Category: Class 11

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Pdf Chapter 3 Laws of Motion Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Laws of Motion

11th Physics Guide Laws of Motion Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – I:
I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
When a car takes a sudden left turn in the curved road, passengers are pushed towards the right due to _______.
a) inertia of direction
b) inertia of motion
c) inertia of rest
d) absence of inertia
Answer:
a) inertia of direction

Question 2.
An object of mass m held against a vertical wall by applying horizontal force F as shown in the figure. The minimum value of the force F is _______ (IIT JEE 1994)

a) Less than mg
b) Equal to mg
c) Greater than mg
d) Cannot determine
Answer:
c) Greater than mg

Question 3.
A vehicle is moving along the positive x-direction, if a sudden brake is applied, then _______.
a) frictional force acting on the vehicle is along negative x-direction
b) frictional force acting on the vehicle is along the positive x-direction
c) no frictional force acts on the vehicle
d) frictional force acts in a downward direction
Answer:
a) frictional force acting on the vehicle is along the negative x-direction

Question 4.
A book is at rest on the table which exerts a normal force on the book. If this force is considered as a reaction force, what is the action force according to Newton’s third law?
a) Gravitational force exerted by Earth on the book
b) Gravitational force exerted by the book on Earth
c) Normal force exerted by the book on the table
d) None of the above
Answer:
c) Normal force exerted by the book on the table

Question 5.
Two masses m₁ and m₂ are experiencing the same force where m₁ < m₂. The ration of their acceleration a₁/a₂ is _______.
a) 1
b) less than 1
c) greater than 1
d) all the three cases
Answer:
c) greater than 1

Question 6.
Choose an appropriate free body diagram for the particle experiencing net acceleration along the negative y-direction. (Each arrow mark represents the force acting on the system).

Answer:

Question 7.
A particle of mass m sliding on the smooth double inclined plane (shown in the figure) will experience _______.

a) greater acceleration along the path AB
b) greater acceleration along the path AC
c) same acceleration in both the paths
d) no acceleration in both the paths
Answer:
b) greater acceleration along the path AC

Question 8.
Two blocks of masses m and 2m are placed on a smooth horizontal surface as shown. In the first case, only a force F₁ is applied from the left. Later only a force F₂ is applied from the right. If the force acting at the interface of the two blocks in the two cases is the same, then F₁ : F₂ is _______. (Physics Olympiad 2016)

a) 1 : 1
b) 1 : 2
c) 2 : 1
d) 1 : 3
Answer:
c) 2 : 1

Question 9.
Force acting on the particle moving with constant speed is _______.
a) always zero
b) need not be zero
c) always non zero
d) cannot be concluded
Answer:
b) need not be zero

Question 10.
An object of mass m begins to move on the plane inclined at an angle θ. The coefficient of static friction of inclined surface is us. The maximum static friction experienced by the mass is _______.
a) mg
b) μ_s mg
c) μ_s mg sin θ
d) μ_s mg cos θ
Answer:
d) μ_s mg cos θ

Question 11.
When the object is moving at a constant velocity on the rough surface _______.
a) net force on the object is zero
b) no force acts on the object
c) only external force acts on the object
d) only kinetic friction acts on the object
Answer:
a) net force on the object is zero

Question 12.
When an object is at rest on the inclined rough surface _______
a) static and kinetic frictions acting on the object is zero
b) static friction is zero but kinetic friction is not zero.
c) static friction is not zero and kinetic friction is zero.
d) static and kinetic frictions are not zero.
Answer:
c) static friction is not zero and kinetic friction is zero.

Question 13.
The centrifugal force appears to exist _______.
a) only in inertial frames
b) only in rotating frames
c) in an accelerated frame
d) both in inertial and non-inertial frames
Answer:
b) only in rotating frames

Question 14.
Choose the correct statement from the following.
a) Centrifugal and centripetal forces are action-reaction pairs.
b) Centripetal forces is a natural force.
c) Centrifugal force arises from the gravitational force.
d) Centripetal force acts towards the center and centrifugal force appears to act away from the center in a circular motion.
Answer:
d) Centripetal force acts towards the center and centrifugal force appears to act away from the center in a circular motion.

Question 15.
If a person moving from pole to equator, the centrifugal force acting on him
a) increase
b) decreases
c) remains the same
d) increase and then decreases
Answer:
a) increase

II. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain the concept of Inertia. Write two examples each for Inertia of motion, inertia of rest and inertia of direction.
Answer:
The inability of objects to move on its own or change its state of motion is called inertia. Inertia means resistance to change its state. There are three types of inertia:
1. Inertia of rest:
The inability of an object to change its state of rest is called inertia of rest.
Example:

• When a stationary bus starts to move, the passengers experience a sudden backward push.
• A book lying on the table will remain at rest until it is moved by some external agencies.

2. Inertia of motion:
The inability of an object to change its state of uniform speed (constant speed) on its own is called inertia of motion.
Example:

• When the bus is in motion, and if the brake is applied suddenly, passengers move forward and hit against the front seat.
• An athlete running is a race will continue to run even after reaching the finishing point.

3. Inertia of direction:
The inability of an object to change its direction of motion on its own is called inertia of direction.
Example:

• When a stone attached to a string is in whirling motion, and if the string is cut suddenly, the stone will not continue to move in circular motion but moves tangential to the circle.
• When a bus moving along a straight line takes a turn to the right. The passengers are thrown towards left.

Question 2.
State Newton’s second law:
Answer:
Newton second law state that” The force acting on an object is equal to the rate of change of its momentum:
F = \(\frac { dp }{ dt }\)
If m is the mass_of the object, and v its velocity of motion then \(\overline{p}\) = m\(\overline{v}\):
The above equation can be written as
F = \(\frac { dp }{ dt }\)(m\(\overline{v}\) ) = m\(\frac { dv }{ dt }\)
∴ F = ma

Question 3.
Define one newton:
Answer:
One newton is defined as the force which acts on 1 kg of mass to give an acceleration 1 ms^-2 in the direction of the force.

Question 4.
Show that impulse is the change of momentum.
Answer:
If a very large force acts on an object for a very short time, then the force is impulsive force or impulse. If a Force (F) acts on an object in a very short time (∆t), then from Newton’s second law dp = f.dt
Integrating \(\int_{i}^{f} d p=\int_{t_{1}}^{t_{2}} f d t\)
P_f – P_i =F[t₁ – t₂]
P_i – initial momentum of the object at time t₁
P_f – Final momentum of the object at time t₂
P_f – P_i = ∆P = > Change is momentum
(t₂ – t₁) = ∆t = > Time interval
The above equation can be written as
∴ ∆P = F ∆ t.
ie \(\int_{t_{1}}^{t_{2}} F d t\) = J is called the impulse and t₁ it is equal to change in momentum of the object is ∆P = F ∆ t. When F is kept constant

Question 5.
Using free body diagram, show that it is easy to pull an object than to push it.
Answer:
It is easier to pull on object than to push it.
An object pushed at a angle θ.

Case 1:
When a body is pushed at an arbitrary angle θ (0 to π/2) the applied force. F is resolved into two components
F sin θ = Horizontally – parallel to surface
F cos θ = Vertically – perpendicular to surface
The total downward force = mg + F cos 0 This is equal to normal force (reaction)
N_Push = mg + F cos θ … (1)
The static friction is equal to
P^s_(max) = μS N_push = μ_s (mg + F cos θ) … (2)

Case 2:
An object pulled at an angle θ

When an object is pulled at an angle 0 the applied force is resolved into two components.
F sin θ – Horizontally – parallel to the surface
F cos θ – Vertically – perpendicular to the surface
The total downward force = mg – F cos θ
This is equal to the normal force (reaction)
N_pull = mg – F cos θ … (3)
The static friction is equal to
F_s^(max) = μ_s N_pull = μ_s (mg – F cos θ) … (4)
Conclusion:
From equations (1) & (3) (or) from (2) and (4) it is clear that normal force or reaction due to pulling is less than that of push. So it is easier to pull an object than push it out.

Question 6.
Explain the various types of friction suggest a few methods to reduce friction.
Answer:
There are two types of Friction:
(1) Static Friction:
Static friction is the force which opposes the initiation of motion of an object on the surface. The magnitude of static frictional force f_s lies between
\(0 \leq f_{s} \leq \mu_{s} \mathrm{N}\)
where, µ_s – coefficient of static friction
N – Normal force

(2) Kinetic friction:
The frictional force exerted by the surface when an object slides is called as kinetic friction. Also called as sliding friction or dynamic friction,
f_k – µ_kN
where µ_k – the coefficient of kinetic friction
N – Normal force exerted by the surface on the object

Methods to reduce friction:
Friction can be reduced

• By using lubricants
• By using Ball bearings
• By polishing
• By streamlining

Question 7.
What is the meaning of “Pseudo force”?
Answer:
“A force which does not actually act on particles but appears due to acceleration of the frame is called – Pseudo force”. In order to use Newton I & II law in the rotational frame of reference, one needs to include a “Pseudo force” called “Centrifugal force”. A pseudo force has no origin, It arises due to the non-inertial nature of the frame considered. In order to solve circular motion problems from a rotating frame of reference, pseudo force is necessary.

Question 8.
State of the empirical laws of static and kinetic friction.
Answer:

Question 9.
State Newton’s third law.
Answer:
Newton’s third law states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Question 10.
What are inertial frames?
Answer:
A frame of reference in which Newton’s I law of motion holds good is called an inertial frame of reference. In such a frame if no force acts on a body it continues to be at rest or in uniform motion. So it is called as an inertial frame.

Question 11.
Under what condition will a car skid on a leveled circular road?
Answer:
On a leveled circular road, if the static friction is not able to provide enough centripetal ’force to turn, the vehicle will start to skid \(\mu_{s}<\frac{v^{2}}{r g}\)

III. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Prove the law of conservation of linear momentum. Use it to find the recoil velocity of a gun when a bullet is fired from it.
Answer:
Law: If there are no external forces acting on the system, then the total linear momentum of the system ( ^–_tot) is always a constant vector. In other words, the total linear momentum of the system is conserved in time.
Proof:
By combing Newton’s second and third laws the law of conservation of total linear momentum can be proved. When two particles interact with each other, they exert equal and opposite forces on each other
Consider two particles 1 & 2.
Let F₂₁ be the force exerted on 2 by 1
Let F₁₂ be the force exerted on 1 by 2
According to Newtons III law
\(\bar { F }\)₂₁ = – \(\bar { F }\)₁₂ → (1)
In terms of momentum, according to Newtons II Law,
F₁₂ = \(\frac { d }{ dt }\)\(\bar { P }\)₁ → (2)
F₂₁ = \(\frac { d }{ dt }\)\(\bar { P }\)₂ → (3)
Where is the momentum of p₁ particle P₂ is the momentum of II particle Sub (2) & (3) in (1)

This implies that (P₁ + P₂) = constant vector
\(\bar { P }\)₁ + \(\bar { P }\)₂ = \(\bar { P }\)_tot– is the total linear momentum of the two particle system.
F₁₂ & F₂₁ are internal force and no external force acting on the system form outside. So total linear momentum is conserved.

Question 2.
What are concurrent forces? State Lamis theorem.
Answer:
Concurrent forces:
A collection of forces is said to be concurrent if the lines of forces act at a common point. If the concurrent forces are in same plane they are coplanar also, in additional to concurrent forces.

Lamis is a theorem:
If a system of three concurrent and coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then Lamis theorem states that ” the magnitude of each force of the system is proportional to sine of the angle between other two forces”.

Proof:
Let F1, F2 and F3 be three coplanar and concurrent forces act at a common point 0 as in figure.

If the point 0 is in equilibrium then according to Lamis theorem.

Question 3.
Explain the motion of blocks connected by a string in 1) vertical motion 2) horizontal motion.
Answer:
When blocks are connected by strings and force F is applied vertically or horizontally, it produces Tension (T) in the string which affects acceleration to some extent. Let us discuss vertical and horizontal motion here

Case 1:
1) Vertical motion of connected bodies:

Consider two blocks to masses m₁ and m₂ (m₁ > m₂) connected by light and in an extensible string that passes over the pulley.

Let T be the tension in the string and a be the acceleration. When the system is released m₂ move vertically up and m₁ move vertically down with acceleration a. The gravitational force m₁g on m₁ is used to lift m₂. The upward direction is chosen as y. The free body diagram of both masses can be drawn as

Applying Newton II law for mass m₂
T\(\hat{j}\) – m₂g\(\hat{j}\) = m₂a\(\hat{j}\) → (1)
By comparing the components on both sides We get
T – m₂g = m₂a
Similarly for mass m₁

If m₁ = m₂ ie both masses are equal, a = 0 This shows that if masses are equal, there is no acceleration, and the system as a whole will be at rest.

Tension on the string:
Substitute the value of ‘a’ from (4) in (1)

Equation (4) gives the magnitude of acceleration for m₁ the acceleration vector is
For m₁ the acceleration vector is

Case 2:
2) Horizontal motion of connected masses:
Let mass m₂ kept on the horizontal surface or table and m₁ is hanging through a small pulley.

Assume there is no friction on the surface. As both the blocks are connected to the unstretchable string, m₁ moves with an acceleration downward then m₂ also moves with the same acceleration ‘a’ horizontally.

The forces acting on m₂ are

1. Downward gravitational force (m₂ g)
2. Upward normal force (N) exerted by the surface.
3. Horizontal Tension (T) exerted by the string.

Free body diagram

i) Downward gravitational force m₁g
ii) Tension ‘T’ – upwards.
Applying II Law for m₁.
T\(\hat{j}\) – m₁g\(\hat{j}\) = – m₁a\(\hat{j}\)
m₁g\(\hat{j}\) – T\(\hat{j}\) = m₁a\(\hat{j}\)
By comparing components
m₁g – T = m₁a → (1)
Apply Newton’s II Law for m₂
T\(\hat{i}\) = m₂a\(\hat{i}\) (along x)
Comparing components
N = m₂ → (2)
There is no acceleration along y direction
N = m₂a → (3)
Substituting (2) in (1)

Tension can be got by substituting (4) in (2)

Conclusion: By comparing motion in both cases it is clear that the tension in the string for horizontal motion is half of the tension for vertical motion for same set of masses and strings.

Question 4.
Briefly explain the origin of friction show that in an inclined plane, angle of friction is equal to angle of repose.
Answer:
Frictional is an opposing force exerted by the surface on the object which resists it motion. This force is frictional force. Friction force always opposes the relative motion between two surfaces which are in contact.

“when a force parallel to the surface is applied on the object, the force tries to move the object with respect to the surface. This relative motion is opposed by the surface by exerting a frictional force on the objects in a direction opposite to the applied force. Frictional force always act on the object parallel to surface on which the object is placed”.

To show angle of repose = angle of friction in an inclined plane.

Angle of friction = tan θ = F_s/N
Consider an inclined plane on which an object is placed.
Let θ be the angle of inclination of the plane with horizontal.
“Angle of repose is the angle of inclined plane with horizontal such that an object placed on it begins to slide”.
The gravitational force mg is resolved into two components.
mg sin θ – parallel to inclined plane.
mg cos θ – perpendicular to inclined plane.
The component mg sin θ parallel to inclined plane tries to move the object down.
The component mg cos θ perpendicular to inclined plane is balanced by normal reaction N.
N = mg cos θ … (1)
When the object just begins to slide static friction attains its maximum value

tan θ = angle of repose = angle of friction.
Which is equal to tan θ = μ_s
Hence proved.

Question 5.
State Newton’s three laws and discuss their significance.
Answer:

1. I law: Every object continues to be in the state of rest or off uniform motion unless there is external force acting on it.
2. II law: The force acting on an object is equal to the rate of change of its momentum F = \(\frac{d(\bar{p})}{d t}\)
3. III law: For every action there in an equal and an opposite reaction.

Discussion:
1) Newton’s laws are vector laws. The equation \(\bar { F }\) = \(\bar { ma }\) is a vector equation and it is essentially equal to three scalar equations. In Cartesian co-ordinate this equation can be written as
F_x\(\hat{i}\) + F_y\(\hat{i}\) + F_y\(\hat{k}\) = ma_x\(\hat{i}\) + ma_y\(\hat{j}\) + ma_z\(\hat{k}\) From this we can infer Fz cannot affect a_y and a_z and vice versa.

2) The acceleration experienced at a time ‘t’ depends on the force and the body at that instant does not depend on the force which acted on the body before F(t) = ma(t) In general direction of force may be different form direction of motion.

Case 1: Force and motion in same direction:
Example: when an apple falls towards earth the direction of motion and the force are in same downward direction.

Case 2: Force and motion are not in same direction
Example: The moon experiences a force towards the earth. But if actually moves in an elliptical orbit. In this case direction of motion and force are different.

Case 3: Force and motion in opposite direction:
If an object is thrown vertically upwards direction of motion is upward, but a gravitational force is downward.

Case 4: Zero net force, but there is motion:
Example: When a raindrop gets detached from the cloud it experiences both downward gravitational force and upward air drag force. As it descends the upward drag force increases and cancels the downward force. So the raindrop moves with a constant velocity called terminal velocity till it touches the surface of the earth, Hence the raindrop comes with zero net force and therefore with zero acceleration but with non zero terminal velocity.

Case 5: if multiple forces
\(\bar { F }\)₁, \(\bar { F }\)₂, \(\bar { F }\)₃, …… \(\bar { F }\)_n act on the same body, then the total force \(\bar { F }\) net is equal to vector sum of individual forces, which provides the acceleration.

\(\bar { F }\)_net = \(\bar { F }\)₁, \(\bar { F }\)₂, \(\bar { F }\)₃, …… \(\bar { F }\)_n
\(\bar { F }\)net = m\(\bar { a }\)
Example: Bow & arrow

Case 6: Newtons II Law can be written as
F = m\(\frac { dv }{ dt }\) = m.\(\frac{d^{2} r}{d t^{2}}\)
Newtons II law is basically a second order derivative of position vector, which is not zero, there must be a force acting on it.

Case 7: if no force acts an a body then
m. \(\frac{d \bar{v}}{d t}\) = 0
Which implied \(\bar { V }\) = constant. If is essentially a I law. So Newtons II law is consistent with I law, but cannot be derived form each other. Newton II law is a cause and effect relation. Force is the cause and effect is the acceleration,
(effect) ma = F(cause)
\(\frac{d \bar{p}}{d t}\) = F.

Question 6.
Captain the similarities and differences of between centripetal and centrifugal forces.
Answer:

Question 7.
Briefly explain centrifugal force with suitable examples.
Answer:
Circular motion can be analyzed from two different frames of reference. One is the Inertial frame where Newton’s laws are obeyed. The other is the rotating frame of reference which is noninertial as it is accelerating. To use Newton’s I and II law in the rotational frame of reference the pseudo force called as centrifugal force is needed.

The centrifugal forces appear to act on objects with respect to rotating frames. To explain consider an example, In the case of a whirling motion of a stone tied to a string, assume the stone has angular velocity ω in an inertial frame. If the motion of the stone is observed from a frame which is also rotating along with the stone with the same angular velocity ω then the stone appears to be at rest.

This implies that in addition to the inward centripetal force (-mrω²) there must be an equal and opposite force that acts on outwards equal to (+ mrω₂). So the total force acting on the stone in the rotating frame is equal to zero (- mrω² + mrω² = 0) This outward force acting on the stone + mrω² is called centrifugal force.

Question 8.
Briefly explain ‘rolling friction’.
Answer:
When an object moves on a surface essentially it is sliding on it. But the wheels move on the surface through rolling motion. In case of rolling motion when a wheel moves on a surface the point of contact is always at rest. Since the point of contact is at rest, there is no relative motion between the wheel and the surface. Hence the frictional force is very less.

At the same time if an object moves without a wheel, there is a relative motion between the object and the surface. As a result frictional force is larger. This makes it difficult to move the object.

Ideally in pure rolling, motion of point of contact with the surface should be at rest, but in practice it is not so. Due to elastic nature of the surface at the point of contact there will be same deformation on the wheel or on the surface. Due to this deformation there will be minimal friction between wheel and surface. It is called rolling friction. In fact rolling friction if much smaller than kinetic friction.

Question 9.
Describe the method of measuring angle of repose.
Answer:
Angle of repose is the minimum angle that an inclined plane makes with horizontal when a body placed on it just begins to slide. Consider a body of mass m placed on an inclined plane. The angle of inclination 0 of the inclined plane is adjusted that the body on the plane begins to slide down. Thus 0 is the angle of repose.

Various forces acting on the body are:
(a) Weight mg of the body acting vertically downwards

(b) The limiting friction fs (max) in upward direction along the inclined plane. It balances the component mg sin θ of the weight mg along the inclined plane.
∴ mg sin θ = f_s(max) …. (1)

(c) The normal reaction ‘N’ perpendicular to the inclined plane. It is balanced by the component mg cos θ, perpendicular to the inclined plane.

Where θ is the angle of repose.

Question 10.
Explain the need for banking of tracks.
Answer:
In a leveled circular road skidding mainly depends on the co-efficient of static friction n_s. The coefficient of static friction depends on the nature of surface which has a maximum limiting value. To avoid this usually “the outer edge of the road is slightly raised compared to inner edge”. This is called banking of roads or tracks. The angle of inclination called banking angle.

Let the surface of the road make angle θ with horizontal surface. Then the normal force makes an angle θ with vertical. When the car takes a turn, two forces are acting on the car.
(a) Gravitational force mg (downwards)
(b) Normal force N (Perpendicular to surface).
Normal force ‘N’ can be resolved into two components N cos θ and N sin θ and balances downward gravitational force.
N sin θ provides necessary centripetal acceleration, According to II law
N cos θ = mg
N sin θ = \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)
Dividing the above equations,
tan θ = \(\frac{v^{2}}{r g}\)
V = \(\sqrt{r g \tan \theta}\)
∴ The banking angle θ and radius of curvature of the road or track determines the safe speed of car at the turning.
If the speed exceeds this safe limit, then it starts to skid outward but the frictional force comes into effect and provides an additional centripetal force to prevent outward skidding. But at the same time if the speed is less than the safe limit it starts to skid inward and again frictional force come into effect which reduces centripetal force to prevent inward skidding

However if the speed of the vehicle is sufficiently greater than the correct speed the frictional force cannot stop the car from skidding. So to avoid skidding in circular road or tracks they are banked.

