Answer:
c) NaCl
Reason : NaCl is a crystalline solids while others are amorphous solids.

2. a) Naphthalene
b) Silicon carbide
c) Solid CO₂
d) Urea
Answer:
b) Silicon carbide
Reason : Silicon carbide is a covalent solid while others are molecular solids.

3. a) NaCl
b) AgBr
c) FeO
d) VO
Answer:
c) FeO
Reason : FeO is a crystal with non stoichiometric defect while others are crystals with stoichiometric defect.

IV. Pick out the correct statements.

Question 1.
i) In covalent solids atoms are bound together by covalent bonds.
ii) Covalent solids are hard.
iii) Covalent solids have low melting point
iv) Covalent solids are good thermal and electrical conductors.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Correct statement:
Answer:
a) (i) & (ii)
iii) Covalent solids have high melting point.
iv) Covalent solids are poor thermal and electrical conductors.

Question 2.
i) A unit cell that contains only one lattice point is called a primitive unit cell.
ii) There are seven primitive crystal systems.
iii) Based on the seven primitive unit cell, Bravais defined 41 possible crystal systems.
iv) For cubic and rhombohedral crystal systems a b c.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Correct statement:
Answer:
a) (i) & (ii)
iii) Based on the seven primitive unit cell, Bravais defined 14 possible crystal systems
iv) For cubic and rhombohedral crystal systems a = b = c.

Question 3.
i) In bcc unit cell the coordination number of each atom is 6.
ii) Density of a unit cell = \(\frac{\mathrm{a}^{3} \mathrm{~N}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{nM}}\)
iii) Packing fraction =
\(\frac{\text { Total volume occupied by atoms } / \text { spheres }}{\text { Volume of the unit cell }} \times 100\)
iv) Stoichiometric defect in ionic solid is also
called as intrinsic or thermodynamic defect,
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Correct statement:
Answer:
c) (iii) & (iv)
i) In bcc unit cell the coordination number of each atom is 8.
ii) Density of a unit cell = \(\frac{\mathrm{nM}}{\mathrm{a}^{3} \mathrm{~N}_{\mathrm{A}}}\)

Question 4.
i) According to the law of nature, crystals must be perfect.
ii) Imperfection in solids affect the physical and chemical properties of the solid.
iii) Doping with impurity leads to a crystal imperfection.
iv) Imperfection decreases the electrical conductivity of a semi conductor
a) (i) & (ii) b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv) d) (i) & (iv)
Correct statement:
Answer:
b) (ii) & (iii)
i) According to the law of nature crystals need not be perfect.
iv) Imperfection increases the electrical conductivity of a semi conductor

V. Pick out the incorrect statement.

Question 1.
i) Solids have definite volume and shape.
ii) Solids are rigid and compressible
iii) Solids have weak cohesive forces.
iv) Solids have short inter atomic distances,
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Correct statement:
Answer:
b) (ii) & (iii)
ii) Solids are rigid and incompressible.
iii) Solids have strong cohesive forces.

Question 2.
i) In molecular solids the constituents are neutral molecules.
ii) In molecular solids the constituents are held together by strong electrostatic force.
iii) Molecular solids are hard.
Molecular solids do not conduct electricity,
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (i),(ii) & (iii)
c) (ii) & (iv)
d) (ii) only
Correct statement:
Answer:
d) (ii) only
(ii) In molecular solids the constituents are held together by weak Vanderwaals force.

Question 3.
i) Crystalline solids have short range, random
arrangement of constituents.
ii) Amorphous solids are isotropic.
iii) Crystalline solids are considered as pseudo solids.
iv) Heat of fusion of amorphous solids is not definite.
a) (i)&(ii)
b) (i) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Correct statement:
Answer:
b) (i) & (iii)
i) Crystalline solids have long range orderly arrangement of constituents,
iii) Crystalline solids are considered as true solids.

Question 4.
i) The inter planar distance between two successive planes of atoms can be calculated using Bragg’s equation.
ii) Bragg’s equation is 2d sinθ = nλ.
iii) The coordination number of the sphere in simple cubic arrangement is 8.
iv) If the number of close packed spheres be ‘n’ then the number of octahedral voids is equal to ‘2n’.
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (i) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
Correct statement:
Answer:
c) (iii) & (iv)
(iii) The coordination number of the sphere in simple cubic arrangement is 6.
(iv) If the number of close packed spheres be ‘n’ then the number of octahedral voids is equal to’n’.

VI. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion A : Ionic solids do not conduct electricity in solid state.
Reason : Ionic solids have high melting points.
i) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
ii) A is correct but R is wrong. iii) A is wrong but R is correct,
iv) Both A and R are correct and R does not explain A.
Answer:
iv) Both A and R are correct and R does not explain A. Correct Reason: In ionic solids ions are fixed in the Lattice positions.

Question 2.
Assertion A : Graphite is a component of many lubricants.
Reason R : Graphite is slippery.
i) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
ii) A is correct but R is wrong. iii) A is wrong but R is correct,
iv) Both A and R are correct and R does not explain A.
Answer:
i) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 3.
Assertion A : Metal deficiency defect arises due to the presence of less number of anions than the cations.
Reason R : This defect is observed in a crystal in which, the cations have variable oxidation states.
i) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
ii) A is correct but R is wrong. iii) A is wrong but R is correct,
iv) Both A and R are correct and R does not explain A.
Answer:
iii) A is wrong but R is corrrect
Correct Assertion(A): Metal deficiency defect arises due to the presence of less number of cations than the anions.

Question 4.
Assertion A : In polar molecular solids, the constituents are molecules formed by polar covalent bonds.
Reason R : They are held together by relatively weak dipole – dipole interactions.
i) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
ii) A is correct but R is wrong.
iii) A is wrong but R is correct.
iv) Both A and R are correct and R does not explain A.
Answer:
ii) A is correct but R is wrong.
Correct Reason R : They are hold together by relatively strong dipole – dipole interactions.

VII. Two Mark Questions.

Question 1.
What is a crystalline solid?
Answer:
A crystalline solid is one in which its constituents (atoms,ions or molecules) have an orderly arrangement over a long range.

Question 2.
What is an amorphous solid?
Answer:
An amorphous solid is one in which its constituents (atoms, ions or molecules) have random arrangement over a short range.

Question 3.
Define isotropy.
Answer:

• Isotropy means uniformity in all directions.
• Isotropy means having identical values of physical properties in all directions. (ex): Amorphous solids show isotropy.

Question 4.
What is meant by anisotropy?
Answer:

• Anisotropy means non uniformity in all directions.
• Anisotropy means having different values of physical properties in different directions.
  (ex): Crystalline solids show anisotropy.

Question 5.
What are molecular solids?
Answer:

• Solids in which the structural units are neutral molecules are known as molecular solids.
• The neutral molecules are held together by weak VanderWaals force.
• They are generally soft.
• They do not conduct electricity.

Question 6.
What are non – polar molecular solids?
Answer:

• Molecular solids in which neutral molecules are held together by weak dispersion forces or London forces are known as non – polar molecular solids.
• They have low melting point.
• They are usually liquids or gases at room temperature.
• (ex): naphthalene, anthracene.

Question 7.
What are polar molecular solids?
Answer:

• Solids in which the constituents are molecules formed by polar covalent bonds are called polar molecular solids.
• The molecules are held together by relatively strong dipole – dipole interactions.
• They have higher melting point than non
  polar molecular solids, (ex): Solid CO₂, Solid NH₃.

Question 8.
Outline the classification of the point defects.
Answer:

• To maximize the attractive force, cations are surrounded by as many anions as possible and vice versa.
• They posses definite crystal structure.
• Many ionic solids are cubic close packed, (ex): NaCl crystal.

Question 4.
What are covalent solids?
Answer:

• Solids in which the structural units are atoms are known as covalent solids.
• The atoms are bound together by covalent bonds in a three dimensional network.
• They are very hard.
• They have high melting point.
• They are usually poor thermal and electrical conductors, (ex): Diamond, Silicon Carbide.

