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Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Pdf Term 2 Chapter 3 Plants Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Plants

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Plants Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Male reproductive organ of the flower is _______.
a) sepal
b) petal
c) androecium
d) gynoecium
Answer:
(c) androecium

Question 2.
Pollination by wind is also known as _______.
a) anemophily
b) hydrophily
c) entamophily
d) ornithophily
Answer:
(a) anemophily

Question 3.
Entamophily is known as _______.
a) pollination by insects
b) pollination by wind
c) pollination by water
d) pollination by animal
Answer:
(a) pollination by insects

Question 4.
Pollination by wind is also known as _______.
a) anemophily
b) hydrophily
c) entamophily
d) ornithophily
Answer:
(a) anemophily

Question 5.
Pollination takes place by wind in _______.
a) grass
b) Vallisneria
c) hydrilla
d) lotus
Answer:
a) grass

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Spreading of seeds from one place to another is known as _______.
Answer:
Dispersal of seeds

Question 2.
Autochory is known as _______.
Answer:
Self dispersal method

Question 3.
The seed is a fertilized _______.
Answer:
Ovule

Question 4.
Paddy grow well in soil _______.
Answer:
Clay

Question 5.
The soil which contains a bigger sized particle is _______.
Answer:
Sandy soil

III. Match the following:

Answer:

IV. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Define pollination.
Answer:
The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to stigma of a flower is called pollination.

Question 2.
What is germination of seed?
Answer:
The seed is a fertilized ovule. It consists of an embryo, food materials which are protected by the seed coat. During favourable conditions, the seed germinates and gives rise to a new seedling.

Question 3.
How soil is formed?
Answer:
Soil is formed by the breaking of rocks by the action of wind, water and climate. The mixture of rock particles and humus is called the soil.

Question 4.
What is known as vermicompost?
Answer:
The process of decomposing bio-degradable wastes by earthworms is known as vermicompost.

Question 5.
How the seeds are spread by water?
Answer:
Fruits which are dispersed by water have outer coats modified to enable them to float. The mesocarp of coconut is fibrous and is easily carried away by water. They reach different places and grow into a new plant.
E.g. Lotus, Coconut.

V. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write a note on parts of Plants.
Answer:
Parts of a plant

• A plant is made up of many different parts. The three main parts are the roots, the
  leaves, and the stem.
• Each part has a set of jobs to do to keep the plant healthy.
• The roots absorb water and minerals from the soil and anchor the plant in the ground. The stem supports the plant above ground and carries the water and minerals to the leaves.
• The leaves collect energy from the Sun and make food for the plant, using an amazing process called photosynthesis.

Question 2.
Explain the methods of pollination.
Answer:

• Pollination by Wind (Anemophily): The flowers pollinated by wind are mostly small in size and do not have any attractive colour, smell and nectar. The pollen grains are non-sticky, dry, light and powdery. Hence, they are easily carried by the wind. E.g. Grass, Maize, Pine.
• Pollination by Water (Hydrophily): The flowers of water plants are not colourful and they have no nectar. Pollen grains of these plants have mucilaginous covering to protect them from getting wet. They float in water and reach the other plant. E.g. Vallisneria, Hydrilla, Zosteria.
• Pollination by Insects (Entamophily): This is the most common type of pollination in plants like sunflower, ladies finger, brinjal and pumpkin. Some flowers are large in size and they have a sweet smell. Some of these flowers produce nectar. They attract insects like butterflies and honey bees.

Question 3.
Draw the picture of a flower and label the parts.
Answer:

Activity:
Question 1:
Classify the plants based on the pollination methods.
Vallisneria, Hydrilla, Sunflower, Grass, Brinjal, Maize, Pumpkin.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Plants Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Kurinji or Neelakurinji (Strobilanthes kunthianu) blossoms once in _____ years.
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 15
Answer:
(a) 12

Question 2.
_______ is the outer part of the flower.
a) Sepal
(b) Petal
(c) Androecium
(d) Gynoecium
Answer:
(a) Sepal

Question 3.
Dicotyledons have seeds with _____ cotyledons.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(b) two

Question 4.
The example for Self Dispersal Method is ________.
(a) Ladies finger
(b) Coconut
(c) Lotus
(d) Tomato
Answer:
(a) Ladies finger

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Fruit bats, hummingbirds and ants may also act as _____ agents.
Answer:
Pollinating

Question 2.
The zygote develops into an _______.
Answer:
Embryo

Question 3.
_______ is used as food and also for medicinal purposes.
Answer:
Honey

Question 4.
The _______ of coconut is fibrous and is easily carried away by water.
Answer:
Mesocarp

Question 5.
The purplish-blue flowers of blossoms once in 12 years.
Answer:
Neelakurinji

III. Match the following:

I.

Answer:

II.

Answer:

IV. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
what are the kinds of reproduction?
Answer:
There are two kinds of reproduction that take place in plants. They are sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction. In asexual reproduction, new plants are produced from roots, leaves, stems and buds. In sexual reproduction, new plants are obtained from seeds.

Question 2.
Differentiate between unisexual and bisexual flowers.
Answer:

• The flowers which contain either androecium or gynoecium are called unisexual tlowers.
  E.g. Corn, Papaya, Cucumber.
• The flowers which contain both androecium and gynoecium are called bisexual flowers.
  E.g. Mustard, Rose.

Question 3.
Tabulate the names of the pigment present in petals.
Answer:

Question 4.
What is called fertilization?
Answer:
The process of fusion of male (pollen grains) and female (stigma) gametes is called fertilization. The cell which results after fusion of the gametes is called a zygote. The zygote develops into an embryo.

Question 5.
Label the parts.

Answer:

Question 6.
Label the parts.

Answer:

Question 7.
Draw a life cycle of flowering plants.
Answer:

Question 8.
How the seeds are spread by Wind?
Answer:
The seeds which are smaller, lighter and tiny, float in air over a long distance. Some of them proceed with hairs and membranous wing-like structures and so they are carried away easily.
E.g. Cottonseed, Drumstick.

Question 9.
Write a short note on Zoochory.
Answer:
Some fruits are provided with hooks, spines, bristles, stiff hair etc, on their outer coat. These fruits stick on the furry coats or skins of some animals and are carried from one place to another.
E.g. Xanthium, Achyranthus.

Question 10.
Who are the friends of Farmer?
Answer:
Earthworm, honeybee and dragonfly.

V. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write a note on parts of Flower.
Answer:
Flower is the reproductive part of a plant. It is a modified shoot. Flowers have four important parts. They are:

• Sepal: It is the outer part of the flower. Usually, it is small and green in colour. It protects the bud in the early stage.
• Petal: It is often colourful and it attracts insects.
• Androecium: It is the male reproductive part of the flower. It is composed of stamens. Each stamen consists of a stalk called filament and a small bag like structure called anther at the tip. The pollen grains are produced in the anther within the pollen sacs.
• Gynoecium: It is a female part of the flower. It has three parts. They are ovary, style and stigma. The ovary contains the ovules.

Question 2.
Draw a diagram of a leaf and label the parts.
Answer:

Question 3.
Explain the types of Soils.
Answer:

• Sandy soil: It contains a greater proportion of big particles. They cannot fit closely together. Water can drain quickly through the spaces between the sand particles. So, sandy soils tend to be light, well aerated and dry.
• Clay soil: It contains a greater proportion of fine particles, packed tightly together. leaving little space for air. It can retain a lot of water in the tiny gaps between the particles. Plants like paddy grow well in this soil.
• Loamy soil: It Contains large and fine particles in almost same proportion. The best topsoil for growing plants is loam. It is a mixture of sand, clay and another type of soil particle known as silt. Silt occurs as a deposit in river beds. It has right water holding capacity for the growth of plants. Clay and loamy soil are suitable for growing wheat, gram and paddy.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Pdf Term 2 Chapter 2 Water Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Water

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Water Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
Which of the following microorganisms causes waterborne diseases?
a) Bacteria
b) Virus
c) Protozoa
d) All
Answer:
(d) All

Question 2.
Water is present in huge quantities as vapor and clouds in the
a) sky
b) earth
c) atmosphere
d) rain
Answer:
(c) Atmosphere

Question 3.
________ water is free from suspended impurities.
a) Sea
b) Well
c) River
d) Underground
Answer:
(d) Underground

Question 4.
________ of water is in oceans and seas.
a) 97%
b) 87%
c) 47%
d) 77%
Answer:
(a) 97%

Question 5.
________ is an artificial process of converting seawater into freshwater.
a) Distillation
b) Decantation
c) Reverse Osmosis
d) Desalination
Answer:
(d) Desalination

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The accumulated underground water comes out in the form of ________.
Answer:
A Spring

Question 2.
The process of changing water into water vapor by the heat of the Sun is called ________.
Answer:
Evaporation

Question 3.
Rainwater forms streams and ________ which join together to form rivers.
Answer:
springs

Question 4.
The process of collecting and storing rainwater is called ________.
Answer:
Rainwater harvesting

Question 5.
Cholera is caused by ________.
Answer:
Bacteria (Vibrio Cholerae)

III. Match the following:

Answer:

IV. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Write down the sources of water.
Answer:

• River water and lake water
• Seawater
• Well water
• Springwater
• Underground water

Question 2.
What is desalination?
Answer:
Desalination is an artificial process of converting saline water (seawater) into freshwater.