Question 11.
Calculate the centripetal acceleration of moon towards the earth.
Answer:
The moon orbits the earth once in 27.3 days in an almost circular orbit.
Radius of earth = 6.4 x 10⁶ m.

Solution:
The centripetal accelerations given by a = \(\frac{ v^{2}}{r}\)
This can be related with moon a_m = R_mω²
ω → angular velocity
a_m → centripetal acceleration of the moon due to earths gravity to angular velocity
R_m → Distance between the center of earth to moon. Which is 60 times the radius of the earth.

IV. Conceptual Questions:

Question 1.
Why it is not possible to push a car from inside?
Answer:
While trying to push a car from outside, he pushes the ground backward at an angle. The ground offers an equal reaction in the opposite direction, so car can be moved. But the person sits inside means car and the person becomes a single system, and the force given will be a internal force. According to Newton’s third law, total internal force acting on the system is zero and it cannot accelerate the system.

Question 2.
There is a limit beyond which the polishing of a surface increases frictional resistance rather than decreasing it. Why?
Answer:
When surfaces are highly polished the area of contact between them increases. As result of this a large number of atoms and molecules lying on both surfaces start exerting strong attractive forces on each other. Therefore the frictional force increases.

Question 3.
Can a single isolated force exist in nature? Explain your answer?
Answer:
No. According to Newton’s third law, for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. So, whatever case we consider, if there is an action there is always a reaction. So it is impossible.

Question 4.
Why does a parachute descend slowly?
Answer:
When a parachute is descending down in the atmosphere an equal and opposite force to motion of parachute is acting due to air resistance. As the area of the parachute is large the air resistance resists the motion and so it descends slowly.

Question 5.
When walking on ice one should take short steps. Why?
Answer:
When a person is walking on ice he presses the ice downward with his feet and in turn the ice pushes the person with an equal force. Since ice slippery the person is not able to press it hardly. So the action legs and so the reaction which is also less. So by making small steps, with larger normal force one can walk without slipping.

Question 6.
When a person walks on a surface the frictional force exerted by the surface on the person is opposite to the direction of motion. True or false.
Answer:
False. In frictional force exerted by the surface on the person is in the direction of his motion. The frictional force acts as an external force to move the person. When the person trying to move, he gives a push to ground on the backward direction and by Newton’s third law he is pushed by the ground in the forward direction. Hence frictional force acts along the direction of motion.

Question 7.
Can the coefficient of friction be more than one?
Answer:
No, it cannot be more than 1 for normal plane surfaces. But when surfaces are so irregular that they have sharp minute projections and cavities on them. Then the coefficient of friction may be more than one.

Question 8.
Can we predict the direction of motion of a body from the direction of force on it?
Answer:
Yes. The direction of motion is always opposite to the force of kinetic friction. By using the principle of equilibrium, the direction of force of static friction can be determined. When the object is in equilibrium, the frictional force must point in the direction which results as a net force is zero.

Question 9.
The momentum of a system of particles is always conserved. True or false.
Answer:
True: The Linear momentum of the system is always a constant vector, as long as no external force are acting on it.

V. Numerical Problems:

Question 1.
A force of 50N acts on the object of mass 20kg shown in the figure. Calculate the acceleration of the object in x and y-direction.

Solution:
m = 20kg, F = 50N
Force can be resolved into 2 components.
m = 20kg
F_x = F cos θ = 50 cos 30 = \(\frac{50 \sqrt{3}}{2}\)\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
F_y = F sin θ = 50 sin 30 = 50 x \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) = 25N

Question 2.
A spider of mass 50 g is hanging on a string of a cobweb as shown in the figure. What is the tension in the string?
Solution:

Question 3.
What is the reading shown in spring balance?
Solution:

∵ Forces on both sides are equal the reading in the spring balance is zero.

(ii)

The spring is pulled by a force along the inclined plane so.
F = mg sin θ
= 2 x 9.8 x sin 30
= 9.8 x 2 x 1/2
F = 9.8 N

Question 4.
The physics books are stacked on each other in the sequence +1 volumes 1 and 2, +2 volumes 1 and 2 on a table, a) identify the forces acting on each book and draw the free body diagram, b) Identify the forces exerted by each books on the other.
Solution:

Force on book A
1) Downward gravitational force exerted by earth (m_A g)
2) Upward normal force (N_B) exerted by book B (N_B).

Force on book B
i) Downward gravitational force exerted by earth (m_B g)
ii) Downward force exerted by books A (N_A)
iii) Upward normal force exerted by book C (Nc).

Force on book C
i) Downward gravitational force exerted by earth (m_C g)
ii) Downward force exerted by books B (N_B)
iii) Upward normal force exerted by book D (N_D).

Force on book D

i) Downward gravitational force exerted by earth (m_D g)
ii) Downward force exerted by books C (N_c)
iii) Upward force exerted by the N_Table.

Question 5.
A bob attached to the string oscillates back and forth. Resolve the forces acting on the bob into components. What is the acceleration experience by the bob at an angle 0?
Solution:

(i) Gravitational force(mg) acting downwards.
(ii) Tension (T) exerted by the string on the bob whose position determines the direction of T.
The bob is moving is a circular arc and so it has centripetal acceleration. At points A and C bob comes to rest momentarily and then its velocity increases when move towards B.
Hence tangential acceleration is along the arc.

The gravitational force can be resolved into two components.
mg cos θ along the string
mg sin θ perpendicular to the string
At point A & C T=mg cos θ and at all other points T is greater than mg cos θ.
∴ Centripetal force = T – mg cos θ
∴ ma_c = T- mg cos θ
Centripetal acceleration
a_c = \(\frac { T – mg cos θ}{ 2 }\)m

Question 6.
Two masses m₁ and m₂ are connected with a string passing over a frictionless pulley fixed at the corner of the table as shown in the figure. The coefficient of static friction of mass m₁ with the table is µ_s. Calculate the minimum mass m₃ that may be placed on m₁ to prevent it from sliding. Check if m₁ = 15kg, m₂ = 10kg, m₃ = 25kg and µ_s = 0.2.

Solution:
(1) The mass m₁ and m₂ provides maximum static friction on the table
fS_(max) = µ_sN
= µ_s(m₁ + m₃)g
fS_(max) = 0.2(m₁ + m₃)g …. (1)
Tension T in the string provided by
= T = m₂g …. (2)
T < fs_(max) then m₁ and m₂ won’t move.
If m₃ is not present
T = fs (for just sliding)
When m₃ is placed on m₁ it won’t slide

(2) If m₁ = 15kg
m₂ = 10kg
m₃ = 25kg
µ_s = 0.2.
Then µ(m₁+m₃)g = 0.2(15±10)g
= 2.5 x 0.2g = 5 g =5g N
= 5g N
But m₂ g = 10g N
∵ m₂g = 10g N = T >µ_s(m₁ + m₃)g
∵ T > µs (m₁ + m₃)
m₁ + m₃ will slide on the table.

Question 7.
Calculate the acceleration of the bicycle of mass 25 kg as shown in fig 1 & 2.

Solution:
Case 1:
Resultant force =
forward force – Frictional force
= 500 – 400
F_R = 100N
F_R = ma = 100N
a = \(\frac { 100 }{ 25 }\)
a = 4 ms^-2

Case 2:
Resultant force = forward force – Frictional force = 400 – 400 = 0 N
a = 0.

Question 8.
Apply Lamis theorem on sling shot and calculate the Tension in each string?

Solution:

Question 9.
A foot ball player kicks a 0.8 kg ball and imparts it a velocity 12 ms^-1. The contact between foot and ball is only for one sixtieth of a second find the average kicking force.
Solution:
m = 0.8 kg
v = 12 ms^-1
t = \(\frac { 1 }{ 60 }\)S
F = ?
Change in momentum = impulse
P_f – P_i = F_t
mv – 0 = Ft

Question 10.
A stone of mass 2kg is attached to a string of length 1m. The string can withstand a maximum tension of 200N, What is the maximum speed that stone can have during the whirling motion.
Solution:
m = 2 kg
I = 1 m = r
T = F = 200 N
V = ?
During whirling motion, the force acting on the stone is a centripetal force which provides the necessary Tension in the string.
T = F = \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)
200 = \(\frac{2 \times v^{2}}{1}\)
V_max = 10 ms^-1

Question 11.
Imagine that the gravitational force between Earth and Moon is provided by an invisible string that exists between the Moon and Earth. What is the tension that, exists in this invisible string due to earth’s centripetal force?
Solution:
Mass of moon = 7.34 x 10²² kg
Distance between the moon and earth = 3.84 x 10⁸ m

Question 12.
Two bodies of masses 15kg and 10kg are connected with light string kept on a smooth surface. A horizontal force F = 500N is applied to a 15kg as shown in the figure. Calculate the tension acting in the string.
Answer:

Let m₁ = 15kg
m₂ = 10kg
F = 500N
All the two blocks move with a common acceleration (a) under the force F = 500 N.
F = (m₁+m₂)

Question 13.
People often say “for every action there is an equivalent opposite reaction”. Here they meant ‘action of a human’. Is it correct to apply Newton’s third law to human actions? What is mean by ‘action’ in Newton’s third law? Give your arguments based on Newton’s laws.
Solution:
Newton’s third law is applicable to only humans actions that involve physical force. Third law is not applicable to humans’ psychological actions or thoughts.

Question 14.
A car takes a turn with velocity 50ms^-1 on the circular road of the radius of curvature 10m. Calculate the centrifugal force experienced by a person of mass 60kg inside the car?
Solution :
V = 50 ms^-1
r = 10m
centrifugal reaction = ?
m = 60kg
F = \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)
= \(\frac { 60×50×50 }{ 10 }\)
= 3 x 5 x 10³
F = 15,000 N

Question 15.
A long stick rests on the surface. A person standing 10m away from the stick with what minimum speed an object of mass 0.5 kg should he threw so that it hits the stick. (Coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.7)

Solution:
Force on the mass = μ_kN = μ_k mg
F = 0.7 x 0.5 x 9.8
F = 3.43 N
But F = ma
a = \(\frac { 3.43 }{ 0.5 }\)
= 6.86ms^-2
m = 0.5kg
W.K.T
v² – u² = 2as
|u²| = 2as
u = \(\sqrt{2 \times 6.86 \times 10}\)
= 11.71 ms^-2
Velocity with which the mass is thrown = 11.71 ms^-1

11th Physics Guide Laws of Motion Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
The concept “force causes motion” was given by –
(a) Galileo
(b) Aristotle
(c) Newton
(d) Joule
Answer:
(b) Aristotle

Question 2.
A body of 5 kg is moving with a velocity of 20m/s. If a force of 100 N is applied on it for 10s in the same direction as its velocity, what will now be the velocity of the body _______.
a) 2000 m/s
b) 220 m/s
c) 240 m/s
d) 260 m/s
Answer:
b) 220 m/s

Question 3.
The inability of objects to move on their own or change their state of motion is called as –
(a) force
(b) momentum
(c) inertia
(d) impulse
Answer:
(c) inertia

Question 4.
A force vector applied on a mass is represented as \(\vec { f }\) = 6\(\vec { i }\) – 8\(\vec { j }\) + 10\(\vec { k }\) and accelerates with 1ms^-2, what will be the mass of the body in kg _______.
a) 10\(\sqrt{2}\)
b) 20
c) 2\(\sqrt{10}\)
d) 10
Answer:
a) 10\(\sqrt{2}\)

Question 5.
A particle of mass m is at rest at the origin at time t = 0. It is subjected to force F(t)= F₀e^-bt in the x direction. Its speed v(t) is depicted by which of the following curves?

Answer:

Question 6.
If the brake is applied in the moving bus suddenly, passengers move forward is an example for –
(a) Inertia of motion
(b) Inertia of direction
(c) Inertia of rest
(d) back pull
Answer:
(a) Inertia of motion

Question 7.
Two masses m₁ and m₂ are connected by a light string passing over a smooth pulley. When set free m₁ moves down by 2m in 2s the ratio of m₁/m₂ is _______.
a) 9/7
b) 11/ 9
c) 13/11
d) 15/13
Answer:
b) 11/ 9

Question 8.
Two blocks are connected by a string as shown in the figure. The upper block is hung by another string. A force ‘F’ applied on the upper string produces an acceleration of 2ms^-2. in the upward direction in both the blocks. If T and T¹ in both parts of the string then _______.

a) T = 84N; T¹ = 50N
b) T = 70N; T¹ = 70N
c) T = 84N; T¹ = 60N
d) T = 70N; T¹ = 60N
Answer:
c) T = 84N; T¹ = 60N

Question 9.
Four identical blocks each of mass m linked by threads as shown. IF the system moves with constant acceleration under the influence of force F, the Tension T² _______.

a) F
b) F/2
c) 2F
d) F/4
Answer:
b) F/2

Question 10.
Rate of change of momentum of an object is equal to –
(a) acceleration
(b) work done
(c) force
(d) impulse
Answer:
(c) force

Question 11.
A block of mass 10 kg is pushed on a smooth inclined plane of inclination 30°, so that it has an acceleration 2ms^-2. The applied force is _______.
a) 50 N
b) 60 N
c) 70 N
d) 80 N
Answer:
c) 70 N

Question 12.
Two blocks of masses 6 kg and 3 kg are connected by the string as shown over a frictionless pulley. The acceleration of the system is _______.

a) 4 ms^-2
b) 2 ms^-2
c) Zero
d) 6 ms^-2
Answer:
c) Zero

Question 13.
The acceleration of the systems shown in the figure is _______.

a) 1 ms^-2
b) 2 ms^-2
c) 3 ms^-2
d) 4 ms^-2
Answer:
a) 1 ms^-2

Question 14.
A uniform rope of length L is pulled by constant force P as shown, The Tension in the rope at a distance x from the end where the force is applied _______.

a) P
b) p[a – \(\frac { x }{ L }\) ]
c) px/L
d) p(1 + \(\frac { x }{ L }\) )
Answer:
b) p[a – \(\frac { x }{ L }\) ]

Question 15.
The law which is valid in both inertial and non-inertial frame is –
(a) Newton’s first law
(b) Newton’s second law
(c) Newton’s third law
(d) none
Answer:
(c) Newton’s third law

Question 16.
One end of a string of length / is connected to a particle of mass m and the other to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in a circle with speed v the net force on the particle (directed towards centre) is _______.
a) T
b) T – \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)
c) T + \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)
d) 0
Answer:
a) T

Question 17.
A block is kept on a frictionless inclined surface with the angle of inclination α. The incline is given an acceleration ‘a’ to keep the block stationary. Then a is equal to _______.

a) g
b) g tan α
c) g / tan α
d) g cosec α
Answer:
b) g tan α

Question 18.
The action and reaction forces acting on –
(a) same body
(b) different bodies
(c) either same or different bodies
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) different bodies

Question 19.
If an elevator moving vertically up with an acceleration g, the force entered on the floor by a passenger of mass M is _______.
a) mg
b) 1 / 2 mg
c) zero
d) 2 mg
Answer:
d) 2 mg

Question 20.
A man of weight 80 kg, stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a uniform acceleration of 5 ms^-2. What would be the reading on the scale? [g = 10 ms^-2].
a) 400 N
b) 1200 N
c) 800 N
d) zero
Answer:
b) 1200 N

Question 21.
A person is standing in an elevator in which situation he find his weight more than the actual weight _______.
a) the elevator moves upwards with constant acceleration
b) the elevator moves downwards with constant acceleration
c) the elevator moves upwards with uniform velocity
d) the elevator moves downwards with uniform velocity
Answer:
b) the elevator moves downwards with constant acceleration

Question 22.
Newton’s second law gives –
(a) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}} \propto \frac{d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
(b) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=\frac{d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
(c) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=m \vec{a}\)
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 23.
A mass of 1 kg is suspended by a string. Another string C is connected to its lower end (as in the figure). If a sudden jerk is given to c, then _______.

a) The portion AB of the string break
b) The portion BC of the string will break
c) The mass will be rotating
d) none of the above
Answer:
a) The portion AB of the string break

Question 24.
In the above questions, if the string c is stretched slowly then _______.
a) The portion AB of the string break
b) The portion BC of the string will break
c) The mass will be rotating
d) none of the above
Answer:
a) The portion AB of the string break

Question 25.
As shown in the figure, the tension in the horizontal card is 30N. The weight w and the tension in the string OA in Newton are _______.

a) 30, \(\sqrt{3}\), 30
b) 30\(\sqrt{3}\), 60
c) 60\(\sqrt{3}\), 30
d) none of the above
Answer:
b) 30\(\sqrt{3}\), 60

Question 26.
A constant retarding force of 50 N is applied to a body of mass 20 kg moving initially with a speed of 15 ms^-1. How long does the body take to stop?
(a) 0.75 s
(b) 1.33 s
(c) 6 s
(d) 35 s
Answer:
Acceleration a = \(\frac{-F}{m}\) = \(\frac{50}{20}\) = – 2.5 ms^-2
u = l5 ms^-1
v = 0
t = ?
v = u + at
0 = 15 – 2.5t
t = \(\frac{15}{2.5}\) = 6s

Question 27.
A block of mass 10 kg is suspended through two light spring balances as in figure.

a) both scales will read 10 kg
b) both scales will read 5 kg
c) the upper scale will read 10 kg and the lower zero
d) the reading may be anything but their sum will be 10 kg
Answer:
a) both scales will read 10 kg

Question 28.
Two blocks A and B of masses 2m and m respectively are connected by a massless and inextensible string. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring as in figure. The magnitude of the acceleration of A and B after the string is cut, are respectively.

a) g, g/2
b) g/2, g
c) g, g
d) g/2, g/2
Answer:
b) g/2, g

Question 29.
Choose the correct statement _______.
a) The frictional forces are dependent on the roughness of the surface.
b) The kinetic friction is proportional to normal reaction
c) The friction is independent of area of contact
d) All statements are correct
Answer:
d) All statements are correct

Question 30.
When an object of mass m slides on a frictionless surface inclined at an angle θ, then the normal force exerted by the surface is-
(a) g cos θ
(b) mg cos θ
(c) g sin θ
(d) mg tan θ
Answer:
(b) mg cos θ

Question 31.
Two cars of unequal masses are similar types. If they are moving at the same initial speed, the minimum stopping distance _______.
a) is smaller for the heavier car
b) is smaller for the lighter car
c) is same for both car
d) depends on volume of the car
Answer:
c) is same for both car

Question 32.
An ice block is kept on an inclined plane of angle of 30°. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the inclined plane is \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\). The acceleration of the block is _______.
a) zero
b) 2 ms^-2
c) 1.5 ms^-2
d) 5 ms^-2
Answer:
d) 5 ms^-2

Question 33.
Starting from rest a body slides down at 45° inclined plane in twice the time, it takes to slide down the same distance in the absence of friction. The coefficient of friction between the body and the inclined plane is __________.
a) 0.33
b) 0.25
c) 0.75
d) 0.80
Answer:
c) 0.75

Question 34.
A uniform metal chain if placed on a rough table such that the one end of the chain hangs down over the edge of the table. When one-third of its length hangs over the edge, the chain starts sliding. Then the coefficient of static friction is _______.
a) 3/4
b) 1/4
c) 2/3
d) 1/2
Answer:
d) 1/2

Question 35.
If two masses m₁ and m₂ (m₁ > m₂) tied to string moving over a frictionless pulley, then the acceleration of masses –
(a) \(\frac{\left(m_{1}-m_{2}\right)}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\) g
(b) \(\frac{m_{1}+m_{2}}{\left(m_{1}-m_{2}\right)}\) g
(c) \(\frac{2 m_{1} m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\) g
(d) \(\frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{2 m_{1} m_{2}}\) g
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\left(m_{1}-m_{2}\right)}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\) g

Question 36.
While walking on ice one should take small steps to avoid slipping. This is because smaller steps ensure _______.
a) large friction
b) smaller friction
c) larger normal force
d) smaller normal force
Answer:
c) larger normal force

Question 37.
A box is placed on inclined plane and has to be pushed down. The angle of inclination is _______.
a) equal to angle of friction
b) more than angle of friction
c) equal to angle repose
d) less than angle of repose
Answer:
d) less than angle of repose

Question 38.
Three masses in contact is as shown above. If force F is applied to mass m₁ then the contact force acting on mass m₂ is –
(a) \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}}\)
(b) \(\frac{m_{1} F}{\left(m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}\right)}\)
(c) \(\frac{\left(m_{2}+m_{3}\right) F}{\left(m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}\right)}\)
(d) \(\frac{m_{3} \mathrm{F}}{m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{\left(m_{2}+m_{3}\right) F}{\left(m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}\right)}\)

Question 39.
A block B is placed on block A. The mass block B is less than the mass of block friction that exists between the blocks whereas the ground on which block A is placed is taken to be smooth. A horizontal force ‘F’ increasing linearly with time beings to act on B. The acceleration a_A and a_B of blocks A and B respectively are plotted against Y. The correctly plotted graph is _______.

Answer:

Question 40.
Two blocks of mass m₁ 6 kg and m₂ = 3 kg as in figure coefficient of friction between m₁, and m₂ and between m₁ and surface is 0.5 and 0.4 respectively. The maximum horizontal force to can be applied to the mass m₁ so that they move without separation is _______.

a) 41 N
b) 61 N
c) 81 N
d) 101 N
Answer:
c) 81 N

II. Additional Questions:

Question 1.
Identify the internal and external forces acting on the following systems.
a) Earth alone as a system
b) Earth and sun as a system
c) Our body as a system white walking
d) our body and earth as a system
Solution:
(a) Earth alone as a system:

Earth orbits the sun due to the gravitational attraction of the sun. If we consider earth as a system, then the sun’s gravitational force is an external force. If the moon is also taken into account, it also exerts an external force on earth.

(b) (Earth + sun) as a system:

In this case, there are two internal forces which form action and reaction pair, i.e gravitational force on the sun by earth & vice versa.

