Category: Class 11

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 25 International Business Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 25 International Business

11th Commerce Guide International Business Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Movement of goods, services, intellectual property, human assets, technology and so on among the countries.
(a) International Trade
(b) International business
(c) Entrepot Trade
(d) Internal trade
Answer:
(a) International Trade

Question 2.
Goods are imported for purpose of re-export to another country is termed as ………………………
(a) Import Trade
(b) Export Trade
(c) Entrepot Trade
(d) International trade
Answer:
(c) Entrepot Trade

Question 3.
Movement of goods, services among the countries.
(a) International Trade
(b) International business
(c) Entrepot Trade
(d) Internal trade
Answer:
(b) International business

Question 4.
Selling of goods from home country to a foreign country is called
(a) Home Trade
(b) Entrepot Trade
(c) Foreign Trade
(d) Joint Venture
Answer:
(c) Foreign Trade

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by international business?
Answer:
International business denotes all those business activities which take place beyond the geographical limits of the country.

Question 2.
What is meant by Export Trade?
Answer:
When the firm of a country sells goods and services to a firm of another country it is called export trade. Export trade indicates the selling of goods and services from the home country to a foreign country. Example: the sale of handicrafts, leather products, etc.

Question 3.
What is meant by Import Trade?
Answer:
When the business firm of a country purchases goods from the firm of another country it is called import trade. Importing means the purchase of foreign products and bringing them into one’s home country.

Question 4.
What is meant by Entrepot Trade?
Answer:
When the firm of country imports goods for the purpose of exporting the same goods to the firms of some other country with or without making any change in the goods meant for export it is known as entrepot trade. For example. If an Indian company imports crude oil from Iran and exports it as petroleum after refining it in India; Nepal, it is called Entrepot trade.

Question 5.
Give any two reasons for International Business.
Answer:

1. Unequal Distribution of Natural Resources.
2. Uneven Availability of Factors of Production.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Describe the importance of external trade to an economy;
Answer:
The economic environment of countries involved in international business differs significantly in terms of legal framework, institutional set – up, monetary fiscal and commercial policy, resources availability, production techniques, etc.

Question 2.
What is the necessity for entrepot trade?
Answer:
A country cannot import goods directly from others because of the following reasons:

• The country may not have any accessible trade routes connecting the importing country, The good imported may require further processing or finishing before exporting, and these facilities may be lacking in the exporting or importing country.
• There may not have any bilateral trade agreement between both the country.
• Importer and exporter may not share good economic relations with each other. So it is necessary for the nation to enter into entrepot trade.

Question 3.
What are the limitations of international business?
Answer:

1. Economic Dependence: International trade is more likely to make the country too much dependent on imports from foreign countries.
2. Inhibition of Growth of Home Industries: International business may discourage the growth of the indigenous industry.
3. Import of Harmful Goods: International business may lead to the import of luxurious goods, spurious goods, dangerous goods, etc. It may harm the well-being of people.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
List out the advantages of international trade.
Answer:

1. Geographical Specialization: Countries across the world differ significantly in terms of natural resources, capital equipment, manpower, technology and land, and so on.
2. Optimum use of Natural Resources: International business operates on a simple principle that a country which can produce more efficiently and trade the surplus production with other countries has to procure what it cannot produce more efficiently.
3. Economic Development: International business helps the developing countries greatly in achieving rapid economic development by importing machinery, equipment, technology, talent, and so on.
4. Generation of Employment: International business generates employment opportunities by assisting the expansion and growth of agricultural and industrial activities.
5. Higher Standard of Living: On account of international business, the citizens of the country can buy more varieties of goods and services which cannot be produced cost-effectively within the home country.
6. Price Equalisation: International business helps to stabilize the prices of various commodities which are fluctuating on a daily basis in the world market.
7. Prospects for Higher Profit: International business helps the firms which produce goods in excess to sell them at a relatively higher price to various countries in the international market.
8. Capacity Utilisation: International business enables firms across the country to sell their goods and services on a large scale in the international market.
9. International Peace: International business makes countries across the world become inter-dependent while these countries are independent in their functioning.

Question 2.
Enumerate the disadvantages of international trade:
Answer:
Economic Dependence:
International trade is more likely to make the country too much dependent on imports from foreign countries. The former may not take any efforts to produce goods and services indigenously to substitute imported goods and thus becoming self-sufficient. As a result, the importing country may become economically slave to exporting country and end up becoming a colony of the exporting country.

Inhibition of Growth of Home Industries:
International business may discourage the growth of the indigenous industry. Unrestricted imports and severe competition from foreign companies may ruin the home industries altogether.

Import of Harmful Goods:
International business may lead to the import of luxurious goods, spurious goods, dangerous goods, etc. It may harm the well-being of people.

Shortage of Essential Goods in Home Country:
Moreover, the export of essential commodities out of the greed of earning more foreign exchange may result in an absolute shortage of these goods at the home country and people may have to buy these commodities at an exorbitant prices in the local market.

Misuse of Natural Resources:
Excessive export of scarce natural resources to various countries across the world may lead to faster depletion of the resources in the exporting countries. This in turn may bring about ecological disaster in the country from which it is exported.

Political Exploitation:
International business may create economic dependence among the countries which may threaten their political independence. The MNCs may influence the policy decision of the government to their favour. In due course of time, they may dictate terms to administrators of the nation by the sheer strength of their money power. For example, Britishers came to many countries as mere traders and ultimately colonized those countries and ruled them for centuries.

Rivalry among the Nations:
Acute competition for exports may lead to rivalry among the nations. This may lead to a conflict of interest among the countries and end up in wars among them.

Invasion of Culture:
International business may result in an invasion of a country’s culture. The younger generation is more likely to imitate foreign culture and buy goods and services beyond their means to gain acceptance in the affluent section of society. This will ruin the conventional lifestyle of the society.

Question 3.
Distinguish between internal and international trade:
Answer:

11th Commerce Guide International Business Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
IBRD is also known as ……………….
a. EXIM Bank
b.World Bank
c. International Monetary Fund
d. International Bank
Answer:
b.World Bank

Question 2.
In due course ………………. was replaced by on 1st January 1995.
a. GATO, WTO
b. WTO, GATT
c. GATT, WTO
d. IMF, GATT
Answer:
c. GATT, WTO

Question 3.
Which of the following is not an Indian Multinational Company?
a.Unilever
b.Asian Paints
c. Wipro
d. Piramal
Answer:
a.Unilever

Question 4.
The first step in the internationalization process is …………….
a. License
b. Foreign Investment
c. Sales
d.Export
Answer:
a. License

Question 5.
WTO stands for ……………..
a. World Technology Association
b.World Time Organisation
c. World Trade Organisation
d. World Tourism organization
Answer:
c. World Trade Organisation

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Contract Manufacturing (or) Outsourcing?
Answer:
It connotes a type of international business where a firm enters into a contract with one or a few local manufacturers in foreign countries in order to get certain components of goods produced according to its specifications. It is also called as outsourcing or contract manufacturing.

Question 2.
What is a Joint Venture?
Answer:
A Joint venture is a business agreement wherein parties agree to develop a new entity and assets subscribing to equity shares and thereby exercising control over the enterprise and consequently sharing revenues, expenses, and assets.

Question 3.
What is FDI?
Answer:
FDI means investment made by a company or individual in one country’ in the business interest in another country m the form of either establishing new business operations or acquiring business assets in the other country.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Licensing?
Answer:
Licensing is a contractual agreement wherein one firm grants access to its plants, trade secrets or technology to another firm in a foreign country, for a fee called royalty, e.g. McDonald. Pisa Hut, etc.. The firm which grants such permission is called Licensor or Franchisor and another firm to whom the license is granted is called Licensee or Franchisee.

III. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are all the routes of International Business before the 18th century?
Answer:
1. Salt Route – India to Egypt
2. Silk Route – China so India
3. Spice Route India to Europe

Question 2.
Define International Business:
Answer:
According to John D. Daniels and Fee IF Rade Baugh, “International business is all business transactions-private and. governmental- that involve two or more countries’’

Question 3.
What are all the three ways under which a joint venture can take place?
Answer:
It can be established in three different ways namely,

1. Foreign Investors buying an interest in a local company
2. Local firm acquiring an interest in the existing foreign firm
3. Both the foreign and local firms jointly forming a new enterprise

Question 4.
What are all the features of Entrepot Trade?
Answer:
The following are the special features of Entrepot trade

• Import duty is not levied on such goods
• These goods are reprocessed and repacked for re-export
• Such goods are kept in the Bonded warehouse till they are re-exported.

IV. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are all the features of International Business?
Answer:
The following are the features of international business
Involvement of Countries:
International business can take place only when transactions occur across different countries.

Use of Foreign Exchange:
Where countries trade with one another, it has to exchange the goods and services on the basis of foreign currency.

Legal Obligations:
Foreign trade is to be conducted strictly in accordance with the export and import policy of the country concerned. The consent of the government is to be mandatorily obtained with reference to export and import of certain goods and services.

Exposure to Risk:
International business imposes huge risks on the parties thereto due to long distances, fluctuation of the value of currency, obsolescence, sanctioned, war, etc.,

Heavy Documentation Work
International business necessitates the fulfillment of a lot of formalities. Parties to international business have to execute a number of documents in the matters of conducting International business.

The difference in Economic Environment:
The economic environment of countries involved in international business differs significantly in terms of legal framework, institutional setup, monetary fiscal and commercial policy, resources availability, production techniques, etc.,

Question 2.
Explain the Types of International Business?
Answer:
On the basis of sale and purchase of goods and services, international trade can be divided into three kinds. They are export trade, import trade and entrepot trade.

Export Trade:
When the firm of country sells goods and services to a firm of another country it is called export trade. Export trade indicates selling of goods and services from the home country to a foreign country. For Example; the sale of handicraft, leather products, electronic goods, herbal products, etc., by Indian companies to other countries is known as export trade.

Import Trade:
When the business firm of a country purchases goods from the firm of another country it is called import trade. Importing means the purchase of foreign products and bringing them into one’s home country. For example when Indian enterprise purchases petroleum products, electrical goods, machinery, and medical equipment’s etc., from other countries, it is termed as Import Trade

Entrepot Trade:
When the firm of country imports goods for the purpose of exporting the same goods to the firms of some other country with or without making any change in the goods meant for export it is known as entrepot trade For example, If an Indian company imports crude oil from Iran and exports it as petroleum after refining it in India, to Nepal it is called Entrepot trade. In this context crude is converted into petrol and exporter as petrol to Nepal.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 24 Retailing Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 24 Retailing

11th Commerce Guide Retailing Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Retailers deal in ……………. quantity of goods
a) Small
b) Large
c) Medium
d) Limited
Answer:
a) Small

Question 2.
Small scale Fixed retailers include …………….
a) General stores
b) Pedlars
c) Cheap Jacks
d) Hãwkers
Answer:
a) General stores

Question 3.
Small shops which deal in a particular line of products are called as ……………
a) Market traders
b) Single line stores
c) Sugar market
d) Street stalls
Answer:
b) Single line stores

Question 4.
………………. are mobile traders who deal in low priced articles with no fixed place of business.
a) Shopping malls
b) Super markets
c) Street stalls
d) Itinerant traders
Answer:
d) Itinerant traders

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is retailing?
Answer:
Retailing is the process of selling goods and services directly to the ultimate consumers in small quantities.

Question 2.
State the meaning of multiple shops.
Answer:
A number of identical retail shops with similar appearance normally deal in standardized and branded consumer products established in different localities owned and operated by manufacturers or intermediaries are called as Chain stores or Multiple shops.

Question 3.
Mention any two benefits of Vending machines.
Answer:
An automatic vending machine is a new form of direct selling. It is a machine operated by coins or tokens.

Question 4.
What are specialty stores?
Answer:
Speciality Stores deal in a particular type of product under one product line only. For example, Sweets shop specialized in Tirunelveli Halwa, Bengali Sweets, etc.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the features of general stores.
Answer:
General Stores sell a wide variety of products under one roof, most commonly found in a local market and residential areas to satisfy the day – to – day needs of the customers residing in nearby localities. They remain open for long hours at convenient timings and often provide credit facilities to their regular customers.

Question 2.
Give any four points of distinction between hire purchase system and instalment system of selling.
Answer:

Question 3.
Explain the characteristics of super markets.
Answer:

1. Supermarkets are generally situated at the main shopping centres.
2. The goods kept on racks with the clearly labeled price and quality tags in such stores.
3. The customers move into the store to pickup goods of their requirements, bring them to the cash counter, make payments and take home delivery.

Question 4.
What is meant by email order retailing’?
Answer:
Mail order houses are the retail outlets that sell their merchandise through mail. There is generally no direct personal contact between the buyers and the sellers in this type of trading.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
State the features of Departmental stores.
Answer:

1. Large Size: A department is a large scale retail showroom requiring a large capital investment by forming a joint-stock company managed by a board of directors.
2. Wide Choice: It acts as a universal provider of a wide range of products from low priced to very expensive goods (Pinto Car) to satisfy all the expected human needs under one roof.
3. Departmentajly organised: Goods offered for sale are classified into various departments.
4. Facilities provided: It provides a number of facilities and services to the customers such as restaurants, restrooms, recreation, packing, free home delivery, parking, etc.
5. Centralised purchasing: All the purchases are made centrally and directly from the manufacturers and operate separate warehouses whereas sales are decentralised in different departments.

Question 2.
What is meant by Consumer Cooperative Store? Explain its merits in brief.
Answer:
A consumers cooperative store is a retail organisation owned, managed and controlled by the consumers themselves to obtain products of daily use at reasonable low prices. Its objective is to eliminate profits to middlemen by establishing a direct contact with the manufacturers. People belonging to middle and low income groups , at least 25 persons have to come together to form a voluntary association and get it registered under the Cooperative Societies Act.

The capital of a cooperative store is raised by issuing shares to members. The management of the store is democratic and entrusted to an elected managing committee, where one man ‘ one vote is the rule. The cooperative stores are very famous in Tamilnadu. For example, Kamadhenu and Chinthamani cooperative supermarkets in Chennai, Karpagam in Vellore, etc.

Question 3.
Describe the ‘role of chambers of commerce in promotion of internal trade.
Answer:

1. Transportation or interstate movement of goods: The Chambers facilitate registration of vehicles, surface transport policies, construction of highways and roads in promoting the interstate movement of goods.
2. Harmonisation of CGST and SGST structure.
3. Marketing of agro products and related issues: The associations of agriculturists and other federations interact with farming cooperatives to streamline local subsidies and formulate marketing policies for selling agro products.
4. Weights and measures and prevention of duplication of brands: They help the Government in the formulation and implementation of uniform policies in weights and measures and prevention of duplication of brands.
5. Promoting sound infrastructure: They interact with Government to construct roads, ports, electricity, railways, etc.
6. Labour legislation: They interact with the Government on regular basis and the issues related to labour laws, retrenchments, compensation, etc., so that the industry can run efficiently, generate employment, and achieve maximum productivity.

11th Commerce Guide Retailing Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The other name for Itinerant trader Is ………………
a. Mobile Trader
c. Hawkers
b.Peddlers
d.Market Traders
Answer:
a. Mobile Trader

Question 2.
The retailers who have indèpendent shops 0f temporary nature is known as ……………….
a. Mobile Trader
b.Peddlers
c. Cheap Jacks
d.Market Traders
Answer:
c. Cheap Jacks

Question 3.
The process of paying the price amount of product not on initially but in installments is known as …………..
a. Loan
b. Hire Purchase
c. deferred payment system
d. Credit system
Answer:
c. deferred payment system

Question 4.
In retailing there is a direct interaction with ………………….
a. Producer
b. Wholesaler
c. Consumer
d. All of these
Answer:
d. All of these

Question 5.
Retailing creates ………………..
a. Ownership Utility
b. Place Utility
c. Time Utility
d. All the above
Answer:
d. All the above

Question 6.
…………………. is a key task of large and small retailers.
a. Risk management
b. Stock management
c. Crisis management
d. All the above
Answer:
d. All the above

Question 7.
Retailing is a marketing function which ……………….
a. sells products to other sellers
b. sells products to a company that resells them
c. sells products to final consumers
d. sells products for one’s own use.
Answer:
c. sells products to final consumers

Question 8.
Retailer is a person who sells the goods in a …………………..
a. Large quantities
b.Small quantities
c. both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. both (a) & (b)

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Who are called as Itinerant traders?
Answer:
The traders who have no fixed place of sale are called Itinerants.

Question 2.
Write any two Associations or Chambers in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Madras Chamber of Commerce, Chennai. Tamil Nadu Traders Associations.

Question 3.
What do you mean by super market?
Answer:
A Super market is a large retail store selling a wide variety of consumer goods on the basis of low price appeal, wide variety and assortment, self-service and heavy emphasis on merchandising appeal.

Question 4.
Who are Fixed shop Retailers?
Answer:
The retailers who maintain permanent establishment to sell their goods are called Fixed Shop Retailers. They do not move from place to place to serve their customers.

III. Short Answer Questions :

Question 1.
Discuss any three limitation of Multiple shops:
Answer:

1. Limited variety: Multiple shops deal only in limited range of products.
2. Absence of services: Customers do not get credit, home delivery and other facilities.
3. Lack of personal touch: The owner loses direct personal contact with the customers. The paid staff do not take a personal interest in each and every customer.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Mail-order Houses.
Answer:
Mail order houses are the retail outlets that sell their merchandise through the mail. There is generally no direct personal contact between the buyers and the sellers in this type of trading. The customers may be asked to make full payment in advance or at the time of receiving the goods In this arrangement, there is no risk of bad debt. Perishable goods like milk are not suitable for sale by mail order. Suitable goods are books, watches, etc.
Procedure for Mail order houses:

• Advertisements provide information about the products to consumers.
• Order receiving and processing On receiving the orders, the goods are sent to the customers through the post office, by Value Payable Post (VPP).
• Receiving Payments

Question 3.
What do you mean by telephonic marketing?
Answer:
Potential Customers are contacted through telephone or mobile to provide information about the products. Willing customers visit the office and place the orders. This method is useful for loan, financing, insurance services, credit card, etc. No middlemen in this marketing and cost reduced accordingly.

Question 4.
How do business done through Internet Marketing?
Answer:
The manufacturers or the intermediaries place the advertisement of their products on different media of internet like e-mail, portal and browser. Sometimes, they have their own website like Flipkart, Amazon, Snapdeal. etc. The customers compare the products competitors by observing such advertisements and select the product through internet and make the payment through online or cash on delivery. Because of the absence of middlemen, showroom expenses, etc. products are available at cheaper price in comparison to local market. Customers also get after-sales services.

Question 5.
What are all the functions of Chamber of Commerce?
Answer:

• hey act as national guardians of trade, commerce and industry.
• They act as a catalyst in strengthening the internal trade of the country.
• Interact with Government with regard to formulation and implementation of related policies.

IV. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain the -types of Mobil traders:
Answer:
The types of Itinerants are as follows:
a. Peddlers and Hawkers:
Peddlers are individuals who sell their goods by carrying on their head or shoulders moving from place to place on foot. Hawkers are petty retailers who sell their goods at various places such as bus stop, railway station, Public Park and gardens, residential areas and other public places using a convenient vehicle to carry goods from place to place.

b. Street Vendors:
The traders sit on the footpath of the road or at the end of the road (pavement) and sell their goods such as fruits, vegetables, books, etc. are called Street vendors.

c. Market Traders:
Small traders open their shops at different places on fixed days or dates such as every Sunday or alternative Wednesdays and so on ( Varasandhai – weekly market). They deal in one particular line of merchandise and in low priced consumer items of daily use. Examples Pollachi, Manapparai, Ranipet, etc.

d. Cheap Jacks:
Those retailers who have independent shops of temporary nature in a business locality are depending upon the potentiality of the area. They deal in consumer goods and services such as shoes and chappals, plastic items, repair of watches, etc.

Question 2.
Explain the types of Fixed Shop small retailers:
Answer:
Street Stalls:
These small shop-keepers are commonly found at street crossings or other busy street comers attract floating customers and deal in cheap variety of goods like hosiery products, toys, soft drinks, etc. They get their supplies from local suppliers and wholesalers.

General Stores:
General Stores sell a wide variety of products under one roof, most commonly found in a local market and residential areas to satisfy the day-to-day needs of the customers residing in nearby localities. They remain open for long hours at convenient timings and often provide credit facilities to their regular customers. For example, a provision store deals in grocery, bread, butter, toothpaste, soaps, washing powder, soft drinks, confectionery, stationery, cosmetics, etc

Single-line Stores:
Single-line Stores are small shops which deal in a particular line of products such as garments, stationery, textiles, medicines, shoes, etc. They are generally situated in market places and deal in a variety of goods in that line of product.

Specialty Stores:
Specialty Stores deal in a particular type of product under one product line only. For example, Sweets shop specialised in TirunelveliHalwa, Bengali Sweets, etc.

Seconds Shops:
These shops deal with second-hand goods or used articles in a low price, such as books, furniture, utensils, clothes, automobiles, etc. mid also new defective goods.

Question 3.
Explain the advantages of Departmental Stores:
Answer:
Convenience in buying:
The departmental stores provide great convenience to all the members in a family in buying almost all goods of their requirements at one place. A large variety of goods available in all the departments enable customers to save time and no need to run from one place to another to complete their shopping.

