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Students get through the TN Board 11th Bio Botany Important Questions Chapter 6 Cell: The Unit of Life which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 11th Bio Botany Important Questions Chapter 6 Cell: The Unit of Life

Answer the following short answers.

Question 1.
What is primary magnification?
Answer:
The first magnification of the microscope is done by the objective lens which is called primary magnification.

Question 2.
Name the two kinds of an electron microscope.
Answer:
There are two kinds of electron microscopes namely:

1. Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM).
2. Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM).

Question 3.
What is the main use of TEM?
Answer:
This is the most commonly used electron microscope that provides two-dimensional images. The components of the microscope are as follows: (i) Electron Generating System, (ii) Electron Condenser, (Hi) Specimen Objective, (iv) Tube Lens, (v) Projector. It is used for studying the detailed structure of viruses, mycoplasma, cellular organelles, etc.

Question 4.
List out the name of microscopes in which the light of illumination is visible light.
Answer:
Light Microscope, Darkfield Microscopy, Phase contrast Microscope.

Question 5.
What are the constituents of protoplasm?
Answer:
It is primarily made of water contents and various other solutes of biological importance such as glucose,fatty acids, amino acids, minerals,vitamins, hormones and enzyme.

Question 6.
Define cohesiveness of protoplasm.
Answer:
Particles or molecules of protoplasm are adhered with each other by forces, such as Vander Waal’s bonds, that hold long chains of molecules together.

Question 7.
Nome the three types of cells.
Answer:
The three types of cells are Prokaryotes, Mesokaryotes, and Eukaryotes.

Question 8.
Define mesokoryotes.
Answer:
These organisms share some of the characters of both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. In other words, these are organisms intermediate between pro and eukaryotes.

Question 9.
Explain primary cell wall.
Answer:
It is the first layer of inner to middle lamellae, primarily consisting of a loose network of cellulose microfibrils in a gel matrix. It is thin, elastic, and extensible.

Question 10.
How does a ‘glycocalyx’ form?
Answer:
The Carbohydrate molecules of the cell membrane are short-chain polysaccharides. These are either bound with ‘glycoproteins’ or ‘glycolipids’ and form a glycocalyx.

Question 11.
Define Endocytosis and exocytosis.
Answer:
Cell surface membranes are able to transport individual molecules and ions. There are processes in which a cell can transport a large number of solids and liquids into the cell (endocytosis) or out of the cell (exocytosis).

Question 12.
What do you understand by the term phagocytosis?
Answer:
The particle is engulfed by a membrane, which folds around it and forms a vesicle. The enzymes digest the material and products are absorbed by cytoplasm.

Question 13.
Define cristae of mitochondria.
Answer:
The inner membrane is convoluted (infoldings), called the crista (plural: cristae). Cristae contain most of the enzymes for the electron transport system.

Question 14.
Name any three odors plastids.
Answer:
The three odors plastids are Chloroplast, Phaeoplast, Rhodoplast.

Question 15.
What is the main function of polysome?
Answer:
The function of polysomes in the formation of several copies of a particular polypeptide during protein synthesis.

Question 16.
What are Glyoxysomes?
Answer:
Glyoxysome is a single membrane-bound organelle. It is a sub-cellular organelle and contains enzymes of glyoxylate pathway, fi-oxidation of fatty acid occurs in glyoxysomes of germinating seeds, eg. Castor seeds.

Question 17.
What is the main function of .plant vacuoles?
Answer:
The major function of plant vacuole is to maintain water pressure known as turgor pressure, which maintains the plant structure. Vacuoles organize themselves into a storage/sequestration compartment.

Question 18.
What are the reserve materials present in prokaryotes?
Answer:
In prokaryotes, reserve materials such as phosphate granules, cyanophycean granules, glycogen granules, poly-hydroxy butyrate granules, sulfur granules, carboxysomes, and gas vacuoles are present.

Question 19.
Explain briefly the Holocentric chromosomes.
Answer:
Holocentric chromosomes have centromere activity distributed along the whole surface of the chromosome during mitosis. The holocentric condition can be seen in Caenorhabditis elegans (transparent nematode) Mid many insects.

Question 20.
What do you know about microphotographs?
Answer:
Images of structures observed through microscopes can be further magnified, projected, and saved by attaching a camera to the microscope by a microscope coupler or; eyepiece adaptor. Picture taken using an inbuilt camera in a microscope is called microphotography or microphotograph.

Answer In brief.

Question 1.
Describe briefly the Darkfield microscope.
Answer:

1. The darkfield microscope was discovered by Z. Sigmondy (1905). Here the field will be dark but the object will be glistening so the appearance will be bright.
2. A special effect in an ordinary microscope is brought about by means of a special component called Patch Stop Carrier’.
3. It is fixed in the metal ring of the condenser component
4. Patch top is a small glass device that has a dark patch at the center of the disc leaving a small area along the margin through which the light passes.
5. The light passing through the margin will travel oblique like a hollow cone and strikes the object in the periphery, therefore the specimen appears glistening in a dark background.

Question 2.
Explain the principle and function of a scanning electron microscope.
Answer:

1. This is used to obtain the three-dimensional image and has a lower resolving power than TEM.
   In this, electrons are focused by means of lenses into a very fine point.
2. The interaction of electrons with the specimen results in the release of different forms of radiation (such as Auger electrons, secondary electrons, backscattered electrons) from the surface of the specimen.
3. These radiations are then captured by an appropriate detector, amplified, and then imaged on a fluorescent screen.
4. The magnification is. 2,00,000 times and resolution is 5-20 nm.

Question 3.
Enumerate the functions of the cell wall.
Answer:

1. Offers definite shape and rigidity to the cell.
2. Serves as a barrier for several molecules to enter the cells.
3. Provides protection to the internal protoplasm against mechanical injury.
4. Prevents the bursting of cells by maintaining the osmotic pressure.
5. Plays a major role by acting as a mechanism of defense for the cells.

Question 4.
What do you know about signal transduction in cells? Explain briefly.
Answer:

1. The process by which the cell receives information from outside and responds is called signal transduction.
2. Plants, fungi, and animal cells use nitric oxide as one of the many signaling molecules.
3. The cell membrane is the site of chemical interactions of signal transduction.
4. Receptors receive the information from the first messenger and transmit the message through series of membrane proteins.
5. It activates a second messenger which stimulates the cell to carry out specific functions.

Question 5.
List out the functions of Golgi bodies.
Answer:

1. Glycoproteins and glycolipids are produced.
2. Transporting and storing lipids.
3. Formation of lysosomes.
4. Production of digestive enzymes.
5. Cell plate and cell wall formation
6. Secretion of Carbohydrates for the formation of plant cell walls and insect cuticles.

Question 6.
How do the grana in chloroplast form? Mention their structure and function.
Answer:

1. Grana (singular: Granum) are formed when many of these thylakoids are stacked together
   like a pile of coins.
2. Light is absorbed and converted into chemical energy in the granum, which is used in the stroma to prepare carbohydrates. Thylakoids contain chlorophyll pigments.
3. The chloroplast contains osmophilic granules, 70s ribosomes, DNA (circular and non-histone), and RNA.
4. This chloroplast genome encodes approximately 30 proteins involved in photosynthesis including the components of photosystem I & II, cytochrome bf complex, and ATP synthase.
5. One of the subunits of Rubisco is encoded by chloroplast DNA.
6. It is the major protein component of chloroplast stroma, the single most abundant protein on earth.
7. The thylakoid contains small, rounded photosynthetic units called quantosomes.
8. It is a semi-autonomous organelle and divides by fission.

Question 7.
Explain the types of chromosomes based on the position of the centromere.
Answer:

1. Based on the position of the centromere, chromosomes are called telocentric (terminal centromere), Acrocentric (terminal centromere capped by telomere), Sub metacentric
2. The eukaryotic chromosomes may be tod-shaped (telocentric and acrocentric), L-shaped (sub-metacentric), and V-shaped (metacentric).
   

Question 8.
Describe the structure of flagellum in bacteria.
Answer:
The gram-positive bacteria contain only two basal rings. S-ring is attached to the inside of peptidoglycan and M-ring is attached to the cell membrane. In Gram-negative bacteria, two pairs of rings proximal and distal ring are connected by a central rod. They are L- Lipopolysacchride ring P- Peptidoglycan ring, S-Super membrane ring, and M-membrane ring. The outer pair of L and P rings are attached to the cell wall and the inner pair of S and M rings attached to the cell membrane.

Question 9.
Explain the structure and function of Cilia.
Answer:

Cilia (plural) are short cellular, numerous microtubule bound projections of the plasma membrane.
Cilium (singular) is a membrane-bound structure made up of basal body, rootlets, basal plate, and shaft. The shaft or axoneme consists of nine pairs of microtubule doublets, arranged in a circle along the die periphery with two central tubules, (9 + 2) arrangement of microtubules is present. Microtubules are made up of tubulin. The motor protein dynein connects the outer microtubule pair and links them to the central pair. Nexin links the peripheral doublets of microtubules.

Answer In detail.

Question 1.
Enumerate the physical properties of protoplasm.
Answer:
Physical Properties of Protoplasm: The protoplasm exists either in a semisolid (jelly-like) state called ‘gel’ due to suspended particles and various chemical bonds or maybe a liquid state called ” ‘sol’.
The colloidal protoplasm which is in gel form can change into sol form by solation and the sol can change into a gel by gelation. These gel-sol conditions of the colloidal system are the prime basis for the mechanical behavior of cytoplasm.

1. Protoplasm is translucent, odorless, and polyphasic fluid.
2. It is a crystal colloid solution which is a mixture of chemical substances forming crystalloid
   i.e. true solution (sugars, salts, acids, bases) and others forming colloidal solution (Proteins and lipids).
3. It is the most important property of the protoplasm by which it exhibits three main phenomena namely Brownian movement, amoeboid movement, and cytoplasmic streaming or cyclosis.
   The viscosity of protoplasm is 2-20 centipoises. The Refractive index of the protoplasm is 1.4.
4. The pH of the protoplasmic around 6.8, contains 90% water (10% in dormant seeds)
5. Approximately 34 elements are present in protoplasm but only 13 elements are main or universal elements i.e. C, H, O, N, Cl, Ca, P, Na, K, S, Mg, I, and Fe. Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, and Nitrogen form 96% of protoplasm.
6. Protoplasm is neither a good nor a bad conductor of electricity. It forms a delimiting the membrane on coming in contact with water and solidifies when heated.

Cohesiveness: Particles or molecules of protoplasm are adhered with each other by forces, such as Vander Waal’s bonds, that hold long chains of molecules together. This property varies with the strength of these forces.
Contractility: The contractility of protoplasm is important for the absorption and removal of water especially stomatal operations.
Surface tension: The proteins and lipids of the protoplasm have less surface tension, hence they are found at the surface forming the membrane. On the other hand, the chemical substances (NaCl) have high surface tension, so they occur in deeper parts of the cell protoplasm.

Question 2.
Describe the structure and function of mitochondria.
Answer:

1. It was first observed by A. Kolliker (1880). Altmann (1894) named it as Bioplasts. Later Benda (1897, 1898), named as mitochondria. They are ovoid, rounded, rod shape and pleomorphic structures.
2. Mitochondrion consists of a double membrane, the outer and inner membrane.
3. The outer membrane is smooth, highly permeable to small molecules and it contains proteins called Porins, which form channels that allow free diffusion of molecules smaller than about 1000 daltons and the inner membrane divides the mitochondrion into two compartments, the outer chamber between two membranes and the inner chamber filled with matrix.
4. The inner membrane is convoluted (infoldings), called the crista (plural: cristae). Cristae contain most of the enzymes for the electron transport system.
5. The inner chamber of the mitochondrion is filled with proteinaceous material called mitochondrial matrix.
6. The inner membrane consists of stalked particles called elementary particles or Fernandez Moran particles, F1 particles, or Oxysomes.
7. Each particle consists of a base, stem, and round head. In the head, ATP synthase is present for oxidative phosphorylation.
8. The inner membrane is impermeable to most ions, small molecules and maintains the proton gradient that drives oxidative phosphorylation.
   
9. Mitochondria contain 73% of proteins, 25-30% of lipids, 5-7 % of RNA, DNA (in traces), and enzymes (about 60 types).
10. Mitochondria are called the Powerhouse of a cell, as they produce energy-rich ATP.
11. All the enzymes of Kreb’s cycle are found in the matrix except succinate dehydrogenase. Mitochondria consist of circular DNA and 70S ribosome.
12. They multiply by fission and replicates by strand displacement model. Because of the presence of DNA, it is a semi-autonomous organelle.
13. The unique characteristic of mitochondria is that they are inherited from female parents only. Mitochondrial DNA comparisons are used to trace human origins.
14. Mitochondrial DNA is used to track and date recent evolutionary times because it mutates 5 to 10 times faster than DNA in the nucleus.

Question 3.
Explain the structure of Ribosomes. Mention the types of ribosomes.
Answer:
Ribosomes were first observed by George Palade (1953) as dense particles or granules in the electron microscope. Electron microscopic observation reveals that ribosomes are composed of two rounded subunits, united together to form a complete unit. Mg²⁺ is required for the structural cohesion of ribosomes. Biogenesis of ribosomes is de nova formation, auto replication, and nucleolar origin. Each ribosome is made up of one small and one large subunit. Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis in the cell. The ribosome is not a membrane-bound organelle.

Question 4.
Give details of the special types of chromosomes in plant and animal cells.
Answer:

1. Special types of chromosomes are found only in certain special tissues. These chromosomes are larger in size and are called giant Chromosomes in certain plants and they are found in the suspensors of the embryo.
2. The polytene chromosome and lampbrush chromosome occur in animals and are also called giant chromosomes.
3. Polytene chromosomes observed in the salivary glands of Drosophila (fruit fly) by C.G. Balbiani in 1881. In larvae of many flies, midges (Diptera), and some insects the interphase chromosomes duplicate and reduplicate without nuclear division.
4. A single chromosome that is present in multiple copies forms a structure called a polytene chromosome which can be seen in the light microscope.
5. They are genetically active. There are distinct alternating dark bands and light inter-bands. About 95%of DNA are present in bands and 5% in inter-bands. The polytene chromosome has extremely large puff called Balbiani rings which is seen in chironortious larvae. It is also known as chromosomal puff. Puffing of bands are the sites of intense RNA synthesis,
6. As this chromosome occurs in the salivary gland it is known as salivary gland chromosomes, Polyteny is achieved by repeated replication of chromosomal DNA several times without nuclear division and the daughter chromatids aligned side by side and do not separate (called endomitosis).
7. Gene expression, transcription of genes, and RNA synthesis occur in the bands along the polytene chromosomes. Maternal and paternal homologs remain associated side by side is called somatic pairing.
8. Lampbrush chromosomes occur at the diplotene stage of the first meiotic prophase in oocytes of an animal Salamandar and in the giant nucleus of the unicellular alga Acetabularia.
9. It was first observed by Flemming in 1882. The highly condensed chromosome forms the chromosomal axis, from which lateral loops of DNA extend as a result of intense RNA synthesis.

Question 5.
Describe the structure of eukaryotic flagella and explain the movement of the flagellum.
Answer:

1. Eukaryotic Flagella are enclosed by a unit membrane and it arises from a basal body Flagella is composed of outer nine pairs of microtubules with two microtubules in its center (9+2 arrangement).
2. Flagella are microtubule projections of the plasma membrane. The flagellum is longer than cilium (as long as 200pm). The structure of the flagellum has an axoneme made up of microtubules and protein tubulin.
   
3. Movement: Outer microtubule doublet is associated with axonemal dynein which generates force for movement. The movement is ATP-driven. The interaction between tubulin and dynein is the mechanism for the contraction of cilia and flagella. Dynein molecules use energy from ATP to shift the adjacent microtubules. This movement bends the cilium or flagellum.

Question 6.
Describe the structure and functions of Lysosomes.
Answer:
Lysosomes were discovered by Christian de Duve (1953), these are known as suicidal bags. They are spherical bodies enclosed by a single unit membrane. They are found in eukaryotic cells. Lysosomes are small vacuoles formed when small pieces of the Golgi body are pinched off from its tubules.
They contain a variety of hydrolytic enzymes, that can digest material within the cell. The membrane around the lysosome prevents these enzymes from digesting the cell itself.

Functions:

Intracellular digestion: They digest carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids present in the cytoplasm.
Autophagy: During the adverse condition, they digest their own cell organelles like mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum
Autolysis: Lysosome causes self-destruction of cells on the insight of disease they destroy the cells.
Ageing Lysosomes have autolytic enzymes that disrupt intracellular molecules.
Phagocytosis: Large cells or contents are engulfed and digested by macrophages, thus forming a phagosome in the cytoplasm. These phago some fuse with lysosome for further digestion.
Exocytosis: Lysosomes release their enzymes outside the cell to digest other cells.

Choose the correct answer.