(c) Our body as a system:
While walking, we exert a force on earth and earth exerts an equal and opposite force on our body. If our body is considered as a system then the force exerted by the earth on our body is external.

(d) Our body + earth as a system.
In this case, there are two internal forces present in the system one is the force exerted by our body on earth and the other is the equal and opposite force exerted by the earth on our body.

Question 2.
When a cricket player catches the ball he pulls his hands gradually is the directions of the ball’s motion. Why?
Answer:
If the man stops his hands soon after catching the ball the ball comes to rest quickly. It means that the momentum of the ball is brought to rest very quickly. So the average force acting on the body will be very large. Due to the large average force, the hands will get hurt. To avoid this the player brings the ball to rest slowly.

Question 3.
An impulse is applied to a moving object with a force at an angle of 20° w.r.t. velocity vector, what is the angle between the impulse vector and change in momentum vector?
Answer:
Impulse and change in momentum are in the same direction. Therefore the angle between these two vectors is zero.

Question 4.
Why a high jumper after crossing the bar made to fall on a spongy floor instead of the cemented floor.
Answer:
After high jumping, landing on a cemented floor is more dangerous than jumping on a spongy surface. A spongy surface brings the body to rest slowly than the cemented floor So that the average force experienced by the body will be lesser.

Question 5.
Obtain an expression for centrifugal force acting on a man on the surface of the earth.
Answer:

Even though earth is treated as an inertial frame, it is actually not so. Earth spins about its own axis with an angular velocity co Any object at the surface of the earth (rotational frame) experiences a centrifugal force. The centrifugal force appears to act exactly in opposite direction from the axis of rotation.

The centrifugal force on a man standing on the surface of earth is = mrω² where r is the perpendicular distance of man from the axis of rotation. From fig. r = R cos θ where R= radius of earth.
θ = latitude of the earth where man is standing

Question 6.
A stone when thrown on a glass window smashes the window pane to pieces, but a bullet from the gun passes through, by making a clean hole. Why?
Answer:
Due to small speed the stone remains in contact with the window pane for a long time. It transfer its motion to the pane and break them into pieces. But the particles of window pane near a hole are unable to share the fast motion of the bullet and so remain undisturbed.

Question 7.
China wares are wrapped in a straw paper before packing why?
Answer:
The straw paper between the china-wares increases the time of experiencing the jerk during transportation. Hence they strike against each other with less force and are less likely to get damaged.

Question 8.
Why it is necessary to bend knees while jumping from greater height?
Answer:
During the jump, our feet comes to rest at once and for this smaller time a larger force a acts on feet. If we bend the knees slowly, the value of time impact increases and less force acts on our feet. So we get less hurt.

Question 9.
Why is it difficult to drive a nail into a wooden block without supporting it?
Answer:
When we hit the nail with the hammer the nail and unsupported block together move forward as a single system. There is no force of reaction. When the block is rested against support, the reaction of the support holds the 14. block in position and nail is driven into the block.

Question 10.
Why is static friction called a self-adjusting force?
Answer:
As applied force increases, the static friction also increases and becomes equal to the applied force. That is why static friction is called a self-adjusting force.

Question 11.
Carts with rubber tyres are easier to fly than those with iron wheels. Why?
Answer:
The coefficient of friction between rubber tyres and road is much smaller than that between iron wheels and road.

Question 12.
Why ball bearings are used in machinery?
Answer:
By using ball bearings between the moving parts of the machinery the sliding friction gets converted into rolling friction. The rolling friction is much lesser than the sliding friction. This reduces power dissipation.

Question 13.
A bird is sitting on the floor of a closed glass cage and the cage is in the hand of a girl. Will the girl experience any change in weight of the cage when the bird –
(i) starts flying in the cage with a constant velocity
(ii) flies upwards with acceleration
(iii) fies downwards with acceleration.
Solution:
In a closed cage, the inside air is bound with a cage.
(i) As the acceleration is zero, there is no change in the weight of the cage.
(ii) while flying upwards R – Mg = Ma
R = M (a+g)
The cage will appear heavier

(iii) while flying downwards
Mg – R – Ma
R = M (g – a)
The cage will appear lighter.

Question 14.
A long rope is hanging, passing over a pulley. Two monkeys of equal weight climb up from the opposite ends of the rope. One of them climbs up more rapidly relative to rope. Which monkey will reach the top first? Pulley is frictionless and the rope is mass less and inextensible.
Answer:
There is no external force which may provide momentum to any monkey. The monkeys themselves give equal momenta to each other. Therefore two monkeys will climb up the rope at the same rate relative to earth. As their masses are equal they will reach the top simultaneously.

Question 15.
A light string passing over a smooth pulley connects two blocks of masses m1 and m2 (vertically). If the acceleration of the system is g/8. Find the ratio of the two masses.
Answer:

Question 16.
Briefly explains how a horse is able to pull a cart?
Answer:

Consider a cart connected to a horse by a string. The horse while pulling the cart produces a Tension T in the string in their forward direction (action). The cart in turn pulls the horse by an equal force T in opposite direction.

Initially, the horse presses the ground with a force ‘F’ in an inclined direction. The reaction ‘R’ of the ground acts on the horse in the opposite direction.

The reaction ‘R’ can be resolved into two perpendicular components.
1) The vertical components ‘V balances the weight of the horse.
2) The horizontal components ‘H’ helps the horse to move forward.
Let F be the force of friction.
The horse moves forward if H > T.
In that case net force acting on horse = H – T
If m is mass of horse and ‘a’ be its acceleration.
H – T = ma → (1)
The cart moves forward if T > F.
In this case, net force acting on the cart = T – F.
The weight of the cart is balanced by the reaction of the ground acting on it.
If M is the man of cart and a is its acceleration T-F = Ma -»(2).
Adding (1) & (2)
H – F = (M+m)a
a = \(\frac { H-F }{ M+m }\)
obviously a is positive of H-F is positive or H > F. Thus the system moves.

Question 17.
A man of mass m is standing on the floor of a lift. Find his apparent weight when the lift is (i) moving upwards with uniform acceleration ‘a’ (ii) moving downwards with uniform acceleration a (iii) at rest or moving with uniform velocity (v) (iv) falling freely. Take acceleration due to gravity as g.
Answer:
Consider a man of mass ‘m’ standing on a weighing machine placed in a lift. The actual weight of the man is mg. It acts vertically downwards through center of gravity ‘G’ of the man, which acts in a weighting machine which offers a normal reaction ‘R’ read by a machine.
So R is the apparent weight of the man.

Case 1:
When the lift moves upwards with an acceleration ‘a’
The net upward force on the man = R – mg = ma
Apparent weight R = m(g+a)
So when the lift accelerates upwards, the apparent weight of man increases

Case 2:
When lift moves downwards with acceleration ‘a’ Net downward force: mg – R = ma R = m(g – a)
So when lift accelerates down, the apparent weight of man decreases.

Case 3:
When lifting at rest or moving with uniform velocity.
So acceleration ‘a’ = 0
Net force on man is R – mg = mx 0
R – mg = 0
R = mg
Apparent weight = actual weight

(iv) when lift falls freely a = g
the net downward force mg – R = ma
mg – R = mg
R = 0
The apparent weight of the man equal to zero.
Hence the person develops a feeling of weightlessness when he falls freely under gravity.

Question 18.
Derive the law of conservation of linear momentum from Newton’s third law of motion.
Answer:
Consider two bodies A and B of masses m₁ and m₂ moving in the same directions along the same line with velocities u₁ and u₂ respectively (U₁>u₂).
They collide for a time At. After the collision, their velocities be v₁ and v₂

During collision the body A exerts a force F^BA on B and the body B exerts a force F^AB on A such that
F^BA = – F^AB
Impulse of F^AB = \(\overline{F}\)_AB ∆t = change in momentum is A
\(\overline{F}\)_BA ∆t = m₁\(\overline{v}\)₁ – m₁\(\overline{u}\)₁
Impulse of F_BA = \(\overline{F}\)_BA ∆t = change in momentum

Total linear momentum after collision = Total linear momentum before collision
This proves the law of conservation of linear momentum.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 9 Government Organisation Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 9 Government Organisation

11th Commerce Guide Government Organisation Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The share capital of the government company must not be less than ……………
a) 49%
b) 51%
c) 50%
d) 25%
Answer:
b) 51%

Question 2.
Airport Authority of India is a public enterprise ………………… Identify the form of organisation
a) Statutory Corporations
b) Departmental Undertakings
c) Multi-National Corporations
d) State Owned Company
Answer:
b) Departmental Undertakings

Question 3.
The oldest form of organisation in public sector ……………
a) Public Sector Undertakings
b) Departmental Undertakings
c) Multi National Corporations
d) Statutory Corporation
Answer:
b) Departmental Undertakings

Question 4.
A Government company purchases shares in the name of …………….
a) Prime Minister
b) President
c) Chief Justice of India
d) State Chief Minister
Answer:
b) President

Question 5.
The primary objective of the state enterprises is to …………………….
a) Earn profit
b) Provide Employment
c) Serve the People
d) All the Above
Answer:
c) Serve the People

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
State the different types of public sector enterprises.
Answer:

• Departmental Undertakings
• Public Corporation
• Government Company

Question 2.
What is the basic feature of a Departmental undertaking?
Answer:

1. Formation: A departmental undertaking is established either as a separate full-fledged ministry or as a sub-division of a ministry (i.e. department) of the Government.
2. No Separate Entity: A departmental undertaking does not have an independent entity distinct from the Government.

Question 3.
Give two examples for each of the following.
Answer:

1. Private sector enterprises – Reliance Industries & Hindustan Lever Limited
2. Global enterprises – Tata; Mahindra & Mahindra
3. Public enterprises – Coal India Ltd &Steel Authority of India

Question 4.
State the form of public enterprises which is most suitable for projects related to National Security.
Answer:
Strategic industries like defence, and atomic power cannot be better managed other than government departments. Departmental undertakings can maintain secrecy in their work.

Question 5.
The Industrial Policy Resolution 2001 exclusively reserved for few industries for the public sector. Name these industries.
Answer:
Arms, ammunition and allied items of defence equipment, Atomic energy, Coal and lignite, Mineral oils, Minerals specified in the schedule to the Atomic Energy order 1953, Railway transport.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
List the areas where the state or central ownership is a preferred form of business organisation. Justify your choice of areas.
Answer:

1. Coal Miners Authority Ltd.
2. Steel Authority of India Ltd.
3. Indian Telephone Industries
4. Tamil Nadu State Corporation Ltd.

A company owned by the central and/or State Government is called a Government Company. Either whole of the capital or the majority of the shares is owned by the Government.

Question 2.
List the names of some enterprises under the public sector and classify them.
Answer:

Question 3.
Define Departmental undertakings.
Answer:
The department form of organisation is the oldest form of organisation. Under the departmental form of organisation, a public enterprise is run as a separate full-fledged ministry or as a major subdivision of a department of the Government. For example, the Indian Railways are managed by the Ministry of Railways.

Question 4.
What is meant by Government Company?
Answer:
The departmental form of organisation of managing state enterprises is the oldest form of organisation. Under the departmental form of organisation, a public enterprise is run as a separate full-fledged ministry or as a major subdivision of a department of the Government.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of Departmental undertaking?
Answer:
Meaning:
Department form of organisation of managing state enterprises is the oldest form of organisation.
Advantages:
Following are the advantages of the departmental undertaking.
Easy Formation:
It is easy to set up a departmental undertaking. The departmental undertaking is created by an administrative decision of the Government, involving no legal formalities for its formation.

Direct and Control of Parliament or State Legislature:
The departmental undertaking is directly responsible to the Parliament or the State legislature through its overall head i.e. the minister concerned.

Secrecy Maintained:
Strategic industries like defence and atomic power cannot be better managed other than government departments. Department undertakings can maintain secrecy in their work.

Lesser Burden of Tax on Public Earnings:
Departmental undertakings are entirely paid into the Government treasury, resulting in a lesser tax burden on the public.

Instrument of Social Change:
The government can promote economic and social justice through departmental undertakings. Hence, a departmental undertaking can be used by the Government, as an instrument of social change.

Lesser Risk of Misuse of Public Money:
As the departmental undertaking is subject to budgeting, accounting and procedures of the government; the risk of misuse of public money is relatively less.

Guided by Rules and Regulations of the Ministry:
The officers of the departmental undertaking are under the supervision of the direct administrative control of the ministry. They are guided by the rules and regulations of the ministry, framed with a focus on public welfare.

Disadvantages:
Following are the major limitations of the departmental undertaking.

Red-tapism:
There are too many procedures which result in a delay. The commercial organisation cannot afford delay in taking decisions.

Incidence of Additional Taxation:
Losses incurred by a departmental enterprise are met out of the treasury. This very often necessitates additional taxation the burden of which falls on the common man.

Lack of Competition:
Civil Servants are given control of these undertakings who may not have a business outlook or commercial experience. So, they run the undertaking in their own fashion without considering the sovereignty of the
consumers.
Casual Approach to Work:
As officers of a departmental undertaking are subject to frequent transfers; they develop a sense of a casual approach to work. As a result, the operational efficiency of the undertaking suffers a lot.

Government Interference:
There are excessive government interference and control in department organisation. These undertakings are not given the freedom to decide their own policies. Centralised control leads to delay in action. Red-tapism and bureaucracy have become the limiting features of these organizations.

Lack of Professional Management and Fear of Criticism:
A departmental undertaking is managed by civil servants, who do not possess professional management skills. Moreover, these managers could not afford to be innovative, because of a fear of criticism by the minister or the Parliament.

Financial Dependence:
A departmental undertaking is economically and financially dependent on the Government’s budgetary allocations. As such, it cannot have its own independent long-range investment decisions, which may bring enormous prosperity to the undertaking.

Question 2.
What are the features of a public corporation? (Any 5)
Answer:
1. Special Statute:
A public corporation is created by a special Act of the Parliament or the State Legislature. The Act defines its powers, objectives, functions, and relations with the ministry and the Parliament (or State Legislature).

2. Separate Legal Entity:
A public corporation is a separate legal entity with perpetual succession and a common seal. It has an existence, independent of the Government. It can own property; can make contracts and file suits, in its own name.

3. Capital Provided by the Government:
The capital of a public corporation is provided by the Government or by agencies controlled by the government.- However, many public corporations have also begun to raise money from the capital market.

4. Financial Autonomy:
A public corporation enjoys financial autonomy. It prepares its own budget; and has the authority to retain and utilize its earnings for its business.

5. Management by Board of Directors: Its management is vested in a Board of Directors, appointed or nominated by the Government. But there is no Governmental interference in the day-to-day working of the corporation.

Question 3.
What are the features of a Government Company? (Any 5)
Answer:
Registration:
Under the Companies Act A Government company is formed through registration under the Companies Act, 1956; and is subject to the provisions of this Act, like any other company. However, the Central Government may direct that any of the provisions of the Companies Act shall not apply to a Government company or shall apply with certain modifications.

Executive Decision of Government:
A Government company is created by an executive decision of the Government, without seeking the approval of the Parliament or the State Legislature.

Separate Legal Entity:
A Government Company is a legal entity separate from the Government. It can acquire property; can make contracts and can file suits, in its own name.

Whole or Majority Capital Provided by Government:
The whole or majority (at least 51%) of the capital of a Government company is provided by the Government, but the revenues of the company are not deposited into the treasury.

Majority of Government Directors:
Being in possession of a majority of share capital, the Government has the authority to appoint a majority of directors, on the Board of Directors of a government company. vi. Own Staff A Government company has its own staff; except Government officials who are sent to it on deputation. Its employees are not governed by civil service rules.

Question 4.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of a public corporation?
Answer:
Advantages:
1. Bold Management due to Operational Autonomy:
A public corporation enjoys internal operational autonomy; as it is free from Governmental control. It can, therefore, run in a business-like manner. Management can take bold decisions involving experimentation in its lines of activities, taking advantage of business situations.

2. Legislative Control:
Affairs of a public corporation are subject to scrutiny by Committees of Parliament or State Legislature. The Press also keeps a watchful eye on the working of a public corporation. This keeps a check on the unhealthy practices on the part of the management of the public corporation.

3. Qualified and Contented Staff:
The public corporation offers attractive service conditions to its staff. As such it is able to attract qualified staff.

Disadvantages:
1. Autonomy and Flexibility, Only in Theory:
Autonomy and flexibility advantages of a public corporation exist only in theory. In practice, there is a lot of interference in the working of a public corporation by ministers, government officers, and other politicians.

2. Misuse of Monopolistic Power:
Public corporations often enjoy a monopoly in their field of operation. As such, on the one hand, they are indifferent to consumer needs and problems; and on the other hand, often do not hesitate to exploit consumers.

Question 5.
What are the features of the Departmental Organisation? (Any 5)
Answer:
1. Formation: A departmental undertaking is established either as a separate full-fledged ministry or as a sub-division of a ministry (i.e. department) of the Government.

2. No Separate Entity: A departmental undertaking does not have an independent entity distinct from the Government.

3. Ultimate Responsibility: The ultimate responsibility for the management of a departmental undertaking lies with the minister concerned who is responsible to the Parliament or State Legislature for the affairs of the departmental undertaking. The minister, in turn, delegates his authority downwards to various other management levels, in the departmental undertaking.

4. Governmental Financing: The departmental undertaking is financed through annual budget appropriations by the Parliament or the State Legislature. The revenues of the undertaking are paid into the government treasury.

5. Accounting and Audit: The departmental undertaking is subject to the normal budgeting, accounting, and audit procedures, which are applicable to all Government departments.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Pdf Chapter 1 Introduction to Computers Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Computers

11th Computer Science Guide Introduction to Computers Text Book Questions and Answers

Section A

Book Evaluation

Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
First generation computers used
a) Vacuum tubes
b) Transistors
c) Integrated circuits
d) Microprocessors
Answer:
a) Vacuum tubes

Question 2.
Name the volatile memory
a) ROM
b) PROM
c) RAM
d) EPROM
Answer:
c) RAM

Question 3.
Identify the output device
a) Keyboard
b) Memory
c) Monitor
d) Mouse
Answer:
c) Monitor

Question 4.
Identify the- input device
a) Printer
b) Mouse
c) Plotter
d) Projector
Answer:
b) Mouse

Question 5.
________ Output device is used for printing building plan, flex board, etc.
a) Thermal printer
b) Plotter
c) Dot matrix
d) inkjet printer
Answer:
b) Plotter

Question 6.
In ATM machines, which one of the following is used
a) Touch Screen
b) Speaker
c) Monitor
d) Printer
Answer:
a) Touch Screen

Question 7.
When a system restarts, which type of booting is used?
a) Warm booting
b) Cold booting
c) Touch boot
d) Real boot
Answer:
a) Warm booting

Question 8.
Expand POST
a) Post on self Test
b) Power on Software Test
c) Power on Self Test
d) Power on Self Text
Answer:
c) Power on Self Test

Question 9.
Which one of the foUowing is the main memory?
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) Flash drive
d) Hard disk
Answer:
b) RAM

Question 10.
Which generation of computer used IC’s?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
Answer:
c) Third

Section – B

Book Evaluation

Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is a computer?
Answer:
Computer is an Electronic Machine, capable of performing basic operations like addition, multiplication, division etc. Computer accepts data as input, process it, produce output and stores it for future.

Question 2.
Distinguish between data and information
Answer:

Question 3.
What are the components of a CPU?
Answer:
The Components of the CPU are:

1. Control Unit
2. Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)
3. Memory Unit.

Question 4.
What is the function of an ALU?
Answer:
The ALU performs operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, division and logical operations.

Question 5.
Write the functions of control unit.
Answer:
The control unit controls the flow of data between the CPU, memory I/O devices. It also controls the entire operations of a computer.

Question 6.
What is the function of memory?
Answer:
The memory is used to store the data for processing and for future reference.

Question 7.
Differentiate Input and output unit.
Answer:
Input unit:

• An input device feeds information to a computer system for processing.
• Input devices only allow for the input of data to a computer.
• It is a peripheral device used to provide data and control signals to an information processing system such as a computer.
• Example: keyboard, mouse.

Output unit:

• The output device reproduces or displays the results of that processing.
• Output devices only receive the output of data from another device.
• It is a unit which sends data from the computer to another device.
• Example: printer, monitor.

Question 8.
Distinguish Primary and Secondary memory.
Answer:
The primary memory is used to temporarily store the programs and data to execute currently. It is
volatile in nature.
The secondary memory is used to store the data permanently. It is non-volatile.

Section – C

Book Evaluation

Explain in brief

Question 1.
What are the characteristics of a computer?
Answer:
Characteristics of Computer

• Speed : Very high speed ie. more than 1G“12 second.
• Accuracy : Very high accuracy even with high speed.
• Storage ; Computer can store any volume of data for a long time.
• Diligence : Computer can work for hours without any break and creating error. It is suitable for repetitive jobs.
• Versatility : Computer can perform variety of task.
• Power of remembering : It can remember data for us.
• No IQ : Computer itself having no thinking power. It works based on the given instruction.
• No Feeling : Computer does not have emotions, knowledge, experience, feeling.

Question 2.
Write the applications of computer.
Answer:
The various applications of computers are:

• Business – It is used in. business for Payroll preparation, Sales analysis, Budgeting, Financial forecasting, Managing employees database and Maintenance of stocks etc.
• Education – It is used for online teaching with CBTs and WBTs,
• Marketing – It is used for Selling & Promoting product.
• Banking – It is used for Home banking with internet,- ATM etc.
• Insurance – It is used to transact insurance operation.
• Communication – Email, chatting etc,
• Health Care – ECG’s, radiotherapy like monitoring devices.
• Military – It builds the links between the soldiem and commanders through the satellite.
• Engineering Design – Machine design, building plan, Interior design etc.

Question 3.
What is an input device? Give two examples.
Answer:

• Input device is used to feed any form of data to the computer for further processing.
• Keyboard – To feed text, numbers, special characters etc..
• Mouse – Pointing device ie. to select an item on the screen.
• Bar Code Reader – Scans the information on the bar codes transmits to the computer.