Question 5.
Write about simple cubic unit cell.
Answer:

• In the simple cubic unit cell each corner is occupied by identical atoms, ions or molecules.
• They touch along the edges of the cube.
• They do not touch diagonally.
• The coordination number is 6.
• Each atom in the corner is shared by 8 neighbouring unit cells.
• Number of atoms in a SC unit cell

Question 6.
Write about body centred cubic (bcc) unit cell.
Answer:

• In bcc unit cell each corner is occupied by identical atoms, ions or molecules.
• In addition one atom occupies the body centre.
• The atoms in the corners do not touch each other.
• However they all touch the atom present in the body centre.
• Each atom is surrounded by eight nearest neighbours. and coordination number is 8.
• The atom at the body centre belongs to only one unit cell =

Question 7.
Sketch face centred cubic (fee) unit cell and calculate the number of atoms present in it.
Answer:

• In fcc unit cell each corner is occupied by identical atoms, ions or molecules.
• In addition one atom occupies the centre of eachface.
• The atoms in the corners do not touch each other.
• However they all touch the atoms present at the centre of the faces.
• The coordination number is 12.
• Number of atoms in a fee unit cell =

Question 8.
What is radius ratio in ionic solid? Tabulate the relation between radius ratio and structural arrangement in ionic solids.
Answer:
The ratio of radius of cation and anion plays an important role in determining the structure.
Radius ratio = \(\frac{r_{C}+}{r_{A-}}\)

IX. Additional Questions – 5 Mark

Question 1.
What is Bragg’s equation. Using Bragg’s equation how can you calculate the edge of the unit cell.
Answer:
X – ray diffraction analysis is the most powerful tool for the determination of crystal structure.
The interplanar distance (d) between two successive planes of atoms can be calculated using the following Bragg’s equation from ray diffraction data.
2d sinθ = nλ
λ = wave length of x – ray used for diffraction
θ = angle of di fTraction
n = order of reflection (diffraction)
d = interplanar distance
By knowing the values of θ, λ and n we can calculate the value of d.
\(\mathrm{d}=\frac{\mathrm{n} \lambda}{2 \sin \theta}\)
Using those values the edge of the unit cell can be calculated.

Question 2.
How can you calculate the density of the unit cell of a crystal?
Answer:
Using the edge length of a unit cell we can calculate the density of the crystal by considering a cubic unit cell as follows.
Density of unit cell p = \(\frac{\text { mass of the unit cell }}{\text { Volume of the unit cell }}\) ……………1
Mass of the unit cell = Total number of atoms present in the unit cell × Mass of one atom ………….2
Mass of an atom=

For a cubic unit cell all the edge lengths are equal ie ; a = b = c
Volume of the unit cell = a × a × a = a³. …..5
Substituting 4 and 5 in 1
Density of the unit cell p = \(\frac{\mathrm{nM}}{\mathrm{a}^{3} \mathrm{~N}_{\mathrm{A}}}\) …..6
From the values of n, M, a and NA, the density of the unit cell of the crystal can be calculated.

Question 3.
Calculate the percentage efficiency of packing in case of a simple cubic crystal.
Answer:
Let us consider a cube with an edge length ‘a’.
Volume of the cube = a × a × a = a³.
Let ‘r’ is the radius of the sphere.
From the figure a = 2r; r = a/2
Volume the sphere (atom)

ie ; only 52.31% of the available volume is occupied by atoms (spheres) in SC crystal.

Question 4.
Calculate the percentage efficiency of packing in case of face centred cubic crystal.
Answer:
Let us consider a fee crystal.
In ∆ABC AC² = AB² + BC²


ie; only 74% of the available volume is occupied by atoms (spheres) in fee crystal.

X. Additional problems

Question 1.
X – ray diffraction studies show that an element crystallises in an fee unit cell with edge length 360.8pm. If density of the element is 8.92gcm^-3 , calculate its atomic mass.
a 360.8pm = 360.8 × 10^-12 m
= 360.8 × 10^-10cm =3.608 × 10^-8Cm
p = 8.92 g cm^-3 fee unit cell n = 4
NA = 6.023 × 10²³ M=?

Question 2.
Silver forms ccp lattice and x – ray studies of its crystals show that edge length of its unit cell is 408.6 pm. If the atomic mass of silver is 107.9 u calculate its density.
Solution:
Cubic close packing is based on face centred cubic unit cell n = 4
a = 408.6pm = 408.6 × 10^-12
m = 408.6 × 10^-10 cm
= 4.086 × 10^-8 cm
M = 107.9u = 107.9 gmol^-1 N_A=6.023 × 10²³
p = ?

p = 10.50 g cm^-3

Question 3.
An element with molar mass 27 g mol^-1 forms a cubic unit cell with edge length 405pm. If its density is 2.7 g cm^-3, what is the nature of the cubic unit cell?
Answer:
M = 27 g mol^-1
a = 405pm = 405 × 10^-12 m = 405 × 10^-10cm
= 4.05 × 10^-8cm
p = 2.7 gem^-3N_A = 6.023 × 10²³ n =?

Since one unit cell contains 4 atoms it is face centred cubic unit cell.

Question 4.
Niobium crystallises in body centred cubic structure, if its density is 8.55g cm’3 and atomic mass is 93 u calculate its atomic radius,
Answer:
For bcc n = 2 p = 8.55 g cm^-3
M = 93 gmol^-1 N_A = 6.023 × 10²³

Question 5.
Gold with atomic radius 0.144 nm crystallises in face centred cubic unit cell. What is the length of a side of the cell?
Answer:
r = 0.144 a = ?

Edge length a = 407 pm.

Question 6.
Aluminium crystallises in cubic close packed structure. Its metallic radius is 125pm. (i) Calculate the edge length of the unit cell, ii) How many unit cells are there in 1cm3 of aluminium?
Answer:
r = 125pm a = ?
Cubic dose packed structure is based on face centred cubic unit cell.
For fee n =4

Edge length a = 353.61pm

ii) 22400cm³ contain 6.023 × 10²³ number of atoms
1 cm³ contains = \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{22400} \times 1\)
= 2.689 × 10¹⁹ number of atoms,
In fcc
4 atoms occupy 1 unit cell
2.689 × 10¹⁹ atoms occupy 1/4 × 2.689 × 10¹⁹ unit cells
=6.723 × 10¹⁸ unit cells
1 cm³ of aluminium contains 6.723 × 10¹⁸ unit cells

Question 7.
The diffraction of crystal of Barium with x – ray of wave length 2.29Å gives a first order reflection at 27°8¹ . What is the distance between the diffracted planes?
n = 1 λ= 2.29Å
θ = 27°8¹
d = ?

Question 8.
A certain solid crystallises in SC lattices first order x – ray ( λ = 0.154nm) reflection maximum from a set of (200) planes was observed at 16°6¹. Calculate the edge of the unit cell.
Answer:
n = 1 = 0.154 = 16°6¹, d = ?

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 6 Money Market Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 6 Money Market

12th Commerce Guide Money Market Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. choose The Correct Answer.

Question 1.
The money invested in the call money market provides high liquidity with ………………
a) Low Profitability
b) High Profitability
c) Limited Profitability
d) Medium Profitability
Answer :
a) Low Profitability

Question 2.
A major player in the money market is the ……………..
a) Commercial Bank
b) Reserve Bank of India
c) State Bank of India
d) Central Bank
Answer :
a) Commercial Bank

Question 3.
Money Market provides………………
a) Medium – term Funds
b) Short – term Funds
c) Long – term Funds
d) Shares
Answer :
b) Short – term Funds

Question 4.
Money Market Institutions are …………………..
a) Investment Houses
b) Mortgage Banks
c) Reserve Bank of India
d) Commercial Banks and Discount Houses
Answer :
d) Commercial Banks and Discount Houses

Question 5.
Risk in the Money Market is ……………….
a) High
b) Market Risk
c) Low Credit and Market Risk
d) Medium Risk
Answer :
c) Low Credit and Market Risk

Question 6.
Debt Instruments are issued by Corporate Houses are raising short-term financial resources from the money market are called …………………..
a) Treasury Bills
b) Commercial Paper
c) Certificate of Deposit
d) Government Securities
Answer :
b) Commercial Paper

Question 7.
The market for buying and selling of Commercial Bills of Exchange is known as a …………………. .
a) Commercial Paper Market
b) Treasury Bill Market
c) Commercial Bill Market
d) Capital Market
Answer :
c) Commercial Bill Market

Question 8.
A marketable document of title to a time deposit for a specified period may be referred to as a …………………
a) Treasury Bill
b) Certificate of Deposit
c) Commercial Bill
d) Government Securities
Answer :
b) Certificate of Deposit

Question 9.
Treasury Bill commands ……………
a) High Liquidity
b) Low Liquidity
c) Medium Liquidity
d) Limited Liquidity
Answer :
a) High Liquidity

Question 10.
Government Securities are issued by agencies such as ……………..
a) Central Government
b) State Governments
c) Semi-government Authorities
d) All of the above
Answer:
d) All of the above

II. Very Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Define the term “Money Market”.
Answer:
According to Crowther, ’’the money market is the collective name given to the various firms and institutions that deal in the various grades of near money”.

Question 2.
What is a CD market?
Answer:
The Certificate Deposit market is a market where buying and selling of certificate deposits is known as “CD market”.