1. The word cell was first used by:
(a) Robert brown
(b) Robert Hooke
(c) Zemike
(d) Robert schwann
Answer:
(b) Robert Hooke

2. Idea of cell theory was first proposed by:
(a) Matthias Schleiden
(b) Theodor schwann
(c) H.J. Dutrochet
(d) Rudolf Virchow
Answer:
(c) H.J. Dutrochet

3. Phase the contrast microscope was invented by:
(a) Zemike
(b) Robert brown
(c) Sigmondy
(d) Robert Hooke
Answer:
(a) Zemike

4. Source of illumination for image formation in dark field microscope is:
(a) Electron
(b) ultraviolet light
(c) X- rays
(d) Visible light
Answer:
(d) Visible light

5. Who coined the term “protoplasm”?
(a) Corti
(b) Van mohl
(c) Purkinje
(d) Fisher
Answer:
(c) Purkinje

6. Indicate the wrong statement:
(a) All organisms are made up of cells
(b) All metabolic reactions take place inside the cell
(c) The structure and function of the cell is controlled by DNA
(d) Group of cells with different structures are called tissue
Answer:
(d) Group of cells with different structures are called tissue

7. Approximately the number of elements present in protoplasm is:
(a) 28
(b) 34
(c) 38
(d) 24
Answer:
(b) 34

8. These organisms with the primitive nucleus are called:
(a) Mesokaryotes
(b) prokaryotes
(c) Eukaryotes
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) prokaryotes

9. Cell wall is not present in:
(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungi
(c) Animal cell
(d) plant cell
Answer:
(c) Animal cell

10. The carbohydrate molecules of the cell membrane are:
(a) Long-chain polysaccharides
(b) Short-chain polysaccharides
(c) Long-chain glycoproteins
(d) Short-chain glycolipids.
Answer:
(b) Short-chain polysaccharides

11. One of the many signaling molecules used by plants, fungi, and animal cell is:
(a) sodium chloride
(b) cupric oxide
(c) Nitric oxide
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Nitric oxide

12. Cytoplasm helps the movement of cellular materials around die cell through a process called:
(a) Cytoplasmic streaming
(b) Brownian movement
(c) Active movement
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) Cytoplasmic streaming

13. The name endoplasmic reticulum was given by:
(a) Camillo
(b) K.R.Porter
(c) Nickolson
(d) S.B.Roberts
Answer:
(b) K.R.Porter

14. The functions of the Golgi body includes:
(a) helping cell division
(b) initialing protein synthesis
(c) Transporting and storing lipids
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Transporting and storing lipids

15. Mitochondria are called the powerhouse of the cell as they:
(a) Synthesis lipid
(b) Involve in protein synthesis
(c) initiate oxidation metabolism
(d) Produce energy-rich ATP
Answer:
(d) Produce energy-rich ATP

16. Mitochondrial DNA mutates …………. times faster than DNA in the nucleus.
(a) 15 to 20
(b) 30 to 40
(c) 5 to 10
(d) 10 to 15
Answer:
(c) 5 to 10

17. Plastids were classified into various types according to their structure pigments and function:
(a) Robert Hooke
(b) A.F.tJ. Schimper
(c) A. Kolliker
(d) Altmann
Answer:
(b) A.F.tJ. Schimper

18. B – oxidation of fully acids occurs in glyoxysomes of germinating seeds of:
(a) Paddy
(b) Brinjal
(c) Ladies finger
(d) Caster
Answer:
(d) Caster

19. Centriole consists of nine triplet peripheral fibrils made up of
(a) tubulin
(b) fibrils
(c) annuli
(d) none of the above.
Answer:
(a) tubulin

20. Match the following:

(a) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
(b) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(c) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(d) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
Answer:
(b) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)

21. During cell division, chromation is condensed into an organised form called:
(a) nucleolus
(b) Euchromation
(c) Nuclear pores
(d) Chromosomes
Answer:
(d) Chromosomes

22. Chromatin is made up of
(a) DNA, Polysaccharides, and RNA
(b) DNA, lipids, and RNA
(c) DNA, protein, and RNA
(d) RNA, Glucose, and lipid
Answer:
(c) DNA, protein, and RNA

23. Chromosomes having terminal centromere are called:
(a) Acrocentric
(b) Telocentric
(c) Metacentric
(d) Submetacentric
Answer:
(b) Telocentric

24. Polytene chromosome in the salivary glands of drosophila was first observed by:
(a) Flemming
(b) C.G. Balbiani
(c) Harry Beevers
(d) A. Kolliker
Answer:
(b) C.G. Balbiani

25. Lampbrush chromosome occur at the diplotene stage of first meiotic prophase in oocytes of:
(a) Frog
(b) Moth
(c) Sherk
(d) Salamandra
Answer:
(d) Salamandra

26. The main function of Bacterial flagellum is:
(a) Locomotion
(b) Protection
(c) Feeding
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) Locomotion

27. The molecules involved in the mechanism for the contraction of cilia and flagella are:
(a) Aetin and peptin
(b) Flagellin
(c) Tubulin and dynein
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) Tubulin and dynein

28. The technique of staining the cells and tissue is called:
(a) microphotography
(b) histochemistry
(c) anatomy
(d) geochemistry
Answer:
(b) histochemistry

29. The stain used for staining mitochondria of the cell is:
(a) Sudan black
(b) Eosin
(c) cotton blue
(d) Janus green
Answer:
(d) Janus green

30. Cilia are short cellular, numerous microtubules bound projections of:
(a) mitochondrial membrane
(b) Cell wall
(c) Plasma membrane
(d) Nuclear membrane
Answer:
(c) Plasma membrane

Students get through the TN Board 11th Bio Botany Important Questions Chapter 5 Taxonomy and Systematic Botany which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 11th Bio Botany Important Questions Chapter 5 Taxonomy and Systematic Botany

Answer the following short answers.

Question 1.
Define taxonomy.
Answer:
Davis and Heywood (1963) defined taxonomy as “the science dealing with the study of classification including the bases, principles, rules, and procedures”.

Question 2.
Describe a genus with an example.
Answer:
Genus consists of multiple species which have similar characters but differ from toe species of another genus, eg. Helimthmt Tridax.

Question 3.
What are the types of species?
Answer:
There are different types of species and they are as follows:

1. Process of evolution – Biological Species
2. Product of evolution – Morphological Species and Phylogenetic Species

Question 4.
Differentiate between Anamorph and Telomorph.
Answer:

Question 5.
Write Common name and Scientific name of any two plants.
Answer:

Question 6.
What is holotype nomenclature?
Answer:
A specimen or illustration originally cited by the author in the protologue. It is a definitive reference source for identity. Citation of holotype and submission of it is one of the criteria for valid publication of a botanical name.

Question 7.
Define Flora.
Answer:
Flora is the document of all plant species in a given geographic area. Flora consists of a total number of plant species in an area and gives information about the flowering season, fruiting season, and distribution for the given geographic area.

Question 8.
Mention any two international botanical gardens.
Answer:

1. New York Botanic garden, USA.
2. Royal Botanic Garden, Kew – England.

Question 9.
Define Chemotaxonomy.
Answer:
Chemotaxonomy is the scientific approach to the classification of plants on the basis of their biochemical constituents.

Question 10.
What are the aims, of chemotaxonomy?
Answer:

1. To develop taxonomic characters which may improve the existing system of plant classification.
2. To improve present-day knowledge of phytogeny of plants.

Question 11.
Define Serotaxonomy.
Answer:
The classification of very similar plants by means of differences in the proteins they contain, to solve taxonomic problems is called serotaxonomy.

Question 12.
What is meant by DNA barcodes?
Answer:
The genetic sequence used to identify a plant is known as “DNA tags” or “DNA barcodes”.

Question 13.
What do you know about cladistics?
Answer:
The method of classifying organisms into monophyletic group of a common ancestor based on shared apomorphic characters is called cladistics (from Greek, klados- branch).

Question 14.
Explain monadelphous stamens.
Answer:
In Aeschynomene Aspera, the stamens are fused to form two bundles each containing five stamens (5)+5. Stamens are monadelphous.

Question 15.
Mention any two oil plants with their scientific name.
Answer:

1. Arachis hypogea (Groundnut).
2. Pongamia pinnata (Pungam).

Question 16.
Mention any two medicinal plants with their useful parts of the plant.
Answer:

Question 17.
What is meant by scapigerous Inflorescence?
Answer:
The Inflorescence axis (peduncle) arising from the ground bearing a cluster of flowers at its apex. Pedicels are of equal length, arising from the apex of the peduncle which brings all flowers at the same level.

Question 18.
List any two economic uses of plants under the family Liliaceae.
Answer:

Question 19.
List any two ornamental plants under the family Fabaceae.
Answer:
Butea frondosa (Flame of the forest), Clitoria ternatea, Lathyrus odoratus (Sweet pea), and Lupinus hirsutus (Lupin).

Question 20.
What is meant by root module?
Answer:
Taproot system, roots are nodulated, have tubercles containing nitrogen-fixing bacteria (Rhizobium leguminosarum)

Answer In brief.

Question 1.
Explain the differences between taxonomy and systematics.
Answer:

Question 2.
What is Botanical nomenclature? Explain the international code of botanical nomenclature.
Answer:
Assigning a name for a plant is known as Nomenclature. This is based on the rules and recommendations of the International Code of Botanical Nomenclature. ICB deals with the names of existing (living)and extinct (fossil) organisms. The elementary rule of the naming of the plant was first proposed by Linnaeus in 1737and 1751 in his Philosophia Botanica. In 1813 a detailed set of rules regarding plant nomenclature was given by A.P. de Candolle in his famous ‘ work “Theorie elementaire de la botanique”. Then the present ICBN was evolved by following the same rules of Linnaeus, A.P. de Candolle, and his son Alphonse de Candolle.

Question 3.
Mention any three roles of Botanical gardens.
Answer:

1. Gardens with an aesthetic value attract a large number of visitors. For example, the Great Banyan Tree (Ficus benghalensis) in the Indian Botanical Garden at Kolkata.
2. Gardens have a wide range of species and supply taxonomic material for botanical research.
3. It can integrate information from diverse fields like Anatomy, Embryology, Phytochemistry, Cytology, Physiology, and Ecology.

Question 4.
List out the uses of the herbarium.
Answer:

1. Herbarium provides resource material for systematic research and studies.
2. It is a place for the orderly arrangement of voucher specimens.
3. Voucher specimen serves as a reference for comparing doubtful newly collected fresh specimens.
4. Voucher specimens play a role in studies like floristic diversity, environmental assessment, ecological mechanisms, and survey of unexplored areas.
5. Herbarium provides an opportunity for documenting biodiversity and Studies related to the field Of ecology and conservation biology.

Question 5.
Explain Bentham and the hooker system of Glassification.
Answer:

1. A widely followed natural system of classification Considered the best was proposed by two English botanists George Bentham (1800 – 1884) and Joseph Dalton Hooker (1817-1911).
2. The classification was published in a three-volume work as “Genera Plantation”
   (18624 883) describing 202 families and 7569 genera and 97,205 Species.
3. In this system, the seeded plants were classified into 3 major classes such as Dicotyledonae, Gymnospermae, and Monocotyledonae.

Question 6.
What do you know about karyotaxonomy?
Answer:

1. Chromosomes are the carriers of genetic information. Increased knowledge about the chromosomes has been used for extensive biosystematic studies and resolving many taxonomic problems.
2. Utilization of the characters and phenomena of cytology for the explanation of the taxonomic problems is known as cytotaxonomy or karyotaxonomy.
3. The characters of chromosomes such as number, size, morphology, and behavior during meiosis have proved to be of taxonomic value.

Question 7.
What is RFLP? Explain briefly.
Answer:
RFLPs are a molecular method of genetic analysis that allows the identification of taxa based on unique patterns of restriction sites in specific regions of DNA. It refers to differences between taxa in restriction sites and therefore the lengths of fragments of DNA following cleavage with restriction enzymes.

Question 8.
What is the significance of molecular taxonomy?
Answer:

1. It helps to identify a very large number of species of plants and animals by the use of conserved molecular sequences.
2. Using DNA data evolutionary patterns of biodiversity are now investigated.
3. DNA taxonomy plays a vital role in phytogeography, which ultimately helps in genome mapping and biodiversity conservation.
4. DNA- based molecular markers used for designing DNA-based molecular probes, have also been developed under the branch of molecular systematics.

Question 9.
Write briefly about the diagnostic features of Solanaceae family.
Answer:

1. Leaves alternate, exstipulate
2. Flowers actinomorphic, pentamerous
3. Calyx often persistence / accrescent
4. Stamens 5, epipetalous, poricidal in dehiscence
5. Carpels 2, ovary superior, 2 chambered, obliquely placed, falsely four-chambered placenta swollen, ovule numerous,
6. Fruits berry or capsule, vascular bundles with both outer and inner phloem (Bicollateral vascular bundle)

Question 10.
Write down the floral formula of the following plants.
Answer:

1. Datura metal,
2. Solanum nigrum,
3. Allium cepa.
   

Answer In detail.

Question 1.
What is the concept of Species? Explain briefly the various concepts.
Answer:
Species are the fundamental unit of taxonomic classification. The Greek philosopher Plato proposed the concept of “eidos” or species and believed that all objects are shadows of the “eidos”. According to Stebbins (1977) species is the basic unit of the evolutionary process. A species is a group of individual organisms which have the following characters.

1. A population of organisms that closely resemble each other more than the other population.
2. They descend from a common ancestor.
3. In sexually reproducing organisms, they interbreed freely in nature, producing fertile offspring.
4. In asexually reproducing organisms, they are identified by their morphological resemblance.
5. In the case of fossil organisms, they are identified by morphological and anatomical resemblance. Species concepts can be classified into two general groups. The concept emphasizing the process of evolution that maintains the species as a unit and that can result in evolutionary divergence and speciation. Another concept emphasizes the product of evolution in defining a species.

Question 2.
Describe the method of preparation of herbarium specimen.
Answer:

1. Plant Collection: Plant specimen with flower or fruit is collected.
2. Documentation of field site data: Certain data are to be recorded at the time of plant collection. It includes date, time, country, state, city, specific locality information, latitude, longitude, elevation, and landmark information. These data will be typed onto a herbarium label.
3. Preparation of plant specimen: Plant specimen collected from the field is pressed immediately with the help of a portable field plant press. Plant specimen is transferred to a standard plant press (12” x 18”) which between two outer 12” * 18” frames and secured by two straps.
4. Mounting herbarium specimen: The standard size of herbarium sheet is used for mounting the specimen (29cm x 41cm). specimens are affixed to herbarium sheet with standard white glue or solution of Methylcellulose.
5. Herbarium label: Herbarium label size is generally 4-5” wide and 2-3” tall. A typical label contains all information like habit, habitat, vegetation type, landmark information, latitude, longitude, image document, collection number, date of collection, and name of the collector.
6. Protection of herbarium sheets against mold and insects: Application of 2% Mercuric chloride, Naphthalene, DDT, carbon disulfide. Fumigation using formaldehyde. Presently deep freezing(-20°C) method is followed throughout the world.

Question 3.
Explain the basis of molecular taxonomy with its uses.
Answer:

1. Molecular Taxonomy is the branch of phytogeny that analyses hereditary molecular differences, mainly in DNA sequences, to gain information and to establish genetic relationships between the members of different taxonomic categories.
2. The advent of DNA cloning and sequencing methods has contributed immensely to the development of molecular taxonomy and population genetics over the years.
3. These modern methods have revolutionized the field of molecular taxonomy and population genetics with improved analytical power and precision.
4. The results of a molecular phylogenetic analysis are expressed in the form of a tree called a phylogenetic tree.
5. Different molecular markers like allozymes, mitochondrial DNA, microsatellites, RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism), RAPD (Random amplified polymorphic DNA), AFLPs (Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism), single nucleotide polymorphism-SNP, microchips, or arrays are used in the analysis.

Uses-of molecular taxonomy:

1. Molecular taxonomy helps in establishing the relationship of different plant groups at the DNA level.
2. It unlocks the treasure chest of information on the evolutionary history of organisms.

Question 4.
Write briefly about Cladistic analysis.
Answer:

1. Cladistics is one of the primary methods of constructing phylogenies or evolutionary histories. Cladistics uses shared, derived characters to group organisms into clades.
2. These clades have at least one shared derived character found in their most recent common ancestor that is not found in other groups hence they are considered more closely related to each other.
3. These shared characters can be morphological such as, leaf, flower, Suit, seed, and so on; behavioral, like the opening of flowers nocturnal/diurnal; molecular like DNA or protein sequence, and more.
4. Cladistic accepts only monophyletic groups. Paraphyletic and polyphyletic taxa are occasionally considered when such taxa conveniently treated as one group for practical purposes.
   eg. dicots, Sterculiaceae. Polyphyletic groups are rejected by cladistic.

(a) Monophyletic group: Taxa comprising all the descendants of a common ancestor.

(b) Paraphyietic group: Taxon that includes an ancestor but not all of the descendants of that ancestor.

(c) Polyphyletic group: Taxa that includes members from two different lineages.

Need for Cladistics:

1. Cladistics is now the most commonly used and accepted method for creating a phylogenetic system of classifications.
2. Cladistics produces a hypothesis about the relationship of organisms to predict the morphological characteristics of organisms.
3. Cladistics helps to elucidate the mechanism of evolution.

Question 5.
Explain the general characters of the family Solanaceae.
Answer:

1. Distribution: Family Solanaceae includes about 88 genera and about 2650 species, of these Solanum, is the largest genus of the family with about 1500 species. Plants are worldwide in distribution but more abundant in South America.
2. Habit: Mostly annual herbs, shrubs, small trees (Solanum violaceum) lianas with prickles (Solanum trilobatum) present in some taxa, many with stellate trichomes; rarely vines (Lycium, Sinensis)
3. Root: Branched tap root system.
4. Stem: Herbaceous or woody; erect or twining, or creeping; sometimes modified into tubers (Solanum tuberosum) often with collateral vascular bundles.
5. Leaves: Alternate, simple, rarely pinnately compound (Solanum tuberosum and (Lycopersicon esculentum) exstipulate, opposite or sub-opposite in the upper part, unicostate reticulate venation.
6. Inflorescence; Generally axillary or terminal cymose (Solanum) or solitary flowers (Datura stramonium). Extra axillary scorpioid cyme called rhiphidium (Solanum nigrum) solitary and axillary (Datura and Nicotiana) umbellate cyme (Withania somnifera).
7. Flowers: Bracteate (Petunia), or ebracteate (Withania) pedicellate, bisexual, heterochlamydeous, actinomorphic, or weakly zygomorphic due to oblique position of ovary pentamerous, hypogynous. ,
8. Calyx: Sepals 5, synsepalous, valvate, persistent rarely the sepals are 4 or 6. Often enlarging to envelop the fruit (Physalis, Withania).
9. Corolla: Petals 5, sympetalous, rotate, tubular (Solanum) or bell-shaped (Atropa) or infundibuliform YPemwi’aj usually alternate with sepals; rarely bilipped and zygomorphic (Schizanthus) usually valvate, sometimes convolute (Datum).
10. Androecium: Stamens 5, epipetalous, filaments usually Unequal in length, stamens only 2 in Schizanthus, 4 and didynamous in (Salpiglossis) Anthers dithecous, dehisce longitudinally or poricidal. …
11. Gynoecium: Bicarpeliary, syncarpous obliquely placed, ovary superior, bilocular but looks tetralocular due to the formation of false septa, numerous ovules in each locule on axile placentation.
12. Fruit: A capsule or berry. In Lycopersicon esculentum, Capsicum, the fruit is a berry and in species of Datura and Petunia, the fruit is a capsule.
13. Seed: Endospermous.