Question 4.
Name any three output devices.
Answer:

• Monitor – To display the information.
• Printer – It is used to print the information on papers.
• Plotter – It is used to produce graphical output like building plan on paper.
• Speaker – It produces voice output.

Question 5.
Differentiate optical and Laser mouse.
Answer:

Question 6.
Write short note on impact printer.
Answer:
The impact printers print with striking of hammers or pins on ribbon. These printers can print on multi-part papers. Dot Matrix printers and Line matrix printers are impact printers.

Question 7.
Write the characteristics of sixth generation.
Answer:
The characteristics of sixth generation computers are:

• Parallel and Distributed computing
• Computers have become smarter, faster and smaller
• Development of robotics
• Natural Language Processing
• Development of Voice Recognition Software.

Question 8.
Write the significant features of monitor.
Answer:
Monitor is the most commonly used output device to display the information. Pictures on a monitor are formed with picture elements called Pixels.
Monitors may either be Monochrome or can be color Types of monitors:

• CRT (Cathode Ray Tube)
• LCD (Liquid Crystal Display)
• LED (Light Emitting Diodes).

Section – D

Book Evaluation

Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain the basic components of a computer with a neat diagram.
Answer:
The computer is the combination of hardware and software. Hardware is the physical component of a computer while software is the set of programs or instructions. Both hardware and software together make the computer system to function. Every task given to a computer follows an Input- Process- Output Cycle (IPO cycle).

The functional components of a computer

i) Input Unit ; Input unit is used to feed any form of data to the computer. Example: Keyboard, mouse, etc.
ii) Central Processing Unit: CPU is the major component which interprets and executes software instructions. It also controls the operation of all other components such as memory, input and output units.

The CPU has three components which are Control unit, Arithmetic and logic unit (ALU) and Memory unit.

iii) Arithmetic and Logic Unit : The ALU is. a part of the CPU where various computing functions are performed on data. The ALU performs arithmetic operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, division and logical operations.

iv) Control Unit : The control unit controls the flow of data between the CPU, memory and I/O devices. It also controls the entire operation of a computer.

v) Output Unit: An Output Unit is any hardware component that conveys information to users in an understandable form. Example: Monitor Printer etc.

vi) Memory Unit : The Memory Unit is of two types which are primary memory and secondary memory. The primary memory is used to temporarily store the programs and data when the instructions are ready to execute. The secondary memory is used to store the data permanently.

The Primary Memory is volatile, that is, the content is lost when the power supply is switched off. The Random Access Memory (RAM) is an example of a main memory.

The Secondary memory is non volatile, that is, the content is available even after the power supply is switched off. Hard disk, CD-ROM and DVD ROM are examples of secondary memory.

Question 2.
Discuss the various generations of computers.
Answer:
 

Question 3.
Explain the following
a) Inkjet Printer
b) Multimedia projector
c) Bar code / QR code Reader
Answer:
a) Inkjet Printers : Inkjet Printers use colour cartridges which combined Magenta, Yellow and Cyan inks to create color tones. A black cartridge is also used for monochrome output. Inkjet printers work by spraying ionised ink at a sheet of paper. The speed of Inkjet printers generally range from 1-20 PPM (Page Per Minute).

They use the technology of firing ink by heating it so that it explodes towards the paper in bubbles. An Inkjet printer can spread millions of dots of ink at the paper every single second.

b) Multimedia Projectors : Multimedia projectors are used to produce computer output on a big screen. These are used to display presentations in meeting halls or in classrooms.

c) Bar Code Reader: A Bar code is a pattern printed in lines of different thickness. The Bar code reader scans the information on the bar codes transmits to the Computer for further processing. The system gives fast and error free entry of information into the computer.

QR Code Reader : The QR (Quick response) code is the two dimension bar code which can be read by a camera and processed to interpret the image.

11th Computer Science Guide Introduction to Computers Additional Questions and Answers

Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Natural language processing is a component of ………………
(a) ULSI
(b) AI
(c) ENIAC
(d) OCR
Answer:
(b) AI

Question 2.
The Analytical Engine was invented in the year ________
a) 1837
b) 1937
c) 1847
d) 1873
Answer:
a) 1837

Question 3.
The main component of second-generation ………………
(a) vacuum tubes
(b) microprocessor
(c) integrated circuits
(d) transistor
Answer:
(d) transistor

Question 4.
Which led to the development of general-purpose computers?
a) Napier’s Bone
b) Analytical Engine
c) Slide Rule
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Analytical Engine

Question 5.
Period of fourth-generation ………………
(a) 1975 – 1980
(b) 1964 – 1975
(c) 1955 – 1964
(d) 1942 – 1955
Answer:
(a) 1975 – 1980

Question 6.
________ is the first known calculating device.
a) Napier’s Bone
b) Slide Rule
c) Punched Card
d) Abacus
Answer:
d) Abacus

Question 7.
Which word can be related to the inkjet printer ………………
(a) Airlines
(b) Piezoelectricity
(c) matrix
(d) plotter
Answer:
(b) Piezoelectricity

Question 8.
Based on various stages of development, computers can be categorized in to ________generations.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Answer:
d) 6

Question 9.
Which printer using the carbon papers ………………
(a) laser printer
(b) non – impact printers
(c) Impact printer
(d) all the above
Answer:
(c) Impact printer

Question 10.
The period of second generation is ________
a) 1942- 1955
b) 1955- 1964
c) 1964 – 1975
d) 1975-1980
Answer:
b) 1955- 1964

Question 11.
The retinal scanner uses the technique of ………………
(a) GUI
(b) UI
(c) Biometric
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Biometric

Question 12.
The period of fourth generation is ________
a) 1942- 1955
b) 1955- 1964
c) 1964- 1975
d) 1975- 1980
Answer:
d) 1975- 1980

Question 13.
The components of CPU ………………
(a) control unit
(b) ALU
(c) Memory unit
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 14.
The period of sixth generation is________
a) 1980 – till date
b) 1975 – 1980
c) 1964 – 1975
d) In future
Answer:
d) In future

Question 15.
Computer monitor displays the information in the form of ……………….
(a) vertical
(b) pictorial
(c) horizontal
(d) numeric
Answer:
(b) pictorial

Question 16.
________is a second-generation computer.
a) IBM 1401
b) IBM 1620
c) UNIVAC 1108
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 17.
Who invented analytical engine?
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) John von Newman
(c) Blaise pascal
(d) Dennis Richard
Answer:
(a) Charles Babbage

Question 18.
The weight of ENIAC was ________tons.
a) 27
b) 37
c) 28
d) 17
Answer:
a) 27

Question 19.
In which generation UNIVACI was used?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer:
(a) First

Question 20.
The ENIAC conusmed ________watts of power.
a) 150
b) 100
c) 1500
d) 15
Answer:
a) 150

Question 21.
IBM 1620 belongs to which computer generation of computers?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer:
(b) II

Question 22.
The main component used in second-generation computer is________
a) Transistors
b) Integrated Circuits
c) Vacuum Tube
d) Microprocessor
Answer:
a) Transistors

Question 23.
Honeywell 6000 series belongs to ……………… generation.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer:
(c) Third

Question 24.
The main component used in fourth-generation computer is________
a) Transistors
b) Integrated Circuits
c) Vacuum Tube
d) Microprocessor
Answer:
d) Microprocessor

Question 25.
NLP is a component of ………………
(a) AI
(b) Hardware
(c) Circuit
(d) Electronics
Answer:
(a) AI

Question 26.
The first operating system was developed during ________generation of computers.
a) first
b) second
c) third
d) fourth
Answer:
b) second

Question 27.
Which input device is a pointing device?
(a) Keyboard
(b) Monitor
(c) Mouse
(d) Scanner
Answer:
(c) Mouse

Question 28.
________language was used in first-generation computer.
a) Machine
b) Assembly
c) High Level
d) English
Answer:
a) Machine

Question 29.
Arithmetic and logical computation are done by ………………
(a) CU
(b) ALU
(c) BUS
(d) memory
Answer:
(b) ALU

Question 30.
________language was used in third generation computer.
a) Machine
b) Assembly
c) High Level
d) English
Answer:
c) High Level

Question 31.
Which conveys information to the user in an understandable form?
(a) Input unit
(b) CU
(c) Output unit
(d) Bus
Answer:
(c) Output unit

Question 32.
Portable computers were introduced in __________ generation.
.a) Third
b) Fifth
c) Fourth
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Fifth

Question 33.
CD – ROM, DVD – ROM, DVD – ROM are examples of which of the following memory.
(a) read / write
(b) volatile
(c) primary
(d) non-volatile
Answer:
(d) non-volatile

Question 34.
Artificial Inegeiligence introduced in ________generation.
a) Third
b) Fifth
c) Fourth
d) Second
Answer:
b) Fifth

Question 35.
Which one of the following is true?
(a) The no. of keys in any keyboard is always the same.
(b) All keyboard have strictly has the same layout.
(c) All keyboards are wired keyboards.
(d) All keyboards have alphabet and numeric keys.
Answer:
(d) All keyboards have alphabet and numeric keys.

Question 36.
_________ generation computers are capable of solving complex problems including decision making and logical reasoning,
a) Third
b) Fifth
c) Fourth
d) Second
Answer:
b) Fifth

Question 37.
Mechanical, optical and laser are types of which input device.
(a) Keyboard
(b) Mouse
(c) Scanner
(d) Printer
Answer:
(b) Mouse

Question 38.
The ENIAC was invented by________
a) J.Presper
b) John Mauchly
c) Both A and B
d) Charles Babbage
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 39.
Which one of the following mouse type has more than 3 buttons and can be programmed?
(a) Mechanical
(b) Optical
(c) Laser
(d) 3D
Answer:
(c) Laser

Question 40.
The ENIAC was developed in the year ________
a) 1947
c) 1942
b) 1943
d) 1843
Answer:
c) 1942

Question 41.
The device that reads the information directly into the computer’s memory and works like a Xerox machine is ………………
(a) plotter
(b) scanner
(c) touch screen
(d) trackball
Answer:
(b) scanner

Question 42.
________is a component of Artificial Intelligence.
a)Natural Language Processing
b) Parallel Processing
c) both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a)Natural Language Processing

Question 43.
The output device is similar to the upside-down design of a mouse ………………
(a) laser mouse
(b) optical mouse
(c) mechanical mouse
(d) trackball
Answer:
(d) trackball

Question 44,
The term “computer” is derived from the word ________
a) compute
b) calculate
c) process
d) None of these
Answer:
a) compute

Question 45.
Which of the following uses biometrics and a unique pattern of retinal blood vessels?
(a) Retinal track
(b) Fingerprint scanner
(c) Optical scanner
(d) Retinal scanner
Answer:
(d) Retinal scanner

Question 46.
Before 19th century, the person who performs calculation is called as ________
a) Computer
b) Calculator
c) Abacus
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Computer

Question 47.
The input device that detects characters printed or written on paper is ………………
(a) Voice input system
(b) Trackball
(c) Optical character reader
(d) 3D mouse
Answer:
(c) Optical character reader

Question 48.
________will not give meaning.
a) information
b) datum
c) data
d) None of these
Answer:
c) data

Question 49.
CCD stands for ………………
(a) Code Converting Device
(b) Code Change Device
(c) Change Code Device
(d) Charge-Coupled Device
Answer:
(d) Charge-Coupled Device

Question 50.
________is a processed fact.
a) information
b) datum
c) data
d) None of these
Answer:
a) information

Question 51.
……………… are picture elements.
(a) Picture Point
(b) Monitor
(c) Routers
(d) Pixels
Answer:
(d) Pixels

Question 52.
The________is the combination of hardware and software.
a) computer
b) analytical engine
c) calculator
d) all the above
Answer:
a) computer

Question 53.
The ……………… printer uses the same technology used by the photocopier.
(a) Inkjet
(b) dot matrix
(c) line
(d) laser
Answer:
(d) laser

Question 54.
________is the set of programs or instructions.
a) software
b) hardware
c) freeware
d) Malware
Answer:
a) software

Question 55.
Printer are of types.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 56.
Every task given to the computer follows ________ cycle.
a) Input-Process-Output
b) Output-Process-Input
c) Process-Output-Input
d) Input-Output-Process
Answer:
a) Input-Process-Output

Question 57.
Who is considered to be the father of computers?
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) John Von Nuemann
(c) John Napier
(d) Dennis Ritchie
Answer:
(a) Charles Babbage

Question 58.
________of a computer interprets and executes software instructions,
a) Input unit
b) Main Memory
c) Central Process Unit
d) Secondary Memory
Answer:
c) Central Process Unit

Question 59.
Who invented ENIAC?
(a) J. Presper Eckert
(b) J. Napier
(c) J. Van Neuman
(d) J. Mauchaley
Answer:
(a) J. Presper Eckert

Question 60.
The CPU has ________components.
a) 4
b) 3
c) 5
d) 2
Answer:
b) 3

Question 61.
Which is used as a component of second generation computers?
(a) Vacuum Tubes
(b) Transistor
(c) IC
(d) VLSI
Answer:
(b) Transistor

Question 62.
In ________ unit, various computing functions are performed on data.
a) Control unit
b) ALU
c) Memory unit
d) All the above
Answer:
b) ALU

Question 63.
Expand CPS.
(a) Correction Per Second
(b) Characters Per Second
(c) Calculations Per Second
(d) Cording Per Second
Answer:
(b) Characters Per Second

Question 64.
The ________ operations of ALU promote the decision-making ability of a computer.
a) arithmetic
b) logical
c) relational
d) increment/decrement
Answer:
b) logical

Question 65.
Which is the first known calculating device?
(a) Slide rule
(b) Rotating wheel calculator
(c) Abacus
(d) Daisywheel
Answer:
(c) Abacus

Question 66.
The ________ unit controls the flow of data between the CPU, memory, and I/O devices.
a) Control unit
b) ALU
c) Memory unit
d) Ali the above
Answer:
a) Control unit

Question 67.
Artificial Intelligence was introduced in which generation of computers?
(a) V
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer:
(a) V

Question 68.
The memory is of ________ types
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer:
a) 2

Question 69.
The ________ memory is used to temporarily store the programs and data when the instructions are ready to execute.
a) Primary memory
b) Output unit
c) Secondary memory
d) Ali the above
Answer:
a) Primary memory

Question 70.
Identify which is true?
(a) Portable computers were introduced in the fourth generation.
(b) ULSI was used in the fifth generation.
(c) High-level languages were used in IIIrd generations.
(d) All the above statements are true.
Answer:
(d) All the above statements are true.

Question 71.
The ________ memory is volatile.
a) Primary memory
b) Output unit
c) Secondary memory
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Primary memory

Question 72.
OCR stands for ………………
(a) Optimal Compiler Recorder
(b) Optimal Character Recorder
(c) Optimum Charge Recorder
(d) Optimal Character Resolution
Answer:
(b) Optimal Character Recorder

Question 73.
________ is an example of a main memory.
a) ROM
b) PROM
c) RAM
D) EEPROM
Answer:
c) RAM

Question 74.
Which is not a hardware component?
(a) Information
(b) Monitor
(c) Motherboard
(d) Keyboard
Answer:
(a) Information

Question 75.
In ________ memory, the content is available even after the power supply is switched off.
a) Primary memory
b) RAM
c) Secondary memory
d) Either A or B
Answer:
c) Secondary memory

Question 76.
Identify the statement which is wrong?
(a) ALU performs addition, subtraction
(b) ALU controls the flow of data between the CPU, memory, and I/O devices
(c) Control unit controls the entire operation of the computer
(d) The logical operation of ALU promotes the decision making
Answer:
(b) ALU controls the flow of data between the CPU, memory, and I/O devices

Question 77.
________ is the most common input device,
a) scanner
b) keyboard
c) bar code reader
d) None of these
Answer:
b) keyboard

Question 78.
Which of the following input device scan the book?
(a) OMR
(b) OCR
(c) ECR
(d) OVR
Answer:
(b) OCR

Question 79.
________ is a pointing device.
a) scanner
b) keyboard
c) mouse
d) None of these
Answer:
c) mouse

Question 81.
Which of the following input devices are classified as tactile, ergonomic, gaming?
(a) Keyboard
(b) Printer
(c) Monitor
(d) Mouse
Answer:
(d) Mouse

Question 81.
________ device is used to select icons, menus, command buttons or activate something on a computer.
a) scanner
b) keyboard
c) mouse
d) None of these
Answer:
c) mouse

Question 82.
The main advantage of using the light pen is ……………….
(a) easy to use
(b) accurate
(c) easy to detect the characters
(d) drawing directly onto the screen
Answer:
(d) drawing directly onto the screen

Question 83.
________ is a mouse type.
a) Mechanical
b) Optical
c) Laser
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 84.
The individual keys for letters, numbers, and special characters are collectively called ………………. keys.
(a) character
(b) functional
(c) lock
(d) special
Answer:
(a) character

Question 85.
The mechanical mouse was developed and introduced in the year ________
a) 1968
b) 1966
c) 1978
d) 1969
Answer:
a) 1968

Question 86.
Wired, wireless and virtual are the categories of ……………….
(a) mouse
(b) keyboard
(c) printer
(d) monitor
Answer:
(b) keyboard

Question 87.
The optical mouse was developed introduced in the year ________
a) 1968
b) 1966
c) 1978
d) 1988
Answer:
d) 1988

Question 88.
Which one of the following are the main characteristics of laser printer?
(a) Speed
(b) Resolution
(c) Reliability
(d) Durability
Answer:
(b) Resolution

Question 89.
________ mouse is highly sensitive and able to work on any hard surface.
a) optical
b) mechanical
c) laser
d) all the above
Answer:
c) laser

Question 90.
Expand DPI ……………….
(a) Dots Per Inch
(b) Dark Pen Ink
(c) Dark Page Ink
(d) Double Part ink
Answer:
(a) Dots Per Inch

Question 91.
Who assists Douglas Engel bard to invent moused?
a) Bill English
b) Steve Krish
c) Richard Lyon
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Bill English

Question 92.
________ is used to enter the information directly into the computer’s memory.
a) Mouse
b) Scanner
c) Light Pen
d) all the above
Answer:
b) Scanner

Question 93.
The ________ device works like a Xerox machine.
a) Mouse
b) Scanner
c) Light Pen
d) All the above
Answer:
b) Scanner

Question 94.
The______ device Is used for computer security.
a) Fingerprint Scanner
b) Scanner
c) Light Pen
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Fingerprint Scanner

Question 95.
________ device uses biometric technology.
a) Fingerprint Scanner
b) Trackball
c) Light Pen
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Fingerprint Scanner

Question 96.
________ scanner uses unique patterns of a person’s retinal blood vessels.
a) Retinal
b) Trackball
c) Light Pen
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Retinal

Question 97.
________ is used to draw directly onto the screen.
a) Mouse
b) Light Pen
c) OCR
d) MICR
Answer:
b) Light Pen

Question 98.
________ is a pointing device.
a) Mouse
b) Light Pen
c) OCR
d) Both A and B
Answer:
d) Both A and B

Question 99.
________ is a device which detects characters printed or written on paper.
a) Retinal scanner
b) Light Pen
c) OCR
d) Both A and B
Answer:
c) OCR

Question 100.
The document scanned through_________device can be edited using a word processor.
a) Retinal scanner
b) Light Pen
c) OCR
d) Both A and B
Answer:
c) OCR

Question 101.
A user can scan a page from a book using ________ and can be edited using a word processor.
a) Retinal scanner
b) Light Pen
c) OCR
d) Both A and B
Answer:
c) OCR

Question 102.
The ________ is a two-dimension bar code which can be read by a camera and processed to interpret the image.
a) Retinal scanner
b) Light Pen
c) OCR
d) QRcode
Answer:
d) QRcode

Question 103.
The ________ system gives fast and error-free entry of information into the computer.
a) Bar Code
b) Light Pen
c) OCR
d) QR code
Answer:
a) Bar Code

Question 104.
________ serves as a voice input device.
a) Bar Code Reader
b) Microphone
c) OCR
d) QR code reader
Answer:
b) Microphone

Question 105.
________ captures images / videos directly in the digital form.
a) Bar Code Reader
b) Microphone
c) Digital Camera
d) QR code reader
Answer:
c) Digital Camera

Question 106.
________ uses a CCD electronic chip.
a) Bar Code Reader
b) Microphone
c) Digital Camera
d) QR code reader
Answer:
b) Microphone

Question 107.
CCD means ________
a) Charge-Coupled Device
b) Change-Coupled Device
c) Close Circuit Device
d) Charge-Coupled Data
Answer:
a) Charge-Coupled Device

Question 108.
________ converts light rays into digital formats.
a) Bar Code Reader
b) Microphone
c) Digital Camera
d) QR code reader
Answer:
b) Microphone

Question 109.
A ________ is a display device that allows the user to interact with a computer by using the finger.
a) Touch Screen
b) Microphone
c) Digital Camera
d) QR code reader
Answer:
a) Touch Screen

Question 110.
________ is an alternative to a mouse or keyboard for navigating a Graphical User Interface.
a) Touch Screen
b) Microphone
c) Digital Camera
d) QR code reader
Answer:
b) Microphone

Question 111.
Touch screen is used on ________ .
a) Smartphone
b) Information kiosks
c) Cash registers
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 112.
________ is a device for signaling by hand, by way of pressing one or more switches.
a) Touch Screen
b) Keyer
c) Digital Camera
d) QR code reader
Answer:
b) Keyer

Question 113.
________ number of keys available in Keyer.
a) 4 to 50
b) 4 to 500
c) 14
d) 50
Answer:
a) 4 to 50

Question 114.
In ________ device, the keys are arranged in a cluster.
a) Touch Screen
b) Keyer
c) Digital Camera
d) QR code reader
Answer:
b) Keyer

Question 115.
________ is the most commonly used output device to display the information.
a) Plotter
b) Monitor
c) Speaker
d) All the above
Answer:
b) Monitor

Question 116.
Pictures on a monitor are formed with picture elements called. ________
a) Pixels
b) Points
c) Dots
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Pixels

