Category: Class 7

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Term 2 Chapter 1 State Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Civics Term 2 Chapter 1 State Government

7th Social Science Guide State Government Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
What is the minimum age for becoming a member of the State Legislative Council?
a) 18 Years
b) 21 Years
c) 25 Years
d) 30 Years
Answer:
c) 25 Years

Question 2.
How many states does India have?
a) 26
b) 27
c) 28
d) 29 .
Answer:
d) 29

Question 3.
The word state government refers to
a) Government departments in the states
b) Legislative Assembly
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Answer:
c) Both a and b

Question 4.
The overall head of the government in the state is the
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Governor
d) Chief Minister
Answer:
c) Governor

Question 5.
Who appoints the Chief Minister and other Ministers?
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Governor
d) Chief Minister
Answer:
c) Governor

Question 6.
Who becomes the Chief Minister?
a) Leader of the majority party
b) Leader of the opposition party
c) Both
d) None
Answer:
a) Leader of the majority party

Question 7.
What are the three branches of the state Government?
a) Mayor, Governor, MLA
b) Panchayat, Municipality, Corporation
c) Village, City, State
d) Legislative, Executive and Judiciary
Answer:
d) Legislative, Executive and Judiciary

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The Governor is appointed by the ………………..
Answer:
President

2.The leader of the majority party is appointed as ……………….. in the State Assembly.
Answer:
Chief Minister

3. ………………..is the highest judicial organ of the state.
Answer:
High Court

4. Mia stands for ………………..
Answer:
Member of the Legislative Assembly.

5. ………………..is a particular area form were all the voters living there choose their representatives.
Answer:
Constituency

6. The elected representatives who are not the member of ruling party are called ………………..
Answer:
Opposition party

III. Match the following.

1. MLAs	a) Chennai
2. Governor	b) 7
3. Chief Minister	c) Head of the State
4. Union Territories	d) Legislative Assembly
5. Fort St. George	e) Leader of the Majority party

Answer:

1. MLAs	d) Legislative Assembly
2. Governor	c) Head of the State
3. Chief Minister	e) Leader of the Majority party
4. Union Territories	b) 7
5. Fort St. George	a) Chennai

IV. Consider the following statement: Tick the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following statement is/are not correct?
To become a governor, one
a) Should be the citizen of India
b) Should have completed 25 years of age
c) Should have sound mind
d) Should not hold any office of profit,
i) A & b ii) C & d iii) A iv) B
Answer:
iv) B

Question 2.
Consider the following statements and state true or false

a) MLAs are together responsible for the work of government.
Answer:
True

b) All the MLAs of other political party who do not belong to the ruling party are called opposition.
Answer:
True

c) MLAs are not the representatives of people.
Answer: False

Question 3.
Find out the correct meaning of bicameral legislature
a) It means that there are cameras in the legislature.
b) It means that the legislature has men and women members.
c) It means that there are two houses like upper house and lower house.
d) It means that the governor is the leader over the members of the legislature.
Answer:
c) It means that there are two houses like upper house and lower house.

Question 4.
Assertion (A) : India has a federal system of government.
Reason (R) : According to our constitution the power is divided between central and state governments
a) A is correct and R explains A
b) A is correct and R does not explain A
c) A is correct and R is wrong
d) Both are wrong
Answer:
a) A is correct and R explains A

V. Answer in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
What are the qualifications to become the Governor of a state?
Answer:
A person to be eligible for the post of Governor should be:

• The Governor should be the citizen of India.
• They should have completed 35 years of age.
• The Governor should have a sound mind and should not hold any public office of profit.

Question 2.
Who are called oppositions?
Answer:
The party which gets the total number of seats next to the majority party was called the opposition party.

Question 3.
Write a note on Lok Adalat.
Answer:
Lok Adalat is the people’s court established by the Government of India to settle disputes through conciliation and compromise.

Question 4.
What is a constituency?
Answer:
The constituency is the division in the state on the basis of the population. The entire state divided into several constituencies.

Question 5.
Who appoints the Chief Minister and other Ministers?
Answer:
The Governor appoints the Chief Minister and other Ministers.

VI. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the powers of the Governor.
Answer:

• Governor is the head of the State executive.
• All the administration works are carried out by his name.
• All bills become law only after his assent.
• He appoints important officials of the State Government such as Advocate General, Chairman, State Public Service Commision, State Election Commissioner, Vice-Chancellors of the State Universities etc.

Question 2.
Who is an MLA?
Answer:

1. The Member of the Legislative Assembly is called MLA.
2. They are elected by the people through general election.
3. The candidate who gets the more number of votes becomes MLA.
4. MLAs are the representatives of the people.

Question 3.
What is the role of the Chief Minister and other Council of Ministers at the state level?
Answer:

• The Chief Minister is the real executive head of the state administration.
• He allocated the portfolios among the ministers.
• The Chief Minister formulate programmes and policies for the welfare of the people of the state.
  Council of Ministers:
• All the ministers work as a team under the Chief Minister.
• The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the State Legislature and Legislative Assembly of state.

VII. HOTs.

Question 1.
Name some departments of the government.
Answer:
Some departments of the Government:

1. Agriculture Department
2. Energy Department
3. Health and Family Welfare Department
4. Industries Department
5. Law Department
6. Public works Department
7. School Education Department
8. Transport Department
9. Youth Welfare and Sports Department
10. Finance Department etc.

Question 2.
Tabulate: qualification, appointment and any two powers of Governor, Chief Minister and MLAs
Answer:

VIII. Activity.

Question 1.
Make a list of the name of the Governor, Chief Minister, and other Ministers with their departments
Answer:
State of Tamil Nadu Governor – Banwarilal Purohit
Chief Minister – EdappadiK., Palaniswami

Minsters:

1. Dindigul C. Sreenivasan – Minister for forests
2. SenkottaiyanK.A – Minister of School education
3. SelIur K. Raju – Minister of Co-Operation
4. Thangamani. P – Minister for Electricity
5. Velumani – Minister for Municipal & Rural administration
6. D. Jayakumar – Minister for Fisheries
7. K.P.Anbalagan – Minister of Higher Education
8. V. Saroja – Minister for Social Welfare and Nutritious Noon Meal Programme etc.

Question 2.
Write an essay on ‘If you were the Chief Minister of the state’
Answer:
If I will be the Chief Minister of the state:

1. I would pass a strong law banning the cutting of trees. For cutting every single tree he would be forced to plant 100 trees.
2. All the factory’s manufacturing units would be forced to install smoke and effluent treatment plants.
3. I would implement anti-corruption law.

7th Social Science Guide State Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer.

Question 1.
Which is our capital territory?
a) Chennai b) Mumbai
c) Newdelhi
d) Calcutta
Answer:
c) Newdelhi

Question 2.
The completed age of the people to cast their note in India
a) 15
b) 18
c) 20
d) 21
Answer:
b) 25

Question 3.
The term of the chief minister office is
a) 4 year
b) 5 years
c) 6 years
d) 7 years
Answer:
b) 5 years

Question 4.
The chief minister should have completed which years
a) 21
b) 23
c) 25
d) 30
Answer:
c) 25

Question 5.
Who appointed the Vice-Chancellors?
a) Governor
b) Chief minister
c) Register
d) High court judge
Answer:
a) Governor

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Fort ………………….. is the first English fortress in India.
Answer:
St.George

2. A Legislative Assembly is the ……………….. house
Answer:
Lower

3 ………………..is the head of the union.
Answer:
President

4. The Member of the Parliament is called………………..
Answer:
MP

5. ………………..parties play a vital role in the election.
Answer:
Political

6 ………………..of India conducts the election.
Answer:
The Election Commission

7. ML A should have completed ……………….. years of age.
Answer:
30

8. Tamil Nadu has ………………..cameral Legislature.
Answer:
Uni

9. The lower house is called ………………..
Answer:
Legislative Assembly

10. The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible for the State ………………..Assembly.
Answer:
Legislative

11. ……………….Courts are to settle disputes relating to marriages.
Answer:
Family

12. Lok Adalat also called as
Answer:
People’s Court

III. Match the following:

1. High Court	a) 29
2. States	b) Highest Judicial Organ
3. New Delhi	c) State capital
4. Chennai	d) National Capital

Answer:

1. High Court	a) 29
2. States	b) Highest Judicial Organ
3. New Delhi	c) State capital
4. Chennai	d) National Capital

IV. Consider the following statements: Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
1. There was no separate system of administration for the union, states, and union territories.
2. MLA’s are appointed by the governor
3. The central and state government work, together according to the Indian constitution
Answer:
3. The central and state government work together according to the Indian constitution

Question 2.
1. Vellore Fortress is the first English fortress in India.
2. St. George Fort houses the Tamil Nadu legislative assembly and secretariat of Tamil Nadu
3. Redfort is in Chennai
Answer:
2. St George Fort houses the Tamil Nadu legislative assembly and secretariat of Tamil Nadu

V. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Where is Tamil Nadu State Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu State Legislative Assembly is at Fort St. George, Chennai.

Question 2.
Define the Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
A Legislative Assembly is the Lower house where all the MLAs meet to discuss various matters related to the welfare of the state.

Question 3.
Define the Federal system.
Answer:
The power is divided into two sets of governments – the Central Government and State Government. This is called as Federal system.

Question 4.
Explain Central Government.
Answer:

• India is a parliamentary democratic republic country.
• The President of India is the head of the Indian Union and the Prime Minister and all the ministers are responsible to run the Government. This is called the Central Government.

Question 5.
Who conducts elections in India?
Answer:
The Election Commission of India conducts and monitors the elections.

Question 6.
What is Bi-cameral Legislature?
Answer:
A state has two houses – an Upper house and a Lower house. This is called the Bi-cameral Legislature.

Question 7.
What is Unicameral Legislature?
Answer:

• In India, states have two houses in their Legislature.
• But some states have a Lower house only. This is called Uni-cameral Legislature.
• Ex: Tamil Nadu.

Question 8.
For what purpose courts have been established?
Answer:
The courts have been established to ensure justice to the people without any bias.

Question 9.
What are the duties of the three main branches of Government?
Answer:

• The three main branches or organs of Government are the legislative, executive, and Judiciary.
• The Legislative branch makes laws, the executive branch enforces the laws and the judiciary interprets the laws.

VI. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the Judicial System of States in India.
Answer:

• The Hight courts are the highest judicial organ in the state.
• It is an independent body.
• The State high court consists of a Chief Judge and other Judges.
• Chief Judges are appointed by the President and hold office till the age of 62.
• District courts and tribunals, family Courts, and Lok Adalat also ensure justice to the people and settle the disputes through conciliation and compromise.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Term 2 Chapter 2 Tourism Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Geography Term 2 Chapter 2 Tourism

7th Social Science Guide Tourism Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The oldest type of tourism is …………………
a) Religious
b) Historical
c) Adventure
d) Recreational
Answer:
a) Religious

Question 2.
In which state is the Kaziranga national park located.
a) Rajasthan
b) West Bengal
c) Assam
d) Gujarat
Answer:
c) Assam

Question 3.
Which one of the following is not a beach of India?
a) Goa
b) cochin
c) Kovalam
d) Miami
Answer:
d) Miami

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a bird sanctuary in India?
a) Nal sarovor in Gujarat
b) Koonthakulam in Tamil Nadu
c) Bharatpur in Rajasthan
d) Kanha in Madhya pradesh
Answer:
d) Kanha in Madhya pradesh

Question 5.
In which district Courtallam waterfalls is located?
a) Dharmapuri
b) Tirunelveli
c) Namakkal
d) Theni
Answer:
b) Tirunelveli

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The three main components of tourism together known as …………………………….
Answer:
A3 concept

2. Gastronomy refers to an aspect of …………….tourism.
Answer:
cultural

3. Suruli falls is also called as………………..
Answer:
Cloudland falls / Meghamalai Falls

4. The second largest urban beach is
Answer:
Marina Beach, Chennai

5. Expansion of TAAI
Answer:
Travel Agents Association of India

III. Circle the odd one:

1. Transport, Attraction, Accommodation, Amenities
2. Nainital, Shillong, Munnar, Digha
3. Corbett, Sundarbans, Periyar, Mayani
4. Hogenakal, Kumbakkarai, Suruli, Kalakad
5. Rishikesh, Ladakh, Gulmarg, Kotagiri
Answer:

IV. Match the following:

1. Anamalai hills	a) West Bengal
2. Monkey falls	b) Goa
3. Darjeeling	c) Coimbatore
4. Nature’s Haven	d) Top slip
5. Aguda Beach	e) Javadi

Answer:

1. Anamalai hills	d) Top slip
2. Monkey falls	c) Coimbatore
3. Darjeeling	a) West Bengal
4. Nature’s Haven	e) Javadi
5. Aguda Beach	b) Goa

V. Consider the following statement and tick (✓) the appropriate answer: 

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Tourism is an essential activity for the life of the society.
Reason (R) : Its direct impact on social cultural, education and economic sector of the nation.
a) A and R are correct and A explains R
b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R
c) A is incorrect but R is correct
d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
a) A and R are correct and A explains R

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : One of the most popular beaches in Goa, Calangute is a treat for the adventure sports activities.
Reason (R) : Foreigners throng the beaches.
a) A and R are correct and A explain R
b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R
c) A is incorrect but R is correct
d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
a) A and R are correct and A explain R

VI. Answer the following briefly:

Question 1.
Define Tourism.
Answer:
Tourism is an essential part of the life of the society because of its direct impact on the social, cultural, educational, and economic sectors of the nation and on their international relations too.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Eco-Tourism.
Answer:

• Ecotourism is travel to destinations where plants and animals thrive in a naturally preserved environment.
• Ex: Amazon rain forest, African forest safari.