Question 3.
What are the processes involved in the water cycle?
Answer:
Water cycle consists of the following four processes:

• Evaporation
• Condensation
• Precipitation
• Flowing back to oceans.

Question 4.
What are reservoirs?
Answer:
A reservoir is an artificial/man-made lake, where water is stored. Most reservoirs are formed by constructing dams across rivers. A reservoir can also be formed from a natural lake.

Question 5.
How can we prevent dengue fever?
Answer:
We can prevent dengue fever by the following steps:

• Spray the house with anti-mosquito spray.
• Try to wear clothes that cover skin areas.
• Close the doors and windows during early morning and evening.
• Do not leave stagnant water lying anywhere in and around the house.

V. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write the advantages of rainwater harvesting.
Answer:
Advantages:

• Rainwater harvesting can reduce flooding in the cities.
• Rainwater harvesting can reduce top soil loss.
• Groundwater level can be increased.
• Groundwater can be conserved.
• It can improve plant growth.

Question 2.
How can we prevent waterborne diseases?
Answer:

• Good personal hygiene should be practiced and basic sanitation should be improved.
• Chlorinated and boiled water should be used for drinking.
• Drink boiled or pasteurized milk.
• Dispose of infectious wastes properly.

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Water Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The origin of river is ______.
(a) plains
(b) mountains
(c) valley
(d) ocean
Answer:
(b) Mountains

Question 2.
______ is called saline water.
(a) Seawater
(b) River water
(c) Well water
(d) Underground water
Answer:
(a) Seawater

Question 3.
______ of the world population does not get safe drinking water.
(a) 24%
(b) 25%
(c) 26%
(d) 27%
Answer:
(b) 25%

Question 4.
_________ million people die worldwide every year due to diarrhoeal diseases.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
_________ of the total freshwater is frozen as ice caps and glaciers.
Answer:
68.7%

Question 2.
Agriculture consumes around ______ of the available freshwater.
Answer:
70 %

Question 3.
March 22 ispbserved as _______.
Answer:
World Water Day

Question 4.
Contamination of water bodies by human activities is called _______ pollution.
Answer:
water

Question 5.
_______ mosquitoes also transmit chikungunya and yellow fever.
Answer:
Aedes

III. Match the following:

Answer:

IV. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Why is underground water free from suspended Impurities?
Answer:
Underground water is free from suspended impurities because it is filtered by nature, as it passes through several layers of the soil.

Question 2.
What are balls of ice?
Answer:
In freezing conditions, water falling from the sky becomes snow or hail. Hailstones are balls of ice.

Question 3.
Define – Freshwater.
Answer:
Water which is obtained naturally from ice sheets, ice caps, glaciers, icebergs, ponds, lakes, rivers, streams, and underground are called freshwater.

Question 4.
Write the advantages of Wastewater treatment.
Answer:

• Waste water treatment ensures that the environment is clean.
• There is no water pollution.
• It prevents waterborne diseases.
• It ensures that there is adequate water for irrigation.

Question 5.
What are the major sources of Water pollution?
Answer:
The major sources of water pollution are industrial waste, sewage, domestic waste, chemical fertilizers and insecticides, synthetic detergents, and oil spills.

Question 6.
Name the Causative Agents and write the Symptoms for Dengue Fever and Sine Flu.
Answer:

• Dengue fever:- Virus (Flavi Virus) – High fever, Severe headache, Muscle and joint pain, Vomiting with blood, and Stomach pain.
• Swine Flue:- Virus (Influenza) – Infection in respiratory tracks, Indigestion, Nasal secretions.

V. Answer In detail:

Question 1.

Write a short note on Farm Ponds.
Answer:

• A farm pond is a structure dugout on the Earth. It is usually square or rectangular
  in shape.
• Rainwater is stored in it for irrigation purposes. It is surrounded by a small bund, which
  prevents erosion on the banks of the pond.
• The size and depth of the pond depending on the type of the soil, water requirements of the
  farmer, its uses, and the cost of excavation.
• Water is conveyed to the fields manually, by pumping, or by both.

Question 2.
write the names of Causative Agents and the symptoms for waterborne diseases.
Answer:

Question 3.
How is Dengue fever spread? What are the symptoms?
Answer:
Dengue is a viral disease spread by Aedes female mosquitoes that bite during day time.
They breed in stagnant water found in containers and old tyres.
Symptoms:

• Symptoms may include high fever, severe headache, muscle, and joint pain, and a characteristic skin rash.
• Symptoms of dengue fever typically begin three to fourteen days after infection.
• Deficiency of platelets in blood.
• Intense stomach pain.
• Regular vomiting with blood.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Pdf Term 2 Chapter 1 Food Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Food

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Food Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The biotic factor which spoils the food item is
a) drying
b) temperature
c) humidity
d) bacteria
Ans:
(d) bacteria

Question 2.
Grains are preserved by
a) drying
b) freezing
c) adding sugar
d) adding salt
Answer:
(a) drying

Question 3.
Anaemia is a disease which occurs due to lack of
a) Vitamin-A
b) Vitamin-B
c) Iron
d) Vìtamin-D
Answer:
(c) Iron

Question 4.
Storage of excess fat in the body is known as
a) obesity
b) headache
c) fever
d) stomach pain
Answer:
(a) obesity

Question 5.
Carbohydrates are rich in
a) ghee
b) fruits
c) rice
d) oil
Answer:
(c) rice

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Night blindness is caused by the lack of_________.
Answer:
Vitamin A

Question 2.
Marasmus is a __________ deficiency disease.
Answer:
protein

Question 3.
Bad smell from the food item is due to _________.
Answer:
Evaporation

Question 4.
Humidity in air is one of the _________ factor, which spoils food.
Answer:
Decompose

Question 5.
Using low-quality gas tubes in the gas stove may lead to _________ leakage.
Answer:
Gas

III. Match the following:

Answer:

IV. Say True or False:

Question 1.
Vinegar is added as a preservative for pickles.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Irradiation affects the taste of food materials.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
In case of gas leakage, we can continue to use electrical appliances.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Deficiency due to iodine is called beriberi.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Growing children need more proteins in their food.
Answer:
True

V. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Define deficiency disease.
Answer:
Deficiency in one or more of the nutrients causes various diseases. These are called deficiency diseases.

Question 2.
What is known as balanced diet?

Answer:
The food we normally eat in a day is our diet. For growth and maintenance of good health, our diet should have all the nutrients that our body needs, in right quantities. Such a diet is called a balanced diet.

Question 3.
How can we prevent obesity?
Answer:

1. Avoid fast foods, fried items and meat with more fat.
2. Eat fruits and vegetables, legumes, whole grains and nuts.
3. Do regular physical exercises.
4. Don’t play games in computer and mobile phones.
5. Have proper sleep time.

Question 4.
What should we do in case of minor burns?
Answer:
In case of minor burns, the burnt area should be held under cool running water for some time and proper medical treatment should be given.

Question 5.
Define spoilage of food.
Answer:
The change in the normal state of the food is called spoilage of food.

Question 6.

What is the purpose of food preservation?
Answer:

1. To retain the colour, taste and nutritive value of the food.
2. To make food available throughout the year.
3. To prevent the growth of micro-organisms like bacteria and fungi in the food items.
4. To reduce the wastage of food materials.
5. Preserving food not only protects our health but also makes food available to the people who need it.

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write about food preservation methods.
Answer:
Drying: It is the removal of water content from the food by drying it in the sunlight.
E.g. Grains.
Addition of salt: When salt is added to food, it removes the water from the food.
E.g. Fish, Pickles.
Addition of sugar: When sugar is added to food, it dissolves in the water content of the food and preserves the food items from spoilage.
E.g. Jam, Fruit juices.
Freezing: The microbial growth and the enzyme activity on the frozen food items can be prevented by this method. E.g. Fruits, Vegetables.
Boiling: It kills the micro-organisms present in the food materials.
E.g. Milk, Water.
Canning and bottling: In this method, food is packed in airtight cans so that germs do not grow on them.
E.g. Milk powder.
Addition of chemical preservatives: Chemical preservatives are added to stop the growth of micro-organisms in certain food materials.
E.g. Sodium benzoate is added with fruits, Sulphur dioxide is added with dry fruits, Vinegar is added with pickles.

Question 2.
Explain the different types of food.
Answer:
Different types of food

1. Grains
2. Vegetables
3. Fruits
4. Milk
5. Meat, Fish, Egg
6. Fat/Oil, Salt and Sugar
   Some major food items are given in the table below.

Question 3.
Write about kitchen safety.
Answer:
Kitchen is an important place in our homes. We prepare our food in the kitchen. We use gas cylinders for cooking. Some of us may use electric stoves. The equipment and the environment in the kitchen may be little dangerous. So we need to be cautious and careful.
The following table gives what should we do and what we shouldn’t do while handling gas cylinders.