Question 3.
What is Government Securities Market?
Answer:
Certificate of Deposits is a short-term deposit instrument issued by banks and financial institutions to raise large sums of money. The Certificate of Deposit is transferable from one party to another. Due to their negotiable feature, they are also known as negotiable certificates of deposit.

Question 4.
“What do you mean by Auctioning?
Answer :

• “Auctioning” is a method of trading by merchants.
• Whereby merchants bid against one another.
• The securities are sold to the highest bidder.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Switching?
Answer:

1. Treasury Bills in the Treasury Market
2. Money at Call and Short Notice in the Call Loan Market
3. Commercial Bills and Promissory Notes in the Bill Market

Now in addition to the above, the following new instruments come into existence:

1. Commercial Papers
2. Certificate of Deposits
3. Inter-Bank Participation Certificates
4. Repo Instruments

III. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What are the features of Treasury Bills? (FILM V)
Answer:
Features:

1. Issuer
2. Finance Bills
3. Liquidity
4. Vital Source
5. Monetary Management

Question 2.
Who are the participants of the Money Market?
Answer:

• Central Banks of different countries.
• Government of different countries.
• Private and Public Banks.
• Mutual Funds Institutions.
• Public.
• RBI and SBI.
• Insurance Companies.
• Non-Banking Financial Institutions.
• Commercial Banks.
• State Governments.

Question 3.
Explain the types of Treasury Bills.
Answer:
Treasury Bills are issued to the public and other financial institutions for meeting the short term financial requirements of the Central Government.
Treasury Bills may be classified into three. They are:

1. 91 days Treasury Bills
2. 182 days Treasury Bills
3. 364 days Treasury Bills

Question 4.
What are the features of a Certificate of Deposit? (TINDU)
Answer:

•  Transfer freely by endorsement and delivery.
•  Issued at discount to face value.
•  No grace days. Repayable on a fixed date.
•  Document of title to Time Deposit.
•  Unsecured negotiable instruments.

Question 5.
What are the types of Commercial Bill?
Answer:

1. Demand and Usance Bills
2. Clean bills and documentary Bills
3. Inland bills and Foreign Bills
4. Indigenous Bills
5. Accommodation and supply Bills

IV. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Differentiate between the Money Market and Capital Market.
Answer :
Money Market – Definition :
“The Money Market is the collective name given to the various firms and institutions that deal in the various grades of near money”. – CROWTHER

Capital Market – Definition :
“A complex of institutions investments and practices with established links between the demand for and supply of different types of capital gains”. – ARUN K. DATTA RURALD

Question 2.
Explain the characteristics of the Money Market? (SMS WED)
Answer:

1. Short-term Funds: It is a market purely for short-term funds or financial assets called near money.
2. Maturity Period: It deals with financial assets having a maturity period upto one year only.
3. Conversion of Cash: It deals with only those assets which can be converted into cash readily without loss and with minimum transaction cost.
4. No Formal Place: Generally, transactions take place through phone, i.e., oral communication. Relevant documents and written communications can be exchanged subsequently.
5. Sub-markets: It is not a single homogeneous market. It comprises several sub-markets each specialising in a particular type of financing.
6. Role of Market: The components of a money market are the Central Bank, Commercial Banks. Commercial banks generally play a dominant role in this market.
7. Highly Organized Banking System: The Commercial Banks are the nerve centre of the whole money market. They are the principal suppliers of short-term funds.
8. Existence of Secondary Market: There should be an active secondary market for these instruments.
9. Demand and Supply of Funds: There should be a large demand and supply of short-term funds.
10. Wholesale Market: It is a wholesale market and the volume of funds or financial assets traded in the market is very large.
11. Flexibility: Due to greater flexibility in the regulatory framework, there are constant endeavors for introducing new instruments.
12. Presence of a Central Bank: The central bank keeps their cash reserves and provides them financial accommodation in difficulties by discounting their eligible securities.

Question 3.
Explain the Instruments of the Money Market.
Answer :
Instruments of Money Market:

• Treasury Bills.
• Money at call and short notice.
• Commercial Bills and Promissory Notes.
• Inter-Bank participation certificate.
• Commercial papers.
• Certificate of Deposit.
• Repo instruments.

Treasury Bills:

• Treasury Bills are very popular and enjoy a higher degree of liquidity since they are issued by the Government.
• It is nothing but a promissory note issued for a specific period stated therein.
• The Government promises to pay the specified amount mentioned there to the bearer of the instrument on the due date.
• The period does not exceed a period of one year.

Commercial Bill:

•  A Bill of Exchange issued by a commercial organization to raise money for short-term needs.
•  These bills are of 30 days, 60 days, and 90 days maturity.
•  It is drawn by a seller of goods on a buyer of goods.

Certificate of Deposits[CD]:

• Certificate of Deposits is short-term deposit instruments issued by Banks and financial institutions to raise large sums of money.
• These are issued in the form of usance promissory notes.
• They are easily convertible having face value and maturity.
• They are also known as Negotiable Certificate of Deposits.

Question 4.
Explain the features and types of Commercial Bills.
Answer:
The features of the Commercial Bills are as follows:

1. Drawer
2. Acceptor
3. Payee
4. Discounter
5. Endorser
6. Assessment
7. Maturity
8. Credit Rating

Types:

1. Demand and Usance Bills: A demand bill is one wherein no specific time of payment is mentioned. So, demand bills are payable immediately when they are presented to the drawee.
2. Clean Bills and Documentary Bills: Bills that are accompanied by documents of title to goods are called documentary bills. Clean bills are drawn without accompanying any document.
3. Inland Bills and Foreign Bills: Bills that are drawn and payable in India on a person who is resident in India are called inland bills.
4. Indigenous Bills: The drawing and acceptance of indigenous bills are governed by native custom or usage of trade.
5. Accommodation and Supply Bills: Accommodation bills are those which do not arise out of genuine trade of transactions.

Question 5.
What are the characteristics of Government Securities? (SMART IG)
Answer:

1. Agencies: Government securities are issued by agencies such as Central Government State Governments, semi-government authorities like local Government authorities.
2. RBI Special Role: RBI takes a special and active role in the purchase and sale of these securities as part of its monetary management exercise.
3. Nature of Securities: Securities offer a safe avenue of investment through guaranteed payment of interest and repayment of principal by the Government.
4. Liquidity Profile: The liquidity profile of gilt-edged securities varies. Accordingly, the liquidity profile of securities issued by the Central Government is high.
5. Tax Rebate: A striking feature of these securities is that they offer a wide range of tax incentives to investors.
6. Market: As each sale and purchase has to be negotiated separately, the Gilt-Edged Market is an Over-The-Counter Market.
7. Forms: The securities of Central and State Government take such forms as inscribed stock or stock certificate, promissory note, and bearer bond.
8. Participants: The participants in the Government securities market include the Government sector comprising Central and State Governments
9. Trading: Small and less active, banks and corporate holders who purchase and sell Government securities on the stock exchanges participate in trading.
10. Issue Mechanism: The Public Debt Office (PDO) of the RBI undertakes to issue government securities.
11. Issue opening: A notification for the issue of the securities is made a few days before the public subscription is open.
12. Grooming Gradual: It is the acquisition of securities nearing maturity through the stock exchanges by the RBI.
13. Switching: It is the purchase of one security against the sale of another security carried out by the RBI in the secondary market as part of its open market operations.
14. Auctioning: A method of trading whereby merchants bid against one another and where the securities are sold to the highest bidder.

12th Commerce Guide Money Market Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer.

Question 1.
The money market is a market for purely ______
(a) Short-term funds
(b) Long-term funds
(c) Medium-term funds
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Short-term funds

Question 2.
Government of different countries is the participants of ……………..
a) Capital Market
b) Money Market
c) Securities Market
d) All of these
Answer :
b) Money Market.

Question 3.
Which is dealt with only those assets which can be converted into cash readily?
(a) Capital market
(b) Money market
(c) Stock exchange
(d) Bank
Answer:
(b) Money market

Question 4.
………………..Bills are governed by native custom or usage of Trade.
a) Accommodation
b) Inland
c) Supply
d) Indigenous
Answer :
d) Indigenous.

Question 6.
Pick the odd one out:
a) Endorser
b) Endorsee
c) Grace days
d) Creditor
Answer :
d) Creditor

Question 6.
The issuers of the certificate of deposits are ______
(i) commercial banks
(ii) cooperative banks
(iii) private company
(iv) financial institutions
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iv)

II. Match The Following.

Question 1.
Match List I with List II

Answer:
a) (i) 4, (ii) 3, (iii) 1, (iv) 2

Question 2.

Answer:
a) (i) 3, (ii) 1, (iii) 2,(iv) 4.