Question 3.
What are the basic elements of Tourism?
Answer:
The basic elements of tourism are

• Pleasant weather
• Scenic beauty
• Historical and cultural monuments.

Question 4.
Name any five hill stations in India.
Answer:
Kodaikanal, Darjeeling, Nainital, Mussoorie, Gulmarg, etc.

Question 5.
Name any five beaches in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Kovalam Beach, Marina Beach, Elliot Beach, Mahabalipuram Beach, Silver Beach.

VII. Distinguish between:

Question 1.
International Tourism and Historical Tourism.
Answer:
International Tourism:

1. International tourism refers to tourism that crosses national borders
2. Globalization has made tourism a popular global leisure activity.

Historical Tourism

1. Historical tourism is primarily focused upon historical places.
2. The individuals make visits to these places with the purpose of leisure as well as acquiring information.

Question 2.
Religious Tourism and Adventure Tourism.
Answer:

Religious Tourism:

1. Religious tourism is one of the oldest types of tourism, wherein people travel individually or in groups for a pilgrimage to a religious location such as temples, churches, mosques, and other religious places.
2. Religious tours to Kasi (Varanasi) by Hindus, Jerusalem by Christians, and Mecca by Muslims are a few of examples of religious tourism.

Adventure Tourism:

1. Adventure tourism is a type of tourism involving travel to remote or exotic places in order to take part in physically challenging outdoor activities
2. For e.g. skydive in Australia, Bungee jumping in New Zealand, mountaineering in the peaks of the Himalayas, rafting in the Brahmaputra River at Arunachala Pradesh.

Question 3.
Attraction and Accessibility
Answer:
Attraction:

1. Attractions mainly comprise of two types such as: Natural attraction, Cultural attraction
2. The natural attraction includes landscape, seascape, beaches, climatic condition and forests. Cultural attractions are historic monuments and other intellectual creations. Apart from this, cultural attractions also include fairs and festivals.

Accessibility:

1. Accessibility means reachability to a particular place of attraction through various means of transportation such as road, rail, water and air.
2. Transport decides the cost of travel and the time consumed in reaching or accessing a specific attraction.

VIII. Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the geographical components of tourism?
Answer:
There are seven geographical components of tourism They are

1. Landforms: Mountains
2. Water: Waterfalls, hot Springs, geysers
3. Vegetation:  Forest, grasslands, deserts
4. Climate:  Sunshine, clouds, snow
5. Animal life:  Game reserves, zoo, hunting and fishing
6. The settlement features: Historical remains, monuments, towns
7. Culture: Way of life, traditions, folklore, arts.

Question 2.
Write briefly about the waterfalls in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Waterfalls in Tamil Nadu attracts many tourists.
A trek amidst thick green trees steep hills and a bath in the gushing water is most rejuvenating. The  famous waterfalls of Tamil Nadu are:

1. 1. Hogenekal falls in Dharmapuri
   2. Kumbakkarai in Kodaikanal
   3. Monkey falls in Coimbatore
   4. Killiyur falls in Shervarayan hills
   5. Courtallam in Tirunelveli District
   6. Agaya Gangai in Puliancholai
   7.  Suruli falls in Theni District.

Question 3.
Describe the environmental impact of tourism?
Answer:
The tourism industry created several positive and negative impacts on the environment.
Positive Impacts:

1. Direct financial contributions.
2. Contributions to government revenues.
3. Improved environmental management and planning.
4. Increasing environmental awareness.
5. Protection and preservation of the environment.

Negative Impacts:

1. Depletion of natural water local resources and land degradation.
2. Air pollution, noise pollution, solid waste, littering, and sewage.
3. Air, water, and soil destruction and alteration of eco-System.

IX.HOTs:

Question 1.
Why do we like sightseeing so much?
Answer:

• Sightseeing is considered to be one of the most important activities a tourist chooses to take part in reaching a destination.
• Sightseeing gives the tourist a chance to know a destination and experience it.
• Some people like adventures and to escape their normal monotonous life.
• So some people like sightseeing so much.

Question 2.
What are the ways to protect the sanctuaries?
Answer:

• Adopt: From wild animals to wild places, there’s an option for everyone.
• Volunteer: if you don’t have money to give, donate your time.
• Visit zoos, aquariums, national parks, and wildlife refuges that are all home to wild animals.
• Donate
• Speak up
• Buy responsibility
• Pitch in
• Recycle
• Restore
• Join

Question 3.
List any five reasons for travelling.
Answer:

• We travel to learn, whether it’s learning a new language or learning about an area’s history, travel allows us to learn so many different things.
• We travel to escape. Travel provides a momentary break from the humdrum of our daily lives.
• We travel to discover.
• We travel to make new friends.
• We travel to experience.

7th Social Science Guide Tourism Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
The word Gastronomy refers to
a) Cultural Tourism
b) Medical Tourism
c) adventure Tourism
d) Eco-Tourism
Answer:
a) Cultural Tourism

Question 2.
The largest mountain ranges in India is the
a) Aravallis
b) Vindhya
c) the Himalayas
d) the Western Ghats
Answer:
c) the Himalayas

Question 3.
Which Waterfalls is known as …………….. Niagara fall of India?
a) Aathirapally
b) Jog
c) Kurtallam
d) Monkey falls
Answer:
a) Aathirapally

Question 4.
The length of the coastline of India
a) 7017 Km
b)7217K.m
c) 7417 Km
d) 7517 km
Answer:
d) 7517 km

Question 5.
The princess of Hill stations is
a) Yercaud
b) Ooty
c) Kodaikanal
d) Simla
Answer:
c) Kodaikanal

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The word ‘Tourist’ is derived from ……………..
Answer:
Tourian

2. …………….. tourism is for a fun activity.
Answer:
Recreation

3. The Indian subcontinent has …………….. principal mountain ranges.
Answer:
Seven

4. Gangtok is in the state of ……………..
Answer:
Sikkim

5. Tamil Nadu is popularly known as the land of ……………..
Answer:
Temples

6. There are around …………….. ancient temples in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
33,000

7. Ooty is called as ……………..
Answer:
Queen of Hills

8. In Tamil Nadu …………….. of the land comprises of thick forests.
Answer:
17.6%

9. The total area of Tamilnadu is ……………..
Answer:
130, 058 Sqkm

10. The poor man’s Ooty is ……………..
Answer:
Yercaud

11. Velliangiri Hills is known as ……………..
Answer:
Kailash of the south.

12. Gir National Park in Gujarat is specified for ……………..
Answer:
Lions

13. Kaziranga National Park is in ………………
Answer:
Assam

14. TTDC means ……………..
Answer:
Tamil Nadu Tourism Development Corporation.

15. Horse tail type waterfalls are…………….. falls in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Thalaiyar Water

III. Circle the odd one:

1. Wind, Water, Soil, Computer
2. Attraction, Accessibility, Amenities, Pollution
Answer:

IV. Match the following:

1. Cuindy National park	a) Nilgiris
2. Gulf of mannar Marine park	b) Coimbatore
3. Indira Gandhi National Park	c) Ramanathapuram
4. Mudumalai National Park	d) Chennai

Answer:

1. Cuindy National park	d) Chennai
2. Gulf of Mannar Marine park	c) Ramanathapuram
3. Indira Gandhi National Park	b) Coimbatore
4. Mudumalai National Park	a) Nilgiris

V. Consider the following statement and tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Tamil Nadu Tourists achieve more than twenty percent annual growth.
Reason (R) : Exploring new avenues like medical tourism and adventure tourism.
a) R is not the correct explanation of A
b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct and R is wrong
d) (A) and (R) are Correct
Answer:
b) R is the correct explanation of A

VI. Answer the following briefly:

Question 1.
Define Tourist.
Answer:
The word ‘tourist’ is derived from the word ‘tourian’ refers to a person who travels out of his usual environment for not more than one year and less than 24 hours.

Question 2.
What are the Amenities?
Answer:
Amenities are the facilities that cater to the needs of a tourist.

Question 3.
Mention the types of Tourism
Answer:
Religious Tourism, Cultural Tourism, Historical Tourism, Eco-Tourism, Adventure Tourism, and Recreational Tourism.

Question 4.
What is Recreational Tourism?
Answer:

* Recreational tourism aims at enjoyment, amusement or pleasure are mainly for fun activities.
* Waterfalls, hill stations, beaches, and amusement parks are the spots for recreational tourism.

Question 5.
What are the basic elements of Tourism attraction?
Answer:

• Certain elements are fundamental to attract tourists travel destination, They are
• Pleasant weather
• Science beauty
• Historical and cultural monuments.

VII. Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Distinguish between Positive impact Negative Impact
Positive Impact

1. Direct financial contribution
2. Improved environmental management and planning
3. Increasing awareness and preservation of the environment

Negative Impact

1. Depletion natural resources
2. Air, noise, Solid waste litering, and savage pollution
3. Destruction and Alteration in Air, water Soil Ecosystem

VIII. Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Define VISA. Explain the types of VISA.
Answer:
VISA is a document issued to a person or a stamp marked on the passport of a person who wants to visit another country.
The types of VISA are

1. Tourist VISA – to go for recreation.
2. Student VISA – to go for higher education
3. Employment VISA – to go to work
4. Medical VISA – to go for medical treatment.

Question 2.
Estimate the tourist attractions in India.
Answer:

• India is a country known for its hospitality with spicy food and culture.
• Varied lifestyle, culture, heritage, colourful fairs, and festivals are abiding attractions for the tourists.
• Varied climate, rich resources for eco, adventure, technological parks, science museums* pilgrimage centres with wonderful art and architecture are an added advantage for tourists.
• Yoga, Ayurveda, and health resorts attract tourists from all over the world.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Term 2 Chapter 1 Resources Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Geography Term 2 Chapter 1 Resources

7th Social Science Guide Resources Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is renewable resource?
a) Gold
b) Iron
c) Petrol
d) Solar energy
Answer:
d) Solar energy

Question 2.
Where is the largest solar power project situated in India?
a) Kamuthi
b) Aralvaimozhi
c) Muppandal
d) Neyveli
Answer:
a) Kamuthi

Question 3.
Which is one of the first metals known and used by man?
a) Iron
b) Copper
c) Gold
d) Silver
Answer:
b) Copper

Question 4.
……………. is one of the indispensable minerals used in electrical and electronics industry.
a) Limestone
b) Mica
c) Manganese
d) Silver
Answer:
b) Mica

Question 5.
Electricity produced from coal is called ……………………
a) Thermal Power
b) Nuclear power
c) Solar power
d) Hydel power
Answer:
a) Thermal Power

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ……………….. is the largest producer of hydroelectricity.
Answer:
China

2. Iron ores found at………………….in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Kanjamalai

3. ………………..is produced from bauxite ore.
Answer:
Aluminum

4. ……………… is used in making electrical batteries.
Answer:
Manganese

5. Petroleum and its derivatives are called …………………..
Answer:
Black gold

III. Match the following:

1. Renewable resource	a) Iron
2. Metallic resource	b) Mica
3. Non-metallic resource	c) Wind energy
4. Fossil fuel	d) Sedimentary rock
5.. Limestone	e) Petroleum

Answer:

1. Renewable resource	c) Wind energy
2. Metallic resource	a) Iron
3. Non-metallic resource	b) Mica
4. Fossil fuel	e) Petroleum
5.Limestone	d) Sedimentary rock

IV. Consider the following statement and tick (✓) the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Wind power is clean energy.
Reason (R) : Wind turbines do not produce any emissions.
a) A and R are correct and R explains A
b) A and R are correct but R does not explain A
c) A is incorrect but R is correct
d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
a) A and R are correct and R explains A

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Natural gas is found with petroleum deposits.
Reason (R) : It can be used as a domestic and industrial fuel.
a) A and R are correct and R explains A
b) A and R are correct but R does not explain A
c) A is incorrect but R is correct
d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
a) A and R are correct and R explains A

V. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Define Resource.
Answer:
The things which can be used for satisfying the human need is called resource.

Question 2.
What are the uses of iron?
Answer:

• Iron is used to make steel.
• It is usable in engineering applications such as the construction of machinery and machine tools, automobiles, large ships, structural components of buildings, bridges etc.

Question 3.
What are the major utilizers of solar energy in the world?
Answer:
India, China, Japan, Italy and the United States of America are the major utilizers of solar energy in the world.

Question 4.
Name the types of coal-based carbon content.
Answer:
Coal is classified into four types based on carbon content. They are:

1. Anthracite
2. Bituminous
3. Lignite
4. Peat.

Question 5.
Give a short note on Duralumin.
Answer:

• Duralumin is a strong, hard, lightweight alloy of aluminum widely used in aircraft construction.
• It is produced by the addition of small quantities of other metals to aluminium, it creates a superior Alloy than pure aluminium.

VI. Distinguish the following:

Question 1.
Biotic resources and abiotic resources
Answer:
Biotic resources:

1. Biotic resources are found in the biosphere which is obtained from living and organic materials.
2. Biotic resources depend on abiotic resources for their survival.
3. Example: Plants, trees, animals, microorganisms etc.