Question 117.
________ is a monitor type.
a) CRT
b) LED
c) LCD
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 118.
CRT stands for ________
a) Cathode Ray Tube
b) Carbon Ray Tube
c) Cathode Ray Terminal
d) Cathode Ray Tunnel
Answer:
a) Cathode Ray Tube

Question 119.
LED stands for ________
a) Light Emitting Diodes
b) Light Emitting Device
c) Liquid Emitting Diodes
d) Light. Extracting Device
Answer:
a) Light Emitting Diodes

Question 120.
LCD stands for
a) Liquid Crystal Display
b) Light Crystal Display
c) Large Crystal Display
d) Liquid Circuit Display
Answer:
a) Liquid Crystal Display

Question 121.
The monitor works with ________
a) CGA
b) VGA
c) MGA
d) None of these
Answer:
b) VGA

Question 122.
VGA stands for ________
a) Video Graphics Array
b) Video Generation Array
c) Video Graphics Adapter
d) Vector Generation Array
Answer:
a) Video Graphics Array

Question 123.
________ acts as an interface between the computer and display monitor.
a) CGA
b) VGA
c) MGA
d) None of these
Answer:
b) VGA

Question 124.
The first computer monitor was released on ________
a) March 1, 1973
b) March 31, 1973
c) March 21, 1973
d) March 1, 1963
Answer:
a) March 1, 1973

Question 125.
The first computer monitor was part of the ________ computer system.
a) Alto Xerox
b) Xerox Alto
c) Xerox
d) Alto
Answer:
b) Xerox Alto

Question 126.
The ________ helps the keyboard to communicate with the screen.
a) Video Graphics Card
b) Video Graphics Channel
c) Video Group Card
d) Video Generation Card
Answer:
a) Video Graphics Card

Question 127.
________ is an output device that is used to produce graphical output on papers.
a) Monitor
b) Plotter
c) Speaker
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Plotter

Question 128.
Printers are divided into ________ categories.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer:
a) 2

Question 129.
________ printers print with striking of hammers or pins on the ribbon.
a) Non-impact
b) Impact
c) plotter
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Impact

Question 130.
________ printer is an impact printer.
a) Dot matrix
b) Line
c) Laser
d) Both A and B
Answer:
c) Laser

Question 131.
A ________ printer prints using a fixed number of pins or wires.
a) Dot matrix
b) Line
c) Laser
d) Both A and B
Answer:
a) Dot matrix

Question 132.
The printing speed of a Dot matrix printer is ________ CPS.
a) 300 to 1550
b) 30 to 1550
c) 30 to 1555
d) 30 to 1505
Answer:
b) 30 to 1550

Question 133.
________ printer uses a fixed print head for printing.
a) Dot matrix
b) Line matrix
c) Laser
d) Both A and B
Answer:
b) Line matrix

Question 134.
The printing speed of a Line printer is ________ LPM.
a) Less than 1000
b) More than 1000
c) 300
d) less than 500
Answer:
b) More than 1000

Question 135.
CPS stands for-
a) Character Printing Speed
b) Character Per Second
c) Character Per Stroke
d) Character Per Session
Answer:
b) Character Per Second

Question 136.
________ printers do not use striking mechanism for printing.
a) Non-impact
b) Impact
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Non-impact

Question 137.
________ printer is a Non-impact printer,
a) Laser
b) Inkjet
c) Line
d) Both A and B
Answer:
d) Both A and B

Question 138.
The chief characteristics of laser printer is their ________
a) printing speed
b) resolution
c) cost
d) all the above
Answer:
b) resolution

Question 139.
The resolution of a laser printer is measured in the unit ________
a) LPM
d) None of these
b) Dots Per Instance
d) None of these
Answer:
a) LPM

Question 140.
DPI stands for –
a) Dots Per Inch
b) Dots Per Instance
c) Darkness Per Inch
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Dots Per Inch

Question 141.
The available resolution range of a laser printer around _______ DPI.
a) 1024
b) 12000
c) 1200
d) 1020
Answer:
c) 1200

Question 142.
The printing speed of a Laser printer is approximately_______ PPM.
a) 100
b) 1000
c) 1200
d) 1024
Answer:
a) 100

Question 143.
Inkjet printer uses_______ colour inks to create colour tones,
a) Magenta
b) Yellow
c) Cyan
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 144.
PPM stands for ._______
a) Paper Per Minute
b) Paper Per Moment
c) Pixels Per Minute
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Paper Per Minute

Question 145.
_______ produces voice output.
a) Plotter
b) Speaker
c) Mic
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Speaker

Question 146.
_______ is used to produce computer output on a big screen.
a) Speaker
b) Plotter
c) Multimedia projector
d) All the above
Answer:
c) Multimedia projector

Question 147.
A(n) _______ is the basic software that makes the computer work.
a) Application software
b) Compiler
c) Loader
d) Operating system
Answer:
d) Operating system

Question 148.
POST sequence check the device _______
a) RAM
b) Keyboard
c) Monitor
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 149.
If POST sequence is successful then _______ gets executed.
a) BIOS
b) Application program
c) Compiler
d) None of these
Answer:
a) BIOS

Question 150.
BIOS means –
a) Basic Input Output System
b) Basic Input Output Scheme
c) Best Input Output System
d) Beginners Input Output System
Answer:
a) Basic Input Output System

Question 151.
After POST sequence, BIOS gets execute is called _______
a) booting
b) shutdown
c) hibernate
d) login
Answer:
a) booting

Question 152.
Booting process is of _______ types,
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
Answer:
d) 2

Question 153.
When the system starts from the initial state when the computer is switched on is called_______ booting.
a) Warm
b) Cold
c) Hard
d) Either B or C
Answer:
b) Cold

Question 154.
When the user presses the power button, the instructions are read from the _______ to initiate the booting process.
a) RAM
b) CD-RAM
c) Hard disk
d) ROM
Answer:
d) ROM

Question 155.
When the system restarts or when the Reset button is pressed_______ booting initiated.
a) Warm
b) Soft
c) Hard
d) Either A or B
Answer:
d) Either A or B

Question 156.
During _______ booting, there are chances of data loss and system damage as the data might not have been stored properly.
a) Warm
b) Soft
c) Hard
d) Either A or B
Answer:
d) Either A or B

Question 157.
_________interprets and executes software instructions.
a) ALU
b) CPU
c) Cache memory
d) None of these
Answer:
b) CPU

Question 158.
There are totally_______ Symbols /Graphemes / Characters in the Indus Script.
a) 417
b) 407
c) 471
d) 147
Answer:
a) 417

Question 159.
_______ is a sub-field of Artificial Intelligence,
a) Neural Network
b) Nature Network
c) GUI
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Neural Network

Question 160.
Expand USB
a) Universal Serial Bus
b) Unique Serial Bus
c) Universal Serial Board
d) Universal Serial Booting
Answer:
a) Universal Serial Bus

Question 161.
Transistor means _______
a) Transfer resistance
b) Transfer register
c) Track resistance
d) Tangent resistance
Answer:
a) Transfer resistance

Question 162.
LPM stands for_______
a) Lines Per Minute
b) Lines Per Moment
c) Line Print Machine
d) Line Print Mechanism
Answer:
a) Lines Per Minute

Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Expand ANN, OCR
Answer:
ANN – Artificial Neural networks; OCR – Optical Character Recognition.

Question 2.
Write a note on ENIAC.
Answer:
The ENIAC (Electronic Numerical Integrator And Calculator) was invented by 1 Presper Eckert and John Mauchly at the University of Pennsylvania and began construction in 1943 and was not completed until 1946. It occupied about 1,800 square feet and used about 18,000 vacuum tubes, weighing almost 50 tons. ENIAC was the first digital computer because it was fully functional.

Question 3.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of light pen?
Answer:

1. Advantage: Drawing directly on to the screen.
2. Disadvantage: Hard to use and not accurate.

Question 4.
Define Data.
Answer:
Data is defined as an un-processed collection of raw facts, suitable for communication, interpretation, or processing.

Question 5.
Name some mouse actions.
Answer:
Move, click, double click, right-click, drag, and drop are some of the mouse actions.

Question 6.
Define Hardware.
Answer:
Hardware is the physical component of a computer like a motherboard, memory devices, monitor, keyboard, etc.

Question 7.
What is NLP?
Answer:
NLP stands for Natural Language Processing which is a component of Artificial Intelligence (AI). It provides the ability to develop a computer program to understand human language.

Question 8.
Write a note on the IPO cycle.
Answer:
Every task given to a computer follows an Input- Process- Output Cycle (IPO cycle). It needs certain input, processes that input, and produces the desired output. The input unit takes the input, the central processing unit does the processing of data and the output unit produces the output.

Question 9.
Write note on Input unit.
Answer:
Input unit is used to feed any form of data to the computer, which can be stored in the memory unit for further processing. Example: Keyboard, mouse, etc.

Question 10.
Write note on output unit.
Answer:
An Output Unit is any hardware component that conveys information to users in an understandable form. Example: Monitor, Printer etc.

Question 11.
Write note on primary memory.
Answer:
The primary memory is volatile, that is, the content is lost when the power supply is switched off. Ex. Random Access Memory (RAM),

Question 12.
Write note on secondary memory.
Answer:
The secondary memory is non-volatile, that is, the content is available even after the power supply is switched off. Ex. Hard disk, CD-ROM, DVD ROM etc.

Question 13.
Who invented Mouse?
Answer:
The computer mouse was invented and developed by Douglas Engelbart, with the assistance of Bill English, during the 1960’s and was patented on November 17, 1970.

Question 14.
What is the use of a scanner?
Answer:
Scanners are used to enter the information directly into the computer’s memory. This device works like a Xerox machine. The scanner converts any type of printed or written Information including photographs into a digital format, which can be manipulated by the computer.

Question 15.
What are the types of keyboards?
Answer:
The keyboard types are:

1. Wired keyboard.
2. Wireless keyboard.
3. Virtual keyboard.

Question 16.
Write a short note on Trackball.
Answer:
Track bail is similar to the upside-down design of the mouse. The user moves the ball directly, while the device itself remains stationary. The user spins the bail-in various directions to navigate the screen movements.

Question 17.
What is the use of a Retinal scanner?
Answer:
This performs a retinal scan which is a biometric technique that uses unique patterns on a person s retinal blood vessels.

Question 18.
Write short note on Barcode reader.
Answer:
A Bar code is a pattern printed in lines of different thickness. The Bar code reader scans the information on the bar codes transmits to the Computer for further processing. The system gives fast and error-free entry of information into the computer.

Question 19.
Write short note on QR code reader.
Answer:
The QR (Quick response) code is the two-dimension bar code which can be read by a camera and processed to interpret the image.

Question 20.
What is the use of a Voice Input System?
Answer:
The microphone serves as a voice Input device. It captures the voice data and sends it to the computer. Using the microphone along with speech recognition software can offer a completely new approach to input information into the Computer,

Question 21.
Write a short note on Digital Camera.
Answer:
It captures images/videos directly in digital form. It uses a CCD (Charge Coupled Device) electronic chip. When light falls on the chip through the lens, it converts light rays into digital format.

Question 22.
Write about Plotter.
Answer:
The plotter is an output device that is used to produce graphical output on papers. It uses single color or multi-color pens to draw pictures,

Question 23.
Write a short note on the printer.
Answer:
Printers are used to print the information on paper.
Printers are divided into two main categories:

• Impact Printers,
• Non Impact printers.

Question 24.
Write about Multimedia Projectors.
Answer:
Multimedia projectors are used to produce computer output on a big screen. These are used to display presentations in meeting halls or in classrooms.

Question 25.
What do you mean by natural language processing?
Answer:
It is a method used in artificial intelligence to process and derive meaning from the human language.

Question 26.
Write about Robotics.
Answer:
Robot is a term coined by Karel Capek ¡n 1921 to play RUR (Rossurn’s Universal Robots). It is used to describe a computerized machine designed to respond to input received manually or from its surroundings.

Question 27.
Write note on Nanotechnology.
Answer:
Nanotechnology is an engineering, science and technology that develops machines or works with one atom or one molecule that is 100 nanometers or smaller.

Question 28.
Write note on Bioengineering.
Answer:
It is a discipline that applies engineering principles of design and analysis to biological systems and biomedical technologies.

Question 29.
What is high-level language?
Answer:
A high-level language is a computer programming language that is not limited by the computer, designed for a specific job and is easier to understand.

Question 30.
Write, about Integrated Circuits.
Answer:
The integrated circuit is a package containing many circuits, pathways, transistors, and other electronic components all working together to perform a particular function or a series of functions.

Question 31.
Write note on the punched card.
Answer:
It is also known as a Hollerith card is a paper card containing several punched or perforated holes that were punched by hand or machine to represent data.

Explain in brief

Question 1.
Differentiate warm booting and cold booting?
Answer:
Cold Booting:
When the system starts from initial state i.e. it is switched on, we call it cold booting or Hard Booting. When the user presses the Power button, the instructions are read from the ROM to initiate the booting process.

Warm Booting:
When the system restarts or when Reset button is pressed, we call it Warm Booting or Soft Booting. The system does not start from initial state and so all diagnostic tests need not be carried out in this case. There are chances of data loss and system damage as the data might not have been stored properly.

Question 2.
What is the purpose of the Fingerprint scanner?
Answer:
Fingerprint Scanner is a fingerprint recognition device used for computer security, equipped with the fingerprint recognition feature that uses biometric technology. Fingerprint Reader / Scanner is a very safe and convenient device for security instead of using passwords, which is vulnerable to fraud and is hard to remember.

Question 3.
Define Keyer?
Answer:
A Keyer is a device for signaling by hand, by way of pressing one or more switches. Modem keyers have a large number of switches but not as many as a full-size keyboard. Typically, this number is between 4 and 50. A keyer differs from a keyboard, which has “no board”, but the keys are arranged in a cluster.

Question 4.
What is the purpose of Optical Character Reader?
Answer:
It is a device which detects characters printed or written on a paper with OCR, a user can scan a page from a book. The Computer will recognize the characters on the page as letters and punctuation marks and stores them. The Scanned document can be edited using a word processor.

Question 5.
List out the input and output devices of a computer?
Answer:
Input Devices:

1. Keyboard
2. Mouse
3. Scanner
4. Fingerprint Scanner
5. Track Ball
6. Retinal Scanner
7. Light Pen
8. Optical Character Reader
9. Bar Code / QR Code Reader
10. Voice Input Systems
11. Digital Camera
12. Touch Screen
13. Keyer

Output Devices:

1. Monitor
2. Plotter
3. Printers

Question 6.
Write about Keyer.
Answer:
A Keyer is a device for signaling by hand, by way of pressing one or more switches. Modern keyers have a large number of switches but not as many as a full-size keyboard. Typically, this number is between 4 and 50. A keyer differs from a keyboard, which has “no board”, but the keys are arranged in a cluster.

Question 7.
Explain fingerprint scanner and retinal scanner?
Answer:
Fingerprint Scanner:
Fingerprint Scanner is a fingerprint recognition device used for computer security, equipped with the fingerprint recognition feature that uses biometric technology. Fingerprint Reader / Scanner is a very safe and convenient device for security instead of using passwords, which is vulnerable to fraud and is hard to remember.

Retinal Scanner: This performs a retinal scan which is a biometric technique that uses unique patterns on a person’s retinal blood vessels.

Question 8.
Write about the speaker? Where it is mostly used?
Answer:
Speakers produce voice output (audio). Using a speaker along with speech synthesis software, the computer can provide voice output. This has become very common in places like airlines, schools, banks, railway stations, etc.

Question 9.
Compare assembly language and machine language.
Answer:
An assembly language is a low-level programming language.
Machine language is a collection of binary digits or bits that the computer reads and interprets directly.

Question 10.
Write a note on

1. Transistor
2. Vacuum tube

Answer:

1. Transistor: The transistor (transfer resistance) is made up of semiconductors. It is a component used to control the amount of current or voltage used for amplification/modulation of an electronic signal.
2. Vacuum Tube: It contains electrodes for controlling electron flow and was used in early computers as a switch or an amplifier.

Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain the types of Mouse.
Answer:
Different types of mouse available are: Mechanical Mouse, Optical, Laser Mouse, Air Mouse, 3D Mouse, Tactile Mouse, Ergonomic Mouse and Gaming Mouse.

Question 2.
Explain input devices of a computer?
Input Devices:
Keyboard : Keyboard (wired / wireless, virtual) is the most common input device used today. The individual keys for letters, numbers and special characters are collectively known as character keys. This keyboard layout is derived from the keyboard of original typewriter.

Mouse:
Mouse (wired/wireless) is a pointing device used to control the movement of the cursor on the display screen.

Types of Mouses:

1. Mechanical Mouse
2. Optical Mouse.
3. Laser Mouse

Scanner : Scanners are used to enter the information directly into the computer’s memory. This device works like a Xerox machine. The scanner converts any type of printed or written information including photographs into a digital format, which can be manipulated by the computer.

Track Ball : Track ball is similar to the upside – down design of the mouse. The user moves the ball directly, while the device itself remains stationary. The user spins the ball in various directions to navigate the screen movements.

Retinal Scanner : This performs a retinal scan which is a biometric technique that uses unique patterns on a person’s retinal blood vessels.

Light Pen : A light pen is a pointing device shaped like a pen and is connected to a monitor. The tip of the light pen contains a light-sensitive element which detects the light from the screen enabling the computer to identify the location of the pen on the screen. Light pens have the advantage of ‘drawing’ directly onto the screen, but this becomes hard to use, and is also not accurate.

Optical Character Reader : It is a device which detects characters printed or written on a paper with OCR, a user can scan a page from a book. The Computer will recognize the characters in the page as letters and punctuation marks and stores. The Scanned document can be edited using a word processor.

Bar Code / QR Code Reader : A Bar code is a pattern printed in lines of different thickness. The Bar code reader scans the information on the bar codes transmits to the Computer for further processing. The system gives fast and error free entry of information into the computer.

QR (Quick Response) Code: The QR code is the two dimensional bar code which can be read by a camera and processed to interpret the image

Voice Input Systems: The microphone serves as a voice Input device. It captures the voice data and sends it to the Computer. Using the microphone along with speech recognition software can offer a completely new approach to input information into the Computer.

Digital Camera: It captures images/videos directly in the digital form. It uses a CCD (Charge Coupled Device) electronic chip. When light falls on the chip through the lens, it converts light rays into digital format.

Touch Screen: A touch screen is a display device that allows the user to interact with a computer by using the finger. It can be quite useful as an alternative to a mouse or keyboard for navigating a Graphical User Interface (GUI). Touch screens are used on a wide variety of devices such as computers, laptops, monitors, smartphones, tablets, cash registers, and information kiosks. Some touch screens use a grid of infrared beams to sense the presence of a finger instead of utilizing touch-sensitive input.

Keyer: A Keyer is a device for signaling by hand, by way of pressing one or more switches. Modem keyers have a large number of switches but not as many as a full-size keyboard. Typically, this number is between 4 and 50.

Question 3.
Explain briefly about non-impact printers.
Answer:
These printers do not use striking mechanism for printing. They use electrostatic or laser technology. Quality and speed of these printers are better than Impact printers. Ex: Laser printers and Inkjet printers.

Laser Printers :
Laser printers mostly work with similar technology used by photocopiers. It makes a laser beam scan back and forth across a drum inside the printer, building up a pattern. It can produce very good quality of graphic images. One of the chief characteristics of laser printer is their resolution – how many Dots per inch (DPI). The available resolution range around 1200 dpi. Approximately it can print 100 pages per minute (PPM).

Inkjet Printers:
Inkjet Printers use colour cartridges which combined Magenta, Yellow and Cyan inks to create color tones. A black cartridge is also used for monochrome output. Inkjet printers work by spraying ionized ink on a sheet of paper. The speed of Inkjet printers generaly range from 1-20 PPM (Page Per Minute).
They use the technology of firing ink by heating it so that it explodes towards the paper in bubbles or by using piezoelectricity in which tiny electric currents controlled by electronic circuits are used inside the printer to spread ink in jet speed) An Inkjet printer can spread millions of dots of ink at the paper every single second.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 8 Multi-National Corporations (MNCs) Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 8 Multi-National Corporations (MNCs)

11th Commerce Guide Multi-National Corporations (MNCs) Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
A Multinational Corporation can bedefined as a firm which …………….
a) is beyond the control of any government
b) is one of the top 200 firms in the world
c) owns companies in more than one country
d) All the above
Answer:
c) owns companies in more than one country

Question 2.
Centralised control in MNC’s implies control exercised by ………………
a) Branches
b) Subsidiaries
c) Headquarters
d) Parliament
Answer:
c) Headquarters

Question 3.
Enterprises operating in several countries but managed from one country is termed as ………………….
a) Government company
b) Multinational Company
c) Private company
d) Joint Venture
Answer:
b) Multinational Company

Question 4.
Dispersal of decision making power tobranches/affihiates/subsidiaries by head office represents ………..
a) Centralisation
b) Decentralisation
c) Power
d) Integration
Answer:
b) Decentralisation

Question 5.
Coca-Cola Company is an example of ………………
a) MNC
b) Government company
C) Joint Venture
d) Public company
Answer:
a) MNC

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Multinational Company.
Answer:
“A multinational corporation owns and manages the business in two or more countries.” – Neil H. Jacoby

Question 2.
Write any two advantages of MNC.
Answer:

1. End of Local Monopolies
2. Quality product

Question 3.
Give two examples of MNC.
Answer:

1. Coca – Cola Corporation
2. Unilever

Question 4.
Name the type of business enterprise which operates in more than one country.
Answer:
Multi-National Corporation can be operated in more than one country.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the advantages of MNC’s?
Answer:
1. Low-Cost Labour:
MNC set up their facilities in low-cost countries and produce goods/services at a lower cost. It gains a cost advantage and sells its products and services of good quality at low cost.

2. Quality Products:
The resource, experience, and expertise of MNCs in the sphere of research and development enables the host country to establish its research and development system which helps it in producing quality goods and services at the least possible cost.

3. Proper Use of Idle Resources:
Because of their advanced technical knowledge, MNCs are in a position to properly utilise the idle physical and human resources of the host country. This results in an increase in the National Income of the host country.