VII. Higher order thinking questions:

Question 1.
Ram put water over a burning wood in the kitchen. The fire is put off. How the water was able to put out the fire?
Answer:
When Ram put water on fire it does two things. It displaces the free oxygen molecules (which have two atoms of oxygen) so that it is not available to participate in the burning process and it turns to steam, carrying heat away from the fire, cooling it to the point where it can no longer burn.

Activities:

Activity 1.
Classify the following into perishable and non-perishable food items. Salt, Sugar, Apple, Corn, Orange, Wheat, Pulses, Tomato, Papaya, Rice, Cucumber.
Answer:

Activity 2.
Look at the fruits and vegetables in your house. Is there any spoiled one? Find out the reason for that.
Answer:

Activity 3.
Find your B.M.I

Answer:
Activity to be done by students.

Activity 4.
Find out the common disease prevalent in your area. Find out the reason for them an discuss with your teacher how to get remedy for them.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Food Additional Questions and Answers

I.Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
Microorganisms present in spoiled foods may cause _________ diseases.
(a) foodborne
(b) Diabetes
(c) Colour blindness
(d) Cholera
Answer:
(a) foodborne

Question 2.
_______ disease is spread from one person to another.
(a) Heart disease
(b) Common cold
(c) Marasmus
(d) Diabetes
Answer:
(b) Common cold

Question 3.
Kwashiorkor is a _______ deficiency disease.
(a) Vitamin – A
(b) Iodine
(c) protein
(d) Iron
Answer:
(c) protein

Question 4.
Beri beri is a disease which occurs due to lack of _______.
(a) Vitamin-A
(b) Vitamin -B
(c) Iron
(d) Vitamin-D
Answer:
(b) Vitamin-B

Question 5.
Type of Fire Extinguisher for the fire caused by Liquid, Gaseous fuels is _________.
(a) Carbon dioxide
(c) Water
(b) Oxygen
(d) Dry chemical
Answer:
(a) Carbon dioxide

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
BMI=_____
Answer:
Weight In kg / Height In m2

Question 2.
Food is exposed to _________ rays or _________ rays.
Answer:
Gamma, ultra violet

Question 3.
Regular ________ can reduce obesity and overweight.
Answer:
physical activity

Question 4.
Infectious diseases are caused by _______.
Answer:
Micro-organisms

Question 5.
_______ are highly nutritive food materials.
Answer:
Spinach and Ponnanganni keerai.

III. Say True or False:

Question 1.
Spoiled foods are suitable to eat.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
People with BMIs between 18.5 and 25 have less chance of developing diseases like cancer.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Do not operate electrical appliances with wet hands.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Keep the inflammable materials near the gas stoves.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Use proper fire extinguishers to put out the fire.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:

1. e
2. c
3. d
4. b
5. a

Question 2.

Answer:

1. b
2. a
3. e
4. c
5. d

V. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Which food items are called Perishable foods?
Answer:
Food items like fruits, vegetables, milk and meat will be fresh for a very short time. These are called perishable foods.

Question 2.
What is meant by the preservation of food?
Answer:
The process of keeping the food materials for a long time without getting spoiled is called preservation of food.

Question 3
What is Irradiation?
Answer:
Irradiation is a modern method by which, food is exposed to gamma rays or ultraviolet rays to kill the bacteria and the mould.

Question 4.
What are the sources to be removed to avoid fire?
Answer:

1. Cut off the fuel.
2. Cut off the air supply.
3. Lower the temperature.

Question 5.
What is the Difference between Marasmus and Kwashiorkor?
Answer:
Marasmus:

1. Marasmus is a protein deficiency disease.
2. In marasmus, the child loses weight and it will appear as though bones are covered by skin.

Kwashiorkor:
In Kwashiorkor, the child develops an enlarged belly with swollen face and feet.

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What are the factors for food Spoilage?
Answer:
Food can be spoiled by factors like air and oxygen, moisture, light, micro-organisms, and temperature.
Air and Oxygen: When oxygen reacts with food contents, it produces changes in the colour and flavour of the food.
Moisture: Moisture keeps the food fresh. When the moisture is gone vegetables and fruits shrink. Due to evaporation, moisture loss occurs in foods like meat, fish and cheese. Enzymes: Enzymes break down the tissues and components of the food in different ways like oxidation, browning and ripening. So the food items decay.
Micro-organisms: Micro-organisms such as fungi, yeast and bacteria can grow well in low temperatures. They multiply in food and spoil them.
Light: Light produces colour changes and also vitamin loss.
Temperature: Sometimes the rise in temperature causes food spoilage.

Question 2.
Explain the different types of diseases.
Answer:
There are four main types of diseases. They are:

• Infectious diseases
• Hereditary diseases
• Physiological diseases
• Deficiency diseases.

a. Infectious diseases: Infectious diseases are caused by micro-organisms which invade our body and multiply inside them. These diseases are spread from one person to another. E.g. Common cold.
b. Hereditary diseases: Hereditary diseases are spread by abnormalities in the gene. These diseases are passed from parents to children. E.g. Heart disease.
c. Physiological diseases: Diseases which are caused due to malfunction of the body organs are called physiological diseases. E.g. Asthma.
d. Deficiency diseases: A diet which contains all essential nutrients in correct proportion is indispensable for maintaining good health. Deficiency in one or more of the nutrients causes various diseases. These are called deficiency diseases.

Question 3.
Write any 6 tips for fire protection and prevention.
Answer:

• Do not keep the inflammable materials like kerosene etc, near the gas stoves.
• In case of person’s clothes catching fire, cover the person with a thick blanket or carpet.
• If kerosene or oil catches fire, use sand to put out the fire.
• If solid materials like wood catch fire, use water to put out the fire.
• If an electrical appliance catches fire, unplug the appliances and disconnect the electricity.
• Use proper fire extinguishers to put out the fire.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 4th Social Science Guide Pdf Term 3 Chapter 3 Rights and duties of children Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 4th Social Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Rights and duties of children

Samacheer Kalvi 4th Social Science Guide Rights and duties of children Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
This is against Indian law __________.
(a) Children studying in school.
(b) Children below 14 years working in industries.
(c) Children participating in school activities.
(d) Children getting nutritious food.
Answer:
(b) Children below 14 years working in industries.

Question 2.
Polio drops are given to ____________
(a) Men
(b) Women
(c) Children
(d) Senior citizens
Answer:
(c) Children

Question 3.
A set of rules of a country is known as the _____________ .
(a) Story book
(b) Rule book
(c) Constitution
(d) Textbook
Answer:
(c) Constitution

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a right of children?
(a) Getting driving license
(b) Getting education
(c) Getting adequate food
(d) Living in a healthy manner
Answer:
(a) Getting driving license

II. Write True or False :

Question 1.
The child has the basic right to get polio drops.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
There are same rights for all age groups of children.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
All children of age 6-14 years should be employed.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Hitting children is wrong.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Children should be aware of bad touch.
Answer:
True

II. Match the Following :

Question 1.

Answer:

IV. Answer the following questions :

Question:1.
What are the three parts on your body where no one should touch?
Answer:
Lips, chest and between my legs.

Question 2.
What are the different rights you have as a child?
Answer:
The four major child rights are:

1. Right to survival ‘
2. Right to development
3. Right to protection
4. Right to participation

Question 3.
Write short note on right to survival.
Answer:

• It is to ensure every child has access to minimum standards of food.
• This helps in healthy growth in all children.
• There are different rights for children below the age of 6’and between the age of 6-14 years.
• This is because both the age groups have different needs for their

Question 4.
Have you ever used your right to participate? Describe.
Answer:
Children have the right to participate in matters related to them. This includes asking questions, giving suggestions and making decisions in things that affect them.

Question 5.
Why are rights important?
Answer:
1. Human rights also guarantee people the means necessary to satisfy their basic needs such as food, housing and education, so they can take full advantage of all opporunities.

2. Finally, by guaranteeing life, liberty, equality and security. Human rights protects people against abuse by those who are more powerful.

Samacheer Kalvi 4th Social Science Guide Rights and duties of children

Text Book Back Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
___________ is to ensure every child has access to minimum standards of food.
(a) Right to survival
(b) Right to development
(c) Right to protection
(d) Right to participation
Answer:
(a) Right to survival

Question 2.
There are many diseases that spread through ____________ .
(a) air
(b) Land
(c) Water
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Water

Question 3.
All children ___________ years have the right to go to school.
(a) Below 14
(b) After 14
(c) Below 16
(d) After 15
Answer:
(a) Below 14

Question 4.
Children have the ___________ in all circumstances.
(a) Right to participation
(b) Right to development
(c) Right to be protected
(d) Right to survival
Answer:
(c) Right to be protected

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
__________ is the lengthiest constitution of the world.
Answer:
The Indian constitution

Question 2.
The __________ is responsible to providing free education to all.
Answer:
Government

Question 3.
___________ is illegal to force children below the age of 14 to work.
Answer:
Child labour

III. Write True or False :

Question 1.
Right to survival helps in healthy growth in all children.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Every child has the right to go to school and develop life skills.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Children have does not any rights.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Children have the right to be protected against danger.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following :

Question 1.

Answer:

1. – e
2. – d
3. – a
4. – b
5. – c

V. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
What do you mean by citizen?
Answer:

• Citizen is a person who is a member of a country.
• A citizen enjoys the rights given to him/her by the country.