III. Assertion and Reason.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Treasury Bills enjoy a higher degree of liquidity since they are issued by Government.
Reason (R): The Government promises to pay the specific amount on the due date
a) (A) is true (R) is False
b) (A) is False (R) is True
c) Both (A) and (R) are False
d) Both (A) and (R) are True
Answer :
d) Both (A) and (R) True

Question 2.
Assertion (A): A demand bill is one wherein no specific time of payment is mentioned.
Reason (R): So, it has to be payable immediately on demand.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
b) Both (A) are (R) are incorrect
c) A is correct
d) R is incorrect
Answer :
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

IV. Very Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is Grooming Gradual?
Answer:
Acquisition of securities nearing maturity through the stock exchanges by the RBI in order to facilitate redemption is described as ‘grooming’.

Question 2.
What is the commercial bill market?
Answer:
It is a market for buying and selling of Commercial Bills (of exchange) is known as “Commercial Bill Market”.

Question 3.
What is Liquidity Profile?
Answer:
The liquidity profile of gilt-edged securities varies. Accordingly, the liquidity profile of securities issued by the Central Government is high.

Question 4.
Explain the two oldest money markets.
Answer:

•  The oldest, most developed, and leading Money Market in the world is the “London Money Market”.
•  The second well-developed and ranked Money Market in the world is the “New York Money Market”.

V. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What are sub-markets?
Answer:
It is not a single homogeneous market. It comprises several sub-markets each specializing in a particular type of financing. E.g, Call Money Market, Acceptance Market, Bill Market.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 10 Ordinary Differential Equations Ex 10.6 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 10 Ordinary Differential Equations Ex 10.6

Question 1.
Solve the following differential equations.
[x + y cos(\(\frac { y }{ x }\))] dx = x cos (\(\frac { y }{ x }\)) dy
Solution:
The given equation can be written as

On integration we obtain

which gives the required solution.

Question 2.
Solve (x³ + y³)dy – x² ydx = 0
Solution:
The given equation can be written as

Question 3.
Solve ye^{\(\frac { x }{ y }\)} dx = (x^{\(\frac { x }{ y }\)} + y)dy
Solution:
The given equation can be written as

Question 4.
Solve 2xy dx + (x² + 2y²)dy = 0
Solve ye^{\(\frac { x }{ y }\)} dx = (x^{\(\frac { x }{ y }\)} + y)dy
Solution:
The given differential equation can be written as


\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) log (3v + 2v³) + log x = log |C₁|
log (3v + 2v³) + 3log (x) = 3 log (C₁)
log (3v + 2v³) + log (x)³ = log (C₁)³
log (3v + 2v³)x³ = log C₁³
(3v + 2v³)x³ = C₁³

3x²y + 2y³ = C₁³
3x²y + 2y³ = C is a required solution.

Question 5.
(y² – 2xy) dx = (x² – 2xy) dy
Solution:
Given equation is (y² – 2xy) dx = (x² – 2xy) dy
y² – 2xy = (x² – 2xy) \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\)
∴ The equation can written as


log (3v² – 3v) = – 3 log x + log C
log (3v² – 3v) = – log x³ + log C
= log c – log x³

Question 6.
x \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = y – x cos²(\(\frac { y }{ x }\))
Solution:
Given x \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = y – x cos² \(\frac { y }{ x }\)
The equation can be written as
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = \(\frac { y-cos^2 \frac { y }{ x } }{ x }\) …….. (1)
This is a homogeneous differential equation.
y = vx
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = v (1) + x \(\frac { dv }{ dx }\)
Substituting \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) value in equation (1), we get

Integrating on both sides, we get
∫ sec² v dx = -∫ \(\frac { dx }{ x }\)
tan v = – log x + log C
tan v = log C – log x
tan v = log(\(\frac { C }{ x }\))
e^{tan v} = \(\frac { C }{ x }\)
C = x e^{tan v}
C = x e^{tan \(\frac { y }{ x }\)}
Is a required equation.

Question 7.
Solve (1 + 3e^{\(\frac { y }{ x }\)}) dy + 3e^{tan \(\frac { y }{ x }\)} (1 – \(\frac { y }{ x }\)) dx = 0, given that y = 0 when x = 1.
Solution:
The given differential equation may be


Given that y = 0 when x = 1
0 + 3(1) e° = c
3 = c
∴ y + 3xe^y/x = 3 is a required solution.

Question 8.
(x² + y²) dy = xy dx. It is given that y (1) = y(x₀) = e. Find the value of x₀.
Solution:
The given differential equation is of the form

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 10 Ordinary Differential Equations Ex 10.5 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 10 Ordinary Differential Equations Ex 10.5

Question 1.
If F is the constant force generated by the motor of an automobile of mass M, its velocity V is given by M \(\frac { dV }{ dt }\) = F – kV, where k is a constant. Express V in terms of t given that V = 0 when t = 0.
Solution:
Given differential equation is M \(\frac { dV }{ dt }\) = F – kV
The given equation can be written as
\(\frac { dV }{ F-kV }\) = \(\frac { dt }{ M }\)
Now Integrating, we get

Initial condition:
Given V = 0 When t = 0
C = e^{\(\frac { k(0) }{ M }\)} [F – k (0)]
= e° [F – 0]
C = F
∴ (1) ⇒ F = (F – kV)e^{\(\frac { kt }{ M }\)}

Question 2.
The velocity v, of a parachute falling vertically satisfies the equation v\(\frac { dv }{ dx }\) = g(1 – \(\frac { v^2 }{ k^2 }\)) where g and k are constants. If v and are both initially zero, find v in terms of x.
Solution:

Initial condition:
Given V = 0 when x = 0, we get
k²(0)² = Ce^{\(\frac { -2g(0) }{ k^2 }\)}
k² = Ce°
k² = C
(1) ⇒ k² – v² = k² e^{\(\frac { -2gx }{ k^2 }\)}
k² – k² e^{\(\frac { -2gx }{ k^2 }\)} = v²
k² [1 – e^{\(\frac { -2gx }{ k^2 }\)}] = v²

Question 3.
Find the equation of the curve whose slope is \(\frac { y-1 }{ x^2+x }\) and which passes through the point (1, 0).
Solution:

1 = A(x + 1) + B(x)
Put x = -1; Put x = 0
1 = A (0) + B (-1) ; 1 = A(0 + 1) + B(0)
1 = -B; 1 = A
B = -1; A = 1
∴ \(\frac { 1 }{ x^2+x }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ x }\) + \(\frac { 1 }{ x+1 }\) ……. (2)
Substituting equation (2) in equation (1), we get
\(\frac { dy }{ y-1 }\) = \(\frac { dx}{ x }\) + \(\frac { dx }{ x+1 }\)
Taking integrating on both sides, we get
log (y – 1) = log x – log (x + 1) + log C
log (y – 1) = log C + log x – log (x + 1)
= log Cx – log (x + 1)

Question 4.
Solve the following differential equations:
(i) \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = \(\sqrt { 1-y^2 }{ 1-x^2 }\)
(ii) ydx + (1 + x²) tan^-1 x dy = 0
(iii) sin \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = a, y (0) = 1
(iv) \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\)e^x+y + x³, e^y
(v) (e^y + 1) cos x dx + e^y sin x dy = 0
(vi) (ydx – xdy) cot (\(\frac { x }{ y }\)) = ny² dx
(vii) \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) – x\(\sqrt { 25-x^2 }\) = 0
(viii) x cos y dy = e^x (x log x + 1) dx
(xi) tan y \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = cos (x + y) + cos (x – y)
(x) \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = tan² (x + y)
Solution:
(i) \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = \(\sqrt { 1-y^2 }{ 1-x^2 }\)
The equation can be written as
\(\frac { dy }{ \sqrt {1-y^2} }\) = \(\frac { dx }{ \sqrt {1-x^2} }\)
Taking Integration on both sides, we get
∫ \(\frac { dy }{ \sqrt {1-y^2} }\) = ∫ \(\frac { dx }{ \sqrt {1-x^2} }\)
sin^-1y = sin^-1 x + C

(ii) ydx + (1 + x²) tan^-1 x dy = 0
ydx = – (1 + x²) tan^-1 x dy
Take t = tan^-1 x
dt = \(\frac { 1 }{ 1+x^2 }\) dx
The equation can be written as
\(\frac { dx }{ (1+x^2)tan^{-1}x }\) = –\(\frac { dy }{ y }\)
\(\frac { dt }{ t }\) = –\(\frac { dy }{ y }\)
Taking Integration on both sides, we get
∫ \(\frac { dt }{ t }\) = ∫ \(\frac { dy }{ y }\)
log t = – log y + log C
log (tan^-1 x) = – log y + log C
log (y(tan^-1 x)) + log y = log C
y tan^-1 x = C