Attractive services:
It aims at providing maximum services and facilities to the customers such as home delivery of goods, execution of telephone orders, rest rooms, restaurants, salons, children game centres, etc.

Central location:
These stores are usually located in central places so that more people can approach easily.

Elimination of Middleman:
A departmental store combines both the functions of retailing as well as warehousing. They purchase directly from manufacturers and operate separate warehouses. It helps in eliminating undesirable middlemen between the producers and the consumers.

Economies of Large Scale Operations:
The Departmental stores are organised at a large scale i.e., buy goods in bulk, therefore they enjoy the benefit of special discount. In turn, the customers get their goods in quality and lower price.

Question 4.
Explain the features of chain stores:
Answer:
Location:
shopping i.e., in the selection and choice of their goods as per the tastes.

Nature of product:
These shops deal in a particular product – line and specialise in the same product i.e, standardised and branded consumer products.

Centralised management:
The manufacturing or procurement of goods for all the retail units is centralised at the head office, from where the goods are despatched to each of these shops.

Fixed price:
The prices of goods are fixed and all sales are made on a cash basis.

Role of Sales personnel:
The sales persons play an active role in helping the consumers to complete their shopping i.e., in the selection and choice of their goods as per the tastes.

Question 5.
What are all the advantages of chain stores?
Answer:

• Economies of large scale: Multiple shops are owned and operated by manufacturers or intermediaries. Centralised and bulk buying, results in lower costs. These shops are located in fairly populous localities where sufficient number of customers can be approached.
• Nature of product: These shops deal in a particular product ‘line and specialise in the same product i.e, standardised and branded consumer products.
• Centralised management: The manufacturing or procurement of goods for all the retail units is centralised at the head office, from where the goods are despatched to each of these shops.
• Fixed price: The prices of goods are fixed and all sales are made on cash basis.
• Role of Sales personnel: The sales persons play an active role in helping the consumers to complete their
• Elimination of middlemen: Goods are sold in multiple shops at relatively low prices. By selling directly to the consumers, it is able to eliminate unnecessary middlemen.
• No bad debts: All the sales are made in these shops on a cash basis only. So, no bad debts will arise and no reduction of working capitals.
• Convenience in shopping: Shops are located in all important areas. Therefore, customers are not required to travel long distances for making purchases.
• Public confidence: Multiple shops enjoy public confidence due to fixed prices, standard quality, uniform appearance and selection of goods with the help of salesmen.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 23 Channels of Distribution Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 23 Channels of Distribution

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 23 Channels of Distribution

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Trade middleman who acts as a link between wholesaler and customers refers to a ………………
a. Producer
b. Broker
c. Retailer
d. Customer
Answer:
c. Retailer

Question 2.
Who is the first middleman in the channel of distribution?
a. Wholesaler
b. Producer
c. Retailer
d. Customer
Answer:
a. Wholesaler

Question 3.
………………. buy the goods from the producer and sell it to the retailers.
a. Manufacturer
b. Wholesaler
c. Retailer
d. consumer
Answer:
b. Wholesaler

Question 4.
……………….. are agents who merely bring the buyer and the seller into contact.
a. Broker
b. Commission agent
c. Selling agent
d. stockist
Answer:
a. Broker

Question 5.
Merchant middlemen can be classified into …………………… categories.
a. Three
b. Two
c. Five
d. Four
Answer:
b. Two

Question 6.
Wholesalers deal in ………………. quantity of goods.
a. Small
b. Large
c. Medium
d. Limited
Answer:
b. Large

Question 7.
A …………………….. is a mercantile agent to whom goods are entrusted for sale by a principal and takes physical possession of the goods but does not obtain ownership.
a. Broker
b. Factor
c. Warehouse-keeper
d. Commission agent
Answer:
b. Factor

II.Very Short Answer Questions
Question 1.
Who is a middleman?
Answer:
The term ‘Middlemen’ refers to all those who are in the link between the primary producer and the ultimate consumer in the exchange of goods or services.

Question 2.
Define Wholesaler
Answer:
According to Cundiff and still “Wholesaler buys from the producer and sell merchandise to the retailers and other merchants and not to the – consumers”.

Question 3.
Define Retailer.
Answer:
According to S. Evelyn Thomas, “the retailer is the last of the many links in the economic chain whereby the consumer’s wants are satisfied smoothly and efficiently by retailers”.

Question 4.
Who is a broker?
Answer:
A Broker is one who bargains for another and receives a commission for his service. He is paid ‘brokerage’ for his services.

Question 5.
What are the classifications of the merchant middlemen?
Answer:
Merchant middleman can be further subdivided into:

1. Wholesaler
2. Retailer

Question 6.
Who are the mercantile agents?
Answer:
A businessman appoints a person to buy and sell goods on his behalf and gives him the right to borrow money on the security of goods. He is known as a mercantile agent.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you understand by channels of distribution?
Answer:
A channel is a route through which the goods are passed on to the ultimate consumer. There are direct channels or routes of distribution without middlemen. The indirect channel consists of one or more middlemen performing different functions. Middlemen help in the flow of goods towards the lakhs of crores of consumers.

Question 2.
Who is a factor?
Answer:
A factor is a mercantile agent to whom goods are entrusted for sale by a principal. He takes physical possession of the goods, though he does not obtain ownership of the goods. A factor sells goods in his own name without revealing the name of his principal. He can sue or be sued for his contracts. He has a right of lien on goods in his possession for his unpaid charges.

Question 3.
Explain the types of mercantile agents.
Answer:
Kinds of Mercantile Agents or Agent Middlemen:

1. Brokers
2. Factors
3. Commission Agents
4. Del – credere Agents
5. Auctioneers
6. Warehouse keepers.

Question 4.
Explain any three characteristics of wholesalers.
Answer:

1. Wholesalers buy goods directly from producers or manufacturers.
2. Wholesalers buy goods in large quantities and sell in relatively smaller quantities.
3. Wholesalers sell different varieties of a particular variety of products.

Question 5.
What are the services rendered by the wholesalers to the manufacturers?
Answer:
Services to Producers or Manufacturers:

1. Economies in Large Scale
2. Assistance in Distribution
3. Warehousing Facility
4. Forecasting of Demand
5. Publicity of Goods
6. Financial Assistance
7. Risk – bearer
8. Link

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the characteristics of retailers?
Answer:
Meaning:
A trading intermediary engaged in the distribution of goods to the ultimate consumer is known as retailer. Following are the characteristics of retail traders ® Retailer generally involves dealing in a variety of items. A retailer makes purchases from producers or wholesalers in bulk for sale to the end consumers in small quantities.

• Retail trade is normally carried on in or near the main market area.
• Generally, retailers involve buying on credit from wholesalers and selling for cash to consumers.
• A retailer has indirect relation with the manufacturer (through wholesalers) but a direct link with the consumers.

Question 2.
What are the functions of Wholesalers?
Answer:
Following are the functions of wholesalers:

1. Collection of Goods: Wholesaler collects the goods from manufacturers or producers in bulk.
2. Storage of Goods: Wholesaler collects and stores them safely in warehouses, till they are sold out.
3. Distribution: Wholesaler sells goods to different retailers. Thus he performs the function of the distribution.
4. Financing: Wholesalers provide financial support to producers and manufacturers by providing money in advance to them.
5. Risk Taking: Wholesaler buys finished goods from the producer and keeps them in the warehouses till the time they are sold and assumes the risk arising from price, spoilage of goods, and changes in demand.
6. Grading Packing and Packaging: Wholesaler classifies the goods into different categories.
7. Providing Information: Wholesalers provide valuable information to retailers and producers.
8. Transportation: A wholesaler arranges for the transport of goods from producers to his warehouse and from the warehouse to retailer.

Question 3.
What are the functions of Retailers?
Answer:
The following are the functions of retailers.
Functions of Retailers:
Buying:
A retailer buys a wide, variety of goods from different wholesalers after estimating customer’s demand. He selects the best merchandise from each wholesaler and brings all the goods under one roof. So, he performs the twin functions of buying and assembling goods.

Storage:
A retailer maintains a ready stock of goods and displays them in the shop.

Selling:
The retailer sells the goods in small quantities according to the demand taste and preference of consumers. He employs efficient methods of selling to increase his sales turnover.

Grading and Packing:
The retailer grades the goods which are not graded by manufacturers and wholesalers. He packs goods in small lots for the convenience of consumers

Risk-bearing:
A retailer always keeps stock of goods in anticipation of demand and bears the risk of loss due to fire, theft, spoilage, price fluctuations, etc.

Transportation:
Retailers often carry goods from manufacturers to their retail outlets.

Financing:
Some retailers grant credit facilities to their customers and provide the facility of return or exchange of goods. Door delivery and after-sale service are provided by retailers.

Question 4.
Explain the services rendered by wholesalers to retailers.
Answer:

1. Financial Assistance: Wholesalers provide financial assistance to retailers by selling goods on credit.
2. Meeting the Requirements: Due to limited capital and lack of space in his facility, a retailer cannot hold a large variety of products.
3. Introduction of New Products: Wholesalers bring new products and their uses to the notice of retailers.
4. Price Stability: Wholesalers reduce price fluctuations by adjusting supply and demand and save the retailers from loss arising from price fluctuations.
5. The economy in Transport: A wholesaler often delivers goods at the doorsteps of retailers and save their time and cost of transport.
6. Regular Supply: Wholesalers keep a large stock of varieties of goods and provide a regular supply of goods as per the retailer’s need.

Question 5.
What are the services rendered by retailers to wholesalers?
Answer:
Retailers provide the following services to manufacturers and wholesalers.
Help in Distribution:
Retailers relieve the manufacturers and wholesalers of the burden of collecting and executing a large number of small orders from various consumers.

Market Information:
Retailer supply valuable information to wholesalers about changes in tastes, preferences, fashion etc. of consumers

Large Scale Operation:
The manufacturers and wholesalers are freed from the trouble of making individual sales to consumers in small quantities. This enables them to operate on, a relatively large scale and thereby fully concentrate on their other activities

Help in Promotion:
Retailers participate in the promotional activities carried by manufacturers and wholesalers such as short-time offers, coupons, free gifts, sales contests, etc. Retailers help in promoting the sale of the products.

Personal Attention:
The retailer is able to provide more personal attention to his customers than the wholesaler is, He gives special services on the spot when the articles require minor repairs.

Question 6.
Explain the services rendered to consumers by Retailers.
Answer:

1. Regular Supply of Goods: Retailers maintain ready stock of various products of different manufacturers for sale to consumers.
2. New Products Information: The retailers provide important information about the new arrival of products through their personal.
3. Credit Facilities: Sometimes retailers provide credit facilities to their customers and enable them to increase their level of consumption.
4. Wide Selection: Retailers generally keep stock of a variety of products of different manufacturers.
5. Miscellaneous Services:
   • Retailers provide free door delivery services to the customers.
   • They provide after-sale service to customers.
   • They allow cash discounts on their sales.

Question 7.
What are the factors affecting a channel of distribution?
Answer:
The factors determining the suitability of a channel for product distribution are as follows:
Product Characteristics:
Seasonal, products are distributed through less layer of middlemen. Non-standardized products that are made according to customer specifications may be delivered directly. But standardized products may be passed on through middlemen.

Trucks which are heavily needed to be distributed with fewer layers of distribution. The life of perishable products is limited and should reach the consumer at the earliest. e.g. Flowers and milk. Technical products which require pre-sale and post-sale advice from technicians should be directly distributed by the producer or with middlemen. e.g: Air-conditioners, Washing machine.

Market Characteristics:
The size of the market for the goods is a major factor while selecting the route for distribution of products. Distribution in large geographical areas requires more middlemen. Middlemen are nòt required to distribute products in a limited area.

Number of Consumers:
Làrge purchases made by few consumers require centralized distribution. Large number of consumers making purchases in small quantities requires more middlemen.

The capacity of the Manufacturer:
A financially strong producer may select a high technology oriented channel which will reduce cost in the long run. Manufacturers with large volume of production may open direct branches in cities and towns where there is more sales.

They can also provide more services expected by consumers. Small and medium producers require the services of middlemen for selling their products. A producer offering wide range of products can have a long channel as he can defray the cost of distribution over more number of products.

Cost and Time Involved in the Channel of Distribution:
The channel cost should go along with the quality of service provided by middlemen.
Ordinary goods are routed through economical channel even though the time taken by the channel for delivery is more.

Services Required along with the Product:
Machinery or equipment which needs to be installed and demonstrated should be sold with the shorter channel. Technical Services can be provided by manufacturers or by their trained technicians. Therefore a shorter channel is preferred for sales.

Life Cycle of the Product:
An established product can select an ordinary channel. But a new product entering into the market should be carefully promoted by experienced middlemen.

11th Commerce Guide Channels of Distribution Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
With respect to a channel of distribution, the number of intermediary levels within the channel indicated the ……………….. of a channel.
a. Width
b. Depth
c. Length
d. Similarity
Answer:
c. Length

Question 2.
A large marketing intermediary, but not as large as a sole selling agent in terms of dimension, resources, and area of operation is known as ……………..
a. Wholesaler
b. Sole selling agent
c. Direct marketing channel
d. Semi-wholesalers
Answer:
a. Wholesaler

Question 3.
Mr. X is studying the potential for selling his company’s products in the USA. As part of his analysis, he is assessing the number, types and availability of wholesalers and retailers. Mr. X is studying the countries…………………
a. Social and Cultural norms
b.Legal and political structure
c. Distribution channel structure
d. Technological study
Answer:
c. Distribution channel structure

Question 4.
The purchases and sales between the producers and wholesalers, and from the wholesalers to retailers are called as ………………
a. D₂C
b. B₂C
c. M₂C
d. B₂B
Answer:
d. B₂B

Question 5.
The person who guarantees to the principal regarding the collection of cash from credit sales is called………….
a. Agent
b. Del-credere Agent
c. Factor
d. Commission Agent
Answer:
b. Del-credere Agent

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What is meant by Mail-order Business?
Answer:
The manufacturer collects orders from the consumers through post by mail or phone and delivers the products themselves. This kind of business is known as Mail-order or Phone- order business.

Question 2.
What do you mean by B₂B transactions?
Answer:
All purcháses and sales between the producers and wholesalers,and from the wholesalers to retailers,etc. are called Business to Business (B₂B) transactions.

Question 3.
What do you mean by B₂C transactions?
Answer:
All businesš transactions between the producers or wholesalers or retailers on the one side and consumers on the other side are called Business to Consumers(B₂C).

III. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Define Channel of Distribution:
Answer:
According to Cundiff E.W and Still, a channel of distribution may be defined as “a path traced in the direct or indireët transfer of title to a product as it moves from the producer to ultimate consumers”.

Question 2.
List the types of channel of distribution:
Answer:
The types of channel of distribution are as follõws:

• Channels based on the middlemen
• Channels based on the type of goods and services
• Channel based on the national and international market

Question 3.
Write short notes on ‘Auctioneers’:
Answer:
Auctioneers are agents who sell goods by auction on behalf of their principals. The auction sale is made through a notification to the public. The notice clearly mentions the date, time, place and details of goods which will be widely published through newspapers, posters, leaflets and announcements etc., Auction sale may be “WITH RESERVE” and “WITHOUT RESERVE”. In case of auction “WITH RESERVE” no sale can take place below the minimum price fixed by the seller, which is known as “Reserve Price”.

In case of auction “WITHOUT RESERVE” the auctioneer is bound to sell the product to the highest bidder. The price for which the bid is accepted is called “knocked down price”. Striking a hammer on the desk indicates the acceptance of a bid by auctioneer. After the highest bid is accepted, the auctioneer becomes the agent for both the seller and the buyer. For his services, the auctioneer is entitled to receive a commission, which is a certain percentage of the sale proceeds.

IV. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Write a note on VAR:
Answer:
The VARs receive the products from the manufacturers, incorporate them as if their own products by adding value-enhanced service and sell them to customers. VARs provide highly skilled technical support so that the customer can have world-class satisfaction.

Microsoft India has appointed Avnet and Redington as VARs in India. A solar panel producer may have builders as VARs and the builders offer solar panel as additional facility to the buyers of flats, etc.

Question 2.
Explain the types of Mercantile Agents:
Answer:
Brokers:
A Broker is one who bargains for another and receives a commission for his service. He is paid ‘brokerage’ for his services. He brings the buyer and the seller to the negotiating process and arranges for finalizing contracts between them. The principal businessman does not pass on either possession of goods or the ownership of goods to the broker. The broker is not personally liable for the contracts concluded. A real estate agent acts for both the buyer and the seller.

Factors:
A factor is a mercantile agent to whom goods are entrusted for sale by a principal. He takes physical possession of the goods, though he does not obtain ownership of the goods. A factor sells goods in his own name without revealing the name of his principal. He may even sell them on credit and other usual terms. He is entitled to receive payment for the goods sold and he gives valid receipts. He is liable for his action. He can sue or be sued for his contracts. He has a right of lien on goods in his possession for his unpaid charges.

Commission Agent or Consignees:
A commission agent buys and sells goods on behalf of the principal for a fixed rate of commission for all his transactions. All risks connected with his transactions are borne by the principal. His functions are more varied than a broker and he takes decision over the prices and terms of the sale. He has expert knowledge of the goods and trends in the market. He takes possession of the goods without title over them and sells in his own name.

Delcreder Agents:
The agent who guarantees to the principal the collection of cash from credit sales is called belvedere agent’. If they do not pay, the agent would bear the loss himself. He is given an additional commission known as belvedere commission for bearing the risk. He carefully selects the buyers to whom credit can be extended based on their honesty and reliability.

Auctioneers:
Auctioneers are agents who sell goods by auction on behalf of their principals. Auction sale is made through a notification to the place and details of goods which will be widely published through newspapers, posters, leaflets and announcements etc., Auction sale may be “WITH RESERVE” and “WITHOUT RESERVE”.

Warehouse keeper:
A Warehouse keeper accepts goods for the purpose of storage in his warehouse. He should exercise reasonable care and diligence in the storage of goods. He is entitled to payment for his services. He will have a lien on the goods in case the payments for his services remain unpaid.

The warehouse keeper delivers to the owner of the goods a receipt known as warehouse keeper’s receipt or. certificate. It is an acknowledgement issued by warehouse keeper for the receipt of goods by him for the purpose of storage. It is not a document of title to goods. He may issue a ‘Warehouse warrant’, which is a document of title to goods.

Question 3.
Differentiate Wholesaler and Retailer:
Answer:

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Pdf Chapter 6 Gravitation Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 6 Gravitation

11th Physics Guide Gravitation Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
The linear momentum and position vector of the planet is perpendicular to each other at:
(a) perihelion and aphelion
(b) at all points
(c) only at perihelion
(d) no point
Answer:
(a) perihelion and aphelion

Hint:
At aphelion Potential Energy is more and Kinetic energy is less.
At perihelion Potential Energy is less and Kinetic Energy is more.

Question 2.
If the masses of the Earth and Sun suddenly double, the gravitational force between them will:
(a) remain the same
(b) increase 2 times
(c) increase 4 times
(d) decrease 2 times
Answer:
(c) increase 4 times

Hint:

Question 3.
A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the Sun at distance r₁ and farthest away at a distance of r₂. If v₁ and v₂ are linear speeds at these points respectively. Then the ratio \(\frac{v_{1}}{v_{2}}\) is: (NEET 2016)
(a) \(\frac{r_{2}}{r_{1}}\)
(b) (\(\frac{r_{2}}{r_{1}}\))²
(c) \(\frac{r_{1}}{r_{2}}\)
(d) (\(\frac{r_{1}}{r_{2}}\))²
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{r_{2}}{r_{1}}\)

Hint:
v = rw
∴ v ∝ r
\(\frac{v_{1}}{v_{2}}\) = \(\frac{r_{1}}{r_{2}}\)

Question 4.
The time period of a satellite orbiting Earth in a circular orbit is independent of:
(a) Radius of the orbit
(b) The mass of the satellite
(c) Both the mass and radius of the orbit
(d) Neither the mass nor the radius of its orbit
Answer:
(b) The mass of the satellite
Hint:
T= 2π\(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{RE}}{g}}\)
Since there is no mass in the expression, time period is independent of mass.

Question 5.
If the distance between the Earth and Sun were to be doubled from its present value, the number of days in a year would be:
(a) 64.5
(b) 1032
(c) 182.5
(d) 730
Answer:
(b) 1032

Question 6.
According to Kepler’s second law, the radial vector to a planet from the Sun sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time. This law is a consequence of:
(a) conservation of linear momentum
(b) conservation of angular momentum
(c) conservation of energy
(d) conservation of kinetic energy
Answer:
(a) conservation of linear momentum

Hint:
Kepler’s second law is a consequence of conservation angular momentum.

Question 7.
The gravitational potential energy of the Moon with respect to Earth is:
(a) always positive
(b) always negative
(c) can be positive or negative
(d) always zero
Answer:
(b) always negative

Hint:
Because when two masses come together slowly from infinity work is done on the system.