Question 2.
Who sets rules for citizens?
Answer:
The constitution of India sets rules.

Question 3.
Does constitution make citizens responsible?
Answer:
Yes, it helps all people to be a responsible citizen of our country.

Question 4.
What else is a part of rights to survival?
Answer:
The WASH programme is also a part of rights to survival.

Question 5.
What do you mean by WASH?

Answer:

• WASH stands for Water, Sanitation and Hygiene.
• It means there should be access to clean water for drinking and other needs.
• There are many diseases that spread through water.
• To avoid these, having access to safe water is very important.

Question 6.
Write a short note on Right to Development.
Answer:
Every child has the right to go to school and develop life skills.

Question 7.
What do you mean by child labour?
Answer:
Children are involved in different works at different places. This is called Child Labour.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 4th Social Science Guide Pdf Term 3 Chapter 2 The story of madras presidency Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 4th Social Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 The story of madras presidency

Samacheer Kalvi 4th Social Science Guide The story of madras presidency Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Madras Presidency was formed in _____________ .
(a) 1800
(b) 1801
(c) 1802
(d) 1803
Answer:
(b) 1801

Question 2.
Madras Presidency was officially renamed as Tamil Nadu in _____________.
(a) 1947
(b) 1953
(c) 1956
(d) 1969
Answer:
(d) 1969

Question 3.
Mamallapuram was created by the _____________ .
(a) Nayak dynasty
(b) Pallava dynasty
(c) Cholas
(d) British
Answer:
(b) Pallava dynasty

Question 4.
Which is called as the “Spa of the South India”?
(a) Bodinayakanur
(b) Hogenakkal
(c) Courtallam
(d) Gingee Fort
Answer:
(c) Courtallam

Question 5.
Manora is known for the eight storied miniature fortress built by ___________ .
(a) Rajah Serfoji
(b) Chinna Bommi Nayak
(c) Thimma Reddy Nayak
(d) Thirumalai Nayakkar
Answer:
(a) Rajah Serfoji

II. Write True or False :

Question 1.
The city of Madras was the capital of the Madras Presidency.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Uthiramerur an ancient Chola village, is located in Salem District
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Thirumalai Nayakkar Palace was built by Thirumalai Nayakkar.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Coimbatore is called as “The Manchester of South India”.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Gangaikonda Cholapuram temple is popularly known as Thanjai Periya Koil.
Answer:
False

III. Match the following :

Question 1.

Answer:

IV. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
What is the significance of the Gingee Fort?
Answer:

• Gingee Fort also called as Senji Fort is one of the beautiful forts in Tamil Nadu.
• This fortress is built across three hillocks in Villupuram district.
• The British called this fort as “Troy of the East”.

Question 2.
What were the main features of the Thirumalai Nayakkar Palace?
Answer:

• Thirumalai Nayakkar Palace, built by Thirumalai Nayakkar, located in the district of Madurai.
• It is classic fusion of Dravidian and Islamic architecture.

Question 3.
Name some of the tourist places in Salem district.
Answer:

1. Mettur Dam
2. Yercaud
3. Kailasanathar Temple
4. Sankagiri Fort

Question 4.
Write a short note on Kallanai.
Answer:
Kallanai is an ancient dam built across the River Cauvery in South India. This dam was constructed in 2nd century AD(CE) by the Chola King Karikalan.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Rock fort.
Answer:

• Tiruchirappalli Rockfort is a temple built on an ancient rock.
• It is constructed on a rock that is 83 meters tall.
• There are two Hindu temples inside the fort.

Question 6.
Name some of the tourist places in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1.  Marina Beach
2.  Mahabalipuram
3.  Vellore fort
4.  Pulicat lake
5.  Hogenakkal waer falls
6.  Ooty, Kodikanal
7.  Yercarud
8.  Kolli Hills

Samacheer Kalvi 4th Social Science Guide The story of madras presidency Text Book Back Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
In 1862, the Madras Province was divided into _________ districts.
(a) 20
(b) 22
(c) 28
(d) 30
Answer:
(b) 22

Question 2.
Mamallapuram was created by the __________ Dynasty.
(a) Pallava
(b) Chera
(c) Chola
(d) Pandiya
Answer:
(a) Pallava

Question 3.
Vellore Fort is an ancient fort built in ____________.
(a) 1565
(b) 1566
(c) 1568
(d) 1569
Answer:
(b) 1566

Question 4.
Gingee Fort also called as _____________.
(a) Senji Fort
(b) Vellore Fort
(c) St.George Fort
(d) rock Fort
Answer:
(a) Senji Fort

Question 5.
Anaimalai wildlife sanctuary is located in the __________ district.
(a) Salem
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Erode
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(b) Coimbatore

Question 6.
Keeladi is located on the ___________ district.
(a) Madurai
(b) Salem
(c) Sivagangai
(d) Villupuram
Answer:
(c) Sivagangai

Question 7.
Courtallam is located on the __________ Ghats.
(a) Eastern
(b) Western
(c) Nothern
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Western

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
__________ was an important province of British India.
Answer:
Madras presidency

Question 2.
The last British Governor of Madras Presidnency was __________ .
Answer:
Archibald Edward Nye

3. Uthiramerur, an ancient Chola village, is located in __________ district.
Answer:
Kancheepuram

Question 4.
The temple inscriptions of ___________ are notable for their historical descriptions of rural self – governance.
Answer:
Uthiramerur

Question 5.
___________ is the biggest observatory in Asia.
Answer:
Vainu Bappu Observatory

Question 6.
__________ is the highest peak in the Nilgiris.
Answer:
Doddabetta

III. Write True or False :

Question 1.
The first British Governor of Madras presidency was Edward dive.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Mamallapuram has many rock sculptures and is declared by UNO.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Auroville is an experimental township in Villupuram district.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Mettur dam means an area surrounded by mountains.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Thirumalai Nayakkar palace is classic fusion of Dravidian and Islamic architecture.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Thoothukudi is called as the pearl city.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the Following :
Question 1.

Answer:

1. – e
2. – d
3. – a
4. – b
5. – c

V. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Write a short note on Madras Presidency.
Answer:

• Madras Presidency was formed in 1801.
• It was an important province of British India.
• It was also known as Madras Province and officially known as the Presidency of Fort St. George.
• It included areas of southern India, such as the states of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, parts of Odisha and the Union Territory of Lakshadweep.

Question 2.
Who was the first and last Governor of Madras presidency?
Answer:
The first British Governor of Madras Presidency was Edward Clive and the last Governor was Archibald Edward Nye.

Question 3.
Name the modern district of Madras.
Answer:
The modern districts of Chennai, Tiruvallur and Kancheepuram constituted the Madras district.

Question 4.
Write a short note on (i) Mamallapuram (ii) Uthiramerur.
Answer:

•  Mallapuram :
  Mamallapuram was created by the Pallava bynasty. It has many rock sculptures and is declared by UNESCO as a World Heritage site.
•  Uthiramerur :
  Uthiramerur, an ancient Chola village, is located in . Kancheepuram district. The temple inscriptions of Uthiramerur are
  notable for their historical descriptions of rural self-governance.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Salem?
Answer:
The name Salem is derived from the word “SAILAM”. It means an area surrounded by Mountains.

Question 6.
What are the features of Thanjavur district?
Answer:

• Thanjavur is popularly known as the Delta area and the “Rice Bowl of Tamil Nadu”.
• Manora Fort is located in the district of Tanjore.
• It is known for the eight-storied miniature fortress built by Rajah Serfoji.

Question 7.
Name some waterfalls in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Hogenakkal Waterfalls
• Mayil Ootru Waterfalls
• Suruli Falls
• Courtallam
• Ayyanar Falls

Question 8.
What are the Modern state of Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
The districts of Chittoor, Nellore, Cuddapah, a part of Anantapur, Guntur, Kurnool, Kistna, Godivari East, Godivari West, and Vizagapatanam are included in modern state of Andhra Pradesh.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 4th Social Science Guide Pdf Term 3 Chapter 1 Tamils around the world Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 4th Social Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Tamils around the world

Samacheer Kalvi 4th Social Science Guide Tamils around the world Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
One of the official languages of Sri Lanka is _____________.
(a) Mandarin
(b) Hindi
(c) Tamil
(d) Sanskrit
Answer:
(c) Tamil

Question 2.
Modern Singapore was founded in ____________.
(a) 1819
(b) 1820
(c) 1947
(d) 1835
Answer:
(a) 1819

Question 3.
In ancient times, Kedah state in Malaysia connected with ____________ of Tamil Nadu by sea route.
(a) Visakhapatnam
(b) Nagapattinam
(c) Madurai
(d) Chennai
Answer:
Nagapattinam

Question 4.
Principal religion of Myanmar is ____________.
(a) Hinduism
(b) Jainism
(c) Buddhism
(d) Sikhism
Answer:
(c) Buddhism

Question 5.
In the year ____________ British captured Mauritius.
(a) 1810
(b) 1820
(c) 1910
(d) 1920
Answer:
(a) 1810

II. Match the Following :

Question 1.