(iii) sin \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = a, y (0) = 1
sin \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = a
sin \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = sin^-1 (a)
The equation can be written as
dy = sin^-1 (a) dx
Taking integration on both sides, we get
∫ dy = ∫ sin^-1 (a) dx
y = sin^-1 a ∫ dx
y = sin^-1 (a) x + C ……… (1)
Initial condition:
Since y (0) = 1, we get
y = sin^-1 (a) x + C
1 = sin^-1 (a) (0) + C
0 + C = 1
C = 1
Equation (1) ⇒ y = sin^-1 (a) x + 1
y – 1 = sin^-1 (a) x
\(\frac { y-1 }{ x }\) = sin^-1 (a)
sin(\(\frac { y-1 }{ x }\)) = a

(iv) \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\)e^x+y + x³, e^y
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\)e^x+y + x³, (e^y)
= e^y [e^x + x³]
\(\frac { dy }{ e^y }\) = dx(e^x + x³)
The equation can be written as
\(\frac { dy }{ e^y }\) = (e^x + x³) dx
Taking integration on both sides, we get
∫ e^-y dy = ∫ (e^x + x³) dx
\(\frac { e^y }{ -1 }\) = e^x + \(\frac { x^4 }{ 4 }\) + C
[Where – C = C, Which is also constant].
∴ e^x + e^-y + \(\frac { x^4 }{4 }\) = -C = C
∴ e^x + e^-y + \(\frac { x^4 }{4 }\) = C

(v) (e^y + 1) cos x dx + e^y sin x dy = 0
Solution:
(e^y + 1) cos x dx + e^y sin x dy = 0
e^y sin x dy = – (e^y + 1) cos x dx

log (e^y + 1) = – log sin x + log c
log [(e^y + 1) + log sin x = log c
log (e^y +1) sin x] = log c
(e^y+ 1) sin x = c

(vi) (ydx – xdy) cot (\(\frac { x }{ y }\)) = ny² dx
equation can be written as

Substituting these values in equation (1), we get
dt cot t = ndx
cot t dt = ndx
Taking integration on both sides, we get
∫ cot t dt = n∫ dx
log (sin t) = n x + c
sin t = e^nx+c
∴ sin(\(\frac { x }{ y }\)) = e^nx+c [∵ t = \(\frac { x }{ y }\) ]

(vii) \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) – x\(\sqrt { 25-x^2 }\) = 0
The equation can be written as
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) – x\(\sqrt { 25-x^2 }\) …….. (1)
Take 25 – x² = t
-2x dx = dt
x dx = –\(\frac { dt }{ 2 }\)
Substituting these values in equation (1), we get
dy = x\(\sqrt { 25-x^2 }\) dx
dy = -√t \(\frac { dt }{ 2 }\)
Taking integration on both sides, we get
∫ dy = –\(\frac { dt }{ 2 }\) ∫ t^{\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)} dt

(viii) x cos y dy = e^x (x log x + 1) dx
The equation can be written as

Substituting in (1), we get
sin y = e^y log x + C

(ix) tan y \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = cos (x + y) + cos (x – y)
The equation can be written as
tan y \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = cos (x + y) + cos (x – y)
[W.K.T cos (A + B) + cos (A – B) = 2 cos A cos B
Here A = x, B = y]
∴ tan y\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = 2 cos x cos y
\(\frac { tany }{ cosy }\) dy = 2 cos x dx
Taking integration on both sides, we get
∫ \(\frac { tany }{ cosy }\) dy = 2 ∫ cos x dx
2 ∫ tan y sec y dy = 2 ∫ cos x dx
sec y = 2 sin x + C

(x) \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = tan² (x + y)

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 27 Company Management Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 27 Company Management

12th Commerce Guide Company Management Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answers

Question 1.
A person Shall hold office as a director in …………… companies as per the Companies Act, 2013.
a) 5 companies
b) 10 companies
c) 20 companies
d) 15 companies
Answer:
c) 20 companies

Question 2.
Which …………… Director is appointed by a Financial Institution.
a) Nominee
b) Additional
c) Women
d) Shadow
Answer:
a) Nominee

Question 3.
A Private Company shall have a minimum of ………………….
a) Seven directors
b) Five directors
c) Three directors
d) Two directors
Answer:
d) Two directors

Question 4.
A Public Company shall have a minimum of …………….. Directors.
a) Twelve
b) Seven
c) Three
d) Two
Answer:
c) Three

Question 5.
A Public Company having a paid up Share Capital of Rs. ………………. or more may have a directter, elected by such small shareholders.
a) One crore
b) Three crores
c) Five crores
d) Seven crores
Answer:
c) Five crores

Question 6.
Under the companies Act, which one of the following powers can be exercised by the Board by Directors?
a) Power to sell the company’s undertakings.
b) Power to make call.
c) Power to borrow money in excess of the paid up capital.
d) Power to reappoint an auditor.
Answer:
b) Power to make call.

Question 7.
Which director need not hold qualifying shares.
a) Directors appointed to Central Government.
b) Directors appointed to Shareholders.
c) Directors appointed to Managing Director.
d) Directors appointed to Board of Directors.
Answer:
a) Directors appointed to Central Government

Question 8.
What is the statue of Directors who regulate money of the company.
a) Banker
b) Holder
c) Agent
d) Trustees
Answer:
d) Trustees

Question 9.
According to Companies Act, the Directors must be appointed by the
a) Central Government
b) Company Law Tribunal
c) Company in General Meeting
d) Board of Directors
Answer:
c) Company in General Meeting

Question 10.
The Board of Directors can exercise the power to appoint directors in the case of.
a) Additional Directors
b) Filling up the Casual vacancy
c) Alternate Directors
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Director.
Answer:
The Companies Act 2013 section 2 (34) defines a director appointed to the board of a Company is:
“A person who is appointed or elected member of the Board of Directors of a company and has the responsibility of determining and implementing policies along with others in the board.

Question 2.
Name the companies required to appoint KMP.
Answer:

• Every Listed Company.
• Every Public Company [Paid up capital ₹ 10 crores and more]

Question 3.
Who is a Whole Time Director?
Answer:
A whole-time Director is one who devotes the whole of his time of working hours to the company and has a significant personal interest in the company as the source of his income.

Question 4.
Who is called Managing Director? [M.D]
Answer:

• A Managing Director is one who is employed by the company.
• He has substantial powers of management over the affairs of the company subject to superintendence, direction control of the Board.

Question 5.
Who can be an Executive Director?
Answer:
An executive director is a Chief Executive Officer (CEO) or Managing Director of an organization, company, or corporation, who is responsible for making decisions to complete the mission and for the success of the organisation.

III. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
When are Alternative Directors Appointed?
Answer:

• Alternate Directors are appointed by the Board of Directors, as a substitute to a (original) Director who may be absent from India, for a period which is not less than 3 months.
• It is authorised by AOA or by passing a resolution in the Annual General Meeting.
• He is not a representative or agent of Original Director.

Question 2.
Who is a Shadow Director?
Answer:
A shadow director is a person who is not a member of the Board but has some power to run it and can be appointed as the director but according to his/her wish.

Question 3.
State the minimum number of Directors for a Private Company.
Answer:
Under section 149 (1) of the Companies Act, 2013 states that the requirement of Minimum/ Maximum Number of Directors in a Company.,

Private company:
In the case of One Person Company: The requirement of directors is one.
Other Private Companies: The minimum requirement of Directors is two.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Who is the KMP?
Answer:
Key Managerial Personnel – Section 2 (51) of Companies Act 2013,

• CEO – Chief Executive Officer
• MD – Managing Director or Manager
• Company – Secretary
• WTD – Whole Time Director
• CFO – Chief Financial Officer
• Such other officers as may be prescribed.

Question 2.
Bring different types of Directors. [RASIAN]
Answer:

1. Residential Director: According to Section 149 (3) of the Companies Act 2013, every company should appoint a director who has stayed in India for a total period of 182 days.
2. Independent Director: An independent director is an alternate director other than a Managing Director who is known as a Whole-time director or Nominee director.
3. Small shareholder’s Director: Small shareholders can appoint a single director in a listed company.
4.  Nominee Director: A director nominated by any financial institution in pursuance of the provisions of law.
5. Additional Directors: Any Individual can be appointed as Additional Directors by a company.
6. Alternate Directors: Alternate director is appointed by the Board of Directors, as a substitute who may be absent from India, for a period of 3 months.