Question 8.
The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are K_A, K_B and K_c respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the Sun S as shown in the figure. Then: (NEET 2018)

(a) K_A > K_B > K_C
(b) K_B < K_A < K_C
(c) K_A < K_B < K_C
(d) K_B > K_A > K_C
Answer:
(a) K_A > K_B > K_C

Hint:
Kinetic energy depends on the velocity of a planet. Planets travel fast when they are nearer to the sun and slower when they are farther from it.

Question 9.
The work done by the Sun’s gravitational force on the Earth is:
(a) always zero
(b) always positive
(c) can be positive or negative
(d) always negative
Answer:
(c) can be positive or negative

Question 10.
If the mass and radius of the Earth are both doubled, then the acceleration due to gravity g’:
(a) remains same
(b) y
(c) \(\frac { g }{ 2 }\)
(d) 4 g
Answer:
(b) y

Hint:
g = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)
M’ = 2M
R’ = 2R
g’ = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}^{\prime}}{\left(\mathrm{R}^{\prime}\right)^{2}}\)
= \(\frac{G \times 2 M}{(2 R)^{2}}\)
= \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{2R}^{2}}\)
= \(\frac { g }{ 2 }\)

Question 11.
The magnitude of the Sun’s gravitational field as experienced by Earth is:
(a) same over the year
(b) decreases in the month of January and increases in the month of July
(c) decreases in the month of July and increases in the month of January
(d) increases during day time and decreases during night time.
Answer:
(c) decreases in the month of July and increases in the month of January

Hint:
Gravitational field \(\vec { E }\) = – \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)\(\hat{r}\)
It depends on the distance r that vary from January to July.

Question 12.
If a person moves from Chennai to Trichy, his weight:
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) increases and then decreases
Answer:
(a) increases

Hint:
W = mg
g = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)
∴ W = \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)
Weight depends on distance ‘r’.

Question 13.
An object of mass 10 kg is hanging on a spring scale which is attached to the roof of a lift. If the lift is in free fall, the reading in the spring scale is:
(a) 98 N
(b) zero
(c) 49 N
(d) 9.8 N
Answer:
(b) zero

Hint:
If the lift is free fall then a = g.
∴ N = m(g – g) = 0
∴ The reading will be zero.

Question 14.
If the acceleration due to gravity becomes 4 times of original value, then escape speed:
(a) remains same is directly proportional to the product of
(b) 2 times of original value masses and inversely proportional to square
(c) becomes halved of the distance between the masses.
(d) 4 times of original value 3. Will the angular momentum of a planet be
Answer:
(b) 2 times of original value masses and inversely proportional to square

Question 15.
The kinetic energy of the satellite orbiting around the Earth is:
(a) equal to potential energy
(b) less than potential energy
(c) greater than kinetic energy
(d) zero
Answer:
(b) less than potential energy

II. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
State Kepler’s three laws.
Answer:

1. Law of Orbits: Each planet revolves moves around the Sun in an elliptical orbit with the Sun at one of the foci of the ellipse.
2. Law of area: The radial vector line joining the Sun to a planet sweeps equal areas in equal intervals of time.
3. Law of period: The square of the time period of revolution of a planet around the Sun in its elliptical orbit is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of the ellipse.

Question 2.
State Newton’s Universal law of gravitation.
Answer:
The gravitational force between two masses is directly proportional to the product of masses and inversely proportional to square of the distance between the masses.

Question 3.
Will the angular momentum of a planet be conserved? Justify your answer.
Answer:
The torque experienced by the Earth due to the gravitational force of the Sun is given by,

It implies that angular momentum \(\vec { L }\) is constant vector. Hence L is conserved.

Question 4.
Define the gravitational field. Give its unit.
Answer:
The gravitational field intensity \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}_{1}\) at a point is defined as the gravitational force experienced by unit mass at that point. It’s unit N kg^-1.

Question 5.
What is meant by superposition of gravitational field?
Answer:
The total gravitational field at a point due to all the masses is given by the vector sum of the gravitational field due to the individual masses.

Question 6.
Define gravitational potential energy.
Answer:
Potential energy of a body at a point in a gravitational field is the work done by an external agent in moving the body from infinity to that point.

Question 7.
Is potential energy the property of a single object? Justify.
Answer:
No, potential energy is not the property of a single system. It is due to the position of the object. Because, potential energy depends on two masses and the distance between them.

Question 8.
Define gravitational potential.
Answer:
The gravitational potential is defined as the amount of work required to bring unit mass from infinity to that point.

Question 9.
What is the difference between gravitational potential and gravitational potential energy?
Answer:

Question 10.
What is meant by escape speed in the case j of the Earth?
Answer:
The escape speed is independent of the direction in which the object is thrown. Irrespective of whether the object is thrown vertically up, radially outwards or tangentially it requires the same initial speed to escape Earth’s gravity force. This can be written as, v_e = \(\sqrt{2 g R_{E}}\).

Question 11.
Why is the energy of a satellite (or any other planet) negative?
Answer:
The negative sign of the total energy implies that satellite is bound to the Earth’s gravitational force. So it cannot escape from the Earth. At large distances satellite is not bound to Earth. It is completely free from gravitational force of the Earth.

Question 12.
What are geostationary and polar satellites?
Answer:
Geostationary Satellite: It is the satellite which appears at a fixed position and at a definite height to an observer on earth.
Polar Satellite: It is the satellite which revolves in polar orbit around the earth.

Question 13.
Define weight.
Answer:
The weight is defined as the downward force whose magnitude ‘w ’ is equal to that of upward force that must be applied to the object to hold it at rest or at constant velocity relative to the Earth.

Question 14.
Why is there no lunar eclipse and solar eclipse every month?
Answer:
If the orbits of the Moon and Earth lie on the same plane, during full Moon of every month, we can observe lunar eclipse. If this is so dining new Moon we can observe solar eclipse. But Moon’s orbit is tilted 5° with respect to Earth’s orbit. Due to this 5° tilt, only during certain periods of the year, the Sun, Earth and Moon align in straight line leading to either lunar eclipse or solar eclipse depending on the alignment.

Question 15.
How will you prove that Earth itself is spinning?
Answer:
When the position of a star is observed over a night, it appears to move in circular motion about the pole star. This fact proves that Earth itself is spinning.

III. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Discuss the important features of the law of gravitation.
Answer:
(i) Because of inverse dependence on square of the distance the distance between two masses increases, the strength of the force tends to decrease.

(ii) Because Uranus is at larger distance from the Sun compared to the Earth, the planet Uranus experiences less gravitational force from the Sun than the Earth.

(iii) The gravitational forces between two particles always constitute an action- reaction pair. From this, it is known that gravitational force exerted by the Sun on the Earth is always towards the Sun. The reaction-force is exerted by the Earth on the Sun. The direction of reaction is towards Earth.

(iv) The torque experienced by the Earth due to the gravitational force of the Sun is given by,

It implies that angular momentum \(\vec { L }\) is a constant vector. The angular momentum of Earth about the Sun is constant throughout the motion. It is true for all the planets.

(v) The expression \(\vec { F }\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{1} \mathrm{M}_{2}}{r^{2}} \hat{r}\). Here it was assumed that both Earth and Sun are treated as point masses.

(vi) This assumption is a good approximation because the distance between the two bodies is very much larger than their diameters.

(vii) The force of attraction between a hollow sphere of mass M with uniform density and point mass m kept outside the hollow sphere is calculated by replacing the hollow sphere of mass M as equivalent to a point mass M located at the centre of the hollow sphere.

The force of attraction between the hollow sphere of mass M and point mass ‘m’ can be calculated by considering the hollow sphere also as another point mass. It is shown in the Figure below.

(viii) If we place another object of mass ‘m ’ inside a hollow sphere of mass M as in Figure below, the force experienced by this mass ‘m ’ will be zero.

(ix) The success of the law of gravitation is that it concludes that the mango that is falling down and the Moon orbiting the Earth are due to the same gravitational force.

Question 2.
Explain how Newton arrived at his law of gravitation from Kepler’s third law.
Answer:
Newton considered the orbits of the planets as circular. For circular orbit of radius r, the centripetal acceleration towards the centre is

Here v is the velocity and r, the distance of the planet from the centre of the orbit.
The velocity in terms of known quantities r and T, is
v = \(\frac { 2πr }{ T }\)              … (2)
Here T is the time period of revolution of the planet. Substituting this value of ‘v’ in equation (1) we get,

Substituting the value of ‘a’ from (3) in Newton’s second law, F = ma where ‘m’ is the mass of the planet.
F = – \(\frac{4 \pi^{2} m r}{\mathrm{r}^{2}}\) … (4)
From Kepler’s third law,
\(\frac{r^{3}}{\mathrm{~T}^{2}}\) = k (constant) … (5)
\(\frac{r}{\mathrm{~T}^{2}}\) = \(\frac{k}{r^{2}}\) … (6)
By using equation (6) in the force expression, we can arrive at the law of gravitation.
F = – \(\frac{4 \pi^{2} m k}{\mathrm{r}^{2}}\) … (7)
Here negative sign implies that the force is attractive and it acts towards the centre. He equated the constant 4π²k to GM which turned out to be the law of gravitation.
F = – \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{r^{2}}\)

Question 3.
Explain how Newton verified his law of gravitation.
Answer:
The gravitational force experienced by the apple due to Earth.
F = – \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{E}} \mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)
M_A – Mass of the apple
M_E – Mass of the Earth
R – Radius of the Earth.
Equating the above equation with Newton’s second law, we get
M_Aa_A = – \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{E}} \mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)
Simplifying the above equation we get,
a_A = – \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{E}}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)
a_A is the acceleration of apple that is equal to ‘g’.
Similarly the force experienced by Moon due to Earth is given by
F = – \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{E}} \mathrm{Mm}}{\mathrm{R}_{m}^{2}}\)
R_m – distance of the Moon from the Earth.
M_m – Mass of the Moon.
The acceleration experienced by the Moon is given by,
a_m = – \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{E}}}{\mathrm{R}_{m}^{2}}\)
The ratio between the apple’s acceleration to Moon’s acceleration is given by
\(\frac{a_{\mathrm{A}}}{a_{m}}=\frac{\mathrm{R}_{m}^{2}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)
From the Hipparchrus measurement, the distance to the Moon is 60 times that of Earth radius.
R_m = 60R.
\(\frac{a_{\mathrm{A}}}{a_{m}}=\frac{(60 \mathrm{R})^{2}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)
The apple’s acceleration is 3600 times the acceleration of the Moon.
The same result was obtained by Newton using his gravitational formula.

Question 4.
Derive the expression for gravitational potential energy.
Answer:
Consider two masses m₁ and m₂ are initially separated by a distance r’. m₁ is assumed to be fixed in its position.

To move the mass m₂ through an infinitesimal displacement \(\vec { dr }\) from \(\vec { r }\) to \(\vec { r }\) + \(\vec { dr }\) (shown in the Figure above), work has to be done externally. This infinitesimal work is given by

Hence the total work done for displacing the particle from r’ to r is

Question 5.
Prove that at points near the surface of the Earth, the gravitational potential energy of the object is U = mgh.
Answer:
Let us consider the Earth and mass system, with r, the distance between the mass ‘nr and the Earth’s centre. Then the gravitational potential energy,
U = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{e} m}{r}\) … (1)
Here r = R_e + h, where R_e is the radius of the Earth, h is the height above the Earth’s surface.
U = – G \(\frac{\mathrm{M}_{e} m}{\left(\mathrm{R}_{e}+h\right)}\) … (2)
If h << R_e, equation (2) can be modified as

By using Binomial expansion and neglecting the higher order terms, we get
U = – \(\mathrm{G} \frac{\mathrm{M}_{e} m}{\mathrm{R}_{e}}\left(1-\frac{h}{\mathrm{R}_{e}}\right)\) … (4)
We know that, for a mass m on the Earth’s surface,
G\(\frac{\mathrm{M}_{e} m}{\mathrm{R}_{e}}\) = mgR_e … (5)
Substituting equation (5) in (4) we get,
U = mgR_e + mgh … (6)
In the equation (6) the first term can be omitted or taken to zero. Thus it can be stated that the gravitational potential energy stored in the particle of mass m at a height h from the surface of the Earth is U = mgh.

Question 6.
Explain in detail the idea of weightlessness using lift as an example.
Answer:
Freely falling bodies experience gravitational force only. As they fall freely, they are not in contact with any surface. When a lift falls with downward acceleration a = g, the person inside the lift is in the state of free fall or weightlessness. The normal force acting on the object is zero. In this case, the downward acceleration is equal to the acceleration due to the gravity of the Earth. i.e., (a = g). From equation,
N = m(g – a)
we get,
a= g
∴ N = m(g – g) = 0.
This is called the state of weightlessness.

Example: When the lift falls (when the lift wire cuts) with downward acceleration a = g, the person inside the elevator is in the state of weightlessness or free fall.

Question 7.
Derive an expression for escape speed.
Answer:
Consider an object of mass M on the surface of the Earth. When it is thrown up with an initial speed v_i the initial total energy of the object is
E_i = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)Mv_i² – \(\frac{\mathrm{GMM}_{\mathrm{E}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}}\) … (1)

Where, M_E is the mass of the Earth and R_E – the radius of the Earth. The term \(\frac{\mathrm{GMM}_{\mathrm{E}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}}\) is the potential energy of the mass M.

When the object reaches a height far away from Earth and as approaching infinity, the gravitational potential energy becomes zero [U(∞) = 0] and the kinetic energy becomes zero as well. Hence the final total energy of the object becomes zero. It holds good for minimum energy and for minimum speed to escape. Otherwise Kinetic energy can be non-zero.
E_f = 0
According to the law of energy conservation,
E_i = E_f … (2)
Substituting (1) in (2) we get,

The minimum speed required by an object to escape Earth’s gravitational field is escape speed. Hence v_i is replaced v_e. i.e.,

Question 8.
Explain the variation of ‘q’ with latitude.
Answer:
An object is on the surface of the Earth, experiences a centrifugal force that depends on the latitude of the object on Earth. If the Earth were not spinning, the force on the object would have been mg. An additional centrifugal force due to spinning of the Earth, is experienced by the object.

This centrifugal force is given by mω²R’.
R’= R cos λ,
where λ is the latitude. The component of centrifugal acceleration experienced by the object in the direction opposite to acceleration due to gravity is

Question 9.
Explain the variation of ‘g’ with altitude.
Answer:
Let us consider an object of mass m at a height h from the surface of the Earth. Acceleration experienced by the object due to Earth is

If h << Re
Using Binomial expansion and taking the terms upto first order.

We find that g’

Question 10.
Explain the variation of g with depth from the Earth’s surface.
Answer:
Let us consider a particle of mass m which is in a deep mine on the Earth. Let the depth of the mine as d. To calculate g’ at a depth d, consider the following points.

The part of the Earth that is above the radius (R_e – d) do not contribute to the acceleration. The result is proved earlier and is given as GM
g’ = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}^{\prime}}{\left(\mathrm{R}_{e}-d\right)^{2}}\)
M’ is the mass of the Earth of radius (R_e – d)
Assuming the density of Earth p to be constant,
ρ = \(\frac { M }{ V }\)
Where M is the mass of the Earth and V its volume, Thus,

Here also g'< g. As depth increases, g’ decreases.

Question 11.
Derive the time period of satellite orbiting the Earth.
Answer:
The distance covered by the satellite during one rotation in its orbit is equal to 2π(R_E + h) and time taken for it is the time period, T. Then

Equation (3) implies that a satellite orbiting the Earth has the same relation between time and distance as that of Kepler’s law of planetary motion. For a satellite orbiting near the surface of the Earth, h is negligible compared to the radius of the Earth R_E. Then,

Question 12.
Derive an expression for energy of satellite.
Answer:
The total energy of the satellite is the sum of its kinetic energy and the gravitational potential energy. The potential energy of the satellite is,
U = – \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{S}} \mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{E}}}{\left(\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}+h\right)}\) … (1)
Here M_s – Mass of the satellite, M_E – Mass of the Earth, R_E – Radius of the Earth.
The Kinetic energy of the satellite is
K.E = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)M_s … (2)
Here v is the orbital speed of the satellite and is equal to
v = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{E}}}{\left(\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}+h\right)}}\) … (3)
Substituting the value of v in (2), the kinetic energy of the satellite becomes,

Question 13.
Explain in detail thegeo-stationary and polar satellites.
Answer:
Geo-stationary satellite is the satellite which revolves around the Earth with same speed and in the same direction as the Earth rotates.
R_E + h = \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{E}} \mathrm{T}^{2}}{4 \pi^{2}}\right)\) … (1)
By substituting the values for the time period, mass and radius of the Earth, in equation (1) h turns out to be 36,000 km. Such satellites are called “geo – stationary satellites”, since they appear to be stationary when seen from Earth. INSAT group of satellites that are basically geo – stationary satellites used for the purpose of telecommunication.

A Polar satellite covers a small strip of area from pole to pole during one revolution. In the next revolution it covers a different strip of area. Since the Earth would have moved by a small angle. In this way polar satellites cover the entire surface area of the Earth.

Question 14.
Explain how geocentric theory is replaced by heliocentric theory using the idea of retrograde motion of planets.
Answer:
(i) During the observation of motion of the planets it is in the night sky by naked eyes over a period of a few months, it can be seen that the planets move eastwards and reverse their motion for a while and return to eastward motion again. This is called “retrograde motion” of planets.

(ii) Ptolemy introduced the concept of “epicycle” in his geocentric model. To explain this retrograde motion, according to this theory, while the planet orbited the Earth, it also underwent another circular motion termed as “epicycle”. A combination of epicycle and circular motion around the Earth gave rise to retrograde motion of the planets with respect to Earth.

(iii) But Ptolemy’s model became more and more complex as every planet was found to undergo retrograde motion.

(iv) According to heliocentric model, the Sun is at the centre of the solar system and all planets orbited the Sun. The retrograde motion of planets ‘with respect to Earth is due to the relative motion of the planet with respect to Earth. The retrograde motion from the heliocentric point of view.

The Earth orbits around the Sun faster than Mars. Due to the relative motion between Mars and Earth, Mars appears to move backwards from July to October. In the same way the retrograde motion of all other planets was explained successfully by the Copemicus model. The heliocentric model slowly replaced the geocentric model, because of its simplicity.

Question 15.
Explain in detail the Eratosthenes method of finding the radius of Earth.
Answer:

Eratosthenes observed that during noon time of summer solstice the Sun’s rays cast no shadow in the city Syne. It was located 500 miles away from Alexandria. At the same day and same time he found that in Alexandria the Sun’s rays made an angle 7.2 degree with local vertical as shown in the figure. He realized that this difference of 7.2 degree was due to the curvature of the Earth.
The angle 7.2 degree is equivalent to \(\frac { 1 }{ 8 }\) radian. So θ = \(\frac { 1 }{ 8 }\) rad.
If S is the length of the arc between the cities of Syne and Alexandria, and if R is radius of Earth, then,
S = Rθ = 500 miles
So, the radius of the Earth.
R = \(\frac { 500 }{ θ }\) miles
R = 500 \(\frac { miles }{ 1/8 }\)
R = 4000 miles
1 mile is equal to 1.609 km. So, he measured the radius of the Earth to be equal to R = 6436km, which is amazingly close to the correct value of 6378km.

Question 16.
Describe the measurement of Earth’s shadow (umbra) radius during total lunar eclipse.
Answer:

It is possible to measure the radius of the shadow of the Earth at the point where the Moon crosses. When the Moon exits from the umbra shadow, it appears red in color. As soon as the Moon exits from the umbra shadow, it appears in a crescent shape.
By knowing the apparent radii of the Earth’s umbra shadow and the Moon, the ratio of these radii can be calculated.
The apparent radius of Earth’s umbra shadow = R_s = 13.2cm.
The apparent radius of the Moon = R_m = 5.15 cm.
The ratio \(\frac{\mathrm{R}_{s}}{\mathrm{R}_{m}}\) ≈ 2.56
The radius of the Earth’s umbra shadow is,
R_s = 2.56 x R_m
The radius of Moon R_m = 1737km
The radius of the Earth’s umbra shadow is,
R_s = 2.56 x 1737 km ≅ 4446km.
The correct radius is 4610km.

IV. Conceptual Questions:

Question 1.
According to Kepler, planet move in
(a) Circular orbits around the Sun
(b) Elliptical orbits around the Sim with Sun at the exact centre
(c) Straight lines with constant velocity
(d) Elliptical orbits around the Sun with Sun at one of its foci.
Answer:
(d) Elliptical orbits around the Sun with Sun at one of its foci.

Question 2.
The work done by Sun on Earth in one year will be:
(a) zero
(b) non-zero
(c) positive
(d) negative
Answer:
(d) negative

Question 3.
Rockets are launched in an eastward direction to take advantage of …..
(a) the clear sky on the eastern side
(b) Earth’s rotation
(c) the thinner atmosphere on this side
(d) Earth’s tilt
Answer:
(b) Earth’s rotation
Hint:
Because of Earth rotation from west to east direction.

Question 4.
If a comet suddenly hits the Moon and imparts energy which is more than the total energy of the Moon, what will happen?
Answer:
A comet with small velocity and high mass, doesn’t trigger the moon much. It just makes a circular-shaped impact. The moon is ment for the protection for life on earth and to attain stability for the earth rotation. But a comet with large mass and with large velocity may destroy the moon completely or its impact makes the moon, go out of its orbit.