Question 6.
Give the floral characters of Pisum sativum.
Answer:

Activity

Text Book Page No. 128

Write common names and scientific names of 10 different plants around your home.
Answer:

Text Book Page No,136

Prepare a herbarium of 5 common weed plants found inside your school campus /nearby garden/wasteland.
Answer:
Common weed plants: i) Tridax procumbence, (ii) Vinca rosea, (Hi) Lamium amplexicaula, . (iv) Poa annua, (v) Stellaria media.

Text Book Page No.160

Can you identify this?

(a) Name the family.
Answer:
Asparagales

(b) Write the binomial.
Answer:
Aloe vera.

(c) List the economic uses.
Answer:
(i) Cosmetic and medicine.
(ii) Soothing and moisturing agent.
(iii) Protection for human from sunburn.
(iv) Treatment of wounds and bums.
(v) Aloe vera gel is used commercially as an ingredient in yogurts.
(vi) As dietary supplement.
(vii) Skin treatment in Ayurvedic medicine.

Choose the correct answer.

1.18th International Botanical congress was held in 2011 at:
(a) London, U.K
(b) Melbourne, Australia
(c) Newyork, U.S.A
(d) Sydney, Australia
Answer:
(b) Melbourne, Australia

2. The lowest of classification is:
(a) Genus
(b) Kingdom
(c) species
(d) Family
Answer:
(c) species

3. Flora is the term used for:
(a) the document of all plant species.
(b) the document of single species in a given geographic area.
(c) the document of only endemic species of plants in a given area.
(d) none of the above.
Answer:
(a) the document of all plant species.

4. The first botanical garden was established by Theophrastus at:
(a) London
(b) Sydney
(c) Athens
(d) Singapore
Answer:
(c) Athens

5. Which is the largest Botanical garden in the world.
(a) Indian Botanical Garden, Kolkata, India
(b) Botanical Garden at Athens.
(c) National Botanical Garden, Lucknow, India
(d) Royal Botanical Garden Kew, England
Answer:
(d) Royal Botanical Garden Kew, England

6. Who was called as Father of Taxonomy?
(a) E.K. Janaki Ammal
(b) Carolus Linnaeus
(d) Theophrastus
(c) Heywood
Answer:
(b) Carolus Linnaeus

7. Plants with one stamen are grouped under:
(a) Tetrandria
(b) Diandria
(c) Monandria
(d) Pentandria
Answer:
(c) Monandria

8. The family coniferae is included under the class:
(a) Dicotyledonae
(b) Monocotyledonae
(c) Gymnospermae
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Gymnospermae

9. Chemotaxomony is mainly based on:
(a) The chemical characters of the plant
(b) the morphological characters of the plant
(c) The phylogenetic characters of the plant
(b) none of the above
Answer:
(a) The chemical characters of the plant

10. The classification based on the characters of chromosome, such as number, size, morphology and behaviour during meiosis is known as:
(a) serotaxonomy
(b) Chemotaxonomy
(c) karyotaxonomy
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) karyotaxonomy

11. RAPD( Random amplified polymorphic DNA) is a method:
(a) to identify the morphomatic character of a plant
(b) to identify specific regions of DNA
(c) to identify genetic sequence of a plant
(d) to identify genetic markers using a randomly synthesised primer.
Answer:
(d) to identify genetic markers using a randomly synthesised primer.

12. Genetic sequence used to identify a plant is known as:
(a) DNA tags
(b) Polymorphic DNA
(c) Fragment of DNA
(d) Genome
Answer:
(a) DNA tags

13. Metformin used for treatment of diabetes is exacted from:
(a) Hibiscus rosasinensis
(b) Galega officinalis
(c) Arachis hypogea
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) Galega officinalis

14. Earlier classification emphasized on:
(a) Reproductive characters
(b) Vegetative characters
(c) both
(d) Anatomical characters
Answer:
(c) both

15. Naming a plant is called:
(a) systematic botany
(b) Taxonomy
(c) nomenclature
(d) Cytology
Answer:
(c) nomenclature

16. Bentham and Hooker’s classification is:
(a) Phylogenetic system of classification
(b) artificial system of classification
(c) natural system of classification
(d) sexual system of classification
Answer:
(c) natural system of classification

17. Carolus Linnaeus proposed classification based on:
(a) Artificial system
(b) natural system
(c) phylogenetic system
(d) modem system
Answer:
(a) Artificial system

18. The largest group of plant kingdom is
(a) Cryptogams
(b) Angiosperms
(c) Gymnosperms
(d) phanerogams
Answer:
(b) Angiosperms

19. Number of volumes in genera plantorum
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(b) three

20. The family gnetaceae is included under
(a) monochlamydae
(b) monotyledons
(c) dicotyledons
(d) Gymnosperms
Answer:
(d) Gymnosperms

21. Bentoam and Hooker are associated with
(a) Indian botanical garden
(b) Royal botanical garden
(c) American botanical garden
(d) French botanical garden
Answer:
(b) Royal botanical garden

22. The division of angiosperme is achieved by:
(a) floral characters
(b) anatomy
(c) physiology
(d) ecology
Answer:
(a) floral characters

23. Classification of plants into different groups is known as:
(a) Morphology
(b) Physiology
(c) Pathology
(d) Systematic botany
Answer:
(d) Systematic botany

24. Syngenesious anthers and epipetalous stamens are found in:
(a) Liliaceae
(b) malvaceae
(c) Solanaceae
(d) cruciferae.
Answer:
(d) cruciferae.

25. Synandrous condition is common in the family:
(a) Lumbelliferae
(b) Rosaceae
(c) malvaceae
(d) Cucurbitaceae
Answer:
(d) Cucurbitaceae

26. Polyadelphous condition is found in:
(a) Leguninaceae
(b) rutaceae
(c) compositae
(d) Liliaceae
Answer:
(b) rutaceae

27. Indefinite stamens are characteristic of the family:
(a) malvaceae
(b) graniceae
(c) labiatac
(d) cruciferae
Answer:
(a) malvaceae

28. Classical taxonomy is also termed as:
(a) B taxonomy
(b) systematics
(c) description and taxonomy
(d) experimental taxonomy
Answer:
(c) description and taxonomy

29. Match the following:

(a) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(b) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(c) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(d) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
Answer:
(a) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)

30. FAO declared the year for pulses as:
(a) 2017
(b) 2015
(c) 2018
(d) 2016
Answer:
(d) 2016

Students get through the TN Board 11th Bio Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Reproductive Morphology which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 11th Bio Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Reproductive Morphology

Answer the following short answers.

Question 1.
Define floriculture.
Answer:
Floriculture is a branch of Horticulture. It deals with the cultivation of flowers and ornamental crops.

Question 2.
What is axillary inflorescences?
Answer:
Inflorescence present in the axile of the nearest vegetative leaf.

Question 3.
What is meant by spadix inflorescences?
Answer:
An inflorescence with a fleshy or thickened central axis that possesses many unisexual sessile flowers in acropetal succession.

Question 4.
Define Capitulum.
Answer:
The capitulum is a determinate or indeterminate, group of sessile or subsessile flowers arising on a receptacle, often subten&d by an involucre.

Question 5.
What do you know about Helicoid?
Answer:
Axis develops on only one side and forms a coil structure at least at the earlier development stage. Example: Hamelia, potato.

Question 6.
Define Cymule.
Answer:
A small, simple dichasium is called a cymule

Question 7.
Explain briefly about coenanthium.
Answer:
Circular disc-like fleshy open receptacle that bears pistillate flowers at the center and staminate flowers at the periphery. Example: Dorstenia

Question 8.
Define bisexual flower.
Answer:
When a flower contains both androecium and gynoecium is called a perfect flower.

Question 9.
What is meant by polygamous plants?
Answer:
The condition in which bisexual and unisexual (staminate/pistillate) flowers occur in the same plaint is called polygamous.

Question 10.
Explain Actinomorphic flower.
Answer:
The flower shows two mirror images when cut in any plane or radius through the center.
Normally there are more than two planes of symmetry.

Question 11.
What do you know about merosity?
Answer:
A number of floral parts per whorl are called merosity. Perianth merosity is the number of perianth parts per whorl.

Question 12.
Describe briefly deciduous calyx.
Answer:
Calyx that falls after the opening of flower (anthesis) eg. Nelumbo.

Question 13.
What type of calyx is present in Ocimum?
Answer:
Two lipped calyces is present in Ocimum.

Question 14.
Define infundibuliform corolla.
Answer:
Petals fused to form funnel-shaped corolla. Tube gradually widens into limbs, eg. Datura, Ipomoea.

Question 15.
Mention three parts of the stamen.
Answer:

1. Filament,
2. Anther,
3. Connective.

Question 16.
Define the term “Connation”.
Answer:
Connation refers to the fusion of stamens among themselves.

Question 17.
Explain briefly about the Apocarpous ovary.
Answer:
A pistil contains two or more distinct carpels, eg. Annona

Question 18.
Describe Gynobasic style with an example.
Answer:
Arising from the base of the ovary, eg. Lamiaceae (Ocimum), characteristic of Boraginaceae.

Question 19.
What is meant by pomology?
Answer:
The branch of horticulture that deals with the study of fruits and their cultivation are called pomology.

Question 20.
Write down two important functions of seed.
Answer:

1. The seed encloses and protects the embryo for the next generation.
2. It contains food for the development of the embryo.

Answer In brief.

Question 1.
Distinguish between racemose and cymose inflorescence.
Answer:

Question 2.
Explain the term “Hypanthodium” with a suitable example.
Answer:
A receptacle is a hollow, globose structure consisting of unisexual flowers present on the inner wall of the receptacle. The receptacle is closed except for a small opening called the ostiole which is covered by a series of bracts. Male flowers are present nearer to the ostiole, female and neutral flowers are found in a mixed manner from the middle below, eg. Ficus sp. (Banyan and Pipal).

Question 3.
Describe briefly the three types of sympetalous zygomorphic corolla.
Answer:

1. Bilabiate: Corolla with two lips. eg. Ocimum, Leucas, Adhatoda. Tubular corolla with a single strap-shaped limb. eg. Ray floret of Helianthus.
2. Personate: Corolla made up of two lips with the upper arched and the lower protruding into the corolla throat, eg. Antirrhinum, Linaria.
3. Ligulate: Tubular corolla with a single strap-shaped limb, eg. Ray floret of Helianthus.

Question 4.
What is meant by anther dehiscence? Explain the different kinds of anther dehiscence.
Answer:
It refers to the opening of anther to disperse pollen grains.

1. Longitudinal: Anther dehisces along, a suture parallel to the long axis of each anther lobe, eg. Datura, china rose, cotton.
2. Transverse: Anther dehisces at right angles to the long axis of anther lobe. eg. Malvaceae.
3. Poricidal: Anther dehisces through pores at one end of the thecae, eg. Ericaceae, Solanum, potato, brinjal, Cassia.
4. Valvular: Anther dehisces through a pore covered by a flap of tissue, eg. Lauraceae, Cinnamomum.

Question 5.
Explain the different types of stigma with suitable examples.
Answer:
A stigma is a structure present at the tip of a pistil which receives the pollen grains,

1. Discoid: A disk-shaped stigma is called discoid.
2. Capitate: Stigma appearing like ahead, eg. Alchemilla.
3. Globose: Stigma is spherical in shape is called globose.
4. Plumose stigma: Stigma feathery which is unbranched or branched as in Asteraceae, Poaceae.

Question 6.
Describe the salient features of the floral diagram.
Answer:
A floral formula is a simple way to explain the salient features of a flower. The floral diagram is a representation of the cross-section of the flower, It represents floral whorls arranged as viewed from above. The floral diagram shows the number and arrangement of bract, bracteoles, and floral parts, fusion, overlapping, and placentation.

Question 7.
Distinguish between true fruit and false fruit.
Answer:

Question 8.
Mention any three functions of fruit.
Answer:

1. The edible part of the fruit is a source of food, energy for animals.
2. They are a source of many chemicals like sugar, pectin, organic acids, vitamins, and minerals.
3. The fruit protects the seeds from unfavorable climatic conditions and animals.

Question 9.
Write briefly about the types of multiple fruits for example.
Answer:
A Multiple or composite fruit develops from the whole inflorescence along with its peduncle on which they are borne.
Sorosis: A fleshy multiple fruits that develop from a spike or spadix. The flowers fused together by their succulent perianth and at the same time, the axis bearing them become fleshy or juicy and the whole inflorescence forms a compact mass. eg. Pineapple, Jack fruit, Mulberry.
Syconus: A multiple fruits that develops from hypanthodium inflorescence. The receptacle develops further and converts into fleshy fruit which encloses a number of true fruit or achenes which develop from female flower of hypanthodium inflorescence, eg. Ficus.

Question 10.
What are the types of seed, based on the presence and absence of the endosperm? Explain with a suitable example.
Answer:
Based on the presence or absence of the endosperm the seed is of two types.

1. Albuminous or Endospermous seed: The cotyledons are thin, membranous, and mature seeds have endosperm persistent and nourish the seedling during its early development, eg. Castor, sunflower, maize.
2. Ex-albuminous or non-endospermous seed: Food is utilized by the developing embryo and so the mature seeds are without endosperm; In such seeds, cotyledons store food and become thick and fleshy, eg. Pea, Groundnut.

Answer In detail.

Question 1.
Write an essay on cymose inflorescence.
Answer:
The central axis Stops growing and ends in a flower, further growth is by means of axillary buds. Old flowers present at the apex and young flowers at the base.

1. Simple cyme (solitary): Determinate inflorescence consists of a single flower. It may be terminal or axillary, eg. terminal in Trillium grandiflorum and axillary in Hibiscus.
2. Monochasial Cyme (uniparous): The main axis ends with a flower. From two lateral bracts, only one branch grows further. It may be helicoid (bostryx) or Scorpioid (cincinnus).
   (a) Helicoid: Axis develops on only one side and forms a coil structure at least at the earlier development stage, eg. Hamelia, potato.
   (b) Scorpioid: Axis develops on alternate sides and often becomes a coil structure, eg. Heliotropium.
3. Simple dichasium (Biparous): A central axis ends in a terminal flower; further growth is produced by two lateral buds. Each cymose unit consists of three flowers of which the central one is an old one. This is true cyme. eg. Jasminum.
4. Compound dichasium It has many flowers. A terminal old flower develops lateral simple dichasial cymes on both sides. Each compound dichasium consists of seven flowers, eg. Clerodendron. A small, simple dichasium is called a cymule.
5. Polychasial Cyme (multiparous): The central axis ends with a flower. The lateral axes branches repeatedly, eg. Nerium.
6. Sympodial Cyme: In monochasial cyme, successive axes at first develop in a zigzag manner, and later it develops into a straight pseudo axis. eg. Solanum americanum.

Question 2.
Explain the parts of a flower with a diagram.
Answer:
In a plant, which part would you like the most? Of course, it is a flower, because of its colour and fragrance. The flower is a significant diagnostic feature of angiosperms. It is a modified condensed reproductive shoot. The growth of the flower shoot is determined. There are two whorls, accessory and essential. Accessory whorl consists of calyx and corolla and the essential whorl comprises androecium and gynoecium. The flower is said to be complete when it contains all four whorls. An Incomplete flower is devoid of one or more whorls.

1. Pistil The female reproductive organ of a flower is Gynoecium or pistil. Each member is carpel.
2. Petal Innermost accessory whorl of the flower is corolla. Each member is called a petal.
3. Sepal: Outermost whorl of the flower is calyx. Each member is called sepal.
4. Perianth (perigonium) Undifferentiated calyx and corolla. Individual members are called tepal.
5. Bract Subtending leaf or leaf-like the structure of any flower is called Bract.
6. Stamen Male organ of a flower is the androecium. Each member is the stamen.
7. Thalamus (torus or receptacle) The part of the flower on which other floral parts are attached.
8. Bracteole: A smaller bract present on the side of the pedicel is called bracteole or bractlet. A whorl of bracteoles at the base of the calyx is called epicalyx.
9. Pedicel Stalk of the flower. The flower is pedicellate or sessile depending upon presence or absence. The flowers with a short, rudimentary pedicel are called subsessile flowers.

Question 3.
What is Aestivation? Explain different types of aestivation.
Answer:

1. Valvate Margins of sepals or petals do not overlap but just touch each other, eg. Calyx in members of Malvaceae, Calotropis, Annona.
2. Twisted or convolute or contorted One margin of each petal or sepal overlapping on the other petal, eg. Petals of china rose.
3. Imbricate: Sepals and petals irregularly overlap on each other; one member of the whorl is exterior, one interior, and the rest of the three having one margin exterior and the other interior, eg. Cassia, Delonix. There are three types: (i) Ascendingly imbricate, (ii) Quincuncial, (iii) Vexillary.
4. Quincuncial It is a type of imbricate aestivation in which two petals are external and two internal and one petal with one margin internal and the other margin external, eg. Guava, calyx of Ipomoea, Catharanthus.
5. Vexillary Large posterior petals both margins overlap lateral petals. Lateral petals other margin overlaps anterior petals, eg. Pea, bean.
   

Question 4.
Describe the difference between anthers in plants.
Answer:
Anther types:

1. Monothecal: One lobe with two microsporangia. They are kidney-shaped in a cross-section, eg. Malvaceae.
   Some other types: Hfcplostemonous stamens are uniseriate and equal in number to the petals and opposite the sepals (antisepalous).
   Obhaplostemonous: Stamens are uniseriate, a number equal to petals and opposite the petals (antipetalous)
   Diplostetnonous: Stamens are biseriate, outer antisepalous, inner antipetalous. eg. Murraya.
   Obdiplostemonous Stamens are biseriate, outer antipetalous, inner antisepalous. eg. Caryophyllaceae.
   Poiystemonou Numerous stamens are normally many more than the number of petals.
2. Dithecal: It is a typical type, having two lobes with four microsporangia. They are butterfly-shaped in cross-section, eg. Solanaceae.