Question 3.
State the Qualification of Directors.
Answer:
Qualifications of Director: As regards to the qualification of directors, there is no direct provision in the Companies Act, 2013. In general, a director shall possess appropriate skills, experience and knowledge in the fields of finance, law, management, sales, marketing, research, and other disciplines related to the business. The following are the qualifications:

1. A director must be a person of sound mind.
2. A director must hold share qualification if the article of association provides such.
3. A director must be an individual.
4. A director should be a solvent person.
5. A director should not be convicted by the Court for any offense, etc.

Question 4.
State the Criminal Liabilities of Directors.
Answer:
Directors will be liable with a fine and imprisonment or both for fraud of non-compliance of any statutory provisions in the following situations where:

1. There is a misstatement in Prospectus
2. There is a failure to file a return on the allotment with the registrar
3. Failure to give notice to the registrar for the conversion of share into stock
4. Failure to issue Share Certificate and Debenture Certificate
5. There is the default in holding Annual General Meeting
6. There is a failure to provide Financial Statements

12th Commerce Guide Company Management Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answers

Question 1.
A director who is appointed in the place of an original director during the latter’s absence from the country is known as ……………….. Director.
a) Alternate
b) Additional
c) Women
d) NOTA
Answer:
a) Alternate

Question 2.
The aggregate nominal value of Qualification shares shall not exceed ………………….
a) ₹ 6000
b) ₹ 5000
c) ₹ 4000
d) ₹ 3000
Answer:
b) ₹ 5000

Question 3.
When a company has issued shares of ₹ 6000 each only, the minimum number of Qualification shares that a Director should hold is ………………….
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer:
a) One

Question 4.
The overall managerial remuneration should not exceed ……….. percent in the net profit.
a) 5
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12
Answer:
c) 11

Question 5.
The most important document of a company for External Management is ………………..
a) MOA
b) AOA
c) Prospectus
d) Prospectus in lieu of prospectus
Answer:
a) MOA

Question 6.
The maximum number of Directors in a public limited company is …………………
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 15
Answer:
d) 15

Question 7.
Pick the odd one out:
a) MO
b) CEO
c) MFO
d) DEO
Answer:
d) DEO

Question 8.
First Director is mentioned in ………………
a) AOA
b) MOA
c) Register
d) NOTA
Answer:
a) AOA

Question 9.
Director Act as ……………………
a) Agent
b) Trustee
c) Officer
d) All of these
Answer:
d) All of these

Question 10.
An ……………. can be appointed as Director.
a) Individual
b) Firm
c) HOF
d) NOTA
Answer:
a) Individual

Question 11.
The first Board meeting should be held within ………………… days of the date of incorporation,
a) 15
b) 30
c) 45
d) 60
Answer:
b) 30

II Match the following.
Question 1.

Answer:
a) (i) 2, (ii) 4, (iii) 1, (iv) 3

Question 2.

Answer:
a) (i) 4, (ii) 3,(iii) 2, (iv) 1

III. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The Term Remuneration means any money or its equivalent is given or passed to any person for services rendered by him.
Reason (R): It includes Rent-free, Sweat Equity shares, Concessions, Free of cost etc.
a) (A) and (R) are True
b) (A) and (R) False
c) (A) is true (R) is False
d) (A) is False (R) is True
Answer:
a) (A) and (R) are True

IV. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Director.
Answer:

• “A person who is appointed or elected member of the Board of Directors of a company and has the responsibility of determining and implementing policies with others in the Board.
• It is not necessary to hold any shares in the company or be an employee.
• Director act on the basis of resolutions made in the Board of Directors meeting according to their powers stated in the Articles of Association of the Company”. – The companies Act 2013, Section 2(34)

Question 2.
What are the Minimum and Maximum number of Directors and the Number of Directorship?
Answer:
Minimum:

• One Person Company – ONE
• Private Company – TWO
• Public Company – THREE

Maximum:

• A company can appoint maximum 15 Directors out of which one must be Resident Director.
• By passing the resolution and approval of the Central Government, a company can appoint more than 15 Directors.

Directorship:

• A person can hold the position of Directorship in different companies up to a maximum of 20.
• Holding or subsidiary of a public company shall be limited to 10.

V. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Differentiate Executive and Non-Executive Directors. [DR]
Answer:

Question 2.
When are alternative directors appointed?
Answer:
An alternate director is appointed by the Board of Directors, as a substitute to a director who may be absent from India, for a period which is not less than three months.

VI. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Distinguish Manager and Director. [NIL] [R]
Answer:

Question 2.
Difference between Managing Director and Whole Time Director. [P] [PAD]
Answer:

Question 3.
Who is the KMP?
Answer:
Companies Act, 2013 has introduced many new concepts and Key Managerial Personnel (KMP) is one of them. KMP covers the traditional roles of managing director and whole-time director and also includes some functional heads.
Key Managerial Personnel: The definition of the term Key Managerial Personnel is contained in Section 2(51) of the Companies Act, 2013. This Section states:

1. The Chief Executive Officer
2. The Managing Director or Manager
3. The Company Secretary
4. The Whole-time Director
5. The Chief Financial Officer
6. Such other officer as may be prescribed

Question 4.
Explain the Composition of the Board of Directors.
Answer:
a) General Optimum Combination:
Board of Directors Comprises:

• Executive Directors.
• Non – Executive Directors.
• Atleast one Women Director.
• Not less than 50 % of the Board – shall comprise Non – Executive Directors.

b) When the Non – Executive Director is the Chairperson:

• 1/3 of the Board Comprises of Independent Directors. [ID].
• Where the company does not have a regular non – executive chairperson at least 1/2 of the Board Shall Comprise Independent Directors.

c) When the non-executive chairperson is a promoter – Relatives of promoter or person occupying management position or at one level below the Board of Directors :

• In this case 1/2 of the Board of Directors shall consist of Independent Directors.
• Whole Time Director.
• Managing Director.
• Executive Director.
• Non – Executive Directors.

Question 5.
List the disqualification of a director.
Answer:
Disqualifications of a Director: Section 164 of Companies Act, 2013, has mentioned the disqualification as follows:
A person shall not be capable of being appointed director of a company if the director is

• Of unsound mind
• An undercharged insolvent
• Has been convicted by a court for any offense
• Has not paid any calls in respect of shares of the company held by him
• An order disqualifying him for appointment as director has been passed by a court
• He has not got the Director Identification Number

Question 6.
Explain How the Director of a company can be removed from the office?
Answer:
A Director of a company can be removed from his office before the expiry of his term by:

• Shareholders
• Central Government
• Company Law Board.

a) Removed by Shareholders: [Section 169]
In Annual General Meeting the shareholders of a company [Public or Private] by giving special notice and passing ordinary resolution can remove the director before the expiry of his period of office without the proof of Mismanagement, Breach of Trust, Misfeasance, Misconduct and the policies pursued by the Director are not appropriate.

b) Removed by Central Government:
The Central Government can remove the Director from office on the recommendation of the Company Law Board under the following circumstances.

• If cause injury or damage to the interest of the business.
• If conduct and management affairs are Guilty of Fraud, Misfeasance, Persistent negligence in carrying out his obligations.
• If the business has not been conducted and managed with sound business principles.

c) Removal by the Company Law Board:
If an application has been made to the CLB against the oppression and mismanagement of the company’s affairs by a Director, then the CLB may order for the termination.

Question 7.
What is the maximum limit for the Managerial Remuneration?
Answer:

• When a company has only one MD (or) WTD (or) Manager the – remuneration payable shall not exceed 5% of Net profit.
• If it is more than one MD or WTD or Manager [The overall] the remuneration payable should not exceed 11% of Net profit.

Maximum Remuneration Payable to its Managerial Personnel:
Remuneration payable by the company in case there is no profit or inadequacy of profit without central Government
and to pay remuneration in excess of the above limit is detailed below:

Question 8.
What are the duties of a director?
Answer:
Directors act as agents of the shareholders and act as a trustee of shareholders. The following are the duties of directors:

Collective Duties of Directors: Directors as apart of the Board perform certain duties collectively. The duties are as follows:

1. Approval of annual accounts and authentication of annual accounts
2. Appointment of First Auditors
3. Passing of resolutions at board meetings
4. Directors report to shareholders highlighting the performance of the company.

General duties of Directors:

1. Delegating power to any committee
2. Issuing instructions to employees for implementation of policy
3. Appointing their subordinates like Managing director, Manager, Secretary and other employees
4. Actin Good faith in order to promote the objectives of the company.

Question 9.
State the powers of the Directors.
Answer:
Statutory powers:

• To issue Debentures.
• To make Loans.
• To Borrow money other than Debenture.
• To diversify the company business.
• To Approve Financial Statement and Board Report.

Managerial powers:

• To Appoint MD, Manager and Secretary.
• To control and supervise the work of coordinates.
• To contract with the third party.
• To Allot – Forfeit and Transfer shares.
• To decide terms and conditions to issue debentures.