Abiotic resources :

1. Abiotic resources are the non-living parts of an environment.
2. Abiotic resources do not depend on biotic resources for their survival.
3. Example: Sunlight, temperature, water, soil, air, etc.

Question 2.
Renewable resources and non-renewable resources
Answer:
Renewable resources:

1. Renewable resources can be used again and again throughout its life.
2. These resources are present in unlimited quantity.
3. These resources are pollution-free
4. Example: Solar energy, wind energy, and hydropower.

Non-renewable resources:

1. Non-renewable resources cannot be used again and again as it is limited which can be depleted one day.
2. These resources are present in a limited quantity only.
3. These resources are not pollution-free.
4. Example: Fossil fuels, iron, copper, gold silver etc.

Question 3.
Metallic resources and non-metallic resources.
Answer:
Metallic resources:

1. Metallic resources are the types of resources that are composed of metals.
2. These are hard substances, which are good conductors of heat and electricity.
3. Examples of metallic resources are iron, copper, gold, bauxite, silver, manganese, etc.

Non-metallic resources:

1. Non-metallic resources can be described as the resources that do not comprise of metals.
2. These are not hard substances and are not good conductors of heat and electricity.
3. Examples of non-metallic resources are mica, limestone, gypsum, dolomite, phosphate, etc.

VII. Give reason:

Question 1.
Aluminium has a wide range of uses compared to other metals.
Answer:

• Aluminium is light in weight, tough and cheaper, which makes it popular metal for constructional purpose.
• It is mainly used in the construction of aircrafts, ship, automobiles, railway coaches and etc.
• So, Aluminium has wide range of use compared to other metals.

Question 2.
Water is considered a great source of energy.
Answer:
At present, water is used for producing hydroelectric power. Hydroelectricity is generated from moving water with high velocity and great falls with the help of turbines and dynamos. So water is considered a great source of energy.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Explain the different types of renewable resources.
Answer:
Solar energy:

1. The sun produces energy in the form of heat and light. Solar energy is not harmful to the environment.
2. Photovoltaic devices or solar cells, directly convert solar energy into electricity.
3. India, China, Japan, Italy, and the States of America are major utilizers of solar energy in the world.

Hydropower:

1. Hydroelectricity power is the cheapest and most versatile source of energy out of all the know energy. Hydroelectric power is a renewable resource.
2. China, Canada, Brazil, the United States of America, Russia, India, Norway, and Japan are some countries producing hydroelectricity. China is the largest producer of hydroelectricity.

Wind energy :

1. Wind power is clean energy since wind turbines do not produce any emission.
2. In recent years, wind energy has become one of the most economical and renewable energy technologies.
3. Major wind energy-producing countries are United States, China, Germany, Spain, India, United Kingdom, Canada and Brazil.

Question 2.
Describe the non-metallic resources.
Answer:
Non-metallic resources:

1. Non-metallic resources can be described as the resources that do not comprise of metals.
2. These are not hard substances and are not good conductors of heat and electricity.
3. Examples of non-metallic resources are mica, limestone, gypsum, dolomite, phosphate, etc.

Mica:

1. Muscovite and Biotite are the common ores of Mica.
2. It is one of the indispensable minerals used in the electrical and electronics industry.
3. In powder form, it is used for making lubricating oils and decorative wallpapers.

Limestone:

1. Limestone is a sedimentary rock, composed mainly by skeletal fragments of marine organisms such as coral, foraminifera and molluscs.
2. About 10% of sedimentary rocks are limestones. Mostly limestone is made into crushed stone and used as a construction material.
3. It is used for facing stone, floor tiles, stair treads, windows sills, and many other purposes.
4. Crushed limestone is used in smelting and other metal refining process. Portland cement is made from limestone.

Question 3.
What are the different types of fossil fuel resources? Explain them.
Answer:
Fossil fuel resources:

1. Fossil fuel resources are normally formed from the remains of dead plants and animals.
2. They are often referred to as fossil fuels and are formed from hydrocarbon.

Coal:

1. This is the most abundantly found fossil fuel that forms when dead plant matter is converted into peat.
2. It is used as a domestic fuel, in industries such as iron and steel, steam engines to generate electricity.

Petroleum:

1. Petroleum is found between the layers of rocks and is drilled from oil fields located in Offshore and coastal areas.
2. Petroleum and its derivatives are called Black Gold as they are very valuable.

Natural gas:

1. Natural gas is found with petroleum deposits and is released when crude oil is brought to the surface.
2. It can be used as a domestic and industrial fuel.

IX. Activity:

2. Crossword puzzle

Across
2. The leading coal producers of the world.
Answer:
China

4. Considered as a great source of energy.
Answer:
Water
5. Precious metal like gold.
Answer:
Silver

6. Used as an insulating material in the electrical industry.
Answer:
Mica

Down

1. Used in making electrical batteries.
Answer:
Manganese

2. Good conductor of heat and electricity.
Answer:
Copper

3. The largest producer of gold in India.
Answer:
Karnataka

5 . Produces energy in the form of heat and light.
Answer:
Sun

7th Social Science Guide Resources Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
Bhatra Nangal Dam is situated in
a) Punjab
b) Hariyana
c) Gujarat
d) Orissa
Answer:
a) Punjab

Question 2.
Which is the fourth most element in Earth’s crust?
a) Silica
b) Zypsum
c) Iron
d) Copper
Answer:
c) Iron

Question 3.
Aluminium is produced from which ore?
a) Maganese
b) mica
c) Bauxite
d) Anthraxite
Answer:
c) Bauxite

Question 4.
Which is the world’s leading silver producer?
a) India
b) Mexico
c) South Africa
d) Srilanka
Answer:
b) Mexico

Question 5.
Which is steel, greyed hard, shiny and brittle metal?
a) Manganese
b) Mercury
c) Silver
d) Zinc
Answer:
a) Manganese

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. …………….. energy is not harmful to the environment.
Answer:
Solar

2. Hydroelectricity is generated from…………………water.
Answer:
moving

3. ………………..resources that are once consumed and cannot be replaced.
Answer:
Non – renewable

4. ………………..is the world’s number one country in the production of copper.
Answer:
Chile

5. ………………..is a rare and precious metal.
Answer:
Gold

6. …………….. field is one of the deepest mines of the world located in India.
Answer:
Kolar Gold

7. ………………… is the world’s leading bauxite producer.
Answer:
Australia

8. …………………is the world’s leading producer of manganese.
Answer:
South Africa

9. …………………and…………………are the common ores of mica.
Answer:
Muscovite and Biotite

10. ………………… is the world’s top producer of Mica.
Answer:
China

11. Fossil fuels are formed from…………………
Answer:
hydro carbon

12. ………………..in china is the largest hydroelectricity project in the world.
Answer:
Three Gorges Dam

13. Tehri Dam is situated in ………………… in India.
Answer:
Uttarakhand

14. The leading coal producers of the world is …………………
Arts:
China

15. ……………………..energy is not harmful to the environment
Answer:
Solar

III. Match the following:

1. Mexico	a) China
2. Manganese	b) South Africa
3. Bauxite	c) Australia
4. Mica	d) Silver

Answer:

1. Mexico	b) South Africa
2. Manganese	a) China
3. Bauxite	d) Silver
4. Mica	c) Australia

IV. Consider the following statement and tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Wind Aluminum is a popular metal for construction purposes.
Reason (R) : Aluminium light in weight tough and cheaper,
a) R is not the correct explanation of A
b) R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is correct and R is wrong
d) (A) and (R) are Correct
Answer:
b) R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is the importance of resources?
Answer:

• Natural resources satisfy the daily needs of man such as food, clothing, and shelter.
• It also contributes to boosting up a nation’s economy.

Question 2.
Name major wind farms in India.
Answer:

• Muppandal
• Jaisalmer
• Brabmanvel
• Jalgaon
• Damanjodi.

Question 3.
Which is the clean energy? Why?
Answer:
Wind power is clean energy because wind turbines do not produce any emissions.

Question 4.
Point out any 5 Hydroelectricity projects.
Answer:

1. Tehri dam
2. Srisilam Dam
3. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
4. Sardar Sarovar Dam
5. BhakraNangalDam.

Question 5.
What is limestone?
Answer:
Limestone is a sedimentary rock composed mainly of skeletal fragments of marine organisms such as coral, foraminifera and mollusks.

VI. Distinguish the following:

Question 1.
Differences between Manganese and Mica
Answer:
Manganese

1. Manganese is a steel greyed, hard, shiny, and brittle metal
2. The common ores of manganese are pyrolusite Manganese Psilomelane and Rhodochrosite
3. Manganese is used in electrical batteries disinfecting liquids bleaching powder, Fertilizer, etc.
4. South Africa is the world’s leading producer of Manganese

Mica:

1. Insulting soft metal
2. The common ores of mica are muscovite and Biotite
3. Mica is used in the electrical industry making lubricating oil and decorative wallpapers
4. China is the world’s top producer of Mica

VII. Give reason:

Question 1.
Wind power is clean energy.
Answer:
Wind Turbines do not produce any emissions. In react years, wind energy is one of the most economical and renewable energy technologies so wind power is clean energy.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Classify and explain the resources based on origin.
Answer:
On the basis of origin, resources may be divided into two types. They are

1. Biotic resources
2. Abiotic resources

Biotic resources:

• Biotic resources are found in biosphere materials.
• It includes forests, crops, birds, animals, fishes, man and fossil fuels.

Abiotic resources:

• Abiotic resources that come from non-living, nonorganic material.
• Ex: land, water, air, sunlight, gold, copper, silver, etc.

Question 2.
Which is called Black Gold? Describe it.
Answer:

• Petroleum and its derivatives are called Black Gold. It is found between the layers of rocks and is drilled from oil fields located near coastal areas. It produces a variety of products like diesel, petrol, kerosene, wax, plastics, etc.
• The chief petroleum-producing countries are Saudi Arabia, Iran, Iraq, and Qatar.
• Digboi in Assam, Bombay High are the leading producers of petroleum in India.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Guide Pdf Term 3 Poem 2 Courage Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Poem 2 Courage

7th English Guide Courage Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Warm Up (Text Book Page No. 121)

Look at the face It chart. Discuss in small groups and tell how to face those situations.

If you aspire to get the trophy on the sports day well and good. Aspiration is not enough. You have to practice for it taking painful efforts. You might get into fights, you might become sick, you might get some other problems. Still you have to target the trophy in your mind. You have to work for it. Then you will be successful surely.

Read and Understand (Text Book Page No. 123)

A. Answer the following questions.

1. Can courage be developed suddenly? Why?
Answer:
Courage is not a brilliant dash. It is not an instant thing. It is something deep in the soul of man.

2. When should we have courage?
Answer:
Courage persists in man always. It is an ingrained trait. It cannot be called in the times of danger.

3. Give an example for dazzling light.
Any light however powerful it is, it flashes and passes away from sight. But Courage is a permanent thing. It dwells in the heart of brave men for ever.

4. Can a courageous man be defeated? Why?
Answer:
Yes. A courageous man also meet many defeats, but he will not give up his target due to failure. He will struggle hard to overcome defeat and hardships.

5. What is the ‘breath of life’?
Answer:
Courage is the breath of life.

6. What are the characteristics of a courageous man?
Answer:
Patience, strength, hard work, doing daring deeds, striving for distant goal are the characteristics of courageous men. They are men of planning and unwavering.

Appreciation Questions

B. Read the following lines and answer the questions.

1. It isn ’t an instantaneous thing
Born of despair with a sudden spring
a. What does ‘it’ refer to?
Answer:
Courage is not a quality that can arise in a person all of a sudden. ‘It’ refers to the quality of courage.

b. What does ‘born of despair mean’?
Answer:
A moment of despair can not bring out courage in a person. Because courage is a quality that is deep in the soul of man.

2. It’s a slow, unwavering, ingrained trait
With the patience to work and the strength to wait
a. What is an ‘ingrained trait’?
Answer:
Courage is an ingrained trait of bold man.

b. Why does a courageous man need patience?
Answer:
Victory in anything does not come easily. The strong men strive hard for their distant goal with patience and hardwork.

3. It’s part of his hours, his days and his years,
Back of his smiles and behind his tears.
a. What does ‘tears’ mean?
Answer:
Hardships and trials are difficulties , we face in our struggles. Defeats and tears are obstacles in the path of strong men. Still they are courageous to do their daring deeds.

Literary Appreciation:

C. Work in pairs and answer the following. (Text Book Page No. 124)

1. Pick out the alliterated words:
1. Sudden spring,
2. daring deed,
3. serve some plan

2. Pick out the rhyming words.
1. dash – flash
2. thing – spring
3. hope – rope
4. not – hot
5. goal – soul
6. sight – trait
7. blue – do
8. freed – need
9. show – go
10. defeat – meet
11. years tears
12. deed – creed

3. Write the rhyming scheme of the poem.
Answer:
The scheme of the poem runs as ab, ab, ab, ab, ab scheme in four stanze.

Creative Writing

Bio – Poem

A Bio-poem is an essay about oneself in the form of poetry.