4. Improvement in Balance of Payment Position:
MNCs help the host countries to increase their exports. As such, they help the host country to improve upon its Balance of Payment position.

5. Technical Development:
MNCs carry the advantages of technical development to hosting countries. In fact, MNCs are a vehicle for the transference of technical development from one country to another. Because of MNCs poor host countries also begin to develop technically.

Question 2.
What are the disadvantages of MNC’s?
Answer:

• Domestic Industries cannot face the challenges posed by MNCs.
• It does not give any benefit to poor people.
• It creates a danger to Independence.
• There is a chance of careless exploitation of natural resources.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are all the Advantages, of MNC?
Answer:
1. Low-Cost Labour:
MNC set up their facilities in low-cost countries and produce goods/services at a lower cost. It gains a cost advantage and sells its products and services of good quality at low cost. This is not available to smaller companies which operate at the regional level.

2. Quality Products:
The resource, experience, and expertise of MNCs in the sphere of research and development enables the host country to establish its research and development system which helps it in producing quality goods and services at the least possible cost.

3. Proper Use of Idle Resources:
Because of their advanced technical knowledge, MNCs are in a position to properly utilise the idle physical and human resources of the host country. This results in an increase in the National Income of the host country.

4. Improvement in Balance of Payment Position MNCs help the host countries to increase their exports. As such, they help the host country to improve upon its Balance of Payment position.

5.Technical Development:
MNCs carry the advantages of technical development in 10 host countries. In fact, MNCs are a vehicle for the transference of technical development from one country to another. Because of MNCs poor host countries also begin to develop technically.

6. Managerial Development
MNCs employ the latest management techniques. People employed by MNCs do a lot of research in management. In a way, they help to professionalize management along the latest lines of management theory and practice. This leads to managerial development in host countries.

7. Promotion of international brotherhood and culture MNCs integrate economies of various nations with the world economy. Through their international dealings, MNCs promote international brotherhood and culture; and pave way for world peace and prosperity.

Question 2.
What are all the Disadvantages of MNC?
Answer:
The danger for Domestic Industries
MNCs, because of their vast economic power, pose a danger to domestic industries; which are still in the process of development. Domestic industries cannot face challenges posed by MNCs. Many domestic industries have to wind up, as a result of threats from MNCs. Thus MNCs give a setback to the economic growth of host countries.

Transfer of Outdated Technology
Where MNCs transfer outdated technology to the host nation, it serves no purpose

No Benefit to Poor People
MNCs produce only those things, which are used by the rich. Therefore, poor people of host countries do not get, generally, any benefit, out of MNCs.

Danger to Independence
Initially MNCs help the Government of the host country, in a number of ways; and then gradually start interfering in the political affairs of the host country. There is, then, an implicit danger to the independence of the host country, in the long-run. Deprivation of Job Opportunity of Local People MNCs may not generate job opportunities for the people of their home country.

Misuse of Mighty Status
MNCs are powerful economic entities. They

Selfish Promotion of Alien Culture
MNCs tend to promote alien culture in the host country to sell their products. They make people forget about their own cultural heritage. In India, e.g. MNCs have created a taste for synthetic food, soft drinks, etc. This promotion of foreign culture by MNCs is injurious to the health of people also.

Neglect of Industrial and Economic Growth of Home Country
An investment in host countries is more profitable, MNCs may neglect home countries’ industrial and economic development.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 7 Cooperative Organisation Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 7 Cooperative Organisation

11th Commerce Guide Cooperative Organisation Text Book Back Questions and Answers

EXERCISE

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1. Membership in a co-operative organization is …………………
a) Not open to all
b) Selective
c) Open to all
d) None of them
Answer:
c) Open to all

Question 2.
Co-operative fails because of …………..
a) Unlimited membership
b) Cash trading
c) Mismanagement
d) Loss-making
Answer:
c) Mismanagement

Question 3.
All cooperatives are established with …………………….
a) Philanthropic motive
b) Service motive
c) Profit motive
d) Reform motive
Answer:
b) Service motive

Question 4.
Consumers Co-operation was first successful in ……………………..
a) England
b) the USA
c) Swiss
d) India
Answer:
a) England

Question 5.
Rochdale Society of equitable pioneers was started by ……………
a) Robert Owen
b) H.C.Calver
c) Talmaki
d) Lambert
Answer:
a) Robert Owen

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by the co-operative organization?
Answer:
A cooperative is a private business organization that is owned and controlled by the people who use its products, supplies, or services.

Question 2.
Define Cooperatives.
Answer:
According to H.Calvert, “Co-operation is a form of organization in which persons voluntarily associate together as human beings on the basis of equality for the promotion of the economic interests of themselves.”

Question 3.
What are Credit cooperatives?
Answer:
Cooperative credit societies are societies formed for providing short – term financial help to their members. Agriculturists, artisans, industrial workers, salaried employees, etc., form these credit societies.

Question 4.
Is a low tax possible in a cooperative society?
Answer:
Yes, low tax is possible in cooperative societies. Since it is a non-profit enterprise, the law gives preferential treatment and the government provides various exemptions and tax concessions.

Question 5.
Who are Rochdale pioneers?
Answer:
At first, the cooperative movement was started by Robert Owen, in the year 1844. He formed a consumer’s cooperative society in England with 28 workers as members, called “Rochdale Society of Equitable Pioneers”.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the disadvantages of Cooperatives? (Any 3)
Answer:
1. Limited funds:
Since the co-operative societies have limited membership and it is promoted by the weaker section, the membership fees collected is low. They cannot expand their activities beyond a particular level due to the limited financial resources.

2. Over-reliance on Government funds:
Co-operative societies are not able to raise their own resources. Their sources of financing are limited and they depend on government funds. The funding and the number of funds that would be released by the government are uncertain.

3. Conflicts among members:
Cooperative societies are based on the principles of co-operation and therefore harmony among members is important. But in practice, there might be internal politics, differences of opinions, quarrels, etc. among members which may lead to disputes. Such disputes affect the functioning of cooperative societies.

Question 2.
Write a note on Housing cooperatives.
Answer:
The cooperative housing societies are meant to provide residential accommodation to their members on an ownership basis or on rent. People who intend to build houses of their own join together and form housing societies. These societies advance loans to members, repayable over a period of 15 to 20 years.

Question 3.
What is meant by Producers Cooperative society?
Answer:
Producer cooperatives are established and operated by producers. Producers can decide to work together or as separate entities to help increase marketing possibilities and production efficiency. They are organized to process, market, and distribute their own products.
This helps lessen costs and strains in each area with a mutual benefit to each producer. Example, Cooperative weavers’ societies, Co-operative carpeting units.

Question 4.
Write a note on cooperative farming societies.
Answer:
When various farmers in a village pool their land together and agree to treat the pooled piece of land as one big farm for the purpose of cultivation, purchase the necessary inputs for the cultivation, and market the crops jointly, they are assumed to have formed a cooperative farming society. Such a society, for its proper working, elects its office bearers on the basis of one member – one – vote.

Question 5.
Write a note on industrial cooperatives.
Answer:
An industrial cooperative is an association of workers & craftsmen involved in cottage or village industries, who come together to undertake collective production, processing, and marketing of goods manufactured by the members and provide them with the necessary services and assistance.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the principles of cooperatives? (Any 5)
Answer:
1. Voluntary and Open Membership:
Cooperatives are voluntary organisations, open to all people able to use their services and willing to accept the responsibilities of membership, without gender, social, racial, political, or religious discrimination.

2. Democratic Member Control:
Cooperatives are democratic organisations controlled by their members those who buy the goods or use the services of the cooperative who actively participate in setting policies and making decisions.

3. Member’s Economic Participation:
Members contribute equally to and democratically control, the capital of the cooperative. This benefits member in proportion to the business they conduct with the cooperative rather than on the capital invested.

4. Autonomy and Independence:
Cooperatives are autonomous, self-help organisations controlled by their members. If the cooperative enters into agreements with other organisations or raises capital from external sources, it is done so based on terms that ensure democratic control by the members and maintains the cooperative’s autonomy.

5. Education, Training, and Information:
Cooperatives provide education and training for members, elected representatives, managers, and employees so they can contribute effectively to the development of their cooperative. Members also inform the general public about the nature and benefits of cooperatives.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of a cooperative society?
Answer:
1. Consumers Cooperative:
Consumer cooperatives are organized by consumers, that want to achieve better prices or quality in the goods or services they purchase. In contrast to traditional retail stores or service providers, a consumer cooperative exists to deliver goods or services rather than to maximize profit from selling those goods or services.

2. Producers Cooperative:
Producer cooperatives are created by producers and owned & operated by producers. Producers can decide to work together or as separate entities to help increase marketing possibilities and production efficiency.

3. Marketing Cooperative:
Cooperative marketing societies are associations of small producers formed for the purpose of marketing their produce. The marketing cooperatives perform certain marketing functions such as grading, warehousing, advertising, etc.

4. Credit Cooperative:
Cooperative credit societies are societies formed for providing short-term financial help to their members. Agriculturists, artisans, industrial workers, salaried employees, etc., form these credit societies.

5. Housing Cooperative:
These cooperative housing societies are meant to provide residential accommodation to their members on an ownership basis or on rent. People who intend to build houses of their own join together and form housing societies. These societies advance loans to members, repayable over a period of 15 to 20 years.

Question 4.
Write a note on Consumer cooperative society.
Answer:
Consumer cooperatives are organized by consumers that want to achieve better prices or quality in the goods or services they purchase. In contrast to traditional retail stores or service providers, a consumer cooperative exists to deliver goods or services rather than to maximize profit from selling those goods or services.

They also supply essential commodities through Public Distribution System (PDS). Nationally, the most widely used cooperative form is the credit union, with some 90 million members. Credit union assets have grown a hundredfold in three decades. Credit unions are essentially cooperatives of people that use banking services. Students’ cooperative stores, Cooperative provision stores and supermarkets set up in cooperative societies of India are examples of this type.

Question 5.
The misuse of funds is possible in a cooperative society? Give your reasons.
Answer:
Yes, misuse of funds is possible in co-operatives. If the members of the managing committee are corrupt, they can swindle the funds of the cooperative society. Many cooperative societies have been faced financial problems and closed down because of corruption and misuse of funds.

11th Commerce Guide Cooperative Organisation Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
At first, the cooperative movement was started by Robert Owen, in the year………………
(a) 1935
(b) 1932
(c) 1844
(d) 1884
Answer:
(c) 1844

Question 2.
The first-ever Cooperative Society was started in the year ………………….
a) 1944
b) 1844
c) 1488
d) 1864
Answer:
b) 1844

Question 3.
The minimum number of members to start a cooperative is …………………
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25
Answer:
(a) 10

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
How do you call a cooperative a democratic control organization?
Answer:
Co-operatives are democratic organizations controlled by their members- those who buy the goods or use the services of the co-operative- who actively participate in setting policies and making decisions.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Cooperation.
Answer:
In the words of H.Calvert, “Cooperation is a form of organization in which persons voluntarily associate together as human beings on the basis of equality for the promotion of the economic interests of themselves.”

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 6 Joint Stock Company Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 6 Joint Stock Company

11th Commerce Guide Joint Stock Company Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The relationship between outsiders and the company is defined in …………………..
a) Prospectus
b) Articles of Association
c) Memorandum of Association
d) Certificate of Incorporation
Answer:
a) Prospectus

Question 2.
Table A of the Companies Act is a ……………..
a) Model minutes book
b) Model form of Balance Sheet
c) Model of AOA
d) Model of MOA
Answer:
c) Model of AOA

Question 3.
Which of the following is created by a Special Act of Parliament or in State Assemblies?
a) Chartered company ,
b) Foreign company
c) Government company
d) Statutory Company
Answer:
d) Statutory Company

Question 4.
The Board of directors of a company is elected by ……………………………..
a) Creditors
b) Debtors
c) Debenture holders
d) Shareholders (members)
Answer:
d) Shareholders (members)

Question 5.
Companies established as a result of aeharter granted by the King or Queen of a country is called ………………..
a) Chartered companies
b) Statutory companies
c) Registered companies
d) Foreign companies
Answer:
a) Chartered companies

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the different types of companies?
Answer:

1. Incorporation
2. Membership
3. Member liability
4. Control
5. Nationality

Question 2.
Define a Company.
Answer:
According to L.H. Haney, “ A company is an artificial person created by law having a separate legal entity with a perpetual succession and a common seal.”

Question 3.
What is meant by Limited liability?
Answer:
The liability of a shareholder is limited. The risk of loss is limited to the unpaid amount on the face value of shares held.

Question 4.
Explain any two characteristics of a company.
Answer:

1. Separate Legal Entity: Under Incorporation, a company becomes a separate legal entity as compared to its members. The company is distinct and different from its members. It is considered an artificial person.
2. Capacity to sue and be sued: A company can sue or be sued in its own name as distinct from its members.

Question 5.
What is meant by Chartered Company?
Answer:
Chartered companies are established by the King or Queen of a country. The powers and privileges of the chartered company are specified in the charter. Power to cancel the charter is vested with King/Queen.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the advantages of Companies? (Any 3)
Answer:
1. Large Capital:
A company can secure large capital compared to a sole trader or partnership. A large amount of capital is necessary for conducting business on a large scale.

2. Limited Liability:
The liability of a shareholder is limited. The risk of loss is limited to the unpaid amount on the face value of shares held. In the case of a company limited by shares, the liability of a shareholder is restricted to the unpaid amount on the shares held by him.

3. Transferability of Shares:
Transaction of Shares between two individuals is easy. So there is the liquidity of the investment. Any shareholder can easily convert his shares into money by selling his shares.

Question 2.
What is meant by a Private Company?
Answer:
Private Limited Company is a type of company which is formed with minimum of two shareholders and two directors. The minimum requirement with respect to authorized or paid-up capital of Rs. 1,00,000 has been omitted by the Companies Act 2015. Maximum 200 persons can become shareholders in a private company.

Question 3.
What is meant by Government Company?
Answer:
A public enterprise incorporated under the Indian Companies Act, 1956 is called a Government company. These companies are owned and managed by the central or the state government.

Section 617 of the Companies Act, 1956 defines “Government Companies” as any company in which not less than 51% of the paid-up share capital is held by the Central Government or any State Government or Governments or partly by the Central Government and partly by one or more State Governments. A subsidiary of a Government company shall also be treated as a Government company.

Question 4.
What is meant by Foreign Company?
Answer:
Foreign company means a company which is incorporated in a country outside India under the law of that country. After the establishment of business in India, the necessary documents must be filed with the Registrar of Companies within 30 days from the date of establishment.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the contents of the Memorandum of Association?
Answer:
1. Name Clause:
The name clause requires you to state the legal and recognized name of the company. You are allowed to register a company name only if it does not bear any similarities with the name of an existing company.

2. Situation Clause:.
The registered office clause requires you to show the physical location of the registered office of the company. You are required to keep all the company registers in this office in addition to using the office in handling all the outgoing and incoming communication correspondence.

3. Objective Clause:
The objective clause requires you to summarize the main objectives for establishing the company with reference to the requirements for shareholding and use of financial resources. You also need to state ancillary objectives; that is, those objectives that are required to facilitate the achievement of the main objectives.

4. Liability Clause:
The liability clause requires you to state the extent to which shareholders of the company are liable to the debt obligations of the company in the event of the company dissolving. You should show that shareholders are liable only for their shareholding and/or to their commitment to contribute to the dissolution costs upon liquidation of a company limited by guarantee.

5. Capital Clause:
The capital clause requires you to state the company’s authorized share capital, the different categories of shares, and the nominal value (the minimum value per share) of the shares. You are also required to list the company’s assets under this clause.

6. Association Clause:
The association clause confirms that shareholders bound by the MOA are willingly associating and forming a company. You require seven members to sign an MOA for a public company and riot less than two people for an MOA of a private company. You must conduct the signing in the presence of witnesses who must also append his signature.

Question 2.
What are the contents in Articles of Association?
Answer:
Meaning:
The Articles of Association (AOA) is a document that contains the purpose of the company as well as the duties and responsibilities of its members.
Contents:

• Amount of shares, capital, value and type of shares
• Rights of each class of shareholders regarding voting, dividend, return of capital
• Rules regarding issue of shares and debentures
• Procedures as well as regulations in respect of making calls on shares.
• Manner of transfer of shares ® Declaration of dividends ® Borrowing powers of the company ® Rules regarding the appointment, remuneration, removal of directors
• Procedure for conducting proxy, quorum, meetings etc.,
• Procedures concerning the keeping of books and audits
• Seal of the company
• Procedures regarding the winding up of the company.

Question 3.
What is meant by Prospectus?
Answer:
According to Section 2(36) of the Companies Act, any document inviting the public to buy its shares or debentures comes under the definition of a prospectus. It also applies to advertisements inviting deposits from the public. A prospectus is “the only window through which a prospective investor can look into the soundness of a company’s venture”. Hence it must specify at least the following matters as per Schedule II:

1. The prospectus contains the main objectives of the company, the name, and addresses of the signatories of the Memorandum of Association, and the number of shares held by them.
2. The name, addresses, and occupation of directors and managing directors.
3. The number and classes of shares and debentures issued.
4. The qualification share of directors and the interest of directors for the promotion of the company.
5. The number, description, and the document of shares or debentures which within the two preceding years have been agreed to be issued other than cash.

Question 4.
What is meant by a Multi-National Company?
Answer:
A Multi-National Company (MNC) is a huge industrial organization which,

• Operates in more than one country
• Carries out production, marketing, and research activities on an international Scale in those countries.
• Seeks to maximize profits the world over.
• A domestic company or a foreign company can be an MNC.

Examples:
Microsoft Corporation, Nokia Corporation, Nestle, Coca-Cola, International Business Machine, Pepsi Co, Sony Corporation.

Question 5.
What is meant by Holding and Subsidiary Company?
Answer:
1. Holding Company:
As per Section 2(87) “subsidiary company” or “subsidiary”, in relation to any other company (that is to say the holding company), means a company in which the holding company:

• Controls the composition of the Board of Directors; or
• Exercises or controls more than one-half of the total share capital either at its own or together with one or more of its subsidiary companies:

Provided that such class or classes of holding companies as may be prescribed shall not have layers of subsidiaries beyond such numbers as may be prescribed.

2. Subsidiary Company:
“Subsidiary company” or “Subsidiary”, in relation to any other company (that is to say the holding company), means a company in which the holding company:

• Controls the composition of the Board of Directors; or
• Exercises or controls more than one-half of the total share capital either at its own or together with one or more of its subsidiary companies:

Examples:
H Ltd., holds more than 50% of the equity share capital of S Ltd. Now H Ltd. is the holding company of S Ltd., and S Ltd. is the subsidiary of H Ltd.

11th Commerce Guide Joint Stock Company Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The maximum number of members in a private limited company is ……………..
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 200
Answer:
(d) 200

Question 2.
The maximum number of members in a private company is ……………………………….
a. 10
b. 20
c. 50
d. unlimited
Answer:
c. 50

Question 3.
A new class of company is of “One Person Company” and it is included in …………….. Act.
(a) 1956
(b) 1952
(c) 2013
(d) 2015
Answer:
(c) 2013

Question 4.
On the basis of liability, companies are classified in to ………………………………. types.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Answer:
a. 2

Question 5.
…………….. companies are established by a Special Act made in Parliament/State Assembly.
(a) Chartered
(b) Statutory
(c) Private
(d) Unlimited
Answer:
(b) Statutory

Question 6.
Memorandum Association consists of ……………………. clause.
a.5
b.6
c.7
d.8
Answer:
b.6

Question 7.
The share capital of the government company must not be less than ……………..
(a) 75%
(b) 60%
(c) 95%
(d) 51%
Answer:
(d) 51%

Question 8.
Who has the power to convene the meetings of the Board of Directors?
a) Shareholders
b)Board of Directors
c) Chairman
d) None of these
Answer:
b)Board of Directors

Question 9.
…………….. is a document containing rules and regulations for the internal management of a company.
(a) Table A
(b) Memorandum
(c) Prospectus
(d) Statutory declaration
Answer:
(a) Table A

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is Perpetual succession?
Answer:
A company does not cease to exist unless it is specifically wound up or the task for which it was formed has been completed. Membership of a company may keep on changing from time to time but that does not affect the life of the company.

Question 2.
What is meant of Articles of Association?
Answer:
The Articles of Association (AO A) is a document that contains the purpose of the company as well as the duties and responsibilities of its members. It is an important document which needs to be filed with the Registrar of Companies.

Question 3.
What is the Objective clause?
Answer:
The objective clause requires you to summarize the main objectives for establishing the company with reference to the requirements for shareholding and use of financial resources. You also need to state ancillary objectives; that is, those objectives that are required to facilitate the achievement of the main objectives.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by Joint and Several Liability?
Answer:
Every partner is jointly and severally liable for all acts of the firm. It means that in case the assets are inadequate for meeting the claims of creditors, even their personal properties should be made available. The creditors can recover their claims from all the partners.

Question 2.
Write a note on one share – one vote.
Answer:
The principle of voting in a company is one share-one vote i.e. if a person has 10 shares; he has 10 votes in the company. This is in direct distinction to the voting principle of a co-operative society where the “One Member – One Vote” principle applies i.e. irrespective of the number of shares held, one member has only one vote.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Classify the Companies According to its Incorporation:
Answer:
1. Chartered Companies:
Chartered companies are established by the King or Queen of a country. The powers and privileges of these companies are specified in the charter. The cancellation of power is in the hands of the King/Queen. E.g East Indian Company, Bank of England, etc.

2. Statutory Companies:
Companies are established by a Special Act made in the Parliament/State Assembly. The Constitution of the company is specified in the Memorandum of Association. The rules are specified in the Articles of Association. Statutory companies enjoy autonomous status. It need not use the word ‘Limited’ next to its name.