Question 5.
If the Earth’s pull on the Moon suddenly disappears, what will happen to the Moon?
Answer:
Earth’s pull is,
F = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{E}} \mathrm{M}_{m}}{\mathrm{R}_{m}^{2}}\)
The moon will move away with largest distance of approach. Motion of the moon would cease.

Question 6.
Define orbital velocity.
Answer:
Orbital velocity is the velocity required to put the satellite into its orbit around the earth.

Question 7.
A student was asked the question why are there summer and winter for us’? He replied as ‘since Earth is orbiting in an elliptical orbit, when the Earth is very far away from the Sun(aphelion) there will be winter when the Earth is nearer to the Sun(perihelion) there will be winter’. Is this answer correct? if not, what is the correct explanation for the occurrence of summer and winter?
Answer:
Early astronomers proved that Earth is spherical in shape by looking at the shape of the shadow cast by Earth on the Moon during a lunar eclipse.

Question 8.
The following photographs are taken from the recent lunar eclipse which occurred on January 31, 20.18. Is it possible to prove that Earth is a sphere from these photographs?
Answer:

From the photograph, the apparent radii of the Earth’s umbra shadow and the radius of the Moon, and the apparent radius of Earth can be calculated. By looking at the shape of the shadow caused by Earth on the Moon during lunar eclipse. We can confirm that Earth is spherical in shape.

V. Numerical Problems:

Question 1.
An unknown planet orbits the Sun with distance twice the semi-major axis distance of the Earth’s orbit, if the Earth’s time period is T₁ what is the time period of this unknown planet.
Answer:
Given: a₁ = 2a₁
To find: T₂ = ??
Formula: T² ∝ a³ => T ∝ (a)^3/2
T₂ ∝ (2a₁)^3/2
∝ (2)^3/2 (a₁)^3/2
T2 ∝ 2\(\sqrt{2}\) T₁
∴ T₂ = (2/\(\sqrt{2}\))T₁.

Question 2.
Assume that you are in another solar system and provided with the set of data given below consisting of the planet’s semi major axes and time periods. Can you infer the relation connecting semi-major axis and time period?
Answer:

Time period T² ∝ a³
T₁ = 2; a₁ = 8
a₁ = 2² x 2 = 2T₁ (T₁ = 2)
a₂ = 3² x 2 = 2T₂² (T₂ = 3)
a₃ = 4² x 2 = 2T₃² (T₃ = 4)
a₄ = 5² x 2 = 2T₄² (T₄ = 5)
a₅ = 6² x 2 = 2T₅² (T₅ = 6)
∴ a ∝ 2T²

Question 3.
If the masses and mutual distance between the two objects are doubled, what is the change in the gravitational force between them?
Given:
m₁‘ = 2m₁
m₂‘ = 2m₂
r₁ = 2r
Formula:

There is no change in the gravitational force.

Question 4.
Two bodies of masses m and Am are placed at a distance r. Calculate the gravitational potential at a point on the line joining them where the gravitational field is zero.
Answer:
Given: m₁ = m
m₂ = 4m
distance = r
To find: V = ??

Question 5.
If the ratio of the orbital distance of two planets \(\frac{d_{1}}{d_{2}}\) = 2, what is the ratio of gravitational field experienced by these two planets?
Given: \(\frac{d_{1}}{d_{2}}\) = 2
Formula:
Gravitational field,

Question 6.
The Moon lo orbits Jupiter once in 1.769 days. The orbital radius of the Moon lo is 421700 km. Calculate the mass of Jupiter?
Answer:

Question 7.
If the angular momentum of a planet is given by \(\vec{L}\) = 5t²\(\hat{i}\)-6t\(\hat{f}\)+3\(\hat{k}\). What is the torque experienced by the planet? Will the torque be in the same direction as that of the angular momentum?
Answer:

Question 8.
Four particles, each of mass M and equidistant from each other, move along a circle of radius R under the action of their mutual gravitational attraction. Calculate the speed of each particle.
Answer:
Force acting on a particle

Since particle, moving circular path experience centripetal force,

Question 9.
Suppose unknowingly you wrote the universal gravitational constant value as G = 6.67 x 10¹¹ instead of the correct value G = 6.67 x 10^-11, what is the acceleration due to gravity g’ for this incorrect G? According to this new acceleration due to gravity, what will be your weight W?
Answer:
Incorrect value of G = 6.67 x 10¹¹

If mass m = 1
then weight W’ = mg’- 9.8 x 10²²
W’ = 9.8 x 10²²W

Question 10.
Calculate the gravitational field at point O due to three masses m₁, m₂ and m₃ whose positions are given by the following figure. If the masses m₁ and m₂ are equal what is the change in a gravitational field at point O?
Answer:

The distance of masses m₁ and m₂ from the origin in the X-axis is ‘a’ and m₃ in y-axis also ‘a’

Question 11.
What is the gravitational potential energy of the Earth and Sun? The Earth to Sun distance is around 150 million km. The mass of the Earth is 5.9 x 10²⁴ kg and the mass of the Sun is 1.9 x 10³⁰ kg.
Answer:
Given: r = 150 million km
r = 150 x 10⁶ km
= 150 x 10⁹m
M_e = 5.9 x 10²⁴ kg
M_s = 1.9 x 10³⁰kg
To find: Potential energy = ??
Formula:

Question 12.
Earth revolves around the Sun at 30 km s¹. Calculate the kinetic energy of the Earth. In the previous example, you calculated the potential energy of the Earth. What is the total energy of the Earth in that case? Is the total energy positive? Give reasons.
Answer:
Given: V=30km/s

Formula:
\(\left.\begin{array}{l}
\text { Kinetic } \\
\text { energy(K.E) }
\end{array}\right\}\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)mv²
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) x 5.9 x 10²⁴ x 30 x 30 x 10³²
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) x 5.9 x 3 x 3 x 10³²
K.E = 26.55 x 10³² J.
∴ T.E = K.E + P.E
T.E = 26.55 x 10³² – 49.84 x 10³²
T.E = – 23.29 x 10³²J.
Total energy is negative. It implies Earth is bounded with Sun.

Question 13.
An object is thrown from Earth in such a way that it reaches a point at infinity with non-zero kinetic energy, with what velocity should the object be thrown from Earth?
Answer:
From the law of conservation of energy

Question 14.
Suppose we go 200 km above and below the surface of the Earth, what are the g values at these two points? In which case, is the value of g small?
Answer:
Given: depth (d) = height(A) = 200 km
We know that R – 6400 km
Formula:

Question 15.
Calculate the change in g value in your district of Tamilnadu.
(Hint: Get the latitude of your district of Tamilnadu from the Google). What is the difference in g values at Chennai and Kanyakumari?
Answer:
g’ = g – ω² Rcos² λ
Latitude of g at Chennai λ = 13°
ω²R = ( \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) )²R
= \(\left(\frac{2 \times 3.14}{24 \times 60 \times 60}\right)^{2}\) x 6400 x 10³
ω²R = 3.4 x 10^-2ms^-2
13°= 0.2268 rad
g_Chennai = 9.8 – (3.4 x 10^-2) x (cos 0.2268)²
g_Chennai = 9.7667 ms^-2 = 9.767 ms^-2
Latitude of g at Kanyakumari = 8.08°

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 22 Types of Trade Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 22 Types of Trade

11th Commerce Guide Types of Trade Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The purchase of goods from a foreign country is called ………………..
a. Import
b. Export
c. Entrepot
d. Re-export
Answer:
a. Import

Question 2.
When goods are imported for the purpose of export it is called as …………..
a. Foreign Trade
b. Home Trade
c. Entrepot
d. Trade
Answer:
c. Entrepot

Question 3.
………………… acts as a connective link between the producer and the consumer.
a. Trade
b. Industry
c. Commerce
d. Business
answer:
a. Trade

Question 4.
The aim of home trade is ……………………
a. To raise the standard of living
b.To provide the essential goods and services economically
c. To raise the national income
d.To obtain all types of goods.
Answer:
b.To provide the essential goods and services economically

Question 5.
Internal trade can be classified into ……………… categories
a. Three
b. Four
c. Two
d. Five
Answer:
c. Two

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give the meaning of Trade?
Answer:
The buying and selling of goods and services consist of trade. Trade is conducted in order to earn a profit.

Question 2.
What is Internal Trade?
Answer:
Buying and selling of goods and services within the boundaries of a nation are called internal trade. It takes place between buyers and sellers in the same locality, village, town or city or in different states, but definitely within the same country.

Question 3.
Mr.Vikram who runs a textile industry regularly procures cotton from Germany. Name the type of trade he is engaged in.
Answer:
This is Import trade because Mr. Vikram procures (purchases) cotton from Germany Import means buying of goods from a foreign country for domestic use.

Question 4.
When Vikram of India sells cotton shirts to Amal of England, what type of trade he is engaged in?
Answer:
It is called Export Trade.

Question 5.
How do you classify Trade?
Answer:
On the basis of the geographical location of buyers and sellers, trade can be broadly classified into two categories

1. Internal trade
2. External trade

Question 6.
What are the classifications of internal trade?
Answer:
Internal trade can be classified into Wholesale trade and Retail Trade.

Question 7.
What is import trade?
Answer:
Import trade means buying goods from a foreign country for domestic use.
Example. India imports petroleum products from Gulf Countries.

Question 8.
Explain the meaning of the Entrepot trade.
Answer:
Entrepot trade means importing goods from one country and exporting the same to foreign countries. It is also known as ‘Re-export trade’.

Question 9.
TVS is selling motorbikes in Europe. Under which type of trade can this be classified?
Answer:
TVS is selling motorbikes in Europe. This trade can be classified under Foreign trade.

Question 10.
What is the currency used in India in internal trade?
Answer:
The currency used in India for internal trade is RUPEE.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the classification of Foreign trade?
Answer:
Types of Foreign Trade:

1. Import Trade: Import trade means buying goods from a foreign country for domestic use.
2. Export Trade: Export trade means the sale of domestic goods to foreign countries.
3. Entrepot Trade: Entrepot trade means importing goods from one country and exporting the same to foreign countries.

Question 2.
Give two examples of Entrepot trade.
Answer:
Indian diamond merchants in Surat import uncut raw diamonds from South Africa. They cut and polish the diamonds in their units in India and re-export them to the International Diamond Market in Amsterdam. An Indian Company imports rubber from Thailand and exports it to Japan.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Export trade?
Answer:
Export trade means the sale of domestic goods to foreign countries. Export trade is necessary to sell domestic surplus goods, to make better utilization of resources, to earn foreign exchange, to increase national income, to generate employment, and to increase Government revenue.

Question 4.
What is Wholesale trade?
Answer:
“Purchase of goods in bulk from the manufacturers and selling them in smaller quantities to other intermediaries” is known as wholesale trade.

Question 5.
State the meaning of Retail trade.
Answer:
Retail trade deals with the distribution of goods in small quantities to consumers.

Question 6.
Name any three retail traders in your locality
Answer:
Sree Akshaya Traders, Hari Traders, and Thomas Traders. (Any three)

Question 7.
State the main aim of trade.
Answer:
The essence of trade is to make goods and services available to those persons who need them and are able and willing to pay for them. Trade is conducted in order to earn a profit.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the features of Internal trade?
Answer:

1. The buying and selling of goods take place within the boundaries of the same country.
2. Payment for goods and services is made in the currency of the home country.
3. It involves transactions between the producers, consumers, and middlemen.
4. It consists of a distribution network of middlemen and agencies engaged in an exchange of goods and services.
5. In-home trade, the risk of transportation is very less when compared to foreign trade.
6. In-home trade, the laws prevailing in that country only have to be followed.
7. The aim of home trade is to provide goods and services economically.
8. The goods must be a part of domestic production.
9. Goods must be purchased from an individual or a firm established within a country.
10. Goods can be delivered using locally available modes of transport.
11. It does not involve any custom/import duty, but buyers need to pay the taxes to the Government.

Question 2.
Explain briefly the different types of Foreign trade?
Answer:
Meaning:
Foreign trade is a trade between a seller and buyer of different countries. It involves the exchange of goods and services of one country with another country.
Types of Foreign Trade
A. Import Trade:
Import trade means buying goods from a foreign country for domestic use. Example. India imports petroleum products from Gulf Countries. India imports machinery, equipment, materials, etc. It is necessary to speed-up industrialization, meet consumer demands, and improve the standard of living.

B. Export Trade:
Export trade means the sale of domestic goods to foreign countries.

Examples:

1. Export of Iron ore from India to Japan
2. Selling of Tea from India to England.
3.  Export of jasmine flowers from Madurai to Singapore.

11th Commerce Guide Types of Trade Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer :

Question 1.
……………… trade is a trade between a seller and buyer of different countries.
(a) Foreign
(b) Export
(c) Entrepot
(d) Home
Answer:
(a) Foreign

Question 2.
The internal trade is also called…………….
a. Wholesale Trade
b. Retail Trade
c. Entrepot Trade
d. Home Trade
Answer:
d. Home Trade

Question 3.
Selling of Tea from India to England – What type of trade is this?
Answer:
(a) Export
(b) Import
(c) Entrepot
(d) Home
Answer:
(a) Export

Question 4.
India imports petroleum products from Gulf countries. This is the example for ………………….
a. Wholesale Trade
b. Retail Trade
c. Entrepot Trade
d. Import Trade
Answer:
d. Import Trade

Question 5.
Hero pens produced in China and sold in India is an example for ……………… trade.
(a) Foreign
(b) Home
(c) Export
(d) Entrepot
Answer:
(a) Foreign

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Where does Internal Trade take place?
Answer:
Internal takes place between the buyers and sellers in the same locality, village, town, or city or in different states but with the same country.

III. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Write a short note on Entrepot Trade:
Entrepot trade means importing goods from one country and exporting the same to foreign countries. It is also known as ‘Re-export trade’.

E.g. Indian diamond merchants in Surat import uncut raw diamonds from South Africa. They cut and polish the diamonds in their units in India and re-export them to the International Diamond Market in Amsterdam.

IV. Long Answer Questions
Question 1.
Explain the types of Internal Trade
Answer:
Home trade consists of two main subdivisions namely

1. Wholesale trade: “Purchase of goods in bulk from the manufacturers and selling them in smaller quantities .to other intermediaries” is known as wholesale trade.
2. Retail Trade: Retail trade deals with the distribution of goods in small quantities to consumers.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 21 Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) and Self Help Groups (SHGs) Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 21 Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) and Self Help Groups (SHGs)

11th Commerce Guide Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) and Self Help Groups (SHGs) Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
MSMED Act was enacted in the year ……………………..
(a) 2004
(b) 2007
(c) 2006
(d) 2008
Answer:
(c) 2006

Question 2.
MSMEs are important for the nation’s economy because they significantly contribute to
(a) Industrial production
(b) exports
(c) employment
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 3.
Self-help groups convert the savings into a common fund known as
(a) Common fund
(b) Group corpus fund
(c) Group fund
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) Group corpus fund

Question 4.
There are …………… distinct modes of credit to Self Help Groups.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 5.
Investment limit of a micro enterprise under manufacturing sector does not exceed ……………….. lakhs
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 25
(d) 50
Answer:
(c) 25
II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you understand by the manufacturing enterprises?
Answer:
Manufacturing Enterprises refer to the enterprises engaged in the manufacturing or production of goods pertaining to any industry specified in the first schedule to the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951. The manufacturing enterprises are defined in terms of investment in plant and machinery.

Question 2.
Give some examples for micro-enterprises.
Answer:
SIPCOT and TANSIDCO are the government micro-enterprises in Tamil Nadu.

Question 3.
What is the aim of NEEDS?
Answer:
The government of Tamil Nadu launched the “New Entrepreneur – cum – Enterprise Development Scheme (NEEDS)” with a view to encouraging the educated youth to become the first generation entrepreneurs. The Scheme usages providing entrepreneurship development training to educated young entrepreneurs, preparing business plans, and helping them to tie up with financial institutions to set up new business ventures besides linking them with major industrial clients.

Question 4.
What is a Self Help Group?
Answer:
Self Help Group is a small informal voluntary association created for the purpose of enabling members to reap economic benefit out of mutual help, solidarity, and joint responsibility.

Question 5.
State the investment limit for small enterprises in the manufacturing and service sectors.
Answer:

• Manufacturing Sector – More than 25 lakhs but not exceeding 5 crores.
• Service Sector – more than 10 lakhs but not exceeding 2 crores.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
State the investment limit for medium enterprises engaged in the manufacturing and service sector.
Answer:

• Manufacturing Sector – More than 5 crores but not exceeding 10 crores.
• Service Sector – More than 2 crores but not exceeding 5 crores.

Question 2.
List out the products produced by MSME in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu, the MSMEs sector produces a wide variety of products in almost all fields. The prominent among them are the textile, electronic products, engineering products, auto ancillaries, leather products, chemicals, plastics, garments, jewellery etc.

Question 3.
What is the role and significance of MSMEs in Indian Economy?
Answer:
The MSME Sector contributes about 8% to Gross Domestic Product (GDP) besides 45% to the total manufacturing output and 40% to the exports from the country on the production of more than 6000 products. This Sector consists of 36 million units and provides employment to over 8 crore people.

Question 4.
Explain any three features of the Self Help Group.
Answer:

1. The motto of every group members should be “saving first – credit later”
2. Self Help Group is homogeneous in terms of economic status.
3. The ideal size of a Self Help Group ranges between 10 and 20 members.

Question 5.
What are the different ways in which banks fund Self Help Groups?
Answer:
There are three different ways by which banks fund SHGs. They are:

1. Banks lend directly to the SHGs. ‘
2. Banks provide loans to the NGOs for onward lending to the SHGs and ultimately to micro-entrepreneurs.
3. Banks extend credit to the SHGs with the NGOs serving as facilitators.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the definition of MSME?
Answer:
In accordance with the provisions of the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act 2006, the micro, small and medium enterprises are classified into two classes. Entrepreneurship is the key to the economic development of any country By empowering entrepreneurs, the MSME sector provides more employment opportunities to the people of India. It helps towards the industrialization of rural and backward areas. This sector reduces regional imbalances. It provides an equitable distribution of national income and wealth.

A. Manufacturing Enterprises:
They refer to the enterprises engaged in the manufacturing or production of goods pertaining to any industry specified in the first schedule to the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951. The manufacturing enterprises are defined in terms of investment in plant and machinery.

B. Service Enterprises:
They refer to the enterprises engaged in providing or rendering services.

Question 2.
Explain the advantages of MSMEs?
Answer:
1.Employment Potential:
MSMEs generate more employment opportunities than large business concerns.
They are mostly labour intensive, thus they provide more employment opportunities to a larger number of people in India.

2.Low Production Cost:
MSMs do not require skilled labourers or professionals to run the organisation. It employs cheap labor and thus minimizes the overhead. These units are more cost-efficient than large-scale units, thus facilitates the production of goods at low cost.

3. Low Investment:
MSMEs do not require a huge capital to start the unit. h can employ locally available resources within the reach of the owner. They help to perfect and promote traditional family skills and handicrafts. These induštries facilitate the growth of local entrepreneurs and self-employed professionals in small towns and villages.

4. Quick Decision Making:
MSMEs need not hire professional managers to run the management on a day to day basis. In most cases, the owner himself manages the enterprises. license, timely decision making becomes easy and effective.

5. Supplementary Role:
MSMEs pray a complementary role to serve as a feeder to large-scale industries. They supply accessories, spare parts, and components to large scale industries.

6. Establishment of Socialistic Pattern of Society:
MSME sector contributes towards the establishment of socialistic pattern of society by redùcing the concentration of income and. wealth. ¡t enables and empowers people of small means to take up a gainful industrial activity, and thereby helps to achieve equitable distribution of wealth.

7. Balanced Regional Development:
By encouraging MSMEs in industrially backward areas of India, . balanced development can be achieved across all regions. It will also help greatly in preventing people from migrating to cities and towns in pursuit of employment.

8. Promotion of Self Employment and Self Reliance Spirit:
MSMEs help a great deal in developing a class of entrepreneurs. It promotes self-employment and a spirit of self-reliance in society, thereby contributing to an increase in per capita income or economic development.

9. Higher Contribution to Manufacturing and Export:
MSMEs contribute 45% to the total manufacturing output and 40% to the exports from the country. It helps in earning precious foreign exchange in various countries across the world.

Question 3.
What are the objectives of SHGs?
Answer:

1. Focusing on the empowerment of women.
2. Saving people from the clutches of money lenders
3. Building capacity of women and enabling them to participate in generating activities.
4. Creating the habit of saving in the minds of the people who are economically backward.
5. Promoting entrepreneurship skills among women.
6. Creating awareness about the importance of credit circle or revolving credit and the payment of the circle.
7. Elevating the economic standard of the member’s families.
8. Developing skills and facilitating credit linkages for eventual economic empowerment.
9. Promoting awareness among the members about finding solutions for their economic problems.
10. Identifying the common interest of the group members and carrying out their operations in the most efficient and economic way.
11. Enabling the members to overcome all social and economic barriers.
12. Promising and ensuring human rights to women at all stages of their life cycle.