Anther attachment:

1. Basifixed (Innate) Base of the anther is attached to the tip of filament, eg. Brassica, Datura.
2. Dorsifixed Apex of filament is attached to the dorsal side of the anther, eg. Citrus, Hibiscus.
3. Versatile: Filament is attached to the anther at the midpoint, eg. Grasses.
4. Adnate: Filament is continued from the base to the apex of anther, eg. Verbena, Ranunculus, Nelumbo.

Anther dehiscence: It refers to the opening of anther to disperse pollen grains.

1. Longitudinal: Anther dehisces along a suture parallel to long axis of each anther lobe, eg. Datura, china rose, cotton.
2. Transverse: Anther dehisces at right angles to the long axis of anther lobe. eg. Malvaceae.
3. Poricidal Anther dehisces through pores at one end of the thecae, eg. Ericaceae, Solarium, potato, brinjal, Cassia.
4. Valvular: Anther dehisces through a pore covered by a flap of tissue, eg. Lauraceae, Cinnamomum.

Anther dehiscing direction: It shows the position of anther opening relative to the anther of the flower.

1. Introrse: Anther dehisces towards the center of the flower, eg. Dianthus.
2. Extrorse: Anther dehisces towards the periphery of the flower, eg. Argemone.

Question 5.
Explain the floral diagram and floral formula of Hibiscus Rosa Sinensis.
Answer:

Question 6.
Write an essay on fleshy fruits and their kind.
Answer:
The fruits are derived from single pistils where the pericarp is fleshy, succulent, and differentiated
into epicarp, mesocarp, and endocarp. It is subdivided into the following.

1. Ben Fruit develops from bi carpellary or multi carpellary, syncarpous ovary. Here the epicarp is thin, the mesocarp and endocarp remain undifferentiated. They form a pulp in which the seeds are embedded, eg. Tomato, Date Palm, Grapes, Brinjal.
2. Drupe: Fruit develops from the monocarpellary, superior ovary. It is usually one-seeded. The pericarp is differentiated into outer skinny epicarp, fleshy and pulpy mesocarp, and hard and stony endocarp around the seed. eg. Mango, Coconut.
3. Pepo: Fruit develops from tri carpellary, inferior ovary. Pericarp terns leathery or woody which encloses, fleshy mesocarp and smooth endocarp. eg. Cucumber, Watermelon, Bottle gourd, Pumpkin.
4. Hesperidiur Fruit develops from the multi carpellary, multilocular, syncarpous, superior ovary. The fruit wall is differentiated into a leathery epicarp with oil glands, a middle fibrous mesocarp. The endocarp forms distinct chambers, containing juicy hairs, eg. Orange, Lemon. ,
5. Pome: it develops from multi carpellary, syncarpous, inferior ovary. The receptacle also develops along with the die ovary and becomes fleshy, enclosing the true fruit. In pome the epicarp is thin skin-like and the endocarp is cartilaginous. eg. Apple, Pear.
6. Balausta: A fleshy indehiscent fruit developing from multi carpellary, multilocular inferior ovary whose pericarp is tough and leathery. Seeds are attached irregularly with testa being the edible portion, eg. Pomegranate.

Activity

Text Book Page No. 121

Prepare a diet chart to provide a balanced diet to an adolescent (a school going child) which includes food items (fruits, vegetable, and seeds) which are non – expensive and are commonly available.
Answer:
Diet chart for school going child

Choose the correct answer.

1. Axillary inflorescence is present in:
(a) Nerium oleander
(b) Theobroma cocoa
(c) Hibiscus rosa sinensis
(d) Couropita guianensis
Answer:
(c) Hibiscus rosa sinensis

2. An unbranched indeterminate inflorescence with sessile flowers is categorized as:
(a) spikelet
(b) spike
(c) simple raceme
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) spike

3. Umbeltypeofinflorescenceisseenin:
(a) Allium cepa
(b) Caesal pinia
(c) Cauliflower
(d) Opuntia
Answer:
(a) Allium cepa

4. Cyathium inflorescence consists of:
(a) Small bisexual flowers
(b) small unisexual flower
(c) small anthers
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) small unisexual flower

5. Which of the following is a monoecious plant?
(a) Musa
(b) Coconut
(c) Magnifera
(d) Papaya
Answer:
(b) Coconut

6. A piant with both male flowers and bisexual flower is termed as:
(a) androdioecious
(b) gynodioecious
(c) andromonoecious
(d) trioecious
Answer:
(c) andromonoecious

7. Flowers that lack any plane of symmetry and cannot be divided into equal halves in any plane are seen in:
(a) bean
(b) Datura
(c) Cassia
(d) Canna indica
Answer:
(d) Canna indica

8. A flower which is composed of distinct outer calyx and the inner corolla is termed as:
(a) Homochlamydous
(b) dichlamydeous
(c) achlamydeous
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) dichlamydeous

9. Match the following:

(a) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
(b) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)
(c) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a),(iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(d) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
Answer:
(d) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)

10. Synsepalous condition is present in the flowers of:
(a) Annona
(b) Papaya
(c) Datura
(d) palmyra
Answer:
(c) Datura

11. Crciform type of corolla is present in:
(a) radish
(b) dianthus
(c) tea
(d) rose
Answer:
(a) radish

12. Flowerpetals fused to form a bell-shaped corolla are termed as:
(a) tubular
(b) Rotate
(c) Infundibuliform
(d) campanulate
Answer:
(d) campanulate

13. Corolla with two lips is present in:
(a) adhatoda
(b) linaria
(c) helianthus
(d) allium
Answer:
(a) adhatoda

14. Aestivation is the term used for:
(a) arrangement of flowers in the inflorescence
(b) arrangement of leaves in the stem.
(c) arrangement of sepals and petals in the flower bud
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) arrangement of sepals and petals in the flower bud

15. Match the following:

(a) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
(b) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)
(c) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(d) (i)-(b),(ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
Answer:
(b) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)

16. Didynamous condition in which two stamens with long filaments and two with short filaments and two with short filaments, is seen in:
(a) Ipomoea
(b) Ocimum
(c) Mimosa
(d) Datura
Answer:
(a) Ipomoea

17. Innate condition of anther attachment is named for the condition:
(a) the base of anther is attached to the tip of the filament
(b) the apex of the filament is attached to the dorsal side of the anther.
(c) the filament is continued from the base to the apex of anther
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) the base of anther is attached to the tip of the filament

18. Poricidal type of anther dehiscence is present in:
(a) Cinnamomum
(b) Nelumbo
(c) Brinjal
(d) Datura
Answer:
(c) Brinjal

19. A condition in which the gynoecium has four carpels is termed as:
(a) bicarpellary
(b) multicarpellary
(c) unicarpellary
(d) tetracarpellary
Answer:
(d) tetracarpellary

20. Match the following.

(a) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (Hi)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(b) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)
(c) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(d) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
Answer:
(a) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (Hi)-(a), (iv)-(b)

21. In Malvaceae family the sepals, petals, and stamens are attached at the base of a superior ovary. This condition is known as:
(a) Perigynous
(b) Epigynous
(c) Epiperigynous
(d) Hypogynous
Answer:
(d) Hypogynous

22. Axile placentation is present in:
(a) Hibiscus
(b) mustard
(c) marigold
(d) cucumber
Answer:
(a) Hibiscus

23. Drupe fruit develops from:
(a) tricatpellary inferior ovary
(b) monocarpellary, superior ovary
(c) Bicarpellery ovary
(d) bicarpellary, syncarpous ovary
Answer:
(b) monocarpellary, superior ovary

24. Multiple or composite fruit develops from:
(a) the whole flower
(b) Single flower
(c) the whole inflorescence
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) the whole inflorescence

25. Match the following.

(a) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
(b) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(c) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(d) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
Answer:
(c) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)

26. In an inflorescence where flowers are borne laterally in an accropeted succession, the position of the youngest floral bud shall be:
(a) proximal
(b) Distal
(c) Intercalary
(d) Anywhere
Answer:
(a) proximal

27. Edible part of jack fruit is:
(a) whole fruit
(b) mesocarp
(c) perianth and seeds
(d) perianth and rachis
Answer:
(c) perianth and seeds

28. Non-endospermous seeds are present in:
(a) Groundnut
(b) Maize
(c) sunflower
(d) castor
Answer:
(a) Groundnut

29. Indicate the correct statement.
(a) Edible part of the fruit is poisonous to animals
(b) Edible part of the fruit is a source of food energy for animals.
(c) Edible part of the fruit is the exclusive source of medicine.
(d) Edible part of the fruit is the only source of fodder.
Answer:
(b) Edible part of the fruit is a source of food energy for animals.

30. In angiosperms embryo seed represents:
(a) female gametophyte
(b) male gametophyte
(c) sporophyte
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) female gametophyte

Students get through the TN Board 11th Bio Botany Important Questions Chapter 3 Vegetative Morphology which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 11th Bio Botany Important Questions Chapter 3 Vegetative Morphology

Answer the following short answers.

Question 1.
Define reproductive morphology.
Answer:
It includes Flower/inflorescence, Fruit, and Seed.

Question 2.
Write down any two primary functions of the stem.
Answer:

1. Provides support and bears leaves, flowers, and fruits.
2. It transports water and mineral nutrients to the other parts from the root.

Question 3.
Mention three important components of vegetative morphology.
Answer:

1. Habit,
2. Habitat and
3. Life span.

Question 4.
What are herbs? Give two examples.
Answer:
Herbs are soft-stemmed plants with less wood or no wood. Phyllanthus amarus, Cleome viscosa.

Question 5.
What is the two plant habitat?
Answer:
Depending upon where plants grow habitats may be classified into major categories:

1. Terrestrial and
2. Aquatic.

Question 6.
Define perennial plants give two examples.
Answer:
A plant that grows for many years that flowers and set fruits for several seasons during the life span.

Question 7.
What is meant by Angiosperms?
Answer:
Flowering plants are called “Angiosperms” or Magnoliophyta.

Question 8.
Give two primary functions of the root system.
Answer:

1. Absorb water and minerals from the soil.
2. Help to anchor the plant firmly in the soil.

Question 9.
Explain fusiform root with one example.
Answer:
These roots are swollen in the middle and tapering towards both ends. eg. Raphanus sativus.

Question 10
What is meant by thorn climbers? Give one example.
Answer:
Climbing or reclining on the support with the help of thorns as in Bougainvillea and Carissa.

Question 11.
Explain Phylloclade.
Answer:
Phylloclade is a characteristic adaptation of xerophytes where the leaves often fall off early and modified into spines or scales to reduce transpiration.

Question 12.
Define Bulb.
Answer:
It is a condensed conical or convex stem surrounded by fleshy scale leaves.

Question 13.
What is meant by Cladode?
Answer:
Cladode is a flattened or cylindrical stem similar to Phylloclade but with one or two internodes only.

Question 14.
Define Venation.
Answer:
The arrangement of veins and veinlets on the leaf blade or lamina is called venation. Internally, the vein contains vascular tissues.

Question 15.
What is meant by Phyllotaxy?
Answer:
The mode of arrangement of leaves on the stem is known as phyllotaxy (Gk. Phyllon = leaf; taxis = arrangement).

Question 16.
Give two examples for parallel venation.
Answer:

1. Canna,
2. Bamboo,

Question 17.
Explain opposite phyllotaxy.
Answer:
In this type, each node possesses two leaves opposite to each other.

Question 18.
What is meant by phyllode?
Answer:
Phyllodes are flat, green-colored leaf-like modifications of petioles or rachis. The leaflets or lamina of the leaf are highly reduced or caducous.

Question 19.
Define Heterophylly.
Answer:
The occurrence of two different kinds of leaves in the same plant is called heterophylly.

Question 20.
Give two examples of evergreen plants.
Answer:
Mimiisops, Calophyllum.

Answer In brief.

Question 1.
What is plant morphology? Explain the types of morphology.
Answer:
The study of various external features of the organism is known as morphology. Plant morphology is also known as external morphology deals with the study of the shape, size, and structure of plants and their parts (roots, stems, leaves, flowers, fruits, and seeds). The study of morphology is important in taxonomy. Morphological features are important in determining the productivity of crops. Morphological characters indicate the specific habitats of living as well as the fossil plants and help to correlate the distribution in space and time of fossil plants. Morphological features are also significant for phylogeny.
Plant Morphology can be studied under two broad categories:

1. Vegetative morphology – It includes the shoot system and root system.
2. Reproductive morphology – It includes Flower/inflorescence, Fruit, and Seed.

Question 2.
Explain the adventitious root system with an example.
Answer:

1. Root developing from any part of the plant other than the radicle is called adventitious root. It may develop from the base of the stem or nodes or internodes. eg. Monstera deliciosa, Ficus benghalensis, Piper nigrum.
2. In most of monocots, the primary root of the seedling is short-lived and lateral roots arise from various regions of the plant body. These are a bunch of thread-like roots equal in size which are collectively called fibrous root systems generally found in grasses, eg. Oryza sativa, Eleusine coracana, Pennisetum americanum.

Question 3.
What are the storage roots? Explain each type with a suitable example.
Answer:
Tuberous root: These roots are swollen without any definite shape. Tuberous roots are produced singly and not in clusters, eg. Ipomoea batatas.
Fasciculated root: These roots are in the cluster from the base of the stem. eg. Dahlia, Asparagus, Ru&ltia.
Nodulose root: In this type of root swelling occurs only near the tips. eg. Mtmnfct (arrow root) Curcuma amada (mango ginger), Curcuma loHga (turmeric).
Monilifonn or Beaded root: These roots swell at frequent intervals giving them a beaded appearance, eg. Vitis, Portulaca, Momordica Indian spinach.
Annulatedroot: These roots have a series of ring-like swelling on their surface at regular intervals. eg. Ipecac (Psychotria)

Question 4.
List out the characteristic features of this stem.
Answer:

1. The stem is usually the aerial portion of the plant
2. It is positively phototropic and negatively geotropic.
3. It has nodes and internodes.
4. The stem bears vegetative bud for vegetative growth of the plant, and floral buds for reproduction, and ends in a terminal bud.
5. The young stem is green and thus carries out photosynthesis.
6. During reproductive growth, the stem bears flowers and fruits.
7. Branches arise exogenously.
8. Some stems bear multicellular hairs of different kinds.

Question 5.
What is the secondary function of the stem?
Answer:

1. Food storage – eg. Solanum tuberosum, Colocasia, and Zingiber officinale.
2. Perennation / reproduction – eg. Zingiber officinale, Curcuma longa.
3. Water storage – eg. Opuntia.
4. Buoyancy – eg. Neptunia.
5. Photosynthesis – eg. Opuntia, Ruscus, Casuarina, Euphorbia, Caralluma.
6. Protection – eg. Citrus, Duranta, Bougainvillea, Acacia, Fluggea, Carissa.
7. Support – eg. Passiflora,Bougainvillea, Vitis, Cissus quadrangularis.

Question 6.
What are Bulbils? Explain different types with suitable examples.
Answer:

1. Bulbils are modified and enlarged buds, meant for propagation.
2. When bulbils detach from the parent plant and fall on the ground, they germinate into new plants and serve as a means of vegetative propagation.
3. In Agave and Allium, proliferum floral buds get modified into bulbils.
4. In Lilium bulbiferum and Dioscorea bulbifera, the bulbils develop in the axil of leaves.
5. In Oxalis, they develop just above the swollen root.

Question 7.
What is meant by Rhizome? Give at least three examples.
Answer:
This is an underground stem that grows horizontally with several lateral growing tips. Rhizome possess conspicuous nodes and internodes covered by scale leaves, eg. Zingiber officinale, Canna, Curcuma longa, Maranta arundinacea, Nymphaea, Nelumbo.

Question 8.
List out the primary function of the leaf.
Answer:
Primary functions:

1. Photosynthesis,
2. Transpiration,
3. Gaseous exchange,
4. Protection of buds,
5. Conduction of water and dissolved solutes.

Question 9.
Describe Palmately reticulate venation. Mention its types for example.
Answer:
Palmately reticulate venation (multicostate): In this type of venation there are two or more principal veins arising from a single point and they proceed outward or upwards. The two types of palmate reticulate venation are

1. Divergent type: When all principal veins originate from the base and diverge from one another towards the margin of the leaf as in Cucurbita, Luffa, Carica papaya, etc.
2. Convergent: When the veins converge to the apex of the leaf, as in Indian plum (Zizyphus),
   bay leaf (Cinnamomum)
   
   (a) Pinnately reticulate, (b) Palmately reticulate (Divergent), (c) Palmately reticulate (Convergent)

Question 10.
Give an account of storage leaves with suitable examples.
Answer:
Some plants of saline and xerophytic habitats and members of the family Crassulaceae commonly have fleshy or swollen leaves. These succulent leaves store water, mucilage or food material. Such storage leaves resist desiccation, eg. Aloe, Agave, Bryophyllum, Kalanchoe, Sedum, Sueada, Brassica oleracea (cabbage-variety capitata).

Answer In detail.

Question 1.
Describe the regions of the root with a suitable diagram.
Answer:

The root tip is covered by dome-shaped parenchymatous cells called root caps. It protects the meristematic cells in the apex. In Pandanus multiple root cap is present. In Pistia instead of a root cap, a root pocket is present. A few millimeters above the root cap the following three distinct zones have been classified based on their meristematic activity.

1. Meristematic Zone,
2. Zone of Elongation,
3. Zone of Maturation.

Question 2.
What are the vital functions of root? Explain each function with a suitable example.
Answer:
Epiphytic or velamen root: Some epiphytic orchids develop a special kind of aerial roots which hang freely in the air. These roots develop a spongy tissue called velamen which helps in the absorption of moisture from the surrounding air. eg. Vanda, Dendrobiutn, Aerides.
Foliar root: Roots are produced from the veins or lamina of the leaf for the formation of the new plant, eg. Bryophyllum, Begonia, Zamioculcas.
Sucking or Haustorial roots: These roots are found in parasitic plants. Parasites develop adventitious roots from the stem which penetrate into the tissue of the host plant and suck nutrients, eg. Ciiscuta (dodder), Cassytha, Orobanche (broomrape), Viscum (mistletoe), Dendrophthoe.
Photosynthetic or assimilatory roots: Roots of some climbing or epiphytic plants develop chlorophyll and turn green which help in photosynthesis, eg. Tinospora, Trapa natans (water chestnut), Taeniophyllum.