3. Association Not for Profit:
According to section 25, the Central Government may, by license, grant that an association may be registered as a company with limited liability, without using the words ‘limited’ or ‘private limited’ as part of its name. The license will be granted only in the case of ‘association not for profit’. Such companies may be public or private companies and may or may not have share capital.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 5 Hindu Undivided Family and Partnership Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 5 Hindu Undivided Family and Partnership

11th Commerce Guide Hindu Undivided Family and Partnership Text Book Back Questions and Answers

EXERCISE

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The firm of Hindu Undivided Family is managed by whom?
a. Owner
b. Karta
c. Manager
d. Partner
Answer:
b. Karta

Question 2.
In the firm of Hindu Undivided Family,how one gets the membership?
a. By Agreement
b. By Birth
c. By Investing Capital
d. By Managing
Answer:
b. By Birth

Question 3.
The members in the joint Hindu family are called ……………
a. Karta
b. coparceners
c. generations
d. partners
Answer:
b. coparceners

Question 4.
‘Only the male members in the family get the right of inheritance by birth’ as …………………
a. Hindu law
b. Mitakshara Law
c. Dayabhaga law
d. None of these
Answer:
b. Mitakshara Law

Question 5.
A partnership is formed by ……………….
a. agreement
b. relationship among persons
c. the direction of government
d. Friendship
Answer:
a. agreement

Question 6.
Registration of partnership is ……………….
a. compulsory
b. optional
c. not necessary
d. none of the above
Answer:
b. optional

Question 7.
A temporary partnership which is formed to complete a specific job doing a specified period of time is called ……………..
a. Partnership-at-will
b. Particular partnership
c. Limited Partnership
d. Joint Venture
Answer:

Question 8.
The partnership deed also called …………………….
a. Articles of Association
b. Articles of Partnership
c. Partnership Act
d. Partnership
Answer:
b. Articles of Partnership

Question 9.
A partnership is registered with ………………………
a. Registrar of Companies
b. Registrar of Co-operatives
c. Registrar of Firms
d. District Collector
Answer:
c. Registrar of Firms

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Who is called KARTA?
Answer:
All the affairs of a Joint Hindu Family are controlled and managed by one person who is known as ‘Karta’ or ‘Manager’.

Question 2.
What are the two schools of Hindu law?
Answer:

• Dayabhaga is prevalent in Bengal and Assam.
• Mitakshara is prevalent in the rest of the country.

Question 3.
Who is called a Partner?
Answer:
The persons who enter into partnership are individually called ‘Partners’.

Question 4.
Who is a Sleeping partner?
Answer:
The partner contributes capital and shares in the profits or losses of the firm but does not take part in the management of the business. He is not known as a partner to the outsiders. The liability of the inactive partner is also unlimited.

Question 5.
Who is a Minor?
Answer:
Under the Indian Majority Act, the person who has not completed 18 years of age is a minor.

Question 6.
How many types of Dissolution?
Answer:
The Joint Hindu Family Business is a distinct form of organization peculiar to India. Joint Hindu Family Firm is created by the operation of law. It does not have any separate and distinct legal entity from that of its members.

III Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the meaning of Joint Hindu Family Business?
Answer:
When two or more families agree to live and work together, invest their resources and labour jointly and share profits or losses together, then it is known as composite family or Joint Hindu Family business.

Question 2.
Write any 3 features of HUF.
Answer:

1. It is controlled and managed under the Hindu law
2. All the affairs of a Joint Hindu Family are controlled and managed by one person known as ‘Karta’ or‘Manager’.
3. In an HUF firm even a new Bombay can be a coparcener.

Question 3.
Explain the nature of the liability of Karta.
Answer:
Karta is not only liable to the extent of his share in the business but his separate property is equally attachable and the amount of debt can be recovered from his personal property.

Question 4.
What is the meaning of Coparceners?
Answer:
According to HUF, a coparcener is a person who acquires a right in the ancestral property by birth and a person who has a right to demand partition in the HUF property.

Question 5.
Define Partnership.
Answer:
According to Prof. Haney, “The relations which exist between persons, competent to make contracts, who agree to carry on a lawful business in common with a view to private gain”.

Question 6.
What are the minimum and maximum number of members in the partnership concern?
Answer:
The minimum number of members is two. Maximum is restricted to 10 in the case of banking business and to 20 in all other cases.

Question 7.
What is the meaning of Partnership Deed?
Answer:
Through a partnership agreement need not necessarily be in writing, it is important to have a written agreement in order to avoid misunderstandings; it is desirable to have a written agreement. A carefully drafted partnership deed helps in ironing out differences which may develop among partners and in ensuring the smooth running of the partnership business. It should be properly stamped and registered.

Question 8.
Who is called a Secret partner?
Answer:
Secret Partners are those whose connections with the firm are not known to the public. They will take part in the affairs to the business without disclosing their status in the firm.

Question 9.
What is meant by Joint and Several Liability?
Answer:
Every partner is jointly and severally liable for all acts of the firm. It means that in case the assets are inadequate for meeting the claims of creditors, even their personal properties should be made available. The creditors can recover their claims from all the partners.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the implied authority of Karta?
Meaning:
The head of the Joint Hindu Family whose liabilities are unlimited is known as KARTA. Karta is the senior-most male member of the family.

Implied Authority:
in a joint Hindu Family firm, only Karta is entitled to deal with outsiders. He has the implied authority to enter into a contract for debts and pledge the property of the firm for the ordinary purpose of the businesses of the firm. Karta has the power to borrow loans.

Question 2.
Can a minor be admitted in the Joint Hindu Family business. Why?
Answer:
In a partnership, the minor cannot become a co-partner though he may be admitted to the benefit of the partnership. In a Joint Hindu Family firm, even a newborn baby can be a partner. The membership of the family can be acquired only by birth. As soon as the male child is born in the family, that child becomes a member.

Question 3.
What are the contents of the Partnership Deed?
Answer:
The following are the main contents of the partnership deed.

• Name of the Firm.
• Nature of the proposed business.
• Duration of the partnership business whether it is to be run for a fixed period of time or whether it is to be dissolved after completing a particular venture.
• The capital is to be contributed by the partners. It must be remembered that capital contribution is not necessary to become a partner for one who contributes his organising power, business acumen, managerial skill, etc., instead of capital.
• The amount that can be withdrawn from the firm by each partner.
• The ratio in which the profits or losses are to be shared. If the profit sharing ratio is not specified in the deed, all the partners must share the profits and bear the losses equally.

Question 4.
Explain the types of dissolution of the partnership firm.
Answer:
Dissolution of Partnership is different from the dissolution of the partnership firm. It is due to the fact that when the jurally relation present between all partners, comes to an end, it is known as dissolution of the firm, however, when any one of the partners becomes incapacitated, then the partnership between the concerned partner and other partners of the firm comes to an end, but the firm may continue to operate if other partners desire so.

Question 5.
Write any three differences between Dissolution of Partnership and Dissolution of Firm.
Answer:

Firms along with the necessary registration fee.

Question 6.
Write the procedure for Registration of a Firm.
Answer:
A statement should be prepared to state the following particulars.

1. Name of The firm.
2. The principal place of business.
3. Name of other places where the firm carried on the business.
4. Names and addresses of all the partners.
5. The date on which .each partner joined the firm.
6. The duration of the firm.

This statement signed by all the partners should be produced to the Registrar of Firms along with the necessary registration fee of Rs.3. Any change in the above particulars must be communicated to the Registrar within 14 days of such alteration.

11th Commerce Guide Hindu Undivided Family and Partnership Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
……………. is that form of business organisation which is ow’ned and controlled by a single individual
(a) Sole trading concern
(b) Partnership firm
(c) Joint Hindu family business
(d) Joint-stock companies
Answer:
(a) Sole trading concern

Question 2.
A Partner who participates only in profit is ……………………
a. Sleeping Partner
b. partner in profit only
c. Minor partner
d. Nominal partner
Answer:
b. partner in profit only

Question 3.
When his business assets are not sufficient to pay off the business debts, he has to pay from his personal property.
(a) Unlimited Liability
(b) Flexibility
(c) Small capital
(d) Limited Liability
Answer:
(a) Unlimited Liability

Question 4.
A partner is entitled to interest at the rate of ………………. percent per annum on all advances of money made by him as a loan.
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
Answer:
b. 6

Question 5.
Which of the following is under non-corporate enterprise?
(a) Government
(b) Cooperative
(c) Company
(d) Sole trading concern
Answer:
(d) Sole trading concern

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
In Hindu Undivided Family how is the liability of Karta?
Answer:
In Hindu Undivided Family the liability of Karta is unlimited.

Question 2.
Mention any four kinds of Partners?
Answer:

1. Active partner
2. Sleeping partner
3. Nominal partner
4. Partner in profits only

Question 3.
What is the méaning of Ancestral Property?
Answer:
Property inherited upto 4 generations of male lineage(i.e., father, grandfather, etc.) is called ancestral property. The right to a share in such a property accrues by birth itself.

Question 4.
Write any two types of dissolution through court?
Answer:

1. When a partner becomes of unsound mind.
2. Permanent incapacity observed in its formation, management, or in its closure.

Question 5.
What is a limited liability partnership(LLP)?
Answer:
LLP is available in countries like the USA, Singapore, Thailand, and the U.K. It is very popular in the service sector and in small-scale business enterprises. E.g: Chartered Accountants, Lawyers, Architects, Engineers, and Doctors.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is unlimited liability?
Answer:
The liability of a sole trader is unlimited. Since, apart from his business assets, even his private properties are also available for satisfying the claims of creditors. Hence, creditors may give more loans because they can get back the loan from the personal properties of sole traders.

Question 2.
If it is possible to the dissolution of Joint Hindu Family business?
Answer:
Yes. But it can be dissolved only at the will of all the members of the family. Any single member has no right to get the business dissolved. It should be done through a mutually agreed partition deed registered by paying proper stamp duty meant for it.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the rights of a partner? (Any five)
Answer:
1. Right to take part in business: Every partner has a right to take part in the management of the business.

2. Right to be consultant: Every partner has the right to be consulted in all matters concerning the firm. The decision of the majority will prevail in all the routine matters.

3. Right of access to books, records and documents: Every partner has the right of access to all records and books of accounts, and to examine and copy them.

4. Right to share profit: Every partner is entitled to share the profits in the agreed ratio. If no profit-sharing ratio is specified in the deed, they must be shared equally.

5. Right to receive interest: A partner has the right to receive interest on loans advanced by him to the firm at the agreed rate, and where.no rate is stipulated, interest @ 6% p.a. allowed.

Question 2.
Briefly explain the Rights of partners. (Any 5)
Answer:
The mutual rights and obligations are usually stated in the partnership deed.

1. Right to take part in business: Every partner has a right to take part in the management of the business.

2. Right to be consulted: Every partner has the right to be consulted in all matters concerning the firm. The decision of the majority will prevail in all the routine matters. But, where the matter is of fundamental importance such as the admission of a new partner, change in the nature of the business, etc., the decision must be unanimous.

3. Right of access to books, records, and documents: Every partner has the right of access to all records and books of accounts, and to examine and copy them.

4. Right to share profit: Every partner is entitled to share the profits in the agreed ratio. If no profit sharing ratio is specified in the deed, they must be shared equally.

5. Right to receive interest: A partner has the right to receive interest on loans advanced by him to the firm at the agreed rate, and where no rate is stipulated, interest @ 6% p.a. allowed.

Question 3.
Briefly explain the duties of the Partners. (Any 5)
Answer:

1. Duty to carry on business: Every partner has to carry on the business of the firm to the maximum advantage of all the partners.
2. Duty to be true: Every partner must be true, just, and faithful to one another. There must be an utmost good faith and fair dealings.
3. Duty to render true accounts: A partner is bound to keep and render true and full accounts of the partnership. He must produce relevant vouchers for the expenses incurred by him and hand over to the firm all amounts which have come into his hands as a partner.
4. Duty to indemnify the firm: Every partner must indemnify the firm for any loss caused by his fraud or wilful negligence in the conduct of the business.
5. Duty to share the loss: Every partner is bound to share the losses in the agreed ratio in the absence of an agreed ratio, it must be borne equally.

Question 4.
Explain the types of Partnerships.
Answer:
1. Partnership at will:
Partnership formed to carry on business for an undefined period is called partnership at will. It is to be dissolved when a partner gives notice of his intention to dissolve the partnership. Thus this type of partnership continues its business activities as long as there are mutual cooperation and confidence among partners. Since it comes to an end at the will of any partner on his giving notice, it is called partnership at will.

2. Partnership for a fixed term:
Where a partnership is formed for a definite period of time, it is known as a partnership for a fixed term. The partnership for a fixed term comes to an end on the expiry of the stipulated period. But if the business is continued even after the original fixed period, it automatically becomes a partnership at will. As such it will be terminated at the will of any partners, giving notice of his intention to do so.

3. Particular partnership:
When a partnership is formed to carry on a particular venture or a business of temporary nature, it is called a particular partnership. Such a firm lasts so long as the business agreed upon is not completed. In other words, it comes to an end on the completion of the particular venture. If such a firm is not dissolved and it begins to undertake new activities not originally contemplated, the rights and obligations of the partners continue to be the same as in the original partnership and it will continue till a partner gives notice of his intention to dissolve the firm.

Question 5.
Limited Liability Partnership (LLP).
Answer:
Limited Liability Partnership is very popular in the service sector and in small-scale business enterprises. Limited liability partnership means for paying the debts of the firm only the assets of the business will be utilized and not the personal properties.

It is prevalent among popular professionals such as Cost Accountants, Company Secretaries, Chartered Accountants, Lawyers, Architects, Engineers, and Doctors. Limited Liability Partnership is available in countries like U.S.A, Singapore, Thailand, and the U.K. It came into existence in India in 2008.

Question 6.
What is meant by Mitakshara Law?
Answer:
Mitakshara is one of the schools belonging to Hindu law. The Mitakshara is a legal treatise on inheritance, written by Vijnaneshwara a scholar in the Western Chaiukya court in the 12th century. It became one of the most influential texts in Hindu law, and its principles regarding property distribution, property rights, and succession are still in practice across most of India except for West Bengal and Assam where the Dayabhaga system is practiced.

A salient feature is the principle of division of ancestral property held by. the Hindu joint family. Partition of such landholding among offsprings is possible even with the father still living, unlike the Dayabhaga system. Inheritance is based on the principle of propinquity i.e.‘the nearest in blood relationship will get the property. The system of devolution of property is by survivorship. The share of coparceners in the joint family property is not definite or ascertainable, as their shares are fluctuating with births and deaths of the coparceners.

Question 7.
What is meant by Dayabhaga Law?
Answer:
The Dayabhaga is a Hindu law treatise written by which primarily focuses on inheritance procedure. The Dayabhaga was the strongest authority in Modern British Indian courts in the Bengal region of India, although this has changed due to the passage of the Hindu Succession Act of 1956 and subsequent revisions to the act. Based on Jimutavahana’s criticisms of the Mitaksara, it is thought that his work is precluded by the Mitaksara.

Question 8.
What is meant by Dissolution of Partnership?
Answer:
Dissolution of partnership means the termination of the original partnership agreement. A partnership is dissolved by the insolvency, retirement, expiry, or completion of the term of the partnership. The business will continue after the dissolution of the partnership.

It takes in the following forms:

• Change in the existing profit sharing ratio
• Admission of a partner.
• Retirement or Death of a partner.
• Insolvency of a partner.
• Expiry of the term of the partnership.
• Completion of the specified venture.
• Dissolution by agreement.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 4 Sole Proprietorship Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 4 Sole Proprietorship

11th Commerce Guide Sole Proprietorship Text Book Back Questions and Answers

EXERCISE

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which is the oldest form of Business organisation?
a. Sole Proprietorship
b. Partnership
c. Co-operative Society
d. Company
Answer:
a. Sole Proprietorship

Question 2.
In which form the owner, establisher and manager is only one?
a. Joint Enterprise
b. Government Company
c. Co-operative Society
d. Sole Proprietor
Answer:
d. Sole Proprietor

Question 3.
A major disadvantage of sole proprietorships …………………….
a.Limited liability
b.Unlimited liability
c.Easy Formation
d.Quick decision
Answer:
b.Unlimited liability

Question 4.
From the following which one is Non corporate form of business?
a. Joint stock company
b. Sole trading business
c. Government company
d. Co-operatives
Answer:
b. Sole trading business

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Who is called a Sole Trader?
Answer:
Proprietorship is a form of business organisation in which an individual introduces his own capital, uses his own skill and intelligence in the management of its affairs, and is solely responsible for the results of its operations.

Question 2.
What are Non-corporate enterprises?
Answer:
The businesses which have no legal separation from the owners of the business are known as non-corporate enterprises.
E.g Sole proprietorship and Partnership.

Question 3.
What are Corporate enterprises?
Answer:

1. Government – Public Undertakings, Public Utilities.
2. Private – Joint-stock companies
3. Co-operative society

Question 4.
For which of the following types of business do you think a sole proprietorship form of organisation would be more suitable, and why?
Answer:
a. Grocery store
b. Medical store
c. Craft centre
d. Legal consultancy
e. Internet cafe
According to the features of Sole proprietorship, it would be suitable for Grocery Store, Craft centre.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
How is it possible to maintain secrecy insole proprietorship?
Answer:
In a sole proprietorship, as the trader is the sole owner of the business, the secrecy can be maintained easily.

Question 2.
What is an unlimited liability?
Answer:
The creditors have the right to recover their dues even from the personal property of the proprietor in case the business assets are not sufficient to pay their debts.

Question 3.
Write any three characteristics of Sole Proprietorship.
Answer:
1. Ownership by one man:
This is owned by a single person. The sole trader contributes the required capital. He is not only the owner of the business but also manages the entire affairs.

2. Freedom of work and Quick Decisions: Since an individual is himself as an owner, he need not consult anybody else. Hence he can make quick decisions.

3. Unlimited Liability: When his business assets are not sufficient to pay off the business debts he has to pay from his personal property.

Question 4.
Give some examples’ of the Sole trading business.
Answer:
Fruit sellers, Tailoring units, Petty shops, Super Markets.

Question 5.
Define Sole trading business.
Answer:
“Sole proprietorship is that form of business organisation which is owned and controlled by a single individual. He receives all the profits and risks of his property in the success or failure of the enterprise” – Wheeler.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the characteristics of Sole trading business.
Answer:
The following are the characteristics of a Sole Trader.

1. Ownership by one man:
This is owned by single person. The sole trader contributes the required capital. He is not only the owner of the business but also manager of the entire affairs.

2. Freedom of work and Quick Decisions:
Since the individual is himself as an owner, he need not consult anybody else. Hence he can take quick decisions.

3. Unlimited Liability:
When his business assets are not sufficient to pay off the business debts he has to pay from his personal property.

4. Enjoying Entire Profit:
He strives tirelessly for the improvement and expansion of his business and enjoys all the benefits of his hard work.

5. Absence of Government Regulation:
A sole proprietor concern is free from Government regulations. No legal formalities are to be observed in its formation, management or in its closure.

6. No Separate Entity:
The sole trading concern comes to an end with death, disability, insanity and insolvency of the individual.

7. Maintenance of Secrecy:
Since he/she manages all the affairs of the business, the secrecy can be maintained easily.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of the Sole trading business?
Answer:
1. Easy Formation:
No legal formalities are required to initiate a sole trading concern. Any person capable of entering into a contract can start it, provided he has the necessary resources for it.

2. Incentive to Work hard:
There is a direct relationship between effort and reward. The fact that the entire profit can be taken by himself without sharing with anybody else induces him to work ceaselessly.

3. Small Capital:
Small capital is an important as well as the specific advantage of a sole proprietorship. A sole proprietor can start a business with small capital.

4. Credit Standing:
Since his private properties are held liable for satisfying business debts, he can get more financial assistance from others.

5. Personal Contact with the Customers:
Since the sole proprietor knows each and every customer individually he can supply goods according to their taste and preferences. Thus he can cultivate a personal relationship with the customers.

6. Flexibility:
The sole trader can easily adjust himself to the changing requirements of his business.

Question 3.
What are the disadvantages of the Sole trading business?
Answer:
1. Limited Capital:
Since the capital is contributed by one individual only, business operations have necessarily to be on a limited scale.

2. Limited Managerial Skill:
A single person’s intelligence and experience may not help him beyond a certain stage. Since he has to focus on each and every activity, his managerial ability is bound to be limited.

3. Unlimited Liability:
The creditors have the right to recover their dues even from the personal property of the proprietor in case the business assets are not sufficient to pay their debts.

4. Lack of Specialisation:
Since the business unit is small and the financial resources are limited, experts in different fields cannot be employed to secure maximum advantages.

5. Hasty Decisions:
A sole proprietor is more likely to take hasty decisions as he need not consult anybody else.

11th Commerce Guide Sole Proprietorship Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct Answer

Question 1.
…………….. is that form of business organisation which is owned and controlled by a single individual.
(a) Sole trading concern
(b) Partnership firm
(c) Joint Hindu family business
(d) Joint-stock companies
Answer:
(a) Sole trading concern

Question 2.
A business run by an individual is known as …………………. business.
a. Sole Trader
b. Partnership
c. Company
d. Co-operatives
Answer:
a. Sole Trader

Question 3.
When his business assets are not sufficient to pay off the business debts, he has to pay from his personal property.
(a) Unlimited Liability
(b) Flexibility
(c) Small capital
(d) Limited Liability
Answer:
(a) Unlimited Liability

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
How were the decisions taken in sole proprietorship?
Answer:
Since an individual is himself as an owner, he need not consult anybody else. Hence he can make quick decisions.

Question 2.
What is the motive of the business undertaking?
Answer:
All business undertakings which are directly or indirectly engaged in the transfer or exchange of goods are aimed at earning profit and they are exposed to various types of risks.

Question 3.
What is limited managerial skill?
Answer:
A single person’s intelligence and experience may not help him beyond a certain stage. Since he has to focus on each and every activity, his managerial ability is bound to be limited.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Sole Trader.
Answer:
In the words of J.L. Hansen, “ Sole trader is a type of business unit where a person is solely responsible for providing the capital, for bearing the risk of the enterprise and for the management of the business”.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 3 Classification of Business Activities Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 3 Classification of Business Activities

11th Commerce Guide Classification of Business Activities Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer.