Answer:

III. Write True or False :

Question 1.
Pallava and Cholas influenced Malaysia.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Fiji is a group of volcanic islands in the South Pacific.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
King Kyansittha is the son of King Anawrahta Minsaw.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The Reunion island is a part of the French Overseas Department.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Tamils are living only in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
False

IV. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Describe the past relations between Tamil Nadu and Malaysia.
Answer:

• The relations between Tamil Nadu and Malaysia have existed for more than 2000 years.
• In ancient times, Tamils’ ships reached the modern Malaysian state of Kedah (Kadaaram in Tamil).
• Tamils influenced the cultural and political nature of Malaysia at the time of Pallava and Cholas.

Question 2.
Write a note on Reunion island.
Answer:

• Reunion is an island located in the Indian Ocean, near Mauritius.
• It is a part of the French Overseas Department.

Question 3.
Name the countries in which Tamil is one of the official languages.
Answer:
Tamil is an official language in three countries namely India, Sri Lanka and Singapore

Question 4.
What were the contributions of Tamils in constructing the country Mauritius?
Answer:

• Many Tamils were brought from, in and around Puducherry from 1731 AD(CE).
• Generally, slaves who lived here were mere labourers but, Tamils went there as skilled labourers and artisans.
• The Tamils helped the French make this island suitable to live and to construct many buildings.

Question 5.
(a) Which is one of the biggest Hindu festivals in Malaysia?
(b) Who is the father of nation in Myanmar?
Answer:
(a) One of the biggest Hindu festivals in Malaysia is Thaipusam.
(b) King Anawrahta Minsaw was the founder of the Empire.

Samacheer Kalvi 4th Social Science Guide Tamils around the world Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Ancient Tamil Nadu shared its boundary with the sea on ______ sides.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Answer:
(b) Three

Question 2.
______ is home to many Tamils.
(a) SriLanka
(b) Malaysia
(c) Singapore
(d) Myanmar
Answer:
(a) SriLanka

Question 3.
______ is a peninsula located in Southeast Asia.
(a) Singapore
(b) SriLanka
(c) Malaysia
(d) Mauritius
Answer:
(c) Malaysia

Question 4.
Mariamman temple was built in Singapore at ______.
(a) 1819
(b) 1828
(c) 1838
(d) 1848
Answer:
(b) 1828

Question 5.
______ is a group of volcanic islands.
(a) Fiji
(b) Myanmar
(c) Mauritius
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Fiji

Question 6.
temple is famous in Myanmar.
(a) Koneswaram
(b) Ananda
(c) Murugan
(d) Sivan
Answer:
(b) Ananda

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
____________ naval expedition helped to expand our trade and cultural relations the East.
Answer:
Rajendra Chola’s

Question 2.
_____________ temple has thousand pillars.
Answer:
Koneswaram

Question 3.
Tamil influenced the cultural and political nature of Malaysia at the time of ____________ and ____________ .
Answer:
Pallava, Cholas

Question 4.
Tamil is one of the ____________ languages in Malaysia
Answer:
Educational

Question 5.
This book was a Fijian version of the ancient Tamil book ______________ .
Answer:
Thirukkural

Question 6.
In 1850, people from Tamil Nadu moved here and worked in the ____________ fields.
Answer:
Agricultural

Question 7.
In the early days, Tamils worked in ____________ and _____________ plantations.
Answer:
Tea, sugarcane

III. True or False :

Question 1.
Tamil is also an official language of Sri Lanka.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
The Lord Murugan statue is the first tallest Hindu deity statue in the world.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
King Anawrahta Minsaw was the founder of Myanmar Empire.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Reunion is an island located in the Arabian sea, near Mauritius.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Tamils sailed to many nations as traders and warriors.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following :
Question 1.

Answer:

1. – e
2. – d
3. – a
4. – b
5. – c

V.Answer in short :

Question 1.
Write a note on Sri Lanka.
Answer:

•  Sri Lanka is home to many Tamils.
• There are two groups of Tamils living there. The first group is of people living in Sri Lanka. These people are called Sri Lankan Tamils.
• The other is group of Tamils who moved from India to Sri Lanka. They are called Indian Tamils.

Question 2.
What are the features of koneswaram temple?

Answer:
Koneswaram temple has thousand pillars. It is considered one of the richest and most visited temples in Asia.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Batu caves.
Answer:

• Batu Caves is a limestone hill, which has a series of caves and cave temple located at Gombak district in Malaysia.
• The Lord Murugan statue at the foot of Batu Caves is the second tallest Hindu deity statue in the world.

Question 4.
Write the features of Mariamman temple.
Answer:

• In 1828, a Mariamman temple was built in Singapore.
• It was built in Dravidian style by the Tamils.
• This is gazetted as a National Monument of Singapore.

Question 5.
(a) Who is launched by Thirukurali?
(b) Which temple located in Fiji?
Answer:
(a) Thirukurali was launched by Ratu Joni.
(b) The Siva Subramaniya temple is a Hindu temple located in Nadi, Fiji.

Question 6.
What are the features of Ananda temple?
Answer:

• Ananda temple is famous in Myanmar.
• This temple’s tower is made in Dravidian style.
• The upper part of the tower being made in North Indian style of architecture.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 4th Social Science Guide Pdf Term 2 Chapter 3 Transport Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 4th Social Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Transport

Samacheer Kalvi 4th Social Science Guide Transport Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer :

Question 1.
Which of the following is an example of land transport?
Answer:
(a) Car
(b) Ship
(c) Helicopter
(d) Aeroplane
Answer:
(a) Car

Question 2.
The first railway line was laid in ____________.
(a) 2019
(b) 1853
(c) 1947
(d) 1950
Answer:
(b) 1853

Question 3.
One of the major cities that connects Golden Quadrilateral highway is ______________.
(a) Chennai
(b) Kanniyakumari
(c) Madurai
(d) Trichy
Answer:
(a) Chennai

Question 4.
________________ is the oldest mode of transport.
(a) Boat
(b) Cycle
(c) Walking
(d) Bullock cart
Answer:
(d) Bullock cart

Question 5.
There are ______________ modes of transport.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Answer:
(b) 4

II. Match the following :

Question 1.

Answer:

III. True or False :

Question 1.
Transport is not needed for people.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Ports remain main centers of trade.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Roadways do not connect different parts of our country.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The Chennai Mofussil Bus Terminus is the smallest bus terminus in Asia.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Tamil Nadu has 5 major ports.
Answer:
False

IV. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Define transport.
Answer:
Transport is the movement of people, animals and things from one place to another.

Question 2.
List the different modes of transport.
Answer:

Question 3.
Describe railways. Name any two major rail links from Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Railway is the most important form of transport system connecting various states.

1. Tamil Nadu Express → Chennai → New Delhi
2. Chennai Express → Chennai → Mumbai

Question 4.
What is air transport? What are used for air transport?
Answer:
Air transport is the fastest way to travel to different parts of the world. Helicopters and aeroplanes are used for air transport.

Question 5.
Write any three advantages of transportation.
Answer:

1.  Growth of agricultural and industrial production :
   Transport system plays a huge role in the growth of agricultural and industrial production by carrying raw materials to different parts of the country.
2.  Growth in foreign trade :
   It helps in promoting foreign trade in a country.
3.  Promotes tourism :
   It helps people from different countries visit other countries.

Intext Activity :

Try to answer

Question 1.
Which is the only state in India that has more than 2 ports.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu

Question 2.
Name the ports in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1.  Ennore,
2. Chennai,
3. Tuticorin

Question 3.
Name the government agency that handles marine transport related infrastructure in the country.
Answer:
Shipping Corporation of India

Question 4.
Which is used to travel short distance in airways?
Answer:
Helicopters

Question 5.
How many international airports are there in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
4 international airports are there in Tamil Nadu.

Samacheer Kalvi 4th Social Science Guide 3 Transport additional  Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
_________ are a popular and environment friendly way to travel in India.
(a) Car
(b) Bullock Cart
(c) Bicycles
(d) Train
Answer:
(c) Bicycle

Question 2.
__________ connect the nook and corners of our country.
(a) Roadways
(b) Railways
(c) Airways
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Roadways

Question 3.
_______ are the road connecting important cities within the state.
(a) National Highways
(b) State Highways
(c) District roads
(d) Village roads
Answer:
(b) State Highways

Question 4.
_____________ was made in Integral Coach Factory in Chennai.
(a) Roadways
(b) Railways
(c) Airways
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Railways

Question 5.
In Tamil Nadu there are ______________ international airports.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 6.
Land transport is divided into roadways and ____________ .
(a) Railways
(b) Oceanways
(c) Airways
(d) Waterways
Answer:
(a) Railways

II. Match the following :

Question 1.

Answer:

1.  – e
2. – d
3. – a
4. – b
5. – c

III. True are False :

Question 1.
India has been building roads since old times.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
District roads connect villages or a group of villages.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Buses are managed by the respective state governments.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Indian railways is the 2^nd largest network in the world.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Helicopters are used for short distance.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
India’s road network is the second longest in the world..
Answer:
True

IV. Answer in brief :

Question 1.
What is land transports?
Answer:
Land transport is defined as the form of transport that happens on land.

Question 2.
Describe the Roadways and explain in types.
Answer:
India has been building roads since old times. Roadways connect the nook and corners of our country.