Line 1 : Your name
Line 2 : Four adjectives that describe you.
Line 3 : Son of / daughter of… brother of / sister of.
Line 4 : Lover of three people, things, or idea.
Line 5 : Who feels (three sensations or emotion)
Line 6 : Who needs (three things)
Line 7 : Who gives (three things)
Line 8 : Who fears (three things)
Line 9 : Who would like to see (three persons or places)
Line 10: Who lives …
Line 11: your last name

NIRMALA Energetic, hard-working, presistent, loving Daughter of Raj and Mary, Sister ofJohn Lover of books, music, dance who feels happy, bright, smart Who needs service, training and sharing Who gives help, care and courage Who fears unkind words Wash judgements and uncharitable deeds Who would like to see Nile river Who lives in clara India

D. Work in small groups. Pick out the adjectives and nouns that suit you using a dictionary. Read the steps given. Arrange adjectives and nouns like the given sample to construct your BioPoem. Present in the class.

Adjective in the Bio-Poem	Nouns in the Bio Poem
Energetic, Hard Working, Persistent, Unkind, Uncharitable, happy, bright, smart	Nirmala, Daughter, Raj, Mary, sister, John, lover, books, music, dance, help, care, courage, happy, bright, smart, training, sharing, words, judgement, deeds, Nile, river, India

7th English Guide Courage Additional Appreciation Questions

1. “Courage isn’t the last resort
In the work of life or the game of sport;
It isn’t a thing that a man can call ”
a. What is not a thing that a man can call according to the poet?
Answer:
Courage can not be called by man. It is not the last resort in the work of life or the game of sport.

2. “Courage was never designed for show; ”
a. What does the poet mean in this line?
Answer:
The poet tells courage is a quality. It can be seen only in action. Courage can not be exhibited in empty words or show.

3. “It’s the breath of life and a strong man’s creed”
a. Why does the poet say the above line?
Answer:
Courage is an ingrained trait and it is in one’s breath and blood. It is an inborn quality. Strong men never have fear. Courage is their creed.

Courage Summary in English

Courage is in the soul of man. When a man strives for a distant goal. He must have courage with in his soul. It is part of the man. It is in victory and defeat. It is in smiles and tears. It is the breath of life.

Courage Summary in Tamil

தைரியம் என்பது மனிதனின் ஆன்மாவில் உள்ளது. மனிதன் இலட்சியத்தை நோக்கி முயற்சிக்கும் போது அவன் இதயத்தில் துணிவு இருக்க வேண்டும். துணிவு மனிதனின் இதயத்தின் ஒரு பகுதியாகும். இது வெற்றியிலும் உண்டு. தோல்வியிலும் உண்டு. புன்னகையிலும் உண்டு. கண்ணீரிலும் உண்டு. வாழ்வின் மூச்சுக் காற்றிலும் உண்டு .

Courage About the Author in English

Edgar Albert Guest (1881-1959) was a profilic England- born American poet who was popular in the first half of the 20th century and became known as the People’s poet. His poem often had an inspirational and optimistic view.

Courage About the Author in Tamil

எட்கார் ஆல்பர்ட் கெஸ்ட் என்பவர் (1881 -1959) வரை வாழ்ந்தவர். இங்கிலாந்தில் பிறந்த அமெரிக்கர். 20ஆம் நூற்றாண்டின் முன் பாதியில் பிரபலமாய் இருந்தவர். மக்களின் கவிஞர் என்று புகழ் பெற்றவர். அவரது கவிதைகள் ஆர்வமூட்டுபவை. நல்ல நம்பிக்கை ஊட்டுபவை. நம் அன்றாட வாழ்வில் உற்சாகத்தை ஊட்டுபவை.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Guide Pdf Term 3 Poem 1 Sea Fever Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 3 Poem 1 Sea Fever

7th English Guide Sea Fever Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Warm Up (Text Book Page No. 93)

Rescue the sinking words. (Text Book Page No. 93)

1. Sail
2. Navigate
3. explore
4. harbour
5. ship
6. wave
7. Voyage
8. Island

Textual Exercises (Text Book Page No. 93)

B. Choose the best answer.

1. The title of the poem ‘Sea Fever’ means
a) flu fever
b) the poet’s deep wish to be at sea
c) the poet’s fear of the sea
Answer:
b) the poet’s deep wish to be at sea

2. The poet asks for
a) a fishing net
b) a big boat
c) a tall ship
Answer:
c) a tall ship

3. The poet wants to lead a life at sea like
a) the gulls and whales
b) the penguins and sharks
c) the pelicans and dolphins
Answer:
a) the gulls and whales

C. Read the lines and answer the questions.

1. I must go down to the sea again, to the lonely sea and the sky
Where does the poet want to go?
Answer:
The poet wants to go to the lonely sea and the sky.

2. And the wheel’s kick and the winds song and the white sail’s shaking
What according to the poet are the pleasures of sailing?
Answer:
Hearing the wheel’s kick, hearing the wind’s song and feeling the white sail’s shaking are the pleasures of sailing.

3. And all I ask is a windy day with the white clouds flying
Why does the poet ask for a windy day?
Answer:
On the windy day, the white clouds fly. Spume is blown. The sea gulls cry. So the poet wants’ a windy day, when he is in the sea.

4. And all I ask is a merry yam from a laughing fellow rover.
What kind of human company does the poet want?
Answer:
The poet wants to hear a merry, imaginary story from a fellow wanderer. The poet wants to get the company of a fellow rover.

5. And quiet sleep and a sweet dream when the long trick’s over
What does the poet want to do after his voyage is over?
Answer:
When the voyage is over, the poet wants to have a quiet sleep and sweet dream.

D. Poem Appreciation.

1. Fill in the blanks with correct rhyming words from the poem.
Answer:
Sky by, knife life, rover over

2. Quote the line that has been repeated in the poem.
Answer:
I must go down to the seas again.

3. Write the poetic device which is used in the line below.
Answer:
And a grey mist on the sea’s face metaphor is the poetic device.

4. What poetic device is used for the comparison in the below line?
Answer:
‘Where the wind’s like a whetted life’ – simile is the comparison.

E. The poem has many visual and sound images. Complete the table with examples from the poem. The first one has been done for you.

Answer:

Visual images	Sound images
Wheel’s kick	Wind’s song
whetted knife	sea gulls crying
white clouds flying	call of the running tide
blown spume	laughing of the fellow rover
grey mist	appealing to the senses
lonely sea	bring a mood of freedom

7th English Guide Sea Fever Additional Appreciation Questions

1. I must go down to the seas again, to the lonely sea and the sky,
Why does the poet say ‘lonely sea’?
Answer:
The land is heavily populated. But the sea is always lonely due to its dangers. Only now and then ships sail on the sea. Most of the time, the sea appears to be lonely and deserted.

2. And all I ask is a tall ship and a star to steer her by;
Which star is referred to in the poem?
Answer:
The North star is the pole star which tells the sailor where North is and thus they can steer the ship correctly.

3. And all I ask is a windy day with the white clouds flying,
Why does the poet ask for windy day?
Answer:
The winds help the mariners to sail smoothly in the sea. Favourable winds reduce the labour of the sailors.

Sea Fever Summary in English

I must go to the seas. I must go to the lonely sea. I need a tall ship and pole star. I must hear the wheel’s kick, wind’s song, white sail’s shaking. I must see mist and dawn. The call of the sea cannot be denied. I ask for a windy day, blowns spume, sea gulls, crying, gypsy life, cold wind, merry yam of a fellow rover, quiet sleep and sweet dreams after the voyage is over.

Sea Fever Summary in Tamil

நான் கடல் பயணத்திற்கு செல்ல வேண்டும். தனிமையான கடலும், வானமும் உள்ள கடலுக்குச் செல்ல வேண்டும். எனக்கு தேவைப்படுவது எல்லாம் ஒரு உயர்ந்த கப்பலும் துருவ நட்சத்திரமும் மட்டுமே. துருவ நட்சத்திரத்தின் துணை கொண்டு கப்பல் புறப்பட்டு, சக்கரங்களின் சப்தமும், காற்றின் இசையும், வெள்ளை நிற துடுப்புகளின் அசைவும், கடல் கன்னியின் முகத்திலே சாம்பல் நிறம் கலந்த மூடுபனியும், சாம்பல் நிறம் கலந்த காலை வெளிச்சமும் பட்டுத் தெறிப்பதை நான் உணர வேண்டும். நான் கடலுக்குச் செல்ல வேண்டும். ஆடும் அலைகளின் அழைப்பு பலத்த, தெளிவான அழைப்பு ஆக இருப்பதால் என்னால் அதனை புறக்கணிக்க முடியாது.

எனக்குத் தேவை எல்லாம் காற்று நிறைந்த நாள் மட்டுமே. காற்று வீசும் அந்நாளில் வெள்ளை மேகங்கள் பறந்தபடி இருக்க, கடல் நுரை தூக்கி எறியப்பட, கடல் பறவைகள் கத்தல் கேட்க, நான் கடல் பயணத்திற்குச் செல்ல வேண்டும். நாடோடி வாழ்வுக்கு, கடல் பறவைகளும் திமிங்கலங்களும் நடமாடும் கடலில், தீட்டப்பட்ட கத்தி போன்ற கூர்மையான குளிர்காற்று ஊடுறுவும் கடல் பயணத்திற்கு, நான் செல்ல வேண்டும். நான் விரும்புவது ஒன்றுதான். நகைத்துக் கொண்டிருக்கும் சக மாலுமியின் மகிழ்வான கதையை கேட்க வேண்டும். கடல் பயணத்தின் பின்னால், எனக்கு அமைதியான உறக்கமும் கனவுகளும் வரவேண்டும்.

Sea Fever About the Author in English

John Edward Masefield Om was an English poet and writer, and poet laureate of the United Kingdom from 1930 until 1967. Among his best known works are the children’s novels. He was bom on 1. 6. 1878 and died on 12.5.1967.

Sea Fever About the Author in Tamil

ஜான் எட்வர்ட் மேஸ் பீல்ட் ஓம் என்பார் ஆங்கிலேய கவிஞர், எழுத்தாளர், ஆஸ்தான கவிஞராக அரசவையில் 1930 இருந்து 1967ம் ஆண்டு வரை பிரிட்டனில் இருந்தார். குழந்தைகட்கான புதினங்கள் அவரது கதைகளில் பிரபலமானவை. அவர் 1.6. 1878 இல் பிறந்து 12.5.1967ம் ஆண்டு இறந்தார்.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Guide Pdf Play Chapter 1 Jane Eyre Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Play Chapter 1 Jane Eyre

7th English Guide Jane Eyre Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Warm Up (Text Book Page No. 136)

Every child has a right to an education, a life free from poverty and protection from abuse. (Text Book Page No. 136)

Look at the picture.

Discuss in pairs and answer:

1. What are the basic human rights?
Answer:
Right to life and liberty, freedom from slavery and torture, freedom of opinion and expression, the right to work and education right to equality, means to satisfy one’s basic needs, universal protection are basic rights.

2. What is education?
Answer:
Education shall be free at least in the elementary and fundamental stages. Everyone has the right to education. Education shall be directed to the full development of the human personality and to the strengthening of respect for human rights and fundamental freedom.

3. Why do we need education?
Answer:
Every individual irrespective of race, gender, nationality, ethnic or social origin, religion or political preference age or disability, is entitled to an education. Education is very important and no one should be deprived of it, Education gives us knowledge. It develops in us the right perspective of life. It helps us build opinions and have points of view on things in life.

Think and Answer:

1. How would life be on this planet if some of the human rights are excluded?
Answer:
Life on this planet would become more difficult for the commoners if some of the human rights are excluded.

2. Are there any rights you would still like to add to the human rights list?
Answer:
Yes. Protection from sexual harassment of female children can be included as a basic right. Availability of pure drinking water, hygienic food for all children must be made basic human rights. There are thousands of street children in our country who have no protection, food, or drinking water.

Textual Exercise (Text Book Page No. 144)

1. Why does Jane want to go to school or learn anything in the first place?
Answer:
Jane wants to learn life’s lessons that shape her character as an adult.

2. Why does education become such an important issue for her as a child?
Answer:
Jane was an orphan. If she had to be independent she must have her own earnings so that she could stand on her own legs.

3. What does Jane’s education at Lowood prepare her to do?
Answer:
Jane’s education at Lowood prepares her to understand the world in the teacher-student relationship

Chew on This

Try on an opinion or two and start a debate
In Jane’s childhood, education takes the place of every single one of her emotional and physical needs – food, shelter, family, and friendship. Because Jane initially learns to understand the world in terms of a teacher – student relationship, all her friendships have some master – pupil tinge to them.

Vocabulary

Semantic Map

A. Read the list of words. Write down all the words related to those words. Create a “map” using a graphic organizer and discuss it in groups. One is done for you.

Answer:

Vocabulary Frame: (Text Book Page No. 145)

B. Look at the list of words. Read the instructions and make Vocabulary Frames.

Syllable (Text Book Page No. 145)

C. Fill in the table with monosyllabic, disyllabic and trisyllabic words from the play ‘Jane Eyre’.

Monosyllabic Words	Disyllabic Words	Trisyllabic Words
ten	servant	dependant
No	mo / ney/	co/llap/ses
red	fa/ther	hes/si/tate
show	child/ren	mo/ni/tors
me	win/dow	pro /ba/bly
goes	mat/ter	des/pe/rate
here	mor/ning	te/di/ous
way	bet/ter	en/ter/tain
died	sup/per	pre/dis/posed
want	ra/ther	cha/ri/ty
read	gi/ven	dif/fi/cult

Listening (Text Book Page No. 146)

D. Listen to the conversation between a father and daughter and say whether following statements are true or false.

1. Dad hasn’t been to this fishing spot since last year.
Answer:
True

2. Dad used to go fishing with his father.
Answer:
False

3. Dad has talked a lot about this fishing spot in the past.
Answer:
True

4. The daughter also loves to fish.
Answer:
False

5. Dad says his daughter MUST fish.
Answer:
False

6. The daughter is going to cook the fish.
Answer:
True

7. Dad’s fishing place hasn’t changed since he was a boy.
Answer:
False

Speaking

E. Imagine that below are some of the paintings of Jane Eyre. Discuss your partner and describe the paintings.

Painting (1) Tree:
In the first painting we see a single tree which has produced many beautiful flowers. Trees protect the Earth from pollution. Trees bring forth rain we need a variety of eco-system with diverse flora and fauna.

Painting (2) Snowy mountain:
The second painting of Jane Eyre shows the picture of snow capped mountains. The picture snows the scenic splendour of magical valley. This place appears to be a Paradise on Earth. While looking at the painting we can sense the pristine snowy landscape and the breath taking beauty of it. The place in the painting appears to be a blessed region with fresh air.

Painting (3) Land slide:
A collapse of a mass of earth or rock from a mountain or cliff is called land slide. Land slides are a type of mass wasting which denotes any down slope movement of soil and rock under the direct influence of gravity. Landslides are caused by rain, earthquakes, volcanoes or other factors that make the slope unstable.

Painting (4) Yacht in the sea:
Yacht in the painting is of old type. Yachts may be of different types. There are fishing boats, small boats, sailing yacht etc. A sailing ship uses sails mounted on one or more masts to harness the power of wind and propel the vessel.

Role Play

F. Put students into groups of three and let them act as Jane.

Student A: You are Jane. You live with the Reeds. Tell the other students about your life there.

My Parents died when I was very young. I do not even remember them. Mr. Reed has been my uncle. He liked me. He took me in his house. When he died he got a promise from Mrs. Reed to take care of me. The children of Mrs. Reed tortured me beyond the limit. They scolded me and hit me badly. Though I did nothing wrong Mrs. Reed abused me and locked me in red room. There I got frightened. I thought my uncle Mr. Reed visited me in the red room. I screamed and fainted. I became ill. The doctor told that I had been suffering with fever. Only Bessie, the servant maid showed me some concern and love. No one else. My childhood at the house of Mrs. Reed was a real hell and nothing else.

Student B: You are Jane. You have been at Lowood School for a few months. Tell the other students about your life there.

When I went to the school at Lowood I was not aware that it was charity school for orphans. I went there and met Miss. Temple and Miss. Miller, teachers of the school. Miss. Temple was really kind to me. I befriended Helen Bums. Unfortunately she got infection and died. Out of eighty students forty five of them fell ill at the same time. Half starvation and severe cold made the students ill. After this incident fell the school improved. I was there six years as a student and two years as a teacher.

Student C: You are Jane. You are eighteen. You are going to work at Thornfield Hall as a teacher. Tell the other students about your hopes for your life.

After my laborious years in the school at Lowood, I became half desperate. I wanted liberty. So I advertised in The ‘Herald’ newspaper for situations. A week later I received a letter from Mrs.
Fairfax Thomfield. I left Lowood and went to Thomfield. Mrs. Fairfax was kind to me. I was anxious to see Miss. Fairfax. But Mrs. Fairfax said that she had no family. The house belonged to Mr. Rochester. His ward was Adela. Adela would be my pupil in future. Adela came running in the lawn in the morning. I saw her and talked to her. She looked beautiful. She said she liked dancing, singing and drawing. I started a new life as a governess in Thomfield.

After this, decide who is the unhappiest of the three ‘Janes’.
[Jane in the house of Mrs. Reed was the unhappiest moments of her life. Because she was too young and had no support to defend herself from violence.]

Reading (Text Book Page No. 147)

G. Read the story and fill in the grid by ticking each character’s qualities.

Discuss in pairs to rate the characteristic and give marks from 1 to 10 depending on the grade of each quality.
Justify your views in one or two sentences.

Answer:

Writing (Text Book Page No. 148)

H. Arrange the jumbled sentences and write a paragraph. Use appropriate conjunctions.

Jane Eyre had been an orphan. Mr. Reed, Jane’s uncle liked her but he died. Eventually. Jane was living with her aunt, Mrs. Reed. Mrs. Reed did not like Jane because Jane was not her, own daughter. Mr. Reed made Mrs. Reed promise to take care of Jane, but instead Mrs. Reed sent Jane away. When Jane was ten years old she was sent to Lowood school. There Jane got graduated. She stayed there as a teacher for two years. Afterwards she left for Thomfield, where she worked as a governess and she was happy there.

I. Read scene I. Discuss with your partner what Mrs. Reed might write about Jane in her letter to the owner of a school. Now complete her letter to Mr. Brockiehurst.

Answer:

Gateshead Hall, Gateshead Northumberland Mr. Brockiehurst Lowood Institution Lowood Durham Dear Sir, I understand that you have a school for charity children at Lowood. Here we have an orphan named Jane Eyre in my custody. Kindly admit her in your school at Lowood. So that she can get education. Kindly help me and also the orphan child. Thanking you, Yours sincerely, JMrs. Reed.

Grammar (Text Book Page No. 149)

J. Read the passage. Choose between a little, a lot of, a few, few, fewer, many and much to fill in the gap.

DON’T CALL US, WE’LL CALL YOU!

Two years ago, I moved to a new neighbourhood. There seemed to be very few people in this area without telephones, so I expected to get a new phone quickly. I applied for one as soon as I moved into my new house. ‘We aren’t supplying many new phones in your area’, an engineer told me. ‘A lot of people want new phones at the moment and the company is employing fewer engineers than last year so as to save money. A new phone won’t cost you much money, but it will take little time. We can’t do anything for you before December. ‘You need little patience if you’re waiting for a new phone and you need a few friends whose phones you can use as well. Fortunately, I had both. December came and went, but there was no sign of a phone. I went to the company’s local office to protest. ‘They told me I’d have a phone by December,’ I protested. ‘Which year?’ the assistant asked.

K. Read the Time Line of Harish. Write sentences using the present perfect tense.
Answer:
(for the Time Line see text book page – 149)

• 1971 – Harish has been born in Madurai.
• 1976 – Harish and his family have moved to Chennai.
• 1993 – Harish has finished college and started working for Indian Oil.
• 1996 – Harish has been promoted as a manager at Indian Oil.
• 1997 – Harish has met Amina.
• 2000 – Harish and Amina have got married.
• 2001 – They have got a child.

L. Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the correct form of the verb. (Text Book Page No. 150)

Where had I gone? What had I done?
What had I seen?

I had never seen (see) such beautiful sights before I visited Paris in 2012. I saved (save) money for five years before I booked my trip to Paris. I was very excited! Before my trip to Paris, I had never been (be) out of India.

When I went to Paris, I spent many days touring the city. The city was big. Sometimes I got lost and asked for directions. I asked for directions in French. That was easy because I had been studying (study) French for two years before I visited Paris.

By the time I left Paris, I toured (tour) many beautiful places. The Eiffel Tower, the Notre Dame Cathedral, and the Luxembourg Gardens were just a few of the places I saw. Before I visited Paris, I had only seen (see) those places on television. –

M. Look at the picture and write eight sentences using prepositions.
Where is the rabbit?

1. The rabbit is behind the bag.
2. The rabbit is in front of the bag.
3. The rabbit is under the bag.
4. The rabbit is in the bag.
5. The rabbit is on the bag.
6. The rabbit is in between the bags.
7. The rabbit is beside the bag.
8. The rabbit is around the bag.

Comparative and Superlative Survey

N. Answer the questions below. Write your answers in the second column of the table. (Text Book Page No. 151)

a. How old are you?
Answer:
12 years

b. How tall are you?
Answer:
5 feet

c. What bicycle do you have?
Answer:
Ladybird

d. How many languages do you speak?
Answer:
2 languages

e. At what time do you usually wake up?
Answer:
6 Am

f. How far is your home from school?
Answer:
½ km

Answer:

O. Work in groups of six. Write the other students’ names at the top of the table. Interview each student using the above questions and complete the table with their answers.

When you have all the answers, use the results to write three comparative and three superlative sentences about the students in your group.

Examples:
I am the oldest in my group.
My bicycle is more colourful than Jane’s bicycle.

1. I am older than Babu in my class.
2. Leela is taller than Kala.
3. Leela’s bicycle is more expensive than my bicycle.
4. Leela speaks the highest number of languages in my class.
5. Babu is the one who wakes up at the earliest hour in the morning.
6. Babu’s house is the nearest house to my school.

Passive Voice (Text Book Page No. 152)

P. Read the following article about the amazing similarities between the assassination of John F. Kennedy and Abraham Lincoln; then underline the passive forms.

Abraham Lincoln was elected to Congress in 1846. Voters elected John. F. Kennedy to Congress in 1946.
Answer:
was elected

Lincoln was elected president in 1860. Voters elected Kennedy president in 1960.
Answer:
was elected

Both men were particularly concerned with civil rights.
Answer:
were cocerned

Both wives lost their children while living in the White House.
Answer:
lost

Lincoln was shot on a Friday. Someone shot Kennedy on a Friday.
Answer:
was shot

Lincoln was shot in the head. The gunman shot Kennedy in the head.
Answer:
was shot

Lincoln’s secretary was called Kennedy. Kennedy’s secretary was called Lincoln.
Answer:
was called, was called

Lincoln was assassinated by a Southerner. A Southerner assassinated Kennedy.
Answer:
was assassinated

Lincoln was succeeded by a Southerner named Johnson. A Southerner named Johnson succeeded Kennedy.
Answer:
was succeeded

Andrew Johnson, who succeeded Lincoln, was born in 1808.
Answer:
was born

Lyndon Johnson, who succeeded Kennedy, was born in 1908.
Answer:
was born

John Wilkes Booth, who assassinated Lincoln, was born in 1839. Lee Harvey Oswald, who assassinated Kennedy, was born in 1939.
Answer:
was born

Both assassins were known by their three names and both names are composed of fifteen letters.
Answer:
were known, are composed

Lincoln was shot at a theatre named “Ford”. The gunman shot Kennedy in a car called a “Lincoln that the company Ford made.
Answer:
was shot

Booth ran from the theatre and was caught in a warehouse. Oswald ran from a warehouse and the police caught him in a theatre.
Answer:
was caught

Booth was assassinated before his trial. Someone assassinated Oswald before his trial.
Answer:
was assassinated

Q. Reported Questions (Text Book Page No. 153)

1. Jane told Bessie that she would hide herself in the library with Uncle Reed’s book.
Answer:
Why did Jane tell Bessie that she would hide herself in the library with uncle Reed’s book?

2. John ordered Jane to come there when he called her.
Answer:
What did John order Jane?

3. Eliza asked Jane what she was doing then.
Answer:
What did Eliza ask Jane?

4. Mrs. Reed told Bessie to take her away to the red room and lock her in there.
Answer:
What did Mrs. Reed tell Bessie?

5. Miss. Temple asked Jane whether she could read and write.
Answer:
What did Miss. Temple ask Jane?

6. Miss. Miller asked Miss. Temple where she should put Jane.
Answer:
What did Miss. Miller ask Miss. Temple?

7. Jane asked Helen why they called it an institution.
Answer:
Why did they call the school an institution?

8. Helen asked Jane why she had come there.
Answer:
Why did you come here?

9. Jane asked Mrs. Fairfax whether she would have the pleasure of seeing Miss. Fairfax that night.
Answer:
Would I have the pleasure of seeing Miss. Fairfax this night?

10. Miss. Adela told Jane that she could sing and dance also.
Answer:
Can you sing and dance?

Project

S. Look at the story board. Read the captions given under each frame. Fill the bubbles and complete the story board. (Text Book Page No. 154)
Create your own story board for the scene ’At Thornfield’.
Make a power point presentation using the story board.

Answer:

Jane Eyre Summary in English

The story of Jane Eyre tells the hardships of an orphan child who started her life as a governess in a rich family. Though she confronted with difficulties, She kept on her principles. At the end, she got a happy life to live ever after.

Jane Eyre Summary in Tamil

ஜேன் ஐயரின் கதை, அநாதையான ஒரு பெண் குழந்தையின் துயரங்கள் பற்றிக் கூறுகிறது. இந்த அநாதை பெண் ஒரு பணக்கார வீட்டில் குழந்தைகளைப் பார்த்துக் கொள்ளும் ஆயாவாக தன் வாழ்வை ஆரம்பிக்கிறாள். நிறைய துயரங்களைச் சந்திக்கிறாள். இருப்பினும் தன் நெறிமுறைகளை காத்துக் கொள்கிறாள். இறுதியில் அவளுக்கு மகிழ்ச்சியான வாழ்வு கிட்டுகிறது.

Jane Eyre About the Author in English

Jane Eyre is a novel written by an English novelist, poet, Charlotte Bronte. Her^ sisters Emily and Anne also were writers. Many of her novels including Jane Eyre had been converted to movies. The story of Jane Eyre came as a Tamil film named ‘Santhi Nilayam’.

Jane Eyre About the Author in Tamil

ஜேன் ஐயர் என்ற நாவல் ஆங்கில நாவல் ஆசிரியர், கவிஞர் சார்லட் பிரான்டியால் எழுதப்பட்டது. அவரது சகோதரிகள் எமிலி, ஆனி ஆகியோரும் எழுத்தாளர்கள் ஆவர். சார்லட்டின் நிறைய நாவல்கள் திரைப்படங்களாய் வெளிவந்துள்ளன. ஜேன் ஐயர், கதை, தமிழ் திரைப்படமாக சாந்தி நிலையம் என்ற பெயரில் வந்துள்ளது.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Economics Term 1 Chapter 1 Production Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Economics Term 1 Chapter 1 Production

7th Social Science Guide Production Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Production refers to ………….
a) destruction of utility
b) creation of utilities
c) exchange value
d) none of these
Answer:
b) creation of utilities

Question 2.
Utilities are in the nature of ……………
a) form utility
b) time utility
c) place utility
d) all of these
Answer:
d) all of these

Question 3.
Primary factors are ……………..
a) land, capital
b) capital, labour
c) land, labour
d) none of these
Answer:
c) land, labour

Question 4.
The entrepreneur is also called …………….
a) exchanger
b) Agent
c) organizer
d) communicator
Answer:
c) organizer

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ……………….. means want satisfying power of a product.
Answer:
Utility

2. Derived factors are ………….. and ……………..
Answer:
Capital,Organisation

3. …………. is a fixed in supply.
Answer:
Land

4. …………….. is the human input into the production process.
Answer:
Labour

5. ………………… is the man made physical goods used to produce other goods and services.
Answer:
Capital

III. Match the following:

Question

1. Primary production	a) Adam Smith
2. Time utility	b) fishing, mining
3. Wealth of nation	c) entrepreneur
4. Human capital	d) stored for future
5. Innovator	e) education, health

Answer:

1. Primary production	b) fishing, mining
2. Time utility	d) stored for future
3. Wealth of nation	a) Adam Smith
4. Human capital	e) education, health
5. Innovator	c) entrepreneur

IV. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
What is production?
Answer:
Production is a process of combining various material inputs and immaterial inputs in order to make something for consumption.

Question 2.
What is utility?
Answer:
Utility means want satisfying power of a product.

Question 3.
Name the types of utility.
Answer:
Utilities are in the nature of form utility, time utility, and place utility.

Question 4.
What are the factors of production?
Answer:
The factors of production

1. Land
2. Labour
3. Capital
4. Organization

Question 5.
Define Labour.
Answer:
Alfred Marshall defines labour as, ‘the use of body or mind, partly or wholly, with a view to secure an income apart from the pleasure derived from the work’.

Question 6.
Define Division of labour.
Answer:
Division of labour means dividing the process of production into distinct and several component processes and assigning each component in the hands of labour or a set of labourers, who are specialists in that particular process.

Question 7.
Write the forms of capital.
Answer:

1. Physical Capital or Material Resources, Ex. Machinery, tools, buildings, etc.
2. Money capital or Monetary resources, Ex. Bank deposits, shares and securities, etc.
3. Human capital or Human Resources Ex. Investments in education, training, and health

Question 8.
Write the three characteristics of an entrepreneur?
Answer:

• Identifying profitable investible opportunities.
• Deciding the location of the production unit.
• Making Innovations
• Deciding the reward payment.
• Taking risks and facing uncertainties.

V.Give brief answer:

Question 1.
Explain the types of production?
Answer:
There are three types of production

1. Primary production
2. Secondary production
3. Tertiary or service production

1. Primary Production:

• Primary production is industries that are extracting the gifts of nature from the earth’s surface and oceans.
• Ex: fishing, mining, agriculture.

2. Secondary Production:

• It is the manufacturing industry, conversion of raw material into finished good.
• Ex: Manufacture of clothes, cars and chemicals.

3. Tertiary production:

•  In the tertiary sector, all those services enable the finished goods to be put in the hands of consumers.
• Ex: Banking, transport, and communications.

Question 2.
What is the land? What are the characteristics of land?
Answer:
Land is a factor of production and natural resource.

Characteristics of Land:
Land is a Free Gift of Nature:

• Land is not the outcome of human labour.
• It existed even long before the evolution of man.

Land is fixed in supply:

• The land quantity does not undergo any change and no alteration can be made.
• It is limited, increased or decreased by human efforts.

Land is imperishable
The land is not destructible and imperishable.

Land is a primary factor of production
In any kind of production process, start with land. Land provides raw materials and crops for industry.

Land is immovable:
Land cannot be transported from one place to another place.

Land has some original Indestructible powers
The indestructible powers of land cannot be destroyed by man.

Land Differs in Fertility:

• Fertility of land differs on different places of land.
• One piece of land may produce more and the other less.

Question 3.
Explain the merits and demerits of division of labour.
Answer:
Merits of the division of labour

• Division of Labour improves the efficiency of Labour.
• Time and Materials are put to the best and most efficient use.
• Use of Machinery in production, resulting in inventions.

Demerits:

• Repetition of the same work makes labour to feel monotonous and stale.
• Narrow Specialization reduces to find alternative avenues of employment. This results in increased unemployment.
• Reduce the growth of handicrafts and the worker losed satisfaction.

Question 4.
Describe the characteristics of capital.
Answer:

• Capital is a passive factor of production
• Capital is manmade
• Capital is not an indispensable factor of production
• Capital has the highest mobility
• Capital is productivity
• Capital lasts over time.
• Capital involves a present sacrifice to get future benefits.

7th Social Science Guide Production Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
Banking conies under which production?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) tertiary
d) mixed
Answer:
Tertiary

Question 2.
The father of Economics is
a) Adam smith
b) John Marshall
c) Malthus
c) John Renier
Answer:
a) Adam Smith

Question 3.
A wealth of Nations book written in the year
a) 1770
b) 1774
c) 1776.
d) 1789
Answer:
c) 1776

Question 4.
The concept Division of Labour was introduced by
a) Adam smith
b) John Marshall
c) M.N Roy
d) Dadabhai Nauroji
Answer:
a) Adam Smith

Question 5.
Most of the Gross Domestic Product of our country is contributed by the
a) Primary sector
b) Secondary sector
c) Tertiary sector
d) mixed sector
Answer:
c) tertiary sector

II.Fill in the blanks:

1. There are two kinds of people ……………….. and ……………….
Answer:
producers, consumers

2. Indian Economy is a ………………. economy.
Answer:
mixed

3. …………….. of Land differs in different places of the land.
Answer:
Fertility

4. Capital means ………………
Answer:
money

5. The entrepreneur is also called ………………..
Answer:
organizer

6. ………….are called factors of production.
Answer:
Inputs

7. The concept ‘Division of labour’ was introduced by ……………………..
Answer:
Adam Smith

8. The factors for production are …………….., ………….., ………………..
Answer:
land, labour, capital

9. ………….means want satisfying power of a product.
Answer:
utility.

10. In the Secondary production …………………. getting more importance.
Answer:
Manufacturing

11. Secondary production is also known as ……………………..
Answer:
Construction

12. Tertiary production is also known as ………………………
Answer:
Service production

13. …………….. cannot be separate for the labourer.
Answer:
labour

14. …………… is a passive factor of production.
Answer:
Capital

15. Sugarcane is a ……………..plant.
Answer:
money

III. Match the following:

Question

1. Secondary production	a) Time utility
2. Tertiary Production	b) Conversion of flour into bread
3. Money capital	c) Making clothes
4. wheat	d) Transport
5. Cotton Industry	e) Monetary Resources

Answer:

1. Secondary production	b) Conversion of flour into bread
2. Tertiary Production	d) transport
3. Money capital	e) Monetary Resources
4. wheat	a) Time utility
5. Cotton Industry	c) Making clothes

IV.True of False:

Question 1.
The total quantity of land does not undergo any change.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Manufacture of cars comes under the primary sector.
Answer
False

V. Consider the following statements: Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

1. Land is movable
2. Land differs infertility.
3. Land has some original Indestructible powers.
4. Land is perishable.

Question a)
Consider which of the above
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 4 and 1
Answer:
b) 2 and 3

VI. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
What is place utility? Give example.
Answer:

• Place utility is the commodity transported from one place to another.
• So the utility may increase.
• Ex: If rice is transported to Tamil Nadu from Kerala, its utility will be more.

Question 2.
What is the mixed economy?
Answer:

• The private and public sectors are existing together is known as a Mixed Economy.
• Ex: Indian Economy.

Question 3.
Point out the feature of form utility.
Answer:

• The physical form of a commodity is changed, its utility also increases.
• Ex: Cotton increases, if it is converted into clothes.

VII. Give a brief answer:

Question 1.
Explain the factors of production?
Answer:
There are two kinds of factors responsible for production.

1. Primary factors
2. Derived Factors

Primary Factors:
The primary Factors are land and labour. These are naturally given and without them, no goods can be produced.

Derived Factors:
Derived factors are capital and organization. These derived factors, when combined with the primary factors of production raise total production.

Question 2.
Describe the characteristics of Labour.
Answer:

• Labour is not homogenous. Skill and dexterity vary from person to person.
• Labour cannot be separated from labourer.
• Labour is like mobile moving from one place to another for occupation.
• Individual labour has only limited bargaining power. In the Trade union, Labour power increases.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Civics Term 1 Chapter 2 Political Parties Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Civics Term 1 Chapter 2 Political Parties

7th Social Science Guide Political Parties Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
What is meant by Bi-party system?
a) Two parties run the government
b) Two members run a party.
c) Two major political parties contest election.
d) None of these.
Answer:
a) Two parties run the government.

Question 2.
Which system of government does India have?
a) Single-party system
b) Bi-party system
c) Multi-party system
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Multi-party system

Question 3.
Recognition of a political party is accorded by……………..
a) The Election commission
b) The president
c) The supreme court
d) A committee
Answer:
a) The Election commission

Question 4.
Political parties are generally formed on the basis of.
a) Religious principles
b) Common interest
c) Economic principles
d) Caste
Answer:
b) Common interest

Question 5.
Single-party system is found in
a) India
b)U.S.A
c) France
d) China
Answer:
d) China

II. Fill in the blacks:

1. ……………. form the back bone of democracy.
Answer:
Politicai parties

2. Every party in our country has to register with…………….
Answer:
Election Commission of India

3. Political parties serve as intermediaries between the …………….  and …………….
Answer:
citizen,policy makers

4. A registered but ……………. political party cannot contest election on its own symbol.
Answer:
unrecognised

5. The leader of the opposition party enjoys the rank of…………….
Answer:
Cabinet minister

III. Match the following:

A	B
1. Democracy	a) criticize the government policies
2. Election commission	b) forms the government
3. Majority party	c) rule of the people
4. Opposition party	d) free and fair election

Answer:

A	B
1. Democracy	c) rule of the people
2. Election commission	d) free and fair election
3. Majority party	b) forms the government
4. Opposition party	a) criticize the government policies

IV. Consider the following statements: Tick (✓)  appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following statement is/are correct?
a) Every party in the country has to register with the election commission.
b) The commission treats all the parties equally.
c) Election commission allots a separate symbol for recognized parties.
d) All the above.
Answer:
d) All the above.

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Majority party plays a decisive role in making laws for the country.
Reason (R) : The number of candidates elected is more than the others in the election. ;;
a) R is the correct explanation of A.
b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) R is wrong A is correct.
d) A and R are wrong.
Answer:
a) R is the correct explanation of A.

V. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What are the basic components of a political party?
Answer:
The basic components of the party are the leader, the active members and the followers.

Question 2.
Name the three major types of party systems.
Answer:
There are three major types of the party system:

1. Single party system,
2. Bi – party System,
3. Multiparty system.

Question 3.
Name the countries which follow the Bi – party system.
Answer:
Bi- party system can be seen in UK and USA.

Question 4.
Write a note on Coalition Government.
Answer:
Without a majority, some parties join together to form the government, known as Coalition Government.

VI. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Write any four functions of a political party?
Answer:

• The political parties provide loyal opposition to accountability and stability.
• They put forward different policies and programmes for the welfare of the people.
• They connect the society and the state.
• They form and run the government and develop public policy.

Question 2.
When is a political party recognized as a National Party?
Answer:
Criteria for A political party to be recognised as a National Party

1. The party that secures should atleast 6% of the valid votes in the Lok Sabha election or assembly elections in four states.
2. They must win 4 seats in Lok sabha from any State/States
3. It has to win 2% of seats in Lok sabha from atleast 3 different states in the latest general election.

VII. HOTs:

Question 1.
Are political parties are necessary for a democratic country?
Answer:
Yes political parties are necessary for a democratic country because

1. They are the backbone of democracy.
2. They are essential elements to form the government.
3. Citizens can elect their representatives.
4. Citizens also vote for the party of their choice and thus influence Government formation.

Question 2.
Give any three names of National party, Regional party, and Registered but unrecognized party.
Answer:

1. National Party: Indian National Congress, Bharatiya Janata Party, Communist party of India.
2. Regional Party: All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam, Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam, Desiya Murpokku Dravidar Kazhagam, Pattali Makkal Katchi
3. Registered but unrecognized party: Labour party of India, Bhartiya Panchayat party, Indian Indira Congress.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Write an election manifesto (if you were a party leader).
Answer:

1. Take measures to give a corruption-free Government.
2. The agriculture sector would be given prior importance.
3. Students will be taught technical skills at school which would enhance their scope for employment.
4. Free and quality medical care would be made available to all needy people.

7th Social Science Guide Political Parties Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
Who was the supreme head of the legislative, Executive, and Judiciary in ancient India?
a) King
b) Queen
c) Prince
d) Cheif minister
Answer:
a) King

Question 2.
India became a democratic country in
a) 1946
b) 1947
c) 1950
d) 1952
Answer:
c) 1950

Question 3.
A recognised party should secure how much of total votes in the last general election?
a) 4%
b) 5%
c) 6%
d) 10%
Answer:
c) 6%

Question 4.
Which party system is existence in India France, Sweden, and Norway?
a) Single party
b) Two-party
c) Triple party
d) Multiparty
Answer:
Multiparty

Question 5.
The headquarter of the election commission in India is located in
a) New Delhi
b) Mumbai
c) Kolkatta
d) Chennai
Answer:
New Delhi

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. A Vibrant democracy needs a strong …………………Party.
Answer:
Opposition

2. In Cuba …………………party system existed.
Answer:
Single

3. …………………is an autonomous statutory body.
Answer:
Election commission

4. Recognised parties are given a unique …………………by the election commission.
Answer:
Symbol

5. A free symbol is reserved for …………………party.
Answer:
unrecognized

6. A …………………symbol for a recognised political party.
Answer:
reserved

7. The party which gets the second largest number of seats is called …………………party.
Answer:
opposition

8. The symbols are excepted by the election commission are the ………………… and the …………………
Answer:
Lion, elephant

9. …………………commission is responsible for free and fair elections in India.
Answer:
Election

10 commission is a body for the implementation of election procedures.
Answer:
Election

11. …………………Minister is a member of parliament or legislative assembly cabinet.
Answer:
Cabinet

12. A political party must have at least …………………members.
Answer:
100

13. …………………has the largest number of political parties in the world
Answer:
India

14. The election commission of India has some …………………for the recognition of political parties in India.
Answer:
Criteria

15. State parties need to win a minimum of …………………in the legislative assembly
Answer:
3%

III. Match the following:

A	B
1. Election symbols	a) U.S. A
2. National party	b) Election commission
3. Single party	c) 6% votes
4. Bi – Party system	d) China

Answer:

A	B
1. Election symbols	b) Election commission
2. National party	c) 6% votes
3. Single party	d) China
4. Bi – Party system	a) the U.S. A

IV. Consider the following statements: Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Some parties join together to form the coalition government.
Reason (R) : A single party may not secure the majority to form the government,
a) A and R correct R explains A
b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) R is wrong A is correct.
d) A and R are wrong.
Answer:
a) A and R correct R explains A

V. True or false:

1. National parties are political parties which participate in different elections in only two states of India.
Answer:
False

2. In India, the election symbols order was. passed on 1968.
Answer:
True

VI. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
How the political party is to be recognised?
Asnwer:
A party is recognised if ‘

• It has been engaged in political activity for five years.
• Its candidates secure atleast six percent of total votes in the last general election.

Question 2.
What is the party ’Manifesto’?
Answer:
Before the election, the candidates announce the programmes and policies that their party will undertake if voted to power.

Question 3.
Define the majority Party?
Answer:
The Political party whose number of candidates elected is more than the other is called the majority party forms and runs the government.

Question 4.
How to form a political party?
Answer:

• Must be registered with the Election commission of India.
• Must have atleast 100 members.
• Each member needs to hold a voting card.

Question 5.
What are the criteria for a regional party?
Answer:

• A party that secures atleast 6% of the valid votes in the state legislative assembly election.
• They must win one Lok sabha seat for every 25 seats or atleast 2 seats in the Legislative assembly.
• Need to win a minimum of 3 % of the total number of seats in Legislative Assembly.ff

Question 6.
What is Free symbols ‘Poll Panel’?
Answer:

• As per the Election symbols order 1968, symbols are either reserved or free.
• A reserved symbol is for a recognised political party and
• A free symbol is for unrecognised party.

Question 7.
Write a short note on the party system in India.
Answer:

• India’s party system originated in the late 19th century.
• In fact, India has the largest number of political parties in the world.
• They are national parties, Regional parties, and Registered but unrecognised parties (independent candidates).
• Every party in the country has to register with the Election commission.

VI. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What are political parties? Explain.
Answer:

• Political parties are the voluntary associations of individuals with broad ideological identities who agree on some policies, formulate an agenda and programme for society.
• They seek to implement their policies by winning people’s support through elections.

There are 3 types of political parties.

1. Single party – China, Cuba
2. Bi r Party – UK, USA
3. Multi-party – India, France, Sweden.

Question 2.
What is the role of the opposition party in Democracy?
Answer:

• The party which gets the second largest number of seats next to the majority party in the election is called the opposition party.
• They are as important as that of the ruling party.
• They critically examine the policies and bills introduced by the government.
• They raise their voice on the failures and wrong policies.
• They highlight important issues which are not acted upon by the Government.
• The leader of the opposition party enjoys the rank of Cabinet Minister.

Question 3.
What are the differences between the National Party and the Regional Party?
Answer:
National party Regional Party

• National parties are political parties which participate in different elections in India. State parties that participate in different elections within one State.
• It should be strong enough in atleast four states. It should be strong enough in at least one or two states.
• It has an exclusive symbol throughout the country. A symbol is reserved for it in the state in which it is recognized. But the same symbol can be allotted to different parties in different states.
• It resolves the state’s National and International issues. It promotes regional and states interest.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Term 1 Chapter 1 Equality Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Civics Term 1 Chapter 1 Equality

7th Social Science Guide Equality Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which one of the following does not come under Equality?
a) Non discrimination on the basis of birth, caste, religion, race, colour, gender.
b) Right to contest in the election.
c) All are treated equal in the eyes of law.
d) Showing inequality between rich and poor.
Answer:
d) Showing inequality between rich and poor

Question 2.
Which one of the following is comes under political Equality?
a) Right to petition the government and criticize public policy.
b) Removal of inequality based on race, colour, sex and caste.
c) All are equal before the law.
d) Prevention of concentration of wealth in the hands of law.
Answer:
a) Right to petition the government and criticize public policy

Question 3.
In India, right to vote is given to all the citizens at the age of ………………….
a) 21
b) 18
c) 25
d) 31 .
Answer:
b) 18

Question 4.
Inequality created by man on the basis of caste, money, religion etc is called as ………………….
a) Natural inequality
b) Manmade inequality
c) Economic inequality
d) Gender inequality
Answer:
b) Manmade inequality

Question 5.
In Switzerland, the right to vote is given to women in the year
a) 1981
b) 1971
c) 1991
d) 1961
Answer:
b) 1971

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Civil equality implies equality of all before ………………….
Answer:
Law

2. The Indian constitution deals about the Right to equality from Article …………………. to ………………….
Answer:
14,18

3. Right to contest in the election is a ………………….Right.
Answer:
political

4. Equality means, absent of ………………….privileges.
Answer:
Social

III. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
What is Equality?
Answer:
Equality is ensuring individuals or groups are not treated differently or less favourably on the basis of caste, gender, disability, religion or belief, etc.

Question 2.
Why is gender Equality needed?
Answer:

• Women are considered as weak as compared to men.
• Their rights, responsibilities, and opportunities depend on males.
• So women need Gender Equality to the equal rights of both men and women to have access to opportunities and resources.

Question 3.
What is civil Equality?
Answer:

• Civil equality is the enjoyment of civil rights by all citizens.
• There should not be any discrimination of Superior or inferior, the rich or the poor, caste or creed.

IV. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write about the importance of Equality.
Answer:

• Equality is a powerful moral and political ideal that has inspired and guided human society.
• The concept of equality in votes the idea all are equal regardless of their caste, colour, gender, race or nationality.
• Democratic ideals are meaningful and effective only when they are implemented with equal justice.

Question 2.
What is political Equality?
Answer:
Political Equality includes

• Right to vote
• Right to hold public Office
• Right to criticise the government

1. Citizens should have an equal opportunity to actively participate in political life.
2. In India, the voting right is given to all the citizens who have attained 18years of age ’ without any discrimination.
3. Any person who has completed the age of 25 years can contest in the election.
4. Right to criticise the government is also a very important right and the people can express their resentment through demonstrations.
5. The value of the vote of the Prime Minister and the value of the vote of the common man in the general election is the same which denotes political equality.

Question 3.
How does the Constitution of India protect the Right to Equality?
Answer:

1. The constitution of India has also guaranteed equality to all citizens by providing Articles form 14-18.
   • Article 14 – guarantees to all the people equality before the law.
   • Article 15 – deals with the prohibition of discrimination.
   • Article 16 – provides equality of opportunity in matters relating to employment.
   • Article 17 – abolishes the practice of untouchability.
   • Article 18 – abolishes the titles conferred to citizens.
2. Equality before the law and equal protection of the law has been further strengthened in the Indian constitution under Article 21.

HOTs:

Question 1.
How can we eliminate inequality at the school level?
Answer:

1. Students should be given admission in school without any discrimination of superior or inferior. The rich or the poor, caste, or creed.
2. The Government has taken several measures to ensure that students from a different state of society get an opportunity to study in private schools too through RTE (Right to Education) Act.
3. Wearing a uniform helps to nip off the social and economical discrimination that may arise among students. Students should be encouraged to develop feelings of oneness among themselves.

I. Life Skills.

Write the correct answer.

Enumeration of Different types of equality	Type of equality
1. There should not be any discrimination among the citizens on the basis of status, caste, colour, creed and rank, etc.
2. Equality of all before the law.
3. Right to vote, right to hold public office and right to criticize the government.
4. My ability is not less than men in any aspect.
5. conurbation

Answer:

Enumeration of Different types of equality	Type of equality
1. There should not be any discrimination among the citizens on the basis of status, caste, colour, creed and rank, etc.	Social Equality
2. Equality of all before the law.	Civil Equality
3. Right to vote, right to hold public office and right to criticize the government.	The population more than 5000
4. My ability is not less than men in any aspect.	Political Equality
5. conurbation	Gender Equality

7th Social Science Guide Equality Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
Which equality should not be any discrimination of caste, creed, color and race?
a) civil
b) Social
c) economic
d) political
Answer:
b) Social

Question 2.
The Rule of law is in force in
a) Britain
b) France
c) Ireland
d) the USA
Answer:
a) Britain

Question 3.
Which is the first country to give the right to vote to women in 1st general election?
a) Canada
b) the USA
c) Britain
d) India
Answer:
d) India

Question 4.
The first general election ¡n India was held in the year?
a) 1950
c) 1951
e) 1952
d) 1953
Answer:
c) 1952 .

Question 5.
The reservation has been given to women in Local bodies are
a) 33%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 66%.
Answer:
c) 50%

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Liberty and equality are …………….. ideals.
Answer:
democratic

2. …………….. equality means that all citizens enjoy equal status in society.
Answer:
Social

3. ……………..equality is the enjoyment of civil rights by all citizens.
Answer:
Civil

4. Rule of law was advocated by ……………..the British Legalist.
Answer:
A.V Dicey

5. All democratic countries guaranteed the rights ……………..to all citizens.
Answer:
political

6. ……………..is given the voting right to all citizens has attained 18 years of age.
Answer:
Universal Adult Franchise

7. ……………..preserves the dignity of an individual.
Answer:
Equality

8. Any person who has completed the age of ……………..can contest in the election.
Answer:
25 years

9. ……………..Equality is equal opportunities and resources given to men and women equally.
Answer:
Gender

10. In 2017, UNO declared ……………..equality is the fifth sustainable goal.
Answer:
Gender

III. Match the following:

1. Article 14	a) Prohibition of discrimination
2. Article 15	b) guarantees equality
3. Article 16	c) abolishes untouchability
4. Article 17	d) Provides equal opportunity employment

Answer:

1. Article 14	b) guarantees equality
2. Article 15	a) Prohibition of discrimination
3. Article 16	d) Provides equal opportunity employment
4. Article 17	c) abolishes untouchability

IV. True or false:

1. Rule of law was advocated by Dr. Ambedkar.
Answer:
False

2. Article 21 strengthened the equality before the law in the Indian constitution
Answer:
True

IV. Consider the following statement and (✓) Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Equality is an important principle for a society to function.
Reason (R) : Equality preserves the dignity of an individual
a) A and R are correct and explains A.
b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R.
c) A is incorrect but R is correct.
d) Both A and R are incorrect.
Answer:
A and R are correct and explains A.

V. Give a short answer:

Question 1.
What is social equality?
Answer:

• Social equality is all citizens are entitled to enjoy equal status in society.
• There should not be any discrimination of caste, creed, colour and race.
• All have equal opportunity.

Question 2.
What are the kinds of Equality?
Answer:
There are four kinds of Equality as follows:

• Social Equality
• Civil Equality
• Political Equality
• Gender Equality

Question 3.
What is the Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
The voting right is given to all the citizens who have attained 18 years of age without any discrimination is known as Universal Adult Franchise.

Question 4.
What is the meaning of Gender equality given by UNICEF?
Answer:

• According to UNICEF, Gender Equality means that “women and men, and girls and boys, enjoy the same rights, resources, opportunities and prolictions.
• It does not require that they be treated exactly alike”.

Question 5.
What is human dignity?
Answer:

• Human dignity is the most important human right. Dignity is the quality of being honourable, noble, and excellent.
• Every human being regarded as a valuable member of the community.

IV. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
How can we promote Equality?
Answer:

• We can promote equality by
• Treating all fairly
• Creating an inclusive culture
• Ensuring equal access to opportunities
• Enabling to develop full potential
• Making Laws and policies
• Education.

Question 2.
What are the kinds of inequalities? Give examples.
Answer:

• There are two kinds of inequalities Nature and man-made in equalities.
• Nature has made man equal in colour, height, talent, physical strength, etc.,
• Man-made in equalities on the basis of caste, money, religion, etc.,

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Guide Pdf Geography Term 1 Chapter 3 Population and Settlement Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Solutions Geography Term 1 Chapter 3 Population and Settlement

7th Social Science Guide Population and Settlement Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Caucasoid race is also known as race……………………………..
a) European
b) Negroid
c) Mangoloid
d) Australoid
Answer:
a) European

Question 2.
…………………………Race is Known as Asian – American Race.
a) Caucasoid
b) Negroid
c) Mongoloid
d) Australoid
Answer:
c) Mongoloid

Question 3.
World Population day…………………………
a) September 1
b) June 11
c) July 11
d) December 2
Answer:
c) July 11

Question 4.
Rural settlements are located near…………………………
a) Water bodies
b) Hilly areas
c) coastal areas
d) desert areas
Answer:
a) Water bodies

Question 5.
Arrange the following in terms of size.
1) City 2) Megalopolis 3) Metropolis 4) Conurbation
a) 4, 1, 3,2
b) 1, 3, 4, 2
c) 2, 1,3,4
d) 3, 1,2,4
Answer:
b) 1, 3, 4, 2

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The Bushmen is found mainly in …………………………desert in South Africa.
Answer:
Kalahari

2. Lingfestic stock is a group of …………………………family sharing features and its origin.
Answer:
Language

3. In …………………………settlements, where most of the people are engaged in secondary and tertiary activities.
Answer:
Urban

4. …………………………towns are generally located outside the rural Urban fringe.
Answer:
Satellite

5. …………………………Settlement Come up around a place of Worship.
Answer:
Pilgrim

III. A. Match the following:

A	B
1. Caucasoid	a) Asian
2. Negroid	b) Australia
3. Mongoloid	c) European
4. Australoid	d) African

Answer:

A	B
1. Caucasoid	c) European
2. Negroid	d) African
3. Mongoloid	a) Asian
4. Australoid	b) Australia

B. Match the following:

A	B
1. Sutlej-Ganga plain	a) Dispersed settlement
2. Nilgris	b) Star like pattern
3. South India	c) Rectangular pattern
4. Seacoast	d) Compact settlement
5. Haryana	e) Circular settlement

Answer:

A	B
1. Sutlej-Ganga plain	c) Rectangular pattern
2. Nilgris	a) Dispersed settlement
3. South India	e) Circular settlement
4. Seacoast	d) Compact settlement
5. Haryana	b) Star like pattern

IV. Consider the following statement and (✓) Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : There are numerous languages spoken in the world
Reason (R) : The linguistic diversity in the world is vast.
a) A and R are correct and R explains A.
b) A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
c) A is incorrect but R is correct.
d) Both A and R are incorrect.
Answer:
a) A and R are correct and A explains R.

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Palani Hills in Tamil Nadu is an example for pilgrim settlement Reason (R) : Iron and steel industry is located there
a) R is the correct explanation of A
b) R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is wrong and R is correct
d) A is correct R is wrong.
Answer:
d) A is correct R is wrong.

V. Circle the odd one out:

1. Fishing, Lumbering, Agriculture, Banking
2. Himalayas, Alps, Rocky, Ganga
3. Chennai, Madurai, Tirunelveli, Kanchipuram
Answer:

VI. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is the classification of Races?
Answer:
The major classification of human races are:

• Caucasoid
• Negroid
• Mongoloid
• Australoid

Question 2.
What is language?

• Language is a great force of socialization.
• It is in the written or oral form.
• It promotes the transmission of ideas.

Question 3.
Define settlement.
Answer:
A settlement is a place where people live and interact through activities such as agriculture, trading, and entertainment.

Question 4.
On what basis Urban settlements are classified?
Answer:
The basis of classification of urban settlements are

1. Size of population
2. Occupational structure
3. Administration.

Question 5.
Write a note on Smart City.
Answer:
A City which is very much advance in terms of infrastructure, real estate, communication, and market availability is called a Smart City. E.g. New Delhi, Jaipur, Pune, Bhubaneswar, Solapur.

VII. Give reason:

Question 1.
Mumbai is a megacity.
Answer:

• Mumbai city can be a single metropolitan area.
• It is a very large city with a population of more than 10 million people and so Mumbai is called a megacity.

Question 2.
The Himalayas have dispersed settlements.
Answer:
Dispersed settlements are found in areas of extreme climate, hilly tracts, thick forests etc., In these settlements, houses are spaced far apart and interspersed with fields. So the Himalayas have dispersed settlements.

VIII. Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Language and Religion.
Answer:
Language

1. Language is a great force of socialization.
2. Language promotes the transmission of ideas.

Religion

1. Religion is a particular system of faith and worship.
2. Religion is a symbol of group identity and a cultural rallying point.

Question 2.
Negroid and Mangoloid
Answer:
Negroid

1. Negroid have dark eyes, black skin, black wooly hair, wide nose, long head, and thick lips.
2. They are living in different parts of Africa.

Mangoloid

1. The Mongoloid has light yellow to brown skin, straight hair, flat face, broad head and medium nose.
2. They are living in Asia and the Arctic region.

Question 3.
City and town.
Answer:
City

1. The population will be more than 5000 people.
2. Town types are administrative, containment, academic, etc.,

Town

1. The population will be more than 1,00,000 people.
2. Nucleated settlement and multi-functional.

Question 4.
Urban settlement and rural settlement.
Answer:
Urban Settlement

1. Urban areas have domination of secondary and tertiary activities (industries)
2. Densely Populated
3. Cities and towns
4. Non-agricultural works
5. Fast and complicated Life

Rural Settlement

1. Rural areas have predominantly primary activities (agriculture)
2. Sparsely Populated
3. Villages and hamlet
4. Agriculture works
5. Simple and relaxed Life

IX. Answer the following in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Write about the four major classifications of races.
Answer:
The race is a biological grouping within the human species

Most widely found human racial types are based on traits such as head shape, nose shape, eye shape and colour, skin colour, stature, blood groups, etc.,

The major world Human races are

• Caucasoid (European)
• Negroid (African)
• Mongoloid (Asiatic)
• Australoid (Australian)

1. Caucasoid: Fair skin and dark brown eyes, wavy hair, and narrow nose. The Caucasoid are also found in Eurasia.
2. Negroid: Dark eyes, Black skin, Black wooly hair, wide nose, long head, and thick lips. They are living in different parts of Africa.
3. Mongoloids: Light yellow to brown skin, straight hair, flat face, broad head, and medium nose. Such people are found in Asia and the Arctic region.
4. Australoid: Wide nose, curly hair dark skin, and short in height. They are living in Australia and Asia.

Question 2.
What are the factors influencing rural settlement?
Answer:
Factors influencing rural settlement are:

• Nature of topography
• Local weather condition
• Soil and water resources
• Soil organization
• Economic condition

Question 3.
What are the types of rural settlement? Explain any three.
Answer:
A rural settlement pattern is a function of relief, climate, water supply, and socio-economic factors. It is broadly classified under the following patterns, such as Linear, Rectangular, Circular, Star-like pattern, etc.,

1. In a Linear settlement, houses are arranged along either side of a road, railway line, river (or) canal, the edge of a valley, etc., E.g. the Himalayas the Alps, the Rockies.
2. The rectangular settlements are almost straight, meeting each other at right angles. Such a settlement is found in plain areas (or) intermontane plain. E.g.,Sutlej.
3. Houses built around a central area are known as Circular pattern of settlements. Such settlements develop around lakes and tanks.

X. Activity

Analyze

1. Where do you live?
2. Name the pattern of settlement
3. Sources of water available in your area.
4. What is the important activity of your locality?
5. Name the types of transport available in your locality.

Answer:

1. Where do you live?	Urban
2. Name the pattern of settlement	Madurai District
3. Sources of water available in your area.	River Vaigai.
4. What is the important activity of your locality?	Agriculture, Industries
5. Name the types of transport available in your locality.	iLand’, Water, Air transport

7th Social Science Guide Population and Settlement Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
Who is found the Arctic region?
a) caucasoid
b) Negroid
c) Mongoloid
d) Australoid’
Answer:
c) Mongoloid

Question 2.
The Zoroastrians worship in
a) Synagogue
b) Bacardi
c) Agriyari
d) Viharas
Answer:
c) Agriyari

Question 3.
Viharas are the places of worship of
a) Shan manism
b) Jainism
c) Zoroastrianism
d) Buddhism
Answer:
b) Jainism

Question 4.
The world cultural and diversity day is celebrated on
a) 18th May
b) 20th May
c) 21th May
d) 25th May
Answer:
21th may

Question 5.
TamilNadu has how may major cities to be transformed as smart cities
a) 5
b) 9
c) 10
d) 12
Answer:
d) 12

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Population Geography is a study of …………………………….
Answer:
demography

2. The study of movements and mobility of the population is …………………………….
Answer:
migration

3. Human racial types are based on …………………………….traits.
Answer:
visual

4. Causasoid race is found in …………………………….
Answer:
Eurasia

5. …………………………….is a Tribal/Traditional religion.
Answer:
Shamanism

6. …………………………….is the place of worship of Jainism.
Answer:
Basadi

7. The worship place of Judaism is …………………………….
Answer:

8. There are ………………………………..major languages in India.
Answer:
22

9. 11th July is …………………………….Day.
Answer:
3rd Sunday in January

10. …………………is an International Mother Language day
Answer:
21st February

11. …………… is celebrated World Religious day.
Answer:
3rd Sunday in January

12. Houses built around a central area are known as ……………pattern.
Answer:
circular

13. Population more than one lakh is considered as a ……………
Answer:
city

14. The ……………city is very much advanced in terms of infrastructure.
Answer:
smart

15. Settlement may be classified on basis of ……………. a village and town.
Answer:
Occupation

III. Match the following:

A	B
1. Town	a) Population more than 1,00,000
2. City	b) Supat in aujamat
3. Mega City	c) Population more than 5000
4. Megalopolis	d) Noida in utter Providers People
5. conurbation	e) Population more than 10 million People

Answer:

A	B
1. Town	c) Population more than 5000
2. City	a) Population more than 1,00,000
3. Mega City	e) Population more than 10 million People
4. Megalopolis	b) Supat in aujamat
5. conurbation	d) Noida in utter Proders People

IV. Consider the following statement and () Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Dry point settlements are not affected by flooding
Reason (R) : The landscape and the source of water and located in low – lying areas,
a) R is correct and explains R.
b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R.
c) A is incorrect but R is correct.
d) Both A and R are incorrect.
Answer:
a) R is the correct explains R.

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Satellite towns are generally outside the rural-urban fringe.
Reason (R) : The satellite towns purely residential in character
a) R is correct and explains R.
b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R.
c) A is incorrect but R is correct.
d) Both A and R are incorrect.
Answer:
a) R is the correct explains R.

V. Circle the odd one out:

1. Judaism, Hindusim, Shintoism, Animism
2. Kashmiri, Hindi, Bengali, English
Answer:

VI. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What are the types of Settlements?
Answer:
There are two types of settlements

1. Rural Settlement
2. Urban Settlement

1. Rural Settlement:

• Rural settlements are predominantly located near water bodies.
• People choose to settle near fertile lands suitable for agriculture, along with the provision of other basic needs.

2.  Urban Settlement:

• The settlements in which most of the people are engaged in secondary and tertiary activities are known as urban settlements.

Question 2.
What is pilgrim settlement?
Answer:

• Pilgrim settlement may come up around a place of worship or any spot with a religious significance.
• Eg: Thiruverkadu.

Question 3.
What are the things Suggested by who for a healthy city?
Answer:

• “A Clean” and “Safe” environment.
• Meets the basic needs of “All” its inhabitants.
• Involves the “Community” in local government.
• Provides easily accessible “Health service”.

Question 4.
Define Megalopolis.
Answer:
The word Megalopolis is given for a large conurbation, when two or more large cities whose total population exceeds ten million.

Question 5.
What is Megacity?
Answer:

• A megacity is a very large city typically with a population of more than 10 million people.
• A megacity can be a single metropolitan area.

VII. Answer the following in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Write an essay on the languages of India.
Answer:

• India has many languages. Each state has its own language.
• The national language of India is Hindi. 22 major languages were spoken by 97% population of the country.
• Urdu, Punjabi, Hindi, Bengali, Kashmiri, Rajasthani, etc are important North Indian languages.
• Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, etc., are mainly spoken in South India.

Question 2.
Explain the early human Settlements.
Answer:

• In the early periods of human settlements, houses were built using local materials.
• The form of the house was closely related to the environment In the agricultural region’s houses were built with mind walls and the roof was made of stalks of paddy or hatch local wood was used to frame the roof.
• Such old houses had wide verandants and open-air circulation.
• The size of the house depended on the economic status of its inhabitants.

Question 3.
Write about Satellite town?
Answer:

• A satellite town is a town designed to house the overpopulation of a major city but is located well beyond the limits of that city.
• Satellite towns are generally located outside the rural-urban fringe.
• In India, most satellite towns are purely residential in character.
• For e.g. Patna, Barauni, Varanasi and Hajipur.