11th Commerce Guide Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) and Self Help Groups (SHGs) Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Tamil Nadu Corporation for Development of Women Limited (TNCDW) was established in the year …………….
(a) 1983
(b) 1984
(c) 1985
(d) 1995
Answer:
(a) 1983

Question 2.
The process of manufacturing enterprises is specified in the first schedule to the ……….
a. CA2013
b. MSMED 2006
c. IDRA 1951
d. PA1932
Answer:
c. IDRA 1951

Question 3.
MSME supplies …………………………. to large scale industries.
a. Accessories
b. Spare Parts
c. Components
d. All the above
Answer:
d. All the above

Question 4.
The registered number of units of MSMEs in Tamilnadu as of 12.12.2017 ……….
a. 13.24 lakhs
b. 18.86 lakhs
c. 19.24 lakhs
d. 12.94 lakhs
Answer:
d. 12.94 lakhs

Question 5.
Which one of the following regional rural banks provides financial assistance to MSME start-ups.?
a. Pandian Rural Bank
b. Pallavan Rural Bank
c. Vallalar Rural Bank
d. All the above
Answer:
c. Vallalar Rural Bank

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are all the activities engaged by Microenterprises?
Answer:
Micro enterprises are engaged in low-scale activities such as clay pot making, fruits and vegetable vendors, transport (three-wheeler tempos and autos), repair shops, cottage industries, small industries, handlooms, handicraft works, etc.

Question 2.
Give examples for Public Sector Banks.
Answer:
State Bank of India, Indian Bank, Indian Overseas Bank, Canara Bank.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Self Help Group:
Answer:
National Bank for Agricultural & Rural Development (NABARD) has defined Self Help Group as “a homogenous group of rural poor voluntarily formed to save whatever amount they can conveniently save out of their earnings and mutually agree to contribute to a common fund of the group to be lent to the members for meeting their productive and emergent credit needs”

Question 2.
Write a short note on MUDRA bank:
Answer:
The Government of India has launched MUDRA Bank with a capital amount of 20,000 crores, and a credit guarantee corpus of 3,000 crores, to help Micro Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) and startups resolve problems relating to financing. MUDRA Bank refinances micro-Finance Institutions through a PradhanMantriMudraYojana (PMMY).

Question 3.
Write a note on the activities of Self Help Groups in India:
Answer:
In December 2017 there were 45,67,090 SHGs in India. The total number of members in SHGs during the same period stood at 5,02,65,933 at all Indian levels. The five-year plans of the government of India have given due recognition to the relevance of the Self-help group concept to implement developmental schemes at the grassroots level.

IV. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Briefly explain the limit of investment by MSME in the Manufacturing sector and Service sector:
Answer:

Question 2.
Write a note on NEEDS:
Answer:
The government of Tamil Nadu launched the “New Entrepreneur-cum-Enterprise Development Scheme (NEEDS)” with a view to encouraging the educated youth to become the first generation entrepreneurs.

The Scheme envisages providing entrepreneurship development training to educated young entrepreneurs, preparing business plans, and helping them to tie up with financial institutions to set up new business ventures, besides linking them .with major industrial clients.

Question 3.
Explain the institutional sources of finance for MSMEs:
Answer:
There are many Banks and Financial institutions which provide financial assistance to Micro Small and Medium Enterprises and start-ups.
A. Commercial Banks

• Public sector banks (e.g) State Bank of India, Indian Bank, Indian Overseas Bank Canara Bank
• Private sector banks (e.g) ICICI, Axis Bank, City Union Bank, HDFC, KarurVasya Bank, Tamilnadu Mercantile Bank

B. Regional Rural bank

• Pandian Rural bank,
• Pallavan Rural Bank,
• Vallalar Rural Bank.

C.Co operative Banks
TNSC Bank, District Central Co-operative Banks
D. Micro Finance Institutions (e.g) MUDRA Bank
E. Non-Banking Finance Institutions

• National. Small Industries Corporation Ltd (NSIC)
• Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)

Question 4.
Explain the features of Self Help Groups:
Answer:

• The motto of every group members should be “saving first – credit latter”
• Self Help Group is homogeneous in terms of economic status.
• The ideal size of a Self Help Group ranges between 10 and 20 members.
• The groups need not be registered.
• Groups are non-political, voluntary associations and follow a democratic culture. ,
• Each group should have only one member from one single family.
• A group is to be formed with only men or only with women.
• Self Help Group holds weekly meetings mostly during non-working hours, and full attendance is made mandatory for better participation.
• The groups have transparency among themselves and they have collective accountability in respect of financial transactions.
• Every group provides a platform to its members for the exchange of their views and ideas freely.

Question 5.
Explain the functions of Self-help groups:
Answer:

• Developing and enhancing the decision-making capacity of members
• Increasing general awareness on literacy among members.
• Equipping the poor with basic skills for understanding monetary transactions.
• Maintaining books and registers to ensure proper accounts.
• Providing necessary training in the chosen field.
• Submitting the accounts for annual audit by a qualified auditor.
• Deciding the loan amount be sanctioned to the group members.

Question 6.
Write a note on SHGs in Tamil Nadu:
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu, Tamil Nadu Corporation for Development of Women Limited (TNCDW) was established in the year 1983 with the prime objective of socio-economic development and empowerment of rural women. The Government of Tamil Nadu spearheaded the Self Help Group concept in the country by forming SHGs in the Dharmapuri district with the assistance of the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD) in September 1989. The success of the IFAD project paved way for the now popularly called “MahalirThittam” project.

which was launched during 1997-98 with the State Government funding and was progressively extended to all the 30 districts. The SHG movement has now emerged as a powerful and vibrant movement illuminating the lives of many poor women in the state.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 20 International Finance Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 20 International Finance

11th Commerce Guide International Finance Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
An instrument representing ownership interest in securities of a foreign issuer is called ………………..
a. an ownership certificate
b. a depositary receipt.
c. an ownership receipt
d. None of the above.
Answer:
b. a depositary receipt.

Question 2.
Issuance of DRs is based on the increase of demand in the ……………….
a. International market
b. Local market
c. Existing shareholders
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. International market

Question 3.
ADRs are issued in ……………
a. Canada
b. China
c. India
d. The USA
Answer:
d. The USA

Question 4.
Depositary receipts that are traded in an international market other than the United States are called ……………..
a. Global Depositary Receipts
b. International Depositary Receipts.
c. Open Market Depositary Receipts
d. Special Drawing Rights.
Answer:
a. Global Depositary Receipts

Question 5.
………………….. bond is a special type of bond issued in a currency other than the home currency.
a. Government Bonds
b. Foreign Currency Convertible Bond
c. Corporate Bonds
d. Investment Bonds
Answer:
b. Foreign Currency Convertible Bond

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Who are Foreign Institutional Investors?
Answer:
The Foreign Institutional Investors (FII) can be defined as an investment made by a Non-resident in the equity of a domestic company without the intention of acquiring management control.

Question 2.
What is a Depository Receipt?
Answer:
A depository receipt is a negotiable financial instrument issued by a bank to represent a foreign company’s equity shares or securities.

Question 3.
What is a GDR (Global Depository Receipt)?
Answer:
GDR is an instrument issued abroad by a company to raise funds in some foreign currencies and is listed and traded on a foreign stock exchange.

Question 4.
What is an American Depositary Receipt (ADR)?
Answer:
ADR is a dollar-denominated negotiable certificate representing a non-US company in the US market which allows US citizens to invest in overseas securities.

Question 5.
What is a Foreign Currency Convertible Bond?
Answer:
A foreign currency convertible bond is a special type of bond issued in a currency other than the home currency. In other words, companies issue foreign currency convertible bonds to raise money in foreign currency.

III. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain the importance of international finance.
Answer:

• International finance helps in calculating the exchange rates of various currencies of nations and the relative worth of each and every nation in terms thereof.
• It helps in comparing the inflation rates and getting an idea about investing in international debt securities.
• It helps in ascertaining the economic status of the various countries and in judging the foreign market.

Question 2.
What are Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds?
Answer:
A foreign currency convertible bond is a special type of bond issued in a currency other than the home currency. Companies issue foreign currency convertible bonds to raise money in foreign currency.

Question 3.
Explain any three disadvantages of FDI:
Answer:

1. Exploiting Natural Resources: The FDI Companies deplete natural resources like water, forest, mines, etc. As a result, such resources are not available for the usage of the common man in the host country.
2. Heavy Outflow of capital: Foreign companies are said to take away huge tunes in the form of dividends, royalty fees, etc. This causes a huge outflow of capital from the host country.
3. Not Transferring Technology: Some foreign enterprises do not transfer the technology to developing countries. They mostly transfer second-hand technology to the host country.

Question 4.
State any three features of ADR:
Answer:
ADRs are denominated only in US dollars. They are issued only to investors who are American residents. The depository bank should be located in the US.

Question 5.
State any three features of GDR:
Answer:

1. It is a negotiable instrument and can be traded freely like any other security.
2. GDRs are issued to investors across the country. It is denominated in any acceptable freely convertible currency.
3. GDR is denominated in any foreign currency but the underlying shares would be denominated in the local currency of the issuer.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Describe the importance of international finance?
Answer:

1. International finance helps in calculating the exchange rates of various currencies of nations and the relative worth of each and every nation in terms thereof.
2. It helps in comparing the inflation rates and getting an idea about investing in international debt securities.
3. It helps in ascertaining the economic status of the various countries and in judging the foreign market.
4. International Financial Reporting System (IFRS) facilitates comparison of financial statements made by various countries.
5. It helps in understanding the basics of international organisations and maintaining the balance among them.

Question 2.
Distinguish between GDR and ADR.
Answer:

Question 3.
State any five features of FCCB.
Answer:

1. FCCB is issued by an Indian company in foreign currency.
2. These are listed and traded in the foreign stock exchange and similar to the debenture.
3. It is a convertible debt instrument. It carries an interest coupon. It is unsecured.
4. It gives its holders the right to convert for a fixed number of shares at a predetermined price.
5. It can be converted into equity or depository receipt after a certain period.

Question 4.
Explain any five advantages of FDI.
Answer:
International Finance:
1. Achieving Higher Growth in National Income Developing countries get much-needed capital through FDI to achieve a higher rate of growth in national income.

2. Help in Addressing BOP Crisis FDI provides an inflow of foreign exchange resources into a country. This helps the country to solve the adverse balance of payment position.

3. Faster Economic Development FDI brings technology, management, and marketing skills along with it. These are crucial for achieving faster economic development in developing countries.

4. Generating Employment Opportunities: FDI generates a lot of employment opportunities in developing countries, especially in high-skill areas.

5. Encouraging Competition in Host Countries Entry of FDI into developing countries promotes healthy competition therein. This leads to enterprises in developing countries operating efficiently and effectively in the market. Consumers get a variety of products of good quality at a market-determined price which usually benefits the customers.

11th Commerce Guide International Finance Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
…………….. is a section of financial economics that deals with the monetary interactions that occur between two or more countries.
(a) International finance
(b) Business finance
(c) DR
(d) GDR
Answer:
(a) International finance

Question 2.
If the local currency is in variable form and foreign currency is in fixed form quotation will be …………….
a. Indirect
b. direct
c. Local Form
d. Foreign form
Answer:
a. Indirect

Question 3.
………………. is an instrument issued abroad by a company to raise funds in some foreign currencies and is listed and traded on a foreign stock exchange.
(a) GDR
(b) DR
(c) FDI
(d) FII
Answer:
(a) GDR

II. Very Short Answer Questions:
Question 1.
Define Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
Answer:
Foreign direct investment (FDI) is an investment made by a company or an individual in one country with business interests in another country, in the form of either establishing business operations or acquiring business assets in the other country, such as ownership or controlling interest in a foreign company.

Question 2.
Expand the following:
Answer:

1. GDR: Global Depositary Receipt
2. ODB: Overseas Depository Bank
3. DCB: Domestic Custodian Bank
4. ECB: External Commercial Borrowing

III. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are International capital markets?
Answer:
Modem organisations including multinational companies depend upon sizeable borrowings in rupees as well as in foreign currencies. Prominent financial instruments used for this purpose are Depository Receipts.

Question 2.
What are all the forms of Foreign Direct Investment?
Answer:
Foreign direct investments take the following forms:
Establishment of a new enterprise in a foreign country. Expansion of existing branch or subsidiary in a foreign country. Acquisition of enterprise located in a foreign country.

IV. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What are all the disadvantages of FDI?
Answer:
The following are the disadvantages of FDI:
Exploiting Natural Resources:
The FDI Companies deplete natural resources like water. forest, mines, etc. As a result, such resources are not available for the usage of the common man in the host country.
Heavy Outflow of capital:
Foreign companies are said -to take away huge funds in the form of dividends, royalty fees etc. This causes a huge outflow of capital from the host country.

Not Transferring Technology:
Some foreign enterprises do not transfer the technology to developing countries. They mostly transfer second-hand technology to the host country. They keep the fundamental aspects of technology with the parent company. In such a case, the host country may not get the advantage of technology transfer and consequently economic development.

Exploiting Cheap Labour:
Foreign enterprises employ a cheap labour force at lower pay in developing countries. They do not employ local people for higher posts in the management. Further, they do not extend the privileges they usually give to the employees in their home country to the employees of the host country. Thus they are stated to exploit the labour in developing countries.

Creating Monopolistic Environment:
Multi-National Companies (MNCs) which enter the host country through the FDI route create monopolistic conditions in the host countries through their market power. They may not create a competitive environment in the host country. Contrarily they may affect the competition altogether and establish supremacy.

Question 2.
Write a note on FII:
Answer:
The FII can be defined as an investment made by a Non-resident inequity of a domestic company without the intention of acquiring management control. Fils are the investments made by an individual investor or an investment fund, into the financial markets of another nation. Organizations like hedge funds, insurance companies, pension funds, and mutual funds can be called institutional investors.

Foreign Institutional Investors play a very important role in the Indian economy. From 1992, Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) have been allowed to invest in all securities traded on the primary and secondary markets, including shares, debentures, and warrants issued by companies. Over 1450 foreign institutional investors have registered their names with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), the regulator for the securities market in India.

Question 3.
Explain the international sources from where funds can be generated?
Answer:
Commercial Banks:
Most of the commercial banks extend foreign currency loans for promoting business opportunities. The loans and services of various types, provided by banks differ from country to country.

International Agencies and Development Banks:
International agencies and Development banks play an important role to promote international trade and business. They provide term loans and grants to promote the development of economically backward areas in the world. International Finance Corporation (IFC), EXIM Bank, and Asian Development Bank are the agencies operating at the International level to meet the needs of international finance.

International Capital Markets:
Modem organisations including multinational companies depend upon sizeable borrowings in rupees as well as in foreign currencies. Prominent financial instruments used for this purpose are Depository Receipts.

Question 4.
Explain the procedure for issuing ADR:
Answer:

• First of all, a company hands over the shares to a Domestic Custodian Bank (DCB)
• Then DCB requests the American Depository Bank (ADB) to issue the shares in the form of ADRs
• ADB converts the issue which are in rupees into US dollars
• Finally, ADB issues them to the intending investors.

Question 5.
Explain the process of issuing GDR:
Answer:

• The company issuing GDRs hands over its shares to one Domestic Custodian Bank (DCB).
• The DCB requests the Overseas Depository Bank (ODB) situated in the foreign country for issuing the shares as GDR.
• The ODB converts the shares shown in rupees into GDR which are denominated in US dollars.
• Finally, ODB issues them to the intending investors.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 19 Sources of Business Finance Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 19 Sources of Business Finance

11th Commerce Guide Sources of Business Finance Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
What is defined as the provision of money at the time when it is required?
a. Finance
b. Bank
c. Cash management
d. None of these
Answer:
a. Finance

Question 2.
Internal sources of capital are those that are ……………
a. Generated through outsiders such as suppliers
b. Generated through loans from commercial banks
c. Generated through the issue of shares
d. Generated within the business
Answer:
d. Generated within the business

Question 3.
Debenture holders are entitled to a fixed rate of …………..
a. Dividend
b. Profits
c. Interest
d. Ratios
Answer:
c. Interest

Question 4.
Public deposits are the deposits which are raised directly from …………………….
a. The public
b. The directors
c. The auditors
d. The owners
Answer:
a. The public

Question 5.
Equity shareholders are the ……………………… of a company
a. Creditors
b. Owners
c. Debtors
d. Employees
Answer:
c. Debtors

Question 6.
Funds required for purchasing current assets is an example for
a. Fixed Capital Requirement
b. Ploughing Back of Profits
c. Working Capital Requirement
d. Lease Financing
Answer:
c. Working Capital Requirement

Question 7.
Which of the following holder is given voting right?
a. Debentures
b. Preference Shares
c. Equity shares
d. Bonds
Answer:
c. Equity shares

Question 8.
It may be wise to finance fixed assets through ……………….
a. Creditors
b. Long term debts
c. Bank Overdraft
d. Bills Discounting.
Answer:
b. Long term debts

II. Very Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Write short notes on debentures:
Answer:
Debentures are an important instrument for raising long term debt capital. A company can raise funds through the issue of debentures which bear a fixed rate of interest.

Question 2.
What do you mean by public deposits?
Answer:
It is a method of inviting public deposits by giving advertisements in the media by the companies. It offers deposit schemes for a longer tenure. The interest rates offered by companies on public companies are higher than the bank.

Question 3.
Name any two sources of funds classified under borrowed funds.
Answer:

1. Debentures
2. Loan from banks

Question 4.
Name any two internal sources of business finance.
Answer:
Capital by the owners (start-up or additional capital); Debt Collection.

Question 5.
State any two factors that affect the choice of source of finance.
Answer:

1. Cost
2. Financial capacity to the firms

III. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Define Business finance.
Answer:
In the words of R.C.Os born, “ The finance function is the process of acquiring and utilizing funds by a business”.

Question 2.
What is a pledge?
Answer:
A customer transfers the possession of an article with the creditor (banker) and receives loan. Till the repayment of loan, the article is under the custody of the borrower. If the debtor fails to refund the loan, creditor (banker) will auction the article pawned and adjust the outstanding loan from the sale proceeds.

Question 3.
List sources of raising long-term and short-term finance
Answer:
Sources of Short-term finance:

1. Loans and Advances
2. Bank Overdraft
3. Discounting Bills of Exchange
4. Trade credit
5. Pledge
6. Hypothecation
7. Mortgage
8. Loans Against the Securities
9. Clear loan
10. Commercial paper (CP)
11. Hire purchase finance.
12. Factoring

Sources of Long – Term Finance:

1. Shares
2. Debentures
3. Retained earnings
4. Public deposits
5. Long term loan from commercial banks
6. The loans from financial institutions

Question 4.
For which purpose fixed capital is needed in business?
Answer:
Business enterprises need finance for fixed and working capital requirements. Fixed capital requirements include the purchase of plant, machinery, furniture, fixtures, vehicles, and so on.

Question 5.
What do you mean by the working capital requirement of a business?
Answer:
Working capital is nothing but the amount which is needed for meeting the day to j day expenses of the business. The working capital requirements include the purchase of I raw materials, payment of salary and wages,  incurring operating expenses like telephone bills, carriage inward and outward, electricity charges, premium, stationery, etc.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
List out the various sources of financing.
Answer:
The various sources of business finance can be classified into three categories on the basis of the following:
Period basis: On the basis of the period, The different sources of finance can be further grouped into three categories on the basis of period

1. Short term finance
2. Medium-term finance
3. Long term finance

Ownership basis: On the Basis of Ownership, Business finance can be divided into two categories based on ownership of funds.

1. Owner’s Fund
2. Borrowed Fund

Source of generation basis: On the Basis of Generation of Funds, The sources of funds can be grouped into two categories based on generation.

1. Internal sources
2. External sources

Question 2.
What are the different types of short term finances given by commercial banks?
Answer:
1. Loans and Advances:
Loan is a direct advance made in a lump sum which is credited to a separate loan account in the name of the borrower. The borrower can withdraw the entire amount in cash immediately.

2. Bank Overdraft:
Bank overdraft refers to an arrangement whereby the bank allows the customers to overdraw the required amount from its current deposit account within a specified limit.

3. Discounting Bills of Exchange:
When goods are sold on credit, the suppliers generally draw bills of exchange upon customers who are required to accept it.

4. Trade Credit:
Trade credit is the credit extended by one trader to another for the purpose of purchasing goods and sendees. Purchaser need not pay money immediately after the purchase.

5. Pledge:
A customer transfers the possession of an article with the creditor (banker) and receives loan. Till the repayment of loan, the article is under the custody of the borrower. If the debtor fails to refund the loan, the creditor (banker) will auction the article pawned and adjust the outstanding loan from the sale proceeds.

6. Hypothecation:
This is a loan taken by depositing a document of title to the property with the banker. Of course, the physical possession of asset property is with the borrower. If the borrower fails to repay the loan amount, the article hypothecated will be sold in auction by the banker concerned.

Question 3.
Write short notes on :
Answer:
Retained Earnings:
Retained earnings refer to the process of retaining a part of net profit year after year and reinvesting them in the business. It is also termed as ploughing back of profit. An individual would like to save a portion of his/ her income for meeting the contingencies and growth needs.