• National Highways (NH)
• State Highways (SH)
• District Road
• Village Roads

Question 3.
What is water transport?
Answer:
India has a very long coastline and hence ports remain main centers for trade.

Question 4.
What are used for water transport?
Answer:
Water transport happens through,

1.  Boat
2.  Speed Boat
3.  Ship

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Pdf Term 1 Chapter 4 Science In Everyday Life Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 4 Science In Everyday Life

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Science in Everyday Life Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
Blue appearance of the sky is due to ________ of light.
a) reflection
b) refraction
c) interference
d)scattering
Answer:
d) scattering

Question 2.
Who is known as Missile Man of India?
a) Sir CM. Raman
b) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
c) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
d)Ramanujan
Answer:
b) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

Question 3.
An example for reversible change is ________.
a) melting of ice
b) burst of balloon
c) burning paper
d) change of milk into curd
Answer:
a) Melting of ice

Question 4.
Chemical reactions are example for ________ .
a) reversible change
b) irreversible change
c) both of them
d) none of them
Answer:
b) Irreversible change

Question 5.
Which of the following is not an organic waste?
a) Flowers
b) Vegetables
c) Fruits
d) Battery
Answer:
d) Battery

II. Fill in the blanks:
Question 1.
The book Wings of fire was written by _______.
Answer:
Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

Question 2.
A stretched rubber band comes back to normal shape. It is an example for _______.
Answer:
Reversible changes

Question 3.
Most of the physical changes are _______ changes.
Answer:
Reversible changes

Question 4.
Newspaper is a _______ waste.
Answer:
Recyclable waste

Question 5.
Wastes from house and apartments are called _______ waste.
Answer:
Household

III. Match the following:

Answer:

1. e
2. d
3. a
4. b
5. c

IV.Circle the odd one:

Question 1.
a) Melting
b) Freezing
c) Boiling
d) Cooking
Answer:
d) Cooking

Question 2.
a) Boiling
b) Burning
c) Cooking
d) Rusting of Iron
Answer:
a) Boiling

Question 3.
a) Vegetables
b) Flowers
c) Fruits
d) Chemicals
Answer:
d) Chemicals

Question 4.
a) Paper
b) Glass
c) Metals
d) Paints
Answer:
a) Paper

V. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Sky appears blue in colour. Why?
Answer:
The sunlight is scattered by the gases and particles present in the air. The white light we see is composed of different colours such as violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red (VIBGYOR). Among. these colours, blue is scattered more. Because of this reason, sky appears blue most of the time.

Question 2.
What is reversible change?
Answer:
Changes which can be reversed are called reversible change.
Eg: melting of ice.

Question 3.
Differentiate reversible and irreversible changes.
Answer:

Question 4.
What are the different types of waste?
Answer:
Wastes are of two types, they are;

• Household wastes.
• Wastes from school.

Question 5.
Write a note on e-waste.
Answer:
e – wastes are electronic waste of computer parts, electronic materials, cell phone parts, CFL bulb. Every year 40 million tons of electronic waste is generated world wide, e-waste comprises 70% of our overall toxic waste. e-waste contains hundreds of substances, of which many are toxic.

Question 6.
Name the scientists from Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Dr M.S. Swaminathan.
• Venkataraman Radhakrishnan.
• Sir. C.V. Raman.
• Srinivasa Ramanujan.
• Dr. A.P.J. Adbul Kalam.

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write about different household wastes.
Answer:
Different types of household wastes are :
a) Organic waste: Kitchen wastes, vegetables, flowers, leaves, fruits.
b) Toxic wastes: Old medicines, paints, chemicals, bulbs, spray cans, fertilizers, pesticides, containers, batteries, shoe polish.
c) Recyclable wastes: Paper, glass, metals, plastics.
d) Solid wastes: Cloths soiled with blood and other body fluids.
e) e-wastes: Computer parts, electronic materials, cell phone parts, CFL bulbs.

Question 2.
Explain the need for waste disposal.
Answer:
Waste management is needed for the following reasons.

a) To control pollution: Various pollution like water pollution, air pollution and soil pollution can be avoided.

b) To conserve natural resources: Waste disposal is important for the conservation of our environmental resources like forest, minerals and water.

c) To control spread of diseases: Spread of infectious diseases can be controlled.

d) Recycle for further use: Wastes can be recycled to get products for further use.

Question 3.
How can you reduce waste in your school environment?
Answer:
The following practices will helpful to reduce wastes in school environment.

• Use reusable and recyclable bags and containers.
• Avoid one-time use items and use items which can be used permanently.
• Segregate wastes into bio-degradable and non-biodegradable items and hand over them to the municipal and corporation people who collect them.
• Do not throw away your wastes everywhere, put them in dustbins and dispose of them properly.
• Don’t waste food. Waste food in schools can be collected and used to feed cattle.
• Organic wastes can be converted into manures.

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Science In Everyday Life Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
Which among the following is the toxic waste?
a) Vegetable waste
b) Old medicines
c) Kitchen waste
d) Leaves waste
Answer:
b) Old medicines

Question 2.
Which is reversible change?
a) Raw egg to boiled egg
b) Ice cube to water
c) Burning paper
d) All the above
Answer:
b) Ice cube to water

Question 3.
Who is referred as the people’s president?
a) Sir C.V.Raman
b) Ram Nath Kovoind
c) A.P.J.Abdul Kalam
d) None of the above
Answer:
c) A.P.J.Abdul Kalam

Question 4.
Sir C.V.Raman won the Nobel prize for his work in _______.
a) Green revolution
b) Composite numbers
c) Structure of ribosome
d) Scattering of light
Answer:
d) Scattering of light

Question 5.
National Science Day is celebrated on _______.
a) 27th February
b) 28th February
c) 28th March
d) 27th March
Answer:
b) 28th February

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Water changes into ice on cooling is an example of ________.
Answer:
Reversible change

Question 2.
change is the _______ of a substance from one form to another.
Answer:
Transition

Question 3.
A.P.J Abdul Kalam was an _______.
Answer:
Aeronautical Scientist.

Question 4.
Changes which cannot be reversed are called _______.
Answer:
Irreversible changes

Question 5.
Most of the physical changes are _______ change.
Answer:
Reversible

Question 6.
Dissolving sugar in water is a _______ change.
Answer:
Reversible

Question 7.
Paper, LPG, CNG petrol etc, are _____ substances.
Answer:
Inflammable

Question 8.
Water on _______ changes to ice and on _______ comes back to water.
Answer:
cooling, heating

III. Pick out the odd one out:

Question 1.
a) Kitchen waste
b) Vegetables
c)Flowers
d)Fertilizers
Answer:
d) Fertilizers

Question 2.
a)Piece of bread
b)Polythene bag
c) Broken glass
d) Blades.
Answer:
a) Piece of bread

Question 3.
a) Reduce
b) Reuse
c) Recycle
d) Disposal
Answer:
d) Disposal

Question 4.
a) Milk to curd
b) Raw egg to boiled egg
c) Ice cube to water
d) Grain to flour.
Answer:
c) Ice cube to water

IV. Match the following:

Answer:

1. b
2. a
3. d
4. c

V. Say True or False:

Question 1.
Evaporation of water is a reversible change.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Burning of the paper is an irreversible change.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Rusting of iron is a reversible change.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Sky appears blue at sunrise.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Sunlight is scattered by the gases.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Blue has more scattered capacity.
Answer:
True

VI. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Why does the sky appear blue?
Answer:
Sunlight is scattered by the gases and particles present in the air. The white light we see is composed of different colours such as violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red (VIBGYOR). Among these colours, blue is scattered more. Because of this reason, sky appears blue most of the time.

Question 2.
Name the two types of changes.
Answer:
Changes can be classified as

1. Reversible
2. Irreversible changes.

Question 3.
What are reversible changes?
Answer:
Changes which can be reversed are called reversible changes.

Question 4.
What are irreversible changes?
Answer:
Irreversible changes are also known as permanent changes. Processes like heating, burning, mixing and powdering cause permanent changes.

Question 5.
What is meant by waste?
Answer:
Waste is any substance which is discarded after primary use. It is worthless, defective and of no use. They are unwanted and undesirable materials.

Question 6.
What are the 3R’s used to save the environment?
Answer:
The 3R’s are used to save the environment are Reduce, Recycle, and Reuse.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write the differences between reversible and irreversible changes.
Answer:
Differences between reversible and irreversible changes are:

Question 2.
What is household waste and write its classification?
Answer:
Wastes from home are known as household waste. Solid wastes disposed of home and apartments comprise of garbage and rubbish (bottles, cans, clothing, composts, disposable items, food packings, newspapers, magazines, and trimmings). We can classify the household wastes as below.

Organic wastes: Kitchen wastes, Vegetables, Flowers, Leaves, Fruits.

Toxic wastes: Old medicines, Paints, Chemicals, Bulbs, Spray cans, Fertilizers, Pesticide containers, Batteries, Shoe polish.

Recyclable wastes: Paper, &lass, Metals, Plastics.

Solid wastes: Cloths soiled with blood and other body fluids.

e-wastes: Computer parts, Electronic materials, Cell phone parts, CFL bulbs.