Question 3.
Explain different types of stem.
Answer:
The majority of angiosperm possess upright, vertically growing erect stem. They are (i) Excurrent, (ii) Decurrent, (iii) Caudex, (iv) Culm

1. Excurrent: The main axis shows continuous growth and the lateral branches gradually becoming shorter towards the apex which gives a conical appearance to the trees, eg. Polyalthia longifolia, Casuarina.
2. Decurrent: The growth of the lateral branch is more vigorous than that of the main axis. The tree has a rounded or spreading appearance, eg. Mangifera indica, Azadirachta indica, Tamarindus indicus, Aegle marmelos.
3. Caudex: It’s an unbranched, stout, cylindrical stem, marked with scars of fallen leaves, eg. Cocus Nucifera, Borassusflabellifermis, Areca catechu.
4. Culm: Erect stems with distinct nodes and usually hollow internodes clasped by leaf sheaths.
   eg. Majority of grasses including Bamboo.

Question 4.
Describe the various sub-aerial stem modifications with suitable examples.
Answer:
Subaerial stem found in plants with the weak stem in which branches lie horizontally on the ground. These are meant for vegetative propagation. They may be subaerial or partially subterranean.
Runner: This is a slender, prostrate branch creeping on die ground and rooting at the nodes, eg. Centella (Indian pennywort), Oxalis (wood sorrel), lawn grass (Cynodon dactylon).
Stolon: This is also a slender, lateral branch originating from the base of the stem. But it first grows obliquely above the ground, produces a loop and bends down towards the ground. When touches the ground it produces roots and becomes an independent plantlet. eg. Mentha piperita (peppermint), Fragaria indica (wild strawberry).
Sucker: Sucker develops from an underground stem and grows obliquely upwards and gives rise to a separate plantlet or new plant, eg. Chrysanthemum, Musa, Bambusa.
Offset: Offset is similar to runner but found in aquatic plants especially in rosette leaved forms.
A short thick lateral branch arises from the lower axil and grows horizontally leafless for a short distance, then it produces a bunch of rosette leaves and roots at nodes, eg. Eiehhornia (water hyacinth), Pistia (water lettuce).

Question 5.
Explain the parts of the leaf with a suitable diagram.
Answer:
Three main parts of a typical leaf are:
(i) Leaf base (Hypopodium), (ii) Petiole (Mesopodium), (iii) Lamina (Epipodium).

1. The part of the leaf attached to the node of the stem is called the leaf base. Usually, it protects growing buds at its axil. In legumes, the leaf base becomes broad, thick, and swollen which is known as a pulvinus. eg. Clitoria, Lablab, Cassia, Erythrina, Butea, Peltophorum.
   In many monocot families such as Arecaceae, Musaceae, Zingiberaceae, and Poaceae the leaf base extends, into a sheath and clasps part or whole of the internode. Such leaf base also leaves permanent scars on the stem when they fall. eg. Arecaceae.
   
2. Petiole (stipe or mesopodium): Tt is the bridge between leaf and stem. Petiole or leaf stalk is a cylindrical or subcylindrical or flattened structure of a leaf that joins the lamina with the stem. A leaf with petiole is said to be petiolate. eg. Ficus, Hibiscus, Mangifera, Psidium. Leaves that do not possess petiole is said to be sessile, eg. Calotropis, Gloriosa.
3. The expanded flat green portion of the leaf is the blade or lamina. It is the seat of photosynthesis, gaseous exchange, transpiration, and most of the metabolic reactions of the plant. The lamina is traversed by the midrib from which arise numerous lateral veins and thin veinlets. The lamina shows great variations in its shape, margin, surface, texture, color, venation, and incision.
4. In most of the dicotyledonous plants, the leaf base bears one or two lateral appendages called the stipules. Leaves with stipules are called stipulate. The leaves without stipules are called exstipulate or estipulate. The stipules are commonly found in dicotyledons. In some grasses (Monocots) an additional outgrowth is present between leaf base and lamina. It is called Ligule. Sometimes, small stipule-like outgrowths are found at the base of leaflets of a compound leaf. They are called stipels. The main function of the stipule is to protect the leaf in the bud condition.

Question 6.
What are the types of pinnately compound leaves? Explain each type with, suitable example.
Answer:
A pinnately compound leaf is defined as one in which the rachis, bears laterally a number of leaflets, arranged alternately or in an opposite manner, as in tamarind, Cassia.

1. Unipinnate: The rachis is simple and unbranched which bears leaflets directly on its sides in alternate or opposite manner, eg. Rose, Neem. Unipinnate leaves are of two types.
   When the leaflets are even in number, the leaf is said to be paripinnate. eg. Tamarind, Abrus, Sesbania, Saraca, Cassia.
   When the leaflets are odd in number, 1he leaf is said to be imparipinnate. eg. Rose, Neem \ (Azadirachta), Chinese box (Murraya).
2. Bipinnate: The primary rachis produces secondary rachis which bears the leaflets. The secondary rachii are known as pinnae. Number of pinnae varies depending on the species, eg. Delonix, Mimosa, Acacia nilotica, Caesalpinia.
3. Tripinnate: When the rachis branches thrice the leaf is called tripinnate. (i.e) the secondary rachii produce the tertiary rachii which bear the leaflets, eg. Moringa, Oroxylum.
4. Decompound: When the rachis of the leaf is branched several times it is called decompound, eg. Daucus carota, Coriandrum sativum, Foeniculum vulgare.

Choose the correct answer.

1. Vegetative morphology of plant includes:
(a) Shoot system, root system, and inflorescence
(b) the root system, flower, and seed
(c) shoot system and root system
(d) flower, fruit, and seed.
Answer:
(c) shoot system and root system

2. Phyllanthus amarus belongs to the group:
(a) Slmibs
(b) Herbs
(c) Climbers
(d) Trees
Answer:
(b) Herbs

3. The root system of the plant is generally:
(a) positively geotropic and negatively phototrophic in nature
(b) negatively geotropic and positively phototrophic in nature
(c) Positively geotropic and negatively phototrophic in nature
(d) negatively geotropic and negatively phototrophic in nature
Answer:
(c) Positively geotropic and negatively phototrophic in nature

4. Otym Sativa has:
(a) Tab toot system
(b) fibrous root system
(c) Adventitious and tap root system
(d) taproot with the secondary root system
Answer:
(b) fibrous root system

5. Match the following:

(a) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
(b) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(c) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(d) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
Answer:
(b) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)

6. Foliar root is present in:
(a) randa
(b) Bryophyllum
(c) Delonix regia
(d) piper betel
Answer:
(b) Bryophyllum

7. Match the following:

(a) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
(b) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
(c) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(d) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)
Answer:
(d) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)

8. cladode is present in:
(a) Bambusa
(b) Musa
(c) Asparagus
(d) Citrus
Answer:
(c) Asparagus

9. Rhizome is the modification of:
(a) Stem
(b) Root
(c) Undergroimd stem
(d) Undergroimd bulb
Answer:
(c) Undergroimd stem

10. Petiole is present in:
(a) Calotropis
(b) Hibiscus
(c) Gloriosa
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Hibiscus

11. Ficus religiosa has:
(a) Pinnately parallel venation
(b) Palmately reticulate venation
(c) Multicostate venation
(d) Pinnately reticulate venation
Answer:
(d) Pinnately reticulate venation

12. Pinnately compound leaf is present in:
(a) Cassia
(b) Cucurbita
(c) begonia
(d) acalypha
Answer:
(a) Cassia

13. The part of the root which is most active in water absorption is called:
(a) root cap
(b) maturation zone
(c) meristematic zone
(d) zone of elongation
Answer:
(b) maturation zone

14. Venation is a term used to describe the pattern of arrangement of:
(a) floral organs
(b) veins and veinlets in a lamina
(c) flower in inflorescence
(d) all of them
Answer:
(b) veins and veinlets in a lamina

15. Epiphytic roots are found in;
(a) Indian rubber
(b) Orchid
(c) Tinospora
(d) Cuscuta
Answer:
(b) Orchid

16. Potatoes are borne on:
(a) Primary roots
(b) lateral roots
(cl Adventitious roots
(d) axil of scaly leaves
Answer:
(d) axil of scaly leaves

17. Winged petiole is found in:
(a) citrus
(b) radish
(c) acacia
(d) peepal
Answer:
(a) citrus

18. Fibrous root in ficus benghalensis develop from:
(a) stem
(b) node
(c) intemode
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) stem

19. Foliar roots are present in:
(a) vanda
(b) Bombax
(c) Bryophyllum
(d) Ficus pumila
Answer:
(c) Bryophyllum

20. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the root.
(a) presence of root cap
(b) presence of chlorophyll
(c) absence of buds
(d) presence of unicellular hair
Answer:
(b) presence of chlorophyll

21. ………… are the vegetative organs of the flowering plant.
(a) Leaves, stem, fruits
(b) Roots, stem, flowers
(d) Roots, stem, leaves.
(c) Roots, leaves, flowers
Answer:
(d) Roots, stem, leaves.

22. Which is not a stem modification?
(a) Rhizome of ginger
(b) Corn of colocasia
(c) Pitcher of nepenthes
(d) Tuber of potato
Answer:
(c) Pitcher of nepenthes

23. In One of the following stem performs the function of storage and propagation,
(a) Wheat
(b) Ginger
(c) Radish
(d) Paddy
Answer:
(b) Ginger

24. An underground specialised sheet with a reduced disc-like stem covered by fleshy leaves is:
(a) Rhizome
(b) Rhizosphere
(c) Bulb
(d) Bulbil
Answer:
(c) Bulb

25. A phyllode i

s modified:
(a) leaf
(b) Stem
(c) Root
(d) Branch
Answer:
(a) leaf

26. A fibrous root system is better adapted than a tap root system for:
(a) Storage food
(b) Anchorage plant to soil
(c) absorption of water and organic food
(d) Transport of water and organic food
Answer:
(b) Anchorage plant to soil

27. Arrangement of leaves on a stem is called:
(a) Venation
(b) Vernation
(c) Phyllotaxy
(d) Axis
Answer:
(c) Phyllotaxy

28. The pitcher in nepenthes is a modification of:
(a) Stem
(b) root
(c) branch
(d) leaf
Answer:
(d) leaf

29. Leaf spines are present in:
(a) bombax
(b) asparagus
(c) mango
(d) citrus
Answer:
(b) asparagus

30. Heterophylly is found in:
(a) Limnophila heterophylla
(b) Calophyllum
(c) Erythrina
(d) Cabbage
Answer:
(a) Limnophila heterophylla

Students get through the TN Board 11th Bio Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Plant Kingdom which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 11th Bio Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Plant Kingdom

Answer the following short answers.

Question 1.
Define photosynthesis.
Answer:
Plants are unique living entities as they are endowed with the power to harvest the light energy from the sun and to convert it to chemical energy in the form of food through the astounding reaction, photosynthesis.

Question 2.
What is an alternation of generation?
Answer:
Alternation of generation is common in all plants. Alternation of the haploid gametophytic phase (n) with the diploid sporophytic phase (2n) during the life cycle is called alternation of generation.

Question 3.
What do you know about Halophyte algae?
Answer:
Dunaliella salina grows in salt pans (Halophytic algae), which can tolerate high concentration of salt content.

Question 4.
Mention any two vegetative reproduction in algae.
Answer:
Vegetative reproduction includes fission in unicellular forms the cell divides mitotically to produce two daughter cells, eg. Chlamydomonas.
Fragmentation: fragments of parent thallus grow into new individual, eg. Uloihrix.

Question 5.
Describe the thallus of red algae.
Answer:
The thallus is multicellular, macroscopic and diverse in form.

Question 6.
What is Garpogohium?
Answer:
The female sex organ of red algae is called carpogonium.

Question 7.
Mention any two characteristic features of bryophytes.
Answer:

1. The plant body of bryophyte is gametophyte and is not differentiated into root, stem and leaf-like structure.
2. Most of them are primitive land dwellers. Some of them are aquatic (Riella, Ricciocarpus).

Question 8.
Mention any three uses of Pteridophyte.
Answer:
Cut flower arrangements, Food, Biofertilizer.

Question 9.
Define the term Solenostele.
Answer:
The stele is perforated at a place or places corresponding to the origin of the leaf trace.

Question 10.
What is meant by Amber?
Answer:
Amber is a plant secretion that is an efficient preservative that doesn’t get degraded and hence can preserve remains of extinct life forms. The amber is produced by Pinites succinifera, a Gymnosperm.

Question 11.
Why do you call some plant fossil plants?
Answer:
The term ’form genera’ is used to name the fossil plants because the whole plant is not recovered as fossils instead organs or parts of the extinct plants are obtained in fragments.

Question 12.
What are the three classes of Gymnosperms?
Answer:

1. Cycadopsida,
2. Coniferopsida,
3. Gnetopsida

Question 13.
Define the term Gymnosperm.
Answer:
Gymnosperms (Gr. Gymnos = naked; Sperma = seed) are naked seed-producing plants. They were dominant in the Jurassic and cretaceous periods of the Mesozoic era.

Question 14.
What are the non-vascular cryptogams?
Answer:
Vascular tissue like xylem and phloem are completely absent, hence called ‘Non-vascular cryptogams’.

Question 15.
Mention any two fossil gymnosperms.
Answer:
Medullosa and Lepido-carpon.

Question 16.
List out morphological features of the dicot plant.
Answer:

1. Reticulate venation is present in the leaves.
2. Presence of two cotyledons in the seed.
3. Primary root radicle persists as the taproot.
4. Flowers tetramerous or Pentamerous.
5. Tricolpate (3 furrow) pollen is present.

Question 17.
What do you know about pyrenoids?
Answer:
Storage bodies called pyrenoids are present in the chloroplast and store starch.

Question 18.
What are Epiphytic algae?
Answer:
A few algae grow on the surface of aquatic plants and are called epiphytic algae (Coleochaete, and Rhodymenia).

Question 19.
What are Bryophytes?
Answer:
Bryophytes are the simplest land inhabiting cryptogams and are restricted to moist, shady habitats.
They lack vascular tissue and hence called ‘Non- vascular cryptogams’.

Question 20.
Mention the five subdivisions of Pteridophytes.
Answer:

1. Psilophytopsida,
2. Psilotopsida,
3. Lycopsida,
4. Sphenopsida,
5. Pteropsida.

Answer In brief.

Question 1.
List the life cycle patterns in plants.
Answer:

Question 2.
Name the 11 classes of Algae by which F.E. Fritsch classified.
Answer:
F.E. Fritsch proposed a classification for algae-based on pigmentation, types of flagella, reserve food materials, thallus structure and reproduction. He published his classification in the book “The structure and reproduction of Algae” (1935). He classified algae into 11 classes namely Chlorophyceae, Xanthophyceae, Chrysophyceae, Bacillariophyceae, Cryptophyceae, Dinophyceae, Chloromonodineae, Euglenophyceae, Phaeophyceae, Rhodophyceae, Cyanophyceae.

Question 3.
Describe the gametophyte phase of non-vascular cryptogams.
Answer:

1. The gametophyte is a conspicuous, long-lived phase of the life cycle.
2. Thalloid forms are present in liverworts and Hornworts.
3. In Mosses leaf-like, stem-like structures are present.
4. In Liverworts thallus grows prostrate on the ground and is attached to the substratum by means of rhizoids.
5. Two types of rhizoids are present namely smooth-walled and pegged. Multicellular scales are also present.
6. In Moss, the plant body is erect with a central axis bearing leaf-like expansions. Multicellular rhizoids are present.

Question 4.
Describe the sporophyte of non-vascular cryptogam.
Answer:

1. The embryo divides and gives rise to the sporophyte.
2. The sporophyte is dependent on the gametophyte.
3. It is differentiated into three recognizable parts namely foot, seta and capsule.
4. The foot is the basal portion and is embedded in the gametophyte through which water and nutrients are supplied for the sporophyte.
5. The diploid spore mother cells found in the capsule region undergo meiotic division and give rise to haploid spores. Bryophytes are homosporous.
6. In some sporophytes, elaters are present and help in the dispersal of spores, eg. Marchantia.
7. The spores germinate to produce gametophyte.

Question 5.
Write briefly about the economic importance of non-vascular cryptogams.
Answer:

1. A large amount of dead thallus of Sphagnum gets accumulated mid compressed, hardened to form peat. In northern Europe, peat is used as fuel in a commercial scale (Netherlands).
2. Apart from this Nitrates, brown dye and tanning materials are derived from peat.
3. Sphagnum and peat are also used in horticulture as packing material because of their water holding capacity.
4. Marchantia polymorpha is used to cure pulmonary tuberculosis.
5. Sphagnum, Bryum and Polytrichum are used as food.
6. Bryophytes play a major role in soil formation through succession and help in soil conservation.

Question 6.
List out any four, characteristic features of pteridophytes.
Answer:

1. The plant body is a sporophyte (2n) and it is the dominant phase.
2. It is differentiated into root, stem and leaves. Roots are adventitious.
3. The stem shows monopodial or dichotomous branching.
4. Leaves may be microphyllous or megaphyllous.

Question 7.
Distinguish between Gymnosperms and Angiosperms.
Answer:

Question 8.
List out any three Economic importance of algae.
Answer:

1. Agar Agar – cell wall material used for media preparation in the microbiology lab.
2. Packing canned food, cosmetic, textile paper industry.
3. Carrageenan – Preparation of toothpaste, paint, blood coagulant
4. Alginate – Ice cream, paints, flameproof fabrics.

Question 9.
Describe the Vegetable reproduction of non-vascular cryptogams.
Answer:

1. Vegetative reproduction takes place by die formation of adventitious buds (Riccia fluitans) tubers develop in Anthoceros.
2. In some forms small detachable branches or brood bodies are formed, they help in vegetative reproduction as in Bryopteris fruticulosa.
3. In Marchantia propagative organs called gemmae are formed and help in reproduction.