Question 1.
The industries engaged in extraction of iron ore are known as ………………
a. Construction Industries
b. Manufacturing Industries
c. Extraction Industries
d. Genetic Industries
Answer:
c. Extraction Industries

Question 2.
Auxiliaries to trade is also called as ……………
a. Trade
b. Advertisement
c. Warehousing
d. Aids to Trade
Answer:
d. Aids to Trade

Question 3.
Production which involves several stages for manufacturing finished products is known as …………………..
a. Analytical Industry
b. Synthetic Industry
c. Processing Industry
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Processing Industry

Question 4.
Normally high level risk involved in ……………….
a. Industry
b. Commerce
c. Trade
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. Industry

Question 5.
Commerce is mainly concerned with ………………….
a. Connecting producer and consumer
b. Pricing of Goods
c. Buying and Selling of goods
d. Manufacturing of goods
Answer:
a. Connecting producer and consumer

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define commerce:
Answer:
According to Evelyn Thomas, “Commercial operations deal with the buying and selling of goods, the exchange of commodities and the contribution of finished products”.

Question 2.
What do mean by industry?
Answer:
Industry refers to economic activities which are connected with conversion of resources into useful goods. The term is used for activities in which mechanical appliances and technical skills are involved. E.g Electronic industry would include all firms producing electronic goods, and so on.

Question 3.
What is trade?
Answer:
The term ‘trade’ is used to denote buying and selling. It is an essential part of commerce.

Question 4.
Write a short note on transportation.
Answer:
Transport or transportation is the medium which helps the movement of humans, animals and goods from one location to another. Since all the goods produced cannot be consumed in the place of production, it should be move to the places where they are demanded. The process of moving goods is known an transportation.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between Extractive industries and genetic industries.
Answer:
Extractive industries:

• These industries extract or draw out products from natural sources.
• Extractive industries supply some basic raw materials that are mostly products of the geographical or natural environment.

Genetic industries:

• These industries remain engaged in breeding plants and animals for their use in further reproduction.
• The seeds, nursery companies poultry, dairy, piggery, hatcheries, nursery, fisheries, apiary etc.

Question 2.
What do you mean by tertiary industries?
Answer:
The industries which produces utility services and sell them at the profit. These industries help trade, commerce and industry. The auxiliaries to trade like banking, insurance, warehouse, advertisement etc. are included in this.

Question 3.
Write any three characteristics of commerce.
Answer:
1. Economic Activity: Commerce is an economic activity because it consists of activities which are undertaken for earning profits. A trader buys goods with the aim of selling them at a profit.

2. Exchange of Goods and Services: Commerce involves the exchange and distribution of goods and services. Goods may be purchased or produced for sale. Commerce comprises both trade and aids to trade.

3. Profit Motive: The motive of commercial activities is to earn profits. Any activity which does not have the aim of profit will not be a part of commerce.

Question 4.
Narrate commerce with an example.
Answer:
Commerce includes all the activities which help in bringing goods from the producer to the’ ultimate consumer. According to Evelyn Thomas, “Commercial operations deal with the buying and selling of goods, the exchange of commodities and the contribution of finished products”. Commerce includes services such as transport, warehousing, packaging, insurance, banking and sales promotion which are incidental or auxiliaries to trade.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the various kinds of industries on the basis of size.
Answer:
1. Micro Units: A unit wherein investment in plant and machinery is upto Rs. 25 lakhs in case of manufacturing and upto Rs. 10 lakhs in case of service enterprises.

2. Small Units: A manufacturing unit wherein investment in plant and machinery is more than Rs. 25 lakhs but does not exceed Rs.5 crore. In the case of service enterprises, these limits are Rs. 10 lakhs and Rs. 2 crores respectively.

3. Medium Units: A manufacturing unit wherein investment in plant and machinery is more than Rs.5 crore but does not exceed Rs. 10 crore. In the case of service enterprises, these limits are Rs.2 crore and Rs.5 crore respectively.

4. Large Units: A manufacturing unit wherein, investment in plant and machinery exceeds Rs.10 crore. In the case of a service unit investment in equipment exceeds Rs.5 crore.

Question 2.
Compare industry, commerce, and trade.
Answer:

Question 3.
What are the characteristics of commerce?
Answer:
1. Economic Activity:
Commerce is an economic activity because it consists of activities which are undertaken for earning profits. A trader buys goods with the aim of selling them at a profit.

2. Exchange of Goods and Services:
Commerce involves the exchange and distribution of goods and services. Goods may be purchased or produced for sale. Commerce comprises both trade and aids to trade.

3. Profit Motive:
The motive of commercial activities is to earn profits. Any activity which does not have the aim of profit will not be a part of commerce.

4. Regularity of Transaction:
An isolated transaction does not imply commerce.

5. Creation of Utilities:
Commerce creates several types of utilities. It creates place utility by carrying goods to the place where they are needed. It makes goods available as and when demanded thereby creating time utility. By creating these utilities commerce helps to increase the volume of trade.

Question 4.
Write short notes on:

1. Analytical industry
2. Genetic industry and
3. Construction industry.

Answer:
1. Analytical industry:
These industries are called Secondary industries. These industries analyses and separates different elements from the same material, as in the case of oil refinery. In these industries the raw material is broken down into several useful materials.
E.g an oil industry separates crude oil into keroseñe, gasóline, diesel oil and petrol etc.

2. Genetic Industry:
The word ‘Genetic’ means parentage or hereditary. Genetic industries are concerned mainly with producing  breeding or multiplying of certain species of plants or animals with the object of earning profits from their sale. Examples of these types are nurseries, forestry, cattle-breeding, and commercial kennels. Animal husbandry is one type of Genetic Industry.

3. Construction Industry:
These industries are involved in the construction of building, dams, bridges, roads as well as tunnels and canals.

Question 5.
Briefly explain the auxiliaries to trade.
Answer:
Meaning:

Auxiliaries of trade may be classified into five categories:
1. Transportation:
Selling all the goods produced at or near the production place is not possible. Hence, goods are to be sent to different places where they are demanded.

2. Banking and Finance:
Nowadays we cannot think of a business without a bank. A bank is an organization which accepts deposits of money from the public, withdrawals on demand or otherwise, and lends the same to those who need it. Necessary funds can be obtained by businessmen from a bank. Thus, banking helps business activities to overcome the v problem of finance.

3. Insurance:
Business involves various types of risks. Materials and goods held in stock or in transit are subject to the risk of loss or damage. Insurance provides protection in all such cases. On payment of a nominal premium, the amount of loss or damage and compensation for an injury, if any, can be recovered from the insurance company.

4. Warehousing:
Goods are held in stock to make them available as and when required. Special arrangements must be made for the storage of goods to prevent loss or damage. Warehousing helps business firms to overcome the problem of storage and facilities the availability of goods when needed.

5. Advertising:
Advertising is one of the most important methods of promoting the sale of products, particularly, consumer goods like electronic goods, automobiles, soaps, detergents, etc. Advertising helps in providing information about available goods and services and inducing customers to buy particular items.

11th Commerce Guide Classification of Business Activities Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
All business activities can be classified into ……………. broad categories.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Answer:
(a) Two

Question 2.
Manufacturing industries may be categorized into ………………
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Ten
Answer:
c) Four

Question 3.
Horticulture is an example for …………….
(a) Primary industry
(b) Secondary industry
(c) Tertiary industry
(d) Local industry
Answer:
(a) Primary industry

Question 4.
…………………. industries produce utility services and sell them at a profit.
a) Construction Industries
b) Tertiary Industries
c) Analytical Industries
d) Manufacturing Industries
Answer:
b) Tertiary Industries

Question 5.
Professional or specialized skills and high technology are used to provide ……………. type of services.
(a) Personalised
(b) Public
(c) Distributive
(d) Quaternary
Answer:
(d) Quaternary

Question 6.
Expand MSME:
a) Major Small Medium Enterprises
b) Micro Scale. Middle Enterprises
c) Micro Small Medium Enterprises
d) Medium Small Micro Enterprises
Answer:
c) Micro Small Medium Enterprises

Question 7.
The service Enterprises with a maximum investment of 5 crores Is known as …………
a) Micro Unit
b) Small Unit
c) Large Unit
d) Medium Unit
Answer:
d) Medium Unit

Question 8.
Special arrangements must be made for goods to prevent loss or damage.
(a) Transportation
(b) Pricing
(c) Storage
(d) Advertising
Answer:
(c) Storage

Question 9.
Which of the following is not categorized as commerce?
a) Buy goods with ‘the aim of selling at profit.
b Exchange and Distribution of goods and services.
c) An individual sells his asset.
d) None of the above.
Answer:
c) An individual sells his asset.

Question 10.
Auxiliaries of trade are also called……………………
a) Trade
b) Advertisement
c) Warehousing
d) Aids to trade
Answer:
d) Aids to trade

Question 11.
The production which Involves several stages for manufacturing finished products Is known as………….
a) Analytical Industry
b) Synthetic Industry
c) Processing Industry
d) None of the above
Answer:
c) Processing Industry

Question 12.
Normally high-level risk involved in ………………….
a) Industry
b) Commerce
c) Trade
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Industry

Question 13.
Commerce is mainly concerned with
a) Distribution of Goods
b) Pricing of Goods
c) Buying and Selling of Goods
d) Manufacturing of Goods
Answer:
b) Pricing of Goods

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the Extractive industry?
Answer:
Extractive industries extract or draw out products from natural sources. Extractive industries supply some basic raw materials that are mostly products of the geographical or natural environment.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Tertiary Industries?
Answer:
The industry which produces utility services and sells them at a profit is known as tertiary industries:
They do not produce goods. They help in trade, industry, and commerce. It is also known as the Service industry.
E.g: The tourism and Hospitality industry, banking industries, etc.

Question 3.
What is the Secondary industry?
Answer:
Secondary Industries are concerned with using the materials which have already been extracted at the primary stage. These industries process such materials to produce goods for final consumption or for further processing by other industrial units.

III. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Write any three categories of Manufacturing industries.
Answer:

1. Analytical Industry analyses and separates different elements from the same materials, as in the case of an oil refinery.
2. The synthetic Industry combines various ingredients into a new product, as in the case of cement.
3. The processing Industry involves successive stages for manufacturing finished products, as in the case of sugar and paper.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write short notes on Primary Industries.
Answer:
These industries concerned with the production of goods with the help of nature. It is a nature-oriented industry, which requires very little human effort, for example, Agriculture, farming, forestry, fishing, horticulture, etc.
These industries are subdivided as follows:

Extractive Industries:
These industries extract or draw out products from natural resources. These industries supply some basic raw materials that are mostly products of the geographical or natural environment. These products are transformed into other manufacturing industries. These industries include farming, mining, lumbering, hunting and fishing operations.

Genetic Industries:
These industries engaged in breeding plants and animals for their use in further reproduction. The seeds, nursery companies, poultry, dairy, piggery, hatcheries, nursery, fisheries, apiary, etc are some of the examples of genetic industries.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Secondary Industries.
Answer:
These industries produced goods for final, consumption or for further processing by other industrial units. For example, the mining of iron ore is a primary industry, but the manufacturing of steel is a secondary industry.

It can be categorized as follows:

• Manufacturing Industries: These industries are engaged in producing goods through the processing of raw materials and thus creating from utilities. These industries may be further divided into four categories on the basis of the method of Operation for production.
• Analytical Industry: Which analyses and separates different elements from the same materials, as in the case of an oil refinery.
• Synthetically Industry: Which combines various ingredients into new products, as in the case of cement.
• Processing Industry: Which involves successive stages for manufacturing finished products, as in the case of sugar and paper.
• Assembling Industry: Which assembles different component parts to make a new product, as in the case of television, car, computer, etc.
• Construction Industries: These industries are involved in the construction of buildings, dams, bridges, roads as well as tunnels and canals.

Question 3.
Write a note on Tertiary industries.
Answer:
The industries which produce utility services and sell them at the profit. These industries help trade, commerce, and industry. The auxiliaries to trade like banking, insurance, warehouse, advertisement, etc are included in this. These industries are further classified as under:

• Personalized service: The individuals and private institutions selling their services to others is called personalized services. E.g Plumber, servant maid, etc.
• Public service: The government provides services to the people without profit motive through Government hospitals, schools, police, government offices, etc.
• Distributive service: Transportation, sales, warehousing, logistics, salesmanship, etc. come under this type of service.
• Financial service: Banking, factoring, accounting, and insurance, etc. are grouped under this type of service.
• Quaternary service: Professional or specialized skills and high technology are used to provide this type of service. E.g. Software development, Auditing, Research, and Development, etc.
• Quinary service: Selective individual experts create new ideas, implement new technologies and implement new policies. These decisions influenced the growth and development of national and international institutions.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 2 Objectives of Business Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 2 Objectives of Business

11th Commerce Guide Objectives of Business Text Book Back Questions and Answers

EXERCISE

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The Primary objective of a business is ……………………
a) Making Profit
b) Not Making Profit
c) Special skill
d) None of the above
Answer:
a) Making Profit

Question 2.
Occupation of a Doctor is ……………….
a) Employment
b) Business
c) Profession
d) Sole Proprietor
Answer:
c) Profession

Question 3.
The following does not characterize business activity?
a) Production of goods and services
b) Presence of Risk
c) Sale or exchange of goods and services
d) Salary or wages
Answer:
d) Salary or wages

Question 4.
Activities undertaken out of love and affection or with social service motive are termed as:
a) Economic activities
b) Monetary activities
c) Non Economic Activities
d) Financial Activities
Answer:
c) Non Economic Activities

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Economic Activities.
Answer:
Economic activities are those activities which are undertaken to earn money or financial gain for livelihood.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Business?
Answer:
Business refers to any human activity undertaken on a regular basis with the object to earn profit through production, distribution, sale, or purchase of goods and services.

Question 3.
Define Profession.
Answer:
Professions are those occupations which involve rendering of personal services of a special and expert nature. A profession is something which is more than a job. It is a career for someone who is competent in their respective areas.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Employment?
Answer:
The occupation through which people work for others and get remuneration in the form of wages or salaries is known as employment.
E.g. Managers, Clerks, Bank officials, Factory workers etc.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by human activities? Explain.
Answer:
Human activity is an activity performed by a human being to meet his/her needs and wants or maybe for personal satisfaction. Human activities can be categorized into economic and non – economic activities.

Question 2.
Write short notes on:
(a) Business
(b) Profession
Answer:
Business:
Business refers to any human activities undertaken on a regular basis with the objective to earn profit through production, distribution, purchase, and sale of goods and senders. It is connected with raising, producing, or processing goods. Business activities are classified on the basis of size, ownership, and function.

Profession:
The occupation involves the rendering of personal services of a special and expert nature. It is a career for someone who is competent in their respective areas. It includes professional activities which are subject to guidelines or codes of conduct laid down by professional bodies. The persons engaged in the profession are called professionals and they earn income by charging professional fees.

Question 3.
Explain the concept of ‘Business.
Answer:
Business refers to any human activity undertaken on a regular, basis with the object to earn profit through production, distribution, sale, or purchase of goods and services. Business activities are connected with raising, producing, or processing goods. The industry creates form utility to goods by bringing materials into the form which is useful for intermediate consumption or final consumption by consumers.

Question 4.
Briefly state the human objectives of a business.
Answer:
It refers to the objectives aimed at the well being as well as the fulfillment of expectations of employees as also of people who are disabled, handicapped, and deprived of proper education and training. It includes the economic well-being of the employees, social and psychological satisfaction of employees, and the development of human resources.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the characteristics of Business.
Answer:
1. Production or Procurement of Goods: Goods must be produced or procured in order to satisfy human wants.

2. Sale, Transfer, or Exchange: There must be a sale or exchange of goods or services. When a person weaves cloth for his personal consumption, it is not business because there is no transfer or sale.

3. Dealing in Goods and Services: Goods produced or procured may be consumer goods like cloth, pen, brush, bag, etc., or producer-goods like plant and machinery. Services refer to activities like a supply of electricity, gas or water, transportation, banking, insurance, etc.

4. Regularity of Dealings: An isolated dealing in buying and selling does not constitute a business. The transactions must be regular.

5. Profit Motive: An important feature of the business is profit motive. Business is an economic activity by which human beings make their living.

6. Element of Risk: The profit that is expected in a business is always uncertain because it depends upon a number of factors beyond the control of the businessman.

Question 2.
Compare business with profession and employment.
Answer:

Question 3.
Discuss any five objectives of the business.
Answer:
1. Economic Objectives:
Economic objectives of business refer to the objective of earning profit and also other objectives that are necessary to be pursued to achieve the profit objective, which includes the creation of customers, regular innovations, and best possible use of available resources.

2. Social Objectives:
Social objectives are those objectives of the business, which are desired to be achieved for the benefit of society. Since business operates in society by utilizing its scarce resources, the society expects something in return for its welfare.

3. Organizational Objectives:
The organizational objectives denote those objectives an organization intends to accomplish during the course of its existence in the economy like expansion and modernization, the supply of quality goods to consumers, customers’ satisfaction, etc.

4. Human Objectives:
Human objectives refer to the objectives aimed at the well being as well as the fulfillment of expectations of employees as also of people who are disabled, handicapped, and deprived of proper education and training.

The human objectives of business may thus include the economic well-being of the employees, social and psychological satisfaction of employees, and development of human resources.

5. National Objectives:
Being an important part of the country, every business must have the objective of fulfilling national goals and aspirations.

Question 4.
Distinguish between economic and non-economic activity.
Answer:

11th Commerce Guide Objectives of Business Additional Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Human activities can be categorised into …………….. types.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:
(b) Two

Question 2.
Which of the following is not characterized as economic activities?
a) Production of goods by the manufacturer
b) Selling by retailers
c) Medical advice rendered by a physician
d) Celebrating festivals
Answer:
d) Celebrating festivals

Question 3.
Occupations may be classified into ……………. categories.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:
(c) Three

Question 4.
Occupation in which people work for others and get remuneration is known as ………………….
a) Profession
b) Business
c) Exchange of services
d) Employment
Answer:
d) Employment

Question 5
………………. refers to the occupation in which people work for others and get remuneration in the form of wages or salaries.
(a) Employment
(b) Profession
(c) Business
(d) Industry
Answer:
(a) Employment

Question 6.
Economic activities performed for earning profits is known as ……………
a) Business
b) Employment
c) Profession
d) Avocation
Answer:
a) Business

Question 7.
An enterprise which is owned, managed and controlled by Government and private entrepreneurs are known as ……………
a) Public Enterprise
b) Private Enterprise
c) Joint Enterprise
d) Co-operative Society
Answer:
c) Joint Enterprise

Question 8.
Which one of the following is the example for Public Enterprises?
a) State Trading Corporation (STC)
b) Ramesh Bros
c) Maruti Suzuki
d) Sole Trader Concern
Answer:
a) State Trading Corporation (STC)

Question 9.
The National Objectives of business is ……………………
a) Promote Social justice
b) Special skill
c) Making a profit
d) Satisfaction of employees
Answer:
a) Promote Social justice

Question 10.
The primary objective of a business is ……………
a) Making Profit
b) Not Making Profit
c) Special skill
d) None of the above
Answer:
a) Making Profit

Question 11.
Occupation of a Doctor is …………..
a) Employment
b) Business
c) Profession
d) Sole proprietor
Answer:
d) Sole proprietor

Question 12.
The following does not characterize business activity …………………….
a) Production of goods and services
b) Presence of Risk
c) Sale or exchange of goods and services
d) Salary or wages
Answer:
c) Sale or exchange of goods and services

Question 13.
Activities undertaken out of love and affection or with social service motive are termed as …………….
a) Economic activities
b) Monetary activities
c) Non-Economic activities
d) Financial activities
Answer:
a) Economic activities

Question 14.
The economic activity which is connected with the conversion of resources into useful goods is known as ……………..
a) Commerce
b) Trade
c) Industry
d) Business
Answer:
a) Commerce

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by non-economic activities?
Answer:
Activities undertaken to satisfy social and psychological needs are called non-economic activities.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Employment?
Answer:
The occupation through which people work for others and get remuneration in the form of wages or salaries is known as employment.

Question 3.
What are Private Enterprises?
Answer:
An enterprise is said to be a private enterprise where is owned, managed, and controlled by persons other than Government.

Question 4.
What are Joint Enterprises?
Answer:
When an enterprise is owned, managed, and controlled by Government and private entrepreneurs, it is known as joint enterprises. E.g. Maruti Suzuki.

Question 5.
What is Joint Enterprise?
Answer:
An enterprise is said to be a joint enterprise where it is owned, managed, and controlled by Government and private entrepreneurs. Example – Maruti Suzuki

Question 6.
How do you explain large-scale business?
Answer:
The units which require large capital, employ a large number of workers and produce the goods on large scale is known as Large Scale business.
E.g: Suffola, Sunflower oil industries. (Extraction of edible oil from oilseeds in oil mills.)

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Briefly explain the Business activities on the basis of Ownership.
Answer:
On the basis of ownership business activities may be broadly grouped into three categories.

D Private Enterprises:
An enterprise is said to be a private enterprise where it is owned, managed, and controlled by persons other than Government.

Sole proprietorship.
Example – Sundar Stationeries
D Partnership firms.
Example – Ramesh Bros.

Public Enterprises:
An enterprise is said to be a public enterprise where it is owned, managed, and controlled by the Government or any of its agencies or both. Public enterprises may be organized in several forms such as

• Departmental undertaking – Public Works Department (PWD)
• Public Corporation – Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)
• Government Company – State Trading Corporation (STC)

Joint Enterprises:
An enterprise is said to be a joint enterprise where it is owned, managed, and controlled by Government and private entrepreneurs.
Example: Maruti Suzuki.

Question 2.
Write any three characteristics of Business.
Answer:
1. Production or Procurement of Goods:
Goods must be produced or procured in order to satisfy human wants.

2. Sale, Transfer, or Exchange:
There must be a sale or exchange of goods or services. When a person weaves cloth for his personal consumption, it is not business because there is no transfer or sale.

3. Dealing in Goods and Services:
Goods produced or procured may be consumer goods like cloth, pen, brush, bag, etc., or producer goods like plant and machinery. Services refer to activities like a supply of electricity, gas or water, transportation, banking, insurance, etc.