Question 3.
How can we protect our environment?
Answer:

• Use reusable and recyclable bags and containers.

• Avoid one-time use items and use items which can be used permanently.
• Segregate wastes into bio-degradable and non-biodegradable items and hand over them to the municipal and corporation people who collect them.
• Do not throw away your wastes everywhere. Put them in dustbins and dispose of them properly.
• Don’t waste food. Waste food in schools can be collected and used to feed cattle.
• Organic wastes can be converted into manures.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 4th Social Science Guide Pdf Term 2 Chapter 2 Physical Features of Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 4th Social Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Physical Features of Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 4th Social Science Guide Physical Features of Tamil Nadu Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Which wildlife sanctuary is located in Tamil Nadu?
(a) Mudumalai wildlife sanctuary
(b) Corbett national park
(c) Sunderbans national park
(d) Ranthambore national park
Answer:
(a) Mudhumalai wildlife sanctuary

Question 2.
Western ghats and Eastern ghats meet at ____________ .
(a) Aravalli range
(b) Nilgiri hills
(c) Himalayan range
(d) Vidhyas range
Answer:
(b) Nilgiri hills

Question 3.
The topmost branches of trees form a chain called ____________ .
(a) sunlight
(b) canopy
(c) forest
(d) mangrove
Answer:
(b) canopy

Question 4.
Tamil Nadu experiences _____________ .
(a) extreme winters
(b) highest rainfall
(c) tropical climate
(d) snow fall
Answer:
(c) tropical climate

Question 5.
_________ are found in the places where, there is heavy rainfall.
(a) Deciduous forests
(b) Swamp forests
(c) Evergreen forests
(d) None of them
Answer:
(d) None of them

II. Match the following :

Question 1.

Answer:

III. True or False :

Question 1.
Tamil Nadu is the eleventh largest state in india.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Tamil Nadu is located in the west of India.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Kurunji flowers blossom once in 2 years.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Tamil Nadu experiences hot and humid weather throughout the year.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Deciduous forests do not shed leaves.
Answer:
False

IV. Answer in brief :

Question 1.
Name the states that Tamil Nadu shares boundary with.
Answer:

1.  Andhra Pradesh
2.  Karnataka
3.  Indian Ocean, Kerala
4.  Bay of Bengal

Question 2.
What are the different landscapes of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
The landscape of Tamil Nadu can be divided into four categories namely:

1.  Mountains
2.  Plateaus
3.  Plains
4.  Coast

Question 3.
What are the different plains in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Plains in Tamil Nadu can be divided into river plains and coastal plains.

Question 4.
Name the waterfalls in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1.  Hogenakkal falls
2.  Courtallam falls
3.  Suruli waterfalls
4.  Vattaparai falls

Question 5.
Describe the climate of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu experiences tropical climate and there is very little difference between summer and winter. The temperature during summer can rise up to A0°C (40 degree Celsius). Due to its location, Tamil Nadu experiences hot and humid weather almost throughout the year with mild winter. Tamil Nadu is dependent on monsoon rains and often faces droughts if monsoon fails.

Question 6.
Differentiate evergreen forests and deciduous forests.
Answer:

Intext activity

Activity 1.

Question 1.
On the political map of India shade any two neighbouring states of Tamil Nadu.

Question 2.
Mark the Indian ocean, the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal on the map.
Answer:

Activity 2.

Question 1.
On the district map of Tamil Nadu any three coastal districts of Tamil Nadu.

Try to answer

Question 1.
Where do the Western ghats and Eastern ghats meet?
Answer:
Nilgiris hills

Question 2.
Name any two wildlife sanctuaries in the Western ghats of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Mudumalai wildlife sanctuary
2. Indira Sandhi wildlife sanctuary

Question 3.
Name some important rivers in Tamil Nadu
Answer:

• Palar
• Cheyyar
• Pennar
• Kaveri
• Vaigai
• Thamirabarani

Question 4.
Where is Courtallam waterfalls located?
Answer:
Courtallam waterfalls is located in Tenkasi.

Question 5.
During which months does the State receive rainfall from South West monsoon?
Answer:
June to September

Question 6.
Describe the weather of Tamil Nadu in a sentence.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu experiences hot and humid weather almost throughout the year with mild winter.

Samacheer Kalvi 4th Social Science Guide Physical Features of Tamil Nadu Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
______ is situated at the Northern end of Tamil Nadu.
(a) Pulicat lake
(b) Aravalli range
(c) Suruli waterfalls
(d) Pamban bridge
Answer:
(a) Pulicat lake

Question 2.
The landscape of Tamil Nadu can be divided into ____________ categories.

(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(c) four

Question 3.
Courtallam falls is located in _____________ .
(a) Tenkasi
(b) Theni
(c) Kanniyakumari
(d) Dharmapuri
Answer:
(a) Tenkasi

Question 4.
____________ is also called the Megamalai falls.
(a) Hogenakkal falls
(b) Courtallam falls
(c) Suruli waterfalls
(d)Vattaparai falls
Answer:
(c) Suruli waterfalls

Question 5.
The Pichavaram mangrove forest is located near ____________ in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Chidambaram
(b) Ramanathapuram
(c) Dharmapuri
(d) Theni
Answer:
(a) Chidambaram

II. Match the following :

Question 1.

Answer:

1. – e
2. – d
3. – a
4. – b
5. – c

III. True or False :

Question 1.
Tamil Nadu is located in the South of India.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Dottabetta is the smallest peak.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Kurunji flowers blossom only once in 10 years.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The coastal region extends from Chennai to Kanniyakumari
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Marina Beach, the second largest urban beach in the world.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Hogenakkal falls is called Niagara of India.
Answer:
True

IV. Answer in brief :

Question 1.
Describe the mountains of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu is the only state in India which has both the Western ghats and Eastern ghats. They meet at the Nilgiri hills, form a part of the Western ghats of Tamil Nadu. Doddabetta is the highest peak.

Question 2.
Name the hill stations in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu has various hill stations like Ooty, Kodaikanal, Kolli hills,Kothagiri and Yercaud.

Question 3.
Describe the plateaus.
Answer:
There are three plateaus in Tamil Nadu namely Bharamahal plateau, Coimbatore plateau and Madurai plateau. There are many small hills between these plateaus. Chennimalai is one among these hills in Erode.

Question 4.
What is river plains?
Answer:
Rivers Palar, Cheyyar, Pennar and Vellar form the Northern plains. The middle river plain is formed by Kaveri and its tributaries River Vaigai and Thamirabarani form the Southern plains.

Question 5.
Name the beaches in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(a) Marina Beach, the second longest urban beach in the world.
(b) Rameswaram beach is famous for its beautiful view.
(c) Kanniyakumari beach is famous for its beautiful views of sunrise and sunset over the water.

Question 6.
What are the types of forests?
Answer:
The forests can be divided into three types. They are
(a) Evergreen forests
(b) Deciduous forests
(c) Swamp forests

Question 7.
What is Mangrove forests?
Answer:
The word swamp means areas that are low where water gets collected easily. These forests are usually found near the beaches and river beds. The Pichavaram mangrove forest is located near Chidambaram in Tamil Nadu.

Question 8.
What is the other name for Suruli waterfalls?
Answer:
Megamalai falls

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Pdf Term 1 Chapter 3 Energy Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Energy

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Energy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Evaluation
I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
When diesel is burnt chemical energy is converted into _______.
a) wind energy
b) heat energy
c) solar energy
d) sound energy
Answer:
b) heat energy

Question 2.
Running water possesses _______.
a) potential energy
b) chemical energy
c) kinetic energy
d) sound energy
Answer:
c) kinetic energy

Question 3.
Unit of energy is _______.
a) Kilogram
b) Newton
c) Kelvin
d) Joule
Answer:
d) Joule

Question 4.
Which one of the following requires wind energy?
a) Bicycle
b) Photosynthesis
c) Parachute
d) Automobiles
Answer:
c) Parachute

Question 5.
Cow dung possesses _______ .
a) kinetic energy
b) chemical energy
c) solar energy
d) heat energy
Answer:
b) chemical energy

II. Find out the energy conversion that takes place in the following:

Question 1.
Iron box: _______.
Answer:
Chemical energy to Heat energy

Question 2.
Electric Iron box: _______.
Answer:
Electric energy to Heat energy

Question 3.
Electric fan:
Answer:
Electric energy to Mechanical energy

Question 4.
Speaker:
Answer:
Electric energy to Sound energy

Question 5.
Generator: _______.
Answer:
Mechanical energy to Electrical energy

III. Find out form of energy possessed by the following things:

Question 1.
A rock on the top of a hill.
Answer:
Pontential Energy

Question 2.
A rolling ball.
Answer:
Kinetic Energy

Question 3.
Charcoal.
Answer:
Heat Energy

Question 4.
Water falls.
Answer:
Kinetic Energy

Question 5.
Battery.
Answer:
Chemical Energy

IV. Match the following:

Answer:

1. e
2. d
3. a
4. c
5. b

V. Say True or False:

Question 1.
An apple falling from a tree is an example for kinetic energy.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Electrical energy is used to run electric trains.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Heat energy cannot be produced by friction.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Potential energy and heat energy are the two forms of mechanical energy.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
The unit of energy is joule.
Answer:
True

VI. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What is energy?
Answer:
Energy is defined as capacity to do work. S.I unit of work is Joule.