Powers only with a Resolution :

• To sell or lease any asset of the company.
• To appoint a sole Agent for more than 5 years.
• To allow time to the director for repayment of the loan.
• To Issue Bonus Shares.
• To Borrow money in excess of paid-up capital and free reserves.

Other powers:

• To Fill Casual Vacancy.
• To Appoint Alternate and Additional Directors and KMP.
• To Appoint the first Auditor of the company.
• To remove KMP.
• To Declare Solvency Position of the company.

Question 10.
Mr.Raghu is appointed as a Director in a company. Is he personally liable to third parties? If so, under what circumstances is he liable?
Answer:
Liability to outsiders:

• The directors are not personally liable to outsiders if they act within the scope of powers vested in them.
• The general rule in this regard in that wherever an agent is liable, those directors would be liable, but where the liability would attach to the principal only, the liability is the liability of the company.
• The directors are personally liable to third parties of contracts in the following cases:
  a. They contract with outsiders in their personal capacity
  b. They contract as agents of an undisclosed principal
  c. They enter into a contract on behalf of a prospective company.
  d. When the contract is ultra-vires the company.

In default of statutory duties, the directors shall be personally liable to third parties in the following cases:

• Mis-statement in the prospectus.
• Irregular allotment.
• Failure to repay application money if the minimum subscription is not received.
• Failure to repay application money if allotment of shares and debentures is not dealt in on the stock exchange as specified in the prospectus.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 10 Ordinary Differential Equations Ex 10.4 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 10 Ordinary Differential Equations Ex 10.4

Question 1.
Show that each of the following expressions is a solution of the corresponding given differential equation.
(i) y = 2x² ; xy’ = 2y
(ii) y = ae^x + be^-x; y” – y = 0
Solution:
(i) v = 2x² …(1)
Differential equation: xy’ = 2y
Differentiate with respect to ‘x’

On simplifying, 2y = xy’
∴ (1) is solution of the given differential equation.

(ii) y = ae^x + be^-x; y”- y = 0.
y = ae^x + be^-x …(1) Differential equation: y” – y = 0
Differentiate with respect to ‘x’
y’ = ae^x – be^-x
Again differentiate with respect to ‘x’
y” = ae^x + be^-x
y” = y ⇒ y” – y = 0
∴ (1) is the solution of the given differential equation.

Question 2.
Find the value of m so that the function y = em solution of the given differential equation.
(i) y’ + 2y = 0
(ii) y”- 5y’ + 6y = 0
Solution:
(i) y’ + 2y = 0 ……. (1)
Given y = e^mx ……….(2)
Differentiating equation (2) w.r.t x, we get

∴ comparing equation (1) & (3),
we get m = -2

(ii) y” – 5y’ + 6y = 0 ……. (1)
Given y = e^mx ……… (2)
Differentiating equation (2) w.r.t ‘x’, we get
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = e^x. m
Again differentiating w.r.t ‘x’, we get
\(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) = e^mx. m²
To find the value of m:
Given y” – 5y’ + 6y = 0 ∵ y = e^mx

m² – 5m + 6 = 0
(m – 2) (m – 3) = 0
∴ m = 2, 3

Question 3.
The Slope of the tangent to the curve at any point is the reciprocal of four times the ordinate at that point. The curve passes through (2, 5). Find the equation of the curve.
Solution:
The slope of the tangent to the curve at any

The equation can be written as
4y dy = dx …….. (1)
Integrating equation (1) on both sides, we get
4∫ ydy = ∫ dx
4(\(\frac { y^2 }{ 2 }\)) = x + c
2y² = x + c …….. (2)
Since the curve passes through at (2, 5), we get
2(5)² = 2 + c
50 = 2 + c
50 – 2 = c
48 = c
∴ Substituting the value of c in equation (2), we get
2y² = x + 48 is the required equation of the curve.

Question 4.
Show that y = e^-x + mx + n is a solution of the differential equation e^x(\(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\)) – 1 = 0
Given y = e^-x + mx + n …….. (1)
Differentiating equation (1) w.r.t ‘x’, we get

substituting the value of \(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) in the given differential equation, we get
e^x(\(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\)) – 1
= e^x(e^-x) – 1
= e^n-1 = 1 – 1 = 0
Hence y = e^-x + mx + n is the solution of the given differential equation e^x \(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) – 1 = 0

Question 5.
Show that y = ax + \(\frac { b }{ x }\), x ≠ 0 is a solution of the differential equation x²yⁿ + xy’ – y = 0.
Solution:
Given

Again differentiating we get

x² y” + 2xy’ – xy’ – y = 0
x²y” + xy’ – y = 0
∴ y = ax + \(\frac { b }{ x }\) is a solution of the differential equation x²y” + xy’ – y = 0

Question 6.
Show that y = ae^-3x + b, where a and b are arbitrary constants, is a solution of the differential equation \(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) + 3 \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = 0.
Solution:
Given y = ae^-3x + b …… (1)
Differentiating equation (1) w.r.t ‘x’, we get

Therefore, y = ae^-3x + b is a solution of the given differential equation.

Question 7.
Show that the differential equation representing the family of curves y² = 2a(x + a^2/3), where a is a positive parameter, is (y² – 2xy\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\))³ = 8(y\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\))⁵
Solution:
Given y² = 2ax + 2a^5/3 ……. (1)
Differentiating equation (1) w.r.t ‘x’ we get

Hence y² = 2ox + 2 a³ is a solution of the differential equation
(y² – 2xy\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\))³ = 8(y\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\))⁵

Question 8.
Show that y = a cos bx is a solution of the! differential equation \(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) + b² y = 0.
Solution:
Given y = a cos bx ……. (1)
Differentiating equation (1) w.r.t ‘x’, we get
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = a(-sin bx)b
\(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = -ab sin bx
Again differentiating, we get

Therefore, y = a cos bx is a solution of the differential equation \(\frac { d^2y }{ dx^2 }\) + b² y = 0

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 5 Capital Market Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 5 Capital Market

12th Commerce Guide Capital Market Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer.

Question 1.
Capital market do not provide
a) Short term Funds
b) Debenture Funds
c) Equity Funds
d) Long term Funds
Answer:
a) Short term Funds

Question 2.
When the NSEI was established
a) 1990
b) 1992
c) 1998
d) 1997
Answer:
b) 1992

Question 3.
Primary market is a Market where securities are traded in the
a) First Time
b) Second Time
c) Three Time
d) Several Times
Answer:
a) First Time

Question 4.
Participants in the capital market includes
a) Individuals
b) Corporate
c) Financial Institutions
d) All of the above
Answer:
d) All of the above

II. Very Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is Capital Market?
Answer:

• “Capital Market” is a market where buyers and sellers engage in the trade of financial securities (Long Term) like Bonds and Stocks.
• It is undertaken by participants such as Individuals and Institutions.

Question 2.
Write a note on OTCEI.
Answer:

• The OTCEI was set up by financial institutions [IDBI, IFCI, SBI, (can Bank), etc.,] to allow the trading of securities across the electronic counters throughout the country.
• Its greatest strengths are transparency of transactions, Quick deals, faster settlements, and better liquidity.

Question 3.
What is Mutual Fund?
Answer:
Financial institutions that provide facilities for channeling savings of Small investors into avenues of productive investments are called ‘Mutual Funds’. A mutual fund company invests the funds pooled from shareholders and gives them the benefit of a diversified investment portfolio and a reasonable return.

Question 4.
Who are the participants in a Capital Market?
Answer:
The participants of the Capital Market are Individuals and Institutions such as the corporate sector, Government, and other financial institutions [Banks]

Question 5.
How is price determined in a Capital Market?
Answer :
The price of the securities is determined based on the demand and supply prevailing in the capital market for securities.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the various kinds of Capital Market? Explain.
Answer:
Primary Market:

• Primary Market is a market for new issues or new financial claims.
• Hence it is also called New Issues Market (NIM)
• It deals with those securities which are issued to the public for the first time.

Secondary Market:

• It may be defined as the market for old (second hand) securities, in the sense that securities which are previously issued in the primary market are traded here.
• It covers both the stock Exchange and the counter market.

Question 2.
Explain any two functions of the Capital Market.
Answer :
Ready and Continuous Market: The stock Exchange provides a central and convenient place where Buyers and Sellers can easily Buy and Sell securities.

A reliable guide to performance: The capital market serves as a reliable guide to the performance and financial position of corporate and thereby promotes efficiency.