Similarly profit making company would retain a portion of the net profit in order to finance its growth and expansion in near future. It is described to be the most convenient and economical method of finance.

Lease financing:
Lease financing denotes procurement of assets through lease. Leasing here refers to the owning of an asset by any individual or a corporate body which will be given for use to another needy business enterprise on a rental basis. The firm which owns the asset is called ‘Lessor’ and the business enterprise which hires the asset is called ‘Lessee’. The contract is called ‘Lease’.

The terms and conditions like lease period, rent fixed, mode of payment and allocation of maintenance, are mentioned in the lease contract.

Question 4.
Write short notes on

1. Owner’s funds
2. Borrowed funds

Answer:
1. Owner’s Funds:
Owner’s funds mean funds which are provided by the owner of the enterprises who may be an individual or partners or shareholders of a company. The profits reinvested in the business (ploughing back of profit or retained earnings) come under the owner’s funds. These funds are not required to be refunded during the lifetime of a business enterprise. It provides the owner the right to control the management of the enterprise.

2. Borrowed Funds:
The term ‘borrowed funds’ denotes the funds raised through loans or borrowings. For example debentures, loans from banks and financial institutions, public deposits, trade credit, lease financing, commercial papers, factoring, etc., represent borrowed funds.

These borrowed sources of funds provide a specific period before which the fund is to be returned. The borrower is under legal obligation to pay interest at given rate at regular intervals to the lender. Generally borrowed funds are obtained on the security of certain assets like bonds, land, building, stock, vehicles, machinery, documents of title to the goods, and the like.

Question 5.
Explain any four personal investment avenues.
Answer:
1. Public Provident Fund (PPF): It is the safest long-term investment option for investors in India. It is totally tax-free. PPF account can be opened in a bank or post office. The money deposited cannot be withdrawn before 15 years and an investor can earn compound interest from this account. PPF investor can take a loan against PPF account when he/she experiences financial difficulties.

2. Mutual Funds: An individual investor who wants to invest in equities and bonds with a balance of risk and return generally can invest in mutual funds. Nowadays people invest in stock markets through a mutual fund. A systematic investment plan is one of the best investment options in India.

3. Unit Linked Insurance Plans (ULIP): ULIP is a life insurance-linked product, which provides risk cover for the policyholder along with investment options to invest in any number of qualified investments such as stocks, bonds, or mutual funds.

4. Post Office Saving Schemes: There are different types of postal small savings schemes namely Post Office Savings Account, Post Office Recurring Deposit Account (RD), Post Office Fixed Deposit Account (FD/TD), Post Office Monthly Income Account Scheme (MIS), Senior Citizens Saving Scheme (SCSS) Public Provident Fund Account (PPF), National Savings Certificates (NSC), Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP), SukanyaSamriddhi Account (SSA). Investors can choose the appropriate postal schemes as per their needs. Postal investment schemes are the safest investments.

11th Commerce Guide Sources of Business Finance Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
Long term finance ………………
(a) more than 5 years
(b) above I year but below 5 years
(c) more than one year but below 3 years
(d) within one year
Answer:
(a) more than 5 years

Question 2.
Funds required for purchasing current assets is an example of ………………
a. Fixed Capital requirement
b. Ploughing back of profit
c. Working capital requirement
d. Lease financing
Answer:
c. Working capital requirement

Question 3.
Business people hypothecate goods or equipment to get ……………… type of loan. It is a loan taken on the security of movable assets.
(a) Hypothecation
(b) Pledge
(c) Trade credit
(d) Bank overdraft
Answer:
(a) Hypothecation

Question 4.
Debentures are treated as ………………………….
a. Fixed Capital
b. Permanent Capital
c. Fluctuating Capital
d. Loan Capital
Answer:
d. Loan Capital

Question 5.
Source of Medium Term Finance is ………………
(a) share
(b) debentures
(c) Bank overdraft
(d) lease finance
Answer:
(d) lease finance

Question 6.
…………………………. is an unsecured money market instrument in the form of the promissory note.
a. Pledge
b. Trade Credit
c. Commercial paper
d. Mortgage
Answer:
c. Commercial paper

Question 7.
Which one are the owner’s funds?
(a) Debentures
(b) Loan from banks
(c) Equity shares
(d) Commercial papers
Answer:
(c) Equity shares

Question 8.
Which of the following holder are not having voting rights?
a. Debentures
b. Equity Shares
c. Preference Shares
d. Bonds
Answer:
c. Preference Shares

Question 9.
Which one of the following is the tax-free investment option?
a. Equity Share Purchase
b. Real Estate.
c. Investments in Gold
d. Public Provident Fund
Answer:
d. Public Provident Fund

Question 10.
The period for opening a Recurring Deposit is …………………
a. 1-10 years
b. 1 year only
c. 5-10 years
d. 10 years only
Answer:
a. 1-10 years

II. Very short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Bonds?
Answer:
Bonds are one of the ideal investment options for those investors who would like to invest their hard-earned money safely. Bonds are issued both by government and public and private sector companies and financial institutions.

Question 2.
What is Trade Credit?
Answer:
Trade credit is the credit extended by one trader to another for the purpose of purchasing goods and services. It is a very simple and convenient method of raising short-term finance.

Question 3.
What is Commercial Paper (CP)?
Answer:
Commercial paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument in the form of a promissory note. It was introduced in India in 1990 under Section 45 W of the Reserve Bank of India Act.

Question 4.
What are the three important terms used in the process of Lease Financing?
Answer:
The firm which owns the asset is called ‘Lessor’ and the business enterprise which hires the asset is called ‘Lessee’. The contract is called ‘Lease’. These are the three important terms used in the process of Lease Financing.

Question 5.
Define Share:
Answer:
The Indian Companies Act 2013 defines a share as “To be a share in the share capital of a company”.

Question 6.
Who is called a shareholder?
Answer:
The person holding a share is called a shareholder who has an interest in the assets and profits of the company.

Question 7.
Define Savings:
Answer:
Saving is defined as the difference between income and consumption.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Mention any three significance of business finance.
Answer:

1. A firm with adequate business finance can easily start any business venture.
2. Business finance helps the business organization to purchase raw materials from the supplier easily to produce goods.
3. The business firm can meet financial liabilities like prompt payment of salary and wages, expenses, etc., in time with the help of sound financial support.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Commercial paper (CP).
Answer:
Commercial paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument in the form of a promissory note. Corporates, Primary Dealers (PD), and All India Financial Institutions are eligible to issue Commercial Paper. It was introduced in India in 1990 under Section 45 W of the Reserve Bank of India Act. It is issued by a firm to raise funds for a short period. It can be issued for maturities between a minimum of 7 days and a maximum of up to one year from the date of issue.

Question 3.
Explain the types of shares:
Answer:
There are two types of shares namely Equity Shares and Preference Shares.

1. Equity Shares: Equity share is the most important source of raising long-term capital by a company. These shares do not carry any special or preferential rights in the matter of payment of annual dividend and repayment of capital at the time of winding up. Equity shareholder enjoys more voting rights in proportion to a number of shares held by them. They took part in the management of the company.

2. Preference Shares: Preference shares are those shares which enjoy priority regarding payment of dividend at a fixed rate out of the net profits of the company. They will get their dividend every year before any dividend is paid to equity shareholders. They will have a right to get their settlement before the claims of equity shareholders are settled at the time of liquidation of the company. They do not have voting rights.

Question 4.
What is meant by preference shares?
Answer:
The fund raised by the issue of preference shares is called preference share capital. Preference shares are those shares which enjoy priority regarding payment of dividend at a fixed rate out of the net profits of the company. They will get their dividend every year before any dividend is paid to equity shareholders.

They will have a right to get their settlement before the claims of equity shareholders are settled at the time of liquidation of the company. However, they do not have voting rights.

IV. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Briefly explain the features of Business finance.
Answer:
The following are the main features of Business Finance:

• Business finance comprises of all types of funds namely short, medium and long term used in business.
• The volume of business finance required varies from one business enterprise to another depending upon its nature and size. In other words, small and medium enterprises require a relatively lower level of business finance than large scale enterprises.
• The amount of business finance required differs from one period to another. In other words, the requirement of business finance is heavy during the peak season while it is at a low level during the dull season.
• The amount of business finance determines the scale of operations of business enterprises.

Question 2.
What are the differences between the internal and external sources of raising funds?
Answer:

Question 3.
What is the significance of Business Finance?
Answer:
The following are the importance/significance of Business Finance:

• A firm with adequate business finance can easily start any business venture.
• Business finance helps the business organization to purchase raw materials from the supplier easily to produce goods.
• The business firm can meet financial liabilities like prompt payment of salary and wages, expenses, etc., in time with the help of sound financial support.
• The sound financial support enables the enterprises to meet any unexpected or uncertain risks arising from the business environment efficiently. For example economic slowdown, trade cycles, severe competition, a shift in consumer preference, etc.
• Sound financial position empowers the enterprise to attract talented manpower and introduce the latest technology.

Question 4.
“Saving leads to the economic development of a country” Justify the statement.
Answer:
Yes. The money invested in various attributes helps in the economic development of a country.
The following are the reasons:

• Money invested in bank deposits facilitates employment generation in various sectors of the economy and poverty alleviation.
• The savings invested in bank deposits lead to credit creation in the country which in turn promotes industrial and agricultural development in a country.
• Savings invested in government bonds and various institutions help in great measure in building in strengthening the infrastructure facilities in a country.
• The country with higher savings can easily face the consequences of economic recession.
• The bad consequences of inflation can be met easily with strong savings. As a result, the evil effect of soaring prices can be controlled.

Question 5.
Explain any five factors influencing the choice of Business Finance:
Answer:
The factors influencing the choice of business finance are as follows:
1. Cost: Business enterprises have to analyze the cost of mobilizing and utilizing the funds. For instance, where the interest rate is relatively lower, public deposits, debentures, term loan,s etc. may be desirable options.

2. Financial Capacity of the Firm: Financially sound enterprises have the capacity to pay interest promptly and return the capital at the stipulated time. Such enterprises can go for borrowed sources. On the other hand, if the firm is not financially stable, it has to depend on owned sources of funds.

3. Time Period: The period for which business finance is required determines the suitable source. For instance, where funds are required for a shorter period, bank finance like an overdraft, cash credit, bill discounting, mortgage, pledge, leasing, hire purchase, factoring, and so on, are suitable sources. Funds required for a longer period can be tapped from the issue of shares, debentures, bonds, term loans and the like.

4. Control: Equity shareholders are real owners of corporate enterprises. They exercise complete control over the management of the company. If the existing shareholders do not like to lose their control, they must not issue more equity shares to supplement the financial resources. Contrarily borrowed sources of funds will not disturb the control exercised by the company management. Hence borrowed source is suitable for maintaining the administrative control of the company.

5. Stage of Development: A new business enterprise finds it hard to mobilize business finance than an established firm. Therefore it may have to rely on owned sources in the initial stage. Once the business enterprise has established itself in the business world, it can tap borrowed sources of funds and offer its assets as security therefor.

6. Credit Worthiness of Firms: Some sources of funds like debentures and creditors require the business firms to mortgage the assets. This hurts the creditworthiness of the business concern in the financial market,  Contrarily business concerns do not have to mortgage their assets when they mobilize funds through sources like share capital, retained; earnings, unsecured loans, etc., and thereby maintaining a good image in the financial market.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Pdf Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies

11th Physics Guide Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – I:
I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
The center of mass of a system of particles does not depend upon, _______. [AIPMT 1997, AIEEE 2004]
a) position of particles
b) relative distance between particles
c) masses of particles
d) force acting on particle
Answer:
d) force acting on particle

Question 2.
A couple produces, _______. [AIPMT 1997]
a) pure rotation
b) pure translation
c) rotation and translation
d) no motion
Answer:
a) pure rotation

Question 3.
A particle is moving with a constant velocity along a line parallel to positive x-axis. The magnitude of its angular momentum with respect to the origin is, _______. [IIT 2002]
a) zero
b) increasing with x
c) decreasing with x
d) remaining constant
Answer:
d) remaining constant

Question 4.
A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force 30 N? [NEET 2017]
a) 0.25 rad s^-2
b) 25 rad s^-2
c) 5 m s^-2
d) 25 m s^-2
Answer:
b) 25 rad s^-2

Question 5.
A closed cylindrical container is partially filled with water, At the container rotates in a horizontal plane about a perpendicular bisector, its moment of inertia, _______. [IIT 1998]
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains constant
d) depends on direction of rotation.
Answer:
a) increases

Question 6.
A rigid body rotates with an angular momentum L. If its kinetic energy is halved, the angular momentum becomes, _______. [AFMC 1998, AIPMT 2015]
a) L
b) L/2
c) 21
d) L/\(\sqrt{2}\)
Answer:
d) L/\(\sqrt{2}\)

Question 7.
A particle undergoes uniform circular motion. The angular momentum of the particle remain conserved about, _______ [IIT 2003]
a) the center point of the circle.
b) the point on the circumference of the circle.
c) any point inside the circle.
d) any point outside the circle.
Answer:
a) the center point of the circle.

Question 8.
When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point, its angular momentum is directed along, _______. [AIPMT 2012]
a) a line perpendicular to the plane of rotation
b) the line making an angle of 45° to the plane of rotation
c) the radius
d) tangent to the path
Answer:
a) a line perpendicular to the plane of rotation

Question 9.
Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about their regular axis passing through center and perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular velocities ω1 and ω2. They are brought in to contact face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The expression for loss of energy during this process is, _______ [NEET 2017]
a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)(ω₁ – ω₂)²
b) I(ω₁ – ω₂)²
c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 8 }\)(ω₁ – ω₂)² I
d) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)(ω₁ – ω₂)² I
Answer:
a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)(ω₁ – ω₂)²

Question 10.
A disc of moment of inertia I_a is rotating in a horizontal plane about its symmetry axis with a constant angular speed ω. Another discinitially at rest of moment of inertia I_b is dropped coaxially on to the rotating disc. Then, both the discs rotate with same constant angular speed. The loss of kinetic energy due to friction in this process is, _______.

Answer:

Question 11.
The speed of the center of a wheel rolling on a horizontal surface is vo. A point on the rim in level with the center will be moving at a speed of speed of, _______.
a) 5:7
b) 2:3
c) 2:5
d) 7:5
Answer:
d) 7:5

Question 12.
From a disc of radius R a mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the center is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about a perpendicular axis passing through it _______. [NEET 2016]
a) 15MR²/32
b) 13MR²/32
c) 11MR²/32
d) 9MR²/32
Answer:
b) 13MR²/32

Question 13.
The speed of a solid sphere after rolling down from rest without sliding on an inclined plane of vertical height h is, _______.

Answer:

Question 14.
The speed of the center of a wheel rolling on a horizontal surface is v_o. A point on the rim in level with the center will be moving at a speed of speed of, _______. [PMT 1992, PMT 2003, IIT 2004]
a) zero
b) v₀
c) \(\sqrt{2}\)v₀
d) 2v₀
Answer:
c) \(\sqrt{2}\)v₀

Question 15.
A round object of mass M and radius R rolls down without slipping along an inclined plane. The fractional force, _______.
a) dissipates kinetic energy as heat.
b) decreases the rotational motion.
c) decreases the rotational and transnational motion
d) converts transnational energy into rotational energy
Answer:
d) converts transnational energy into rotational energy

II. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Define center of mass.
Answer:
The center of mass of a body is defined as a point where the entire mass of the body appears to be concentrated.

Question 2.
Find out the center of mass for the given geometrical structures.
Answer:

b) Cylinder:

The center of mass in case of the cylinder lies on the vertical axis and at the centre of the cylinder.

Question 3.
Define torque and mention its unit.
Answer:
Torque is defined as the moment of the external applied force about a point or axis of rotation. The expression for torque is,
\(\vec{\tau}\) = \(\vec{r}\) x \(\vec{F}\)

Question 4.
What are the conditions in which force cannot produce torque?
Answer:
1) The torque is zero when r and P are either parallel or anti parallel
i.e θ = 0, if parallel sin θ = 0, τ = 0
θ = 180°, if anti parallel sin 180 = 0, τ = 0

2) The torque is zero if the force acts at the reference point as \(\vec { r }\) = 0, τ = 0

Question 5.
Give any two examples of torque in day-to-day life.
Answer:

• The opening and closing of a door about the hinges.
• Turning of a nut using a wrench.

Question 6.
What is the relation between torque and angular momentum?
Answer:
Rate of change in angular momentum is equal to torque.
τ = \(\frac { d(L) }{ dt }\)

Question 7.
What is equilibrium?
Answer:
A rigid body is said to be in mechanical equilibrium where both its linear momentum and angular momentum remain constant.

Question 8.
How do you distinguish between stable and unstable equilibrium?
Answer:

Question 9.
Define couple.
Answer:
A pair of forces which are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction and separated by a perpendicular distance so that their lines of action do not coincide that causes a turning effect is called a couple.

Question 10.
State principle of moments.
Answer:
Principle of moments states that the sum of the clockwise moments is equal to sum of the anti-clockwise moments about the axis rotation.
d₁f₁ = d₂f₂

Question 11.
Define center of gravity.
Answer:
The center of gravity of a body is the point at which the entire weight of the body acts, irrespective of the position and orientation of the body.

Question 12.
Mention any two physical significance of the moment of Inertia.
Answer:

• For rotational motion moment of Inertia is a measure of rotational Inertia.
• The Moment of Inertia of a body is not a variable quantity.

It depends not only on the mass of the body but also on the way the mass is distributed around the axis of rotation.

Question 13.
What is the radius of gyration?
Answer:
The radius of gyration of an object is the perpendicular distance from the axis of rotation to an equivalent point mass, which would have the same mass as well as the same moment of inertia of the object.

Question 14.
State conservation of angular momentum?
Answer:
When no external torque acts on a body, the net angular momentum of a rotating rigid body remains constant.

Question 15.
What are the rotational equivalents for the physical quantities?

1. mass
2. force

Answer:
The rotational equivalents for (i) mass and (ii) force are moments of inertia and torque respectively.

Question 16.
What is the condition for pure rolling?
Answer:
In the case of pure roiling, for all points on the edge, the magnitude of V_t Translation is V rotational are equal (V_tr = V_rot).
As V Trans = V_cm and V_rot = Rω, the condition
for pure rolling without slipping is Vcm = Rω.

Question 17.
What is the difference between sliding and slipping?
Answer:
Sliding:

• Velocity of center of mass is greater than Rω i.e. V_CM > Rω.
• Velocity of transnational motion is greater than velocity of rotational motion.
• Resultant velocity acts in the forward direction.

Slipping:

• Velocity of center of mass is lesser than Rω. i.e. V_CM < Rω
• Velocity of translation motion is lesser than velocity of rotational motion.
• Resultant velocity acts in the backward direction.

III. Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Explain the type of equilibrium with suitable examples.
Answer:
The different types of equilibrium are:
i) Translational equilibrium – The body is set to be in translational equilibrium, when the linear momentum remains constant. The net force acting on body is zero

Example: Let F1, F2, F3 …… Fn be n forces acting on body in different directions, and the net force on the body is the vector sum of different forces is the resultant, which is equal to zero, then the body is in translational equilibrium.

ii) Rotational equilibrium – The body is said to be in rotational equilibrium when the angular momentum is constant. Net Torque on the body is equal to zero

Example: If a metre scale is balanced by a knife edge at its center then the body is in rotational equilibrium as clockwise moment is equal to Anticlockwise moment.

iii) Static equilibrium – When the linear momentum and angular momentum on body are zero , where no net force and no net torque, the body is in static equilibrium.
Example: A book kept in the table

iv) Dynamic equilibrium – Here linear momentum and angular momentum are kept constant. Net force and Net torque on a body is equal to zero.

v) Stable equilibrium:
Consider a china dish in which a small sphere is placed. It comes to rest at the bottom of the dish, said to be in stable equilibrium where potential energy is minimum. If displaced, the sphere tries to attain it original position after released. So the body is in stable equilibrium. In stable equilibrium.

a) Linear momentum and angular momentum are zero
b) The body tries to come back to equilibrium if slightly disturbed and released.
c) The centre of mass of the body shifts slightly higher if disturbed from equilibrium.
d) Potential energy is minimum and it is increased if disturbed.

Unstable equilibrium:
Consider an inverted china dish and place the sphere on the top of the dish. The body roll down to a new position if disturbed. It never returns to its original position stating unstable equilibrium. Incase of unstable equilibrium

a) Linear momentum and angular momentum are zero.
b) The body cannot come back to its original equilibrium if slightly disturbed and released.
c) The centre of mass of the body shifts slightly lower if disturbed from equilibrium.
d) potential energy is not minimum and it decreases if disturbed.

Neutral equilibrium:
Consider the sphere placed in a plane surface. The position of center of mass never changes, potential energy never changes if disturbed. So the equilibrium is said to be neutral equilibrium. In case of neutral equilibrium.

a) Linear and angular momentum are zero.
b) The body remains at same equilibrium if slightly disturbed and released.
c) The center of mass of the body does not shift higher or lower if disturbed from equilibrium
d) Potential energy remains same even if disturbed.