Question 2.
What are the different forms of energy?
Answer:
There are different forms of energy like mechanical energy, heat energy, light energy, wind energy, solar energy, electrical energy, and chemical energy.

Question 3.
What are the uses of mechanical energy?
Answer:

• In hydroelectric plants, kinetic energy of water is converted into electrical energy.
• Windmills convert kinetic energy of winds into electrical energy.
• Mechanical energy of the hammer is used to apply a force on a nail.
• Mechanical energy can bring a moving body to rest and make a body at rest to move.

Question 4.
State the Law of conservation of energy.
Answer:
Law of conservation of energy states that energy Can neither be created nor be destroyed. One form of energy is converted into another form of energy.

Question 5.
Give the uses of Light energy.
Answer:

• We are able to see objects with the help of light energy.
• Plants use light energy to synthesis their food.
• With the help of light energy, our skin is able to synthesis Vitamin D.
• Electricity can be produced with the help of light energy.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the types of Mechanical energy.
Answer:
Energy possessed by an object due its position is called mechanical energy.
Mechanical energy can be classified into two;

• Kinetic energy
• Potential energy

a) Kinetic energy: Energy possessed by a moving objectis known as kinetic energy. It is also known as energy of motion.
Eg: Moving car, cricket ball bowled by a player, bullet coming out of a gun.

b) Potential energy: Energy possessed by an object which is at rest is known as potential energy. It is also known as stores energy of position.
Eg: Object lifted above, stone in the stretched rubber, water in the dam.

Question 2.
Explain Conservation of energy.
Answer:
Energy cannot be created cannot be destroyed also. It is changed from one form to another form or transferred from one object to another object. Examples for conservation of energy in our daily life are :

1. Water dam :

• Water stored in water dams posseses potential energy.
• When water falls down, potential energy of water is converted, into kinetic energy.
• Kinetic energy of water rotates the turbines and electric energy is generated.

2. Electrical appliances:

• Electrical energy is used in many domestic appliances such as electric stove, iron box and fan.
• Electric energy flows into the coil in the devices.
• As current flows, it heats up the coil.
• With the help of this heat energy, we do many useful works.
• Thus, electrical energy is converted into heat energy.
• Electical energy is converted to mechanical energy in fan, light enrgy in bulb and sound energy in computer.

3. Driving a car:

• We use fuel in the form of petrol or diesel or gas to run vehicles.
• When this fuel burns in the engine, chemical energy is converted into heat energy.
• Burning fuel produces hot gases which pushes the piston in the engine to move the vehicle.
• Thus heat energy is converted into mechanical energy.

Samacheer Kalvi 5th Science Guide Energy Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
___________ is the only form of energy visible to human eye.
a) Heat energy
b) Light energy
c) Electrical energy
d) Chemical energy
Answer:
b) Light energy

Question 2.
Light travels at a speed of _________.
a) 3,00,000 km/s
b) 4,00,000 km/s
c) 5,00,000 km/s
d) 6,00,000 km/s
Answer:
a) 3,00,000 km/s

Question 3.
Sunlight takes _________ to reach earth.
a) 5 minutes
b) 6 minutes
c) 7 minutes
d) 8 minutes
Answer:
a) 5 minutes

Question 4.
Which of the following device converts chemical energy into electrical energy?
a) Battery
b) Loud speaker
c) Solar cell
d) Electrical motor
Answer:
a) Battery

Question 5.
___________ stands first in generating electricity from wind mill.
a) Kerala
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Karnataka
d) Andhra pradesh
Answer:
b) Tamil Nadu

Question 6.
The energy, possessed by a object due to its position is called _______.
a) Kinetic energy
b) Potential energy
c) Mechanical energy
d) Electrical energy
Answer:
b) Potential energy

Question 7.
The energy possessed by a cricket ball bowled by a player is _______.
a) Potential energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Mechanical energy
d) Electrical energy.
Answer:
b) Mechanical energy

Question 8.
Electric eel is a _______.
a) fish
b) snake
c) frog
d) none of the above
Answer:
a) fish

Question 9.
Which of the following is the example potential energy?
a) Object lifted above
b) Bullet coming out of a sun
c) Moving car
d) Cricket ball bowled by a player
Answer:
c) Moving car

Question 10.
What energy is possessed by stretched rubber.
a) Nuclear
b) Potential
c) Kinetic
d) Thermal
Answer:
b) Potential

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
_______ is a measure of heat in a body.
Answer:
Temperature

Question 2.
________ use wind energy to generate electricity.
Answer:
Windmills

Question 3.
The form of energy that produces feeling of hotness is called as _______.
Answer:
heat

Question 4.
Light energy helps our skin to synthesis _________.
Answer:
vitamin – b

Question 5.
When stored water falls down, potential energy of water is converted into _______.
Answer:
Kinetic energy

Question 6.
Electric eel can generate _______.
Answer:
electricity

Question 7.
Law of conversation of energy given by _________.
Answer:
Julius Robert Mayar

III. Say True or False:

Question 1.
Light does not require any medium to travel.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Mechanical energy can be used for pumping water.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Heat energy is used to run vehicles.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Heat is measured in Joule.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Water stored in water dams possesses kinetic energy.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Photosynthesis changes solar energy into chemical energy.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Wind mills convert kinetic energy of winds into electrical energy.
Answer:
True

IV. Circle the odd one:

Question 1.
a) Proton
b) Dentron
c) Electron
d) Neutron
Answer:
b) Dentron

Question 2.
a) Nuclear power plants
b) Hydroelectric plants
c) Water heaters
d) Windmills
Answer:
c) Water heaters

V. Match the following:

Question 1:

Answer:

1. d
2. a
3. b
4. c

Question 2.

Answer:

1. d
2. c
3. b
4. a

VI. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
What is mechanical energy?
Answer:

• Energy possessed by an object due to its position is called mechanical energy.
• Mechanical energy can be classified into two.
  • • Kinetic energy
    • Potential energy

Question 2.
What is energy of motion? Give examples.
Answer:
Energy possessed by a moving object is known as kinetic energy. It is also known as energy of motion.
Examples: Moving car, Cricket ball bowled by a player, Bullet coming out of a gun.

Question 3.
Write any two uses to mechanical energy.
Answer:

• Windmills convert kinetic energy of winds into electrical energy.
• Mechanical energy of the hammer is used to apply a force on a Class nail.

Question 4.
What is wind energy and write its uses?
Answer:
Energy possessed by the wind is known as wind energy.
Uses of wind energy

• Wind mills use wind energy to generate electricity.
• Ships sail by the power of wind.
• Sports like wind surfing, sailing, kite surfing use wind energy.
• Wind energy can be used for pumping water.

Question 5.
Name the particles of atom?
Answer:
Atoms possess particles like protons, electrons, and neutrons.

Question 6.
What is electric energy?
Answer:
Movement of electron in the objects causes energy. This energy is called electric energy.

Question 7.
What are the different ways electricity can be generated?
Answer:
Electric energy is also generated from nuclear power plants, hydroelectric plants, and windmills. It is also generated from solar energy.

Question 8.
Write the uses of Electric energy.
Answer:

• Electric energy is needed for the working of fan, light, television, washing machine, refrigerator, etc.
• Electric iron box, electric stove, and electric water heater work by electrical energy.
• It is used to run cars and trains.
• It is used in factories to produce materials.

Question 9.
What is law of conservation of energy?
Answer:
Law of conservation of energy states that energy can neither be created nor be destroyed. One form of energy is converted into another form of energy. This law was given by Julius Robert Mayor.

Question 10.
What energy transfer happen in a car engine?
Answer:
When Petrol or diesel or gas burns in the engine, chemical energy is converted into heat energy. Burning fuel produces hot gases which pushes the piston in the engine to move the vehicle. Thus heat energy is converted into mechanical energy.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write the uses of heat energy and light energy.
Answer:
Uses of heat energy:

• Heat energy obtained from power stations is used to generate electricity.
• Heat energy obtained from petrol and diesel is used to run vehicles.
• We cook food with the help of heat. Heat energy renders the food material soft and easy to digest.
• Hard substances like iron are heated to mold them into different shapes.
• Heat is used to dry clothes and other wet substances.

Uses of light energy:

• We are able to see objects with the help of light energy.
• Plants use light energy to synthesis their food.
• With the help of light energy, our skin is able to synthesis Vitamin-D.
• Electricity can be produced with the help of light energy.

Question 2.
Explain about chemical energy and its uses.
Answer:
Chemical energy:
Chemical energy is stored in substances when atoms join together to form chemical compounds. When two or more chemical substances react with each other, this energy is released.

Uses of chemical energy:

• The food we eat contains chemical energy.
• Chemical energy in wood provides heat energy which helps us to cook food.
• Chemical energy in coal is used to generate electricity.
• Batteries we use in our daily life contain chemical energy.
• Fuels like petrol and diesel possess chemical energy which is used to run vehicles.

Question 3.
Draw the diagram to show how the electric energy generated from water.
Answer: