Category: Class 11

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 17 Social Responsibility of Business and Business Ethics Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 17 Social Responsibility of Business and Business Ethics

11th Commerce Guide Social Responsibility of Business and Business Ethics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which type of Responsibility gives the benefit to the Society out of its profits earned?
a) Legal
b) Ethical
c) Moral
d) Economic
Answer:
c) Moral

Question 2.
The Stakeholders of Socially Responsible business units are except
a) Share Holders
b) Employees
c) Government
d) Company
Answer:
d) Company

Question 3.
Assuming Social Responsibility of business helps the enterprise in
a) Increase profit
b) Decrease profit
c) Sustainability
d) Equilibrium
Answer:
c) Sustainability

Question 4.
Socially Responsible business provides goods at
a) high price
b) low price
c) reasonable price
d) moderate price
Answer:
c) reasonable price

Question 5.
Social Responsibility towards employees represents the following except
a) Reasonable remuneration
b) proper facilities
c) Social security
d) exploitation
Answer:
d) exploitation

II. Very Short Answer Question

Question 1.
What do you mean by Social Responsibility?
Answer:
The term social responsibility is defined in various ways. Every businessman earns prosperity from business and should give back the benefit of this prosperity to society.

Question 2.
Give the meaning of Social Power.
Answer:
The decisions and actions taken by the businessmen affect the lives and fortunes of society. All the businessmen have considerable social power. The important matters as level of employment, rate of economic progress, and distribution of income among the various groups are determined by the business people. This is known as social power.

Question 3.
What is a free enterprise?
Answer:
A business enterprise which accepts and discharges social obligations enjoys greater freedom. Thus, social responsibilities are essential for avoiding governmental action against business. Such action will reduce the freedom of decision making in business.

Question 4.
Who are called Stakeholders?
Answer:
A business organization is a combination of several interest groups or stakeholders. Shareholders, customers, employees, suppliers, government and its agencies unions, and the community from which the business draws its resources, etc. are called stakeholders.

Question 5.
What is ethical Responsibility?
Answer:
Ethical Responsibility includes the behaviour of the firm that is expected by society but not codified in law. For example, respecting the religious sentiments and dignity of people while advertising for a product. There is an element of voluntary action in performing this responsibility.

III. Short Answer Question

Question 1.
Define the Concept of Social Responsibility?
Answer:
The term social responsibility is defined in various ways. Every businessman earns prosperity from business and should give back the benefit of this prosperity to society. This is voluntary. This benefit is the moral responsibility of business. As this benefit is supposed to be passed on to society, it can be said to be the social responsibility of business.

Question 2.
Why you do think the Social Responsibility of business is needed?
Answer:
1. Self – Interest: A business unit can sustain itself in the market for a longer period only by assuming some social obligations. Normally businessmen recognize that they can succeed better by fulfilling the demands and aspirations of society.

2. Creation of Society: Business is a creation of society and uses the resources of society. Therefore, it should fulfill its obligations to society.

Question 3.
What are the benefits derived by employees of a Socially Responsible business enterprise?
Answer:
The benefits derived by employees of a socially responsible business enterprise include:

• Timely and regular payment of wages and salaries.
• Proper working conditions and welfare amenities.
• Opportunity for better career prospects.
• Job security as well as social security like facilities of provident fund, group insurance, pension, retirement benefits, etc.
• Better living conditions like housing, transport, canteen, arches, etc.
• Timely training and development.

Question 4.
Enumerate the points relating to why business units are Socially Responsible?
Answer:

1. Protection of Stakeholders Interest
2. Promotion of Society
3. Assessment of Social Impact

Question 5.
List the kinds of Social Responsibility.
Answer:
The following are the various kinds of social responsibility:

• Economic Responsibility
• Legal Responsibility
• Ethical Responsibility
• Discretionary Responsibility

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain in detail the concept and need for Social Responsibility?
Answer:
The term social responsibility is defined in various ways. Every businessman earns prosperity from business and should give back the benefit of this prosperity to society. This is voluntary. This benefit is the moral responsibility of business. As this benefit is supposed to be passed on to society, it can be said to be the social responsibility of business.

Need:

1. Self – Interest: A business unit can sustain in the market for a longer period only by assuming some social obligations. Normally businessmen recognize that they can succeed better by fulfilling the demands and aspirations of society.
2. Creation of Society: Business is a creation of society. Therefore, it should fulfill its obligations to society.
3. Social Power: Businessmen have considerable social power. Their decisions and actions affect the lives and fortunes of society.
4. Image in the Society: A business can improve its image in public by assuming social obligations, good relations with workers, consumers, and suppliers help in the success of the business.

Question 2.
Illustrate with examples the arguments for Social Responsibility?
Answer:
The following are the main arguments for social responsibility:

Protection of Stakeholders Interest:
A business organization is a coalition of several interest groups or stakeholders. Example — shareholders, customers, employees, suppliers, etc. The business should, therefore, work for the interest of áll of them rather than for the benefit of shareholders/owners alone.

Promotion of Society:
Business is a sub-system of society. It draws support and šustenance from society in the form of inputs. Socially responsible behavior is essential to sustain this relationship between business and society. During the course of its functioning, a business enterprise makes several decisions and actions. Its activities exercise a strong influence on the interests and values of society. Businesses must fulfill social obligations as compensation for undermining the legitimate interests of society.

Organized Social Power:
Large corporations have acquired tremendous social power through their multifarious operations. Social power may be misused in the absence of social responsibility. There should be an equilibrium between social power and social responsibility.

Legitimacy:
It is in the enlightened self-interest of businesses to assume social responsibility. Social responsibility legitimizes and promotes the economic objectives of the business. By improving social life, businesses can obtain better customers, employees, and neighbors. Social responsibility thus builds good citizenship as well as good business.

Competence:
Business organizations and their managers have proved their competence and leadership in solving economic problems. Society expects them to use their competence to solve social problems and thereby play a leadership role.

Professional Conduct:
Professional managers are required to display a keen social sensitivity and serve society as a whole. Social responsibility is one of the professional demands on managers. They adhere to the code of conduct and ethics applicable to their respective area of operation.

Public Opinion:
Adoption of social responsibility as an objective will help to improve the public opinion of the business. A good public image is a valuable asset for the business. For example maintaining parks, traffic islands, and organizing awareness camps, etc.

Question 3.
What are the arguments against Social Responsibility?
Answer:
Critics of the Social Responsibility concept put forward the following arguments:

Lack of Conceptual Clarity:
The concept of Social responsibility is very vague and amenable to different interpretations. There is no consensus on its meaning and scope. In such a situation, it would be futile as well as risky to accept social responsibility.

Dilution of Economic Goals:
By accepting social responsibility, businesses will compromise with economic goals. Business is an economic institution and its only responsibility is to make maximum possible profits for its owners. It would endanger its economic viability by accepting any other responsibility.

Lack of Social Skill:
Business organisations and their managers are not familiar with social affairs. There are special social service organisations such as Government and Non-Governmental Agencies which can better deal with social problems.

The burden on Consumers:
If a business deals with social problems, the cost of doing business would increase. These costs will be passed on to consumers in the form of higher prices or will have to be borne by owners. This would lead to taxation without representation.

Responsibility:
Without Power, Business organisations possess only economic power and not social power. It is unjust to impose social responsibilities with social power. If the business is allowed to intervene in social affairs it may perpetuate its own value system to the detriment of society.

Misuse of Responsibilities:
Acceptance of social responsibilities will involve the diversion of precious managerial time and talent on social action programs. It may result in the dilution of valuable corporate resources.

Lack of Yard-stick:
Profitability is the common criteria for decision-making in business. Tampering it with social responsibility would make the decision-making process quite complex and controversial.

Improper Role:
The proper role of a business is to use its resources and energies efficiently so as to earn the best possible return on investment within the confines of law and ethics. The business should concentrate on economic performance leaving social service to other organisations.

Over Loading:
Responsibility Business organisations are already serving society by providing goods and services, generating employment, developing technology, and contributing to the public exchequer through tax payments. It would be unjust to overburden them with further responsibilities.

Question 4.
Discuss the different groups that benefited from the Social Responsibility of business?
Answer:

1. Lack of Conceptual Clarity: The concept of Social responsibility is very vague and amenable to different interpretations.
2. Dilution of Economic Goals: By accepting social responsibility, the business will compromise with economic goals.
3. Lack of Social Skill: Business organisations and their managers are not familiar with social affairs.
4. The burden on Consumers: If a business deals with social problems, the cost of doing business would increase.
5. Responsibility without Power: Business organisations possess only economic power and not social power. It is unjust to impose social responsibilities with social power.
6. Misuse of Responsibilities: Acceptance of social responsibilities will involve the diversion of precious managerial time and talent on social action programmes.
7. Lack of Yardstick: Profitability is the common criteria for decision-making in business.
8. Improper Role: The proper role of a business is to use its resources and energies efficiently so as to earn the best possible return on investment within the confines of law and ethics.
9. Over Loading Responsibility: Business organisations are already serving society by providing goods and services, generating employment, developing technology, and contributing to the public exchequer through tax payments.

Question 5.
How do you classify Social Responsibility?
Answer:
The social responsibility of business can be broadly divided into four categories. They are as follows:
Economic responsibility:
Businesses are meant to be economic units. A business enterprise is basically an economic entity and, therefore, its primary social responsibility is economic. Economic activities include the activity of production of goods and services that society wants and sell at a profit.

Legal Responsibility:
Every business has a responsibility to operate within the laws of the land. Since these laws are meant for the good of society, a law-abiding enterprise is a socially responsible enterprise as well.

Ethical Responsibility:
This includes the behaviour of the firm that is expected by society but not categorized in law. For example, respecting the religious sentiments and dignity of people while advertising for a product. There is an element of voluntary action in performing this responsibility.

Discretionary Responsibility:
This refers to the purely voluntary obligation that an enterprise assumes, for instance, providing charitable contributions to educational institutions or helping the affected people during floods or earthquakes. It is the responsibility of the company management to safeguard the capital investment by avoiding speculative activity and undertaking only healthy business ventures which give good returns on investment.

11th Commerce Guide Social Responsibility of Business and Business Ethics Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
Management of business enterprises is being
(a) Professionalism
(b) Law and order
(c) Free enterprise
(d) Public awareness
Answer:
(a) Professionalism

Question 2.
Ethics are moral principles and values which …………………
a) guide a firm’s behaviour
b) govern the actions of an individual
c) provide employees with rules on how to behave
d) are legally enforceable.
Answer:
b) govern the actions of an individual

Question 3.
The management today is usually sensitive to issues of social responsibility and ethical behaviour because of ……………..
a) Interest Groups
b) Legal and governmental concerns
c) Medical coverage
d) All the above
Answer:
b) Legal and governmental concerns

Question 4.
Business ethics deals primarily with …………………
a) social responsibility
b) the pricing of products and services
c) moral obligation
d) being unfair to the competition
Answer:
c) moral obligation

Question 5.
The factors causing ethical behaviour in business are …………….
a) Government Law
b) Government Policies
c) Public Awareness
d) All of the above
Answer:
d) All of the above

Question 6.
The word Ethics is derived from the Greek word ……………
a) ethos
b) eccos
c) ethicos
d) ehos
Answer:
a) ethos

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What is Legal responsibility?
Answer:
Every business has a responsibility to operate within the laws of the land. Since these laws are meant for the good of society, a law-abiding enterprise is a socially responsible enterprise as well.

III. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Define Social Responsibility:
Answer:
In the words of Peter F.Drucker, “Social Responsibility requires managers to consider whether their action is likely to promote the public good, to advance the basic beliefs of our society, to contribute to its stability, strength, and harmony”.

Question 2.
What are all the facilities that should be provided to the customers?
Answer:

• Products and services must be able to take care of the needs of the customers.
• Products and services must be qualitative.
• There must be regularity in the supply of goods and services.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain Corporate Social Responsibility in India with an example:
Answer:
Tata Group is the best example of corporate social responsibility in India. The Tata Group conglomerate in India carries out various CSR projects, most of which are community improvement and poverty alleviation programs. Through self-help groups, it is engaged in women empowerment activities, income generation, rural community development, and other social welfare programs. In the field of education, the Tata Group provides scholarships and endowments for numerous institutions.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 16 Emerging Service Business in India Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 16 Emerging Service Business in India

11th Commerce Guide Emerging Service Business in India Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
A continuing relationship which provides a licence privileges to do business and provides training, merchandising for a consideration is called ………..
a) Franchising
b) Factoring
c) Supply Chain Management
d) Exchange
Answer:
a) Franchising

Question 2.
A condition where a factor agrees to provide complete set of services like financing, debt collection, and consultancy is called …………….
a) Maturity factoring
b) National Factoring
c) Full service Factoring
d) Recourse Factoring
Answer:
c) Full service Factoring

Question 3.
Buying and selling of goods through electronic network is known as ………
a) E-commerce
b) internet
c) Website
d) Trade
Answer:
a) E-commerce

Question 4.
An organization carrying out activities to move goods from producer to consumer is …………….
a) Transport
b) Logistics
c) Channels
d) Marketing
Answer:
a) Transport

Question 5.
The role of government in logistics management is through ……………….
a) Legislations
b) Governance
c) Transport
d) Distribution
Answer:
d) Distribution

Question 6.
The main benefit of Logistics is ……………….
a) Productivity
b) Cost Minimisation
c) Profitability
d) Storage
Answer:
b) Cost Minimisation

Question 7.
What aims for an effective management response over the longer run ……………………
a) Logistics
b) Supply Chain Management
c) Demand
d) Supply
Answer:
a) Logistics

Question 8.
The model that identifies alternatives, criteria for decision making and analyse alternatives to arrive at the best choice is
a) Routing Model
b) Scheduling Model
c) Inventory Model
d)Altemative Analysis
Answer:
b) Scheduling Model

Question 9.
A company under outsourcing tránsfers activities which are ……………….
a) Core
b) Non-core
c) Business
d) Non business
Answer:
b) Non-core

Question 10.
Business units can reduce expenditure by outsourcing front office work like ……………
a) Paper work
b) File work
c) Billing
d) Manufacturing
Answer:
b) File work

Question 11.
Outsourcing job is given to developing countries specifically for ……………….
a) Cheap labour
b) Land
c) Capital
d) Factors
Answer:
a) Cheap labour

Question 12.
Outsourcing is carried out for the benefit of ……….
a) Global village
b) Transport
c) Factor
d) Time and money
Answer:
d) Time and money

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Who is a franchisee?
Answer:
The individual who acquires the right to operate the business or use the trademark of the seller is known as a tire franchisee.

Question 2.
State two disadvantages of franchising?
Answer:

1. Reduced risk: The franchisee will acquire the right of running an already established business, thus eliminating the risk of starting a new business.
2. Operational support: The franchisee is provided assistance not only in obtaining finance but also in deciding the business location, decor/design, staff training,’ and handling day-to-day operations.

Question 3.
Who is a factor?
Answer:
The factor is an agent who buys the accounts receivables (Debtors and Bills Receivables) of a firm and provides finance to a firm to meet its working capital requirements.

Question 4.
Define outsourcing.
Answer:
Outsourcing is a business practice used by companies to reduce costs or improve efficiency by shifting tasks, operations, jobs, or processes to an external contracted third party for a significant period of time.

Question 5.
What is the need for outsourcing?
Answer:

1. To focus on a key function
2. The benefit of specialization/efficiency
3. Cost-cutting
4. Economic growth and development
5. Increasing profit
6. Catering to the dynamic demand

Question 6.
State the importance of BPO.
Answer:
BPO refers to outsourcing in all fields. It usually administers and manages a particular commercial enterprise process for the employer. It is an important component of the business strategy of major organizations worldwide. It helps in cost reduction, productivity growth, and innovative capabilities.

Question 7.
What are the benefits of KPO?
Answer:
In short, KPO firms get knowledge related, information related, work done from the outside firm and it involves high-value work carried a highly skilled staff.

Question 8.
Define Logistics.
Answer:
The logical extension of transportation and related areas to achieve an efficient and effective goods distribution system is known as logistics. According to the council of supply chain management professionals, “Logistics is the process of planning, implementing and controlling procedures for the efficient and effective transportation of the products.

Question 9.
What is the need for Logistics?
Answer:
Logistics Management is defined as ‘Design and operation of the physical, managerial, and informational systems needed to allow goods to overcome time and space (from the producer to the consumer)’.

Question 10.
Write about the importance of Logistics.
Answer:

• It is a most basic form
• It has the control and supervision of “the movement of the goods.
• It helps in improving customer service.
• It increases the revenue
• It helps in reducing overall transportation costs.
• It helps in improving the operating cost structure.

Question 11.
What are the types of Logistics Applications?
Answer:
Logistics Management can be classified on the basis of applications from various dimensions in the process of examining and evaluating alternatives. They are

• Decision-wise
• Inbound logistics
• Actor-wise
• Outbound logistics

Question 12.
What do you mean by e-commerce?
Answer:
E-commerce or Electronic commerce is the buying and selling of goods and services through electronic networks like the internet.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the types of franchising?
Answer:

1. Product/trade name franchising: In this type, the franchisee exclusively deals with a manufacture’s product, for example, Kidzee, French Loaf outlets.
2. Business format franchising: When a franchisor awards rights covering all business aspects as a complete business package to the franchisee it is called business format franchising, for example, McDonald’s, Pizza Hut.

Question 2.
List the steps in the factoring process.
Answer:
The following are the process in factoring:

The firm enters into a factoring arrangement with a factor, which is generally a financial institution, for invoice purchasing.
Whenever goods are sold on a credit basis, an invoice is raised and a copy of the same is sent to the factor.

The debt amount due to the firm is transferred to the factor through the assignment and the same is intimated to the customer. On the due date, the amount is collected by the factor from the customer. After retaining the service fees, the remaining amount is sent to the firm by the factor.

Question 3.
Describe the benefits of Logistics.
Answer:
Generally, good transportation, storage, handling, and information infrastructure help inefficient logistics management. All firms are viewed as a collection of primary and secondary activities.

Question 4.
Explain the points of differences between Logistics and Supply Chain Management.
Answer:

Question 5.
What is the impact of e-commerce on buyers?
Answer:

1. Buyers could have global access to information about a variety of products and services available in the market.
2. They could buy the products/services round the clock from anywhere in the world.
3. The prices of products bought through e-commerce tend to be relatively lower than those purchased physically in the conventional shops due to offers, discounts, etc.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Enumerate the characteristics of franchising.
Answer:

1. A franchise relationship is based on an agreement which lays down the terms and conditions of this relationship.
2. The term of the franchise may be for 5 years or more. The franchise agreement may be renewed with the mutual consent of the parties.
3. The franchisee gives an undertaking not to carry any other competing business during the term of the franchise, and the franchiser gives an undertaking not to terminate the franchise agreement before its expiry except under situations that may justify the termination of the franchise agreement.
4. The franchisee agrees to pay specified royalty to the franchiser, as per the terms of the franchise agreement.
5. Franchise means selling the same product and maintaining a similar type of shop decor (i.e. style of interior decoration) for which the franchiser provides assistance to the franchisee in organizing, merchandising, and management.

Question 2.
Elucidate the features of factoring.
Answer:
Meaning: Factoring implies a financial arrangement between the factor and client, in which the firm (client) gets advances in return for receivables, from a financial institution (factor).
Features of Factoring:

• Maintenance of book-debts: A factor takes the responsibility of maintaining the accounts of debtors of a business institution.
• Credit coverage: The factor accepts the risk burden of loss of bad debts leaving the seller to concentrate on his core business.
• Cash advances: Around eighty percent of the total amount of accounts receivables is paid as advance cash to the client.
• Collection service: Issuing reminders, receiving part-payments, collecting cheques form part of the factoring service.
• Advice to clients: From the past history of debtors, the factor is able to provide advice regarding the creditworthiness of customers, perception of customers about the products of the client, etc.

Question 3.
Describe the benefits of Outsourcing.
Answer:

1. Focusing on Core Activities: Companies can focus on their core competence, a few areas, where the company has a distinct capability. The rest of the activities (non – core) can be outsourced to outside agencies.
2. To Fillip Economic Development: Outsourcing stimulates entrepreneurship, encourages employment opportunities, expands exports, enables tremendous growth of the economy.
3. Encourages Employment Opportunities: Companies that are outsourcing their non-core activities provide chances for other small business units to take up the activities. This paves way for more job opportunities and new employment avenues.
4. Reduction in Investment: Companies through outsourcing avails the services of outsiders which in turn reduces the investment requirements. The amount so available can be utilized productively and this increases the profits.
5. Quest for Excellence: Outsourcing enables the firms to pursue excellence in two ways namely excelling themselves in the activities they do and excel outsiders by extending their capabilities through contracting out.

Question 4.
Explain the points of differences between BPO and KPO?
Answer:
Business Process Outsourcing:
BPO refers to the outsourcing of non-primary activities of the organization to an external organization to minimize cost and increase efficiency It provides services related to marketing, human resources, customer support, and technical support, etc.

Knowledge Process Outsourcing:
KPO is another kind of outsourcing whereby, functions related to knowledge and information are outsourced to third-party service providers It is a process that involves knowledge-related work handed over to the outside party. The fine line difference between BPO and KPO is explained in the following table.

Question 5.
Write a note on e-commerce models.
Answer:
1. Business to customers (B2C):
This is the fastest-growing segment in e-commerce spare. Under this model, business concern sells directly to consumers.

2. Business to Business (B2B):
Under the model, business concerns transact with one another through the internet. For instance, Snapdeal, Flipkart, Alibaba, Indiamart, Tradelndia.com, etc.

3. Consumer to consumer (C2C):
Under this model, customers sell directly to other customers through online classified advertisement or through auction or through mobile or through market places. For example, Indian ventures in C2C are Kraftly App (buying and selling anythings) which deals in handmade products of a wide range. Onceagainstore.com is a website that buys pre-owned women’s fashion products. Other players are Quikr, OLX, ebay, etc.

4. Customer to Business (C2B):
This model is reverse to the auction model. Products like automobiles, electronic items furniture, and similar product are traded by customers through websites. Naukri.com and Monster.com are examples of Indian Companies operating in this domain.

5. Business to Government (B2G):
This model envisages selling products and services by the business consumers to Government organizations. For instance, TCS operates the passport application process for the Government of India as a part of offline process.

11th Commerce Guide Emerging Service Business in India Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
There are …………….. parties to a franchising agreement.
(a) two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Answer:
(a) two

Question 2.
The Factoring Regulation act was established in the year …………..
a) 2014
b) 2013
c) 2016
d) 2011
Answer:
d) 2011

Question 3.
Factoring means ……………..
(a) to make or do
(b) to work
(c) for credit
(d) for debit
Answer:
(a) to make or do

Question 4.
‘Facere’ means
a) to make or do
b) to produce
c) to assemble
d) to receive
Answer:
a) to make or do

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What is E-Business?
Answer:
E-Business is a broader term which includes an internal and external transaction of an organization across the internet.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Maturity factoring?
Answer:
The factor agrees to finance the firm only after collecting the amount on maturity from debtors.

Question 3.
Mention any two advantages of franchising.
Answer:

1. Reduces risk
2. Business expansion.

III. Short Answers Questions:

Question 1.
What is the impact of e-commerce on vendors?
Answer:

1. Vendors could have wider access to customers across the globe.
2. This helps minimize the cost of operating business due to direct distribution of goods to end consumers thanks to the minimum invention of intermediaries.
3. The vendor could interact with multiple buyers and sellers.

Question 2.
What are the elements of Logistics Cost?
Answer:
The important elements of logistics cost are Product Inventory at source, Pipeline Inventory, Product Inventory at warehouses and dealers, Transit Losses/Insurance, Storage Losses/ Insurance, Handling and Warehouse operations, Packaging, Transportation, Customer’s Shopping.

Question 3.
Explain Core and Non-Core activities:
Answer:
A core activity involves experience, expertise, efficiency, and even investment in the field of specialization. Non- Core activities can be outsourced to outsiders who are specialists in their area of operation.

Question 4.
What is the impact of E-Commerce on Vendors?
Answer:

• Vendors could have wider access to customers across the globe.
• This helps to minimize the cost of operating
• business due to direct distribution of goods to end consumers thanks to the minimum invention of intermediaries.
• The vendor could interact with multiple buyers and sellers.
• Business concerns could orient marketing efforts towards targeted customers.

IV. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Briefly explain the advantages of Franchising:
Answer:
Reduced risk:
The franchisee will acquire the right of running an already established business, thus eliminating the risk of starting a new business.

Business expansion:
Franchising provides an opportunity to expand business at regional, national and global levels without incurring additional expenditure. Thus rapid growth of the franchisor’s business is facilitated.

Cost of advertising:
The cost of advertising for the franchisor will be reduced since this cost will be shared by the franchisee. Moreover, it enables the franchisor to reap the benefits of increased visibility across regional and national boundaries.

Operational support:
The franchisee is provided assistance in not only obtaining finance, but also in deciding the business location, decor /design, staff training, and handling day-to-day operations.

Question 2.
What are the disadvantages of franchising?
Answer:
Franchising fees:
The initial franchising fee and the subsequent renewal fees can be very high in the case of successful businesses. From the franchisee’s point of view, this may be a deterrent.

Fixed royalty payment:
The franchisee has to make payment of royalty to the franchiser on a regular basis. This considerably reduces the income of the franchisee.

The danger of image tarnishing:
If the franchisee does not maintain standards of quality and service; there is a danger that the goodwill and image of the reputed franchiser will be adversely affected.

Lack of freedom:
The franchisee does not have the freedom to run his business in an independent manner. He has to abide by the management and operational policies of the franchiser, Which may serve as a deterrent whether suitable to him or not.

Limitation on a range of products:
The franchisee cannot introduce new product lines into the business, except those permitted by the franchiser. This may mean loss of business to franchisee amidst demands based on local conditions.

Question 3.
Compare Factoring with Forfeiting:
Answer:

Question 4.
Explain the features of Outsourcing:
Answer:
Transferring Non-Core Activities to Outsiders:
Companies can outsource those non-core activities functions like maintenance, housekeeping, gardening, etc. to outsiders, depending upon the nature of the business and the activities are identified as core or non-core activities.

Outsourcing Involves Contracting:
As the companies start outsourcing their activities focusing on their main business, the outside agencies enter into an agreement with the company to perform the routine activities on a contractual basis.

Operational Efficiency through Outsourcing:
Companies specialize in their business system as the time available at their disposal can be utilized for the core activities leading to efficiency improving the quality of the product.

Improved Customers Satisfaction:
The number of customers can be increased through timely delivery and high-quality services. Outsourcing helps in customer satisfaction and results in repetitive purchases of the same product.

Cost Reduction:
The only way to survive and earn a profit is through global competitiveness by fixing a competitive price. Division of labour and specialization along with good quality product reduces the cost. For example outsourcing of research and development, manufacturing, software development, etc.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Guide Pdf Chapter 3 Computer Organization Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 3 Computer Organization

11th Computer Science Guide Computer Organization Text Book Questions and Answers

Part I

I. Choose the correct, answer :

Question 1.
Which of the following is said to be the brain of a computer?
a) Input devices
b) Output devices
c) Memory device
d) Microprocessor
Answer:
d) Microprocessor

Question 2.
Which of the following is not the part of a microprocessor unit?
a) ALU
b) Control unit
c) Cache memory
d) register
Answer:
c) Cache memory

Question 3.
How many bits constitute a word?
a) 8
b) 16
c) 32
d) determined by the processor used
Answer:
d) determined by the processor used

Question 4.
Which of the following device identifies the location when address is placed in the memory address register?
a) Locator
b) encoder
c) decoder
d) multiplexer
Answer:
c) decoder

Question 5.
Which of the following is a CISC processor?
a) Intel P6
b) AMD K6
c) Pentium III
d) Pentium IV
Answer:
c) Pentium III

Question 6.
Which is the fastest memory?
a) Hard disk
b) Main memory
c) Cache memory
d) Blue-Ray dist
Answer:
c) Cache memory

Question 7.
How many memory locations are identified by a processor with 8 bits address bus at a time?
a) 8
b) 16
c) 32
d)
Answer:
c) determined by the processor used

Question 8.
What is tW? capacity of 12 cm diameter DVD with single bided and single layer?
a) 4.7 GB
b) 5.5 GB
c) 7.8 GB
d) 2.2 GB
Answer:
a) 4.7 GB

Question 9.
What is the smallest size of data represented in a CD?
a) blocks
b) sectors
c) pits
d) tracks
Answer:
c) pits

Question 10.
Display devices are connected to the computer through.
a) USB port
b) Ps/2 port
c) SCSI port
d) VGA connector
Answer:
d) VGA connector

Part II

Short Answers

Question 1.
What are the parameters which influence the characteristics of a microprocessor?
Answer:
It depends on (a) Clock speed (b) Instruction set (c) Word size

Question 2.
What is an instruction?
A command which is given to a computer to perform an operation on data is called an instruction.

Question 3.
What is a program counter?
Answer:
A program counter (PC) is a CPU register in the computer processor which has the address of the next instruction to be executed from memory. It is a digital counter needed for faster execution of tasks as well as for tracking the current execution point.

Question 4.
What is HDMI?
Answer:
High-Definition Multimedia Interface is an audio/ video interface which transfers the uncompressed video and audio data from a video controller to a compatible computer monitor, LCD projector, digital television, etc.

Question 5.
Which source is used to erase the content of an EPROM?
Answer:
Ultra violet rays are used to erase the contents of EPROM. EPROM retains its contents until it is exposed to ultraviolet light. The ultraviolet light clears its contents making it possible to reprogram the memory.

Part III

Explain in brief.

Question 1.
Differentiate Computer Organization from Computer Architecture.
Answer:
Differences between computer organization and Computer Architecture:
Computer Organisation:

• Often called microarchitecture (low level).
• Transparent from programmer
• For example a programmer does not worry much about how addition is implemented in hardware
• Physical components (Circuit design. Adders, Signals, Peripherals).

Computer Architecture:

• Computer architecture (a bit higher level)
• Programmer view file. The programmer has to be aware of which instruction set used)
• Logic (Instruction set, Addressing modes, Data types, Cache optimization)

Question 2.
Classify the microprocessor-based on the size of the data.
Answer:
Depending on the data width, microprocessors can process instructions. The microprocessors can be classified as follows:

• 8-bit microprocessor
• 16-bit microprocessor
• 32-bit microprocessor
• 64-bit microprocessor

Question 3.
Write down the classifications of microprocessors based on the instruction set.
Answer:
Classification of Microprocessor-based on the Instruction set:

1. RISC- Reduced Instruction Set Computers.
2. CISC- Complex Instruction set Computers.

Question 4.
Differentiate PROM arid EPROM.
Answer:
An EPROM differs from a PROM. PROM can be written only once and cannot be erased. EPROMs are used widely in personal computers because they enable the manufacturer to change the contents of the PROM to replace with updated versions or erase the contents before the computer is delivered.

Question 5.
Write down the interfaces and ports available In a computer.
Answer:
Interfaces are HDMI interface port, USB 3.0 port, Ports available in the computer: Serial Port. Parallel port, USB ports, VGA connector. Audio plugs, PS/2 port, SCSI Port.

Question 6.
Differentiate CD and DVD.
Answer:

Question 7.
How will you differentiate a flash memory and an EEPROM?
Answer:

Part IV

Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain the characteristics of a microprocessor.
Answer:
(a) Clock speed – Each microprocessor has an internal clock that regulates the speed at which it executes instructions. The speed at which the microprocessor executes instructions is called clock speed. It is measured in MHz or in GHz.

(b) Instructions set – The set of machine-level instructions that a microprocessor is designed to execute is called an instruction set. This carries 4 types of operations. They are

• Data transfer
• Arithmetic operations
• Logical Operations
• Control flow
• Input/output

(c) Word size – The number of bits that can be processed by a processor in a single instruction is called its word size. It determines the amount of RAM that can be accessed at one time and the total number of pins on the microprocessor. The total number of input and output pins in turn determines the architecture of the microprocessor.

Question 2.
Hew the read and write operations are performed by a processor? Explain.
Answer:
The Central Processing Unit(CPU) has a Memory Data Register (MDR) and a Memory Address Register (MAR). The Memory Data Ster (MDR) keeps the data which is transferred between the memory and the CPU.

The Program Counter (PC) is a special register in the CPU which always keeps the address of the instruction to be executed. The Arithmetic [Logic unit of CPU places the address of the |ory to be fetched, into the Memory Address.

A bus is a collection of wires used for communication between the internal components of the computer. The address bus is used to point to a memory location. A decoder, a digital circuit is used to point to the specific memory location where the word can be located.

The address register is connected with the address bus, which provides the address of the instruction. A data bus is used to transfer data between the memory and the CPU. The data bus is bidirectional and the address builds unidirectional.

The control bus controls both read and write operations. The read operation fetches data from memory and transfers to MDR. A single control line performs two operations like Read/Write using 1 or Also, the write operation transfers data from the MDR to memory. This organization is shown in the following Figure.

If the size of the MDR is eight bits, which can be connected with a word in the memory which is also eight bits size. The data bus has eight parallel wires to transfer data either from MDR to word or word to MDR based on the control(Read or write). This control line is labeled as R/W, which becomes 1 means READ operation and 0 means WRITE operation.

The read operation transfers the data(bits) from word to Memory Data Register. The write operation transfers the data(bits) from Memory Data Register to the word.

Question 3.
Arrange the memory devices ¡n ascending order based on the access time.
Answer:
Different memory devices are arranged according to the capacity, speed, and cost as shown in the following Figure.

The memory devices in ascending order based on the access time:

• Hard disk
• Main memory (RAM)
• Cache memory

Question 4.
Explain the types of ROM.
Answer:
Read-Only Memory (ROM):

1. Read-Only Memory refers to special memory in a computer with pre-recorded data at manufacturing time that cannot be modified.
2. The stored programs that start the computer and perform diagnostics are available in ROMs. ROM stores critical programs such as the program that boots the computer.
3. Once the data has been written onto a ROM chip, it cannot be modified or removed and can only be read.
4. ROM retains its contents even when the computer is turned off. So, ROM is called non-volatile memory.

Programmable Read-Only Memory (PROM):

1. Programmable read-only memory is also a non-volatile memory on which data can be written only once. Once a program has been written onto a PROM, it remains there forever.
2. Unlike the main memory, PROMs retain their contents even when the computer is turned off.
3. The PROM differs from ROM. PROM is manufactured as blank memory, whereas a ROM is programmed during the manufacturing process itself.
4. A PROM programmer or a PROM burner is used to write data to a PROM chip. The process of programming a PROM is called burning the PROM.

Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory (EPROM):

1. Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory is a special type of memory which serves as a PROM, but the content can be erased using ultraviolet rays.
2. EPROM retains its contents until it is exposed to ultraviolet light. The ultraviolet light clears its contents, making it possible to reprogram the memory.
3. An EPROM differs from a PROM, PROM can be written only once and cannot be erased.
4. EPROMs are used widely in personal computers because they enable the manufacturer to change the contents of the PROM to replace with updated versions or erase the contents before the computer is delivered.

Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory (EEPROM):

1. Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory is a special type of PROM that can be erased by exposing it to an electrical charge.
2. Like other types of PROM, EEPROM retains its contents even when the power is turned off.
3. Comparing with all other types of ROM, EEPROM is slower in performance.

11th Computer Science Guide Computer Organization Additional Questions and Answers

Part I

I. Choose the correct, answer.

Question 1.
The ………………. is the major component of a computer, which performs all taks.
(a) CPU
(b) MDR
(c) MAR
(d) RISC
Answer:
(a) CPU

Question 2.
Computer organization includes __________
a) Input / Output devices
b) Central Processing Unit
c) storage devices and primary memory
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 3.
The number of bits that can be processed by a processor in a single instruction is called ……………….
(a) word size
(b) CPU
(c) Data transfer
(d) CISC
Answer:
(a) word size

Question 4.
__________ deals with the hardware components that are transparent to the programmer.
a) Computer organization
b) Computer architecture
c) Computer Science
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Computer organization

Question 5.
………………. is a magnetic disk on which you can store data.
(a) compact disc
(b) hard disk
(c) DVD
(d) flash memory devices
Answer:
(b) hard disk

Question 6.
In a computer, __________ performs all tasks.
a) ALU
b) CPU
c) Input devices
d) All the above
Answer:
b) CPU

Question 7.
………………. connect the hard disk drives and network connectors.
(a) PS/2 port
(b) SCSI port
(c) USB port
(d) serial port
Answer:
(b) SCSI port

Question 8.
The first general-purpose microprocessor, 4004 was developed by __________
a) Intel Inc
b) Apple Inc
c) BBC Micro
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Intel Inc

Question 9.
The microprocessors were first introduced in early ……………….
(a) 1976
(b) 1975
(c) 1970
(d) 1978
Answer:
(c) 1970

Question 10.
__________ is driven by clock pulses,
a) Transistor
b) Vacuum tube
c) Microprocessor
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Microprocessor

Question 11.
Which one of the following deals with hardware components of a computer system.
(a) Computer organisation
(b) Computer architecture
(c) System software
(d) Application software
Answer:
(a) Computer organisation

Question 12.
__________ is the main unit of a microprocessor.
a) ALU
b) registers
c) control unit
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 13.
The first general-purpose microprocessor was ……………….
(a) IBM 2002
(b) IBM 1620
(c) Intel 4004
(d) Intel 4002
Answer:
(c) Intel 4004

Question 14.
_________ control the overall operations of the computer through signals.
a) ALU
b) registers
c) control unit
d) All the above
Answer:
c) control unit

Question 15.
Which of the following temporarily holds the instructions and data for the execution of the processor.
(a) ALU
(b) CU
(c) Registers
(d) RAM
Answer:
(c) Registers

Question 16.
The __________is able to communicate with the memory units and the Input / Output devices.
a) transistor
b) vacuum tube
c) microprocessor
d) None of these
Answer:
c) microprocessor

Question 17.
The system bus is a collection of ……………….
(a) address bus
(b) data bus
(c) control bus
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 19.
MHz arid GHz are the units of ……………….
(a) clock speed
(b) instruction set
(c) Word size
(d) system bus
Answer:
(a) clock speed

Question 19.
A Microprocessor’s performance depends on the __________ characteristic.
a) Clock speed
b) Instruction set
c) Word size
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 20.
Hertz – abbreviated as __________.
a) Hz
b) Htz
c) Hrz
d) Hez
Answer:
a) Hz

Question 21.
One hertz is equal to ………………. cycles per second.
(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 2
(d) 20
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 22.
Hertz is commonly used to measure __________wave frequency.
a) sound waves
b) light waves
c) radio waves
d) all the above
Answer:
d) all the above

Question 23.
The architecture of the microprocessor is determined by ……………….
(a) total no. of input and output pins
(b) clock speed
(c) word size
(d) instruction set
Answer:
(a) total no. of input and output pins

Question 24.
Sound waves close to 20 Hz have a low pitch and are called __________ frequencies.
a) treble
b) bass
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) bass

Question 25.
Intel 8085 is a ………………. bit processor.
(a) 8
(b) 16
(c) 32
(d) 64
Answer:
(a) 8

Question 26.
__________is also used to measure the speed of computer processors.
a) Hours
b) Seconds
c) Bytes
d) Hertz
Answer:
d) Hertz

Question 27.
Which bus is unidirectional?
(a) Control
(b) System
(c) Data
(d) Address
Answer:
(d) Address

Question 28.
__________indicates how many instruction cycles the processor can perform in every second.
a) clock speed
b) bus speed
c) wave speed
d) None of these
Answer:
a) clock speed

Question 29.
How many classifications of microprocessors are there based on data width?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 30.
The clock speeds are typically measured in __________
a) megahertz
b) gigahertz
c) megahertz or gigahertz
d) None of these
Answer:
c) megahertz or gigahertz

Question 31.
Which one of the following is not a CISC processor?
(a) Pentium II
(b) Pentium III
(c) Pentium IV
(d) Pentium
Answer:
(c) Pentium IV

Question 32.
The speed at which the microprocessor executes instructions is called the __________
a) cycle speed
b) clock speed
c) transfer rate
d) None of these
Answer:
b) clock speed

Question 33.
Which of the following needs refreshing very often?
(a) ROM
(b) Static RAM
(c) Dynamic RAM
(d) EPROM
Answer:
(c) Dynamic RAM

Question 34.
Basic set of machine level instructions that a microprocessor is designed to execute is called as a(n) __________ .
a) algorithm
b) pseudo-code
c) code
d) instruction set
Answer:
d) instruction set

Question 35.
Identify the wrong statement.
(i) Dynamic RAM has to be refreshed frequently.
(ii) SRAM is faster.
(iii) SRAM is cheap.
(iv) SRAM is to be refreshed less often.
(a) (iv)
(b) (iii)
(c) (ii)
(d) (i)
Answer:
(b) (iii)

Question 36.
The number of bits that can be processed by a processor in a single instruction is called its __________
a) word size
b) clock speed
c) program execution
d) None of these
Answer:
a) word size

Question 37.
CD data represented as tiny indentations are called ………………….
(a) tracks
(b) sectors
(c) stacks
(d) pits
Answer:
(d) pits

Question 38.
Total number of __________pins determines the architecture of the microprocessor.
a) input
b) output
c) input and output
d) None of these
Answer:
c) input and output

Question 39.
A 12 cm diameter DVD with a single-sided, single-layer has the storage capacity of ………………….
(a) 4.7 GB
(b) 8.7 GB
(c) 8.5 GB
(d) 1.5 GB
Answer:
(a) 4.7 GB

Question 40.
The microprocessor Intel 4004 is a __________bit processor.
a) 32
b) 16
c) 8
d) 4
Answer:
d) 4

Question 41.
Which type of disc is used for playing High-Definition movies?
(a) CD
(b) DVD
(c) Flash Devices
(d) Blu – Ray Disc
Answer:
(d) Blu – Ray Disc

Question 42.
A microprocessor which consists of 4 input pins and 4 output pins can process __________ bit at a time.
a) 32
b) 16
c) 8
d) 4
Answer:
d) 4

Question 43.
Blu – ray uses a …………………. laser to write data.
(a) red
(b) green
(c) blue – violet
(d) violet
Answer:
(c) blue – violet

Question 44.
Intel 8085 is a(n) __________bit processor.
a) 32
b) 16
c) 8
d) 4
Answer:
c) 8

Question 45.
Intel 8086 is a(n) __________bit processor.
a) 32
b) 16
c) 8
d) 4
Answer:
b) 16

Question 46.
Which port is used for the LCD projector?
(a) SCSI
(6) PS/2
(c) Audio
(d) VGA port
Answer:
(d) VGA port

Question 47.
The CPU has a __________.
a) MDR
b) MAR
c) MDR and MAR
d) None of these
Answer:
c) MDR and MAR

Question 48.
Which one of the following uses a magnetic disk to store the data?
(a) DVD
(b) HD
(c) CD
(d) FD
Answer:
(b) HD

Question 49.
MAR stands for __________
a) Memory Access Register
b) Memory Accumulator Register
c) Memory Assign Register
d) Memory Address Register
Answer:
d) Memory Address Register

Question 50.
Which of the following interface transfers the uncompressed audio and video data to monitor, projector?
(a) CD
(b) DVD
(c) HDMI
(d) FDD
Answer:
(c) HDMI

Question 51.
__________is a special register in the CPU which always keeps the address of the next instruction to be executed.
a) Page counter
b) Program counter
c) Program cycle
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Program counter

Question 52.
The __________places the address of the memory to be fetched, into the Memory Address Register,
a) Control unit
b) Arithmetic and Logic unit
c) Memory unit
d) All the above
Answer:
b) Arithmetic and Logic unit

Question 53.
A __________is a collection of wires used for communication between the internal components of a computer.
a) driver
b) microprocessor
c) cable
d) bus
Answer:
d) bus

Question 54.
The __________ bus is used to point a memory location.
a) data
b) address
c) both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) address

Question 55.
A digital circuit is used to point to the specific memory location where the word can be located is called a __________.
a) decoder
b) encoder
c) locator
d) pointer
Answer:
a) decoder

Question 56.
A __________bus is used to transfer data between the memory and the CPU.
a) address
b) data
c) instruction
d) word
Answer:
b) data

Question 57.
The __________bus is bidirectional.
a) address
b) data
c) instruction
d) control
Answer:
b) data

Question 58.
The __________bus is unidirectional.
a) address
b) data
c) instruction
d) control
Answer:
a) address

Question 59.
The __________bus controls both read and write operations.
a) address
b) data
c) instruction
d) control
Answer:
d) control

Question 60.
The __________operation fetches data from memory and transfers to MDR.
a) write
b) read
c) input/output
d) None of these
Answer:
b) read

Question 61.
The __________operation transfers data from the MDR to memory.
a) write
b) read
c) input/output
d) None of these
Answer:
a) write

Question 62.
The word in the __________has the same size (no. of bits) as the Memory Data Register (MDR).
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) RAM

Question 63.
If the processor is an 8-bit processor like Intel 8085, it’s MDR and the word in the RAM both have __________
a) 4 bits each
b) 8 bits
c) 16 bits
d) None of these
Answer:
b) 8 bits

Question 64.
The microprocessors can be classified based on the __________criteria.
a) width of data that can be processed
b) instruction set
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 65.
__________is one of the microprocessors
classifications.
a) 8/16 bit microprocessor
b) 32-bit microprocessor
c) 64-bit microprocessor
d) All the above
Answer:
b) 32 bit microprocessor

Question 66.
__________ is classification of Microprocessors based on Instruction Set.
a) RISC
b) CISC
c) both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) both A and B

Question 67.
RISC stands for __________
a) Random Instruction Set Computers
b) Rich Instruction Set Computers
c) Reduced Instruction Sequence Computers
d) Reduced Instruction Set Computers
Answer:
d) Reduced Instruction Set Computers

Question 68.
CISC stands for __________
a) Complex Instruction Set Computers
b) Compulsory Instruction Set Computers
c) Common Instruction Sequence Computers
d) Critical Instruction Set Computers
Answer:
a) Complex Instruction Set Computers

Question 69.
Identify the True statement from the following.
a) RISC processors have a small set of highly optimized instructions.
b) Computers supporting CISC can accomplish a wide variety of tasks, making them ideal for personal computers.
c) Computer memory is the storage space in the computer, where data and instructions are stored)
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 70.
__________is a RISC processor.
a) Pentium IV
b) Intel P6 and AMD K6
c) K7
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 71.
__________ is a CISC processor.
a) Intel 386 & 486
b) Pentium II and III
c) Motorola 68000
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 72.
A __________ is just like a human brain.
a) memory
b) processor
c) bus
d) none of these
Answer:
a) memory

Question 73.
__________ is used to store data and instructions.
a) memory
b) processor
c) bus
d) None of these
Answer:
a) memory

Question 74.
There are __________ types of accessing
methods to access the memory.
a) four
b) three
c) two
d) None of these
Answer:
c) two

Question 75.
__________ is the memory operation.
a) read
b) write
c) read and write
d) None of these
Answer:
c) read and write

Question 76.
__________ is a memory accessing method.
a) sequential
b) random
c) both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) both A and B

Question 77.
In __________ access, the memory is accessed in an orderly manner from start to end.
a) sequential
b) random
c) both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) sequential

Question 78.
In __________ access, any byte of memory can be accessed directly without navigating through previous bytes.
a) sequential
b) random
c) both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) random

Question 79.
The main memory is otherwise called __________
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) storage device
d) None of these
Answer:
b) RAM

Question 80.
RAM is available in computers in the form of
a) integrated circuits
b) internal circuits
c) information circuits
d) None of these
Answer:
a) integrated circuits

Question 81.
The Operating System, Application Programs and the data in current use are kept in
a) ROM
b) EPROM
c) DVD
d) RAM
Answer:
d) RAM

Question 82.
The processor can access data and program available in
a) ROM
b) EPROM
c) DVD
d) RAM
Answer:
d) RAM

Question 83.
The smallest unit of information that can be stored in the memory is called as a
a) Byte
b) Bit
c) Nibble
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Bit

Question 84.
The memory can be accessed by a collection of 8 bits which is called as a
a) Byte
b) Bit
c) Nibble
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Byte

Question 85.
1 megabyte of memory, then it can store characters.
a) 10,48,576
b) 12,48,576
c) 10,24,576
d) 10,48,286
Answer:
a) 10,48,576

Question 86.
1 megabyte of memory, then it can store ___________ of information.
a) 10,48,576 bytes
b) 10,48,576 bits
c) 10,24,576 bytes
d) 10,48,286 bytes
Answer:
a) 10,48,576 bytes

Question 87.
_______________ is a volatile memory.
a) ROM
b) EPROM
c) RAM
d) CD-ROM
Answer:
c) RAM

Question 88.
The information stored in is not
permanent.
a) ROM
b) EPROM
c) RAM
d) CD-ROM
Answer:
c) RAM

Question 89.
As soon as the power is turned off, whatever data that resides in ________is lost.
a) ROM
b) EPROM
c) RAM
d) CD-ROM
Answer:
c) RAM

Question 90.
___________ allows operations. both read and write
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) RAM

Question 91.
There are_________basic types of RAM.
a) 2
b) 3
C) 4
d) More than 4
Answer:
a) 2

Question 92.
_______ is a type of RAM.
a) SRAM
b) DRAM
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 93.
SRAM means ,_______
a) Static RAM
b) Simple RAM
c) Serial RAM
d) Sensitive RAM
Answer:
a) Static RAM

Question 94.
DRAM means
a) Dynamic RAM
b) Dual RAM
c) Digital RAM
d) Discrete RAM
Answer:
a) Dynamic RAM

Question 95.
________ RAM being a common type needs to be refreshed frequently.
a) SRAM
b) DRAM
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) DRAM

Question 96.
________ RAM needs to be refreshed less often, which makes it faster.
a) SRAM
b) DRAM
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) SRAM

Question 97.
RAM is more expensive.
a) SRAM
b) DRAM
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) SRAM

Question 98.
_________ memory in a computer with pre-recorded data at manufacturing time which cannot be modified.
a) ROM
b) EPROM
c) RAM
d) CD-ROM
Answer:
a) ROM

Question 99.
The stored programs that start the computer and perform diagnostics are available in_________
a) ROM
c) RAM
b) EPROM
d) CD-ROM
Answer:
a) ROM

Question 100.
________ stores critical programs such as the program that boots the computer.
a) ROM
b) EPROM
c) RAM
d) CD-ROM
Answer:
a) ROM

Question 101.
________ retains its contents even when the computer is turned off.
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) ROM

Question 102.
____________ is called as a non-volatile memory.
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) ROM

Question 103.
____________ is manufactured as a blank memory.
a) ROM
b) PROM
c) both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) PROM

Question 104.
____________ is programmed during the manufacturing process itself.
a) ROM
b) EPROM
C) RAM
d) CD-ROM
Answer:
a) ROM

Question 105.
____________ is used to write data to a PROM chip.
a) PROM programmer
b) PROM burner
c) A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) A or B

Question 106.
The process of programming a PROM is called ____________ the PROM.
a) writing
b) storing
c) recording
d) burning
Answer:
d) burning

Question 107.
____________ serves as a PROM, but the content can be erased using ultraviolet rays.
a) EPROM
b) RAM
c) CD-ROM
d) None of these
Answer:
a) EPROM

Question 108.
____________ retains its contents until it is exposed to ultraviolet light.
a) EPROM
b) RAM
c) CD-ROM
d) None of these
Answer:
a) EPROM

Question 109.
____________ is a special type of PROM that can be erased by exposing it to an electrical charge.
a) EPROM
b) RAM
c) EEPROM
d) None of these
Answer:
c) EEPROM

Question 110.
Comparing with all other types of ROM, ____________ is slower in performance.
a) EPROM
b) RAM
c) EEPROM
d) None of these
Answer:
c) EEPROM

Question 111.
The ____________ memory is a very high speed.
a) EPROM
b) RAM
c) EEPROM
d) Cache
Answer:
d) Cache

Question 112.
The ____________ memory is an expensive memory.
a) EPROM
b) RAM
c) EEPROM
d) Cache
Answer:
d) Cache

Question 113.
____________ memory is used to speed up the memory retrieval process.
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) DVD
d) Cache
Answer:
d) Cache

Question 114.
____________ memory helps to achieve the fast response time.
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) DVD
d) Cache
Answer:
d) Cache

Question 115.
____________ refers to how quickly the memory can respond to a read/write request.
a) Access time
b) Fetch time
c) Execute time
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Access time

Question 116.
____________ memory is expensive and volatile.
a) Main memory
b) Secondary memory
c) Axillary memory
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Main memory

Question 117.
To store data and programs permanently, ____________ devices are used.
a) Main memory
b) Secondary storage
c) ROM
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Secondary storage

Question 118.
____________ devices serve as a supportive storage to main memory.
a) ROM
b) Secondary storage
c) printing
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Secondary storage

Question 119.
devices are non-volatile in nature.
a) Main memory
b) Secondary storage
c) Cache memory
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Secondary storage

Question 120.
_____________ device is also called Backup storage.
a) Main memory
b) Secondary storage
c) Cache memory
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Secondary storage

Question 121.
_________ is a magnetic disk on which you can store data.
a) Hard disk
b) CD-ROM
c) RAM
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Hard disk

Question 122.
The _______________ has the stacked arrangement of disks accessed by a pair of heads for each of the disks.
a) Hard disk
b) CD-ROM
c) RAM
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Hard disk

Question 123.
The_________ come with a single or double
sided disk.
a) Hard disk
c) RAM
Answer:
a) Hard disk

Question 124.
CD-ROM is made from_________ millimeters thick, polycarbonate plastic material.
a) 1.2
b) 1.4
c) 0.2
d) None of these
Answer:
a) 1.2

Question 125.
CD data is represented as tiny indentations known as _________ .
a) pixels
b) bits
c) block
d) pics
Answer:
d) pics

Question 126.
The areas between pits are known as_________
a) fields
b) rings
c) blocks
d) lands
Answer:
d) lands

Question 127.
The capacity of an ordinary CD – ROM is _________MB.
a) 720
b) 700
c) 320
d) 640
Answer:
b) 700

Question 128.
DVDstands for _________
a) Digital Versatile Disc
b) Digital Video Disc
c) Digital Virtual Disc
d) Either A or B
Answer:
a) Digital Versatile Disc

Question 129.
_________are often used to store movies at a better quality.
a) Hard disk
b) DVD
c) Floppy
d) All the above
Answer:
b) DVD

Question 130.
_________are read with a laser.
a) CD
b) DVD
c) RAM
d) both A and B
Answer:
d) both A and B

Question 131.
The DVD can have _________of data per side.
a) one or two sides
b) one or two layers
c) both A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) both A or B

Question 132.
The _________ determines how much it can hold in a DVD.
a) number of sides
b) layers
c) number of sides and layers
d) None of these
Answer:
c) number of sides and layers

Question 133.
A12 cm diameter DVD with single sided, single layer has_________GB capacity.
a) 4.7
b) 8.5
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) 4.7

Question 134.
A 12 cm diameter DVD with single sided, double layer has _________GB capacity.
a) 4.7
b) 8.5
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
b) 8.5

Question 135.
The 8 cm DVD has_________GB capacity.
a) 4.7
b) 8.5
c) 1.5
d) None of these
Answer:
c) 1.5

Question 136.
The capacity of a DVD-ROM can be visually determined by noting the number of _________of the disc.
a) data sides
b) concentric rings
c) Either A or B
d) None of these
Answer:
a) data sides

Question 137.
DVDs with Double-layered sides are usually_________coloured.
a) silver
b) gray
c) blue
d) gold
Answer:
d) gold

Question 138.
DVDs with Single-layered sides are usually_________coloured.
a) silver
b) gray
c) blue
d) gold
Answer:
a) silver

Question 139.
_________memory is an electronic nonvolatile computer storage medium that can be electrically erased and reprogrammed.
a) RAM
b) ROM
c) Flash
d) DVD
Answer:
c) Flash

Question 140.
Flash memory is_________
a) EEPROM
b) EPROM
c) Either EEPROM or EPROM
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Either EEPROM or EPROM

Question 141.
Example for Flash memory is_________
a) pen drives
b) memory cards
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 142.
Flash memories can be used in _________
a) Personal Computers and Personal Digital Assistants (PDA)
b) digital audio players and digital cameras
c) mobile phones
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 143.
Flash memory offers fast _________
a) access time
b) evaluation time
c) completion time
d) None of these
Answer:
a) access time

Question 144.
The time taken to read or write a character in memory is called_________
a) access time
b) evaluation time
c) completion time
d) None of these
Answer:
a) access time

Question 145.
The capacity of the flash memories vary from_________
a) 1GB to 2 TB
b) 1 GB to 4 TB
c) 1 MB to 2 MB
d) 1 MB to 2 GB
Answer:
a) 1GB to 2 TB

Question 146.
_________disc is a high-density optical disc similar to DVD.
a) Hard
b) Floppy
c) Blu-Ray
d) All the above
Answer:
c) Blu-Ray

Question 147.
Blu-Ray is the type of disc used for _________
a) Play Station games
b) Playing High-Definition (HD) movies.
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Both A and B

Question 148.
A double-layer Blu-Ray disc can store up to _________ GB of data.
a) 150
b) 50
c) 100
d) 5
Answer:
b) 50

Question 149.
A double-layer Blu-Ray disc can store more than_________ times the capacity of a DVD.
a) 5
b) 15
c) 70
d) 72
Answer:
a) 5

Question 150.
A double-layer Blu-ray disc can store more than_________ times the capacity of a CD.
a) 5
b) 15
c) 70
d) 72
Answer:
c) 70

Question 151.
The Blu-Ray disc format was developed to_________ enable of high-definition video.
a) recording
b) rewriting
c) playback
d) All the above
Answer:
d) All the above

Question 152.
The _________ format was developed for storing a large amount of data.
a) Bly-Ray disc
b) Flash memory
c) CD
d) All the above
Answer:
a) Bly-Ray disc

Question 153.
_________ uses a red laser to read and write data.
a) Blu-Ray disc
b) Flash memory
c) DVD
d) None of these
Answer:
c) DVD

Question 154.
_________ uses a blue-violet laser to write.
a) Blu-Ray disc
b) Flash memory
c) DVD
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Blu-Ray disc

Question 155.
The external devices can be connected to the_________
a) ports
b) interfaces
c) ports and interfaces
d) None of these
Answer:
c) ports and interfaces

Question 156.
_________ is used to connect the external devices, found in old computers.
a) Serial port
b) USB port
c) Parallel port
d) Either A or B or C
Answer:
a) Serial port

Question 157.
_________ is used to connect the printers, found in old computers.
a) Serial port
b) USB port
c) Parallel port
d) Either A or B or C
Answer:
c) Parallel port

Question 158.
_________ is used to connect external devices like cameras, scanners, mobile phones, external hard disks, and printers to the computer.
a) Serial port
b) USB port
c) Parallel port
d) Either A or B or C
Answer:
b) USB port

Question 159.
USB means _________
a) Universal Serial Bus
b) Unique Serial Bus
c) Universal Serial Board
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Universal Serial Bus

Question 160.
_________ is the third major version of the Universal Serial Bus stadium.
a) USB 0.3
b) USB 3.0
c) USB 3.3
d) USB 0.33
Answer:
b) USB 3.0

Question 161.
USB 3.0 can transfer data up to _________ Giga byte/second.
a) 3
b) 3.5
c) 5.3
d) 5
Answer:
d) 5

Question 162.
Recently released USB version is _________
a) USB 3.1
b) USB 3.2
c) USB 3.3
d) Both A and B
Answer:
d) Both A and B

Question 163.
_________ is used to connect a monitor or any display device like an LCD projector.
a) GVA Connector
b) AGV connector
c) VGA Connector
d) None of these
Answer:
c) VGA Connector

Question 164.
_________ is used to connect sound speakers, microphone and headphones.
a) VGA connector
b) Audio Plugs
c) SCSI port
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Audio Plugs

Question 165.
_________ is used to connect mouse and keyboard to PC.
a) VGA connector
b) Audio Plugs
c) SCSI port
d) PS/2 Port
Answer:
d) PS/2 Port

Question 166.
_________ is used to connect the hard disk drives and network connectors,
a) VGA connector
b) Audio Plugs
c) SCSI port
d) PS/2 Port
Answer:
c) SCSI port

Question 167.
HDMI means _________
a) High Definition Multimedia Interleave
b) High Definition Multipurpose Interface
c) High Definition Multitech Interface
d) High Definition Multimedia Interface
Answer:
d) High Definition Multimedia Interface

Question 168.
___________ is an audio/videc interface.
a) HDMI
b) VGA connector
c) SCSI port
d) None of these
Answer:
a) HDMI

Question 169.
_________ transfers the uncompressed video and audio data from a video controller, to a compatible computer monitor, LCD projector, digital television etc.
a) HDMI
b) VGA connector
c) SCSI port
d) None of these
Answer:
a) HDMI

Question 170.
___________ is an American multinational corporation and technology company involving in hardware manufacturing, especially motherboard and processors.
a) Microsoft
b) Intel Corporation
c) Sun Micro System
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Intel Corporation

Question 171.
_______ means moving data from one component to another.
a) Data transfer
b) Data migration
c) Data Mitigation
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Data transfer

Question 172.
Match the following:
A. Logical operator – 1. Motherboard
B. Computer Hardware – 2. Speaker
C. Catch memory – 3. NOT
D. Output device – 4. High Speed
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 3, 1, 4, 2
c) 4, 2, 1, 2
d) 3, 1, 2, 4
Answer:
b) 3, 1, 4, 2

Part II

Short Answers

Question 1.
Which is the first commercial microprocessor?
Answer:
Intel 4004 is a 4-bit processor.

Question 2.
Write a note on computer architecture.
Answer:
Computer architecture deals with the engineering considerations involved in designing a computer.

Question 3.
What is Program counter?
Answer:
Program counter is a special Register in the CPU which always keeps the address of the next instruction to be executed.

Question 4.
What is “bass”?
Answer:
Sound waves close to 20 Hz have a low pitch and are called “bass” frequencies.

Question 5.
What is the use of cache memory?
Answer:

1. Cache memory is a very high-speed and expensive memory.
2. It is used to speed up the memory retrieval process.
3. Cache memory comes in a smaller size.

Question 6.
Write a note on Hertz.
Answer:
The hertz can be used to measure wave frequencies. It is also used to measure the speed of computer processors.

Question 7.
Write notes on Blu-Ray Disc.
Answer:

1. Blu – Ray Disc is a high-density optical disc used for PlayStation games and HD movies.
2. A double-layer Blu-ray disc can store up to 50 GB of data.
3. Blu – Ray disc uses a blue-violet laser to write data.

Question 8.
What is clock speed? How it is measured?
Answer:
The speed at which the microprocessor executes instructions is called the clock speed. Clock speed is measured in MHz.

Question 9.
What is meant by word size?
Answer:

1. The number of hits that can be processed by a processor in a single instruction is called its Word Size.
2. Word size determines the amount of RAM that can be accessed by a microprocessor at one time and the total number of pins on the microprocessor.

Question 10.
What is an instruction set?
Answer:
A basic set of machine-level instructions that a microprocessor is designed to execute is called an instruction set.

Question 11.
What is Cache Memory?
Answer:
The cache memory is a very high-speed and expensive memory, which is used to speed up the memory retrieval process.

Question 12.
Define Word Size.
Answer:
The number of bits that can be processed by a processor in a single instruction is called its word size.

Question 13.
What are the main units of a microprocessor.
Answer:
The three major units of a microprocessor are:

1. Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU): To perform arithmetic and logical instructions.
2. Control Unit (CU): To control the overall operation of the computer through signals.
3. Registers (Internal Memory): They are used to hold the data and instruction for the execution of the processor.

Question 14.
What is the function of the Memory Data Register?
Answer:
The Memory Data Register (MDR) keeps the data which is transferred between the memory and the CPU.

Question 15.
Mention the criteria on which microprocessors are classified.
Answer:
Microprocessors are classified based on the following criteria:

1. The width of the data that can be processed.
2. The instruction set.

Question 16.
What is a bus?
Answer:
A bus is a collection of wires used for communication between the internal components of a computer.

Question 17.
What is CISC?
Answer:
CISC stands for Complex Instruction Set Computers. They support hundreds of instructions. It is ideal for personal computers. Example Intel 386486, Pentium, Pentium II and III, Motorola 68000.

Question 18.
What is the function of the decoder?
Answer:
It is a digital circuit that is used to point to the specific memory location where the word can be located.

Question 19.
What is the function of a data bus?
Answer:
A data bus is used to transfer data between the memory and the CPU. The data bus is bidirectional.

Question 20.
Write notes on secondary storage devices.
Answer:
To store data and programs permanently, secondary storage devices are used. Secondary storage devices serve as supportive storage to main memory and they are non-volatile in nature. Secondary storage is also called backup storage.

Question 21.
Draw diagram to represent Bus connectivity between CPU and Memory..
Answer:
Bus connectivity between CPU and Memory

Question 22.
What is read operation?
Answer:
The read operation transfers the data(bits) from word to Memory Data Register.

Question 23.
What is write operation?
Answer:
The write operation transfers the data (bits) from Memory Data Register to the word.

Question 24.
What are the criteria to classify the microprocessor?
Answer:
Microprocessors can be classified based on the following criteria:

• The width of data that can be processed.
• The instruction set.

Question 25.
What is computer memory?
Answer:
Computer memory is the storage space in the computer, where data and instructions are stored.

Question 26.
What is a silicon chip?
Answer:
A silicon chip is an integrated set of electronic circuits on one small flat piece of semiconductor material, silicon.

Question 27.
What are the types of RAM?
Answer:
RAM types are

1. Static RAM
2. Dynamic RAM

Question 28.
Write note on SRAM.
Answer:
Static RAM needs to be refreshed less often, which makes it faster. Hence, Static RAM is more expensive than Dynamic RAM.

Question 29.
Write note on DRAM.
Answer:
Dynamic RAM being a common type needs to be refreshed frequently. Less expensive than the SRAM.

Question 30.
What programs are stored in ROM?
Answer:
ROM stores critical programs such as the program that boots the computer.

Question 31.
What are the characteristics of ROM?
Answer:
Once the data has been written onto a ROM chip, it cannot be modified or removed and can only be read.
ROM retains its contents even when the computer is turned off.

Question 32.
Write short note on PROM.
Answer:
Programmable read-only memory is also a non-volatile memory on which data can be written only once. Once a program has been written onto a PROM, it remains there forever.

Question 33.
What is the difference between ROM and PROM?
Answer:
PROM is manufactured as blank memory, whereas a ROM is programmed during the manufacturing process itself.

Question 34.
What is the use of the PROM burner?
Answer:
A PROM programmer or a PROM burner is used to write data to a PROM chip.

Question 35.
What do you mean by burning the PROM?
Answer:
The process of programming a PROM is called burning the PROM.

Question 35.
Write a note on EPROM.
Answer:
Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory is a special type of memory which serves as a PROM, but the content can be erased using ultraviolet rays. EPROM retains its contents until it is exposed to ultraviolet light. The ultraviolet light clears its contents, making it possible to reprogram the memory.

Question 36.
Write note on EEPROM.
Answer:
Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory is a special type of PROM that can be erased by exposing it to an electrical charge. EEPROM is slower in performance.

Question 37.
Write about cache memory.
Answer:
The cache memory is a very high-speed and expensive memory, which is used to speed up the memory retrieval process.

Question 38.
What is access time?
Answer:
It refers to how quickly the memory can respond to a read/write request.

Question 39.
Draw a diagram to indicate the arrangement of cache memory between the CPU and the main memory.
Answer:
Cache Memory Arrangement

Question 40.
What is the purpose of using secondary storage devices?
Answer:
To store data and programs permanently, secondary storage devices are used.

Question 41.
Write about Hard disk.
Answer:
Hard disk is a magnetic disk on which you can store data. The hard disk has the stacked arrangement of disks accessed by a pair of heads for each of the disks. The hard disks come with a single or double-sided disk.

Question 42.
Write note on serial port.
Answer:
Serial Port : To connect the external devices, found in old computers.

Question 43.
Write note on parallel port.
Answer:
Parallel Port: To connect the printers, found in old computers.

Question 44.
Write note on VGA Connector.
Answer:
VGA Connector: To connect a monitor or any display device like an LCD projector.

Question 45.
Write about Audio Plugs.
Answer:
Audio Plugs: To connect sound speakers, microphones, and headphones.

Question 46.
Write about PS/2 port.
Answer:
PS/2 Port: To connect mouse and keyboard to PC.

Question 47.
Write about SCSI port.
Answer:
SCSI Port: To connect the hard disk drives and network connectors.

Question 48.
Justify the name of the Blu-Ray disc.
Answer:
Blu-ray uses a blue-violet laser to write. Hence, it is called as Blu-Ray.

Question 49.
How external devices are connected to the CPU?
Answer:
The external devices can be connected to the ports and interfaces.

Part III

Explain in brief.

Question 1.
What is memory?
Answer:
A memory is just like a human brain. It is used to store data and instructions. Computer memory is the storage space in the computer, where data and instructions are stored.

Question 2.
Explain how Microprocessors interconnecting with other devices.
Answer:
The microprocessor is able to communicate with the memory units and the Input / Output devices as shown in the following Figure.

The system bus is a bunch of wires which is the collection of the address bus, data bus, and control bus that serves as communication channels between the Microprocessor and other devices.

Question 3.
Draw a diagram to represent the content of MDR and the word after the READ operation.
Answer:

Question 4.
What is a control unit?
Answer:
Control unit: To control the overall operations of the computer through signals.

Question 5.
Write a note on Main Memory.
Answer:
The main memory is otherwise called as Random Access Memory. This is available in computers in the form of Integrated Circuits (ICs). It is the place in a computer where the Operating System, Application Programs and the data in current use are kept temporarily so that they can be accessed by the computer’s processor.

RAM is a volatile memory, which means that the information stored in it is not permanent. As soon as the power is turned off, whatever data that resides in RAM is lost. It allows both read and write operations.

Question 6.
Compare Bit and Byte.
Answer:
Bit:
The smallest unit of information that can be stored in the memory is called as a bit. 0 or 1 represents a bit. Bit stands for Binary Digit.

Byte;
The memory can be accessed by a collection of 8 bits which is called as a byte.

Question 7.
What is the impact of cache memory?
Answer:
Without cache memory, every time the CPU requests the data, it has to be fetched from the main memory which will consume more time. The idea of Introducing a cache is that, this extremely fast memory would store data that is frequently accessed and if possible, the data that is closer to it. This helps to achieve a fast response time.

Question 8.
Write about the USB port.
Answer:
USB Ports: To connect external devices like cameras, scanners, mobile phones, external hard disks, and printers to the computer.

USB 3.0 is the third major version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) standard to connect computers with other electronic gadgets. USB 3.0 can transfer data up to 5 Gigabytes/second.
USB 3.1 and USB 3.2 are also released.

Question 9.
Explain about HDMX.
Answer:
High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI)
High-Definition Multimedia Interface is an audio/ video interface which transfers the uncompressed video and audio data from a video controller to a compatible computer monitor, LCD projector, digital television, etc.

Question 10.
Draw the diagram of Ports and Interfaces.
Answer:

Part IV

Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain the ports and interfaces.
Answer:
Ports and Interfaces: The Motherboard of a computer has many I/O sockets that are connected to the ports and interfaces found on the rear side of a computer. The external devices can be connected to the ports and interfaces. The various types of ports are given below:

Serial Port: To connect the external devices, found in old computers.

Parallel Port: To connect the printers, found in old computers.

USB Ports: To connect external devices like cameras, scanners, mobile phones, external, hard disks and printers to the computer. USB 3.0 is the third major version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) standard to connect computers with other electronic gadgets. USB 3.0 can transfer data up to 5 Gigabytes/second. USB 3.1 and USB 3.2 are also released.

SCSI Port: To connect the hard disk drives and network connectors.

VGA Connector: To connect a monitor or any display device like an LCD projector.

Audio plugs: To connect sound speakers, microphone, and headphones

PS/2 Port: To connect mouse and keyboard to PC.

High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI): High Definition Multimedia Interface is an audio/video interface which transfers the uncompressed video and audio data from a video controller to a compatible computer monitor, LCD projector, digital television.

Question 2.
Explain Flash memory in detail.
Answer:
Flash memory is an electronic (solid-state) non-volatile computer storage medium that can be electrically erased and reprogrammed. They are either EEPROM or EPROM. Examples for Flash memories are pendrives, memory cards etc.

Flash memories can be used in personal computers, Personal Digital Assistants (PDA), digital audio players, digital cameras and mobile phones. Flash memory offers fast access times.
The time taken to read or write a character in memory is called access time. The capacity of the flash memories vary from 1 Gigabytes (GB) to 2 Terabytes (TB).

Question 3.
Explain various types of microprocessors.
Answer:
Microprocessors can be classified based on the following criteria:

1. The width of data that can be processed
2. The instruction set

Classification of Microprocessors based on the Data Width
Depending on the data width, microprocessors can process instructions. The microprocessors can be classified as follows:

1. 8-bit microprocessor
2. 16-bit microprocessor
3. 32-bit microprocessor
4. 64-bit microprocessor

Classification of Microprocessors based on Instruction Set:
The size of the instruction set is another important consideration while categorizing microprocessors. Initially, microprocessors had very small instruction sets because complex hardware was expensive as well as difficult to build. As technology had developed to overcome these issues, more and more complex instructions were added to increase the functionality of microprocessors. Let us learn more about the two types of microprocessors based on their instruction sets.

Reduced Instruction Set Computers (RISC):
RISC stands for Reduced Instruction Set Computers. They have a small set of highly optimized instructions. Complex instructions are also implemented using simple instructions, thus reducing the size of the instruction set.
Examples of RISC processors are Pentium IV, Intel P6, AMD K6, and K7.

Complex Instruction Set Computers (CISC):
CISC stands for Complex Instruction Set Computers. They support hundreds of instructions. Computers supporting CISC can accomplish a wide variety of tasks, making them ideal for personal computers.
Examples of CISC processors are Intel 386 & 486, Pentium, Pentium II and III, and Motorola 68000.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 15 Insurance Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 15 Insurance

11th Commerce Guide Insurance Text Book Back Questions and Answers

EXERCISE

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The basic principle of insurance is …………………………………..
a) Insurable Interest
b) Co-Operation
c) Subrogation
d) Proximatecausa
Answer:
a) Insurable Interest

Question 2.
……………….. is not a type of general insurance
a) Marine Insurance
b) Life Insurance
c) Fidelity Insurance
d) Fire Insurance
Answer:
b) Life Insurance

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a function of insurance?
a) Lending Funds
b) Risk sharing
c) Capital formation
d) Protection of life
Answer:
d) Protection of life

Question 4.
Which of the following is not applicable insurance contract?
a) Unilateral contract
b) Conditional contract
c) Indemnity contract
d) Inter-personal contract
Answer:
c) Indemnity contract

Question 5.
Which one of the following is a type of marine insurance?
a) Money back
b) Mediclaim
c) Hull insurance
d) Corgo insurance
Answer:
d) Corgo insurance

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
List any five important types of policies.
Answer:

1. Life Insurance
2. General Insurance
3. Fire Insurance
4. Marine Insurance
5. Health Insurance

Question 2.
What is health insurance?
Answer:
A health insurance policy is a contract between an insurer and an individual or group, in which the insurer agrees to provide specified health insurance at an agreed-upon premium. It provides risk coverage against unforeseen health expenditures that may result in financial hardship.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Insurance.
Answer:
According to John Merge, is a plan by themselves which large number of people associate and transfer to the shoulders of all, the risk that attacks to individuals”

Question 2.
Give the meaning of crop insurance.
Answer:
This policy is to provide financial support to farmers in case of crop failure due to drought or flood. It generally covers all risks of loss or damages relating to the production of rice, wheat, millets, oilseeds and pulses etc.

Question 3.
Write a note on IRDAI.
Answer:
IRDAI – Insurance Regulatory Development and Authority is the statutory, independent, and apex body that governs and supervises the Insurance Industry in India. It was constituted in 2000 by the Parliament of India Act called IRDAI Act, 1999. Presently IRDAI headquarters is in Hyderabad.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the various types of Insurance
Answer:
The insurance covers different types of risks. All contracts of insurance can be broadly classified as follows:
Life Insurance:
Life Insurance may be defined as a contract in which the insurance company called insurer undertakes to ensure the life of a person called assured in exchange for a sum of money called a premium which may be paid in one lump sum or monthly, quarterly, half-yearly, or yearly and promises to pay a certain sum of money either on the death of the assured or on expiry of a certain period.

Non – Life Insurance:
It refers to insurance not related to humans but related to properties.

Fire Insurance:
Fire insurance is a contract whereby the insurer, in consideration of the premium paid, undertakes to make good any loss or damage caused by a fire during a specified period upto the amount specified in the policy. an interest in the preservation of the thing or life insured so that they will suffer financially on the happening of the event against which they are insured.

Marine Insurance:
Marine insurance is a contract of insurance under which the insurer undertakes to indemnify the insured in the manner and to the extent thereby agreed against marine losses. The insured pays the premium in consideration of the insurer’s (underwriter’s) guarantee to make good the losses arising from marine perils or perils of the sea.

Health insurance:
Health insurance policy is a contract between an insurer and an individual or group, in which the insurer agrees to provide specified health insurance at an agreed upon price (premium).Disability resulting from illness or accident may be peril to family because it not only cuts off income but also creates large medical expenses. Health insurance is taken as safeguard against rising medical costs. It provides risk coverage against unforeseen health expenditure that may result in financial hardship.

Miselleaneous Insurance:
It includes the insurance which are made on the following terms:
Motor vehicle Insurance, Burglary Insurance, Crop Insurance, Sports Insurance, Amartya Sen Siksha Yoj ana,
Rajeswari Mahila Kalyan Bima Yojana are the miscellaneous Insurance.

Question 2.
Explain the principles of insurance.
Answer:
1. Utmost Good Faith:
According to this principle, both insurer and insured should enter into a contract in good faith. Insured should provide all the information that impacts the subject matter. The insurer should provide all the details regarding the insurance contract.

2. Insurable Interest:
The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance. Insurable interest means some pecuniary interest in the subject matter of the insurance contract.

3. Indemnity:
Indemnity means security or compensation against loss or damages. In insurance, the insured would be compensated with the amount equivalent to the actual loss and not the amount exceeding the loss. This principle ensures that the insured does not make any profit out of the insurance. This principle of indemnity is applicable to property insurance alone.

4. Causa Proxima:
The word ‘Causa Proxima’ means ‘nearest cause’. According to this principle, when the loss is the result of two or more causes, the proximate cause, i.e. the direct. The direct, the most dominant, and most effective cause of a loss should be taken into consideration. The insurance company is not liable for the remote cause.

5. Contribution:
The same subject matter may be insured with more than one insurer then it is known as ‘Double Insurance’. In such a case, the insurance claim to be paid to the insured must be shared on contributed by all insurers in proportion to the sum assured by each one of them.

6. Subrogation:
Subrogation means ‘stepping the shoes on others’. According to this principle, once the claim of the insured has been settled, the ownership right of the subject matter of insurance passes on to the insurer.

7. Mitigation:
In case of a mishap, the insured must take off all possible steps to reduce or mitigate the loss or damage to the subject matter of insurance.

Question 3.
Discuss the causes of risk.
Answer:
Business risk arises due to a variety of causes which are classified as follows:
1. Natural Causes:
Human beings have little control over natural calamities like floods, earthquakes, lightning, heavy rains, famine, etc. These result in heavy loss of life, property, and income in the business.

2. Human Causes:
Human causes include such unexpected events as dishonesty, carelessness or negligence of employees, stoppage of work due to power failure, strikes, riots, management inefficiency, etc.

3. Economic Causes:
These include uncertainties relating to demand for goods, competition, price, collection of dues from customers, change of technology or method of production, etc. Financial problems like rising interest rates for borrowing, levy of higher taxes, etc., also come under this type of causes as they result in the higher unexpected cost of operation of the business.

4. Other Causes:
These are unforeseen events like political disturbances, mechanical failures such as the bursting of the boiler, fluctuations in exchange rates, etc. which lead to the possibility of business risks.

11th Commerce Guide Insurance Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
Presently IRDAI headquarters is in ……………..
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Chennai
(c) Mumbai
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(a) Hyderabad

Question 2.
………………….. is the basic principle behind every Insurance contract.
a) Co-operation
b) Consolidation
c) Co-Current
d) Convenience
Answer:
b) Consolidation

Question 3.
When a ship ¡s insured against any type of danger it is known as ……………..
a) Cargo Insurance
b) Marine Insurance
c) Hull Insurance
d) Voyage Insurance
Answer:
c) Hull Insurance

Question 4.
Insurance Act was established in the year…………
a) 1938
b) 1966
c) 1983
d) 1984
Answer:
d) 1984

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What do you mean by Cargo Insurance?
Answer:
When a marine insurance policy is taken by the cargo owner to be compensated for loss caused to his cargo during the journey, it is known as cargo insurance.

Question 2.
What do you mean by surrender value?
Answer:
The surreñder value is the cash value of the policy which is payable to the policyholder if he decides to terminate the contract.

III. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are the objectives of IRDAI?
Answer:

1. To promote the interest and rights of policyholders.
2. To promote and ensure the growth of the Insurance Industry.
3. To ensure speedy settlement of genuine claims and to prevent frauds and malpractices.

Question 2.
What is Annuity Policy?
Answer:
Under this policy, the assured sum or policy money is payable in monthly or annual installments after the assured attains a certain age. The policy is useful to those who prefer a regular income after a certain age.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Amartya Sen Siksha Yojana:
Answer:
The General Insurance Company offers to secure the education of dependent children under this policy. If the assured parent/legal guardian goes through any bodily injury resulting solely and directly from an accident due to external, violent, and visible means and if such injury shall within twelve calendar months of its occurrences be the only direct cause of his/ her death or permanent total disablement, the insurer shall indemnify the insured student in respect of all covered expenses to be incurred from the date of occurrence of such accident till the expiry of policy or completion of the duration of covered course whichever occurs first and such indemnity shall not exceed the sum assured as stated in the policy schedule.

IV. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Briefly explain the claim settlement.
Answer:
There are two ways by which health insurance claims are settled:
Cashless:
The claim amount needs to be approved by the TPA and the hospital settles the amount with the TPA. (TPA or Third Party Administrator is a middleman between Insurer and the Customer)

Reimbursement:
The insured avails himself or herself of the treatment and settles the hospital bills directly at the hospital. The insured can claim reimbursement later on by submitting relevant bills/documents for the claimed amount to the TPA.

Question 2.
Briefly explain the Duties and Function of IRDAI:
Answer:
Section 14 of IRDAI Act, 1999 lays down the duties and functions of IRDAI:

• It issues the registration certificates to Insurance Companies and regulates them.
• It provides a license of insurance to intermediaries such as agents and brokers after specifying the required qualifications and set norms/code of conduct for them.
• It promotes and regulates the professional organizations related to the insurance business to promote efficiency in the insurance sector.
• It regulates and supervises the premium rates and terms of insurance covers.
• It specifies the conditions and manners, according to which the insurance companies and other intermediaries have to make their financial reports.
• It regulates the investment of policyholder’s funds by insurance companies.
• It also ensures the maintenance of solvency margin (the company’s ability to pay out claims) by insurance companies.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 14 Transportation Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 14 Transportation

11th Commerce Guide Transportation Text Book Back Questions and Answers

EXERCISE

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Transport removes the hindrance of
a. Time
b. Place
c. Person
d. Knowledge
Answer:
b. Place

Question 2.
Air consignment note is prepared in ……………….. forms
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
Answer:
c. Three

Question 3.
…………………… is a document acknowledging the receipt of goods by a carrier.
a. Way bill
b. Consignment note
c. Charter
d. Bill of lading
Answer:
a. Way bill

Question 4.
Which is the fastest means of transport?
a. Rail
b. Road
c. Sea
d. Air
Answer:
a. Rail

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define transport.
Answer:
According to KK Saxena, “the transport system acts with reference to the area it serves in the same way as a candle does in a dark room”.

Question 2.
State any two services rendered by transport.
Answer:

• It is a means to carry men and material from one place to another place.
• It removes the hindrance of place.

Question 3.
Write any two advantages of water transport.
Answer:

1. It is considered the cheapest mode of transport among the other modes of transport.
2. It is most suitable for heavy loads.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is a bill of lading?
Answer:
It is a document containing the terms and conditions of the contract of carriage. It is issued by the shipping company and signed by the captain of the ship. It acknowledges the receipt of the goods described in it. It is a document of title of goods. If the condition of the packages is good, a clean bill of lading is issued. If some of the packages are found damaged, a foul or clause bill of lading is issued.

Question 2.
What is the charter party?
Answer:
When goods are to be consigned in large quantity, it is advantageous to hire the whole or substantial part of the ship. The document through which this contract is made is known as ‘Charter Party’ may also be known as ‘Voyage Charter’ or ‘Time Charter’. The person who hires the ship is known as ‘Charter’. The charter becomes responsible to the third parties for the acts of the master and crew of the ship.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain different types of transport.
Answer:
Types of transport:

• Land Transport
• Water transport
• Air Transport

(a) Land Transport:
Transport of people and goods by land vehicles is known as Land transport. It is also called ‘Surface Transport’.

1. Pack Animals: Animals like horse, mule, donkey, camel, elephant, etc., are used for carrying small loads in backward areas, hilly traces, forest regions, and deserts known as pack animals.
2. Bullock Carts: It constitutes the predominant form of rural road transport in India for goods traffic and to some extent for passengers’ traffic.
3. Road Transport: Road Transport is one of the most promising and potent means suitable for short and medium distances.
4. Motor lorries and Buses: From the dawn of civilization, people have been endeavoring to form roads and use wheeled vehicles to facilitate the transport of men and materials.
5. Tramways: It made their appearance in the 19th century as a form of transport suitable for big cities. Tramways were initially horse-drawn later steam – power and now electrically operated.
6. Railway Transport: The invention of the steam engine by James Watt, revolutionized the mode of transport all over the world.
7. Recent Trends in Transport: Metro Rail, Monorail, Bullet train, Pipeline Transport, Conveyor Transport, Ropeway transport, and Hyperloop transport.

(b) Water Transport:
“Water is a free gift of nature’. Human civilization through the gradual application of science and technology has utilized water resources for economic, political, and military activities.

1. Inland Waterways: Inland Waterways comprise of rivers, canals, and lakes. It is also known as internal water transport.
2. Ocean or Sea Transport: Ocean transport has been playing a significant role in the development of economic, social, and cultural relations among countries of the world.

(a) Coastal shipping
(b) Overseas shipping

• Liner
• Tramps

(c) Air Transport:
Air transport is the fastest and the costliest mode of transport. Commercial air transport is now one of the most prominent modes of overseas transport. Domestic and International flights are air travel.

Question 2.
Discuss the advantages of transport:
Answer:
It creates a place and time utility.
It increases the efficiency of production:
The object of production is consumption. Effective transport system creates time and place utilities and thereby influences the demand for goods and the value of goods. Thus, transport makes production efficient and purposeful.

It stimulates wants by increasing the quantity and variety of consumer goods:
It helps in getting commodities, which cannot be had or produced in a region due to unsuitable natural conditions. Without adequate and effective transport, goods cannot be had either in the quantities or varieties required in a complex economy.

It develops and expands the market:
The primary function of transport is to enable the physical distribution of goods at the global level. The distribution of goods must take place easily, economically, and speedily. It provides the chance of expanding the national land international market.

It helps in price stability by distributing goods all over the country:
It aids to economic growth The movement of raw materials, fuel, labour, and finished products and the mobility of capital and technical know-how, transport playing a remarkable role in the growth of all industries from agriculture to manufacturing.

It helps in specialization and mass production
Specialization means the division of complex process of production into a number of separate processes so that each person or group specializes in each and every process. It has been extended to the international level too.

It encourages innovations in product production and designing
It provides plenty of opportunities for the producers to produce their product in innovative and creative ways, to catch up with the wider market, and reap more profit.

11th Commerce Guide Transportation Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which one is not land transport?
(a) Pack animals
(b) Bullock cart
(c) Tramways
(d) Liner
Answer:
(d) Liner

Question 2.
……………………. is a document prepared by the consignor, handed over to the carrier of goods, while transporting good through airways.
a) Promissory Note
b) Bill of Lading
c) Consignment Note
d) Airway Note
Answer:
d) Airway Note

Question 3.
Who is the inventor of the steam engine?
(a) James Watt
(b) Haney
(c) Wheeler
(d) Thomas
Answer:
(a) James Watt

Question 4.
…………………… is an acknowledgment of receipt of goods for transport by the carrier.
a) Carrier bill
b) Receipt
c) Bill of Lading
d) Waybill
Answer:
d) Waybill

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write any two disadvantages of air transport.
Answer:

1. It is a very costly mode of transport. The rates and fares charged by which are beyond the reach of common people.
2. Aircraft are not quite suitable for carrying heavy loads and weights.

Question 2.
What are Pack Animals?
Answer:
Animals like horses, mules, donkey camel, and elephants, etc., are used for carrying small loads in backward areas, hilly tracks, forest regions, and deserts known as pack animals.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Ropeway transport?
Answer:
A Ropeway is another means of transport in naval lifting devices. It can be operated in a place where road construction is impractical and costly.

Question 4.
What is Monorail?
Answer:
A monorail is like a train, but instead of having two sets of wheels that balances on a railway track, the monorail is balanced on top of one rail. Monorails are often used to transport people around large cities.

Question 5.
What are Domestic Flights?
Answer:
Flights from one point to another within the same country are called domestic flights.

Question 6.
What are International Flights?
Answer:
Flights from a point in one country to a point in a different country are known as international flights.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by a common carrier?
Answer:
A common carrier is a person who is engaged in the business of carrying goods for hire indiscriminately for all persons. There are organizations transporting goods on designated routes according to a fixed regular schedule, offering to transport goods for hire for all people without discrimination.

Question 2.
Write a note on Indian Railway.
Answer:
Indian Railway is the largest Railway Organization in the world. The Indian Nationwide network, the 4th longest in the world, is owned and operated by State-Owned Indian Railways and includes an operating route length of more than 65,000 Kms. The network carried about 8 billion passengers (the highest in the world) in 2013.

Question 3.
What is the difference between International Shipping and Overseas Shipping?
Answer:
International shipping can be between countries that are connected by land. For Example, Foreign trade between India and Bangladesh. Overseas shipping means the package has to cross the ocean. For Example, International trade between India and South Africa.

Question 4.
Write a note on ‘Air Rescuers’.
Answer:
“Air Rescuers” was established in the year 1999 for superior patient transfer through Air Ambulance and an elevated standard of care and management through Air Ambulance India. The Air Ambulance services are available in Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad, and Chennai.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Common Carrier?
Answer:
A common carrier is a person who is engaged in the business of carrying goods for hire indiscriminately for all persons.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are all the advantages of Railway Transport?
Answer:

• Railways are well suited for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances.
• It can provide long-distance travel throughout the day and night with unbroken services.
• It can provide better production and safety to the goods than motor transport. The goods generally carried in closed wagons are not exposed to sun, rain, etc.
• Though the initial investment is large, in the long run, the operating expenses will be very low in railways and it will prove a cheaper mode of transport. It requires less time than motor transport for carrying goods over long distances with greater speed.
• It has a regular schedule of timing and is available throughout the year. 6. It provides unaffected services whether rainy or shinny weather conditions.

Question 2.
Write a note on Inland Waterways.
Answer:
Inland Waterways comprise rivers, canals, and lakes. It is also known as internal water transport. Rivers that are naturally navigable are called natural waterways. Canals and canalized rivers belong to the category of ‘Artificial Waterways’. Generally, small boats and steamers are operated on rivers to transport people and goods. Where rivers are deep enough, large ships can also play on them. Canals are manmade waterways, constructed for the twin purposes of navigation and irrigation.

Question 3.
Explain the advantages of Inland Waterways?
Answer:
The following are the advantages of inland Waterways:

• It is considered the cheapest mode of transport among the other modes of transport.
• It carries goods smoothly due to the absence of shaking and jolting during transit. It is eminently suitable for the carriage of fragile goods like glassware, earthware, etc., without causing damage.
• It is most suitable for heavy loads.
• There is lesser pollution in water transport.
• Iñitial investment in river services, as well as expenditure on their maintenance, is much lesser as compared to road and rail transport.

Question 4.
Explain the types of Ocean Transport:
Answer:
Ocean transport may be divided into two broad categories, a) Coastal shipping constitutes an important means of transport in all countries having a long coastline. It is a cheap means of transport for the movement of bulky cargoes like coal, iron ore, etc.

to domestic ports of the country. Usually, The coastal shipping trade of a country is reserved for national shipping. In India, the Coastal shipping trade is now exclusively reserved for Indian ships. b) Overseas shipping It means the passengers and goods have to cross the ocean. For Example India export goods to America.

Question 5.
Explain the classification of Ocean-Going Ships:
Answer:
Ocean-going ships may also be divided into two, namely Liners and Tramps:
Liner:
An ocean liner is a passenger ship primarily used as a form of transportation across seas or oceans. Liners may also carry cargo or mail, and may sometimes be used for other purposes (e.g., for pleasure cruises or as hospitals ship).

They sail to schedule, whether they have a full load or not. They follow defined routes with fixed places and times of call. The regularity of service, god sped and luxurious facilities to passengers are the specialties of liners. There are two types of liners, namely, Passenger liners and Cargo liners.

Tramps:
Tramps are essentially cargo vessels. See the picture above. They have no set routes. They do not follow any timetable. They sail only when they get sufficient load. They sail at any time and carry cargoes for almost any ports.

Question 6.
What are all the major types of commercial ships?
Answer:

• General cargo ship
• Oil vessels
• Bulk carriers
• Passengers ships
• Container ships
• Ferryboats
• Auto carrier
• Tow and tug boats
• Tankers
• Specialized ships
• Fishing vessels

Question 7.
Explain any two documents used in Transportation:
Answer:
Way Bill:
The waybill is an acknowledgment of receipt of goods for transport by the carrier. The carrier, accepting goods for transport, issues waybills in the name of the consignors or consignees. It serves as evidence of the contract of transport. It is also a document of title of goods. The ownership of goods represented by a waybill can be transferred by endorsement and delivery of the waybill. If a waybill lost, the consignee will be allowed to clear the goods from the carrier after he executes an indemnity bond.

Railway Receipt:
A railway Receipt is an acknowledgment of receipt of goods by the railway for transporting. It serves as a document of title of goods, viz., it shows the title of its holders of the goods. It may be issued in the name of the consignor or consignee. Only on presentation of the railway receipt, the railways will deliver the goods. If’railway receipt is lost, the consignees can obtain the goods from the railway by executing an indemnity bond. Ownership of the goods can be transferred by endorsement and delivery of the receipt.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Pdf Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Work, Energy and Power

11th Physics Guide Work, Energy and Power Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – I:
I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
A uniform force of (2\(\hat{i}\) + \(\hat{j}\)) N acts on a particle of mass 1 kg. The particle displaces from position (3\(\hat{j}\) + \(\hat{k}\) )m to (5\(\hat{i}\) + 3\(\hat{j}\)) m. The work done by the force on the particle is _______. (AIPMT Model 2013)
a) 9 J
b) 6 J
c) 10 J
d) 12 J
Answer:
c) 10 J

Question 2.
A ball of mass 1 kg and another of mass 2 kg are dropped from a tall building whose height is 80 m. After, a fall of 40 m each towards Earth, their respective kinetic energies will be in the ratio of _______. (AIPMT model 2004)
a) \(\sqrt{2}\) : 1
b) 1 : \(\sqrt{2}\)
c) 2 : 1
d) 1 : 2
Answer:
d) 1 : 2

Question 3.
A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity 20 m s^-1. It momentarily comes to rest after attaining a height of 18 m. How much energy is lost due to air friction? (Take g= 10ms^-2 ) (AIPMT 2009)
a) 20 J
b) 30 J
c) 40 J
d) 10 J
Answer:
a) 20 J

Question 4.
An engine pumps water continuously through a hose. Water leaves the hose with a velocity v and m is the mass per unit length of the water of the jet. What is the rate at which kinetic energy is imparted to water? (AIPMT 2009)
a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv³
b) mv³
c) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\)mv²
d) \(\frac { 5 }{ 2 }\) mv²
Answer:
a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv³

Question 5.
A body of mass 4 m is lying in xy-plane at rest. It suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two pieces each of mass m move perpendicular to each other with equal speed v. The total kinetic energy generated due to explosion is _______. (AIPMT 2014)
a) mv²
b) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\)mv²
c) 2 mv²
d) 4 mv²
Answer:
b) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\)mv²

Question 6.
The potential energy of a system increases, if work is done _______.
a) by the system against a conservative force
b) by the system against a non-conservative force
c) upon the system by a conservative force
d) upon the system by a non-conservative force
Answer:
a) by the system against a conservative force

Question 7.
What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it can complete the loop?
a) \(\sqrt{2gR}\)
b) \(\sqrt{3gR}\)
c) \(\sqrt{5gR}\)
d) \(\sqrt{gR}\)
Answer:
c) \(\sqrt{5gR}\)

Question 8.
The work done by the conservative force for a closed path is _______.
a) always negative
b) zero
c) always positive
d) not defined
Answer:
b) zero

Question 9.
If the linear momentum of the object is increased by 0.1%, then the kinetic energy is increased by _______.
a) 0.1 %
b) 0.2%
c) 0.4%
d) 0.01%
Answer:
b) 0.2%

Question 10.
If the potential energy of the particle is α – \(\frac { β }{ 2 }\)x², then force experienced by the particle is _______.
a) F = \(\frac { β }{ 2 }\)x²
b) F = βx
c) F = – βx
d) F = – \(\frac { β }{ 2 }\)x²
Answer:
c) F = – βx

Question 11.
A wind-powered generator converts wind energy into electric energy. Assume that the generator converts a fixed fraction of the wind energy intercepted by its blades into electrical energy. For wind speed v, the electrical power output will be proportional to
a) v
b) v²
c) v³
d) v⁴
Answer:
c) v³

Question 12.
Two equal masses m₁ and m₂ are moving along the same straight line with velocities 5ms^-1 and -9ms^-1 respectively. If the collision is elastic, then calculate the velocities after the collision of m₁ and m₂, respectively _______.
a) -4ms^-1 and 10 ms^-1
b) 10ms^-1 and 0 ms^-1
c) -9ms^-1 and 5 ms^-1
d) 5 ms^-1 and 1 ms^-1
Answer:
c) -9ms^-1 and 5 ms^-1

Question 13.
A particle is placed at the origin and a force F= kx is acting on it (where k is a positive constant). If U(0)=0, the graph of U(x) versus x will be (where U is the potential energy function) (IIT 2004)

Answer:

Question 14.
A particle which is constrained to move along x-axis, is subjected to a force in the same direction which varies with the distance x of the particle from the origin as F(x) = – kx + ax³. Here, k and a are positive constants. For x > 0, the functional form of the potential energy U(x) of the particle is _______. (IIT 2002)

Answer:

Question 15.
A spring of force constant k is cut into two pieces such that one piece is double the length of the other. Then, the long piece will have a force constant of _______.
a) \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\) k
b) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\) k
c) 3k
d) 6k
Answer:
b) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\) k

II. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain how the definition of work in physics is different from general perception.
Answer:
The term work is used in diverse contexts in daily life. It refers to both physical as well as mental work. In fact, any activity can generally be called work. But in Physics, the term work is treated as a physical quantity with a precise definition. Work is said to be done by the force when the force applied to a body displaces it.

Question 2.
Write the various types of potential energy. Explain the formulate.
Answer:
The energy possessed by the body by virtue of its position is called potential energy.
The various types of potential energies are
1) Gravitational potential energy :
The energy possessed by the body due gravitational force gives gravitational potential energy
u = mgh.
where
u → Gravitational potential energy
m → Mass of the body
g → acceleration due to gravity
h → displacement produced

2) Elastic potential energy :
The energy due to spring force and other similar forces give rise to elastic potential energy
u = 1/2² Where
U → elastic potential energy
K → spring constant
x → elongation produced

3) Electrostatic potential energy
The energy due to electro static force on charges give rise to electrostatic potential energy
U = K \(\frac{\mathrm{q}_{1} \mathrm{q}_{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\) where
K = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}\) Constant
q₁, q₂ – magnitude of charges
d – displacement made by any one of the charges or by both charges.

Question 3.
Write the differences between conservative and non-conservative forces. Give two examples each.
Answer:
Conservative forces:
A Force is said to be a conservative force if work done by or against the force in moving the body depends only on the initial and final positions of the body and net depend on the nature of the path followed between the two positions
Examples:
Elastic spring force, electrostatic force, magnetic force, gravitational force.

Non-conservative force:
A force is said to be non-conservative if the work done by or against the force in moving a body depends on the path between initial and final positions. This means the value of work-done is different in different paths.

Examples:

1. Frictional forces are non-conservative forces as the work done against friction depends on the length of the path moved by the body.
2. The force due to air resistance, viscous forces are also non conservative forces because work done by or against these forces depends upon the velocity of motion.

Question 4.
Explain the characteristics of elastic and inelastic collision Elastic collision:
Answer:
In a collision, the total K.E of the bodies before collision is equal to the total K.E. of the bodies after collision, then it is an elastic collision.
Total K.E. before collision = Total K.E. after collision

Inelastic collision:
In a collision, the total K.E. of the bodies before collision is not equal to total K.E. after collision then it is called as inelastic collision Even though K.E. is not conserved but total energy is conserved. After collision of the two colliding bodies stick together such collision are called as perfectly inelastic a plastic collision.

Question 5.
Define the following
Answer:
a) Coefficient of restitution
b) Power
c) Law of conservation of energy
d) Loss of Kinetic energy in inelastic collision
Answer:
a) Coefficient of restitution :
Coefficient of restitution defined as the ratio of velocity of separation (after collision) to velocity of approach (before collision)
The coefficient of restitution =

b) Power :
Power is defined as the rate of work done or energy delivered
P = \(\frac { W }{ t }\) = \(\vec{F}\).\(\vec{V}\)

c) Law of conservation of energy :
Law states that “Energy can neither be created nor destroyed. It may be transformed from one to another but the total energy of an isolated system remains constant”

d) Loss of kinetic energy in inelastic collision
The difference in total K.E. before collision and total K.E. after collision’s is equal to loss of K.E. during collision.
∆Q = Total K.E. before collision – Total K.E. after collision.

III. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain with graphs the difference between work done by a constant force and by a variable force.
Answer:
a) Work done by a constant force:
When a constant force ‘F’ acts on a body the small work done (dw) by the force in producing a small displacement ‘dr’ is given by dw = (F cos θ) dr.
The total W.D in producing a displacement from initial position r_i, to final position r_f is,

The graphical representation of the W.D by constant force is shown below

The area under the graph shows the work done by constant force.

b) Work done by a variable force :
When the component of a variable force F acts on a body, the small work done (dw) by the force in producing a small displacement dr is given by dw = (F cos θ) dr [ Here F cos 0 is the component of variable forces]. where F and 0 one variables To total W.D for the displacement from initial position r_i to final position r_f is given by the relation.

A graphical representation of the work done by a variable force is shown below. The area under the graph gives the W.D. by variable force.

Question 2.
State and explain work energy principle Mention any three examples for it.
Answer:
Law:
Work done by a force on the body changes the kinetic energy of the body, ie change in K.E. = work done. This is called work energy theorem.
Proof:
Consider a body of mass m at rest on a frictionless horizontal surface. The work done (W) done by the constant force (F) for displacement (S) in the same direction is W = FS → (1)
The constant force is given by F = ma → (2)
We know that v² = u² + 2a

W = 1/2 mv² – 1/2 mu²
Here the term 1/2 mv² indicates K.E.
1/2 mv² – 1/2mu² = ∆K (change in K.E.)
∵ W = ∆K
Hence proved

Examples:

1. A moving hammer drives a nail into the wood. Being in motion, it has K.E. or ability to do work.
2. A fast moving stone can break a windowpane. The stone has K.E. due to its motion and so it can do work.
3. The kinetic energy of air is used to run windmills.

Question 3.
Arrive at an expression for power and velocity. Give some examples for the same.
Answer:
Power is defined as the rate of work done or energy delivered. P = \(\frac { w }{ t }\)
Relation between power and velocity:
The work done by a force F for a displacement \(\overline{dr}\) is dw = \(\overline{F}\).\(\overline{dr}\)

Examples:
1) A 100 Watt bulb consumes 100 joule of electrical energy in one second
2) Electrical motor supply enough power to bring water from a bore well.

Question 4.
Arrive at an expression for elastic collision in one dimension and discuss various cases.
Answer:

Consider two elastic bodies of masses m₁ and m₂ moving in a straight line (along positive direction) on a frictionless horizontal surface. In order to have collision assume m₁ moves faster than m₂.

Let U₁ and ₁ be the initial velocities of m₁ and m₂ respectively. (u₁ > u₂). After collision let the masses m₁ and m₂ moves with velocities v₁ and v₂ respectively.
Incase of elastic collision both linear momentum and kinetic energies are conserved
∴ from law of conservation of linear momentum
Total momentum before (Pi)
collision = Total momentum afer collision (Pf)
m₁u₁ + m₂u₂ = m₁v₁ + m₂v₂ → (1)
m₁(u₁ – v₁) = m₂(v₂ – u₂ → (2)
Further
Total K.E. before collision (KE_i) = Total K.E. after collision (KE_f)

rearranging
u₁ – u₂ = – (v₁ – v₂) → (5)
From this it is dear that for any elastic collision, relative speed of two elastic bodies after the collision has the same magnitude as before collision but in opposite direction.

Rewriting the above equation for v₁ & v₁
v₁ = v₂ + u₂ – u₁ → (6)
(or)
v₂ = v₁ + u₁ – u₂ → (7)
To find velocities of v₁ & v₂
Substituting (7) in (2)
m₁(u₁ – v₁) = m₂(v₁ + u₁ – u₂ – u₂)
m₁(u₁ – v₁) = m₂(v₁ + u₁ – 2u₂)
m₁u₁ – m₁v₁ = m₂v₁ + m₂u₁ – 2m₂u₂
m₁u₁ – m₂u₁ + 2m₂u₂ = m₁v₁ + m₂v₁
u₁(m₁ – m₂) + 2m₂u₂ = v₁(m₁ + m₂)

Case 1:
When bodies have same mass is m₁ = m₂ = m

The velocities get interchanged.

Case 2:
When both bodies have same mass m₁ = m₂ = m, but second body at rest in u₂ = 0
v₁ = 0, v₂ = u₁
After collision the first body comes to rest and the second body moves with the velocity of first body.

Case 3 :
The first body very much lighter than the second body in m₁ << m₂, \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_{1}}{\mathrm{~m}_{2}}\) << 1.
the ratio \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_{1}}{\mathrm{~m}_{2}}\) = 0 and also second body at rest, (u₂ = 0)
Dividing numerator and denominator of equation 8 by m₂

Similarly dividing numerator and denominator of equation 9 by m₁

From this, the conclusion arrived is the first body which is lighter returns back (rebounds) in opposite direction with the same initial velocity as it has a negative sign. The second body since it has heavier mars continues to remain at rest even after the collision.

Case 4 :
The second body is very much lighter than the first body.
m₂ << m₁ then the ratio = 0 \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_{2}}{\mathrm{~m}_{1}}\) and also if the target is at rest ie second body at rest (u₂ = 0)
Dividing equation (8) both the numerator and denominator by m₁

This shows that the first body which is heavier continues to move with same velocity and the second body which is lighter will move with twice the initial velocity of the first body, ie lighter body is thrown away from the point of collision.

Question 5.
What is inelastic collision? In which way it is different from elastic collision mention few examples in day to day life for inelastic collision.
Answer:
In a collision, the total K.E. on the bodies before collision is not equal to the total K.E. after collision then it is called as inelastic collision, i.e
Total K.E after collision ≠ Total K.E. before collision
Whereas in case of elastic collision Total K.E. before collison is equal to total K.E after collision.
Example: Collision between two vehicles, collision between a ball and floor.

IV. Numerical Problems:

Question 1.
Calculate the work done by a force of 30N in lifting a load of 2kg to a height of 10m (g = 10ms^-2)
Solution:
F = 30N
m = 2kg
s = 10 m
g = 10 ms^-2
θ = 0
W.D = ?
W.D = \(\overline{F}\).\(\overline{S}\) = FS cos θ
W.D = 30 x 10
= 300 J

Question 2.
A ball with a velocity of 5 ms^-1 impinges at an angle of 60° with the vertical on a smooth Horizontal plane. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5 find the velocity and direction after the impact.
Solution:

U₁ = 5 ms^-1
θ = 60°
e = 0.5
v = ?
Initial momentum = final momentum along the original line of m of con.
∵ Coefficient of restitution is 0.5 (less than 1) the collision is inelastic
Applying component of velocities. The x component of velocity is
u sin θ = v sin Φ → (1)
But the magnitude of y component is not same using coefficient of restitution

Question 3.
A bob of mass m is attached to one end of the rod of negligible mass and length r, the other end of which is pivoted freely at a fixed center O as shown in the figure. What initial speed must be given to the object to reach the top of the circle?. (Hint: use law of conservation of energy). Is this speed less or greater than speed obtained in the section 4.2.9?
Solution:

T.E. at lowest point (E₁) = Total energy at (E₂)
E₁ = E₂
At the lowest point potential energy = u₁ = 0
Kinetic energy = KE₁ = 1/2 mv₁²
Total energy at lowest point = E₁ = u₁ + KE₁
E₁ = 0 + 1/2 mv² → (1)
∴ E₁ = mv²₁ … (1)
At the top of circle:
Potential energy = u₂ = 2mgr
K.E energy at top = 1/2mv₂²
Total energy at highest
point = 2mgr + 1/2 mv₂² → (2)
According to law of conservation of energy E1 = E2

Question 4.
Two different unknown masses A and B collide. A is initially at rest when B has a speed V. After collision B has a speed V/2 and moves at right angles to its original direction of motion. Find the direction in which A moves after collision.
Solution:

Applying principle of conservation of momentum along x-axis

Applying principle of conservation of momentum along y-axis

Question 5.
A bullet of mass 20g strikes a pendulum of mass 5 kg. The centre of mass of the pendulum rises at a vertical distance of 10 cm. If the bullet gets embedded into the pendulum, calculate its initial speed.
Solution:

mass of bullet m₁ = 20 x 10^-3kg
mass of pendulum m₂ = 5kg
Let the speed of the bullet = u₁
∵ The pendulum at rest u₂ = 0
h = 10 x 10^-2m
Let v be the common velocity after the bullet embedded inside the bob.

This common velocity ‘v’ is the initial velocity of combined bullet and bob.
W.K.T
v² – u² = 2as
Here v = 6; u = 0, a = – g s = h

V. Conceptual Questions:

Question 1.
A spring which is initially in the unstretched condition is first stretched by a length x and again by a further length x. The work done in the first case w₁ is one-third of the work done in the second case w₂. True or false?
Answer:
True, W.D by the first case will be 1/3 of the second W.D

Question 2.
Which is conserved in inelastic collision? Total energy (or) kinetic energy?
Answer:
In inelastic collision total energy is only conserved but kinetic energy is not conserved. A part of kinetic energy is converted into some other form of energy such as sound, heat energy.
Note: The linear momentum is also conserved.

Question 3.
Is there any network done by external forces on a car moving at a constant speed along a straight road?
Answer:
Since the car is moving at a constant speed along a straight line, displacement is caused. So work in done by the force.

Question 4.
A car starts from rest and moves on a surface with uniform acceleration. Draw the graph of kinetic energy versus displacement. What information you can get from that graph?
Answer:

According to work-energy theorem change in K.E = W.D
K.E is Kept constant slope is constant

Question 5.
A charged particle moves towards another charged particle under what conditions the total momentum and the total energy of the system conserved?
Answer:
Coulomb force is acting in between the charged particles Internal force is a conservative force. If no external forces act or the work done by external forces is zero then the mechanical energy of the system and also total linear momentum also remains constant.

11th Physics Guide Work, Energy and Power Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
Thrust and linear momentum
(a) Thrust and linear momentum
(b) Work and energy
(c) Work and power
(d) Power and energy
Answer:
(b) Work and energy

Question 2.
For the surface μ = 0.4, The work done by applied force, frictional force and net force are
a) 50J, -40J, 10J
b) 50J, -20J, 10J
c) 10J, -50J, 40J
d) 50J, -40J, 20J
Answer:
a) 50J, -40J, 10J

Question 3.
The system is released from rest. Find the work done by the force if gravity during first 2 seconds of motion.

a) 80J
b) 20J
c) 40J
d) 100J
Answer:
c) 40J

Question 4.
Dimensional formula for work done is
(a) MLT^-1
(b) ML²T²
(c) M^-1L^-1T²
(d) ML²T^-2
Answer:
(d) ML²T^-2

Question 5.
The variation of force acting on a particle along x ax is is shown. The W.D by the force during the displacement x = 0 to x = 25m is _______.

a) 100J
b) 115J
c) 130J
d) 125J
Answer:
b) 115J

Question 6.
The amount of work done by centripetal force on the object moving in a circular path is
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) positive
(d) negative
Answer:
(a) zero

Question 7.
A ball of mass 200g is attached to a string 50 mm and a force F is applied as shown. The W.D by this force if the string makes an angle 60° with vertical is? [at initial and final positions speed of the ball is zero.]

a) 1J
b) 0.5J
c) 0.05J
d) 0.25J
Answer:
b) 0.5J

Question 8.
An object of mass 4kg falls from rest through a vertical distance of 20m and reaches with velocity 10ms^-1 on ground. The work done by air friction is .
a) 800J
b) – 800J
c) 600J
d) – 600J
Answer:
d) – 600J

Question 9.
If the force and displacement are perpendicular to each other, then the work done is
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) maximum
Answer:
(c) zero

Question 10.
What is the power of an engine which can lift 600kg of coal per minute from a mine 20m deep?
a) 2000 w
b) 100 w
c) 1000 w
d) 200 w
Answer:
a) 2000 w

Question 11.
If w₁, w₂ and w₃ represent the work done in moving a particle from A to B along 3 different paths 1, 2 and 3 respectively as shown in figure, in the gravitational field of a point mass m. Find the correct relation an between w₁, w₂ and w₃ _______.

a) w₁ > w₂ > w₃
b) w₁ = w₂ = w₃
c) w₁ < w₂ < w₃
d) w₂ > w₁ > w₃
Answer:
b) w₁ = w₂ = w₃

Question 12.
A position – depends force F = 7 – 2x + 3x² newton acts on a small body of mass 2kg and displacement if from x = 0 to x = 5m. The work done in Joule is _______.
a) 70
b) 270
c) 35
d) 135
Answer:
d) 135

Question 13.
The energy possessed by a body due to its motion is called as
(a) potential energy
(b) kinetic energy
(c) mechanical energy
(d) none
Answer:
(b) kinetic energy

Question 14.
According to the work-energy theorem, the work done by the net force on a particle is equal to change in its _______.
a) kinetic energy
b) potential energy
c) linear momentum
d) angular momentum
Answer:
a) kinetic energy

Question 15.
A block of 2kg is resting on a smooth surface. At what angle a force of 10N be acting on the block so that it will acquire a K.E of 10J after moving 2m _______.
a) 30°
b) 60°
c) 45°
d) 90°
Answer:
b) 60°

Question 16.
The K.E acquired by a body of mass m in travelling a certain distance starting from rest under a constant force is _______.
a) directly proportional to m
b) directly proportional to \(\sqrt{m}\)
c) inversely proportional to \(\sqrt{m}\)
d) independent of m
Answer:
b) directly proportional to \(\sqrt{m}\)

Question 17.
1-kilowatt hour is equivalent to
(a) 10^-7 J
(b) 1.6 × 10^-19 J
(c) 4.186 J
(d) 3.6 × 10^-6 J
Answer:
(d) 3.6 × 10^-6 J

Question 18.
A particle moves in a straight line with retardation proportional to displacement. Its loss of K.E in any displacement x is proportional to _______.
a) x²
b) e^x
c) x
d) log_ex
Answer:
a) x²

Question 19.
Which one of the following is not a conservative force?
a) gravitational force
b) electrostatic force between the charges
c) Magnetic force between two magnetic dipoles
d) Frictional force
Answer:
d) Frictional force

Question 20.
A spring of force constant 800 N/M has an extension of 5 cm. The work done in extending it from 5 cm to 15 cm is _______.
a) 163
b) 8J
c) 32J
d) 24J
Answer:
b) 8J

Question 21.
The kinetic energy of the body is always
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) negative
(d) positive
Answer:
(d) positive

Question 22.
A bullet moving with a speed of 150 m/s strikes a wooden plank. After passing through the plank its speed becomes 125ms^-1. Another bullet of the same mass and size strikes the plank with a speed of 90m/s. Its speed after passing through the plank would be _______.
a) 25 m/s
b) 35 m/s
c) 50 m/s
d) 70 m/s
Answer:
a) 25 m/s

Question 23.
A 2kg block slides on a horizontal floor with a speed of 4 m/s. It strikes on uncompressed spring and compresses it fill the block is motionless. The kinetic friction force is 15N and spring constant is 10⁴N/m. The spring compress by _______.
a) 5.5 cm
b) 2.5 cm
c) 11 cm
d) 8.5 cm
Answer:
a) 5.5 cm

Question 24.
If two objects of masses m₁ and m₂ (m₁ > m₂) are moving with the same momentum then the kinetic energy will be greater for
(a) m₁
(b) m₂
(c) m₁ or m₂
(d) both will have equal kinetic energy
Answer:
(b) m₂

Question 25.
The power of a pump which can pump 200 kg of water to a height if 200m in 10s is _______. (g = 10ms^-2)
a) 40 kW
b) 80 Kw
c) 400 Kw
d) 960 Kw
Answer:
a) 40 Kw

Question 26.
A body of mass m accelerates uniformly from rest to velocity v₀ in a time t₀. The instantaneous power delivered to the body at any time t is _______.

Answer:

Question 27.
particle to mass ‘m’ starting from rest undergoes uniform acceleration. If the speed acquired in time T is V, the power delivered to the particle is _______.
a) \(\frac{M V^{2}}{T}\)
b)\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)\(\frac{M V^{2}}{T^{2}}\)
c) \(\frac{M V^{2}}{T^{2}}\)
d) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)\(\frac{M V^{2}}{T}\)
Answer:
d) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)\(\frac{M V^{2}}{T}\)

Question 28.
A particle is placed at the origin and a force F = kx is acting on it (where k is the positive constant). If U (o) = 0, the graph u(x) verses x will be _______. (u=potential energy function)

Answer:

Question 29.
The force acting on a body moving along x-axis varies with the position of the particle as in fig _______.

The body in stable equilibrium at
a) x = x₁
b) x = x₂
c) both x₁, and x₂
d) neither x₁ nor x₂
Answer:
b) x = x₂

Question 30.
Non-conservative force is
(a) frictional force
(b) viscous force
(c) air resistance
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 31.
If the K.E of the body is increased by 300% then for the percentage change in momentum will be _______.
a) 100%
b) 150%
c) 265%
d) 73.2%
Answer:
a) 100%

Question 32.
A particle is projected making an angle 45’ with horizontal having kinetic energy k. The K.E at the highest point will be _______.
a) K/\(\sqrt{2}\)
b) K/2
c) 2K
d) K
Answer:
b) K/2

Question 33.
The coefficient of restitution e for a perfectly elastic collision is _______.
a) 1
b) 0
c) ∞
d) -1
Answer:
a) 1

Question 34.
A ball moving with a certain velocity hits another identical ball at rest. If the plane is frictionless and collision is elastic, the angle between the directions in which the balls move after collision will be _______.
a) 30°
b) 60°
c) 90°
d) 120°
Answer:
c) 90°

Question 35.
Which of the following is zero at the highest point in vertical circular motion?
(a) velocity of the particle
(b) tension of the spring
(c) potential energy
(d) none
Answer:
(a) velocity of the particle

II. Additional Questions:

Question 1.
The sign of work done by a force on a body is important to understand. State carefully if the following quantities are positive or negative.
(a) Work done by man lifting a bucket out of the well by means of a rope tied to the bucket
Solution:
Work done is positive, because the bucket moves in the direction of force applied by the man.

(b) work done by gravitational of force in the above case.
Solution:
work done by gravitational force in negative because the bucket is moving upwards against gravitational force.

(c) Work done by friction on a body sliding down an inclined plane.
Solution:
Work done is negative, as frictional force is opposite to direction of motion.

(d) work done by the applied force on a body moving on a rough horizontal plane with uniform velocity.
Solution:
Work done is positive because the applied force acts in the direction of motion of the body

(e) Work done by the resistive force of air on a vibrating pendulum in bringing it to rest.
Solution:
Work done is negative, because the resistive force of air acts in a direction opposite to the direction of motion of the vibration pendulum.

Question 2.
Comets move around the sun in highly elliptical orbits. The gravitational force an the comet due to sun is not normal to the comet velocity in general. Yet the W.D by the gravitational force over every complete orbit of the comet is zero why?
Solution:
The gravitational force acting on the comet is a conservative force. The work done by the conservative force over any path is equal to the negative of change in potention energy. Over a complete orbit of any shape, there is no change in P.E of the comet. Hence no work is done by the gravitational force on the comet.

Question 3.
A body is moving unidirectionally under the influence of a source of constant power. How displacement (S) and time (t) are related?
Answer:
By work energy theorem
W = Pxt = 1/2 mv²
v² = \(\frac { 2pt }{ m }\)

Question 4.
A molecule in a gas container hits a horizontal wall with speed 200 ms^-1 and angle 30° with normal and rebounds with same speed. Is momentum conserved in collision? Is the conserved is elastic or in elastic.
Solution:
Momentum is always conserved, whether collision is elastic or in elastic

Let m be the mars of the molecule and M be the mass of the wall. As the wall is heavy the molecule rebounding with same velocity does not produce any velocity to wall.
K.E. before collision = Ki = 1/2 m(200)² + 0
= 2 x 10⁴ x 1/2m – 3
K.E. after collision = Kf = 1/2 m(200)² + 0
= 1/2 x m x 2 x w⁴
∵ Ki = Kf
Collision is elastic in nature

Question 5.
An elastic spring of force constant K is compressed by a amount x. Show that its potential energy is 1/2 kx².
Answer:
Consider the plot of spring force Fs versus displacement x of the block attached to free end of a spring.

According to Hookes law Fs = – k x_m
The work done by the spring force for an extension x_m is
Ws = Area ∆OBA = 1/2 AB x OB
= 1/2 Fs X_m
= 1/2 (-kx_m) x_m²
Ws = – 1/2 kx_m²
In order stretch the spring slowly an external force F equal to and opposite to Fs has to be applied. So work done by the external force F is
W = – Ws = + 1/2 kx_m²
This work done is stored as P.E of the spring
u = 1/2 kx²

Question 6.
Obtain the relation between momentum and K.E
Answer:
Consider an object of mass on moving with velocity v. Then its linear momentum is \(\overline{p}\) = \(\overline{mv}\) and its kinetic energy
k.E = 1/2 mv²
multiply and divide by m both numerator and denominator

Question 7.
Explain motion of a body in vertical circle.
Answer:
Consider a body of mass m attached to one end of marsless and inextensible string executes circular motion is a vertical plane with other end fixed at 0. The length of the string equal to radius.

There are two forces acting an mass m.
i) Gravitational force (mg) which acts downwards
ii) Tension along the string (T)
Applying Newtons II law
mg sin θ = m a_t
mg sin θ = – m\(\frac { dv }{ dt }\) → (1)
Where a_t = tangential acceleration
In the radial direction
T – mg cos θ = m a_r
T – mg cos θ = \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\)
Where a_r = \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\) = centripetal or radial acceleration from the above 2 equations four important facts to get understood are.

1) The mass is having tangential acceleration (g sin θ) for all values of 0 (expect θ =0°). It is clear that vertical circular motion is not a uniform circular motion

2) From (1) & (2) as the magnitude of velocity is not constant in the course of motion, the Tension in the string is also not constant.

3) From equ(2) T = mg cos θ + \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\), indicates that in section A and D (for – π/2 < θ < π/2) cosθ is five, ie the term mg cos θ is always > 0.
Hence Tension can not vanish even when the velocity vanishes.

4) The equation (2) \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\) = T – mg cos θ further indicates that in section B and C
(for π/2< θ < 3π/2) cosθ is negative.
(-mg con θ) is always greater than zero. Hence velocity cannot vanish even tension vanishes.
Consider two positions, lowest position (1) and the highest position 2.

Let v₁ be the velocity at the lowest point 1.
Let v₂ be the velocity at the lowest point 2.
The direction of velocity is always tangential to the circular path at all points.
Let T₁ and T₂ be the Tensions at lowest end highest point respectively. Tension at each point act towards the centre. Tension and Similarly velocity can be determined by applying the law of conservation of energy.
For the lowest point (1)
when the body is at its lowest point (1) the gravitational force mg which acts vertically downwards and Tension (T₁) vertically upwards.

For the highest point:
At the highest point (2) both gravitational force mg and tension T₂ act vertically downwards.

Here the term can (v₁² – v₂²) be found by applying law of conservation of energy at point 1 and 2.
Total energy at 1 = Total energy at 2
E₁ = E₂
P.E at 1, u₁ = 0
K.E at 1, KE₁ = 1/2 mv₁²
T.E at 1 = 1/2 0 + mv₁² = 1/2 mv₁² → (8)
Similarly
P.E at 2, u₂ = mg(2r)
K.E at 2, K.E₂ = 1/2 mv²
T.E at 2 = mg(2r) + 1/2 mv₂₂ → (9)
equating (8) and (9)

(v₁² – v₂²) = 4gr → (10)
Substituting (10) in (7)

Minimum speed at the highest point (2)
In order to loop the circle, the body must have a minimum speed at point 2 – To find minimum speed at 2 consider 2.
Consider T₂ = 0 in equation … (6)

At highest point 2 the body should have a minimum velocity v₂ = \(\sqrt{gr}\) to stay in circular path.
Minimum speed at the lowest point:
From equation 10
v₁² – v₂² = 4gr
v₁² – gr = 4gr
v₁² = \(\sqrt{5gr}\)
The body must have a speed of \(\sqrt{5gr}\) at the lowest point 1.
ie v₁ ≥ \(\sqrt{5gr}\) so that the mars can stay in circular path.
Comparing values of v₁ & v₂ it is clear that minimum speed at the lowest point should be \(\sqrt{5}\) times more than the minimum speed at the highest point, so that the body loops in a vertical circle.

Question 8.
What is perfect in elastic collision?
Answer:
Obtain an expression for velocity after collision. A perfect or complete in elastic collision is the are in which the object stick permanently after collision such that they move with a common velocity.

Expression for common velocity:

Let two bodies of masses m₁ and m₂ move with initial velocities u₁ and u₂ respectively before collision. After perfect inelastic collision both two objects move together with a common velocity v.

Since linear momentum is conserved during collisions.
m₁u₁ + m₂u₂ = (m₁ + m₂)v
V = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_{1} \mathrm{u}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2} \mathrm{u}_{2}}{\left(\mathrm{~m}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2}\right)}\)
This gives the expression for common velocity.

Question 9.
Obtain an expression for loss of K.E. in perfect elastic collision.
Answer:
Let KE_i be the initial total kinetic energy before collision and KE_f be the total final kinetic energy after collision.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 13 Warehousing Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 13 Warehousing

11th Commerce Guide Warehousing Text Book Back Questions and Answers

EXERCISE
I Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Warehouses remove the hindrance of ………………….
a) Person
b) Time
c) Risk
d) Knowledge
Answer:
b) Time

Question 2.
A warehouse holds goods as a ………………………………… center.
a) Marketing
b) Sorting
c) Distribution
d) Selling
Answer:
c) Distribution

Question 3.
…………………. can be given as collateral security for getting financial assistance from the bank.
a) Dock warrant
b) Warehouse réceipt
c) Dock receipt
d) Warehouse warrant
Answer:
d) Warehouse warrant

Question 4.
……………………. warehouses are licensed by the government and are permitted to accept the goods on bond.
a) Bonded
b) Cold Storage
c) Públid
d) All the Above
Answer:
a) Bonded

Question 5.
……………………………. warehouses are used for storing perishable goods like fruits, vegetables, etc.
a) Bonded
b) Private
c) Cold storage
d) Co-operative
Answer:
c) Cold storage

Question 6.
The document which authorizes to deliver the goods either in part or full is called …………………
a) Warehouse warrant
b) Dock Receipt
ç) Dock warrant
d) None of these
Answer:
ç) Dock warrant

Question 7.
The Institutional warehouse started with the support of the government is ……………..
a) Bonded Warehouse
b) Public Warehouse
c) Food Corporation of India
d) Custom Bonded
Answer:
c) Food Corporation of India

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is Warehouse?
Answer:
It is a place where goods are stored for future use and act as distribution centres. Warehouses are designed depending upon the nature of the products to be stored.

Question 2.
List the various types of Warehouses.
Answer:
Warehouses can be classified as follows:

On the basis of Ownership:

• Private Warehouses
• Government Warehouses
• Public Warehouses
• Co-operative Warehouses
• Bonded Warehouses
• Institutional Warehouses
• Distribution Centre Warehouses

On the basis of commodities stored:

• General Warehouses
• Special Commodity Warehouses
• Cold storages or Refrigerated Warehouses
• Climate Controlled Warehouses

Question 3.
Give any three functions of Warehouses.
Answer:

1. Storage: The surplus goods are stored properly for the purpose of supplying them at the right place and at the right time.
2. Price Stabilization: Warehousing ensures price stabilization by supplying goods as and when demanded.
3. Equalization of Demand and Supply: Warehousing equalizes the demand and supply of goods by storing the goods when they are not demanded and releasing them when they are demanded.

Question 4.
Tabulate the three differences between warehouse warrant and warehouse receipt:
Answer:

Question 5.
Give a note on FCI:
Answer:
FCI provides storage facilities for good grains. FCI also hires storage capacity from other sources such as CWC, SWC, and private parties.

III Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate the warehouse warrant from the warehouse receipt.
Answer:

Question 2.
Comment on cold storage warehouse.
Answer:
Goods are transported in refrigerated containers and stored in refrigerated warehouses. These warehouses are used for storing perishable goods like fruits, vegetables, eggs butter, fish, meat, etc. goods stored in cold storage without deterioration in quality, can be made available throughout the year.

IV Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the different types of warehouses?
Answer:

1. Private Warehouses: Private warehouses are built and owned by private business enterprises in order to store the products produced by them.
2. Government Warehouses: They are created and operated by the Government to implement the programmes of the Government.
3. Public Warehouse: It is open to the public at large. Most business organisations, especially small and medium scale units cannot afford to have their own warehouses.
4. Cooperative Warehouses: There are warehouses owned and managed by the marketing co-operative societies or agricultural co-operative societies. They are set up to provide warehousing facilities to their members.
5. Bonded Warehouses: Bonded warehouses are those warehouses, which are licensed by the government to accept the storage of imported goods which are not cleared due to non-payment of customs duty by the importer.

Question 2.
Explain the advantages of warehousing functions.
Answer:
Meaning: Warehousing is the act or the process of storing large quantities of goods so that they can be sold or used at a later date.
The following are the advantages of Warehousing:

• It safeguards the stock of the merchants who do not have to store place.
• Warehouses reduce the distribution cost of the traders by storing the goods in bulk and allow the trader to take the goods in small lots to his shop.
• It helps in the selection of channels of distribution. The producer will prefer whether to appoint a wholesaler or retailer.
• It assists in maintaining continuous sales and avoids the possibility of an “out of stock” position.
• It creates employment opportunities for both skilled and unskilled workers, to improve their standard of living.

11th Commerce Guide Warehousing Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
NCDC is an example of ……………. warehouse.
(a) Private
(b) Government
(c) Public
(d) Cooperative
Answer:
(d) Cooperative

Question 2.
The warehouses where the goods are temporarily stored for one or two days are known as ……………….
a) Co-operative warehouses
b) Public warehouses
c) bonded warehouses
d) Distribution center warehouses
Answer:
d) Distribution center warehouses

Question 3.
CWC was established in
(a) 1964
(b) 1957
(c) 1956
(d) 1956
Answer:
(b) 1957

Question 4.
Food Corporation act was set-up in the year ……………
a) 1964
b) 1946
c) 1955
d) 1978
Answer:
a)1964

Question 5.
The number of warehousing centers across the country under CWC ……………..
a) 500
b) 646
c) 464
d) 201
Answer:
c) 464

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Give a not on SWC.
Answer:
State Warehousing Corporation (SWC): Every state government is given the power to establish its own Warehousing Corporation after getting approval from the CWC. 50% of the capital is contributed by the CWC and the balance 50% contributed by State Government.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Dock Receipt?
Answer:
Dock Receipt is an acknowledgment of receipt of goods issued by dock authorities to the owner of the goods. It is the right of taking of delivery of goods cannot be transferred.

Question 3.
Write a note on State Warehousing Corporation (SWC)?
Answer:
Every state government is given the power to establish its own Warehousing Corporation after getting approval from the CWC. 50% of the capital is contributed by the CWC and the balance 50% contributed by State Government.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Delivery Order?
Answer:
This is the document through which the depositor directs the warehouse keeper to deliver the specified goods either to the party mentioned in the document or to the bearer.

Question 5.
What do you mean by the word Dock?
Answer:
It is a place in the harbour where the goods are kept for loading into the ship.

III. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Write a note on Tamil Nadu Warehousing Corporation (TNWC):
Answer:
It was established in 1959. The available storage capacity of TNWC is 6.83 Lakh MT with 7 Regional offices and 256 Godowns across the state. It is one of the biggest public warehouses operating in the state, offering logistic sendees to a diverse group of clients.

Question 2.
Differentiate Warehouse and Warehousing:
Answer:

• A warehouse is a place where goods are stored for future use whereas; warehousing is an arrangement of goods.
• The warehouse is to hold goods for storing purposes only. The warehousing object is to present and protect the goods from deterioration.

Question 3.
What are all the value-added services rendered by the warehouses?
Answer:
Warehouses also provide certain value-added services, such as in transit mixing, grading, packaging, and labelling. Sometimes goods are repacked and labelled again at the time of inspection by prospective buyers.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the warehousing in India.
Answer:
India is an agrarian country but the importance of warehousing was not felt till 1950. Agriculture contributes 16 percent of the overall GDP and accounts for the employment of approximately 52 percent of the Indian population. It is estimated that more than 40 percent of our agricultural .productions wasted due to poor storage facilities.

On the recommendation of the All India Rural Credit Survey Committee, the Agricultural Produce (Development and warehousing) Corporation Act enacted in 1956, authorized the Government to set up National Co-operative Development and Warehousing Board to develop agricultural Co-operatives and warehousing.

Question 2.
Briefly explain the method of Warehousing in India:
Answer:
India is an agrarian country but the importance of warehousing was not felt till 1950. Agriculture contributes 16 percent of the overall GDP and accounts for the employment of approximately 52 percent of the Indian population. It is estimated that more than 40 percent of our agricultural productions wasted due to poor storage facilities.

On the recommendation of the All India Rural Credit Survey Committee, the Agricultural Produce(Development and warehousing) Corporation Act enacted in 1956 authorized the Government to set up National Co-operative Development and Warehousing Board to develop agricultural Co-operatives and warehousing.

Question 3.
What are all the documents used in the process of warehousing?
Answer:
The following are used in connection with the warehousing:
Warehouse Warrants:
It is a document issued in favour of the owner or depositor of goods by the warehouse keeper. This is a document of the title of goods and can be transferred by simple endorsement and delivery. To transfer all the goods the warehouse warrant is sufficient. If only a part of the goods is to be transferred then a delivery order is needed. The delivery order is to be accompanied by the warehouse warrant.

Warehouse Keeper’s Receipt:
It is a document issued by the warehouse keeper, which acknowledges the receipt of goods from the depositor of goods. It also shows the existence of an agreement to keep the goods in the warehouse subject to certain conditions. This is not a document of title of goods and is not transferable.

Dock Warrant:
A dock is a place in the harbor where the goods are kept for loading into the ship. A dock warrant is a document of title of goods issued by dock authorities. This document certifies that the dock authorities hold the goods. To take delivery of the goods this certificate should be given back to dock authorities. The right of getting delivery of goods can be assigned to third parties too.

Dock Receipt:
Dock receipt is an acknowledgment of receipt of goods issued by dock authorities to the owner of the goods. It is not a document of the title of goods. Therefore, the right of taking of delivery of goods cannot be transferred.

Delivery Order:
This is a document through which the depositor directs the warehouse keeper to deliver the specified goods either to the party mentioned in the document or to the bearer. The warehouse keeper delivers the goods as per the instruction. Transfer of ownership takes place through this document.

Question 4.
What are all the drawbacks of Warehousing?
Answer:
Warehousing is not effective because of the following reasons:

• There are no adequate transport facilities between the place of production and warehouses.
• Lack of sufficient storage facilities for different commodities such as perishable and non-perishable commodities.
• Complicated formalities are to be fulfilled at the warehouses. The illiterate and innocent farmers are not able to cope with these procedures.
• The unavoidable delay in obtaining financial assistance may cause loss to the owner of goods.

Question 5.
Explain the functions of Warehouse: (Any Five)
Answer:
The following are the functions of warehouses:

Storage:
There is a time gap between the time of production and the time of consumption and a gap between demand and supply. The surplus goods are stored properly for the purpose of supplying them at the right place and at the right time.

Price Stabilization:
Warehousing ensures .price stabilization by supplying goods as and when demanded. It acts as a cushion to absorb price fluctuations and supplies the goods at more or less uniform prices throughout the year.

Equalization of Demand and Supply:
Warehousing equalizes the demand and supply of goods by storing the goods when they are not demanded and releasing them when there is a demand. Thus the consumers get the commodities regularly even during the off¬season periods.

Business Finance:
Based on the goods deposited in a warehouse, the depositor can get finance from banks and other financial institutions by showing the receipt issued by the warehouse keeper.

Risk bearing:
In case of damage to the goods, the warehouse keeper compensates for the loss caused to the owner of the goods. Thus, warehouses bear the loss of risk involved in the storage of goods.

Question 6.
What are all the needs for Warehousing?
Answer:
Mass production:
Production is based on the anticipated demand for goods. Mass production of goods takes place by establishing big factories and modem production. The market for such goods is spread all over the country. Therefore, warehouses are to be built at different places to store these products and provide prompt supplies when demanded.

Nature of commodities:
Some goods are perishable in nature and therefore it should be consumed in time to avoid deterioration. Storing them in cold storage can extend the life of the goods.

Seasonal production but regular consumption:
The farm products such as wheat, sugar, , pulses, etc. are produced only in seasons. But the consumption of these products is evenly spread throughout the year. If proper storage facilities are not provided, the quality of these goods deteriorates and may become not usable.

Regular production but seasonal consumption:
Certain goods are produced regularly throughout the year. Be they are demanded in seasons only. For example, rain-coats, blankets, umbrellas, etc. require storage for a whole year. They can be released in large quantities to meet the heavy demand in the rainy and winter seasons.

Proximity to production centres:
Productions of goods at specific centers need to be supplied in time and without interruption to consumers throughout the country. For this purpose, goods are regularly fed to the warehouses situated in different market areas.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 12 Functions of Commercial Banks Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 12 Functions of Commercial Banks

11th Commerce Guide Functions of Commercial Banks Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Electronic banking can be done through
a. Computers
b. Mobile phones
c. ATM
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 2.
Minimum how much amount can be transferred through RTGS?
a. Any amount
b. 50,000
c. 2 lakh
d. 5 lakh
Answer:
c. 2 lakh

Question 3.
The largest commercial bank of India
a. ICICI
b. SBI
c. PNB
d. RBI
Answer:
b. SBI

Question 4.
In which kind of account, it is compulsory to deposit certain amount at certain time?
a. Saving deposit
b. Fixed deposit
c. Current deposit
d. Recurring deposit
Answer:
d. Recurring deposit

Question 5.
Which of the following is not a type of advance provided by commercial bank?
a. Collecting and supplying business information
b. Overdraft
c. Cash credit
d. Discounting of bills
Answer:
a. Collecting and supplying business information

I. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is Mobile Banking?
Answer:
Most of the commercial banks have designed computer programs called apps which can be downloaded on smartphones. With this app on the smartphone, a customer can operate his account transactions from anywhere. This service is known as mobile banking.

Question 2.
Briefly explain the need for a Debit card.
Answer:
An ATM card is also called a debit card. This card is more useful in the purchase of goods and services anywhere in India, if the shop maintains a swiping machine facility.

Question 3.
Briefly explain the term – Credit card.
Answer:
Banks issue credit cards to customers and other eligible persons. With this card, the holder can purchase goods and services on credit at any shop in India.

Question 4.
What do you mean by ATM?
Answer:
ATM (Automated Teller Machine) card. A customer can withdraw money any time, anywhere in India from the ATM machine using the ATM card given by his / her bank.

Question 5.
Write a note on – ECS.
Answer:
ECS was launched by the RBI in 1995. It is an electronic method of fund transfer from a bank to another bank. ECS credit can be used to credit salary, dividend, interest, pension, etc.

II. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is E-Banking?
Answer:
E-Banking is a method of banking in which the customer conducts transactions electronically via the internet.

Question 2.
Write a short note on – RTGS.
Answer:
The Real-Time Gross Settlement Systems (RTGS) was launched by RBI in 2013.. The transactions are settled on real-time basis. Gross settlement means the transaction is settled between one bank and another bank without adding any other transactions. RTGS facility is available between 9.00 am to 4.30 pm on weekdays and up to 2.00 pm on Saturdays. RTGS transfers are not allowed on Sundays and bank holidays. The minimum limit for RTGS transactions is 2 lakhs.

Question 3.
Briefly explain the Diversified banking services of commercial banks.
Answer:
Competition in the banking industry has reduced their profits. Therefore the commercial banks started identifying and offering new and diversified financial services. They are purely other than banking services. Providing all such banking and other financial services are also called universal banking. Such services are as follows: Bank Assurance, Merchant Banking, Retail Banking (Personal Banking), Housing Finance, Mutual Fund, Venture Capital Fund, Factoring.

Question 4.
Explain NEFT.
Answer:
The National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) was launched by RBI in 2005. Under this electronic funds transfer system, the bulk transfer of transactions is settled in batches during specific timings across India. Individuals and institutions which maintain accounts with an NEFT enabled bank branch are eligible for using NEFT. Transactions do not occur on a real-time basis. Once in every half hour from 8.00 am to 7.30 pm.

23 settlements are allowed in a day. NEFT transfers are not allowed on Sundays and bank holidays. NEFT use IFSC (Indian Financial System Code) -all digit alphanumeric code, to identify a bank branch. IFSC is provided by IDRBT(Institute for Development & Research on Banking Technology), Hyderabad.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Core Banking Solutions?
Answer:
‘CORE’ stands for ‘Centralized Online Real-time Exchange’. In the centralized server of the bank, all the details of all the accounts of all the branches of the bank are available. A customer can withdraw money through a cheque at any branch of that bank throughout the world. Similarly, anyone can deposit money into the account. The entry of the transactions is recorded in the centralized server of the bank in real-time and can be seen in all the branches of the bank. This facility is called Core Banking Solutions.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the various primary functions performed by the commercial banks.
Answer:
The primary functions of a commercial bank are of three types. They are:
1. Accepting Deposits :
The basic deposit accounts offered by commercial banks are listed below. In these days banks compete with each other to attract customers by adding facilities to these deposit accounts. Broadly deposit accounts can be classified into demand deposits and time deposits.

2. Granting Loans and Advances:
The second primary function of commercial banks is lending money in order to earn interest income. Banks provide specific sums as loans which are repayable along with interest. Demand loans should be repaid whenever demanded.Term loans can be repaid after the agreed period. Advances are credit facilities provided for short period (within a year) to business community. But both terms are used interchangeably.

3. Creation of Credit:
Apart from the currency money issued by the RBI, the credit money in circulation created by commercial banks influence economic activities of a country to a large extent. Credit money of commercial banks is far greater in volume than the currency money.

The volume, the purposes and the sector to which this credit money is to be channelised – all these are implemented by commercial banks under the guidance of the RBI.

Question 2.
Explain the various secondary functions of commercial hanks.
Answer:
These services can be broadly classified into agency services and general utility services.

I. Agency Functions:
Banks act as agents of customers and provide certain services. They are called Agency Functions which are as follows:

1. Transfer of Funds: Banks issue demand drafts, bankers cheques, travelers’ cheques, etc., and help in the transfer of funds from one place to another.
2. Periodic Payment of Premiums, Rent, etc.: After instruction from the customers, banks undertake the monthly payment of insurance premium, rent, telephone bills, etc. from the accounts of customers.
3. Collection and Payment of Cheques: On behalf of customers bank collect the cheques deposited into the accounts of customers from other banks and deposit cash in the customers’ accounts.
4. Acting as Executors, Trustees, and Attorneys: Banks act as executors of the will of the customers and implement their will after their death.
5. Conduct Share Market transactions: A Demat account should be opened with Depository Participant and that Demat account should be linked with a savings bank account by the customer.
6. Preparation of Income Tax Return: Banks prepare the annual income tax return on behalf of the customers and provide income tax-related advice to them.
7. Dealing in Foreign Exchange: Banks buy and sell foreign currencies on behalf of customers.
8. Acting as Correspondent: Banks act as correspondents of customers and receive travel tickets, passports, etc.

II. General Utility Functions:

1. Issue of Demand Drafts and Bankers’ Cheques
2. Accepting Bills of Exchange on behalf of Customers
3. Safety Lockers
4. Letters of Credit
5. Travellers Cheques
6. Gift Cheques
7. Reference Service

11th Commerce Guide Functions of Commercial Banks Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The primary functions of a commercial bank are of ……………. types.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:
(c) Three

Question 2.
The deposit which has no limitation on deposit of cheques or withdrawals from the account is …………………..
a)’Demand Deposit
b) Current Deposit
c) Fixed deposit
d) Recurring Deposit
Answer:
b) Current Deposit

Question 3.
Overdraft facility is given ……………. account holders.
(a) Savings
(b) Current
(c) Fixed
(d) Recurring
Answer:
(b) Current

Question 4.
…………….. Documents have been notified by the Government of India as ‘Officially Valid Documents’ for proof of identity.
a) Four
b) Five
c) Six
d) Seven
Answer:
c) Six

Question 5.
National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) was launched by the RBI in …………….
(a) 1995
(b) 2000
(c) 2005
(d) 2010
Answer:
(c) 2005

Question 6.
To identify the bank branch banks use ……………… digit alphanumeric code.
a) 11
b) 12
c) 10
d) 6
Answer:
a) 11

Question 7.
National Electronic Funds Transfer was launched by RBI in …………….
a) 2002
b) 2006
c) 2005
d) 2007
Answer:
c) 2005

Question 8.
Indian Financial System Code is provided by ……………….
a) IDRBT
b) IDBI
c) RBI
d) IFC
Answer:
a) IDRBT

Question 9.
The current maximum limit for Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) is ……………….
a) 2 Lakhs
b) 5 Lakhs
c) 8 Lakhs
d) 10 lakhs
Answer:
a) 2 Lakhs

Question 10.
…………………… cards services were launched in March 2012 by the National Payments Corporation of India.
a) VISA
b) Maestro
c) Credit
d) RuPay
Answer:
d) RuPay

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Give the features of Smart card.
Answer:
Nowadays smart card is used for day to day purposes.

1. Strong device security
2. Biometrics

Question 2.
What do you mean by ‘KYC’?
Answer:
KYC means “Know Your Customer”. It is the general rule to be followed by banks to get information regarding the identity and address of the customers. A person willing to open a bank account should submit a ‘proof of identity and proof of address’ together with a recent photograph. Six documents have been notified by the Government of India as ‘Officially Valid Documents’ (OVDs) for proof of identity.

Question 3.
What is Capital Formation?
Answer:
Banks encourage savings habits among people and accumulate their small dormant savings. These funds can be fruitfully channelized for the productive purposes of the economy.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Gift Cheque?
Answer:
In order to present as a Gift, the denomination printed cheques are available in an attractive design. This is known as Gift Cheque.

Question 5.
What is meant by Bank Assurance?
Answer:
The offering of insurance policies or products by a bank in association with another insurance company is known as Bank Assurance.

Question 6.
What is Venture Capital Fund? Give Example.
Answer:
The start-up share- capital to new ventures of little known, unregistered, risky, young and small private business, especially in technology-oriented and knowledge-intensive business in known as Venture Capital Fund. E.g. SBI and Canara Bank have set up venture capital fund subsidiaries.

Question 7.
Write a note on Funds transfer through SMS:
Answer:
*99# is the number for the fund’s transfer from any mobile phone. It was launched in 2014. Every common man in India can transact banking transactions from any comer of India.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are all the notified documents for the proof of identity?
Answer:
Passport, Driving Licence, Voters’ Identity Card, PAN Card, Aadhar Card issued by UIDAI, and NREGA Job Card are the notified documents for the proof of identity.

Question 2.
Define Cheque.
Answer:
According to the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881, “the cheque is a bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker payable on demand”.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Crossing of Cheque?
Answer:
Drawing two parallel transverse lines on the left top of the cheque. It implies that the money will not be paid over the counter but through a bank account only.

Question 4.
Give two examples for Bank Assurance.
Answer:

1. Corporation Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, and Vijaya Bank have tied up with Life Insurance Corporation of India.
2. SBI has joined hands with BNP Paribas Cardif- a French company to sell insurance products.

Question 5.
Explain Factoring.
Answer:
Factoring is a continuing arrangement between financial intermediaries (factor) and a business concern (client) whereby the factor purchase the clients’ accounts receivable. E.g: SBI & Canara Bank.

Question 6.
Write a note on Virtual Banking.
Answer:
Virtual Banking or Internet banking refers to perform banking operations through the internet, using computers and mobile phones. This can be done by a customer from home or office or any part of the world and all 24 hours of 7 days.

Question 7.
Explain BBPS.
Answer:
Bharat Bill Payment System is an RBI-guided system operated by the National Payments Corporation of India from August 2016. It is a one-stop payment platform for all bills providing anytime anywhere bill payment service to all customérs across India with certainty, reliability, and safety of transactions.

Question 8.
Explain BHIM.
Answer:
Bharat Interface for Money is an app that lets a bank customer make simple, easy, and quick payment transactions using Unified Payments Interface (UPI). A bank customer can make instant bank-to-bank payments and Pay and collect money using just a mobile number or virtual payment address (VPA). It was launched in December 2016.

Question 9.
Write a note on Credit Cards.
Answer:
Banks issue credit cards to customers and other eligible persons. With this card, the holder can purchase goods and services on credit at any shop in India. If the dues are paid within the stipulated time no interest is charged. The credit limit is fixed by the issuing bank based on the income of the cardholder.

IV. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Briefly explain the Electronic Banking Functions: (Any Five) ‘
Answer:
1. NEFT:
National Electronic Funds Transfer This was launched by the RBI in 2005. Under this electronic funds transfer system, the bulk transfer of transactions is settled in batches during specific timings across India. Individuals and institutions which maintain accounts with an NEFT enabled bank branch are eligible for using NEFT. Transactions do not occur on a real-time basis. Once in every half hour from 8.00 am to 7.30 pm. 23 settlements are allowed in a day.

NEFT transfers are not allowed on Sundays and bank holidays. Both NEFT and RTGS use IFSC (Indian Financial System Code) – an 11 digit alphanumeric code, to identify a bank branch. IFSC is provided by IDRBT (Institute for Development & Research on Banking Technology), Hyderabad.

2. RTGS:
Real-Time Gross Settlement Systems It was launched by the RBI in 2013. The transactions are settled on a real-time basis. The gross settlement means the transaction is settled between one bank and another bank without adding any other transactions. RTGS facility is available between 9.00 am to 4.30 pm on weekdays and up to 2.00 pm on Saturdays.

In one day the RTGS routes about 60,000 transactions worth about ‘ 2,700 billion and covers over 52,000 bank branches located in 10,000 cities and towns. RTGS transfers are not allowed on Sundays and bank holidays. The minimum limit for RTGS transactions is 2 lakhs.

3. Electronic Clearing Services (ECS):
ECS was launched by the RBI in 1995. It is an electronic method of fund transfer from a commerce 1-15.indd 112 24-03- 2018 12:56:55 113 banks to another bank. ECS credit can be used to credit salary, dividend, interest, pension, etc. and ECS debit is used to debit monthly telephone bills, electricity bills, equated monthly installments (EMI) payments.

For this purpose, the account holding individuals and institutions concerned should fill up certain forms and submit them to the banks. ECS transactions between banks are settled in the current account maintained in the clearinghouse.

4. CORE Banking Solutions:
‘CORE’ stands for ‘Centralized Online Real-time Exchange. In the centralized server of the bank, all the details of all the accounts of all the branches of the bank are available. A customer can withdraw money through a cheque at any branch of that bank throughout the world.

Similarly, anyone can deposit money into the account. The entry of the transactions is recorded in the centralized server of the bank in real-time and can be seen in all the branches of the bank. This facility is called core banking solutions.

5. Internet Banking or Virtual Banking:
Internet banking refers to performing banking operations through the internet, using computers and mobile phones. This can be done by a customer from home or office or any part of the world and all 24 hours of 7 days.

Question 2.
Write a note on the types of Loans:
Answer:
Short-term and medium-term loans are provided by commercial banks against eligible collateral to business concerns. It is a definite sum of money lent for a definite period. It is repayable in one lump sum or in installments. Interest is payable on the entire loan amount. The loans are classified as under:

1. Housing Loan:
Taking the title deeds of the house as collateral security, based on the monthly income of the borrowing customer, banks advance medium and long-term loans. The customer repays the loan in equated monthly installments (EMI consists of principal and interest).

2. Consumer Loans:
Consumer durables like refrigerators, air conditioners, laptops, washing machines, television, etc. can be purchased by customers with consumer loans from banks. The product purchased is hypothecated (secured loan arrangement where the movable asset remains with the borrower) as security for the consumer loan amount. The customer pays in equated monthly installments for a specified period.