Question 10.
List the salient features of Angiosperms.
Answer:

1. Vascular tissue (Xylem and Phloem) is well developed.
2. Flowers are produced instead of a cone.
3. The embryosac (Ovule) remains enclosed in the ovary.
4. Pollen tube helps in fertilization, so water is not essential for fertilization.
5. Double fertilization is present. The endosperm is triploid.
6. Angiosperms are broadly classified into two classes namely Dicotyledons and Monocotyledons.

Answer In detail.

Question 1.
Explain the asexual and sexual reproduction in algae with a suitable example.
Answer:
Asexual reproduction takes place by the production of zoospores (Ulothrix, Oedogonium),

1. Aplanospore – Thin walled non motile spores, eg. Vaucheria.
2. Autospores – Spores that look similar to the parent cell. eg. Chlorella.
3. Hypnospore – Thick walled aplanospore. eg. Chlamydomonas nivalis. .
4. Tetraspores – Diploid thallus of Polysiphonia produce haploid spores after meiosis).

Sexual reproduction in algae are of three types:

1. Isogamy (Fusion of morphologically and Physiologically similar gametes eg. Ulothrix.
2. Anisogamy (Fusion of either morphologically or physiologically dissimilar gametes eg. Pandorina.
3. Oogamy (Fusion of both morphologically and physiologically dissimilar gametes, eg. Sargassum. The life cycle shows a distinct alternation of generation.

Question 2.
Give an account of Phaeophyceae.
Answer:
The members of this class are called ‘Brown algae’.

1. The majority of the forms are found in marine habitats.
2. Pleurocladia is a freshwater form.
3. The thallus is filamentous (Ectocarpus) frond-like (Dictyota) or maybe giant kelps (Laminaria and Macrocystis).
4. The thallus is differentiated into leaf-like photosynthetic part Called fronds, a stalk-like structure called stipe and a holdfast which attach thallus to the substratum.
5. The Pigments include Chlorophyll a, c, Carotenoids and Xanthophylls.
6. A golden-brown pigment called fucOxanthin is present and it gives shades of colour from olive green to brown to the algal members of this group.
7. Mannitol and Laminarin are the reserve food materials. Motile reproductive structures are present.
8. Two laterally inserted unequal flagella are present. Among these one is whiplash and another is tinsel.
9. Although sexual reproduction ranges from isogamy to Oogamy, Most of the forms show the Oogamous type.
10. Alternation of generation is present (isomorphic, heteromorphic or diplontic). eg. Sargassum, Laminaria, Fucus and Dictyota.

Question 3.
Explain the method of sexual reproduction in non-vascular cryptogams.
Answer:

1. Sexual reproduction is oogamous. Antheridia and Archegonia are produced in a protective covering and are multicellular.
2. The antheridia produce biflagellate antherozoids which swim in a thin film of water and reach the archegonium and fuse with the egg to form a diploid zygote.
3. Water is essential for fertilization.
4. The zygote is the first cell of the sporophyte generation. It undergoes mitotic division to form the multicellular undifferentiated embryo. The embryogeny is exoscopic (the first division of the zygote is transverse and the apex of the embryo develops from the outer cell). The embryo divides and gives rise to the sporophyte.
5. The sporophyte is dependent on the gametophyte.
6. It is differentiated into three recognizable parts namely foot, seta and capsule. Foot is the basal portion and is embedded in the gametophyte through which water and nutrients are supplied for the sporophyte.
7. The diploid spore mother cells found in the capsule region undergo meiotic division and give rise to haploid spores. Bryophytes are homosporous.
8. In some sporophytes elaters are present and help in the dispersal of spores eg. Marchantia.
9. The spores germinate to produce gametophyte.

Question 4.
Give an account of types of steles.
Answer:
The term stele refers to the central cylinder of vascular tissues consisting of xylem, phloem; pericycle and sometimes medullary rays with pith. There are two types of steles (i) Protostele, (ii) Siphonostele.
Protostele In protostele xylem surrounds phloem. The type includes Haplostele, Actinostele, Plectostele, and mixed protostele.

1. Haplostele Xylem surrounded by phloem is known as haplostele. eg. Selaginella.
2. Actinostele Star-shaped xylem core is surrounded by phloem is known as actinostele.
   eg. Lycopodium serratum.
3. Plectostele Xylem plates alternate with phloem plates, eg. Lycopodium clavatum.
4. Mixed protostele Xylem groups uniformly scattered in the phloem, eg. Lycopodium cernuum.

Siphonostele: In siphonostele, xylem is surrounded by phloem with pith at the centre. It includes Ectophloic siphonostele, Amphiphloic siphonostele, Solenostele, Eustele, Atactostele and Polycyclic stele.

1. Ectophloic siphonostele: The phloem is restricted only on the external side of the xylem. Pith is in centre, eg. Osmunda.
2. Amphiphloic siphonostele: The phloem is present on both the sides of xylem. The pith is in the centre, eg. Marsilea.
3. Solenostele: The stele is perforated at a place or places corresponding the origin of the leaf trace.
   (a) Ectophloic solenostele: Pith is in the centre and the xylem is surrounded by phloem, eg. Osmunda.
   (b) Amphiphloic solenostele: Pith is in the centre and the phloem is present on both sides of the xylem. eg. Adiantum pedatum
   (c) Dictyostele: The stele is separated into several vascular strands and each one is called meristele. eg. Adiantum capillus-veneris.
4. Eustele: The stele is split into distinct collateral vascular bundles around the pith, eg. Dicot stem.
5. Atactostele: The stele is split into distinct collateral vascular bundles and are scattered in the ground tissue, eg. the Monocot stem.
6. Polycyclicstele: The vascular tissues are present in the form of two or more concentric cylinders, eg. Pteridium.

Question 5.
Describe the general characteristics features of gymnosperms.
Answer:

1. Most of the gymnosperms are evergreen woody trees or shrubs. Some are lianas (Gnetum)
2. The plant body is sporophyte and is differentiated into root, stem and leaves.
3. A well-developed tap root system is present. Coralloid roots of Cycas have a symbiotic association with blue-green algae. In Pinus the roots have mycorrhizae.
4. The stem is aerial, erect and branched or unbranched (Cycas) with leaf scars.
5. In conifers two types of branches namely branches of limited growth (Dwarf shoot) and Branches of unlimited growth (Long shoot) are present.
6. Leaves are dimorphic, foliage and scale leaves are present. Foliage leaves are green, photosynthetic and borne on branches of limited growth. They show xerophytic features.
7. The xylem consists of tracheids but in Gnetum and Ephedra Vessels are present.
8. Secondary growth is present. The wood may be Manoxylic (Porous, soft, more parenchyma with wide medullary ray – Cycas) or Pycnoxylic (compact with narrow medullary ray-Pinus).
9. They are Heterosporous. The plant may be monoecious (Pinus) or dioecious (Cycas).
10. Microsporangia and Megasporangia are produced on Microsporophyll and Megasporophyll respectively.
11. Male and female cones are produced.
12. Anemophilous pollination is present.
13. Fertilization is siphon gamous and pollen tube helps in the transfer of male nuclei.

Question 6.
List out the economic importance of gymnosperms.
Answer:
Economic importance of gymnosperms

Choose the correct answer.

1. Who proposed plant kingdom?
(a) Eichler
(b) G.M.Smith
(c) Chamberlain
(d) Aristotle
Answer:
(a) Eichler

2. Volvox, §pirogyra are the examples for:
(a) Diplontic
(b) Haplontic
(c) Epiphytic
(d) Haplodiplotic
Answer:
(b) Haplontic

3. Father of Indian phycology is:
(a) Went
(b) F.E. Fritsch
(c) Ainsworth
(d) M.O.P. Iyengar
Answer:
(d) M.O.P. Iyengar

4. Identify the incorrect habitat:
(a) Marine – Sargassum
(b) Freshwater – Oedogonium
(c) Soil – Ulothrix
(d) Salt pass – Dunaliella
Answer:
(c) Soil – Ulothrix

5. The study of Algae is called:
(a) Phycology
(b) Mycology
(c) Bryology
(d) Virology
Answer:
(a) Phycology

6. Which is the proteinaceous body found is
(a) Pyrenoids
(b) Siliceous walls
(c) Carrageenan
(d) Alginate
Answer:
(a) Pyrenoids

7. Oedogonium belongs to the class:
(a) Cryptophyceae
(b) Rhodophyceae
(c) Phaeophyceae
(d) Chlorophyceae
Answer:
(d) Chlorophyceae

8. Identify the incorrect pair.
(a) Green algae – Chlorophyceae
(b) Red algae – Rhodophyceae
(c) Brown algae -Phaeophyceae
(d) Blue algae – Dinophyceae
Answer:
(d) Blue algae – Dinophyceae

9. Match the following:

(a) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
(b) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
(c) (i)-(b), (ti)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(d) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
Answer:
(b) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)

10. Amylum stars, root bulbils and amorphous bulbils are the vegetative reproductive organs of:
(a) Chora
(b) Oedogonium
(c) Selaginella
(d) Pinus
Answer:
(a) Chora

11. In which sporophyte elaters are present and help in dispersal:
(a) Riccia
(b) Anthoceros
(c) Bryopteris
(d) Marchantia
Answer:
(d) Marchantia

12. Who classified bryophytes in to 3 classes.
(a) Proskauer
(b) Kashyap
(c) G.M.Smith
(d) Chamberlain
Answer:
(a) Proskauer

13. Sphagnum is used in:
(a) Agriculture
(b) Horticulture
(c) Sericulture
(d) Monoculture
Answer:
(b) Horticulture

14. Pulmonary tuberculosis is caused by:
(a) Funaria hygrometrica
(b) Sphagnum
(c) Marchantia polynmorpha
(d) Riccia
Answer:
(c) Marchantia polynmorpha

15. Selaginalla is the example for:
(a) Plectostele
(b) Haplostele
(c) Mixed protostele
(d) Actinostele
Answer:
(b) Haplostele

16. ‘Walking fem’ is the common name for:
(a) Pinus
(b) Cycas
(c) Adiantum
(d) Selaginella
Answer:
(c) Adiantum

17. Identify the incorrect statement.
(a) presence of cambium in gymnosperm as in monocotyledons
(b) presence integument around the ovule
(c) both plant group produce seeds.
(d) pollentube helps in the transfer of male nucleus in both.
Answer:
(a) presence of cambium in gymnosperm as in monocotyledons

18. Match the following:

(a) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
(b) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(c) (i)-(a), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)
(d) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
Answer:
(b) (i)-(d), (ti)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)

19. Coralloid roots are found in:
(a) Araucaria
(b) Ephedra
(c) Cycas
(d) Pinus
Answer:
(c) Cycas

20. Foliage leaves are otherwise called:
(a) Axillary leaves
(b) Scale leaves
(c) Sessile leaves
(d) Assimilatory leaves
Answer:
(d) Assimilatory leaves

21. Algae having oil as reserve food belongs to:
(a) Xanthophyceae
(b) Rhodophyceae
(c) Chlorophyceae
(d) Phaeophyceae
Answer:
(a) Xanthophyceae

22. Antheridia and Archegonia are sex organs of:
(a) Moss
(b) Mucor
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Puccinia
Answer:
(a) Moss

23. Archegonicphore is found in:
(a) Funaria
(b) Marchantia
(c) Chara
(d) Adiantum
Answer:
(b) Marchantia

24. Which one of the following in Spyrogyra is different based on its nucleus?
(a) Zygospore
(b) Azygospore
(c) Aplanspore
(d) Akinete
Answer:
(a) Zygospore

25. Nostoc fixes dinitrogen in symbiotic association with the following:
(a) Alnus
(b) Gunnera
(c) Anthocerus
(d) Casurina
The correct combination is:
(a) I & II (b) II & III (c) I & III (d) I & IV
Answer:
(b) II & III

26. Select the wrong statement:
(a) Isogametes are similar in structure, function and behaviour
(b) Anisogametes differ either in structure, function and behaviour
(c) In oomycetes , female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and nonmotile.
(d) Cjilamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and focus shows oogamy.
Answer:
(c) In oomycetes , female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and nonmotile.

27. The ladder like structure found in spirogyra is due to:
(a) Asexual reproduction
(b) Lateral conjugation
(c) Direct conjugation
(d) Sealiriform conjugation
Answer:
(d) Sealiriform conjugation

28. Transgenic plants are the ones:
(a) grown in artificial medium, after hybridization in the field.
(b) produced by a somatic embryo in artificial medium.
(c) generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell.
(d) produced after protoplast fusion in artificial medium.
Answer:
(c) generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell.

29. Which of the following is a living fossil?
(a) Spirogyra
(b) Moss
(c) Cycas
(d) Saccharomyces
Answer:
(c) Cycas

30. Which of the following species propagates through leaf-tip?
(a) Funaria
(b) Walking fern
(c) Moss
(d) Marchantia
Answer:
(b) Walking fern

Students get through the TN Board 11th Bio Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 11th Bio Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 Living World

Answer the following short answers.

Question 1.
Define Biosphere.
Answer:
Earth has formed some 4.6 billion years ago. It is a life-supporting planet with landforms like mountains, plateaus, glaciers, etc., Life on earth exists within a complex structure called the biosphere.

Question 2.
What is the role of the DNA molecule?
Answer:
DNA is essential for the regulation of life and is made up of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and phosphorus, and thus nonliving and living things exist together to make our planet unique.

Question 3.
What is consciousness?
Answer:
AH organisms are capable of sensing their environment and respond to various physical, chemical, and biological stimuli. Animals sense their surroundings by sense organs. This is called consciousness.

Question 4.
Explain Prions.
Answer:
Prions were discovered by Stanley B.Prusiner in the year 1982 and are proteinaceous infectious particles. They are the causative agents for about a dozen fatal degenerative disorders of the central nervous system of humans and other animals. For example Creutzfeldt – Jakob Disease (CJD), Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) – commonly known as mad cow disease and scrapie disease of sheep.

Question 5.
What is Plasmid?
Answer:
Plasmids are extrachromosomal double-stranded, circular, self-replicating, autonomous elements. They contain genes for fertility, antibiotic-resistant and heavy metals. It also helps in the production of bacteriocins and toxins which are not found in the bacterial chromosome.

Question 6.
Mention the need for classification?
Answer:
Classification is essential to achieve the following needs:

1. To relate things based on common characteristic features.
2. To define organisms based on the salient features.
3. Helps in knowing the relationship amongst different groups of organisms.
4. It helps in understanding the evolutionary relationship between organisms.

Question 7.
What is Pili?
Answer:
Pili or fimbriae are hair-like appendages found on the surface of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria (eg. Enterobacterium). The pili are 0.2 to 20 pm long with a diameter of about 0.025pm. In addition to normal pili, special types of pili that help in conjugation called sex pili are also found.

Question 8.
Define “Pruteen”.
Answer:
“Pruteen” is a single cell protein derived from Methylophilus and Methylotropus.

Question 9.
What are Mycobiont and Phycobiont?
Answer:
The symbiotic association between algae and fungi is called lichens. The algal partner |is called Phycobiont or Photobiont and the fungal partner is called Mycobiont. Algae provide nutrition for fungal partners in turn fungi provide protection and also help to fix the thallus to the substratum through rhizines. Asexual reproduction takes place through fragmentation, Soredia, and Isidia. Phycobionst reproduces by akinetes, hormogonia, aplanospore, etc., Mycobionts undergo sexual reproduction and produce ascocarps.

Question 10.
Define Homeostasis.
Answer:
Property of self-regulation and tendency to maintain a steady-state within an external environment which is liable to change is called Homeostasis. It is essential for the living organism to maintain internal conditions to survive in the environment.

Question 11.
Mention any four living characteristics of viruses.
Answer:

1. Presence of nucleic acid and protein.
2. Capable of mutation
3. Ability to multiply within living cells.
4. Able to infect and cause diseases in living beings.

Question 12.
Explain the term Viroid.
Answer:
Viroid is a circular molecule of ssRNA without a capsid and was discovered by T.O.Diener in the year 1971. The RNA of viroid has a low molecular weight. Viroids cause citrus exocytic and potato spindle tuber disease in plants.

Question 13.
What is meant by red tide?
Answer:
Red tide is caused by the toxic bloom of Dinoflagellates like Gymnodinium breve and Gonyaulax tamarensis. A major red tide incident in the west coast of Florida in the year 1982 killed hundreds and thousands of fishes.

Question 14.
What are Polysomes?
Answer:
The ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis. The number of ribosomes per cell varies from 10,000 to 15,000. The ribosomes are 70S type and consist of two subunits (50S and 30S). The ribosomes are held together by mRNA and form polyribosomes or polysomes.

Question 15.
Write briefly on purple sulfur bacteria.
Answer:
For bacteria belonging to this group, the hydrogen donor is Thiosulphate and Bacteriochlorophyll. Chlorophyll containing chlorosomes are present, eg. Chromatium.

Question 16.
Match the following:

Answer:
(i)-(c);
(ii)-(a);
(iii)-(d);
(iv)-(b)

Question 17.
What is meant by aflatoxin?
Answer:
Aspergillus, Rhizopus, Mucor, and Penicillium ate involved in the spoilage of food materials. Aspergillus flavus infest dried foods and produce a carcinogenic toxins called aflatoxin.

Question 18.
Explain the term mycorrhizae.
Answer:
The Symbiotic association between fungal mycelium and roots of plants is called mycorrhizae. In this relationship, fungi absorb nutrition from the root, and in turn, the hyphal network of mycorrhizae forming fungi helps the plant to absorb water and mineral nutrients from the soil.

Question 19.
Name any two fungal diseases of plants and their causative organism.
Answer:

1. A blast of Paddy: Magnaporthe grisea.
2. Red rot of sugarcane: Colletotrichum falcatum.

Question 20.
Explain Oomycetes with an example.
Answer:
Coenocytic mycelium is present. The cell wall is made up of Glucan and Cellulose. Zoospore with one whiplash and one tinsel flagellum is present. Sexual reproduction is Oogamous. eg. Albugo.