Question 3.
Write a note on National Clearance and Depository System (NCDS).
Answer:
Under the scriptless trading system, settlement of transactions relating to securities takes place through a book entry. The entire scripless trading system comprises the following three segments:

1. National Trade Comparison and Reporting System which prescribes the terms and conditions of contract for the securities market.
2. National Clearing System which aims at determining the net cash and stock liability of each broker on settlement date.
3. National Depository System which arranges to provide for the transfer of ownership of securities in exchange on payment by book-entry on electronic ledgers without any physical movement of the transfer deed.

Question 4.
Discuss evolution and growth of Indian Capital Market.
Answer :

• The period between 1947 and 1973 marked the development of infrastructure for the capital market.
• During this period Financial institutions such as IFCI, ICICI, IDBI, and UTI, SFCs, and SIDCs were established.
• These institutions strengthened the capital market.
• During the period between 1980 and 1992, debenture emerged as a powerful instrument of resource mobilisation in the primary market.
• A number of Stock Exchanges came into existence.
•  There was tremendous growth in the secondary market.
• SEBI emerged as an effective regulatory body for the primary and secondary markets and give a measure of protection to small investors.
•  New financial services such as credit rating were introduced.

Question 5.
Explain about Factoring and Venture Capital Institutions.
Answer:
“Factoring” is an arrangement whereby a financial institution provides financial accommodation on the basis of assignment/sale of account receivables. The factoring institutions collect the book debts for and on behalf of its clients. Some of the factoring institutions operating in India are SBI Factors and Commercial Services Private Limited, a subsidiary of State Bank of India and Canbank Factors Limited, a subsidiary of Canara Bank.

Venture capital financing is a form of equity financing designed especially for funding new and innovative project ideas. Venture capital funds bring into force the hi-technology projects which are converted into commercial production.

IV. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Discuss the characters of a Capital Market. (PM) (SPL)
Answer :
Price : The price of the securities is determined based on the demand and supply prevailing in the capital market for securities.

Market for Financial Assets : Capital Market provides a transaction platform for long term financial assets.

Securities Market : The dealings in a capital market done through shares, Debentures etc. [Securities]
The capital market is thus called securities market.

Participants : The participants of capital market include individuals, corporate sectors, government, banks and other financial institutions.

Location : Capital Market is not confined to certain specific locations, although it is true that parts of the market are concentrated in certain well-known centres known as Stock Exchange.

Question 2.
Briefly explain the functions of capital market. FIRES
Answer:

1. Savings and Capital Formation: In capital market, various types of securities help to mobilize savings from various sectors of the population (Individuals, Corporate, Govt., etc.). The twin features of reasonable return and liquidity in stock exchange are definite incentives to the people to invest in securities. This accelerates the capital formation in the country.
2. Permanent Capital: The existence of a capital market/stock exchange enables companies to raise permanent capital. The investors cannot commit their funds for a permanent period but companies require funds permanently.
3. Industrial Growth: The stock exchange is a central market through which resources are transferred to the industrial sector of the economy.
4. Beady and Continuous Market: The stock exchange provides a central convenient place where buyers and sellers can easily purchase and sell securities.
5. Reliable Guide to Performance: The capital market serves as a reliable guide to the
   performance and financial position of corporate, and thereby promotes efficiency.
6. Proper Channelization of Funds: The prevailing market price of a security and relative yield are the guiding factors for the people to channelize their funds in a particular company.
7. Provision of Variety of Services: The financial institutions functioning in the capital market provide a variety of services such as grant of long term and medium-term loans to entrepreneurs.
8. Development of Backward Areas: Capital Markets provide funds for projects in backward areas. This facilitates economic development of backward areas.
9. Foreign Capital: Capital markets make it possible to generate foreign capital. Indian firms are able to generate capital funds from overseas markets by way of bonds and other securities.
10. Easy Liquidity: With the help of the secondary market investors can sell off their holdings and convert them into liquid cash.

Question 3.
Explain the various types of New Financial Institutions. (SON) (VN)
Answer :
Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited [SHCIL]

• SHCI, aims at serving as a central securities depository in of transactions on Stock exchange.
• It also takes up the administration clearing functions at a national level.

Over The Counter Exchange of India [OTCEI]

• The OTCEI was set up by financial institutions [IDBI, IFCI, SBI (can Bank) etc.,] to allow the trading of securities across the electronic counters throughout the country

National Securities Depositories Limited |NSDL]

• The NSDI. was set up in the year 19% tor achieving a time-bound dematerlization as well as rematerialization of shares.
• The NSDI is expected to alleviate the problems of post-trade transactions in the secondary market.

Venture Capital Institution [VCI]

• Venture Capital financing is a form of equity financing designed especially for funding new and innovative project ideas.
• Venture capital Funds bring into force the Mi-Technology projects which are converted into commercial production.

National Stock Exchange of India [NSEI]

• NSEI was established in 1942 to functions as a model stock exchange.
• The Aim of NSEI providing the advantage of a nationwide electronic screen-based “Scripless” and “floorless” trading system in securities.

12th Commerce Guide Capital Market Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The term _________ market refers to the facilities and institutional arrangement through long-term funds.
(a) Capital
(b) Asset
(c) Buyers
(d) Sellers
Answer:
(a) Capital

Question 2.
Channeling savings of small investors into productive investment is called
a) Mutual Fund
b) Bond
c) Equity
d) Stocks
Answer :
a) Mutual Fund

Question 3.
How to determine the price of the securities in the capital market
a) Investment
b) Savings
c) Deposits
d) Demand and Supply
Answer :
d) Demand and Supply

Question 4.
NSEI was established in
(a) 1992
(b) 1991
(c) 1994
(d) 1995
Answer:
(a) 1992

Question 5.
Primary Market facilitates…………………….
a) Capital formation
b) Trade
c ) Funds
d) Securities
Answer :
a) Capital formation

Question 6.
The primary market is also called as
(a) Secondary market
(b) Commodity market
(c) Mutual funds
(d) New issues market
Answer:
(d) New issues market

Question 7.
The capital market is also known as …………………….
a) Factoring
b) Commodity market
c) Securities Market
d)Foreign Market
Answer:
c) Securities Market

Question 8.
Pick the odd one out:
a) Mutual Funds
b) Venture Funds
c) OTCEI
d) Reserve Funds
Answer:
d) Reserve Funds

Question 9.
Which one is correctly matched?
a) Foreign Exchange Market – All currencies
b) Deviation Market – Indian Currency
c) Hard Commodities Market -Iron and ore
d) Soft Commodities Market – Coffee and Sugar
Answer:
b)Deviation Market Indian Currency

Question 10.
Which one is correctly matched?
a) Venture Fund – Hi -technology projects
b) Mutual Fund – Sale of account receivables.
c) Factoring – Scripless and floorless
d) NSEI – Savings of Small investors
Answer:
a) Venture Fund – Hi -technology projects

Question 11.
How many times security can be sold in a secondary market?
a) Only One Time
b)Two Time
c) Three Times
d) Multiple Times
Answer :
d) Multiple Times

II. Match the following

1. Match List I with List II

a) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2
b) i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3
c) i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1
d) i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4
Answer:
a) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2

III. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Government has liberalised FDI in the country.
Reason (R): It brings foreign capital and technologies.
a) (A) is true (R) is False.
b) (A) is False (R) is True.
c) Both (A) and (R) are true
d) Both (A) and (R) are False
Answer :
c) Both (A) and (R) are True

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Many specialized financial institutions promoted their own venture capital Funds.
Reason (R): These include IFCI, IDBI, SIDBI Venture Funds.
a) (A) is true (R) is also True.
b) (A) is False (R) is True.
c) (A) is true (R) is False
d) Both (A) and (R) are False
Answer :
a) (A) is true (R) is also True

IV. Very Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is the Derivatives market?
Answer:
The derivatives market facilitates the trading in financial instruments such as futures contracts and options used to help control financial risk.

Question 2.
What are the ways by which a company can raise capital in a primary market?
Answer :

1. Public Issue
2. Rights Issue
3. Private placement

Question 3.
What are the methods of raising capital in a primary market by a company?
Answer:
There are three ways by which a company may raise capital in a primary market. They are:

1. Public Issue
2. Rights Issue
3. Private Placement

Question 4.
What is a Rights Issue?
Answer :
When a company wants to raise additional capital, the securities are first offered to the existing shareholders on proportions of the shares held by them.

Question 5.
What is a private placement?
Answer :
It is a way of securities privately to [Their Clients] to a small group of investors.

Question 6.
Write a note on Foreign Exchange Market.
Answer:
The foreign exchange market abets foreign exchange trading. It is the largest, most liquid market in the world with an average traded value of more than $5 trillion per day. It includes all of the currencies in the world and any individual, company or country can participate in it.

Question 7.
What is Deviative Market?
Answer:
It facilitates the trading in financial instruments such as Future contracts and options used to help control financial risk.