Question 2.
Explain the method to find the center of gravity of an irregularly shaped lamina.
Answer:
The center of gravity of an irregularly shaped lamina by pivoting it at various points by trail and error. The lamina remains horizontal when pivoted at the point where the net gravitational force acts, which is the centre of gravity shown figure.

When the body is supported at the centre for gravity, the sum of torques acting on all point masses of the rigid body becomes zero. Moreover the weight is compensated by the normal reaction force exerted by the pivot. The body in static equilibrium and hence it is horizontal.

Question 3.
Explain why a cyclist bends while negotiating a curve road. Arrive at the expression for angle of bending for a given velocity.
Answer:

Consider a cyclist negotiating a circular level road of radius ‘r’ with a velocity v. Cycle and cyclist are taken to be one system with mass m. The centre of gravity of the system is c and it goes in circle of radius r with centre o.
Consider OC as x – axis, vertical through 0 is z axis.
The system as a frame is rotating about z axis.
The system is at rest in the rotating frame.
centrifugal force on the system = \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\)
This force will act through centre of gravity.
The forces acting on the system are

1. Gravitational force (mg)
2. Normal force (N)
3. Frictional force (f)
4. Centrifugal force \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\)

As the system is in equilibrium in the rotational frame of reference, the net external force and external torque must be zero. Consider all torques about point A for rotational equilibrium.
τ_net = 0.

Tongue due to gravitational force about point A = mg AB. Taken as negative as it produces clockwise momentum.
Torque due to centripetal force = \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\)(BC)
Taken as positive as it produces an anticlockwise moment.
-mg AB + \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\) BC = 0
g AB = \(\frac{\mathrm{v}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\) BC
from ∆ ABC
AB = AC sin θ
BC = AC cos θ

Question 4.
Derive the expression for moment of inertia of a rod about its center and perpendicular to the rod.
Answer:

Consider a uniform red of mass (m) and length \((\ell)\). Consider an axis passing through the geometric centre of the rod perpendicular to its length. Consider an infinitesimally small mass (dm) at a distance x from 0 origin of length dx. THe moment of Inertia (dl) of this mass (dm) about the axis is
dl = (dm)x²
As the mass is uniformly distributed, the mass per unit length (λ) if rod = λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{\ell}\).
The mass of infinitesimally small length dx as
dm = λ dx = \(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{\ell}\) dx
Moment of Inertria (I) of the entire rod can be obtained by integrating dl.
I = ∫ dI = ∫(dm) x² = ∫ \(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{\ell}\)x²dx
I = \(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{\ell}\) ∫x² dx
As the mass is distributed on either side of the origin the limits for integration are taken from

Question 5.
Derive the expression for moment of Inertia of a uniform ring about an axis passing through the center and perpendicular to the plane.
Answer:
Consider a uniform ring of mass ‘M’ and radius R

Consider an axis passing through the center of the ring 0 and perpendicular to its plane take an infinitesimally small mass (dm) of length (dx) of the ring dm is located at a distance R from 0. The moment of Inertia (dl) of this small mass dm is
dI = (dm) R²
The length of the ring = Circumference of the ring \((\ell)\) = 2πR
As the mass is distributed uniformly
mass per unit length – λ = \(\frac {Mass}{length}\) = \(\frac { MR }{ 2πR }\)
The mass of infinitesimally small length is

Question 6.
Derive the expression for moment of inertia of a uniform disc about an axis passing through the center and perpendicular to the plane.
Answer:

Consider a disc of mass M and Radius R. This disc is made up of many infinitesimally small rings each of mass (dm) and thickness dr.
The moment of Inertia (dl) of this small ring is dl = (dm) r²
As the mass is uniformly distributed. The mass per unit area.
σ = \(\frac { Mass }{ Area }\) = \(\frac{M R}{\pi R^{2}}\)
The mass of infinitesimally small ring is
dm = σ (2π r. dr) \(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{\pi \mathrm{R}^{2}}\) 2 π r.dr
Where 2 π r.dr is the area of the elemental ring
∵ dm = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\) rdr
∵ dI = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)r³dr
∵ The moment of Inertia of the entire disc is

Question 7.
Discuss the conservation of Angular momentum for example.
Answer:
When no external torque acts on a body, the net angular momentum of a rotating rigid body remains constant. This is known as the law of conservation of angular momentum.
τ = \(\frac { dL }{ dt }\)
If τ = 0
then L is a constant.
As angular momentum L = Iω, the conservation of angular momentum can be written as
I_iω_i = I_fω_f
Iω = constant
The above equation indicates if I increase ω will decrease and vice versa, to keep angular momentum constant.

Example:
Let us consider an ice dancer. The dancer spins slowly when the hands are stretched out and spins faster when the hands are brought close to the body.

Stretching the hands away from body increases the moment of Inertia, thus angular velocity decreases resulting in a slower spin. When the hands are brought to the body the moment of Inertia decreases and thus angular velocity in-creases resulting in faster spin.

Question 8.
State and prove parallel axes theorem.
Answer:
Law:
Parallel axes theorem states that the moment of Inertia of a body about any axis is equal to the sum of its moment of Inertia about a parallel axis through its center of mass and the product of the mass of the body and the square of the perpendicular distance between two axis.

Let I_c be the moment of Inertia of the body of mass m about an axis (AB) passing through the center of mass.
Let I be the moment of Inertia of a parallel axis (DE) at a distance d from AB is
I = Ic + Md²
Proof:
Consider a rigid body as in figure. Let Ic be the moment of Inertia of the body about an axis AB passing through center of mass c.
DE is another axis parallel to AB at a perpendicular distance d from AB. Let I be the moment of Inertia about the axis DE.
Consider a point P of mass ‘m’ on the body at a distance, x from c.
The moment of Inertia of the point mass about the axis DE = m(x+d)².
The moment of Inertia I of the whole body about
DE = I = ∑ m (x+d)²
I = ∑ m (x² + d² + 2xd)
I = ∑ mx² + md² + 2mxd
I = ∑ mx² + ∑ md² + 2d ∑ mx
Here ∑ mx² = moment of Inertia of the body about the center of mass
∴ I_c = ∑ mx²
The term ∑mx = 0, because x can take positive and negative values w.r. to the axis AB.
I = I_c + Imd²
but ∑m = M
∵ I = I_c + Md²
Hence proved

Question 9.
State and prove perpendicular axis theorem.
Statement:
Perpendicular axes theorem states that moment of Inertia of a plane laminar body about an axis perpendicular to its plane is equal to the sum of moments of Inertia about two perpendicular axes lying in the plane of the body such that all the three axes are mutually perpendicular and have a common point.
Let x, y axes lie in the plane and Z-axis perpendicular to one plane of the laminar object. If the moment of inertia of the body about x and y axes are lx and Iy respectively and Iz is the Moment of Inertia about the z-axis, then the perpendicular axes theorem can be expressed as Iz = Ix + Iy
Proof:

Consider a plane laminar objects of negligible thickness on which lies the origin o. X and Y axes lie on the plane and Z-axis is perpendicular to the plane. The lamina is considered to be made up of large number of particles of mass m. Let us consider one such particle at a point P which has co-ordinates (x,y) at distance r from o.
The moment of Inertia of the particle about the z-axis is I_z = mr².
The summation of the above equation gives the Moment of Inertia of the entire lamina about z-axis = I_z = I mr².
Here r² = x² + y²

Hence proved.

Question 10.
Discuss rolling on an inclined plane and arrive at the expression for the acceleration.
Answer:

Consider a round object of mass m and radius R is rolling down an inclined plane without slipping.
There are two forces acting on the object along the inclined plane.
One is the component of gravitational force mg sin θ and the other is the static frictional force ‘f’.
The other component of gravitational force mg cos θ is cancelled by the normal force N exerted by the plane.
Considering free body diagram for the inclined plane.
For translational motion, mg sin 0 is the supporting force and f is the opposing force
mg sin θ – f = ma → (1)
For rotational motion, we have to consider the torque w.r. to the centre of the object. Here mg sin 0 cannot cause torque is it passes through it, so frictional force causes the torque.
τ = I∝ = fR → (2)
W.K.T a =R∝ and moment of Inertia I = mk²

IV. Conceptual Questions:

Question 1.
When a tree is cut, the cut is made on the side facing the direction in which the tree is required to fall why?
Answer:
The weight of the tree exerts a torque about the point where the cut is made. This causes the rotation of the tree about the cut. So the reason why the cut is made on the side facing the direction of fall.

Question 2.
Why does a porter bend forward while carrying a sack of rice on his back?
Answer:
When porter is carrying a sack of rice, on his back, the position of center of gravity changes. In order to bring it in the middle for stable equilibrium, porter bends forward.

Question 3.
Why is it much easier to balance a meter scale on your fingertip than balancing on a match stick?
Answer:
It is much easier to balance a meter scale on your finger than balancing on a match stick. While balancing the meter scale in stable equilibrium. The vertical line passes through the center of gravity of scale should pass through the base of supporting material. The finger has more base over than a match stick.

Question 4.
Two identical water bottles one empty and the other filled with water are allowed to roll down an inclined plane. Which one of them reaches the bottom first? Explain.
Answer:
Empty water bottle has large moment of Inertia than filled water bottle. So least value of radius of gyration is for bottle filled with water. So the water bottle filled with water reaches bottom first.

Suggests that for a given angle of inclination, the object with least value of radius of gyration k reach the bottom of incline first.

Question 5.
Write the relation between angular momentum and rotational K.E. Draw a graph for the same. For two objects of same angular momentum compare the moment of Inertia using the graph.
Answer:
Angular momentum = L = Iω
Rotational K.E = K_R = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)Iω²
By comparing

The shape of the graph is a straight line. The \(\frac { 1 }{ slope }\) of the curve gives the value of the moment of Inertia I. If angular momentum of two objects are same, rotational K.E one same having same moment of Inertia.

Question 6.
A rectangle block rests on a horizontal table. A horizontal force is applied on the block at a height h above the table to move the block. Does the line of action of the normal force N exerted by the table on the block depend on h?
Answer:

Yes, the normal force is concentrated at the center of mass. When force F is applied normal reaction of the floor shifts to right the block topples when N reaches edge.

Question 7.
Three identical solid spheres move down through three inclined planes A, B, and C all same dimensions. A is without friction, B is undergoing pure rolling and C is rolling with slipping compare the kinetic energies E_A, E_B and E_c at the bottom.
Answer:
A possesses translational K.E
B possesses sum of rotational K.E + Translational K.E
C possesses more rotation than translational KE

Question 8.
Give an example to show that the following statement is false. “Any two forces acting on a body can be combined into single force that would have same effect”
Answer:
Any two forces acting an a body can be combined to form a single force then it is called a resultant. In some cases effect of resultant is not same as the effect of the two forces acting

Example: A large body can be considered as made of a number of mass particles and all mass particles interact with each other. But the vector sum of all these internal forces is zero.

V. Numerical Problems:

Question 1.
A uniform disc of mass 100g has a diameter of 10cm. Calculate the total energy of the disc when rolling along a horizontal table with a velocity of 20 cms^-1. (take the surface of the table as reference)
Solution:
m = 100 x 10^-3 kg = 100g
2r = 10 x 10^-2 m r = 5 cm
r = 5 x 10^-2 m v = 20 cm/s
V = 20 cms^-1= 20 x 10^-2 m/s
E = ?
for rolling body total K.E is
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv² + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) Iw²

K.E = 3/4 x 100 x 20 x 20 x 10^-3 x 10^-4
= \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 }\) x 10^-3 x 4
= 3 x 10^-3 J

Question 2.
A particle of mass 5 units in moving with a uniform speed of v = 3\(\sqrt{2}\) units in the xoy plane alone the line y = x+4. Find the magnitude of angular momentum
Solution:
y = x + 4
Comparing it with straight line equation y = mx + c
m = tan θ = 1 θ = 45°
A line makes an angle θ = 45° with five x axis and intercepts on the y axis is + 4.

Draw a ⊥ r from 0 to the line y = x + 4
OA = d = 4sing 45 = \(\frac{4}{\sqrt{2}}\)
Angular momentum about 0 = Linear momentum x ⊥ r distance from 0

Question 3.
A fly wheel rotates with a uniform angular acceleration. If its angular velocity increases form 20 π rad /s to 40 π rad/s in 10 seconds. Find the number of rotations in that period.
Solution:
w = θ/t
θ = wt

Question 4.
A uniform rod of mass m and length l makes a constant angle θ with an axis of rotation which passes through one end of the rod. Find the moment of Inertia about this axis.
Solution:

Here mass is distributed on length taking an element of small length dx at a distance x as in figure.
dm = \(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{\ell}\).dx
Moment of Inertia of small element

Question 5.
Two particles P and Q of mass 1 kg and 3 kg respectively start moving towards each other from rest under mutual attraction. What is the velocity of their center of mass?
Solution:

Since external force acting as them is zero, the velocity of cm is constant and hence Vcm =0, whenever the separation.

Question 6.
Find the moment of Inertia of a hydrogen molecule about an axis passing through its center of mass and perpendicular to the inter atomic axis. Given mass of H₂ atom = 1.7 x 10^-27 kg and inter atomic distance is equal to 4 x 10^-10 m

Solution :
Mass of each H₂ atom = 1.7 x 10^-27 kg
Distance of each H₂ atom from the axis of rotation = 2 x 10^-10 m
Moment of Inertia about the axis = I = mr² + mr²
I = 2mr²
I = 2 x 1.7 x 10^-27 x (2 x 10^-10)mr²
= 13.6 x 10^-47 kgm²
I = 13.6 x 10^-47 kgm²
I = 1.36 x 10^-46 kgm²

Question 7.
On the edge of a wall, we build a brick tower that only holds because of the bricks own weight. Our goal is to build a stable tower whose overhang d is greater than the length l of a single brick. What is the minimum number of bricks you need?
(Hint: find the center of mass for each brick and add)
Solution:

Question 8.
The 747 being plane is landing at a speed of 70 m/s. Before touching the ground the wheels are not rotating. How long a skid mark do the wing wheel leave (assume their mass is 100 kg which is distributed uniformly radius is 0.7m. Weight supported by back wheel is 232KN and coefficient of friction with the ground is 0.5?)
Solution:

Force acting on the wheel after the plane touches the surface.
(Note: 747 has 16 wheels below wings and 2 wheels below nose)
If the wheel is not accelerating
N = W
Torque about certain wheel
τ = fR
But f = µN = µW
τ = µWR
Angular acceleration x = \(\frac { τ }{ I }\) = \(\frac{\mu \mathrm{WR}}{\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{MR}^{2}}\)
∵ τ = Iα
= \(\frac { 2 µ W }{ MR }\)
The time taken by the bowing wheel to stop skidding.

Part – II:

11th Physics Guide Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Bodies Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
The changes produced by the deforming forces in a rigid body are
(a) very large
(b) infinity
(c) negligibly small
(d) small
Answer:
(c) negligibly small

Question 2.
Particles of masses m, 2m, 3m …………. nm are placed on the same line at distances L, 2L, 3L ………… nL from 0. The distance of centre of mass from 0 is _______.

Answer:

Question 3.
For bodies of regular shape and uniform mass distribution, the center of mass is at –
(a) the comers
(b) inside the objects
(c) the point where the diagonals meet
(d) the geometric center
Answer:
(d) the geometric center

Question 4.
Look at the drawing given in the figure which has been drawn with ink of uniform line thickeners. The mass of ink used to draw each of the two inner circles and each of the two line segments is m. The mass of ink used to draw outer circle is 6m. The coordinates of the centres of different parts are outer circle (0, 0), left inner circle (-a, a) right inner circle (a, a) vertical line (0, 0) and horizontal line (o, -a). The ‘y’ co-ordinate of the centre of mass ink in this drawing is _______.

a) \(\frac { a }{ 10 }\)
b) \(\frac { a }{ 8 }\)
c) \(\frac { a }{ 12 }\)
d) \(\frac { a }{ 3 }\)
Answer:
a) \(\frac { a }{ 10 }\)

Question 5.
Center of mass may lie-
(a) within the body
(b) outside the body
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) only at the center
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 6.
The mass per unit length of a non uniform rod of length L is given by μ = λx² Where A. is a constant and λ is the distance from one end of the rod. The distance of mass of rod from this end is _______.
a) L/2
b) L/4
c) \(\frac { 3L }{ 4 }\)
d) L/3
Answer:
c) \(\frac { 3L }{ 4 }\)

Question 7.
The motion of center of mass of a system of two particles is unaffected by their internal forces-
(a) irrespective of the actual directions of the internal forces
(b) only if they are along the line joining the particles
(c) only if acts perpendicular to each other
(d) only if the acting opposite
Answer:
(a) irrespective of the actual directions of the internal forces

Question 8.
A cubical block of ice of mass m and edge L is placed on a tray of mass M. If the ice melts, by what distance the center of mass (ice + tray) system descend?

a) \(\frac { mL }{ m+m }\)
b) \(\frac { mL }{ 2(m+m) }\)
c) \(\frac { mL }{ m }\)
d) \(\frac { ML }{ m }\)
Answer:
b) \(\frac { mL }{ 2(m+m) }\)

Question 9.
The center of mass of a system of particles does not depend on
(a) masses of particles
(b) position of the particles
(c) distribution of masses
(d) forces acting on the particles
Answer:
(d) forces acting on the particles

Question 10.
Two bodies with K.E in the ratio 4:1 are moving with equal linear momentum. The ratio of their masses is _______.
a) 1:2
b) 1:1
c) 1:1
d) 1:4
Answer:
b) 1:1

Question 11.
Three particles A, B and C of masses m, 2m and 3m are placed on a straight line of length 2L as shown. The moment of inertia about an axis passing through B and perpendicular to line AC is _______.

a) ML²
b) 2ML²
c) 3ML²
d) 4ML²
Answer:
d) 4ML²

Question 12.
Three thin, uniform, identical rods each of mass M and length L are Joined as shown. The moment of inertia about an axis passing through 0 and perpendicular to plane is _______.

a) 3ML²
b) ML²
c) \(\frac{M L^{2}}{3}\)
d) zero
Answer:
b) ML²

Question 13.
The distance between the center of carbon and oxygen atoms in the gas molecule is 1.13 A. The center of mass of the molecule relative to the oxygen atom is-
(a) 0.602 Å
(b) 0.527 Å
(c) 1.13 Å
(d) 0.565 Å
Answer:
(b) 0.527 Å
Given,
Inter atomic distance = 1.13 Å
Mass of carbon atom = 14
Mass of oxygen atom = 16
Let C.M. of molecule lies at a distance of X from oxygen atom-
i.e. m₁r₁ = m₂r₂
16 X = 14(1.13 – X)
30 X = 15.82
X = 0.527 Å

Question 14.
From a thin uniform disc of radius 2R, another disc of diameter 2R is removed. The mass of the remaining portion is m. Find the moment of Inertia of the shaded portion about an axis passing through 0 and perpendicular to the plane.
a) \(\frac{8 M R^{2}}{13}\)
b) \(\frac{ M R^{2}}{6}\)
c) \(\frac{13 M R^{2}}{6}\)
d) \(\frac{8 M R^{2}}{6}\)
Answer:
c) \(\frac{13 M R^{2}}{6}\)

Question 15.
The sum of moments of masses of all the particles in a system about the center of mass is-
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) zero
(d) infinity
Answer:
(c) zero

Question 16.
The radius of gyration of a system of particle about an axis passing through the center of mass and perpendicular to the line joining the particles. The system consists of two particle of masses m1 and m2 placed at separation r is _______.

Answer:

Question 17.
A fly wheel rotates with a uniform angular acceleration. Its angular displacement increases from 2 n radians to 10 n radians in 4s. The number of revolutions is this period _______.
a) 10
b) 12
c) 6
d) 5
Answer:
b) 12

Question 18.
The reduced mass of the system of two particles of masses 2 m and 4 m will be –
(a) 2 m
(b) \(\frac {2 }{ 3 }\)y m
(c) \(\frac {3}{ 2 }\)y m
(d) \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\)m
Answer:
(d) \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\)m

Question 19.
A pulley has the shape of a uniform solid disc of mass 2kg and radius 0.5m. A string is wrapped over its rim and is pulled by force of 2.5N. The pulley is free to rotate about its axis. Initially the pulley is at rest. Find the angular velocity and angle rotated by pulley in 10S _______.
a) 100 rad
b) 200 radians
c) 150 rad
d) 250 rad
Answer:
d) 250 rad

Question 20.
A solid sphere of radius R lies on a smooth horizontal surface. It is pulled by a horizontal force acting tangentially from the highest point. Find the distance travelled by the sphere during the time it make one rotation?

Answer:

Question 21.
From a circular disc of mass M and radius R a part of 60° is removed. The M.I of the remaining portion of disc about an axis passing through the center and perpendicular to the plane of disc is _______.

a) 5/6 MR²
b) 5/12 MR²
c) 5/3 MR²
d) 5/24 MR²
Answer:
b) 5/12 MR²

Question 22.
If I₀ is the Moment of Inertia of a body about an axis passing through its centre of mass. The M.I. of the parallel axis and at a distance d is I = I₀ + Md². The variation of I with d is _______.