Answer In brief.

Question 1.
Differentiate extrinsic and intrinsic.
Answer:

Question 2.
List out the classification of viruses.
Answer:

Question 3.
Name any three plant, animal, and human diseases caused by viruses.
Answer:
Plant diseases: (i) Tobacco mosaic, (ii) Cauliflower mosaic, (iii) Sugarcane mosaic.
Animal diseases: (i) Foot and mouth disease of cattle, (ii) Rabies of dog, (iii) Encephalomyelitis of horse
Human diseases: (i) Common cold, (ii) Hepatitis B, (iii) Cancer.

Question 4.
Distinguish catabolism and anabolism.
Answer:

Question 5.
List out any three methods of sexual reproduction, in fungi.
Answer:

1. Sexual reproduction is present but sex organs are absent. Somatogamy or spermatisation results in plasmogamy.
2. Karyogamy is delayed and the dikaryotic phase is prolonged.
3. Karyogamy takes place in basidium and it is immediately followed by meiotic division.

Question 6.
Describe briefly the Viral genome.
Answer:

1. Each virus possesses only one type of nucleic acid either DNA or RNA. The nucleic acid may be in a linear or circular form.
2. Generally nucleic acid is present as a single unit but in wound tumor virus and in influenza virus it is found in segments.
3. The viruses possessing DNA are called ‘Deoxyviruses’ whereas those possessing RNA are called ‘Riboviruses’. The majority of animal and bacterial viruses are DNA viruses (HIV is the animal virus that possesses RNA).
4. Plant viruses generally contain RNA (Cauliflower Mosaic virus possesses DNA). The nucleic acids may be single-stranded or double-stranded. On the basis of the nature of nucleic acid, viruses are classified into four categories. They are Viruses with ssDNA (Parvoviruses), dsDNA (Bacteriophages), ssRNA (TMV), and dsRNA(wound tumour virus).

Question 7.
Explain the structure of T₄ bacteriophage.
Answer:

1. The T₄ phage is tadpole-shaped and consists of head, collar, tail, base plate, and fibers.
2. The head is hexagonal which consists of about 2000 identical protein subunits.
3. The long helical tail consists of an inner tubular core that is connected to the head by a collar.
4. There is a base plate attached to the end of the tail. The base plate contains six spikes and tail fibers. These fibers are used to attach the phage to the cell wall of the bacterial host during replication.
5. A dsDNA molecule of about 50 pm is tightly packed inside the head. The DNA is about 1000 times longer than the phage itself.

Question 8.
Draw and label the ultrastructure of a bacterial cell.
Answer:

Question 9.
What is meant by Ammonification? Explain the bacteria involved in the process.
Answer:

Question 10.
Explain Actinomycetes with an example.
Answer:
Actinomycetes are also called ‘Ray fungi’ due to their mycelia-like growth. They are anaerobic or facultative anaerobic microorganisms and are gram-positive. They do not produce an aerial mycelium. Their DNA contains high guanine and cytosine content (eg. Streptomyces).

Answer In detail.

Question 1.
Draw the structure of different types of viruses and explain.
Answer:
Viruses are ultramicroscopic particles. They are smaller than bacteria and their diameter range from 20 to 300 nm (1 nm = 10^-9 meters). Bacteriophage measures about 10 – 100 nm in size. The size of TMV is 300 x 20 nm.
Generally, viruses are of three types based on shape and symmetry.

1. Cuboid symmetry – eg. Adenovirus, Herpes virus.
2. Helical symmetry – eg. Influenza virus, TMV.
3. Complex or Atypical – eg. Bacteriophage, Vaccinia virus.

Question 2.
Explain the types of Respiration in Bacteria.
Answer:
Two types of respiration are found in Bacteria. They are (i) Aerobic respiration, (ii) Anaerobic respiration.

1. Aerobic respiration These bacteria require oxygen as a terminal acceptor and will not grow under anaerobic conditions (i.e. in the absence of O2) eg. Streptococcus.
   Obligate aerobes: Some Micrococcus species are obligate aerobes (i.e. they must have oxygen to survive),
2. Anaerobic respiration: These bacteria do not use oxygen for growth and metabolism but obtain their energy from fermentation reactions, eg. Clostridium.

Facultative anaerobes: There are bacteria that can grow either using oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor or anaerobically using fermentation reaction to obtain energy. When a facultative anaerobe such as E. coli is present at a site of infection like an abdominal abscess, it can rapidly consume all available 02 and change to anaerobic metabolism producing an anaerobic environment and thus allow the anaerobic bacteria that are present to grow and cause disease, eg. Escherichia coli and Salmonella.
Capnophilic Bacteria: Bacteria that require CO₂ for their growth are called as capnophilic bacteria, eg. Campylobacter.

Question 3.
Describe the various steps in Gram’s staining procedure.
Answer:

Question 4.
Give a concise account of asexual reproduction in bacteria.
Answer:
Bacteria reproduce asexually by Binary fission, conidia, and endospore formation. Among these Binary fission is the most common one.
Binary fission: Under favorable conditions, the cell divides into two daughter cells. The nuclear material divides first and it is followed by the formation of a simple median constriction which! finally results in the separation of two cells.
Endospores: During unfavorable conditions bacteria produce endospores. Endospores are produced in Bacillus megaterium, Bacillus sphaericus, and Clostridium tetani. Endospores are thick-walled resting spores. During the favorable conditions, they germinate and form bacteria.

Question 5.
Enumerate the general characteristic features of fungi.
Answer:

1. The majority of fungi are made up of thin, filamentous branched structures called hyphae. A number of hyphae get interwoven to form mycelium. The cell wall of fungi is made up of a polysaccharide called chitin (polymer of N-acetyl glucosamine).
2. The fungal mycelium is categorized into two types based on the presence or absence of septa (figure). In lower fungi, the hypha is aseptate, multinucleate and is known as coenocytic mycelium (eg. Albugo). In higher fungi, a septum is present between the cells of the hyphae. eg. Fusarium:
   
3. The mycelium is organized into loosely or compactly interwoven fungal tissues called plectenchyma. It is further divided into two types prosenchyma and pseudoparenchyma. In the former type, the hyphae are arranged loosely but parallel to one another In the latter hyphae are compactly arranged and lose their identity.
4. In holocarpic forms, the entire thallus is converted into reproductive structure whereas in Eucarpic some regions of the thallus are involved in the reproduction other regions remain vegetative. Fungi .reproduce both by asexual and sexual methods. The asexual phase is called Anamorph and the sexual phase is called Teleomorph. Fungi having both phases are called Holomorph.
5. In general sexual reproduction in fungi includes three steps (a) Fusion of two protoplasts (plasmogamy), (b) Fusion of nuclei (karyogamy), and (c) Production of haploid spores through meiosis.

Question 6.
Write an essay on the Beneficial activities of fungi.
Answer:
Fungi provide delicious and nutritious food called mushrooms. They recycle the minerals by decomposing the litter thus adding fertility to the soil. The dairy industry is based on a single-celled fungus called yeast. They deteriorate the timber. Fungi cause food poisoning due to the production of toxins. The Beneficial and harmful activities of fungi are discussed below:
Beneficial activities:

1. Food: Mushrooms likeLentinus edodes, Agaricusbisporus, Volvariella volvaceae are consumed ‘ for their high nutritive value. Yeasts provide vitamin B and Eremothecium ashbyii is a rich source of Vitamin B₁₂.
2. Medicine: Fungi produce antibiotics that arrest the growth or destroy the bacteria. Some of the antibiotics produced by fungi include Penicillin (Penicillium notatum), Cephalosporins,
   (Acremonium chrysogenum), Griseofulvin (Penicillium griseofulvum). Ergot alkaloids (Ergotamine) produced by Claviceps purpurea are used as vasoconstrictors.
3. Industries: Production of organic acid: For the commercial production of organic acids fungi are employed in the Industries. Some of the organic acids and fungi which help in the production of organic acids are Citric acid and Gluconic-acid – Aspergillus niger, Itaconic acid – Aspergillus terreus, Kojic acid – Aspergilhis oryzae.
4. Bakery and Brewery: Yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) is used for the fermentation of sugars to yield alcohol. Bakeries utilize yeast for the production of Bakery products like Bread, buns, rolls. etc. Penicillium roquefortii and Penicillium camemberti are employed in cheese production.
5. Production of enzymes: Aspergillus oryzae, Aspergillus niger is employed in the production of enzymes like Amylase, Protease, Lactase etc., ’Rennet’ which helps in the coagulation of milk in cheese manufacturing is derived from Mucor spp.
6. Agriculture: Mycorrhiza forming fungi like Rhizoctonia, Phallus, Scleroderma helps in the absorption of water and minerals. Fungi like Beauveria bassiana, Metarhizium anisopliae are used as Biopesticides to eradicate the pests of crops. Gibberellin, produced by a fungus Gibberella fujikuroi induce plant growth and is used as growth promoter.

Activity

Text Book Page No. 25

Collect some root nodules of leguminous crops. Draw diagram. Wash, it in tap water and prepare d smear by squeezing the content into a clean slide. Follow the Gram staining method and identify the bacteria.
Answer:
Azotobacter, Clostridium, rhizobium are observed.

Text Book Page No. 37

Get a button mushroom. Draw a diagram of the fruit body. Take a thin longitudinal section passing through the gill and observe the section under a microscope. Record your observations.
Answer:


Keep a slice of bread in a clean plastic tray or plate. Wet the surface with little water. Leave the setup for 3 or 4 days. Observe the moldy growth on the surface of the bread. Using .a needle removes some mycelium and place it on a slide and stain the mycelium using lactophenol blue. Observe the mycelium and sporangium under the microscope and Record your observation and identify the fungi and its group based on characteristic features:
The bread mold fungi such as Mucor, Rhizopus can be observed.

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. A sexual reproduction in living organism occurs by the production of:
(a) conidia formation
(b) budding
(c) binnary fission
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

2. Animal sense their surroundings by sense organ is called:
(a) Metabolism
(b) Irritability
(c) Consciounsness
(d) Anabolism
Answer:
(c) Consciounsness

3. Who obtained the crystalline protein sediment from infected tobacco juice?
(a) Edward Jennev
(b) W.M. Stanley
(c) Ivanowsky
(d) F.W. Twort
Answer:
(b) W.M. Stanley

4. Which of the following is the diameter of bacteriophage?
(a) 10 – 100 nm
(b) 20 – 100 nm
(c) 10 – 200 nm
(d) 20 – 30 nm
Answer:
(a) 10 – 100 nm

5. How many classes are there in viruses?
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 6
Answer:
(c) 1

6. The shape of TMV is:
(a) round shape
(b) cuboid shape
(c) cylindrical shape
(d) rod shape
Answer:
(d) rod shape

7. Identify the incorrect statement of living characters of viruses.
(a) Absence of metabolism
(b) Presence of nucleic acid
(c) Multiply within the cells
(d) Capable of mutation
Answer:
(a) Absence of metabolism

8. Cyanophages means:
(a) Viruses infecting red algae
(b) Viruses infecting brown algae
(c) Viruses infecting blue-green algae
(d) Viruses infecting green algae
Answer:
(c) Viruses infecting blue-green algae

9. Which one of the following is a bacterial disease?
(a) Common cold
(b) Cancer
(c) Rabies
(d) Tetanus
Answer:
(d) Tetanus

10. Who proposed the five kingdom classification?
(a) R.H. Whittaker
(b) Linnaeus
(c) Haeckel
(d) Aristotle
Answer:
(a) R.H. Whittaker

11. Actinomycetes, cyanobacteria are examples of:
(a) Protostar
(b) Fungi
(c) Monera
(d) Animalia
Answer:
(c) Monera

12. What are the three domains of life according to Carl Woese and co-workers?
(a) Prokaiyota, Eukaryota, Archaea
(b) Archaea, Bacteria, Protozoa
(c) Archaea, Fungi, Bacteria
(d) Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya
Answer:
(d) Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya

13. Who coined the word Bacterium?
(a) Christian Gram
(b) C.G.Ehrenberg
(c) Griffith
(d) Lederberg
Answer:
(b) C.G.Ehrenberg

14. Eschrichia coli and Salmonella are examples of:
(a) Aerobes
(b) Obligate aerobes
(c) Facultative anaerobes
(d) Anaerobes
Answer:
(c) Facultative anaerobes

15. Which among the bacteria breakdown hydrocarbons?
(a) Pseudomonas putida
(b) Lacto bacillus
(c) Bifido bacterium
(d) Nitrosomonas
Answer:
(a) Pseudomonas putida

16. Match the following disease with their pathogen:

(a) (i)-(d); (ii)-(c); (iii)-(b); (iv)-(a)
(b) (i)-(c); (ii)-(a); (iii)-(b); (iv)-(d)
(c) (i)-(a)-, (ii)-(d); (iii)-(b); (iv)-(c)
(d) (i)-(c); (ii)-(d); (iii)-(b); (iv)-(a)
Answer:
(d) (i)-(c); (ii)-(d); (iii)-(b); (iv)-(a)

17. PHB means:
(a) Poly Hexo Butyrate
(b) Poly Hydrolxl Butyle
(c) Poly -13 Hydroxl Butyrate
(d) Poly Hedfal Butyrate
Answer:
(c) Poly -13 Hydroxl Butyrate

18. Which of the statement is incorrect in blue-green algae?
(a) The thallus is unicellular
(b) The reserve food material is cyanophycean starch
(c) Absence of mucilage around the thallus
(d) Sexual reproduction is absent
Answer:
(c) Absence of mucilage around the thallus

19. Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of:
(a) Biofertilizer
(b) Biological fuel
(c) Biotic factor
(d) Pro-Biotic
Answer:
(a) Biofertilizer

20. Father of the Indian mycology is:
(a) P.A.Michali
(b) C.H.Blackley
(c) Sir Edwin John Butler
(d) A.F. Blakeshec
Answer:
(c) Sir Edwin John Butler

21. In Fungi reproduction sexual phase is called:
(a) Anamorph
(b) Holomorph
(c) Allelomorph
(d) Teleomorph
Answer:
(d) Teleomorph

22. Odd one out (Type of ascocarp):
(a) Deistothecium
(b) Perithecium
(c) Apothecium
(d) Basidium
Answer:
(d) Basidium

23. Which one of the following is a rich source of vitamin B12?
(a) Agaricus bisporus
(b) Aspergillus oryzae
(c) Eremothecium ashbyii
(d) Clavicepspurpurea
Answer:
(c) Eremothecium ashbyii

24. Pick out the incorrect pair:
(a) Blast of paddy – Magnaporthe grisea
(b) Red rot of sugarcane – Albugo Candida
(c) Rust of wheat – Pucciniagraminis
(d) peach of leaf curl – Taphrina deformans
Answer:
(b) Red rot of sugarcane – Albugo Candida

25. The symbiotic association between fungal mycelium and roots of higher plants is called:
(a) Lichen
(b) Symbiotic
(c) Monotropa
(d) Mycorrhizac
Answer:
(d) Mycorrhizac

26. Each virus posses only one type of nucleic acid:
(a) Either DNA or RNA
(b) DNA only
(c) Neither DNA nor RNA
(d) RNA only
Answer:
(a) Either DNA or RNA

27. Tobacco mosaic virus is a:
(a) rhomboid-shaped helical virus
(b) rod-shaped helical virus
(c) rectangular-shaped virus
(d) triangular shaped helical virus
Answer:
(b) rod-shaped helical virus

28. Indicate the correct statement:
(a) Virion is a circular molecule of ss RNA without a capsid
(b) Virion is a phage that injects linear DNA into the host cell
(c) Virion is an intact infective virus particle, which is non – replicating outside a host cell
(d) Virion is discovered by J.W Randles
Answer:
(c) Virion is an intact infective virus particle, which is non – replicating outside a host cell

29. Transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another is called:
(a) Conjugation
(b) Transformation
(c) Transduction
(d) Binary fission
Answer:
(b) Transformation

30. Fusion of two somative cells of the hypae is called:
(a) Anisogamy
(b) Somatogamy
(c) Oogamy
(d) Isogamy
Answer:
(b) Somatogamy

Students get through the TN Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 33 Indirect Taxation which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 33 Indirect Taxation

Very short answer questions

1. Mention the kinds of GST.
Answer:

1. CGST – Central Goods and Service Tax.
2. SGST – State Goods and Service Tax.
3. UGST – Union Goods and Service Tax.
4. IGST – Integrated State Goods arid Service Tax.
5. IGST on exports.

2. Main sources of Tax revenue and Non-tax revenue.
Answer:

1. Land revenue.
2. Taxes on sales and purchase of goods.
3. Taxes on agricultural income.
4. Taxes on land and building.
5. Entertainment tax.

3. GST benefits of consumer.
Answer:

1. The input tax credit allowed will lower the prices to the consumers.
2. All small retailers will get exemption and purchases from them will cost less for the consumers.

Short answer questions

1. Explain the meaning of GST.
Answer:

1. Goods and Services Tax (GST) is the tax imposed on the supply (consumption) of goods and services. It is a destination-based consumption tax and collected on those value-added items at each stage of the supply chain.
2. A manufacturer in India, need not pay GST wherever he/she manufactures. GST is applicable to all goods and services except alcohol and specified petroleum products. GST Act has proposed four tax rates, i.e. 5%, 12%, 18% and 28%.

2. Write any three benefits of GST.
Answer:

1. The creation of more employment opportunities will result in poverty eradication.
2. It will bring more tax compliance (more taxpayers) and increase revenue to the Governments.
3. It is transparent and will improve India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Business in the world.

Long answer questions

1. GST benefits of the business community.
Answer:

1. Simpler Tax System with fewer exemptions. 17 taxes were abolished and one tax exists today.
2. The input tax credit will reduce cascading effect of taxes. Reduction in average tax burden will encourage manufacturers and help the “Make in India” campaign and make India a manufacturing hub.
3. Common procedures, common classification of goods and services, and timelines will lend greater certainty to the taxation system.
4. GSTN facility will reduce multiple record-keeping, lesser investment in manpower and resources, and improve efficiency.
5. All interactions will be through a common GSTN portal and will ensure corruption-free administration.
6. Uniform prices throughout the country. Expansion of business to all states is made easy.