3. Vehicle Loans:
Two-wheelers, cars, buses, and other vehicles can be purchased by individuals as well as institutions obtaining vehicle loans from the banks. Vehicles are hypothecated to the bank until the entire loan amount is repaid.

4. Educational Loan:
The loan is provided by banks to students for studying undergraduate, postgraduate or professional courses. The loan may be received in installments to pay the educational fees every year. After completion of the course, one year is allowed for the student to get ‘employed.

Afterward, the student should repay the loan with interest for the entire period. Interest is charged from the date, of the first installment of loan amount payment.

5. Jewel Loan:
Customers pledge their gold jewels and obtain loans from banks. The margin (percentage of value per gram that can be given as credit) requirement is fixed by the RBI. Interest should be paid every month. Otherwise, interest on interest is charged.

Within 12 months the customer can redeem or else can re-pledge. Jewels not redeemed even after reminders are sold in auction by banks to recover their dues.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 11 Types of Banks
Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 11 Types of Banks

11th Commerce Guide Types of Banks Text Book Back Questions and Answers

EXERCISE

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which bank is not an Industrial Bank?
a. ICICI
b. HSBC
c. SIDBI
d. IDBI
Answer:
b. HSBC

Question 2.
The Local Area Banks are promoting ………………….
a. Rural savings
b. Business savings
c. Industrial development
d. Agricultural development
Answer:
a. Rural savings

Question 3.
Foreign banks are begun their operation since
a. 1978
b. 1979
c. 1980
d. 1981
Answer:
c. 1980

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give the meaning of Commercial Banks.
Answer:
Banks which accept deposits from the public and grant loans to traders, individuals, agriculture, industries, transport, etc., in order to earn a profit.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Industrial Banks?
Answer:
Industrial banks are- financial institutions deriving funds from the sale of investment certificates and from deposits made by individual savers and investing such funds in personal loans often secured by a mortgage. It is also called a Development banks.

Question 3.
Briefly explain about Correspondent Banks?
Answer:
A bank in a country can appoint another bank in a foreign country to act as a correspondent bank.

Question 4.
What are Foreign Banks?
Answer:
Banks which have registered office in a foreign country and branches in India are called foreign banks. In 2017 there were 42 foreign banks in India and all of them were scheduled banks.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write a short note on Local Area Banks, Give two examples.
Answer:
The local Area Bank (LAB) scheme was introduced by the RBI in August 1996. LABs are small private sector banks established in rural and semi-urban areas. Each bank serves two or three adjoining districts only. Their main objective is to mobilize rural savings (accept deposits) and invest them in the same areas.

Examples:

1. Coastal Local Area Bank, Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh.
2. Subhadra Local Area Bank Limited, Kolhapur, Maharashtra

Question 2.
What are the objectives involved in Regional Rural Banks?
Answer:
The Regional Rural Banks were formed under the Regional Rural Bank Act 1976, jointly by the Central Government, State Government, and a sponsor bank, in the ratio of 50:15:35. Their objectives are as follows:

• To develop the rural economy.
• Play a supplementary role in cooperative societies.
• To mobilize deposits from the rural public
• To provide finance to rural artisans, small entrepreneurs, and farmers.
• Try to avoid the public dependency on money lenders.

Question 3.
Mention the purposes of Agricultural and Co-operative banks
Answer:
Their foremost objective is providing service to its members for rural and agricultural development and not profit earning. They are set up in towns and villages rather than cities. Compared to the commercial banks they offer less variety of services as the bye-laws do not permit all commercial bank activities.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the various types of banks based on the organization with examples
Answer:
On the basis of organization the banking may be classified into the following:
1. Unit Banking:
Unit banking refers to a bank that is a single, usually small bank that provides financial services to its local community. A unit bank is independent and does not have any connecting banks or branches in other areas. Large financial resources are available in one branch. Decision-making is in the same branch.

So time is saved. Since the funds are allocated in one branch and no support of other branches. During financial crises, the unit bank has to close down. Hence it leads to regional imbalances or no balance growth.
E.g: Chase bank in the U.S

2. Branch Banking:
Branch banking refers to a bank that is connected to one or more other banks in an area or outside of it. To its customers, this bank provides all the usual financial services but is backed and ultimately controlled by a larger financial institution.

Loans and advances are based on merit, irrespective of the status. Larger financial resources are available in each branch. There is a delay in the decision-making process as they have to depend on the head office.
E.g. Lloyds Bank in England.

Question 2.
Explain the types of banks based on ownership patterns.
Answer:
Any bank in which not less than 51 percent of shares are owned by the Government is called Government banks or public sector commercial banks. All nationalized banks (19 banks, in 2017), SBI, and IDBI Ltd. are public sector commercial banks. All of them are joint-stock company-type banks. There are corporation-type banks. Each corporation type bank is established by a separate Act of Parliament and is fully owned by the Government of India.

All banking companies owned by private people are called private sector commercial banks. All cooperative banks are owned by members of the public.

1. Nationalized banks: Indian bank, IOB, etc.
2. Public sector banks: State Bank of India, IDBI Bank Ltd.
3. Private sector banks: Lakshmi Vilas Bank, Karur Vysya Bank.

11th Commerce Guide Types of Banks Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Patru, Varavu, Selavu, Laabam, Nashtam which all collectively known as ‘Iynthogai’ is otherwise called ……………..
(a) Trial Balance
(b) Ledger
(c) Journal
(d) Transaction
Answer:
(a) Trial Balance

Question 2.
In which year IDBI was transformed into a public sector commercial bank?
a. 1964
b.1694
c.2004
d.2000
Answer:
c.2004

Question 3.
The General Bank of India was established in ……………..
(a) 1786
(b) 1796
(c) 1766
(d) 1787
Answer:
(a) 1786

Question 4.
The first land Mortgage bank was established in the year …………………….
a. 1920
b. 1945
c. 1930
d. 1960
Answer:
a. 1920

Question 5.
World bank otherwise called ……………..
(a) IBRD
(b) IMF
(c) RBI
(d) SBI
Answer:
(a) IBRD

Question 6.
The share capital contributed by the central government, state government and sponsor bank is in the ratio of …………..
a. 50:15:35
b. 25:25:35
c. 35:25:15
d. Equal
Answer:
a. 50:15:35

Question 7.
The state bank of India came into being in ……………..
(a) 1995
(b) 1945
(c) 1955
(d) 1965
Answer:
(c) 1955

Question 8.
The bank which helps in promote housing finance institutions is known as ……………
a. EXIM Bank
b. RRB
c. NHB
d. SBI
Answer:
c. NHB

Question 9.
Which of the following is the example of a payment bank?
a. EXIM Bank
b. Indian Bank
c. NABARD
d. Paytm
Answer:
d. Paytm

Question 10.
…………………………. was established to serve exclusively for women members.
a. Dena Bank
b. Bharatiya MaIìila Bank
c. Women Bank
d. SBI
Answer:
b. Bharatiya MaIìila Bank

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What do you mean by Cooperative banks?
Answer:
All cooperative banks in India are owned by their customers or members who are farmers, small traders, and others. Cooperative banks in India are either urban-based or rural-based.

Question 2.
What do you mean by private sector banks?
Answer:
All banking companies owned by private people are called private sector commercial banks. E.g Lakshmi Vilas Bank, Kotak Mahindra Bank.

Question 3.
Explain Islamic banking:
Answer:
Islamic banking is a system of banking based on Islamic principles of bank or Sharia. It is practiced in UAE, Qatar, Pakistan, Kuwait, Bahrain, etc.

Question 4.
What are the two principles of Islamic Banking?
Answer:

• No interest is charged on loans
• No interest is charged on deposits

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the meaning of Scheduled Banks:
Answer:
All the banks which satisfied the norms and included in the second schedule to the RBI Act, 1934 are called scheduled banks.

Question 2.
What are non-scheduled Banks?
Answer:
The banks which are not listed in the second schedule of the RBI act, 1934 are known as non-scheduled banks.
Banks with a reserve capital of less than 5 lakh rupees are qualified as non-scheduled banks. There are five urban cooperative banks and three local area banks which function as non-scheduled banks in India.

Question 3.
Write a note on Moneylenders:
Answer:
An individual, as well as an institution, lends money in rural and urban areas. Certain community-based businessmen provided loans for interest in different parts of India. The reasons for their indispensable existence are:

• They disburse loans at doorstep at any time of the day with or without security.
• They provide the required amount and at the required time.
• Very little documentation and procedures.
• Banks are not willing to advance loans to farmers or labourers with less income levels.

Question 4.
How does the interest is calculated by Moneylenders?
Answer:
Moneylenders charge exorbitant rates as high as 20 percent per day. (12.16 percent per annum). It is called ‘Kandhuvatti’ or ‘flight Vatti’ in Tamil. The Usurious Loans Act 1918 of the Government of India and the Tamil Nadu Prohibition of Charging Exorbitant Interest Act 2003 prohibit charging such interest rates.

5. Write a note on Nidhi Companies:
Nidhi companies promote thrift and savings habit among members and they are registered under the Companies Act, 2013. Only Nidhi companies fulfilling certain norms are registered and regulated by the RBI. Others are not regulated.

IV. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain the types of banks on the basis of their functions: (Any 5)
Answer:
Based on the Functions the banks can be classified into the following:
1.Central Bank:
According to the Bank of International Settlement (BIS), “A Central Bank is the bank in any country to which has been entrusted the duty of regulating the volume of currency and credit in that country.” Central banks are known by different names in different countries.

Their functions also vary from country to country. A Central bank is set up as an autonomous or quasi-autonomous body. Stability and growth of the country’s economy are the main goals of a central bank. In India, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank.

2.Commercial Bank:
Banks which accept deposits from the public and grant loans to traders, individuals, agriculture, industries, transport, etc. in order to earn a profit. They also provide other services like remittance of funds, safekeeping of valuables, collection of cheques, issue of letters of credit, etc. They operate with a head office and a network of branch offices spread throughout the country. E.g: State Bank of India, Karur Vysya Bank.

3.Development Banks:
Huge finance required for investment, expansion, and modernization of big industries and others are granted by a separate type of bank called development Banks. They are also called industrial banks. The objectivé of development banks is not profit.

Their aim is to develop the country and create employment opportunities. Finance is provided for medium and long terms ranging from five to twenty years. E.g. Industrial Finance Corporation of India- IFCI; MUDRA bank (fõr the development of micro industries)

4. Cooperative Banks:
All the agriculture and cooperative banks in India are owned by their customers and members who are farmers, small traders and others. These banks are either urban-based or rural-based. Their main objective is to provide’ service to its members for rural and agricultural development and not profit earning.

Compared to the commercial banks they offer less variety of services as the bye-laws do not permit all commercial bank activities. National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) concentrates on providing loans and grants to State Governments for financing cooperative societies. NCDC concentrates on projects like water conversation, irrigation, Agri insurance, rural sanitation, etc.

5.Foreign Banks:
Banks which have registered office in a foreign country and branches in India are called foreign banks. These banks open their offices in big cities and port towns only. Their profitability is higher than Indian banks. 1n20 17, there were 42 Foreign Banks in India and all of them were scheduled banks. Eg: Bank of America — USA, Deutsche Bank – Germany.

Question 2.
Write a note on small Finance Banks:
Answer:
Small Finance Banks (SFBs) are private sector banks set up in unbanked and underbanked regions of the country to achieve a financial conclusions. E.g: Ujjivan SFB Limited, Bengaluru, Karnataka. The objectives of Small Finance Banks are Mobilising rural savings (accepting deposits) and Providing credit to small and marginal farmers, to micro and small industries, and other unorganized sector entities.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Payment Bank?
Answer:
Payment Banks are formed to widen the spread of payment and financial services to small businesses, low-income households, and migrant labourers. These banks should be fully networked from the beginning. They offer doorstep banking payment for a small fess prescribed on the basis of the amount. They issue ATM/Debit cards, Internet banking and third-party fund transfers. But they can’t lend money and issue credit cards. In August 2015, the RBI gave ‘in principle’ licenses to Payment Banks.

Question 4.
Is there India that needs large-sized banks?
Answer:
Yes. India is in need of large-sized banks. Because Industrial and Commercial bank of China is the first ranked bank in the world with an asset size of USD 3,893.23 billion. Punjab National Bank, the largest nationalized bank in India has an asset base of USD 100 billion and its rank is 717. SBI a public sector bank merged with its five associates and Bharatiya Mahila Bank with effect from April 1, 2017, and after the merger, its asset size is USD 573 billion. This will boost it among the top 50 banks(SBI earlier rank 272).

National Bank of Australia has an asset base of USD 578.46 billion and its rank is 49. To compete with large-sized banks in the world India needs more large-sized banks. Therefore merger of many nationalized banks is under consideration.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 10 Reserve Bank of India Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 10 Reserve Bank of India

11th Commerce Guide Reserve Bank of India Text Book Back Questions and Answers

EXERCISE

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which bank has the power to issue bank notes?
a. Central bank
b. Commercial bank
c. Co-operative banks
d. foreign banks
Answer:
b. Commercial bank

Question 2.
The Central bank of India is
a. PNB
b. SBI
c. ICICI
d. RBI
Answer:
a. PNB

Question 3.
The Reserve Bank of India commenced its operations from April 1,
a. 1936
b. 1935
c. 1934
d. 1933
Answer:
b. 1935

Question 4.
Bankers are not only dealers of money but also leaders in
a. Economic development
b.Trade development
c. Industry development
d. Service development
Answer:
a. Economic development

Question 5.
Which of the following is not a function of a central bank?
a. Guiding and regulating the banking system of a country
b. Deal with the general public
c. Acts essentially as Government banker
d. Maintains deposit accounts of all other banks
Answer:
b. Deal with the general public

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the services included in Service businesses?
Answer:
Educational, Medical, Hospitality, and banking are the services included in service businesses. Bank service is the nerve center of industry and commerce in a country.

Question 2.
Write the meaning of ‘Bank.
Answer:
Bank is a financial institution which accepts deposits from the public and creates credit.

Question 3.
Briefly explain about Central Bank.
Answer:
Every nation has one central bank. It is owned by the Government of the country. The control over the entire banking system of a country is vested with this apex bank. Central banks are known by different names in different countries. In India, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Mention the importance of banking services.
Answer:
Banking service is the nerve center of industry and commerce in a country. It plays a vital role by providing the money required for their regular functioning and development.

Question 2.
Explain the origin of RBI.
Answer:
In 1926 the Hilton – Young Commission or the Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance (J.M. Keynes and Sir Ernest Cable were its members) made a recommendation to create a central bank. RBI Act 1934 was passed and RBI launched its operations from April 01, 1935. After independence, the Government of India passed the RBI Act, 1948 and took over RBI after paying compensation to the private shareholders. According to the recommendations from January 1, 1949, RBI started functioning as a government-owned central bank of India.

Question 3.
Who are the persons involved in RBI administration?
Answer:
The RBI is governed by the central board of directors. The 21 members board is appointed by the Government of India. It consists of:

1. One Governor and four deputy governors appointed for a period of four years.
2. Ten Directors from various fields
3. Two Government officials
4. Four Directors – one each from local boards.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Classify the various functions of Reserve Bank of India.
Answer:
The functions of the RBI can be grouped under three heads:

• Leadership and Supervisory Functions
• Traditional Functions
• Promotional Functions

(i) Leadership and Supervisory Functions:

• India’s Representative in World Financial Institutions
• Regulator and Supervisor of Indian Banking System
• Monetary Authority
• Closely Monitoring Economic Parameters
• Promptly Responding to New Challenges

(ii) Traditional Functions:

• Banker and Financial Advisor to the Government
• The monopoly of Note Issue
• Banker’s Bank
• Controller of Credit and Liquidity
• Quantitative Methods of Credit Control
• Qualitative Credit Control Measures
• Lender of the Last Resort
• Clearing House Services
• Custodian of Foreign Exchange Reserves
• Maintenance of Foreign Exchange Rate
• Collection and Publication of Authentic Data

(iii) Promotional Functions:

• Nurturing Banking Habits among the Public
• Grievance Settlement Measures
• Agricultural Development
• Promotion of Small Scale Industries
• Facilitates Foreign Trade
• Supports Cooperative Sector

Question 2.
Explain the organizational structure of RBI.
Answer:
The head office of the RBI is situated in Mumbai. This Central office has 33 departments in 2017. It has four zonal offices in Mumbai, Delhi, Calcutta, and Chennai functioning under local boards with deputy governors as their heads. It also has 19 regional offices and 11 sub-offices. The RBI is governed by a Central Board Director. The 21 members board is appointed by the Government of India. It consists of;

• One governor and four deputy governors appointed for a period of four years.
• Ten directors from various fields
• Two Government officials
• Four directors – one each from local boards

11th Commerce Guide Reserve Bank of India Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The head office of the RBI is situated in …………….
(a) Calcutta
(b) Mumbai
(c) Delhi
(d) Chennai
Answer:
(b) Mumbai

Question 2.
………………… ‘ was the first bank in India established in 1770.
a. Audh Bank
b. Bank of Calcutta
c. Bank of Bombay
d. Bank of Hindustan
Answer:
d. Bank of Hindustan

Question 3.
When did India become a member of IBRD and IMF?
(a) 1946
(b) 1947
(c) 1945
(d) 1946
Answer:
(c) 1945

Question 4.
………………. banks were nationalised in India in the year 1969.
a. 15
b. 14
c. 20
d. 41
Answer:
a. 15

Question 5.
Currency notes are printed at …………….
(a) Nasik
(b) Mumbai
(c) Delhi
(d) Kolkatta
Answer:
(a) Nasik

Question 6.
RBI is governed by…………………. central board of directors.
a. 15
b. 12
c. 21
d. 20
Answer:
c. 21

Question 7.
Among global currencies, the Indian rupee is given the code ……………….
(a) INR
(b) Rs.
(c) NRI
(d) IRN
Answer:
(a) INR

Question 8.
RBI is also called as …………….. Bank.
a. World
b. Central
c. National
d. Banker’s
Answer:
d. Banker’s

Question 9.
The rupee symbol was changed from Rs. 10 by the government of India on ………………..
a. July 15, 2010
b. May 21, 1998
c. January 1, 1969
d. December 15, 2010
Answer:
a. July 15, 2010

Question 10.
The number of clearinghouses maintained by SBI is………………
a. 480
b. 840
c. 860
d. 680
Answer:
b. 840

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)?
Answer:
It is the ratio of money and money equivalents kept within the bank in proportion to the total Time and Demand Liabilities with them.

Question 2.
Write a note on the first bank in India.
Answer:
Bank of Hindustan was the first bank in India established in 1770 and was closed in 1932.

Question 3.
Expand NABARD.
Answer:
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development.

Question 4.
What are all ‘Presidential Banks’?
Answer:
Bank of Bombay, Bank of Madras, and Bank of Bengal are called Presidential Banks.

Question 5.
What do you mean by CRR?
Answer:
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) means it is the ratio of cash reserves with the RBI kept by Scheduled banks in proportion to the total Time and Demand Liabilities with them.

Question 6.
Explain SLR.
Answer:
It is the ratio of money and money equivalents kept within the bank in proportion to the total Time and Demand Liabilities with them.

Question 7.
How did the remonetization carried out in India in the year 2016?
Answer:
The remonetization was carried out by issuing new 2000 and 500 currency notes.

Question 8.
What do you mean by Repo rate?
Answer:
Repo rate is the repurchase rate at which the RBI repurchases the Government securities (other securities also) from the Scheduled banks and gives loans.

Question 9.
What do you mean by reverse repo rate?
Answer:
Reverse repo rate is the rate at which the RBI borrows money from Commercial banks by giving back those Government securities.

III. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Define Bank.
Answer:
According to Banking Regulation Act 1949, “Banking means the accepting for the purpose of lending or investment of deposits of money from the public, repayable on demand ór otherwise and withdrawable by cheque, draft, pay order or otherwise”.

Question 2.
Define Central Bank.
Answer:
According to the Bank of International Settlement (BIS), “A Central Bank is the bank in any country to which has been entrusted the duty of regulating the volume of currency and credit in that country.”

Question 3.
Write a note on Demonetisation.
Answer:
The government of India on the recommendation of the RBI carried out demonetization on November 8, 2016, in order to;

• To crack a whip against black money,
• Drive out counterfeit currency in circulation.
• Formalization of cash-dependent business, and
• Dismantling the financial strength of terrorism and Naxalism.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the historical development of banking in India:
Answer:

• Bank of Hindustan was the first bank in India established in 1770 and was closed in 1932.
• The General Bank of India was established in 1786 and was also liquidated in 1791.
• Bank of Calcutta was the first joint-stock bank established in 1806. It was renamed the Bank of Bengal in 1809.
• Bank of Bombay in 1840 and Bank of Madras in 1843 were established. “ These banks are called Presidential Banks.
• In the year 1881 ‘Audh Bank’ was started and it was renamed Punjab National Bank in 1894.
• These Presidential banks were amalgamated into the Imperial Bank of India on 27 January 1921.
• It confined its operations to the urban sector and the rural sector was completely neglected in those days.
• After Independence, an Act was passed in the Parliament to take over the Imperial Bank of India by the Government and the State Bank of India came into being on July 1, 1995.

Question 2.
Explain the credit-control methods
Answer:
a) Quantitative Methods of Credit Control
The methods which influence the total volume of credit in the Indian economy are called quantitative or general methods. An increase in the first three measures will reduce the volume of money in circulation in India and vice versa.

i. Bank Rate Policy:
Bank rate refers to the rate at which the RBI re-discounts the bills given by the Scheduled banks.

ii. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
It is the ratio of cash reserves with the RBI kept by Scheduled banks in proportion to the total Time and Demand Liabilities with them.

iii. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR):
It is the ratio of money and money equivalents kept within the bank in proportion to the total Time and Demand Liabilities with them.

iv. Open Market Operations:
The RBI directly buys or sells the securities and bills in the money market either to decrease or to increase the total volume of money.

b) Qualitative Credit Control Measures:
These methods influence the volume of money in selected or particular sectors of the economy.

i. Rationing of credit:
The maximum limit is fixed for lending to certain sectors or specific purposes, in order to include more people to avail banking services. It has also taken up the task of extending the banking system territorially and functionally to the unbanked areas.

ii. Moral Suasion:
The RBI puts pressure on the banks towards liberal or restricted lending during certain periods.