Answer:

Question 23.
A rod of length L and mass M₀ is bent to form a semi-circular ring as shown. The M. I. about XX¹

Answer:

Question 24.
Infinitesimal quantity means –
(a) collective particles
(b) extremely small
(c) nothing
(d) extremely larger
Answer:
(b) extremely small

Question 25.
A particle performs uniform circulation motion with an angular momentum L. If the frequency of the particle motion is doubled and its kinetic energy is halved the angular momentum becomes _______.
a) 2L
b) 4L
c) L/2
d) L/4
Answer:
d) L/4

Question 26.
A thin horizontal circular disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its center. An insect is at rest at the point near the rim of the disc. The insect now moves along a diameter of the disc to reach other end. During the journey of the insect the angular speed of the disc.
a) remains unchanged
b) continuously decreases
c) continuously increases
d) first increases and then decreases
Answer:
d) first increases and then decreases

Question 27.
A solid disc rolls clockwise without slipping over a horizontal path with a constant speed V. Then the magnitude of velocities of points A, B & C (in figure) with respect to a standing observer are respectively _______.

a) V, V and V
b) 2V, \(\sqrt{2}\), zero
c) 2V, 2V, zero
d) 2V, \(\sqrt{2}\), \(\sqrt{2}\) V
Answer:
b) 2V, \(\sqrt{2}\), zero

Question 28.
Torque is given as –
(a) \(\vec{r}\) . \(\vec{F}\)
(b) \(\vec{r}\) x \(\vec{F}\)
(c) \(\vec{F}\) x \(\vec{r}\)
(d) r F cos θ
Answer:
(b) \(\vec{r}\) x \(\vec{F}\)

Question 29.
A solid sphere of mass m and radius R rolls without slipping an the horizontal surface such that V_cm = V₀
a) The K.E of rotation is 1/5 mV₀
b) The total K.E in 7/10 mV₀²
c) The mechanical energy is mgh + 7/10 mV₀²
d) All are correct
Answer:
d) All are correct

Question 30.
The direction of torque ácts –
(a) along \(\vec{F}\)
(b) along \(\vec{r}\) & \(\vec{F}\)
(c) Perpendicular to \(\vec{r}\)
(d) Perpendicular to both \(\vec{r}\) & \(\vec{F}\)
Answer:
(d) Perpendicular to both \(\vec{r}\) & \(\vec{F}\)

II. Additional Questions:

Question 1.
Explain center of mass for distributed point masses.
Answer:
A point mass is a hypothetical point particle has non zero mass and no size or shape.

Let m₁, m₂, m₃ …. m_n be the point masses with coordinates as x₁, x₂, x₃ ………. x₄ as co-ordinates of
particle of these point masses in the x-direction from origin. The equation for x coordinate of the center of mass is
X_cm = \(\frac{\sum m_{i} x_{i}}{\sum m_{i}}\)
X_mi is the total mass ‘M’ of all particles ∑mi = m.
Hence
X_cm = \(\frac{\sum \mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{i}} \mathrm{x}_{\mathrm{i}}}{\mathrm{M}}\)
for y and z coordinates of the center of mass for these distributed point masses
Y_cm = \(\frac{\sum \mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{i}} \mathrm{y}_{\mathrm{i}}}{\mathrm{M}}\)
Z_cm = \(\frac{\sum \mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{i}} \mathrm{z}_{\mathrm{i}}}{\mathrm{M}}\)
Hence the position of center of mass of these point masses in Cartesian coordinate system is (x_cm + y_cm + z_cm )
In general the position of center of mass can be written in vector from as

is the position vector of center of mass and r_i = x_i\(\hat{i}\) + y_i\(\hat{j}\)+z_i\(\hat{k}\) is the position vector of distributed masses where i, j, k are unit vectors along x, y and z axis respectively.

Question 2.
Explain center of mass of a two-particle system under different cases. Let us consider two-particle system having masses m₁ and m₂ at positions x₁ and x₂ respectively along x-axis. The center of mass can be determined in the following 3 ways based on the choice of the coordinate system.
Answer:
1) When the masses are an the positive x-axis.

The origin in taken arbitrarily so the masses m₁ and m₂ are at positions x₁ and x₂ on positive x-axis. Then the center of mass will also be in the positive x-axis at x cm given by
X_cm = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_{1} \mathrm{x}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2} \mathrm{x}_{2}}{\mathrm{~m}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2}}\)

2) When the origins coincides with any one of the masses:
When the origin coincides with the point mass m₁ its position x₁ = 0 then

3) When the origin coincides with the center of mass it self

If the origin is made to coincide with center of mass then x_cm = 0.
The mass m₁ is on the negative x-axis
Hence position of x₁ is negative.

This equation is known as principle of moments.

Question 3.
Show that in the absence of any external force the velocity of center of mass remains constant.
Answer:
Suppose an external force F_ext acts an a system of mass M and produces an acceleration. a_cm in its centre of mass. Then
\(\vec { \tau }\)_ext = Ma_{\(\overline { cm }\)}
in the absence of external forces

∴ \(\vec { V }\)_cm = constant. Where \(\vec { V }\)_cm is the velocity at the center of mass

Question 4.
Write expressions for velocity and acceleration at the center of mass.
Answer:
Let \(\vec { V }\)_cm and a_{\(\overline { cm }\)} be the velocity and acceleration at the center of mass respectively

Question 5.
Obtain the relation between torque and angular acceleration.
Answer:

Consider a rigid body rotating about a fixed axis. A point mass’m’ in the body will execute circular motion about the fixed axis. Let ‘f’ be the force acting on the point mass, produces necessary, torque for this rotation. This force \(\vec { f }\) is perpendicular to \(\vec { r }\).
The torque produced by the force on the point mass m about the axis
τ = \(\vec { r }\) x \(\vec { f }\) = rf sin 90
τ = rf
τ = r.ma
= r m (r∝)
= mr²∝
But mr² = I = moment of Inertia
Since a rigid body is made up of many such point masses, the moment of Inertia is the sum of moment of Inertia of all such individual point masses
I = ∑m_ir_i² i
τ = ( ∑m_ir_i²).∝
τ = I∝

Question 6.
Explain principle of moments and state mechanical advantage.
Answer:

Consider a light rod of invisible mass which is pivoted at a point along its length. Let two parallel force f₁ and f₂ act at the two ends at distances, d₁ and d₂ from the point of pivot and normal reaction force N at the point of Pivot. In order to make the red stationary in horizontal position in should be in translational and rotational equilibrium ie both net force and net torque must be zero.
For Net force zero
N-f₁f₂ = 0
N = f₁ + f₂ → (1)
For net torque to be zero
f₁d₁ – f₂d₂ = 0
f₁d₁ = f₂d₂ → (2)
The equation represents principle of moments, ie sum of clockwise moments. Should be equal to sum of anticlockwise moments
Equation (2) can be written as
\(\frac{f_{1}}{f_{2}}\) = \(\frac{d_{2}}{d_{1}}\)
Here the radio \(\frac{d_{2}}{d_{1}}\) = Mechanical advantage.
F₁ is called load and F₂ taken as effort. M.A should be always greater than 1 in F₁ > F₂ so that for less amount of effort, large load can be lifted.

Question 7.
What is a rigid body?
Answer:
A rigid body is one which maintains its definite and fixed shape even when an external force acts on it.

Question 8.
Why do we prefer to use a wrench of longer arm?
Answer:
The torque applied as the nut by the wrench is equal to the force multiplied by the perpendicular distance from the axis of rotation. Hence to increase torque a wrench of longer arm is preferred.

Question 9.
A cat is able to land on its feet after a fall. Which principle of physics is being used? Explain.
Answer:
A cat is able to land on its feet after a fall. This is based on the law of conservation of angular momentum. When the cat is about to fall, it curls its body to decrease the moment of inertia and increase its angular velocity. When it lands it stretches out its limbs. By which it increases its moment of inertia and inturn decreases its angular velocity. Hence, the cat lands safely.

Question 10.
The bottom of the ship is made heavy. Why?
Answer:
The bottom of the ship is made heavy so that the centre of gravity remains low. This ensures stability.

Question 11.
What is the advantage of fly wheel?
Answer:
In case of a fly wheel the whole mass is practically near the nm which is situated for away from the axis of rotation. This is done to increase the moment of inertia of the wheel there by making the motion smooth and less Jerkey.

Question 12.
There is a stick half of which is wooden and half is of steel. It is pivoted at the wooden end and a force is applied at the steel end at right angles to the length. Next it is pivoted at steel end and same force is applied at the wooden end. In which case it the angular acceleration more and why?
Answer:
The distribution of mass faster away in first case compared with second case. So moment of Inertia is more in first case than second case. Applied torque is same in both cases. As τ =I∝, ∝ = τ/I, and ∝ = 1/I. So angular acceleration is less in first case than second.

Question 13.
Can the couple act on a rigid body produce translator motion?
Answer:
No. It can produce only rotatory motion.

Question 14.
A particle performing uniform circular motion has angular momentum L. what will be new angular momentum if its angular frequency is doubled.
Answer:
Kinetic energy halved?
Rot K.E = k = 1/2 Iw²
∵ I = \(\frac{2 k}{w^{2}}\)
Angular momentum
L = Iw = \(\frac{2 k}{w^{2}}\) w = \(\frac { 2k }{ w }\)
when the angular frequency in doubled and K.E is halved the angular momentum becomes.

Question 15.
How will you distinguish between a hand boiled egg and a raw egg by spinning it on a table top?
Answer:
Hand boiled egg acts just like a rigid body while rotating while not in the case of raw egg to the liquid matter present in it. In raw egg the liquid water tries to go away from the center, there by increasing moment of Inertia. As the moment of inertia increases the raw egg will spin with less angular acceleration provided same torque applied in both cases thus hand boiled egg will spin faster.

Question 16.
From a uniform disc of radius R, a circular disc of radius R / 2 is cut out. The center of the hole is at R / 2 from the center of original disc. Locate the center of gravity of the resultant flat body.
Answer:
Center of mass of resulting portion lies at R/6 from the center of the original disc in a direction opposite to the center of the cutout portion.

Question 17.
Two identical cylinders run a race starting from rest at the top of an inclined plane, one slides without rolling, other rolls without slipping. Assuming that no mechanical energy is dissipated as heat which are will win?
Solution:
(1) When cylinder slides without rolling E = 1/2 mv²
∵ v = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 E}{m}}\)

(2) When the cylinder rolls with out slipping.

As v = v¹ therefore the sliding cylinder will win the race.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Guide Pdf Chapter 18 Business Ethics and Corporate Governance Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 18 Business Ethics and Corporate Governance

11th Commerce Guide Business Ethics and Corporate Governance Text Book Back Questions and Answers

EXERCISE
I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following helps in maximising sale of goods to society?
a) Business success
b) laws and regulations
c) Ethics
d) Professional management
Answer:
c) Ethics

Question 2.
Ethics is important for ………….
a) Top management
b) Middle level managers
c) Non managerial employees
d) All of them
Answer:
d) All of them

Question 3.
Which of the following does not ensure effective ethical practices in a business enterprise
a) Publication of a code
b) involvement of employees
c) Establishment of compliance mechanisms
d) none of them
Answer:
a) Publication of a code

Question 4.
The role of top management is to guide t entire organisation towards ………….
a) General behaviour
b) Organisavtion behaviour
c) Ethically upright behaviour
d) Individual behaviour
Answer:
c) Ethically upright behaviour

Question 5.
The ethical conduct of employees leading to standard practices results in
a) good behaviour
b) bad behaviour
c) ethical behaviour
d) correct decision making
Answer:
d) correct decision making

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is ethics?
Answer:
Ethics is derived from the Greek word ‘ethos’ which means a person’s fundamental orientation towards life. It governs the behaviour, derived from the moral standards which help to determine right or wrong, good or evil.

Question 2.
What do you mean by code?
Answer:
The organisation principles are defined in the written document called code. Code of ethics documents, the generally accepted principles of ethical conduct. It includes the values and principles which define the purpose of an organization. It gives a clear picture of the standards the employees should follow. It helps in the process of decision making.

Question 3.
State two ways by which ethics influence behavior:
Answer:
Ethical behaviour is the acts consistent with the moral standards or codes of conduct established by society.

Question 4.
What is the need for Corporate Governance?
Answer:
The concept of Corporate Governance maintains a balance among individual goals, societal goals, economic goals, and social goals. It lays emphasis on ethics, fair business practices, transparency, disclosure, and conduct of business for the benefit of the stakeholders. This is the need for corporate governance.

Question 5.
What are MNCs?
Answer:
MNC is defined to be an enterprise operating in several countries but managed from one country. A multinational corporation is an organization doing business in more than one country.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define business ethics.
Answer:
Business ethics may be defined as a set of moral standards to be followed by owners, managers, and business people. These standards determine the conduct and behaviour of business people. Business ethics reflects the conduct in the context of business.

Question 2.
What do you mean by the concept of business ethics?
Answer:
Ethics is derived from the Greek word ‘ethos’ which means a person’s fundamental orientation towards life. It governs the behaviour, derived from the moral standards which help to determine right or wrong, good or evil. Ethical behaviour is the act consistent with the moral standards or codes of conduct established by society. It may change over time and differ from culture to culture. For example, political bribes or payoffs may be acceptable in one culture but not in other. Ethical issues are inevitable in business.

Question 3.
Why is ethics necessary in business?
Answer:
All business units have realized that ethics is vitally important for the existence and progress of the business as well as the society. It is very important as it improves the public image, earns public confidence, and leads to greater success. Ethics and profits go together in the long run. It enhances the quality of life, the standard of living, and business.

Question 4.
What is the benefit of Corporate Governance to Share Holders?
Answer:
The following are the benefits of Corporate Governance.

• It ensures the stable growth of organizaions.
• It helps in improving the investors’ confidence and enables the raising of capital.
• It has a positive impact on the share price.
• Helps in creating a strong brand as an ethical business.

Question 5.
Illustrate with an example the working of an MNC.
Answer:
Any company is referred to as a multinational company or corporation (M. N. C.) when that company manages its operation or production or service delivery from more than a single country. It has its headquarters based in one country with several other operating branches in different other countries. IBM, Microsoft, Pepsi Co., Sony, etc. are examples of MNC’s.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the different key elements of business ethics.
Answer:
1. Top Management Commitment:
The top management has a very important role to guide the entire organization towards ethical behaviour. The top-level personnel in any organisation should work openly and strongly committed towards ethical conduct and guide people working at middle and low level to follow ethical behaviour.

2. Establishment of Compliance Mechanism:
To make sure that actual decisions match with a firm’s ethical standards, suitable mechanisms should be established..

3. Publication of a “Code”:
Generally, organisations formulate their own ethical codes for the conduct of the enterprise; it should be followed by the employees of the organisation. The organisation principles are defined in the written document called code.

4. Involving Employees at All Levels:
It is the employees at different levels who implement ethics policies to make the ethical business a reality. Therefore, their involvement in ethics programmes becomes a must.

5. Measuring Results:
The organisations from time to time keep a check on ethical practices followed. Although it is difficult to accurately measure the end results of ethics programmes, the firms can certainly audit to monitor compliance with ethical standards.

Question 2.
Describe the code of business ethics.
Answer:
Code of ethics documents the generally accepted principles of ethical conduct. They are statements of values and principles which define the purpose of an organization. It gives a clear picture of the standards that employees should follow It guides them in decision making. The code of business ethics can include the following:

• To offer goods at fair prices.
• To supply quality goods and not to deal in spurious and substandard products.
• To listen to consumer’s complaints and to reduce them.
  Not to raise the price of its products unjustifiably.
• Not to resort to hoarding and black marketing.
• Not to issue advertisement containing false information or exaggerated claims.
• To pay fair wages to its employées and not to exploit them.
• To provide congenial work atmosphere.
• To design production process in such a way as to reduce environmental pollution.
• To keep proper books of accounts and records and to pay taxes regularly of the enables economic.

Question 3.
Explain the significance of Corporate Governance from the point of Stakeholders The following are the significance of Corporate Governance:
Answer:
Balanced economic development is made possible through transparent management under corporate governance. All stakeholders’ interests are protected and promoted through corporate governance. Some of the benefits of corporate governance are as follows.

1. Good corporate governance enables corporate success and economic development.
2. Ensures stable growth of organizations.
3. Aligns the interests of various stakeholders.
4. Improves investors’ confidence and enables raising of capital.
5. Reduces the cost of capital for companies.
6. Has a positive impact on the share price
7. Provides incentives to managers to achieve organizational objectives.
8. Eliminates waste, corruption, risks, and mismanagement.
9. Improves the image of the company.
10. The organization is managed to benefit the stakeholders.
11. Ensures efficient allocation of resources
12. Creates a strong brand as an ethical business.

Question 4.
Discuss the role of International Benchmarking on the working of Companies in India:
Answer:
Benchmarking is comparing one’s business processes and performance metrics to industry bests and best practices from other companies. There are four primary types of benchmarking: internal, competitive, functional, and generic. Internal benchmarking is a comparison of a business process to a similar process inside the organization. Competitive benchmarking is a direct competitor-to-competitor comparison of a product, service, process, or method.
The generic concept is related to the overall performance of the chosen unit of MNC or business. How Benchmarking works:

• Select a product, service, or process to benchmark.
• Identify the key performance metrics.
• Choose companies or internal areas to benchmark.
• Collect data on performance and practices.
• Analyze the data and identify opportunities for improvement.

Question 5.
Describe the benefits of increasing the number of MNCs.
Answer:

1. Considers opportunities throughout the globe though they do the business in a few countries.
2. To invest a considerable portion of their assets internationally.
3. They are a huge industrial / business organisation.
4. It engages in international production and operates plants in a number of countries.
5. They take managerial decisions from a global perspective.
6. They produce in one or a few countries and sell them in most of the countries.
7. Their international operations are integrated into the corporation’s overall business.

The entry of MNC’s into India has proved quite beneficial for the growth and development of the Indian economy providing employment Opportunities for the young generation.

11th Commerce Guide Business Ethics and Corporate Governance Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Ethics governs the ……………..
(a) Behaviour
(b) Ethos
(c) Life
(d) Payoffs
Answer:
(a) Behaviour

Question 2.
What is meant by the phrase CSR?
a) Corporate Social Responsibility
b) Company Social Responsibility
c) Corporate Society
d) Company Society Responsibility
Answer:
a) Corporate Social Responsibility

Question 3.
…………….. has its Headquarters based in one country with several other operating branches in different other countries.
(a) MNC
(b) GDP
(c) Company
(d) Business
Answer:
(a) MNC

Question 4.
The Corporate governance structure of a company reflects the individual companies’……………….
a) Cultural and economic system
b) Legal and business system
c) Social and regulatory system
d) All of the above
Answer:
d) All of the above

Question 5.
…………….. bench making is a direct competitor-to-competitor comparison of a product, service process, or method.
(a) Internal
(b) Competitive
(c) Functional
(d) Generic
Answer:
(b) Competitive

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the meaning of the Greek word ‘ethos’?
Answer:
Ethics is derived from the Greek word ‘ethos’ which means a person’s fundamental orientation towards life.

Question 2.
Define Corporate Governance:
Answer:
According to World Bank, “Corporate governance is about promoting fairness, transparency, and accountability.”

Question 3.
What do you mean by benchmarking?
Answer:
Benchmarking is nothing but a measurement of the quality of an organization’s policies, products, programs, strategies, etc., and their comparison with standard measurements, or similar measurements of its peers.

III. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What do you mean by Corporate Governance?
Answer:
Corporate Governance is the system by which businesses are directed and controlled in the best interests of ah stakeholders. Corporate Governance lays emphasis on ethics, fair business practices, transparency, disclosure, and conduct of business for the benefit of all stakeholders.

Question 2.
Define MNC:
Answer:
In the words of Neil H. Jacoby, “A multinational corporation owns and manages the business in two or more countries”

Question 3.
Explain the types of Benchmarking:
Answer:
There are four primary types of benchmarking: internal, competitive, functional, and generic. Internal benchmarking is a comparison of a business process to a similar process inside the organization. Competitive benchmarking is a direct competitor-to-competitor comparison of a product, service, process, or method.

Functional benchmarking is a comparison to similar or identical practices within the same or similar functions outside the immediate industry. The generic concept is related to the overall performance of the chosen unit of MNC or business.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the benefits of Corporate Governance:
Answer:
The following are the benefits of corporate governance:

• Good corporate governance enables corporate success and economic development.
• Ensures stable growth of organizations.
• Aligns the interests of various stakeholders.
• Improves investors’ confidence and enables raising of capital.
• Reduces the cost of capital for companies.
• Has a positive impact on the share price
• Provides incentives to managers to achieve organizational objectives.
• Eliminates waste, corruption, risks, and mismanagement.
• Improves the image of the company.
• The organization is managed to benefit the stakeholders.
• Ensures efficient allocation of resources.
• Creates a strong brand as an ethical business.

Question 2.
Explain the elements/features of MNCs:
Answer:
The main features or elements of MNCs are as follows:

• Considers opportunities throughout the globe though they do the business in a few countries.
• To invest a considerable portion of their assets internationally.
• They are a huge industrial/business organization.
• It engages in international production and operates plants in a number of countries.
• They take managerial decisions from a global perspective.
• They produce in one or a few countries and sell them in most of the countries.
• Their international operations are integrated into the corporation’s overall business.