2. Explain IGST with an example.
Answer:
Meaning:

1. IGST refers to the integrated goods and services tax and it is a combined form of CGST and IGST and is levied by the central government.
2. Collection of tax: Taxes collected by the central government.
3. Applicability: All exports are treated as inter-state supply under GST since exports also rated. GST is not imposed on all goods and services exported from India. Any input credit paid already exports will be refundable.
4. Registration: Registration is mandatory.
5. Composition: The composition scheme is not applicable in interstate supply.

Multiple-choice questions

1. GST applicable to all goods and services except alcohol and specified petroleum products. GST Act has proposed tax rates.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(c) four

2. GST is of ……… kinds
(a) three
(b) four
(c) one
(d) five
Answer:
(a) three

3. CGST Act on:
(a) 2017
(b) 2016
(c) 2008
(d) 2002
Answer:
(a) 2017

4. The chairman of the council is the union ………. minister.
(a) educational
(b) agricultural
(c) finance
(d) textiles
Answer:
(c) finance

5. CGST collection of tax:
(a) state government
(b) central government
(c) direct tax
(d) indirect tax
Answer:
(a) state government

6. Input tax credit allowed will lower the prices to the:
(a) banker
(b) consumers
(c) debtors
(d) creditors
Answer:
(b) consumers

7. Several …………. says that GST in India would impact negatively on the real estate market.
(a) economics
(b) commerce
(c) mathematics
(d) statistics
Answer:
(a) economics

8. A number of retail products currently have only:
(a) 2%
(b) 3%
(c) 4%
(d) 5%
Answer:
(c) 4%

9. The aviation industry would be affected service taxes on airfares currently range from:
(a) 6% to 9%
(b) 5% to 8%
(c) 4% to 6%
(d) 4% to 8%
Answer:
(a) 6% to 9%

10. GST this rate will surpass fifteen percent and effectively ……… the tax rate.
(a) double rate
(b) Single rate
(c) triple rate
(d) Others rate
Answer:
(a) double rate

Students get through the TN Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 32 Direct Taxes which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 32 Direct Taxes

Very short answer questions

Question 1.
What are 80C Deductions?
Answer:
80C Deductions; Contribution to Provident Fund, Life Insurance Premium, Children’s Tuition Fees, Health Insurance Premium, Investment in National Savings Certificate, interest paid for home loans, etc.

Question 2.
What is Applicability?
Answer:
Income Tax is applicable throughout India including the State of Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 3.
What is Annual tax?
Answer:
Income tax is an annual tax because it is the income of a particular year that is chargeable to tax.

Question 4.
What are the kinds of taxes?
Answer:
Direct taxes and Indirect taxes.

Question 5.
Examples of Indirect taxes.
Answer:
Excise duties, customs duties, sales tax, entertainment tax, service tax.

Question 6.
Mention the features of Income-tax in India.
Answer:

1. Levied as per the constitution,
2. Levied by the central government,
3. Direct tax,
4. Annual tax,
5. Tax on the person,
6. Tax on Income.

Short answer questions

Question 1.
Explain Income Tax is administered by the central government.
Answer:
Income tax is administered by the Central Government (Ministry of Finance) with the help of the ‘Income tax department’ with branches throughout the country. The Central Government has constituted the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) which exercises overall control over the Income-tax department by issuing guidelines for related matters.

Question 2.
Define Direct tax.
Answer:
Income tax is a direct tax. It is because the liability to deposit and ultimate burden are on the same person. The person earning income is liable to pay income tax out of his own pocket and cannot pass on the burden of tax to another person.

Question 3.
What are the names of Direct taxes?
Answer:
The names of direct taxes are:

1. Income-Tax, Wealth Tax,
2. Capital Gains Tax,
3. Securities Transaction Tax,
4. Fringe Benefits Tax (from 2005),
5. Banking Cash Transaction Tax
   (for Rs. 50,000 and above – from 2005), etc.

In India, all direct taxes are levied and administered by the Central Board of Direct Taxes.

Question 4.
As per the assessment year 2018 – 19. Tabulate/ the Income Tax slab rate for individuals.
Answer:

Long answer questions

Question 1.
Difference between Direct tax and Indirect tax.
Answer:

Multiple-choice questions

1. There are …….. types of taxes:
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(b) two

2. In India all direct taxes are levied and administered by ……… of direct taxes
(a) central board
(b) person
(c) company
(d) creditors
Answer:
(a) central board

3. If a tax levied on the income or wealth of a person and is paid by that person directly to the government it is called
(a) direct tax
(b) indirect tax
(c) income tax
(d) capital tax
Answer:
(a) direct tax

4. Good services tax example:
(a) direct tax
(b) indirect tax
(c) wealth tax
(d) capital gains tax
Answer:
(b) indirect tax

5. Banking cash transaction tax and above ………. from 2005.
(a) Rs. 50000
(b) Rs. 40000
(c) Rs. 100000
(d) Rs. 80000
Answer:
(a) Rs. 50000

6. Income tax is charged by the central government on all incomes others than ……….. income.
(a) banking
(b) industries
(c) agricultural
(d) home loan
Answer:
(c) agricultural

7. Income tax is direct tax it is because the ………. to deposit and ultimate burden are on the same person.
(a) money
(b) asset
(c) capital
(d) liability
Answer:
(d) liability

8. Tax on long term capital gain:
(a) 30%
(b) 25%
(c) 20%
(d) 15%
Answer:
(c) 20%

9. Section IIIA tax on short term capital gain on shares covered under SST:
(a) 20%
(b) 15%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%
Answer:
(b) 15%

10. Tax on lottery income section 115BB
(a) 30%
(b) 20%
(c) 10%
(d) 15%
Answer:
(a) 30%

11. Income tax is applicable throughout India including the state of:
(a) Hariyana
(b) Tamilnadu
(c) Jammu & Kashmir
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(c) Jammu & Kashmir

12. It normally consisting of a period of 12 months commencing on 1st April every year and ending on:
(a) 31st October
(b) 31st December
(c) 31st May
(d) 31st March
Answer:
(d) 31st March

13. Income from salaries sections:
(a) 15-17
(b) 16-17
(c) 17-18
(d) 19-20
Answer:
(a) 15-17

14. Income computed under these heads shall be aggregated after adjusting past and present losses and the total so arrived at is known as ……….. income.
(a) not total income
(b) gross total income
(c) total income
(d) income
Answer:
(b) gross total income

15. Gross total income, income tax Act:
(a) 1972
(b) 1971
(c) 1871
(d) 1961
Answer:
(d) 1961

Students get through the TN Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 31 Discharge and Breach of a Contract which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 31 Discharge and Breach of a Contract

Very short answer questions

Question 1.
What are the types of remedies for injured parties?
Answer:
There are various types of remedies for the injured parties listed as follows:

1. Recission of Contract,
2. Claim for Specific Performance,
3. Claim for Injunction,
4. Claim for Quantum Merit and
5. Claim for Damages.

Question 2.
What is a claim for specific performance?
Answer:
In some specific cases if the damages are not the adequate remedy, then the court can direct the party in breach for the specific performance of the contract. In such a case, the promise is carried out as per the terms and conditions of the contract.

Question 3.
What are the types of damages?
Answer:
There are mainly four types of damages, such as-

1. Ordinary damages,
2. Special damages,
3. Vindictive or exemplary damages and
4. Nominal damages.

Question 4.
What is the types of injunction case?
Answer:

1. If the contract is voidable,
2. If the contract becomes void, or
3. On discovering the contract as void.

Question 5.
Write a short note on recission of the contract?
Answer:
In case of breach of contract by one party, then the other parties may rescind the contract and thereby the party is absolved from all obligations under this contract.

Short answer questions

Question 1.
Explain the agreement on consent?
Answer:
Agreement between the parties comes to an end by mutually agreeing for it. Any contract is created by an agreement, hence in the same way, it can be discharged by an agreement. In this connection, the rule of law is as follows.
“Eodem modo qus and quide constituitor, eodem modo destruitur,” the meaning of which is that a thing may be destroyed in the same manner, in which, it is constituted. The consent may be of the following types
Express: Express consent may be given at the time of formation of the contract or subsequent to its formation.
Implied: The contracts are also discharged by implied consent, different modes of discharge by implied consent are:

1. Novation,
2. Alteration,
3. Recession,
4. Remission,
5. Accord and Satisfaction,
6. Waiver and
7. Merger

Question 2.
What is the lapse of time?
Answer:
According to the Limitation Act, 1963 a contract must be performed within a specified time. If it is not performed within this specified time limit and against which if no action is taken by the promisee in the. Court of Law within a specified time, then the promisee is deprived of his remedy at law. In such cases, the contract is discharged.

Question 3.
Name the contracts that can be contract discharged by law.
Answer:

1. By death,
2. By merger.
3. By Insolvency.
4. Unauthorized alternation of the terms of a contract.
5. Rights and Liabilities vesting in the same person.

Long answer questions

Question 1.
Explain the contract discharged by the operation law.
Answer:

1. By Death: If the contracts depend on the personal skill or ability, then such contract may be discharged on the death of the promisor
2. By Merger: Merger will take place when an inferior right accruing to the same party either under the same or another contract.
3. By Insolvency: An insolvent is discharged from all liabilities incurred prior to his adjudication.
4. Unauthorized Alteration of the Terms of a Contract: If one party makes any material alteration in the contract without the consent of the other party, then the other party can avoid the contract.
5. Rights and liabilities vesting in the same person: Where the right and liability become vested in the same person, the other parties are discharged.

For Own Thinking

1. To draw inference about the nature of the contract and legal ways of discharging it.
Answer:

1. Performance implies carrying out the obligation of the contract.
2. Performance must be completed according to die real intentions of the agreement, performance must be done according to the time and manner prescribed.

2. To understand the modes of discharge of contract.
Answer:
To explain two modes of discharge of contract.
Merger: Two or more contracts combined together to form a contract and discharge of contract.

For Future Learning

1. To interpret the consequence of the breach of performance of a contract.
Answer:
All parties to a contract are expected to perform their promises when one party refuses to perform his promise. Then the breach of contract takes place.

2. Illustrate with example the modes of discharge of contract and if not discharged the consequences.
Answer:
Recission of contract: In case of breach of contract by one party then the other parties may rescind the contract and thereby the party is absolved from all obligations under the contract.

3. To foresee the suitability of remedies for breach of contract violation of which leading to legal consequences.
Answer:
Remedies of breach of contract for that to claim damages.
Ordinary damages: Damages that arise in the ordinary course of events from, the breach of contract are called ordinary damages.
eg: Annie contracted to sell and deliver Bala 100 bags of Dhall at Rs. 3000 per bag and price to be paid at the time of delivery.
The price of Dhall is raised to Rs. 4000 per bag and Annie refused to sell the dhall. Bala can claim damages at the rate of Rs. 1000 per bag.

Multiple-choice questions

1. Performance of contract may be of ………. types.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) threat
(d) four
Answer:
(b) two

2. Impossibility existing at the time of:
(a) agreement
(b) formation of contract
(c) promisor
(d) personal
Answer:
(a) agreement

3. A contract can be discharged by the law.
(a) commercial law
(b) operation law
(c) civil law
(d) criminal law
Answer:
(b) operation law

4. Where the right and liability become vested, in the same person the:
(a) one party
(b) two parties
(c) other parties
(d) third parties
Answer:
(c) other parties

5. Right and ………. vesting in the same person.
(a) assets
(b) liabilities
(c) capital
(d) current asset
Answer:
(b) liabilities

6. They are various types of remedies for the injured parties listed as:
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) five
Answer:
(d) five

7. The contract and thereby the party is absolved from all obligations under the contract:
(a) rescission of contract
(b) claim for injunction
(c) claim for damages
(d) claim for quantum merit
Answer:
(a) rescission of contract

8. When it is probable that compensation in ……… cannot be received for the nonperformance of the act agreed to be done.
(a) asset
(b) money
(c) plant
(d) creditors
Answer:
(b) money

9. The contract made by a company ultra-virus of its ………. of association.
(a) memorandum
(b) articles of association
(c) prospectus
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(a) memorandum

10. A party for breach of contract there are mainly ………. types.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(c) four

11. The court may order injunction in the ………. types.
(a) one
(b) three
(c) two
(d) four
Answer:
(b) three

12. Section 73 of the Indian contract act:
(a) 1872
(b) 1972
(c) 2013
(d) 1982
Answer:
(a) 1872

Students get through the TN Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 30 Performance of Contract which is useful for their exam preparation.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Important Questions Chapter 30 Performance of Contract

Very short answer questions

Question 1.
What is attempted performance?
Answer:
When the party offers to perform his obligation, it is not accepted by the promisee. So, it is also called the offer to performance or tender. Hence, a valid tender of performance is considered to be the performance of a promise.

Question 2.
Who is a third person?
Answer:
According to Section 41, if a promisee accepts the performance of the promise by a third person he cannot afterward enforce it against the promisor.

Question 3.
What are Representations?
Answer:
A contract that involves the use of personal skill or it is found on personal considerations, comes to an end if the promisor dies. Of course, in the case of other contracts, the legal representatives Of a deceased promisor are bound to perform the contract Section 37.

Question 4.
Explain the time and place of performance of the promise.
Answer:
It is only the promisee for Whom the contract is performed. Only the promisee can demand the performance of the promise under a contract.

Short answer questions

Question 1.
What is the appropriation of payments?
Answer:
Sometimes, a debtor owes several distinct debts to the same creditor and he makes a payment that is insufficient to satisfy all the debts. In such a case, a question arises as to which particular debt the payment is to be appropriated. Section 59 to 61 of the Act lays down the following rules as to the appropriation of payments which provide an answer to this question.

Question 2.
What is mutual and dependent?
Answer:
Where the performance of the promise by one party depends upon the prior performance of promise by the other party, the promises are conditional and dependent. For example, A agrees to construct a building for B. B agrees to supply cement for the construction. Hence A’s promise to perform depends on B’s promise.

Question 3.
Explain the appropriation as per express instructions.
Answer:
Appropriation as per express Instructions:
Every debtor who owes several debts to a creditor has a right to instruct his creditor to which particular debt, the payment is to be appropriated or adjusted. Therefore, where the debtor expressly states that the payment is to be applied to the discharge of a particular debt, the. payment must be applied accordingly.

Question 4.
Write a short note on the Devolution of Joint Rights.
Answer:
“When a person has made a promise to two or more persons jointly, then unless there is a contract to the contrary, the right to claim performance rests as between him and them, with them during their joint lives and after the death of them with representatives of such deceased person jointly with survivors, and after the death of the last survivor, with the representatives of all jointly”.

Question 5.
Explain – Promisee.
Answer:
Only a promisee can demand performance and not a stranger demand performance of the contract.

Question 6.
What do you mean by mutual and concurrent?
Answer:
Where the two promises are said to be performed simultaneously. They are said to be mutual and concurrent.

Long answer questions

Question 1.
What is the essentials of a valid tender of performance?
Answer:
A tender, to be valid, must satisfy the following essential requirements

1. It must be unconditional.
2. It must be for the whole obligation and must not be in installments if the contract requires in full.
3. It must be by a person who is in a position and willing to perform the promise.
4. It must be at the proper time and place.
5. It must be in proper form.
6. It must be made to a proper person i.e. to the promisee or his authorized agent.
7. In the case of the tender of goods, the promisee must be given a reasonable opportunity to inspect the goods.
8. It may be made to one of the several joint promisees.

For Own Thinking

1. To identify the performance and distinguish the performance as actual or attempted.
Answer:

1. When the party has done what he had undertaken to do. It is called actual – performance.
2. When the party offers to perform his obligation. Itisnotacceptedbythepromisee, so it is called an offer to perform.

2. To understand the time and place of performance, so that the contract is established to be discharged or not.
Answer:

1. If the promise is to be performed on a certain day, the promisor may undertake the perform it without application of promise.
2. However, the promise should be performed at the place where it was required to be performed.

For Future Learning

1. Suggest ways by which the nature of the performance of a contract can be categorized.
Answer:

1. Apromisor is to perform his promise within a reasonable time.
2. On the other hand, a reasonable time will depend upon the circumstances of the case.

2. To identify those who are involved in the process of performance of a contract and their legal status.
Answer:

1. The contract should be performed by the promisor by himself. He is like a legal representative.
2. A contract that is not of personal nature may be performed by an agent who is likely a promisor.

Multiple-choice questions

1. Indian contract act lays down that “When ………. or more persons have made a joint promise.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) five
Answer:
(b) two

2. Promises which form consideration or part of the consideration for each other are called:
(a) reciprocal promise
(b) promisor alone
(c) agent
(d) all the above
Answer:
(a) reciprocal promise

3. Where the two promises are said to be performed simultaneously they are said to be?
(a) Mutual and dependent
(b) Mutual and independent
(c) Mutual and concurrent
(d) Become’s Void
Answer:
(c) Mutual and concurrent

4. What are Reciprocal promises types?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Five
Answer:
(b) Two

5. Whether they are or are not based on the limitation act:
(a) 1963
(b) 1973
(c) 1983
(d) 1993
Answer:
(a) 1963

6. Application of payment where debt to be discharged is not indicated if section:
(a) 85
(b) 80
(c) 70
(d) 60
Answer:
(d) 60

7. If section 60 is attracted the ………… shall have the discretion to apply for such payment.
(a) debtors
(b) creditors
(c) owners
(d) bankers
Answer:
(b) creditors

8. The payment shall be applied in discharge of each of these ………… proportionately.
(a) debt
(b) credit
(c) bank overdraft
(d) bills payable
Answer:
(a) debt

9. A contract that involves the use of personal skill or it is found on personal considerations comes to an end if the dies.
(a) promisor
(b) agent
(c) promise
(d) legal representative
Answer:
(a) promisor

10. It must be made to a proper person to the promises or his authorized:
(a) agent
(b) promisor
(c) promise
(d) legal representation
Answer:
(a) agent

11. Exception to stronger to a contract:
(a) third party
(b) legal representative
(c) promise
(d) promisor
Answer:
(a) third party